Communicable Diseases

MCQs
(Each question contains 4 options with one correct answer)

1. The main mode of transmission of Tuberculosis is:

A. Fecal-oral route
B. Skin-to-skin contact
C. Airborne droplets
D. Vector bite
Answer: C
2. The BCG vaccine is primarily given to protect against:
A. Diphtheria
B. Pertussis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Measles
Answer: C
3. A complication commonly associated with Measles is:
A. Pneumonia
B. Otitis externa
C. Asthma
D. Hypertension
Answer: A

4. Varicella zoster virus causes:

A. Chickenpox and Shingles
B. Leprosy and Ringworm
C. Measles and Rubella
D. Scabies and Impetigo
Answer: A
5. Which of the following diseases can cause blindness if left untreated?
A. Trachoma
B. Impetigo
C. Scabies
 D. Herpes simplex
Answer: A
6. The primary mode of transmission of Scabies is:
A. Inhalation of airborne droplets
B. Contaminated food
C. Direct skin-to-skin contact
D. Vector bite
Answer: C
7. Anthrax is caused by:
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Protozoa
Answer: A

8. The most common complication of diarrheal diseases is:

A. Dehydration
B. Hypertension
C. Anemia
D. Neuropathy
Answer: A
9. Amebic dysentery is caused by:
A. Salmonella
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Shigella dysenteriae
Answer: B
10.Which hepatitis virus is most commonly spread through contaminated
water?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D
Answer: A
11.The primary prevention of cholera is:
A. Immunization
B. Hand washing and safe drinking water
C. Antiviral medication
D. Antifungal therapy
Answer: B
12.Poliomyelitis primarily affects:
A. Liver cells
B. Skin cells
C. Motor neurons
D. Red blood cells
Answer: C
13.Which of the following is a helminthic infestation?
A. Roundworms
B. Malaria
C. Typhus
D. Tetanus
Answer: A

14.The vector responsible for spreading Malaria is:

A. Culex mosquito
B. Aedes mosquito
C. Anopheles mosquito
D. Sandfly
Answer: C
15.Rabies virus is primarily transmitted to humans through:
A. Insect bite
B. Contaminated food
C. Animal bite
D. Skin-to-skin contact
Answer: C
16.The vector of Dengue Fever is:
A. Anopheles mosquito
B. Aedes aegypti mosquito
C. Tsetse fly
D. Sandfly
Answer: B
17.The first aid treatment of a dog bite is:
A. Cover the wound with dressing
B. Wash with soap and water for 15 minutes
C. Apply antiseptic directly
D. Suture the wound immediately
Answer: B

18.The most common bacterial STD worldwide is:

A. Gonorrhea
 B. Syphilis
C. Chlamydia
D. HIV/AIDS
Answer: C
19.A painless genital ulcer (chancre) is characteristic of:
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis (Primary stage)
C. Herpes simplex
D. Chlamydia
Answer: B
20.Prevention of STDs primarily involves:
A. Use of condoms and safe sexual practices
B. Drinking safe water
C. Avoiding insect bites
D. Frequent vaccination against hepatitis A
Answer: A

1. The incubation period of Measles is approximately:

A. 1–3 days
B. 7–14 days
C. 21–28 days
D. 30–40 days
Answer: B
2. Complication of Mumps that can affect males is:
A. Orchitis
B. Encephalitis
C. Meningitis
D. Hepatitis
Answer: A
3. Diphtheria is characterized by:
A. Membranous exudate over the throat and tonsils
B. Rash over trunk
C. Parotid gland swelling
D. Koplik spots in buccal mucosa
Answer: A
4. A nursing intervention for a patient with pertussis includes:
A. Encourage coughing
B. Suction airway secretions and maintain hydration
C. Limit oral fluids
 D. Avoid vaccination
Answer: B

5. The causative organism of Leprosy is:

A. Mycobacterium leprae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Varicella-zoster virus
Answer: A
6. Scabies is caused by:
A. Sarcoptes scabiei
B. Trichophyton rubrum
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Entamoeba histolytica
Answer: A
7. A key preventive strategy for Trachoma is:
A. Measles vaccination
B. Facial cleanliness and hygiene
C. Chemoprophylaxis with chloroquine
D. Use of insect repellents
Answer: B
8. Herpes zoster is commonly known as:
A. Measles
B. Chickenpox
C. Shingles
D. Cold sores
Answer: C

9. Vaccine-preventable waterborne disease is:

A. Hepatitis A
B. Typhoid fever
C. Cholera
D. All of the above
Answer: D
10.Typhoid fever is caused by:
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Escherichia coli
D. Shigella flexneri
Answer: B
11.Pinworms cause a hallmark symptom of:
A. Abdominal bloating
B. Nocturnal anal itching
C. Bloody diarrhea
D. Skin rash
Answer: B
12.A nurse’s role in managing diarrhea in a child includes all EXCEPT:
A. Assess hydration status
B. Administer ORS
C. Educate mother about safe food
D. Prescribe antibiotics in all cases
Answer: D
13.The definitive diagnosis of Amebic dysentery is made by:
A. Stool microscopy for trophozoites
B. Blood culture
C. Urinalysis
D. Sputum smear
Answer: A

14.Malaria prophylaxis is recommended when traveling to:

A. High-altitude regions
B. Malaria-endemic areas
C. Polar regions
D. Urban cities with clean water
Answer: B
15.Aedes aegypti mosquito transmits:
A. Dengue and Zika virus
B. Malaria and Yellow fever
C. Chikungunya and Rabies
D. Japanese Encephalitis and Typhoid
Answer: A
16.Complication of Dengue Fever includes:
A. Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever
B. Meningitis
C. Otitis media
D. Pneumonia
Answer: A
17.Pediculosis capitis refers to infestation of:
A. Eyelashes
B. Head lice
 C. Pubic hair
D. Body lice
Answer: B

18.Chlamydia trachomatis primarily infects:

A. Gastrointestinal tract
B. Respiratory tract
C. Genitourinary tract
D. Nervous system
Answer: C
19.A complication of untreated Gonorrhea in women is:
A. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
B. Hepatitis
C. Meningitis
D. Endocarditis
Answer: A
20.The WHO-recommended approach for STD management is:
A. Empirical treatment and syndromic management
B. Wait for culture report before starting treatment
C. Home remedies
D. No counseling is needed
Answer: A

1. The Gold Standard diagnostic test for active pulmonary tuberculosis is:
A. Tuberculin skin test (Mantoux)
B. Chest X-ray
C. Sputum AFB smear microscopy and culture
D. GeneXpert MTB/RIF assay
Answer: C
2. In measles, Koplik spots are typically seen:
A. On the palms and soles
B. On buccal mucosa opposite molars
C. On the back of the throat
D. On the conjunctiva
Answer: B
3. The best isolation precaution for a hospitalized patient with active
pertussis is:
A. Contact precautions only
 B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Protective isolation
Answer: B

4. The most effective treatment for lepromatous leprosy includes:

A. Rifampicin + Dapsone + Clofazimine (MDT)
B. Penicillin G
C. Amphotericin B
D. Metronidazole
Answer: A
5. The life cycle stage of Sarcoptes scabiei responsible for skin burrowing is:
A. Larva
B. Adult female mite
C. Egg
D. Pupa
Answer: B
6. The SAFE strategy recommended by WHO for Trachoma elimination
stands for:
A. Surgery, Antibiotics, Facial cleanliness, Environmental improvement
B. Screening, Antibiotics, Facial care, Eye drops
C. Sanitation, Antiseptics, Face washing, Education
D. Surgery, Antibodies, Face masks, Eye wash
Answer: A

7. The primary pathophysiology leading to rice-water stools in cholera is:

A. Cytokine-mediated tissue necrosis
B. Enterotoxin-induced chloride ion secretion into intestines
C. Endotoxin-mediated blood vessel damage
D. Liver inflammation
Answer: B
8. A nurse assessing a dehydrated child classifies severe dehydration if the
child presents with:
A. Sunken eyes, lethargy, very slow skin pinch return
B. Increased thirst, restless behavior
C. Moist mouth, strong radial pulse
D. Edema and hypertension
Answer: A
9. The most effective ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution) formula
recommended by WHO contains:
 A. Sodium 75 mmol/L, Glucose 75 mmol/L
B. Sodium 135 mmol/L, Glucose 135 mmol/L
C. Sodium 40 mmol/L, Glucose 110 mmol/L
D. Sodium 100 mmol/L, Glucose 20 mmol/L
Answer: A
10.The intestinal parasite that can cause iron-deficiency anemia due to
chronic intestinal blood loss is:
A. Hookworm (Ancylostoma duodenale)
B. Roundworm (Ascaris lumbricoides)
C. Pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis)
D. Tapeworm (Taenia saginata)
Answer: A

11.The Plasmodium falciparum stage that infects human liver cells is called:
A. Gametocyte
B. Sporozoite
C. Merozoite
D. Hypnozoite
Answer: B
12.The definitive diagnostic test for Dengue fever within the first 5 days of
illness is:
A. Dengue IgG ELISA
B. NS1 antigen detection test
C. Dengue viral culture
D. Dengue PCR after 10 days
Answer: B
13.The recommended first-line antimalarial drug for uncomplicated P.
falciparum malaria in Pakistan is:
A. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
B. Chloroquine
C. Primaquine alone
D. Doxycycline
Answer: A
14.The classic symptom triad of Rabies includes:
A. Hydrophobia, Aerophobia, Confusion
B. Hematuria, Fever, Seizures
C. Cough, Dyspnea, Chest pain
D. Jaundice, Vomiting, Diarrhea
Answer: A
15.The causative agent of syphilis is:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Haemophilus ducreyi
Answer: A
16.Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is most commonly caused by:
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea and Chlamydia co-infection
C. Candida albicans
D. Escherichia coli
Answer: B
17.The hallmark clinical feature of secondary syphilis is:
A. Generalized maculopapular rash including palms and soles
B. Painless genital chancre
C. Gumma formation in organs
D. Neurosyphilis with meningitis
Answer: A
18.The best nursing approach in counseling a client diagnosed with STD is to:
A. Offer empathetic, confidential, non-judgmental communication
B. Share patient’s condition openly with community
C. Only give treatment and skip counseling
D. Avoid discussing safe sex practices
Answer: A

19.The epidemiological triad consists of:

A. Host, Agent, Environment
B. Vector, Host, Agent
C. Disease, Agent, Immunity
D. Agent, Immunity, Community
Answer: A
20.A live attenuated vaccine is available for all EXCEPT:
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Varicella (Chickenpox)
D. Hepatitis B
Answer: D

Now you are fully prepared for your exam…. Good Luck
 Scenario-Based MCQs:

1. A 35-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of persistent cough,

low-grade fever, and weight loss. His sputum AFB smear is positive. As a
community health nurse, which is the most appropriate action?
A. Start empirical antibiotic therapy for pneumonia
B. Initiate Directly Observed Therapy (DOTS) and notify public health
authorities
C. Advise rest at home with symptomatic treatment only
D. Refer immediately for surgical lung resection
Answer: B
2. A 5-year-old child comes to your clinic with fever, cough, Koplik spots,
and a generalized rash that started behind the ears and spread downward.
What is your next best step?
A. Administer measles vaccine immediately
B. Isolate the child and provide supportive care
C. Prescribe antibiotics to prevent secondary infection
D. Refer to dermatologist for skin condition
Answer: B
3. A patient diagnosed with diphtheria has developed stridor and shows signs
of airway obstruction. As a nurse, your immediate priority is to:
A. Administer diphtheria antitoxin
B. Suction throat secretions vigorously
C. Prepare for airway management (intubation/tracheostomy)
D. Administer intravenous fluids
Answer: C

4. A mother brings her 8-year-old son who has itching, burrows in finger
webs, and complains of nocturnal pruritus. You suspect scabies. Which
teaching will you emphasize first?
A. Daily bathing with warm water
B. Application of topical permethrin to entire body
 C. Avoidance of high-protein diet
D. Isolate the child in hospital
Answer: B
5. A 22-year-old pregnant woman presents with mild fever and a generalized
maculopapular rash. She reports no history of rubella vaccination. What
is your priority nursing intervention?
A. Administer MMR vaccine
B. Counsel regarding risk of congenital rubella syndrome and refer for
obstetric care
C. Advise complete bed rest
D. Start antiviral therapy immediately
Answer: B
6. A leprosy patient complains of loss of sensation in hands and visible skin
lesions. Which nursing assessment is most appropriate?
A. Blood pressure measurement
B. Sensory testing and wound inspection of hands and feet
C. Visual acuity testing
D. Assessment of lung auscultation
Answer: B

7. A child presents with acute watery diarrhea and signs of moderate

dehydration. Which ORS administration instruction is correct?
A. Give ORS slowly over 24 hours
B. Give ORS rapidly in first 4 hours and reassess hydration
C. Insert IV fluids immediately
D. Give plain water only
Answer: B
8. A 6-year-old child with bloody diarrhea and abdominal cramps is
diagnosed with bacillary dysentery. The most appropriate initial nurse
action is:
A. Rehydrate and collect stool sample for culture
B. Start broad-spectrum antibiotics without testing
C. Discharge with antidiarrheal agents
D. Refer to orthopedic specialist
Answer: A
9. A woman presents with fever, abdominal pain, constipation, and rose
spots on abdomen. You suspect typhoid fever. Which lab test is most
specific for diagnosis in first week?
A. Stool culture
B. Blood culture
 C. Widal test
D. Urinalysis
Answer: B
10.A farmer complains of chronic fatigue and anemia. He has a history of
walking barefoot in fields. Stool test confirms hookworm infestation. Your
health education should emphasize:
A. Deworming therapy and iron supplementation
B. Avoidance of fatty foods
C. Daily bathing with antiseptic
D. Using mosquito nets at night
Answer: A

11.A patient comes with cyclical fever with chills and sweats every 48 hours,
splenomegaly, and anemia. You suspect malaria. Which diagnostic test
should you prioritize?
A. Blood smear for malaria parasite
B. Dengue NS1 antigen test
C. Chest X-ray
D. Blood culture
Answer: A
12.A 14-year-old boy presents with high fever, severe body ache, retro-
orbital pain, and skin petechiae. You suspect Dengue Hemorrhagic
Fever. As a nurse, which sign would indicate immediate deterioration?
A. Rising hematocrit and decreasing platelet count
B. Mild leukocytosis
C. Soft non-tender spleen
D. Normal capillary refill
Answer: A
13.A dog bite victim presents within 4 hours of exposure. Your first priority
as a nurse is to:
A. Wash the wound thoroughly with soap and water
B. Suture the wound
C. Apply antiseptic ointment only
D. Administer corticosteroids
Answer: A

14.A 25-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain, foul-smelling

vaginal discharge, and pain during intercourse. Clinical diagnosis is Pelvic
Inflammatory Disease (PID). Which nursing education is MOST
important?
 A. Complete full course of antibiotics and notify sexual partner
B. Apply hot packs to lower abdomen only
C. Avoid all physical activity for 6 months
D. Use antifungal cream
Answer: A
15.A male patient presents with urethral discharge and dysuria. Gram stain
shows Gram-negative diplococci. The most appropriate nursing action is
to:
A. Prepare patient for IM Ceftriaxone injection
B. Advise him to increase fluid intake only
C. Delay treatment until partner is tested
D. Advise saltwater sitz bath
Answer: A
16.A pregnant woman tests positive for syphilis (RPR). As a nurse, what is the
priority action?
A. Administer Benzathine Penicillin G as per guideline
B. Delay treatment until delivery
C. Refer for C-section immediately
D. Only monitor baby after birth
Answer: A

17.During an immunization campaign, a 6-month-old infant comes for DPT

3rd dose. He had mild fever after previous dose. Your best nursing action
is:
A. Defer vaccine
B. Reassure mother and administer vaccine as scheduled
C. Administer half dose
D. Switch to oral vaccine
Answer: B
18.During home visits, a nurse identifies multiple cases of diarrhea in the
community. The priority nursing action is to:
A. Teach community about safe drinking water, sanitation, and ORS use
B. Refer all cases to tertiary hospital
C. Distribute antibiotics to all families
D. Request government to chlorinate all water tanks
Answer: A
19.A nurse working in a polio-endemic area encounters a child with acute
flaccid paralysis (AFP). What is the most appropriate first step?
A. Report AFP case to surveillance team within 24 hours
B. Administer steroids
 C. Apply leg braces immediately
D. Advise rest at home
Answer: A
20.A 40-year-old man presents with yellowing of eyes, dark urine, and
fatigue. His tests confirm Hepatitis B. Which is the most appropriate
nursing education?
A. Avoid sharing razors and toothbrushes
B. Immediately receive Hepatitis A vaccine
C. Drink alcohol to stimulate appetite
D. No precaution needed if asymptomatic
Answer: A