Compre Final Coaching Soc 2018

CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE EXAMINATIONS
FINAL COACHING ON SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES AND ETHICS (15%)

BY DEAN RODOLFO V. CASTILLO JR, Ph.D.
COVERAGE:
5. Sociology of Crime and Ethics (15%)
5.1 Introduction to Criminology and Psychology of Crimes (3.75%=25)
5.2 Philippine Criminal Justice System (1.5%=10)
5.5 Human Behavior and Crisis Management (2.4%=16)
5.3 Ethics and Values (2.4=16%)
5.4 Juvenile Delinquency (2.4%=16)
5.6 Criminological Research (2.55%=17)
INSTRUCTION: Choose the letter of the correct answer.
1. Edwin Sutherland and Donald Cressey offered a classical definition of Criminology as the body of
knowledge regarding crime as a social________.
A. Problem C. Phenomenon
B. Menace D. Fact
2. Criminology is an interdisciplinary science because_____.
1. It is a systematic aggregation of actions, relative to crimes, criminal penalties and other means of
social defense against crimes
2. Criminologists are mainly concerned with identifying the nature, extent and cause of crimes
3. Criminologists are trained in diverse fields, most commonly sociology, criminal justice,
psychology, natural sciences etc. in its attempts to explain crime causation
4. It systematically analyzes the conditions under which penal laws develop
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Statement No. 1 Criminology explains the etiology, extent and nature of crime in society; Statement No.2
Criminal Justice refers to the agencies of social control that handle criminal offenders.
A. Statement No 1 is true C. Statements No. 1 and 2 are true
B. Statement No 2 is false D. Statement No. 1 and 2 are false
4. Which ancient law that was basically based on lex talliones “Oculo pro oculo, dente pro dente”?
A. Code of Ur Nammu C. Mosaic Code
B. Code of Hammurabi D. Code of Twelve Tables
5. Acts which are not basically wrong, but for the fact that positive law forbids them it being condemned as a
crime is known as______.
A. Mala inse C. Actus reus
B. Mala prohibita D. Mens rea
6. Act or omission punishable by the Revised Penal Code is legally called ________.
A. Felony C. Crime
B. Offense D. Infraction
7. Which of the following is the main source of the Revised Penal Code?
A. Act No. 3815 C. Spanish Penal Code of 1870
B. French Code of 1810 D. Presidential Decrees, Republic Acts and Executive Orders
8. The Revised Penal Code mainly belongs to the_____.
A. Classical theory C. Eclectic or Mixed theory
B. Positivist theory D. Neo-Classical theory
9. “Nullum cremin nulla poene sine lege” means_____
A. The law may be harsh but it is the law
B. The act cannot be a criminal where the mind is not a criminal
C. There is no crime when there is no law punishing the act
D. There is no crime when there is no criminal who did an act
10. This theory of crime causation emerged when Cesare Beccaria published his book entitled “Dei Delitti e
Delle Pene” in 1764, postulating that a person act according to his freewill and as being motivated by
hedonism. Which theory is being referred?
A. Classical C. Ecological
B. Neo-Classical D. Economic
11. Often viewed as the “Founder of the Ecological or Cartographhic School of Criminology”. He published
what was regarded as the first book of scientific criminology. He is_____.
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Andre-Michel Guerry
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Lambert Adolphe Jacques Quetelet
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12. He is recognized as the “Father of Modern Sociological and Psychological Statistics”; who insisted upon
the impact of group factors and characteristics on crime causation and considered as the “First Scientific
Criminologist”.
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Karl Marx
B. Lambert Adolphe Jacques Quetelet D. Emile Durkheim
13. In his book Criminality and Economic Condition, Dutch philosopher Willem Bonger postulated that-
A. hedonism is natural among people, but capitalism encourages egoism to an extreme and to the
disadvantage of the society and the poor
B. crimes against persons increase in equatorial climates while property crimes are most prevalentin
colder climates
C not absolute poverty but a gap between status and expectation as a variable in crime causation
D. capitalism produces economic inequality in which the proletariats are exploited by the bourgeoisie;
this exploitation creates poverty and also is at the root of the existence of other social problems including
crimes
14. In his work entitled “A System of Positive Polity”, Auguste Comte presented three (3) elements of
positivistic elements composed of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Application of the scientific method C. Determination of causes
B. Discovery and diagnosis of pathology D. Treatment
15. Austrian Anatomist Franz Gall attempted to determine intelligence and personality of a person on the basis
of the size and shape of the skull and posited that certain areas of the brain correspond to various
psychological and intellectual characteristics. This refers to the science of_____.
A. phrenology C. astrology
B. physiognomy D. palmistry
16. According to Classical or Choice Theory , crime is a function of free will and personal choice. Punishment
is a deterrent to crime. Therefore the social forces that push a person to criminality is____.
A. situational C. structural
B. internal D. learning
17. Biological and Psychological perspective of crime causation stressed internal forces as a prevailing
cause of criminal behavior, which means that crime is a function of -
A. chemical, neurological, genetic, personality, intelligence, or mental traits
B. neighborhood conditions, cultural forces, and norm conflict
C. combination of biological, social-psychological, economic, and political forces
D. upbringing, learning, and control such as peers, parents and teachers influence behavior
18. Crime is a function of competition for limited resources and power. Class conflict produces crime. These
are the forces that make a criminal according to ________ theory.
A. social structural C. conflict
B. social process D. developmental or multiple-factors
19. In Neo-classical Theory, absence of free will was given consideration due to age factor, mental condition
and other incapabilities. Thus, preferences to ______ circumstances was applied during court trials.
A. aggravating C. mitigating
B. exempting D. alternative
20. Who among the following is known to be the first codifier of laws, which he based on the Law of Talion “an
eye for an eye”?
A. Drakon C. Hammurabi
B. Solon D. Hittites
21. Labeling theory holds that people enter into law-violating careers when they are labeled for their acts and
organize their personalities around the labels. This theory is also known as_____.
A. social learning C. social reaction
B. social control D. social process
22. Crime is a product of learning the norms, values and behavior associated with criminal activity. Which
theory is referred?
A. Differential Association C. Neutralization
B. Differential Reinforcement D. Social Learning
23. Which criminological theory asserting that people commit crime when the forces that bind them to society
are weakened or broken?
A. Containment C. Social Control
B. Social Bond D. Developmental
24. Which of the following is NOT one of the premise of Differential Association Theory according to
Sutherland?
A. Criminal behavior is learned
B. Criminal behavior can be learned through interaction with others in the process of
communication
C. The process of learning criminal behavior excludes law abiding members of the community
D. The principal part of learning is within the most intimate personal group.
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25. In order to cope with social isolation and economic deprivation, members of the lower class create a unique
culture with its own set of rules and values. This is the thesis on crimes according to -
A. Culture Conflict Theory C. Social Learning Theory
B. Culture Deviance Theory D. social Disorganization Theory
26. Who among the following is the co-author of Andre Micheal Guerry in the Carthographic School of
Criminology?
A. Raffaele Garofalo C. Sigmund freud
B. Adolphe Quetelet D. Gabriel tarde
27. In his theory of imitation Gabriel Tarde states that persons in close intimate contact with one another tend
to imitate each other's behavior that moves from the top down, and new acts and behaviors tend to either
reinforce or replace old ones. This idea gave birth to -
A. Skinner's behavior theory of rewards and punishment
B. Albert Bandura's adaptation theory
C. Bandura's modeling theory of aggression
D. Durkheim's functionalism theory
28. All the statements are correct, EXCEPT:

A. Individuals imitate others in proportion to intensity and frequency of contacts.
B. Superiors learns from inferiors
C. When two behavior patterns clash, one may take the place of the other.
D. Inferiors imitate superiors
29. While ego is the most sensible and responsible part of individual’s personality governed by the reality
principle, ___ is the fundamental aspect of personality from which drives, wishes, urges and desires emanates.
A. thanatos C. id
B. super ego D. Eros
30. Which of the following is FALSE about phrenology introduced by Franz Gall and and Johann
Spurzheim?
A. Behavioral and emotional patterns could be detected by the physical contours of the brain, which
were evident in the shape of the skull itself.
B. Emotional and behavioral patterns resulting from the shape of the skull could be detected even
before any violent act is committed.
C. Irregular bumps and bulges of a person’s cranium are the external expression of that person’s
character and inclinations
D. Attributes of criminals are inherited from their parents
31. The positivist school considered him as the “forerunner in criminology”, for he founded the school of
human physiognomy which is the study of facial features and their relation to human behavior.
A. Franz Joseph Gall C. Giambattista Dela Porta
B. Johann Christoph Spurzheim D. J.K. Lavater
32. According to Lombroso’s criminals are classified into three types; born criminals; insane criminals;
and___.
A. sane criminals C. abnormal criminals
B. criminoloids D. acute criminals
33. Which are referred as Atavistic stigmata articulated by Lombroso in his positivist theory?
A. Body build of a person as related to his personality and most likely type of offense committed
B. Physical features of creatures at an earlier stage of development
C. Shape of the skull and its conformation to the brain
D. Facial features and its relations to human behavior
34. Which concept that assumes that all our actions are calculated in accordance with their likelihood of
bringing pleasure and pain?
A. Anomie C. Utilitarianism
B. Adaptation D. Functionalism
35. In his “Felicific Calculus”, _________ stated that individuals are human calculators who put all the factors
into an equation in order to decide whether a particular crime is worth committing or not.
A. Cesare Beccaria C. Edwin Sutherland
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Cesare Lombroso
36. Which of the following that can be measured by maturity of judgment, sincerity of purpose, character,
effective expression and a variety of other good traits?
A. social control C. social learning
B. social values D. character structure
37. Criminality and environment greatly affects crime commission, and we refer to this as_____
A. criminal ecology C. criminal typology
B. criminal epidiomology D. criminal demography
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38. Which personality structure that led a person to conform with the dictates of his conscience that becomes
the basis of his behaviour?
A. Super ego C. ego
B. Id D. alter ego
39. Beccaria is responsible for the contemporary belief that criminals have control over their behavior, that
they choose to commit crimes, and that they can be deterred by the threat of ____________, which should be
certain, swift and severe.
A. death penalty C. punishment
B. corporal punishment D. torture
40. According to Classical Criminology:
1. people have freewill to choose criminal or conventional behavior
2. people choose to commit crime for reasons of greed or personal need
3. crime can be controlled only by the fear of criminal sanctions
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. Only 1
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 3
41. According to the theory of __________ criminal behavior is learned in interaction with people in the
process of communication.
A. social learning C. radical
B. differential association D. social conflict
42. All these statements are correct, EXCEPT:
A. Classical theory states that the basis of criminality is human free will
B. Criminal behavior can be inherited and can be controlled through regulating the reproduction of
families
C. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and personality disorder
D. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with others through communication
43. A person suffers from_______ when he developed a maladaptive behavior in his childhood as a result of
an external influence that later becomes a part of his lifestyle which he uses to relate to the world around him.
A. abnormal personality C. personality disorder
B. abnormal behavior D. psychotic behavior
44. Developed by Walter Reckless this theory states that criminal behavior results from person’s poor self
concept. Which of these?
A. Containment C. Social Control
B. Social Bond D. Control
45. Travis Hirschi’s factors of attachment, commitment, involvement and belief which insulate a person from
crime are known as -
A. Social Behavior C. Social Contracts
B. Social Bonds D. Social Learning
46. In the study of the theoretical causes of crime, this theory blames delinquent behavior to a conscience that
is either too overbearing that it arouses feeling of guilt or so weak that it cannot control the person’s impulse
and the need for immediate gratification.
A. Behaviorist/Learning by Skinner C. Positivism by Comte
B. Differential Association by Sutherland D. Psychoanalytic by Freud
47. His theory was that God did not make all the various species of animals in two days, as what the bible says
but rather that the species had evolved through a process of adoptive mutation and natural selection which led
to his conclusion that man was traced to have originated from the apes.
A. Rafaelli Garofalo in his Moral Anomalies C. Cesare Lombroso in his Theory of Atavism
B. Charles Darwin in his Theory of Evolution D. Enrico Ferri in his Multiple Factor Theory
48. This theory states that individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals, and, that those with weaker
personalities tend to get influenced easier by those with stronger personalities.
A. Biochemical Theory of Edward Wilson C. Mental Defectiveness by Charles Goring
B. Theory of Imitation of Gabriel Tarde D. Genetic Feeblemindedness of Henry Goddard
49. These are offenses committed by highly respected people belonging to the upper socio-economic life and
results to the commission of the crime in line with their given profession
A. White-collar crimes C. Cybercrimes
B. Enterprise crimes D. Organized crimes
50. This theory as articulated by Thorten Sellin, states that the main difference between a criminal and a non-
criminal was that each is responding to different sets of conduct norms.
A. Culture Conflict C. Culture Deviance
B. Strain D. Aging Out
51. Interrelated divisions of criminology according to Sutherland, Cressey and Luckenbell.
1. Lawmaking 3. Society’s reaction to lawbreaking
2. Lawbreaking 4. Effects to the victim of lawbreaking
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
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B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
52. A phenomenon that refers to the handing down of delinquent behaviors as socially learned and transferred
from one generation to the next, taking place mostly among depressed and disorganized urban areas.
A. Differential Reinforcement by Ronal Akers C. Social Disorganization Theory by Henry Mckay
B. Culture transmission by Thorsten Sellin D. Strain Theory by Robert Merton
53. Italian law professor who coined the term “Criminologia” in 1885 Rafaele Garofalo opined that -
A. crime is conducted by persons lacking probity and pity
B. penal system should exist solely to maintain law and order not for the aggrandizement or
degradation of an individual
C. criminality is the result of a biological throwback to an earlier stage of evolution
D. criminality was a product of heredity
54. Enrico Ferri who was a student of Lombroso emphasized that__.
A. environmental conditions is the main reason for people committing crimes
B. people commit crimes because of free will
C. there is no such things as a physical criminal type, which Lombroso espoused.
D. criminals had organic inferiorities; it is from the physically inferior element of the population
that native born criminals from native parentage are mainly derived
54-A. Emile Durkheim argued that crime is a normal part of the society as birth and death, and___.
A. should be prevented before it destroys society
B. criminal acts should be punished in order to deter others from doing the same
C. should be controlled by observing due process
D. criminal acts reflected society’s dominant values and will disappear if society’s collective
sentiments will reach a universal degree of acceptance.
55. In the field of Criminology, they are regarded as its “Holy Three”. Who among them?
1. Cesare Lombroso 4. Raffaeli Garofalo
2. Emile Durkheim 5. Henry Goddard
3. Enrico Ferri
A. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 3, 4 and 5 D. 5,4 and 1
56. One of the Culture Deviance theories. It states that obedience to the norms of the lower class culture put
people in conflict with the norms of the dominant culture. Which of theses
A. Culture Conflict Theory C. Ecological Theory
B. Theory of Anomie D. Functionalist Theory
57. In the study of criminology, you will be dealing with______.
1. The origin and development of criminal or penal law;
2. The effectiveness of penalty in neutralizing criminality
3. The cause of crime
4. The factors that enhance the development of criminal behavior
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4
58. Physiognomy as studied by J.K. Lavater refers to one of these premises.
A. Study of the external formation of the skull and the brain development
B. Study of facial features of criminals to determine whether the shape of the ears, nose, and eyes and
the distance distance between them were associated with anti-social behavior
C. Study of the facial features of man as it is related to human behavior
D. Study of human behavior
59. Which is TRUE about Neo-Classical Criminology?
A. The solution to crimes is the transformation of human beings creation of communities of caring
people, and universal social justice
B. It is a self conscious corrective model in criminology that intends to redirect the thinking of
mainstream criminologists to to include gender awareness
C. Criminal behavior is considered motivated by a hedonistic rationality, in which actors weigh the
potential pleasure of an action against the possible pain associated with it
D. Certain factors such as insanity and or minority might inhibit the exercise of free will
60. Also known as criminology of place, environmental criminology refers to -

A. the theory which states that crimes are rooted in social conditions which empower the
wealthy and the politically well-organized but disenfranchise the less fortunate
B. a perspective that stresses the importance of geographic location and architectural features
as they are associated with criminal victimization
C. a theory of crime which holds that physical deterioration in an area leads to increased
concerns for personal safety among area residents and to higher crime rates in that area
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D. the study of crime in relation to the degradation of environment
61. Classical Criminology explains that man’s intelligence and rationality controls human behavior and that,
before they commit a crime they try to determine the amount of pain they will suffer, which refers to the
_______ of the crime.
A. punishment C. rewards
B. benefits D. pleasure
62. In his Positivist Theory, Cesare Lombroso referred to this type of criminals to be lower form of life nearer in
appearance to their ape-like ancestors, than the non-criminals both in character and disposition, differentiated
by various atavistic stigmata. These criminals are referred to as-
A. born-criminals C. psychologically imbalanced criminals
B. insane criminals D. criminoloids
63. Considered to be of noteworthy importance in the Code of Hammurabi is_____.
A. an assertion of the power of the state
B. protection of the weaker from stronger
C. restoration of equity between the offender and the victim
D. its concern in the rights of the victim
64. This theory focuses on the development of high crime areas associated with the disintegration of
conventional values caused by the rapid industrialization, increased immigration, and urbanization
A. Culture conflict C. Culture deviance
B. Differential association D. Social disorganization
65. What is considered to be the basis of many of the laws in modern society, which especially
prohibit murder, perjury, and theft?
A. Code of Hammurabi C. Mosaic Code
B. Code of Ur Nammu D. Code of Twelve Tables
66. Illegal possession of firearms in the Philippines is a crime which is considered as crime_____.
A. mala inse C. malum prohibitum
B. actus reus D. mens rea
67. The decline in criminal activities together with time is known as_____.
A. aging out phenomenon C. modeling theory
B. frustration-aggression theory D. self-control theory
68. In classical theory of criminal law, the basis of criminal liability is freewill and the purpose of
penalty is -
A. retribution C. deterrence
B. self defense D. social control
69. The study of Criminology involves the use of knowledge and concept of other sciences and field of study
which makes the study of criminology -
A. dynamic C. nationalistic
B. social science D. an applied science
70. Which psychological disorder that refers to the child’s showing of developmentally inappropriate
impulsivity, hyperactivity and lack of attention?
A. Electra Complex C. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
B. Personality Disorder D. Anxiety Disorder

71. Forcible sex which the offender and the victim are known with each other is known as____.
A. incestous rape C. date rape
B. marital rape D. acquaintance rape
72. Which term or terms used by lombroso that refer to the physical characteristics that distinguish born
criminals from the general population and are throwbacks to animals or primitive people?
A. physical deviations C. stigmata
B. atavistic anomalies D. ape-like appearance
73. According to the Chicago School of Criminology, who studied the relationship between environmental
conditions and crime, criminality and delinquent behavior is a product of -
A. criminal demography C. social deviance
B. social disorganization D. environment
74. According to Cesare Beccaria in his book, Dei Delitti e delle Pene, originally published in 1764,
individuals act based on freewill and as being motivated by -
A. hedonism C. instinct
B. id D. desire
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75. In his Theory of Dialectical Materialism, _________ argued that the resolution of social problems
such as crime would be achieved by the creation of a socialist society characterized by communal
ownership of the means of production and an equal distribution of the fruits of these labors.
A. Karl Marx C. Willem Bonger
B. Robert Merton D. Adolf Hitler
76. Literally means “little war”. Today, the term, ______ is used interchangeably with the term “terrorism”.
A. violence C. revolution
B. guerilla D. rebel
77. He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in the study of society, which to him passes through
stages divided on the basis of how people try to understand it, leading them to adopt a rational scientific
understanding of the world. Calling this the positive stage and those who followed his writings were called -
A. August Comte C. Alienist
B. Positivists D. Sociologists
78. A condition produced by normlessness due to a rapidly shifting moral values, hence the individual has few
guides to what is socially acceptable. Which is being described?
A. synomie C. anarchy
B. anomie D. chaos
79. Criminologically, what is the term used for the act of killing large number of people in a single outburst?
A. Road rage C. Hate crime
B. Mass murder D. Serial murder
80. What is a condition that a person's glucose in the blood falls below levels necessary for normal and
efficient brain functioning and many Crminologists correlated it to criminal behavior?
A. hyperglycemia C. hyperglycomia
B. hypoglycemia D. hypoglycomia
81. This school on crime causation emphasized economic determinism and concentrated on the need for the
quality among all citizen. They provided statistical data which claimed to show that variations in crime rates are
associated with variations in economic conditions. Which of these?
A. Cartographic School C. Psychiatric School
B. Socialist School D. Chicago School
82. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) . This was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing the
____________ personality that is characterized by an inability to learn from experience, lack of warmth, and no
sense of guilt.
A. psychotic C. neurotic
B. psychopathic D. dementia praecox
83. Based on the findings of Dugdale’s study, ________ was dubbed as the “Mother of Criminals”.
A. Margaret Juke C. Ada Kallikak
B. Ada Juke D. Ada Edwards
84. Among different body types presented in his study, Sheldon considered ________ as one to be the most
likely become criminal. Which body type he is referring?
A. endomorph C. mesomorph
B. ectomorph D. dysplastic
85. A tracing made by an instrument that measures cerebral functioning by recording brain wave activity with
electrodes that are placed on the scalp, which found to be a potent test in disguishing criminal offenders from
noncriminal control groups. Which of these?
A. Electroencephalogram C. Electrocraniogram
B. Electroencephalograph D. Electo-brain activity
86. Low female crime and delinquency rates are a reflection of the leniency which police treat female
offenders. This thesis is called -
A. gender bias theory C. masculinity hypothesis
B. chivalry hypothesis D. pre-menstrual syndrome
87. Stage of human development when girls begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers is known as -
A. Oedipus complex C. Doing gender
B. Electra complex D. Inferiority complex
88. Which legal principle that the decision or holding in an earlier case becomes the standard by which
subsequent similar cases are judged?
A. Jus desert C. Stare decisis
B. Story decisis D. Just stare
89. The first IQ test was developed by a French psychologist named:
A. Rafael Garofalo C. Albert Bandura
B. Walter Reckless D. Alfred Binet
90. Which of the following is NOT one of the biochemical factors to criminality?
A. Brain lesions C. Food allergies
B. Hypoglycemia D. Diet
91. XYY syndrome postulates that:
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A. Possession of an extra Y-chromosome causes males to be violent and aggressive
B. Possession of two Y chromosomes causes any person to be sexually active
C. Possession of an extra Y chromosomes inclined a person to kill
D. Lack of X chromosomes causes a person to be vulnerable for victimization
92. His study had focused on the Kallikak Family Tree, concluding that feeblemindedness is inherited and
related to deviant behavior and poverty. He was the first person to use the term “moron”. Who is he?
A. Robert Dugdale C. Henry Goddard
B. Earnest Hooton D. Charles Goring
93. From Control perspectives, crime and delinquency are the consequences of_____.
1. Lack of internalized normative controls
2. Breakdown in previously established controls
3. Conflict or inconsistency in rules of social controls
A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 only
94. It points out that individual commits crimes after he has made a rational decision to do so and has
weighed the risks and benefits of the act and selected a particular offense according to various criteria.
A. Deterministic rationality C. Choice theory
B. Utilitarianism D. Trait Theory
95. The study of the role of the victim-in a criminal event.
A. Victimology C. Crime victimization
B. Criminology D. Victimization
96. The theory that those who experienced violence or abuses during childhood will also be violent or abuser
when they become adults.
A. Victim precipitation C. Cycle of abuse
B. Cycle of violence D. Violence and crime
97. A person's fear for the safety of the significant people in their lives.
A. Fear of Victimization C. Altruistic fear
B. Altruism D. Fear
98. Effects of crime victimization: 1. Economic loss; 2. Suffering and fear; 3. Trauma; 4. Antisocial behavior;
and 5. Anger and loss of trust to the government
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 3, 4, and 5
99. Based on this theory of crime victimization, some people become victims because of personal and social
characteristics that make them attractive targets for predatory criminals. Which of these?
A. Active precipitation C. Routine Activity
B. Passive Precipitation D. High-risk Lifestyle
100. A person's fear for the safety of the significant people in their lives is known as -.
A. Active precipitation C. Lifestyle Theory
B. Precipitation Theory D. Passive Precipitation
101. Which humanistic non-punitive strategies to a hate crime, real or perceive that stresses remedies and
restoration rather than prison, punishment and victim neglect?
A. Social justice C. Restorative justice
B. Distributive justice D. Mediatory justice
102. A target for a crime that is valuable, easily transportable, and not capably guarded is called -
A. Lifestyle Theory C. Routine activities theory
B. Suitable target D. Predictable target
103. A theory that the victim's behavior was the spark that ignited the subsequent offense, as when the victim
abused the offender verbally or physically.
A. Victim precipitation C. Active precipitation
B. Passive precipitation D. Routine activities
104. It refers to a person who studies the victim's role in criminal transactions.
A. Criminologist C. Criminal Justice Scholar
B. Victimologist D. Alienist
105. According to recent study, which of the following gender is much more likely to suffer a violent crime?
A. Female C. male
B. Child D. spouse
106. Which of the following social status of a person that would likely made him a victim?
A. Lowest income category C. Middle class
B. Affluent class D. All of them because crime does not distinguish
107. Residents of poor areas have a much greater risk of becoming victims because they live in areas with
many motivated offenders.
A. Routine Activities Theory C. Lifestyle Theory
B. Deviant Place Theory D. Victim Precipitation
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108. Presence of these components such as availability of suitable targets, absence of capable guardian, and
presence of motivated offender increases the likelihood of victimization.
A. Deviant Place Theory C. Lifestyle theory
B. Routine Activities Theory D. Victim precipitation Theory
109. Victimization risk is increased by such behavior as associating with violent and police character person,
going out in public places at right, and living in an urban area.
A. Lifestyle Theory C. Deviant Place Theory
B. Routine activities theory D. Victim Precipitation Theory
110. How can due process and human rights exist for both the defendant and the victim of crime?
A. By compensation of the defendant to the victim
B. By helping the victim to cope after the crime
C. By remunerating his suffering
D. By separation of his sufferings and damage life
111. This theory shows victim behavior can influence criminal opportunity. It suggests that victimization can be
reduced by increasing guardianship and/or reducing target vulnerability.
A. Routine Activities C. Lifestyle Theory
B. Deviant Place D. Victim Precipitation
112. People who live in deviant places are at high risk for crime, and victim's behavior has little influence over
the criminal act.
A. Victim precipitation C. Deviant Place Theory
B. Lifestyle theory D. Routine Activities
113. Stages of the cycle of violence.
1. Honeymoon (Period of calm)
2. Tension-building (Escalation period)
3. Acute battering episode ( Uncontrollable attack)
A. 3,2,1 C. 2,3,1
B. 1,2,3 D. 1,3,2
114. Elements of routine activities theory of victimization:
1. Desire, opportunity and instruments 3. Absence of Capable Guardians
2. Availability of suitable targets 4. Presence of motivated offenders
A. 1,2,3, and 4 C. 1 and 3
B. 2,3, and 4 D. 2 and 4
115. A collection of numerical data of crimes reported to the police is called -
A. Statistics C. Crime Statistics
B. Crime Rate D. Crime Volume
116. The recorded sum of crime incidents in an area over a given period of time is termed -
A. Crime Volume C. Crime Statistics
B. Crime Rate D. Crime Index
117. An index crime is______.
A. Numerical total unreported crimes that are not reflected in official crime statistics
B. Serious crime, which occur with sufficient frequency and regularity
C. Crime committed by those who are in prison or otherwise incapacitated by the criminal justice
system
D. Summation of crime statistics tallied annually and consisting primarily of data on crimes reported to
the police and of arrests
118. Number of crimes generated form the result of positive police initiated operations.
A. Non-index crimes C. Crime Volume
B. Dark figure of crimes D. Crime rate
119. Crime statistics are generated from:
1. Police Blotter 2. National Crime situation data 3. National Crime reporting System
A. 1,2 and 3 C. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
120. Which of the following crimes is considered as non-index?
A. Murder, homicide and physical injury C. rape
B. Robbery and Theft D. Abduction, seduction, lasciviousness acts
121. Classification of crime considered as non-index EXCEPT one.
A. Crimes against moral and order
B. Crimes against person and property
C. Crimes against chastity
D. Estafa, falsification, malicious mischief or damage to property
122. Crime rate pertains to__________.
A. Number of crime incidents in a given period of time for every 100,000 inhabitants of an area
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B. Percentage of solved cases out of the total number of reported crime incidents handled by the police
offices for a given period of time. 121. Classification of Crime considered as non-index except one.
C. Total number of index crimes recorded by the police
D. Sum total recorded crimes in the country
123. Crime Solution Efficiency refers to__________.
A. Percentage share of crime volume of a certain area
B. General measure of a law enforcement agency's investigative capability
C. Percentage share of the occurrence of a type of crime
D. One way of analysing crime trends
124. Percentage of solved cases out of the total number of reported crime incidents handled by police offices
for a given period of time.
A. Crime Rate C. Crime Investigation Efficiency
B. Crime Volume D. Crime Solution Efficiency
Notes:
Crime Solution Efficiency (CSE)- percentage of solved cases out of the total number of reported crime incidents
handled by the police offices for a given period of time. It is a general measure of law enforcement agency’s investigative
capability or efficiency.
Formula:
No . of Solve Cases
CSE= x 100
Total No . of Reported Cases
125. How will you compute Average Monthly Crime Rate?

A. By dividing Crime Volume to the number of the population and multiplying it to 100,000, the product
of which shall be divided into the number of months.
B. By multiplying Crime Volume to 100,000, the quotient of which shall be divided into the number of
the population, and the product will be added to the number of months in which the sum will serve as the
Average Monthly Crime Rate
C. By adding Crime Volume to the total number of population, the sum of which will be minus to the
crime rate, the difference of which will be the Average Monthly Crime Rate
D. None of them
Notes:
Crime Rate- the number of crime incidents in a given period of time for every 100,000 inhabitants of an area/place
Formula:
Crime volume
CR ¿ X 100 ,000
Population
126. The National Capital Region has a total population of 9 Million. Out of which, 200 index crimes and 350
non-index crimes were reported on the month of March. Which of the following is its Crime Rate for the said
month?
A. 6.1 Crimes for every 100,000 population
B. 7.5 Crimes for every 100,000 population
C. 550 Crimes for every 9,000 population
D. 55 Crimes for every 1,000,000 population
127. Police Station 5 of the Manila Police District received a total of 85 index crimes for the month of May out
of which 50 were filed in Court. Which of the following is its Crime Solution Efficiency?
A. 60% C. 58.8%
B. 75% D. 80%
128. Assume that you are a Criminologist. Tasked to determine the national crime trends, how will you do it?
A. Find the difference of the current data from the previous data, after which divide it to previous data
and multiply it to 10.
B. By subtracting current data to previous data, the difference of which shall be divided to previous
data, the quotient will be multiplied to 100.
C. Subtract current data to previous data and multiply the difference to 100
D. None of the above
Notes:
Crime Analysis
1. Percentage Share of Crime Volume of a Certain Area
Crime volume of a certain area

¿ x 100
Crime Volume Nationwide
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2. Percentage Share of the Occurrence of a Type of Crime
total number of occurrences of a type of crime

¿ x 100
Crime Volume Nationwide
3. Variance (or % Change)- one way of analyzing crime trends. It measures the percentage
change over a given period of time.
Current data− previous data

¿ x 100
Previous
129. Absence of a complaining victim in the typology of crime is classified as a public order crime or-
A. Crimes against person C. violent crime
B. Physical crime D. victimless crime
130. Known as an Act Creating the Board Examiners for Criminologists is -
A. Republic Act 8551 C. Republic Act 6506
B. Republic Act 6975 D. Republic Act 4864
131. On July 27, 2015, Republic Act 10912 was enacted by Philippine congress and approved by President
Benigno S. Aquino, III. This pertains to –
A. the law formalizing that the professional labelling of Registered Criminologist shall be RCrim
B. the law mandating the continuing professional development program for all regulated professions in the
Philippines including the Criminology profession
C. the implementing rules and regulations of the Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016
D. the guidelines that Criminologist shall undergo 45 CPD credit units for every 3 years of renewal of
his/her professional licence
132. What is the term of office of the Members of the Board of Criminology?
A. 3 years C. 6 years
B. 4 years D. 2 years
133. In order to pass the Licensure Examinations for Criminologists one must:
A. Obtain a general weighted average of 75%
B. Obtain a general weighted average of 80%
C. Obtain a general weighted average of 70%
D. Obtain a general average of 75% with no rating below 50% in any subject
134. A Criminologist is any person who?
A. Is a graduate of the degree of Criminology, who has passed the examination for Criminologist
B. Is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, passed the Board Examination for Criminologists and is
registered by the Board
C. Is a graduate of the Degree of Criminology, passed the board and finished his Master of Science in
Criminology
D. Any of them
135. Which of the following is NOT a practice of Criminology?
A. As a teacher/professor of Criminology C. As a law enforcement officer
B. As a technician in the Crime Laboratory D. As a business adviser
136. When does Republic Act 6506 was approved?

A. July 1, 1972 C. October 12, 1987
B. October 15, 1998 D. None of them
137. How can a Criminologist improve his effectiveness in the exercise of his profession?
A. By faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines
B. By diligent study and disseminating knowledge that will accrue to the benefit of the public
C. By accepting as sacred obligation to support the Constitution
138. Known as Canon of Ethics for Registered Criminologists is____.
A. Code of Ethics for Registered Criminologist C. Law Enforcement Ethics
B. Ethics for Criminology Professional D. P.N.P. Code of Ethics
139. What is the primary responsibility of Registered Criminologist?
1. Bear faithful allegiance to the Republic of the Philippines and be loyal to his profession
2. Support the Constitution of the Philippines
3. Defend the principles of liberty
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A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. Only 1
140. Professional capacities in which Criminologist are governed by the Canon of Ethics
1. Private and Public Conduct
2. Conduct towards the neighbourhood and the community as a whole
3. Conduct towards the Profession
4. Conduct towards fellow criminologist
A. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4 D. 1 and 3
141. Which law that prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the Philippines?
A. RA 7659 C. RA 9346
B. RA 8177 D. Section 19, Article III, 1987 Constitution
142. Known as Anti-torture Act of 2009.
A. RA 9745 C. RA 9851
B. RA 9775 D. RA 99950
143. Battered Woman Syndrome, to constitute _______________ should occur ___________which is
compose of tension building phase, acute battering incident and tranquil period.
A. Justifying------twice C. Mitigating------once
B. Exempting----once D. Exempting ----twice
144. Anti-Camcording Act of 2010.
A. RA 10088 C. RA10054
B. RA 10175 D. RA 9372
145. Machinery of the state or government which enforces the rules of conduct to protect life and property and
maintain peace and order.
A. Justice C. Criminal Justice
B. Criminal Justice System D. Law of Justice
146. A social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one another.
A. Justice C. Criminal Justice
B. Criminal Justice System D. Equity
147. CJS approach requiring that proper procedures should followed. Procedures that are designed to protect
the rights of the accused.
A. Adversarial C. Inquisitorial
B. Investigation D. Trial
148. It places greater emphasis on conviction rather than the process which the conviction is secured.
A. Adversarial C. Investigation
B. Trial D. Inquisitorial
149. What is the basis that takes place in the Criminal Justice System?
A. Criminal evidence C. Criminal Justice
B. Criminal Justice System D. Criminal Law
150. Set of laws that control the action of criminal justice agencies, defining the rights of the defendant.
A. Remedial law C. Civil law
B. Criminal law D. Political law
151. Which of the following agencies that forms part of the Court’s pillar of justice system?
A. Board of Pardon and Parole C. Regional Trial Court
B. National Prosecution Service D. Philippine National Police
152. Prisoner sentenced for a term of three years and above is incarcerated in:
A. in provincial jail C. in municipal jail
B. in district jail D. in national prison
153. Classical Theory in criminal law states that the basis of criminal liability is man’s free will and the purpose
of penalty is:
A. Deterrence C. Retribution
B. Rehabilitation D. Expiation or atonement
154. A complex whole consisting of interdependent parts whose operations are directed towards goals, and
which are influenced by the environment within which they function.
A. Framework C. Design
B. Model D. System
155. Which pillar of criminal justice system that include all agencies and various programs that assumes legal
responsibility for custody, supervision, treatment, and punishment of convicted persons?
A. Correctional Institutions C. Community
B. Courts D. Prosecution
156. The manner of how the police will be looked upon by the public influences the degree of cooperation
which they receive from them. This idea was postulated by:
A. August Vollmer C. Henry Fielding
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B. Orlando Wilson D. Sir Robert Peel
157. Which component of CJS that is not under the executive branch of the government?
A. Law enforcement C. Court
B. Prosecution D. Correction
158. Frontliner or initiator of actions of the Criminal Justice System is_______.
A. Law enforcement C. PNP
B. Prosecution D. NBI
159. Jose killed Juan. A felony of murder was filed against him. Who among the following will represent the
State during the trial?
A. SPOI Donato who is a police officer C. Judge Pedro who is the RTC Judge
B. Atty. Lawrence who is a fiscal D. Atty. Nap who is PAO Lawyer
160. One of its purposes is to secure the innocent from an open and public accusation of trial, from the
trouble, expense and anxiety of public trial.
A. Preliminary investigation conducted by the Police
B. Preliminary investigation conducted by the fiscal
C. Preliminary Examination conducted by the prosecutor
D. Inquest conducted by the prosecutor
161. The power provided by the Constitution to interpret laws.
A. Executive C. The Judges, and Justices of the Appellate and Supreme Courts
B. Legislative D. Judicial
162. Atty. X, lawyer for the accused Z and Atty. Y, prosecutor, negotiated for Z to admit the crime of
homicide from murder. What do you call to this process?
A. Arraignment C. Preliminary Investigation
B. Pre-trial D. Plea Bargaining
163. Made in an open court by the judge or clerk of court by furnishing the accused a copy of the complaint or
information with the list of witnesses, reading the same on the language or dialect known to him and asking
him whether he pleads guilty or not guilty.
A. Arraignment C. Preliminary Investigation
B. Pre-trial D. Plea Bargaining
164. If the accused refuses to plead or makes a conditional plea of guilty, what plea should be entered into the
record?
A. Guilty plea C. Either guilty or not guilty
B. Not guilty plea D. The judge shall plea on the accused behalf
165. When the accused pleads guilty to a capital offense, the court shall:
A. Dismiss the case
B. Conduct a searching inquiry into the voluntariness ad full comprehension of the consequences of his
plea
C. Require the prosecution to prove his guilt in the precise degree of culpability
D. Both B and C
166. Court that has exclusive original jurisdiction over all violations of city or municipal ordinances.
A. MCTC C. RTC
B. CTA D. MTC
167. Court covering two or more municipalities.
A. Sandiganbayan C. Sharia Court
B. Ombudsman D. MCTC
168. Authority which the courts and judicial officers take cognizance and decide cases.
A. Probable cause C. Criminal jurisdiction
B. Venue D. Jurisdiction
169. Site or location which the case is to be tried on the merits.
A. Jurisdiction C. Venue
B. Sala D. Criminal jurisdiction
170. Which of the following is granted upon the accused person to relieve him from imprisonment until his
conviction and yet secure his appearance at the trial?
A. Recognizance C. Bond
B. Bail D. Cash bond
171. Bail is considered a matter of right_____.
A. Before conviction C. After arraignment
B. After conviction D. For humanitarian consideration
172. Understood to mean as “elements that are mobilized and energized to help authorities in effectively
addressing the law and order concern of the citizenry”.
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A. Police officer C. Local official
B. Community D. Government
173. General pardon extended to a group of prisoners and exercised by the President of the Philippines with
the concurrence of Congress. Recipients are usually political offenders.
A. Probation C. Amnesty
B. Parole D. Reprieve
174. Disqualifications for Parole, EXCEPT:
A. Habitual delinquency
B. Escaped from confinement or evasion sentence
C. Having granted conditional pardon and had violated any of the conditions imposed by the Board
D. Penalty of more than six (6) years
175. Elements of parole, EXCEPT:
A. That the offender is convicted
B. That the offender applied for Probation
C. That he serves part of his sentence in prison
D. That he is released before the full expiration of his sentence;
176. In this program, prisoners are selected for release on the basis of the individual response to the
correctional institution.
A. Parole C. Good Conduct Time Allowance
B. Probation D. Reprieve
177. Statement no. 1 After conviction, convict may immediately apply for Parole; Statement no. 2 The
application for probation is filed at BPP
A. Statement no. 1 is correct, while statement no.2 is wrong
B. Statement no. 1 is wrong, while statement no. 2 is correct
C. Both statement no. 1 and 2 are correct
D. Both statement no. 1 and 2 are wrong
178. Pardon granted which the convict is release without any condition.
A. Ordinary C. Temporary
D. Absolute D. No condition
179. (1) All prisoners in BJMP are qualified for Parole; (2) The application for Parole and Pardon is being
process by BPP.
A. Statement no.1 is correct while statement no. 2 is incorrect
B. Statement no. 1 is incorrect while statement no. 2 is correct
C. Statements 1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statements a and 2 are both incorrect
180. Petition for Absolute or Conditional Pardon of the prisoner convicted for a crime against national security
shall be indorsed to the BPP by:
A. Secretary of DOJ C. Secretary of DILG
B. Executive Secretary D. Secretary of DND
181. One of the basic principles of Criminal Law in the administration of Criminal Justice System is:
A. Presumption of innocence C. Preponderance of evidence
B. Proof beyond reasonable ground D. None of them
182. Elements that are necessary for an act to constitute a crime and therefore punishable, refers to
________law.
A. Procedural C. Substantive
B. Preponderance D. Absolute
182-A. Principle in criminal cases that the government must prove beyond reasonable doubt that the suspect
committed the crime
A. The guilt C. Absolute
B. Procedural D. Burden of proof
183. The main character in the Criminal Justice System is a:
A. Criminal C. Law Enforcement Officer
B. The Supreme Court D. The Judge
184. At the Prosecutor’s office, person being processed under the Criminal Justice System is referred to as:
A. Accused C. Respondent
B. Victim D. Prosecutor
185. (1) The National Prosecution Service is under the DOJ; (2) The Ombudsman is under the Supreme
Court.
A. Statement no. 1 is correct, while statement no. 2 is wrong
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are correct
D. Statement no. 1 and 2 are wrong
185. (1) BJMP is in charge of all municipal, city and provincial jails in the Philippines; (2) DOJ is in charge of all
national prisons for adult offenders in the Philippines.
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186. General functions of Law Enforcement in relation to the administration of the Criminal Justice System,
EXCEPT:
A. To apprehend and arrest offenders C. To regulate non-criminal conduct.
B. To protect the life and property. D. To prosecute criminals
187. Rules of not admitting any unlawfully obtained evidence against the accused is referred to as:
A. Exclusionary rule C. Inclusionary Rule
B. Evidence rule D. Silver Platter Rule
188. An Act defining certain rights of person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation.
A. RA 6981 C. RA 7610
B. RA 7080 D. RA 7438
189. As defined by Kenneth Culp Davis, means the freedom to make a choice among possible courses of
action.
A. Discretion C. Authority
B. Responsibility D. Discreation
190. (1) The Sandiganbayan is both a trial and appellate court under the supervision of the Supreme Court;
(2) The Court of Appeals is a trial court which a case can be filed directly to them.
191. (1) The decision of the RTC can be modified or reversed by the Court of Appeals; (2) The convicted
person can apply Probation and make an appeal at the same time.
A. Statement no. 1 is true, while statement no. 2 is false C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are true
B. Statement no. 1 is false, while statement no. 2 is true D. Statement no. 1 and 2 are false
192. (1) Preliminary Investigation is an executive function; (2) Issuance of search warrant and warrant of
arrest is judicial functions.
B. Statement no. 1 is false, while statement no. 2 is true D. Statement no. 1 and 2 are false
193. Law that created National Bureau of Investigation enacted on June 19, 1947.
A. RA 157 C. PD 765
B. RA 6975 D. RA 4864
194. An order in writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines signed by the judge and directed to
the peace officer, commanding him to look for personal property and bring it before the court.
A. Search and Seizure C. Warrant of Arrest
B. Search Warrant D. Search Order
195. (1) To have a warrant of arrest is for the protection of the person making the arrest in order not to be
charged criminally for violation of Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code; (2) Warrantless Arrest can be made
by any peace officer or private person based on the provision of RA 7438.
A. Statement no. 1 is true, while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement no. 1 is false, while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are true
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are false
196. Discretion of the police, EXCEPT:
A. Whether or not to enforce a specific law
B. Whether or not to conduct search of people or building
C. Whether or not to effect an arrest
D. Whether or not to convict the accused
197. Roles of the Prosecutor, EXCEPT:
A. To conduct Preliminary Investigation
B. To represent the accused in all stages of the proceedings
C. To make proper recommendation during the inquest of the case referred to them by the police after
the investigation of the suspect;
D. To represent the government or state during the prosecution of the case.
198. An informal and summary investigation conducted by a public prosecutor in criminal cases involving
persons arrested and detained without the benefit of a warrant issued by the court
A. Preliminary Investigation C. Due process
B. Inquest D. Pre Trial
199. Which of the following is NOT one of the prosecutorial discretion.
A. Whether or not to file the case in court C. Whether or not to enter into plea-bargaining
B. What charges to file D. Whether or not to grant bail
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200. 1-Proof beyond reasonable doubt is the weight of evidence required in order to find a person culpable in
administrative case; 2- Preponderance of evidence in order to find person guilty in a criminal offense.
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are true
D. Statement no. 1 and 2 are false
201. If the accused is found not guilty based on reasonable doubt he should be____.
A. Reprimanded C. Fined
B. Acquitted D. Exonerated
202. Statutory right granted generally to the accused to seek recourse before the superior court for the
annulment or reversal of an adverse decision or conviction rendered by the Trial Court.
A. Appeal C. Due process
B. Motion D. Bail
203. Warrant issued by a court bearing its seal and the signature of the judge directing the jail or prison
authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence.
A. Warrant of Arrest C. Search Warrant
B. Mittimus D. Commitment Order
204. Written order of a court or authority consigning a person to jail or prison for detention.
A. Warrant of Arrest C. Search Warrant
B. Mittimus D. Commitment Order
205. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology which was established by Republic Act 6975:
A. Manages all prison institutions in the country
B. Exercises supervision and control over all district, city and municipal jails nationwide
C. Exercises administrative supersion over all provincial jails in the country
D. Is under the control of the Department of Justice
206. Which of the following is not detention prisoners:
A. Persons held for security reasons C. Persons waiting for final judgment
B. Persons held for investigation D. Persons waiting for incarceration
207. Which of the following is FALSE?
A. If qualified, probation is a matter of right for every convicted person
B. Application by the convict for probation waives his right to appeal
C. Probation is a matter of discretion on the part of the judge
D. Application for probation shall be made within fifteen days after the promulgation of judgment
208. To whom witness protection and security under Republic Act Republic Act 6981 is available?
A. Accused who is not the most guilty
B. Accused who is just an accomplice to the crime
C. Accused who actually saw the crime
D. Accused who is not least guilty of the crime
209. The word “ethics” is derived from the Greek word “ethikos” which means -
A. characteristic way of acting.
B. discipline that deals with what is good and bad and with moral duty and obligation
C. moral aspect of goodness
D. acceptable behavior of a person who is a part of a certain group
210. Set of moral code that every profession subscribes to promote a high standard of ethics in public service,
because practice of profession cannot be regulated entirely by legislation.
A. Police Ethics C. Professional Ethics
B. Ethical Standards D. Professional Conduct
211. The practical science that treats the principles of human morality and duty as applied to law enforcement
is known as:
A. Ethics C. Code of Ethics
B. Police Ethics D. Professional Standards
212. Which of the following is the basic mission of the police?

A. Prevent crime and disorder C. Arrest the criminal
B. Investigate crime D. None of them
213. The ability of the police to perform their duties is dependent upon:
A. Willing cooperation of the public
B. People’s voluntary observance of the law
C. Public approval of police actions
D. Relationship with the public
214. The test of police efficiency is____________, not the visible evidence of police action in dealing with it.
A. Arrest of a criminal C. Repression of criminal conduct
B. Prevention of crime D. Absence of crime and disorder
215. Ability to govern and discipline oneself by means of reason and sound judgment.
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A. Prudence C. Fortitude
B. Temperance D. Justice
215-A. SPO1 Jay Santos is tasked to investigate on the death of a person who is suspected to be a victim of
robbery. In the course of investigation however, witnesses refused to cooperate. Hence, he did not pursue the
investigation which remained to be unsolved. SPO1 Santos does not have a police virtue of:
A. Prudence C. Fortitude
B. Temperance D. Justice
216. Courage to endure without yielding, except one.
A. Endurance C. Physical courage
B. Perseverance D. Patience
216-B. Perseverance means:
A. Courage to endure without yielding
B. Calmness and composure in enduring something;
C. The ability to go on despite of the obstacles and opposition
D. The ability to last
217. Mandated to establish a Code of conduct for the PNP members to foster their individual efficiency,
behavioral discipline and organizational effectiveness.
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. National Police Commission
D. Internal Affairs Service
218. The Code of Conduct for PNP members is necessary to:
A. Set the moral tone and norms of professional conduct in the police service
B. Ensure that PNP members adhere to the fundamental tenets of police service
C. Punish erring police officers
D. Make sure that all police officers live according to the PNP’s Code of Ethics
219. When does the PNP’s Ethics Day is celebrated?
A. August 8 C. January 10
B. January 28 D. July
220. The source of PNP Ethical Doctrine.
1. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards
2. Divine and moral precepts
3. The Constitution
4. Revised Penal Code, Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Law
5. Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees and other special laws.
A. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1, 3, and 5
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
221. Occasions which the oath of commitment to the PNP Ethical Doctrine is recited by the PNP members.
1. Upon entry to the police service
2. Upon promotion to the next higher rank
3. Upon transfer from one office to another
4. Upon assumption of office/position
5. upon retirement from police service
A. 1, 2, and 4 C. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1, 3 and 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
222. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards is subject to review for possible revision every:
A. 3 years C. 5 years
B. 10 years D. 4 years
223. PNP members are duty bound to uphold the ethical doctrine and live upon the customs and traditions of
the organization. In case of conflict in the practice of the customs and traditions and the performance of duties,
which shall prevail?
A. Performance of duties C. Obedience to superior order
B. Practice of customs and traditions D. Law
224. Violation of the PNP Ethical Doctrine shall be penalized under, EXCEPT:
A. RPC, RA 6713 and other Special Laws
B. Rules and Regulations promulgated by the NAPOLCOM
C. Articles of War
D. CSC Rules and Regulations
225. PNP Core Values, EXCEPT:
A. Love of God, respect for authority and selfless love and service for people
B. Sanctity of marriage and family life
C. Obedience to superior officer and supremacy of the law
D. Responsible dominion and stewardship over material things and truthfulness
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226. An embodiment of the core values and principles which a police officer is sworn to uphold to win the
hearts and minds of the people, which is the ultimate objective of police community relations.
A. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical Standards
B. PNP Police Ethics Manual
C. Code of Conduct for Government Officials and Employees
D. Law Enforcement Code of Ethics
227. The police should realize that the test of law enforcement efficiency is the absence of crime and disorder,
not the visible evidence of law enforcement action in dealing with them. One of the following supports the
preceding statement.
A. The police must concentrate more on crime prevention effort
B. The police must work further to improve its crime solution efficiency
C. The police must always observe maximum tolerance in dealing with civil disturbance
D. The police must at all times respect human rights
228. The reputation of any organization affects the esprit de’ corps, morale and welfare of the members and
sense of pride to the organization. Thus, all PNP members should act in a manner that would give best
impression to the organization by living to its core values to enhance its-
A. Integrity C. Efficiency
B. Credibility D. Image
229. In consonance with the requirements of honor and integrity in the service, PNP members must have the
moral courage to sacrifice self-interest in keeping with the time-honored principle of:
A. Honesty C. Delicadeza
B. Moral courage D. Palabra de honor
230. The PNP promotes to maintain modest and yet dignified life for its members. They are required to be free
from greed, corruption and exploitation.
A. Police Lifestyle C. Police Integrity
B. Police Life D. Police Fairness
231. PNP members are restraint to seek political influence on matters pertaining to assignment, award, training
and promotion.
A. Influence peddling C. Political patronage
B. Political corruption D. Politicking
232. Police___________ is the performance of duties with integrity, intelligence and competence in the
application of specialized skills and technical knowledge with excellence and expertise.
A. Professionalism C. Efficiency
B. Competence D. Effectiveness
233. PNP members’ commitment to democratic way of life, valuing and maintaining the principle of
accountability, upholding the Constitution and loyalty to the country.
A. Love of Country C. Commitment to Democracy
B. Loyalty to the Flag D. Commitment to the Constitution
234. Police Officers should use government properties and resources effectively, honestly and efficiently.
A. Commitment to the government C. Commitment to public interest
B. Commitment to ethical standards D. Commitment to public duty
235. PSI Jocelyn Cruz was assigned as head of the Violence Against Women and Children Division of the
Manila Police District. The Mayor of Manila facilitated her designation in that office. One day a Barangay
Chairman known to be a critic of the city mayor went to her office to seek police assistance which she
immediately attended to. What police professional conduct did Cruz exercised?
A. Political neutrality C. Non-partisanship
B. Respect for human rights D. Non-political patronage
236. SPO4 Antonio Torres was elected twice as president of homeowners association in the barangay where
he resides. As homeowners association president, he is credited for maintaining order in the community. His
involvement in this civic organization has never prejudice his official duties as member of the PNP. Torres
exercise-
A. Social awareness C. Civic duties
B. Social responsibility D. Police community relations
237. Ethical Doctrine requires PNP members to perform their duties with dedication, thoroughness, efficiency,
enthusiasm, determination and manifest concern for public welfare. They are refrain to engage in any activity,
which would be in conflict with their duties as public servants.
A. Dedication to the police service C. Work ethics
B. Devotion to duty D. Hard work
238. Former PNP Chief DG Nicanor Bartolome required all PNP personnel to plant trees to help in the
development and conservation of our natural resources for ecological balance and posterity. This is in
compliance with the PNP Professional Conduct of___.
A. Conservation of environment C. Environmental protection
B. Conservation of natural resources D. Maintenance of ecological balance
239. A common feeling of purpose, pride, loyalty and responsibility that unites a disciplined group of people.
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A. Unity C. Solidarity
B. Camaraderie D. Esprit de’ corps
240. Logical procedures in accomplishing tasks to avoid wastage of time money and effort.
A. Orderliness C. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency D. Discipline
241. Taking of legitimate means to achieve the goal despite of internal and external difficulties that may be
faced which might weaken the resolve in the course of time.
A. Prudence C. Patience
B. Diligence D. Perseverance
242. Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees.
A. RA 6713 C. PD 46
B. RA 7080 D. RA 3019
243. Higher level of professional police service is on demand in view of:
A. Higher pay rate due to salary standardization
B. Changing economic environment
C. Increasing number of police applicants
D. Changing role of the police
244. The police must generate citizens’ support and involvement in the maintenance of peace and order
because the police does not operate in a:
A. Isolation C. selected location
B. Vacuum D. alone
245. How can a policy of maximum tolerance be exercised by a police officer in the performance of his
duties?
A. By enforcing the law without fear or favor
B. By rendering service to all persons without discrimination
C. By outmost self restraint and control despite of strong provocation
D. A and B
246. Ideas, actions, habits or experiences that contribute to the promotion of human life is
A. Moral virtues C. Values
B. Virtues D. Moral values
247. Person’s choice of values is known as:
A. Personality C. Reputation
B. Character D. Behavior
248. What is the formal act or set of formal acts established by customs or authority as proper to special
occasions?
A. Ceremony C. Customs
B. Traditions D. Social Decorum
249. Which of the following that symbolizes public faith and public trust to the police officer?
A. Police uniform C. Police logo
B. Philippine flag D. Police badge
250. In this police tradition, love of country is manifested with a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to
defend the Constitution.
A. Nationalism C. Patriotism
B. Duty D. Loyalty
251. This is manifested by instinctive obedience to lawful orders, thorough spontaneous actions towards
attainment of organizational objectives guided by moral, ethical and legal norms.
A. Respect for authority C. Gentlemanliness
B. Discipline D. Camaraderie
252. What are the set of norms and standards practiced by the PNP members during social activities and other
functions?
A. Social Decorum C. Discipline
B. Customs D. Social Etiquette
253. The reciprocal attitudes between the police and the community is known as:
A. Police public relations C. Police community relations
B. Human relations D. Community relations
254. Which of the following is NOT one of the aspect of police community relations?
A. Community involvement C. Community service
B. Community participation D. Public relations
255. Activities of police community relations.
1. Police Media Relations
2. Public relation and Inter-Agency Coordination
3. Civic Assistance and Development
4. Community Organization and Mobilization
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A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 2, 3, and 4
B. 1, 2, and 3 D. 3 and 4
256. Police Community Relation Group is the office in the PNP which tasks to win the trust, confidence and
support of the people in the framework of -
A. do good and tell the people about it
B. be good and the people will like it
C. tell the people of the good intention of the police
D. involve the people in police work
257. What is the chief cornerstone of an effective police community relation program?
A. The individual police officer C. Law violators
B. The people in the community D. Complainants
258. Police community relations is designed to:
A. Bring citizens’ support to criminal justice components, remove apathy, and cause total
community involvement
B. Encourage police officers to project better image
C. Promote a set of examples to citizens
D. Win the cooperation of the people
259. What is the primary purpose of public relation program?
A. Recruit new members for community relations program
B. Develop mutual understanding between the police and the public
C. Plan for a police community relations program
D. Train police officers in community relations
260. Which of the following is the most important function of public relations officer of a police office?
A. Planning special projects C. Training of police members
B. Recruiting qualified applicants D. Generating community awareness and support
261. Excessive use of force or police brutality in the performance of duty is condemn in the PNP, thus
COPCES provides that PNP members should exercise proper and________ use of their authority.
A. responsible C. effective
B. legitimate D. proportionate
262. Uniformed PNP members shall commit themselves to the democratic way of life and values and maintain
the principle of_______.
A. equality of the service C. police lifestyle
B. public accountability D. social awareness
263. It greatly enhance personnel professionalism process with regards to procurement, training, promotion,
assignment, placement, awards and retirement.
A. Basic Management C. Management leadership
B. Personnel Management D. Career management
264. Members of the PNP shall serve with utmost responsibility, integrity, morality, loyalty, and efficiency with
due respect to human rights and dignity as hallmark of a ____.
A. peace loving society C. liberated society
B. democratic society D. friendly society
265. In case of conflict in the practice of customs and traditions on one hand and in the performance of duties
on the other, which shall prevail?
A. Customs C. Traditions
B. Performance of Duties D. Written orders
266. Considered as “magnificent police principles”.
1. Love of God
2. Loyalty to the police service
3. Honor the government
4. Respect the people
A.1 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4 D. 2, 3, and 4
267. The test of the police efficiency is the absence of:

A. Police visibility C. Personal moral
B. Crime and disorder D. Adherence to the law
268. Its use diminishes proportionality in achieving law enforcement objectives.
A. Dialogue C. Debate
B. Agreement D. Physical Compulsion
269. Its application in police work is necessary to avoid human rights violation and maintain respect of the
profession.
A. Applied police principles C. Fundamental police principles
B. Basic police principles D. Approved police principles
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270. Any other day suitable for the occasion, where PNP members gather together at their PNP club for a light
hearted jesting or airing minor gripes.
A. Happy Hours C. Lunch of time hours
B. Off hours D. After wok hours
271. Which of the following is considered a taboo in the uniform service?
A. Flat stomach C. Bulging stomach
B. Thin Stomach D. Regular stomach
272. How a police officer greets a superior officer when they meet?
A. By rendering a salute
B. By saying “good morning or good afternoon” as the case maybe
C. By a warm hand shaking
D. By Bowing of heads
273. An established usage or social practices carried on by tradition that have obtained the force of the law is
known as:
A. Authority C. Behavior
B. Customs D. Traits
274. Bodies of beliefs, stories, customs and usages headed down from generation to generation.
A. Habits C. Tradition
B. Manners D. Character
275. A manifestation or expression of consideration and respect known in the uniform service as____.
A. Politeness C. Loyalty
B. Honesty D. Courtesy
276. How can a police officer manifests his sense of integrity?
A. By being reasonably proud but not arrogant and boastful
B. By maintaining a good name or public esteem
C. By possessing unquestionable good moral character, uprightness and soundness of moral principle,
and quality of absolute truthfulness and honesty
D. Impartiality in dealing with others, in giving credits when due, and punishment when so demand
277. In consonance with living a life of honor and integrity the police officer must adhere to the time-honored
principle of delicadeza, which means:
A. Inhibition from soliciting political patronage on matters pertaining to assignment, awards, trainings
and promotion.
B. Strict adherence to the rule of merit and fitness system
C. Showing good deed to subordinates and following desirable acts of superiors
D. Courage to sacrifice self-interest
278. Which of the following is prohibited from engaging in strikes, rallies, demonstrations and other similar
concerted activities?
A. Member of the first family
B. Family member of the officers of the PNP
C. Third degree of consanguinity relatives of the officers of the PNP
D. Members and officers of the PNP
279. Which of the following are the indicators of Philippine National Police Ethical Standards?
1. Morality and integrity
2. Justice and humility
3. Judicious Use of Authority
4. Courage and patriotism
5. Orderliness and perseverance
A. 1, 3, and 5 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 D. 2, 3, 4 and 5
280. Philippine National Police ethical doctrine was devised mainly to:
A. Provide moral and ethical guidance to all PNP members
B. Established uniform behavior among PNP personal
C. Prescribe conduct that PNP organic and non-organic member be observed
D. Provide proper and standard behavior for PNP members and sanction on case of violation.
281. (1) The PNP ethical doctrine applies to both uniformed and non-uniformed personnel of the PNP; (2) Rigid
application of fundamental principles in police work is necessary to avoid human rights violation and maintain
respect of the profession.
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
282. Occasions which the Police Officers Pledge is recited.
1. Flag raising and Flag lowering ceremonies, jointly with the Panunumpa sa Watawat.
2. PNP training/course opening and closing ceremonies.
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3. Seminar on moral values ceremonies and other ceremonies.
4. Formal occasions attended by the President or DILG Secretary
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
283. Which of the following is not false as far as fundamental principles of police work are concern?
A. Fulfillment of police functions is not depended upon community approval because the latter is just a
passive beneficiary of police service.
B. Cooperation and assistance of community diminishes proportionately the need of the use of
physical force and compulsion in achieving law enforcement.
C. Police officers are members of a regimented organization who are paid to render public services
due upon every citizen.
D. The test of police efficiency is the visible evidence of law enforcement action in dealing crime and
disorder.
284. The PNP ethical doctrine recognized that “The people are the peace maker, the police are the peace
keeper, and the local government is the peace observer.” If he goes beyond and above of his role, he must
observe the three (3) C’s in internal and external relations, EXCEPT one. Which one?
A. Consult C. Contribute
B. Coordinate D. Cooperate
285. Which of the following does the oath of commitment to the PNP ethical doctrine is NOT rendered?
A. Entry into the PNP C. Assumption of office/position
B. Promotion to the next higher rank D. Retirement or separation from the service
286. Uniformed and non-uniformed PNP members adhere to ethical doctrine through:
1. Police Code of Ethics
2. Police Officers Pledge
3. Pledge of Covenant
4. Police officers Creed
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 4
287. Recognized as ever “Magnificent Principle” of police service, EXCEPT:
A. Love of God C. Respect the people
B. Honor the Government D. Be loyal to the police service
288. Assume that you are a criminologist member of the PNP. How can you seek and preserve public favor?
A. By soliciting public opinion
B. By effective public relation program
C. By constant demonstration of impartiality by ready offering of individual service and congeniality.
D. None of them
289. A manifestation of love of country with a pledge of allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the
constitution.
A. Patriotism C. loyalty
B. Nationalism D. Valor
290. Jhon Dean Ramos, a newly appointed police Inspector constantly speak and act with professionalism,
gaining him the admiration of his subordinates, he likewise follow good deeds and work ethics of his superior
Sr/Insp. Eugene Velarde. Both officers stand on what basic issues?
A. PNP image C. Setting example
B. Delicadeza D. Police lifestyle
291. SPOI Jalandoni is known to have two families- one is in the Regional Police Office where he is assigned
as a CIDG operative and the other is in Manila where is maintaining a permanent abode. Which of the
following statement applies to him in regard to COPCES for police officer?
A. SPO1 Jalandoni is immoral
B. SPO1 Jalandoni does not practice the value of respect to woman and sanctity of marriage
C. SPO1 Jalandoni violated the police ethics
D. SPO1 Jalandoni does not follow the police professional conduct
292. PSI Mercado’s word is his bond, he stand by it and committed himself to uphold it. What police tradition
does Inspector Mercado upholds?
A. Delicadeza C. Word of Honor
B. Camaraderie D. Honor Code
293. January is declared to be Police Community Relations Month under Proclamation Number-
A. 783 C. 738
B. 387 D. 873
294. A police officer who sacrificed his life and limb for the sake of his countrymen whom he pledged to serve
lives the tradition of________ among Filipino Law enforcers.
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A. physical courage C. valor
B. bravery D. courage
295. Manifested by the PNP members’ deep commitment and concern to one another. This police tradition
binds spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation in the organization which is extended to the people the
police serves.
A. Loyalty C. Esprit de corps
B. Camaraderie D. Tradition
296. Police social decorum are as follows:
1. Proper attire and table manners 3. Appearance
2. Social graces 4. Manner of walking
A. 1, 2, and 3 C. 3 and 4
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4 D. Only 1
297. PSSupt Pinaglabanan is due to relinquish his position as Provincial Director of Laguna in favor of PSupt
Castor. What police customs on ceremony shall be observed?
A. Honor ceremony C. transfer of position ceremony
B. Turn-over ceremony D. farewell to the troops ceremony
298. What rank in the PNP is entitled to have an honor ceremony during arrival or departure from visits from
any police office?
A. P/SSupt C. Brigadier General
B. P/CSupt D. NCR Director
299. PCSupt Pedro Ruiz is an incumbent Regional Director of Region IV-A covering CALABARZON. His Police
Regional Office is visited by another Regional Director and the members of his group. What customs on
courtesy should Ruiz be observed?
A. Courtesy calls C. RHIP
B. Courtesy of the post D. Entrance call
300. SPO3 Debayan refrains from patronizing houses of ill-refute and faithful to his legal spouse. Debayan
adheres to the ethical standard of-
A. Integrity C. Humility
B. Loyalty D. Morality
301. PO3 Lihis visibly tucked his PNP issued and personal firearms in his waist and act like a cowboy in the
19th Century Texas. By his words, he assumes that he is a master of the people; performs his duties with
arrogance, feeling that he invincible and always desires applause and publicity of his accomplishments. Lihis
does not practice-
A. perseverance C. integrity
B. humility D. humbleness
302. A moral courage to sacrifice self-interest is called -
A. esprit de corps C. valor
B. camaraderie D. delicadeza
303. Improving police community relations is a matter of concern to:
A. police commissioned officers C. all members of the police force
B. police non-commissioned officers D. community leaders
304. Which of the following is not a requirement for a good community relations?
A. Full knowledge of the job
B. Sound police ethics
C. Kindness, generosity and willingness to follow the will and whims of the people
D. Deep conviction in the nobility of work.
305. “To serve mankind; to safeguard life and property; to protect the innocent against deception; the weak
against oppression or intimidation; and the peaceful against violence or disorder; and to respect the
Constitutional right of all men, to liberty, equality, and justice” . This passage refers to:
A. Duties of a police officer C. Primary police responsibility
B. Conduct and behavior of a police officer D. Part of the Code of Ethics
306. Which process that creates favourable public image for the police?
A. Press Relations C. Human Relations
B. Community Relations D. Public Relations
307. What changes must occur in the PNP in order to obtain effective police community relations?
A. Attitudinal and behavioural changes
B. Social and economic changes among policemen
C. Political and social changes
D. Attitudinal and mental changes among policemen
307-A.The Philippine National Police adheres to its Core Values of: MakaDiyos, Makatao, Makabayan and
Makakalikasan. Its philosophy are: 1. Service; 2. Courage; 3. Honor; 4. Justice; 5. Integrity
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 2,4 and 5
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B. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1,2, and 3
308. Legal philosophy that justifies state intervention into the lives of children when parents are unable or
unwilling to be responsible for their children.
A. Loco Parentis C. Potestas Delegada
B. Parens Patriae D. Caveat Emptor
309. One of the obvious elements in the delinquency of some children is the criminal behavior of other
members of the family.
A. Family crime C. Criminality in the home
B. Domestic violence D. Broken home
310. Four times as important as poverty in the home in relation to delinquency; that, if fails most frequently
because of indifference and neglect.
A. Cycle of violence C. Lack of discipline
B. Home discipline D. Inconsistent behavior of parents
311. A child who is alleged as accused of, or adjudged as having committed an offense under Philippine laws
is called:
A. Juvenile delinquent C. Child in conflict with the Law
B. Status offender D. Youthful offender
312. Which of the following is not one of the purpose of restorative justice?
A. Reparation for the victim
B. Reconciliation of the parties
C. Reassurance to the offender that he can be reintegrated into society
D. Promote the alternative objective of justice
313. (1) Generally, automatic suspension of sentence for child in conflict with the law is a matter of right and
not a privilege; (2) CICL, upon arrest enjoys the presumption f minority.
B. Statement no. 1 is false, while statement no. 2 is true D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are false
314. Nonong was apprehended and charged with illegal possession of dangerous drugs. He is a 14-year old
son of a farmer. Nonong is-
A. exempted from criminal liability
B. a minor
C. exempted from criminal liability and be subjected to an intervention program
D. exempted and shall be subjected to the appropriate proceeding
315. The following may used as proof in determining the age of the child, EXCEPT:
A. birth certificate C. school credential
B. baptismal certificate D. physical appearance
316. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is attached and under the administrative supervision of___
A. DSWD C. DILG
B. DOJ D. PNP
317. Assume that you are a Criminologist-Police Officer. What would be your foremost action upon initial
contact with a CICL?
A. Inform the CICL of the reason of custody
B. Apprise the CICL of his Constitutional rights
C. Explain to the CICL why he is placed under custody and the offense he allegedly committed
D. Identify yourself and present proper identification to the CICL
318 Novita, a 16-year old child was arrested for shoplifting. He made to sign a statement during the
investigation. Since his parents are unavailable, any of the following except one can be a witness during the
signing.
A. Social worker C. Priest and/or minister of the local congregation
B. Guardian D. Legal counsel
319. A process whereby a youth who committed an offense is diverted from the juvenile justice system, thus, a
possible amicable settlement.
A. Juvenile justice C. Mediation
B. Diversion D. Conciliation
320. Placing a child above 15 years old but below 18 who acted with discernment to diversion program is
done-
A. During initial investigation by law enforcement officer
B. After initial investigation by law enforcement officer
C. Before initial investigation by the law enforcement officer
D. Before and after initial investigation by the law enforcement officer
321. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed is more than 6 years imprisonment, diversion
measures is available but could only be resorted by the –
A. DSWD C. Court
B. Police Officer D. DOJ
322. Which of the following is not a factor in determining diversion program?
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A. The best interest of the child C. The safety of the community
B. The best interest of the victim D. The reparation of injury to the victim
323. The mass of obligation which the parents have in relation to the persons and property of their
unemancipated child.
A. Parental authority C. Parental obligation
B. Parent’s authority D. Parental duty
324. A child who has been deserted by his parents for a period of 6 continuous months is considered as-
A. Neglected child C. Abused child
B. Abandoned child D. Deserted child
325. A child in conflict with the law is a person, who at the time of the commission of the offense is:
A. 15 years old and below
B. below 18 years old
C. below 18 years but not less than 15 years and 1 day old
D. Below 15 years old
326. The rules on juveniles in conflict with the law is not applicable to a person who, at the time of
____________ have reached the age of 18.
A. Commission of crime C. Arrest
B. Initial contact D. Sentencing
327. What is the age of criminal responsibility of the CICL who commits a crime with discernment?
A. 15 years and 1 day or above but below 18 C. 7 years old and above but below 15
B. Below 18 D. A and B
328. It seeks to obtain reparation for the victim, reconciliation to the victim, the CICL, and the community, and
the reassurance that CICL can be reintegrated into society.
A. Balanced and restorative justice C. Diversion
B. Intervention D. Restorative justice
329. It focuses on repairing the harm done to victims and to the community and stresses that offenders must
contribute to the repair.
A. Restorative justice C. Distributive justice
B. Retributive justice D. Social justice
330. Totality of congenial to the survival, protection and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging
to the child’s physical, psychological and emotional development.
A. Best interest of the child C. Best interest and well-being of the minor
B. Restorative justice D. Well-being of the juvenile
331. After-care of CICL and provides continuous guidance and support to the child upon release from
rehabilitation and subsequent reintegration into society.
A. Post-release rehabilitation program C. Community After-care
B. Community continuum D. Pre-release program
332. The capacity of the minor at the time of the commission of the offense to understand the difference
between right and wrong and the consequences of the wrongful act is known as:
A. Free will C. Intent
B. Intelligence D. Discernment
333. An alternative child-appropriate process of determining the responsibility and treatment of CICL on the
basis of his/her social, cultural, economic, psychological of educational background without resorting to formal
court adjudication.
A. Diversion C. Community intervention
B. Adjudication D. Prosecution
334. Program that the CICL is required to undergo after he/she is found responsible for an offense without
resorting to formal court proceeding.
A. Diversion C. Intervention
B. Diversion program D. Adjudication
335. Activities designed to address issues that cause the child to commit an offense.
A. Intervention C. Rehabilitation program
B. Intervention program D. Adjudication
336. Series of individualized treatment of activities or programs such as counselling, skills, training, education,
and other activities that are aimed to improve and enhance the child’s psychological, emotional and
psychosocial well-being.
A. Intervention C. Suspension of sentence
B. Intervention program D. Diversion program
337. Curfew violations, truancy and parental disobedience are examples of:
A. Non-serious offense C. Delinquency
B. Juvenile delinquency D. Status offense
338. The CICL enjoys the _________ until proven to be 18 years old or older at the time of the commission of
an offense.
A. presumption of minority C. presumption of innocence
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B. privilege of a minor D. discernment
339. Which of the document is the best proof to establish the age of the child in so far as the juvenile justice
welfare system is concerned?
A. Baptismal certificate C. Testimony of the child
B. School records D. Certificate of live birth
340. Who has the burden of proving the age of the CICL?
A. The CICL himself C. The prosecution
B. The police D. Any person alleging the age of CICL
341. Who among the following children are exempted from criminal but not civil liability?
A. Bino who is 15 years old C. Gino who is below 15 years old
B. Tino who is above 15 years old D. A and C
342. When does the child who is exempted from criminal liability shall immediately be released to the custody
of his parents, notify the local social welfare and subjected him to intervention programs?
A. Upon determination at the initial contact that the child is 15 years of age or below
B. Upon release of the child to his parents
C. Upon notification of the local social welfare development
D. During the implementation of the intervention programs for the child
343. What will happen to CICL who committed an offense and found to be above 15 but below 18 years old at
the time of the commission of an offense and the case has already been filed in court?
A. Release to DSWD
B. Release at the sound discretion of the court and subject to its supervision
C. Release to his parents in absence thereof to his guardian, DSWD or any person responsible for
his custody
D. A and C
344. Who conducts the preliminary determination of discernment of the CICL?
A. The police C. The social worker
B. The judge D. The prosecutor
345. Juvenile justice welfare law prescribes the process of holding minors accountable for their wrongdoings
in ways that are appropriate for their:
1. Age 3. Status in life
2. Mental capacity 4. Emotional maturity
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 3 and 4
346. Goals of restorative justice sought to be obtained, EXCEPT:
A. Rehabilitation of the offending minor
B. Reparation for the victim
C. Reconciliation of the offender, the offended and the community
D. Reassurance to the offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society
347. How restorative justice enhances public safety?
A. When the offender reformed he will no longer commit a crime
B. By making the offender realized his mistakes
C. By activating the offender, the victim and the community in crime prevention strategy
D. None of them
348. Who among the following is a “child” contemplated by Republic Act 9344?
A. Ken who is 18 years old C. Weng who is 14 years old
B. Ben who 15 years old D. Any person under 18
349. The Setting of the age of criminal liability was based on a study commissioned by the Council for the
Welfare of Children entitled:
A. Beyond Innocence: A Study of the Age of Discernment of Filipino Children
B. A Study of the Age of Discernment Among Filipino Juvenile Delinquents
C. Historical Development of the Convention on the Rights of the Child
D. Children are People Too: Training Manual on Responsible Parenthood
350. Which of the following is NOT one of the reason that public prosecutor conducts preliminary
investigation based on criminal complaints against the CICL?
A. The CICL does not qualify for diversion
B. The victim’s family refused to agree for diversion
C. Parents repudiate diversion
D. Public prosecutor, in light of the assessment and recommendation of the social worker, determines
that diversion is not appropriate
351. Within how many hours that the law enforcement officer who has initial contact with the CICL turn over the
latter to the LSWDO?
A. Not later than 8 hours after apprehension C. Within 36 hours after arrest
B. Within 24 hours after apprehension D. Not later than 18 hours after apprehension
352. You are a Police Officer who has an initial contact with the CICL, when should you determine his age?
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A. During custodial investigation C. Before turn over to LSWDO
B. Immediately D. Any time
353. What kind of evidence is used to prove a child’s age?
A. Birth Certificate C. Documents
B. Testimonial D. Baptismal Certificate
354. If no evidence exists to determine a child’s age, the child is __________ to be a minor accordingly and
must be treated as such.
A. presumed C. determined
B. considered D. treated
355. What should a police officer do with CICL who are 15 years old and below?
A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for medical examinations
B. Apprise the CICL of his Miranda Rights
C. Turn physical custody of the child to the LSWDO
D. Take all measures to release the child to his parents
356. in relation to the preceding item, what should the public prosecutor do if a case if filed before his office
involving the same offender?
A. Immediately dismiss the complaint and order the release of the child to the custody of his parents
or guardian and notify the LSWDO
B. Immediately dismiss the complaint and order the release of the child to the custody of the LSWDO
C. Develop an intervention program to be applied to the child
D. A and C
357. What should a police officer do if a CICL alleges that he in under 15 but has no evidence of his true age?
A. The child shall be considered and treated as minor
B. The age shall be resolved in a manner that the child will be favoured
C. The age of minority will be presumed
D. The age shall be resolved in the child’s favour
358. Statement No. 1. If a CICL is older than 15 but younger than 18 acted without discernment, he is to be
treated like one who is below the age of criminal responsibility; Statement No. 2. If a CICL is older than 15 but
younger than 18 acted with discernment, the LSWDO shall determine where he goes next.
A. Statement no.1 is correct while statement no. 2 is incorrect
B. Statement no 1 is incorrect while statement no. 2 is correct
C. Both statements no.1 and 2 are correct
D. Both statements no. 1 and 2 are incorrect
359. Assume that you are a criminologist- police officer, what should you do if you cannot turn over the child to
LSWDO or other accredited NGO within 8 hours?
A. Hold the CICL temporarily in an area separate from those of the opposite sex and adult offenders
B. Give temporary physical custody of the CICL to a duly registered NGO or faith-based organization
C. Release the child
D. A and B
360. Statement 1-Minors may be detained, but not imprisoned, and only if absolutely necessary and for the
shortest possible time; Statement 2- If detained, minors must be placed in youth detention homes, not jails.
A. Statement 1 is true while statement 2 is untrue C. Both statements 1 and 2 are true
B. Statement 1 is untrue while statement 2 is true D. Both statements 1 and 2 are untrue
361. Intervention plan for children in conflict with the law is developed by:
A. The Court C. LSWDO, Police, Prosecutors and Court
B. The police, LSWDO and prosecutors D. LSWDO, CICL and his family
362. Statement 1-Intervention applies to CICL who are 15 or younger and children above 15 and below 18 who
acted without discernment; Statement 2- Diversion applies only to CICL above 15 and below 18 acted with
discernment.
A. Statement 1 and 2 are true C. Statement 1 is true while statement 2 is false
B. Statement 1 and 2 are false D. Statement 1 is false while statement 2 is true
363. If the CICL has acted with discernment, the law enforcer may choose to:
A. Conduct diversion measures C. Refer the case to the public prosecutor
B. Release the CICL to his parents or LSWDO D. A and C
364. In what instance that diversion CANNOT take place at the level of the law enforcer?
A. The penalty for the alleged offense is punishable with more than 6 years but not more than 12 years
imprisonment
B. The CICL is found to be incorrigible
C. The CICL is found to be recidivist or habitual delinquent
D. None of them
365. The placement of CICL under suspended sentence does not need application. It is:
A. Discretionary C. Automatic
B. Mandatory D. Optional
366. Who shoulders the expenses of treating CICL in youth homes or centers?
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A. The parents C. The national government
B. The local government D. DSWD
367. How the records of the CICL’s case from initial contact to final disposition, including medical records be
treated?
A. Open to the public C. Privileged and confidential
B. Secret D. B and C
368. Initial investigation of the child shall be conducted in the presence of:
A. Relative of the child
B. Local Social Welfare Development Officer
C. Representative of a non-government organization
D. Parent of the child
369. The CICL’s fingerprint and photograph files shall be kept separate from those adults and shall be:
A. Kept confidential C. Not disclosed
B. A secret D. Placed into custody of DSWD
370. When does the fingerprint and photograph of the CICL be removed and destroyed?
A. If the case against the CICL is not filed, or is dismissed
B. When the CICL died or incapacitated
C. When the CICL reaches 21 years old and there is no record that he committed and offense after
reaching
D. A and C
371. Criminal actions filed against the CICL is prosecuted under the direction and control of whom?
A. DSWD C. Family Court
B. Public prosecutor D. Special prosecutor requested by the DSWD
372. When does the case against the CICL be subjected to preliminary Investigation?
1. When the CICL does not qualify for diversion
2. When the CICL, his parents or guardian do not agree to diversion
3. When the prosecutor determines that diversion is not appropriate for the CICL
4. When the police recommends for the disapproval of diversion
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
373. Commission of the following offense shall lead the child undergo appropriate counselling, and treatment
program only, EXCEPT:
A. Status offenses C. Vagrancy, prostitution and mendicancy
B. Possession of dangerous drugs D. Sniffing of rugby
374. In what instance that only the court has the authority to place the CICL to diversion?
A. The offense is punishable by not more than 12 years imprisonment
B. The offense is punishable by less than 6 years imprisonment
C. The felony is punishable by prision mayor
D. A and C
375. What shall be the disposition if the crime charged against the CICL does not qualify for diversion?
A. The CICL will be formally charged
B. The CICL will be formally adjudicated
C. The case shall be assigned a regular criminal case docket number raffled off to a court for formal
proceeding
D. A and B
376. Case study report prepared by the social worker after the institution of criminal action shall be submitted
to the court; when?
A. Before arraignment C. After arraignment
B. Before pre-trial conference D. Before trial
377. Which of the following is not one of the member of the diversion committee of CICL case that reached in
court?
A. Clerk of Court
B. Police Officer who had initial contact with CICL
C. Prosecutor and PAO Lawyer
D. Social Worker assigned by the court to the CICL
378. Which of the following is not one of the factor in determining whether diversion is appropriate or not?
A. Past record of the CICL and the likelihood that he will be an obvious threat to himself and the
community
B. CICL’s feeling of remorse indifference or hostility
C. Nature of the crime committed by the child
D. Availability of community-based rehabilitation programs
379. The following are the minimum principal terms and conditions of diversion which the CICL and his parents
should undertake, except:
A. He shall appear before the social worker once a month
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B. He shall comply with the terms and conditions of the programs
C. He shall pay the civil damages
D. A and B
380. Gino, a CICL was subjected to diversion program by the court. While on diversion proceeding, the court
social worker conducts regular monthly visit to Gino and submitted a corresponding reports about his status.
On the basis of the report the court may, EXCEPT:
A. Issue closure order terminating the case C. Extend the period of diversion
B. Order the detention of Gino D. Order the case to undergo formal court proceedings
381. Within how many days that arraignment of CICL be conducted from the date of receipt of the complaint or
information by the court?
A. 15 C. 5
B. 3 D. 10
382. The arraignment of children in conflict with the law is held at:
A. The trial court C. The Chamber of the Judge
B. The DSWD Office D. Any of the above
383. If the CICL is found guilty of the offense charged, the court instead of executing the judgment of
conviction, shall placed him (CICL) under:
A. Suspended sentence C. Reprieve
B. Probation D. Commutation of sentence
384. Which is not one of the instances that the CICL subjected to diversion be brought before the court for
execution of judgment?
A. When the CICL and is parents refuses to pay civil indemnity
B. When the CICL is incorrigible and has not shown the capability of becoming a useful member of
society
C. When the CICL wilfully failed to comply with the conditions of the disposition or rehabilitation
program
D. The CICL’ continued stay in the training institution is not in his best interest
385. Restorative justice refers to a principle which requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum
involvement of the victim, the offender and the community. Which of the following is not one of its purpose?
A. Help the offender reformed
B. Obtain reparation for the victim
C. Reconciliation of the offender, the offended party and the community
D. Reassurance to the offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society
386. Republic Act 9344 made it clear that status offense is no longer treated as criminal and shall not pe
penalized. We call this process as:
A. Decriminalization C. Criminalization
B. Suspension of sentence D. Diversion
387. You are a criminologist-police officer officer who has an initial contact with a child. What would be your
disposition after determining that the age of the child is below 15 years?
A. Inform the child of his Miranda Rights
B. Immediately release the child to the custody of his/her parents
C. Release the child to his nearest relative
D. Bring the Child to the Inquest Prosecutor
388. Which of the following stage of Juvenile Justice process diversion may NOT be conducted?
A. Law enforcement stage C. Barangay stage
B. Prosecution and court stage D. Correction and Community stage
389. What is the policy concerning the detention of the CICL pending trial?
A. Detention is a measure of last resort for the shortest possible period of time
B. Detention is a last resort until the the CICL is remorseful
C. Detention is a measure of last resort unless the CICL is found to be dangerous to the community
D. CICL will always be detained in youth detention home established by the local government
390. In what instance that only the court is authorize to resort diversion proceeding of CICL?
A. Where the offense committed by CICL is punishable by imprisonment of more than 6 years
B. Where the CICL is above 15 years old but below 18
C. Where CICL was found to be incorrigible
D. B and C
391. Factors in determining diversion program.
1. Nature and circumstances of the offense charged and the frequency and severity of the act
2. Best interest of the victim and society
3. The circumstances of the child, influence of the family, reparation of injury to the victim, the weight of
evidence against the child and the safety of the community
4. Best interest of the child
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1,2 and 4
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392. Diversion programs for CICL is classified according to different stages. Which of the following is NOT
one?
A. Barangay level C. Court level
B. Law enforcement and prosecution level D. Correction level
393. Bino is a 16-year old boy. He was abandoned by his parents, not studying and a member of True Brown
Style Gang. Bino is a___.
A. Truant C. Children in Conflict with the Law
B. Child at Risk D. Vagabond
394. What agency of the government has the responsibility for the custody and rehabilitation of CICL?
A. DSWD C. BPP
B. BUCOR D. BJMP
395. Law that protects children from child abuse, exploitation and discrimination.
A. PD 603 C. RA 9344
B. RA 7610 D. RA 9165
396. What is the law that strengthened the juvenile justice system in the Philippines?
A. Republic Act 9344 C. Republic Act 7610
B. Republic Act 10630 D. Presidential Decree 603
397. Human behavior is a man’s reaction to his environment which includes his response to the interpretation
of the internal and external_______.
A. Beliefs C. Perception
B. Inclination D. Stimulus
398. Part of the natural development of an adolescent:
1. Learning 2. Playing 3. Maturation 4. Working
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
399. Average behavior is___.
A. Seen from most members of the same community
B. Voluntary or involuntary attitude of a person adopts to fit society’s idea of right and wrong.
C. Cognitive adaptation that enhances the human beings ability to cope with changes in the
environment
D. None of them
400. Defense mechanism is a form of self-deception that shields an individual from____.
A. Pleasure C. Emotional pain
B. Anger D. Fear
401. Behavior pattern which a person returns to a state of former adjustment and tries to experience them
again in memory.
A. Frustration C. phobia
B. Anger D. Regression
402. Sustained frustration may be characterized by:
1. Anxiety 4. Depression and emotional tension
2. Irritability 5. Anti-social behavior
3. Fatigue
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 C. 2, 4 and 5
B. 1, 2, 3and 4 D. 1, 3 and 5
403. This personality disorder is characterized by infantile level of response, lack of conscience, deficient
feeling of affection to others and aggression to environment and other people.
A. Neurotic Personality C. Psychopathic Personality
B. Compulsive Neurosis D. Schizophrenic Personality
404. Necrophilia is a sexual disorder characterized by____.
A. Having sex with a child C. having sex with a corpse
B. Having sex with old people D. having sex with an animal
405. Phases of crisis management.
A. Prevention, prediction, preparation and performance
B. Prediction, prevention, preparation and performance
C. Preparation, prevention, performance and preparation
D. Preparation, performance, prevention and prediction
406. Stages in hostage taking situations are:
1. Initial stage 4. Termination stage
2. Negotiation stage 5. Evaluation stage
3. Fulfillment stage
A. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 5
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407. In a hostage taking situation, there are four courses of action that might be taken. Which of the following
is not one of them?
A. Use of chemical agents or direct assault on the hostage-position
B. Use of sharpshooter to shoot and maim the hostage taker
C. Granting of the hostage takers’, especially terrorists’ demand in exchange for the release of the
hostages
D. Negotiation
408. The only normal sexual relationship between members of the opposite sex and could lead to reproduction
is referred to as:
A. Homosexuality C. Sensuality
B. Pornography D. Heterosexuality or sexuality
409. In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense, when trapped they expand a great deal of emotional,
physical and psychic energy, hence:
A. Swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the authorities
B. Shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
C. Prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
D. Aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender
410. Calm attitude of a negotiator who deals with a hostage taking situation EXCEPT:
A. Avoid words/ actions that could have the appearance of ego threat
B. Firm and avoid indecision or ambivalence
C. Build a rapport with the hostage taker
D. Give the hostage taker of their demands which are negotiable
411. When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage takers asked non- negotiable demands, they were
left with three options, a) Choose martyrdom, kill hostages and commit suicide, b) lessen demands to more
realistic proportions; and c) surrender. If they choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is---
A. Attack them swiftly with precision C. Give all of their demands
B. Withhold the media from terrorist D. Let the hostages killed
412. A strong attachment of the hostage victim to their captors after a long period of captivity, by which they
become a sympathizer of the hostage takers
A. Hostage Victim Syndrome C. Stockhlom Syndrome
B. Hostage Trauma Syndrome D. Attachment Syndrome
413. In a hostage taking situation, non-verbal communication which indicates openness and willingness to
listen can be shown by
A. A posture of a folded arms in a dominant position
B. Calmly repeating words of comfort or assurance
C. By not attempting to trick or lie
D. Keeping arms open and with other gesture that indicates that you are willing to negotiate
414. A crisis imposes certain problems on the Crisis Management Team (CMT) and to its members as
enumerated, EXCEPT:
A. Emotional strain due to the responsibility for human life
B. The knowledge that the government is not giving full support to the operation
C. Insufficient data for making important decision
D. The need to consider strategic implications of seemingly out-of-this world elements of crisis
415. The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is
A. To accept their beliefs as being true
B. To try to commence them that their beliefs are wrong
C. To show them that they are just crazy
D. To try to bluff or trick them
416. The following are reasons, why common criminals are easy to negotiate except:
A. Fears of police assault and punishment
B. Criminals are usually rational thinkers
C. They are familiar with police operations and tactics
D. Their ultimate desire is to surrender and their possible punishment could be mitigated
417. Dealing with the terrorist hostage takers is difficult because:
1. Terrorists are usually highly-trained combatants who have been politically and ideologically
indoctrinated
2. Terrorists acts as part of a group, and their behavior will be pressured by group dynamics.
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3. The terrorist hostage-taking drama is capable of producing conflicts of principles that are not easy to
resolve
4. Most of the terrorist groups receive training in the techniques that will be used against them in the
country chosen for the attack.
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, and 4
418. To control the hostage-taking situation it means the following conditions are present:
1. Absolute containment of the perpetuator
2. Trust and confidence between the hostage taker and hostage negotiator exists
3. Evaluation and isolation of the target area
4. Effective command and control activities for coordination and proper decision- making
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
419. The negotiators in hostage-taking incident should strive to_______.
A. Be mediators not arbitrators
B. Refute all views of the terrorists
C. Promise that all their demands be met
D. Set the pace, mood and topic of conversation be themselves
420. A negotiation team should always have a/an_____.
A. Officer in charge C. Sharpshooter
B. Media men D. Photographer
421. Which of the following is NOT one of the terrorist tactics?
A. Bombing C. Assassination
B. Hostage-taking D. Serial murder
422. Which of the following is NOT a terrorist’s goal?
A. Worldwide/ local recognition C. Harassment, embarrassment weakening of government
B. Disruption of community and mobility D. Understanding of social environment
423. There are three categories of terrorists. Which of the following does NOT belong to its classification?
A. Crusaders C. Criminals
B. Crazies D. Preachers
424. An effective planning, formulation of policies, procedures and techniques for dealing with sudden violent
acts of terrorists is known as___.
A. Crisis Management C. Stress Management
B. Hostage negotiation D. Police Analysis
425. Kidnappers may _____their kidnap victims, due to attritional factors, use of negotiations, and use of force
by law enforcement authority.
A. Kill C. Ransom
B. Keep D. Release
426. In hostage negotiations, one good communication techniques is through the use of ______ opening
statements.
A. specific C. trembling
B. aggressive D. broad
427. The negotiators in any hostage situation must be credible, ________, collected and trained.
A. opportunist C. aggressive
B. cool D. coward
428. Collection of money or goods, from the people by the insurgents is known as___.
A. pledge C. forced taxation
B. support D. contribution
429. Tactical procedures in hostage- taking situation are____.
1. Containment of the hostage position 3. Recovery and prevention of hostage-taking
2. Communication and surveillance 4. Assault alternative
A. 1, 2 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4
430. Which abnormal behaviour that is generally characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia?
A. Psychoses C. Neuroses
B. Paraphilia D. Psychopathy
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431. When person’s reality is distorted such as, he is experiencing delusion, hallucination and regression,
he is suffering__________.
A. Psychoses C. Neuroses
B. Abnormality D. Psychopathy
432. A study that deals with criminal behavior.
A. Criminal Sociology C. Criminal Psychology
B. Criminology D. Criminal Psychiatry
433. Personality disorder is an aberration in the development process leading to maladaptive behavior.
Maladaptive behavior means____.
A. False sensory perception C. Deviation from morality or acceptable normality
B. The person has a false belief D. Delusional thinking
434. When a person is hallucinating he has__________.
A. False belief C. False sensory perception
B. maybe aware but could not D. deviation from morality or acceptable normality
435. Delusion is manifested by a person who_____.
A. Deviates from morality or acceptable normality C. Has false sensory perception
B. Has false belief D. Psychophysiological disorder
436. What personality disorder is suffered by a woman who does not want to have a heterosexual relationship
but seek to have a basic attention or love, and when she gets it, she fainted?
A. Passive-aggressive disorder C. Compulsive personality
B. Hysterical personality disorder D. Depressive neuroses
437. Which abnormal behaviour characterized by the general loss of interest to environment, which include his
home, family, work or schooling and a tendency to be more critical without justification or apparent reason?
A. General anxiety C. Depressive neuroses
B. Anxiety neuroses D. Maladaptive behavior
438. A person who is experiencing a delusion of persecution or grandeur or auditory hallucination
suffers_______.
A. Simple schizophrenia C. Dissociative Neuroses
B. Paranoid schizophrenia D. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
439. A person who has unimpaired intellect but lost a power of self-control. It includes unprincipled
businessman, crooked lawyers, high pressured salesman, etc.
A. Psychopath C. Schizoid
B. Schizotypal D. Paranoid
440. This behavior is characterized by high level of anxiety, suspiciousness, distrust are core elements;
seclusive, don't confide to others, if he does, expect betrayal, if there is a laughter suspect that it is directed to
him.
A. Paranoid C. Neurotic
B. Psychotic D. Psychopathic
441. A person who performs an act while sleeping is suffering_______.
A. Delirium C. Somnambulism
B. Severe abnormality D. Somnolencia
442. State of confusion of the mind characterized by incoherent speech, hallucinations, delusions,
restlessness, and apparently purposeless motions.
443. Condition between sleep and being awake is termed_______.
444. Which personality dimension a person has if he is highly adaptive to living and deriving satisfaction from
external world; he is interested in people and things than ideas, values and theories?
A. Self centered individual C. Conceited
B. Extrovert D. Exhibitionist
445. A transmission of physical characteristics, mental traits, tendency to disease, etc. form parents offspring.
A. Heredity C. Environment
B. Inheritance D. Introvert
446. A person who has uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal stealing is called_______.
A. Kleptomaniac C. Thief
B. Larcenist D. Pyromaniac
447. Mania fanatica is characterized by____.
A. Deep and morbid sense of religious feeling C. Deep sense of righteousness
B. Uncontrollable feeling to set things on fire D. Uncontrollable feelings of love to oneself
448. Necrophilism is ____
A. An obsession with and usually erotic interest in or stimulation by corpses
B. Morbid craving, usually of an erotic nature for dead animals
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C. An obsession to kill a person
D. An uncontrollable fear to a dead body
449. A term applied to a specialist in the study of mental disorders; sometimes interchangely used with
psychiatrist.
A. Anthropologist C. Psychologist
B. Alienist D. Behaviorist
450. Sexually perverted person who derives pleasure from being demented or cruelly treated.
A. Pedophile C. Sadist
B. Masochist D. Maniac
451. PSSupt. Jessie Villanueva is the highest ranking PNP Officer who first to arrive in a hostage taking
incident. As a rule he serves now as a ground commander on the said crisis. Having decided to conduct
hostage rescue operations, the objects are as follows, except one--
A. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed, and set free
B. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to the demands of the hostage takers
C. Hostage-takers desist from his threats
D. Hostage-takers come to the fold of the law by surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
452. In a hostage negotiation and crisis management practice, it is a “Cardinal Rule”_____
A. To bear a weapon when talking to the hostage-taker face-to-face.
B. Seek better alternative than a negotiated agreement
C. Not to agitate the hostage-taker
D. Never say "No" to the demands of the hostage taker
453. Hostage situations happen everywhere and almost every time but whatever or whoever the hostage
maybe, when there is a threat to life, then it is a crisis situation and it must be managed for the purpose of no
other but "SALVARI VITAS", which means____.
A. To save lives C. to kill the hostage-taker
B. To neutralize the hostage taker D. to free the hostage
454. Considered as a "Mortal Sin" in hostage negotiation is_______.
A. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker
B. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
C. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker
D. Saying "No" to the demands of the hostage taker
455. PNP Operational Procedures Manual ‘s 3S Principle in dealing with hostage-taking situations are______.
1. Single Command 3. Single Negotiating Party
2. Single Commander and Negotiator 4. Single Access to Communication
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
456. A systematic, controlled, empirical and critical investigation to answer existing and future problems of
man.
A. Research C. Criminological research
B. Theoretical framework D. Theory
457. Research intended to all bodies of scientific knowledge in order to discover the basic truths or principles.
A. Applied research C. Field research
B. Action research D. Pure research
458. A decision oriented research which involves the application of the steps of scientific method in response
to an immediate need for improvement of existing practices.
A. Action research C. Pure research
B. applied research D. Laboratory
459. It primarily aims to test theories and concepts developed for verification, application, development,
support and their relationships to the existing fund of knowledge.
A. Action research C. Fundamental research
B. Applied research D. Library research
460. Considered as the most fundamental part of the research is__.
A. Identification of a problem C. Formulation of Conceptual Framework
B. Reviewing related literature D. Constructing/ Framing of the research title
461. The research title must______.
1. Brief
2. Specific
3. Relevant to the researcher, his work and the community
4. Solve specific problem which research attempted to solve
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
462. The so called 4M’s are needed in conducting research, they are: man, money, materials and__.
A. Machinery C. Magnanimity
B. Mastery D. Method
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463. Best sources of research problem are____.
1. Problems encountered in the field
2. Suggestions from experienced researchers
3. Technical expertise or line of specialization
A. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
464. Hypothesis presented in negative form is____________.
A. Null A. Operational
B. Descriptive D. Alternative
465. A way of defining terms as they are used in a study is called__.
A. Conceptual definition C. Operational definition
B. Dictionary definition D. Lexical definition
466. What comes after framing the title and statement of the problem?
A. Preparation of research instrument
B. Data analysis
C. Identification of respondents and
D. Interview with people involved in sampling procedures the study
467. Sources of review of literature are:
1. Thesis 2. Relics 3. Documents
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 2
468. Refers to the population of the study are:
1. Respondents 3. Subjects
2. Participants 4. Representative of the study
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1 and 4
469. Which are not considered as unpublished materials?
A. Handouts C. Thesis
B. Journals D. Dissertations
470. What is a research design in which the study describes the future?
A. Historical C. Experimental
B. Descriptive D. Case study
471. Type of descriptive research which seeks to answer questions to the real facts relating to existing
conditions is___.
A. Descriptive- status C. Descriptive- normative
B. Descriptive- survey D. Descriptive- analysis
472. A research design in which the study focuses in the past, present, and future is_____.
A. Historical C. Experimental
B. Descriptive D. Case study
473. A descriptive design which determines the relationships of two variables ( X and Y) whether their
relationship is perfect, very high, high, moderate or marked, slight or negligible is
A. Descriptive- comparative C. Correlational- survey
B. Longitudinal- survey D. Descriptive- survey
473-A. Techniques in collecting data according to Best:
1. Observation and interview 2. Test and inventories 3. Library technique
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3 D. only 1
474. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
A. Tests C. Interview
B. Questionnaires D. Periodicals
475. The degree to which the research instrument measures what it purports to measure is___.
A. Reliability C. Objectivity
B. Validity D. Usability
476. It is concerned with the consistency of responses from moment to moment even if the subjects take the
same instrument twice.
A. Validity C. Usability
B. Objectivity D. Reliability
477. The tallying and counting of raw data to arrive at frequency distribution and organizing them in a
systematic order in a table or tables.
A. Tabulation of data C. Data matrix
B. Dummy table D. Categorization of data
478. A preliminary section of a research paper, thesis, or dissertation where the investigator recognizes and
appreciates the selfless effort and wise counsel extended by his adviser is_____.
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A. Title page C. Table of contents
B. Approval sheet D. Acknowledgment
479. Research method____.
A. Describes the approach employed in the conduct of study
B. Delineates the steps observed in the conduct of study
C. Describes the data gathering construction
D. Presents the participants of the study
480. It predicts the relationship between variables.
A. Null hypothesis C. Hypothesis
B. Alternative hypothesis D. Assumption
481. The tense used in presenting conclusions and recommendations is___.
A. Present C. Future
B. Past D. Past perfect
482. When the researcher directly witnesses the events, the data is considered as__.
A. Secondary data C. Internal data
B. Primary data D. Witness account data
483. What is the best research design to be used in this study "Attitudes of Selected Police Investigators of the
Manila Police District Towards the Miranda Doctrine"?
A. Descriptive C. Experimental
B. Historical D. Case study
484. Research design uses interview, observation and documents to obtain in-depth analysis of data is ___.
A. Qualitative C. Experimental
B. Quantitative D. Case study
485. Research instruments are:
1. Questionnaire and interview 3. Document or content analysis
2. Rating scale checklist 4. Observation and inventories
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
485-A. Tools of descriptive statisctics
1. Frequency Counting or distribution
2. Percentage
3. Measure of Central Tendency
4. Measures of Variability or Dispersion
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
485-B. The value that occurs most frequently in a distribution of scores in measure of central tendency is___.
A. Mean C. Median
B. Mode D. Percentage
485-C. What is the most familiar measure of central tendency?
A. Percentage C. Median
B. Mode D. Mean
486. When does frustration occurs?
A. When goal achievement is blocked
B. When people have to make difficult decisions
C. When people have to choose two or more competing motives, behaviors, or impulses.
D. When a person needs to react to situations that pose demands, constraints, or
opportunities
487. Which personality disorder characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, a tendency
towards a solitary lifestyle, secretiveness, and emotional coldness?
A. Schizoid Personality Disorder C. Avoidant Personality Disorder
B. Obsession D. Dependent Personality Disorder
488. This conflict occurs when the two desirable but mutually exclusive goals exist.
A. avoidance-avoidance C. approach-approach
B. approach-avoidance D. multiple
489. An excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural situation or object is known
as__.
A. melancholia C. phobia
B. exaltation D. mania
490. In this sexual deviance, animals are the object of achieving of sexual excitation and gratification.
A. exhibitionism C. fetishism
B. pedophilia D. bestiality
491. The achievement of pleasure in this sexual perversion is through clandestine peeping.
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A. voyeurism C. heterosexuality
B. incest D. bestiality
492. Jude, who usually gets sexual stimulation and gratification with another man manifests what
deviant sexual behavior?
A. lesbianism C. homosexuality
B. pedophilia D. incest
493. It is a personality disorder characterized by a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-
seeking, including an excessive need for approval and inappropriate seductiveness, usually
beginning in early adulthood.
A. Antisocial Personality Disorder C. Borderline Personality Disorder
B. Histrionic Personality Disorder D. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
494. A disorder and its derivatives can be caused by excessive praise and criticism in childhood,
particularly that from parental figures. It is frequently mistaken for self-centered.
A. Borderline Personality Disorder C. Paranoid Personality Disorder
B. Narcissistic Personality Disorder D. Anti-social Personality Disorder
495. The first step in hostage taking crisis is______.
A. crowd control C. negotiation
B. assault D. traffic control
496. Out of anger to his girlfriend, Johnny boxed a nearby tree. What defense mechanism does
Johnny manifested?
A. repression C. sublimation
B. displacement D. projection
497. A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside the bank together with their hostages;
their demand is geared towards____.
A. revenge C. economic gain
B. escape D. vindication
498. A person who attempts to exclude from his consciousness a thought or feeling that cause him
pain, shame or guilt is using what defense mechanism?
A. identification C. regression
B. repression D. fixation
499. This an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt deficiencies or undesirable traits by emphasizing a
desirable type of behavior.
A. rationalization C. sublimation
B. compensation D. projection
500. This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in the male or an inability to achieve it.
A. masturbation C. prostitution
B. exhibitionism D. frigidity
501. Dennis is a three year old toddler who gains pleasure from masturbation. He is in what stage of
psychosexual development?
A. Oral C. Phallic
B. Anal D. Genital
502. Which of these processes is present first?
A. Id C. Superego
B. Ego D. Sublimation
503. According to existential psychologists, the central human fear is______.
A. castration C. self-actualization
B. death D. frustration
504. According to Freud, the depressed individual is actually angry at____.
A. someone who is loved C. the self
B. someone who is hated D. someone who is not known
505. The term schizophrenia was coined by Bleuler and described by Kraepelin as_____.
A. general paresis C. dementia praecox
B. lycanthropy D. senility
506. Which of these statements is true?
A. Punishment for juvenile offenses leads to later offenses
B. Moderate punishment for juvenile offenses leads to later offenses
C. Severe punishment for juvenile offenses leads to later offenses
506-A. You accosted someone who is an exhibitionist. You would expect him to be______.
A. brave C. insecure
B. criminal D. intelligent
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507. Twin and adoption studies indicate that______.
A. criminality is not genetic C. criminality is totally genetic
B. criminality is partly genetic D. the relationship between criminality and genetics is unclear
508. The XYY chromosome pattern has been hypothesized to be_____.
A. linked with violence among men C. linked with violence against men and women
B. linked with violence among women D. linked with violence among transsexuals
509. You deal with someone who is inordinately unable to assume responsibility. If this individual has a
personality disorder, it would be_____.
A. narcissistic personality disorder C. dependent personality disorder
B. avoidant personality disorder D. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
510. You expect a person with a borderline personality disorder to be_____.
A. unstable C. emotionally flat
B. weird D. withdrawn
511. Self-theorists trace borderline personality disorder to difficulties experienced during___.
A. infancy C. adolescence
B childhood D. adulthood
512. Progressive series of changes that occur as a result of maturation and experience is called___.
A. Development C. Progress
B. Growth D. Learning
513. Joshua is highly adaptive to living and deriving satisfaction from external world; he is interested in people
and things than ideas, values and theories. Joshua is a/an_____.
A. Self centered individual C. Conceited
B. Extrovert D. Exhibitionist
514. Defense mechanism that enables individuals to justify their behavior to themselves and others by making
excuses or formulating fictitious, socially approved arguments to convince themselves and others that their
behavior is logical and acceptable is called_____.
A. sublimation C. projection
B. fantasy D. rationalization
515. The most tolerated way of handling frustration which is a man’s last resort when he attempts to
overcome fear from an anticipated situation or event.
A. coping mechanism C. aggression
B. defense mechanism D. fight-flight
****END***
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CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE EXAMINATIONS

FINAL COACHING ON SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES AND ETHICS (15%)

INSTRUCTION: Choose the letter of the correct answer.

28. All the statements are correct, EXCEPT:

60. Also known as criminology of place, environmental criminology refers to -

B. Personality Disorder D. Anxiety Disorder

A. 1,2 and 3 C. 1 and 2

125. How will you compute Average Monthly Crime Rate?

Crime volume of a certain area

total number of occurrences of a type of crime

Current data− previous data

136. When does Republic Act 6506 was approved?

212. Which of the following is the basic mission of the police?

267. The test of the police efficiency is the absence of:

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