ESAT MCQs

Section 1: Basic Communications/ Noise/ AM/ FM/ PM

12. The shape of the amplitude-modulated wave is called
A. sidebands C. modulating signal
1. The noise produced by a resistor is to be amplified by a
B. envelope D. carrier signal
noiseless amplifier having a voltage gain of 75 and a
bandwidth of 100 kHz. A sensitive meter at the output 13. Amplitude modulation can be produced by
reads 240 microvolts rms. Assuming operation of 37 A. having the carrier vary a resistance
degrees, calculate the resistor’s resistance. B. having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
A. 4 kilo ohms C. 5 kilo ohms C. varying the carrier frequency
B. 6 kilo ohms D. 7 kilo ohms D. varying the gain of the amplifier
2. Which of the following is a desirable value of signal-to- 14. When the modulation index is equal to zero, the total
noise ratio in dB? transmitted power is equal to ________.
A. 0 C. 100 A. one of the sidebands C. carrier
B. 1 D. 50 B. double sidebands D. an AM wave
3. It is defined as the range of frequencies in vicinity of the 15. Who was the first to successfully transmit wireless radio
VCO’s natural frequency over which the PLL can maintain signals through Earth’s atmosphere?
lock with an input signal. A. Samuel Morse C. Howard Armstrong
A. capture range C. lock range B. Lee DeForest D. Guglielmo Marconi
B. bandwidth D. free-running frequency
16. Calculate the noise power outputs of a 1 kilo ohm resistor
4. The voltage-controlled oscillator operates at a set at 27 degrees C over a 100-kHz bandwidth.
frequency called A. 4.14 fW C. 0.414 fW
A. free-running frequency C. capture range B. 14.1 fW D. 141 fW
B. lock range D. bandwidth
17. A signal that carries the information through the system.
5. It is defined as the band of frequencies in the vicinity of A. information C. modulating signal
the natural frequency where the PLL can establish or B. intelligence D. carrier
acquire lock with an input signal.
A. tracking range C. capture range 18. Determine the noise current for a diode with a forward
B. lock range D. hold-in range bias of 1mA over a 1 MHz bandwidth.
A. 19.8 nA C. 17.9 nA
6. It is the minimum frequency separation between output B. 12.3 nA D. 15 nA
frequencies for the synthesizer.
A. dynamic range C. resolution 19. The process of changing one or more properties of the
B. octave D. decade carrier in proportion with the information signal?
A. demodulation C. transmission
7. In psophometric noise weighting, one picowatt is B. modulation D. reception
equivalent to 800 Hz tone with a power of
A. -90 dBm C. -85 dBm 20. It is the transmittal of digitally modulated analog carriers
B. -65 dBm D. none of the above between two or more points in a communication system.
A. analog transmission C. digital radio
8. A power of a standard test tone is normally _________. B. digital communications D. digital reception
A. 0 mW C. 1 W
B. 1 dB D. 1 mW 21. Type of modulation where the carrier amplitude is varied
proportional to the information signal.
9. When the power ratio of the input to output is 1/100, the A. AM C. PM
loss of the circuit, in dB, is B. FM D. Pulse modulation
A. 20 C. -20
B. -10 D. 3 22. In FM, the _________ is varied proportional to the
information signal.
10. The radio wavelength known as _________ falls within the A. phase C. time
medium frequency range. B. amplitude D. frequency
A. centimetric C. decametric
B. hectometric D. myriametric 23. Calculate the signal to noise ratio for a receiver output of
4V signal and 0.48V noise in dB
11. A silicon varactor diode exhibits a capacitance of 200pF at A. 18.5 dB C. 69 dB
zero bias. If it is in parallel with a 60-pF capacitor and a B. 25.4 dB D. 9.25 dB
200-uH inductor, calculate the range of resonant
frequency as the diode varies through a reverse bias of 3 24. Modulation used is to the following except
to 15V. A. reduce the bandwidth used
A. 679kHz to 2.13MHz C. 966kHz to 1.15MHz B. separate differing transmission
B. 355kHz to 3.12MHz D. 143 kHz to 4.53MHz
 ESAT MCQs

C. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long B. 79 mW D. 88 mW

distance
35. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48V. The
D. allow the use of practicable antennas
peak-to-peak amplitude of the modulating signal for 100
25. The process of converting a frequency or band of percent modulation is
frequencies to another location in the total frequency A. 24V C. 48V
spectrum is called: B. 96V D. 120V
A. translation C. demodulation
36. It is the minimum RF signal level that can be detected at
B. modulation D. oscillation
the input to the receiver and still produce a usable
26. The difference between the highest and the lowest demodulated information signal.
frequencies contained in the information. A. selectivity C. sensitivity
A. noise C. bandwidth B. Q-factor D. bandwidth
B. interference D. frequency
37. A SSB signal generated around a 200-kHz carrier. Before
27. It is the measure of how much information can be filtering, the upper and lower sidebands are separated by
transferred through a communications system in a given 200 Hz. Calculate the filter Q required to obtain 40-dB
period of time. suppression.
A. information bandwidth C. information capacity A. 1500 C. 1900
B. information density D. information theory B. 2500 D. 2000
28. Measuring physical condition of some remote location and 38. The most commonly used amplitude demodulator is the
transmitting this data for analysis is the process of A. diode mixer C. balanced modulator
A. Telemetry C. Instrumentation B. envelope detector D. crystal filter
B. Modulation D. Multiplexing
39. A circuit that generates the upper and lower sidebands but
29. _________ noise that is present regardless of whether no carrier is called
there is a signal present or not. A. amplitude modulator C. diode detector
A. atmospheric noise C. correlated B. class C amplifier D. balanced modulator
B. uncorrelated D. internal
40. Vestigial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally used for
30. A three-stage amplifier has an input stage with noise ratio A. HF point-to-point communications
of 5 and power gain of 50. Stages 2 and 3 have a noise B. monaural broadcasting
ratio of 10 and power gain of 1000. Calculate the noise C. TV broadcasting
figure for the overall system. D. stereo broadcasting
A. 4.55 dB C. 7.14 dB
41. The inputs to a balanced modulator are 1MHz and a
B. 6 dB D. 5.18 dB
carrier of 1.5 MHC. The outputs are
31. Which of the following is not true? A. 500kHz and 1.5MHz C. 2.5MHz and 1.5MHz
A. HF mixers are generally noisier than HF amplifiers B. 1.5MHz and 500kHz D. 500kHz and 2.5MHz
B. Impulse noise voltage is independent of bandwidth
42. Types of receivers where the frequencies generated in the
C. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which
receiver and used for demodulation are synchronized to
it is measured.
oscillator frequencies generated in the transmitter.
D. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type
A. coherent C. asynchronous
32. It is a type of noise that is generated outside the device of B. non-coherent D. none of these
circuit.
43. A pre-emphasis circuit is a
A. shot noise C. noise voltage
A. low-pass filter C. high-pass filter
B. thermal noise D. external noise
B. phase shifter D. bandpass filter
33. A microwave antenna with an equivalent noise
44. A circuit that compares the frequency of the noncrystal
temperature of 25 K is coupled through a network with an
carrier oscillator to a crystal reference oscillator and then
equivalent noise temperature of 30 K to a microwave
produces a correction voltage proportional to the
receiver with an equivalent noise temperature of 60 K
difference between the two frequencies
referred to its input. Calculate the noise power at its input
A. AFC C. squelch circuit
for a 2-MHz bandwidth.
B. AGC D. heterodyning circuit
A. 3.15 fW C. 4.35 fW
B. 2.12 fW D. 1.24 fW 45. An FM receiver provides 100dB of voltage gain prior to the
limiter. Calculate the receiver's sensitivity if the limiter's
34. A receiver has a dynamic range of 81 dB. It has 0.55nW
quieting for an FM receiver is 300mV?
sensitivity. Determine the maximum allowable input
A. 4.5 uV C. 3.0 uV
signal.
B. 2.1 uV D. 1.3 uV
A. 59 mW C. 69 mW
 ESAT MCQs

46. The cut-off frequency of pre-emphasis and de-emphasis A. harmonic distortion

circuits is B. intermodulation distortion
A. 1 kHz C. 2.122 kHz C. interference
B. 5 kHz D. 75 kHz D. cross talk
47. It is simply two single-ended slope detectors connected in 58. A type of noise that is characterized by high-amplitude
parallel and fed 180 degrees out phase. peaks of short duration in the total noise spectrum.
A. Foster-Seeley discriminator A. transit-time noise C. solar noise
B. quadrature detector B. thermal noise D. impulse noise
C. balanced slope generator
59. Electromagnetic waves produced primarily by heat are
D. PLL detector
called
48. Which of the following frequency demodulators requires A. Infrared C. Microwaves
an input limiter? B. Shortwaves D. X-ray
A. Foster-Seely discriminator
60. It is a collection of electronic components and circuits
B. Pulse-averaging discriminator
designed to convert the information into a signal suitable
C. quadrature detector
for transmission over a given communication medium.
D. PLL
A. receiver C. medium
49. The frequency of an SCA channel subcarrier is _______. B. transmitter D. mixer
A. 38 kHz C. 15 kHz
61. Regardless of whether information is analog or digital,
B. 67 kHz D. 53 kHz
these signals are referred to as _________.
50. The L-R stereo channel in FM broadcasting is between A. broadband C. composite
A. 50 Hz to 15 kHz C. 60 kHz to 74 kHz B. baseband D. any of these
B. 23 kHz to 53 kHz D. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
62. Putting the original voice, video, or digital data directly
51. The primary advantage of FM over AM into the medium is referred to as _________.
A. capture effect A. baseband transmission C. composite transmission
B. noise immunity B. broadband transmission D. data transmission
C. FM can use class C amplifiers
63. It is the process of having a baseband voice, video, or
D. FM is more efficient
digital signal modify another, higher-frequency signal.
52. In FM broadcasting, what is the highest required A. mixing C. summing
modulating frequency? B. heterodyning D. modulation
A. 75 kHz C. 50 kHz
64. It is the process of transmitting two or more signals
B. 25 kHz D. 15 kHz
simultaneously over the same channel.
53. Which of the following discriminator circuits provide an A. modulation C. multiplexing
automatic gain control voltage? B. summing D. demodulation
A. ratio detector C. balanced slope detector
65. A widely used balanced modulator is called the ________.
B. quadrature detector D. stagger-tuned detector
A. diode bridge circuit
54. Which of the following is not another name of thermal B. full-wave bridge rectifier
agitation noise? C. lattice modulator
A. White noise C. Pink noise D. balanced bridge modulator
B. Johnson noise D. Brown noise
66. It means to mix two frequencies together in a non-linear
55. Any modification to a stream of carriers as they pass from device or to translate on frequency to another using non-
the input to the output of a device produces an irregular, linear mixing.
random variation is called _________ noise. A. oscillation C. heterodyne
A. Transit-time noise C. Man-made noise B. modulation D. amplification
B. Thermal noise D. Internal noise
67. An AM transmitter antenna current is measured with no
56. It is a type of distortion that when unwanted harmonics of modulation and found to be 2.6 amperes. With
a signal are produced through a nonlinear amplification. modulation, the current rises to 2.9 amperes. The
A. intermodulation distortion C. buck-shot percentage modulation is
B. splatter D. harmonic distortion A. 35% C. 70%
B. 42% D. 89%
57. A type of distortion that results from the generation of
unwanted sum and difference frequencies when two or 68. A carrier of 880kHz is modulated by a 3.5 kHz sine wave.
more signals are amplified in a linear device, such as a The LSB and USB are, respectively
large-signal amplifier. A. 873 and 887kHz C. 876.5 and 883.5kHz
 ESAT MCQs

B. 883.5 and 876.5kHz D. 887 and 873kHz A. 192.2 W C. 384.5 W

B. 769.2 W D. 3077 W
69. ___________ is any frequency other than selected radio
frequency carrier that, if allowed to enter a receiver and 80. An SSB transmitter has a PEP rating of 1 kilowatts. The
mix it with local oscillator, will produce a cross-product average output power is in the range of
frequency that is equal to the intermediate frequency A. 150 to 450 W C. 100 to 300 W
A. image frequency C. intermediate frequency B. 250 to 333 W D. 3 to 4 kW
B. aliasing frequency D. ghost
81. What is the frequency swing of an FM broadcast
70. An SSB generator has a sideband filter centered at transmitter when modulated 60%?
3.0MHC. The modulating signal is 3kHz. To produce both A. 60 kHz C. 45 kHz
upper and lower sidebands, the following carrier B. 30 kHz D. 25 kHz
frequencies must be produced:
82. Since noise phase- modulates the FM wave, as the noise
A. 2.7 and 3.3MHz C. 3.3 and 3.6MHz
sideband frequency approaches the carrier frequency, the
B. 2997 and 3003kHz D. 3000 and 3003kHz
noise amplitude
71. ________ occurs when a receiver picks up the same A. remains constant C. is decreased
station at two nearby points on the receiver tuning dial. B. is increased D. is equalized
A. spurious pointing C. under coupling
83. Calculate the amount of frequency deviation caused by a
B. double spotting D. optimal coupling
limited noise spike that still cause an undesired phase shift
72. A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB signal is of 35 degrees when the input frequency is 5kHz.
called A. 2.40kHz C. 3.05kHz
A. transponder C. product detector B. 1.29kHz D. 4.45kHz
B. converter D. modulator
84. The maximum deviation of an FM carrier is 2kHz by a
73. If the carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM wave is maximum modulating signal of 400Hz. The deviation ratio
suppressed, the percentage power saving will be is
A. 50 C. 150 A. 0.2 C. 5
B. 100 D. 66.66 B. 8 D. 40
74. It is the point where the reflected resistance is equal to 85. A 70 kHz carrier has a frequency deviation of 4 kHz with a
primary resistance and the Q of the primary tank circuit is 1000Hz signal. What is the bandwidth of the FM signal?
halved and the bandwidth doubled. A. 4kHz C. 7kHz
A. critical coupling C. tight coupling B. 10 kHz D. 28 kHz
B. loose coupling D. optimum coupling
86. The image frequency of a superheterodyne receiver
75. The value Vmax and Vmin as read from AM wave on an A. is created within the receiver itself
oscilloscope are 3.0 and 2.8. The percentage of B. is due to insufficient adjacent channel rejection
modulation is C. is not rejected by the IF tuned circuits
A. 10 percent C. 41.4 percent D. is independent of the frequency to which the receiver is
B. 80.6 percent D. 93.3 percent tuned
76. An AM signal has a carrier power of 5W, the percentage of 87. An FM transmitter has a maximum deviation of 12kHz and
modulation is 80 pecent. The total power sideband is a maximum modulating frequency of 12 kHz. The
A. 0.8 W C. 1.6 W bandwidth by Carson's rule is
B. 2.5 W D. 4.0 W A. 24kHz C. 33.6kHz
B. 38.8kHz D. 48kHz
77. A type of filter that uses acoustic energy rather than
electromechanical energy to provide excellent 88. The primary disadvantage of FM is its
performance for precise bandpass filtering. A. higher cost and complexity
A. SAW filter C. RC filter B. excessive use of spectrum space
B. mechanical filter D. crystal filter C. noise susceptibility
D. lower efficiency
78. The output of an SSB transmitter with a 3.85 MHz carrier
and a 1.5 kHz sine wave modulating tone is 89. It is the worst case modulation index and is equal to the
A. a 3.8485 MHz sine wave maximum peak frequency deviation divided by the
B. a 3.85 MHz sine wave maximum modulating signal frequency
C. 3.85, 3.8485 and 3.8515 MHz sine waves A. peak phase deviation C. frequency deviation
D. 3848.5 and 3851.5 MHz sine waves B. deviation ratio D. signal to noise ratio
79. An SSB transmitter produces a 400 V peak to peak signal
across a 52 ohm antenna load. The PEP output is
 ESAT MCQs

90. The maximum allowed deviation of the FM sound signal in A. milliwaves C. microwaves
TV is 25 kHz. If the actual deviation is 18kHz, the percent B. centiwaves D. hectowaves
modulation is
102. The range of long infrared is
A. 43 percent C. 72 percent
A. 0.01 mm to 1000 nm C. 0.01 mm to 700 nm
B. 96 percent D. 139 percent
B. 1000nm to 700 nm D. 0.4 um to 0.8 um
91. Low-index FM systems are also known as __________.
103. Calculate the noise power at the input of a microwave
A. wideband FM C. narrowband FM
receiver with an equivalent noise temperature of 45 K. It is
B. commercial FM D. medium FM
fed from an antenna with a 35 K equivalent noise
92. The phenomenon of a strong FM signal dominating a temperature and operates over a 5-MHz bandwidth.
weaker signal on a common frequency is referred to as the A. 3.56 fW C. 1.34 fW
A. capture effect C. blot out B. 2.98 fW D. 5.52 fW
B. quieting factor D. domination syndrome
104. It is generally a device that converts energy from one form
93. What is the wavelength in meters, if the frequency is 10 to another.
MHz? A. transformer C. motor
A. 30 C. 0.3 B. transducer D. generator
B. 3 D. 300
105. What is the seventh harmonic of 360 kHz?
94. Range of electromagnetic spectrum used in navy to A. 2520 kHz C. 46.08 MHz
communicate submarines B. 3.6 x 10^12 Hz D. 1980 kHz
A. VLF C. LF
106. Atmospheric noise is not a significant factor for
B. HF D. UHF
frequencies exceeding about _________.
95. The law that states that the wider the bandwidth and the A. 30 MHz C. 50 MHz
longer the time of transmission, the more information that B. 10 MHz D. 25 MHz
can be conveyed through the system.
107. What is frequency range of EHF?
A. Information theory C. Information density law
A. 3 – 30 GHz C. 30 – 300 GHz
B. Hartley’s law D. Information entropy law
B. 30 – 300 MHz D. 300 – 3000 MHz
96. An amplifier with a noise figure of 6dB has an input signal-
108. Calculate the wavelength in free space corresponding to a
to-noise ratio of 25dB. Calculate the output signal-to-noise
frequency of AM radio broadcast band of 1 MHz
ratio in dB.
A. 300 m C. 7.5 m
A. 31 dB C. 19 dB
B. 11.1 m D. 3.25 m
B. 20 dB D. 25 dB
109. When the input power is reduced in half at the output, the
97. It is the process of combining two or more signals and is an
signal power is said to be reduced by:
essential process in electronic communications.
A. 2 dB C. 6 dB
A. oscillation C. mixing
B. 4 dB D. 3 dB
B. damping D. modulation
110. There are four networks in series. The first network has a
98. _________ occurs when two or more signals combine in a
gain of 15 dB, the second has a loss of 4 dB, the third gain
linear device, such as a passive network or a small-signal
of 35 dB, and the fourth a loss of 5 dB. The input of the
amplifier.
first network is +3dBm. What is the output to the last
A. non-linear mixing C. linear-phase filtering
network in mW?
B. linear summing D. bandlimiting
A. 15913.1 C. 19922.9
99. A single-stage amplifier has a 200-kHz bandwidth and a B. 25118.9 D. 29523.6
voltage gain of 100 at room temperature. Assume that the
111. Determine the noise figure for an equivalent noise
external noise is negligible and that a 1-mV signal is
temperature of 75 K.
applied to the amplifier’s input. Calculate the output noise
A. 1 dB C. 3 dB
voltage if the amplifier has a 5-dB NF and the input noise is
B. 2 dB D. 1.25 dB
generated by a 2-kilo ohm resistor.
A. 56.58 nV C. 458 uV 112. What is the other name for HF?
B. 595.6 nV D. 356 uV A. microwaves C. short waves
B. millimeter waves D. audio waves
100. In a communication system, which of the following
reduces the information capacity of the system? 113. It is a resistive network that is used to introduce a fixed
A. linear-phase filtering C. mixing amount of attenuation between the source and a load.
B. bandlimiting D. modulation A. limiter C. clipper
B. mixer D. attenuator
101. Frequencies above 1 GHz range is called _________.
 ESAT MCQs

114. It is a figure of merit used to indicate how much the signal- 124. An antenna is being fed by a properly terminated two-wire
to-noise ratio deteriorates as a signal passes through a transmission line. The current in the line at the input end is
circuit or series of circuits. 3A. The surge impedance of the line is 500 ohms. How
A. Q-factor C. signal-to-noise ratio much power is being supplied to the line?
B. noise factor D. numerical aperture A. 3.1 kW C. 2.5 kW
B. 1.6 kW D. 4.5 kW
115. What is the major contributor of transistor noise?
A. thermal agitation noise C. pink noise 125. Defined as the impedance seen looking at an infinitely long
B. flicker noise D. shot noise line or the impedance seen looking into a finite length of
the line that is terminated in a purely resistive load with
116. When the modulation takes place prior to the output
the resistance equal to the characteristic impedance of the
element of the final stage of the transmitter, prior to the
line.
collector of the output transistor in a transistorized
A. Input impedance C. Surge impedance
transmitter, this is called ______.
B. Output impedance D. Circuit impedance
A. high-level modulation C. low-level modulation
B. zero-modulation D. constant modulation 126. Determine the characteristic impedance for an air
dielectric two-wire parallel transmission line with a D/r
117. If a superheterodyne receiver is tuned to a desired signal
ratio of 12.22
at 1000kHz and its conversion (local) oscillator is operating
A. 150 ohms C. 120 ohms
at 1300kHz, what would be the frequency of an incoming
B. 75 ohms D. 300 ohms
signal that would possibly cause image reception?
A. 1600 kHz C. 2300 kHz 127. Determine the characteristic impedance for an RG-59A
B. 1250 kHz D. 3420 kHz coaxial cable with the following specifications: d=0.025
inches, D=0.15 inches, and dielectric constant of 2.23
118. It is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when
A. 120 ohms C. 72 ohms
positive and negative alternations in the AM modulated
B. 150 ohms D. 75 ohms
signal are not equal.
A. phase shift C. carrier shift 128. In a transmission line, it refers to the woven stranded
B. amplitude variations D. frequency shift mesh or braid that surround some types of coaxial cables
A. Grounding C. Shielding
119. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by two sine waves
B. Degaussing D. Any of these
with modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4, the total
modulation index 129. If the two towers of a 950-kHz antenna are separated by
A. is 1 120 electrical degrees, what is the tower separation in
B. cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are feet?
known A. 231 ft C. 235 ft
C. is 0.5 B. 176 ft D. 345 ft
D. is 0.7
130. It is the resistance that, if it replaced the antenna, would
120. The component used to produce AM at very high dissipate exactly the same amount of power that the
frequencies is a antenna radiates.
A. varactor C. thermistor A. directivity gain C. antenna efficiency
B. cavity resonator D. PIN diode B. radiation resistance D. antenna resistance
131. For receive power density of 10µW/m2 and a receive
Section 2: Transmission lines/ Fiber Optics/ Antenna
antenna with a capture area of 0.2 m2, determine the
captured power.
121. Category of media with some form of conductor that
A. 0.5 µW C. 2 µW
provides a conduit in which electromagnetic signals are
B. 1 µW D. 1.5 µW
contained.
A. Guided C. Balanced 132. What is the effective radiated power of a television
B. Unguided D. Unbalanced broadcast station if the output of the transmitter is
1000W, antenna transmission line loss is 50W, and the
122. A delay line using RG-8A/U cable is to exhibit a 5-ns delay.
antenna power gain is 3.
Calculate the required length of the cable.
A. 1250 W C. 2370 W
A. 4.57 ft C. 1.23 ft
B. 2130 W D. 2850 W
B. 6.2 ft D. 3.4 ft
133. It is the same with directive gain except that the total
123. A 50-ohm coax is connected to a 73-ohm antenna. The
power fed to the antenna is used and the antenna
SWR is
efficiency is taken into account.
A. 0.685 C. 1
A. system gain C. power gain
B. 1.46 D. 2.92
B. directive gain D. total gain
 ESAT MCQs

134. A ship-radio telephone transmitter operates on 2738 kHz. A. Inductance loss C. Conductor loss
At a certain point distant from the transmitter, the 2738- B. Voltage loss D. Skin effect
kHz signal is measured field at 147 mV/m, the second
146. For matched condition, what is the relationship of load
harmonic field at the same decibels, how much has the
and characteristic impedance?
harmonic emission been attenuated below the 2738-kHz
A. Greater than C. Less than
fundamental?
B. Equal D. Impossible to say
A. 43.2 dB C. 51.2 dB
B. 35.1 dB D. 25.1 dB 147. It is defined simply as the ratio of the actual velocity of
propagation of an electromagnetic wave through a given
135. The property of interchangeability for the transmitting and
medium to the velocity of propagation through a vacuum
receiving operations is known as _____.
or free space.
A. efficiency C. accuracy
A. Velocity factor C. Velocity propagation
B. reciprocity D. polarization
B. Index of refraction D. Phase delay
136. The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is
148. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial cable with
A. 8.67 ft. C. 17.3 ft.
distributed capacitance of 96.6 pF/m, a distributed
B. 18.2 ft. D. 34.67 ft.
inductance of 241.56 nH/m, and a relative dielectric
137. If a 500-kHz transmitter of a constant power produces constant of 2.3, determine the velocity of propagation
field strength of 100 µV/m at a distance of 100 mil from A. 1.07 x 10^8 m/s C. 2.3 x 10^7 m/s
the transmitter, what would be the field strength at a B. 3.28 x 10^8 m/s D. 2.07 x 10^8 m/s
distance of 200 mi from the transmitter?
149. For a given length of RG 8A/U coaxial cable with
A. 45µV/m C. 100 µV/m
distributed capacitance of 96.6 pF/m, a distributed
B. 50 µV/m D. 35 µV/m
inductance of 241.56 nH/m, and a relative dielectric
138. When energy is applied to the antenna at a point of high- constant of 2.3, determine the velocity factor
circulating current. A. 1.2 C. 0.66
A. voltage-fed antenna C. power-fed antenna B. 0.7 D. 0.5
B. current-fed antenna D. impedance-fed antenna
150. A flat conductor separated from a ground plane by an
139. At frequencies below 2 MHz, what type of antenna is insulating dielectric material
usually used? A. Stripline C. Waveguide
A. Marconi antenna C. Hertzian antenna B. Microstrip D. Coaxial cable
B. Herzt antenna D. Elementary doublet
151. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V,
140. The angular separation between two half-power points in while the maximum is 390 V. The SWR is
the major lobe of the antenna’s plane radiation pattern. A. 0.67 C. 1.0
A. bandwidth C. polarization B. 1.2 D. 1.5
B. efficiency D. beamwidth
152. For a transmission line with an incident voltage of 5V and a
141. For a transmitter antenna with a power gain of 10 and an reflected voltage of 3V, determine the reflection
input power of 100W, determine the EIRP in watts. coefficient.
A. 30 dBW C. 40 dBW A. 0.4 C. 0.6
B. 50 dBW D. 20 dBW B. 0.5 D. 0.7
142. Three feet is one wavelength at a frequency of 153. There is an impedance inversion in every ______.
A. 100 MHz C. 164 MHz A. Half wavelength
B. 300 MHz D. 328 MHz B. Quarter wavelength
C. Full wavelength
143. Which of the following is not a common transmission line
D. Three-eights of a wavelength
impedance?
A. 50 ohms C. 75 ohms 154. A (75-j50)-ohm is connected to a coaxial transmission line
B. 120 ohms D. 300 ohms of Zo = 75 ohms, at 10 GHz. The best method of matching
consists of connecting
144. It is a luminous discharge that occurs between the two
A. A short-circuited stub at the load
conductors of a transmission line when the difference in
B. An inductive at the load
potential between them exceeds the breakdown voltage
C. A capacitance at some specific distance from the load
of a dielectric insulator.
D. A short-circuited stub at some specific distance from
A. Resistance loss C. Corona
the load
B. Radiation loss D. Power loss
155. ______ are used to match transmission lines to purely
145. When current flows through a conductor, the loss
resistive loads whose resistance is not equal to the
introduced as a function of resistance and current is called
characteristic impedance of the line.
 ESAT MCQs

A. Stub D. the index number

B. Slotted lines
167. In refraction that occurs in air/glass interfaces, among the
C. Quarter-wavelength transformer
visible light, which is bent the most?
D. Short circuited lines
A. red C. violet
156. The depth of penetration of current density resulting from B. yellow D. green
skin effect
168. Fiber-optic cables with attenuation of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9 and 18
A. Skin depth C. Wire depth
dB are linked together. The total loss is
B. Line depth D. Medium depth
A. 7.5 dB C. 19.8 dB
157. To match a transmission line with a reactive load _______ B. 29.1 dB D. 650 dB
A. Use stub matching
169. The higher the index number
B. Use a slotted line
A. the higher the speed of light
C. Used a Q-section
B. the lower the speed of light
D. Use an open circuited lines
C. has no effect on the speed of light
158. The most desirable reflection coefficient is D. the shorter the wavelength propagation
A. 0 C. 0.5
170. The maximum angle in which external light rays may strike
B. 1 D. Infinity
the air/glass interface and still propagate down the fiber.
159. A pulse is transmitted down a cable that has a velocity of A. Acceptance cone half-angle
propagation of 0.8c. The reflected signal is received 1us B. Acceptance cone
later. How far down the cable is the impairment? C. Critical angle
A. 240 m C. 15 m D. Angle of incidence
B. 60 m D. 120 m
171. These bends are caused by excessive pressure and tension
160. Using TDR, a transmission line impairment is located and generally occur while fiber are bent during handling or
3000m from the source. For a velocity propagation of 0.9c, installation.
determine the time elapsed from the beginning of the A. microbending C. macrobending
pulse to the reception of the echo B. constant-radius bending D. kinks
A. 11.11 us C. 10.12 us
172. It is caused by the difference in the propagation time of
B. 22.22 us D. 21.14 us
light rays that take different paths down the fiber.
161. Level 2 or category 2 UTP cables comply with IBM’s A. modal dispersion C. microbending
_______ specification. B. Rayleigh scattering D. chromatic dispersion
A. Type 1 C. Type 3
173. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal
B. Type 2 D. Type 4
dispersion?
162. The ratio of the speed of light in air to the speed of light in A. single-mode step-index C. multimode step-index
another substance is called B. single-mode graded-index D. multimode graded-index
A. speed factor C. index of reflection
174. How many modes possible with a multimode step-index
B. index of refraction D. speed gain
with a core diameter of 50 um, a core refractive index of
163. Laser light is very bright because it is 1.6, a cladding refractive index of 1.584, and a wavelength
A. pure C. white of 1300 nm.
B. coherent D. monochromatic A. 456 C. 213
B. 145 D. 372
164. The law that states “When visible light of high frequency
electromagnetic radiation illuminates a metallic surface, 175. Shielded-screen twisted-pair cable or SSTP is also known
electrons are emitted” is known as ____________. as ________.
A. Einstein law of photon C. Marconi’s law A. Cat 5e C. Cat 7
B. Maxwell’s law D. Plank’s law B. Cat 6 D. Cat 8
165. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15dB/km. The attenuation 176. The characteristic impedance of a microstrip is equal to
in a cable 1000 ft long is _____ ohms.
A. 4.57 dB C. 9.3 dB A. 50 to 200 C. 25 to 50
B. 24 dB D. 49.2 dB B. 100 to 200 D. 50 to 75
166. The term single mode and multimode are best described 177. The quarter-wavelength transformer line acts as a step
as down transformer when the load resistance is with what
A. a number of fibers placed into fiber-optic cable relationship with the characteristic impedance of the
B. the number of voice channels each fiber can support quarter-wavelength transformer?
C. the number of wavelengths each fiber can support A. Equal C. Less than
 ESAT MCQs

B. Greater than D. None of these A. 43.5 ohms C. 23.4 ohms

B. 36.2 ohms D. 29.8 ohms
178. Calculate the characteristic impedance of a quarter-
wavelength section used to connect a 300-ohm antenna to 190. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency
a 75-ohm line acts like
A. 150 ohms C. 120 ohms A. Series resonant circuit C. Parallel resonant circuit
B. 130 ohms D. 110 ohms B. Capacitor D. Inductor
179. What is the beamwidth of a parabolic antenna with a 191. The mismatch between the antenna and transmission line
diameter of 5 meters and an operating frequency to 10 impedances cannot be corrected for by
GHz? A. Using an LC matching network
A. 0.5 degrees C. 0.675 degrees B. Adjusting antenna length
B. 0.348 degrees D. 3.48 degrees C. Using a balun
D. Adjusting the length of transmission line
180. The impedance of a dipole is about
A. 50-ohm C. 73-ohm 192. A coaxial cable with two layers of foil insulation and two
B. 93-ohm D. 300-ohm layers of braided shielding.
A. Quad shielding C. Double shielding
181. What must be the height of a vertical radiator one-half
B. Triple shielding D. Shielding
wavelength high if the operating frequency is 1100 kHz?
A. 120 m C. 136 m 193. If the length of an open-circuited stub is less than quarter-
B. 115 m D. 124 m wavelength but greater than 0, the stub behaves as
A. Inductor C. Capacitor
182. Calculate the characteristic impedance for a line that
B. Resistor D. Complex
exhibits an inductance of 4 nH/m and 1.5pF/m
A. 36.6 ohms C. 51.6 ohms 194. Category of UTP that was designed for data transmission
B. 22 ohms D. 24.5 ohms rates up to 20 Mbps
A. Category 5e C. Category 4
183. A circuit device used to connect a balanced transmission
B. Category 5 D. Category 3
line to an unbalanced load
A. Slotted lines C. Stub 195. Variation of CAT5 cables that are intended for data
B. Balun D. Quarterwave lines transmission rates up to 250 Mbps
A. Category 5e C. Category 2
184. Determine the surge impedance for a parallel wire, air
B. Category 6 D. Category 3
dielectric with a ratio of the spacing between conductors
and the diameter of 3 196. The minimum number of twist for UTP is
A. 250 ohms C. 210 ohms A. Two twist per foot C. Two twist per meter
B. 180 ohms D. 215 ohms B. Three twist per foot D. Three twist per meter
185. If a load and a line have mismatched impedances, power 197. Calculate the gain of a parabolic antenna using a 2.5-m
not absorbed by the load will be _____. radius dish operating at 10 GHz.
A. Absorbed C. Rejected A. 166.673 dB C. 83.7 dB
B. Reflected D. Removed B. 52.2 dB D. 45.6 dB
186. A pattern of voltage and current variations along the 198. Calculate the efficiency of an antenna that has a radiation
transmission line not terminated in its characteristic resistance of 73 ohms and an effective dissipation
impedance is called resistance of 5 ohms.
A. An electric fluid C. Radio waves A. 98.3 % C. 93.6 %
B. Standing waves D. A magnetic field B. 90.7 % D. 95.5 %
187. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts 199. The line bisecting the major lobe, or pointing from the
like center of the antenna in the direction of maximum
A. Capacitor C. Inductor radiation is called _____.
B. Series resonant circuit D. Parallel resonant circuit A. line of shoot C. diagonal shoot
B. bisecting shoot D. antenna shoot
188. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line, air
dielectric with a ratio of the diameter of the outer and 200. The horizontal radiation pattern of a dipole is a
inner conductor equal to 1.5? A. circle C. figure of eight
A. 24.3 ohms C. 25.6 ohms B. clover leaf D. narrow beam
B. 13.2 ohms D. 18 ohms
201. For a transmit antenna with a radiation resistance of 72
189. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line, ohms, an effective antenna resistance of 8 ohms, a
polyethylene dielectric with the ratio of the diameter of directivity gain of 20 and an input power of 100W,
the outer and the inner conductor of 2.5? determine the antenna gain.
 ESAT MCQs

A. 12.55 dB C. 10.43 dB 214. Part of a parabolic antenna that houses the primary
B. 11.21 dB D. 9.78 dB antenna which radiates electromagnetic waves toward the
reflector.
202. Using a small reflector to beam waves to the larger
A. feed mechanism C. focal point
parabolic reflector is known as
B. center feed D. feed antenna
A. focal feed C. horn feed
B. cassegrain feed D. coax feed 215. It is a linear array antenna consisting of a dipole and two
or more parasitic elements: one reflector and one director.
203. The ammeter connected at the base of a Marconi antenna
A. broadside antenna C. end-fire antenna
has a certain reading. If this reading is increased 2.77
B. yagi-uda antenna D. phased array antenna
times, what is the increase in output power?
A. 3.45 C. 1.89 216. Which fiber-optic system is better?
B. 2.35 D. 7.67 A. 3 repeaters C. 8 repeaters
B. 11 repeaters D. 20 repeaters
204. Refers to a field pattern that is close to the antenna
A. induction field C. far field 217. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic
B. radiation D. capture field system is 2 Gbits-km/s. What is the maximum rate at 5
km?
205. A half-wave dipole is driven a 5-W signal at 225MHz. A
A. 100 Mbits/s C. 200 Mbits/s
receiving dipole 100 km. Calculate the received power into
B. 400 Mbits/s D. 1000 Gbits/s
a 73-ohm receiver.
A. 23.5 pW C. 7.57 pW 218. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor?
B. 5.64 pW D. 1.26 pW A. PIN photodiode C. Photovoltaic diode
B. Photodiode D. Avalanche photodiode
206. If the power of a 500-kHz transmitter is increased from
150W to 300W, what would be the percentage change in 219. The coating in a fiber helps protect fiber from moisture,
field intensity at a given distance from the transmitter? which reduces the possibility of the occurrence of a
A. 141 % C. 150 % detrimental phenomenon called
B. 100 % D. 133 % A. static fatigue C. mechanical fatigue
B. stress fatigue D. coating fatigue
207. If the field intensity of 25 mV/m develops 2.7 V in a certain
antenna, what is its effective height? 220. The term critical angle describes
A. 110 m C. 100 m A. the point at which light is refracted
B. 98 m D. 108 m B. the point at which light becomes invisible
C. the point at which light has gone from the refractive
208. Defined as the frequency range over which antenna
mode to the reflective mode
operation is satisfactory.
D. the point at which light has crossed the boundary layers
A. beamwidth C. channel
from one index to another
B. bandwidth D. baseband
221. Photodiodes operate properly with
209. One of the following is not an omnidirectional antenna.
A. forward bias
A. half-wave dipole C. log-periodic
B. reverse bias
B. discone D. marconi
C. neither forward nor reverse bias
210. What is the directivity of a Hertz antenna? D. either forward or reverse bias
A. 1.64 C. 2.18
222. It indicates what signal frequencies can be propagated
B. 2.15 D. 1.75
through a given distance of fiber cable.
211. An antenna that is circularly polarized is the A. Bandwidth Distance Product
A. helical C. small circular loop B. Pulse width dispersion
B. parabolic reflector D. Yagi-Uda C. Rise time
D. Cutoff frequency
212. Type of antenna element that is directly connected to the
transmission lines and receives from or is driven by the 223. For a 300-m optical fiber cable with a bandwidth distance
source. product of 600 MHz-km, determine the bandwidth.
A. driven array C. parasitic array A. 5 GHz C. 1 GHz
B. driven element D. parasitic element B. 2 GHz D. 3 GHz

213. A coax has an attenuation of 2.4 dB per 100 ft. The 224. For an optical fiber 10 km long with a pulse spreading
attenuation of 275 ft. constant of 5 ns/km, determine the maximum digital
A. 2.4 dB C. 3.3 dB transmission rates using Return to Zero (RZ) and
B. 4.8 dB D. 6.6 dB Nonreturn to Zero (NRZ).
A. 5 Mbps and 10 Mbps C. 10 Mbps and 5 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps and 20 Mbps D. 20 Mbps and 10 Mbps
 ESAT MCQs

237. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of

225. For a single mode optical cable with 0.25dB/km loss,
A. loss per foot C. dB/km
determine the optical power 100km from a 0.1-mW light
B. intensity per mile D. voltage drop per inch
source.
A. -45 dBm C. -15 dBm 238. Type of lasers that uses a mixture of helium and neon
B. -35 dBm D. -25dBm enclosed in glass tube.
A. gas lasers C. solid lasers
226. Light rays that are emitted simultaneously from an LED
B. semiconductor lasers D. liquid lasers
and propagated down an optical fiber do not arrive at the
far end of the fiber at the same time results to 239. Which of the following cables will have the highest launch
A. intramodal dispersion C. pulse length dispersion power capability?
B. modal dispersion D. wavelength dispersion A. 50/125/0.2 C. 85/125/0.275
B. 62.5/125/0.275 D. 100/140/0.3
227. Type of lasers that use solid, cylindrical crystals such as
ruby 240. It refers to the abrupt of change in refractive index from
A. solid lasers C. ILD core to clad
B. gas lasers D. liquid lasers A. step index C. graded index
B. semi-graded index D. half step index
228. A measure of conversion efficiency of a photodetector.
A. Efficiency C. Responsivity
Section 3: Wave Propagation/ Microwave
B. Dark current D. Spectral response
Communication/ Satellite Communication
229. The core of a fiber-optic cable is made of
A. air C. glass 241. The cumulative sum of the direct, ground-reflected, and
B. diamond D. quartz surface waves is reflected to as _________.
A. Space wave C. Ground wave
230. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light B. Sky wave D. Direct waves
in air is
A. less C. more 242. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what
B. the same D. zero frequency range?
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz C. 3 to 30 MHz
231. Type of lasers that are made from semiconductor pn- B. 30 to 300 MHz D. above 300 MHz
junctions commonly called ILDs
A. semiconductor lasers C. liquid lasers 243. To increase the transmission distance of a UHF signal,
B. plasma lasers D. gas lasers which of the following should be done?
A. increase the antenna gain
232. The leakage current that flows through a photodiode with B. increase antenna height
no light input C. increase transmitter power
A. dark voltage C. dark impedance D. increase receiver sensitivity
B. dark power D. dark current
244. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft high. The
233. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes receiving antenna is 200 ft high. The maximum
the interface at an angle with what relationship to the transmission distance is
critical angle? A. 20 mi C. 33.2 mi
A. less than C. greater than B. 38.7 mi D. 53.2 mi
B. equal to D. zero
245. 85 percent of the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is
234. Which of the following is not a major benefit of a fiber- called _________.
optic cable? A. maximum usable frequency
A. immunity from interference B. optimum working frequency
B. no electrical safety problems C. critical frequency
C. excellent data security D. maximum frequency
D. lower cost
246. Indicate which one of the following term applies to
235. The operation of a fiber-optic cable is based on the troposcatter propagation
principle of A. SIDs C. Fading
A. refraction C. reflection B. Atmospheric storms D. Faraday’s rotation
B. dispersion D. absorption
247. A ship-to-ship communication system is plagued by fading.
236. Loss comparisons between fusion splices and mechanical The best solution seem to use of
splices A. a more directional antenna
A. 1:10 C. 10:1 B. a broadband antenna
B. 20:1 D. 1:20 C. frequency diversity
 ESAT MCQs

D. space diversity 260. A ground station is operating to a geostationary satellite at

a 5 degrees angle of elevation. Calculate the round-trip
248. Line-of-sight communications is not a factor in which
time between ground station to satellites in a
frequency range?
geostationary orbit.
A. VHF C. UHF
A. 456.45 ms C. 275.58 ms
B. HF D. Microwave
B. 137.79 ms D. 126.89 ms
249. For what are PIN diodes used in microwave?
261. The escape velocity of the earth is approximately
A. mixers C. modulators
A. 30,000 km/hr C. 25,000 mi/hr
B. oscillators D. amplifier
B. 35,000 m/s D. 25,000 km/hr
250. What is the microwave application of a varactor?
262. Kepler’s 3rd law is also known as
A. mixer C. frequency multiplier
A. Law of gravity C. Law of areas
B. demodulator D. demultiplexer
B. Newton’s law of motion D. Harmonic law
251. A magnetic field is introduced into a waveguide by a
263. A TVRO installation for use with C-band satellite
A. probe C. dipole
(download frequency at 4 GHz), has a diameter of about
B. stripline D. capacitor
3.5 meters and an efficiency of 60%. Calculate the gain.
252. In radars, the time between pulses is called ______. A. 41 dB C. 19 dB
A. rest time C. duration time B. 29 dB D. 9 dB
B. delay time D. propagation time
264. Calculate the length of the path to a geostationary satellite
253. When electromagnetic waves are reflected at an angle from an earth station where the angle of elevation is 30
from a wall, their wavelength along the wall is degrees.
A. the same as the free space A. 55 x 10^3 km C. 13 x 10^3 km
B. the same as the wavelength perpendicular to the wall B. 23 x 10^3 km D. 39 x 10^3 km
C. shortened because of the Doppler effect
265. Telephone communication takes place between two earth
D. greater than in the actual direction of propagation
stations via a satellite that is 40,000 km from each station.
254. Indicate the false statement. Compared with equivalent Suppose Bill, at station 1, asks a question and Sharon, at
transmission lines, 3 GHz waveguides station 2, answers immediately, as soon as she hears the
A. are less lossy C. can carry higher powers question. How much time elapses between the end of
B. are less bulky D. have lower attenuation Bill’s question and the beginning of Sharon’s reply, as
heard by Bill?
255. Kepler’s 2nd law is known as A. 0.26 sec C. 3.2 sec
A. Law of gravity C. Law of areas B. 0.52 sec D. 1.6 sec
B. Newton’s law of motion D. Harmonic law
266. Geosynchronous satellites are high-altitude earth-orbit
256. A satellite transmitter operates at a 4 GHz with a satellites with heights about
transmitter power of 7W and an antenna gain of 40 dBi. A. 22,300 miles C. 21,000 miles
The receiver has antenna gain of 30 dBi, and the path B. 8,000 miles D. 10,400 miles
length is 40,000 km. calculate the signal strength at the
receiver. 267. A common up-converter and down-converter IF in satellite
A. -88 dBm C. -98 dBm communications is
B. -77 dBm D. -79.8 dBm A. 36 MHz C. 40 MHz
B. 70 MHz D. 500 MHz
257. The geometric shape of a non-circular orbit of a satellite is
A. Ellipse C. Parabolic 268. It is the angle between the earth’s equatorial plane and
B. Hyperbolic D. Paraboloid the orbital plane of the satellite measured
counterclockwise.
258. A receiving antenna with a gain of 40 dB looks at a sky with A. Angle of elevation C. Angle of azimuth
a noise temperature of 15 K. the loss between the antenna B. Angle of inclination D. Angle of tetrahedron
and the LNA input, due to the feedhorn is 0.4 dB, and the
LNA has a noise temperature of 40K. Calculate the G/T? 269. The access scheme used by GPS
A. 13.4 dB C. 39 dB A. FDMA C. OFDMA
B. 20.6 dB D. 11.2 dB B. TDMA D. CDMA

259. A satellite remains in orbit because the centrifugal force 270. The input circuit to a transponder is the ____.
caused by its rotation around the Earth is counterbalanced A. BPF C. HPA
by Earth’s ____. B. LPA D. Any of these
A. Centripetal force C. Inertia
271. Satellite orbiting in the opposite direction as the Earth’s
B. Gravitational pull D. Speed
rotation and at angular velocity less than that of the Earth
 ESAT MCQs

A. Asynchronous C. Synchronous B. 40 MHz D. 15.5 MHz

B. Posigrade D. Retrograde
284. The E layer of the ionosphere aid _________ propagation
272. The point in an orbit which is located farthest from earth and reflects _________ waves
A. Perigee C. Apogee A. MF, HF C. HF, MF
B. Line of apsides D. Point of shoot B. LF, MF D. MF, LF
273. Low Earth Orbit (LEO) satellite orbits around the earth at a 285. A radio wave moves from air (relative permittivity is 1) to
height of approximately ____. glass (relative permittivity is 7.8). Its angle of incidence is
A. 3000 miles C. 1000 miles 30 degrees. What is the angle of refraction?
B. 575 miles D. 370 miles A. 10.3 degrees C. 11.2 degrees
B. 20.4 degrees D. 0.179 degrees
274. The most popular satellite frequency range is 4 to 6 GHz
and is called the ____ band. 286. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by
A. C C. L the atmosphere than the others is called a
B. Ka D. Ku A. window
B. critical frequency
275. The term generally associated with the table showing the
C. gyro frequency range
position of a heavenly body on the number of dates in a
D. resonance in the atmosphere
regular sequence.
A. Astronomical almanac C. Smith 287. For an isotropic antenna radiating 100W of power, what is
B. Ephemeris D. Space reporting power density 1000m from the source?
A. 1.99 uW/m^2 C. 7.96 uW/m^2
276. In satellite communications, the type of modulation used
B. 3.22 uW/m^2 D. 9.17 uW/m^2
in voice and video signals is
A. AM C. FM 288. The dielectric strength of air is about 3MV/m. Arching is
B. SSB D. QPSK likely to take place at field strengths greater than that.
What is the maximum power density of an
277. A region in which super-refraction occurs which is formed
electromagnetic wave in air?
in the troposphere when the layer of cool air becomes
A. 40 GW/m^2 C. 15.5 GW/m^2
trapped underneath a layer of warmer air.
B. 23.9 GW/m^2 D. 18.9 GW/m^2
A. duct C. dielectric area
B. gateway D. window 289. The transmitting distance with direct waves is limited to
short distances and strictly a function of the _________ of
278. As a ground-wave signal moves away from the transmitter,
the transmitting and receiving antenna.
the ground wave eventually disappears due to the
A. frequency C. phase
A. absorption C. tilting
B. power D. height
B. refraction D. diffraction
290. Diffraction of electromagnetic waves
279. It is a gradual shift in polarization of the signal in the
A. is caused by reflections from the ground
medium.
C. arises only with spherical waveforms
A. fading C. faraday effect
B. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot
B. ghosting D. multipath fading
D. may occur around the edge of a sharp obstacle
280. Radio horizon is _________ greater than the optical
291. If the electric field is propagating parallel to the surface of
horizon.
the Earth, the polarization is _________.
A. one-third C. four-third
A. Circular C. Vertical
B. two-third D. twice
B. Horizontal D. Elliptical
281. Where is the skip zone?
292. A phenomenon whereby the frequency of a reflected of a
A. between the sky and the first reflected wave
reflected signal is shifted if there is relative motion
B. between end of ground and first reflected wave
between the source and reflecting object.
C. between end of ground and farthest reflected wave
A. Doppler effect C. Hall effect
D. between the end of sky to the farthest reflected wave
B. Marconi effect D. Maxwell effect
282. The D layer of the ionosphere reflects _________ waves.
293. A type of microwave repeater where the received RF
A. MF and HF C. VLF and MF
carrier is down-converted to an IF frequency, amplified
B. MF and VHF D. VLF and LF
filtered and further demodulated to baseband.
283. The critical frequency at a particular time is 11.6MHz. A. RF repeater C. IF repeater
What is the MUF for a transmitting station if the required B. baseband repeater D. radio repeater
angle of incidence for propagation to a desired destination
294. A pyramidal horn used at 5 GHz has an aperture that is 7
is 70 degrees?
cm by 9 cm. The gain is about
A. 34 MHz C. 45 MHz
 ESAT MCQs

A. 10.5 dB C. 11.1 dB B. 20 kW D. 30 kW
B. 22.6 dB D. 35.8 dB
307. If the peak transmitted power in a radar system is
295. Refers to more than one transmission path or method of increased by a factor of 15, the maximum range will be
transmission available between transmitter and a receiver. increased by a factor of
A. diversity C. polarization A. 2 C. 4
B. efficiency D. accuracy B. 8 D. 16
296. A type of diversity where a single RF carrier is propagated 308. Calculate the coupling of a directional coupler that has 70
with two different electromagnetic polarization. mW into the main guide and 0.35 mW out the secondary
A. space diversity C. wavelength diversity guide.
B. polarization diversity D. hybrid diversity A. 13 dB C. 23 dB
B. 33 dB D. 10 dB
297. Which of the following is not a microwave tube?
A. Traveling-wave tube C. Cathode-ray tube 309. A rectangular waveguide is 1 cm by 2 cm. Calculate the
B. Klystron D. Magnetron cutoff frequency
A. 3.5 GHz C. 15 GHz
298. Type of protection switching arrangement where each
B. 7.5 GHz D. 4 GHz
working radio channel has a dedicated backup or spare
channel 310. Calculate the maximum ambiguous range for a radar
A. hot swap C. hot backup system with PRT equal to 400µs.
B. hot standby D. hot diversity A. 13.8 mi C. 43.5 mi
B. 16.4 mi D. 32.8 mi
299. The power that leaks out of the back and sides of the
transmit antenna interfering with the signal entering with 311. What is the duty cycle of a radar pulse if the pulse width is
the signal entering the input of a nearby receive antenna. 1µs, the pulse repetition rate is 900, and the average
A. ringaround C. ringabout power is 18 W?
B. roundabout D. turnaround A. 0.09 % C. 0.99 %
B. 0.90 % D. 1.00 %
300. The combination of the frequency, space, polarization and
receiver diversity into one system 312. When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide, there
A. hybrid diversity C. quad diversity appears an extra electric component, in the direction of
B. space diversity D. wavelength diversity propagation. The resulting mode is
A. transverse electric
301. Points in the microwave system baseband signals either
B. transverse magnetic
originate or terminate
C. longitudinal
A. terminator C. terminal stations
D. transverse-electromagnetic
B. terminating equipment D. terminal equipment
313. Waveguides act as _____.
302. It is a general term applied to the reduction in signal
A. low-pass filter C. bandpass filter
strength at the input to a receiver
B. high-pass filter D. band-stop filter
A. fading C. attenuation
B. absorption D. ghosting 314. In waveguides, if no component of the E field is in the
direction of propagation the mode is said to be
303. A half wavelength, closed section of a waveguide that acts
A. TE C. TM
as a parallel resonant circuit is known as _____.
B. TEM D. TME
A. half-wave section C. cavity resonator
B. LCR circuit D. directional couple 315. The smallest free-space wavelength that is just unable to
propagate in the waveguide
304. An arrangement that avoids a service interruption during
A. cutoff wavelength C. cutoff frequency
periods of deep fades or equipment failures.
B. cutoff waveguide length D. cutoff phase
A. service switching arrangement
B. protection switching arrangement 316. A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 inch and a height
C. interruption switching arrangement of 0.6 inch. Its cutoff frequency is
D. equipment switching arrangement A. 2.54 GHz C. 3.0 GHz
B. 5.9 GHz D. 11.8 GHz
305. The most widely used microwave antenna is a
A. half-wave dipole C. quarter-wave probe 317. Which of the following is a microwave frequency?
B. single loop D. horn A. 1.7 MHz C. 750 MHz
B. 0.98 MHz D. 22 GHz
306. What is the peak power of a radar pulse if the pulse width
is 1µs, the pulse repetition rate is 900, and the average 318. The most common cross section of a waveguide is a
power is 18 W? A. square C. circle
A. 10 kW C. 15 kW B. triangle D. rectangle
 ESAT MCQs

330. It is a type of fading having different effect different

319. A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. Which of
frequencies
the signals will not be passed by the waveguide?
A. Selective fading C. Polarization fading
A. 15 GHz C. 18 GHz
B. Interference fading D. Absorption fading
B. 22 GHz D. 25 GHz
331. The layer of the ionosphere which farthest from the sun
320. What is the designation of the lowest-frequency
A. D layer C. E layer
microwave band?
B. F1 layer D. F2 layer
A. V band C. X band
B. Ku band D. L band 332. A condition which manifest itself in the form of double-
image distortion
321. Medium Earth Orbit (MEO) satellite orbits around the
A. running C. fading
earth at a height approximately ____.
B. ghosting D. snowing
A. 3,000 miles to 6,000 miles
B. 4,000 miles to 8,000 miles 333. It states that every point on a given spherical wavefront
C. 6,000 miles to 12,000 miles can be considered as a secondary point source of
D. 8,000 miles to 10,000 miles electromagnetic waves from which other secondary waves
or wavelets are radiated outward.
322. Calculate the electric field intensity, in volts per meter, 20
A. Hertzian principle C. Maxwell’s principle
km from a 1-kW source.
B. Huygen’s principle D. Marconi’s principle
A. 3.44 mW/m C. 7.65 mW/m
B. 8.66 mW/m D. 1.45 mW/m 334. The E layer of the ionosphere is sometimes called
A. Kennely-Heavisides C. Sporadic-E layer
323. It is an earth-guided electromagnetic wave that travels
B. E-densed layer D. Kennely layer
over the surface of the Earth
A. Surface waves C. Sky waves 335. The area between where the surface waves are
B. Direct waves D. Space waves completely dissipated and the point where the first sky
wave returns to earth is called _________.
324. The absorption of radio waves by the atmosphere depends
A. skip distance C. skip distance zone
on
B. optical horizon D. quiet zone
A. their frequency
B. their distance from the transmitter 336. It is defined as the higher frequency that can be
C. the polarization of waves propagated directly upward and still be returned to earth
D. is always vertical in an isotropic medium by the ionosphere
A. critical angle
325. The signal refracted back from the ionosphere strikes the
B. maximum usable frequency
earth and is reflected back up to the ionosphere again to
C. critical frequency
be bent and sent back to earth.
D. virtual height
A. skip transmission C. multi-hop transmission
B. multi transmission D. hop transmission 337. Indicate which of the following frequencies cannot be used
for reliable beyond-the-horizon terrestrial
326. Calculate the radio horizon for a 500-ft transmitting
communications without repeaters:
antenna and receiving antenna of 20 ft.
A. 20 kHz C. 15 MHz
A. 23.1 mi C. 31.2 mi
B. 900 MHz D. 12 GHz
B. 14.8 mi D. 37.9 mi
338. It is the height above Earth’s surface from which a
327. Calculate the power received from a 20-W transmitter,
reflected wave appears to have been reflected.
22,000 miles from earth, if the receiving antenna has an
A. virtual height C. maximum height
effective area of 1600m^2
B. vertical height D. horizontal height
A. 4.06 x 10^-12 W C. 2.03 x 10^-12 W
B. 1.02 x 10^-12 W D. 0.91 x 10^-12 W 339. Scatter transmission is used at what frequencies?
A. EHF and VLF C. HF and VHF
328. The refracting and reflecting action of the ionosphere and
B. VHF and UHF D. ELF and VLF
the ground is called
A. sliding C. skipping 340. Given the frequency and dimensions of 5 GHz and 7 cm by
B. hopping D. boosting 9 cm respectively, the beam of the pyramidal horn is about
A. 27 degrees C. 53 degrees
329. Calculate the power density in watts per square meter (on
B. 60 degrees D. 80 degrees
earth) from a 10-W satellite source that is 22,000 miles
from earth. 341. It is the difference between the nominal output power of a
A. 3.17 x 10^ -16 W/m^2 C. 6.35 x 10^ -16 W/m^2 transmitter and the minimum input power required by a
B. 2.31 x 10^ -16 W/m^2 D. 1.21 x 10^ -16 W/m^2 receiver
A. RSL C. IRL
 ESAT MCQs

B. system gain D. FSL B. Hydrogen clocks D. Fossil clocks

342. The line joining the ascending and descending node is 355. Most satellites operate in which frequency band?
called A. 30 to 300 MHz C. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
A. Line of apsides C. Line of nodes B. 3 to 30 GHz D. Above 300 GHz
B. Line of shoot D. Any of these
356. Satellites with orbital pattern like Molniya are sometimes
343. The spatial separation of a satellite is between ____. classified as
A. 3 to 6 degrees C. 1 to 2 degrees A. LEO C. MEO
B. 5 to 8 degrees D. 8 to 16 degrees B. GEO D. HEO
344. It was the first artificial satellite used for relaying 357. The method of assigning adjacent channels different
terrestrial communications electromagnetic polarization is called
A. Score C. Explorer I A. Frequency reuse C. Polarization
B. Sputnik I D. Syncom I B. Multi-accessing D. Interference
345. When the satellite rotates in a path that takes it over the 358. The main power sources for a satellite are
north and south poles in an orbit perpendicular to the A. Batteries
equatorial plane. This type of orbit is called B. Solar cells
A. Inclined orbit C. Polar orbit C. Fuel cells
B. Geosynchronous orbit D. Diagonal orbit D. Thermoelectric generators
346. The geographical representation of a satellite antenna’s 359. A type of satellite’s multiple-accessing method that allows
radiation pattern is called a ____. all users continuous and equal access of the entire
A. Field intensity C. Footprint transponder bandwidth by assigning carrier frequencies on
B. Radiation propagation D. Polarization a temporary basis using statistical assignment process.
A. TDMA C. FDMA
347. The smallest beam of a satellite that concentrates their
B. DAMA D. CDMA
power to very small geographical areas.
A. Hemispherical beam C. Global beam 360. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which band(s)
B. Spot beam D. Any of these A. L C. C and Ku
B. X D. S and P
348. It was the first satellite to accomplish transatlantic
transmission.
Section 4: Digital and Data Communications
A. Courier C. Echo
B. Telstar D. Syncom
361. It is a network access method used primarily with LANs
349. The satellite or space segment of Navstar GPS is consist of configured in a ring topology using either baseband or
____ operational satellites. broadband transmission formats.
A. 30 C. 24 A. Ethernet C. Token passing
B. 14 D. 20 B. Token ring D. Token bus

350. The first active satellite to simultaneously receive and 362. A signal can be recovered from its sample by using
transmit radio signals. A. Low pass filter C. High pass filter
A. Telstar I C. Telstar II B. Band pass filter D. Band stop filter
B. Intelsat D. Syncom
363. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states,
351. It is defined as the horizontal pointing angle of an earth countries, or the whole world.
station antenna. A. MAN C. WAN
A. Angle of inclination C. Azimuth angle B. LAN D. none of the above
B. Latitude D. Longitude
364. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are
352. The main function of a communications satellite is as connected by a dedicated link.
A. Repeater C. Reflector A. multipoint C. A and B
B. Beacon D. Observation platform B. point-to-point D. none of the above

353. It is the direction of maximum gain of the earth station 365. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be
antenna interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that
A. Footprint C. Boresight interpretation.
B. Angle of elevation D. Angle of azimuth A. Syntax C. Semantics
B. Timing D. None of the above
354. The highly accurate timing clocks onboard the GPS
satellite. 366. The _______ layer links the network support layers and
A. Plutonium clocks C. Cesium atomic clocks the user support layers.
 ESAT MCQs

A. session C. transport
379. A small telephone switching system that can be used as a
B. data link D. network
LAN is called
367. Mail services are available to network users through the A. Ring C. WAN
_______ layer. B. UART D. PBX
A. Transport C. Physical
380. In T1, it is equal to the reciprocal of the sample rate
B. Data link D. Application
A. Slot time C. Transmission time
368. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses. B. Frame time D. Bit rate
A. 128 C. 32
381. In order to separate channels in the TDM receiver, it is
B. 64 D. variable
necessary to use
369. To deliver a message to the correct application program A. AND gates C. bandpass filters
running on a host, the _______ address must be B. differentiation D. integration
consulted.
382. Each signal in an FDM signal
A. physical C. port
A. modulates the main carrier
B. IP D. none of the above
B. modulates the final carrier
370. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is C. is mixed with all the others before modulation
the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. D. serves as a subcarrier
A. IP C. port
383. In digital modulation, if the information signal is digital and
B. specific D. physical
the amplitude of the carrier is varied proportional to the
371. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if information signal.
we have a ____ channel. A. Quartenary Shift Keying (QAM)
A. bandpass C. low-pass B. Phase Shift Keying (PSK)
B. high rate D. low rate C. Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)
D. Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)
372. ______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with
000VB0VB. 384. A LAN device that interconnects two or more device
A. B4B8 C. B8ZS running identical internetwork protocols.
B. HDB3 D. none of the above A. Bridges C. Gateways
B. Switches D. Routers
373. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it
replaces each m-bit group with an n-bit group. 385. Frequency modulation in FDM usually accomplished with a
A. Line coding C. Block coding A. reactance modulator C. varactor
B. Scrambling D. None of the above B. VCO D. PLL
374. There are three sampling methods: __________. 386. The data rate for IEEE 802.11b is
A. ideal, natural, and flat-top A. 10 Mbps C. 1.544 Mbps
B. ideal, sampled, and flat-top B. 2.048 Mbps D. 11 Mbps
C. quantized, sampled, and ideal
387. It is a multiplexing system similar to conventional time-
D. none of the above
division multiplexing except that it was developed to be
375. The first step in PCM is ________. used with optical fibers
A. quantization C. sampling A. SONET C. Frame relay
B. modulation D. none of the above B. ATM D. X.25
376. Converting analog signals to digital is done by sampling 388. A mainframe computer connected to multiple terminals
and _________. and PCs usually uses which configuration?
A. quantizing C. companding A. bus C. ring
B. pre-emphasis D. mixing B. star D. tree
377. Dividing the data block by a constant produces a 389. Type of analog companding used in the United States and
remainder that is used for error detection. It is called the Japan
A. Vertical redundancy checking A. log-PCM companding C. A-law companding
B. Horizontal redundancy checking B. u-law companding D. any of these
C. Block check character
390. Higher order TDM levels are obtained by
D. Cyclic redundancy check
A. dividing pulse widths
378. These are used for transmission of PCM encoded time- B. using the a-law
division multiplexed digital signal C. using u-law
A. I carriers C. E carriers D. forming supermastergroups
B. A carriers D. T carriers
 ESAT MCQs

391. A rule of procedure that defines how data is to be 401. Time-division multiplex
transmitted is called A. can be used with PCM only
A. handshake C. error-detection B. combines five groups into a supergroup
B. data specifications D. protocol C. stacks 24 channels in adjacent frequency slots
D. interleaves pulses belonging to different transmissions
392. What is the relationship of bit rate and baud in QPSK and
8-PSK? 402. It is a numerical indication of how efficiently a PCM code is
A. bit rate is greater than baud utilized
B. bit rate is always less than the baud A. Coding efficiency C. Companding
C. bit rate is never greater than the baud B. Pre-emphasis D. Dynamic Range
D. bit rate is slightly less than the baud
403. Type of PCM which is designed to take advantage of the
393. A convenient technique for determining the effects of the sample-to sample redundancies in the typical speech
degradations introduced into the pulses as they travel to waveform
the regenerator. A. Single-bit PCM code C. Pulse code modulation
A. Standing wave ratio C. Eye patterns B. Differential PCM D. Data modulation
B. Reflection coefficient D. Any of these
404. A carrier recovery circuit is not needed with
394. Form of multiplexing that constitutes propagating signals A. FSK C. BPSK
from different cables that are contained within the same B. DPSK D. QAM
trench
405. It is a set of rules implementing and governing an orderly
A. Wavelength division multiplexing
exchange of data between layers of two devices, such as
B. Wave division multiplexing
line control units and front-end processors.
C. Space division multiplexing
A. Data Link Protocol C. Network Protocol
D. Frequency division multiplexing
B. Pont to Point Protocol D. File Transfer Protocol
395. For an 8-PSK system, operating with an information bit
406. A form of angle-modulated, constant amplitude digital
rate of 24 kbps, determine the bandwidth efficiency
modulation similar to conventional phase modulation
A. 8 bits/cycle C. 2 bits/cycle
except its input is binary digital signal and there are limited
B. 3 bits/cycle D. 4 bits/cycle
number of output phase possible
396. A LAN device that use to interconnect two networks that A. ASK C. PSK
use different protocols and formats B. FSK D. QAM
A. Gateways C. Routers
407. The phase relationship between signaling elements for
B. Bridges D. Hubs
BPSK is the optimum signaling format and occurs only
397. In PCM, it converts the PAM samples to parallel PCM when two binary signal levels are allowed and when one
codes signal is the exact negative of the other
A. Analog-to-digital Converter A. Antipodal signaling C. Carrier recovery
B. Digital-to-analog Converter B. Squaring loop D. Phase referencing
C. Pre-emphasis circuit
408. What is the bandwidth required to transmit at a rate of 10
D. Compander
Mbps in the presence of a 28-dB S/N ratio?
398. The OSI layer that provides the control functions necessary A. 1.075 MHz C. 10 MHz
to establish manage, and terminate the connections as B. 5 MHz D. 10.75 MHz
required to satisfy the user request.
409. The fastest LAN topology is
A. Application layer C. Network layer
A. ring C. bus
B. Session layer D. Physical layer
B. star D. square
399. It is the transmittal of digitally modulated analog signals
410. Pulse-amplitude modulation signals are multiplexed by
(carrier) between two or more points in a communications
using
system.
A. Subcarrier C. Bandpass filters
A. Digital Modulation C. Digital Transmission
B. A/D Converters D. FET switches
B. Digital Communications D. Pulse Modulation
411. The slope of the analog signal is greater than the delta
400. A digital modulation technique which is a form of
modulator can maintain
constant-amplitude angle modulation similar to standard
A. overload distortion C. granular noise
frequency modulation except the modulating signal is
B. slope overload D. peak limiting
binary signal that varies between two discreet voltage
levels. 412. It is simply the data rate at which serial PCM bits are
A. QAM C. ASK clocked out of the PCM encoder onto the transmission
B. PSK D. FSK line.
 ESAT MCQs

A. line speed C. baud rate A. 1111111 1 C. 1100110 1

B. output rate D. bit rate B. 0011010 1 D. 0000000 0
413. A forward error correcting code corrects errors by 424. A 9600-baud rate signal can pass over the voice grade
A. requiring partial transmission of the entire signal telephone line if which kind of modulation is used?
B. requiring retransmission of the entire signal A. BPSK C. QPSK
C. requiring no part of the signal to be transmitted B. DPSK D. QAM
D. using parity to correct the errors in all cases
425. Which of the following is not primarily a type of data
414. It is essentially the same with FDM, where several signals communications?
are transmitted using different carriers, occupying non- A. telephone C. teletype
overlapping bands of frequency and wavelengths. B. telegraph D. CW
A. Time division multiplexing
426. Packets which is self-contained and travels through the
B. Wave division multiplexing
network independent of other packets of the same
C. Space division multiplexing
message by whatever means available.
D. Frequency division multiplexing
A. Packet C. Frame
415. Function of data link protocol that coordinates the rate at B. Datagram D. Data
which data are transported over a link and generally
427. Any rounded-off errors in the transmitted signal are
provides an acknowledgement mechanism that ensures
reproduced when the code is converted back to analog in
that data are received in the destination.
the receiver
A. Flow control C. Line discipline
A. Aperture error C. Quantization error
B. Polling D. Selection
B. Aperture distortion D. Slope overload
416. The carrier used with a BPSK demodulator is
428. The main reason that serial transmission is preferred to
A. Generated by an oscillator
parallel transmission is that?
B. The BPSK signal itself
A. serial is faster
C. Twice the frequency of the transmitted carrier
B. serial requires only a single channel
D. Recovered from the BPSK signal
C. serial requires multiple channels
417. A classification of protocol, which is a discipline for a D. parallel is too expensive
serial-by-bit information transfer over data
429. Involves compression in the transmitter after the input
communications channel.
pulse has been converted to a linear PCM code and then
A. Message oriented C. Bit-oriented protocol
expansion in the receiver prior to PCM coding
B. Clock oriented protocol D. Asynchronous protocol
A. analog companding C. A-law companding
418. The ASCII code has B. digital companding D. u-law companding
A. 4 bits C. 5 bits
430. Mark and space refer respectively to
B. 7 bits D. 8 bits
A. dot and dash C. message and interval
419. A form of switching which is hold and forward B. binary 1 and binary 0 D. on and off
A. Packet switching C. Message switching
431. A modulation technique where data rates in excess of 56
B. Circuit switching D. Digital switching
kbps can be achieved over telephone circuits
420. For a single-channel PCM system with a sample rate of A. ASK C. Trellis code modulation
6000 samples per second and a seven-bit compressed B. GSK D. any of these
PCM code, what is the line speed?
432. The building block of a parity or BCC generator is _____.
A. 21,000 bps C. 42,000 bps
A. Shift register C. XOR
B. 14,000 bps D. 12,000 bps
B. 2-to-4 level converter D. UART
421. In digital modulation, a diagram which is similar to phasor
433. An IC that contains A/D and D/A converters, companders,
diagram except that the entire phasor is not drawn and
and parallel-to-serial converters is called a
only the peaks of the phasor are shown
A. Codec C. Data converter
A. constellation diagram C. Venn diagram
B. Multiplexer D. Modem
B. phasor diagram D. schematic diagram
434. The ISDN channel D designates _____ which contains
422. The technique of using modulation and FDM to transmit
control information.
multiple data channels of a common medium is known as
A. Data C. Flow
A. baseband C. broadband
B. Control D. Bearer
B. ring D. bus
435. The basic modulator and demodulator circuits in PSK are
423. Which of the following words has the correct parity bit?
A. PLLs C. Balanced modulators
Assume odd parity. The last bit is the parity bit.
B. Shift registers D. Linear summers
 ESAT MCQs

B. in PCM transmitters, to allow amplitude limiting in the

436. A transmission of binary data which involves the
receivers
transmission of two non-zero voltage level
C. to protect small signals in PCM from quantizing
A. Unipolar C. Polar
distortion
B. Bipolar D. Nonreturn to Zero
D. in PCM receivers, to overcome impulse noise
437. Information capacity is convenient to express as
449. A theorem that establishes the minimum sampling rate
A. baud C. bits
that can be used for a given PCM systems
B. dot length D. bits per second or bps
A. Nyquist sampling theorem
438. For a 16-PSK and a transmission system with a 10 kHz B. Nyquist minimum bandwidth
bandwidth, determine the maximum bit rate C. Nyquist minimum bandwidth
A. 40,000 bps C. 80,000 bps D. Any of these
B. 20,000 bps D. 16,000 bps
450. Sixteen different levels (symbols) are used to encode
439. An FDM hierarchy which is formed by frequency-division binary data. The channel bandwidth is 36 MHC. the
multiplexing 10 supergroups together for a combined maximum channel capacity is
capacity of 600 voice band message channels A. 187 Mbps C. 72 Mbps
A. Supergroup C. Group B. 288 Mbps D. 2.176 Gbps
B. Mastergroup D. Jumbogroup
451. One eight-bit PCM code is called
440. It is a function of the carrier-to-noise power ration and the A. FDM frame C. TDM time slot
number of possible encoding conditions used B. TDM frame D. FDM time slot
A. probability of error C. error detection
452. It is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the
B. error control D. bit error rate
smallest possible magnitude that can be decoded by the
441. Indicate which of the following is not a binary code. digital-to-analog converter in the receiver
A. Morse C. Baudot A. Coding efficiency C. Companding
B. CCITT-2 D. ARQ B. Pre-emphasis D. Dynamic range

442. To permit the selection of 1 out of 16 equiprobable events, 453. In orthogonal BFSK, the energy of information bearing
the number of bits required is term is
A. 2 C. log 16 base 10 A. the same as total transmitted energy
B. 8 D. 4 B. one-half of total transmitted energy
C. one-fourth of total transmitted energy
443. Ten bit errors in two million transmitted. The bit error rate D. none of the above
is
A. 2×10^−5 C. 5×10^−5 454. The main advantage of TDM over FDM is that it
B. 5×10^−6 D. 2×10^−6 A. needs less power C. needs less bandwidth
B. needs simple circuitry D. gives better S/N ratio
444. The result whenever the sampling rate is less than the
twice the highest audio frequency 455. If carrier is modulated by a digital bit stream having one of
A. peak limiting C. overload distortion the possible phases of 0°, 90°, 180°, and 270°, then
B. alias D. quantizing noise modulation is called
A. BPSK C. QPSK
445. Quantizing noise occurs in B. QAM D. MSK
A. time-division multiplex
B. frequency-division multiplex 456. When the number of quantising levels is 16 in PCM, the
C. pulse-code modulation number of pulses in a code group will be
D. pulse width modulation A. 16 C. 8
B. 4 D. 2
446. It is a form of phase-division multiplexing where two data
channels modulate the same carrier frequency that is 457. In PCM the amplitude levels are transmitted in a 7 unit
shifted 90 degrees in phase. code. Sampling frequency is 10 kHz. The bandwidth should
A. PSK C. FSK be
B. QAM D. ASK A. 5 kHz C. 30 kHz
B. 35kHz D. 5 MHz
447. A synchronous transmission usually begins with which
character? 458. The digital modulation scheme in which the step size is not
A. SYN C. STX fixed is
B. SOH D. ETB A. Delta modulation
B. Adaptive delta modulation
448. Companding is used C. DPCM
A. to overcome quantizing noise in PCM D. PCM
 ESAT MCQs

470. The minimum distance Dmin can also be given as

459. The format in which the positive half interval pulse is
A. Dmin >= α + β + 1 C. Dmin <= α + β + 1
followed by a negative half interval pulse for transmission
B. Dmin >= α + β – 1 D. Dmin <= α + β + 1
of '1' is
A. Polar NRZ format C. Bipolar NRZ format 471. Which factors are measured using the units of lines per
B. Manchester format D. None of the above picture height?
A. Resolution
460. The probability of error of DPSK is ______________ than
B. Sampling rate
that of BPSK.
C. Resolution & Sampling rate
A. Higher C. Lower
D. None of the mentioned
B. Same D. Not predictable
472. The cyclic codes are designed using
461. Devices used for digitizing speech signals only
A. Shift registers with feedback
A. codec C. muldem
B. Shift registers without feedback
B. vocoders D. modem
C. Flipflops
462. What is the minimum bandwidth required to transmit 56 D. None of the mentioned
kbps binary signal with no noise?
473. In the dividing circuit, the parity polynomial is obtained by
A. 14 kHz C. 56 kHz
the
B. 28 kHz D. 112 kHz
A. Quotient C. Remainder
463. It is a popular type of line encoding that produces a strong B. Dividend D. Divisor
timing component for clock recovery and does not cause
474. SQNR can be improved by _______ sampling rate.
wandering
A. Increasing C. Decreasing
A. Digital Biphase C. Biphase
B. Does not depend D. None of the mentioned
B. Manchester code D. Any of these
475. Which corrects the sampling time problem in a digital
464. Type of PCM that uses single-bit PCM code to achieve
system?
digital transmission of analog signals
A. Interpolator C. Decimator
A. Adaptive delta modulation
B. Equalizer D. Filter
B. Pulse code modulation
C. Differential modulation 476. The main advantage of PCM is
D. Delta modulation A. less bandwidth C. less power
B. better S/N ratio D. possibility of multiplexing
465. It is the next higher level in the FDM hierarchy above the
basic message channel and consequently is the first 477. The main disadvantage of PCM is
multiplexing step for combining message channels A. large bandwidth C. large power
A. Supergroup C. Group B. complex circuitry D. quantization noise
B. Mastergroup D. Jumbogroup
478. The main advantage of DM over PCM is
466. What type of mastergroup that can be further multiplexed A. less bandwidth C. less power
and used for higher-capacity microwave radio systems? B. better S/N ratio D. simple circuit
A. A600 C. U600
479. In spread spectrum technique
B. L600 D. L400
A. a modulated signal is modulated again
467. Quadrature amplitude modulation is B. a modulated signal is modulated twice again
A. Amplitude modulation only C. the power of a modulated signal is increased
B. QPSK only D. the noise component of a modulated signal is
C. AM plus QPSK decreased
D. AM plus FSK
480. QAM stands for
468. The most common circuit used for demodulating binary A. Quasi-Amplitude Modulation
FSK signals B. Quadrature Angle Modulation
A. phase locked loop C. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
B. Foster-Seeley discriminator D. None of the above
C. varactor
481. In a system using QASK and 4 bits to form a symbol, the
D. phase shift method
required bandwidth is
469. Hamming distance can be given by the number of A. same as BPSK C. half of that in BPSK
elements in which B. one-fourth of that in BPSK D. none of the above
A. They are same C. They differ
482. Circuit switching, message switching and packet Switching
B. Which are non zero D. None of the mentioned
Network belong to which of the following systems?
A. Computer communication system
 ESAT MCQs

B. Electromechanical communication system A. loop signaling C. step-by-step switching

C. PBX system B. interoffice calling D. duplex signaling
D. EPBX system
494. Signals that provides call status information, such as busy
483. In delta modulation, the output signal to quantization or ringback signals
noise ratio S0/Nq is (N is the A. supervising C. hybriding
number of bits) B. controlling D. ringing
A. (3/π^²)N^² C. (3/π^²)N^³
495. Electromagnetic coupling between two or more physically
B. (3/π)N^³ D. none of these
interconnected transmission media is what type of
484. A better SNR can be obtained in a PCM by crosstalk?
A. increasing sampling rate above Nyquist rate A. coupling crosstalk C. transmission crosstalk
B. decreasing the code bits B. linear crosstalk D. non-linear crosstalk
C. reducing channel bandwidth
496. Class of switching office which is the local exchange where
D. increasing Quantization levels
the subscriber loops terminated and received dial tone.
485. The rate at which information can be carried through a A. Class 5 C. Class 4C
communication channel B. Class 3 D. Class 1
depends on
497. It is comprised of two or more facilities, interconnected in
A. carrier frequency C. bandwidth
tandem, to provide a transmission path between a source
B. transmission loss D. transmitted power
and a destination
486. If each short element of signal occupies 20 ms, the speed A. telephone line C. telephone set
is B. telephone circuit D. telephone trunk
A. 20 bauds C. 50 bauds
498. The maximum intelligibility of voice frequency is between
B. 1/50 bauds D. 0.05 bauds
A. 2000 and 3000 Hz C. 1000 and 3000 Hz
487. A modem is classified as low speed if data rate handled is B. 2500 and 4000 Hz D. 1000 and 2500 Hz
A. upto 100 bps C. upto 250 bps
499. It is a communications term that indicates the presence of
B. upto 400 bps D. upto 600 bps
a signal power comparable to the power of an actual
488. Which one of the following is analog? message transmission
A. PCM C. PWM A. dynamic range C. loaded
B. Delta modulation D. Differential PCM B. node D. reference
489. Which of the following is used to generate PDM? 500. The drum diameter of a facsimile machine is 90.2 mm and
A. Free running multi-vibrator the scanning pitch is 0.2 mm per scan. Find the index of
B. Monostable multi-vibrator cooperation according to CCITT
C. JK flip-flop A. 451 C. 2.22 x 10^-3
D. Schmitt trigger B. 1417 D. 144
490. For the transmission of normal speech, the PCM channel 501. It is the state of the telephone when it is idle.
needs a bandwidth of__________ kHz. A. on-hook C. off-hook
A. 2 C. 4 B. semi-hook D. hook-in
B. 16 D. 32
502. Type of loop signaling which is widely used in new
switching systems to supervise trunks between two central
Section 5: Telephony/ Mobile Communication/
offices.
Miscellaneous Topics
A. battery and ground pulsing
B. reverse battery signaling
491. It provides functionality of communicating with the voice
C. loop pulsing
switch by creating the packets or signal units necessary for
D. duplex signaling
transmission over the SS7 network
A. switching points C. service points 503. It is a form of incidental phase modulation – a continuous
B. point codes D. service switching points uncontrolled variations in the zero crossings of a signal.
A. crosstalk C. co-channel interference
492. That portion of the local loop that is strung between the
B. phase jitter D. spikes
poles
A. aerial C. distribution cable 504. The transmission speed of group 4 fax is
B. feeder cable D. twisted-pair A. 4800 baud C. 9600 baud
B. 56 kbps D. 192 kbps
493. A technique where the called subscriber is served by any
other central office, the switching equipment will have to 505. When the image at the receiving end of a facsimile
transfer the digit dialed to the called switching equipment. transmission is elongated vertically,
 ESAT MCQs

A. the transmitter IOC is less than the receiver IOC 516. Stage of the step-by-step switching system that is
B. the transmitter IOC is greater than the receiver IOC composed of switches to complete the connection to the
C. the transmitter IOC is equal to the receiver IOC called subscriber.
D. the IOC is not a factor A. line equipment C. switch train
B. connectors D. switching network
506. A type of crosstalk which is a direct result of nonlinear
amplification in analog communications system 517. ____________ is the switching system that is a branch of
A. linear crosstalk C. transmittance crosstalk the local central office.
B. nonlinear crosstalk D. coupling crosstalk A. local exchange C. branch exchange
B. subscriber loop D. line
507. It is a distortion formed if SSB is used where the
information bandwidth is greater than half of the carrier 518. Early paging system uses what modulation technique?
frequency. A. pulse modulation C. amplitude modulation
A. near-far effect C. hauffman effect B. phase modulation D. frequency modulation
B. kendall effect D. herringbone effect
519. It is a programmable matrix that allows circuits to be
508. Toll offices are connected to other toll offices with connected to one another.
A. intertoll trunks C. intratoll trunks A. circuit switch C. tap switch
B. interoffice trunks D. intraoffice trunks B. equipment switch D. cross switch
509. The feedback signals that help prevent the speaker from 520. A device that serves as a demarcation point between local
talking too loudly. telephone company responsibility and subscriber
A. busy tone C. ringback tone responsibility for telephone service.
B. dial tone D. sidetone A. standard network interface
B. subscriber line interface card
510. It is an audible signal comprised of two frequencies: 350
C. system network architecture
Hz and 440 Hz
D. network interface card
A. dial tone C. ringback signal
B. busy tone D. call waiting tone 521. A call that cannot be completed because the necessary
trunk circuits or switching paths are not available.
511. The largest cable used in a local loop, usually 3600 pair of
A. blocking C. holding
copper wires placed underground or in conduit.
B. storing D. none of these
A. feeder cable
B. distribution cable 522. A typical echo suppressor suppresses the returned echo by
C. drop wire how much?
D. drop-wire cross-connect cables A. 10 dB C. 30 dB
B. 45 dB D. 60 dB
512. A signal sent from the switching machine back to the
calling station whenever the system cannot complete call 523. It is simply a path between two subscribers and is
because of equipment unavailability. comprised of one or more switches, two local loops or
A. busy tone C. call waiting tone possibly one or more trunk circuits.
B. fax tone D. congestion tone A. way C. route
B. path D. mode
513. It is the difference in circuit gain experienced at a
particular frequency with respect to the circuit gain of a 524. It is used to convert two-wire circuits to four-wire circuits
reference frequency. which is similar to hybrid coil found in standard telephone
A. dynamic range C. absorption distortion sets.
B. attenuation distortion D. selective fading A. balanced transformer C. hybrid circuits
B. balanced modulator D. hybrid transformers
514. The connection between the telephone and the central
office’s switching equipment. 525. A switchboard with four digits can accommodate how
A. subscriber loop C. relay circuits many telephone numbers?
B. line sensors D. supervisory relay A. 1,000 C. 10,000
B. 100,000 D. 9999
515. An envelope delay distortion test on a basic telephone
channel indicated that an 1800-Hz carrier experienced the 526. The trunk circuits that are terminated in tandem switches
minimum absolute delay of 400 us. The maximum are called
envelope delay for a basic telephone channel is 1750 us A. tie trunks C. tandem trunks
within the frequency range 800 Hz to 2600 HC. What is the B. office trunks D. exchange trunks
maximum envelope delay?
527. The class of switching office that provides service to small
A. 2150 microsec C. 2550 microsec
groups of class 4 offices within a small area of state.
B. 3000 microsec D. 3400 microsec
A. Class 1 C. Class 4
 ESAT MCQs

B. Class 2 D. Class 3 540. The switch closure in an off-hook condition causes a range
of dc current to flow on the loop, what is that range of
528. It is a method originally used to transfer digits in the
current?
telephone set to the local switch.
A. 23 mA to 50 mA C. 15 mA to 30 mA
A. tone dialing
B. 10 mA to 20 mA D. 20 mA to 80 mA
B. dial pulsing
C. battery and ground pulsing 541. If a switching machine is set to accept pulses at a rate of
D. reverse battery pulsing 10 pulses per second with a 60% break, find the make
interval of the switch.
529. A device used to measure speech volume
A. 60 ms C. 100 ms
A. volume unit meter C. volume milliammeter
B. 40 ms D. 25 ms
B. volume pulse meter D. volume intensity meter
542. How many point-to-point links are required to connect 50
530. A smaller version of the feeder cable containing less wire
telephones together?
pairs.
A. 2255 C. 1225
A. aerial C. drop wire
B. 2250 D. 1552
B. feeder cable D. distribution cable
543. Telephone set component placed directly across the tip
531. The time delay encountered by a signal as it propagates
and ring to alert the designation party of an incoming call
from a source to a destination is called
A. transmitter C. receiver
A. propagation time C. phase delay
B. ringer D. dialer
B. holding time D. system delay time
544. The reference frequency of a typical voice-band circuit is
532. It is the decrease in gain of more than 12 dB lasting longer
typically around
than 4 ms and is a characteristics of temporary open
A. 1500 Hz C. 1300 Hz
circuit conditions and are generally caused by deep fades
B. 1700 Hz D. 1800 Hz
in radio facilities or by switching delays.
A. echo C. jitter 545. The most commonly used light sensor in a modern fax
B. gain hits D. dropouts machine is a
A. Phototube C. Phototransistor
533. It is a measure of how well we can distinguish closely
B. Liquid-crystal display D. Charged coupled device
spaced objects or identify small items on a print.
A. resolution C. legibility 546. A telephone service that uses a common 800 area code
B. contrast D. hue regardless of the location of the destination.
A. wide area telephone service
534. The 5-class switching hierarchy is a __________ scheme
B. local area telephone service
that establishes an end-to-end route mainly through trial
C. metropolitan area telephone service
and error.
D. personal area telephone service
A. interleaved switching C. progressive switching
B. point-to-point switching D. step-by-step switching 547. How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single GSM
carrier?
535. Modern paging system uses what modulation technique?
A. 16 kHz C. 200 kHz
A. FSK and QPSK C. PSK and QAM
B. 100 kHz D. 50 kHz
B. ASK and FSK D. FSK and PSK
548. Changing the time order of digital information before
536. The frequency range of maximum voice energy is between
transmission to reduce the effect of burst errors in the
A. 150 and 300 Hz C. 300 and 3400 Hz
channel.
B. 250 and 500 Hz D. 100 and 300 Hz
A. progression C. interleaving
537. In facsimile technology, it is a number derived from the B. epoch D. raking
width-height ratio.
549. Class of orthogonal spreading coded used in CDMA
A. numerical aperture C. scanning spot
communication.
B. index of cooperation D. cut-off frequency
A. Color code C. Walsh code
538. In RJ-11, the RJ stands for B. PCS code D. CDMA
A. Recommended Jack C. Released Jack
550. In a spread spectrum system, the tendency for a stronger
B. Registered Jack D. Radio Jack
signals to interfere with the reception of weaker signals.
539. The talker hears a returned portion of the signal as an A. near-far field C. near-far effect
echo, what is the round-trip time of delay for an echo to B. direct-sequence D. spread-spectrum
quite annoying?
551. A connection is momentarily broken during the cell-to-cell
A. 15 msec C. 25 msec
transfer is called ______.
B. 35 msec D. 45 msec
A. hard handoff C. soft handoff
 ESAT MCQs

B. medium handoff D. light handoff 563. A base and mobile is separated by 5 km. What is the
propagation time for a signal traveling between them?
552. Macrocells have base stations transmit power between
A. 14.5 usec C. 18.9 usec
A. 3W to 7W C. 1W to 6W
B. 20.8 usec D. 16.7 usec
B. 2W to 8W D. 0.1W to 5W
564. EDGE channel size is about
553. It is when the area of a cell, or independent component
A. 250 kHz C. 200 kHz
coverage areas of a cellular system, is further divided, thus
B. 150 kHz D. 100 kHz
creating more cell areas.
A. cell splitting C. cell clustering 565. A vehicle travels through a cellular system at 100 km per
B. cell partitioning D. cell sectoring hour. Approximately how often will handoffs occur if the
cell radius is 10 km.
554. An automobile travels at 60km/hr. Find the time between
A. 12 min C. 14 min
fades in the car uses a PCS phone at 1900 MHz.
B. 16 min D. 18 min
A. 2.4 ms C. 3.4 ms
B. 4.7 ms D. 5.1 ms 566. In the GSM system, a telephone number that is unique to
a given user, worldwide.
555. A cellular system is capable of coping with handoffs once
A. IMTS C. IMEI
every 2 minutes. Suppose this system is in the city with
B. IMSI D. SIM
maximum car speeds of 65km/hr. What is the maximum
cell radius for this urban system? 567. What is the frequency deviation of AMPS?
A. 1.08 km C. 3 km A. 12 kHz C. 6 kHz
B. 5 km D. 2 km B. 3 kHz D. 18 kHz
556. Transmission from mobile stations to the base stations is 568. Determine the total number of channel capacity of a
called cellular telephone area comprised of 10 clusters with
A. forward link C. reverse link seven cells in each cluster and 10 channels in each cell.
B. control link D. user link A. 7 channels C. 70 channels
B. 700 channels D. 7000 channels
557. The following are the typical cluster size except
A. 3 C. 7 569. A geographic cellular radio coverage area containing three
B. 12 D. 15 of more group of cells
A. cluster C. cell
558. Provides a centralized administration and maintenance
B. radio channel D. MSC/VLR area
point for the entire network end interfaces with the public
telephone network through the telephone wireline voice 570. A flawless cell-to-cell transfer is called ____.
trunks and data links A. hard handoff C. soft handoff
A. PSTN C. MTSO B. heavy handoff D. light handoff
B. central offices D. MSC
571. A frequency-hopping spread-spectrum system hops to
559. A switching facility connecting cellular telephone base each of 100 frequencies every 10 seconds. How long does
stations to each other and to the public switched it spread on each frequency?
telephone network. A. 0.2 sec/hop C. 0.4 sec/hop
A. MTSO C. MSC B. 0.3 sec/hop D. 0.1 sec/hop
B. VLR D. AuC
572. The bit length of System Identification (SID)
560. Determine the number of channels per cluster of a cellular A. 32 C. 15
telephone area comprised of 10 clusters with seven cells in B. 10 D. 8
each cluster and 10 channels in each cell.
573. The RF power output of a transmitter in a cellular mobile
A. 70 channels per cluster C. 700 channels per cluster
telephone system authorized by NTC for use in the
B. 7000 channels per cluster D. 7 channels per cluster
Philippines.
561. Determine the channel capacity if 7 macrocells with 10 A. 20.5 dBm C. 31.5 dBm
channels per cell is split into 4 minicells B. 34.8 dBm D. 22.1 dBm
A. 120 channels per area C. 360 channels per area
574. A class III mobile phone using AMPS has an ERP of
B. 280 channels per area D. 460 channels per area
A. 4 W C. 1.6 W
562. Technique of spread spectrum that breaks message into B. 600 mW D. 1.4 W
fixed-size blocks of data with each block transmitted in
575. What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular system?
sequence except on the different carrier frequency.
A. 128 kbps C. 240 kbps
A. spread spectrum C. time-division multiplexing
B. 64 kbps D. 270 kbps
B. frequency-hopping D. direct sequence
576. It serves as central control for all users within that cell
 ESAT MCQs

A. base stations C. antennas D. 869.04 MHz and 870.09 MHz

B. transceivers D. mobile subscriber units
589. Decreasing co-channel interference while increasing
577. What modulation technique is used by Advanced Mobile capacity by using directional antenna is called ____.
Phone System (AMPS) A. clustering C. splitting
A. WBFM C. VSB B. partitioning D. sectoring
B. NBFM D. FSK
590. The GSM cellular radio system uses GMSK in a 200-kHz,
578. A database in the PCS network that stores information with a channel data rate of 270.833 kbps. Calculate the
about subscribers in a particular MTSO serving area frequency shift between mark and space in kHz?
A. international mobile subscriber identification A. 135.4165 C. 153.6514
B. visitor location register B. 315.4651 D. 513.1654
C. home location register
591. A cellular system is capable of coping with a handoffs once
D. authentication register
every 2 minutes. What is the maximum cell radius if the
579. When the cluster size is reduced with a constant cell size, system must be capable of working with cars traveling at
what happens to the total channel capacity? highway speed of 120 km/hr?
A. decreases A. 3 km C. 1 km
B. increases B. 4 km D. 6 km
C. stays constant
592. This is the Nordic analog mobile radio telephone system
D. depends on the number of cell cites
originally used in Scandinavia
580. The number of control channels for AMPS A. NMT C. GSM
A. 25 C. 23 B. PCN D. PCS
B. 21 D. 19
593. A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system.
581. The modulation technique used audio signal for TACS A. FDMA C. CDMA
A. FM C. FSK B. TDMA D. TACS
B. TFSK D. QAM
594. The duplex frequency of GSM
582. Speech coding rate for GSM A. 40 MHz C. 80 MHz
A. 80 kbps C. 25 kbps B. 120 MHz D. 30 MHz
B. 21 kbps D. 13 kbps
595. It is a database that contains information about the
583. Number of channels for GSM identity of mobile equipment that prevents calls from
A. 333 C. 666 stolen, unauthorized, or defective mobile stations.
B. 124 D. 248 A. Equipment Identity Register
B. Authentication Center
584. A mobile telephone service using trunked channels but not
C. Home Location Register
cellular nature
D. Visitor Location Register
A. IMTS C. MTSO
B. IMSI D. IMEI 596. It provides all the control functions and physical links
between the MSC and BTS
585. The GSM cellular radio system uses GMSK in a 200-kHz,
A. OSS C. OMC
with a channel data rate of 270.833 kbps. Calculate the
B. MSC D. BSC
frequency shift between mark and space in kHz?
A. 135.4165 C. 153.6514 597. In stereophonic broadcast, the center frequency of each
B. 315.4651 D. 513.1654 SCA subcarrier shall be kept at all times within ____ Hz of
the authorized frequency.
586. The modulation technique used by GSM cellular system.
A. 200 C. 300
A. QAM
B. 400 D. 500
B. Phase Shift Keying
C. Gaussian Minimum Shift Keying 598. The number of frames per second in the Philippine TV
D. Frequency Shift Keying system is
A. 60 C. 262 ½
587. Microcells have base stations transmit power between
B. 4.5 D. 30
A. 0.4W to 0.7W C. 1W to 6W
B. 0.5W to 8W D. 0.1W to 1W 599. How much is the equivalent internal resistance of the
electron beam with a 1.2-mA beam current at 25 kV?
588. Determine the receive carrier frequencies for AMPS
A. 48 nano ohms C. 30 ohms
channel 3 and channel 991
B. 20.8 mega ohms D. 15.6 kilo ohms
A. 870.09 MHz and 869.04 MHz
B. 879.09 MHz and 859.04 MHz 600. The difference between the picture and sound carrier
C. 869.09 MHz and 870.04 MHz frequencies for channel 3 is ____ MHz.
 ESAT MCQs

A. 3.58 C. 64.5 612. The I and Q composite color signals are multiplexed onto
B. 4.5 D. 6.75 the picture carrier by modulating a 3.58 MHz subcarrier
using
601. A 4.5-MHz signal which is equal to the difference between
A. FM C. PM
the picture and sound RF carrier frequencies in a 6-MHz TV
B. DSB AM D. Vestigial sideband AM
channel.
A. Audio frequency C. Video frequency 613. In television, 4:3 represents the
B. Intercarrier frequency D. Subcarrier frequency A. Interface ratio
B. Maximum horizontal deflection
602. A system where the modulated RF picture and sound
C. Aspect ratio
carrier signals are distributed in a cable network, instead
D. Ratio of the two diagonals
of wireless system.
A. CCTV C. MATV 614. What is the maximum color TV bandwidth?
B. CATV D. SATV A. 1.6 MHz C. 0.5 MHz
B. 1.0 MHz D. 1.3 MHz
603. A 3.58-MHz subcarrier signal for color in television
A. Hue signal C. Video signal 615. What type of circuit is used to modulate and demodulate
B. Audio signal D. Chroma signal the color signals?
A. Phase-locked loop C. Differential peak detector
604. A class D FM station shall have an authorized power not
B. Quadrature detector D. Balanced modulator
exceeding _____ watts.
A. 20 C. 15 616. The sound IF in a TV receiver is
B. 10 D. 5 A. 4.5 MHz C. 10.7 MHz
B. 41.25 MHz D. 45.75 MHz
605. Class B FM station should have an ERP not exceeding ____
kW. 617. The intermediate frequency used in for FM broadcasting
A. 50 C. 40 Philippine standards.
B. 30 D. 20 A. 455 kHz C. 10.7 MHz
B. 11.4 MHz D. 12.5 MHz
606. In the Philippine color television system, the intercarrier
frequency, in MHz, is 618. What is the horizontal scanning time for 20 pixels?
A. 3.58 C. 3.579545 A. 2.5 microsec C. 0.25 microsec
B. 4.5 D. 45.75 B. 1.25 microsec D. 125 microsec
607. In channel 14 (470 to 476 MHz), the 3.58-MHz color signal 619. The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.
is transmitted at A. 67 kHz C. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
A. 471.25 MHz C. 473.25 MHz B. 19 to 38 kHz D. 30 to 53 kHz
B. 474.83 MHz D. 475.25 MHz
620. The number of lines per second in the TV system is
608. An odd number of lines per frame forms part of every one A. 31,500 C. 15,700
of the world’s TV systems. This is B. 262 ½ D. 525
A. Done to assist interlace
B. Purely an accident
C. To ensure that line and frame frequencies can be
obtained from the same original source
D. Done to minimize interference with the chroma
subcarrier
609. The difference between the sound carrier and the color
signal is
A. 4.5 MHz C. 1.25 MHz
B. 0.92 MHz D. 0.25 MHz
610. The total bandwidth of an NTSC TV signal is
A. 3.58 MHz C. 4.5 MHz
B. 6 MHz D. 10.7 MHz
611. Interfacing is used in television to
A. Produce the illusion of motion
B. Ensure that all lines on the screen are scanned, not
merely the alternate ones
C. Simplify the vertical sync pulse train
D. Avoid flicker