TEST 51

Section 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Oakham Surgery
New Patient Form

Example Answer

NEW PATIENT’S ROAD Dawson Road

FULL NAME Mike  1 …………………………….

WIFE’S FIRST NAME   Janet

CHILDRENS’ FIRST NAMES  1st  2 …………………….. 2nd 3rd 4th

52 Dawson
ADDRESS
Road 3 ………………….. Melbourne

HEALTH CARD NUMBER    4 ……………………………

WIFE’S HEALTH CARD

will give later
NUMBER 
PREFERRED DOCTOR
5 ………………….. White
SELECTED 

Questions 6-10

Circle the correct letters A-C

6. When is Mike’s wife’s first appointment?

A. Friday 21st at 2.00 pm.

B. Friday 21st at 2.30 pm.

C. Friday 21st at 3.30 pm.

7. What is the surgery’s phone number?

A. 7253 9819

B. 7253 9829

C. 7523 9829

8. What is the name of the girl with whom Mike is speaking at the surgery?

A. Rachel

B. Elizabeth

C. Angela

9. What’s the night doctor’s mobile number?

A. 0506 759 3856

B. 0506 759 3857

C. 0506 758 3856

10. Which of the following does the surgery NOT make a charge for?

A. Travel vaccinations

B. Consultations

C. Insurance reports

Section 2
Questions 11-16

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Notes on Library

Joining Library You will need A completed application form.

11 ………………………
   
…..

12 ………………………
   
…..

Two passport photos.    

Opening Hours Library 8 am – 10

Reception pm 13 ……………………

9 am–5 pm (- 6.30
 on 14 …………………………
…
 (Mon-Sat: closed on Sundays)

Undergraduate
Borrowing  4 books
s

Postgraduates  15 ………………………

Borrowing for2 weeks +  16 …………………. books renewals (in person)   

No renewals over the phone

Late return penalty: £2 per week

Questions 17-20

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Label the library layout below.

reception; 17 …………………….. bathrooms; 18 …………
Ground Floor 
……….

First Floor 19 ……………………… section

Second Floor   Science Section

20 …………………
Stack System                       
….
Section 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-24

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

21. When will Simon begin writing his essay?_________________

22. According to Simon, what kind of problems did Jaguar have in the 1970s and 80s?
__________________

23. What is the word limit for the essay?______________________

24. What is the preferable method for handing in the essay?_____________________

Questions 25 – 27

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.

25. Jennifer wants to write about how ……………………………….. are used by

supermarkets.

26. Jennifer found some publications in the library ……………………………… to

help her analysis.

27. The tutor warned Jennifer about ……………………………………… in her

work.
Questions 28-30

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Complete the tutor’s summary notes on Melanie below. 

Notes on Student Essays

Student Melanie needs an 28 ………………. as she has been unwell with the flu. She
will get a 29 ………………. from the doctor. She’s going to write
about 30 ………………. in the UK and their effect on housing trends. She should be
on track with the essay by the end of the weekend.

Section 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-33

Choose the correct letters A-C.

31. The Pacific is more prone to tsunami because…

A. it has many faults.

B. its faults undergo subduction.

C. its tectonic plates are bigger than elsewhere.

32. The biggest tsunamis are usually created by…

A. undersea volcanic eruptions.

B. undersea earthquakes.

C. undersea landslides.
33. Tsunamis are difficult to detect in deep water because of…

A. their wavelength.

B. their high speed.

C. their wave rate.

Questions 34 and 35

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

List the two ways which the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration have
set up to detect tsunami.

34. _____________________________

35. _____________________________
Questions 36-40

When Happened Cause Deaths Caused Wave Height

1992 36……………………….. none 3 feet

Underwater
1992 none 37……………………..
earthquake

1998 38………………………. 1200 23 feet

Underwater
1998 3000 40 feet
volcanic eruption

Underwater
1896 39…………………….. 35 feet
earthquake

Underwater
8000 years ago 40……………………. 30 feet
landslide
 TEST 52

Section 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each

answer.

BUS PASS APPLICATION FORM

Example: PASS
Answer: 1 month
APPLIED FOR

Nathalie 1 ……………………
NAME
…

45 2 ……………………. Newl
ADDRESS
ands Adelaide

POSTCODE 8490

DATE OF BIRTH     3 …………………….., 1982

TELEPHONE  4 ………………………………
NUMBER .

UNIVERSITY CARD
Yes
SHOWN
 5 ………………………………
ZONES REQUIRED  
.

Questions 6-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each

answer.

Adelaide Day Trips on the Bus

The MacDonald Nature

 
Park

Outward Journey Leaves   8.00 am

Length of Journey 2 hours

Return Journey Leaves   6 ………………….

Things to do/see Walk nature trails + MacDonald River

Bring A camera

Pearl Bay  

Outward Journey Leaves  9.00 am

Length of Journey   7 …………………….

Return Journey Leaves 4.00 pm

 Walk along 8 ………………… + see view Lie on the
Things to do/see
beach + swim

Bring Swimming gear + a towel

The Huron Gold Mine  

Outward Journey Leaves 9.30 am

Length of Journey   Half an hour

Return Journey Arrival

9 ………………….
time

Things to do/see Go round the museum and tunnels, find some gold!!

Bring     10 …………………..
Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-16

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

11. The highest point of the bridge is 134m above

……………………………………………………..

12. The two pairs of pylons are made of

…………………………………………………………………..

13. ……………………………………………………… % of the steel for making the

bridge came from the UK.

14. 800 families from…………………………………….. compensation to

accommodate the construction of the approaches to the bridge.

15. People……………………………………………was the main cause of death of

workers while constructing the bridge.

16. Three …………………………………………… were made to mark the opening

of the bridge. One is worth several hundred dollars today.
Questions 17-20

Choose FOUR letters (A – J) and write them in boxes 17-20 on your answer sheet.

Which FOUR of the following facts are NOT true about the Sydney Harbour
Bridge today?

A. There are no more trams crossing the bridge.

B. There are eight traffic lanes on the bridge.

C. Trains still cross the bridge.

D. People are allowed to walk across the bridge.

E. Buses are allowed to cross the bridge.

F. The Harbor Tunnel has not helped traffic congestion on the bridge.

G. More than 182 000 vehicles cross the bridge daily.

H. Horses can no longer cross the bridge.

I. Bicycles are not allowed to cross the bridge.

J. To go back and forward across the bridge costs $6.

Section 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-27

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.

21. While waiting for Phil, Mel and Laura were

……………………………………………

22. A telephone survey was rejected because it would be

………………………………………………

23. A mail survey was rejected because it would

…………………………………………..

24. The best number of people to survey would be

………………………………………………………

25. If their survey only included 100 people, it would not be

……………………………………………………..

26. The number of people that Laura, Phil and Mel agree to survey was
……………………………………………

27. The number of questions in the survey was agreed to be

…………………………………………………….
Questions 28-30

Circle THREE letters A-G

What are the three locations that Laura, Phil and Mel chose for their survey?

A. The town square

B. The train station

C. The university cafeteria

D. Dobbins department store

E. The corner of the High Street and College Road

F. The bus station

G. The corner of the High Street and Wilkins Road

Section 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-34

Complete the table below by matching the individual with their role (Questions 31-34)
in the lecture on the coelacanth.

Write the appropriate letters A-F on your answer sheet.

NB There are more roles than individuals so you will not need to use them all.

INDIVIDUAL ROLE

Dr.  J.L.B. Smith  31……………………………………

Marjorie Courtney-Latimer  32…………………………………..

Dr.   Mark Erdmann  33…………………………………..

Captain Goosen  34…………………………………..

ROLES

A. Paid fishermen for unidentified finds.

B. Caught a strange-looking fish.

C. Contacted scientists in Indonesia.

D. Photographed a coelacanth seen by accident.

E. First recognized the coelacanth for what it was.

F. Bought a specimen of a coelacanth in a market.

Questions 35-40

Choose the correct letters A-C

35. The coelacanth was…

A. well known to Indonesian fishermen.

B. unknown to Indonesian fishermen.

C. a first in the market.

36. The only difference between the Comoros coelacanth and the Sulawesi
coelacanth is…

A .their intracranial joint.

B. their paired fins.

C .their color.

37. Coelacanths seemed to have their greatest population…

A. 360 million years ago.

B. 240 million years ago.

C. 80 million years ago.

38. Modem coelacanths probably left no fossilized remains over the past 80
million years because…

A. of too much clay sediment.

B. conditions where they lived were not favorable for fossilization.

C. volcanoes are needed for fossilization.

39. Scientists had a better understanding of the coelacanth after 1991 because…

A. the French government had previously limited study on the Comoros coelacanth.

B. Comoros were far away and difficult to reach.

C. Comoros opened an airport.

40. On the 1991 expedition, scientist studied the coelacanth…

A. only from fishermen’s specimens.

B. through the windows of their submarine.

C. from diving down.

 TEST 53

Section 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-3

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

DRURY’S ELECTRICAL STORE WORK FORM

Example Answer

Customer’s
 Phillipa Hutton
Name  

Address 13 Glen Avenue Westley

1 ………………………
Postcode
…

Home Tel. 01748 524965

2 ………………………
Mobile Tel.
…

Customer
Yes/ No
Receipt

Date of 3 ………………………
Repair …
Enquiry

Job Number J25

Problem   New TV doesn’t work

Questions 4-5

Circle the correct letter A-D

4. Which room did Jane want to use the new television?

A. The dining room

B. The kitchen

C. The bedroom

D. The study

5. What will Jane do while the man is looking at her new television?

A. She’ll wait in the shop

B. She’ll come back tomorrow

C. She’ll go shopping and come back in half an hour

D. She’ll go shopping and come back in an hour

Questions 6-10

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

6. What was the problem with the television?_______________

7. What day is Jane’s nephew’s birthday next week?_______________

8. How old will Jane’s nephew be next week?_______________

9. What does Jane think her nephew would like for his birthday?_______________

10. What time will Jane go back to the shop tomorrow?_______________

Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-15

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

11. Who has organized the safety talk?_______________

12. What crime is most common amongst students?_______________

13. Where does PC Fair suggest that students can hide their belongings?
_______________

14. What should you take with you when you visit an insurance broker about your
belongings?_______________

15. What does PC Fair say that you can use to mark your property?_______________
Questions 16-20

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

UNI. SAFETY TALK

At Home

DOORS

Lock the front door & ask 16 ………………….. to put a lock on bedroom door.
Fit chain and keep it fastened while at home

WINDOWS 

Lock windows, install extra locks and 17 …………………… 24 hours.

If frightened, tell someone in the hall. 18 …………………… at the Union or go to the

police.

Going Home

Walking homestay in 19 ………………….. with good light + don’t be alone.

2 late regular night minibuses – a priority for women.

Taxi better than walking – licensed taxis only and from the rank.

Keep mobile with you with trusted taxi number inside.

Most Important Thing – 20 ………………….

Section 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-26

Circle the correct letter A-C

21. What is Rachel’s extended essay about?

A. Hospitals

B. Factories

C. Towns

22. What did Rachel mainly use to help her with her essay?

A. A book

B. The internet

C. Magazines

23. How does Rachel feel about her essay at the moment?

A. Happy

B. Quite happy

C. Not happy

24. Which part of Rachel’s extended essay did Dr. Jones like best?

A. The introduction

B. The middle
C. The conclusion

25. Which part of Rachel’s essay does Dr. Jones most want Rachel to change?

A. The statistics tables

B. The statistics analysis

C. The bibliography

26. By when does Rachel’s essay have to be finally given in?

A. 21st April

B. 24th April

C. 28th April
Questions 27-30

Complete Dr. Jones’ notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Books for Rachel’s Presentation on the Reform Act

Book    Author Where to get it

Great 19th Century 27 ………………………

Mark Needham
Reform .. in library

Article in “History 28 ………………………

Jim Wood  
Monthly” .. in library

29 ……………………
  Rob Jenkins InterLibrary Loan
…..

Reform and the 30 ……………………

 From me
Nineteenth Century …..
Section 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-36

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

31. Where did garlic originally come from?______________

32. What time of year does garlic begin its growth cycle?______________

33. What, along with its small leaves, is the key to garlic’s survival in harsh climates?
______________

34. According to an ancient Egyptian record, how many sicknesses can garlic be used
to treat?______________

35. In ancient Egypt, how much garlic could buy you a good slave?______________

36. What did Europeans in the Middle Ages believe garlic could help stop?
______________
Questions 37-40

Complete the summary below of the second half of the food science lecture on garlic.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Today investigations into garlic have shown that it can help cure and prevent many
diseases as it boosts the 37…………………………….. During World War 2 it was
even used as 38…………………….when other drugs were not available.

Although expert opinion differs on many aspects of garlic use, it is agreed that
using 39……………………………. is the best form. This contains the most “allicin”,
a compound that is efficient at killing many types of bacteria and when heated, has
beneficial effects in the blood. Indian doctors have recently shown its help in
preventing such ailments as arteriosclerosis, thrombosis
and 40………………………………………
 TEST 54

Section 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

CHEAPIES CAR HIRE RENTAL FORM

Example                                                                                                  Answer
Date Car Needed                                                                           7th August

Customer’s Name  Mr. John Wilson

Customer’s Address Manchester  1……………………………………..

Postcode  MW7 4DF

Home Tel.  020 6834 6387

Mobile Tel.  2…………………………………

Driving License No.  3……………………………………

Number of Drivers  1

Length of Rental  4…………………………………days

Car Make Chosen  5…………………………………….

Questions 6-8
Complete the Cheapies Customer Information Leaflet below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each

answer.

Cheapies Customer Information Leaflet

Dear Sir/Madam

Thank you for hiring a car from Cheapies. We value your custom and we will
endeavor to provide you with what you expect.

Total Price: 6…………………………………

Pick up point: The International Hotel

Drop off point: 7………………………………….

We provide some things in the car to help you. Your sales representative will go
through all the things that you will find in your glove compartment and boot.
Different cars have different things provided.

In case of 8……………………………………… or
……………………………………, call our emergency number 06387 638 972 to
order a replacement car.
Questions 9 and 10

Choose and circle TWO letters A-J

Which TWO items are NOT provided in Mr. Wilson’s hire car?

A. insurance documents

B. Westley town map

C. the car manual

D. a larger area map of the local district

E. a map of London

F. a spare wheel

G. a set of tools

H. RAC membership card

I. a small fire extinguisher

J. spare keys for the car

Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-15

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

11. When is breakfast served in Chelston Hall on Sundays?

12. What method of food service is provided at Chelston Hall dining hall?

13. Where are coffee and tea served after dinner at Chelston Hall?

14. How much does it cost to do 1 wash in a washing machine at Chelston Hall?

15. From where can students buy washing powder inside Chelston Hall?

Questions 16-20

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

16. It is not the job of the cleaners at Chelston Hall to clear up

………………………………….

17. Students at Chelston Hall are asked to be careful going to and from the bathroom
as the Hall is ……………………

18. If there is a fire at Chelston Hall, leave the building and meet your block leader in
………………………….where the block leader will take a roll call.

19. Chelston Hall has to perform at least …………………………………emergency

fire practices yearly.

20. If a student is asked to leave for disciplinary reasons, he or she will not get a
……………………………………
Section 3
Questions 21-26

Complete Judith’s notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

NORTH SEA OIL AND GAS INDUSTRY BACKGROUND

North Sea oil and gas exploration was initially rejected but has now really expanded
during 21……………………………….years.

First significant quantities of gas first discovered in Groningen area off The
Netherlands in 1959.

First British discovery of same in West Sole field, off the coast of East Anglia,
by 22……………………………in 1965.

British oil and gas industry experienced rapid growth in the early years.

An 23…………………………………………. in the UK led to enormous pressure to

increase the production of North Sea gas and oil.

Oil field discoveries increased with British, European and American firms buying
North Sea exploration 24……………………………………….

In the 1990s the oil business suffered due

to 25…………………………………………..of oil.

Production grew and peaked around 2000/1.

The North Sea is currently looked upon as

a 26……………………………………………on a slow decline.
Questions 27-30

Complete the summary of Fred’s talk below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

NORTH SEA OIL AND GAS INDUSTRY SAFETY

INFORMATION
Although the Sea Gem was the first North Sea oil exploration accident, the most well-
known accident was aboard the Piper Alpha platform in 1988 when 13 people died.
Because of  these and other accidents, platforms now have rigorous safety procedures,
for example:

Installation Safety Tour showing all safety aspects

eg: 27………………………………………
emergency muster stations
28……………………………………..
emergency procedures

Rig Safety Programme Introduction

Weekly Safety Meetings

Daily Pre “Tour” Meetings

Inter-Company Safety Information Scheme

Fire and Boat Practice with 29………………………………………………..

Mock Abandon the Rig Exercise

Statistics now show that these measures have succeeded and that workers are more
likely to be killed on 30……………………………………..
Section 4
Questions 31-34

Complete the lecture notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Billboard Advertising

Johannes Gutenberg invented 31…………………………………………in 1450.

The lithographic process perfected in 1796.

In 32…………………………….. Jared Bell’s office in New York made the first large
US outdoor poster when he printed circus posters.

In 1900 a boom in national billboard campaigns was created in America with the
advent of a 33……………………………of a billboard.

Last year US expenditure on outdoor advertising reached $5.5 billion.

Over the next few years, there is an expectation of a

34…………………………………….. in outdoor advertising.
Question 35-40

Choose a letter A-D that correctly completes the following statements.

35. Allan Odell decided to use roadside advertising because…

A. no one else had tried it.

B. other people were beginning to use it.

C. it was the cheapest form of advertising.

D. other people were improving their sales through it.

36. Allan Odell’s first advertisements were…

A. successful.

B. boring.

C. hard to understand.

D. too far apart.

37. Allan Odell’s second type of advertising…

A. criticized people.

B. amused people.

C. made fun of people.

D. irritated people.
38. Allan Odell’s company eventually decided to stop this form of advertising
because…

A. it was no longer effective.

B. people were in a hurry.

C. it was old fashioned.

D. people criticized the rhymes.

39. The main purpose of Lyndon Johnson’s bill was to…

A. improve the condition of the roads.

B. stop roadside advertising.

C. reduce federal grants.

D. make the roads and countryside more attractive.

40. Roadside advertising continued because…

A. it was good for business.

B. some states did not get federal aid.

C. federal laws did not apply to some roads.

D. some states ignored the law.

 TEST 55

Section 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5

Complete the Travel agent’s notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SUN TOURS TRAVEL AGENTS

Example                                                                                                                    Answer
Number of people                                                                                              4

Customer’s Name: Mr. George Collins

Other travelers: Mrs. Jane Collins

(+ ages of children)                                                                                                

1……………         7 years old

Jennifer            2……………………..

Require:  4-star quality hotel + breakfast; safe, warm, quiet, beach; pref. pool; lots of
restaurants near the hotel                  no 3……………………. needed

Dates of Holiday: Friday, July 8th TO 4…………….. Sunday

Pref. Flight Time: Less than 5………………………………

Questions 6-10

Complete George’s notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

Possible Holiday Ideas

Top End Prices                                          Italy and France

Bottom End Prices                                   6………………………………., Greece and

Turkey (Turkey + Cyprus too far)

Crete                                                           

Hotel Tropicana

1-mile safe walk on 7………………………to beach.

Nice pool; only a few beach bars and restaurants.

Really quiet; not near other tourist destinations.

Palm Hotel

2 miles from the beach but has 8………………………………. service.

Hotel is quite a busy tourist town: lots of bars, restaurants and discos.

Rhodes                                                     

Ocean Hotel

Right on the beach; less than 9…………………………….. from the rooms.

4-star hotel quite far from the main town; eat-in hotel; good meals.

Hotel Spiros
10……………………………. hotel quite a dose to the beach (5/10 mins walk) in a
small village with a small swimming pool.

A few restaurants in a small, quiet village; not much to do.

Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-15

Complete the food options information sheet below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Solaris Hotel and Holiday Village-Food Options

Meal Times

Breakfast:                                             6.30 am and 9.30 am every day (Only in

Harvest restaurant; English, American an                                                                              
11…………………………….breakfasts on offer

Lunch                                                   12.00 noon to 2.30 pm

Dinner                                                  7.00 pm to 10.30 pm

Menus same for lunch + dinner:  see 12…………………………………. for specials

Food Styles

The Harvest Restaurant                 Traditional English + popular UK foreign dishes

(eg: curry and spaghetti)

The Dene Restaurant                       13………………………………………

The Mekong Restaurant                 Far Eastern Cuisine

Payment

All restaurants free; 14………………………………..needed for some specials

All soft drinks free; pay for alcoholic drinks

Pay any bill at the end of meals or put on the main bill – pay at end of holiday

Extras

Bar menu available in 15…………………………..for pub food

Fast Food available until 2.30 am at the takeaway

Questions 16-20

Complete the activities information sheet below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Solaris Hotel and Holiday Village – Activities

Beaches:                                                                    

main beach

adult beach (17s or over)

16…………………………………………..on duty from 9.00 am to 6.00 pm on the

main beach (none on adult beach)

Decked area with sun loungers in front of Harvest Restaurant with our 25-metre
swimming pool

Steps from the pool area to beach – wash feet in foot pool to remove sand

17………………………………………on beach + in the pool area.

Sports
8 tennis courts + 3 squash courts

Fully equipped gym (No under 18s)

6 full-sized snooker tables + 5 pool tables in the games room adjoining the bar.

(the only charge for hiring any equipment)

Water Sports

water skiing + jet skis available (extra charge)

snorkeling, inflatables and pedals (free)

(details from 18……………………………………….)

Library & Cinemas

The library contains books, magazines + newspapers.

See 19……………………………………..for terms + conditions

2 cinemas show 3 different films every day.

Shows at 2.00 pm, 5.30 pm + 8.30 pm (First 2 shows always have a film for kids)

20………………………………….not allowed attending 8.30 shows

Section 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-26

Complete the three tables below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

World’s Most Spoken Languages by Number of Individual

Speakers

Rank Language No. of Speakers

1 Mandarin Chinese 836 million

2 21………………… 333 million

3 Spanish 332 million

4 English 22……………………
World’s Most Spoken Languages by Number of User Countries

Rank Language No. of Countries

1 English 115

2 French 35

3 23………………. 24

4 Spanish 24……………………

World’s Most Influential Languages – 6 weighing factors

1. Number of primary speakers

2. The number of 25……………………………..

3. Number and population of countries where languages are used

4. Number of major fields using the language internationally

5. 26…………………………………of countries using the language

6. Socio-literary prestige of the language

Questions 27-30

Complete the notes below of the second half of Jamie and Rebecca’s presentation.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Jamie and Rebecca’s Presentation

Large countries currently shifting the world’s economic balance of power:

China

Russia

India

27…………………………….

Reasons for the shift                         size of the populations

cheap labour

prices of 28…………………………..

Big growing demand for people knowing languages of above countries + for teachers
and English language training

China could be less important than possibly India or 29………………………………

due to their population increase. English will probably remain important though

The number of spoken languages between approx. 30…………………………. Hardly

any of these studied by non-native speakers.

English taught in most countries with a structured education program. This trend is
getting stronger.
Section 4
Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

31.  Mad cow disease attacks the ………………………… of the affected cows’
brains.

32. BSE is thought to be caused by infectious forms of

………………………………… known as prions.

33. Abnormal prions in BSE infected cattle are found in the small intestines,
…………………….. and the central nervous tissues.

34. Humans can take in the abnormal prions when they eat infected beef as the prions
are resistant to the usual………………………………….. such as heat.

35. The one American case of CJD was a woman who caught it
in……………………………before going to the US.
Questions 36-40

Complete the summary below of the second half of the humanities lecture on BSE.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SUMMARY
CJD causes gradual loss of mental function and movement due to brain damage from
abnormal prions or it can be possible 36…………………………….. CJD usually
affects younger people (between ages 20 to 70) usually showing symptoms In
patients’ 37………………………………… Symptoms include personality changes
and problems with 38…………………………… Once symptoms appear, the disorder
progresses quickly to disability and death.

The exact causes of 8SE are unknown but the first UK cases have indicated that it
could come from a prion disease in 39………………………………. called scrapie
that was fed to cattle. Dead cattle with scrapie were then fed
to 40………………………………… making them cannibals. So, we are in turn
infected by the disease that we created when we eat infected beef.
 17. Computers 33. A
Answers TEST 51
18. Non-leading section 34. Seismic detection
Section 1 system
19. Arts
1. Jacobs 35. Buoys (at sea)
20. Basement
2. Rod 36. Offshore landslide
Section 3
3. Highfield 37. No wave/ zero feet
21. Tomorrow
4. NH 87 18 12 C 38. Submarine
22. Reliability earthquake
5. Dr (Kevin) White
23. 4000 words 39. 26,000 people
6. A
24. E-mail attachment 40. None
7. B
25. Market surveys
8. C
26. Stack system
9. A
27. Plagiarism/ using
10. B
their conclusions
Section 2 28. Extension
11. 5-pound fee 29. Doctor’s note/
certificate
12. University card
30. Mortgage interest
13. Daily
rates
14. Friday(s)
Section 4
15. 6
31. B
16. 1 week
32. B
 17. D 34. B
Answers TEST 52
18. F 35. A
Section 1
19. G 36. C
1. Jameson
20. J 37. B
2. Forest Avenue
Section 3 38. B
3. 8490
21. Chatting/ talking 39. A
4. 6249 7152
22. Too expensive 40. B
5. 1-5
23. Take too long
6. 4.30 pm
24. 1000
7. 1 hour
25. Statistically
8. The cliffs
significant
9. 1.30 pm
26. 500
10. A sweater
27. 5
Section 2 28. A
11. Mean sea level 29. D
12. Concrete and 30. E
granite
Section 4
13. About 79
31. E
14. 438
32. A
15. Falling
33. D
16. (Postage) stamps
 17. keep curtains closed 33. (healthy) root
Answers TEST 53
system
18. the welfare office
Section 1 34. 22
19. busy/ busier areas
1. WE5 8GF 35. 15 pounds
20. don’t be alone
2. 07745 276 145 36. the plague
Section 3
3. 7th June/ 7.6 37. immune system
21. B
4. B 38. an antiseptic
22. A
5. D 39. fresh garlic
23. B
6. a loose wire 40. hypertension
24. C
7. Thursday
25. B
8. 11
26. C
9. a computer game
27. reference section
10. 12 o’clock/ noon
28. (library) stack
Section 2 system
11. Student’s Union 29. Political Reform
12. theft 30. Dr. Jones
13. (in a) cupboard
Section 4
14. a valuables list
31. (desert region of)
15. ultraviolet pen Siberia

16. landlord 32. the fall (autumn)

 16. kitchens 32. 1835
Answers TEST 54
17. co-ed 33. standardised
Section 1 structure
18. (the) car park
1. 95 Green Lane 34. healthy increase
19. 2/ two
2. 07779 724 868 35. D
20. refund (of fees)
3. WIL 94857 8269 36. A
Section 3
4. four/ 4 37. B
21. the last 40
5. Toyota 38. A
22. BP drilling rig/ Sea
6. £170 39. D
Gem
7. The International 40. C
23. economic crisis
Hotel
24. leases
8. breakdown + an
accident 25. global price
fluctuations
9. E
26. mature province
10. J
27. fire extinguishers
Section 2
28. lifeboat stations
11. 8.00 am (to 9.30
am) 29. a mock fire

12. cafeteria style 30. a building site

13. the common room Section 4

14. £1/ 1 pound 31. moveable type
printing
15. (a) vending machine
 13. fish + seafood 28. Raw materials
Answers TEST 55
14. extra supplement 29. Bangladesh
Section 1
15. main bar 30. 2500 and 7000
1. Mike
16. 2 lifeguards Section 4
2. four/ 4
17. freshwater showers 31. nervous functions
3. creche facilities
18. water sports office 32. protein
4. 24th July
19. notice board 33. tonsils
5. 4 hours
20. children/ under 16s 34. (food) disinfection
6. Spain
treatments
Section 3
7. path (through fields)
35. the UK
21. Hindi
8. minibus (NOT “bus”)
36. genetically inherited
22. 322 million
9. 5 minutes
37. the late 50s
23. Arabic
10. family-run
38. coordination
24. 20
Section 2 39. sheep
25. secondary speakers
11. continental (style) 40. calves/ young cattle
26. economic power
12. blackboards
27. Brazil