Solutions of 10 Online Physics Brawl
Solutions of 10 Online Physics Brawl
Solutions of 10 Online Physics Brawl
1
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
RS = nR ,
R
RP = .
n
2
By multiplying these two equations, we
√ get rid of n and the remaining equation is R = RS RP ,
from which we obtain the result R = RS RP = 100 Ω. We need n = 100 such resistors.
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
2
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Jozef Lipták
liptak.j@fykos.cz
3
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
5
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
In this task, we made a numerical error. We decided that the fairest resolution is to not
count any points gained or lost because of this problem. We apologize for the troubles.
Jozef Lipták
liptak.j@fykos.cz
6
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Therefore, in the cube where the edge corresponds to the wavelength of the sodium D-line there
are millions of molecules.
Jozef Lipták
liptak.j@fykos.cz
7
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Let pP = 0.000 1 denote the probability that a random person is infected and pN = 0.999 9
the probability that he is healthy. Furthermore let pPP = 0.999 9 denote the probability that
an infectious person will have positive test and pNP = 0.000 3 that a healthy person will have
positive test.
The desired probability can be calculated as the ratio between the number of all cases in
which is infectious person correctly tested (this equals the product pP pPP )to the number of all
people with positive test, which leads to the formula
pP pPP 1
= .
pP pPP + pN pNP 4
On the other hand, even though the test seemed to be quite reliable, we obtained the result, that
a person with a positive test is infectious only with 25 % probability. Do not give up hope. . .
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
8
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
1 2 v2 v2 .
s= at = = = 348 m .
2 2a 2g tan α
Jozef Lipták
liptak.j@fykos.cz
impacts the ground under the waterfall. Assume that the water quickly flows away from the
point of impact and the depth of water under the waterfall is negligible.
Dodo is reminiscing about National park Plitvička jezera.
To solve this problem, we will use Newton’s second law in the formulation with momentum
dp
F = ,
dt
which states, that the force is defined as as the time derivative of momentum. In time dt, the
river bed decelerates falling water with mass dm = ρ dV = ρQ dt from the impact velocity v
to zero. We will denote the impact velocity by comparing kinetic and potential energy in
a homogeneous gravitational field
1 √
mgh = mv 2 , v= 2gh ,
2
where g is gravitational acceleration. Plugging in, we obtain the force
dp v dm vρQ dt √ .
F = = = = ρQ 2hg = 29 kN .
dt dt dt
Jozef Lipták
liptak.j@fykos.cz
9
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
10
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
After numerical substitution we will find out that we have to supply 8.21 times more heat to
the ice to boil it away than to melt it.
Kateřina Fatková
katka@fykos.cz
11
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
holds. We used the fact that the current is the same on all devices connected in series. We
denote Ri from the equation as
1 − η1
Ri = R .
η1
Parallel connection of two resistors can be substitued by one resistor with half resistance. There-
fore, two identical resistors connected in parallel have four times smaller resistance compared
to serial connection. For the efficiency of the parallel connection we obtain
R 2 R
I R R η1 .
η2 = ( R 4
) = 4
= = = = 0.626 ,
4
+ Ri I2 R
4
+ Ri R + 4Ri 1−η1
R + 4R η1 4 − 3η1
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
0.8FG = FG − Fb ,
where FG is the force of gravity and Fb the force of buoyancy. Now we need to plug the formulas
for forces in and express mass m as
0.8mg = mg − V ρg ,
20 3
m= πr ρ .
3
.
Using the numerical values given we obtain the mass of the ball as m = 168 g.
Veronika Hendrychová
vercah@fykos.cz
13
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
holds. This equation rewrites as a quadratic equation for t100 , with solutions
√
vd0 ± c2 d0 2 + (c2 − v 2 ) n2 l2
t100 = .
c2 − v 2
The physically correct one is the positive one. Furthermore, let us calculate the difference ∆t =
= t100 − t0 . We obtain ∆t = 2.06 · 10−7 s. However, this time difference is in the reference
frame connected with the countryside. Since Danka moves in that reference frame, we need to
transform it into the reference frame connected with the train (let us denote it with apostrophe),
in which is Danka stationary and her proper time therefore equals the coordinate time t′ . We
will begin with the transformation formula t′ → t
( )
v ′
t=γ x + t′ ,
c2
where v is the velocity of one reference frame towards the other, γ = √ 1
2
and if Danka has
1− v2
c
′
constant x (coordinate in reference frame connected with the train), for the time difference we
obtain
1 .
∆t′ = ∆t = 1.94 · 10−7 s .
γ
Daniela Pittnerová
daniela@fykos.cz
1 1 7
∆E = M v2 + M v2 = M v2 ,
2 5 10
( )
l 7
Mg sin α − R cos α = M v2 ,
2 10
√
5g .
v= (l sin α − 2R cos α) = 6.00 m·s−1 .
7
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
14
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
In our particular problem, the method of images gives electrostatic problem with two iden-
tical square plates in the distance 2d, from which one has potential φr and charge Q and the
second one has potential −φr and charge −Q. These plates together form a parallel-plate√ca-
pacitor. Considering that their distance 2d is significantly less than their characteristic size S,
we may approximate their capacitance as
C ′ = ε0 S/2d .
Now we need to realise, that such capacitor has potential difference twice the difference between
plate and the infinite plane and so capacitance, as defined in task, is C = 2C ′ = 4.8 pF.
Václav Mikeska
v.mikeska@fykos.cz
Therefore, compared to the initial position (zero displacement was at the distance l below the
upper hoop), the lower hoop is lifted by
R 2 φ2
∆h = .
2l
The difference in potential energy is
1 mgR2 2
Ep = mg∆h = φ .
2 l
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Consider that kinetic and potential energy of simple harmonic oscillator is described by
equations
1
Ek = mẋ2 ,
2
1
Ep = kx2 .
2
√
The period is T = 2π m/k. Now we just need to notice that the formulas, which we have
derived for our system, have the same ”pattern” as these for SHO (the only difference is that
our variable is angle, not position, but that is not an issue). Let us denote the expressions
equivalent to m and k as mef and kef , respectively, and plug them into the equation for the
period of small oscillations. We obtain
√ √ √
mef mR2 l .
T = 2π = 2π mgR2
= 2π = 2.84 s .
kef g
l
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Now we need to subtract the force that the lower cuboid imparts on the upper from the
force we impart on it. Alternatively, it is enough to realise that these cuboids behave as a single
object, which means
F
a= .
M +m
Now we will only need to express the force as F = (M + m) a = 3.0 N.
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
For the index of the first point that surpasses one percent of lightspeed, we need to round up
and add one (we get to the nth point after (n − 1) collisions), that is 79.
Jaroslav Herman
jardah@fykos.cz
19
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
1 1 a2 t2
x3 = v1 t3 + a3 t23 = − a3 t23 = − 1 1 .
2 2 2a3
Therefore, overall covered distance will be
( )
1 a2 t2 1 a1
x = x1 + x3 = a1 t21 − 1 1 = a1 t21 1 − =
2 2a3 2 a3
mv 2
f2 m − f1 (m + M ) .
= = 3.60 m .
2g (m + M ) f1 (f2 − f1 ) (m + M )
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
20
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Q = ∆U ,
2
I Rt = mcV ∆T ,
where m ist the mass of the gas which we are heating up, cV is it’s specific heat capacity
at constant volume which, for air, is approximately 0.72 kJ·kg−1 ·K−1 , and ∆T is the differ-
ence in temperatures at the beginning and the end of the process. We already know that the
temperature must increase by the factor 1 + ∆p/p0 , that is by ∆T = T0 ∆p/p0 .
Now we only need to find the mass of gas in the cylinder, which is simply m = ρV = ρSl,
where ρ = 1.20 kg·m−3 (the density of air in normal conditions). Finally we have
ρSlcV T0 F ρlcV T0 F .
t= = = 130 s .
Sp0 I 2 R p0 I 2 R
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
21
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
are three such vertices, and they are interchangeable. Therefore, we will use the often-used
trick – imagine, that these vertices are connected perfectly conductively (but still no current
will flow through these connections) and let B denote one of them. From A to B there are three
resistors with the resistance R in parallel, therefore for the resistance the following will hold
(for any n resistors)
1 1 R
=n· ⇒ Rn = .
Rn R n
For n = 3 we obtain that the resistance between A and B equals R/3.
In vertex B the current has two possible paths again – through the edge connecting the
two 3D cubes or “further” in the original cube. In the first case, it always flows to a vertex
neighbouring with Z. We can connect these vertices into one (similarly as we did with B) and
denote it Y . Consider that the resistance between Y and Z, as well as the resistance between B
and Y , equals R/3. In the second case the current has two possible paths (since it can not flow
back to A) in each of the three vertices equivalent to B, which means six edges in total. But
it will always flow into one of three vertices of the first cube, which is in the distance of two
edges from A. As before, we will connect these three vertices into a single one (let us denote
it C) and the resistance between B and C is R/6.
There are two possibilities in the vertex C. The current may either flow into the second 3D
cube – through resistance R/3 and end in the vertex X, where the resistance between X and Y
equals R/6; or it can continue in the first 3D cube – through resistance R/3 and it will end in
the vertex which is opposite to A – let us denote it D.
From the vertex D the current can flow only into the vertex of the second 3D cube, which
is opposite to Z. Let us denote it W . Then the resistance between D and W is R and be-
tween W and X again R/3. Therefore we can calculate the resistance between C and X as the
′
“direct” (RCX ) path and the path through D and W (RCDW X ) in parallel
(R )
R′ RCDW X
R R
3 3
+R+ 3 5
RCX = ′ CX = = R.
RCX + RCDW X 3R
3
+R 18
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
22
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
mv − M v0 = −mv ′ + M v0′ ,
1 1 1 1
mv 2 + M v02 = mv ′2 + M v0′2 ,
2 2 2 2
where v ′ is the downwards velocity of the bullet after the collision. However, we can notice
that the mechanical energy is conserved so the velocity v0 has the same magnitude as v0′ .
Substituting v0 = v0′ , the second equation becomes v 2 = v ′2 . The solution v = −v ′ does not
make any physical sense (it would be as if the collision never happened), so we must have v = v ′ .
From the first equation, we obtain
m
v0 = v.
M
Let the fall of the body down from the highest point take a time t, then v0 = gt. The time it
takes the body to move up is the same as the time of the fall so we are dealing with a period
2v0 2mv
T = 2t = = .
g Mg
Now we can just calculate the frequency (the rate of fire)
1 Mg .
f= = = 10.5 s−1 .
T 2mv
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
23
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
i.e. five moles of gas and four moles of phosphorus change into a solid product. The amount of
substance of oxygen used in the reaction is therefore
5 5m .
nO2 = nP = = 0.008 59 mol ,
4 4Mm
where Mm = 31.0 g·mol−1 is the molar mass of the phosphorus atoms. We will use the ideal
gas law in the form of
pV
= const ,
Tn
where the amount of substance of the gas and the pressure changes during the examined process.
.
At the beginning there was n1 = V /Vmol = 0.892 9 mol in the vessel. We obtain the ratio of the
pressures as
p2 n2 nO2 5mVmol .
= =1− =1− = 0.990 4 .
p1 n1 n1 4Mm V
Jozef Lipták
liptak.j@fykos.cz
24
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
The power changes periodically with the period T = 1/f , therefore if we want to calculate the
average power, it is enough to integrate it through one period and divide it by the length of
one period
∫
1
T
(2 2
)
P = R IDC + 2IDC IAC sin (2πf t) + IAC sin2 (2πf t) dt =
T 0
[ ( )]1/f
1 t sin (4πf t)
2
= f R tIDC − 2
IDC IAC cos (2πf t) + IAC − =
πf 2 8πf
( 2
) 0
2 IAC .
= R IDC + = 35 mW .
2
The evaluation of the integral could be simplified using the fact that the integral of a sine
through the whole period is zero and the integral of the square of a sine through an interval
equal to a multiple of the half-period is one half of the interval length.
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
25
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
We therefore have a simple relationship between the momentum of photons traveling in the
laser and the energy needed for the train to stop. It remains to find the momentum of photons
that need to leave the laser per unit time. We can use the well known formula
∆p
F = ,
∆t
but here we need to take care. The problem statement says that there is a mirror at the
front of the locomotive, i.e. the photons are not absorbed, but rather reflected. The change of
momentum the photons undergo upon impact with the train is double the magnitude of their
momentum when traveling. Symbolically,
v2 ∆plaser
m =2 ,
2s ∆t
where we only substituted for the necessary force.
At the end, we only need to realize that power is energy per unit time
∆Elaser ∆plaser v2 .
P = =c = cm = 22.2 TW
∆t ∆t 4s
We can note that even though lasers in use today can reach powers up to several petawatts,
but they are only emitting pulses of light. For continuous lasers, the highest power used tends
to be around tens of kilowatts.
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
where ω is the part of the surface of the cube which is exposed to the radiation and dS = n dS,
where n denotes the normal vector of an infinitesimal surface dS. We want to calculate that
integral for all possible positions of the cube with respect to z, so we can choose the highest
and lowest value.
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Consider that no more than three faces of the cube can be exposed simultaneously. Also,
all exposed faces must have one vertex in common. Let us denote these faces by A, B and C
and their normal vectors by a, b and c respectively.
Furthermore, the dot product of z and a given normal (mentioned above) is zero for all
faces which are not exposed to the radiation. We may claim that there are always exactly three
faces exposed, but some of them have normals perpendicular to the rays and therefore do not
add anything to the total surface. The set ω from the integral therefore represents the union of
faces A, B and C. We obtain
∫ ∫ ∫
S= |z · a| dS + |z · b| dS + |z · c| dS .
A B C
The expression z · n is constant on each face. For a cube with unit edges, we get
S = |z · a| + |z · b| + |z · c| .
The vector of the radiation may be divided into three components – each in the direction of
one coordinate vector – let us denote them by za , zb and zc respectively. The expression for
the surface area simplifies to
where we used the fact that normal vectors have unit length. The vector of radiation has unit
length as well and assuming orthogonality of za , zb and zc (which holds because of orthogonality
of a, b and c), we get
1 = |za |2 + |zb |2 + |zc |2 .
Notice that the equation resembles the geometric mean of magnitudes of vectors z. Similarly,
the formula for calculation of the surface area can be understood as their arithmetic mean. It
is possible to obtain the maximal estimate of the surface area from the inequality between the
geometric and arithmetic mean, the minimum can be (with luck) estimated as well.
However, if we do not know the inequality yet, we must continue our work. Let x = |za |
and y = |zb |. Plugging them both into the formula for area, we obtain
√
S =x+y+ 1 − x2 − y 2 .
⟨ √ ⟩
Let us examine extrema inside intervals of permissible values x ∈ ⟨0, 1⟩, y ∈ 0, 1 − x2 . The
partial derivatives of the function S(x, y), which are
∂S x ∂S y
=1− √ , =1− √ ,
∂x 1 − x2 − y 2 ∂y 1 − x2 − y 2
must both equal zero. Solving the system of equations results in x = y and then a quadratic
equation
1
3x2 = 1 ⇒ x = √
3
√
giving the only solution. The resulting surface area is S1 = 3.
The second option is to find extrema on the boundaries of the intervals. For y = 0 we have
√
S =x+ 1 − x2 ,
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
√
which is a simple function whose maximum (on the permissible interval for x) is S2 = 2
for x = √12 and whose minimum is S3 = 1 for x ∈ {0, 1}.
√
For the second boundary condition y = 1 − x2 , we receive
√
S =x+ 1 − x2 ,
We have examined all possibilities and obtained all possible candidates for extrema.√Since S1 > S2
we can claim that the maximum of the function S(x, y) on the given interval is 3, while
the minimum
√ is 1. The desired solution is the ratio of the maximum to the minimum, which
equals 3.
Finally, it should be pointed out that it is possible to find the solution much easier using
intuition – it was enough to imagine a cross-section of the cube when cut by some plane. The
minimal value corresponds to the situation when the wavefronts are parallel with one face – the
maximal value is reached if the cross-section is a hexagon. However, these are only estimates,
not mathematical proofs.
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
Fr = F cos φ − f (M g − F sin φ) .
Our only freedom is in the choice of angle φ, so we find the derivative of Fv with respect to φ
and put the result equal 0.
−F sin φ + f F cos φ = 0
f = tan φ
.
We obtain φ = arctan f = 0.38. If we plug the angle into Fr and consider that ar = Fr /M , we
. −2
obtain amax = 1.5 m·s .
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
x = v cos φ t .
The vertical position will change according to the formula for motion with constant acceleration
giving
1
y = h + v sin φ t − gt2 .
2
By elimination of time from these two equations we obtain height y as a function of x
gx2
y = h + x tan φ − .
2v 2 cos2 φ
We are interested in the moment when the ball hits the ground, which means y = 0. Let d denote
the horizontal coordinate of the point of impact. We will use the formula cos−2 φ = tan2 φ + 1,
plug it to the equation and obtain
gd2 gd2
− tan2 φ 2
+ d tan φ − 2 + h = 0 .
2v 2v
Now a number of tiny and simple physics ideas. For most of possible values of d we will find
two angles that lead to the distance given. If we increase d, the difference between these two
angles approaches zero – for d = dmax there is only one angle which leads to such distance.
In terms of mathematics, the discriminant equals zero. Let us calculate it from the quadratic
equation for tan φ and put it equal 0. This leads to
( )
gd2 gd2
2
dmax + 4 max h − max = 0,
2v 2 2v 2
v2
tan φ = .
gd
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
The desired optimal angle is 32◦ . Consider that for h > 0 the optimal angle is always smaller
than 45◦ and with increasing h it approaches zero.
Šimon Pajger Jaroslav Herman
legolas@fykos.cz jardah@fykos.cz
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
a cross-section at the height h and S denotes the surface of the base at the height H (where H
is the height of the whole pyramid) and if we consider that the weight of the pyramid equals M =
= 1/3ρw SH, we get
shρl = SHρw . (2)
If we look at a vertical cross-section along the pyramid altitude, looking the angles between the
vertical altitude and the horizontal base we get
h H s h2
= , = 2,
a A S H
where A and a denote the length of the base at given heights. Using this relation and (2) we
can find the equation
h3 ρ l = ρ w H 3 .
The motion of the pyramid after that small vertical impact could be described using equation
where dV ≈ sz for sufficiently small z is infinitesimal volume difference of the part which is
under water in addition (compared to the system in equilibrium). Plugging in for the mass we
get
1
ρw SH z̈ = −ρl gsz ,
3
3gρl h2
z̈ + z = 0.
ρw H 3
The equation above is the equation of a simple harmonic oscillator, therefore for the frequency
of small oscillations, we can write
3gρl h2 3g
Ω2 = = ,
ρw H 3 h
√
1 3g
f= .
2π h
.
Using numerical values from the problem statement, we obtain the desired frequency f = 3.52 Hz.
Vít Beran Šimon Pajger
vit.beran@fykos.cz legolas@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
We will calculate the motion of the ball (the one which is not on the rod) first. If we assume
both cylinders rotate with the angular velocity ω, the ball will move with the velocity rω in
the direction tangential to the smaller cylinder. When we release the ball, it will not change its
velocity and move in a straight line until it hits the larger cylinder. The question is√how long
is the straight line. We obtain its length using the Pythagorean theorem as s1 = R2 − r2 .
Therefore, the time between the release of the ball and the moment when it hits the larger
cylinder is √
R2 − r 2 .
t1 = = 5.0 s .
rω
Let us investigate the bead on the rod now. Since it is on the rod, it moves with the constant
angular velocity ω even after its release from the cylinder. We will be using the reference frame
connected to the rotating cylinders (and most importantly, with the rod). In this reference
frame, the bead will be acted on by the centrifugal force, which is given as Fcen = mω 2 r(t),
where r(t) denotes the position of the bead on the rod in time t. By dividing the formula by m
we get the acceleration of the bead as a function of time t. Consider that the acceleration is
the second derivative of r(t), so we get the differential equation
r̈(t) = ω 2 r(t) .
Similar equations are most easily solved using the so-called characteristic polynomial. This
means that we assume that the solution is exponential function r(t) = r0 eλt . We plug it into
the equation and get
λ2 r0 eλt = ω 2 r0 eλt .
First of all, consider that r0 = 0 would satisfy the equation. This makes sense – if the bead’s
initial position was on the axis, there would not be any force to push it. However, its initial
position is on the smaller cylinder and therefore such a solution is not interesting for us. We
also know, that an exponential is never zero, therefore we can cancel it out. We cancel out r0 as
well. From the remaining equation, we obtain λ = ±ω. If we solve the differential equation of
order n, we get n solutions. The next step is to write the solution as sum of individual solutions.
In our case
r(t) = r1 eωt + r2 e−ωt .
This is general solution of the motion of the bead on the rod rotating with the angular
velocity ω. The remaining task is to investigate how will it move in our case. We know that the
position at time t = 0 is r and the velocity at time t = 0 is zero. We get a system of equations
r = r1 + r2
0 = ωr1 − ωr2 ,
which holds for r1 = r2 = r/2. Plugging this to the general solution, we get
r ( ωt )
r(t) = e + e−ωt = r cosh ωt .
2
If we had not noticed the cosh, it would not have been a mistake, but then we would have to
find the resulting time somehow else – using the substitution x = eωt – we would get a quadratic
equation or using a numerical calculation.
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
The remaining task is to find the time when the bead hits the larger cylinder. Mathematically
said, for which t2 the formula R = r(t2 ) holds? From the formula above we obtain
1 R .
t2 = argcosh = 1.5 s .
ω r
Subtracting the times we get the desired time difference between the impacts of the ball and
.
the bead ∆t = t1 − t2 = 3.5 s.
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
φq + φp = 0 ,
φp = −φq .
The potential on the plane is the same as if there was an opposite charge −q on the opposite
side of the plane at the same distance d. Now we can substitute all induced charges on the
plane by a single charge −q. The force that the charge q exerts on −q is
1 q2 1 q2
F = 2
= .
4πε (d + d) 16πε d2
Because the charges have opposite signs, the charge q is attracted to the plane. This calculation
is based on the method of image charges. We can see that the force is inversely proportional to
the square of the distance from the plane to the charge. When we have utilized the plane as a
mirror, why not utilise motion of planets too? Gravitational force is, similarly to our force F ,
proportional to r−2 . The motion of the charge, therefore, satisfies Kepler’s laws of planetary
motion with changed constants. Kepler’s third law is
a3 MG
= .
T2 4π2
We need to use our constant instead of a constant derived from Newton’s gravitational law, the
physical behaviour of the system remains unchanged otherwise. The equation becomes
a3 q2
2
= .
T 64π3 εm
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
What is this equation good for? The charge’s trajectory will not be an ellipse, but a straight
line perpendicular to the plane. However, if we assume that it is an infinitely thin ellipse, with
its foci almost in the original and final point of the trajectory, then such an ellipse approximates
the straight line segment on which the charge moves. This ellipse has a semi-major axis a with
length d2 . The period equals
√ ( d )3 √
64π3 εm 2 8π3 εmd3
T = = .
q2 q2
The move from the initial point to the plane lasts only half a period, therefore the time, which
is the final solution to this problem, equals
√
T 2π3 εmd3 .
t= = = 0.262 s .
2 q2
Jaroslav Herman
jardah@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
which is the total power divided by the surface area. The power in each zone equals I0 Si ,
where Si is the part of the ball’s surface coresponding to the zone between angles φi and φi+1 .
We can calculate it as
∫ φi+1
Si = 2πR sin φR dφ = 2πR2 [− cos φ]φi+1
φi = 2πR2 (cos φi − cos φi+1 ) .
φi
η= = = 1− k cos φi .
P0 P0 2 k
i=0 i=1
The sum must be calculated numerically; it is approximately 0.716. The ratio of power radiated
.
out of the well to total radiated power is η = 5.53 · 10−3 .
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
−1
Numerically, it is R = 50.0 kg·s . Substituting it into the equation (3), we get
m0
v(t) = u ln . (4)
m0 − Rt
By integrating the equation (4) we obtain the formula for the distance covered at a given time.
The initial condition is s(t = 0) = 0, therefore
m0 m0 u m0
s(t) = ut + ut ln − ln (5)
m0 − Rt R m0 − Rt
After numerically solving the equation (5), we get the time when the rocket reaches the dis-
tance s = 5.00 km. Let’s plug it into the equation (4) and calculate the rocket’s velocity at the
. .
point of collision. We get t = 17.7 s and v = 584 m·s−1 . We can tell that the warring civilizations
are not very advanced, since their rockets move very slowly compared to the speed of light.
Therefore, we could calculate the solution safely without using the special theory of relativity.
Jindřich Jelínek
jjelinek@fykos.cz
The minus sign comes from the fact that we are integrating against the force which we would
need to exert to counteract the centrifugal force. The potential energy due to the force of gravity
is ∫ z
Eg (z) = Fg dx = mgz .
0
As we said, the water surface is a surface with constant potential. (There are also no buoyant
forces on the surface.) For every point on the surface with coordinates rs , zs , the following holds
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
From this condition, we obtain the height of the surface as a function of radial distance
ω2 2
zs (r) = r + z0 ,
2g
where z0 is the height of the water surface in the center of the well. Of course, this only holds
if the surface is always above the bottom of the well. If there wasn’t enough water in the well,
the parabola we obtained could intersect the bottom of the well, but for now, let’s assume that
this is not the case. We can later check whether this assumption holds.
The volume of the water does not change when it is spinning. THe initial volume was
V = πr02 zv , where zv is the original height of the water column. After spinning, we have
∫ r0 ∫ 2π ∫ r0 ∫ r0 ( ) ( )
ω2 3 ω2 4
V = zs (r)r dφ dr = 2πzs (r)r dr = 2π r + z0 r dr = π r0 + z0 r02 .
0 0 0 0
2g 4g
From this, we can express the height of water in the center
ω2 2
z0 = zw − r0 .
4g
We know from the problem statement that at the given angular velocity, the water just started
to flow out of the well. We can express that as zs (r0 ) = h. From this condition, we get
ω2 2 ω2 2 ω2 2
h= r 0 + z0 = r 0 + zw − r0 .
2g 2g 4g
The original height of the water in the well that we are looking for is then
ω2 2 .
zw = h −
r0 = 39 m .
4g
.
At the end, we just check that in this case z0 = 31 m, which means our assumption was correct.
Jáchym Bártík
tuaki@fykos.cz
37
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
where S is the cross-sectional area of the tube. From this formula, we get
RT ′
dp = λ dr
Mm S
There must be a centripetal force
dFd = dmω 2 r ,
exerted on a given section of the tube. This force must be caused by difference in pressure.
Therefore S dp = dFd holds. Putting it together, we get
RT ′
λ dr = dmω 2 r ,
Mm
which is a differential equation
ω 2 Mm
λ′ = λr = 2k2 λr ,
RT
where k is a wisely-defined constant
√
ω 2 Mm .
k= = 1.212 m−1 .
2RT
The solution of the equation is
2 2
λ = Aek r
,
where A is a constant. We calculate the center of mass
∫ ∫ r0 ∫r 2 2
1
r0
rλ dr A 0 0 rek r dr
Tr = r dm = ∫ r0
0
= ∫ r0 2 2
m 0 λ dr k r A e dr
0 0
Statistical solution
It is possible to solve the problem using statistical physics as well, but the ability to work with
statistical ensembles is required.
The one-particle Hamiltonian is
p2 p2 p2 − 2mωp · n3 × x
H1 (X1 ) = −ω·L= − ωn3 · x × p = =
2m 2m 2m
′2
(p − mωn3 × x)2
mω 2
p 2
mω 2
= − (n3 × x)2 = − r ,
2m 2 2m 2
where X1 is microstate of one particle, m is its mass and vectors x = (x1 , x2 , x3 ) and p =
= (p1 , p2 , p3 ) represent its coordinates and momentum. The vector n3 is the unit vector in the
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
direction of the third coordinate axis, which we choose to be identical with the axis of rotation.
We also define a new coordinate p′ = p − mωn3 × x, which is shifted momentum. As we will
see later, the shift has no effect during integration. Compared to the Hamiltonian of a free
particle, there is also a potential term which decreases with increasing distance from the axis.
This potential represents the centrifugal force exerted on the particles in a corotating system.
The variable r is the distance from the axis of rotation and it satisfies r2 = x21 + x22 .
Since this is a system with constant temperature, we describe it using a canonical statistical
ensemble. We divide the tube into small layers with thickness ∆r, perpendicular to the axis of
the tube. We will focus on one layer, which is at a distance r from the axis of rotation. The
one-particle partition function is
∫ (∫ ∞ )3
1 1 βp′2 βmω 2 r 2 V − βmω22 r2
Z1 (r) = e−βH1 (X1 ) dX1 = e− 2m dp′ S∆re− 2 = e ,
h3 h3 −∞
κ3
1
where the integral is over all possible states X1 of one particle, β = kB T
and h is Planck’s
constant. We used an auxiliary constant
√
2πm
κ=h
β
and denoted the volume of a layer by V = S∆r. Since we are working with an ideal gas, the
particles do not interact with each other and therefore we can write the total partition function
as
Z1 (r)N (r)
Z(r) = ,
N (r)!
where N (r) is the number of particles in the given layer. From statistical physics, we know
that the result is connected to Helmholtz free energy F = − β1 ln Z and we also know that the
chemical potential µ(r) can be calculated as the derivative of F with respect to the number of
particles N . We can write
( ) ( )
∂F 1 ∂ ln Z 1 eZ1 eZ1 1 N 1 N κ3 − βmω22 r2
µ(r) = =− =− ln − ≈ ln = ln e ,
∂N β ∂N β N N β eZ1 β eV
N κ3 − βmω22 r2
e = const ,
eV
βmω 2 r 2
n(r) = n0 e 2 ,
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
where F (x) is the force of tension within the thread at a distance x and λ(x) is the linear
density of the thread at the same point. We know that the speed of the impulse is constant
along the whole length of the thread. We can find the force F (x) by integrating the infinitesimal
contributions from pieces of thread hanging between x and l
( ∫ l )
F (x) = m+ λ(t) dt g .
x
We express the force from the first equation and substitute into the second one
∫ l
v2
λ(x) = m + λ(t) dt = m + L(l) − L(x) , (6)
g x
where L is the indefinite integral of λ. We differentiate this equation by x and obtain the
differential equation
v2 ′
λ = −λ ,
g
solvable by the method of separation of variables. We get
g
− 2x
λ = λ0 e v ,
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
where λ0 is an unknown constant which we need to infer from boundary conditions. We can
see that the linear density of the thread decreases exponentially with length. The total mass of
the thread is
∫ l ( )
− 2t
g λ0 v 2 gl
− 2
mt = λ0 ev dt = 1−e v ,
0
g
mt g
λ0 = ( gl
).
− 2
v2 1−e v
In the equation (6), we set x = 0 and express the mass of the little weight
∫ l
v2
m= λ0 − λ dx .
g 0
We’ve already calculated this integral once, the result is mt . We substitute for λ0 and get
( )
v2 mg 1 mt
m= · ( t ) − mt = mt gl
−1 = gl
.
g v 2 1 − e− vgl2 1−
−
e v2 e v2 −1
Now we can use the information that the impulse reaches the end in the same time t as the
point mass falling from height l. We have
l = vt ,
1
l = gt2 ,
2
but the velocity v is not the final velocity of the point mass, but the speed of the impulse,
i.e. the mean velocity of the point mass during fall. From that follows
gl
v2 = .
2
Putting everything together, we get
mt .
m= = 0.157 g.
e2 − 1
The mass of the little weight is roughly 0.157 g.
Jindřich Jelínek
jjelinek@fykos.cz
U2
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Numerical solution
The electric potential everywhere except for the regions with non-zero charge (therefore every-
where inside of the sphere) satisfies Laplace’s equation
∆Φ = 0 .
For some basic idea, it is enough to realise that the Laplace operator is a sum of second deriva-
tives in all (three) directions. In theory, we could discretize the sphere as a 3D grid. Then, using
differentiation of the Laplace equation, we would obtain that the potential at each point is equal
to the arithmetic mean of potentials at the neighbouring 6 points, and could let the computer
iterate the given formula (with fixed potential on the border) until it converges. However, to
obtain the result with the required precision, the calculation would be very time-consuming
(without an external server, it could even last longer than our competition). Therefore, as
usual in electrostatics problems, we use symmetry. The Laplace operator in spherical coordi-
nates equals
( )
1 ∂2 1 ∂ ∂Φ 1 ∂2Φ
(rΦ) + sin θ + 2
.
r ∂r2 r2 sin θ ∂θ ∂θ r2 sin θ ∂φ2
If we choose the z-axis as identical with the symmetry axis of the problem, the potential
does not depend on the φ coordinate (written as Φ = Φ(r, θ)), i.e. the third term is zero.
Most importantly, we can then discretize the problem using two variables only. Therefore, we
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
have a 2D grid where each point is described with two indices i, j and its potential Φ(r, θ) =
= Φ(ihr , jhθ ) = f (i, j), where we defined a function f for clarity; hr , hθ are constants denoting
the length of one step in the direction of r or θ. If we index our points starting from 0,
then hr = R/imax and hθ = π/2jmax , where R is the radius of the sphere, imax is the largest
index i and jmax is the largest index j, because we know from the solution of the previous
problem that the potential in the plane connecting both hemispheres is everywhere equal to 0.
Then we only need to find the potential inside the hemisphere which is interesting for us,
i.e. where θ ∈ ⟨0, π/2⟩.
In the direction of increasing r, we have discrete points with spacing hr . The derivative
of f r at a point i, j is
f (i + 1, j)r(i + 1) − f (i, j)r(i)
[f (i, j)r(i)]′ = ,
hr
where we used only the definition of a derivative and omitted the detail that h shall be infinitely
small. To be precise, we have written the so-called forward derivative, which somewhat describes
the derivative of f in the region between i and i+1. It is useful to keep this in mind. The second
derivative is the derivative of the derivative of f . Let us think about it for a while. Instead of
using two forward derivatives, which would mean comparing the derivative between i and i + 1
with the one between i + 1 and i + 2 (this does not seem to be the correct way to express
the second derivative in the point i), we use the backward derivative (symbolically described
as f ′ (i) = (f (i) − f (i − 1))/h, which is, of course, only another first derivative) instead. Next,
we plug in r(i) = ihr and calculate
1 ∂2 1 [f (i, j)r(i)]′ − [(f (i − 1, j)r(i − 1)]′
2
(f r) = =
r ∂r r(i) hr
f (i + 1, j)(i + 1) − 2f (i, j) + f (i − 1, j)(i − 1)
= .
ih2r
Similarly (with slightly more difficulty), we differentiate the second term
( )
1 ∂ ∂f
sin θ(j) =
r2 (i) sin θ(j) ∂θ ∂θ(j)
[( ) ] [( ) ]
sin j+ 1
2
hθ (f (i, j + 1) − f (i, j)) − sin j− 1
2
hθ [f (i, j) − f (i, j − 1)]
= .
sin (jhθ ) i2 h2r h2θ
[( ) ]
The expression sin j + 21 hθ may look quite weird, but it results from our desire to get the
value of the second derivative “exactly” between j and j + 1.
The remaining task is to use the fact that the sum of these two terms equals 0 and express
sin (jhθ ) ih2θ [f (i − 1, j) (i − 1) + f (i + 1, j) (i + 1)]
f (i, j) = [( ) ] [( ) ]+
2i2 h2θ sin (jhθ ) + sin j + 12 hθ + sin j − 12 hθ
[( ) ] [( ) ]
f (i, j − 1) sin j− 1
hθ + sin j + 12 hθ f (i, j + 1)
+ 2
[( ) ] [( ) ] .
2i2 h2θ sin (jhθ ) + sin j+ 1
2
hθ + sin 1
j− 2
hθ
This holds for the potential at all points except these with non-zero charge. Such points are
on the hemispheres. However, the potential on the hemispheres is given by the task, so these
are our boundary conditions.
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
We discretize the space into a 2D grid, pass through all its points and calculate the formula
given above for each of them. We repeat this over and over again until f (i, j) converges. The
code in Python is attached.
import numpy as np
Fi=np.zeros((101,101))
Fi2=np.zeros((101,101))
h=np.pi/200
b=True
eps=10**(-3)
F=100
while b:
b=False
for i in range(101):
for j in range(101):
if (i==100):
Fi2[i,j]=F
elif (i==0):
Fi2[i,j]=0
elif (j==100):
Fi2[i,j]=0
elif (j==0):
Fi2[i,j]=(np.sin(j*h)*i*h*h*(Fi[i-1,j]*(i-1)+Fi[i+1,j]*(i+1))
+2*np.sin((j+0.5)*h)*Fi[i,j+1])/(2*i*i*h*h*np.sin(j*h)+2*np.sin((j+0.5)*h))
if abs(Fi2[i,j]-Fi[i,j])>eps:
b=True
else:
Fi2[i,j]=(np.sin(j*h)*i*h*h*(Fi[i-1,j]*(i-1)+Fi[i+1,j]*(i+1))+
Fi[i,j-1]*np.sin((j-0.5)*h)+np.sin((j+0.5)*h)*Fi[i,j+1])/
(2*i*i*h*h*np.sin(j*h)+np.sin((j+0.5)*h)+np.sin((j-0.5)*h))
if abs(Fi2[i,j]-Fi[i,j])>eps:
b=True
for x in range(101):
for y in range(101):
Fi[x,y]=Fi2[x,y]
print(Fi[50,100])
Analytical solution
Let us use the general solution of Laplace’s equation ∆Φ = 0 in spherical coordinates
∑
∞
∑
l
( )
Φ(r, θ, φ) = Aml rl + Blm r−l−1 Ylm (θ, φ) ,
l=0 m=−l
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
where Ylm (θ, φ) are spherical harmonics and Aml and Bml are constants determined from the
initial conditions. We will choose the coordinates in such a way that the ray θ = 0 intersects the
apex of one hemisphere. In such a case, the coordinate φ characterizes the azimuthal symmetry
of the problem and therefore the potential is independent from it, which means that only
components with m = 0 remain in the sum and the solution with azimuthal symmetry satisfies
∑
∞
( )
Φ(r, θ) = Al rl + Bl r−l−1 Pl (cos θ) ,
l=0
where Pl (x) are Legendre polynomials. We look for potential inside the ball with radius R,
which does not diverge in the centre (for r = 0), therefore Bl = 0 for all l. The problem has
simplified into
∑
∞
Our objective is to find constants Al such that the equation holds for each θ ∈ ⟨0, π⟩. We use
orthogonality of Legendre polynomials given by equation
∫ 1
2
Pl (x)Pk (x) dx = δlk .
−1
2l + 1
For even l, Al = 0 holds, and for odd l we need to calculate the last integral. To do this, we use
several properties of Legendre polynomials, namely the knowledge of the values on the borders
l ( )
of the interval of integration Pl (1) = 1, Pl (0) = (−1) l 2
2l l for even l and the integral formula
2
for Legendre polynomials ∫
Pl+1 (x) − Pl−1 (x)
Pl (x) = .
2l + 1
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
We plug this result into (10) and then into (9) and (7), which lets us explicitly express the
potential inside the sphere using Legendre polynomials as
∑
∞ ( )
( ) (−1)
l−1
2l + 1 2 l+1
Φ(r, θ) = U0 1 − (−1) l
l+1 rl Pl (cos θ)
2Rl 2l+1 l 2
l=0
∑ (−1) l−1 ( )
2 (2l + 1) l + 1 rl
= U0 l+1 Pl (cos θ)
2l+1 l 2
Rl
lodd
∑ (−1)n 4n + 3 (2n + 2 ) r2n+1
∞
= U0 P2n+1 (cos θ)
22n+2 2n + 1 n+1 R2n+1
n=0
∑ (−1)n (4n + 3) (2n ) r2n+1
∞
= U0 P2n+1 (cos θ) .
22n+1 (n + 1) n R2n+1
n=0
Now we plug in the coordinates of the point where we want to calculate the potential, which
are θ = 0, r = R
2
, and get
( )
∑ (−1)n 4n + 3 2n
∞ ( )
R 1
Φ , 0 = U0
2 22n+1 n + 1 n 22n+1
n=0
∑
∞ ( )
(−1)n 4n + 3 2n
= U0
42n+1 n + 1 n
n=0
( )
3 .
= U0 2− √ = 0.658 U0 .
5
Halfway from the centre to the positively charged apex of the hemisphere, the potential
.
is Φ = 66 V. It is enough to evaluate the first three terms of the series to obtain the result
with sufficient precision, i.e. the first two significant figures.
Šimon Pajger Matěj Mezera
legolas@fykos.cz m.mezera@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Potential
0
−1
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
The specific value of Z usually does not have any physical meaning. It is simply a normalizing
constant. Only its derivatives will be physically relevant, as we shall see in the subsequent
problems.
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
p1 + p2 = 1 ,
1 − kE1T 1 − E1 +∆E
e B + e kB T = 1 ,
Z Z
E1
− k∆E
1+e TB = Ze kB T .
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
where the sum goes over all possible states (such as the two in the previous problem). Then
you had to use Boltzmann’s Law to calculate probabilities. The sum Z is called the partition
function.
Now let’s consider a more complicated system - the quantum harmonic
( oscillator,
) which can
be found in many different states. The energy of the n-th state is n + 12 ℏω, where n ∈ N0
and ℏω = 10−21 J is the parameter of the oscillator. Determine the probability that the system
is in the ground state (n = 0). The temperature of the system is T0 = 275 K.
∑
∞
Hint qn = 1
1−q
for q ∈ (0, 1). This is where the fun begins.
n=0
∑
∞ (n+ 21 )ℏω ∞ (
∑ )n − 2kℏωT
− − 2kℏωT − kℏωT e B
Z= e kB T
=e B e B =
− kℏωT
n=0 n=0 1−e B
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
51
Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
Determine the internal energy of the quantum harmonic oscillator from the previous problem
in the units of ℏω. The temperature of the system is T0 = 275 K. This
was supposed to be a problem with a second partial derivative, but it would probably be too hard.
We differentiate the partition function and get
∂ 1 ∂Z
E = kB T 2 ln (Z(T )) = kB T 2 =
∂T ( Z ∂T )
ℏω − ℏω − kℏωT ℏω − ℏω − 2kℏωT
2kB T 2
e 2kB T 1−e B + kB T 2
e kB T e B
1
( )2
2
= kB T =
Z − kℏωT
1−e B
( )
− kℏωT − kℏωT
1
1−e B +e B − ℏω
2 1 1 + e kB T 1 ℏω .
= ℏω ( ) = ℏω = ℏω coth = 3.819 7 ℏω .
1−e
− kℏωT
B
2 1 − e− kℏω
B T 2 2k BT
Matěj Mezera
m.mezera@fykos.cz
Jozef Lipták
liptak.j@fykos.cz
Q = Sv
where S is the cross-sectional area and v is the flow speed. The flow rate can be determined
from the volume of air exchanged. The volume V has to flow both into the lungs and out of
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
them in a day, so the average flow rate is Q = 2V /1 day. The cross-section of the larynx has an
area ( )2
d
S=π .
2
By expressing the flow speed and substituting for S and Q, we get
Q 8V .
v= = 2 = 0.20 m·s−1 .
S πd · 1 day
Jozef Lipták
liptak.j@fykos.cz
Jozef Lipták
liptak.j@fykos.cz
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Online Physics Brawl 10th year November 25, 2020
After drying out, the non-water part makes up 100 % − 98 % = 2 % of the total mass. The
whole sample must then weigh 1 g/2 % = 50 g.
Šimon Pajger
legolas@fykos.cz
FYKOS
UK, Matematicko-fyzikální fakulta
Ústav teoretické fyziky
V Holešovičkách 2
180 00 Praha 8
www: http://fykos.cz
e-mail: fykos@fykos.cz
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54