Periodic Classification of Elements: Chapter-5

CHAPTER-5
Periodic Classification of Elements
Pg. No. 81
Q.1 Did Dobereiner's triads also exist in the columns of Newland's Octaves?
Compare and find out.
A.1 Yes, it exists in the Newland's octave. It is Li, Na and K.
Q.2 What were the limitations of Dobereiner's classification?
A.2 The limitation of Dobereiner's classification :
Dobereiner could identify only three triads from the elements and all the known
elements could not be classified into groups of triads on the basis of their properties.
Q.3 What were the limitations of Newlands Law of Octaves?
A.3 • Newlands’ law was applicable only up to calcium, after Ca, every eighth element
did not possess properties similar to first.
• New elements discovered did not fit into the law.
• Wrong order of arrangement of elements was done, e.g. Co and Ni do not
resemble halogen were found together in same slot, Fe being similar to Co and Ni
was separated and kept in different slot.
Pg. No. 85
Q.1 Use Mendeleev's Periodic Table to predict the formulae for the oxides of the
following elements:
K, C, Al, Si, Ba
A.1
.
Q.2 Besides gallium, which other elements have since been discovered that were left
by Mendeleev in his Periodic Table? (any two)
A.2 Besides gallium, germanium and scandium have been discovered
Q.3 What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table?
A.3 (i) Increasing order of atomic mass of the elements.
CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements Page 1 of 5

(ii) All elements in a group with similar properties.
(iii) The formula of oxides and hydrides formed by an element.
Q.4 Why do you think noble gases are placed in a separate group?
A.4 Noble gases are inactive, do not resemble other elements and all of them show same
properties, hence they are grouped separately.
Pg.No.90
Q.1 How could the Modern Periodic Table remove various anomalies of
Mendeleev's Periodic Table?
A.1 Modern Periodic Table is based on the atomic number of elements, therefore
(i) problem of isotopes was solved because isotopes have same atomic number
(ii) wrong order of K, Co, Ni was removed.
(iii) In the Modern Periodic table elements are arranged in the increasing order of
their atomic number, removing the anomaly regarding certain pairs of elements in
Mendeleev’s periodic table.
Q.2 Name two elements you would expect to show chemical reactions similar to
magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?
A.2 Calcium and barium.
Reason: (i) Both of them belong to same group as magnesium.
(ii) Ba and Ca has same valence electrons as Mg, and will show same
properties as of magnesium.
Q.3 Name:
(a) Three elements that have a single electron in their outermost shells.
(b) Two elements that have two electrons in their outermost shells.
(c) Three elements with filled outermost shells.
A.3
Q.4 (a) Lithium, sodium, potassium are all metals that react with water to liberate
hydrogen gas. Is there any similarity in the atoms of these elements?
(b) Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity.
What, if anything, do their atoms have in common?
A.4 (a) All these metals are highly reactive, they have same valence electrons i.e. 1 and
can readily loose electrons to become positive ions.
(b) Helium and neon have completely filled outermost shell.

Q.5 In the Modem Periodic Table, which are the metals among the first ten
elements.
A.5 Lithium and beryllium are metals.
Q.6 By considering their position in the Periodic Table, which one of the following
elements would you expect to have maximum metallic characteristics?
Ga, Ge, s, Se, Be
A.6 Among the given elements Be will show maximum metallic characteristics as it
belongs to extreme left of the Periodic Table.
Pg.No.91
Q.1 Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends
when going from, left to right across the periods of the Periodic Table?
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
(b) The number of valence electrons increases.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily,
(d) The aides become more acidic.
A.1 (c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
Q.2 Element forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with a high
melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table
as:
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) Al (d) Si
A.2 (b) Mg.
Q.3 Which element has
(a) two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?
(b) the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2?
(c) a total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell?
(d) a total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell?
(e) twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first shell?
A.3 (a) Ne (2, 8)
(b) Mg (2, 8, 2)
(c) Si (2, 8, 4)
(d) B (2, 3)
(e) C (2, 4)
Q.4 (a) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as
boron have in common?

(b) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as
fluorine have in common?
A.4 (a) All other elements have same valence electrons and their valency is 3.
(b) All are non-metals, they have same valence electrons i.e., 7 and their valency is
1, all of them gain electrons to form negative ions.
Q.5 An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7.
(a) What is the atomic number of this element?
(b) To which of the following elements would it be chemically similar?
(Atomic numbers are given in parentheses)
N(7) F(9) P(15) Ar (18)
A.5 (a) The atomic number of the element is 17.
(b) F (9) (2, 7) will be chemically similar to the given element.
Q.6 The position of three elements A, B and C in the Per iodic Table are shown
below:
(a) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.

(b) State whether Cis more reactive or less reactive than A.
(c) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B?
(d) Which type of ion, cation or anion, will be formed by element A?
A.6 (a) ‘A’ is non-metal.
(b) 'C' is less reactive than ‘A’
(c) 'C' is smaller in size than ‘B'
(d) ‘A’ will form an anion as it accepts an electron to complete its octate.
Q.7 Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorous (atomic number 15) belong to
group 15 of the Periodic Table. Write the electronic configuration of the two
elements. Which of the will be more electronegative? Why?
A.7 Nitrogen atomic number 7 → 2, 5
Phosphorus atomic number 15 → 2, 8, 5
Nitrogen with two shells will be more electronegative because it can easily gain
electron due to its smaller size of atom, the nuclear charge attracts the electron easily
to become negative ion.

Q.8 How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the
Modern Periodic Table?
A.8 The position of element depends upon its electronic configuration. The number of
shells is equal to the period number. The valence electrons decides the group number
in which it will be, elements with 1 valence electrons belong to group 1.
Elements with 2 valence electrons belong to group 2.
Q.9 In the Modern Periodic Table, calcium (atomic number 20) is surrounded by
elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these have physical
and chemical properties resembling calcium.
A.9 Ca atomic number — 20
Electronic configuration — 2, 8, 8, 2
Elements with atomic number 12 → 2, 8, 2
and atomic number 38 → 2, 8, 18, 8, 2
The element with atomic number 12 will resemble calcium as they all have same
valence electrons and their chemical properties are also same.
Q.10 Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in Mendeleev’s, Periodic

Table and the Modern Periodic table.
A.10
Ans.

Chapter 13 - Magnetic Effects of Current
Exercise (pg- 224)

Q.1 Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
(not to be done in notebook)
Ans: A compass needle is a small bar magnet. When it is brought near a bar magnet, its
magnetic field lines interact with that of the bar magnet. Hence, a compass needle shows
a deflection when brought near a bar magnet.
Exercise (pg-228)
Q.1 Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
Ans: Magnetic field lines of a bar magnet emerge from the North Pole and terminate at
the South Pole. Inside the magnet, the field lines emerge from the South Pole and
terminate at the North Pole, as shown in the given figure.
Q.2 List the properties of magnetic lines of force.

Ans: The properties of magnetic lines of force are as follows.
1. Outside a magnet, magnetic field lines are directed from North Pole to South Pole.
2. The direction of field lines inside the magnet is from the South Pole to the North Pole.
3. Magnetic lines do not intersect with each other.
4. Magnetic lines of force are crowded near the poles of a magnet but they are widely
separated at other places.
Q.3: Why don’t two magnetic lines of force intersect each other?
Ans: If two field lines of a magnet intersect, then at the point of intersection, there would
be two directions of magnetic field. This is not possible. Hence, two field lines do not
intersect each other.
Exercise (pg-229)
Q.1 Consider a circular loop of wire lying in a plane of the table. Let the current
pass through the loop clockwise. Apply the right – hand rule to find out the
direction of the magnetic field inside and outside the loop.
Ans: Applying right hand thumb rule to the loop:
● For the right side of the circular loop, the direction of magnetic field lines will be
as if they are emerging from the table outside the loop and merging in the table
inside the loop.
● Similarly, for the left side of the circular loop, the direction of magnetic field lines
will be as if they are emerging from the table outside the loop and merging in the
table inside the loop, as shown in the given figure.
Q. 2 The magnetic field in the given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to represent
it. (Not to be done in notebook)
Ans:
Q. 3 Choose the correct option. (Not to be done in notebook)

The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current
(a) Is zero
(b) Decreases as we move towards its ends
(c) Increases as we move towards its ends
(d) Is same at all points
Ans: (d) Is same at all points
Exercise (pg- 231-232)
Q.1 Which of the following property of a proton can change while it moves freely
in a magnetic field? (there may be more than one correct answer) (Not to be done
in notebook)
(a) mass
(b) speed
(c) velocity
(d) momentum
Ans: (c) velocity and (d) momentum
Q.2 In activity 13.7, how do we think the displacement of the rod AB will be affected
if (i) current in the rod AB is increased? (ii) a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used;
and (iii) length of the rod AB is increased?
Ans:
Concept Insight: A force is experienced by a current-carrying conductor placed in a
magnetic field. The magnitude of force increases with the increase in the amount of
current, strength of the magnetic field, and the length of the conductor. Hence, the
magnetic force exerted on rod AB and its deflection will increase if
(i) current in rod AB is increased
(ii) a stronger horse-shoe magnet is used
(iii) length of rod AB is increased
Q.3 A positively charged particle (alpha-particle) projected towards west is

deflected towards north by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is:
(Not to be done in notebook)
(a) towards south
(b) towards east
(c) downward
(d) upward
Ans: (d) Upward
Exercise (pg- 233)

Q.1 State Fleming’s left-hand rule.
Ans: According to Fleming's left hand rule, if we arrange the thumb, the central finger,
and the forefinger of the left hand at right angles to each other and if the forefinger
points in the direction of magnetic field, the central finger points in the direction of
current, then the thumb points in the direction of motion or the force acting on the
conductor.
Q.2 What is the principle of electric motor?

Ans: The working principle of an electric motor is based on the magnetic effect of current.
A current-carrying loop experiences a force and rotates when placed in a magnetic field.
The direction of rotation of the loop is given by Fleming's left-hand rule.
Q.3 What is the role of split ring in an electric motor?
Ans: The split ring in the electric motor acts as a commutator. The commutator reverses
the direction of current flowing through the coil after each half rotation of the coil. Due to
this reversal of the current, the coil continues to rotate in the same direction.
(Exercise pg- 236)
Q.1 Explain different ways to induce current in a coil.

Ans: The different ways to induce current in a coil are as follows:
1. Induce current on a coil by moving the coil in a magnetic field.
2. Induce current on a coil by changing the magnetic field across it.
3. If a coil is moved rapidly between the two poles of a horse-shoe magnet, then an electric
current is induced in the coil.
Chapter 13 - Magnetic Effects of Current Exercise 240 (MCQs not to be done in

notebook)
➢ Solution 1 (d) The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire.
Concept Insight: The magnetic field lines, produced around a straight current-
carrying conductor, are concentric circles. Their centers lie on the wire.
➢ Solution 2 (c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion

between a magnet and the coil
Concept Insight: When a coil and a magnet are moved relative to each other, a
current is induced in the coil. This phenomenon is known as electromagnetic
induction.
➢ Solution
Two methods of producing magnetic field are as follows:
(a) By using current-carrying conductors
(b) By using permanent magnets
(c) By electromagnets
➢ Solution
A solenoid is a long coil of circular loops of insulated copper wire. Magnetic field is
produced around the solenoid when a current is allowed to flow through it. The magnetic
field produced by it is similar to the magnetic field of a bar magnet. The field lines
produced in a current-carrying solenoid is shown in the following figure.
In the above figure, when the North pole of a bar magnet is brought near the end
connected to the negative terminal of the battery, the solenoid repels the bar magnet.
Since like poles repel each other, the end connected to the negative terminal of the battery
behaves as the North Pole of the solenoid and the other end behaves as a South Pole.
Hence, one end of the solenoid behaves as a North Pole and the other end behaves as a
South Pole.
➢ Solution
The force experienced by a current-carrying conductor is the maximum when the
direction of current is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field.
➢ Solution
The direction of magnetic field is given by Fleming's left hand rule. Magnetic field inside
the chamber will be perpendicular to the direction of current (opposite to the direction
of electron) and direction of deflection/force i.e., either upward or downward. The
direction of current is from the front wall to the back wall because negatively charged
electrons are moving from back wall to the front wall. The direction of magnetic force is
rightward. Hence, using Fleming's left hand rule, it can be concluded that the direction of
magnetic field inside the chamber is downward.
➢ Solution
Concept Insight: An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
It works on the principle of the magnetic effect of current. A current-carrying coil rotates
in a magnetic field. The following figure shows a simple electric motor.
● When a current is allowed to flow through the coil MNST by closing the switch, the
coil starts rotating clockwise. This happens because an inward force acts on length
MN and at the same time, an outward force acts on length ST. As a result, the coil
rotates clockwise.
● Current in the length MN flows from M to N and the magnetic field acts from left
to right, normal to length MN. Therefore, according to Fleming’s left hand rule, an
inward force acts on the length MN. Similarly, current in the length ST flows from
S to T and the magnetic field acts from left to right, normal to the flow of current.
Therefore, an outward force acts on the length ST. These two forces cause the coil
to rotate clockwise.
● After half a rotation, the position of MN and ST interchange. The half-ring D comes
in contact with brush A and half-ring C comes in contact with brush B. Hence, the
direction of current in the coil MNST gets reversed.
● The current flows through the coil in the direction TSNM. The reversal of current
through the coil MNST repeats after each half rotation. As a result, the coil rotates
unidirectional. The split rings help to reverse the direction of current in the circuit.
These are called the commutator.
➢ Solution
Some devices in which electric motors are used are as follows:
(a) Water pumps
(b) Electric fans
(c) Electric mixers
(d) Washing machines.
➢ Solution
Concept Insight: A current induces in a coil if a bar magnet is moved relative to it. This
is the principle of electromagnetic induction.
● When a bar magnet is pushed into a coil of insulated copper wire, a current is
induced momentarily in the coil. As a result, the needle of the galvanometer
deflects momentarily in a particular direction.
● When the bar magnet is withdrawn from inside the coil of the insulated copper
wire, a current is again induced momentarily in the coil in the opposite direction.
As a result, the needle of the galvanometer deflects momentarily in the opposite
direction.
● When a bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil, no current will be induced in
the coil. Hence, galvanometer will show no deflection.
➢ Solution
Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. When the current in coil A is
changed, the magnetic field associated with it also changes. As a result, the magnetic field
around coil B also changes. This change in magnetic field lines around coil B induces an
electric current in it. This is called electromagnetic induction.
➢ Solution 8
(i) Right hand thumb rule
(ii) Fleming's left hand rule
(iii) Fleming's right hand rule
CHAPTER-4
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
Pg.No.61
Q.1 What would be the electron dot structure of carbon dioxide which has the formula
CO2?
Ans The electron dot structure of CO2 is:
(OR) O=C=O
Q.2 What would he the electron dot structure of a molecule of sulphur which is made
up of eight atoms of sulphur?
Ans
Pg.No.68
Q.1 How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane?
Ans Three structural isomers can be drawn from pentane.
Pentane: C5H12
Q.2 What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon
compounds we see around us?
CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 4 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS Page 1 of 3

Ans Carbon form large number of compounds due to the following properties:
(a) Catenation → Carbon shows the property of catenation that is the ability to form
bonds with other carbon atoms forming long chains both branched and unbranched
chains, and even rings.
(b) Tetravalency → Carbon has valency 4, it is capable of bonding with 4 other
carbon atoms or atoms of other non-covalent elements, giving rise to compounds with
specific properties depending on the elements present in the compound.
(c) Isomerism → Carbon compounds show the property of isomerism that is
compounds having same molecular formula but different structural formula.
Q.3 What would be the formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane?
Ans The formula of cyclopentane is C5H10.
The electron dot structure is:
Q.4 DELETED
Q.5 DELETED
Pg.No.71 DELETED
Pg.No.74 DELETED
Pg.No.76 DELETED
EXERCISE QUESTIONS (Pg.No.77)
Q.1 Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has
(a) 6 covalent bonds. (b) 7 covalent bonds.
(c) 8 covalent bonds. (d) 9 covalent bonds.
Ans (b) 7 covalent bonds.
Q.2 DELETED
Q.3 DELETED
Q.4 Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond formation in CH3Cl.
Ans Covalent bond is formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms. It is non-ionic
in nature in CH3Cl

Q.5 Draw the electron dot structure for
(a) Ethanoic acid (b) H2S.
(c) Propanone. (d) F2.
Ans The electron dot structure are as follows:
(a) Ethanoic acid - CH3COOH
Q.6 What is a homologous series? Explain with an example.

Ans Series of compounds in which the same functional group substitutes for hydrogen in a
carbon chain is called homologous series. It is a group of members of same class of
organic compound having similar chemical properties, they have same general formula.
They have same functional group, when arranged in the ascending order of molecular
mass they differ by 14 u. or -CH2 group.
Example: Alkane General formula CnH2n+2
Methane CH4
Ethane C2H6
Propane C3H8
Butane C4H10
Q.7 to Q. 13 DELETED
-----------------------------------------------------------

Chapter 12 – Electricity
Chapter 12 - Electricity Exercise 209
 Solution 1
The resistance of a conductor depends upon the following factors:
(a) Material of the conductor, i.e., resistivity of the material.
(b) Temperature of the conductor
(c) Length of the conductor
(d) Cross-sectional area of the conductor
 Solution 2
Concept Insight: Resistance of a wire is given by the relation, R=l/A
Where,
= Resistivity of the material of the wire
l = Length of the wire
A = Area of cross-section of the wire
Resistance is inversely proportional to the area of cross-section of the wire.
Thicker the wire, larger is its area of cross-section and hence lower is the resistance of
the wire. Therefore, current can flow more easily through a thick wire than a thin wire.
 Solution 3
Concept Insight: The current flowing through the component is given by Ohm's law.
V = IR
Or, I = V/R
Where,
Resistance of the electrical component = R
Potential difference = V
Current = I
The potential difference is reduced to half, keeping the resistance constant.
Let the new amount of current be I '.
Therefore, from Ohm's law, we obtain the amount of new current
Therefore, the amount of current flowing through the electrical component is reduced by
half.
 Solution 4
Concept Insight: Resistivity and melting point are two important factors here.
The resistivity of an alloy is higher than the pure metal. Moreover, at high temperatures,
the alloys do not melt readily. Hence, the coils of heating appliances such as electric
toasters and electric irons are made of an alloy rather than a pure metal.
 Solution 5
(a) Resistivity of iron = 10.0 x 10 ohm m
-8
Resistivity of mercury = 94.0 x 10 ohm m

-8
Resistivity of mercury is more than that of iron. This implies that iron is a
better conductor than mercury.
(b) It can be observed from the table that the resistivity of silver is the lowest among the listed
materials. Hence, it is the best conductor.
Concept Insight: Less resistivity means better conductance.
 Solution 1
Three cells of potential 2 V each connected in series, is equivalent to a battery of potential
2 V + 2 V + 2 V = 6V. The following circuit diagram shows three resistors of resistances 5
ohm, 8 ohm and 12 ohm respectively connected in series with a battery of potential 6 V
and a plug key.
Concept Insight: The voltages of cells in series add up to give the final voltage.
 Solution 2
 To measure the current flowing through the resistors, an ammeter should be connected
in the circuit in series with the resistors.
 To measure the potential difference across the 12 ohm resistor, a voltmeter should be
connected in parallel to this resistor, as shown in the following figure.
The resistances are connected in series.
Concept Insight: Ohm's law can be used to obtain the readings of ammeter and
voltmeter.
According to Ohm's law,
V = IR,
Where,
Potential difference, V = 6 V
Current flowing through the circuit/resistors = I
Resistance of the circuit, R = 5 + 8 + 12 = 25 ohm
I =V/R = 6/25 = 0.24 A
Potential difference across 12 ohm resistor = V I
Current flowing through the 12 ohm resistor, I = 0.24 A

Therefore, using Ohm's law, we obtain
V = IR = 0.24 x 12 = 2.88 V
1
Therefore, the reading of the ammeter will be 0.24 A.

The reading of the voltmeter will be 2.88 V.
 Solution 1
(a) When 1 ohm and 10 ohm are connected in parallel:
6
Concept Insight: For parallel combination, equivalent resistance R is given by

(1/R) = (1/R ) + (1/R )
1 2
Therefore, equivalent resistance ≈1 ohm

(b) When 1 ohm, 10 ohm and 10 ohm are connected in parallel:
3 6

(1/R) = (1/R ) + (1/R ) + (1/R ) ……+ (1/R )
1 2 3 n
Therefore, equivalent resistance = 0.999 ohm or 1 ohm
 Solution 2
Resistance of electric lamp, R = 100 ohm
1
Resistance of toaster, R = 50 ohm

2
Resistance of water filter, R = 500 ohm

3
Voltage of the source, V = 220 V

These are connected in parallel, as shown in the following figure.
(1/R) = (1/R ) + (1/R ) + (1/R )
1 2 3
According to Ohm's law,

V = IR
I = V/R
Where,
I = Current flowing through the circuit
7.04 A of current is drawn by all the three given appliances.

Therefore, current drawn by an electric iron connected to the same voltage source of
220 V = 7.04 A
Let R’ be the resistance of the electric iron. According to Ohm's law,
V = IR'
Therefore, the resistance of the electric iron is 31.25 Ω and the current flowing through
it is 7.04 A.
Solution 3
The advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel with the battery instead of
connecting them in series are:
1. In parallel circuit, if one electrical device stops working, then all other devices keep
working normally. This is not the case when devices are connected in series.
2. There is no division of voltage among the appliances when connected in parallel. The
potential difference across each appliance is equal to the supplied voltage. In series circuit,
the applied voltage is shared by all the appliances.
3. The total effective resistance of the circuit can be reduced by connecting electrical
appliances in parallel. In series combination, the total effective resistance of the circuit I
ncreases.
 Solution 4
There are three resistors of resistance 2 Ω, 3 Ω, and 6 Ω respectively.
(a) The following circuit diagram shows the connection of the three resistors to get a total
resistance of 4 Ω.
Concept Insight: Here, 6 Ω and 3 Ω resistors are connected in parallel.

Therefore, their equivalent resistance will be given by
This equivalent resistor of resistance 2 Ω is connected to a 2 Ω resistor in series.

Therefore, equivalent resistance of the circuit = 2 Ω + 2 Ω = 4 Ω
Hence, the total resistance of the circuit is 4 Ω.
(b) The following circuit diagram shows the connection of the three resistors to get a total
resistance of 1 Ω.
Concept Insight: All the resistors are connected in parallel. Therefore, their equivalent
resistance will be given as
Therefore, the total resistance of the circuit is 1 Ω.
 Solution 5
There are four coils of resistances 4 ohm, 8 ohm, 12 ohm, and 24 ohm respectively.
(a) Concept Insight: For getting the highest resistance from a combination of resistances,
connect them in series.
If these coils are connected in series, then the equivalent resistance will be the highest,
given by the sum 4 + 8 + 12 + 24 = 48 ohm.
Therefore, 48 ohm is the highest total resistance that can be secured by the combination
of given resistances.
(b) Concept Insight: For getting the lowest resistance from a combination of resistances,
connect them in parallel.
If these coils are connected in parallel, then the equivalent resistance will be the lowest,
given by
Therefore, 2 ohm is the lowest total resistance that can be secured by the combination of
given resistances.
 Solution 1
Concept Insight: The amount of heat produced in a conductor is proportional to its
resistance.
The resistance of the heating element of an electric heater is very high. As current flows
through the heating element, it becomes too hot and glows red. On the other hand, the
resistance of the cord of the heater is much lower, so it does not become very hot and
does not glow when current flows through it.
 Solution 2
Concept Insight: The amount of heat (H) produced is given by the Joule’s law of heating
as
H =VIt
Where,
Voltage, V = 50 V
Time, t = 1 h = 1 × 60 × 60 s
Amount of current, I = A
Therefore, the heat generated is 4.8 x 10 J.

6
 Solution 3
Concept Insight: The amount of heat (H) produced is given by the joule’s law of heating
as
H = VIt =I Rt
2
Where,
Current, I = 5 A
Resistance, R = 20 ohm
Time, t = 30 s
H = 5 x 20 x 30 = 1.5 x 10 J
2 4
Therefore, the amount of heat developed in the electric iron is 1.5 x 10 J.

4
 Solution 1
The rate of consumption of electric energy in an electric appliance is called electric power.
Hence, the rate at which energy is delivered by a current is the power of the appliance.
Concept Insight: Power of an appliance determines the rate at which electrical energy is
delivered to it.
 Solution 2
Concept Insight: Power of an appliance can be determined by the rate at which electrical
energy is delivered to it.
Power (P) is given by the expression,
P = VI
Where,
Voltage, V = 220 V
Current, I = 5 A
P = 220 × 5 = 1100 W
Energy consumed by the motor = P t
Where,
Time, t = 2 h = 2 × 60 × 60 = 7200 s
P = 1100 × 7200 = 7.92 × 10 J6
Therefore, power of the motor = 1100 W

Energy consumed by the motor = 7.92 × 10 J 6
Solution 1(d) 25
Resistance of a piece of wire is proportional to its length.
The given piece of wire has a resistance R. The wire is cut into five equal parts.
Therefore, resistance of each part= R/5
All the five parts are connected in parallel. Hence, equivalent resistance (R') is given as
Concept Insight: For parallel combination, equivalent resistance R' is given by
 Solution 2
Concept Insight: Power of an appliance determines the rate at which electrical energy
is delivered to it.
Electrical power is given by the expression, P = VI … (i)
According to Ohm's law, V = IR … (ii)
Where,
V = Potential difference
I = Current
R = Resistance
So, it can be written that
P = (IR) × I
 P=IR 2
From equation (ii), it can be written
Power P cannot be expressed as IR . 2
 Solution 3 (d) 25 W
Concept Insight: Power of an appliance determines the rate at which electrical energy
is delivered to it.
Power of an appliance is given by the expression,
P = VI =V /R
2
R=V /P
2
Where,
Power rating, P = 100 W
Voltage, V = 220 V
Resistance, R = (220×220)/100 = 484 ohm
The resistance of the bulb remains constant if the supply voltage is reduced to 110 V. If
the bulb is operated on 110 V, then the energy consumed by it is given by the expression
for power as
Therefore, the power consumed will be 25 W.
 Solution 4 (c) 1:4

Both the wires have the same resistance because they are made of the same material and
have equal lengths and diameters. Let the resistance be R.
For series combination, equivalent resistance R is
s
R = R + R = 2R
s
For parallel combination, equivalent resistance R is
p
Let the current through the series combination be I and heat produced in the circuit be
s
H.
s
Let the current through the parallel combination be I and heat produced in the circuit
p
be H .
p
Therefore, the ratio of heat produced in series and parallel combinations is 1:4.
 Solution 5
To measure the potential difference between two points, a voltmeter should be connected
in parallel across these points.
Concept Insight: Voltmeter is always connected in parallel to the element of any
electrical circuit across which potential difference is to be measured.
 Solution 6
Resistance (R) of the copper wire of length (l) and cross-section (A) is given by the
expression,
Where,
Resistivity of copper,
Area of cross-section of the wire,
Diameter = 0.5 mm = 0.0005 m

Resistance, R = 10 Ω
We know that,
Therefore, the length of the wire is 122.72 m.

So, if the diameter of the wire is doubled, the new diameter = 2 × 0.0005 = 0.001m
Let the new resistance be R'.
Therefore, the new resistance is 2.5 Ω.
 Solution 7
The VI graph is shown below. The voltage is plotted on x -axis and current is plotted
on y -axis.
 Solution 8
Resistance (R) of a resistor is given by Ohm's law as,
V = IR
R = V/I
Where,
Current in the circuit, I = 2.5 mA = 2.5 x 10 A
-3
Concept Insight: Convert all the quantities in the same unit system and then proceed
to calculations.
 Solution 9
Concept Insight: In a series combination, current flowing through all the components of
the circuit is the same.
There is no current division occurring in a series circuit. Current flow through all the
components is the same, given by Ohm's law as
V = IR
Where,
V = Potential difference
I = Current through the circuit
R = Resistance of the circuit
Let, R be the equivalent resistance of resistances 0.2 ohm, 0.3 ohm, 0.4 ohm, 0.5 ohm and
12 ohm.
These are connected in series. Hence, the sum of the resistance will give the value of R.
R = 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.5 + 12 = 13.4 ohm
Therefore, the current that would flow through the circuit and hence 12 ohm resistor is I
= V/R = 9/13.4 = 0.67 A
 Solution 10
 Solution 11
 Solution 12
 Solution 13
 Solution 14
 Solution 1
Concept Insight: The voltage across each component of a parallel circuit remains the
same.
Both the bulbs are connected in parallel. Therefore, potential difference across each of
them will be 220 V, because no division of voltage occurs in a parallel circuit.
We know, Power = Voltage x Current
Current drawn by the bulb of rating 100 W is given by,
Current =
Similarly, current drawn by the bulb of rating 100 W is given by,

Current =
Hence, current drawn from the line =
 Solution 2
Concept Insight: Energy consumed by an electrical appliance is given by the
expression,
H = Pt
Where,
P = Power of the appliance
T = Time
Energy consumed by a TV set of power 250 W in 1 h = 250 x 3600 = 9 x 10 J 5
Energy consumed by a toaster of power 1200 W in 10 minutes

= 1200 x 600 = 7.2 x 10 J
5
Therefore, the energy consumed by a 250 W TV set in 1 h is more than the energy
consumed by a toaster of power 1200 W in 10 minutes.
 Solution 3
Concept Insight: Rate of heat produced by a device is given by the expression for
power as
P=IR 2
Resistance of the electric heater, R = 8 ohm

Current drawn, I = 15 A
P = (15) × 8 = 1800 J/s
2
Therefore, heat is produced by the heater at the rate of 1800 J/s.

 Solution 4
(a) The melting point of tungsten is very high, so the tungsten filament can be kept white-hot
without melting away. Hence, tungsten is mainly used almost exclusively for filament of
incandescent lamps.
(b) The conductors of electric heating devices such as bread toasters and electric irons are
made of alloy because resistivity of an alloy is generally more than that of pure metals of
which it is made. It produces a large amount of heat. Moreover, at high temperatures, the
alloys do not melt readily.
(c) In a series arrangement, if any one of the appliances fails or is switched off, then the flow
of current through the entire circuit stops and all other appliances stop working. Thus series
arrangement is not used for domestic circuits.
(d) Resistance (R) of a wire is inversely proportional to its area of cross-section A.
(e) Copper and aluminum wires have low resistivity. They are good conductors of electricity.
Hence, they are usually employed for electricity transmission.
CHAPTER - 9
Heredity and Evolution
Page No. 143
1. If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait
B exists in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier? (To
be done in textbook)
Ans. Trait B.
2. How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?

Ans. Depending on the nature of variations different individuals would have different kinds of
advantage to adjust in particular habitat. Variations help the individual to have different traits
that may lead to better adaptability of the organisms in changing environment.
Page No. 147

1. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may be dominant or recessive?
Ans. In Monohybrid cross of Mendel between pure tall and pure dwarf pea plant, all progeny in
F1generation are tall and in F2 generation, 75% of pea plants are tall but 25% are dwarf. This
shows that traits are dominant or recessive. In F1 generation both the traits were present but
dwarfness couldn’t express itself in the presence of tallness. This shows that tallness is a
dominant character.
2. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently?

Ans When a pea plant having round green seeds is crossed with a pea plant having wrinkled yellow
seeds in F1 generation all the plants have round yellow seeds. But in F2 generation two new
combinations of traits that is round yellow and wrinkled green appeared. The new combinations
are possible only when traits are inherited independently.
3. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group O and their daughter has
blood group O. Is this information enough to tell you which of the traits-blood group A
or O- is dominant? Why or why not?
Ans. No, the information is not enough. Either can be possible. In this case, there are two possibilities.
Possibility 1
Blood group A is dominant and blood group O is recessive. The blood group O in daughter
can appear only when both the recessive alleles occur together in mother and father has one
allele of A and other allele of O blood group.
Possibility 2
blood group O is dominant and blood group A is recessive. In this father must carry both
alleles of blood group A while mother may be having either both alleles of O or one of A
blood group and other of blood group O. In this case also the daughter can have blood group
O.
4. How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?

Ans. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in human beings. 23rd pair of chromosome is sex
chromosome. In male it is XY and female it is XX. Therefore males are heterogametic -
Produce two types of sperms (X and Y), while females are homogametic- Produce same type
of eggs (X). A child which inherits X containing sperm from her father will be a girl and one
who inherits Y-sperm from him will be a boy.
Class 10 Ch9 Heredity and Evolution Page 1 of 3

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
Q1 to be done in the textbook.
4. A study found that children with light-coloured eyes are likely to have parents with
light coloured eyes. On this basis, can we say anything about whether the light eye
colour trait is dominant or recessive? Why or why not? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. No, since two copies of traits are inherited from parents, one from mother and the other form
father. Unless we know the nature of these two variants of traits we cannot tell which is
dominant and which is recessive. Recessive traits appear when both the parents contribute
recessive allele. From this statement we can only presume that both parents are contributing
recessive allele.
7. Outline a project which aims to find the dominant coat colour in dogs.
Ans. A male dog pure for black coat colour is crossed with a female dog pure for white coat colour.
If all the puppies in F1 generation have black coat colour then black coat colour is dominant
over white colour. This can further be established by cross between male and female of F1 gen.
The cross is depicted below:

8. Explain the importance of fossils in deciding evolutionary relationship.
Ans. (i) Study of fossils allow us to make estimates of how far back evolutionary relationship go
between organisms.
(ii) Study of age of fossils allows us to know which organisms evolved earlier and which
later. Thus help us in tracing the path of evolution.
(iii) They tell us about the characters and age of the fossil organism.
(iv) They tell us about the time period.
9. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter?
Ans. The evidence was given by Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey in 1953. They recreated
primitive earth’s atmosphere inside an apparatus. Inside a glass chamber they took mixture of
gases- CH4; NH3: H2 and added H2O. This was maintained by them at a temperature just
below 100 degree Celsius and sparks were passed through the mixture of gases to stimulus
lightening. At the end of a week, they found that 15% of the carbon had been converted to
simple compounds of carbon including amino acids which make up protein molecules.
10. Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than asexual
reproduction. How does this affect the evolution of those organisms that reproduce
sexually?
Ans. Variations arise either because of errors in DNA copying or as a result of sexual
reproduction. Due to sexual reproduction genetic variability increases in the population
from one generation to another. This happens due to the fact that- (i) sexually reproducing
organism inherits half the genes from each parent. (ii) Crossing over during gamete
formation. (iii) Random fertilization of gametes. These variations are very important for the
process of evolution.
11. Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a
population. Do you agree with this statement? Why or why not?
Ans. No, depending on the nature of variations different individuals have been different kinds
of advantages. When a drastic change occurs in environment, only those organisms in the
population will survive which have an advantageous variation in that population to
survive in changed environment. Whereas in case of genetic drift the variations even
though don’t provide survival advantage, still persist in the population.
12. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the
progeny?
Ans. Equal contribution of male and female parents is ensured in progeny during sexual
reproduction. Each trait of progeny is determined by a pair of alleles and gametes of male
and female contain one allele (due to meiosis). Each allele pairs during fertilisation
combine together to determine traits. Thus, the traits of progeny are determined by equal
genes from male and female.

CHAPTER - 15
Our Environment
Page No. 260

1. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state the different
trophic levels in it.
Ans. Each step in a food chain constitutes a trophic level. For example,
Grass Dear Lion
Trophic level 1 Trophic level 2 Trophic level 3
2. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem? (To be done in textbook)

Ans. (i) They clean up environment by decompose dead remains of plants and animals and their
wastes.
(ii) They help in recycling of materials.
(iii) They create space for new organisms.
Page No. 262

1. Why are some substances biodegradable and some non-biodegradable?
Ans. Substances which can be acted upon by micro-organism (decomposer) are called
biodegradable. For example- vegetable wastes, paper, cotton etc.
On the other hand, materials which are not acted upon by decomposers are called non-
biodegradable. For example- plastic, glass, polyethene etc.
2. Give any two ways in which biodegradable substances would affect the environment.
Ans. (a) They will serve as breeding ground for flies and mosquitoes which are carriers of disease
like cholera, malaria etc.
(b)They produce foul smell, thus causing air pollution.
3. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the
environment. (To be done in textbook)
Ans. (a) Excess use of non-biodegradable pesticide and fertilizers run off with rain water towater
bodies causes water pollution.
(b)They may choke the sever system of city or town that may overflow over roads.
Page No. 264

1. What is ozone and how does it affects any ecosystem?
Ans. Ozone is a form of oxygen. It has the molecular formula O3. It is deadly poisonous. It is present
at a higherlevel in the atmosphere. It protects the ecosystem from the harmful effects of
ultraviolet rays coming from the Sun. UV rays may cause skin cancer, cataract to us.
It is produced in the upper layers of the atmosphere by the action of UV radiation, which splits
some molecules of oxygen into two atoms of oxygen. One atom of oxygen combines with one
molecule of oxygen to form the ozone (as shown below).
Class10 Ch15 Our Environment Page 1 of 3

2. How can you help in reducing the problems of waste disposal? Give any two methods.
Ans. The following measures can be adopted for reducing the problem of waste disposal:
(i) Reduce the volume of wastes by burning in incinerator.
(ii) The biodegradable waste can be put in a pit and left there for composting.
(iii) Solid wastes can be buried in landfills in urban areas.
(iv) Some solid wastes can be recycled and articles like paper bags, plastic bags and buckets
can be
reused.
TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
1. Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable items? (To be done in
textbook)
(a) Grass, flowers and leather
(b) Grass, wood and plastic
(c) Fruit peels, cake and lime-juice
(d) Cake, wood and grass
Ans. Groups (a), (c) and (d).
2. Which of the following constitute a food chain? (To be done in textbook)

(a) Grass, wheat and mango
(b) Grass, goat and human
(c) Goat, cow and elephant
(d) Grass, fish and goat.
Ans. (b) Grass, goat, human
3. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices?(To be done in textbook)

(a) Carrying cloth-bag to put purchases in while shopping.
(b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans.
(c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter.
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (d) All of the
above.
4. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level? (To be done in
textbook)
Ans. If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the number of individuals in the next trophic
level will decrease due to non-availability of food. Also, the number of individuals in the
previous trophic levels will increase because there is no one to feed on them. This will cause
imbalance in the environment.
5. Will the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic level be different for
different trophic levels? Can the organisms of any trophic level be removed without causing
any damage to the ecosystem?

Ans. Yes, the impact of removing all the organisms of a trophic level will be different
fordifferent trophic levels. The effect will be time related. If we remove all the producers,
primary consumers will be affected instantly. Secondary consumers will affect after a gap
and tertiary consumers after a longer gap. No, the organisms of any trophic level can’t be
removed without causing any damage to the ecosystem because they are connected with
others through a food chain.
6. What is biological magnification? Will the levels of this magnification be different at

different levels of the ecosystem?
Ans. The phenomenon of progressive increase in concentration of certain harmful non-
biodegradable chemicals such as DDT at different trophic levels of food chain is called
biological magnifications.
The concentration of harmful chemicals will be different at different trophic levels. It will be
lowest in the first trophic level and highest in the last trophic level of the food chain.
7. What are the problems caused by non-biodegradable wastes that we generate?

Ans. (i) Non-biodegradable pesticides and fertilizers run off to water bodies to cause water
pollution.
(ii) Some of the non-biodegradable pesticides like DDT enter the food chain and
cause bio- magnification in humans and other animals.
8. If all the wastes we generate is biodegradable, will this have no impact on the
environment? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. It will have only short term impact on environment, the action of decomposers will slow
down and some air/water pollution will be caused. However, in longer term, there will be no
impact of biodegradable wastes on the environment.
9. Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern? What steps are being taken to
limit this damage?
Ans. Ozone layer prevents ultraviolet radiations from the Sun from reaching the earth.
Ultraviolet rays cause cancer, cataract and damage to the immune system of human beings,
decrease rate of photosynthesis.
In 1987, United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) succeeded in forging an agreement
between nations to freeze chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) production to 1986 levels. CFCs are the
main cause of ozone layer depletion.

CHAPTER-3
METALS AND NONMETALS
Pg. No. 40 (to be discussed in class)

Q.1 Give an example of metal which:
(i) is a liquid at room temperature
(ii) can be easily cut with knife
(iii) is best conductor of heat.
(iv) is poor conductor of heat. (To be discussed/Marked)
Ans (i) Mercury (ii) Sodium (iii) Silver (iv) Lead
Q.2 Explain the meaning of malleable and ductile.
Ans A substance that can be beaten into thin sheets is said to be malleable. For example,
iron, copper etc.
A substance that can be drawn into wires is called ductile. For example, gold, silver
etc.
Pg. No. 46
Q.1 Why sodium is kept immersed in kerosene oil?
Ans. Sodium is highly reactive metal, so it reacts vigorously with oxygen and moisture
present in the air and catches fire when kept in the opens. Hence, to prevent accidental
fires, it is kept immersed in kerosene oil.
Q.2 Write equation for the reaction of
(i) Iron with steam.
(ii) Calcium and potassium with water.
Ans (i) 3Fe + 4H2O Fe3O4 + 4H2
(ii) Ca + 2H2O Ca(OH)2 + H2
2K + 2H2O 2KOH + H2
Q.3 Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the
following solution one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated
as follows.
Metal Iron(II) Copper (II) Zinc Silver

Sulphate sulphate sulphate nitrate
A. No reaction Displacement
B. Displacement No reaction
C. No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement
D. No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction
Use the Table above to answer the following questions:
(i) Which is the most reactive metal?
(ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate?
(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.
(To be discussed/Marked)
(i) B is the most reactive metal.
(ii) If B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate, then it would displace copper.
B + CuSO4 → Displacement
(iii)The arrangement of the metals in the order of decreasing reactivity is:
B>A>C>D
Q.4 Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to reactive metal?
Write the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 3 METALS AND NONMETALS Page 1 of 5
Ans Hydrogen gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal.
Q.5 What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate?
Write the chemical reaction that takes place.
Ans As zinc is more reactive than iron, displacement reaction will take place
Zn + FeSO4 ZnSO4 + Fe
Pg. No. 49
Q.1 (i) Write the electro-dot structures for sodium, oxygen, and magnesium.
(ii) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(iii) What are the ions present in these compounds?
Ans (i) Electron-dot structure for sodium, oxygen and magnesium are
(ii)
(iii) Ions present in Na2O are Na+ and O2-

Ions present in MgO are Mg2+ and O2-
Q.2 Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?
Ans Ionic compounds have strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the ions.
Therefore, it requires a lot of energy to overcome these forces. That is why ionic
compounds have high melting points.
Pg. No. 53 Deleted Portion
Pg. No. 55 Q.2 and Q.3 Deleted
Q.1 Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium and copper were heated with the following
metals.
Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc oxide - - -
Magnesium oxide - - -
Copper oxide - - -
In which cases will you find displacement reactions taking place?

(to be discussed in class)
Ans Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc oxide No reaction Displacement No reaction
Magnesium oxide No reaction No reaction No reaction
Copper oxide Displacement Displacement No reaction
EXERCISES
Q.1 Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?
(a) NaCl solution and copper metal
(b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal
(c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal
(d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal.
Ans (d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal
Q.2 Deleted
Q.3 An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point.
This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be
(a) calcium
(b) carbon
(c) silicon
(d) iron
(a) The element is likely to be calcium
Q.4 Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because
(a) zinc is costlier than tin.
(b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin.
(d) zinc is less reactive than tin.
Ans (c) zinc is more reactive than tin.
Q.5 (a) You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and switch.
How could you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-
(b) metals?
Asses the usefulness of these tests in distinguish in between metals and non-
metals?
Ans (a) Place the sample on an iron block. Strike with hammer. If the sample takes the
shape of a sheet, it is a metal. If it breaks into pieces, it is a non-metal.
Set up the arrangement by using a bulb, a battery, wires and switch. Insert the
samples of metals and non-metals in the clips one by one and turn the switch on. If
the bulb glows, the sample is a metal, if not, then the sample is non-metal.
(b) The above two methods can, in general, be used to distinguish between metals and
non-metals.
Q.6 What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of amphoteric oxides.
Ans Metal oxides which show both acidic as well as basic behaviour are called amphoteric
oxides. Such metal oxides react with both acids and bases.
Example: Aluminum oxide, zinc oxide
Q.7 Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids, and two
metals which will not.
Ans Magnesium and zinc metals displace hydrogen from dilute acids. Copper and silver
do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
Q.8 Deleted
Q.9 Pratyush took Sulphur powder on spatula and heated it. He collected the gas
evolved by inverting a test tube over it as shown in fig. 3.12 below:
(a) What will be the action of gas on
(i) Dry litmus paper?
(ii) Moist litmus paper?
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.
Ans (a) Sulphur is a non-metal. Oxides of non-metals are acidic. In this case sulphur dioxide
is produced which is acidic.
(i) No action of the gas
(ii) Wet litmus paper will turn red.
(b) 𝑺 + 𝑶𝟐 𝑺𝑶𝟐
Q.10 Deleted
Q.11 What types of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?
Ans Acidic oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen.
Q.12 Give reasons:
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
(c) Aluminum is highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking.
(d) Deleted
Ans (a) These metals are un-reactive. They do not react with oxygen and other gases present
in air and with moisture. Thus, their shine is maintained. That is why these metals are
used to make jewellery.
(b) Reaction of sodium, potassium and lithium with oxygen is so violent that they
catch fire. To prevent accidental fire, they are stored under kerosene oil.
(c) This is because aluminum is a good conductor of heat. Aluminum forms a layer of
aluminum oxide at high temperature which is prevent the further corrosion.
Q.13 You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or
tamarind juice. Explain why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the
vessels.
Ans Copper, on keeping in air reacts with atmospheric carbon dioxide to form a green
layer of copper carbonate. Copper carbonate reacts with citric acid present in lemon
or tartaric acid present in tamarind to form soluble copper citrate or copper tartarate.
The vessels are thus cleaned using water.
Q.14 Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the basis of their
chemical properties.
Ans Metals and non-metals can be differentiated on the basis of following chemical
properties.
Metal Non-metal
Metals are electropositive. Non-metals are electronegative.
They react with oxygen to form
They react with oxygen to form
acidic or neutral oxides.
basic oxides.
These have ionic bonds. These have covalent bonds.

They react with water to form oxides They do not react with water.
and hydroxides. Some metals react
with cold water,
Q.15 A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the
glitter of the old and dull ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold
bangles to him which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled
like new but their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset but after
a futile argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to
find out the nature of the solution he had used?
Ans Aqua regia, which is a mixture of three parts concentrated hydrochloric acid and
one part of concentrated nitric acid, which dissolves gold. The man put the gold
bangles in this solution. The outer dirty layer of gold bangles dissolved in aqua
regia brings out the shining bangles.

As the outer layer of bangles dissolved in aqua regia, the weight was reduced
drastically.
Q.16 Deleted

CHAPTER-2
ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
Pg. No. 18
Q.1 You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water
and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If
you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test
tube?
A.1 1. Let us mark the three test tubes as A, B, and C. A drop of the solution from A is put on
the red litmus paper. Same is repeated with solution B and C.
2. If either of them changes colour to blue, then it is basic. Therefore, out of three, one is
eliminated. Out of the remaining two, anyone can be acidic or neutral.
3. Now again drop from the remaining test tubes is dropped on this blue litmus.
4. If the colour change to red then that test tube has acidic solution and remaining third
one will have distilled water.
Pg. No. 22
Q.1 Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
A.1 Curd and other sour substances are acidic in nature and brass and copper are metals.
Therefore, when they are kept in brass and copper vessels, the metal reacts with the acid
to liberate hydrogen gas and harmful products, thereby spoiling the food.
Metal + Sour substance Salt + H2
(toxic)
Q.2 Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with
an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
(to be done in text book)
A.2 Hydrogen gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal.
Take few pieces of zinc granules and add 5 ml of dilute H2SO4. Shake it and pass the
gas produced into a soap solution. The bubbles of the soap solution are formed. These
soap bubbles contain hydrogen gas.
We can test the evolved hydrogen gas by its burning with a pop sound when a candle is
brought near the soap bubbles.
𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 + 𝑍𝑛 𝑍𝑛𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐻2
Q.3 Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence.
The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical
equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 2 ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS Page 1 of 7

A.3 The compound A is Calcium carbonate and when it reacts with HCl it produces CO2
which extinguishes the fire.
𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + HCl 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐻2 𝑂 +𝐶𝑂2
Pg.No.25
Q.1 Why do HCl, HNO3 etc. show acidic characters in aqueous solution while solutions
of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
A.1 Compounds like HCl and HNO3 release hydrogen ions in solution, therefore they show
acidic character.
While compounds like alcohol and glucose do not release hydrogen ions.
Therefore, they do not show acidic properties.
Q.2 Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity?
A.2 Electricity is conducted in a solution by ions.
Acid release H+ ions in a solution so, it conducts electricity
Q.3 Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
A.3 Colour of litmus paper changes only when it come in contact of H+ ions and H+ ions is
produced only when HCl gas comes in contact with water.
Therefore, dry HCl do not change the colour of dry litmus paper.
Q.4 While diluting an acid, why it is recommended that the acid should be added to
water and not water to the acid?
A.4 Addition of water to acid is an exothermic reaction.
If we add water to acid lot of heat is produced that may breaks the glass container or
sprout to burns the person adding it.
But when acid is added to water with constant stirring, the heat produced is absorbed by
water and no harm occurs.
Q.5 How is concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of acid is
diluted?
A.5 Concentration of hydronium ions decreased when the solution of an acid is diluted.
Q.6 How is concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) affected when excess base is
dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
A.6 Excess base dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide will release more hydroxide
(OH-) ions. Therefore, concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) will increase.
Pg.No.28
Q.1 You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is
8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic
and which one is basic?

A.1 A pH value of less than 7 indicates an acidic solution, while greater than 7 indicates a
basic solution. Therefore, the solution with pH = 6 is acidic and has more hydrogen ion
concentration than the solution of pH = 8 which is basic.
Q.2 What effect does the concentration of H+ (aq) ions have on the nature of the solution?
A.2 Concentration of H+ (aq) can have a varied effect on the nature of the solution. With an
increase in H+ ion concentration, the solution becomes more acidic, while a decrease of
H+ ion causes an increase in the basicity of the solution.
Q.3 Do basic solutions also have H+ (aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
A.3 Yes, basic solution also has H+ ions. However, their concentration is less as compared to
the concentration of OH− ions that makes the solution basic.
Q.4 Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his fields
with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk
(calcium carbonate)?
A.4 If the soil is acidic and improper for cultivation, then to increase the basicity of soil, the
farmer would treat the soil with quick lime or slaked lime or chalk.
Pg.No.33 (Q.1 to Q.3 to be done in text book)
Q.1 What is the common name of the compound CaOCl2?
A.1 The common name of the compound CaOCl2 is bleaching powder.
Q.2 Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder?
A.2 Calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH)2], on treatment with chlorine, yields bleaching
Q.3 Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
A.3 Washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O) is used for softening hard water.
Q.4 What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrogencarbonate is heated? Give the
equation of the reaction involved.
A.4 When a solution of sodium hydrogencarbonate (sodium hydrogencarbonate) is heated,
sodium carbonate and water are formed with the evolution of carbon dioxide gas.
2𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 + ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2
Q.5 Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.
A.5 The chemical equation for the reaction of Plaster of Paris and water can be represented as
1 3
𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 . 2 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝐻2 𝑂 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 . 2 𝐻2 𝑂
2
Plaster of Paris Gypsum

Exercises (Q.1 to Q.4 to be done in text book)
Q.1 A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
(a) 1
(b) 4

(c) 5
(d) 10
A.1 (d) 10
Q.2 A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky.
The solution contains
(a) NaCl
(b) HCl
(c) LiCl
(d) KCl
A.2 (b) HCl
Q.3 10 ml of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralized by 8 mL of a given
solution of HCl. If we take 20 ml of same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl
solution required to neutralize it will be
(a) 4 ml
(b) 8 ml
(c) 12 ml
(d) 16ml
A.3 (d) 16 ml
Q.4 Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Analgesic
(c) Antacid
(d) Antiseptic
A.4 (c) Antacid
Q.5 Write word equations and then balanced equations for the reaction taking place
when:
(a) Dilute Sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
(c) Dilute Sulphuric acid reacts with aluminum powder
(d) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.
A.5 (a) 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 + 𝑍𝑛 𝑍𝑛𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐻2
(b) Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 +H2
(c) 2Al + 3H2SO4 Al2(SO4)3 +3H2
(d) 2HCl+ Fe FeCl2 + H2

Q.6 Compound such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not
categorized as acids. Describe an activity.
A.6
Solutions: -
Two nails are fitted on a cork and are kept it in a 100 mL beaker. The nails are then
connected to the two terminals of a 6-volt battery through a bulb and a switch. Some dilute
HCl is poured in the beaker and the current is switched on. The same experiment is then
performed with glucose solution and alcohol solution.
Observations:
It will be observed that the bulb glows in the HCl solution and does not glow in the
glucose solution.
Result:
HCl dissociates into H+ and Cl− ions. These ions conduct electricity in the solution
resulting in the glowing of the bulb. On the other hand, the glucose solution does not
dissociate into ions. Therefore, it does not conduct electricity.
Conclusion:
From this activity, it can be concluded that all acids contain hydrogen but not all
compounds containing hydrogen are acids.
That is why, though alcohols and glucose contain hydrogen, they are not categorised as
acids.
Q.7 Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rain water does?
A.7 Rain water contains small amount of acid because of which it conducts electricity.
Distilled water is pure water. It does not contain ions.
Therefore, it does not conduct electricity.
Q.8 Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
A.8 Acids produce hydrogen ions or hydronium ions only in presence of water.
Therefore, it shows acidic behaviour only in the presence of water.

Q.9 Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicators showed pH
as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is:
(a) neutral?
(b) strongly alkaline?
(c) strongly acidic
(d) weakly acidic?
(e) weakly alkaline
A.9 (a) D
(b) C
(c) B
(d) A
(e) E
Q.10 Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. hydrochloric
acid is added to test tube A, while acetic acid is added to test B. In which test tube
will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
A.10 HCl is stronger acid than CH3COOH.
Therefore, H+ ions concentration in test tube A will be more than that in test tube B.
Hence, reaction will take place faster in test tube A than in test tube B. so, fizzing will
occur more vigorously in test tube A.
Q.11 Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into
curd? Explain your answer.
A.11 Bacteria change the fresh milk into curd by producing lactic acid. Because of the
presence of lactic acid in curd, the pH will come down from 6 to lower value.
Q.12 A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set a curd?
A.12 (a) The pH of milk changes from 6 to slightly alkaline on addition of a very small amount
of baking soda. This is because sodium hydrogen carbonate (baking soda) is basic in
nature. This prevents the milk from souring.
(b) Lactic acid formed as a result of fermentation, is neutralized by sodium hydrogen
carbonate. This prolongs the time taken by milk to set as curd.
Q.13 Plaster of Paris should be stored in moisture-proof container. Explain why?
A.13 Plaster of Paris reacts with moisture to form gypsum and sets to a hard mass. Therefore,
it should be stored in moisture-proof container
Q.14 What is a neutralization reaction? Give two examples.

A.14 The reaction between an acid and a base to give salt and water is called neutralization
reaction.
𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂
𝐾𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝑁𝑂3 𝐾𝑁𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂
Q.15 Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
A.15 Uses of washing soda:
(i) As cleansing agent.
(ii) Removing permanent hardness of water.
(iii) Used in glass, soap and paper industries.
Uses of baking soda:
(i) For making baking powder.
(ii) As ingredient of antacid.

CHAPTER - 8
How Do Organisms Reproduce?
Page No. 128

1. What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction?
Ans. DNA present in nucleus of cells are the information source for making protein. If
information is different, different protein will be made that lead to altered body design.
During reproduction there is formation of new cells which must carry the same amount &
type of heredity information (DNA) as present in the parent cells.
2. Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the individual?
Ans. Many variations are pre-adaptations which may have no immediate benefit to individual,
however they remain in population. If the niche/environment is drastically altered the pre-
adaptations in some members allow them to survive & multiply. Thus, variation is useful to
species but not necessarily for the individual.
Page No. 133

1. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Ans. Difference between binary fission and multiple fission:
BINARY FISSION MULTIPLE FISSION
1. Give rise to two individuals. Forms more than two individuals.
2. Occurs under favorable conditions. Occurs both under favorable and unfavorable
conditions.
3. No residue left. Residue left.
Eg. Amoeba Eg. Plasmodium
2. How will an organism be benefited if it reproduces through spores?

Ans. (i) The spores are covered by thick walls that protect them until they come into contact
with suitable moist surface and can begin to grow.
(ii) Large numbers of spores also provide survival benefits/Perennation.
(iii) Spores are means of dispersal.
3. Can you think of reasons why more complex organism cannot give rise to new
individuals through regeneration? (To be done in textbook)
Ans Complex organisms are not merely random collection of cells. Specialized cells are
organized in them as tissues are organized in organs. These organs have to be placed at
definite positions in the body. Most of cells in simple organisms can differentiate into
specialized cells that can develop into entire organism. Whereas in complex organisms only
limited cells have this property.
4. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some types of plants?

Ans. (i) Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flower and fruits earlier than those
produced from seeds.
(ii)Such methods also make possible the propagation of plants such as banana, orange, rose
and jasmine that have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
(iii) All plants produced by this method are genetically similar enough to the parent plant to
have its all characteristics.
(iv) Survival rate is nearly 100%.
Class10 Ch8 How Do Organisms Reproduce? Page 1 of 4

5. Why is DNA copying essential part of the process of reproduction? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. DNA contains information for the inheritance of features from parents to next generation.
DNA presents in nucleus of cells are the information source for making protein. If
information is different, different protein will be made that lead to altered body design.
Page No. 140

1. How is process of pollination different from fertilization?
Ans. Distinction between pollination and fertilization:
POLLINATION FERTILIZATION
1. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to It is the fusion of male and female gametes.
the stigma of a flower.
2. It is a physical process. It is a physic-chemical process.
3. Occurs in plants. Occurs in plants and animals.
2. What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland?
Ans. Secretions of seminal vesicles provide nutrition to sperms and activates them. Secretions of
prostate gland help in sperm movement in female genital tract.
3. What are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. They attain feminine body shape, deposition of fat in thigh region and start of menstrual cycle
around this time.
4. How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body?
Ans. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called
placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the wall of uterus. It contains finger-like
projections villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. On mother’s sides are blood spaces, which
surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass the
mother to the embryo and waste products from embryo to mother.
5. If a woman is using a Copper-T, will it help in protecting her from sexually transmitted
diseases? (To be done in textbook)
Ans Copper-T cannot protect the woman from acquiring sexually transmitted disease. It will
protect her from only unwanted pregnancy.
TEXTBOOK EXERCISE
QUESTION 1,2 AND 3 ARE MCQ’S (TO BE MARKED IN THE TEXTBOOK)
4. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?

Ans. Sexual reproduction leads to variation due to recombination of genetic material DNA. These
variations are essential for better adaptability and also lead to evolution. On the contrary,
asexual reproduction does not bring about variations.
5. What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings? (To be done in
textbook)
Ans. In human beings, testes perform dual function:
(i) Production of sperms
(ii) Secretion of male hormone testosterone.

6. Why does menstruation occur? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. When in human female, egg is not fertilized; it lives for about one day. Since the ovary
releases one egg every month, the uterus also prepares itself every month to receive a fertilized
egg. Thus, its lining becomes thick and spongy. This would be required for nourishing the
embryo if had fertilized. However, this lining is not required any longer if fertilization has not
occurred. So, the lining slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood and mucous.
This cycle takes roughly every month and is known as menstruation.
7. Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower.

Ans.
8. What are the different methods of contraception?

Ans. Various methods used for regulation of child birth can broadly categories as:
(i) Barrier methods: In this method, physical devices such as condom, diaphragm, cervical
cap
are used.
(ii) Chemical method: Use of spermicidal jelly by woman, oral pills and vaginal pills.
(iii) Surgical method: In surgical method, a small portion of vas deferens in male and the
oviduct of female, is surgically removed or ligated. It is called vasectomy in male and
Tubectomy in females.
(iv) IUCD – These devices are placed inside the uterine cavity of a female. The presence of
these devices prevents the implantation of an embryo in the uterus.eg, loops, copper- T
9. How are the modes of reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular

organism? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. In unicellular organisms, cell division, or fusion leads to the creation of new individuals. In
multicellular organisms with simple body organization budding, fragmentation may work but
in complex multicellular organisms only sexual reproduction takes place.
10. How does reproduction help in providing stability to populations of species? (To be done in
textbook)
Ans. The consistency of DNA copying during reproduction is important for the maintenance of
body design and other features that allow the organism to use the particular niche.
Reproduction is, therefore, linked to the stability to populations of species. Generally Number
of deaths ≈Number of births, so population size is maintained.
11. What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods?

Ans. (i) Some contraceptive methods like condom also prevent spread of STDs and lethal
diseases like HIV-AIDS.

(ii) Help in population control.
(iii) Help in maintaining gap between children and also restricts number of children.
(iv) Ensure good reproductive health.

CH 11-THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD
QUESTION-ANSWERS
Exercise question –answers (pg-198)
Q.1 Why do stars twinkle?

Solution
Stars emit their own light and they twinkle due to the atmospheric refraction of light.
Stars are very far away from the earth. Hence, they are considered as point sources of
light.
When the light coming from stars enters the earth's atmosphere, it gets refracted at
different levels because of the variation in the air density at different levels of the
atmosphere.
When the atmosphere refracts more star-light towards us, the star appears to be bright
and when the atmosphere refracts less star-light, then the star appears to be dim.
Therefore, it appears as if the stars are twinkling at night.
Q.2 Explain why the planets do not twinkle?

Solution
Planets do not twinkle because they appear larger in size than the stars as they are
relatively closer to Earth.
Planets can be considered as a collection of a large number of point-size sources of light.
The different parts of these planets produce either brighter or dimmer effects in such a
way that the average of brighter and dimmer effects is zero. Hence, planets do not twinkle.
Q.3 Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning?
Solution
During sunrise, the light rays coming from the Sun have to travel a greater distance in the
earth's atmosphere before reaching our eyes.
In this journey, the shorter wavelengths of lights are scattered out and only longer
wavelengths are able to reach our eyes.
Since blue colour has a shorter wavelength and red colour has a longer wavelength, the
red colour is scattered the least and is able to reach our eyes after the atmospheric
scattering of light. Therefore, the Sun appears reddish early in the morning.
Q.4 Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?
Solution
The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut because there is no atmosphere in
the outer space that can scatter the sunlight. As the sunlight is not scattered, no scattered
light reaches the eyes of the astronauts and the sky appears black to them.
Ch 12 Electricity
An electric circuit is a continuous conducting path that consists of electric devices, switching
devices, source of electricity, etc. connected by conducting wires.
Concept Insight: The figure given below is an example of an electric circuit.
The unit of electric current is ampere (A).

1 ampere is defined as the flow of 1 coulomb of charge through a wire in 1 second.
One electron possesses a charge of 1.6 × 10 -19 C, i.e., 1.6 × 10 -19 C of charge is contained in
1 electron.
1 C of charge is contained in electrons

18
Therefore, 6.25 x 10 electrons constitute one coulomb of charge.
A source of electricity such as cell, battery, power supply, etc. helps to maintain a potential
difference across a conductor.
If 1 J of work is done to move a charge of amount 1 C from one point to another, then it is
said that the potential difference between the two points is 1 V.
The amount of work is given by the expression,
Potential difference =
Work Done = Potential Difference x Charge
Here,
Charge = 1 C
Potential difference = 6 V
Work Done = 6 x 1 = 6J
Therefore, 6 J of energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a battery of 6 V.
Chapter 10 - Light: Reflection and Refraction
Exercise (Page No.176)
 Solution
The light ray bends towards the normal.
Reason: When a ray of light travels from an optically rarer medium to an optically denser
medium, it gets bent towards the normal. Since water is optically denser than air, a ray of
light travelling from air into the water will bend towards the normal.
Concept insight: Air is rarer medium & water is denser medium. The direction of
bending of light depends on whether the light is moving from rarer to denser medium or
vice versa.
 Solution
Refractive index of a medium n is given by,
m
Given:
Speed of light in vacuum, c = 3 × 10 ms
8 -1
Refractive index of glass, n = 1.50

g
Speed of light in the glass,
Concept insight: Remember this formula for refractive index of a medium.

The refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1 is given as,
The refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 is given as,
 Solution
Highest optical density = Diamond
Lowest optical density = Air
Optical density of a medium is directly related with the refractive index of that medium.
A medium which has the highest refractive index will have the highest optical density and
vice-versa.
It can be observed from the table that diamond and air respectively have the highest and
lowest refractive indices. Therefore, diamond has the highest optical density and air has
the lowest optical density.
 Solution
Speed of light in a medium is given by the relation for refractive index (n ). The relation
m
is given as
Class 10_Physics_Chapter 10_Light Reflection and Refraction 1

It can be inferred from the relation that light will travel the slowest in the material which
has the highest refractive index and will travel the fastest in the material which has the
lowest refractive index.
It can be observed from the table that the refractive indices of kerosene, turpentine, and
water are 1.44, 1.47, and 1.33 respectively. Therefore, light travels the fastest in water.
Concept Insight: Higher is the refractive index of a medium, less is the speed of light in
the medium.
 Solution 5
Refractive index of a medium n is related to the speed of light in that medium v by the
m
relation:
Where, c is the speed of light in vacuum/air

The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. This suggests that a light ray travelling in air and
entering diamond gets slowed down and its speed becomes 1/2.42 times that in air.
Exercise (Page No. 184)
 Solution
1 diopter is defined as the power of a lens of focal length 1 metre.
 Solution
When an object is placed at the centre of curvature, 2F , of a convex lens, its image is
1
formed at the centre of curvature, 2F , on the other side of the lens. The image formed is
2
real, inverted and of the same size as the object, as shown in the given figure.

It is given that the image of the needle is formed at a distance of 50 cm from the convex
lens. Hence, the needle must be placed in front of the lens at a distance of 50 cm.
Object distance, u = -50 cm
Image distance, v = 50 cm
Focal length = f
According to the lens formula,
Hence, the power of the given lens is +4 D.

Concept Insight - One should extremely be careful while substituting the values of u, v
and f without forgetting to put the appropriate sign conventions.
 Solution
Focal length of concave lens, f = -2 m
Here, negative sign arises due to the divergent nature of concave lens.
Concept Insight:
While using the formula of power, one should be careful to use the value of focal length
expressed in meters only.
Exercise (Page No. 185)
 Solution 1 (d) Clay

Concept Insight: A lens allows light to pass through it. Since clay does not show such
property, it cannot be used to make a lens.
 Solution 2 (d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.
Concept Insight: When an object is placed between the pole and principal focus of a
concave mirror, the image formed is virtual, erect and larger than the object.

 Solution 3 (b) At twice the focal length
Concept Insight: When an object is placed at a distance equal to twice the focal length in
front of a convex lens, its image is formed at a distance of twice the focal length on the
other side of the lens. The image formed is real, inverted, and of the same size as the
object.
 Solution 4 (a) both concave

Concept Insight: By convention, the focal lengths of a concave mirror and a concave lens
are taken as negative. Hence, both, the spherical mirror and the thin spherical lens are
concave in nature.
Exercise (Page no. 186)
 Solution 1 (d) either plane or convex

Concept Insight: A convex mirror always gives a virtual and erect image of smaller size
than the object placed in front of it. Similarly, a plane mirror always gives a virtual and
erect image of the same size as that of the object placed in front of it. Therefore, the given
mirror could be either plane or convex.
 Solution 2 (c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.

Concept Insight: A convex lens gives an erect and magnified image of an object when it
is placed between the optical centre and focus of the lens. Also, magnification is more for
convex lenses having shorter focal length. Therefore, for reading small letters, a convex
lens of focal length 5 cm should be used.

 Solution
The convex lens will form a complete image of an object, even if its one-half is covered
with black paper. It can be understood by the following two cases.
 Case I-When the upper half of the lens is covered:
In this case, the rays of light coming from the object will be refracted by the lower half of
the lens. These rays meet at the other side of the lens to form the image of the given object,
as shown in the following figure.
 Case II-When the lower half of the lens is covered:

In this case, a ray of light coming from the object is refracted by the upper half of the lens.
These rays meet at the other side of the lens to form the image of the given object, as
shown in the following figure.
Concept Insight: In case of the half covered lens, the number of rays used up to make the
image on the other side of the lens will be reduced to half.
 Solution
Object height, h = 5 cm
o
Focal length, f = +10 cm

The positive value of v shows that the image is formed on the other side of the lens.

The negative sign shows that the image is real and formed behind the lens.
h = m x h = -0.66 x 5 = -3.3 cm
i o
The negative value of image height indicates that the image formed is inverted.
The position, size, and nature of the image are shown in the following ray diagram.
Concept Insight: Remember to use appropriate sign conventions while substituting the
values in lens formula.
 Solution
Focal length (OF ) of the concave lens is f = -15 cm
1
Image distance, v = -10 cm

The negative value of u indicates that the object is placed 30 cm in front of the lens. This
is shown in the following ray diagram.
Concept Insight: Remember to use appropriate sign conventions while substituting the
values in lens formula.

 Solution
P = -2 D
f = -0.5 m
The focal length is negative. Hence, it is a concave lens.
Concept Insight - The value of the focal length should be written in metre when
substituting in the formula:
 Solution
A convex lens has a positive focal length. Hence, it is a convex lens or a converging lens.
Concept Insight: Positive focal length corresponds to convex lens and negative focal
length corresponds to concave lens.

CHAPTER 6 Life Processes
No. of Periods: 17
Page No. 95
Q.1 Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of multicellular organisms
like humans? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. As in multicellular organisms, all the cells are not in direct contact with environment, simple
diffusion does not meet the requirement of all the body cells to get sufficient oxygen.
Q.2 What criteria do we use to decide whether something is alive?

Ans. Something can be considered alive if following features are present:
(i) Movements-
Visible movements like growth, breathing, etc.
Invisible movements - All the living organism must have movement at molecular level like
respiration.
(ii) Life process- Occurrence of processes like nutrition, respiration, transportation and
excretion to be called alive.
(iii) Growth
(iv) Reproduction
(v) Response to stimuli
Q.3 What are outside raw materials used for by an organism?

(To be done in textbook)
Ans. Outside raw materials used for by an organism includes:
(a) Water (b) Oxygen (c) CO2 (d) sunlight and (e) Nutrients/Minerals
These raw materials are used by an organism for various purposes like respiration, growth and
maintenance.
Q.4. What processes would you consider essential for maintaining life? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. The processes essential for maintaining life are
a. Nutrition
b. Respiration
c. Transportation
d. Excretion
Page No. 101
Q.1 What are the differences between autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition. (To be done in
textbook)
Autotrophic Nutrition Heterotrophic Nutrition

Organism prepares its own food using simple Organism obtain food from other organism
inorganic molecules.
Energy required for synthesis of food No energy required
Digestion of food does not occur Generally digestion of food occur
Organisms act as producer Organisms act as consumer
Generally photosynthetic pigment (Chlorophyll) Photosynthetic pigment (Chlorophyll) absent
Present
Ex- Green plants ; Some bacteria and Some Protista Ex- Animals, Fungi, Some bacteria, Some
Class 10 Ch 6 Life Processes Page 1 of 7

Protista and Some non green plants
Q.2 Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis? (To be
done in textbook)
Ans. (a)Carbon dioxide from atmosphere.
(b) Light from Sun
(c) Water from Soil
(d) Minerals from soil
Q.3 What is the role of the acids in our stomach?

Ans. HCl plays following role in our stomach:
(a) Make the medium acidic for action of enzyme pepsin.
(b) Kills the harmful bacteria present in food
(c) Prevents fermentation of food
(d) Softens food
Q.4 What is the function of digestive enzymes? Give one example

Ans. Digestive enzymes break-down the various complex components of food into simple and
soluble components so that they can be absorbed easily.
salivary amylase
Eg., Starch Maltose
Q.5 How is small intestine designed to absorb digested food?

Ans. (i) The inner lining of small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi which in
turn have microvilli that increase the surface area for absorption.
(ii) The villi are richly supplied with blood vessels which transport the absorbed food to each
and every cell of the body.
Page No. 105
Q.1 What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with
regard to obtaining oxygen for respiration? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. The rate of breathing is slower in terrestrial organisms as compared to aquatic organisms.
This is due to the fact that in water, the amount of oxygen is less as compared to air so, in
aquatic organisms the rate of breathing is faster.
Q.2 What are different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in various
organisms? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. The pathways of break-down of glucose in various organisms are as below:

3. How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings? (To be done in
textbook)
Ans. The body size of animals is large, so the diffusion pressure alone cannot take care of oxygen
delivery to all parts of the body.
The respiratory pigment haemoglobin which is present in the red blood corpuscles has a very
high affinity for oxygen, therefore it take up oxygen from the air in the lungs and carry it to
tissues which are deficient in oxygen before releasing it.
Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen is and hence is mostly transported in the
dissolved form in our blood.
Q.4 How are the lungs designed in human beings to maximize the area for exchange of
gases?
Ans. (i) In lungs, the bronchioles terminate in balloon-like structures called alveoli that increase
the surface area for exchange of gases.
(ii) The alveoli contain network of blood capillaries for easy exchange of gases.
Page No. 110
Q.1 What are the components of the transport system in human beings? What are the
functions of these components?
Ans. There are two major types of transport system in humans:
I] Blood Vascular system: It’s main components are-
(a) Heart- receives and pumps the blood.
(b) Blood Vessels:- Arteries- carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to various organs.
Veins- Bring back blood to heart.
Capillaries- exchange of various materials and gases between blood and
tissues.
(c) Blood – It consists of RBC’s, WBC’s and blood platelets. RBC helps in oxygen
transportation. WBC protects from infection. Blood platelets help in blood clotting during
injury
II] Lymphatic System – It’s main components are lymph (Middle man between blood and
tissue), lymph vessels (Carries lymph), lymph nodes (Kills pathogens).
Q.2 Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and
birds? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. The separation of the right and left side of heart is useful to prevent oxygenated blood and
deoxygenated blood from mixing. Such separation allows a highly efficient supply of

oxygen to the body. This is useful in animals that have high energy needs, such as birds and
mammals that constantly use the energy to maintain their body temperature.
Q.3 What are the components of transport system in highly organized plants? (To be
done in textbook)
Ans. The transport system of higher plants consists of xylem and phloem.
Xylem- It comprises of vessels, tracheids, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibers. It helps to
transport water and minerals from root to other part of the plants.
Phloem- It consists of sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibers. It
helps to transport food from leaves to storage organs and other parts of plant.
Q.4 How are water and minerals transported in plants?

Ans. Root Pressure – At the roots, cells in contact with the soil actively takes up ions. This creates
a difference in the concentration of these ions between the root and the soil. Water, therefore
moves into the root from the soil to eliminate this difference. This water then moves into the
Xylem and creates the water column that pushes water upwards.
Suction Pull – Transpiration of water vapour through stomata of a leaf creates a chain of
suction pull that pulls water from the xylem cells of leaf which in turn pull water from the
xylem of root. Thus transpiration pull helps in the absorption and upward movement of water
and minerals dissolved in it from roots to the leaves through xylem.
Q.5 How is food transported in plants?

Ans. Food in form of sucrose is transferred into phloem by utilizing ATP. This increases the
osmotic pressure of the tissue causing water to move into it. Thus, the generated physical
pressure allows the movement of materials from phloem (of leaf) to the tissues which have
less pressure (Less sucrose so lesser water, e.g. Root or storage organs). This allows phloem
to move materials through phloem as per the plant’s need.
Page No. 112
Q.1 Describe the structure and functioning of nephron.

Ans. Structure- A nephron has two structural components: (i) A cup
shaped Bowman’s capsule associated with a cluster of very thin-
walled blood capillaries called glomerulus.
(ii) Tubular part of nephron which opens into collecting duct.
Functions - Nephron filters the blood in order to remove

nitrogenous waste. It forms urine in following steps:
(i) Ultrafitration- Filtration of blood in Bowman’s capsule.
(ii) Selective reabsorption- Tubular part absorbs some useful
substance such as glucose, amino acids, minerals and major
amount of water from filtrate.
(iii) Tubular secretion- Some components are added into the filtrate by tubular part.
Q.2 What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products? (To be done in
textbook)
Ans. (i) Plant produces carbon dioxide as wastes during respiration and oxygen as waste during
photosynthesis.
(ii) Excess of water is removed through transpiration.
(iii) Some waste products like gums and resins are stored in older xylem tissue.

(iv) Waste products may be stored in leaves that fall.
Q.3 How is amount of urine produced regulated?

Ans. The amount of urine depends on- (i) amount of excess water in the body; (ii) amount of water
soluble waste is to be excreted out.
If the amount of water and dissolved wastes in body are more than amount of urine produced
will be more. If amount of water is less then amount of urine produced will be less.
TEXTBOOK EXERCISE
(Multiple choice questions to be done in the textbook)
Q.5 How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?
Ans. Digestion of fats takes place in small intestine. Fats entering in intestine are in the form of
large globules. Bile juice breaks down these large globules into smaller globules
(Emulsification). After that fat digesting enzyme lipase present in pancreatic juice and
intestinal juice converts it into fatty acids and glycerol.
Q.6 What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. (i) The saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down starch which is
complex molecule into glucose.
(ii) Moistening & softening of food for easy chewing & mixing.
(iii) Helps in formation of slippery bolus for easy swallowing.
Q.7 What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are its by-
products.
Ans. Conditions necessary for autotrophic nutrition are:
Light, Chlorophyll, Water, Carbon dioxide and Proper temperature.
By-products are: Oxygen and Water
Q.8 What are differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? Name some
organisms that use anaerobic mode of respiration.
Ans. Difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration:
Anaerobic respiration takes place in yeast, some bacteria and some internal parasites like
tapeworm.
Q.9 How are the alveoli designed to maximize the exchange of gases? (To be done
in textbook)
Ans. (i) The wall of the alveoli is folded and has large surface areas.
(ii) It contains an extensive network of blood vessels which provide a surface where the
exchange of gases can take place.
(iii) Wall of alveoli is thin/delicate & moist.

Q.10 What would be the consequence of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies?
(To be done in textbook)
Ans. Presence of less hemoglobin will result in less supply of oxygen to tissues. A person having
less haemoglobin will get tired soon and will have a pale look. Deficiency of haemoglobin
may cause anaemia.
Q.11 Describe double circulation in human beings. Why is it necessary?

Ans. In mammals and birds the blood goes through the heart twice during each cycle. This is known
as double circulation. Deoxygenated blood which enters right auricle and then it enters the
right ventricle from where it is pumped to lungs for oxygenation. From lungs after
oxygenation it comes to left auricle and then enters left ventricle from where it is pumped to
various parts of body.
Such system of circulation does not allow mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
which allows efficient supply of oxygen to the body.
Q.12 What are differences between the transport of materials in xylem and phloem?
Ans. Difference between transport in xylem and phloem:
Xylem Phloem
Transports water and minerals Transports organic nutrients
Transport is unidirectional Bidirectional transport
Transport is mainly passive Active transport (Utilize ATP)
Transporting elements are Translocation occurs through sieve tubes with help of
tracheids & vessels companion cells
Q.13 Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and nephron in the kidneys with respect
to their structure and functioning.
Ans. Comparison between alveoli and nephron:
ALVEOLI NEPHRON
Structure
1. Balloon like structure present in the lungs. Tubular structure present in the kidneys.
Function
1. Removal of gaseous wastes. Removal of nitrogenous wastes from
blood.
ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS
Q.1 How do the guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores?
Q.2 Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than in carnivores?
Q.3 What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal?
Q.4 Why do veins have thin walls as compared to arteries?
Q.5 Draw a well labeled diagram of: heart, nephron.
Q.6 Explain the statement “Bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion”.
Q.7 Give reasons for the followings:
a) The alveoli present in the lungs are covered with blood capillaries.

b) The wall of trachea is supported by cartilage rings.
Q.8 What is the function of epiglottis in humans?
Q.9 Describe the process of nutrition in amoeba.
Q.10 How does the length of small intestine related to the kind of food an organism eat?

CHAPTER-1
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
---continued Pg. No. 13

Q.1 Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in
it?
A.1 When an iron nail is dipped copper sulphate, displacement reaction takes place. Iron
displaces copper from copper sulphate solution as iron is more reactive than copper. Hence
the colour of copper sulphate solution changes from blue to green.
𝐹𝑒(𝑠) + 𝐶𝑢𝑆𝑂4(𝑎𝑞) → 𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4(𝑎𝑞) + 𝐶𝑢(𝑠)

Q.2 Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one given in Activity
1.10. (to be done in text book)
Q.3 Identify the substances that are oxidized and the substances that are reduced in the
following reactions.
(i) 𝟒𝑵𝒂(𝒔) + 𝑶𝟐(𝒈) 𝟐𝑵𝒂𝟐 𝑶(𝒔)
(ii) 𝑪𝒖𝑶(𝒔) + 𝑶𝟐(𝒈) 𝑪𝒖(𝒔) + 𝑯𝟐 𝑶(𝒍)

A.3
(i) 4𝑁𝑎 + 𝑂2 → 2𝑁𝑎2 𝑂
In this reaction, Na is oxidised because it combines with oxygen and oxygen is reduced.
(ii) 𝐶𝑢𝑂 + 𝐻2 → 𝐶𝑢 + 𝐻2 𝑂
In this reaction, CuO is reduced because it loses oxygen. And H2 is oxidized.
Exercises (Q.1 to Q.4 to be done in text book)
Q.1 Which of the following statement about the reaction below are incorrect?
(a) Lead is getting reduced.

(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidized
(c) Lead oxide is getting oxidized
(d) Lead is getting reduced
i. (a) and (b)
ii. (a) and (c)
iii. (a), (b) and (c)
iv. All
A.1 As statement (a) and (b) are incorrect, answer (i) is correct
Q.2 𝑭𝒆𝟐 𝑶𝟑 + 𝟐𝑨𝒍 𝑨𝒍𝟐 𝑶𝟑 + 𝟐𝑭𝒆
The above reaction is an example of a:
(a) combination reaction
(b) double displacement reaction
(c) decomposition reaction
(d) displacement reaction
CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 1 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS Page 1 of 6

A.2 This is an example of displacement reaction because Fe in FeO3 has been displaced by Al.
Hence correct answer is (d).
Q.3 What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filing? Tick the correct
answer
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced
(c) No reaction takes place
(d) Iron salt and water are produced
(a) is correct.
Q.4 What is balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical equation be balanced?
A.4 The reaction in which the number of atoms of each element is equal on the reactant side and
product side is called balanced equation.
Chemical reaction should be balanced because only a balanced equation tells us the relative
quantities of different reactants and products involved in the reaction.
Q.5 Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them.
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and Sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminum sulphate to give aluminum chloride and
precipitate of barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
A.5 (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Q.6 Balance the following chemical equations:
(a)
𝑯𝑵𝑶𝟑 + 𝑪𝒂(𝑶𝑯)𝟐 → 𝑪𝒂(𝑵𝑶𝟑 )𝟐 + 𝑯𝟐 𝑶
(b)
𝑵𝒂𝑶𝑯 + 𝑯𝟐 𝑺𝑶𝟒 → 𝑵𝒂𝟐 𝑺𝑶𝟒 + 𝑯𝟐 𝑶
(c)
𝑵𝒂𝑪𝒍 + 𝑨𝒈𝑵𝑶𝟑 → 𝑨𝒈𝑪𝒍 + 𝑵𝒂𝑵𝑶𝟑
(d)
𝑩𝒂𝑪𝒍𝟐 + 𝑯𝟐 𝑺𝑶𝟒 → 𝑩𝒂𝑺𝑶𝟒 + 𝑯𝑪𝒍
Balanced chemical equations are:
A.6 (a)
2𝐻𝑁𝑂3 + 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 → 𝐶𝑎(𝑁𝑂3 )2 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
(b) 2𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 + 2𝐻2 𝑂
(c) 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 → 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 + 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3
(d) 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙
Q.7 Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions.

(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate + Water
(b)
Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver
(c)
(d) Aluminum + Copper chloride → Aluminum chloride +Copper
Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate → Barium sulphate + potassium chloride
A.7 Balanced chemical equations are:
(a) 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝐶𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂
(b) 𝑍𝑛 + 2𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 → 𝑍𝑛(𝑁𝑂3 )2 + 2𝐴𝑔
(c) 2𝐴𝑙 + 3𝐶𝑢𝐶𝑙2 → 2𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 + 3𝐶𝑢
(d) 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐾2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 + 2𝐾𝐶𝑙

Q.8 Write the balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of
reaction in each case.
(a) Potassium bromide(s)+Barium iodide(aq)→Potassium iodide(aq)+Barium bromide
(b) Zinc carbonate (s) → Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g)
(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (g) → Hydrogen chloride (g)
(d) Magnesium (s)+ Hydrochloric acid (aq) → Magnesium chloride(aq)+Hydrogen (g)
A.8 (a) 2𝐾𝐵𝑟 + 𝐵𝑎𝐼2 → 2𝐾𝐼 + 𝐵𝑎𝐵𝑟2 (Double displacement reaction)
(b) 𝑍𝑛𝐶𝑂3 → ZnO + C𝑂2 (Decomposition reaction)
(c) 𝐻2 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 2HCl (Combination reaction)
(d) 𝑀𝑔 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → MgCl2 + H2 (Displacement reaction)
Q.9 What does one mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
A.9 A reaction in which energy is released in the form of heat or light is called exothermic
reaction. Example of exothermic reaction are:
𝐶𝐻4 + 2𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑂2 + 2𝐻2 𝑂 +𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3 + 2𝐴𝑙 → 𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 + 2𝐹𝑒 + 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡

A reaction in which energy is absorbed from the surrounding and cooling is produced is
called endothermic reaction. Example of endothermic reaction are:
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 → 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐶𝑎𝑂
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
𝑁2 + 𝑂2 → 2𝑁𝑂
Q.10 Why respiration is considered an exothermic reaction? Explain. (to be discussed in
class)
A.10 During respiration, we inhale oxygen from the atmosphere which reacts with glucose in our
body cells to produce carbon dioxide water and heat.

𝑪𝟔 𝑯𝟏𝟐 𝑶𝟔 + 𝑶𝟐 → 𝟔𝑪𝑶𝟐 + 𝟔𝑯𝟐 𝑶 + 𝑯𝒆𝒂𝒕
Heat is released in this process; hence respiration is considered an exothermic reaction.
Q.11 Why decomposition reactions are called the opposite of combination reactions? Write
equations for these reactions. (to be done in text book)
A.11 In a decomposition reaction, a single substance breaks down into two or more substances
while in a combination reaction, two or more substances react to produce one substance.
Therefore, decomposition reactions are called opposite of combination reactions.
Example of decomposition reaction: Example of combination reaction:
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 → 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐶𝑎𝑂 𝐻2 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 2𝐻𝐶𝑙
Q.12 Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the
form of heat, light or electricity.
A.12 Decomposition by heat: (Thermal decomposition)
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
2𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 → 𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3 + 𝑆𝑂2 + 𝑆𝑂3
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 → 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2
Decomposition by electricity: (Electrolytic decomposition)
𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦
2𝐻2 𝑂 → 2𝐻2 + 𝑂2
Decomposition by light: (Photolytic decomposition)
𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
2𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 → 2𝐴𝑔 + 𝐶𝑙2
Q.13 What is difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write
equations for these reactions.
A.13 In displacement reaction, more reactive element displaces the less reactive element from its
compound. For example:
𝑍𝑛(𝑠) + 𝐶𝑢𝑆𝑂4(𝑎𝑞) → 𝑍𝑛𝑆𝑂4(𝑎𝑞) + 𝐶𝑢(𝑠)

But in double displacement reaction, exchange of ions takes place. For example:
𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3(𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙(𝑎𝑞) → 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3(𝑎𝑞) + 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(𝑠)

Q.14 In refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involved
displacement by copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
A.14 The reaction involved is:
2AgNO3(aq) + Cu(s) Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2 Ag(s)
Copper + Silver nitrate Copper nitrate + Silver
Q.15 What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.

A.15 A chemical reaction in which an insoluble substance (precipitate) is formed is called
precipitation reaction. For example,
𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3(𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙(𝑎𝑞) → 𝑁𝑎𝑁𝑂3(𝑎𝑞) + 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(𝑠)

Q.16 Explain the following in terms of gain and loss of oxygen with two examples each?
a. Oxidation b. Reduction
A.16 Oxidation- addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen in a chemical reaction is called
oxidation reaction. For example
2𝐶𝑢 + 𝑂2 → 2𝐶𝑢𝑂
4𝐴𝑙 + 3𝑂2 → 2𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3

Reduction- addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen in a chemical reaction is called
oxidation reaction. For example
𝐶𝑢𝑂 + 𝐻2 → 𝐶𝑢 + 𝐻2 𝑂
𝐻2 𝑆 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 𝑆
Q.17 A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name
the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
A.17 The brown coloured element ‘X’ is copper. On heating in air it forms copper oxide, which is
black in colour.
𝐶𝑢 + O2 → 𝐶𝑢𝑂
Q.18 Why do we apply paint on iron articles? (to be done in text book)
A.18 We apply paint on iron articles to prevent rusting. Iron articles do not come in contact of
atmospheric oxygen and moisture and thus the rusting is prevented.
Q.19 Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
A.19 Oil and fat containing items get rancid due to oxidation with atmospheric oxygen. To
prevent rancidity food items are flushed with nitrogen. Nitrogen do not reacts with oil and
fat containing items as it is inert in nature.
Q.20 Explain the following terms with one example each.
(a)
Corrosion
(b)
Rancidity.
A.20 Corrosion- action of air, water, acid or other substance on metal surface to form oxides and
carbonates is called corrosion. Corrosion of iron is called rusting. Green coating on copper
and black coating on silver is examples of corrosion.

Rancidity-change in smell of food item containing fat and oil when kept open for longer
time due to oxidation is called rancidity. To prevent rancidity food items are flushed with
nitrogen or kept in airtight containers.

CHAPTER-1
CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
Pg. No. 6
Q.1 Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
A.1 Magnesium is a reactive metal, so when kept in air for long it forms an inert layer of
magnesium oxide (MgO) on its surface. This inert layer of MgO prevents it from reacting so
this layer is removed before burning.
Q.2 Write the balance equation for the following reactions.
(i) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
(ii)Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride
(iii) Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
A.2 The chemical equations are as follows-
(i) 𝐻2 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 2𝐻𝐶𝑙
(ii) 3𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐴𝑙2 (𝑆𝑂4 )3 → 3𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 + 2𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
(iii) 3𝑁𝑎 + 2𝐻2 𝑂 → 2𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻2

Q.3 Write the balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions?
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble
barium sulphate and solution of sodium chloride.
(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution
(in water) to produce sodium chloride solution and water.
A.3 Balance chemical reaction with state symbols are as follows:
(i) 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 + 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4 + 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
(ii) 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂

Pg. No. 10
Q.1 A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for white washing
(i) Name the substance ‘X’ and writes its formula.
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X’ named in (i) above with water
(i) The substance whose solution is water is used for white washing is calcium oxide. Its
formula is CaO.
(ii) CaO (s) + H2O(l) Ca(OH)2 (a q)
Q.2 Why the amount of gas collected in one of the tubes in Activity 1.7 double of the amount
collected in the other? Name this gas.

The gas which is collected in double the amount in the electrolysis of water experiment is
hydrogen. This is because water contains two parts of hydrogen element as compared to only
one part of oxygen element.

CLASS X : CHAPTER - 6
Life Processes
Page No. 95
Q.1 Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen requirements of multicellular organisms
like humans? (To be marked in textbook)
Ans. As in multicellular organisms, all the cells are not in direct contact with environment, simple
diffusion does not meet the requirement of all the body cells to get sufficient oxygen.
Q.2 What criteria do we use to decide whether something is alive?

Ans. Something can be considered alive if following features are present:
(i) Movements-
Visible movements like growth, breathing, etc.
Invisible movements - All the living organism must have movement at molecular level like
respiration.
(ii) Life process- Occurrence of processes like nutrition, respiration, transportation and excretion
to be called alive.
(iii) Growth
(iv) Reproduction
(v) Response to stimuli
Q.3 What are outside raw materials used for by an organism? (To be discussed)
Ans. Outside raw materials used for by an organism includes:
(a) Water (b) Oxygen (c) CO2 (d) sunlight and (e) Nutrients/Minerals
These raw materials are used by an organism for various purposes like respiration, growth and
maintenance.
Q.4. What processes would you consider essential for maintaining life? (To be discussed)
Ans. The processes essential for maintaining life are
a. Nutrition
b. Respiration
c. Transportation
d. Excretion
Page No. 101
Q.1 What are the differences between autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition. (To be discussed)
Autotrophic Nutrition Heterotrophic Nutrition

Organism prepares its own food using simple inorganic Organism obtain food from other organism
molecules.
Energy required for synthesis of food No energy required
Digestion of food does not occur Generally digestion of food occur
Organisms act as producer Organisms act as consumer
Generally photosynthetic pigment (Chlorophyll) Photosynthetic pigment (Chlorophyll) absent
present
Ex- Green plants ; Some bacteria and Some Protista Ex- Animals, Fungi, Some bacteria, Some
Protista and Some non green plants

Q.2 Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis? (To be
discussed)
Ans. (a)Carbon dioxide from atmosphere.
(b) Light from Sun
(c) Water from Soil
(d) Minerals from soil
Q.3 What is the role of the acids in our stomach?

Ans. HCl plays following role in our stomach:
(a) Make the medium acidic for action of enzyme pepsin.
(b) Kills the harmful bacteria present in food
(c) Prevents fermentation of food
(d) Softening of food
Q.4 What is the function of digestive enzymes? Give one example

Ans. Digestive enzymes break-down the various complex components of food into simple and soluble
components so that they can be absorbed easily.
Eg., Starch salivary amylase Maltose
Q.5 How is small intestine designed to absorb digested food?

Ans. (i) The inner lining of small intestine has numerous finger-like projections called villi which in
turn have microvilli that increase the surface area for absorption.
(ii) The villi are richly supplied with blood vessels and Lacteals which transport the absorbed
food to each and every cells of the body.
Page No. 105
Q.1 What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with
regard to obtaining oxygen for respiration? (to be marked in the textbook)
Ans. The rate of breathing is slower in terrestrial organisms as compared to aquatic organisms. This is
due to the fact that in water, the amount of oxygen is less as compared to air so, in aquatic
organisms the rate of breathing is faster.
Q.2 What are different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in various
organisms? (To be discussed)
Ans. The pathways of break-down of glucose in various organisms are as below:
3. How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings? (to be marked in the
textbook)
Ans. Transport of Oxygen:
(i) 97% carried in combined form with Haemoglobin.
(ii) 3% dissolved in plasma.

Transport of Carbon dioxide:
(i) 70% as Bicarbonate ion in plasma
(ii) 23% in combined state with Haemoglobin.
(iii) Upto 7% dissolved state in plasma.
Q.4 How are the lungs designed in human beings to maximize the area for exchange of
gases?
Ans. (i) In lungs, the bronchioles terminate in balloon-like structures called alveoli that increase the
surface area for exchange of gases.
(ii) The alveoli contain network of blood capillaries for easy exchange of gases.
TEXTBOOK EXERCISE
(Multiple choice questions to be done in the textbook)
Q.5 How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?
Ans. Digestion of fats takes place in small intestine. Fats entering in intestine are in the form of large
globules. Bile juice breaks down these large globules into smaller globules (Emulsification). After
that fat digesting enzyme lipase present in pancreatic juice and intestinal juice converts it into
fatty acids and glycerol.
Q.6 What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food? (in the textbook)
Ans. (i) The saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down starch which is
complex molecule into glucose.
(ii) Moistening & softening of food for easy chewing & mixing.
(iii) Helps in formation of slippery bolus for easy swallowing.
Q.7 What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition and what are its by-products.
Ans. Conditions necessary for autotrophic nutrition are:
Light, Chlorophyll, Water, Carbon dioxide and Proper temperature.
By-products are: Oxygen and Water
Q.8 What are differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? Name some
organisms that use anaerobic mode of respiration.
Ans. Difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration:
Anaerobic respiration takes place in yeast, some bacteria and some internal parasites like
tapeworm.
Q.9 How are the alveoli designed to maximize the exchange of gases? (To be discussed)
Ans. (i) The wall of the alveoli is folded and has large surface areas.
(ii) It contains an extensive network of blood vessels which provide a surface where the exchange
of gases can take place.
(iii) Wall of alveoli is thin/delicate & moist.
DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, GANDHINAGAR
ACADEMIC SESSION: 2021-22
Chapter 10 - Light: Reflection and Refraction
Exercise 168
 Solution 1
Light rays that are parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror converge at a specific
point on its principal axis after reflecting from the mirror. This point is known as the
principal focus of the concave mirror.
 Solution 2
Radius of curvature, R = 20 cm
Radius of curvature of a spherical mirror = 2 × Focal length (f)
R=2f
Hence, the focal length of the given spherical mirror is 10 cm.
 Solution 3
A concave mirror can give an erect and enlarged image of an object.
 Solution 4
A convex mirror is preferred as a rear-view mirror in vehicles because it gives virtual, erect,
and diminished image of the objects placed in front of it. Also, a convex mirror has a wider
field of view, which allows the driver to see most of the traffic behind him.
Chapter 10 - Light: Reflection and Refraction Exercise 171
 Solution 1
Radius of curvature = 2 × Focal length (f)
R=2f
Hence, the focal length of the given convex mirror is 16 cm.
1
 Solution 2
Magnification produced by a spherical mirror is given by the relation,
Let the height of the object, h = h

O
Then the height of the image, hi = - 3 h (Image formed is real)

v = 3 × (-10) = -30 cm
Here, the negative sign indicates that an inverted image is formed at a distance of 30 cm in
front of the given concave mirror.
Exercise questions (Page 185-186)
Q.7
 Solution
Range of object distance = 0 cm to 15 cm
 A concave mirror gives an erect image when an object is placed between its pole (P) and the
principal focus (F).
 Hence, to obtain an erect image of an object from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm, the
object must be placed anywhere between the pole and the focus (i.e. within 15 cm from the
mirror). The image formed will be virtual, erect, and magnified in nature, as shown in the
given figure.
2
Q.8
 Solution
(a) Concave (b) Convex (c) Concave
Explanation:
(a) Concave mirror is used in the headlights of a car. This is because concave mirrors can
produce powerful parallel beams of light when the light source is placed at their principal
focus.
(b) Convex mirror is used in the side/rear view mirror of a vehicle because convex
mirrors give a virtual, erect, and diminished image of the objects placed in front of them and
have a wide field of view. It enables the driver to see most of the traffic behind him/her.
(c) Concave mirrors are converging mirrors. That is why they are used to construct solar
furnaces. Concave mirrors converge the light incident on them at a single point known as
principal focus. Hence, they can be used to produce a large amount of heat at that point.
Q.10
 Solution
Focal length of convex mirror, f = +15 cm
According to the mirror formula,
3
The positive value of v indicates that the image is formed behind the mirror.
The positive value of magnification indicates that the image formed is virtual and erect.
Q.13
 Solution
Magnification produced by a mirror is given by,
The magnification produced by a plane mirror is +1. It shows that the image formed by the
plane mirror is of the same size as that of the object. The positive sign shows that the image
formed is virtual and erect.
Concept Insight - Positive magnification corresponds to virtual and erect image. The
numeral value of magnification indicates that the size of the image is that many times the
size of the object.
Q.14
 Solution
Given:
Object height, H = 5 cm
Radius of curvature = 2 × Focal length
i.e., R = 2 f
f = 15 cm
4
v = 8.57 cm
The positive value of v indicates that the image is formed behind the mirror.
The positive value of magnification indicates that the image formed is virtual.
h' = m × h = 0.428 × 5 = 2.14 cm

The positive value of the image height indicates that the image formed is erect.
Therefore, the image formed is virtual, erect and smaller in size.
Q.15
 Solution
Given:
Object height, h = 7 cm
Focal length, f = -18 cm
5
The screen should be placed at a distance of 54 cm in front of the given mirror.
h' = h × m
h' = 7 × (-2) = -14 cm
The negative value of the image height indicates that the image formed is inverted.
6
CHAPTER-4
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
Pg.No.61
Q.1 What would be the electron dot structure of carbon dioxide which has the formula
CO2?
Ans The electron dot structure of CO2 is:
(OR) O=C=O
Q.2 What would he the electron dot structure of a molecule of sulphur which is made
up of eight atoms of sulphur?
Ans
Pg.No.68
Q.1 How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane?
Ans Three structural isomers can be drawn from pentane.
Pentane: C5H12
Q.2 What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon
compounds we see around us?

Ans Carbon form large number of compounds due to the following properties:
(a) Catenation → Carbon shows the property of catenation that is the ability to form
bonds with other carbon atoms forming long chains both branched and unbranched
chains, and even rings.
(b) Tetravalency → Carbon has valency 4, it is capable of bonding with 4 other
carbon atoms or atoms of other non-covalent elements, giving rise to compounds with
specific properties depending on the elements present in the compound.
(c) Isomerism → Carbon compounds show the property of isomerism that is
compounds having same molecular formula but different structural formula.
Q.3 What would be the formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane?
Ans The formula of cyclopentane is C5H10.
The electron dot structure is:
Q.4 DELETED
Q.5 DELETED
Pg.No.71 DELETED
Pg.No.74 DELETED
Pg.No.76 DELETED
EXERCISE QUESTIONS (Pg.No.77)
Q.1 Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has
(a) 6 covalent bonds. (b) 7 covalent bonds.
(c) 8 covalent bonds. (d) 9 covalent bonds.
Ans (b) 7 covalent bonds.
Q.2 DELETED
Q.3 DELETED
Q.4 Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond formation in CH3Cl.
Ans Covalent bond is formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms. It is non-ionic
in nature in CH3Cl

Q.5 Draw the electron dot structure for
(a) Ethanoic acid (b) H2S.
(c) Propanone. (d) F2.
Ans The electron dot structure are as follows:
(a) Ethanoic acid - CH3COOH
Q.6 What is a homologous series? Explain with an example.

Ans Series of compounds in which the same functional group substitutes for hydrogen in a
carbon chain is called homologous series. It is a group of members of same class of
organic compound having similar chemical properties, they have same general formula.
They have same functional group, when arranged in the ascending order of molecular
mass they differ by 14 u. or -CH2 group.
Example: Alkane General formula CnH2n+2
Methane CH4
Ethane C2H6
Propane C3H8
Butane C4H10
Q.7 to Q. 13 DELETED
-----------------------------------------------------------

CHAPTER - 9
Heredity and Evolution
Page No. 143
1. If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait
B exists in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier? (To
be done in textbook)
Ans. Trait B.
2. How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival?

Ans. Depending on the nature of variations different individuals would have different kinds of
advantage to adjust in particular habitat. Variations help the individual to have different traits
that may lead to better adaptability of the organisms in changing environment.
Page No. 147

1. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may be dominant or recessive?
Ans. In Monohybrid cross of Mendel between pure tall and pure dwarf pea plant, all progeny in
F1generation are tall and in F2 generation, 75% of pea plants are tall but 25% are dwarf. This
shows that traits are dominant or recessive. In F1 generation both the traits were present but
dwarfness couldn’t express itself in the presence of tallness. This shows that tallness is a
dominant character.
2. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently?

Ans When a pea plant having round green seeds is crossed with a pea plant having wrinkled yellow
seeds in F1 generation all the plants have round yellow seeds. But in F2 generation two new
combinations of traits that is round yellow and wrinkled green appeared. The new combinations
are possible only when traits are inherited independently.
3. A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group O and their daughter has
blood group O. Is this information enough to tell you which of the traits-blood group A
or O- is dominant? Why or why not?
Ans. No, the information is not enough. Either can be possible. In this case, there are two possibilities.
Possibility 1
Blood group A is dominant and blood group O is recessive. The blood group O in daughter
can appear only when both the recessive alleles occur together in mother and father has one
allele of A and other allele of O blood group.
Possibility 2
blood group O is dominant and blood group A is recessive. In this father must carry both
alleles of blood group A while mother may be having either both alleles of O or one of A
blood group and other of blood group O. In this case also the daughter can have blood group
O.
4. How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?

Ans. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in human beings. 23rd pair of chromosome is sex
chromosome. In male it is XY and female it is XX. Therefore males are heterogametic -
Produce two types of sperms (X and Y), while females are homogametic- Produce same type
of eggs (X). A child which inherits X containing sperm from her father will be a girl and one
who inherits Y-sperm from him will be a boy.

TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
Q1 to be done in the textbook.
4. A study found that children with light-coloured eyes are likely to have parents with
light coloured eyes. On this basis, can we say anything about whether the light eye
colour trait is dominant or recessive? Why or why not? (To be done in textbook)
Ans. No, since two copies of traits are inherited from parents, one from mother and the other form
father. Unless we know the nature of these two variants of traits we cannot tell which is
dominant and which is recessive. Recessive traits appear when both the parents contribute
recessive allele. From this statement we can only presume that both parents are contributing
recessive allele.
7. Outline a project which aims to find the dominant coat colour in dogs.
Ans. A male dog pure for black coat colour is crossed with a female dog pure for white coat colour.
If all the puppies in F1 generation have black coat colour then black coat colour is dominant
over white colour. This can further be established by cross between male and female of F1 gen.
The cross is depicted below:

8. Explain the importance of fossils in deciding evolutionary relationship.
Ans. (i) Study of fossils allow us to make estimates of how far back evolutionary relationship go
between organisms.
(ii) Study of age of fossils allows us to know which organisms evolved earlier and which
later. Thus help us in tracing the path of evolution.
(iii) They tell us about the characters and age of the fossil organism.
(iv) They tell us about the time period.
9. What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter?
Ans. The evidence was given by Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey in 1953. They recreated
primitive earth’s atmosphere inside an apparatus. Inside a glass chamber they took mixture of
gases- CH4; NH3: H2 and added H2O. This was maintained by them at a temperature just
below 100 degree Celsius and sparks were passed through the mixture of gases to stimulus
lightening. At the end of a week, they found that 15% of the carbon had been converted to
simple compounds of carbon including amino acids which make up protein molecules.
10. Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than asexual
reproduction. How does this affect the evolution of those organisms that reproduce
sexually?
Ans. Variations arise either because of errors in DNA copying or as a result of sexual
reproduction. Due to sexual reproduction genetic variability increases in the population
from one generation to another. This happens due to the fact that- (i) sexually reproducing
organism inherits half the genes from each parent. (ii) Crossing over during gamete
formation. (iii) Random fertilization of gametes. These variations are very important for the
process of evolution.
11. Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a
population. Do you agree with this statement? Why or why not?
Ans. No, depending on the nature of variations different individuals have been different kinds
of advantages. When a drastic change occurs in environment, only those organisms in the
population will survive which have an advantageous variation in that population to
survive in changed environment. Whereas in case of genetic drift the variations even
though don’t provide survival advantage, still persist in the population.
12. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the
progeny?
Ans. Equal contribution of male and female parents is ensured in progeny during sexual
reproduction. Each trait of progeny is determined by a pair of alleles and gametes of male
and female contain one allele (due to meiosis). Each allele pairs during fertilisation
combine together to determine traits. Thus, the traits of progeny are determined by equal
genes from male and female.

Periodic Classification of Elements: Chapter-5

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CHAPTER-5

Periodic Classification of Elements

CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements Page 1 of 5

CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements Page 2 of 5

CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements Page 3 of 5

(a) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.

CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements Page 4 of 5

Q.10 Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in Mendeleev’s, Periodic

CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements Page 5 of 5

Exercise (pg- 224)

Q.2 List the properties of magnetic lines of force.

Q. 3 Choose the correct option. (Not to be done in notebook)

Q.3 A positively charged particle (alpha-particle) projected towards west is

Ans: (d) Upward

Exercise (pg- 233)

Q.2 What is the principle of electric motor?

(Exercise pg- 236)

Q.1 Explain different ways to induce current in a coil.

Chapter 13 - Magnetic Effects of Current Exercise 240 (MCQs not to be done in

➢ Solution 2 (c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion

CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 4 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS Page 1 of 3

CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 4 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS Page 2 of 3

Q.6 What is a homologous series? Explain with an example.

CLASS: 10 CHAPTER: 4 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS Page 3 of 3

Resistivity of mercury = 94.0 x 10 ohm m

Chapter 12 - Electricity Exercise 213

Current flowing through the 12 ohm resistor, I = 0.24 A

Therefore, the reading of the ammeter will be 0.24 A.

Chapter 12 - Electricity Exercise 216

Concept Insight: For parallel combination, equivalent resistance R is given by

Therefore, equivalent resistance ≈1 ohm

Concept Insight: For parallel combination, equivalent resistance R is given by

Therefore, equivalent resistance = 0.999 ohm or 1 ohm

Resistance of toaster, R = 50 ohm

Resistance of water filter, R = 500 ohm

Voltage of the source, V = 220 V

According to Ohm's law,

7.04 A of current is drawn by all the three given appliances.

Concept Insight: Here, 6 Ω and 3 Ω resistors are connected in parallel.

This equivalent resistor of resistance 2 Ω is connected to a 2 Ω resistor in series.

Therefore, the total resistance of the circuit is 1 Ω.

Chapter 12 - Electricity Exercise 218

Therefore, the heat generated is 4.8 x 10 J.

Therefore, the amount of heat developed in the electric iron is 1.5 x 10 J.

Chapter 12 - Electricity Exercise 220

Therefore, power of the motor = 1100 W

Chapter 12 - Electricity Exercise 221

From equation (ii), it can be written

Power P cannot be expressed as IR . 2

Therefore, the power consumed will be 25 W.

 Solution 4 (c) 1:4

Area of cross-section of the wire,

Diameter = 0.5 mm = 0.0005 m

Therefore, the length of the wire is 122.72 m.

Therefore, the new resistance is 2.5 Ω.

Similarly, current drawn by the bulb of rating 100 W is given by,

Hence, current drawn from the line =

Energy consumed by a toaster of power 1200 W in 10 minutes

Resistance of the electric heater, R = 8 ohm