FMGE December 4th 2020

ARISE
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Email: arisemedicalacademy@gmail.com
MEDICAL ACADEMY
Building Better Doctors
STUDENTS RECALL RECENT FMGE – DECEMBER - 2020
ANATOMY
1. Identify the nerve marked below?
(a) Radial nerve

(b) Median nerve
(c) Ulnar nerve
(d) Musculocutaneous nerve
Ans. (c) Ulnar Nerve
2. Physiological constrictions of esophagus are all except?
(a) Arch of Aorta

(b) Tracheoesophageal junction
(c) Position of thyroid
(d) At the region of diaphragm
Ans. (c) Position of thyroid
3. Which muscle attachment is seen at the marked structure?

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(a) Gluteus maximus

(b) Gluteus minimus
(c) Iliopsoas
(d) Gluteus medius
Ans. (c) iliopsoas
4. A Female Post Breast Surgery suffers with a deformity given below. Which is the nerve involved in it?
(a) Dorsal scapular nerve

(b) Long thoracic nerve
(c) Supra scapular nerve
(d) Subscapular nerve
Ans. (b) Long thoracic nerve
5. Identify the arrow marked tarsal bone in the given Image?
(a) Cuboid
(b) Talus
(c) Navicular
(d) Cuneiform
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Ans. (c) Navicular bone
6. Identify the tendon shown below?
(a) Flexor digitorum superficialis

(b) Flexor digitorum profundus
(c) Palmaris longus
(d) Flexor carpi radialis
Ans. (d) Flexor Carpi Radialis
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7. Which cartilage does the marked structure belong to?
(a) Syndesmosis
(b) Primary cartilaginous joint
(c) Secondary cartilaginous joint
(d) Synchondrosis
Ans. (c) Secondary cartilaginous joint
8. A person presented with foot eversion and he is complaining of no sensation over dorsum of foot and
lateral aspect of leg. Which nerve is responsible for his condition?
(a) Deep peroneal nerve

(b) Superficial peroneal nerve
(c) Sural nerve
(d) Saphenous nerve
Ans. (b) Superficial peroneal nerve
9. At 24 weeks of gestation, a woman presents to OPD. On USG, bowel loop was observed in amniotic
fluid. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Omphalocele
(b) Gastrochisis
(c) Anencephaly
(d) Myelomeningiocele
Ans. (a) Omphalocele
10. Parasthesia of inner aspect of arm in a patient with cervical rib. Which of the following marked structure is
affected?
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(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans. (a) A
11. Structure marked in the Image will end in?
(a) Junction of left jugular vein and subclavian vein

(b) Brachiocephalic vein
(c) Superior Vena cava
(d) Right subclavian vein
Ans. (a) Junction of left jugular vein and subclavian vein
ANESTHESIA
12. Which is the I.V. anesthetic drug used for day care surgeries?
(a) Ketamine
(b) Propofol
(c) Thiopentone
(d) Etomidate
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Ans. (b) Propofol
13. Which of the following drug is associated with post-operative delirium and hallucination?
(a) Ketamine
(b) Fentanyl
(c) Thiopentone
(d) Halothane
Ans. (a) Ketamine
14. A patient after RTA presented to emergency department with hypovolemia. Which of the following cannulas
can be used for most rapid blood transfusion?
(a) Grey
(b) Orange
(c) Pink
(d) Green
Ans. (b) Orange
15. An anesthetist was trying to put central line. What is the best method to confirm the accurate CVP insertion?
(a) ETCO2
(b) PH of arterial blood
(c) PH of venous blood
(d) High PCO2 in venous blood
Ans. (d) High PCO2 in venous blood
16. Local anesthetic agent works by which of the following mechanism?

a. Blocking Sodium voltage gated channel
b. Blocking of Potassium channel
c. Opening Sodium voltage gated channel
d. Opening of potassium channel
Ans. (a) Blocking Sodium voltage gated channel
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BIOCHEMISTRY
17. Enzyme deficiency in von gierke’s disease?
(a) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(b) Branching enzyme
(c) Acid maltase
(d) Glycogen Phosphorylase
Ans. (a) Glucose-6-phosphatase
18. On centrifugation LDH gets deposited in?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Cytoplasm
(d) Ribosomes
Ans. (c) Cytoplasm
19. Patient presents with drying of skin and appears as shown below. Identify the vitamin deficiency?
(a) Biotin
(b) Niacin
(c) Riboflavin
(d) Ascorbic acid
Ans. (b) Niacin deficiency
20. Complex IV of ETC is inhibited by?
(a) Oligomycin
(b) Malonate
(c) Cyanide
(d) Rotenone
Ans. (c) Cyanide

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21. A 40-year-old man presented with black pigmentation of pinna and sclera of eyes. The color of urine changes to
black on long standing. What is the diagnosis?
(a) Alkaptonuria
(b) Phenylketonuria
(c) Maple syrup urine disease
(d) Hartnup’s disease
Ans. (a) Alkaptonuria
22. Which of the following is not a micronutrient?
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Calcium
(d) Iodine
Ans. (c) Calcium
23. Reverse transcriptase is used in?
(a) RNA amplification

(b) DNA amplification
(c) ______
(d) ______
Ans. (a) RNA amplification
24. Nitrogenous waste is excreted from the body in the form of?
(a) Glutamine
(b) Urea
(c) Uric acid
(d) Nitric oxide
Ans. (b) Urea
DERMATOLOGY
25. Identify?
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(a) Verrucous vulgaris

(b) Elephantiasis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Leishmaniasis
Ans. (b) Elephantiasis
26. Which nail finding is characteristic for psoriasis vulgaris as shown in image?
(a) Subungual keratosis

(b) Auspitz sign
(c) Oil drop sign
(d) Onycholysis
Ans. (a) Subungual keratosis
27. A farmer presented to OPD with a swelling over his palm as shown in the photo. Few months back
he got injured with a thorn. What is the presentation given below?
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(a) Sequestration dermoid

(b) Implantation dermoid
(c) Embryogenic dermoid
(d) Ameloblastoma
Ans. (b) Implantation dermoid
28. Identify the Image shown below?
(a) Carbuncle
(b) Follicular abscess
(c) Cellulitis
(d) Erysipelas
Ans. (a) Carbuncle
29. A truck driver with history of lesions on penis undergoing treatment presented with rashes. What is the
diagnosis?
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(a) Secondary Syphilis

(b) Drug eruption
(c) TEN
(d) Steven Johnson syndrome
Ans. (a) Secondary Syphilis
30. Identify the Image?
(a) Leshmania cutanea

(b) Lepromatus leprosy
(c) Post kala azar dermatitis
(d) Tuberculoid leprosy
Ans. (b) Lepromatus leprosy
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31. A patient presented with hypo pigmented rash with satellite lesions as shown in the image given
below?
(a) BT
(b) BL
(c) LL
(d) TT
Ans. (a) BT
32. A patient who was on anti-convulsant medication, presented with rashes as shown in the Image. What could be
the diagnosis?
(a) Urticaria
(b) Fixed drug eruption
(c) Angioedema
(d) Cellulitis
Ans. (b) Fixed drug eruption
33. Which sign is shown in the given picture?
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(a) Auspitz sign

(b) Dermographism
(c) Koebner’s phenomenon
(d) Nikolsky’s sign
Ans. (c) Koebner’s phenomenon
ENT
34. An infant presented with inspiratory stridor and the clinical picture shows omega shaped epiglottis. The
probable diagnosis is?
(a) Acute epiglottitis

(b) RLN palsy
(c) SLN palsy
(d) Laryngomalacia
Ans. (d) Laryngomalacia
35. Identify the Image shown below:
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(a) Rhinophyma
(b) Rhinosporidiosis
(c) Rhinoscleroma
(d) Rhinosinusitis
Ans. (a) Rhinophyma (aka potato nose)
36. What is the best management for Atrophic Rhinitis?
(a) FESS
(b) Young’s operation
(c) Nasal steroid spray
(d) Immunotherapy
Ans. (b) Young’s operation
37. True statement about BERA?
(a) Used to detect SNHL

(b) Invasive test
(c) Used for screening
(d) It is a subjective test
Ans. (a) Used to detect SNHL
38. Laryngeal crepitus is seen in all except?
(a) Tongue cancer

(b)Pneumonia
(c) Laryngitis
(d) Post cricoid carcinoma
Ans. (d) Post cricoid carcinoma
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39. Cause of decreased bone conduction on audiogram?
(a) Ossicular dislocation

(b) Cochlear pathology
(c) Fixation of foot plate of stapes
(d) EAC pathology
Ans. (b) Cochlear pathology
40. The cause of Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is?
(a) HSV
(b) EBV
(c) HZV
(d) Parainfluenza virus
Ans. (b) EBV
41. Identify the procedure shown below?
(a) Hemlich maneuver

(b) Epleys maneuver
(c) Semonts maneuver
(d) Cottles maneuver
Ans. (d) Cottles maneuver
42. The following are responsible for causing croup except?
(a) Parainfluenza Type I

(b) Rhino virus
(c) H. Influenza
(d) Influenza virus
Ans. (a) Parainfluenza Type I
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43. A patient presented to ER after fracture of base of skull with CSF Rhinorrhea. On further investigation the
following image was obtained. What is the name of this sign shown below?
(a) Schwartz sign

(b) Brown sign
(c) Halo sign
(d) Phelp sign
Ans. (c) Halo sign
44. The most appropriate investigation for JNA is?
(a) MRI
(b) CECT
(c) Angiography
(d) X-ray
Ans. (b) CECT
45. A patient presented with B/L neck swelling or temporoparietal neuralgia and U/L hearing loss. The diagnosis is?
(a) NPC
(b) Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma
(c) Hypopharyngeal carcinoma
(d) Laryngeal carcinoma
Ans. (a) NPC
46. A child presented with a high arched palate and mouth breathing and failure to thrive. The probable diagnosis is?
(a) Tonsil hypertrophy

(b) Adenoid hypertrophy
(c) Lingual tonsil hypertrophy
(d) Turbinate hypertrophy
Ans. (b) Adenoid hypertrophy
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47. A patient presented with pulsation of the tonsil. The cause is?
(a) Aneurysm of the common carotid

(b) Aneurysm of the external carotid
(c) Carotid body tumor
(d) ICA
Ans. (d) ICA
FORENSIC MEDICINE
48. Patient’s relatives are complaining about patient’s death and filed a case against the doctor. Which IPC
section do you think will be appropriate to punish the medical practitioner?
(a) IPC 304 A

(b) IPC 304 B
(c) IPC 300
(d) IPC 302
Ans. (a) IPC 304 A
49. Active principle of the Image shown below?
(a) Conine
(b) Hyoscine
(c) Thebaine
(d) Tetrahydro-cannabinol
Ans. (b) Hyoscine (Image → Datura)
50. A female who died within 3 years of marriage &this was the case of suspected dowry. Who should perform the
inquest in this case?
(a) Magistrate
(b) Police
(c) Village headman
(d) Judge
Ans. (a) Magistrate
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51. A dead neonate was found in water. The crown heel length was found to be 25 cm. Light hairs were present on
the skull with ossification center. Approximate age of fetus is –
(a) 5 months
(b) 7 months
(c) 9 months
(e) 3 months
Ans. (b) 5 months
52. A man was found to be agitated and shouting at the airport. Later on he fell down. On further checking, his bag
was found to have enema apparatus and laxatives. All of the following are true regarding this case except?
(a) Abdominal scan is Indicated

(b) The person is malingering
(c) He is at a risk of poisoning
(d) It’s a case of body packer’s syndrome
Ans. (b) The person is malingering
53. A person was found dead in bushes with tied arms and legs, cyanosis of the nails, scratches over
face, neck and chin, laceration near lips was noticed. Which of the following is not the probable
mode of death in this case?
(a) Throttling
(b) It’s a Homicide
(c) Asphyxia
(d) Case of a suicide
Ans. (d) Case of a suicide
54. A gunshot case brought for autopsy shows an entry wound with inverted margins & surrounded by blackening
and tattooing. Burning & singeing of hairs is not noted. What is the range of firearm weapon?
(a) Near
(b) About 2 meters
(c) Contact
(d) Distant
Ans. (a) Near
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55. A piece of cloth was obtained from a crime scene with some spots. On examination, yellow colored
needle shaped crystals were found. Which body secretions it can be?
(a) Serum
(b) Semen
(c) Saliva
(d) CSF
Ans. (b) Semen
56. Which of the following produces catecholamine storm as seen with scorpion sting?
(a) Spider
(b) Tick
(c) Sea Urchin
(d) Ciguatera
Ans. (a) Spider
57. Dead body of a 12yr old child was found. Which bone would be best for gender assessment?
(a) Skull
(b) Femur
(c) Pelvis
(d) Mandible
Ans. (c) Pelvis
58. A case of RTA was brought for autopsy with stiffness of neck, hands, both upper and lower limbs.
What is this condition called?
(a) Rigor mortis

(b) Cadaveric spasm
(c) Heat stiffness
(d) Cold stiffness
Ans. (a) Rigor mortis
59. A woman tried to fake the pregnancy & delivery. After sometime she brought a baby claiming it to
be her neighbor’s child and trying to blackmail him for getting benefit in property. Such kind of child
is called as?
(a) Suppositious child

(b) Spurious
(c) Superfecundation
(d) Superfetation
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Ans. (a) Suppositious child
MEDICINE
60. A 47-year-old female having arthralgia, swallowing difficulty with dry food and gritty feeling under eyelid. She
is suffering from NCNC with Increased ESR, positive for anti-ANA, Anti-Ro and Rheumatoid factor. Which of
the following could be the diagnosis?
(a) Sjogren’s syndrome

(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Serum sickness
(d) SLE
Ans. (a) Sjogren’s syndrome
61. Diagnose the given ECG?
(a) Ventricular tachycardia

(b) Ventricular fibrillation
(c) Atrial tachycardia
(d) Atrial fibrillation
Ans. (a) Ventricular tachycardia
62. Identify the anomaly shown in the Image?
(a) Pyloric stenosis

(b) Pancreatic divisum
(c) Annular pancreas
(d) Duodenal atresia
Ans. (c) Annular Pancreas
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63. A patient comes to emergency with complaints of acute abdominal pain after alcohol intake. Pain was radiating to
his back. On further investigation, he was found to have raised level of AST, ALT and amylase. What could be the
diagnosis?
(a) HCC
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Acute pancreatitis
(d) Gall bladder stones
Ans. (c) Acute Pancreatitis
64. Murmur given between S1 and S2 is:
(a) Ejection systolic murmur

(b) Pan systolic murmur
(c) Diastolic murmur
(d) Systolic murmur
Ans. (a) Ejection systolic murmur
65. A patient with ptosis, anhydrosis and slight drooping of eyelid is presented to the clinic. What do you think the
patient is suffering from?
a. Horner syndrome
b. Keratoconjunctivitis
c. Dacryocystitis
d. Orbital cellulitis
Ans. Horner syndrome
66. Which fluid should not be given in severe head injury?
(a) 5% dextrose
(b) Normal saline
(c) Hypertonic saline
(d) Ringer Lactate
Ans. (d) Ringer Lactate
67. Purple striae on the abdomen as shown in the picture given below is a characteristic feature of which of the
following given condition?
(a) Cushing’s syndrome

(b) Hypothyroidism
(c) SIADH
(d) Addison’s disease
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Ans. (a) Cushing syndrome
68. A boy presented with blue sclera who hs a history of frequent fractures. What could be the diagnosis?
(a) Scurvy
(b) Rickets
(c) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
(d) Osteomalacia
Ans. (c) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
69. Identify the ECG given below?
(a) Atrial flutter

(b) Ventricular tachycardia
(c) Ventricular fibrillation
(d) MI
Ans. (a) Atrial flutter
70. Identify the condition shown below?
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a. Nail pterygium
b. Clubbing
c. Koilonychia
Ans. Clubbing
71. A patient presented with head &hand enlargement, gynecomastia and lactation. Lesion of which of the following
structure can cause this clinical presentation?
(a) Anterior pituitary adenoma

(b) Posterior pituitary adenoma
(c) Hypothalamic hamartoma
(d) Pineal dysgerminoma
Ans. (a)
72. A 68-year-old Diabetic patient develops which of the following macro vascular complications after 20 years?
(a) Retinopathy
(b) Neuropathy
(c) Nephropathy
(d) Myocardial Infarction
Ans. (d) Myocardial Infarction
73. Tracheal shift towards right with left sided pneumothorax. What is the management?
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(a) Left sided thoracostomy

(b) Right sided thoracostomy
(c) Conservative
(d) Wrapping the chest tightly
Ans. (a) Left sided thoracostomy
74. A HIV patient presents with following presentation. What is the staging of HIV?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Ans. (c) III
75. JVP Image shows rapid x,y descent and elevated over all. What could be the diagnosis?
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(a) Constrictive pericarditis

(b) Dilated cardiomyopathy
(c) HOCM
(d) Tamponade
Ans. (a) Constrictive pericarditis
76. A student who was eating the food of his hostel mess found to have developed hepatomegaly, jaundice. On the
same time all other students who were eating from the same mess developed similar symptoms. Which
investigation is more appropriate to be done to find out the cause?
(a) IgM for Hepatitis A

(b) IgG for Hepatitis A
(c) IgM for Hepatitis B
(d) IgG for Hepatitis B
Ans. (a) IgM for Hepatitis A
77. A male patient presented with high grade fever and headache. He was found to have protein level 220 mg/dl
and glucose 35mg/dl in CSF. He develops rashes as shown below. What should be the probable cause?
(a) E coli
(b) Listeria
(c) Neisseria meningitides
(d) Cryptococcus
Ans. (c) Neisseria meningitides
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78. A patient who is normal at rest but has discomfort on activities. Normal activities are slightly affected. The patient
comes under which category of NYHA classification?
(a) NYHA I
(b) NYHA II
(c) NYHA III
(d) NYHA IV
Ans. (b) NYHA II
79. A patient presented to emergency with hypotension. O/E CVP was found to be 5. Which of the following
can be diagnosed?
(a) Septic shock

(b) Hypovolemic shock
(c) Cardiogenic shock
(d) Neurogenic shock
Ans. ()
80. A patient comes to emergency with fever and headache. O/E he has neck stiffness, CSF analysis was done
and opening pressure increased, proteins mild increased, glucose normal, lymphocytes increased. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Tubercular meningitis

(b) Purulent bacterial meningitis
(c) Viral meningitis
(d) Cryptococcus
Ans. (c) Viral meningitis
81. A woman after hysterectomy presents with distended abdomen. What is electrolyte imbalance seen?
(a) Hyperkalemia
(b) Hypokalemia
(c) Hypernatremia
(d) Hyponatremia
Ans. (b) Hypokalemia
82. Patient with previous history of MI 3 years ago now presenting with tachypnea, tachycardia, S3 heard. What
could be the diagnosis?
(a) MI
(b) Pericarditis
(c) Congestive heart failure
(d) Pulmonary embolism
Ans. (c) Congestive heart failure
83. Identify the condition due to the Image shown below?
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(a) Hypercholesterolemia
(b) Hypertriglyceridemia
(c) Hyper alpha lipoprotenemia
(d) Hyper beta lipoprotenemia
Ans. (a) Hypercholesterolemia
84. A 12-year-old child having proteinuria 4+ and edema and features associateing with nephrotic syndrome
without hematuria. Which drug would you prefer?
(a) Prednisolone
(b) Cyclosporine
(c) Cyclophosphamide
(d) Methotrexate
Ans. (a) Prednisolone
85. A 65-year-old patient presents with deentia and loss of cognitia. Which is the most common cause for this
condition?
(a) Alzheimer’s
(b) Pick’s
(c) Parkinson’s
(d) CJD
Ans. (a)
86. A patient is allergic to wheat and unable to eat it. O/E, he was tested positive with Anti-Endomysial Antibodies.
What could be the diagnosis?
(a) Celiac sprue

(b) Acrodermatitis enteropathica
(c) Tropical sprue
(d) Thiamine deficiency
Ans. (a) Celiac sprue
87. A 75-year-old female has a problem in walking long distances. O/E bruit heard in knee. On X-ray imaging,
reduced joint space and osteophytes were seen. Most probable diagnosis is?
(a) Osteoarthritis
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(b) Rheumatoid arthritis

(c) Psoriatic arthritis
(d) Gouty arthritis
Ans. (a) Osteoarthritis
88. A patient who was admitted in neuromedicine department was asked to copy the image as drawn by the
doctor. Image drawn by the doctor is shown in left side and by patient is on the right side. Which of the
following best describes the condition of the patient?
(a) Hemineglect
(b) Agraphia
(c) Astereogenesis
(d) Acalculia
Ans. (a) Hemineglect
MICROBIOLOGY
89. A patient complaints of frequent perianal pruritus. On microscopic examination, following Image was seen.
Find out the most probable causative organism?
(a) Ascaris lumbricoides

(b) Enterobius vermicularis
(c) Trichuris Trichura
(d) Ancylostoma duodenale
Ans. (b) Enterobius vermicularis
90. A patient with history of travel to Ohio shows lung symptoms. What could be the most common cause?
(a) Blastomycosis
(b) Histoplasmosis
(c) Mucormycosis
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(d) Coccidiodomycosis
Ans. (a) Blastomycosis
91. Rice water stools are characteristic of:
(a) Shigella
(b) Cholera
(c) E.coli
(d) Salmonella
Ans. (b)Cholera
92. Which of the following is high level disinfectant?
(a) Gluteraldehyde
(b) Alcohol
(c) Lysol
(d) Phenol
Ans. (a) Gluteraldehyde
93. Identify the organism stained with India Ink stain?
(a) Chlamydia
(b) Histoplasma
(c) Cryptococcus
(d) Aspergillus
Ans. (c) Cryptococcus
94. A pregnant woman with malaria presents in front of the doctor. What could be the causative organism?
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(a) P. vivax
(b) P. falciparum
(c) P. ovale
(d) P. malariae
Ans. (b) P. falciparum
95. PrP deposition is seen in?
(a) CJD
(b) Rabies
(c) Parkinson’s disease
(d) Alzheimer’s disease
Ans. (a) CJD
96. A patient presented with colicky abdominal pain, diarrhea and no history of fever. What could be the diagnosis?
(a) E. coli
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Shigella
(d) Giardia lamblia
Ans. (b) Entamoeba histolytica
97. A male patient presented with bloody diarrhea. On Investigation of stool sample, the organism was found to be
gram negative, non-motile and oxidase negative. What could be the cause?
(a) Shigella
(b) E. coli
(c) Salmonella
(d) Yersinia pestis
Ans. (a) Shigella
98. Which of the following micro-organisms is having frequent right angle and > 90degree angle branching?
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(a) Aspergillus
(b) Fusarium
(c) Mucormycosis
(d) Pencillium
Ans. (c) Mucormycosis
OBG
99. A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of post coital bleeding. She is mother of 6 children and has a
history of early marriage. On colposcopic examination, inflammed cervix is seen which bleeds on touch. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Cervical cancer

(b) Cervical cyst
(c) Endometrial carcinoma
(d) Vulval carcinoma
Ans. (a) Cervical Cancer
100. Identify the procedure being done in the Image?
(a) Leopold’s Ist maneuver

(b) Leopold’s IInd maneuver
(c) Leopold’s IIIrd maneuver
(d) Leopold’s IVth maneuver
Ans. (c) Leopold’s IIIrd maneuver
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101. Look at the Image and diagnose the condition?
a. Kleinfelter
b. Down’s
c. CAH
d. Turner’s
Ans. D - Turner’s syndrome
102. An 8-weeks pregnant lady with spotting since the start of her pregnancy. On USG, gestational sac without
fetal pole. What is the probable diagnosis?
(a) Missed abortion

(b) Threatened abortion
(c) Inevitable abortion
(d) Incomplete abortion
Ans. (b) Threatened abortion
103. Treatment for Abortion within 16 weeks?
(a) Mifepristone + Misoprostol

(b) Methotrexate
(c) Misoprostol
(d) Danazol
Ans. (a)Mifepristone + Misoprostol
104. 35-year-old female, working in a factory presents within 8 hours after a sexual assault by a
male colleague. She is at day 13 of her menstrual cycle. What should be the emergency contraceptive
of choice in her case?
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(a) Levonorgesterol of 1.5 mg single dose

(b) DMPA
(c) Misoprostol followed by methotrexate
(d) Ethyl estradiol
Ans. (a) Levonorgesterol of 1.5 mg single dose
a. Hydrosalpinx
b. Long para ovarian cyst
c. PID
d. Bicornuate uterus
Ans: (a) Hydrosalpinx
106. A G2P1 presents with history of child with down’s syndrome. Now her POG is 10 weeks. What is the best
possible method of Investigation?
(a) Amniocentesis and Chorionic villi sampling

(b) Triple marker
(c) Quadraple marker
(d) USG
Ans. (a) Amniocentesis and chorionic villi sampling
107. Which of the following strain of HPV is more commonly associated with cervical cancer?
(a) HPV 6
(b) HPV 11
(c) HPV 16
(d) HPV 8
Ans. (c)HPV 16
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108. 25 yr old married man came to infertility clinic, having azoosperia. normal sized testis, FSH
and testosterone levels also normal. What could be the reason?
(a) Obstruction of Vas Deferens

(b) Kallman syndrome
(c) Klinifelter syndrome
(d) Impotency
(a) Obstruction of Vas Deferens
109. A female in the labor room - head has not reached to the ischial spines with 5 cm cervical dilatation in 3 hours
will be considered at which stage of labor?
(a) Latent phase
(b) Active phase
(c) Second stage
(e) Third stage
Ans. (a) Latent phase
110. Image showing a contraceptive device in uterus. The placement is best seen with:
(a) Laparoscopy
(b) Hysteroscopy
(c) Laparotomy
(d) Hysterectomy
Ans. (b) Hysteroscopy
111. A woman with secondary amenorrhea with history of curettage for abortion. FSH 7 IU/ml. What is your likely
diagnosis?
(a) Pituitary failure

(b) Ovarian failure
(c) Uterine synechiae
(d) Pregnancy
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Ans. (c) Uterine synechiae
112. Identify the Image given below?
(a) Dichorionic Monoamniotic

(b) Monochorionic Monoamniotic
(c) Dichorionic Diamniotic
(d) Monochorionic Diamniotic
Ans. (c) Dichorionic Diamniotic
113. Drug used for Endometriosis?
(a) Raloxifene
(b) Danazole
(c) Gosarelin
(d) tamoxifene
Ans. (b) Danazole
114. A patient presented with secondary amenorrhea after 5 years of her marriage. O/E she was
found to have retroverted uterus with some tenderness and swelling near the posterior wall of vagina.
What is the appropriate diagnosis?
(a) Posterior wall fibroid

(b) Cervical fibroid
(c) Endometriosis
(d) Adenomyosis
Ans. ()
115. Women with ovarian malignancy, what are all the procedures that can be done except?
(a) Debulking surgery

(b) iv chemotherapy
(c) Intraperitoneal chemo therapy
(d)radiotherapy
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Ans. (d) Radiotherapy
116. A 14-year-old girl presented with primary amenorrhea, compains of urinary retention, pain in the abdomen. On
history talking, she explains that she has been suffering from cyclical abdominal pain for last 6 months. O/E
following image is seen. What is the diagnosis?
(a) Imperforate hymen

(b) MRKH
(c) Klinifelter syndrome
(d) CAH
Ans. (a) Imperforate hymen
117. A 30-year nulliparous lady being married for 5 years came to infertility center for treatment. She is having
secondary amennorhea for last 45 days. Doctor had done test for her ovulation in which she is ovulating regularly
and normally. Under what parameters you can confirm that ovulation has taken place?
(a) High FSH

(b) Basal body temperature < 0.5
(c) High LH
(d) High progesterone
Ans. (d) High Progesterone
118. A 14-year-old girl presented with heavy bleeding per vaginum for last 10 days. What should be done to know
the cause other than pregnancy test?
(a) Coagulation test

(b) LFT
(c) KFT
(d) D-dimer test
Ans. (a) Coagulation test
119. A woman who is lactating came to OPD 6 months after delivery for checkup and to get advice for
contraception. She still wants to continue breast feeding for her child. Which is not to be adviced?
(a) Combined OCP

(b) POP
(c) IUCD
(d) Mini pill
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Ans. (a) Combined OCP
120. A 32-year-old female came for regular check up found with ovarian cyst of 6*6 cm. What’s the next line of
management?
(a) Laparoscopic cystectomy

(b) CA-125 follow up
(c) Laparotomy and Ovariotomy
(d) Combined OCP and follow up
Ans. (d) Combined OCP and follow up
121. A primigravida at 24-weeks of gestation comes to the hospital with an appointment with a report of RBS of
126mg/dl. Fasting and OGTT after 2 hours was found to be 200mg/dl. On performing the USG the fetus was
found to be 2.5kg in weight. What should be the best management for her?
(a) Reassure
(b) Call her to check again at 34 weeks
(c) Admit, start insulin and check for response
(d) Start insulin and send her home
Ans. (c) Admit, start insulin and check for response
122. What is the contraindication of the given device?
(a) HTN
(b) PID
(c) Obesity
(d) Anemia
Ans. (b) PID
123. A 40cc fetal material was detected on USG and planned for evacuation. But the catheter goes deep
into the uterus without resistance. What should be the next step?
(a) Mifepristone and misoprostol

(b) Wait and watch
(c) Continue the procedure
(d) Immediate laparoscopy to be done
Ans. (d) Immediate laparoscopy to be done
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124. Which of the following is true about true conjugate?
(a) From sacral promontory to posterior border of pubic symphysis

(b) From sacral promontory to anterior border of pubic symphysis
(c) From sacral promontory to upper border of pubic symphysis
(d) From sacral promontory to lower border of pubic symphysis
Ans. (c) From sacral promontory to upper border of pubic symphysis
125. Which among the following is the most dependent part in a sitting female?
(a) Hepatorenal pouch

(b) Paracolic gutter
(c) Pouch of douglas
(d) Recto-uterine pouch
Ans. (c) Pouch of douglas
OPHTHALMOLOGY
126. A tumor in the anterior pituitary causing prerssure over optic chiasma will present as?
(a) Homonymous hemianopia

(b) Bitemporal hemianopia
(c) Heteronymous hemianopia with central sparing
(d) Monocular vision loss
Ans. (b) Bi-temporal Hemianopia
127. Instrument shown in the Image is used for which of the following clinical condition?
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(a) Instrument for Entropion

(b) Instrument for Ectropion
(c) Instrument for Chalazion
(d) Instrument for Bitot spot
Ans. (c) Instrument for chalazion
128. Corneal transparency is maintained by?
(a) Chondratin sulphate

(b) Keratin sulphate
(c) Hyaluronic acid
(d) Dermatan sulphate
Ans. (b) Keratin sulphate
129. 5-year-old suffering with chronic epiphora has appeared in the clinic. What is the next step of management?
(a) Laryngeal probing and massaging

(b) Dacrocystorhinostomy
(c) Tarsal plate fracture
(d) Lacrimal sac massage
Ans. (b) Dacryocystorhinostomy
130. Beta Blocker is good in all the below conditions except?
(a) Glaucoma
(b) Hypertension
(c)
(d)
Ans. ()
131. Patient wearing lens since 2 years started having redness and decreased vision. What could be the
cause?
(a) Bacterial corneal ulcer

(b) Giant cell papillary
(c) Fungal keratitis
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(d) Conjunctivitis
Ans. ()
(a) Chronic melanoma

(b) Retinoblastoma
(c) HSV keratitis
(d) Geographic ulcer
Ans. (b) Retinoblastoma
133. Raised IOP and decreased vision presents to OPD. What could be the condition?
Ans. Iridectomy
134. A patient comes to OPD with decreased vision in his left eye and opacification of cornea. On history taking, he
told that he had undergone cataract surgery 6 years back. What is the next line of management in this case?
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(a) Keratoplasty
(b) Keratotomy
(c) ________
(d) ________
Ans. ()
135. A patient presented with anterior uveitis in OPD. Which of the following can be associated with his
condition?
(a) HLA B5
(b) HLA B27
(c) HLA B7
(d) HLA DR4
Ans. (b) HLA B27
136. A patient with miosis, anhydrosis and mild drooping of eyelid is presented to the clinic. What is the suspected
diagnosis?
(a) III cranial nerve palsy

(b) Horners syndrome
(c) VI cranial nerve palsy
(d) IV cranial nerve palsy
Ans. (b) Horner syndrome
137. What is not correct regarding following Image?
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(a) Occurs more commonly in warm areas

(b) This structure is attached to cornea
(c) It causes myopia
(d) Iron deposition is found
Ans. (c) It causes myopia
138. A 15-year-old boy presents to clinic with difficulty in coordination of movements and abdominal pain. On
further examination copper deposition in a ring form is seen in cornea. Most likely diagnosis?
(a) Keratitis
(b) Munson sign
(c) Wilson’s disease
(d) Neuroblastoma
Ans. (c) Wilson’s disease
ORTHOPEDICS
139. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive tumor?
(a) Seminoma
(b) Ewing’s sarcoma
(c) Osteosarcoma
(d) Chondrosarcoma
Ans. (b) Ewing’s sarcoma
140. A patient comes after 4 months of injury. After seeing the x-ray what is the probable
diagnosis?
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(a) Tibial fracture

(b) Patellar fracture
(c) Free flowing object in the patella
(d) Femur fracture
Ans. ()
(a) Osteosarcoma
(b) Chondrosarcoma
(c) Chondroblastoma
(d) Ewing’s sarcoma
Ans. (b) Chondrosarcoma
142. Identify the given Image?
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(a) Taylor Brace Splint

(b) Milwaukee Brace
(c) Scoliosis Brace
(d) Boston brace
Ans. (a) Taylor Brace Splint
(a) Galeazzi fracture

(b) Monteggia deformities
(c) Monteggia fracture
(d) Green stick fracture
Ans. (a) Galeazzi fracture
PATHOLOGY
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144. A 55-year-old diabetic patient has chronic renal failure and is undergoing hemodialysis. What is the
associated amyloidosis?
(a) AL
(b) AA
(c) Beta 2 microglobulin
(d) ATTR
Ans. Beta 2 micro globulin
145. A person develops pruritic rashes every time on eating sea food within one hour. Which type of
hypersensitivity is this?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Ans. (a) I
146. A nurse got needle prick injury from a HIV positive patient while doing blood sampling. Which test
would be the confirmatory test to rule out the infection?
(a) ELISA
(b) P24 assay
(c) Western blot
(d) Blood culture
Ans. (b) P24 assay
147. A patient comes for organ transplantation. He has a twin brother who is a match donor for
him. Which type of grafting it would be considered as?
(a) Isograft
(b) Allograft
(c) Autograft
(d) Xenograft
Ans. (a) Isograft
152. A 83-year-old female suffered with heart disease and with cardiac atrophy. On H/E, perinuclear brown
colored deposits were seen. What could be the pigment responsible for this?
(a) Hemosiderin
(b) Melanin
(c) Lipofuscin
(d) Iron
Ans. (c) Lipofuscin
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153. A child presents to OPD with complaints of fatigue. On further examination anemia and
hepatosplenomegaly are seen. His peripheral blood smear is shown in the given Image. What is the
diagnosis?
(a) Thalassemia major

(b) PNH
(c) AOCD
(d) Sickle cell anemia
Ans. Thalassemia → Image shows Target cells
154. The Image below shows origin from which of the following cells?
(a) B cells
(b) CD4 T cell
(c) NK cell
(d) CD8 T cell
Ans. (a) B cell
155. Identify the Image and diagnose accordingly?
(a) IDA
(b) Thalassemia major
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(c) Myelodysplastic syndrome

(d) Myelofibrosis
Ans. (d) Myelofibrosis
156. Owl eye inclusions are seen in?
(a) HSV
(b) HHV
(c) EBV
(d) CMV
Ans. (d) CMV
157. A 50-year-old man presented with gum bleeding. Peripheral smear shows marked leukocytosis with 70% cells
showing MPO positivity. What could be the diagnosis?
(a) AML
(b) ALL
(c) CML
(d) CLL
Ans. (a) AML
158. Protein in Alzheimer’s?
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(a) Apo C17

(b) Tau protein
(c) Keratin
(d) Collagen
Ans. Tau protein
PEDIATRICS
159. A 5-year-old child of 17 kg weight with diarrhea and unable to take the feed. What is the amount of
maintenance fluid required in 24 hours?
(a) 1000 ml
(b) 1700 ml
(c) 1350 ml
(d) 2000 ml
Ans. (c) 1350 ml
160. A mother with the new born is worried for her child as the newborn hasn’t passed the meconium till 6 hours of
birth. How much time should she wait for the meconium to pass out?
(a) 48 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 12 hours
(d) 72 hours
Ans. (a) 48 hours
161. A boy presents with hemarthrosis of left knee after a history of fall. Deficiency of which factor can
lead to the following condition?
(a) Von-willebrand disease

(b) Vitamin K deficiency
(c) Thrombocytopenia
(d) Factor VIII deficiency
Ans. (d) Factor VIII deficiency
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162. A mother complains that her child has diarrhea with repetitive changing of diapers. Urine leaking but
child is constipated and has abdominal pain. What could be the diagnosis?
(a) Psychological polydipsia

(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) SIADH
(d) Cerebral salt wasting syndrome
Ans. ()
PHARMACOLOGY
163. Which of the following is a SERM?
(a) Ethyl estradiole

(b) Tamoxifene
(c) Anastrozole
(d) Mifepristone
Ans. (b) Tamoxifene
164. Which among the following is a monoclonal antibody used for treatment of cancer?
(a) Cisplatin
(b) Rituximab
(c) Vincristine
(d) Cyclophosphamide
Ans. (b) Rituximab
165. Find out the best treatment for the given condition?
(a) Valcyclovir
(b) Imipenam
(c) Carbapenam
(d) Penicillin
Ans. (a) Valcyclovir
166. Not an early complication of cancer:
(a) Loss of appetite
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(b) Blood loss from normal fissures

(c) ______
(d) Change of bowel movement or habits
Ans. ()
167. A patient was taking Theophylline for Bronchial asthma. After starting another drug, symptoms of theophylline
toxicity started appearing. Which is the likely drug to cause theophylline toxicity?
(a) Rifampicin
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Valproate
(d) Phenobarbitone
Ans. (b) Erythromycin
168. Antidote used for heparin toxicity?
(a) Vitamin K
(b) Protamine sulphate
(c) Ascorbic acid
(d) N acetylcysteine
Ans. (b) Protamine sulphate
169. A 65-year-old patient presented with dribbling of urine with urgency. He was started on prazosin therapy, but
started developing postural hypotension. Which of the following is the better alternative drug for this patient?
(a) Tamsulosin
(b) Phenoxybenzamine
(c) Terazosin
(d) Timolol
Ans. (a) Tamsulosin
170. A patient presented with hospital acquired pneumonia. On testing he was found to be allergic to
Penicillin G. Which of the following drug is likely to be safe in this patient?
(a) Methicillin
(b) Cefotitan
(c) Imipenam
(d) Aztreonam
Ans. (d) Aztreonam
171. A new drug is introduced in the market after which phase of clinical trial?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Ans. (c) III
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172. Ibuprofen may increase serum uric acid. What is the mechanism for this action?
(a) Inhibit reabsorption of uric acid

(b) Increase production of uric acid
(c) Activation of COX
(d) Inhibit the secretion of uric acid
Ans. (a) Inhibit reabsorption of uric acid
173. A mother is suspected to have a prematured delivery. Which of the following drug could be helpful to attain
the lung maturity before birth?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Dexamethasone
(c) MgSO4
(d) NSAID
Ans. (b) Dexamethasone
174. All of the following conditions get worsened after timolol maleate 0.5% administration except?
(a) Bronchial asthma

(b) Hypertension
(c) Depression
(d) Diabetes/Glaucoma
Ans. (b) HTN
175. Which anti-tussive should not be prescribed for the patients who are driving?
(a) Codeine
(b) Ambroxol
(c) Diphenhydramine
(d) Hydrocodone
Ans. (c) Diphenhydramine
176. A patient presented with shock in emergency. Which drug you would be giving after stabilizing the
patient?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Dobutamine
(c) Adenosine
(d) Isoprenaline
Ans. (a) Adrenaline
177. Which of the following drugs is used for acute attack of Bronchial asthma?
(a) Salbutamol I/H

(b) Salbutamol I/V
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(c) Salmeterol I/H

(d) Salmeterol I/V
Ans. ()
PHYSIOLOGY
178. Identify the movement taking place in the Intestine?
(a) Segmented movement

(b) Peristaltic movement
(c) Passive diffusion
(d) Intersegmental contraction
Ans. (b) Peristaltic movement
179. A patient after trauma came to the ER. On neurological examination, he was found to have normal
handwriting, skills but could not speak. Where could be the lesion for his clinical condition?
(a) Wernicke’s area

(b) Temporal area
(c) Broca’s speech area
(d) Primary motor cortex
Ans. (c) Broca’s speech area
180. Pressure – volume graph given and asked to find out A accordingly:
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(a) Aortic valve closing

(b) Aortic valve opening
(c) Mitral valve opening
(d) Mitral valve closing
Ans. (b) Aortic valve opening
181. Which part of nephron does water reabsorption takes place more:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans. (c) C
182. Inhibition of Na+-K+ ion channel results in which of the following?
(a) First depolarize and then hyperpolarize

(b) Hyperpolarisation
(c) Depolarisation
(d) Repolarisation
Ans. (c) Depolarisation
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PSM
(a) Suraksha clinic

(b) First aid centre
(c) Red cross emblem
(d) Private practitioner
Ans. (a) Suraksha Clinic
184. You are a medical officer in a hospital and you have to check whetehr the ANM who has newly joined the
hospital has adequate knowledge of biomedical waste management. She is carrying vaccines, vials and tiffin box
in her hand. How can you judge if she is disposing correctly?
(a) Food item is put in white transparent box

(b) A vaccine wrapper/stripper of vial is put in blue bag
(c) Syringe with needle disposed in White bag
(d) Dispose wherever you want
Ans. (c)Syringe with needle disposed in a White bag
185. Blood smear for malaria will be collected by?
(a) Multipurpose worker male

(b) Multipurpose worker female
(c) ANM
(d) ASHA
Ans. (a) Multipurpose worker male
186. For how much population one ASHA worker is appointed?
(a) 5000
(b) 10,000
(c) 2000
(d) 1000
Ans. (d) 1000 population
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187. In an area of where live births were 4000, deaths within 1-7 days were 40, deaths within 7-28 days
were also 40 and stillbirths were 40. Calculate Neonatal mortality rate?
(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 20
(d) 80
Ans. (c) 20
188. A group of patients were observed by measuring blood pressure before and after treatment. Which
kind of statistical test of significance will be used to measure blood group in a group of patients before
and after treatment?
(a) Chisquare test

(b) Paired t test
(c) Unpaired t test
(d) Fisher test
Ans. (b) paired t test
189. A TB patient took leave for 3 months. According to ESI which form of leave is he eligible for?
(a) Extended benefit

(b) Disability benefit
(c) Sickness benefit
(d) Medical benefit
Ans. (c) Sickness benefit
190. Male patient with urethral discharge presents to STD clinic. Which STD kit he should be provided with?
(a) Grey kit

(b) Green kit
(c) Blue kit
(d) Red kit
Ans. (a) Grey kit
191. Which one of the following state or UT is free from Rabies?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Island

(b) Sikkim
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Kerala
Ans. (a) Andaman and Nicobar Island
192. In a subcentre of 4000 Population, CBR is 25. What is the minimum expected number of
pregnancies?
(a) 145
(b) 110
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(c) 125
(d) 138
Ans. (b) 110
193. Sample registration include all except:
(a) IMR
(b) NMR
(c) MMR
(d) CBR
Ans. (c) MMR
194. Non-communicable diseases under WHO?
(a) CVD, Bronchial asthma, Diabetes, HTN

(b) Diabetes and CVD
(c) Cancer and Bronchial asthma
(d) Cancer and cvd
Ans. (a) CVD, Bronchial asthma, Diabetes, HTN
195. Niti ayog is replaced by:
(a) Planning commission

(b) NIHFW
(c) NBE
(d) Director general of health services
Ans. (a) Planning commission
196. Urban heart?
(a) Urban health equity assessment response tool

(b) Urban health equity assessment reactive tool
(c) ______________
(d) ______________
Ans. (a) Urban health equity assessment response tool
197. Zika virus is transmitted by:
(a) Aedes
(b) Culex
(c) Anopheles
(d) Mansonia
Ans. (a) Aedes mosquito
198. Prevalence is influenced by:

(a) Positive predictive value
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(b) Negative predictive value

(c) Sensitivity
(d) Specificity
Ans. (a) positive predictive value
199. Lead time refers to:

(a) First possible time of detection and first critical diagnosis
(b) Disease onset and first possible point of detection
(c) Disease onset and first critical diagnosis
(d) First point of detection and usual time of detection
Ans. (d) First point of detection and usual time of detection
200. It was noticed that children of separated parents are more addicted to drugs as compared to children
with normal parents. A study reported that chances of addiction among separated parents is higher as
compared to non separated parents. This study design is called as:
(a) Cohort studies

(b) Case control study
(c) RCT
(d) Prospective studies
Ans. (b) Case control study
201. Which organism is responsible for conducting maximum surveys in india?
(a) Indian survey institute

(b) Central commission
(c) National sample survey organization
(d) AIIMS
Ans. (c) National sample survey organisation
202. Which fertility indicator includes mortality?
(a) TFR
(b) CBR
(c) GRR
(d) NRR
Ans. (d) NRR
PSYCHIATRY
203. A patient with IQ – 55 comes under which category of mental retardation?
(a) Mild MR
(b) Moderate MR
(c) Severe MR
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(d) Profound MR
Ans. (a) Mild MR
204. A person with anxiety has a feeling that his parents will die one day and he will have sleepless nights. Which
of the following disorder describes his condition?
(a) Generalised anxiety

(b) Severe depression
(c) PTSD
(d) Adjustment disorder
Ans. (a) Generalised anxiety
205. A patient with 6 episodes of depression, hyper-mania, hypomania in a year with recovery phase in between. ,
which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis?
(a) Severe depression

(b) Cyclic dysthymia
(c) Rapid cycling Bipolar disorder
(d) Mania
Ans: (c) Rapid cycling Bipolar disorder
206. A patient after getting operated for appendicitis developed confusion and hallucinations. His wife informed that
he takes alcohol occasionally. What could be the most probable cause for his condition?
(a) Delirium
(b) Alcohol hallucinosis
(c) Acute transient psychotic disorder
(d) Mania
Ans. (a) Delirium
207. A child with mathematical skills and learning skills are appropriate to his age. He passed the exams
with poor marks. What could be the probable diagnosis?
(a) Exam phobia

(b) Specific learning disorder
(c) ADHD
(d) Asperger’s syndrome
Ans. (b) Specific learning disorder
RADIOLOGY
208. Thickness of Lead Apron?
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.3
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Ans. (c) 0.5
209. A female visits OPD with her 6-week child presenting with vomiting and abdominal pain. X-ray of the infant
shows?
(a) Jejunal atresia

(b) Diaphragmatic hernia
(c) Duodenal atresia
(d) Pyloric stenosis
Ans. (c) Duodenal Atresia → Image shows Double Bubble Sign
210. A two-weeks child brought to the emergency room by her mother with the symptoms of non-bilious vomiting
and lump in the epigastric area. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
(a) Congenital pyloric stenosis

(b) Jejunal atresia
(c) Duodenal atresia
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(d) Esophageal atresia
Ans. (a) Congenital pyloric stenosis
211. Identify the structure marked in the given Image?
(a) Thalamus
(b) Caudate nucleus
(c) Lentiform nucleus
(d) Internal capsule
Ans. (c) Lentiform nucleus
212. Patient comes to emergency room with vomiting and colicky abdomen pain. On investigation following Image
is obtained. Likely diagnosis is?
(a) Ectopic kidney

(b) Horse-shoe kidney
(c) Pan cake kidney
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(d) Cross fused kidney
Ans. (b) Horse-shoe kidney
213. A patient presents with hard palpable gall bladder with pain in right hypochondrium. On performing USG
following Image was seen. What could be the diagnosis?
(a) Multiple gall stones

(b) Choledocolithiasis
(c) Hydatid cyst
(d) Gall bladder cancer
Ans. (a) Multiple gall stones
214. Which arterial territory is involved on the CT scan Image of a patient with Infarct?
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(a) Complete MCA

(b) PCA
(c) ACA
(d) Posterior communicating artery
Ans. (a) Complete MCA
Ans. Egg shell calcification
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(a) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

(b) Perthes disease
(c) Myositis ossificans
(d) Meyer’s dysplasia
Ans. (b) Perthes disease
217. Identify the disease shown in the Image?
(a) Scurvy
(b) Rickets
(c) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
(d) Achondroplasia
Ans. (b) Rickets
218. A 6-day-old neonate with respiratory distress showed the following findings on the chest
X-ray. What is the diagnosis?
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(a) Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation

(b) Bronchogenic cysts
(c) Hyaline membrane disease
(d) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
Ans. (d) Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
219. A patient presenting with breathlessness and pedal edema gives a history of MI few years back. A chest
radiograph is taken and shown below. Likely diagnosis is?
(a) Pericardial effusion

(b) Constrictive pericarditis
(c) Cardiac tamponade
(d) Dilated cardiomyopathy
Ans. (a) Pericardial effusion
220. A patient of NPC presented with the following finding as shown below. Which of the following sign is
marked by the arrow?
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(a) Griesenger sign

(b) Phelp sign
(c) Holman miller sign
(d) DODD sign
Ans. (c) Holman miller sign
221. Identify the diagnosis on Imaging as shown below?
(a) Incomplete mole

(b) Hydatidiform mole
(c) Retained products of conception
(d) PCOD
Ans. (b) Hydatidiform mole
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(a) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

(b) Ovarian cyst
(c) PCOS
(d) Endometriosis
Ans. (c) PCOS
223. What can be the diagnosis for the given Image?
(a) Iliac crest fracture

(b) Foreign body
(c) Ureterocele
(d) Bladder stone
Ans. (b) Foreign body
224. A cattle handler from a village with cough, hemoptysis and chest pain underwent a chest radiograph
and is shown below. What is the probable diagnosis?
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(a) Hydatid cyst

(b) Anthrax
(c) Byssinosis
(d) Abscess/Aspergillosis
Ans. (a) Hydatid cyst
225. A patient with history of TB and prolonged back pain. Diagnosis?
(a) Psoas abscess

(b) Perthes disease
(c) Inguinal hernia
(d) Ureterocele
Ans. (a) Psoas abscess
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SURGERY
226. A patient presents with the following condition as shown below. What could this be?
(a) Arterial ulcer

(b) Venous ulcer
(c) Neuropathic ulcer
(d) Pressure ulcer
Ans. (b) Venous Ulcer
227. A man presented with vomiting, nausea and fever. He was admitted for appendectomy after diagnosing
appendicitis. During surgery, Surgeons found an incidental finding as shown below which was present at a
distance of 2 feet from ileocecal junction. What is this most likely to be?
(a) Intussuception
(b) Intestinal obstruction
(c) Meckel’s diverticulum
(d) Diverticulitis
Ans. Meckel’s Diverticulum
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228. A female after cold exposure developed following condition of finger tips as seen in the Image. What
could be the condition?
(a) Medium vessel vasculitis

(b) Buerger’s disease
(c) Scleroderma
(d) APLA syndrome
Ans. (b) Buerger’s disease
229. Dohlman’s procedure is used for?
(a) Cricoid webs

(b) Pharyngeal pouches
(c) Achalasia cardia
(d) Diffuse esophageal spasm
Ans. (b) Pharyngeal pouches
230. Identify the Instrument shown in the Image?
(a) Allis forceps

(b) Sponge holder
(c) Babcock forceps
(d) Retractor
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Ans. (c) Babcock forceps
a. Colostomy
b. Loop ileostomy
c. Ascending colostomy
Ans. Loop Ileostomy
232. A player injured with ball and suddenly lost conscious. When one of the team mate comes for helping, he gets
up by himself and starts playing. During tea break the person was again unconscious while his friend saw him.
Immediately he has been rushed to the hospital. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) EDH
(b) SDH
(c) SAH
(d) Intracerebral hemorrhage
Ans. (a) EDH
233. A patient after RTA presented to emergency and following procedure is done to maintain the airway. Identify
the procedure shown in the below Image?
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(a) Intubation
(b) Tracheostomy
(c) Thoracotomy
(d) Radical neck dissection
Ans. (b) Tracheostomy
(a) Phallens sign

(b) Tinel’s sign
(c) Prayer sign
(d) Finkelstein sign
Ans. (c) Prayer sign
235. A woman presented with the following lesion through which purulent discharge was coming
out. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(a) Hydradenitis suppurativa

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(b) Tuberculous lymphadenitis

(c) Branchial cyst
(d) Cystic hygroma
Ans. (b)Tuberculosis Lymphadenitis
(a) Fibroadenoma
(b) Phyllodes tumor
(c) Ductal carcinoma
(d) Ductal papilloma
Ans. (b) Phyllodes Tumor
237. A bed ridden patient developed fever, pain and pedal edema which is related to?
(a) Cellulitis
(b) DVT
(c) _________
(d) _________
Ans. ()
238. A patient presented with long standing pain in the anal region. O/E the finding shown is given below.
What is the most important thing to look for on per rectum examination of this patient?
(a) Internal os of the fistula

(b) Internal hemorrhoids
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(c) Anorectal fistula

(d) Perianal abscess
Ans. ()
239. A 5-year-old child presents with the swelling shown below which keeps on increasing in size. What
should be the appropriate management for this condition?
(a) Intra lesional steroids

(b) Excision
(c) Reassurance
(d) Conservative
Ans. (b) Excision
240. A 20-year-old female presents with mobile 2-3 cm lump in her left breast. Lymph nodes were not
involved. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Ductal carcinoma in situ

(b) Fibroadenoma
(c) Duct papilloma
(d) Paget’s disease
Ans. (b) Fibroadenoma
241. A surgical inscion was made over the patient’s chest and after sometime he comes with the shown
scar. What is the diagnosis?
(a) Keloid
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(b) Hypertrophic scar

(c) Contracture
(d) Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans
Ans. (a) Keloid
242. A patient presents with following swelling on standing which tends to reduce when he lies down. What
could be the probable diagnosis?
(a) Para umbilical hernia

(b) Umbilical hernia
(c) Inguinal hernia
(d) Omphalocele
Ans. (a) Paraumbilical hernia
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ARISE

+91 76809 29292

1. Identify the nerve marked below?

(a) Radial nerve

Ans. (c) Ulnar Nerve

2. Physiological constrictions of esophagus are all except?

(a) Arch of Aorta

Ans. (c) Position of thyroid

3. Which muscle attachment is seen at the marked structure?

(a) Gluteus maximus

Ans. (c) iliopsoas

(a) Dorsal scapular nerve

Ans. (b) Long thoracic nerve

5. Identify the arrow marked tarsal bone in the given Image?

Ans. (c) Navicular bone

6. Identify the tendon shown below?

(a) Flexor digitorum superficialis

Ans. (d) Flexor Carpi Radialis

7. Which cartilage does the marked structure belong to?

Ans. (c) Secondary cartilaginous joint

(a) Deep peroneal nerve

Ans. (b) Superficial peroneal nerve

Ans. (a) Omphalocele

11. Structure marked in the Image will end in?

(a) Junction of left jugular vein and subclavian vein

Ans. (a) Junction of left jugular vein and subclavian vein

Ans. (b) Propofol

Ans. (a) Ketamine

Ans. (b) Orange

Ans. (d) High PCO2 in venous blood

16. Local anesthetic agent works by which of the following mechanism?

17. Enzyme deficiency in von gierke’s disease?

Ans. (a) Glucose-6-phosphatase

18. On centrifugation LDH gets deposited in?

Ans. (c) Cytoplasm

Ans. (b) Niacin deficiency

20. Complex IV of ETC is inhibited by?

Ans. (c) Cyanide

Ans. (a) Alkaptonuria

22. Which of the following is not a micronutrient?

Ans. (c) Calcium

23. Reverse transcriptase is used in?

(a) RNA amplification

Ans. (a) RNA amplification

Ans. (b) Urea

(a) Verrucous vulgaris

Ans. (b) Elephantiasis

(a) Subungual keratosis

Ans. (a) Subungual keratosis

(a) Sequestration dermoid

28. Identify the Image shown below?

Ans. (a) Carbuncle

(a) Secondary Syphilis

Ans. (a) Secondary Syphilis

30. Identify the Image?

(a) Leshmania cutanea

Ans. (b) Lepromatus leprosy

Ans. (b) Fixed drug eruption

33. Which sign is shown in the given picture?

(a) Auspitz sign