10/04/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 7

Answer Key
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (4) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146 (2)
3. (2) 39. (2) 75. (4) 111. (3) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (1) 112. (2) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (2) 113. (3) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (4) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (1) 151. (3)
8. (4) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (1) 152. (2)
9. (4) 45. (4) 81. (4) 117. (1) 153. (2)
10. (4) 46. (2) 82. (1) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (2) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (3)
13. (1) 49. (1) 85. (4) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (4)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (4) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (4) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (2)
17. (3) 53. (3) 89. (1) 125. (1) 161. (1)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (3) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (1)
20. (1) 56. (4) 92. (1) 128. (3) 164. (4)
21. (4) 57. (1) 93. (2) 129. (4) 165. (2)
22. (1) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (1) 166. (2)
23. (4) 59. (3) 95. (1) 131. (2) 167. (1)
24. (1) 60. (2) 96. (4) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (4) 61. (1) 97. (3) 133. (2) 169. (4)
26. (2) 62. (4) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (2)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (4) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (1) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (3) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (4) 66. (3) 102. (1) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (1) 67. (3) 103. (4) 139. (1) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (3) 177. (4)
34. (1) 70. (1) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (1)
35. (4) 71. (2) 107. (3) 143. (4) 179. (1)
36. (2) 72. (2) 108. (1) 144. (3) 180. (4)

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Test-7 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

10/04/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Test - 7

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) µ0 i R2 µ0 iR 2
Baxis = = 3/2
µ0 i  240°  µ0 i 2  R2 
3/2
 3R 2 
=B =    R 2
+  2 
2R  360°  3R  2   2 
2. Answer (3) µ0 i
=
For x < R1  27 
 R
µ0 i  2 
B= x
2πR12 Energy density ∝ B 2
1  27  27
For x > R1 and x < R2 =
∴Ratio = =  
22  2  8
µ0 i 5. Answer (3)
B=
2πx In case (3) F ∝ − x, hence wire AB will perform
For R2 < x < R3 SHM.
6. Answer (1)
a – b( x 2 – R22 ) mv 1
B has a form R= ; qV = mv 2 ⇒ mv = 2mqV
x qB 2
For x > R3 1
=
⇒R 2mqV ×
B=0 qB
3. Answer (2) 1 R qb
⇒R ∝ ⇒ 1 =
q R2 qa
q  ml 2 l 
2
q µ
== ⇒µ  + m  ω 2
2m L 2m  12 3  qa R 
⇒ = 2
qb  R1 
q  l2 l2  q6+8 2
=µ  + ω⇒   ωl
2  12 3  2  72  7. Answer (3)
i1 − i 2 40 2
7qωl 2 = =
= i1 + i 2 60 3
72
4. Answer (3) ⇒ 3i1 − 3i 2 = 2i1 + 2i 2

µ0 i i1
Bcentre = ⇒ i1 = 5i 2 ⇒ = 5
2R i2

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

8. Answer (4) 15. Answer (4)

λ The particle will exit the magnetic field in opposite
Effective Length =
2 direction

λ 16. Answer (1)

Force = i l eff B = i × B  
2
∫ (B.dl )A = µ0
9. Answer (4)  
( ∫ B.dl )B = µ0 3
Eequivalent = 0
 
i.e. VR = 0 ( ∫ B.dl )C = µ0 8

10. Answer (4) 17. Answer (3)

µ0 i µ0 i µ i σ
=B = ( 2sin θ ) = B 2 sin 45° = 0 qvB = qE ⇒ v = E =
4πr  a  2πa ε0B
4π  
 2
l l ε Bl
time
= (t) = = 0
Bnet =
µ0 i
−
µ0 i
+
µ0 i
−
µ0 i
······
v ( σ / ε0B ) σ
2πa 4πa 6πa 8πa
18. Answer (3)
µ0 i  1 1 1 
= 1 − + − ······ µ0  
2πa  2 3 4  =B (J × (C1C2 ))
2
µ0 i µ0
= ln(2) = (2 × 1) = µ0 = 4π × 10−7
2πa 2
11. Answer (2) 19. Answer (3)
Statements (a) is correct only for bodies in which qB ( 2πm )
mass and charge distribution is similar. = f ⇒B = f
2πm q
12. Answer (2)
20. Answer (1)
B =µ0 ni =µ0 λ
Maximum power transfer theorem
13. Answer (1) ⇒y=R+2⇒R=6Ω
2πm 2π × 1 21. Answer (4)
T = = = πs
qB 0 .5 × 4 i = 2t
At this time the particle returns to the x-axis 2 2 2
t3 | 8 64
coordinates : ( 2π, 0, 0) m H = ∫ i 2Rdt = ∫ 4t 2 ( 2 ) dt = 8 =8 × = J
0 0
3 | 3 3
14. Answer (4) 0

µ0 i 22. Answer (1)

Magnetic field due to long wire (B) =
2π ( r )
µ0 ( 20 )
=F1 × 20 (15 × 10−2 )
2π ( 2 × 10−2 )
µ0 ( 20 )
=F2 ( 20 ) × (15 × 10−2 )
2π (12 × 10−2 )
400 µ0  5
=F  15 − 
4π  2 i × 4 2i
=i1 =
4+2 3
25
= 400 × 10−7 ×
⇒ 200 × 25 × 10 −7 i 2 ( 2) 4 2
2 2
Ratio = 21 = × =
= 5000 × 10 −7 N i 12( ) 9 12 27

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Test-7 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

23. Answer (4)

l= 2 r 2 − d 2= 2 52 − 32
All four bulbs will be short circuited.
l = 8 cm
24. Answer (1)   
⇒ F = (iL × B ) = 7[0.08( − jˆ) × 2( −iˆ)]
V2 R
P= ⇒ Rf = 2i ⇒ Hf = n 2H
R n = 1.12( −kˆ ) N
25. Answer (4) i.e. F = 1.12 N, downward.
31. Answer (1)
E − ir =
V (∴ straight line graph)
When i = 0 ⇒ V= E= 10V
10 − 2r = 0 ⇒ r = 5 Ω
Maximum current when R = 0
VC – 2x + 10 = VB E 10
VB – VC = 10 – 2x = 12 imax= = = 2A
r 5
⇒ x = –1 A (negative sign indicates that direction ∴ Answer (1)
of current is from B to A)
32. Answer (2)
y = 6 + |x| = 7 A
Slope of current density – electric field graph
26. Answer (2)
→ (Conductivity)
E E 33. Answer (3)
=i =
r + 15r 16r
KCL : Current is same
Potential gradient
as J = σE ⇒ i = σEA for larger area, E is less.
i × 15r 15E
=K = 34. Answer (1)
6 96
E 15E E
Now = Kl ⇒ ×l=
2 96 2
96
=l = 3.2 m
30
27. Answer (1)
ρl ρl 2 dR dl Using symmetry, equivalent circuit diagram :-
=
R = ⇒ =2 ( 2 + π ) aλ
A V R l πaλ
R=
1
R=2
R=
3
R=4
=
R + a=
λ
28. Answer (1) 2 2
The potential difference across any cell is zero. R ( 2 + π ) aλ
Net resistance =
29. Answer (2) 4 8

Rnet= {( 8 || 8 ) − series − 8 || 12} series − 8 35. Answer (4)

Low voltage supply must have low internal
resistance because maximum current drawn from
( ( 4 + 8 ) || 12 ) − Series – 8 source is E/r. Also, for HT supply, if circuit is
shorted accidentally, the current draw will exceed
6 − series − 8 = 6 + 8 = 14 Ω safety limits, if internal resistance is not high. For
30. Answer (4) semiconductor, ohm’s law is not valid.
36. Answer (2)
The wheat stone bridge would be balanced,
( 200R ) / (200 + R ) 100
=
400 400
200R
⇒ = 100 ⇒ R = 200 Ω
200 + R

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

37. Answer (2) 0.125 = 0.00125 (T – 300)

µ0 i T = 400 K = 127°C
B=
1
B=
2
B=
3
2a 42. Answer (3)
Bnet = 3 B1 V2
5=H
38. Answer (4) R

  µ   ν × r  V 2 V 2 
B =  0  q 3   + t =
H ⇒ t = 2.5 min
 4π   r  R R
43. Answer (2)
  ( 2iˆ + jˆ ) × ( −iˆ − jˆ ) 
B = 10−7 (1)   Let potential be x
 23/2 
10 − x 5 − x 10 − x
+ + 0
=
−7  −7  2 2 4
=
−10
23/2
{2kˆ − kˆ} =  −2103/2
kˆ  T
20 − 2 x + 10 − 2 x + 10 − x =
0
 
39. Answer (2) 40 = 5 x ⇒ x = 8 V

F  44. Answer (3)

v = t
m  1 l 1 l 1 l 1 3l
+ + =
 Ft  σ1 A σ2 A σ3 A σ A
Normal would be zero if q   B = mg
m
3 1 1 1
= + +
m2g σ σ1 σ2 σ3
t=
qBF 45. Answer (4)
40. Answer (4) ρl l
R= ⇒R∝
T = Bia = 6 × 2 × 1 = 12 N A A
41. Answer (4) =i neAv d ⇒ i ∝ v d
R = R0 [1 + α (T – T0)]
 eE 
4.5 = 4 [1 + 0.00125(T – 300)] vd = −   τ ⇒ vd ∝ τ
 m 

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (2) Complex [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 contains Cr3+ which is
47. Answer (4) paramagnetic due to presence of three unpaired
P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → PH3 + 3NaH2PO2 electrons.
53. Answer (3)
48. Answer (2)
54. Answer (3)
Leaching of Ag and Au is carried out by using
NaCN.
49. Answer (1)
Mond process is used for refining of Ni
50. Answer (1)
en : ethane-1,2-diamine CH2 – NH2
| [Co(CN)6]3– : Co3+ : [Ar]3d6
CH2 – NH2
CFSE = 6(–0.4 ∆ 0 ) = –2.4 ∆ 0
51. Answer (4)
K3[Fe(CN)6] : Potassium hexacyanidoferrate(III) 55. Answer (3)
52. Answer (4) Ni2+ : [Ar] 3d8 ⇒ Electronic configuration
In [Co(NH3)6]3+, pairing of electrons is caused by H2O is a weak field ligand. It does not cause
NH3. Complex is diamagnetic. pairing of electrons in this complex.

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Test-7 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

56. Answer (4) 68. Answer (4)

Complex [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Br can show G.I as well as C2H5OH + PCl5 → C2H5Cl + POCl3 + HCl
ionization isomerism 69. Answer (3)
57. Answer (1) Pyrophosphorous acid : H4P2O5
In CH3MgBr, metal ‘Mg’ is bonded by σ bond with
–CH3 O O
58. Answer (4) || ||
P O  P
Higher is the negative charge on central metal

|
HO | | OH

|
atom/ion, longer is the ‘C – O’ bond length. H H
59. Answer (3) 70. Answer (1)
Chloride ions outside the complex sphere, results On moving down the group, electronegativity
in AgCl as precipitate. decreases.
60. Answer (2) 71. Answer (2)
[Co(en)2Cl2]Br : Boiling point order : H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O
Cl 72. Answer (2)
Pb3O4 is a mixed oxide of PbO and PbO2
Cl
en Co 73. Answer (4)
Optically active Rhombic sulphur is insoluble in water but
dissolves to some extent in benzene.
en
Cl 74. Answer (3)
For maximum yield → low temperature and high
en Co pressure is required because exothermic reaction
en Optically inactive and ∆ng is negative. ∆ng = –1.
2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
Cl
75. Answer (4)
61. Answer (1)
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
On moving down, the group atomic size
increases due to which bond energy decreases. 76. Answer (1)
62. Answer (4) HF (pKa = –3.2), HCl (pKa = –7),
Ammonium dichromate :(NH4)2Cr2O7 HBr (pKa = –9.5), HI (pKa = –10)

63. Answer (1) 77. Answer (2)

Deacon’s process is used in the manufacture of
Ba(N3 )2 → Ba + 3N2 Cl2 by using CuCl2 as catalyst.
(very pure nitrogen)
78. Answer (2)
64. Answer (2)
Aqua regia : (HCl : HNO3 = 3 : 1)
Eu : [Xe] 4f76s2
79. Answer (4)
65. Answer (3)
BrF5 + 3H2O → HBrO3 + 5HF
N2O5
80. Answer (2)
Ne has highest positive electron gain enthalpy
81. Answer (4)
F
66. Answer (3)
••
Pt/Rh gauge catalyst is used as catalyst in F F
XeF6 : Xe
Ostwald’s process for production of Nitric acid Distorted Octahedral
67. Answer (3) F F
Brown ring complex: [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 F

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

82. Answer (1) 87. Answer (4)

Chromium (Cr) is 3d series element. Zn2+ ion does not have any unpaired electron, so
83. Answer (4) magnetic moment is zero.
Au : [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s1 88. Answer (4)
84. Answer (1)
Interstitial compounds show similar conductivity
W (Tungsten) has highest M.P. among transition
as of parent metal.
elements.
85. Answer (4) 89. Answer (1)
Order of IE1 : Zn > Fe > Co > Ni CrO is of basic nature
86. Answer (3) 90. Answer (2)
Mn Can show +2, +3, +4, +5, +6 and +7 oxidation
5C2O42- + 2MnO4– + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 10CO2
states.

BOTANY
91. Answer (2) 102. Answer (1)
ABO blood grouping is an example in which three 103. Answer (4)
alleles of a gene I control the blood group. Four Pea plants show self-pollination in nature.
blood groups are present in human population. 104. Answer (2)
92. Answer (1) 105. Answer (2)
In test cross, dominant phenotype of F1 Number of hybrides (n) = 2
generation is crossed with recessive parental Types of gametes = 2n = 22 = 4
type.
106. Answer (2)
93. Answer (2)
107. Answer (3)
As the distance between the genes on a
108. Answer (1)
chromosome is more, the recombination
frequency is also high. Henking observed X-chromosomes.
109. Answer (4)
94. Answer (4)
Chromosome compliment in Turner’s syndrome
95. Answer (1)
is 44 + XO.
96. Answer (4)
110. Answer (4)
In grasshopper and Drosophila, males are
111. Answer (3)
heterogametic.
Father of couple Mother of couple
97. Answer (3)
IA IB Io Io
Loss or gain of segment of DNA results in
[AB] [O]
alteration in chromosomes. This results in
chromosomal aberration. Possible blood groups I I
A0
IBI0

98. Answer (3) in cople  [A] [B]
99. Answer (4) Possible blood groups IAIB IAI0 IBI0 I0I0
In incomplete dominance F1 phenotype is 
in children [AB] [A] [B] [O]
intermediat between dominant and recessive
phenotypes. 112. Answer (2)
100. Answer (2) 113. Answer (3)

101. Answer (3) 114. Answer (4)

115. Answer (1)
2816
Number of seeds with pure line = In dsDNA, percentage of purines is equal to
4
percentage of pyrimidines.
= 704.

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Test-7 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

116. Answer (1) 128. Answer (3)

117. Answer (1) 129. Answer (4)
118. Answer (2) Synthesis of tRNA, 5SrRNA an SnRNA are
119. Answer (3) catalysed by RNA polymerase III.
120. Answer (3) 130. Answer (1)
Free 2′OH of RNA makes it more labile and In prokaryotes, DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
easily degradable. is only of one type and transcribe all of RNAs.
121. Answer (4) 131. Answer (2)
122. Answer (1) Introns are removed by small nuclear RNA and
Prokaryotes have single origin of replication. protein complex called SnRNPs.

123. Answer (4) 132. Answer (2)

124. Answer (2) 133. Answer (2)

125. Answer (1) 5′ AUG 3′ on mRNA codes for methionine.

During replication, new strands are synthesised 134. Answer (3)
on both the parental strands of DNA. Promoter gene possesses site for RNA
126. Answer (4) polymerase attachment.
Non-coding strand of DNA has 3′→5′ polarity 135. Answer (2)
and a transcription unit has three components, VNTRs and SSRs normally do not code for
i.e., promoter, structural gene and terminator. proteins. Polymorphisms in DNA sequence are
127. Answer (3) inheritable.

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (1) 141. Answer (3)
Development of antibiotic and drug resistance by In the solar system of milky way galaxy, earth, is
microbes is a classic example of natural supposed to have formed about 4.5 billion years
selection. ago.
137. Answer (2) 142. Answer (2)
Galapagos islands are a chain of islands off the In the experiment Miller took molecules similar to
west coast of South America in eastern pacific
early earth’s atmosphere and put them into a
ocean.
closed system. The control apparatus comprised
138. Answer (3) similar arrangement except that it was devoid of
Industrial melanism, drug resistance and an energy source.
herbicide resistance are due to the involvement
143. Answer (4)
and actions of man. That is why these are called
examples of evolution by anthropogenic action. Formation of diverse organic molecules from
inorganic constituents was termed chemical
139. Answer (1)
evolution.
Alfred Russel Wallace (1823-1913) divided the
whole world into six major biogeographical 144. Answer (3)
regions or realms. Archaeopteryx is a missing link which shows both
140. Answer (2) reptilian and avian characteristics.
Jean Baptiste Lamarck proposed two principles, 145. Answer (4)
namely Natural selection acts on variations only if they
(i) Use and disuse are heritable and affect an organism’s ability to
(ii) Inheritance of acquired characteristics survive and reproduce.

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-7 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

146 Answer (2) 159. Answer (3)

According to Malthus, reproduction of a species When because of the competition for food and
follows a geometric progression unless the living space, a single ancestral species evolves
growth is retarded by environmental pressures. into different species which occupy different
147. Answer (1) habitats, it is called adaptive radiation.
Evolution of modern horse began with the 160. Answer (2)
Eohippus i.e. dawn horse in the Eocene epoch. Sum total of all allelic frequencies in Hardy
148. Answer (4) Weinberg equilibrium is 1.
Triceratops – 3-horned face 161. Answer (1)
Tyrannosaurus – Carnivore, bipedal Allopatric speciation results from geographical
Stegosaurus – Plate backed and spiked tail separation of a small number of individuals from
149. Answer (3) the original population.

Half-life of potassium40 is 1.3 billion years and it is 162. Answer (2)

therefore applicable to old rocks. C14 can only be Mule and hinny are common examples of hybrid
used to examine fossils upto 70,000 years old. sterility seen in mammals.
150. Answer (1) 163. Answer (1)
Hearts in various vertebrates are homologous The modern Gingko is relatable to the fossils from
structures which show similarity in basic plan but the Permian dating back 270 million years. It is
have a varied degree of specialization. therefore considered a living fossil.
151. Answer (3) 164. Answer (4)
A connecting link is an organism which Loss of tail in the human ancestors occurred as it
possesses characters of two different groups. became vestigeal, however it was not significant
152. Answer (2) from an evolutionary perspective.
Duck-billed platypus (Ornithorhynchus) is an egg 165. Answer (2)
laying mammal.
⇒ q = 0.6 ⇒ p = 1 – q = 0.4
153. Answer (2)
⇒ p2 = 0.4 × 0.4 = 0.16 = 16%
Vestigeal organs are remnants of organs which
166. Answer (2)
were complete and functional in our ancestors.
154. Answer (2) Continental drift created a biogeographical barrier
for placentals.
Evolution is not a directed process.
167. Answer (1)
155. Answer (4)
Gause’s law is also called the ‘Competitive
The chronological order of human evolution from
exclusion principle’.
early to recent is
168. Answer (2)
Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo
erectus Batesian mimicry is a form of mimicry in which an
edible species resembles an inedible one.
156. Answer (3)
Neo-Darwinism concludes that new species 169. Answer (4)
develop through mutations with natural selection. The high levels of genetic and phenotypic
157. Answer (2) variations in African populations make it an
excellent choice for studying human genetic
Dicotyledons are the immediate ancestors of
diversity.
angiosperms (flowering plants).
170. Answer (2)
158. Answer (4)
Random mating helps in maintaining the Hardy Sweet potato is a root modification and potato is
Weinberg equilibrium whereas genetic drift, gene a stem modification. They are analogous
migration and non-random mating disrupt it. structures.

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Test-7 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

171. Answer (4) 176. Answer (4)

Wing of bat and wing of pigeon are analogous Silurian is a geological period from Paleozoic
structures. era.
172. Answer (3) 177. Answer (4)
Hugo de Vries believed that it is mutations which In 1938, a fish caught in South African was
cause evolution and not minor continuous Coelacanth which was called lobefin.
variations. 178. Answer (1)
173. Answer (4) About 65 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly
New genes are added to a new population and disappeared from earth.
lost from the old population. If this change occurs 179. Answer (1)
by chance it is called genetic drift.
A comparison of the skulls of adult modern
174. Answer (4) human being, baby chimpanzee and adult
Natural selection can lead to stabilisation, chimpanzee. The skull of baby chimpanzee is
directional change or disruption. more like adult human skull than adult
175. Answer (2) chimpanzee skull.
Carboniferous → Permian → Triassic → 180. Answer (4)
Jurassic → Cretaceous → Tertiary Homo sapiens arose in the ice age.

  

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