Latest Pilot Jobs - List AtplQuestionBankQuiz

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Q.1

The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10,8 bars. The speed at which the hydroplaning
phenomenon will appear is approximately:

56 kt

87 kt

145 kt

112 kt

Correct Answer: D

Q.2

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :

3 hours

24 hours

12 hours

6 hours

Correct Answer: B

Q.3

Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?

Pitch angle.

Vertical speed.

Groundspeed.

Indicated airspeed.

Correct Answer: D

Q.4

In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is
the responsibility of the :

station manager.

aerodrome manager.

sender.

captain.

Correct Answer: C 1/90

 Correct Answer: C

Q.5

The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:

insurance certificate.

air carrier certificate.

registration certificate.

airworthiness certificate.

Correct Answer: B

Q.6

Posit : g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The transport
precession is equal to :

15°/h.sin Lm

g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

g/2.sin Lm

g.sin Lm

Correct Answer: D

Q.7

A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a fabric fire 3. an electric fire 4. a wood
fire 5. a hydrocarbon fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 5

2, 3, 4

2, 4, 5

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Correct Answer: D

Q.8

The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :

clockwise.

counterclockwise.

from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.

from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.

Correct Answer: D

Q.9
2/90
 According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops
Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching :

1 500 ft

3 000 ft

1 000 ft

500 ft

Correct Answer: C

Q.10

One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :

occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane

can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane

Correct Answer: C

Q.11

The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight normally is :

00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

Correct Answer: B

Q.12

In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and
landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway
visual range lower than 200 m but no less than :

75 m

150 m

100 m

50 m

Correct Answer: A

Q.13

You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for : 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an 3/90
 You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for : 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an
electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

3,4

1,2,3

2,3

1,2,3,4

Correct Answer: D

Q.14

Astronomic precession is :

existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying

independent of the latitude

depending on the chart used

zero when the aircraft is on the ground

Correct Answer: A

Q.15

The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft
of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least :

60 minutes.

15 minutes.

2 hours.

30 minutes.

Correct Answer: D

Q.16

From the following list : 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen supplies 3. First-aid kits 4. Passenger
meals 5. Alcoholic beverages Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the
aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons :

2,3 and 4 only

1,2 and 3 only

1,2 and 5 only

3,4 and 5 only

Correct Answer: B

Q.17

The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :

4/90
 depth of the standing water on the runway.

aircraft's weight.

strength of the headwind.

amount of the lift off speed.

Correct Answer: A

Q.18

You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E). The gyro North of the gyro compass,
assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A.
The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is
1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to :

076°.

080°.

066°.

085°.

Correct Answer: A

Q.19

When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding
ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK' which is equal to:

mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone.

wind at K'.

wind at K.

mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.

Correct Answer: A

Q.20

You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may
present a bird strike hazard, you must:

immediately inform the appropriate ground station.

inform the other aircraft by radio.

inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time.

draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours.

Correct Answer: A

Q.21

If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for landing performance 5/90
 If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for landing performance
determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:

10%.

5%.

15%.

20%.

Correct Answer: C

Q.22

In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:

The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.

The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

Correct Answer: B

Q.23

The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the aircraft. He

can refuse to present them.

can only do so after having consulted the operator.

must do so, within a reasonable period of time.

can request a delay of 48 hours.

Correct Answer: C

Q.24

During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately.
Following this incident the pilot :

must file a airworthiness report

is not obliged to report this incident

must file a Bird Strike report

must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning

Correct Answer: C

Q.25

The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during
and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the
cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is :
6/90
 15000 ft

25000 ft

13000 ft

14000 ft

Correct Answer: C

Q.26

The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority

the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer

the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority

the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority

Correct Answer: C

Q.27

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North
with respect to the:

magnetic North

compass North

true North

grid North

Correct Answer: C

Q.28

An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to :

maintain the normal approach speed up to landing

carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the rain

increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary layer

reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing

Correct Answer: C

Q.29

On the diagram where : Nt = True North Nm = Magnetic North Ng = Grid North If the magnetic variation is
equal to 65°W and if the grid variation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the different north is :

1 7/90
 1

Correct Answer: C

View Image

Q.30

Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:

is very smooth and clean.

is rough textured.

the tyre treads are not in a good state.

is very smooth and dirty.

Correct Answer: D

Q.31

Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:

separate to the left side.

separate on each side of the runway.

stagnate on the runway.

separate to the right side.

Correct Answer: B

Q.32

If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended
organised track should be defined in items of the FPL by :

using the abbreviation "OTS" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.

inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude.

the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.

inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.

Correct Answer: C

Q.33

In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain : 1. you increase your approach speed, 2. you 8/90
 In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain : 1. you increase your approach speed, 2. you
land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose
gear, 3. you decrease your approach speed, 4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices, 5. you
land as smoothly as possible, 6. you brake energically. The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is :

1, 2, 4

3, 5

2, 3, 4

1, 4, 5, 6

Correct Answer: A

Q.34

Astronomic precession :

is zero at the South pole

causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere

causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern hemisphere

is zero at the North pole

Correct Answer: B

Q.35

Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

from take off to landing.

while at their station.

only during take off and landing.

only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.

Correct Answer: B

Q.36

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a
heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplance on the approach to the same
runway ?

3.7 km (2 NM)

7.4 km (4 NM)

9.3 km (5 NM)

11.1 km (6 NM)

Correct Answer: B

9/90
Q.37

The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in
NAT region is :

243 MHz.

118.5 MHz.

131.8 MHz.

121.5 MHz.

Correct Answer: C

Q.38

To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:

Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.

Extinguish fire only.

Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is
forbidden.

you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.

Correct Answer: D

Q.39

An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a
passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is:

authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt. No other
particular precautions are necessary.

authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an adult
sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.

authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same
seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to relase thir seat bel

forbidden.

Correct Answer: D

Q.40

Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established :

spin up

lift destruction

lift

drag

Correct Answer: C 10/90

 Correct Answer: C

Q.41

Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on board:

a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets.

crash axes or crowbars.

water and all type of beverage.

a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools.

Correct Answer: B

Q.42

An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the :

flight route sheet.

operation flight plan.

ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.

flight plan processing.

Correct Answer: B

Q.43

During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device suspected
to disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:

may authorize the use of this device, as an exception.

must not authorize any person to use such a device on board.

authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases.

authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.

Correct Answer: B

Q.44

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft,
of the gyro North with respect to the :

true North for a given chart

true North for any chart

grid North for a given chart

grid North for any chart

Correct Answer: C

Q.45
11/90
 An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by
the operating crew ?

transmit a MAYDAY message

place the seat belts sign to ON

to put on oxygen masks

disconnect the autopilot

Correct Answer: C

Q.46

During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,
you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1000 UTC ; you will normally be :

out of the organised route system.

in random airspace.

in a day flight route system.

in a night flight route system.

Correct Answer: B

Q.47

Astronomic precession :

causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere

causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere

is zero at the North pole

is zero at the South pole

Correct Answer: A

Q.48

In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-
around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to :

increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle

climb away at Vat + 20 kt

reduce speed to V2 and hold

slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb

Correct Answer: A

Q.49

When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be
located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :
12/90
 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine

Correct Answer: D

Q.50

A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes: 1. on himself/herself 2. in his/her hand luggage 3. in his/her

checked luggage The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2

2, 3

1, 2, 3

Correct Answer: C

Q.51

On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the
period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between :

10 000 ft and 13 000 ft

10 000 ft and 12 000 ft

11 000 ft and 13 000 ft

11 000 ft and 12 000 ft

Correct Answer: A

Q.52

The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a :

combination of the terms: poor, medium, good.

percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.

zero followed by two decimals.

letter falling between A and E.

Correct Answer: A

Q.53

The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can
be at the very least :

Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA. 13/90

 Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA.

Three inertial navigation units.

One inertial navigation unit.

Two inertial navigation units.

Correct Answer: D

Q.54

Wake turbulence risk is highest :

when a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.

when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light
crosswind.

if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.

following a preceding aircraft at high speed.

Correct Answer: B

Q.55

The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a
flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:

the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual

the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual

the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual

the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual

Correct Answer: A

Q.56

About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:

Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust .

They prohibit the use of reverse thrust .

Such procedures do not exist.

They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.

Correct Answer: A

Q.57

According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in
the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:

a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access. 14/90

 a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.

a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.

distinctive red or yellow colored markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked door).

a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the pressure in the cockpit in case of
a depressurization in the compartment area.

Correct Answer: A

Q.58

The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

the aircraft state of registry

the operator

the manufacturer

the aircraft manufacturer's list

Correct Answer: B

Q.59

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall
be applied when a :

HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)

MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 n (1 000 ft)

LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000.ft)

LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)

Correct Answer: C

Q.60

According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the
minimum weather conditions stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least :

3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival

1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival

Correct Answer: C

Q.61

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft : 1- flies above the glide path 2- flies below the glide path 3- has an
increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed the combination of correct statements is :

2,3. 15/90
 2,3.

2,4.

1,3.

1,4.

Correct Answer: C

Q.62

The JAR-OPS is based on :

The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)

A JAA guideline

ICAO Appendix 6

The air transport rules

Correct Answer: C

Q.63

Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace over
the North Atlantic and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew :

carries out a holding pattern

returns to base immediately

keeps flying in accordance with the air-filed flight plan

keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the air-filed flight plan

Correct Answer: A

Q.64

The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:

rubber reversion hydroplaning.

rubber steaming hydroplaning.

viscous hydroplaning.

dynamic hydroplaning.

Correct Answer: C

Q.65

In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot,
when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?

if the flight lasts more than 3 hours. 16/90

 if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.

never.

if the aircraft is a twin-engine.

if part or all the flight is done at night.

Correct Answer: B

Q.66

The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:

60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.

60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.

90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.

90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.

Correct Answer: A

Q.67

In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :

fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.

carry out a dry cranking.

carry out a damp cranking.

pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fireextinguishers.

Correct Answer: B

Q.68

A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway
visual range of at least :

75 m

150 m

250 m

200 m

Correct Answer: A

Q.69

For stable clouds: 1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -10°C 2- the most
favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -15°C 3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°C 4- icing
becomes rare at t < -30°C 5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm 6- the diameter
of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mm Which of the following combinations contains all the
correct statements?

2-3-5 17/90
 2-3-5

1-4-6

1-3-5

2-4-6

Correct Answer: C

Q.70

In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go
around. You 1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps) 2- reduce the drags (gear and
flaps) 3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker 4- avoid excessive attitude change
The combination of correct statements is :

1,4

2,3

2,4

1,3

Correct Answer: D

Q.71

If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and
if you cannot establish communication with the air traffic control, you :

take an intermediate flight level

descend below the MNPS space

return to departure airport

land at the nearest airport

Correct Answer: A

Q.72

JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights,
that :

for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at least
(clear of cloud)

special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km

for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least

for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least

Correct Answer: B

Q.73

The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records: 1 - the training 2 - the test results 3 - a log of flying
18/90
 The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records: 1 - the training 2 - the test results 3 - a log of flying
hours 4 - a summary of the training by reference period Which of the following combinations contains all
of the correct answers?

2-3

3-4

1-2-3-4

1-2-3

Correct Answer: C

Q.74

The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the :

ventilation of the cargo compartment

pressurization

total airconditioning

trim air

Correct Answer: A

Q.75

The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened,

cross the arm in front of the face.

head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh.

head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front of you.

head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms.

Correct Answer: B

Q.76

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the : 1-
water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 123 kt. 3- water height is
equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 95 kt. The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:

1 and 2.

1 and 4.

3 and 4.

2 and 3.

Correct Answer: A

Q.77

Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the 19/90
 Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the
approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is :

114 kt

100 kt

80 kt

129 kt

Correct Answer: D

Q.78

A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is :

unreliable

medium

good

poor

Correct Answer: D

Q.79

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-
pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be :

5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or
class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or
class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type
class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type
class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

Correct Answer: C

Q.80

Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:

The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid

A meterologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection systems

The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems

The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly

Correct Answer: C

20/90
Q.81

The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerbly depending on
the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest
protection will be in weather conditions of :

frost

freezing fog

rain on a cold soaked wing

steady snow

Correct Answer: A

Q.82

A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

2400 m

1600 m

1500 m

3600 m

Correct Answer: D

Q.83

In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose printed over grid is
parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian.
The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this moment is :

060°.

110°.

340°.

240°.

Correct Answer: D

Q.84

A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :

a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.

a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.

no decision height.

a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.

Correct Answer: D

21/90
Q.85

DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of
aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H)
Category, are all aircraft types of :

136 000 Kg or more

135 000 Kg or more

less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg

146 000 Kg or more

Correct Answer: A

Q.86

A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :

increased Mach number stability

reduced range

increased manoeuvring limits

increased flight envelope

Correct Answer: B

Q.87

What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to
unlawful interference :

code 7700

code 2000

code 7500

code 7600

Correct Answer: C

Q.88

H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:

Class A fires

Class B fires

electrical source fires

special fires: metals, gas, chemical products

Correct Answer: A

Q.89

While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high 22/90
 While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high
increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude parameters.
The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must :

reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.

take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above.

reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs and try a precision landing.

maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.

Correct Answer: D

Q.90

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right,
will first see the :

green flashing light

red steady light

green steady light

white steady light

Correct Answer: B

Q.91

According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twinengined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off
mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must
be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :

90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

Correct Answer: C

Q.92

In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the
country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the :

State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO

State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only

State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO

State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.

Correct Answer: C

23/90
Q.93

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from :

30° North to 90° North.

27° North to 70° North.

30° North to 70° North.

27° North to 90° North.

Correct Answer: D

Q.94

In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other
considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into
consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat),
which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3. Corresponding
Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :

Correct Answer: C

Q.95

The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of :

110°.

140°.

70°.

220°.

Correct Answer: A

Q.96

When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum
time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be :

1 MIN

2 MIN

4 MIN

3 MIN

Correct Answer: D

24/90
Q.97

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the
longitudinal spacing must be at least :

20 minutes

5 minutes

10 minutes

15 minutes

Correct Answer: B

Q.98

The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:

1 minute.

5 minutes.

12 seconds.

30 seconds.

Correct Answer: C

Q.99

The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the :

JAR-OPS documentation.

ICAO document named "Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous products"

aircraft's flight manual.

IATA document "Dangerous products transportation".

Correct Answer: B

Q.100

For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :

0.5

0.8

0.6

0.7

Correct Answer: C

Q.101

A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. mist in the cabin 2. blast towards the
25/90
 A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. mist in the cabin 2. blast towards the
exterior of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4. blast of air released violently from the lungs The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4

2, 3, 4

1, 2, 3

1, 4

Correct Answer: A

Q.102

CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight: 1 - class A fires 2 - class B fires 3 - electrical source fires 4 - special
fires: metals, gas, chemical product Which of the following combinations contains all the correct
statements:

2-3-4

1-3-4

1-2-3

1-2-4

Correct Answer: C

Q.103

A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

1600 m

1500 m

2400 m

3600 m

Correct Answer: C

Q.104

When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following
effects: 1 - an increase in the take-off distance 2 - a diminution of the take-off run 3 - an increase in the
stalling speed 4 - a diminution of the stalling speed 5 - a diminution of the climb gradient The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is :

1, 2, 3

2, 3, 5

1, 3, 5

2, 4, 5

Correct Answer: C 26/90

 Correct Answer: C

Q.105

An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :

generating lift.

flying at high speed.

using a high engine R.P.M.

flying with its gear and flaps extended.

Correct Answer: A

Q.106

The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency
landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor, 2. head resting against the back of the front seat, 3.
forearms on the armrests, 4. seat belt very tightly fastened, 5. head resting on the forearms. The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 4, 5

1, 2, 3, 4

2, 3, 4

2, 4, 5

Correct Answer: A

Q.107

Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

no passenger is carried on the same flight

the airline complies with the Technical Instructions

national aviation administration permission has been granted

government permission has been granted

Correct Answer: B

Q.108

The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the
left wing is :

140°

70°

220°

110°

Correct Answer: D
27/90
Q.109

In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using: 1. a dry powder fire extinguisher
2. a water spray atomizer 3. a water fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

3, 4

1, 4

1, 2

2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: C

Q.110

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight
levels:

280 and 400.

280 and 390.

275 and 400.

285 and 420.

Correct Answer: D

Q.111

In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the
direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not
able to maintain its assigned flight level should:

Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 60 NM from its assigned route or track.

Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 90 NM from its assigned route or track.

Descend below FL275.

Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 30 NM from its assigned route or track.

Correct Answer: D

Q.112

During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,
you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be :

in a random space.

out of the organized flight track system.

within the organized daytime flight track system.

within the organized night-time flight track system.

Correct Answer: B 28/90

 Correct Answer: B

Q.113

The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an
accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal
visibility required for take-off is:

200 m.

300 m.

150 m if a threshold RVR is available.

150 m.

Correct Answer: D

Q.114

Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet
runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated
time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:

18 %

20 %

17,6 %

15 %

Correct Answer: D

Q.115

Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:

all available extinguishers simultaneously.

all available liquids.

all available extinguishers in sequence.

only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets.

Correct Answer: A

Q.116

The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft
taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away :

about two seconds beforehand

about ten seconds beforehand

as soon as they hear the engines noise

from the beginning of the takeoff roll

Correct Answer: A 29/90

 Correct Answer: A

Q.117

If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:

Less than the actual.

Equal to the actual.

Dependent on the temperature.

Greater than the actual.

Correct Answer: D

Q.118

The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the :

flight record.

operation manual.

JAR OPS.

flight manual.

Correct Answer: B

Q.119

Which errors in "estimates" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the North Atlantic?

2 or more.

3 or more.

5 or more.

10 or more.

Correct Answer: B

Q.120

The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is :

firing shellcrackers

various visual methods

the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc

broadcasting of recorded distress calls

Correct Answer: D

Q.121

In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the
30/90
 In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the
direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able
to maintain its assigned flight level should:

If at FL410, climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If at FL410, climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If at FL410, descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If at FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

Correct Answer: D

Q.122

At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud,
fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing :

is possible at any setting

can occur, but only at a low power setting

cannot occur

can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings

Correct Answer: B

Q.123

In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is :

7600

7700

2000

7500

Correct Answer: D

Q.124

When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is
necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.

The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.

Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.

All the flight crew be on board.

Correct Answer: A

Q.125

In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway,
31/90
 In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway,
or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be
applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of :

4 NM

3 NM

2 NM

5 NM

Correct Answer: D

Q.126

The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is :

30 NM.

90 NM.

120 NM.

60 NM.

Correct Answer: D

Q.127

During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold
altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than :

2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude

2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude

4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude

4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude

Correct Answer: A

Q.128

The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non
MNPS certified aircraft is :

forbidden in all cases

authorized when the aircraft has two precision navigation systems

authorized only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the aircraft present in this space

authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS controller

Correct Answer: D

Q.129

The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is :

32/90
 Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957

ICAO Appendix 18

ICAO Appendix 8

the Washington Convention

Correct Answer: B

Q.130

The validity period of a "certificate of airworthiness" varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is
maintained. If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a
maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:

three years.

three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.

three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others.

three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications.

Correct Answer: A

Q.131

Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when
operating in MNPS airspace?

60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.

90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.

60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.

90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.

Correct Answer: C

Q.132

Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following
circumstances : 1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. when the tail wind
component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3. when the runway is not clear or dry. The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is :

1,3.

2,3.

1,2,3.

1,2.

Correct Answer: C

Q.133

For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted 33/90
 For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted
when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?

3 minutes

4 minutes

5 minutes

2 minutes

Correct Answer: A

Q.134

In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will : 1. evacuate women and children first. 2. have the
passengers embark directly in the liferafts. 3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the
airplane's flotation ability. 4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane. The combination regrouping
all the correct statements is:

1, 4

2, 3, 4

2, 3

1, 2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: B

Q.135

A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised
Track System) must be done :

Prior entering the NAT region.

As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.

When crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.

At or prior entering the NAT region.

Correct Answer: D

Q.136

The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a nonprecision direct IFR approach with the following operational
minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway are
given by the controller...

flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a meteorological
visibility higher than 750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for precision approaches.

the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 metres.

the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and midrunway RVR are higher than 750 metres.

the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres.

Correct Answer: B 34/90

 Correct Answer: B

Q.137

A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft
weight in an emergency :

unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine
inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative

until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints at landing
touchdown

in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after activation of the
jettisoning system

in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length

Correct Answer: A

Q.138

In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings
related to dangerous goods :

English, French or Spanish

English

French

Spanish

Correct Answer: B

Q.139

An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet,
horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres : Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres :
The pilot may start the final approach...

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet.

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during the day and 360
feet at night.

whatever the ceiling given by ATC.

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet.

Correct Answer: C

Q.140

In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a
precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an
RVR (runway visual range) no less than :

230 m 35/90
 230 m

300 m

200 m

250 m

Correct Answer: C

Q.141

A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric fire 4. an electrical
fire 5. a wood fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 5

2, 3, 4

2, 4, 5

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Correct Answer: D

Q.142

Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds ?

an area liable to flooding

short gang-mown grass

long grass

edible rubbish

Correct Answer: C

Q.143

For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an
alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:

60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

Correct Answer: B

Q.144

MNPS is the abbreviation for:

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification. 36/90

 Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.

Maximum North-atlantic Precision System.

Military Network Performance Structure.

Minimum Navigation Positioning System.

Correct Answer: A

Q.145

Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last :

flight.

48 hours of operation.

25 hours of operation.

30 hours of operation.

Correct Answer: C

Q.146

If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:

under flight level 50 (FL50).

during final phase of approach.

in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.

in a holding stack, after control clearance.

Correct Answer: C

Q.147

Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator
controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal"
position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?

32000 ft

25000 ft

14000 ft

8000 ft

Correct Answer: A

Q.148

The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants
37/90
 a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board

an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the
surface

a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants

Correct Answer: C

Q.149

On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen
reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event
of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than
:

11 000 ft.

12 000 ft.

13 000 ft.

10 000 ft.

Correct Answer: D

Q.150

In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at :

low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few
hectopascals.

low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a
few hectopascals.

high altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few
hectopascals.

low altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few
hectopascals.

Correct Answer: A

Q.151

When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed
is :

600 m (2000 ft)

300 m (1000 ft)

450 m (1500 ft)

150 m (500 ft)

Correct Answer: B
38/90
Q.152

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is comprised within
:

sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole

flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole

flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the pole

flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole

Correct Answer: C

Q.153

Wake turbulence should be taken into account when :

during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft.

a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the runway.

a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind condition
exist and all highlift devices are being used.

when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind on a long
runway.

Correct Answer: C

Q.154

A class B fire is a fire of:

electrical source fire

special fire: metal, gas, chemical product

liquid or liquefiable solid

solid material usually of organic nature

Correct Answer: C

Q.155

Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the
oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :

24500 ft

22500 ft

27000 ft

29000 ft

Correct Answer: A

Q.156
39/90
 Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any
transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I)

The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.

The company's cargo technicians.

The captain.

The operator.

Correct Answer: C

Q.157

Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I)

Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.

With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).

As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess indicators of
attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.

As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules.

Correct Answer: D

Q.158

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the : 1-
water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 96 kt. 3- water height is
equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 127 kt. The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:

1 and 2.

1 and 4.

2 and 3.

3 and 4.

Correct Answer: A

Q.159

In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the
direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able
to maintain its assigned flight level should :

If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

Correct Answer: B

40/90
Q.160

The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is
about:

10 minutes.

3 minutes.

30 seconds.

1 minute.

Correct Answer: B

Q.161

Posit : g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct
formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :

g.sin Lm

g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

g/2.sin Lm

15°/h.sin Lm

Correct Answer: D

Q.162

Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the :

operational flight plan.

operation manual.

flight manual.

journey logbook.

Correct Answer: B

Q.163

During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the
crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach
must not be continued is:

the middle marker.

the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).

the outer marker (OM).

the FAF.

Correct Answer: C

Q.164
41/90
 If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to :

Determine which system is causing the smoke.

Cut off all air conditioning units.

Put on the mask and goggles.

Begin an emergency descent.

Correct Answer: C

Q.165

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft : 1. flies above the glide path 2. flies below the glide path 3. has an
increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is :

2,3

1,3

1,4

2,4

Correct Answer: D

Q.166

Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:

Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace.

Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher.

Flying above 3000 ft.

Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace.

Correct Answer: B

Q.167

When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right side, you adopt a path,
whenever possible :

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and above its path.

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under its path.

identical to the one of the preceding airplane.

different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.

Correct Answer: A

Q.168

The term decision height (DH) is used for :

a conventional approach. 42/90

 a conventional approach.

an indirect approach.

a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.

a precision approach.

Correct Answer: D

Q.169

Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are
defined as such by:

The directives of the Community Union.

The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air".

The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air".

The UNO document entitled "Dangerous Goods Regulations".

Correct Answer: C

Q.170

What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is
:

7500

7600

7700

7800

Correct Answer: A

Q.171

On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel
60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is :

30 NM.

4.0 NM.

9.2 NM.

4.0 NM.

Correct Answer: A

Q.172

The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is : 1 - the horizontal visibility 2 - the ceiling
3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA) 4 - the decision altitude (DA) Which of the following
combinations contains all of the correct statements?

1-3 43/90
 1-3

1-4

1-2-3

1-2-4

Correct Answer: A

Q.173

The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing?

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : -10°C Dew point (DEWP) : -15°C

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +10°C Dew Point (DEWP) : +7°C

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +15°C Dew Point (DEWP) : -5°C

Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +25°C Dew Point (DEWP) : +5°C

Correct Answer: B

Q.174

A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:

wet.

flooded.

damp.

contaminated.

Correct Answer: D

Q.175

Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft
which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until their journey can be continued ? The :

contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs

J.A.A.

Commander of the aircraft

aeroplane's operator

Correct Answer: A

Q.176

The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :

high weight and low speed 44/90

 high weight and low speed

high weight and high speed

low weight and low speed

low weight and high speed

Correct Answer: A

Q.177

Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during
instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS the :

state in which the aeroplane is operating

commander

operator

state of the operator

Correct Answer: C

Q.178

When an aircraft, having already undergone an antiicing procedure, must be protected again:

you must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid is over before applying the new layer of anti-
icing fluid.

First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then apply the new layer of anti-icing fluid.

You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without previous de-icing.

You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.

Correct Answer: B

Q.179

In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the
precise climb and discontinued approach requirements :

60 minutes

90 minutes

15 minutes

30 minutes

Correct Answer: C

Q.180

An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

a copy of the calculated take-off performances. 45/90

 a copy of the calculated take-off performances.

the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.

the aircraft equipment report (logbook).

a copy of the weight and balance sheet.

Correct Answer: D

Q.181

While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a "microburst". You will
expect to encounter:

supercooled water.

convection motion of air mass.

windshears (vertical and horizontal).

wake turbulence .

Correct Answer: C

Q.182

The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its
aligned with meridian 180°, the grid North in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid).
The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280°, the position is 80°S 100°E. The true course followed
at this moment is :

260°.

080°.

100°.

000°.

Correct Answer: D

Q.183

For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and
sound alarms recorded during the last :

30 minutes of operation.

25 hours of operation.

flight.

48 hours of operation.

Correct Answer: A

Q.184

The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account46/90
:
 The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account :
1. equipment available for navigation 2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. composition of
the flight crew 4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas 5. facilities for
determining and communicating the weather conditions The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is :

1,2,3,4,5

1,2,4,5

2,4,5

2,3,5

Correct Answer: A

Q.185

For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will:

decreases the hydroplaning speed.

maintains the hydroplaning speed.

maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed.

increases the hydroplaning speed.

Correct Answer: D

Q.186

For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft
must be equipped with at least:

One Inertial Navigation System (INS).

Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).

Two independant Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).

One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).

Correct Answer: D

Q.187

The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is : 1. slow 2. heavy 3. in a clean configuration
4. flying with a high thrust The combination of correct statement is:

1, 2, 3

1, 4

1, 2, 3, 4

2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: A

47/90
Q.188

The flight deck door should be capable of being :

directly locked from outside the compartment

remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment

remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment

locked from within the compartment

Correct Answer: D

Q.189

After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The
fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:

only from left or right side.

from any side.

under no circumstances.

only from front or rear side.

Correct Answer: D

Q.190

Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will: 1 - remain on the
runway, 2 - clear the runway using the first available taxiway, 3 - keep one engine or the APU running in
order to maintain the electrical power supply on, 4 - turn off all systems. The combination regrouping all
the correct statements is:

2,4.

1,4.

1,3.

2,3.

Correct Answer: B

Q.191

An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west north of 70°N between
10°W and 50°W, every:

5° of longitude.

20° of longitude.

10° of longitude.

15° of longitude.

Correct Answer: B

48/90
Q.192

In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)

airspace, the pilot must:

continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.

return to his flight plan route if its different from the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by
him.

join one of the so-called "special" routes.

change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined instructions.

Correct Answer: A

Q.193

The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

roll rate

stalling speed

value of the stall angle of attack

tuck under

Correct Answer: B

Q.194

An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is
assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000°. The aircraft
arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro
compass remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be :

345°.

003°.

334°.

328°.

Correct Answer: D

Q.195

ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with :

the noise pollution of aircraft

the technical operational use of aircraft

the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials

the air transport of live animals

Correct Answer: C

49/90
Q.196

A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than
:

400 NM

50 NM

100 NM

200 NM

Correct Answer: B

Q.197

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:

indicated airspeed.

Mach number.

ground speed.

true airspeed.

Correct Answer: B

Q.198

The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the protection time:

during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash.

when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.

when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 °C.

when the airplane is into the wind.

Correct Answer: A

Q.199

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as : 1-
water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 132 kt. 3- water height is
equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 117 kt. The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:

1 and 2.

1 and 4.

2 and 3.

3 and 4.

Correct Answer: A

Q.200
50/90
 If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :

increases

remains constant

attains its maximum permitted operating limit

decreases

Correct Answer: D

Q.201

After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot
action, the aircraft : 1- flies above the climb-out path 2- flies below the climb-out path 3- has an increasing
true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is :

1,4.

2,4.

2,3.

1,3.

Correct Answer: B

Q.202

To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:

useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.

possible and recommended.

useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.

useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.

Correct Answer: C

Q.203

In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to
denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg :

Correct Answer: D

Q.204

During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot. 51/90
 the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.

the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.

the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.

the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.

Correct Answer: A

Q.205

According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I
part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the
procedure close to the airport :

is procedure A

is either procedure A or B, because there is not difference in noise distribution

depends on the wind component

is procedure B

Correct Answer: D

Q.206

To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: 1. a water fire-extinguisher 2. a powder or chemical fire-
extinguisher 3. a halon fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:

3, 4

1, 2, 3, 4

1, 2

2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: A

Q.207

If you encounter a "microburst" just after taking-off, at the beginning you will have: 1 - a head wind 2 - a
strong rear wind 3 - better climb performances 4 - a diminution of climb gradient 5 - an important thrust
drop The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

2,4

1,4

4,5

1,3

Correct Answer: D

Q.208

A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric
52/90
 A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric
fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2, 3, 4

2, 4, 5

1, 3, 5

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Correct Answer: C

Q.209

One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available
information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of
alternative destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)

At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use.

At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal
to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

Correct Answer: A

Q.210

90 % of bird strikes occur :

between 500 and 1 000 m

between 500 and 1 500 m

under 500 m

above 1 000 m

Correct Answer: C

Q.211

The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated :

when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.

during climb and descent.

in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.

during take off and landing.

Correct Answer: A

Q.212

During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,53/90
 During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,
you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you will then normally be ;

within the organized daytime flight track system

within the organized night-time flight track system

in a random space

out of the organized flight track system

Correct Answer: D

Q.213

When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be
located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all enginesoperating

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative

2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating

1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative

Correct Answer: B

Q.214

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the : 1-
water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 104 kt. 3- water height is
equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 96 kt. The combination
regrouping all the correct statements i :

2 and 3.

3 and 4.

1 and 2.

1 and 4.

Correct Answer: C

Q.215

A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with :

no runway visual range limits

a runway visual range of at least 50 m

a runway visual range of at least 200 m

a runway visual range of at least 350 m

Correct Answer: A

Q.216

A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway 54/90
 A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway
visual range of at least :

200 m

100 m

250 m

50 m

Correct Answer: A

Q.217

A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference
document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:

the JAR OPS.

the flight manual.

the minimum equipment list.

the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency procedures".

Correct Answer: C

Q.218

The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is

2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft

2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger seats

2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or having more than 9 passenger seats

1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided that the maximum certified number of
passenger seats is less than 9

Correct Answer: B

Q.219

During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Spécification) airspace,
you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 2330 UTC ; you will normally be :

in a day flight route system

in a night flight route system

out of the organized route system

in random airspace

Correct Answer: D

Q.220

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as 55/90
 In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as
pilot-incommand unless :

he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved
flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved flight
simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an
approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days

he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved
flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days

Correct Answer: A

Q.221

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance

Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is :

128.800 MHz.

131.800 MHz.

118.800 MHz.

121.800 MHz.

Correct Answer: B

Q.222

For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)

Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine
operative.

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine
operative.

Correct Answer: D

Q.223

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light
aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000
kg) on the approach to landing ?

4 minutes 56/90
 4 minutes

5 minutess

2 minutes

3 minutes

Correct Answer: D

Q.224

With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you can read the following
information : - Desired track (DTK) = 100° - Track (TK) = 120° You can conclude that the :

Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)

Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course

Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course

Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)

Correct Answer: D

Q.225

JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and
landing unless :

he has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest three take-off and three landings in an
aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30 days

he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot at the controls of the type to
be used, in the preceding 90 days.

he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during take-off and landing of the type
to be used in the preceding 90 days.

he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an
aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days.

Correct Answer: C

Q.226

In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. set the maximum take-off thrust 2.
increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. pull in the drag devices (gear and
flaps) 4. keep the airplane's current configuration 5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 5

2, 3

3, 5

1, 2, 4

Correct Answer: D
57/90
Q.227

A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :

a decision height of at least 100 ft

a decision height of at least 200 ft

a decision height of at least 50 ft

no decision height

Correct Answer: A

Q.228

At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?

Below FL290.

Between FL290 and FL410.

Between FL275 and FL400.

Between FL245 and FL410.

Correct Answer: B

Q.229

When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:

take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.

take any Mach number.

take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.

maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.

Correct Answer: D

Q.230

The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by
a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings
for threshold mid and end of runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are : DH = 300 feet,
Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres. The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres
and ceiling 200 feet. Is take-off possible?

Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM.

No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.

No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.

Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure.

Correct Answer: A

Q.231
58/90
 If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct
action is to :

carry out a further de-icing process

complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further freezing

switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing conditions
when airborne

complete departure provided that the recommended antiicing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing
conditons and type of fluid used has not been exceeded

Correct Answer: A

Q.232

For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized
aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :

25 000 ft

13 000 ft

29 000 ft

10 000 ft

Correct Answer: A

Q.233

The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can
be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by :

the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer

the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority

the operator and is specified in the operation manual

the operator and approved by the certification authority

Correct Answer: B

Q.234

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be
applied :

to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway 59/90
 to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway
separated by less 760 m

to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a
desplaced landing threshold

to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a
desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft
utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

Correct Answer: A

Q.235

According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be
applied to

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by
less than 760 m

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway

Correct Answer: B

Q.236

A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual
range of at least :

500 m

550 m

350 m

800 m

Correct Answer: B

Q.237

A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid
North in the direction of the North geographic pole. An aircraft is following a true course of 330°. At
position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be :

136°.

276°.

316°.

164°.

Correct Answer: A
60/90
Q.238

According to the recommended "noise abatement takeoff and climb procedure A" established in ICAO,
DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the
aircraft reaches :

3 000 ft

2 000 ft

1 000 ft

1 500 ft

Correct Answer: D

Q.239

Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the
oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :

20750 ft

12000 ft

8600 ft

2900 ft

Correct Answer: A

View Image

Q.240

In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro
heading, follow a :

straight map line

great circle line

rhumb line

spherical flight segment

Correct Answer: B

Q.241

Wind shear is:

a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance

a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance

a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance

a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance

Correct Answer: B
61/90
Q.242

The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials are
specified in the :

flight manual.

AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).

air carrier certificate.

operation manual.

Correct Answer: D

Q.243

A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight: 1- class A fires 2- class B fires 3- electrical source fires
4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicals Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct
statements?

2-4

3-4

1-2-3

1-2-3-4

Correct Answer: D

Q.244

The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :

the operator.

the aircraft manufacture'rs list.

the aircraft state of registry.

the manufacturer.

Correct Answer: D

Q.245

On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a
minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :

30 minutes with normal cruising consumption

2 hours with normal cruising consumption

2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

Correct Answer: B

Q.246
62/90
 A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is
greater than :

27 000 kg

5 700 kg

14 000 kg

20 000 kg

Correct Answer: B

Q.247

You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...) 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)
3 - gas 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1,2,3,4

2,3,4

1,2,4

1,2,3

Correct Answer: D

Q.248

When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the
threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the
maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:

1.3

1.45

1.5

1.15

Correct Answer: A

Q.249

The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:

the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.

the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft.

the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport aircraft.

the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.

Correct Answer: C

Q.250

In icing conditions and after the application of an antiicing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off
63/90
 In icing conditions and after the application of an antiicing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off
by: 1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft 2. avoiding positioning
yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of
the preceding aircraft 4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

3, 4

2, 3

1, 4

1, 2

Correct Answer: D

Q.251

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be
applied to :

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m.
(using whole runway)

LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

Correct Answer: A

Q.252

When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the
cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which
will indicate :

a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure

a rate of climb

a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm

zero

Correct Answer: B

Q.253

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O 2 - CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 -
halogen Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

1-2-3-4

3-4

2-3-4
64/90
 Correct Answer: D

Q.254

Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop
landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

60% of the landing distance available.

70% of the landing distance available.

80% of the landing distance available.

50% of the landing distance available.

Correct Answer: A

Q.255

Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is
not impaired is :

14000 ft

2500 ft

8000 ft

25000 ft

Correct Answer: C

Q.256

On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and
lubricant sufficient for flying during :

45 minutes at cruising speed

30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

30 minutes at cruising speed

Correct Answer: B

Q.257

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft : 1- flies above the glide path 2- flies below the gilde path 3- has an
increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is :

2,3.

1,3.

1,4.

2,4.

Correct Answer: D 65/90

 Correct Answer: D

Q.258

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind.In the
absence of a pilot action, the aircraft : 1- flies above the glide path 2- flies below theglide path 3- has an
increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is :

1,3.

1,4.

2,3.

2,4.

Correct Answer: A

Q.259

On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is
suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to :

400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.

300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.

200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.

100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.

Correct Answer: A

Q.260

A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

1500 m

3600 m

2400 m

1600 m

Correct Answer: D

Q.261

An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the
antiicing fluid:

must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.

need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.

must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.

must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off.

Correct Answer: D 66/90

 Correct Answer: D

Q.262

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:

the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.

the Civil Aviation Authority of the european states.

the airline operator.

the manufacturer.

Correct Answer: C

Q.263

On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout
the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than :

13 000 ft

12 000 ft

11 000 ft

10 000 ft

Correct Answer: A

Q.264

After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:

apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.

release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.

release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards.

apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.

Correct Answer: B

Q.265

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1 - H2O 2 - CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 -
halogen Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

3-4

1-2-3-4

2-3-4

Correct Answer: C

Q.266
67/90
 A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use
is :

dry powder

water

CO2 (carbon dioxide)

foam

Correct Answer: A

Q.267

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the : 1-
water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 114 kt. 3- water height is
equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 83 kt. The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is :

1 and 4.

2 and 3.

3 and 4.

1 and 2.

Correct Answer: D

Q.268

For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of
weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?

Freezing rain

Steady snow

Freezing fog

Frost

Correct Answer: A

Q.269

As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and prevention are: 1 -
ATIS. 2 - NOTAMs. 3 - BIRDTAMs. 4 - Weather radar. 5 - The report by another crew. The combination
regr ouping all the correct statements is :

1,2,5

1,2,3,4,5

1,3,4

2,5

Correct Answer: A

68/90
Q.270

In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway
surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny
appearance to the runway. 2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.
3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist
grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2, 3, 4

1, 2, 3, 4

1, 3, 4

1, 3, 4, 5

Correct Answer: A

Q.271

Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts
and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is :

substantial

small

medium

null

Correct Answer: A

Q.272

A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from :

from 0 to 150 m.

from 500 to 1200 m.

from 100 to 800 m.

from 200 to 500 m.

Correct Answer: A

Q.273

You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of : 1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...) 2 - liquids
(ether, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas 4 - metals (sodium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:

3 and 4

69/90
 Correct Answer: D

Q.274

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will
first see the :

green flashing light

green steady light

red steady light

white steady light

Correct Answer: B

Q.275

The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by :

the handling agent.

the shipper.

the operator.

the captain.

Correct Answer: B

Q.276

An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B
aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial route,
to reach a climb rate of at least :

500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.

300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.

300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.

500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise power.

Correct Answer: B

Q.277

The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to :

rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)

rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace)

Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace

the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)

Correct Answer: D

70/90
Q.278

The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required equipment approved by :
(Annex 6, Part I)

The country where the aircraft is operated.

It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities.

The country of the operator.

The country where the aircraft was manufactured.

Correct Answer: C

Q.279

After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original
recordings for a minimum period of:

90 days.

45 days.

60 days.

30 days.

Correct Answer: C

Q.280

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an
operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :

MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m

MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m

MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m

MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m

Correct Answer: C

Q.281

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that
system minima for "non-precision approach procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS without
glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:

VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft

VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft

Correct Answer: B

71/90
Q.282

The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on :

The aircraft front areas.

The upper and lower wingsurfaces.

The upper and lower rudder surfaces.

Only the pitot and static probes.

Correct Answer: A

Q.283

Posit : g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct
formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :

g/2.sin Lm

15°/h.sin Lm

g.sin Lm

g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

Correct Answer: A

Q.284

Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ?

the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel

a refuse tip in close proximity

mowing and maintaining the grass long

a modern sewage tip in close proximity

Correct Answer: B

Q.285

Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the :

temperature of the hydraulic fluid.

pressure of the hydraulic fluid.

pressure of the pneumatic tyres.

temperature of the brakes.

Correct Answer: D

Q.286

Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize:

an electrical fire. 72/90

 an electrical fire.

a plastic fire.

a fast depressurization.

a slow depressurization.

Correct Answer: C

Q.287

A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great
circle. The flight must be planned to take place :

at flight level FL 280 or less.

outside scheduled flight times.

at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.

at a constant airspeed of 480 kt.

Correct Answer: A

Q.288

An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be
switched off when:

the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.

all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered.

fire is no longer detected.

the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.

Correct Answer: C

Q.289

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and
minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly
behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?

11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes

7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes

Correct Answer: D

Q.290

Supplemental oxygen is used to :

protect a crew who fights a fire 73/90

 protect a crew who fights a fire

provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation

assist a passenger with breathing disorders

provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation

Correct Answer: D

Q.291

The minimum time track is a track defined for :

aircraft flying in MNPS airspace

a given travel

a period of 12 hours

a period of 24 hours

Correct Answer: B

Q.292

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1. the type and intensity of the showers 2. the
ambient temperature 3. the relative humidity 4. the direction and speed of the wind 5. the temperature of
the airplane skin 6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is:

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

1, 3, 5, 6

2, 3, 4, 5

1, 2, 4, 6

Correct Answer: A

Q.293

A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the holding point. The
reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:

the minimum equipment list.

the JAR OPS.

the flight record.

the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency Procedures".

Correct Answer: D

Q.294

In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the
following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:

request authorization from Control to track another aircraft. 74/90

 request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.

set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.

immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.

notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.

Correct Answer: D

Q.295

The abbreviation MNPS means :

Main Navigation Performance Specification

Maximum Navigation Performance Specification

Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification

Correct Answer: D

Q.296

A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the
horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :

1500 m

2400 m

1600 m

3600 m

Correct Answer: A

Q.297

The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :

20 minutes.

10 minutes.

5 minutes.

15 minutes.

Correct Answer: B

Q.298

When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends :

to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength 75/90

 to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength

to descend

to climb

not to change its trajectory

Correct Answer: B

Q.299

In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:

surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.

it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

Correct Answer: D

Q.300

We would know that the automatic pressurization system has malfunctioned if : 1. threre is a change in
environnemental sounds. 2. the cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise. 3. the differential pressure
between the exterior and the interior becomes equal. The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is :

1,2.

1,3.

2,3.

1,2,3.

Correct Answer: D

Q.301

Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published
length, how is this reported :

it is not reported

by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the lenght in metres

as a percentage of the total lenght of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM

in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM

Correct Answer: D

Q.302

If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating 76/90
 If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating
correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical
precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:

great circle.

rhumb line.

curve of some type or other.

spherical flight segment.

Correct Answer: A

Q.303

Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is :

different according to airports and airplane types.

for the same airplane type, the same for all airports.

for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport.

different for a same airplane type, according to airports.

Correct Answer: B

Q.304

The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is :

A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.

Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.

Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.

Water may only be used for minor fires.

Correct Answer: C

Q.305

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver :

Above and upwind from the larger aircraft

Above and downwind from the larger aircraft

Below and downwind from the larger aircraft

Below and upwind from the larger aircraft

Correct Answer: A

Q.306

A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth
magnetic field is less than :

10 micro-tesla 77/90
 10 micro-tesla

6 micro-tesla

17 micro-tesla

38 micro tesla

Correct Answer: B

Q.307

In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that
departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome
as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes :

no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement
procedure.

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can maintain
throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest obstacle.

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 20°
(climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28°
(climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)

Correct Answer: A

Q.308

The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a :

certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature.

3 hours protection time.

certain time of protection depending on its concentration.

24 hours protection time.

Correct Answer: C

Q.309

Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the preferential landing
runway for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological condition (VMC) ?

It has a tail wind component of any value

It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind, including gusts, of 12 kt

It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance

Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt

Correct Answer: C

Q.310

78/90
 In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and
disregarding any fuel considerations:

you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.

you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean
configuration until the final approach.

you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher
and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.

you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.

Correct Answer: C

Q.311

The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is :

01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

Correct Answer: A

Q.312

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be
allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by :

the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)

the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)

Correct Answer: C

Q.313

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).

at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).

Correct Answer: C

Q.314

During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be : 79/90
 During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be :

to warn the ATC

to comfort your passengers

to put on the oxygen mask

to set the transponder to 7700

Correct Answer: C

Q.315

In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290
and FL410 inclusive is :

2000ft

1 500 ft

1 000 ft

500 ft

Correct Answer: C

Q.316

The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :

Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration

Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration

Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration

Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration

Correct Answer: D

Q.317

An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when :

releasing the brakes in order to take-off.

it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.

leaving the icing zone.

it is rotating (before taking-off).

Correct Answer: D

Q.318

In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport
airplane, they must be accompanied with a :

representative of the company owning the materials. 80/90

 representative of the company owning the materials.

specialized handling employee.

system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature.

transport document for hazardous materials.

Correct Answer: D

Q.319

In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:

possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.

external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and
manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.

external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.

external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.

Correct Answer: B

Q.320

The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not
be less than :

6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days

Correct Answer: D

Q.321

Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the
amendments to keep it up to date?

Aircraft producer.

Owner of the aircraft.

ATS authority of the state of registry.

Aircraft operator.

Correct Answer: D

Q.322

Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is :

subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed 81/90

 subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed

subject to a mandatory clearance

subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not)

not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled

Correct Answer: B

Q.323

Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?

The operator.

It is not specified.

The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.

The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items.

Correct Answer: C

Q.324

When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off :

in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.

at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the runway .

at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind side of the runway
.

beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.

Correct Answer: D

Q.325

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical
information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently,
if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least :

15 months

24 months

3 months

12 months

Correct Answer: C

Q.326

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit
a report of the act to :

the Autority of the State of the operator only 82/90

 the Autority of the State of the operator only

the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference

both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator

the local authority only

Correct Answer: C

Q.327

From the following list : 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2. The fuel
discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane 3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane 4. The
jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane. Which of the above are
requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests :

1,3 and 4

1 and 4

2 and 3

1,2,3 and 4

Correct Answer: D

Q.328

A class A fire is a fire of:

metal or gas or chemical (special fires)

solid material, generally of organic nature

liquid or liquefiable solid

electrical origin

Correct Answer: B

Q.329

The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of: 1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip
vortices). 2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts). 3. The importance of the
drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.). The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:

1.

3.

2 and 3.

1, 2 and 3.

Correct Answer: A

Q.330

You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an 83/90
 You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an
electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 4

1, 2, 3, 4

1, 2, 3

2, 3

Correct Answer: B

Q.331

The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear
of the aircraft, is :

220°

140°

110°

70°

Correct Answer: B

Q.332

A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in :

the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.

the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.

Annex 18 to the Chicago convention.

Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.

Correct Answer: B

Q.333

For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome
shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :

0.8

0.7

0.6

0.5

Correct Answer: B

Q.334

An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a
microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of :
84/90
 80 kt.

40 kt.

60 kt.

20 kt.

Correct Answer: A

Q.335

The wake turbulence:

starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when rectracting the drag devices.

starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's wheels touch the ground.

starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at
landing.

starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this
height before landing.

Correct Answer: B

Q.336

An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west south of 70°N between
5°W and 65°W, every:

10° of longitude.

5° of longitude.

20° of longitude.

15° of longitude.

Correct Answer: A

Q.337

On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the
true North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is
305°. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is :

301°.

292°.

295°.

298°.

Correct Answer: C

Q.338

When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path, 85/90
 When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, you adopt a path,
whenever possible :

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path.

identical to the one of the preceding airplane.

distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.

distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path.

Correct Answer: D

Q.339

For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase.
The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in
order to fly :

about the lock-on altitude

between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude

just below the optimum altitude

about the optimum altitude

Correct Answer: D

Q.340

A minimum time track is a :

spherical capable flight segment

track determined according to weather conditions

great circle track

rhumb line

Correct Answer: B

Q.341

A slow decompression may be caused by: 1. a slight airtightness defect 2. a bad functioning of the
pressurization 3. the loss of a window 4. the loss of a door The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:

3, 4

1, 2, 3

1, 2

1, 2, 3, 4

Correct Answer: C

Q.342

For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual 86/90
 For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual
demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can
be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :

60 seconds

90 seconds

132 seconds

120 seconds

Correct Answer: B

Q.343

At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on the
LONDONANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The wind is nil, the grid heading
at this moment is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on
occurence of the failure is : NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart
whose grid is parallel with the zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic North Pole.

000°.

325°.

035°.

180°.

Correct Answer: B

Q.344

A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in
the direction of the North geographic pole. In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode
after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial
navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to "magnetic mode", the compass heading is 220°. The
INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10∞E. The compass
shift on this heading at this point in time is:

+15°.

-5°.

+5°.

-15°.

Correct Answer: B

Q.345

The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid
87/90
 The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid
North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.
The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is
switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro
heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical
precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off. The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will
be :

+32.5°.

+13°.

+73.5°.

-32.5°.

Correct Answer: A

Q.346

Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see
that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly: 1 - the weather conditions for the day
including the weather forecast at destination, 2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required,
the weight and balance sheet, 3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel report, 4 - the en-
route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator, 5 - notification for special loadings,
6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts. The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

2,4

2,3,4,5

1,2,3,4,5,6

1,3,5

Correct Answer: B

Q.347

An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with
its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics
troubles... etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications
capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or
track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action
will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its
assigned route and :

climb or descend 1 000 ft

climb or descent 500 ft

climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft

climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

Correct Answer: A

Q.348
88/90
 An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance
with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics
troubles .... etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of
communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30
NM from its assigned route and :

climb or descent 1 000 ft

climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft

climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

climb or descend 500 ft

Correct Answer: D

Q.349

An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic
control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain
its assigned level,and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or
descend 500 ft, if :

at FL 430

at FL410

above FL 410

below FL 410

Correct Answer: B

Q.350

The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'W Drift: 6°L (left) The route
followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used: RESOLUTE BAY
(74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian. The gyro compass has
just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid
North in the direction of geographic North Pole). The correct representation of th

Correct Answer: A

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Q.351
89/90
 In order to meet the "twin-engine" flight standards authorised by the official departments of his company
(1hour 45 minutes flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 kt to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air
conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area,
while at the same time taking the shortest possible time. Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken
into account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be c

Track A , time 8 hours 3 minutes.

Track D , time 8 hours 20 minutes.

Track B , time 8 hours 10 minutes.

Track C , time 8 hours 15 minutes.

Correct Answer: D

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Q.352

In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when: 1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or
slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water. 2. the amount of surface moisture is
sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance. 3. the amount of surface moisture is
sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water. 4. it bears stagnant
sheets of water. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 2, 3

1, 2

1, 3

Correct Answer: D

Q.353

An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic
control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain
its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500
ft, if :

above FL 410

at FL 430

below FL 410

at FL 410

Correct Answer: C

90/90