ST031

ADMISSION TEST FOR THE DEGREE COURSE IN MEDICINE AND SURGERY

Academic Year 2016/2017

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 1 / 34

 General Knowledge and Logical Reasoning

1 Historical research suggests economic hardship is the main cause of most extreme social
catastrophes. People are able to commit serious crimes when their lives are at stake. The
French Revolution of 1789 took place after bad harvests and a sharp increase in food prices.
The driving force of the Bolshevik revolution of 1917 was city dwellers, stricken by economic
hardship. In addition, impoverished people are very susceptible to various kinds of propaganda
and can be persuaded to breach basic norms and values for the sake of an allegedly better
society. The rise of extreme dictatorships in various countries was usually preceded by extreme
economic hardship, as was the case in Germany in the 1930s.

Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the above argument?

A The Dutch revolution of 1566 took place when the country was enjoying a period of rapid
economic growth and prosperity.

B The Chinese Empire survived a number of popular revolts over a period of 700 years.

C Ancient Greece survived a number of social catastrophes, despite being a combination of

city-states with different forms of governance.

D The collapse of the Soviet Union came when the world price of oil, the main Soviet export,
fell sharply in the early 1980s.

E Despite a high level of prosperity in medieval Italian republics, a number of Italians chose
to leave their home towns and settle in other territories.

2 What is it that guides our behaviour in day-to-day life – that keeps us all in line? Some might say
it was the law, since if you are caught breaking the law you can be punished. But how many of
our actions are so determined? Is it illegal to shove in front of someone in a queue? To laugh at
a stranger’s haircut? To cheat on your boyfriend? In actual fact, relatively few areas of our lives
are affected by the law. Most behavioural decisions are guided by a sense of social norms and
conventions. It is how we are likely to be judged on this level – and not a legal one – that causes
us to act as we do.

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

A It is social conventions, not laws, that commonly determine how we act.

B Fear of punishment is what determines how we act.

C There are many things we typically refrain from doing which are not themselves illegal.

D Relatively few areas of our lives are governed or determined by the law.

E The law does not extend as widely into our lives as commonly thought.

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 2 / 34

3 In many countries stocks of the flu drug Tamiflu are reaching their ‘use by’ date, and will be
expensive to replace. Some critics suggest that there is not enough evidence of the
effectiveness of Tamiflu to justify replacing stocks. But countries should replenish their stocks in
case there is another pandemic of deadly flu. During the 2009 swine flu pandemic, the greater
the stocks of Tamiflu a country held, the fewer people in the country died from flu. Of 168,000
people worldwide who were admitted to hospital with flu 15,000 died. Medical records show that
those who received Tamiflu within two days of falling ill were only half as likely to die as those
who received it later or not at all.

Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the above argument?

A The development of new flu vaccines as alternatives to Tamiflu is slow and limited.

B The manufacturer of Tamiflu has not released all of its clinical trial data.

C Taking Tamiflu has been found to reduce the duration of mild flu, but not its severity.

D It costs hundreds of millions of dollars for countries to stockpile Tamiflu.

E The scientists who oppose the stockpiling of Tamiflu are in a minority.

4 It used to be thought that a dog’s genetic make-up determined its behaviour, such that certain
breeds were more likely to be aggressive than others. However, a recent study of over 300
cocker spaniels and their owners casts doubts upon this explanation. It showed that owners of
aggressive dogs were more likely to be tense, emotionally unstable, shy and undisciplined than
owners of dogs that were low in aggression. Given that the dogs were not aggressive before
they went to their owners, the dogs’ aggression must be a response to their owners’ anxieties
and neuroses. Therefore, since the personality of the dog’s owner has been shown to be the
key to the dog’s behaviour, we should abandon any attempt to define dangerous breeds of dogs.

Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the argument above?

A Evidence on the behaviour of cocker spaniels is relevant to other breeds of dogs.

B Some breeds of dogs have higher levels of aggression than others.

C People who are shy and emotionally unstable are likely to prefer
aggressive dogs.

D Aggressive dogs can be easily trained to be non-aggressive.

E People who are tense and shy should choose breeds other than cocker
spaniels.

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 3 / 34

5 It is evident that the increasing prominence of women in higher education has contributed to the
changing nature of academia. Academic research has become an increasingly collaborative
affair. Recent decades have witnessed a trend towards collective authorship in almost all
scientific disciplines. Women and feminine styles of working recognise the importance of
collaboration and more innovative ways of communicating research. Such practices challenge
the individualist and competitive culture of higher education, and the standard practices of
publishing research.

Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?

A The changing nature of academia is partly due to the shift in gender balance in higher
education.

B Academic writing is now dominated by women.

C There are increasing numbers of women attending university nowadays.

D Higher education nowadays is no longer individualist in nature.

E The competitive nature of higher education has led to innovative ways of communicating
research.

6 A study has predicted that the world will warm more slowly in the future than we thought. This
prediction was based on evidence of a reduction in the rate of temperature increase in recent
years. But politicians must not use this as a signal to delay action on reduction of carbon
emissions, because the need to reduce emissions is as urgent as ever. The study did not
mention the Pacific Decadal Oscillation (PDO), a cyclical pattern of temperature change in the
Pacific Ocean. When the cool cycle of the PDO ends in the mid 21st century, there is likely to
be a rapid increase in world temperatures, such as occurred in the later decades of the 20th
century.

Which one of the following is an assumption underlying the above argument?

A The PDO contributed to the recent fall in the rate of temperature increase.

B The study relied on inaccurate measures of temperature.

C Politicians do not accept that carbon emissions need to be reduced.

D The world’s carbon emissions will be much higher in the mid 21st century.

E The PDO is the principal cause of increases in the world’s temperature.

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 4 / 34

7 Modern compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) are much less harmful to the environment than
traditional incandescent light bulbs. CFLs consume a fifth of the energy required to operate a
traditional bulb of the same brightness. Moreover, their lifespan is ten times as long as that of
incandescent light sources.

Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the above argument?

A Traditional light bulbs cause less pollution when disposed of compared to CFLs.

B Light-emitting diode (LED) lamps are more environmentally friendly than CFLs.

C CFLs are as likely to break as incandescent lamps.

D CFLs only last eight times longer than incandescent bulbs.

E CFLs are several times more expensive to buy than incandescent lamps.

8 Most people think that sleeping can only have a good impact on fertility, but recent research
found that women who slept for nine hours or more a night were 25% less likely to get pregnant
than those who slept between seven and eight hours. Therefore, women who are having trouble
conceiving should make sure they don’t sleep for more than eight hours a night in order to
increase their chances of getting pregnant.

Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?

A It assumes that there is a causal connection between fertility and sleep.

B It assumes that most women with fertility problems are sleeping for more than nine hours
a night.

C Most women with fertility problems sleep for at least nine hours a night.

D Most people sleep between seven and eight hours a night.

E It doesn’t say anything about how much sleep is optimum for men’s fertility.

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 5 / 34

9 In a survey in the UK, only 8% of those questioned said they would be happy to eat genetically
modified (GM) foods, even though people in the USA have been eating them for a few years
without any ill effects having been discovered. Any serious effects – such as cancer and
damage to the immune system – would take a very long time to become evident. No systematic
studies of the effects of GM foods have been carried out. Without such studies, it would be
difficult to discover whether an increase in the incidence of cancer was due to eating GM foods,
or to some other feature of lifestyles or of the environment.

Which one of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage?

A The evidence from the USA does not show that GM foods are safe to eat.

B The UK population has no reason to fear the health risks of GM foods.

C It is impossible to find out whether eating GM foods is a risk to health.

D The incidence of cancer in the USA is likely to increase over the long term.

E Eating GM foods poses no more risk to health than do other features of lifestyles.

10 James Randi, an American magician and escape artist, has a certified $1 million fund on offer
to anyone who can legitimately demonstrate paranormal ability under test conditions. The prize
has grown from just $1,000 since it was established more than 40 years ago. In this time, many
hundreds of people have attempted the challenge – and yet the prize money has yet to be
claimed. What further proof is needed to prove something so obvious? There is no such thing
as psychic power, and anyone claiming to have such a gift is either mistaken or a faker.

Which of the following is NOT an assumption underlying the above argument?

A The people who have accepted the challenge are all genuine psychics.

B The test would be able to accurately detect cases of genuine psychic power.

C If someone succeeded in the challenge, the testers would openly acknowledge this.

D If there were people with genuine psychic powers, at least some of them would have
accepted the challenge.

E What counts as a ‘legitimate demonstration’ is both fair and reproducible.

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 6 / 34

11 My Uncle Tom is devising games to be played at his 60th birthday party. One of them involves a
big hexagon drawn on his lawn. It is marked out as shown below:

Each section has the age of one of his six nephews and nieces on the day of the party, on a
large card.

Players must try and throw three bean bags to land within the sections such that the total score
is exactly 60. A player is disqualified if two bean bags land in the same section.

Which number must one of the three bean bags land on to be able to score 60?

A 26

B 12

C 15

D 19

E 22

12 Harold earns his living doing odd jobs for people.

In July he earned a total of £750.

On August 1st he increased his charge per hour from £5 to £6, and as a result he found that the
demand for his services was 12% less during August than it had been in July.

How much more did Harold earn in August than in July?

A £42

B £24

C £35

D £60

E £78

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 7 / 34

13 Ryan shaves every Saturday and Sunday. He then shaves on Tuesday and Thursday one week
and Monday, Wednesday and Friday the next week, then back to Tuesday and Thursday the
following week and so on. He buys packs containing three disposable razors, and manages to
make one razor last for nine shaves before starting with a new razor. He opens a pack of razors
and shaves on Monday 13th May.

On what day will Ryan have to open the next pack of razors?

A Monday 24th June

B Tuesday 25th June

C Wednesday 26th June

D Friday 28th June

E Saturday 29th June

14 When I joined the company that I work for my starting salary was £24,800. Each of my 4 salary
increases have been 5% of my previous salary rounded up to the next multiple of £200.

What is my current salary?

A £30,600

B £29,800

C £30,200

D £30,400

E £29,000

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 8 / 34

15 Gertrude has miscalculated the amount of feed and bedding she requires to overwinter her
animals and needs to sell the surplus. She decides to place an advertisement to run for 8
weeks in her local newspaper.

Good quality hay, straw and silage

always available in small quantities.

Callers welcome. Bluebell Farm,

Forest Road, Barkham.

The advertisement rates are:

One week Three weeks Additional weeks

15 words and under £6 £15 £5
20 words and under £8 £20 £6
30 words and under £10 £25 £8

What will Gertrude have to pay for the advertisement?

A £50

B £40

C £52

D £54

E £56

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 9 / 34

16 Thomas is trying to decide what subjects to study next year. His school has asked him to
choose one subject from each column in the following table:

Choice A Choice B Choice C Choice D

Business Studies Chemistry Biology Art
Chemistry Economics Economics Biology
History Mathematics Geography Economics
Mathematics Physics Physics History
Psychology French Philosophy Sociology

Thomas has decided that he will study Art, Mathematics and Physics.

Which one of the following subjects will Thomas NOT be able to study?

A Sociology

B Chemistry

C Economics

D Philosophy

E Biology

17 The following table shows the London 2012 Olympic Games Medals Table for the top 5
countries:

Gold Silver Bronze

Rank Country Total
Medals Medals Medals
1 United States 46 29 29 104
2 China 38 27 23 88
3 United Kingdom 29 17 19 65
4 Russia 24 26 32 82
5 South Korea 13 8 7 28

Which one of the following countries has the highest number of gold medals as a percentage of
their total medals won?

A South Korea

B United States

C China

D United Kingdom

E Russia

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 10 / 34

18 A sheet of paper is folded along the horizontal line and then along the vertical lines.

When folded up the paper looks like this:

What does the paper look like from the other side?

A B

C D

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 11 / 34

19 The drawings below show an incomplete jigsaw and three jigsaw pieces:

How many pieces of each of M, N and P will be needed to complete the jigsaw?

A 4M, 3N and 3P

B 3M, 4N and 3P

C 3M, 3N and 4P

D 4M, 3N and 2P

E 3M, 3N and 3P

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 12 / 34

20 The tap in my garden started to leak yesterday. I placed the container shown below underneath
it so that water wouldn’t be wasted. Water dripped into the container at a steady rate and it was
full before I had a chance to repair the tap.

Which one of the following graphs could illustrate how the container filled up with water?

A B

C D

21 Which one of the following pairs of scholar/scientific discovery is NOT correct?

A Niels Bohr – Electron microscope

B Dmitri Mendeleev – Periodic table of elements

C Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen – X-ray

D Hans Wilhelm Geiger – Particle detector

E Evangelista Torricelli – Mercury barometer

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 13 / 34

22 Occam’s razor is:

A a methodological principle according to which, once other factors are controlled for, the
simplest explanation is to be preferred.

B a physics experiment aimed at measuring the force between the magnetic poles of two
magnets.

C an instrument to measure the heat of a substance.

D a logical principle according to which it is impossible that there should be anything

between the two parts of a contradiction.

E an economic law according to which an increase in the unemployment rate is followed by

a reduction in production.

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 14 / 34

 Biology

23 Which of the following molecules contain a carboxyl group?

1. amino acid

2. glycerol

3. saturated fatty acid

4. unsaturated fatty acid

A 1, 3 and 4 only

B 2, 3 and 4 only

C 1 and 2 only

D 1 and 3 only

E 3 and 4 only

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 15 / 34

24 The family tree shows the inheritance of a condition in one family. The condition is not sex-
linked.

Using the information provided which of the following shows the percentage likelihood of person
4 and person 6 being heterozygous for the condition?

Person 4 Person 6

row 1 100 50

row 2 100 75

row 3 50 50

row 4 50 100

row 5 25 100

A row 1

B row 2

C row 3

D row 4

E row 5

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 16 / 34

25 One of the smallest viruses is the polio virus, with a diameter of approximately 30 nm.

In 2003, the Mimivirus was discovered with a diameter of approximately 680 nm.

In 2013, the Pandoravirus was discovered with a diameter of over 1000 nm.

Which row shows the human cell organelles that have a similar approximate size to each
virus?

A row 4

B row 5

C row 1

D row 2

E row 3

26 Which processes may allow movement of substances into and out of a cell?

1. active transport

2. diffusion

3. facilitated diffusion

4. osmosis

A 1, 2, 3 and 4

B 1 and 3 only

C 2 and 4 only

D 2, 3 and 4 only

E 1, 2 and 3 only

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 17 / 34

27 Which of the following healthy cells would contain mitochondria with an enzyme that can
synthesise ATP?

1. mature photosynthetic plant cell

2. mature human red blood cell

3. mature bacterial cell

A 1 only

B 2 only

C 3 only

D 1 and 3 only

E none of them

28 During which processes does phosphorylation occur?

1. facilitated diffusion

2. anaerobic respiration

3. light-dependent reaction in photosynthesis

4. formation of nucleotides

A 2, 3 and 4 only

B 2 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 2 and 4 only

E 1, 3 and 4 only

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 18 / 34

29 Which statement(s) can be used to describe a tRNA molecule found in a healthy human
muscle cell?

1. It contains hydrogen bonds between bases.

2. It is formed by condensation reactions.

3. It is made up of two polynucleotide chains.

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 only

C 3 only

D 1 and 3 only

E 2 and 3 only

30 The graph below shows the quantity of DNA in a healthy mammalian liver cell during different
stages of the cell cycle.

Between which two letters would anaphase occur?

A RS

B PQ

C QR

D ST

E TU

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 19 / 34

31 Which of the following ALWAYS occurs during the processes of mitosis, meiosis I and meiosis
II in healthy human cells?

1. semi-conservative replication of DNA

2. lining up of chromosomes at the equator of cell

3. increase in cell membranes for cytokinesis

4. DNA molecules are moved by spindle fibres.

A 2 and 4 only

B 1 and 3 only

C 1, 2 and 4 only

D 1, 3 and 4 only

E none of them

32 In a eukaryotic cell, a section of a mature non-mutated mRNA molecule has a total of 145
bases. Analysis of this section of the molecule found that there were 36 nucleotides containing
cytosine, 49 nucleotides containing guanine and 23 nucleotides containing adenine.

How many nucleotides containing thymine would be found in this molecule?

A 0

B 23

C 36

D 37

E 49

33 Which of the following would NOT be directly used when scientists use bacterial cells to
produce human insulin on a large scale?

A human RNA polymerase

B enzymes to join pieces of DNA together

C enzymes to cut DNA molecules

D bacterial ribosomes

E bacterial plasmids

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 20 / 34

34 Which of the following statements describe the possible effect on the rate of cell division in a
human organ due to a mutation in the DNA?

1. no change

2. an increase

3. a decrease

A 1, 2 and 3

B 2 only

C 1 and 2 only

D 1 and 3 only

E 2 and 3 only

35 In a healthy human, if a single inspiration takes two seconds and a single expiration takes 50%
longer, what is the breathing rate per minute?

A 60 ÷ 5

B 60 ÷ 3

C 3 ÷ 60

D (2 + 3) ÷ 60

E (2 + 2.5) x 60

36 Which one of the following occurs to enable the pupil in a human eye to become wider?

A The circular muscles of the iris relax.

B The circular muscles of the iris contract.

C The ciliary body relaxes.

D The ciliary body contracts.

E Increased stimulus of rod cells by light.

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 21 / 34

37 Which one of the following is a consequence of an increase in the release of ADH from the
pituitary gland, in a healthy human?

A Fluid passing from the kidney to the ureter is less dilute.

B More urea is excreted from the body.

C Less osmosis occurs from the kidney collecting duct to the capillaries.

D The volume of blood plasma decreases.

E More glucose is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule.

38 In a healthy human at rest, which is the correct order (reading from left to right) of SOME of the
events that occur during a heartbeat?

1. The ventricles contract.

2. The atrioventricular node (AVN) delays the electrical impulse.

3. Atria contract.

4. The sinoatrial node (SAN) transmits the electrical impulse.

5. Purkinje (Purkyně) fibres transmit the electrical impulse.

6. Blood leaves the heart in the aorta and pulmonary artery.

A 2, 5, 6

B 5, 2, 3

C 3, 1, 5

D 3, 4, 1

E 1, 2, 6

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 22 / 34

39 A person with cystic fibrosis is told that they have inherited alleles that code for a non-functional
CFTR protein. This means that chloride ions are unable to diffuse out of the epithelial cells
through this protein. Chloride ions accumulate within the cells, altering the water potential in the
cytoplasm. This change in water potential will affect the mucus in the airways and lead to
coughing and increased risk of chest infection.

Which of the following statements describe the effects of a non-functional CFTR protein in the
epithelial cells in the lungs?

1. The water potential in the epithelial cells is higher than in similar cells with a functional
CFTR protein.

2. The mucus in the lungs becomes thick and sticky and it is difficult for cilia to sweep it
up towards the mouth.

3. Water is unable to move by osmosis out of the epithelial cells into the mucus coating
the cells.

A 2 and 3 only

B 1 only

C 1 and 2 only

D 1 and 3 only

E 1, 2 and 3

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 23 / 34

40 The graph shows the antibody concentration in human blood serum following a measles
vaccination and following exposure to the measles pathogen 28 days later.

Which one of the following cells is most active immediately after day 28 and leads to the rapid
rise in antibody concentration?

A memory B cells

B killer T cells

C plasma B cells

D bone marrow stem cells

E phagocytes

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 24 / 34

 Chemistry

41 Which of the following species have the same number of neutrons?

1.

2.

3.

4.

A 2 and 3 only

B 1 and 4 only

C 1, 3 and 4 only

D 2, 3 and 4 only

E 1, 2, 3 and 4

42 The following statements refer to water or solutions in water.

1. At high altitude where pressure is less than 1.0 atm, the boiling point of water is
below 100°C.

2. The freezing point of a solution of sodium chloride in water is below 0°C (at a
pressure of 1.0 atm).

3. The average kinetic energy of steam molecules at a pressure of 200 atm is greater
than at 1.0 atm (at the same temperature).

Which of these statements is / are correct?

A 1 and 2 only

B 1 only

C 3 only

D 2 and 3 only

E 1, 2 and 3

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 25 / 34

43 A student obtained data from a catalysed reaction that formed a gaseous product. The gas
formed was collected by displacing water and its total volume measured at regular intervals
(data measured at constant temperature and pressure).

The graph shows their results.

Which one of the following options correctly explains what has happened at X seconds?

A A reactant has been used up.

B An equilibrium state has been established.

C The rate of reaction is at its maximum value.

D All the molecules that had energy ≥ Ea (activation energy) have reacted.

E The catalyst has been used up.

44 Which of the following is a correct statement about the molecule NH3?

(Ar: H = 1; N = 7)

A 3 bond pairs; 1 lone pair; bond angle 107°

B 3 bond pairs; 0 lone pairs; bond angle 120°

C 3 bond pairs; 0 lone pairs; bond angle 107°

D 3 bond pairs; 1 lone pair; bond angle 109.5°

E 3 bond pairs; 2 lone pairs; bond angle 120°

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 26 / 34

45 The structure of the pain-killer paracetamol is shown below.

Which one of the following functional groups is present in paracetamol?

A amide

B amine

C carboxylic acid

D ester

E ketone

46 In which one of the following five species does nitrogen have the highest (most positive)
oxidation state?

A NO2

B HNO2

C N2H4

D NH4Br

E N2O

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 27 / 34

47 The molecule cyclohexane, C6H12, can be drawn as the skeletal structure shown.

Which of the molecules below have the same ratio of carbon to hydrogen atoms as
cyclohexane?

A 1 and 3 only

B 1 only

C 2 only

D 2 and 3 only

E 1, 2 and 3

48 A buffer solution can be made by mixing ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) with sodium ethanoate
(CH3COONa) in water.

Ethanoic acid is a weak acid which in water sets up an equilibrium mixture

CH3COOH ⇌ CH3COO– + H+
Sodium ethanoate is an ionic compound which fully ionises in aqueous solution

CH3COONa → CH3COO– + Na+

Which two species in the buffer solution are responsible for its ability to resist changes to its pH
when small amounts of acid or alkali are added?

A CH3COO– and CH3COOH

B CH3COOH and H+

C CH3COONa and CH3COO–

D H+ and CH3COONa

E CH3COO– and H+

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 28 / 34

49 Atoms of element X have the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s1.

Atoms of element Y have the electron configuration 1s22s2.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The first ionisation energy of element X is larger than that of element Y.

2. The electronegativity value of X is larger than that of element Y.

3. Element X is more reactive with water than element Y.

A 3 only

B 1 only

C 2 only

D 1 and 3 only

E 2 and 3 only

50 Which one of the following changes will cause the greatest increase in pressure of an ideal
gas?

A Double the number of molecules and halve the volume (at constant temperature).

B Triple the number of molecules (at constant temperature and volume).

C Increase the temperature from 300 K to 900 K (with constant volume and number of
molecules).

D Increase the temperature from 50°C to 250°C (with constant volume and number of
molecules).

E Increase the number of molecules by a factor of five and double the volume (at constant
temperature).

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 29 / 34

51 What is the concentration (mol/L) of a solution formed when 7.15 g of washing soda,
Na2CO3.10H2O, is dissolved in water to form 250 mL of solution?

(Ar: H = 1; C = 12; O = 16; Na = 23)

A 0.100 mol/L

B 0.025 mol/L

C 0.050 mol/L

D 0.200 mol/L

E 0.270 mol/L

52 A sample of element T is composed of two isotopes of relative atomic masses of 20.0 and 22.0
in the proportions 80 : 20 respectively.

What is the relative atomic mass of this sample of element T?

A 20.4

B 20.0

C 21.0

D 21.6

E 20.5

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 30 / 34

 Physics and Mathematics

53 Evaluate:

A 11

B 5

C 15

D 29

E 54

54 A sector, which is part of a circle of radius 3 cm, has an area of cm².

Calculate the perimeter of the sector.

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 31 / 34

55 In a particular game, the player whose turn it is rolls two standard fair dice, with faces numbered
1 to 6, and can choose the result from either die or the sum of the two results as the score for
that turn.

It is Luigi’s turn to play and he needs to score exactly 5 to win the game.

What is the probability that Luigi can win the game at this turn?

56 The function f is defined as f (x) = x 2 + 1, where –2 ≤ x ≤ 1.

What is the full range of f ?

A 1 ≤ f (x) ≤ 5

B f (x) ≥ 1

C 1 ≤ f (x) ≤ 2

D 1 ≤ f (x) ≤ 4

E 2 ≤ f (x) ≤ 5

57 The watt is a unit of power.

How is the watt unit expressed in fundamental units?

A kg m2 s –3

B kg m s–2

C kg m2 s –2

D kg m–1 s –2

E kg m–2 s –1

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 32 / 34

58 An aircraft originally flying at 160 m/s due east changes course and speed so that it flies at
120 m/s due south.

What is the magnitude of the change in velocity of the aircraft?

[Assume the aircraft flies horizontally throughout.]

A 200 m/s

B 40 m/s

C 120 m/s

D 160 m/s

E 280 m/s

59 The total mass of a skier is 60.0 kg. He starts from rest and slides down a slope without
exerting any effort. After he has descended through a total vertical displacement of 50.0 m, he is
travelling at a velocity of 30.0 m/s.

How much work has been done against resistive forces experienced by the skier as his velocity
increases from 0 to 30.0 m/s?

[Take the gravitational field strength g as 10 N/kg.]

A 3000 J

B 30 000 J

C 27 000 J

D 57 000 J

E 2700 J

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 33 / 34

60 The electric current in a heater is 2.0 A. In 600 seconds 15 000 J of electrical energy are
converted into other forms of energy by the heater.

Which expression gives the voltage across the electric heater?

IMAT 2016 Humanitas September © UCLES 2016 Page 34 / 34