1.

Which of the following materials has nearly zero temperature coefficient of

resistance?
d. mangarin

2. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature coefficient of

resistance?
d. carbon

3. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel DC
circuit?
a. powers are additive

4. The superposition theorem is essentially based on the concept of:

a. linearity
5. When current flows in a conductor, heat is produced because:
a. of interatomic collision

6. Ohm’s law can be applied with certain reservations to:

c. electrolyses

7. The presence of an electric current is made known by

effects produced
8. International ohm is defined in terms of resistance of
a. a column of mercury
9. The capacitance of a capacitor is NOT influenced by
a. plate thickness
10. A capacitor consists of two
a. conductors separated by an insulator

11. Point out the WRONG statement

The magnetizing force of the center of a circular coil varies
a. inversely as its radius

12. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to _______ in an electric circuit

a. conductivity

13. A material commonly used for shielding or screening magnetism is

d. soft iron

14. Iron becomes magnetized by induction when it is

a. near to one end of a magnet
15. The relative permeability of paramagnetic substance is
c. slightly greater to 1

16. Which of the following materials does not have permanent magnetic dipole
c. diamagnetic

1
17. Which of the following materials is used for making permanent magnets
a. carbon steel
b. platinum cobalt
c. alnico V
d. all three mentioned above

18. The direction of induced emf can be found by

a. Lenz’s law
19. Point out the wrong statement
Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it
a. lowers their power efficiency

20. If a current of 5A flowing in a coil of inductance 0.1H is reversed in 10ms, emf

induced in it is ________ volt.
a. 100
21. Permanent magnets are normally made of
d. alnico alloys

22. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer
cores which have _______ permeability and _______ hysteresis loss
a. high, low

23. Ferrimagnetic materials generally behave as a

a. semi-conductor
24. Eddy current loss can be minimized by

a. increasing the resistance of magnetic medium

25. A collapsing field around a coil

a. tends to opposed the decay of coil current

26. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its

a. rate of charge
27. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to
a. keep it fresh and fully charged

28. A dead storage battery can be revived by

a. none of the above

29. The growth of current in an inductive circuit follows c. exponential

law

30. It is difficult to magnetize steel because of its

a. low permeability
31. Hysteresis losses can be reduced by
a. Laminating the core

2
32. The unit of field intensity is
c. newtons/coulomb

33. Dielectric strength of a material depends on

a. moisture content c. temperature
b. thickness d. all of the above

34. If a dielectric is placed in an electric field, the field strength

a. decreases

35. The KW-hr meter can be classified as a/an _____________ instrument

c. recording

36. The moving system of an indicating type of electrical instrument is subjected to

a. a deflecting torque c. a damping torque
b. a controlling torque d. all of the above

37. The damping force acts on the moving system of an indicating instrument only
when it is
a. moving
38. Which of the following ammeter will be used to measure alternating currents
only?
c. induction type

39. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its

a. specific gravity

40. The two main defects of the primary cell are

a. local action and polarization

41. One advantage of a secondary cells is that it

a. can be easily recharged

42. Electrolyte of a storage battery if formed by adding

a. sulfuric acid to water

43. Induction instrument have found widest applications as

d. watthour meter
44. Induction watthour meters care free from ________ errors
d. frequency

45. Maxwell-Wien bridge is used for measuring

c. inductance

46. The capacitance and dielectric loss of a capacitor is generally measured with the
help of _________ bridge
a. Schering

3
47. The output voltage of a single loop generator is a
c. pulsating dc

48. Electric dc generators have normally, an overall efficiency of the order of

d. 85-95%

49. The armature magnetic field has effect that

a. it demagnetizes or weakens the main flux
b. it cross magnetizes, or distorts it
c. (a) and (b)

50. In a dc generator, the flux seem to be ______ at the trailing pole tips and also
_________ at the leading pole tips
c. crowded, weakened

51. Electric power is almost exclusively generated, transmitted and distributed by

three phase system because it
a. is more efficient
b. use less material for a given capacity
c. costs less than single phase apparatus
d. all of the above

52. Interpoles are normally connected in

a. parallel with the field
53. Carbon brushes are used in electronic motors to
a. brush off carbon deposits on the commutator
b. provide a path for flow of current
c. prevent overheating of armature windings
d. prevent sparking during commutation

54. If positive phase sequence of a 3 phase load is a-b-c, the negative sequence
would be
a. b-a-c c. a-c-b
b. c-b-a d. all of the above

55. Power factor improvement

a. does not effect the performance characteristics of the original load

56. The chief disadvantage of a low power factor is that

a. current required for a given load power is higher

57. In the two-wattmeter method of measuring three-phase power, the two

wattmeter indicate equal and opposite readings when load power factor angle is
____ degrees lagging.
a. 0

4
58. When phase sequence at the three-phase load is reversed
a. phase currents change in angle but not in magnitude

59. The method of symmetrical components is very useful for

a. solving unbalanced polyphase circuits
b. analyzing the performance of 3-phase electrical machinery
c. calculating currents resulting from unbalanced faults
d. all of the above

60. There are no transients in pure resistive circuits because they

c. have no store energy

61. The current flowing in the conductors of a DC motor is

a. AC

62. The torque of a motor is

a. the product of tangential force on the rotor and its radius

63. The speed of a series motor at no load is

a. zero c. 3600 rpm
b. 3000 rpm d. infinity

64. If the back emf in a DC motor is absent, then

a. motor will burn

65. For both lap and wave windings, there are a many commutator bars as the
number of
d. winding elements

66. The only function of dummy coils in a dc armature winding is to

a. provide mechanical balance to the armature

67. Lap winding is suitable for __________ current, _________ voltage dc

generators
a. high,low

68. The series field of a short-shunt dc generator is excited by _________ current

c. load

69. Armature reaction is attributed to

a. the effect of magnetic field set-up by the armature current

70. If the resistance in a series RC circuit is increased, the magnitude of the phase
angle
a.decreases
71. The current in RLC series circuit, i.e. at resonance is
5
 a. maximum
72. At a frequency less that the resonant frequency
a. series circuit is capacitive and parallel circuit is inductive

73. In dc generators, armature reaction is produced actually by

a. load current in armature

74. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their
________ voltage characteristics
a. drooping

75. Two parallel shunt generators will divide the total load equally in proportion to
their kilowatt output ratings only when they have the same
a. rated voltage
b. voltage regulation

76. The main function of an equalizer bar is to make the parallel operation of two
over-compounded dc generators
a. stable
77. A coil with large distributed capacitance has a
a. high resonant frequency

78. Which if the following is not a non-linear element?

a. heater coil

79. For maximum power transfer, according to maximum power transfer theorem,
source impedance
a. must be complex conjugate of load impedance

80. Ideal transformer assumptions do not include

a. zero reactance of windings

81. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be

restored by connecting its shunt field
d. to a dc source

82. An ideal generator is one that has __________ voltage regulation

a. zero

83. The __________ generator has poorest voltage regulation

a. series
84. The counter emf of a dc motor
a. helps in energy conversion

85. The resistance of low voltage side of a transformer

is less than the resistance of its high voltage side

6
86. What type of core is used for a high frequency transformer?
a. air core
87. In any transformer the voltage per turn in primary and secondary remains
a. always same

88. The size of a transformer core will depend on

a. frequency
b. flux density of the core material
c. both (a) and (b)

89. Under constant load conditions, the speed of a dc motor is affected by

a. field flux
90. A series motor is best suite for driving
a. cranes and hoists

91. The shaft torque of a dc motor is less that it armature torque because of
_____________ losses
d. rotational

92. The speed of a dc motor ca be controlled by varying

a. its flux per pole
b. resistance of armature circuit
c. applied voltage
d. all of the above

93. High speed alternators have a rotor construction

a. of non-salient type

94. Distributing the armature winding of alternator in more than one number of
slots per pole phase results in
a. reduction of irregularities produced in waveform

95. When the power factor of load is unity, the armature flux of an alternator will
be
c. cross magnetizing

96. The maximum current that can be supplied by alternator depends upon the
a. strength of the magnetic field

97. Controlled rectifiers employ

a. diodes
b. thyristors d. both (a) and (b)

98. When a 400Hz transformer is operated at 50Hz, its kVA rating is

a. reduced to 1/8

99. The primary and secondary windings of an ordinary 2-winding transformer

always have-- a common magnetic circuit
7
100. At relatively light loads, transformer efficiency is low because
a. fixed loss is high in proportion to the output
101. Adjustment of field excitation on one of the two alternators operating in parallel
will
d. change its power factor
102. Synchronizing motors are
a. not self-starting
103. A 3 phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. In case the direction of its
field current is reversed
a. the motor will continue to run in the same direction
104. The all-day efficiency of a transformer depends primarily on
c. the duration of load
a. the amount of load

105. The essential condition for parallel operation of two single phase transformers is
that they should have the same
a. polarity
106. Instrument transformers are used on ac circuits for extending the range of
a. ammeters c. wattmeters
b. voltmeters d. all of the above

107. The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor is most similar to that
of a
transformer with a shorted secondary

108. When a 3 phase synchronous generator is supplying a zero pf lagging load the
armature field affects the main field in the following way
a. directly opposes it
109. Improvement in the power factor in an induction motor
a. increases the torque and decreases the current due to increased
impedance

110. Short circuit test on the induction motor can be used to find out
a. the transformation ration of the impedance motor
b. power scale of circle diagram
c. copper losses in the induction motor
d. all of the above

111. If the air gap of the induction motor is increased

a. the magnetizing current will increase
112. If starting winding of a single phase induction motor is left in the circuit, it will
a. draw excessive current and overheat
113. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the more likely
defect is
d. worn bearings
114. A permanent split single-phase capacitor motor does not have
a. centrifugal switch

8
115. Zero power method of an alternator is used to find its-voltage regulation

116. Is a device which functions on failure of the insulation of a machine,

transformer or of other apparatus to ground or on flash over of a dc machine to
ground
d. ground protective relay

117. Is an equipment which controls the gate or valve opening of prime mover
d. governor

118. Is the mechanism which is used for moving a removable circuit breaker unit to
end from the connected, disconnected and test positions
a. position changing mechanism

119. Is the complete electrical mechanism or servo-mechanism including the

operator motor, solenoid, position, switches, etc., for a tap change, induction
regulator or any piece of apparatus which has no device function number
d. operating mechanism

120. Is use to increase or decrease in one step the value of field excitation on a
machine
a. field changing contactor

121. A special type of diode used to regulate dc voltage supply

a. Zener

122. Electrons normally flow

a. from the positive terminal to the negative terminal inside the battery

123. When an electric current is flowing in a conductor, heat is developed at a rate

proportional to the square of the intensity of the current. This relation is known
as
a. Joule’s law
124. An electric device designed to receive electrical power from a dc source and
deliver alternating power without the aid of external source of alternating
voltage
a. oscillator circuit

125. The modulated wave is transmitted over lines or space. However at the
receiving end, the signal wave must be recovered again by means of electronic
circuit called
a. detector

126. Process by which the characteristics of a wave is varied as a function of the

instantaneous value of another wave
a. modulation

9
127. In any network consisting of linear impedances, the current at any point is the
sum of the currents that would flow if each generator were considered
separated all other generators being replaced at the time by impedances equal
to their internal impedances. This principle is known as
a. Superposition Theorem

128. When the emfs in the two windings of the transformer are opposite in direction,
the polarity is
c. additive

129. For a transducer, the impedance which will simultaneously terminate all of its
inputs and outputs in such a way that each of its inputs and outputs, the
impedances in both directions are equal are called
image impedances

130. To determine the equivalent resistance of an inductive motor, we use

c. blocked rotor test
131. Consisting of a single rotating machine that is mainly to convert alternating
current to direct current-c. rotary converter

132. It is the ration of lumens reaching the work plane by the total lumens
generated by lights-c. coefficient of utilization
133. Intermittent operation in which the load conditions are regularly recurrent
c. periodic duty

134. In a dc machine, this consists of coils placed at the neutral point midway
between the main poles
c. interpole winding

135. A connection to ground for one or more non-carrying metal parts of the wiring
system or apparatus connected to the system
a. system ground c. equipment ground
b. system neutral ground d. capacitive ground

136. A transformer intended primarily to provide neutral point for grounding

purposes
a. ground regulating transformer
b. ground equalizer transformer
c. grounding transformer
d. ground fault transformer

137. A grounding transformer may be connected zigzag of

a. delta-delta c. wye-delta
b. delta-wye d. wye-wye

138. Of the lighting arresters sold in the market, which can handle much surge
current and excessive contamination of dirt
10
 a. distribution arrester c. station arrester
b. line arrester d. intermediate arrester

139. It is a disruptive discharge between electrodes of measuring gap, voltage

control gap, or protective device
a. flashover c. sparkover
b. corona d. fireover

140. The voltage that insulation is capable of withstanding without failure or

disruptive discharge when tested under specified conditions
a. maximum withstand voltage
b. rated withstand voltage
c. c. critical withstand voltage
d. minimum

141. In symmetrical components, the components consisting of balanced 3 phase

vectors and having a phase sequence opposite to that of the given vector is
a. additive sequence system
b. subtractive sequence system
c. negative sequence system
d. positive sequence system

142. The fault current that exists immediately after the fault is known as
a. transient current c. subtransient current
b. steady state current d. sustained current

143. The insulation strength of an equipment is described as its

a. basic insulation strength c. basic insulation level
b. basic impulse stress d. basic insulation factor

144. In hydroelectric power plant, it is used to prevent the sudden rise and drop of
water pressure.
a. penstock c. dam
b. intake tower d. surge tank

145. To test the accuracy of a kilowatthour meter an electrician used a wattmeter.

He found out that the meter makes 5 revolutions in 18 seconds. The meter
constant is 3.2. What is the percent error if the wattmeter reading is 3,368?
a. 8% slower c. 5% slower
b. 8% faster d. 5% faster

146. A 100 MW power plant burns 0.4 kg of coal with heating value of 7.2 x 10 6
calories per kg to produce 1 KwHr. If the power plant acts as a base load, how
many tons of coal per day is consumed if the power plant operates 24 hours per
day?
a. 530 c. 830
b. 960 d. 260

11
147. An amplifier has an output of 50 watts. What is its output in db m?
a. 47 c. 75
b. 50 d. 80

148. How is the storage battery rated in capacity?

a. volts c. amperes
b. watts d. ampere – hour

149. The basis where the flow of current is from positive to negative was derived
from _____
a. superstition c. scientific
b. tradition d. convention

150. A 220 volts dc series motor when running at 800 rpm draws a current of 100
amperes. The combined resistance of the armature and the field is 0.1 Ω. What
is the speed when the motor develops one – half of the original torque?
a. 1,600 rpm c. 1,147 rpm
b. 1,690r pm d. 1,225 rpm

151. The fault current that exists immediately after the fault is known as:
a. sub – transient current c. steady – state current
b. transient current d. sustained current

152. Its primary function is to provide ground source

a. zig – zag transformer c. surge arrester
b. sectionalizer d. tertiary transformer

153. The following are the given loads of a particular circuit:

5 – 15 hp motors
3 – 5 hp motors
8 kw – lighting loads
3.5 kw – miscellaneous loads

Calculate for the maximum demand if the demand factor is

65%.
a. 78.64 c. 51.12
b. 45.81 d. 120.98

154. An SCR’s three leads are the:

a. anode, cathode and emitter
b. anode, cathode and gate
c. base 1, base 2, and emitter
d. main terminal 1, main terminal 2, and gate

155. A 20 kv/7.87 kv autotransformer has a secondary line current of 100 A. What is

the current in the common winding?
a. 139.25 A c. 60.65 A
12
 b. 100 A d. 39.35 A

156. A 220 volts single – phase induction motor draws current of 10 amperes at 0.75
power factor. A capacitor of 50 µF is connected in order to improve the power
factor. What is the new power factor?
a. 0.866 leading c. 0.95 lagging
b. 0.866 lagging d. 0.95 leading

157. A 3Φ 220 volts, 10 hp induction motor having a power factor of 0.8 has 3%
losses. Determine the current drawn by the motor.
a. 25.23 A c. 20.18 A
b. 43.69 A d. 14.56 A

158. A solenoid having an inductance of 12 henry is impressed across a voltage

source such that the current through it is 3 amperes. What is the average
voltage at t = 0.2 sec?
a. 150 volts c. 120 volts
b. 180 volts d. 220 volts

159. An electric heater takes 23.889kcal in 20 minutes at 200 volts. What is the
current drawn by the heater?
a. 8.4 A c. 1.67 A
b. 16.67 A d. 0.42 A

160. A series RLC circuit has a resistance of 15 Ω and an inductive reactance of

1,500 Ω. What is the Q – factor of the circuit at resonance?
a. 120 c. 140
b. 100 d. 150

161. A synchronous motor that is used for power factor correction only.
a. synchronous reactor c. generator
b. alternator d. synchronous condenser

162. Why are transmission towers sometimes constructed in lattice type and
sometimes in pole type although they have the same capacity and voltage
rating?
a. reliability c. right of way
b. wind load d. safety

163. The capacitive reactance of a transmission line is 90,000 ohms per kilometer.
Find the total capacitive reactance if the transmission line is 50km long.
a. 4.5x 106 Ω c. 90,000 Ω
b. 1,800 Ω d. 180,000 Ω

164. An 80 µF capacitor in series with 1,000 Ω resistor is connected suddenly across

a 110 V supply. Find the rate at which current begins to decrease.
a. 13.75 A/s c. 1.375 A/s
13
 b. 0.1375 A/s d. 137.5 A/s

165. A 100 watts 230 volts gas fitted lamp has a mean spherical candlepower of 92.
Find its efficiency in lumens per watt.
a. 11.56 c. 115.6
b. 1.156 d. 1,156

166. Charges that are both positively and negatively charged are called:
a. negatron c. neutron
b. neutraton d. positron

167. With the primary of CT energized, the secondary must never be made open to
prevent this to happen.
a. build up of magnetic bias
b. burning of primary winding
c. burning of secondary winding
d. absence of induced voltage

168. A 25 miles (40 km), 3Φ, 3 wire sub transmission line with an impedance per
conductor of (7.65 + j16.52) Ω is supplying a balanced 3Φ load of 4,000 kw,
33,500 volts line to line, 60 hz at 0.8 p.f. lagging. The conductors used in the
line are 336.4 MCM, ACSR, 26/7 strands vertically spaced 4.5 ft apart. If a
2,100 kvar, 3Φ pure capacitor bank is installed across the load, what is the
voltage dip maintaining 33,500 volts at the receiving end?
a. 735 V c. 585 V
b. 635 V d. 485 V

169. A symmetrical cable with 200 meters span has a unit weight of 2 kg-force per
meter uniformly distributed along the horizontal. The tension at the lowest
point is 2,000 kg-force. Find the tension at the supports in kg-force.
a. 2,010 c. 4,080
b. 2,040 d. 2,000

170. The positive-sequence components of the system has

a. the same phase-sequence as the original
b. the opposite phase-sequence as the original
c. zero-phase displacement
d. both a and b

171. A voltmeter rated 150 volts has an internal resistance of 10 kΩ. What
resistance should be added in series to the internal resistance so that the
voltmeter will register full scale deflection across 450 V?
a. 6.67 kΩ c. 40 kΩ
b. 30 kΩ d. 20 kΩ

172. Pilot lamp in a MCC indicates a motor control center

a. underload
b. overload
14
 c. normal condition of the load
d. out of order

173. A south pole 20 unit pole is placed one inch away from another south pole 35
unit pole. What is the force between the two poles?
a. 108.5 dynes repulsion c. 70 dynes repulsion
b. 108.5 dynes attraction d. 70 dynes attraction

174. In a 34.5 kv three-phase system, the Thevenin’s equivalent impedances are

Positive impedance, Z1 = 0.015 p.u. at 50 MVA
Zero impedance, Z0 = 0.03 p.u. at 50 MVA

What is the phase to phase fault current?

a. 48,000 A c. 8,400 A
b. 80,000 A d. 32,000 A

175. This is an electrically operated switch which is rated in amperes and is also
used in overload protection of motors.
a. magnetic starter c. magnetic contractor
b. safety switch d. manual starter

176. These are high intensity discharged lamps which are usually installed in outdoor
and wide areas and are mounted on poles whereas for indoors these are used
for high ceiling applications.
a. surfaced c. low mount
b. recessed d. high bay

177. What do you call an insulated conductor that can be used only up to 300 volts
and is considered having no insulation base on general rating?
a. insulated conductor c. enameled conductor
b. base conductor d. covered line wire

178. What is the field intensity E in millivolts per meter of an omnidirectional

antenna over a distance of 1 km if the power is 1 kw? (impedance of free space
is 120∏)
a. 153.4 c. 120
b. 150 d. 173.32

179. A limit switch is used to shut off the power when _____ a definite limit.
a. current exceeds c. the travel reaches
b. voltage falls below d. frequency exceeds

180. A magnetic circuit consists of silicon steel of 2000 permeability of 10 cm length

and cross sectional area and of 1 centimeter length. A one – ampere current
flows through 500 turns of coil. Calculate the field intensity across the air gap.
a. 622 Oersted c. 590 Oersted
b. 755 Oersted d. 350 Oersted

15
181. Find the GMD of a double circuit having vertical configuration 3 meters apart
and 3 meters between conductors. The phase configuration of the 1st circuit is
ABC from top to bottom and the 2nd circuit is CBA.
a. 4.24 m c. 3.567 m
b. 3.78 m d. 3 m

182. A relay coil carries a polarizing current of 1 A dc and a signal ac current of 3 A

at 50 hz. If coil resistance is 5 Ω, power dissipated by the coil is ___ watts.
a. 50 c. 5
b. 80 d. 20

183. For a 4-pole dc generator, having a progressive simplex 2-layer wave – winding
with 30 conductors, the commutator pitch is ___
a. 8 c. 10
b. 9 d. 11

184. Rapid stopping of an electric motor by momentarily reversing its connections to

the supply is called
a. jogging c. plugging
b. inching d. sequence operation

185. A certain 1Ф load takes 10 kw at 75 percent power factor. In the power

contract the power factor penalty is applied only to power factors below 85
percent. What size of capacitor must be used in order to avoid the penalty? The
voltage is 550 volts, 60 cycles.
a. 92.82 µF c. 2.98 µF
b. 9.82 µF d. 22.98 µF

186. An induction motor driven above synchronous speed is called ___.

a. induction regulator c. centrifugal switch
b. zero – speed switch d. limit switch

187. A 200 kva transformer has an impedance of 15% and the power factor of the
load is 85%. The primary voltage is 6,000 volts while the copper loss is 15 kw.
Find the percentage voltage regulation.
a. 13.49% c. 8.91%
b. 15.78% d. 23.67%

188. What is the speed of an induction motor of six poles if the percent slip is 2.5%?
a. 1462 rpm c. 877 rpm
b. 1170 rpm d. 1755 rpm

189. The rotor poles of an 8 – pole synchronous generator shift by 10 mechanical

degrees from no –load to full – load. Calculate the torque angle between the
excitation voltage E0 and the terminal voltage VФ at full – load.
a. 10º c. 30º
º
b. 20 d. 40º

16
190. This is a device projected vertically upward above structures to serve as the
lighting rod.
a. air connector c. air terminal
b. lightning bowl d. air rod

191. A transformer is designed to carry 30 times its rated current for 1 second. The
length of time that a current of 20 times the rated current can be allowed to
flow is
a. 0.67 sec. c. 1.5 sec
b. 2 sec d. 2.25 sec.

192. What is the normal secondary circuit current of a current transformer?

a. 15 A c. 5 A
b. 20 A d. 10 A

193. A parallel circuit has branch resistance of R1 =20 Ω, R2 =10 Ω, R3 =5 Ω. If the

current passing through R1 =20 Ω resistor is 1 ampere, what is the current
passing through the 10 Ω resistor?
a. 5 A c. 3 A
b. 2 A d. 4 A

194. In a stranded conductor, what do you call the strand at the center of the
conductor?
a. king wire c. steel wire
b. center wire d. center

195. The total power consumed by a balanced 3Ф load is 3,000 watts at 80% power
factor. Two wattmeters WA and WB are connected to the line. What is the
reading of WA?
a. 2,150 watts c. 1,500 watts
b. 2,000 watts d. 2,500 watts

196. A circuit with a resistance of 10 Ω is supplied with 120 V 60 hz source. What is

the phase angle between the voltage and the current?
a. 45º c. 30º
b. 15º d. 0º

197. What is the synchronous speed in rpm of a 6 - pole 60 cycle induction motor?
a. 1,200 c. 3,600
b. 1,800 d. 900

198. A 3 phase 4 wire system has the following unbalanced loads: Z 1= (10+j5) Ω,
Z2= (8+j4) Ω and Z3= (20+j0) Ω. The line to neutral voltage of the system is
120 volts. What is the reading of the wattmeter in watts in Z3?
a. 900 c. 1,000
b. 720 d. 1,050

17
199. What electrode in a junction transistor corresponds to the cathode in vacuum
tube?
a. base c. drain
b. emitter d. collector

200. An AC circuit with two resistances, which is correct?

a. a 1,000 ohm resistance in series to 500 ohm has a total of 6,000 ohms.
b. Two 1,000 ohm resistances in series has a total of 1,500 ohms.
c. Two 1,000 ohm resistances in series has a total of 707 ohms
d. Two 1,000 ohm resistances in series has a total of 2,000 ohms.

201. Which does not belong?

a. lines per square centimeter
b. maxwells per square centimeter
c. flux
d. gauss

202. The diameter of a conductor is 0.064 inch. What is the area in circular mils?
a. 5,000 c. 3,217
b. 10,000 d. 4,096

203. In a shunt motor, what is the relative connection of the armature winding with
respect to the field winding?
a. series c. series – parallel
b. parallel – series d. parallel

204. A single – phase 2,400 volt synchronous generator draws 450 amperes at unity
power factor. The synchronous impedance of the generator is (0.08 + j2.8) Ω.
What is the regulation in percent?
a. 14.2 c. 20.1
b. 16.3 d. 18.4

205. A pure semiconductor without doping is called

a. contaminated c. doped
b. extrinsic d. intrinsic

206. A series RLC circuit has R = 10 Ω, L = 40 x 10 -6 H and C = 60 x 10-12 F. What is

the resonant frequency of the circuit in MHZ?
a. 20.17 c. 4.49
b. 3.24 d. 1.62

207. On full – load a 500 volt series motor takes 100 amperes and runs at 840
rev/min. The armature resistance is 0.1 ohm and field resistance is 0.04 ohm.
Find the speed when developing half of full – load torque but with a 0.08 ohm
diverter in parallel with the field winding. Assume flux is proportional to the
field current.
a. 640 rpm c. 1,464 rpm
18
 b. 1,020 rpm d. 1,360 rpm

208. A capacitor charged with 10,000 µC. If the energy stored is 1 joule, find the
capacitance.
a. 500 µF c. 5,000 µF
b. 5 µF d. 50 µF

209. A 440 volt synchronous motor is taking 50 amperes at a p.f. of 0.9 lagging. The
effective resistance of armature is 0.8 ohm. If the iron and friction losses
amount to 600 watts, find the horse power output.
a. 25.7 c. 23.1
b. 37.1 d. 40.5

210. Three 100 µF capacitors are connected in delta to a 500 volt, three phase, 50
Hz supply. Find the line current.
a. 15.71 A c. 31.83 A
b. 27.21 A d. 8.66 A

211. A pair of copper mains. Each of 3.87 square centimeters cross section is used to
transmit power a distance of 915 meters. For 10 hours a day, 80 kW at 200
volts are taken from the mains. Find the energy lost in the cables per day. Take
ρ = 1.7 micro ohm – cm.
a. 64 kW-hr c. 256 kW-hr
b. 128 kW-hr d. 32 kW-hr

212. An SCR combines the features of

a. a rectifier and resistance
b. a rectifier and capacitor
c. a rectifier and transistor
d. a rectifier and inductor

213. A 0.09 microfarad capacitor is charged to 220 volts. How long in milliseconds
will it discharged to a level of 110 volts if the discharged resistor has a
resistance of 20,000 ohms?
a. 1.5 c. 1.25
b. 2.5 d. 0.5

214. The total generating capacity of a power plant is 1,600 kva. The total connected
load is 2,500 kva. Average load is 1,145 kva. The maximum power demand is
1,150 kva. What is the plant factor?
a. 46% c. 71.88%
b. 99.5% d. 71.56%

215. Assuming the most efficient technologies for the extraction of energy, the fuel
with the largest known reserves is
a. coal c. natural gas
b. oil d. nuclear

19
216. A three – phase 60 hz line has flat horizontal spacing. The conductors have an
outside diameter of 3.28 cm with 12 m between conductors. Determine the
capacitive reactance of the line to neutral if its length is 125 miles.
a. 1.62 x 103 Ω c. 25.3 x 106 Ω
b. 202.4 x 103 Ω d. 16.2 x 103 Ω

217. Name of the transformer that provides an almost continuously variable step-
less output voltage from zero to rated line voltage.
a. booster c. AVR
b. UPS d. Variac

218. A circuit has a resistance of 20 Ω and a reactance of 30 Ω. What is the p.f. of

the circuit?
a. 0 c. 0.832
b. 0.55 d. 0.99

219. A parallel branch circuit composed of a 100 ohm resistance, 150 ohm capacitive
reactance and 90 ohm inductive reactance. What is the total impedance of the
circuit?
a. 125 c. 91
b. 100 d. 97

220. The most common type of the conductor used for overhead transmission lines
consisting of electrical grade aluminum conductor overlaying strands of high
carbon galvanized steel is called:
a. ACAR c. COMPACT STAND AL
b. ACSR d. AAC

221. The 65 percent taps on a compensator are used in connection with a 10 hp 220
volt three phase motor. Rated motor current is 26.4 amp, and blocked – rotor
current at 220 volts is 150 amp. Calculate the percent motor current in terms
of rated amperes.
a. 369 c. 240
b. 65 d. 568

222. A single – phase transformer is rated 110/440 V, 2.5 kVA. Leakage reactance
measured from the low – tension side is 0.06 Ω. Determine leakage reactance
in per unit.
a. 0.0484 c. 0.484
b. 0.0248 d. 0.0124

223. Three capacitors of 50 µF, 30 µF, and 10 µF are connected in parallel. What is
the total capacitance in microfarad?
a. 15 µF c. 100 µF
b. 90 µF d. 115 µF

20
224. What is the process of heating electrically non metallic materials such as
plumber plastics, etc.?
a. resistive c. dielectric
b. capacitive d. induction

225. If a fault occurs near a generating station, how long does the transient
component of the fault last?
a. 10 to 15 sec c. 3 to 5 sec
b. 5 to 10 sec d. 1 to 3 sec

226. A three – phase 60 Hz, 30 mile transmission line delivers 20,000 kW at 69,000
volts and 75% power factor lagging. The resistance of the line is 0.3 ohm per
mile and the reactance is 0.7 ohm per mile. What is the transmission line
efficiency?
a. 93 c. 95
b. 94 d. 96

227. How are multiple stop push buttons connected in a control circuit?
a. combination series – parallel
b. parallel
c. gang
d. series

228. A road is illuminated by two 500 candela lamps placed 6.1 meters above the
center line of the road and 18.3 meters apart. Find the illumination produced on
the surface of the road at a point on the center line midway between lamps.
a. 2.29 lux c. 9.16 lux
b. 4.58 lux d. 18.32 lux

229. A heater contains 1.6 kg of water at 20ºC. It takes 12 minutes to raise the
temperature to 100ºC. Assume the losses due to radiation and heating the
kettle to be 10 kcal. Find the power rating of the heater in kW.
a. 0.74 c. 0.84
b. 0.7 d. 0.8

230. Shunts are generally made of what material?

a. constantan c. aluminum
b. silver d. manganin

231. A magnetizing force of 1,000 At/m will produce a flux density of ____ in air.
a. 1.257 mWb/m2 c. 1.257 Wb/m2
b. 0.63 Wb/m2 d. 0.63 mWb/m2

232. The potential difference of a battery is 10 volts when the current is 1.5 amperes
and 8 volts when the current is 2.5 amperes. Find the internal resistance of the
battery.
a. 1 Ω c. 3 Ω
b. 2 Ω d. 4 Ω
21
233. A four pole, lap wound armature when driven at 600 rpm generates 120 V. If
the flux per pole is 25 mWb, find the number of armature conductors.
a. 120 c. 480
b. 240 d. 720

234. A coil of 1,000 turns is uniformly wound on ring of non – magnetic material, the
mean diameter being 0.2 meter. The cross –sectional area of the coil is 4 cm 2,
with a current of 2 amperes flowing, find the total flux in µWb.
a. 3.2 c. 1.6
b. 6.4 d. 4.8

235. What are the three colors which when mixed equally together will produce
white and the combination of any two will produce different colors and
intensities?
a. red, blue, green c. black, red, pink
b. yellow, magenta, cyan d. red, blue, yellow

236. A 500 kV line is categorized as

a. high voltage c. extra high voltage
b. ultra high voltage d. medium voltage

237. A circuit having a resistance of 20 Ω and an inductance of 0.5 H is connected

suddenly across a 220 V supply. Find the rate of increase of current at the
instant of closing the switch.
a. 440 A/s c. 120 A/s
b. 220 A/s d. 480 A/s

238. A 350 kW, 2,300 V, three – phase resistive load is measured with two small
wattmeters. Two 100/5 A current transformers and two 2,300/115 V potential
transformers make this possible. Calculate the reading on each wattmeter.
a. 874 W & 874 W c. 1,311 W & 1,311 W
b. 218 W &218 W d. 437 W & 437 W

239. The transformer is rated at 550/220 V. With the low –voltage winding shorted,
it requires 25 V across the 550 V winding to permit rated current through both
windings of the transformer. Calculate the percent impedance.
a. 4.55% c. 3.55%
b. 5.55% d. 6.55%

240. A group of 10 luminaries, each with two 40 watt, cool – white fluorescent
lamps, are installed in a classroom. An appropriate CU of 0.65 is selected from
the manufacturer’s chart, which also suggests an MF of 0.85. Determine the
total lumens output of the luminaries.
a. 58,000 c. 32,100
b. 26,000 d. 64,200

241. A central station has annual factors as follows:

22
 Load = 58.5% Capacity = 40.9% Use = 45.2%

The reserve carried over and above the peak load is 8,900kw. What is the
installed capacity?
a. 20,700 kW c. 25,900 kW
b. 29,600 kW d. 40,000 kW

242. A 12 µF capacitor charged at 500 volts and a 6 µF capacitor charged at 250

volts are connected in parallel. What is the potential difference of the
combination?
a. 750 V c. 375 V
b. 500 V d. 417 V

243. An antenna that transmits or receives equally well in all directions is said to be
__________
a. omni directional c. unidirectional
b. bi-directional d. quasi-directional

244. A 30 mile transmission line is to deliver 20,000 kW at 69 kV at 85% power

factor. The line resistance is 0.324 ohm per mile and inductive reactance is
0.737 ohm per mile. What is the line loss?
a. 1,050 kW c. 997 kW
b. 376.7 kW d. 1,130.3 kW

245. Prior to starting of fluorescent lamp, heating of electrode is done by

a. starter c. filament
b. ballast d. heater

246. A frequency of 27 MHz has a wavelength of approximately______.

a. 11 m c. 27 m
b. 30 m d. 81 m

247. A type of communication that uses light rather than electricity to communicate
is called_____.
a. laser carrier c. powerline carrier
b. microwave d. fiber optic

248. A copper wire has a diameter of 0.032 inch. What is the area in circular mils?
a. 1,288 c. 810
b. 1,024 d. 1,624

249. It is required to increase the power factor of a 750 kW three – phase balanced
load from 70% lagging to 90% lagging. The line voltage is 6,900 volts, 60 hz.
Specify the capacitor required to increase the power factor of this wye –
connected load in microfarad per phase.
a. 20.45 c. 18.58
b. 22.39 d. 17.22
23
250. A signal occupies the spectrum space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz. The bandwidth
is____.
a. 0.007 MHz c. 237 MHz
b. 700 MHz d. 7 MHz
251. Two condensers of 3 and 5 µF respectively are connected in parallel. The
combination is charged with 0.0056 coulomb. What is the charge in the 3 µF
condenser in coulombs?
a. 0.01 c. 0.0021
b. 0.005 d. 0.0035

252. A series circuit with 10 ohm resistor and 50 µF capacitor is suddenly connected
to a dc source of 120 volts. What is the current at one time constant?
a. 12 A c. 7.6 A
b. 2.44 A d. 4.4 A

253. A room with dimensions of 72 ft x 36 ft x 13 ft requires 50 footcandles,

maintenance factor of 0.7 coefficient of utilization of 0.46 and Rl of 4. Calculate
the required lumens output of the lamps.
a. 144,000 c. 402,485
b. 136,800 d. 74,690

254. Instrument transformers are used in indicating and metering and with
protective devices, they are used for ______
a. measuring c. relaying
b. detecting d. sensing

255. Reactances are connected in series: X c1=100, Xc2=40, XL1=30, XL2=70. What is
the net reactance?
a. 80Xc c. 60XL
b. 40Xc d. 50XL

256. A tuned circuit is resonant at 4 MHz. Its Q is 100. What is its bandwidth?
a. 4 kHz c. 400 Hz
b. 400 kHz d. 40 kHz

257. What is the value of Rx in kohms to be connected in parallel to a 75 kohms to

reduce the value of total resistance to 10 kohms?
a. 11.7 c. 7.5
b. 15.7 d. 12.7

258. What is the burning hours that should be used in the design consideration of
incandescent bulb?
a. 1,500 c. 850
b. 1,800 d. 650

24
259. Three capacitors of 3, 4 and 5 microfarads are connected in series with a 6 volt
battery. When the current stops, what is the voltage across the 3 microfarad
capacitor?
a. 1.62 V c. 2.55 V
b. 1.91 V d. 1.53 V

260. A transformer rated 2,000 kVA, 34,500/240 volts has 5.75% impedance. What
is the per unit impedance?
a. 0.0636 c. 0.0575
b. 0.0656 d. 34.2

261. It refers to a device that merely boosts a signal and passes it on.
a. amplifier c. op – amp
b. booster d. repeater

262. What do you call an impedance that when a line to ground fault occurs,
produces fault currents that are equal and in – phase?
a. positive sequence c. negative sequence
b. third sequence d. zero sequence

263. If 14,000 maxwells emanate from a pole, what must be its area to have a flux
density of 7,000 gauss?
a. 3 cm2 c. 2 cm2
2
b. 4 cm d. 1 cm2

264. In a series or parallel LC circuit, the resonant frequency is attained when

a. Xc is 1/10 of XL c. Power factor angle is 90°
b. XL is 1/10 of XC d. Xc = XL

265. A light source has an illumination of 100 footcandles (fc), what is the
illumination in lux?
a. 1,204 c. 1,496
b. 1,075 d. 1,360

266. What is the equivalent of the collector terminal of transistor in a FET?

a. grid c. source
b. gate d. drain

267. What is the percent slip of the synchronous motor when running?
a. 3 c. 1
b. 2.5 d. 0

268. If you tuned in a FM radio station ranging from 88 MHz to 108 MHz, what is the
maximum capacitance in picofarads if L = 0.1 microhenry?
a. 34.5 c. 32.7
b. 38.6 d. 36.8

269. In an induction motor, what is the percent slip if the speed is 3,510?
25
 a. 1 c. 2
b. 1.5 d. 2.5

270. What is the unit of electrical resistance?

a. volt c. ohm
b. ampere d. watt

271. Three equal resistors are connected in series. The voltage in one of the
resistors is 15 volts. What is the applied voltage?
a. 30 V c. 40 V
b. 45 V d. 50 V

272. An ideal full wave rectifier with non inductive load has zero transformation
losses. What is the efficiency?
a. 100 c. 80
b. 90 d. 70

273. A 750 Hp, 2,400 volts three –phase motor has a power factor 90% and
efficiency of 95% is to be operated to a 13.2 kV utility service thru a wye –
delta connected transformer. What is the total kVA of the transformer bank?
a. 575 c. 595
b. 654 d. 615

274. What category do 115 kV – 230 kV belong?

a. low voltage c. high voltage
b. medium voltage d. extra high voltage

275. What is the device that converts DC power to AC?

a. converter c. SCR
b. inverter d. Rectifier
276. A voltmeter has a resistance of 80 ohms per volt deflection. What current will
flow in milliamperes (mA) when connected across 150 volt source if it has a 200
volt scale deflection?
a. 11.5 c. 9.4
b. 10.5 d. 12

277. The power drawn by a balanced 3Φ load is 3,000 watts at 80% power factor. If
two wattmeters WA and WC are used, what is the reading of WC?
a. 800 c. 900
b. 950 d. 850

278. What is the most common cause of failure in cable termination and splicing?
a. tracking
b. poor shielding
c. wrong clearance
d. improper insulation penciling

26
279. In a series RLC circuit, the resistance is 200 Ω, the inductance is 10 mH, and
the capacitance is 4 µF. If the circuit is connected across 100 volt source, what
is the current?
a. 0.144 c. 0.12
b. 0.15 d. 0.13

280. A 3,600 V 500 kVA 60 Hz 3 phase Y – connected generator on test yields the
following results: Mechanical and iron losses is 10 kW; field current at full –
load 100% p.f. is 50 A; field current at full – load 80% p.f. is 70 A; resistance
per phase of armature winding is 0.4 ohm. The exciter voltage is constant at
120 volts and voltage control is done by means of rheostat. Determine the full
– load armature current at 80% lagging p.f.
a. 95.6 A c. 64.2 A
b. 99.8 A d. 80.2 A

281. Three of the following terms in magnetic induction are identical. Which is
distinct among the following?
a. maxwells c. flux
b. lines d. gauss

282. One kW-hr is equal to

a. 3,600 watts c. 860 k calories
b. 1,000 watts d. 4,186 newtons

283. A power plant is driven by a turbine at a rate of 10 cubic meters per second
and with a head of 235 meters. If the plant efficiency is 0.65, calculate the
power plant output.
a. 10,000 kW c. 35,000 kW
b. 15,000 kW d. 25,000 kW

284. At a certain point in a 69 kV transmission line, the positive sequence impedance

is j0.15 p.u., and the zero – sequence impedance is j0.55 p.u. Calculate the
fault current if a line – to – line fault occurs. The base is 50 MVA.
a. 3,511 amperes c. 420 amperes
b. 1,890 amperes d. 2,414 amperes

285. A 3Φ, 220 volt, 10hp induction motor having a power factor of 0.8 has 3%
losses. Determine the current drawn by the motor.
a. 25.23 amps c. 20.18 amps
b. 43.69 amps d. 14.56 amps

286. The three phase unbalanced currents are:

Ia = 10 cis (-30°)
Ib = 0
Ic = 10 cis (150°)

Find the negative sequence current of phase a.

a. 8.66 cis 30 c. -5.77
27
 b. 5.77 cis (-60) d. 5.77

287. A test is performed on a 230 volts, delta connected synchronous motor having
92% efficiency and 85% power factor. With 6 volts dc impressed across its
terminals, the current reading is 90 amperes. Determine the ohmic resistance
per phase.
a. 0.067 Ω c. 0.1 Ω
b. 0.044 Ω d. 0.15 Ω

288. A 20 Hp, 110 V dc shunt motor has an efficiency of 88% and an exciting current
of 4 amperes and an armature resistance of 0.04 ohm. What starting resistance
is required for full load torque?
a. 0.98 Ω c. 0.95 Ω
b. 0.94 Ω d. 0.69 Ω

289. A 100 km transmission line has a 1,200 ohms shunt reactance. What is the per
km shunt reactance?
a. 1,200 Ω c. 12 Ω
b. 120,000 Ω d. 120 Ω

290. What is the total energy generated by a station in kWHr in a year if its
maximum demand and annual load factor is 150 kW and 45% respectively?
a. 591,300 c. 24,637
b. 1,314,000 d. 67,500

291. When luminaries direct 90 to 100% of their output downward is considered a

______.
a. direct lighting c. indirect lighting
b. local lighting d. luminaries

292. A three phase squirrel cage motor is started by a wye – delta starter. What
shall be its starting torque relative to its rated voltage starting torque?
a. 33.3% c. 57.7%
b. 42.3% d. 100%

293. It took a heater of 2 kW, 158 minutes to raise by 30°C the temperature of
water in an insulated vessel. How many gallons of water are inside the vessel?
a. 30 gallons c. 40 gallons
b. 10 gallons d. 20 gallons

294. A certain shunt motor armature has a resistance of 0.07 Ω and current of 50
amperes at 120 volts. Determine counter emf.
a. 108.5 V c. 112.2 V
b. 116.5 V d. 118.3 V

295. The kH of kWHr meter is 3.2. The disc takes 32 seconds to complete one (1)
revolution. What is the load rating?
a. 0 c. 360 watts
28
 b. 800 watts d. 2.1 watts

296. In a balanced 3Φ system the phase a voltage is 132.8 cis 0°, what is the line to
line Vca voltage?
a. 230 cis 30° c. 230 cis (-60°)
b. 230 cis (-30°) d. 132.8 cis 120°

297. The instantaneous value of the voltage is given by its equation v = 105 sin ωt –
25 sin 3ωt + 15sin (6ωt- 30°). What is its rms value?
a. 77 volts c. 105 volts
b. 190 volts d. 205 volts

298. A dc shunt motor develops 15 Hp at 120 V. If the effective armature resistance

is 0.061 ohm and the field winding draws 2 amperes, what is the overall
efficiency?
a. 90% c. 95%
b. 93% d. 94%

299. V12 = 100 cis 30° and V23 = 50 cis 120°. Evaluate V12 - V23.
a. 62 cis 6.2° c. 111.8 cis 3.4°
b. 127.3 cis 40° d. 62 cis (-6.2)°

300. A 200 microfarad capacitor is connected in series with a 10 Ω resistor. The

circuit is connected to a 24 V battery. What is the initial current when putting
the switch on?
a. 1.2 A c. 0.255 A
b. 2.4 A d. 0.0125 A

301. The percent impedance of a line is 6% at 34.5 kV and 100 MVA base. What is
the ohmic impedance?
a. 2.32 c. 0.72
b. 3 d. 1.2

302. The rms value of sinusoidal ac current is equal to its value at an angle of ___
degree.
a. 60 c. 30
b. 45 d. 90

303. Transformer are rated in kVA instead of kW because

a. load power factor is often not known
b. kva is fixed whereas kw depends on load
c. total transformer loss depends on volt – ampere
d. it has become customary

304. A synchronous motor having 40% reactance and a negligible resistance is to be

operated at rated load unity p.f. If the motor is rated 100 volts and 100 A, what
is the value of induced emf? Assume delta connected motor.
a. 180 V c. 4001 V
29
 b. 70 V d. 108 V
305. The starting winding of a single – phase motor is placed in the
a. rotor c. armature
b. stator d. field

306. What is the current per phase in the primary windings of a 3 phase ∆/Y
connected 6,600/400 V, 500 kVA, 50 Hz transformer. Neglect no – load current.
a. 43.74 A c. 14.58 A
b. 75.76 A d. 25.25 A

307. A 3 Hp 208 volt three phase motor is started by the Y - ∆ method. If the
starting current is 54 amp when rated voltage is applied, what current will flow
when the Y - ∆ switch is used?
a. 93.5 A c. 31.2 A
b. 162 A d. 18 A

308. An 80:5 current transformer is connected to a 5 amp ammeter. If the latter

registers 3.65 amp, what is the line current?
a. 58.4 A c. 21.9 A
b. 80 A d. 3.65 A

309. It is desired to purchase a synchronous condenser to correct the 2,400 kVA

0.67 lagging p.f. load in an industrial plant to 0.95 lagging. Neglecting losses,
calculate the kVA input rating of the required synchronous condenser.
a. 2,280 kVA c. 1,500 kVA
b. 1,608 kVA d. 1,250 kVA

310. The armature of a 230 volt shunt motor has a resistance of 0.18 ohm. If the
armature current is not to exceed 76 amp, calculate the resistance that must
be inserted in series with the armature at the instant of starting. Assume a 2
volt drop at the brushes.
a. 2.82 Ω c. 3.18 Ω
b. 3 Ω d. 2.69 Ω

311. It is desired to step down the three phase voltage from 6,600 to 460 volts
using Y - ∆ transformer connection. What should be the ratio of transformation
of each transformer?
a. 1:8.3 c. 1:14.3
b. 14.3:1 d. 8.3:1

312. In a laboratory experiment, the impedance of a coil was obtained at 60 Hz and

30 Hz. These are 75.48 ohms and 57.44 ohms, respectively. What is the
inductance of the coil?
a. 150 mH c. 42.5 mH
b. 182.5 mH d. 2.1 mH

313. A power customer is applying for source and listed the following loads:
30
 5 – 15 Hp motors
3 – 5 Hp motors
Lighting loads – 8 kW
Miscellaneous loads 3 – 5 kW

The demand factor is 65%, load factor is 46% and the power
factor is 80%. What is the maximum kW demand of the
customer?
a. 78 c. 69
b. 64 d. 57

314. A 250km transmission line has the following parameters: resistance per km
0.05 ohm, capacitive reactance per km 625,000 ohms and inductive reactance
per km 0.2 ohm. What is the series impedance?
a. (37.5 + j150) Ω c. (12.5 + j50) Ω
b. (12.5 – j2,450) Ω d. (75.5 – j2,450) Ω

315. Combination of switch and fuse.

a. relay c. fuse cut – out
b. circuit breaker d. safety switch

316. The phase b voltage and the phase b current of a balanced 3 phase system
are: V = 220 sin (ωt + 210°) and I = 10 sin (ωt - 180°). What is the power of
the system?
a. 3,300 W c. 1,905 W
b. 5,716 W d. 3,810 W

317. Three similar coils, when connected in delta to a 3 phase, three wire, 400 volt,
50 Hz supply, take a line current of 7 A at a p.f. of 0.8 lagging. If the coils are
now connected in star to the same supply, calculate the line current and total
power.
a. 2.33 A, 3,879 W c. 7 A, 1,293 W
b. 7 A, 3,879 W d. 2.33 A, 1,293 W

318. Calculate the error in the ammeter which reads 3.25 A in a circuit having a
series standard resistance of 0.01 Ω, the potential difference measured across
this standard resistance being 0.035 V.
a. 7.7% c. 6.7%
b. 7.1% d. 5.1%

319. Estimate the distance over which a load of 15,000 kW at 0.85 p.f. can be
delivered by a three – phase transmission line having conductors of steel –
cored aluminum each of resistance 0.56 Ω/km. The potential difference at the
receiving end is to be 132 kV and the loss in transmission is not to exceed
7.5%.
a. 122 km c. 142 km
b. 110 km d. 150 km

31
320. An iron ring, 100 cm mean circumference, is made from an iron rod of round
cross – section of 10 cm 2. It is wound with 200 turns. What current would be
necessary to produce a flux of 1 mWb. Relative permeability of iron = 500.
a. 976 A c. 796 A
b. 697 A d. 769 A

321. The force between two wires carrying currents in opposite directions is 20.4
kg/m when they are placed with their axes 5 cm apart. Calculate the current in
one conductor when current flowing through the other conductor is 5,000 A.
a. 1,000 A c. 1,500 A
b. 10,000 A d. 5,000 A

322. Two positive point charges 12 x 10 -10 coulomb and 8 x 10-10 coulomb are placed
10 cm apart. Find the work done in bringing the two charges 4 cm closer.
a. 57.6 x 10-8 J c. 144 x 10-8 J
b. 14.4 x 10-8 J d. 5.76 x 10-8 J

323. What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L is 50 microhenrys and C is

40 picofarads are in parallel?
a. 7.96 MHz c. 3.56 MHz
b. 79.6 MHz d. 1.78 MHz

324. Which relay is used for feeders?

a. MHO relay c. Merz price protection
b. Translay relay d. Buchholz relay

325. A two branch parallel circuit with one branch of R = 50 ohms and a single
unknown element in the other branch has the following applied voltage and the
total current:
v = 100 cos(1500t + 45°) volts
it = 12 sin (1500t + 135°) amperes

Find the unknown element.

a. R = 8.33 Ω c. L = 10 H
b. R = 10 Ω d. L = 8.33 H

326. The following information is given for two transformers connected in parallel
and delivering a total load of 300 kVA:
Transformer1 Transformer2
Rating = 150kVA Rating = 250kVA
6,900/230 volts 6,900/230 volts
Ze – p1 = 9.4 Ω Ze – p2 = 5.8 Ω

Calculate the load current supplied by each transformer.

a. 26.9 A, 16.6 A c. 734 A, 1190 A
b. 21.7 A, 36.2 A d. 24.5 A, 39.7 A

32
327. A 3 phase, 11 kV transmission line 10km long delivers 200 kW load at 0.8
lagging power factor. The resistance of the line is 0.9 Ω per km per phase.
What is the percentage power loss in the line assuming 11 kV voltage at the
receiving end.
a. 1.27% c. 4.27%
b. 3.27% d. 2.27%

328. Fusion energy is produced when

a. chemical compounds combined
b. fuel burns
c. nuclear particles divides
d. nuclear particles combined

329. Given Y – connected impedances Z a = (2 + j2) Ω, Zb = (5 – j10) Ω, and Z c = (5

+ j10) Ω. Find the equivalent delta impedance Zbc.
a. (41.22 + j31.23) Ω c. (30 – j10) Ω
b. (41.22 – j31.23) Ω d. (-10 + j30) Ω

330. One watt – second is also equal to which one?

a. 980 dynes – cm c. 1 erg – second
b. 1 joule d. 3 gram – calorie

331. A 115 kV line has a horizontal configuration. The distance between adjacent
conductors is 9 ft. What is the geometric mean distance of the line?
a. 9 ft c. 11.34 ft
b. 12 ft d. 18 ft

332. The total capacitance of two capacitors is 0.03 µF when joined in series and
0.16 µF when connected in parallel. Find the capacitance of each capacitor.
a. 0.12 µF, 0.04 µF c. 0.03 µF, 0.08 µF
b. 0.24 µF, 0.08 µF d. 0.06 µF, 0.16 µF

333. A hydroelectric plant generates 100 MW at an available head of 200 m and an

overall efficiency of 75%. What quantity of water in cubic per second is
required?
a. 1,200 c. 26
b. 122 d. 68

334. The illumination of a room is being designed. The illumination intensity required
is 50 footcandles. The maintenance factor is 70% and coefficient of utilization is
60%. If the room is 20 ft by 15 ft, what is the total required lumens output of
the lamp?
a. 35,000 lumens c. 6,300 lumens
b. 10,500 lumens d. 12,800 lumens

335. One kW is equal to ___ ft-lb/sec.

a. 1,356 c. 1,055
b. 738 d. 550
33
336. A battery produces a current of 0.6 A when the external resistance is 2 Ω and
0.2 A when the external resistance is 12 Ω. Find the emf of the battery.
a. 3 V c. 9 V
b. 6 V d. 12 V

337. An open delta bank delivers a balanced three – phase load of 60 kVA at 460
volts. What current flows in the secondary of each transformer?
a. 65.2 A c. 150.6 A
b. 130.4 A d. 75.3 A

338. The flux density emanating from a pole of a generator is 20,000 gauss. A
conductor one meter long cuts the flux perpendicularly at a speed of 40 m per
second. What voltage is developed?
a. 800 volts c. 230 volts
b. 80 volts d. 8 volts

339. The capacitive reactance of a 40 km 34.5 kV line is 90,000 ohms per km. What
is the total capacitive reactance of the line?
a. 2,250 ohms c. 6,750 ohms
b. 1.08 x 107 ohms d. 3.6 x 106 ohms

340. Two voltage generators are in series. The voltages being generated are V ab =
50 sin (ωt - 30°) and Vbc = 100 sin (ωt + 60°). What is the output voltage Vac?
a. 111.83 cis 33.5° c. 145.5 cis 50.1°
b. 50 cis 30° d. 150 cis 30°

341. A lead – acid battery having a 100 A capacity is 25% charged. After being
charged at 10A for 5 hours, it will be approximately ___ charged.
a. 1/2 c. fully
b. 3/4 d. over

342. A current of 1 ampere passes through a relay coil of 500 turns. What is the
mmf?
a. 628 gilberts c. 9,425 gilberts
b. 943 gilberts d. 595 gilberts

343. The illumination of a room is being designed from the following data:
Room length = 40 ft. Required foot – candle = 200
Room width = 24 ft Lumens per lamp = 3,300
Coefficient of utilization = 0.60 No. of rows = 5
Maintenance factor = 0.70

What is the number of lamps per row?

a. 40 c. 28
b. 35 d. 140

34
344. What is the tesla a unit of?
a. permittivity c. permeance
b. capacitance d. magnetic induction
345. A coil having and inductance of 0.05 H and resistance of 10 ohms is connected
in series with a 25 µF capacitor across a 220 V ac source. What is the
resonance frequency of the circuit?
a. 77.2 Hz c. 60 Hz
b. 135.2 Hz d. 142.4 Hz

346. Two – wattmeter method is applied to a 3 phase motor running at full – load.
Two wattmeters indicate 85.5 kW and 34.7 kW, respectively. What is the
operating power factor of the motor?
a. 87.45% c. 80.69%
b. 89.49% d. 94.76%

347. A transmission line consists of two solid aluminum conductors having a radius
of 2.5 cm and separated on centers by a distance of 3.6 m. Find the total line
inductance in millihenrys per meter.
a. 2.09 x 10-3 c. 0.0209
-3
b. 1.044 x 10 d. 0.0104

348. If output power of a radio receiver is doubled, its volume is increased by _____
db.
a. 2 c. 1
b. 3 d. -3

349. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous motor?

a. resistance starter in the armature circuit
b. damper winding
c. star – delta starter
d. damper winding in conjunction with star – delta starter

350. The power factor of an alternator is determined by its ______.

a. speed c. excitation
b. load d. prime mover

351. A three – phase induction motor has a nameplate speed of 1,720 rpm. What is
the rotor frequency?
a. 4.44 Hz c. 1.8 Hz
b. 2.7 Hz d. 5 Hz

352. A 40 microfarad capacitor is connected in parallel with 40 ohm resistor. What

power is drawn when source voltage is V = 220 sin ωt volts?
a. 1825 watts c. 1210 watts
b. 1010 watts d. 1620 watts

353. The percentage overloading of two 20 kVA transformers when supplying a

balanced 3 – phase load of 40 kVA in a V – V bank is ___ percent.
35
 a. 15.5 c. 73.2
b. 57.7 d. 33.3

354. A 3 phase, 3 wire feeder supplies an industrial plant with the following data:
Line voltages: Vab = 2300 V, Vbc = 230240 V
Line currents: Ia = 110-36.87 A, Ic =12553.13 A

What is the average power factor of the plant?

a. 0.89 lagging c. 0.93 leading
b. 0.89 leading d. 0.93 lagging

355. A 3 phase, 3 wire transmission line has an impedance per wire of (3 + j7)
ohms, the receiving end load is 1,950 kW, 0.65 power factor lagging with line
to line voltage of 13,200 volts. Determine the kVAR of the capacitor to be
connected at the receiving end to make the p.f. at that end equal to 0.8 lagging
at 13,200 volts.
a. 1,482 c. 817
b. 2,280 d. 1,464

356. Two 100 watt, 200 volt lamps are connected in series across a 200 volt supply.
The total power consumed by each lamp will be ___ watts.
a. 25 c. 100
b. 50 d. 200

357. A conductor cuts 1 weber of flux per sec. The average voltage generated in the
conductor is _____.
a. 108 mV c. 100 mV
b. 1000 mV d. 10 V

358. A 0 – 1 mA meter has a sensitivity of

a. 1mA c. 1 k
b. 1 k/volt d. 1000 A
359. For a dc series motor with saturated condition of the field circuit, the torque
developed is proportional to
a. speed c. Ia2
b. V12 d. Ia

360. A 100 µF capacitor in series w/ a 50 ohm resistance is connected suddenly

across a 125 volt dc supply. What is the voltage in the capacitor after 5 msec.?
a. 125 V c. 56.4 V
b. 120 V d. 79 V

361. The gas inside the inner discharge tube of a sodium vapor lamp is
a. argon c. nitrogen
b. neon d. helium

362. The maximum efficiency of a 100 kVA transformer having iron loss of 900 watts
and full – load copper loss of 1600 watts occurs at ___ kVA.
36
 a. 56.3 c. 75
b. 133.3 d. 177.7

363. In a 4 - pole, 35 slot, dc armature, 180 electrical degree coil span will be
obtained when coils occupy ___ slots.
a. 1 and 10 c. 2 and 11
b. 1 and 9 d. 3 and 13

364. The transients w/c are produced due to sudden but energetic changes from one
steady state of a circuit to another are called ____ transients.
a. initiation c. transition
b. relaxation d. subsidence

365. A 13.8 kV/440 V, 50 kVA single phase transformer has a leakage reactance of
300 ohms referred to the 13.8 kV side. Determine the per unit value of the
leakage reactance for the low – voltage base.
a. 0.305 c. 0.097
b. 0.0305 d. 0.079

366. While describing the sheath of a cable, the abbreviation XLPE means ______
polyethylene.
a. cross – layer c. cross – linked
b. external – layer d. extra – long

367. Two capacitors of 0.1 µF, 250 V and 0.2 µF, 500 V are connected in series.
What is the maximum voltage that can be applied across the combination?
a. 375 c. 750
b. 250 d. 500

368. A dc shunt motor draws an armature current of 98.16 A at 120 V. What is the
hp output of the motor if the armature effective resistance is 0.06 ?
a. 15.8 c. 7.5
b. 22 d. 15

369. A non sinusoidal emf having the equation v = 141.4 sin (ωt - 60) – 56.6 sin
(ωt - 30) + 35.4 sin (5ωt - 90) is impressed upon a circuit. If the current has
the equation I = 28.3 sin (ωt - 30) + 17 sin (3ωt - 90), calculate the power
factor of the circuit.
a. 0.857 c. 0.785
b. 0.578 d. 0.958

370. A diesel power plant has an overall efficiency of 30%. If the calorific value of
diesel is 18,000 BTU/1b and cost Php6.00 per liter, how much is the fuel cost of
production per kwhr of energy? Take the density of diesel as 900 grams per
liter.
a. Php1.91/kW-hr c. Php2.12/kW-hr
b. Php1.85/kW-hr d. Php2.45/kW-hr

37
371. Two single phase transformers operate in parallel. Transformer 1 is rated 100
kVA with 4% reactance while transformer 2 is rated 75 kVA with 3% reactance.
The transformers have secondary voltages of 220 volts and same voltage ratio.
If the common load is 125kva at 80% p.f. lagging, determine the kVA sharing
of each transformer.
a. 71.43 kVA & 53.57 kVA c. 62.5 kVA & 62.5 kVA
b. 75 kVA & 50 kVA d. 82.5 kVA & 42.5 kVA

372. In a 13.8 kV, 10 MVA base three phase system a phase to phase fault occurs. If
the thevenin’s equivalent impedance of the system is 2.63%, what is the
magnitude of the fault current?
a. 13,800 A c. 27,600 A
b. 15,900 A d. 7,970 A

373. The sequence components of phase a current are:

Ia = 0
Ia1 = (90 + j5.78) A
Ia2 = (10 - j5.78) A

Determine the phase C current.

a. 91.61131 A c. 100120 A
b. 1000 A d. 91.61251 A

374. The CT ratio and PT ratio used to protect a line are 240 and 2000, respectively.
If the impedance of each line is 10 , what is the relay impedance to protect
the line from fault?
a. 83.33  c. 48,000 
b. 1.2  d. 12 

375. What is the most probable per unit transient reactance for an alternator rated
100 MW?
a. 0.02 c. 1.0
b. 0.30 d. 0.1

376. What should be the kV rating of a surge arrester to be used for an 11 kV

ungrounded system?
a. 18 kV c. 12 kV
b. 16 kV d. 9 kV

377. A three – phase, 4 – pole induction motor with open – circuited rotor is
connected to a 400 V, 50 Hz, three – phase supply. The motor will run at ____
rpm.
a. 1500 c. 1450
b. 1480 d. 0

38
378. What is the self geometric mean distance of a 3 – strand bundle made of ACSR
Rail conductors with 45 cm between conductors? The GMR of ACSR Rail is
0.0386 ft.
a. 0.4832 ft c. 0.3842 ft
b. 0.2834 ft d. 0.4382 ft

379. A 3 phase balanced system working at 0.9 p.f. lagging has a line loss of 3,600
kW. If p.f. is reduced to 0.6, the line loss would become _____ kW.
a. 8,100 c. 5,400
b. 1,600 d. 4,800

380. A 55,000 kW thermal power plant of NPC delivers an annual output of 283,000
MWHr with a peak load of 44 MW. The annual load factor of the plant is nearest
to
a. 0.75 c. 0.76
b. 0.72 d. 0.73

381. For power transformers, the conservator tank is intended to minimize

a. heating c. oil slugging
b. internal pressure d. breathing

382. A generator rated 15 MVA, 13.2 kV has 8% impedance is connected to a step –

up transformer of 20 MVA, 13.8/230 kV for transmission. What is the new per
unit impedance using transformer ratings as base value?
a. 0.146 c. 0.098
b. 0.102 d. 0.107

383. In a vacuum tube, what is the ratio of a small change in plate voltage to a small
change in grid voltage?
a. amplification ratio c. current ratio
b. voltage ratio d. amplification factor

384. What is the normal indication on a megger when checking insulation?

a. one c. middle of scale
b. infinity d. zero

385. A flux of 1,500,000 maxwells links a coil having 350 turns. This flux through
the coil is decreased to zero at a uniform rate in 0.2 sec. Determine induced
emf during this time interval.
a. 1 volt c. 26.25 volts
b. 857 volts d. 8.57 volts

386. What electric power is required to drive a pump which must raise water 96ft
and supply 2,600 gpm? One gallon water weighs 8.3lbs. motor and pump
efficiency are 90% and 70%, respectively.
a. 46.8 kW c. 29.5 kW
b. 74.3 kW d. 60.2 kW
39
387. The winding of a 4 – pole alternator having 36 slots is short by 2 slots. What is
the pitch factor?
a. 0.9397 c. 0.9566
b. 0.9725 d. 1.0

388. The unit of magnetic field intensity in the CGS system is

a. gauss c. ampere – turn per meter
b. gilbert d. Oersted

389. What is the work done in moving a 50 C electric charge through a distance of
50cm in the direction of a uniform electric field of 50 kV/m?
a. 2.5 joules c. 1.25 joules
b. 500 joules d. 125 joules

390. A coil with L = 2 H and R = 362  is connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply.

Calculate the energy stored when the instantaneous voltage is zero.
a. 0.317 J c. 0.151 J
b. 0.051 J d. 0

391. A system is consists of three equal resistors connected in delta and is fed from
a balanced three –phase supply. By how much power is reduced if one of the
resistors is disconnected?
a. 33% c. 50%
b. 67% d. 25%

392. A round wire has 250,000 CM. Find its diameter in inches.
a. 1/2 c. 0.16
b. 1/4 d. 0.08

393. One horsepower is equal to _____.

a. 33,000 ft –lb c. 746 watt –sec
b. 550 ft –lb/sec. d. 252 cal

394. Which of the following is the most probable impedance of a 100 MW alternator?
a. 5% c. 10%
b. 100% d. 20%

395. At a 34.5 kV substation, the available fault current is 10 p.u. What is the
available fault MVA if the base MVA is 50?
a. 50 c. 200
b. 100 d. 500

396. A solenoid has a magnetic reluctance of 2.2 x 10 -3. It has 300 turns. What is
the total flux when the current flowing is 0.5 ampere?
a. 9.52 x 104 c. 8.57 x 104
4
b. 9.82 x 10 d. 9.12 x 104

40
397. The instantaneous value of the voltage is given by the equation e = 105 sin ωt
– 25 sin (3ωt + 60°) + 15 sin (6ωt + 30°). Find its rms value.
a. 77 volts c. 190 volts
b. 105 volts d. 205 volts

398. A dc shunt motor develops 15 Hp at 120 V. If the effective armature resistance

is 0.061 ohm and the field winding draws 2 amperes, what is the overall
efficiency?
a. 90% c. 95%
b. 93% d. 94%

399. A voltage wave is given by v = 100 sin 314t. How long does it take this
waveform to complete one – fourth cycle?
a. 20ms c. 5 ms
b. 10 ms d. 1 ms

400. An ac voltage (100 + j60) volts is applied to a circuit and the current so
produced is (-4 + j10) amperes. The power consumed by the circuit is
a. -400 W c. 200 W
b. 100 W d. 500 W

401. The voltages across two series connected circuit elements are V 1 = 50 sin ωt
volts and V2 = 30 sin (ωt - 30°) volts. What is the rms value of the applied
voltage?
a. 54.77 V c. 56.57 V
b. 80 V d. none of the above

402. A 240 V, 50 Hz series RC circuit takes an RMS current of 20 amperes. The

maximum value of the current occurs 1/900 second before the maximum value
of the voltage. The p.f. of the circuit is
a. 0.92 c. 0.866
b. 0.94 d. 0.8

403. A series RL circuit has the following data:

R = 10 ohms L = 0.02 H
e = 150 + 100 sin ωt + 50 sin 3 ωt volts
w = 500 rad/sec
t – time, seconds

What is the average power of the circuit?

a. 2875 watts c. 2645 watts
b. 2350 watts d. 2512 watts

404. A circuit which has Wo = 106 rad/sec, C = 10 pF and Q – factor of 100, must
have a resistance of ____ kohm
a. 10 c. 1
b. 5 d. 100
41
405. A hydroelectric plant generates 100 MW at an available head of 200 m at an
overall efficiency of 75%. What quantity of water in cubic meter per second is
required?
a. 68 c. 122
b. 1200 d. 26

406. A 100 liter of water is heated from 20°C to 40°C. How many kWHr of electricity
is needed assuming no heat loss?
a. 4.2 c. 5.6
b. 2.3 d. 3.7

407. A generator has an output of 10 kW. What is its output in joules per sec?
a. 10,000 c. 80,000
b. 100,000 d. 1,000

408. The difference between the front pitch and the back pitch of a retrogressive lap
winding is 2. If the front pitch is 21, what is the back pitch?
a. 19 c. 21
b. 23 d. 21.5

409. The transformer used to serve a customer is rated 5 MVA, 13.8 kV/480 V and
its impedance is 5%. The cable connecting the breaker to the transformer has
an impedance of 0.032 ohm per phase. What is the fault current if a three
phase fault occurs at the breaker?
a. 8000 A c. 6000 A
b. 5000 A d. 1200 A
410. V12 = 100 cis 30° and V23 = 50 cis 120°. Evaluate V12 - V23.
a. 62 cis 6.2° c. 111.8 cis 3.4°
b. 127.3 cis 40° d. 62 cis (-6.2°)

411. A 5 mH pure inductance is connected in parallel with one µF capacitor. What

frequency shall the circuit be in antiresonance?
a. 250 Hz c. 60 Hz
b. 2250 Hz d. 100 Hz

412. A 200 microfarad capacitor is connected in series with 10 Ω resistor. The circuit
is connected to a 24 V battery. What is the initial current when putting the
switch on?
a. 1.2 A c. 0.225 A
b. 2.4 A d. 0.0125 A

413. A 115 kV line has vertical configuration with 9 ft spacing. The diameter of the
336.4 ACSR is 0.721 inch. What is the total capacitance if the length of the line
is 20 km?
a. 0.282 µF c. 2.2 µF
b. 0.187 µF d. 5.25 µF

42
414. In a certain circuit analysis, the bases chosen are 34.5 kV and 100 MVA. What
is the base impedance?
a. 11.9 Ω c. 23.8 Ω
b. 7.5 Ω d. 5 Ω

415. The percent impedance of a line is 6% at 34.5 kV and 100 MVA base. What is
the ohmic impedance?
a. 2.32 c. 0.72
b. 3 d. 1.2

416. A 69 kV/13.8 kV, 7.5 MVA transformer has 8% impedance. What is its
impedance at 100 MVA base?
a. 0.6% c. 800%
b. 8% d. 106.7%

417. A 50 MW coal – fired power plant has an average heat rate of 11,000 BTU per
kWHr. Coal has a heating value of 13,000 BTU per pound. The plant has a load
factor of 80%. How much coal is burned per day?
a. 8.2 x 106 lb c. 1.2 x 105 lb
b. 7.2 x 106 lb d. 8.1 x 105 lb

418. A dc current of 50 amperes flows through a long straight conductor. Determine

the force on a magnetic pole of 50 unit pole strength placed 5 cm from the
conductor.
a. 100 dynes c. 100∏ dynes
b. 1000 dynes d. 200 dynes

419. The load on a three phase wye connected 220 V system consists of three 6 Ω
resistances connected in wye and in parallel with three 9 Ω resistance
connected in delta. The magnitude of the line current is
a. 36.66 A c. 42.34 A
b. 24.44 A d. 63.50 A

420. On a symmetrical 3Ф system, phase sequence ABC, a capacitive reactance of 8

Ω is connected across BC, and a coil R + jX L across AB. Find R and X L such that
IB = 0.
a. 4 Ω & 6.93 Ω c. 6.93 Ω & 4 Ω
b. 69.3 Ω & 4 Ω d. 4 Ω & 69.3 Ω

421. Three unbalanced 3Ф line voltages are given as follows:

VA = 10 cis 30°
VB = 30 cis (-60°)
VC = 15 cis 145°

What is the negative sequence component of line voltage V C?

a. 8.24 cis (-156.2°) c. 8.24 cis (-276.2°)
b. 8.24 cis (-36.2°) d. 0

43
422. A 350 kW, 2,300 V, three – phase resistive load is measured with two small
watt – meters. Two 100/5 A current transformers and two 2,300/115 V
potential transformers makes this possible. The reading of each wattmeter in
watts is
a. 505 c. 450
b. 437 d. 473

423. A 440 V, 70 Hp shunt motor has an armature of 0.185 Ω and field resistance of
350 Ω. The current drawn by this machine is 135 A at full load. If this machine
is to deliver torque equal to 175 percent of that at full – load, what would be
the resistance of its starter?
a. 2 Ω c. 1.695 Ω
b. 1.2 Ω d. 5.6 Ω

424. The flux density emanating from a pole of a generator is 20,000 gauss. A
conductor one meter long cuts the flux perpendicularly at a speed of 40 m per
second. What voltage is developed?
a. 800 volts c. 230 volts
b. 80 volts d. 8 volts

425. The resistance of the field winding of a dc machine is 0.25 Ω at 25°C. When
operating at full –load, the temperature of the winding is 75°C. The
temperature coefficient of resistance of copper is 0.00427/°C at 0°C. Find the
resistance of the field winding at full –load.
a. 0.298 Ω c. 0.512 Ω
b. 0.315 Ω d. 0.271 Ω

426. The capacitive reactance of a 40 km 34.5 kV line is 90,000 ohms per km. What
is total capacitive reactance of the line?
a. 2250 Ω c. 6750 Ω
7
b. 1.08 x 10 Ω d. 3.6 x 106 Ω

427. Three unbalanced 3Ф line currents are:

Ia = 10 cis (-30°)
Ib = 0
Ic = 10 cis (150°)

What is the phase b positive sequence current?

a. 8.66 c. 5.77
b. 5.77 cis 240° d. 8.66 cis 120°

428. A certain generator generates 1,500,000 joules per minute. What is the output
in kW?
a. 50 c. 25
b. 500 d. 125

429. A 3 phase bank serves four customers with the following loads:
Customer A = 80 kW at 65% p.f.
44
 Customer B = 60 kW at 85% p.f.
Customer C = 100 kW at 90% p.f.
Customer D = 120 kW at 70% p.f.

What is the equivalent power factor?

a. 82.16% c. 76.66%
b. 79.21% d. 84.37%

430. A 5 km long, three phase 34.5 kV line has a horizontal configuration of 4 ft

spacing. The conductors are 336.4 ACSR with GMR of 0.0244 ft. What is the
inductance of the line?
a. 5.33 mH c. 10.22 mH
b. 15.12 mH d. 12.02 mH

431. Two voltage generators are in series. The voltages being generated are V ab =
50 sin (ωt - 30°) and Vbc = 100 sin (ωt + 60°). What is the output voltage Vac?
a. 111.83 cis 33.5° c. 145.5 cis 50.1°
b. 50 cis 30° d. 150 cis 30°

432. A short 230 kV transmission line has an impedance of 5 cis 78° ohms. The
sending end power is 100 MW at 230 kV and 85% power factor. What is the
line loss?
a. 1.21 MW c. 962 kW
b. 728 kW d. 272 kW

433. A 25 kVA, 550/220 V transformer has a rated copper loss of 350 watts. With
the low voltage winding shorted it requires 25 V across the high voltage
winding to permit rated current through both windings of the transformer. The
percent reactance of the transformer is
a. 5.72 c. 4.54
b. 1.4 d. 4.32

434. A 5,000 kVA transformer has a rated copper loss of 30,118 watts. The
maximum demand on the bank within the past year was 81% of the rated
capacity and the loss factor was 26.75%. What was the total annual copper
energy loss in the bank?
a. 57,120 kW-Hr c. 46,300 kW-Hr
b. 213,700 kW-Hr d. 173,000 kW-Hr

435. Three, 1Ф, 75 kVA transformers are banked in delta supplying a balanced three
–phase load of 160 kVA at 0.8 p.f. lagging. If one transformer is removed for
repair, what is the minimum amount in kVAR of capacitor bank needed to
prevent the overloading of the remaining units?
a. 86.73 c. 63.78
b. 96 d. 73.86

436. A 6 pole, 50 Hz, three phase induction motor is running at 950 rpm and has a
rotor copper loss of 5 kW. The rotor input in kW is
45
 a. 100 c. 95
b. 105 d. 110

437. A synchronous motor absorbing 60 kW is connected in parallel with a load of

240 kW having a lagging p.f. of 0.8. If the combined load has a p.f. of 0.9
lagging, what is the value of the leading kVAR supplied by the motor?
a. 145.4 c. 17.3
b. 180 d. 34.6

438. A 60 Hz, three phase 100 mile transmission line draws a charging current of 0.5
A per mile when the line is tested at 100,000 V to neutral. The total capacitive
susceptance of the line is nearest to
a. 5 x 10-4 mho c. 5 x 10-6 mho
b. 8.66x 10-4 mho d. 2.9 x 10-4 mho

439. A three phase, 11 kV transmission line is 10 km long and delivers 200 kW load
at 0.8 lagging power factor. The resistance of the line is 0.9 ohm per km per
phase. What is the percentage power loss in the line assuming 11 kV voltage at
the receiving end?
a. 2.27% c. 4.27%
b. 3.27% d. 5.27%

440. A generating station has a maximum load of 20 MW for the year and the
maximum loads on the substations are 7.5 MW, 6 MW, 5.5 MW and 4.5 MW.
The diversity factor is
a. 1 c. 1.175
b. 1.5 d. 1.75

441. A room 8 m x 12 m is lighted by 15 lamps to fairly uniform illumination of 100

lumens per sq. meter. What is the coefficient of utilization if the output of each
lamp is 1,600 lumens?
a. 30% c. 50%
b. 40% d. 60%

442. One hundred kW is equivalent to ____ joules/second.

a. 100 c. 10,000
b. 1,000 d. 100,000

443. Capacitors are said to

a. block AC and pass DC
b. block DC and pass AC
c. pass AC and DC
d. block AC and DC

444. When a high voltage AC circuit breaker is tested for endurance, it is tested for
at least ___
a. 1,000 c. 10
b. 100 d. 5
46
445. The number of cycles in which a high speed circuit breaker can complete its
operation is
a. 3 to 8 c. 20 to 30
b. 10 to 18 d. 40 to 50

446. A graphical representation between discharge and time is known as ___

a. monograph c. hydrograph
b. hectograph d. topograph

447. One volt is equal to ___ abvolts.

a. 106 c. 108
b. 1,000 d. 10-2

448. A fully – charged lead – acid cell has an open circuit voltage of about ____ volt.
a. 2.1 c. 2.3
b. 2.2 d. 2.5

449. Which of the following is not a standard distribution voltage?

a. 6.24 kV c. 13.8 kV
b. 16 kV d. 11 kV

450. What is the total capacitance of two 20 µF capacitors in series?

a. 40 µF c. 40 pF
b. 10 µF d. 10 pF

451. The fuse used for the overhead primary distributors is

a. cartridge c. expulsion
b. dual element d. fast acting

452. The power required to produced a gain of 10 dB over 4 watts of original power
is ___ watts.
a. 80 c. 0.4
b. 40 d. 8

453. A type of motor that overspeed at a very light load.

a. shunt c. flat – compound
b. over – compound d. series

454. What is the most probable per unit transient reactance for an alternator rated
100 MW?
a. 0.02 c. 1.0
b. 0.3 d. 0.1

455. What should be the kV rating of a surge arrester to be used for an 11 kV

ungrounded system?
a. 18 kV c. 12 kV
b. 16 kV d. 9 kV
47
456. Which of the following source of energy is not commercially used?
a. wind c. geothermal
b. solar d. biogas

457. If the stator voltage of a SCIM is reduced to 50 percent of its rated value,
torque developed is reduced by ___ percent of its full – load value.
a. 50 c. 57.7
b. 25 d. 75

458. Two 60 Hz induction motors are connected in concatenation (cascaded). If

machine 1 has 6 poles and machine 2 has 8 poles, the speed of the
combination when the slip is 0.075 is ___ rpm.
a. 514 c. 3,600
b. 475 d. 1,110

459. A power station supplies 60 kW to a load over 2,500 ft of 000 2 – conductor

copper feeder the resistance of which is 0.078 ohm per 1,000 ft. The bus – bar
voltage is maintained constant at 600 volts. Determine the maximum power
which can be transmitted.
a. 60 kW c. 120 kW
b. 230.7 kW d. 150 kW
460. Three units of 1:5 transformers are connected in ∆/Y to supply three – phase
load from a 400 volt, three – phase source. The line voltage on the load side is
___ volts.
a. 2,000 c. 3,464
b. 80 d. 80 3

461. Neglecting saturation, if current taken by a series motor is increased from 10 A

to 12 A, the percentage increase in its torque is ___ percent.
a. 20 c. 30.5
b. 44 d. 16.6

462. Out of the following given choices for polyphase transformer connections, which
one will you select for three to two phase conversion?
a. Scott c. double Scott
b. star/star d. star/double – delta

463. Two currents i1 and i2 whose values are given by the expressions i 1 = 20 sin ωt
and i2 = 15 sin (ωt + ∏/4) are combined and made to pass through the
common conductor. If the circuit has a resistance of 12 Ω, what will be the total
energy loss in 10 hours?
a. 62.929 x 103 J c. 2.646 x 108 J
8
b. 2.266 x 10 J d. 26.46 x 108 J

464. For power transformers, the conservator tank is intended to minimize

a. heating c. oil slugging
b. internal pressure d. breathing
48
465. As referred to the Proposed Omnibus Power Act, IPP stands for:
a. Internal Power Plant
b. Individual Power Plants
c. Individual Power Protectors
d. Individual Power Producer

466. The PTR and CTR used to protect a line are 2,000 and 240, respectively. If the
reactance as seen on the relay side is 1.41 Ω, what is the reactance of each
line?
a. 12.2 Ω c. 14 Ω
b. 11.75 Ω d.16 Ω
467. When a bird lands on transmission lines, it is not electricuted because
a. no potential difference
b. bird’s feet has high dielectric
c. no path for electric flow
d. bird’s feather is an insulation

468. In a 10:1 step – down, 2200/220 V transformer, taps are changed to reduce
the number of primary turns by 5%. The secondary voltage will most nearly be
___ volts.
a. 209 c. 240
b. 231 d. 225

469. A three –phase, 4 pole induction motor with open – circuited rotor is connected
to a 400 V, 50 Hz, three – phase supply. The motor will run at ___ rpm.
a. 1500 c. 1450
b. 1480 d. 0

470. The starting torque of a capacitor – start split phase induction motor is directly
related to the angle  between its two – winding currents by the relation
a. cos  c. tan 
b. sin  d. sin /2

471. A certain four – terminal transmission device has a characteristic impedance of

600 ohms and a propagation constant of 0.5 + j1.0. When terminated with its
characteristic impedance, the ratio of the input voltage to the output voltage is
what?
a. 1.5 c. 0.5
b. 1.65 d. 1.0

472. The line currents in a three – phase four – wire system are I a = (300 + j400) A,
Ib = (200 + j200) A and Ic = (-400 – j200) A. Determine the positive sequence
component of Ia.
a. 27625.6° A c. 276265.6° A
b. 276145.6° A d. 0

49
473. A system is consists of three equal resistors connected in delta and is fed from
a balanced 3 – phase supply. By how much power is reduced if one of the
resistors is disconnected?
a. 33% c. 50%
b. 67% d. 25%
474. A balanced wye – connected load consisting of Z Y = (3 + j4) Ω/phase and a
balanced delta – connected load having Z A = (9 + j12) Ω/phase are connected
to a 220 V three – phase source. On a per – phase basis, calculate the line
current Ia.
a. 50.8 53.13 A c. 5.08 173.13 A
b. 50.8 173.13 A d. 5.08 53.13 A

475. The load on a three phase wye connected 220 V system consists of three 6 Ω
resistance connected in wye and in parallel with three 9 Ω resistance connected
in delta. The magnitude of the line current is
a. 36.66 A c. 42.34 A
b. 24.44 A d. 63.50 A

476. The apparent power input to a balanced wye – connected load is 30 kVA, and
the corresponding true power is 15 kW at 50 A. The phase voltage is
a. 346.4 V c. 230 V
b. 400 V d. 200 V

477. Two purely resistive loads are connected to a 240 V three –phase, 3 – wire
balanced supply. One of 4 kW is connected across lines A and B and the other
of 6 kW is connected across lines B and C. The current in line B is
a. 14.67 A c. 36.3 A
b. 8.33 A d. 41.67 A

478. Three unbalanced 3Φ line voltages are given as follows:

VA = 10 cis 30
VB = 30 cis (-60)
VC = 15 cis 145

What is the negative sequence component of line voltage V C?

a. 8.24 cis (-156.2) c. 8.24 cis (-276.2)
b. 8.24 cis (-36.2) d. 0

479. A 440 V, 70 Hp shunt motor has an armature of 0.185 Ω and field resistance of
350 Ω. The current drawn by this machine is 135 A at full load. If this machine
is to deliver torque equal to 175 per cent of that at full – load, what would be
the resistance of its starter?
a. 2 Ω c. 1.695 Ω
b. 1.2 Ω d. 5.6 Ω

480. The initial rate of current rise in an RL circuit is 300 A/sec when 120 V is
suddenly impressed. If the circuit resistance is 30 Ω, what is the rate of current
change when the current is 2.6 A?
50
 a. 300 A/sec c. 10 A/sec
b. 105 A/sec d. 0.4 A/sec

481. A 230 V single phase meter has a constant load current of 4 A passing through
the meter for 5 hours at unity power factor. If the meter disc makes 1,104
revolutions during this period, the meter constant in revolutions per kW-Hr is
a. 240 c. 480
b. 120 d. 360

482. The armature of a dc machine having 10 poles is rotating at a speed of 10

revolutions per second. The number of hysteresis loops formed per second is
a. 100 c. 150
b. 10 d. 50

483. A 5:1 ratio ideal transformer has a rated primary line voltage of 230 V. If a load
impedance of 4 Ω is connected across the secondary, what will be the primary
impedance?
a. 20 Ω c. 1.25 Ω
b. 100 Ω d. 80 Ω

484. A 500 kVA, 13,200/240 V, three – phase transformer with an impedance of

4.2% is connected to an infinite bus and without load. If a three – phase fault
occurs at the secondary terminals, the fault current in amperes is
a. 26,040 A c. 24,680 A
b. 26,840 A d. 28,640 A

485. A 3 phase balanced system working at 0.9 p.f. lagging has a line loss of 3,600
kW. If p.f. is reduced to 0.6, the line loss would become ___ kW.
a. 8,100 c. 5,400
b. 1,600 d. 4,800

486. A single transmission line has an impedance of (2 + j5) Ω supplies a load of 50

kW at unity p.f. Find the voltage at the receiving end if the sending end is
2,400 volts.
a. 2,300 V c. 2,225 V
b. 2,400 V d. 2,375 V

487. A 55,000 kW thermal power plant of NPC delivers an annual output of 283,000
MWHr with a peak load of 44 MW. The annual load factor of the plant is nearest
to
a. 0.75 c. 0.76
b. 0.72 d. 0.73

488. If a generating station has a maximum load for the year of 18,000 kW and a
load factor of 30.5%, how many units are generated for the year?
a. 5,490,000 kW-Hr c. 59,016,000 kW-Hr
b. 48,092,400 kW-Hr d. 4,590,000 kW-Hr

51
489. Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because
a. it gives bad odor
b. it transfers energy to the ground
c. it reduces power factor
d. it corrodes the material

490. Two 1, 25 kVA transformer are connected in open – delta bank. Determine the
maximum kW the bank can supply without overloading at 0.8 p.f. lagging
a. 43.3 c. 40
b. 34.64 d. 50

491. Two impedances given by Z1 = (10 + j5)  and Z2 = (8 + j6)  are joined in
parallel and connected across a voltage of V = (200 + j0) V. What is the circuit
power?
a. 6,400 W c. 1,600 W
b. 3,200 W d. 800 W

492. A distributor is designed from the point of view of

a. voltage drop
b. current carrying capacity
c. voltage drop and current carrying capacity
d. load capacity

493. The luminous intensity is defined as

a. lumen per square meter
b. luminous flux per unit solid angle
c. illumination per square meter
d. candela per unit solid angle

494. MHO relay is used for

a. rectifier c. transmission lines
b. circuit breakers d. feeders

495. In circuit breaker the time duration from the instant of fault to the instant of
energizing of the trip coil is known as
a. lag time c. protection time
b. lead time d. operation time

496. Twenty tons of water are heated in 12 hours. If water is to be heated from 25C
to 95C, find the kW rating of the heater if its efficiency is 92%.
a. 147 c. 163
b. 136 d. 174

497. What is the generated voltage in a 6 pole, 1200 rpm machine if its lap wound
armature has 8 conductors in each of its 126 slots and a flux density of 57,000
lines per square inch exists over each pole face of 52.2 square inch?
a. 60 V c. 300 V
52
 b. 120 V d. 600 V

498. A capacitor is charged by a steady current of 0.0012 amp for 25 sec. at which
time its emf is 600 volts. What is the energy stored in the capacitor?
a. 6 joules c. 9 joules
b. 3 joules d. 12 joules

499. What is the output current in amperes corresponding to maximum efficiency for
a transformer having core loss of 100 watts and equivalent resistance referred
to the secondary of 0.25 ?
a. 40 A c. 20 A
b. 80 A d. 4 A

500. In transformer, the purpose of breather is to:

a. extract moisture of the air
b. to take insulating oil from conservator
c. to provide cooling to the winding
d. to provide insulation to the winding

501. What is the common unit of the sound absorption coefficient?

a. watt c. sabine
b. erg d. decibel

502. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling

angle of
a. 0 c. 90
b. 45 d. 180

503. The dc armature winding resistance between terminals of a 750 kVA, 4400 volt,
three – phase alternator is 0.9 ohm. Calculate the copper loss in the winding at
the full –load.
a. 13,075 W c. 26,149 W
b. 16,343 W d. 10,800 W

504. It is also known as the polar graph of intensities of illumination

a. Photometric brightness
b. Photosensor
c. Photometric report
d. Photometric distribution

505. What is the frequency range of the electrical equipment used to melt metals
without the use of bunker fuel oil for induction heating?
a. 500 – 1000 Hz c. 1 – 20 kHz
b. 50 – 100 kHz d. 100 – 200 kHz

506. In a series motor, what is the relation of the connection of motor field winding
with respect to the motor armature?
a. series c. series – parallel
53
 b. parallel d. delta

507. If three transformers in  -  are delivering rated load and one transformer is
removed, then what is the overload on each of the remaining transformer in
percent?
a. 173% c. 57.7%
b. 73.3% d. 33.3%

508. A 6 pole, 60 Hz, 1140 rpm induction motor has a starting voltage of 120 volts
across its rotor winding. What is its starting current in amperes if the rotor
resistance is 5  and its blocked rotor reactance is 10 ?
a. 24 c. 9.7
b. 10.7 d. 12

509. What is the minimum number of magnetic contactors to allow forward – reverse
control in the rotation of a motor?
a. 4 c. 2
b. 3 d. 1

510. What is the short – circuit temperature rating of cross –linked polyethylene
(XLPE) cable in C?
a. 150 c. 250
b. 200 d. 300

511. What is the element of the transmission line that supports the cable at the
bottom of the suspension insulator?
a. parallel clamp c. dead end clamp
b. suspension clamp d. strain clamp

512. The field circuit of a 4 pole dc generator has a resistance of 200  and an
inductance of 100 H. If it is connected to a 400 volt supply, find the time taken
for the current to reach 1.5 A
a. 0.125 sec. c. 0.369 sec.
b. 1.5 sec. d. 0.693 sec.

513. Calculate the effective voltage in one phase of an alternator, given the following
particulars: f = 60 cps; turns per phase N = 240; flux per pole  = 2.08 x 106.
a. 1,330 V c. 1,225 V
b. 2,304 V d. 2,122 V

514. When a circuit breaker is selected for a particular application, which one of the
following ratings is usually considered the most important?
a. interrupting rating
b. continuous current rating
c. maximum rms current up to 1 second
d. maximum rms current up to 4 seconds

54
515. Which one of the following switchgear assemblies would most probably be used
in a large industrial plant having several 600 volt meters, an air-conditioning
system, and an extensive lighting system?
a. a low-voltage metal-enclosed switchgear
b. switchgear with SF6 circuit breakers
c. a station-type switchgear
d. a metal-clad switchgear

516. Periodic tests on protective relays are important to the stability of a system
because the tests ensure that the:
a. disconnect switches will work properly
b. “in” and “out” currents will be balanced
c. relays will operate in the proper sequence
d. arcing contacts can carry the main currents

517. If a fault occurs on substation high-voltage bus, the system is protected by a:

a. generator breaker
b. station feeder breaker
c. low-voltage power transformer breaker
d. high-voltage power transformer breaker

518. Which one of the following tests is preferred for checking switchgear insulation?
a. an arc high potential test
b. a dc high potential test
c. megometer test
d. a power factor test

519. In generating and distribution system, current balance is provided by protective

zones which are:
a. used to eliminate reflections on short transmission lines
b. used to trip all circuit breakers I the system
c. isolated during fault by disconnect switches
d. monitored by differential relays

520. In switchgear application, the term “dead front” means that:

a. the front and rear panels are hinged
b. an access door is at the end of the structure
c. no equipment is mounted on the front panel
d. energized parts are not exposed on the front panel

521. The power flow between two electrical systems connected by tie lines is
stabilized by the difference between:
a. voltage magnitude c. phase angles
b. current magnitude d. bearing temperatures

522. A circuit breaker that can be closed against a fault and operated at once,
although the solenoid mechanism may continue through its closing operation, is
said to be:
55
 a. selective c. fully-rated
b. trip-free d. direct current operated

523. A large electric power distribution system is protected against surges and faults
by:
a. protective gaps crossing drain coils
b. high-speed relays detecting the trouble
c. protective relays operating without a time delay
d. radio communication systems using flow frequency

524. If a 15-kV switchgear apparatus is used at an altitude of 1500 meters, the

maximum applied voltage should be:
a. 4900 volts c. 4750 volts
b. 4800 volts d. 4000 volts

525. Which of the following steps is used for isolating a circuit breaker for
maintenance purposes:
a. pull the substation fuses
b. turn off the main generator
c. open the disconnect switches
d. ground the auxiliary

526. It is the reciprocal of the impedance:

a. conductance c. reactance
b. susceptance d. admittance

527. The impedance which when connected to one pair of terminals of a transducer
produces a like impedance at the other pair of terminals:
a. characteristics impedance c. iterative impedance
b. input impedance d. surge impedance

528. In series circuit, resonance is defined as a condition which:

a. the net reactance to zero
b. total voltage is in phase with the current
c. the power factor is unity
d. all of the above

529. The product of the total voltage to the total current is:
a. total power c. reactive power
b. real power d. apparent power

530. In series RLC circuit at resonance, the current is:

a. zero c. maximum
b. minimum d. unity

531. In a variable resistant constant RL series circuit, the locus of the current is a:
a. straight line c. ellipse
56
 b. parabola d. semi-circle

532. The Norton’s equivalent circuit is a:

a. series circuit c. series-parallel circuit
b. parallel circuit d. parallel-series circuit

533. In any network of linear-bilateral impedances, a shift of source voltage E from

one point in a circuit to a second is accompanied by a corresponding shift of
current 1 from the second point to the first. This is known as:
a. Kirchhoff’s laws c. Thevenin’s theorem
b. Norton’s theorem d. Reciprocity theorem

534. In a T method of measuring power in balanced 3-phase system using one

wattmeter, total power is the wattmeter deflection multiplied by:
a. 1 c. 1.732
b. 2 d. 1.5

535. In the current transformer method of measuring power in balanced 3-phase

system one wattmeter, total power is the wattmeter deflection multiplied by:
a. 1 c. 1.732
b. 2 d. 1.5

536. The order of rotation f the coil voltage in a balanced 3-phase system is called:
a. alternation c. phase shift
b. frequency d. phase sequence

537. A balanced two-phase system of voltages consists of two voltage which are
equal and out of phase by:
a. 30 degrees c. 120 degrees
b. 90 degrees d. 150 degrees

538. In a 3-phase synchronous converter, the ratio of the ac voltage to dc voltage

is:
a. 1.0 c. 0.612
b. 0.707 d. 0.50

539. A non-sinusoidal wave is symmetrical if it is made up only of:

a. dc component c. even harmonics
b. triangular wave d. odd harmonics

540. An exchange of conductor positions in transmission line is called:

a. alternation c. transposition
b. bundling d. interpolation

541. A line terminal in its characteristic or surge impedance is called:

a. incident line c. attenuated line
b. reflected line d. flat line
57
542. The total input to the armature at no load minus the armature resistance loss
is:
a. power developed in the armature
b. stray load
c. stray power
d. shunt field loss

543. It is the power required to drive the unexcited dc machine at normal speed with
its brushes lifted:
a. Friction and windage loss
b. Brush friction loss
c. Exciter loss
d. Ventilation loss

544. When a circular breaker is selected for a particular application, which one of the
particular ratings is usually considered most important?
a. interrupting rating c. momentary rating
b. continuous rating d. maximum current rating

545. In starting a 500hp, 2300 volt, 3-phase synchronous motor the field winding is
initiallly short circuited so as to:
a. produce much larger starting torque
b. lower voltage produced between layers of the field winding
c. increased induced voltage in field winding
d. provide better flux distribution in the air gap

546. The ratio of the average load on the plant for the period of time to the
aggregate rating of all generating equipment:
a. plant use factor c. power factor
b. capacity factor d. maintenance factor

547. The ratio of the individual maximum demands of the systems to the overall
maximum demand of the whole system:
a. load factor c. utilization factor
b. diversity factor d. demand factor

548. In parallel operation of alternators, if the excitation of one alternate is changed

it will only change:
a. real power taken by the machine
b. reactive power taken by the machine
c. apparent power taken by the machine
d. synchronizing power of the machine

58
549. In a medium or long line when operated at no load or loaded very slightly, the
receiving end will be found greater than the sending end voltage. This
phenomenon is known as:
a. Skin effect c. corona
b. Ferranti effect d. Thevenin’s theorem

550. For parallel operation of dc generators:

a. the frequency must be the same
b. the voltage must be the same
c. phase sequence must be the same
d. speed must be the same

551. The simplest form of motor controller is:

a. toggle switch c. manual starter
b. magnetic switch d. magnetic control

552. Another name for the magnetic starter is a:

a. manual switch c. manual starter
b. contactor d. magnetic control

553. A 15A fuse is found open, but the services do not have a replacement and has a
choice between a 10A and 30 A fuse. Use the:
a. 10A fuse c. 40A fuse
b. 30A fuse d. 20A fuse

554. What type of overload contains a solder pot?

a. melting alloy c. magnetic
b. bimetallic d. fuse

555. What type of overload operates on the principle of electromagnetism?

a. melting alloy c. magnetic
b. bimetallic d. fuse

556. Low voltage often causes the magnetic control to:

a. gum up c. chatter
b. run more efficiently d. none of the above

557. Rapid stopping of a motor by momentarily connecting the motor in reverse

direction is called:
a. togging c. plugging
b. inching d. sequence operation

558. A hot smokey transformer indicates a/an

a. open c. both (a) and (b)
b. short d. none of the above

559. A sorted motor will draw _____ current

a. low c. both (a) and (b)
59
 b. high d. none of the above

560. 3-phase manual-starting switches are sometimes used to turn on or off motors
up to ______ horsepowers.
a. 5 c. 15
b. 10 d. 20

561. The device used to control a motor from a distant location is the:
a. manual starter c. magnetic controller
b. drum switch d. snap switch

562. Which of the following devices is a type of timer?

a. interval c. percentage
b. pulse d. all of the above

563. The device that controls the flow of air back into chamber of the pneumatic
time relay is the:
a. diaphragm c. shading coil
b. needle valve d. all of the above

564. If the motor runs but fails to stop, the problem may be:
a. open fuse
b. welded holding circuit interlock
c. jogging or plugging duty overload
d. none of the above

565. If the motor runs at half speed or “sits and hums”, look for ________ in the
magnetic controller:
a. an open phase
b. welded holding circuit interlock
c. both (a)and (b)
d. none of the above

566. Repeated starting and stopping is referred to as:

a. stepping c. phasing
b. jogging d. long acceleration time

567. A chattering or humming in magnetic contactor may be due to:

a. broken shading coil c. both (a) and (b)
b. dirty/worn contacts d. none of the above

568. Which of the following contacts should not be piled?

a. cadmium-plated c. both (a) and (b)
b. silver-plated d. none of the above

569. The minimum ampere capacity panel box used today is:
a. 30 c. 100
b. 60 d. 150
60
570. Number 8 wire is generally used for _______ amps:
a. 15 c. 30
b. 20 d. 40

571. Another name for emt is:

a. nonmetallic cable c. conduit
b. flexible metallic cable d. armored clad cable

572. Another name for flexible steel cable is:

a. conduit c. synthetic cable
b. emt d. nonmetallic

573. The common neutral wire is usually ______ in color and connected to a:
a. black; cold water pipe
b. white; circuit breaker or fuse
c. black; circuit breaker or fuse
d. white; cold water pipe

574. A 4-way switch controls a lamp from _____ different locations:

a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

575. The power factor rating of an inductive reactive circuit can be increased by
adding:
a. capacitors c. coils
b. inductors d. fuses

576. The device used to pull wire through conduit is called:

a. wire tongs c. connectors
b. straps d. fish tape

577. The best way to check insulation resistance is with a:

a. voltmeter c. ammeter
b. ohmmeter d. megohmeter

578. To decrease signal strength in strong signal areas use a:

a. splitter c. coupler
b. amplifier d. attenuator

579. Which of the following lamps uses a starting switch?

a. preheat c. instant heat
b. rapid heat d. all of the above

580. Which of the following lamps requires a cooling period prior to restarting?
a. incandescent c. mercury vapor
61
 b. fluorescent d. none of the above

581. The device used to attenuate specific signals is the:

a. drop tap c. splitter
b. line tapoff d. trap

582. The wire that is shielded is:

a. flat twinlead c. coaxial
b. foam-filled twinlead d. all of the above

583. Which of the following wires has 75-ohm impedance:

a. flat twinlead c. coaxial
b. foam-filled twinlead d. none of the above

584. The maximum capacity for a general 20A general-purpose appliance circuit is
approximately:
a. 1500 watts c. 2400 watts
b. 1800 watts d. 2800 watts

585. The type of thermostat most commonly used in appliance with heating
elements is the:
a. magnetic relay c. bimetallic
b. circuit breaker d. all of the above

586. Most heating appliances use a cord made of:

a. rubber c. both (a) and (b)
b. asbestos cover d. all of the above

587. Insulators are commonly made of:

a. ceramic c. porcelain
b. mica d. all of the above

588. Most cordless electric slicing knives use a charge unit and:
a. rectifier c. diode
b. battery pack d. none of the above

589. Heating elements can be repaired by a ______ tube which crimps the two
broken elements together:
a. nickel/silver c. wire
b. aluminum d. aluminum/nickel

590. Most heating elements can be checked by using a/an:

a. ammeter c. ohmmeter
b. wattmeter d. growler

591. One of the most common problems of a hair blower/styler is defective:

a. cord c. thermostat
62
 b. transistor d. SCR

592. An overheated cord often indicates:

a. corroded terminals c. both (a) and (b)
b. defective cord d. none of the above

593. The insulation used in most water heater is:

a. fiberglass c. both (a) and (b)
b. rock wool d. none of the above

594. When examining a dead set, which item(s) should be checked?

a. power supply diodes c. open filament
b. fuse d. all of the above

595. The decibel reading for proper separation between channels of multiplex unit is:
a. 50 dB c. 20 dB
b. 10 dB d. 40 dB

596. If only none of the transistors is a push-pull, amplifier is bad:

a. replace only the bad one c. (a) or (b)
b. replace both of them d. none of the above

597. When using an ohmmeter to identify a short, the ohmmeter reading should
indicate:
a. zero c. 100 kilo ohms
b. infinite d. 1 mega ohms

598. Is used to change the sequence in which the units may be placed in and out of
service in multiple unit equipment:
a. reversing switch c. accelerating switch
b. starting switch d. unit sequence switch

599. To join two rigid steel conduits use:

a. tape c. clamp
b. coupling d. locknut

600. The power factor of an induction motor is:

a. leading c. lagging
b. unity d. zero

601. A lamp maybe controlled from three different points by:

a. 2-way c. 3-way
b. 4-way d. selector

602. Electromotive force is measured by:

a. ammeter c. ohmmeter
b. voltmeter d. wattmeter

63
603. This refers to the circuit conductor between the series equipment and the
branch circuit over current device:
a. service drop c. service entrance
b. feeder d. secondary

604. One advantage of the aluminum over copper wire is:

a. higher ampacity c. available commercially
b. higher resistance d. cheaper

605. This device converts as to dc:

a. inverter c. compensator
b. rectifier d. transformer

606. The unit by which electric energy is sold is the:

a. kW-hr c. ampere-hr
b. W-hr d. lumens

607. Ohm is the unit of:

a. capacitance c. power
b. reluctance d. resistance

608. Burrs on sharp edges in the inside of a rigid steel conduit end are removed with
the use of:
a. reamer c. knife
b. wrench d. plier

609. It is a lubricant that is used to make pulling wires/cables through conduit

easier:
a. resin c. talc
b. iron filing d. grease

610. One horsepower is approximately:

a. 2000 watts c. 750 watts
b. 1500 watts d. 850 watts

611. It is a device that is used to interrupt fault current without injury to itself:
a. fuse c. cut-out
b. circuit breaker d. regulator

612. It is used for direct measurement of electrical insulation:

a. megger c. micrometer
b. volt ammeter d. growler

613. 30A is one of the five special branch circuits rating with a circuit conductor of:
a. 2 mm2 c. 5.5 mm2
b. 3.5 mm2 d. 8 mm2

64
614. The unit of an electrical system which is intended to carry but not utilize
electrical energy is:
a. device c. serving drop
b. branch circuit d. service equipment

615. The main contacts of circuit breaker are most likely to be operated by a:
a. vacuum c. mimic rays
b. solenoid d. heavy duty switch

616. In switch gear application, the term “dead front” means that:
a. the front and rear panels are hinged
b. an access door is at the end of the structure
c. no equipment is mounted on the front panel
d. energized parts are not exposed on the front panel

617. The current that a breaker must be able to carry immediately after a fault
occurs is known as:
a. interrupting current c. exciting current
b. short-circuit current d. momentary current

618. There is no zero sequence component of the fault current for:

a. symmetrical fault
b. single line to ground fault
c. line to line ground fault
d. double line to ground fault

619. When the primary and secondary windings take the form of a common ring
which is encircled by two or more rings of magnetic material distributed around
its periphery, the transformer is termed as:
a. grounding transformer
b. regulating transformer
c. core type transformer
d. shell type transformer

620. When alternating current is passing through a conductor here is a tendency for
the current to crows near the surface of the conductor. This is known as:
a. corona c. resistivity
b. skin effect d. magnetization

621. Ratio of lumens reaching the work plane divided by the total lumens generated
by the lights:
a. coefficient of utilization
b. illumination factor
c. maintenance factor
d. room ratio

622. The inner strand of ACSR cable is made of:

a. copper c. lead
65
 b. brass d. steel

623. It is used to join a length of conduit with another:

a. tape c. bushing
b. coupling d. clamp

624. Pin insulators are made of:

a. paper c. mica
b. porcelain d. copper

625. A complete path over which an electric current can flow is:
a. load c. circuit
b. transmission line d. resistance

626. The power factor of an induction motor is:

a. leading c. zero
b. 100% d. lagging

627. Branch circuit conductors applying a single motor shall have an ampacity of not
less than ______ percent of full load current rating:
a. 125 c. 150
b. 115 d. 200

628. In house wiring, grounded conductors must not be:

a. fused c. placed in conduit
b. insulated d. mechanically protected

629. Which of the following materials is the best conductor of electricity?

a. nichrome c. tungsten
b. aluminum d. copper

630. What test is commonly made on cables after insulation:

a. insulation c. conductance
b. resistance d. impedance

631. What is the maximum number of quarter bends (90 degrees) allowed in rigid
metal conduit wiring between boxes?
a. no limit c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

632. It is a point in the wiring system at which current is taken to supply utilization
equipment:
a. junction box c. feeder
b. pull box d. outlet

633. To protect a circuit from circuit conditions, ________ is used:

a. recloser c. disconnect switch
b. fuse d. alarm
66
634. What will happen if a 230 volt airconditioner is connected to a 115 volt line?
a. current will be less than normal
b. it runs slower
c. it will burn out
d. it will overspeed

635. Ampacity of No. 14AWG TW, three wire copper conductor cable at 30° ambient
is:
a. 15 amperes c. 25 amperes
b. 20 amperes d. 30 amperes

636. Split knobs are made of:

a. wood c. copper
b. brass d. porcelain

637. A device with a blank cover in a run of raceway to facilitate pulling in of

conductors is the:
a. coupling c. outlet box
b. elbow d. bushing

638. In an AC circuit, current equals:

a. E/R c. E2
b. IR d. E/Z

639. AC voltages may be increased or decreased by means of /an:

a. induction motor c. rheostat
b. transformer d. rectifier

640. An ammeter is connected:

a. across c. series
b. in conjunction d. series or parallel

641. To determine the positive wire in a single phase ac circuit:

a. use a neon lamp tester
b. use an ammeter
c. use a phase sequence meter
d. is impossible

642. Which of the following is the smallest size wire?

a. No. 20 c. No. 2
b. No. 10 d. No. 00

643. In open wire installation, the wires are supported on:

a. post insulators c. strain insulators
b. tubes d. knobs

644. Which of the following can reduce starting current of a large ac motor?
67
 a. magnetic starter c. compensator
b. capacitor d. rectifier

645. No wire smaller than number _______ is allowed for general interior wiring:
a. 12 c. 16
b. 14 d. 18

646. The power factor of a circuit is approximately 100% if the circuit load consists
only of:
a. reactance coils c. motors
b. capacitors d. incandescent lamps

647. A mill is equal to:

a. 0.001 of an inch c. 0.745 of an inch
b. one inch d. none of the above

648. The filament of incandescent lamps is made of:

a. copper c. aluminum
b. silver d. tungsten

649. Operating stick for disconnect switches is made of:

a. Steel c. wood
b. aluminum d. brass

650. The common dry cell gives a voltage of about:

a. 1 volt c. 1.5 volts
b. 10 volts d. 3 volts

651. A transformer or generator inserted in a circuit to correct the voltage is called:

a. rheostat c. ohmmeter
b. current transformer d. potential transformer

652. It may be used to identify blown out fuses in a live circuit:

a. ammeter c. ohmmeter
b. voltmeter d. test lamp

653. The relationship between voltage, current and resistance in a dc circuit is

called:
a. Boyle’s law c. Kirchhoff’s law
b. Kelvin’s law d. Ohm’s law

654. It is used for transformer cores:

a. cast iron c. brass
b. steel d. aluminum

655. Which appliance has the largest consumption of electricity?

a. radio c. air conditioner
b. television d. toaster
68
656. A megger us used to measure:
a. insulation resistance c. conductance
b. inductance d. capacitance

657. It is used to measure the diameter of wires:

a. micrometer c. caliper
b. spring balance d. wire gauge

658. What kind of motor can be reversed by interchanging any two leads?
a. split phase c. series
b. shunt d. three phase

659. What are used on the outside of the box whenever the conduit enters an outlet
box
a. bushing c. couplings
b. locknuts d. elbows

660. It is used to correct the power factor of fluorescent lamp?

a. rectifier c. starter
b. varmeter d. capacitor

661. It refers to the circuit conductors between the service equipment and the
branch circuit over current device:
a. service drop c. service entrance
b. feeder d. secondary

662. It is an enclosure for surface or flush mounting with a frame in which swinging
doors are hung:
a. raceway c. cabinet
b. switchboard d. outlet

663. Comparing No. 12 and No. 18 bare copper wires of equal length, the No. 12
wire will have lower:
a. weight c. iron
b. resistance d. carbon

664. If a fuse of higher than required current rating is employed in a circuit, it will:
a. blow more frequently since it carried more current
b. afford better protection to the circuit
c. seriously overload the circuit
d. lead t larger maintenance

665. For flexible cable, most suitable insulation is:

a. magnesium oxide c. insulation tape
b. glass fiber d. polyvinyl chloride

666. Out of the following, select the best conductor of electricity:

69
 a. graphite c. porcelain
b. china clay d. none of these

667. The specific resistance p is defined as:

a. resistance of a conductor which has a length of 1m and cross-section
1m2 at 25°C
b. resistance of any conductor at 25°C
c. resistance of any conductor at 20°C
d. resistance of a conductor which has a length of 1m and a cross-section of
1cm2 at 25°C

668. The value of joules mechanical equivalent of heat J, is equal to:

a. 4.2 calories per joule
b. 4.2 calories per calorie
c. 2.4 joules per calorie
d. 4.2 joules

669. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature coefficient of
resistance?
a. carbon c. copper
b. porcelain d. manganin

670. A buffer battery is used for:

a. the same purpose as floating battery
b. interconnecting dc generator and standby battery
c. trickle charge
d. decreasing variations of the voltage and the current supplied by dc
generator

671. The scale of an indicating instrument whose each division represents the same
value is known as ______ scale:
a. digital c. numbered
b. square law d. linear

672. Rotating field instrument is a/an ______ instrument:

a. thermal c. electrodynamic
b. bimetallic d. induction

673. For maximum power transfer according to maximum power theorem source
impedance:
a. must be very much larger as compared to the load impedance
b. must be complex conjugate of lad impedance
c. must be very small as compared to the load impedance
d. must be equal to load impedance

674. An instrument which is used for measuring temperature variations by change in

metallic resistance is called a:
a. thermopile c. bolometer
70
 b. thermocouple d. thermo-galvanometer

675. The instrument which is used for determining the magnetic characteristics of
ferr0-magnetic substances is called a:
a. flux meter c. permeameter
b. magnetometer d. hysteresis meter

676. Ondograph is an instrument which is used for recording:

a. wave shape of voltage or current
b. instantaneous value of voltage or current
c. over voltages with the help of brush discharge
d. synchronism of two ac voltages or voltage systems

677. In the list below, which is not a type of present day nuclear power plant?
a. boiling water reactor
b. low pressure reactor
c. fusion fission reactor
d. fast breeder reactor

678. A device which measures speed while flashing at a pre-set frequency is called
a:
a. stroboscope c. electroscope
b. oscilloscope d. synchronoscope

679. Nuclear fission is similar to fusion in the sense that it also:

a. involves neutrons
b. is initiated by protons
c. needs high temperature
d. results in release of large amount of energy

680. Piezo electricity principle is applied in one of the following:

a. ultrasound equipment c. microphones
b. thermometer d. TV sets

681. The condition in Ohm’s law is that:

a. ration V/l should be constant
b. current should be proportional to voltage
c. the temperature should remain constant
d. the temperature should vary

682. When current flows in a conductor, heat is produced because:

a. heat a l2 c. of interatomic collision
b. of electronic collision d. of Joule’s law

683. Ohm’s law is applicable to:

a. electric arc c. gas discharge lamps
b. rectifying devices d. none of these

71
684. Ohm’s law can be applied with certain reservation to:
a. rectifiying devices c. electrolytes
b. semiconductors d. thermionic valves

685. Resistors commonly used in power circuits are:

a. carbon resistor c. wire wound resistors
b. etched circuit resistors d. deposited metal resistors

686. The combined resistance of two equal resistors connected in parallel is equal to
______ to the resistance of one resistor:
a. one half c. four times
b. twice d. one fourth

687. The voltage drop per ampere-meter of an aluminum conductor is higher as

compared to a copper conductor of the same size due to its higher:
a. insulation resistance c. conductivity
b. resistivity d. current density

688. A natural magnet is called:

a. steel c. magnetism
b. lodestone d. soft iron

689. Externally, magnetic line of force travel:

a. south to north c. north to south
b. negatie to positive d. in both directions

690. A material commonly used for shielding or screening magnetism is:

a. brass c. copper
b. aluminum d. soft iron

691. Bakelite is classified as:

a. flammable c. combustion resistant
b. incombustible d. semiconductor

692. In most electric irons, the thermostat used for controlling temperature is:
a. vapor-filled tub c. high-expansion steel rod
b. bimetallic strip d. thermopile

693. If a 220V heater is used on 110V supply, heat produced by it will be as ______
much:
a. one half c. one fourth
b. twice d. four times

694. The current carrying capacity of a Cu wire having the twice the diameter of
another Cu wire as _____ as great:
a. twice c. half
b. four times d. three times

72
695. For a given line voltage, four heating coils will produced maximum heat when
connected:
a. all in parallel
b. all in series
c. with two parallel pairs in series
d. one pair in parallel with the other two in series

696. The electric energy required to raise the temperature of a given amount of
water is 1000 kWh. If the heat losses are 25%, the total heating energy
required is kWh.
a. 1500 c. 1333
b. 1250 d. 1000

697. Nichrome is commonly used for:

a. lamp filaments c. heater coils
b. transformer d. battery connections

698. Iron becomes magnetized by induction when it is:

a. heated
b. near to one end of a magnet
c. suspended east and west
d. treated with some chemicals

699. Maxwell’s loop current method of solving electrical networks:

a. uses branch currents
b. utilizes Kirchhoff’s voltage law
c. is confined to single-op circuits
d. is a network reduction method

700. Testing a blown cartridge fuse by connecting a test lamp from one slip to the
other of the suspected fuse will always indicate a:
a. blown fuse if lamp remains dark
b. blown fuse if lamp lights up
c. good fuse if lamp lights up
d. good fuse if lamp remains dark

701. For testing insulation between the heating element and the body of an electric
iron, you would preferably use:
a. ohmmeter c. megger
b. lamp and battery tester d. capacitor bridge

702. Kirchhoff’s voltage law (KVL) is connected with:

a. IR drops c. junction voltages
b. battery efms d. both (a) and (b)

703. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having _______

elements:
a. non-linear c. linear
73
 b. passive d. resistive

704. Permeance is analogous to:

a. conductance c. reluctance
b. resistance d. none of these

705. When the magnetic flux (Ø) and the area (A) under its influence are known, the
magnetic flux density (B) can be given as:
a. B = Ø X A c. B = A / Ø
b. B = Ø / A d. B = Ø x A2

706. The relative permeability of paramagnetic substance is:

a. slightly less than 1
b. equal to 1
c. slightly greater than 1
d. very much greater than 1

707. The magnetization in any magnetic material appears as a result of:

a. electrons orbital motion
b. electron spin
c. spin of the nucleus about its axis
d. all of these
708. Which of the following materials does not have permanent magnetic dipole:
a. Paramagnetic c. diamagnetic
b. anti-ferromagnetic d. ferromagnetic

709. Interaction between the neighboring dipoles is negligible in case of:

a. paramagnetic material
b. diamagnetic material
c. anti-ferromagnetic material
d. ferromagnetic material

710. Each Ferromagnetic material has characteristic temperature above which its
properties are quite different from those below the temperature. This
temperature is called:
a. Transition temperature
b. Faraday’s temperature
c. Demagnetization temperature
d. Curie temperature

711. The relative permeability u for iron is:

a. 5000 c. 3000
b. 7000 d. 1000

712. Which of the following material is used for making permanent magnets:
a. Carbon steel
b. Platinum cobalt
c. Alnico V
74
 d. All three mentioned above

713. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. Whenever the flux linking with the coil or circuit changes emf is produced
b. The direction of dynamically induced emf can be determined by Flemings
right hand rule
c. Coefficient of coupling for tightly coupled coil is zero
d. The coefficient of self-inductance is proportional to the square of number of
turns on it

714. Ferromagnetic materials generally behave as a:

a. semi-conductor c. insulator
b. conduction d. any a,b or c

715. Eddy current loss can be minimized by:

a. decreasing the resistance of magnetic medium
b. increasing the resistance of magnetic medium
c. decreasing the permeability of magnetic medium
d. none of these

716. A collapsing field around a coil:

a. tends to oppose the decay of coil current
b. helps the decay of coil current
c. tends to aid current flow reversal
d. does not effect the coil current flow

717. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

a. magnetic potential c. magnetic field intensity
b. flux density d. relative permeability

718. Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an emf is induced in that conductor.
Above statement is due to:
a. Joule’s law c. Faraday’s law
b. Coulomb’s law d. Weber and Ewings theory

719. In the left hand, thumb always represents:

a. voltage
b. current
c. direction of force on conductor
d. magnetic field

720. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is
compared with which parameter of electric circuit?
a. emf c. conductivity
b. current density d. current

721. The law that induces emf and current always opposes the cause producing
them was discovered by:
75
 a. Lenz c. Maxwell
b. Farady d. Ohm

722. The location of lightning arrester is:

a. near the transformer
b. near the circuit
c. away from the transformer
d. none of the above

723. Iron core material of inductors used in radio at high frequencies:

a. is laminated
b. has low permeability
c. reduces inductances as well as losses
d. is called ferrite

724. Air-gap in the iron core of an inductor prevents:

a. core saturation c. flux leakage
b. hysteresis loss d. transformer

725. The time constant of an inductive circuit is defined as the ratio of:
a. R / L c. Lt / R
b. Rt / L d. L / R

726. The coupling coefficient denotes:

a. the degree of magnetic linkage
b. whether the reluctance remains constant
c. the variation of inductance between the two coils
d. whether the flux linkage is constant

727. It is difficult to magnetize steel because of its:

a. low permeability c. high permeability
b. high retentivity d. high density

728. Hysteresis losses can be reduced by:

a. using grain-oriented silicon steel
b. increasing the frequency of the field
c. laminating the core
d. none of these

729. The purpose of shielding a meter with soft iron is to:

a. prevent damage rough use
b. keep moisture out of movement
c. protect meter movement from stray magnetic fields
d. achieve all of the above

730. A solid piece of iron:

a. is less desirable than a laminated core
b. is an excellent core material for low frequencies
76
 c. reduces losses in an inductor
d. is the only suitable core for radio frequencies

731. The hysteresis loss can be minimized by selecting a magnetic material having:
a. large B /H loop area
b. high resistivity
c. high retentivity
d. low hysteresis coefficient

732. The hysteresis loss in a given specimen of a magnetic material may be

decreased by:
a. increasing flux density through it
b. increasing frequency of reversal of magnetization
c. laminating it
d. decreasing maximum flux density established through it

733. In electrical machines, laminated cores used with view to reducing:

a. hysteresis loss c. friction loss
b. eddy current loss d. copper loss

734. The process by which metallic parts are demagnetized is called:

a. demagnetizing c. degrading
b. degaussing d. degreasing

735. The absolute permitivity of vacuum is taken as:

a. 8.854 x 10-6 farad/m c. 8.854 x 10-9 farad/m
-12
b. 8.854 x 10 farad/m d. none of the above

736. The unit of field intensity is:

a. coulomb c. newtons/coulomb
b. coulomb/m2 d. None of the above

737. If a test lamp lights up when connected in series with a capacitor and a suitable
dc supply, it clearly shows that the capacitor is:
a. short-circuited c. fully-discharged
b. fully-charged d. open-circuit

738. The electrical equipment occasionally connected across relay contacts for
minimizing arcing is a/an:
a. resistor c. carbon tip
b. inductor d. capacitor

739. A charge of 100 coulombs are transferred I a circuit by a current of 1A. Time
taken by this current is ______ seconds:
a. 1 c. 100
b. 10 d. 1000

77
740. One of the best ways to check for an open electrolytic capacitor in a circuit is
to:
a. temporarily connect a known good capacitor across it
b. remove it and insert a good one
c. measure d voltage across it
d. use capacitor checker

741. Which one of the following types of capacitor is polarized?

a. electrolytic c. paper
b. ceramic d. mylar

742. Present day capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a
dielectric of:
a. paper c. ceramic
b. rubber d. mylar

743. Dielectric strength of a material depends on:

a. moisture content c. temperature
b. thickness d. all of the above

744. Which medium has highest value of dielectric strength?

a. glass c. porcelain
b. mica d. quartz

745. Capacitors are said to

a. block ac and pass dc c. pass ac and dc
b. block dc and pass ac d. block ac and dc

746. The effect of the dielectric is to

a. increase the capacitance
b. decrease the capacitance
c. reduce the working voltage
d. increase the distance between the plates

747. One farad is

a. coulomb-Joule c. Joule per volt
b. one coulomb per volt d. one volt per coulomb

748. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is

a. maximum
b. minimum
c. zero
d. depends on the size and voltage

749. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in

a. metal plates
b. dielectric
78
 c. dielectric as well as metal plates
d. none of the above

750. If a dielectric is placed in an electric field, the field strength

a. decreases c. remain the same
b. increases d. becomes zero

751. A capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time constant of the

charging circuit is given by
a. RC c. C/R
b. 1/(RC) d. R/C

752. A circuit component that opposes the changes in the circuit voltage is
a. resistance c. capacitance
b. inductance d. none of the above

753. The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the

quantity which passes through the electrolyte. The above statement is
associated with
a. Gauss’ theorem c. Weber and Ewing’s theory
b. Laplace law d. Law of electrolysis

754. In electroplating, the positive electrode is called the

a. cathode c. anode
b. terminal d. iontrap

755. One factor affecting voltages of the primary cells is the

a. area of the plates
b. distance between the plates
c. types of plates and electrolytes
d. thickness of the plates

756. The condition of a liquid electrolyte is measured in terms of its

a. current value c. acid content
b. specific gravity d. voltage output

757. The action in the primary cell can be rectified by

a. chemical action to mechanical energy
b. chemical action to electrical energy
c. electrical energy to mechanical energy
d. electrical energy to magnetic energy

758. The two main effects of the primary cell are

a. polarization and sulfation
b. local action and polarization
c. bucking and polarization
79
 d. sulfation and bucking

759. Cells are connected in parallel to

a. increase the internal resistance
b. decrease the current capacity
c. increase the current capacity
d. increase the voltage output

760. The composition of secondary cell is

a. zinc, copper and dilute sulfuric acid
b. zinc, carbon and dilute sulfuric acid
c. lead, lead peroxide and dilute sulfuric acid
d. none of the above

761. The condition of a secondary cell can be determined by

a. its terminal voltage
b. the color of the electrolyte
c. level of the electrolyte
d. the terminal voltage and strength of the electrolyte

762. Electrolyte of a storage battery is formed by adding

a. water to hydrochloric acid c. hydrochloric acid to water
b. sulfuric acid to water d. water to sulfuric acid

763. Lead is the metal which is commonly used for

a. transformer core c. electromagnets
b. storage batteries d. knife-switch blades

764. When liquid level in a lead-acid cell is low, the proper remedy is to
a. add only distilled water
b. add weak acid solution
c. empty out the cell and replace the entire solution
d. do nothing till plates becomes fully exposed

765. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully-charged lead-
acid cell are
a. lead peroxide and pure lead
b. pure lead and lead sulfate
c. lead peroxide and lead sulfate
d. pure lead and pure lead

766. A lead acid battery should not be left in discharged state for long otherwise
a. acid will evaporate
b. plates will become sulfated
c. electrolyte will start attacking the plates
d. terminals will get corroded

80
767. When making new electrolyte by mixing sulfuric acid and water, acid should be
poured into water to avoid
a. corrosion of mixing vessel
b. use of too much acid
c. making initial mixture too weal
d. generation of excess heat

768. A battery:
a. always absorbs water
b. always delivers power
c. can absorb or deliver power depending upon the circuit to which it is
connected
d. absorbs power when the internal resistance is non-zero but delivers power
when the internal resistance is zero

769. Which of the following gives best indication of a fully-charged battery?

a. open-circuit cell voltage
b. level of electrolyte
c. specific gravity
d. temperature of the electrolyte

770. A battery is said to be ‘floating’ on the battery-bus when

a. its supplied at the load
b. its voltage is higher than the bus voltage
c. charger is shut down
d. battery voltage equals the charger voltage

771. The storage battery most commonly used in industry today is _______ battery:
a. silver-zinc c. zinc cadmium
b. lead acid d. nickel cadmium

772. Distilled water is variably used in electrolytes because it:

a. prevents polarization
b. prevents local action
c. accelerates electrochemical action
d. improves specific gravity of the electrolyte

773. The action of all batteries is dependent on:

a. dilute sulfuric acid c. electrochemical action
b. electrolysis d. lead peroxide

774. High battery voltages can be obtained by:

a. connecting cells in series
b. connecting cells in parallel
c. using large size cells
d. increasing quantity of electrolyte

775. The specific gravity of a lead-acid cells is often used as a measure of its:
81
 a. rate of discharge c. state of charge
b. operating temperature d. life expectancy

776. The sole purpose of using separators in a storage battery is to prevent the
plates from:
a. touching the container c. shorting together
b. touching the electrolyte d. shorting to the bottom

777. The most important advantage of nickel-cadmium battery over a nickel-iron

battery is its:
a. higher voltage
b. greater strength
c. ability to hold a charge
d. all of the above

778. The most common impurity found in the battery electrolyte is:
a. sodium chloride c. lead
b. iron d. dust

779. Excessive overcharging of a lead-acid battery will cause:

a. increased internal resistance
b. excessive gassing
c. loss of water
d. all of the above

780. Main difference between primary and secondary cells is that secondary cells:
a. give higher voltage c. store electric charge
b. absorb hydrogen d. can be charged

781. The ampere hour capacity of battery depends on:

a. the thickness of the plates
b. the area of the plates
c. the strength of the electrolytes
d. the distance between the plates

782. The internal resistance of a discharged battery:

a. is more c. remains constant
b. is less d. is negative

783. A partially discharged lead storage lead storage battery may be brought back to
full charge by:
a. adding sulfuric acid
b. adding distilled water
c. applying ac voltage across the terminal
d. applying dc voltage across the terminal

784. Charging a lead-acid cell causes the electrolyte to become :

a. stronger c. weaker
82
 b. stable d. water

785. A cell which is used as voltage reference source for instrument calibration is:
a. solar cell
b. dry cell
c. mercury-cadmium cell
d. nickel-cadmium cell

786. A fuel cell converts _______ energy into electrical energy:

a. mechanical c. chemical
b. magnetic d. solar

787. The output voltage of a single loop generator is a:

a. steady dc c. pulsating dc
b. steady ac d. pulsating ac

788. What effect on current flow does reversing the direction of movement of a
conductor in the magnetic field of a generator have :
a. neutralizes the current flow
b. has no effect on current
c. it reverses the direction of current flow
d. none of the above

789. In most generators the output voltage is induced by:

a. rotating magnetic field past stationary coils
b. relative motion between the field and the armature coils
c. converting electrical energy into mechanical energy
d. none of the above

790. What classification is given to a dc generator that receives its field excitation
current from internal source?
a. self-excited c. separately-excited
b. controlled excite d. internally excited

791. The shunt filed of a compound generator is connected across both series field
and the armature. This connection is known as:
a. short shunt c. differential compound
b. long shunt d. cumulative compound

792. In a DC generator, the flux is seen to be _____ at the trailing pole tips and also
______ at the leading pole tips:
a. weakened, weakened c. crowded, weakened
b. weakened, crowded d. same, same

793. Electric dc generators have normally, an overall efficiency of the order of:
a. 60-80% c. 80-90%
b. 75-85% d. 85-95%

83
794. Residual magnetism is necessary in a:
a. separately excited generator
b. self excited generator
c. both of these
d. none of these

795. The armature magnetic field has effect that:

a. it demagnetizes or weakens the main flux
b. it cross magnetizes, or distorts it
c. it magnetizes or strengthens the main flux
d. (a) and (b)

796. In the commutation process it is the:

a. current which is getting reversed
b. voltage which is getting reversed
c. both of these
d. none of these

797. In any DC generator, the emf generated in the armature is maximum when:
a. rate of change of flux linked is minimum
b. rate of change of flux is maximum
c. flux linked with conductor is maximum
d. flux linked with conductor is minimum

798. A simple method of increasing the voltage of a DC generator is:

a. to decrease the air gap flux density
b. to increase the speed if rotation
c. to decrease the speed of rotation
d. to increase the length of the armature

799. The function of interpole or compole is:

a. to neutralize the reactance voltage and help in commutation process
b. to neutralize the cross-magnetizing effect of armature reaction
c. to neutralize the demagnetizing effect of the armature
d. (a) and (b)

800. Critical resistance of a DC generator Rc

a. Rc α (speed)-1 c. Rc α (speed)2
b. Rc α (speed) d. Rc α (speed)-2

801. Interpoles are connected in _____ with the armature and compensating
windings are connected in _______ with the armature:
a. series, series c. shunt, series
b. series, shunt d. shunt, shunt

802. Generators are often preferred to be run in parallel because of having the
advantages of:
a. great reliability
84
 b. generator efficiency
c. meeting greater load demands
d. all of the above

803. Shunt generator are used where the main requirement is a constant:
a. current and voltage
b. current
c. voltage over a wide load range
d. voltage over a narrow load range

804. Equalizer connections are required when paralleling two:

a. compound generators c. shunt generators
b. series generators d. none of the above

805. Interpoles are normally connected in:

a. parallel with the field c. parallel with the field
b. series with the field d. series with the load

806. DC generator preferred for charging automobile batteries is:

a. shunt generator
b. series generator
c. long shunt compound generator
d. none of the above

807. Which loss in DC generator varies with the load

a. copper loss c. hysteresis loss
b. eddy current loss d. windage loss

808. The armature of a DC generator is laminated to:

a. reduce the bulk
b. insulate the core
c. reduce eddy current loss
d. provide passage for cooling air

809. In a shunt generator, the voltage built up generally restricted by:

a. speed limitation c. saturation of iron
b. armature heating d. none of the above

810. With DC generator, which of the following regulation is preferred:

a. 1% regulation c. infinite regulation
b. 50% regulation d. 100% regulation

811. The function of the commutator in a DC generator is:

a. to change alternating current into direct current
b. to improve commutation
c. for easy speed control
d. to change alternating voltage into direct voltage

85
812. Carbon brushes are used in electric motors to:
a. brush off carbon deposits on the commutator
b. provide a path for flow of current
c. prevent overheating of armature windings
d. prevent sparking during commutation

813. The speed of a DC motor is:

a. directly proportional to back emf and inversely proportional to flux
b. inversely proportional to back emf and directly proportional to flux
c. directly proportional to emf as well as flux
d. inversely proportional to emf as well as flux

814. An external resistance is added in the series with the field of a DC shunt motor.
When the motor runs, the effect of resistance:
a. to reduce the speed of the motor
b. to increase the speed of the motor
c. to reduce the armature current drawn by the motor
d. to reduce the losses

815. If the speed of the DC shunt motor increases, the back emf:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remain constant
d. decreases and then increases

816. In a DC motor iron losses occur in:

a. the yoke c. the field
b. the armature d. none of these

817. The current flowing in the conductors of a DC motor will:

a. AC c. AC as well as DC
b. DC d. transients

818. As the load is increased, the speed of a DC shunt motor will:

a. remain constant c. increase slightly
b. increase proportionately d. reduce slightly

819. One DC motor drives another DC motor. The second DC motor when excited
and driven:
a. runs
b. does not run as a generator
c. runs as a generator
d. also runs as a motor

820. In dc shunt motors, if the terminal voltage is reduced to half and torque
remains the same, then:
a. speed will be half and armature current also will be half
b. speed will be half but armature current remains the same
86
 c. speed will be half and armature current becomes double
d. speed and armature current will remain the same

821. The torque of a motor is:

a. the force in N-m acting on the rotor
b. the product of tangential force on the rotor and its radius
c. the electrical power in KW
d. the power given to load being driven by the motor

822. The power stated on the name plate of any motor is always:
a. the output power at the shaft
b. the power drawn in KVA
c. the power in KW
d. the gross power

823. The speed of a series motor at no load is:

a. Zero c. 1800 rpm
b. 3000 rpm d. infinity

824. A starter is necessary to start a DC motor because:

a. it starts the motor
b. it limits the speed of the motor
c. it limits the back emf t a safe value
d. it limits the starting current to a safe value

825. The direction of rotation of a DC motor is reversed by:

a. reversing armature connections
b. interchanging the armature and field current
c. adding resistance to field current
d. reversing supply connection

826. Which of the following is a correct statement about a series motor?

a. its field winding consists of thicker wire and less turns
b. it an run easily without load
c. it has am almost constant speed
d. it has poor torque

827. If the back emf in a DC motor is absent, then:

a. motor will run at very high speed
b. motor will run at very low sped
c. motor will not run at all
d. motor will burn

828. A series motor is started without load. The effect is that:

a. the torque increases rapidly
b. the speed increases rapidly
c. the current drawn increases rapidly
d. the back emf decreases
87
829. If the field of a DC shunt motor is opened:
a. it will continue to run at its rated speed
b. the speed of the motor will become very high
c. the motor will stop
d. the speed of motor will decrease

830. Interpoles are meant for:

a. increasing the speed of the motor
b. decreasing counter emf
c. reducing sparking at the commutator
d. converting armature current to dc

831. Armature reaction is attributed to:

a. the effect of magnetic field set-up by the armature current
b. the effect of magnetic field set-up by field current
c. copper loss in the armature
d. the effect of magnetic field set-up by the back emf

832. When the electric train is moving down a hill the DC motor acts as:
a. DC series motor
b. DC shunt motor
c. DC series generator
d. DC shunt generator

833. Which of the following motors is suitable for high starting torque?
a. shunt motor
b. cumulative compound motor
c. series motor
d. compound motor

834. It is preferable to start a DC series motor with some mechanical load on it

because:
a. it will not un at no load
b. it acts as starter to the motor
c. it may develop excessive speed and damage itself
d. none of these

835. If the flux of a DC motor approaches zero, its speed will approach:
a. infinity
b. zero
c. a stable value nearer to the speed
d. none of these

836. As the load is increased, the speed of a shunt motor:

a. remains constant c. reduces slightly
b. increases slightly d. none of these
88
837. The main function of a commutator in DC motor is to:
a. prevent sparking c. reduce friction
b. convert AC to DC d. convert DC to AC

838. A 60 Hz frequency would cause an electric light to:

a. turn on and off 120 times per second
b. flicker noticeable
c. turn on and off 180 ties per second
d. turn on and off 60 times per second

839. The greatest value attained during one half of the cycle is called the:
a. peak value c. RMS value
b. average value d. effective value

840. The RMS value of a sine wave is equal to:

a. 0.637 max value c. 0.506 max value
b. 0.707 max value d. 1.414 max value

841. Form factor is defined as:

a. RMS value/peak value
b. max value/ RMS value
c. RMS value/average value
d. effective value/ RMS value

842. The value form factor for pure sine wave is:
a. 1.414 c. 0.637
b. 0.707 d. 1.110

843. The value of peak factor for a pure sine wave is:
a. 1.414 c. 0.637
b. 0.707 d. 1.110

844. If the current and voltage are out of phase by 90°, the power is:
a. 1.10 Vl c. minimum
b. maximum d. zero

845. RMS value and the mean value is the same in case of:
a. square wave
b. sine wave
c. triangular wave
d. half wave rectified sine wave

846. The form factor of DC supply voltage is always:

a. infinite c. 0.5
b. Zero d. unity

89
847. When the sole purpose of an alternating current is to product heat, the
selection of conductor is based on:
a. average value of current c. RMS value of current
b. peak value of current d. any of the above

848. In the impedance triangle, the inductive reactance and impedance phasor are
analogous to the _______ and _____ phasor respectively in the voltage
triangle:
a. inductive voltage, total voltage
b. inductive current, total current
c. inductive voltage, resistive voltage
d. inductive current, resistive current

849. The phase angle of a series RL circuit is the angle between the ______ phasor
and the ______ phasor:
a. resistance, inductive reactance
b. resistance, impedance
c. inductive reactance, impedance
d. none of these

850. Fr an RL circuit, the power factor cannot be less than _____ or greater than
_______:
a. 0, 1
b. 1, 0
c. 0, -1
d. –1, 0

851. If the resistance in a series RC circuit is increased the magnitude of the phase
angle:
a. increases
b. remains the same
c. decreases
d. change in an indeterminate manner

852. The resistance phasor for a series RC circuit points to the right. The capacitive
reactance phasor points _______ while the diagonal of the rectangle having
there two phasors as sides represent the _______:
a. up, impedance
b. down, impedance
c. left, current
d. up, total voltage

853. There will ________ be a frequency, called the ______ frequency, at which
_________:
a. sometimes, natural; XL – XC
b. always, natural; R = 0
c. always, resonant; XL = XC
d. sometimes, resonant; R = 0
90
854. In an RLC circuit, the impedance at resonance is:
a. maximum c. infinity
b. minimum d. zero

855. At a frequency less than the resonant frequency:

a. series circuit is capacitive and parallel circuit is inductive
b. series circuit is inductive and parallel circuit is capacitive
c. both circuits are inductive
d. both circuits are capacitive

856. The value of current at resonance in a series RLC cicuit by the value of:
a. R c. L
b. C d. all of these

857. In resonant circuits, the power-factor at resonance is:

a. zero c. 0.50
b. 1 d. 0.707

858. Which of the following statements is true for a series RLC circuit tuned at
resonant frequency?
a. the voltage across C> applied voltage
b. the voltage across L> applied voltage
c. the voltage across L and C> the applied voltage
d. the voltage across both L and C< the applied voltage

859. The current flowing in L and C at parallel resonance are:

a. zero c. infinite
b. equal d. different

860. A coil with large distributed capacitance has a:

a. low resistance
b. low o
c. low resonant frequency
d. high resonant frequency

861. The transient current is due to:

a. voltage applied to circuit
b. resistance of the circuit
c. impedance of the circuit
d. changes in stores energy is inductive and apacitance

862. To a highly inductive circuit, a small capacitance is added in series. The angle
between voltage and current will:
a. increase c. remain nearly the same
b. decrease d. become indeterminate

863. In a balanced three phase star connected circuit the line voltage are equal:
91
 a. to the line current
b. to the phase voltage
c. and so are the line current
d. but the line currents are equal

864. The type of AC distribution system commonly used to supply both light and
power is the:
a. open delta system
b. three phase delta system
c. three phase star system with neutral wire
d. three phase star system without neutral wire

865. In a balanced three phase star connected system the line voltage is:
a. the phasor difference of the two phase voltages
b. the phasor sum of the two phase voltages
c. 0.707 times the phase voltage
d. 1.414 times the phase voltage

866. The advantages of star connections over delta connections for same phase
voltage is that it gives:
a. step down current c. extra step up current
b. extra step up voltage d. extra step up power

867. Power in a three phase delta system with balanced load is equal to:
a. √3 x VL x lL x power factor
b. √3 x VPH x lPH x power factor
c. √3 x VPH x lL x power factor
d. 3 x VL x lL x power factor

868. Power in star connected system is:

a. equal to that of delta system
b. √2 times the delta system
c. √3 times the delta system
d. 3 times of a delta system

869. What is the minimum number of wattmeters required for measuring power of a
three phase balanced load?
a. two c. one
b. four d. three

870. What is the minimum number of wattmeters required to measure unbalanced

power for a three phase system?
a. two c. three
b. four d. one

871. In a 2-wattmeter method, the reading of one of the wattmeters will be zero
when:
a. power factor is unity
92
 b. power factor is 0.50
c. load in one of the phase is zero
d. a neutral wire is not provided

872. For a three phase will be in proportional to the load:

a. the power factor of each phase will be in proportional to the load
b. the power factor of each phase will be the same
c. the power factor of at least one of the phase must be leading
d. the power factor of each phase maybe different

873. In a pure reactive circuit, the power factor is:

a. lagging c. leading
b. zero d. unity

874. The capacitor of power factor correction are rated in terms of:
a. Voltage c. KW
b. VA d. KVAR

875. In an AC circuit, a low value of reactive volt ampere compared with watts
indicates:
a. high power factor c. leading power factor
b. unity power factor d. none of the above

876. For a parallel circuit consisting of resistance the value of power factor is the
ratio of:
a. impedance to reactance
b. reactance to impedance
c. resistance to impedance
d. impedance to resistance

877. For the same load, if the power factor of load is reduced, it will draw:
a. more current
b. less current
c. same current but less power
d. less current but more power

878. One of the reasons for improving the power factor is:
a. to increase the reactive power
b. to decrease the reactive power
c. to increase the real power
d. none of the above

879. The advantage of using static capacitor to improve the power factor is because
they:
a. are not variable
b. are almost loss free
c. provide continuous change of power factor
93
 d. none of the above

880. An ideal current source has zero:

a. voltage on no load c. internal conductance
b. internal resistance d. none of the above

881. A passive network has:

a. no source of emf
b. no source of current
c. neither source of current nor source of emf
d. none of the above

882. Which of the following statement is not correct?

a. voltage source is an active element
b. current source is a passive element
c. resistance is a passive element
d. conductance is a passive element

883. A closed path made of several branches of the network is known as:
a. loop c. branch
b. junction d. none of the above

884. Which of the following is not non-linear element?

a. diode
b. transistor
c. heater coil
d. electric arc with unlike electrodes

885. For open circuited condition of Thevenin’s theorem, all sources of emf in the
network are replaced by:
a. their internal impedance
b. their internal resistance
c. as total a big source of emf
d. none of the above

886. Open circuit voltage is the pd between two when the impedance between these
points is:
a. infinity c. zero
b. reactive d. capacitive

887. In order to find Z in Thevenin’s theorem:

a. all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
b. circuited all independent voltage sources are short circuited and all
independent current sources are open
c. all independent current sources are short circuited and independent
voltage sources are open circuited
d. all independent voltage sources are open circuited and all independent
current sources are open circuited
94
888. Reciprocity theorem is valid for:
a. active network only
b. passive network only
c. active and passive network only
d. none of the above

889. The superposition theorem is applicable to:

a. linear responses only
b. linear and non-linear impedance
c. linear, non-linear and time variant response
d. none of the above

890. Which of the following theorems enable a number of voltage (or current) source
to be combined directly into a single voltage (or current) source?
a. Compensation theorem c. Superposition theorem
b. Reciprocity theorem d. Millman’s theorem

891. In compensation theorem a network containing generator can be replaced by:

a. its zero internal resistance
b. its infinite resistance
c. another generator
d. LC circuit

892. Norton’s theorem reduces a two terminal network to:

a. a constant voltage source and an impedance in parallel
b. a constant voltage source and an impedance in series
c. a constant current source and an impedance in parallel
d. a constant current source and an impedance in series

893. For maximum power transfer, according to maximum power transfer theorem,
source impedance:
a. must be very much large as compared to the load impedance
b. must be complex conjugate of load impedance
c. must be equal to load impedance
d. must be very small as compared to the load impedance

894. The principle of working of a transformer is:

a. static induction c. mutual induction
b. dynamic induction d. self induction

895. Transformer is used to change the value of:

a. frequency c. power
b. voltage d. power factor

896. The laminations are made from:

a. low carbon steel
b. silicon steel sheet
95
 c. nickel alloy steel stampings
d. chrome steel sheets

897. What is common in the two windings of a transformer:

a. electric circuit c. winding wire gauge
b. magnetic circuit d. none of these

898. Preferably, the resistance between the primary and the secondary of a
transformer should be:
a. as low as possible
b. as high as possible
c. low or high depending upon whether it is step up or sep down
d. high or low depending upon whether it is step up or step down

899. Ideal transformer assumptions do not include:

a. zero reactance of windings
b. zero resistance of windings
c. no leakage flux
d. no saturation of core

900. The reactance of a transformer is determined by its:

a. leakage flux
b. common core flux
c. size of the core
d. permeability of the material of the core

901. The resistance of low voltage side of a transformer:

a. is equal to resistance of its high voltage side
b. is more than resistance of its high voltage side
c. is less than the resistance of its high voltage side
d. (b) or (c)

902. The basic property of the transformer is that it changes the voltage level of an
AC signal:
a. without changing the power
b. without changing its shape
c. without changing its frequency
d. without changing power, frequency or shape

903. At every instant the direction of secondary current in a transformer must be

such as to oppose any change in flux. Th is in accordance with:
a. Faraday’s law c. Lenz’s law
b. Joule’s law d. Coulomb’s law

904. The magnitude of mutual flux in a transformer is:

a. low at low loads and high at high loads
96
 b. high at low loads and low at high loads
c. same at all levels
d. varies at low loads and constant at high loads

905. Transformers are rated in:

a. kW c. k-WH
b. kV d. kVA

906. What type of core is used for a high frequency transformer?

a. air core c. aluminum core
b. closed iron core d. open iron core

907. The no-load current of a transformer in terms of full load current is usually:
a. 1 to 3% c. 9 to 12%
b. 3 to 9% d. 12 to 20%

908. Which of the following is a correct statement about eddy currents?

a. eddy currents improve the efficiency of a motor
b. eddy currents heat up the metal parts
c. eddy currents do not influence the movement
d. eddy currents are used for arc welding

909. Which of the statement given below is true about autotransformer?

a. it has two separate windings connected in series externally
b. it can only step down the voltage
c. it has only one winding
d. it is most suitable for power transformer

910. In any transformer, the voltage per turn in primary and secondary remains:
a. always different c. always in ratio of K
b. always same d. sometimes same

911. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at:

a. no load c. near full load
b. half load d. little more than full load

912. As compared to an amplifier a transformer cannot:

a. increase output power
b. increase the output current
c. increase the output voltage
d. none of these

913. Two transformers when operating in parallel will share the load depending upon
their:
a. magnetizing current c. per unit impedance
b. leakage reactance d. efficiency

97
914. All day efficiency of a transformer ηA:
a. ηA = Electrical efficiency of transformer
b. ηA > Electrical efficiency of transformer
c. ηA < electrical efficiency of transformer
d. none of these may be true

915. No load primary output is practically equal to the iron losses in the transformer
because:
a. primary current is small
b. secondary current is small
c. both the current are small
d. no load input is not equal to iron losses

916. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased, the iron loss will:
a. decrease c. no not change
b. increase d. none of the above

917. The size of the transformer core will depend on:

a. frequency
b. flux density of the core material
c. area of the core
d. (a) and (b) both

918. Alternators mostly work on rotating field type principle which is different from
DC machines where the field is stationary. Therefore, the alternators:
a. don’t obey Faraday’s law
b. work on Faraday’s law
c. do not obey Lenz’s law
d. don’t obey Ohm’s law

919. In huge alternators, the moving part is:

a. brushes c. poles
b. armature d. none of these

920. High alternators have a rotor construction

a. similar to DC machines c. of salient type
b. of non-salient type d. none of the above

921. The voltage applied to the field of a rotating cylindrical rotor type alternators:
a. high DC voltage c. low DC voltage
b. high AC voltage d. low AC voltage

922. Alternators are usually designed to generator to generate:

a. variable frequency c. definite frequency
b. definite currents d. definite power factor

923. The standard practice, now a days in alternators is to have:

98
 a. rotating field
b. rotating armature
c. either rotating field or rotating armature
d. none of the above

924. When the speed of alternators increases, the frequency:

a. decreases c. increases
b. remains same d. changes

925. Distributing the armature winding of alternator in more than one number of
slots per pole per phase results is:
a. reduction of irregularities produced in the waveform
b. economy of materials used in winding
c. less weight of the entire armature
d. increase of generated emf per phase

926. For two alternators in parallel, if the load shared by one of them is:
a. To be strengthened keeping input torque same
b. To be weakened keeping input torque same
c. To be kept constant but input torque should be increased
d. None of these

927. When the power factor of load is unity, the armature flux of an alternator will
be:
a. demagnetizing c. cross magnetizing
b. square wave form d. none of these

928. An alternator is said to be over-excited if it is operating at:

a. leading pf c. unity pf
b. lagging pf d. none of these

929. If the input of the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the
excitation is increased the:
a. KVA will be leading
b. KVA will be lagging
c. KW will be changed
d. the power factor of the load remain constant

930. If Xs = the synchronous reactance of the machine, X e = leakage

reactance and Xa = reactance due to armature flux then:
a. Xa = Xs – Xe c. Xa = Xe – Xs
b. Xa = Xs + Xe d. Xe = XsXa

931. High voltage alternators are usually of the rotating field type. This means the
generated voltage is connected:
a. through slip rings to the load
b. through slip rings to the rotating field
c. directly to load
99
 d. directly to rotor

932. The maximum current that can be supplied by alternator depends upon the:
a. strength of the exciter voltage
b. number of poles
c. strength of the magnetic fluid
d. maximum heat dissipation

933. Synchronous impedance of an alternator is defined as the ratio of:

a. short circuit voltage to short circuit current
b. open circuit voltage to short circuit current
c. short circuit current to no load current
d. open circuit voltage to short circuit current for same value of
excitation

934. Pitch factor is defined as the ratio of the emf’s of:

a. distribution winding to full pitch winding
b. short pitch coil to full pitch coil
c. full pitch winding to short pitch winding
d. full pitch winding to concentrated winding

935. Synchronization of alternators means:

a. connecting alternators in series
b. transferring load from one alternator to another
c. connecting alternators in parallel
d. adjusting the excitation of the alternator

936. For synchronizing three phase alternator, the additional requirements is that
the phase rotation:
a. must be the same c. is anti-clockwise
b. is clockwise d. none of the above

937. Adjustment of field excitation on one of the two alternators operating in

parallel:
a. increase its load c. decreases its load
b. change its frequency d. change its power factor

938. If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the
excitation is changed, then
a. the reactive component of the output is changed
b. the active component of the output is changed
c. the p.f. of the load remains constant
d. none of the above

939. Synchronous motor is capable of being operated at

a. lagging power factor only
b. leading power factor only
100
 c. lagging and leading power factor
d. none of these

940. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that the number of
poles are made half, the speed of the rotor of a synchronous motor
a. decreases to half the original value
b. remains same as the original value
c. increases to two times the original value
d. tends to become zero

941. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling

angle of
a. 0° c. 90°
b. 45° d. 180°

942. Synchronizing power of a synchronous machine is:

a. equal to synchronous reactance
b. inversely proportional to the synchronous reactance
c. directly proportional to the synchronous reactance
d. none of these

943. Synchronous motors are:

a. self-starting c. essentially self-starting
b. not self-starting d. none of these

944. An over-excited synchronous motor take:

a. lagging current
b. leading current
c. lagging and leading current
d. none of these

945. The motor in which stator and rotor magnetic field rotate at the same speed is:
a. induction motor c. universal motor
b. reduction motor d. synchronous motor

946. In a synchronous motor, the torque angle is:

a. the angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
b. the angle between the magnetizing current and back emf
c. the angel between the supply voltage and the back emf
d. none of the above

947. In a synchronous motor, which loss does not vary with load?
a. copper losses c. windage losses
b. hysteresis losses d. none of the above

948. A three phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. In case the direction of
its field current is reversed:
a. the motor will continue to run in the same direction
101
 b. the motor will run in the reverse direction
c. the motor will stop
d. the winding of the motor will burn

949. The speed regulation of a three phase synchronous motor is:

a. 5% c. 0.4%
b. 1% d. zero

950. The speed of a synchronous motor:

a. reduce as load increases
b. increases as load increases
c. adjust itself to new equilibrium speed whenever load changes
d. always remains constant

951. When a three phase synchronous generator is supplying a zero pf lagging load
the armature field effects the main field in the following way:
a. directly opposes it c. augment it directly
b. dross-magnetizes it d. none of the above

952. The armature current of the synchronous motor has large values of
a. low excitation only
b. high excitation only
c. both low and high excitation
d. none of the above

953. The type of the motor that does not have a commutator is the:
a. repulsion motor c. DC shunt motor
b. induction motor d. universal motor

954. The rotor speed of an induction motor is:

a. the same as the synchronous speed
b. faster than the synchronous speed
c. slower than the synchronous speed
d. determined by frequency and the number of poles

955. The induction motor differs from the synchronous motor is that its:
a. requires a DC source for its rotor
b. does not require a rotating magnetic field
c. current is induced in its rotor
d. current is conducted in rotor

956. Squirrel cage induction motor differs from the slip ring type in that it has no:
a. slip rings c. windings on the stator
b. rotor windings d. rotating part

957. Squirrel cage induction motor has:

102
 a. zero starting torque
b. very small starting torque
c. very high starting torque
d. extra starting torque and it start up for rest

958. The frequency of the rotor current in an induction motor is given by (if f is the
supply frequency, f’ is the rotor frequency and S is the slip)
a. f = Sf’ c. S = ff’
b. f’ = Sf d. none of the above

959. Improvement in the power factor in an induction motor:

a. decreases torque
b. increases the torque
c. increases the current
d. increases the torque and decreases the current due to increased
impedance

960. In an induction motor the torque is related with the supply voltage as:
a. T α V½ c. T α V2
b. T α V d. T α 1/V2

961. Torque under running condition is maximum at the slip “S”:

a. which makes rotor reactance/phase equal to rotor resistance/phase
b. which makes rotor reactance/phase greater than rotor resistance/phase
c. which makes rotor reactance/phase lesser than rotor resistance/phase
d. which is independent of rotor resistance

962. Short circuit test on the induction motor can be used to find out:
a. the transformation ratio of the induction motor
b. power scale of circle diagram
c. copper losses in the induction motor
d. all of the above

963. Which of the following is a correct relation for an induction motor?

actual speed of rotor
a. rotor efficiency  synchronous speed
b. rotor copper loss = slip x rotor input
c. rotor input = 2 x  x gross torque x synchronous speed
d. all of the above relations are correct

964. If the air gap of the induction motor is increased:

a. the magnetizing current will decrease
b. the magnetizing current will increase
c. the power factor will decrease
d. none of the above

965. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use starter because:
a. starting torque is very high
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 b. motor takes five to seven times its full load current
c. it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
d. it will run in reverse direction

966. When using any instrument for measurement or testing an electrical circuit,
your _________ should be considered first:
a. personal safety c. surrounding
b. theoretical knowledge d. dress

967. A moving coil voltmeter has a scale which is:

a. linear c. exponentially decreasing
b. exponentially increasing d. none of the above

968. High AC voltages are usually measured with:

a. electrostatic voltmeters
b. voltmeter and current transformer
c. potential transformer and voltmeter
d. voltmeter and multiplier

969. Under normal operation, the instrument which will be at least effective in
indicating than an alternator may overheat because it is overloaded as a/an:
a. voltmeter c. wattmeter
b. ammeter d. stator thermocouple

970. A moving coil instrument can be used to measure:

a. low frequency AC c. direct current
b. high frequency AC d. DC and AC both

971. Large currents in DC circuits are almost always measured with a/an:
a. ammeter and multiplier
b. millivoltmeter and shunt
c. millivoltmeter and multiplier
d. current transformer and ammeter

972. For measuring voltage across an electrical load, you would connect a/an:
a. ammeter across the load
b. voltmeter in series with the load
c. ammeter in series with the load
d. voltmeter across the load

973. Deflection of pointer of a permanent-magnet moving coil meter for fixed

currents is ____ flux density I the air gap between magnetic pole shoes and
coil:
a. directly proportional to c. independent of
b. inversely proportional to d. none of the above

104
974. You are required to check the pf of an electrical load. No pf meter is available.
You would use:
a. a wattmeter
b. an ammeter
c. a voltmeter and an ammeter
d. a kW-Hr meter

975. Which of the following sets of AC instruments may be used to find pf of a single
phase motor:
a. one voltmeter and one ammeter
b. one voltmeter and one phase rotation meter
c. one voltmeter and wattmeter and one ammeter
d. one voltmeter, one kWH meter an one ammeter

976. The resistance of a field coil may be correctly measured by using:

a. a voltmeter and an ammeter
b. a Schering bridge
c. a Kelvin double bridge
d. a Maxwell bridge

977. A moving iron meter is useful for voltage measurement at _______

frequencies:
a. very high c. low
b. high d. none of the above

978. The meter that is suitable for direct current only is:
a. moving iron type c. electrodynamic type
b. permanent magnet type d. hot wire type

979. A cross connection between two conductor cable may be located by use of
a/an:
a. Ohmmeter c. Varley loop
b. Carey Foster bridge d. Kelvin bridge

980. A thermocouple instrument would be useful for current measurement at

_______ frequencies:
a. high c. very low
b. low d. none of the above

981. The hot-wire ammeter:

a. is used only for DC circuits
b. is a high precision instrument
c. is used only for AC circuits
d. reads equally on DC and/or AC circuits

982. You have been told by your foreman to measure the resistance of some
feeders. For this purpose, your would use:
a. magneto test c. a bell test
105
 b. a megger d. none of the above

983. When connecting wattmeters to a load circuit consuming large current, it is

necessary to use:
a. potential transformers c. power shunts
b. isolating transformers d. current transformers

984. Which of the following instrument will be used to measure alternating current
only?
a. moving iron voltmeter
b. permanent magnet type ammeter
c. induction type ammeter
d. moving iron (attraction type) ammeter

985. For increasing the range of DC ammeters, you would use a/an:
a. inductance c. shunt
b. capacitor d. current transformer

986. A DC milliammeter may be used to measure voltages:

a. if a high external resistance s used in series with it
b. when a proper shunt is sued with it
c. by simply connecting it across the lines
d. provide a high external resistance I sued across its terminals

987. A millimeter can be used:

a. as a voltmeter
b. only as an ammeter
c. both as voltmeter and ammeter
d. none of the above

988. Which of the following is commonly used for extending the range of an AC
ammeter?
a. a current transformer c. a shunt
b. a capacitor d. an inductance

989. A shunt is used in parallel with a DC ammeter measuring large currents in order
to:
a. reduce meter current
b. provide damping for meter pointer
c. protect meter against shorts
d. increase sensitivity of the ammeter

990. For testing and calibrating a polyphase KWH meter using a single phase supply,
the best method is to connect the:
a. current coils in series and voltage coils in parallel
b. voltage coils in series and current coils in parallel
106
 c. voltage coils in parallel and current coils in parallel
d. voltage coils in series and current in parallel

991. A hot wire ammeter when used to measure the output current of full wave
rectifier will register _______ of the maximum value of the rectified current:
a. 1.0 c. 0.353
b. 0.707 d. 0.637

992. When operating properly, a certain circuit requires a maximum current of 10 A.

Is a calibrated ammeter connected in the circuit reds 13 A, it is possible that:
a. one of the branch circuits is open
b. a partial short exists somewhere in the circuit
c. the main ground connection is open
d. a high resistance connection exists somewhere in the circuit

993. A newly completed lighting equipment is always subjected to high voltage test
in order to:
a. check the dielectric strength of the insulation
b. measure insulation resistance of the wiring
c. make sure that the equipment will be able to withstand the operating
voltage
d. find the maximum voltage the equipment can withstand

994. A high voltage dielectric test performed on wires and cables is primarily meant
to check:
a. dielectric strength of the insulation
b. insulation resistance
c. ability of the insulation to withstand the voltage it is likely to be
subjected to when n service
d. moisture absorption quality of the insulation used

995. For proper connection of a single phase wattmeter to a circuit, you should use
two:
a. current leads only
b. current and two potential leads
c. potential leads only
d. current leads and two power leads

996. Which of the following instruments usually has lowest resistance?

a. megger c. voltmeter
b. frequency meter d. ammeter

997. A megger is generally used to:

a. determine the speed of an electrical motor
b. measure resistance of a lightning cable
c. test a lighting circuit for ground
d. measure the amount of illumination
107
998. To measure the emf of a Weston standard cell, one would use a/an:
a. moving coil voltmeter c. galvanometer
b. electrostatic voltmeter d. potentiometer

999. In the two wattmeter method of 3 phase power measurement if both

wattmeters read positive and equal values, then pf of the load is:
a. 0 c. 0.5
b. unity d. 0.866

1000. The ampere-hour (A-hr) is associated with:

a. rectifiers c. electromagnets
b. transformer d. storage cells

1001. Deflection sensitivity of deflecting pates of cathode ray tube _______ the
distance between deflection plates:
a. is directly proportional to
b. is inversely proportional to
c. does not depend on
d. none of the above

1002. If one of the two wattmeters used for measuring power taken by a balanced
three phase reads zero, then pf of the load is:
a. 0.866 lagging c. unity
b. 0.5 d. zero

1003. One disadvantage of using a moving iron ammeter to measure DC current is

that:
a. its calibration gives rms value of current
b. it responds only to AC currents
c. its scale is even
d. its coil needs unmanageably large number of turns

1004. Signal injection/tracing is a method commonly used in troubleshooting:

a. industrial wiring c. residential wiring
b. electric motors d. a radio

1005. The instrument often used for checking the degree of motor shaft
misalignment is:
a. a voltmeter c. dial indicator
b. a clamp on an ammeter d. megohmeter

1006. The frequency stability of a crystal oscillator depends upon:

a. crystal
b. tuned circuit
c. crystal as well as the tuned circuit
d. all of the above

108
1007. A 15 A fuse is found open and the servicer has no replacement but has a
choice between 10 A and 30 A fuse. He should use:
a. 10 A fuse c. either a and b
b. 30 A fuse d. both a and b

1008. The type of thermostat commonly used in appliance with heating element is:
a. circuit breaker c. bimetallic
b. magnetic relay d. thermocouple

1009. Hay bridge is usually used for measuring:

a. inductance c. resistance
b. capacitance d. all of the above

1010. Schering bridge is used for measurement:

a. inductance c. capacitance
b. frequency d. none of the above

1011. The Wein’s bridge is particularly useful for measuring frequencies of _____
value:
a. very high c. low
b. high d. all of the above

1012. Impedance relay is used to protect:

a. line beyond a particular zone
b. line within a particular zone
c. the whole transmission system
d. none of the above

1013. A current measuring instrument can be modified to measure voltages by:

a. using thicker wire in the coil
b. using a high resistance shunt
c. adding resistance in series
d. adding resistance in parallel

1014. Buchholz relay is used in ______ protection:

a. generator c. line
b. transformer d. all of the above

1015. Two principal parts of a permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC)

a. pivots and jewel bearings c. case and iron ore
b. needle and scale d. coil and magnet

1016. What is the purpose of providing a mirror behind the pointer in measuring
instruments?
a. the scale is illuminated through the mirror
b. with the help of the mirror it can be seen whether the pointer is bent or not

109
 c. the mirror is semi-transparent so as to allow the observation of the interior of
the instrument
d. reading errors due to inclined observation are eliminated by
removing parallax between the pointer and its image in the mirror

1017. Meter accuracy is determined by:

a. half-scale deflection
b. full-scale deflection
c. one-fourth of full scale deflection
d. one-tenth of full scale deflection

1018. Threshold of sensitivity with respect to instruments is:

a. the maximum signal which can be measured
b. the value of sensitivity on the highest scale
c. the value of sensitivity on the lowest scale
d. the smallest signal that result in a detectable output

1019. On which of the following factors the sensitivity in accuracy of an instrument

does not depend?
a. hysteresis or dead bond c. frequency response
b. amplitude distortion d. all of these

1020. To increase the range of a voltmeter

a. a low resistance is connected in series
b. a low resistance is connected in parallel
c. a high resistance connected in series
d. a high resistance is connected in parallel

1021. Moving coil instruments are use

a. in AC circuits only c. in DC only
b. both AC and DC circuits d. for measuring voltage only

1022. Which of the following damping methods is common in moving coil

instruments?
a. air damping c. spring damping
b. fluid damping d. eddy-current damping

1023. A moving iron type has

a. a linear scale
b. a nonlinear scale
c. its deflection is directly proportional to the current
d. its deflection directly proportional to the voltage

1024. The function of a shunt in ammeter is usually

a. by pass the current
b. increase the current in the coil
c. decrease the voltage drop
d. increase the meter resistance
110
1025. The shunt resistance in an ammeter is usually
a. less than meter resistance
b. equal to meter resistance
c. greater than mater resistance
d. of any value

1026. A low voltage is measured on higher scale of voltmeter. The instrument

would have
a. low accuracy c. low precision
b. low resolution d. all of these

1027. An electrodynamic meter can be used to measure

a. AC voltage
b. DC voltage
c. DC as well as AC voltage
d. DC voltage but for AC voltages rectification is necessary

1028. A multimeter consists of

a. voltmeter and ohmmeter
b. voltmeter and current meter
c. current meter and ohmmeter
d. voltmeter, current meter and ohmmeter

1029. Megger is an instrument to measure

a. very low resistance c. Q of a coil
b. insulation resistance d. inductance of a coil

1030. Megger in its operation is based upon

a. moving coil meter c. dynamic meter
b. moving iron meter d. electrostatic meter

1031. Which of the following equipment is not a part of megger

a. hand crank
b. moving coil meter
c. a coil of high inductance
d. gear box generator

1032. Inductance is measured in terms of capacitance and resistance by

a. Schering bridge c. Maxwell-Wein bridge
b. Anderson bridge d. Wein bridge

1033. The potentiometer wire should have

a. high specific resistance and high temperature coefficient
b. high specific resistance and low temperature coefficient
c. low specific resistance and high temperature coefficient
d. low specific resistance and low temperature coefficient

111
1034. A wattmeter can measure
a. AC power only
b. DC power only
c. AC as well as DC power
d. DC power and AC power after rectification

1035. A relay in which the measurement is performed by a stationary circuit and

which has no moving parts is known as
a. static relay c. instantaneous relay
b. differential relay d. time relay

1036. While selecting a gas for circuit breaker, the property of gas that should be
considered is
a. high dielectric strength
b. non-inflammability
c. non-toxicity
d. none of the above

1037. For high AC circuit breakers, the rated short circuit current is passed for
a. 0.01 sec c. 3 sec
b. 0.10 sec d. 30 sec

1038. Which of the following is not a type of the contactor for circuit breakers?
a. electro-magnetic c. pneumatic
b. electro-pneumatic d. vacuum

1039. There is definite objection to use of which of the following medium for
extinguishing the arc in case of a circuit breaker?
a. air c. vacuum
b. SF6 gas d. water

1040. In a circuit breaker, the active recovery voltage depends upon

a. power factor c. circuit condition
b. armature reaction d. all of the above

1041. A relay used for protection of motors against overload is

a. impedance relay
b. electromagnetic attraction type
c. c. thermal relay
d. d. Buchholz’s relay

1042. A fuse wire should have

a. low specific resistance and high melting point
b. low specific resistance and low melting point
c. high specific resistance and high melting point
d. high specific resistance and low melting point

112
1043. The number of cycles in which a high-speed circuit breaker can complete its
operation is
a. 3 to 8 c. 20 to 30
b. 10 to 18 d. 40 to 50

1044. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire.

a. Aluminum c. Lead
b. Silver d. Copper

113