Republic of the Philippines

ISABELA STATE UNIVERSITY

City of Ilagan Campus
COLLEGE OF NURSING

FINAL EXAMINATION IN
MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY

Name: KARL AARON G. SORIANO

Year and Section: BSN 1B

Instruction: Choose the letter of the best answer.

1. Immunity that develops as a result of an actual infection is called:

A. Artificial active acquired immunity
B. Artificial passive acquired immunity
C. Natural active acquired immunity
D. Natural passive acquired immunity
2. The vaccines that are used to protect people form diphteria and tetanus are:
A. Antitoxins
B. Attenuated vaccines
C. Inactivated vaccines
D. Toxoids
3. Artificial passive acquired immunity would result from:
A. Having the measles
B. Ingesting colostrum
C. Receiving a gamma globulin injection
D. Receiving a vaccine
4. Natural passive acquired immunity would result from:
A. Having the measles
B. Ingesting colostrum
C. Receiving a gamma globulin injection
D. Receiving a vaccine
5. Antibodies are secreted by:
A. Basophils
B. Macrophages
C. Plasma cells
D. T cells
6. Humoral immunity involves all the following except:
A. Antibodies
B. Antigens
C. NK cells
D. Plasma cells
7. Which of the following statements about IgM is false?
A. IgM contains a J-chain
B. IgM has a total of 10 antigen-binding sites
C. IgM is a pentamer
D. Igm is a long-lived molecule
8. Of the following, which is the least likely to be involved in cell-mediated
immunity?
A. Antibodies
B. Cytokines
C. Macrophages
D. T cells
9. An _____________ results when a person’s immune system no longer recognizes
certain body tissues as self and attempts to destroy those tissues as if they were
non-self or foreign.
A. Autoimmunity disease
B. Autocommunity disease
C. Autoimmune disease
D. Autocommune disease
10. _____________ reactions are referred to as delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH)
or cell-mediated immune reactions and are part of cell-mediated immunity (CMI).
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
11. ___________ reactions are cytotoxic reactions, meaning that the body cells are
destroyed during these reactions.
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
12. _____________ reactions (also known as anaphylactic reactions) include classic
allergic responses such as hay fever symptoms, asthma, hives, and gastrointestinal
symptoms that result from food allergies; allergic responses to insect stings and
drugs; and anaphylactic shock.
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
13. ________________ reactions are immune complex reactions, such as those that
occur in serum sickness and certain autoimmune diseases.
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
14. It is the result from the release of chemical mediators from basophils in the
bloodstream. It occurs throughout the body and thus tends to be a more serious
condition than localized anaphylaxis.
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Systemic anaphylaxis
C. Localized anaphylaxis
D. Hypersensitivity reactions
15. Vaccines made from pathogens that have been killed by heat or chemicals.
A. Attenuated vaccines
B. Inactivated vaccines
C. Subunit vaccines
D. Conjugate vaccines
16. An ________ has a rapid onset, usually followed by a relatively rapid recovery;
measles, mumps, and influenza are examples.
A. Chronic disease
B. Latent disease
C. Acute disease
D. Symptomatic disease
17. Is the time during which the patient feels “out of sorts”, but is not yet
experiencing actual symptoms of the disease. Patients may feel like they are “coming
down with something” but are not yet sure what it is.
A. Period of illness
B. Convalescent period
C. Incubation period
D. Prodromal period
18. Is the time during which the patient experiences the typical symptoms associated
with that particular disease.
A. Convalescent period
B. Period of illness
C. Prodromal period
D. Incubation period
19. Is the time during which the patient recovers.
A. Period of illness
B. Convalescent period
C. Prodromal period
D. Incubation period
20. Is the time that elapses between arrival of the pathogen and the onset of
symptoms.
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Period of illness
D. Convalescent period
21. Enzymes that cause damage to the host’s red blood cells. Not only does the lysis
of red blood cells harm the host, but it also provides the pathogens with a source of
iron.
A. Toxins
B. Endotoxins
C. Hemolysins
D. Exotoxins
22. It is the ability of a microbe to cause a disease.
A. Pathogenicity
B. Pathogenesis
C. Pathogens
D. Non-pathogens
23. Which of the following virulence factors enable bacteria to attach to tissues?
A. Capsules
B. Endotoxin
C. Flagella
D. Pili
24. Which of the following virulence factors enable bacteria to avoid phagocytosis by
white blood cells?
A. Capsule
B. Cell membrane
C. Cell wall
D. Pili
25. Communicable diseases are most easily transmitted during the:
A. Incubation period
B. Period of convalesence
C. Period of illness
D. Prodromal period
26. Which of the following protozoal diseases are you most likely to acquire by
eating a rare hamburger?
A. Amebiasis
B. Balantidiasis
C. Giardiasis
D. Toxoplasmosis
27. Which of the following is an example of an infectious disease that is caused by a
facultative parasite?
A. African trypanosomiasis
B. Giardiasis
C. Malaria
D. Primary amebic meningoencephalitis
28. Typical helminth life cycle includes three stages:
A. Nematodes, cestodes, trematodes
B. Egg, larva, adult worm
C. Sporozoites, merozoites, trophozoites
D. Oocyst, ookinete, zygote
29. The kind of parasitism in which the parasite lived as a free organism and part of
its life is only spent as a parasite is called?
A. Permanent mutualism
B. Temporary parasitism
C. Permanent parasitism
D. Temporary mutualism
30. Considering the kind of symbiosis, the classification of parasites includes
A. Endoparasite only
B. Ectoparasite only
C. Digestion parasites
D. Endoparasite and ectoparasite
31. ____________ glands produce a lipid-rich substance that contains proteins and
minerals and protects the skin.
A. Sweat
B. Mammary
C. Sebaceous
D. Endocrine
32. Which layer of the skin contains living cells, is vascularized, and lies directly
above the hypodermis?
A. The sratum corneum
B. The dermis
C. The epidermis
D. The conjunctiva
33. ____________ is a major cause of preventable blindness that can be reduced
through improved sanitation.
A. Ophthalmia neonatorum
B. Keratitis
C. Trachoma
D. Cutaneous anthrax
34. __________ is commonly treated with a combination of Chlorhexidine and a
polyhexamethylene biguanide.
A. Acanthamoeba keratitis
B. Sporotrichosis
C. Candidiasis
D. Loiasis
35. For what purpose would a health-care professional use a Wood’s lamp for a
suspected case of ringworm?
A. To prevent the rash from spreading
B. To kill the fungus
C. To visualize the fungus
D. To examine the fungus microscopicslly
36. Which of these viruses can spread to the eye to cause a formof keratitis?
A. Human papillomavirus
B. Herpes simplex virus 1
C. Parvovirus 19
D. Circoviruses
37. Which species is frequently associated with nosocomial infections via medical
devices inserted into the body?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Proproniobacterium acnes
D. Bacillus anthracis
38. The first-line recommended treatment for sporotrichosis is:
A. Itraconozole
B. Clindamycin
C. Amphotericin
D. Nystain
39. Adenoviruses can cause:
A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Herpetic conjunctivitis
C. Papillomas
D. Oral herpes
40. ___________ is a superficial fungal infection found on the head.
A. Tinea cruris
B. Tinea capitis
C. Tinea pidis
D. Tines corporis
41. Which of the following is NOT a way the normal microbiota of the intestine helps
to prevent infection?
A. It produces acids that lower the pH of the stomach
B. It speeds up the process by which microbes are flushed from the digestive tract
C. It consumes food and occupies space, outcompeting potential pathogens
D. It generates large quantities of oxygen that kill anaerobic pathogens
42. What pathogens is the most important contributor to biofilms in plaque?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Escherichia coli
D. Clostridium difficile
43. What types of microbes live in the intestines?
A. Diverse species of bacteri, archaea, and fungi, especially Bacteriodes and
Firmicutes bacteria
B. A narrow range of bacteria, especially Firmicutes
C. A narrow range of bacteria, especially Bacteriodes
D. Archaea and fungi only
44. Which type of helminth infection can be diagnosed using tape?
A. Pinworm
B. Whipworm
C. Hookworm
D. Tapeworm
45. What type of organism causes thrush?
A. A bacterium
B. A virus
C. A fungus
D. A protozoan
46. What is the common cause of a Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)?
A. Escherichia coli (E.coli)
B. Staphylococcus Aureus
C. Chlamydia
D. Mycoplasma
47. Which is a common UTI risk factor in adults
A. Enlarged prostate
B. Catheter usage
C. Diabetes
D. All of the above
48. Which of the following may provide some relief from UTI pain?
A. A heating pad
B. Drinking plenty of water
C. A and B
D. None of the above
49. Which is NOT a common cause of UTIs in men?
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Catheter usage
C. Urinary stone
D. Enlarged prostate
50. A pregnant woman who develops a UTI needs prompt treatment to avoid:
A. Premature delivery of her baby
B. High blood pressure
C. A and B
D. None of the above

II. Select 1 infectious disease and answer each questions.

A.nature of the disease (causative agent or etiologic agent)
B.signs and symptoms
C. mode of transmission
D. nursing management

MUMPS
A. NATURE OF THE DISEASE (CAUSATIVE AGENT OR ETIOLOGIC AGENT)

Mumps is a world-wide distributed human infectious disease. The causative

agent is mumpsvirus, a single-stranded RNA virus belonging to the Paramyxoviridae.
Mumps is an acute, self-limited, systemic viral illness characterized by the swelling of
one or more of the salivary glands, typically the parotid glands. The illness is caused
by the RNA virus, Rubulavirus. Rubulavirus is within the genus Paramyxovirus and is a
member of the family Paramyxoviridae.