Evolution

1. Alternative forms of a gene are called

(a) loci
(b) multiples
(c) Chromosomes
(d) Alleles
2. Heredity or inheritance of specific traits became clearer due to
(a) Lamarck’s theory
(b) Mendel worked on garden peas
(c) Darwinism
(d) Neo-Darwinism
3. Which of the following sentences is true about the evolutionary process?
(a) There is no real progress in the idea of evolution
(b) humans are unique, a totally new type of organism
(c) progress is nature’s religion
(d) Evolution of life forms was rapid in the beginning ages
4. Microevolution takes place due to
(a) somatogenic variation
(b) blastogenic variation
(c) continuous variation
(d) Successive variation
5. The difference between Homo sapiens and the Homo erectus was
(a) Homo sapiens originated in Africa while Homo erectus was in Asia
(b) Homo erectus were much smaller in size than homo sapiens
(c) Homo erectus stayed in Africa while Homo sapiens did not
(d) The size of the brain of Homo eructus was smaller than homo sapiens
6. By studying analogous structures we look for
(a) similarities in appearance and function but different in structure
(b) similarities in appearance but differences in functions
(c) Similarities in organ structure
(d) Similarities in the cell make-up
7. Who was a predecessor of Darwin and developed the theory of acquired
characteristics?
(a) Weismann
(b) Mendel
(c) Malthus
(d) Lamarck
8. Which of these is not a living fossil?
(a) Archaeopteryx
(b) Duck-billed platypus
(c) Lungfish
(d) Frog
9. Which of the following are not examples of analogous structures?
(a) Wings of bat and butterfly.
(b) Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle.
(c) Thorn and spine.
(d) Tendril of Lathyrus and tendril of Gloriosa
10.The scientist who cut off the tails of mice of successive generations to prove
Lamarck’s theory was wrong was
(a) Weismann
(b) Haeckel
(c) Darwin
(d) Wallace
11.Human being belongs to the species of
(a) Homo erectus
(b) Homo habilis
(c) Homo sapiens
(d) Hominidae
12.Links between organisms that show branching patterns of evolutionary
relationships are shown by
(a) living fossils
(b) comparative embryology
(c) phylogenetic trees
(d) two fossil layers
13.Speciation is the evolutionary process by which
(a) a new gene pool is formed
(b) evolutionary paths of species converge
(c) hybrid species formed
(d) Shows up differences in physical traits
14.Evidences of evolutionary relationships is found in
(a) atmosphere
(b) fossils
(c) ocean beds
(d) rocks
15.Which of the following is not a source of variation in a population?
(a) Inherited genetic differences
(b) Differences due to health
 (c) Differences due to age
(d) None of the above
16.Which of the following examples of variation is not important from an
evolutionary standpoint?
(a) Genetic differences between individual organisms comprising the population
(b) Inherited differences between individual organisms comprising the
population
(c) Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that do not affect an
individual’s ability to survive and reproduce
(d) a and b
17.Why is genetic variation important from an evolutionary standpoint?
(a) If all organisms were the same, the entire population would be vulnerable to
particular pathogens, like viruses
(b) All evolutionary adaptations (e.g. the origin of forelimbs) are the result of
the gradual build-up of genetic differences between organisms over geologic
time
(c) Evolution (at the population level) refers to changes in the frequencies of
genes in the population over time
(d) All of the above
18.Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?
(a) Two children have different eye colours
(b) One person is older than another
(c) One person has a scar, but her friend does not
(d) Tod eats meat, but his brother Rod is a vegetarian
19.Which of the following is an example of environmental variation?
(a) Apu is a tongue roller, but his brother Sanjay is not
(b) Marge dyes her hair blue
(c) Homer inherited baldness from his father’s side of the family
(d) Patti and Selma have hanging ear lobes
20.What’s the difference between natural selection and sexual selection?
(a) Sexual selection occurs during sex
(b) Natural selection is a type of sexual selection
(c) Sexual selection is a type of natural selection
(d) Sexual selection occurs within demes, natural selection does not
21.What’s the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?
(a) Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation
(b) Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species
(c) Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does
(d) There is no difference
22.According to our reading, how did George Cuvier account for extinctions in
nature?
(a) Extinctions never occur – there are unexplored parts of the globe where
organisms that appear to have gone extinct may still live
(b) Extinctions occur when the slow adaptation of organisms over time to their
environment is not quick enough to help them respond to changing conditions
(c) Extinctions occur at random, they do not reflect God’s will
(d) Extinctions are due to catastrophic events
23.Why, according to our reading, did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of
Species?
(a) Darwin wanted to share his theory as quickly as possible once he returned
from his voyage on the Beagle
(b) It took twenty years for Darwin to develop a theory
(c) Darwin suffered from several illnesses
(d) Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his
theory
24.In which of the following ways is natural selection not analogous to artificial
selection?
(a) With natural selection “picking” is due to the fit of an organism with its
environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder “picks” which
organisms will breed
(b) Natural selection depends upon the presence of variation, artificial selection
does not
(c) Natural selection occurs within populations, artificial selection does not
(d) There is a limit to how much change can be brought about by natural
selection, no such limit exists for artificial selection
25.Why is the advent of reproductive isolation important from an evolutionary
standpoint?
(a) When the organisms comprising two populations of a species can no longer
interbreed, the flow of genetic material between them stops
(b) It is not important from an evolutionary standpoint
(c) Reproductive isolation increases the mutation rate
(d) Reproductive isolation may slow reproduction
26.If the theory of natural selection is the survival of the fitness, and the fittest are
identified as those who survive, why isn’t it regarded as a tautology (a statement
that is true only because of the meaning of the terms)?
(a) The effect of traits on the fitness of an organism can be assessed
independently of whether the organism indeed survives
(b) It is regarded as a tautology – the question is based on a false assumption
(c) There may be some statements in science that are useful even if they are not
 falsifiable or refutable in principle
(d) a and c
27.The variation natural selection operates on is due to random mutations. What
does this imply about natural selection?
(a) Natural selection is also a random process
(b) Natural selection is nevertheless a directed process – the likelihood one
variant will be favoured in a given environment over another is predictable,
even if the origin is not
(c) There is no possibility God could be involved in this process
(d) a, b and c
28.How was Mendel’s work ultimately reconciled with Darwin’s theory of natural
selection during the evolutionary synthesis in the 1930s and 1940s?
(a) Scientists recognized that once one thinks about species as populations,
rather than individuals, there is no incompatibility between them
(b) Mendel’s theory was replaced by the mutation theory
(c) It was recognized much of the variation we observe in nature is due to
recombination, rather than mutation
(d) a and c
29.Which of the following is the evidence for Darwin’s theory of common
descent?
(a) There are patterns in the fossil record that suggest other species have
diverged from a single ancestor species
(b) There are biogeographic patterns in the distribution of species, for instance,
distinct bird species
on an island tend to resemble one another, suggesting a common ancestor
(c) There are common stages in the early embryological development of
organisms representing several distinct vertebrate groups
(d) All of above
30.What is the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat?
(a) They are homologous because they represent modified forms of a trait
present in a common ancestor (forelimbs)
(b) They are analogous because while each carries out the same function
(flight), this trait has arisen independently as a result of convergence (i.e. the
common ancestor of both did not have a forelimb that allowed it to fly)
(c) a and b
(d) They represent derived homologies
31.Which of the following is not an example of a macroevolutionary process?
(a) One lion species splits to form two lion species over geological time
(b) The same trait evolves independently in two different taxa (e.g. wings in
birds and insects)
 (c) As a result of their activities, humans drive Dodos (a bird species) extinct
(d) Over a short period, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10 to 8%
32.Which of the following is an example of an ancestral homology?
(a) Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait they
also share with contemporary amphibians
(b) The first birds and all their descendant species have feathers, a trait that is
unknown in any other group
(c) Humans and many insect species have eyes
(d) All of the above
33.Which of the following is not an example of microevolutionary change?
(a) The dark form of many moth species has increased in areas darkened by
pollution
(b) Penicillin resistant forms of bacteria have arisen since the introduction of
antibiotics
(c) The proportion of left and right bending moths in cichlid fish remains
roughly 50:50
(d) The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species
34.Which of the following are difficult to explain in terms of natural selection?
(a) Male peacocks evolve tail feathers that would appear to make them more
rather than less vulnerable to predators
(b) Male deer evolve antlers that are not used to defend themselves against
predators
(c) A bird issues a warning cry that puts it at greater risk of being noticed by a
predator
(d) Some traits appear to have no adaptive value
35.Which of the following is not an example of a monophyletic taxon?
(a) The first fish species and every living organism that looks like a fish
(b) The first mammal species and all its descendants
(c) The first bird species and all its descendants
(d) All of the above
36.Which of the following are kingdoms?
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Animalia
(d) All of the above
37.Which of the following must increase over geological time according to
evolutionary biologists?
(a) Size
(b) Complexity
 (c) Speed of evolutionary processes such as mutation
(d) All of the above
38.Why is similarity misleading when it comes to inferring evolutionary
relationships?
(a) Organisms that look alike may be very distantly related to one another
(b) Similarities between two species may be due to common descent, without
indicating how closely the two are related to one another
(c) A and B only
(d) The presence of a shared derived character state is often misleading when it
comes to inferring relationships between species
39.Which of the following are the most distantly related to one another?
(a) Sunfish and dolphins
(b) Tree frogs and snakes
(c) Vampire bats and birds
(d) Bears and whales
40.How does an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of birds have evolved
a larger beak size?
(a) Large beak size occurred as a result of a mutation in each member of the
population
(b) The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than
average sized seeds. They needed to develop larger beaks to eat the larger seeds,
and over time, they adapted to meet this need
(c) Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than others. If
larger beak size was advantageous, they would be more likely to survive and
reproduce. As such, large beaked birds increased in frequency relative to small
beaked birds
(d) The ancestors of this bird species encountered a tree with larger than
average sized seeds. They discovered that by stretching their beaks, the beaks
would get longer, and this increase was passed on to their offspring. Over time,
the bird’s beaks became larger
41.How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of salamander
becomes blind after colonizing a cave?
(a) It is possible that in the cave there is a source of pollution that increases the
mutation rate for a gene that makes salamanders blin(d) Over time, due to
exposure to this chemical, the members of the population lose their sight
(b) Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed in their
ability to see. If maintaining the ability to see in the cave was a waste of energy,
blind salamanders might actually have more offspring than those who could see
(c) There is no way to explain this in terms of natural selection
(d) The members of this salamander species no longer needed to use their eyes.
Over time, due to lack of use, they lost the ability to see
42.Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense?
(a) A lion who is successful at capturing prey but has no cubs
(b) A lion who has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood
(c) A lion who overcomes a disease and lives to have three cubs.
(d) A lion who cares for his cubs, two of who live to adulthood
43.How is extinction represented in a tree diagram?
(a) A branch splits.
(b) A branch ends.
(c) A branch shifts along the X-axis
(d) A branch shifts along the Y-axis
44.A biologist is trying to infer how five closely related species of snakes are
related to one another. She notices that some of the snakes have forked tongues
and others do not. Which of the following would help her distinguish the
ancestral state?
(a) She looks among snake fossils for evidence that being forked is a
characteristic of the ancestor of this group, but determines no such fossils exist
(b) She locates a specimen of a more distantly related snake to see if it has a
forked tongue
(c) She looks at a representative mammal species to see if it has a forked tongue
(d) She flips a coin
45.The surface temperature of the sun is
(a) 6000 degree celsius
(b) 9000 degree celsius
(c) 1000 degree celsius
(d) 10,000 degree celsius
46.The earth like other planets formed from
(a) aggregates of uranium
(b) cloud of gas and dust
(c) division of pre-existing planets
(d) collisions of meteorites
47.The experiment to show the production of mice in 21 days from a dirty shirt
placed in contact with kernels of wheat was carried out by
(a) Francesco Redi
(b) Jean Baptiste Van Helmont
(c) Aristotle
(d) Louis Pasteur
48.The first formed organism (ribo organism) used only _ for catalyzing reactions
(a) DNA
(b) amino acids
 (c) fatty acids
(d) RNA
49.Anaerobic photosynthetic bacteria appeared on the earth about
(a) 500 million years ago
(b) 1500 million years ago
(c) 2500 million years ago
(d) 3500 million years ago
50.The sequence of origin of life may be considered as
(a) Amino acid, Protein, Chlorophyll
(b) Chlorophyll, Starch, Glycogen
(c) Nucleic acid, Amino acid, Chlorophyll
(d) Chlorophyll, Nucleic acid, Amino acid
51.The primitive cell-like colloidal particles capable of growth and division were
(a) prokaryotes
(b) coacervates
(c) eobionts
(d) chemoautotrophs
52.The stage for the evolution of autotrophs was set with the evolution of
(a) RNA
(b) DNA
(c) ozone
(d) chlorophyll
53.The first organism to be found on a bare rock is a
(a) moss
(b) alga
(c) lichen
(d) fern
54.The doctrine of evolution is concerned with
(a) gradual changes
(b) abiogenesis
(c) biogenesis
(d) none of the above
55.The era called the ‘age of prokaryotic microbes’ is
(a) archaeozoic
(b) precambrian
(c) phanerozoic
(d) proterozoic
56.The determine which molecules might have formed spontaneously on the early
earth, Stanley Miller used an apparatus with an atmosphere containing
 (a) oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen
(b) oxygen, hydrogen, ammonia and water vapour
(c) oxygen, hydrogen and methane
(d) hydrogen, ammonia, methane and water vapour
57.The utilization of elements and compounds in nature generation theory because
(a) life cycles
(b) cyclic pathway
(c) material cycles
(d) recycling
58.What is ethnobotany?
(a) Relationship between primitive plants and people
(b) Study to soil
(c) Cultivation of flower yielding plants
(d) Use of plants and their parts
59.The first photoautotroph organisms were
(a) bryophytes
(b) algae
(c) cyanobacteria
(d) bacteria
60.Who performed this famous experiment to prove the origin of life?
(a) Oparin and Haldane
(b) Spallanzani and Pasteur
(c) Urey and Miller
(d) Fox and Pasteur
61.How much temperature was used for the gases to react?
(a) 10 degree celsius
(b) 130 degree celsius
(c) 1000 degree celsius
(d) 50 degree celsius
62.Coacervates are
(a) colloidal droplets
(b) contain nucleoprotein
(c) a and b
(d) protobiont
63.The earliest organisms were
(a) heterotrophic and anaerobic
(b) autotrophic and anaerobic
(c) heterotrophic and aerobic
(d) autotrophic and aerobic
64.Which one of the following is present today but was absent about 3.5 billion
years ago?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Methane
65.Coacervates were experimentally produced by
(a) Sydney Fox and Oparin
(b) Fischer and Huxley
(c) Jacob and Monod
(d) Urey and Miller
66.Urey and Miller in their experiment used a mixture of gases corresponding to
primitive earth. These were
(a) C3, NH3, H2, CO2
(b) O2, NH3, CH4, H2
(c) NH3, CH4, H2O, CO2
(d) CH4, NH3, H2, H2O
67.According to abiogenesis life originate from
(a) non-living matter
(b) pre-existing life
(c) chemicals
(d) extra-terrestrial matter
68.Mega–evolution is
(a) Changes in the gene pool
(b) evolution due to mutations
(c) origin of a new biological group
(d) the evolution that takes centuries
69.Evolutionary convergence is characterised by
(a) development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups
(b) development of a common set of characteristics in the groups of different
ancestry
(c) development of characteristics by random mating
(d) replacement of common characteristics in different groups
70.Parallelism is
(a) adaptive divergence
(b) adaptive convergence
(c) adaptive convergence of far off species
(d) adaptive convergence of closely related groups.
71.Mesozoic era is associated with the mass extinction of
(a) flowering plants
 (b) trilobites
(c) Dodo
(d) dinosaurs
72.Serial homology is exhibited by
(a) Organs of same individual occupying different levels of the body
(b) Organs of different organisms with the same function
(c) appendages of various parts of the prawn body
(d) both (a) and (c)
73.Vermiform appendix in man, nictitating membrane and wisdom teeth are
(a) homologous organs
(b) analogous organs
(c) vestigial organs
(d) none of the above
74.Which one of the following terms would most correctly describe the
relationship between the flight organs of animals like locusts, bats, swallow, and
flying fish?
(a) Atavism
(b) Analogous
(c) Homologous
(d) Vestigial
75.Appearance of facial hair in some people is an example of
(a) mongolism
(b) analogous organs
(c) atavism
(d) all above
76.A living connecting link which provides evidence for organic evolution is
(a) Archeopteryx between reptiles and mammals
(b) lungfish between pisces and reptiles
(c) duck-billed platypus between reptiles and mammals
(d) Sphenodon between reptiles and birds
77.Von Baer supports the theory of evolution based on
(a) embryological character
(b) germs layers
(c) somatic variations
(d) genetic variations
78.Which of the following bird will be called most successfully evolved?
(a) Lays 2 eggs, 2 hatch and 2 reproduce
(b) Lays 9 eggs, 9 hatch and 3 reproduce
(c) Lays 5 eggs, 5 hatch and 5 reproduce
(d) Lays 10 eggs, 5 hatch and 4 reproduce
79.Biogenetic law states that
(a) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(b) phylogeny repeats ontogeny
(c) no two living organisms are alike
(d) the favourable acquired characters are inherited
80.A study of evolution has established the systematic positions in many animals.
In some animals chordate characters are absent in the adult stage but present in
the larval stage, for example, Herdmania has been included in
(a) crustacea
(b) protochordata
(c) dermaptera
(d) onychophora
81.Many of the animals and plants found on islands are
(a) endemic
(b) exotic
(c) sympatric
(d) none of these
82.Haeckel’s theory of biogenetic Law means that
(a) all organisms start as an egg
(b) life history of an organism reflects its evolutionary history
(c) nonliving matter from life
(d) progeny resembles parents
83.The best way of dating fossils recent origin is by
(a) radiocarbon method
(b) uranium-lead method
(c) potassium-argon method
(d) a combination of all these
84.The age of the rock is calculated based on
(a) types of fossils present
(b) number of strata present
(c) amount of uranium present
(d) none above
85.It is not a true fossil
(a) Placoderm
(b) Limulus
(c) Archeopteryx
(d) Therapsid
86.All mammals, whales, dolphins, bats, monkeys and horses have some common
traits, but they also show conspicuous differences. This is due to the
phenomenon of
 (a) normalisation
(b) genetic drift
(c) convergence
(d) divergence
87.These are some examples of vestigial structures in man
(a) wisdom tooth vermiform appendix, hair
(b) wisdom tooth, vermiform appendix, coccyx
(c) wisdom tooth, head, nails
(d) none of these
88.Precipitation test gives evidence from
(a) comparative embryology
(b) comparative anatomy
(c) comparative serology
(d) none above
89.In external appearance, the krait and lycodon are indistinguishable. This is an
example of
(a) analogy
(b) imitation
(c) mimicry
(d) homology
90.Postanal tail can be traced in
(a) cobra
(b) earthworm
(c) scorpion
(d) centipede
91.The Jurassic period belongs to which era?
(a) proterozoic
(b) archaeozoic
(c) mesozoic
(d) cenozoic
92.Which of the following cannot determine phylogenetic relationships?
(a) Physiology
(b) Morphology
(c) Biogeography
(d) Embryology
93.Mark the correct set
Column I Column II
I. Slow evolution A. Non-progressive
II. Environment is responsible for evolution B. Aristotle
III. Homologous C. Birdwing and butterfly wing
 IV. Analogous organ D. Wing of bird and hose limb
(a) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C
(b) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
(c) I – B, II – A, III – C, IV – D
(d) I – B, II – C, III – D, IV – A
94.The mesozoic era is called the golden period of
(a) birds
(b) amphibians
(c) reptiles
(d) pisces

95.Which of the following leads to evolution?

(a) Separation of species
(b) Differentiation of species
(c) Loss of few advanced characters
(d) Differentiation and adaption of species as unique entities
96.Evolution and natural selection is demonstrated by
(a) DDT resistance in mosquito
(b) sickle cell anaemia in pygmies
(c) industrial melanism
(d) all above
97.An important piece of evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence
of
(a) homologous and analogous organs
(b) homologous and vestigial organs
(c) analogous and vestigial organs
(d) homologous organs only
98.Potato and sweet potato
(a) have edible parts which are homologous organs
(b) have edible parts which are analogous organs
(c) have been introduced in India from the same place
(d) None of the above
99.Which one is not a vestigial organ in a man?
(a) Wisdom teeth
(b) Muscles of external ear-pinna
(c) Fossa ovalis
(d) Ileum
100. The tracking of the evolutionary history of organisms is
(a) ontogeny
 (b) phylogeny
(c) analogy
(d) homology
101. An old view about evolution states that the organisms were created by a
super organism in the same condition as they exist now. This theory is called
(a) theory of special creation
(b) theory of natural selection
(c) Lamarck’s theory of evolution
(d) theory of spontaneous generation
102. Who gave the evolutionary concept of determinants?
(a) Dobzhansky
(b) Wright
(c) Weismann
(d) Lamarck
103. Darwin’s theory of natural selection is objected because it
(a) stresses upon slow and small variations
(b) explains the adaption of certain inherited characters
(c) stresses on interspecific competition
(d) explains that natural calamities take a heavy annual toll on lives
104. Given: 1 = natural selection; 2 = variations and their inheritance; 3 =
survival of the fittest; 4 = struggle for existence. According to Darwinism,
which of the following represents the correct sequence of events in the origin of
new species?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1
105. The theory of Lamarck was based on
(a) adaptive collisions
(b) adaptive radiation
(c) adaptive modifications
(d) none of these
106. Darwin’s natural selection is based on
(a) variations
(b) prodigality, struggle for existence, survival of fittest
(c) law of use and disuse
(d) law of inheritance of acquired characters
107. Industrial melanism is an example of
(a) natural selection
(b) mutation
 (c) adaptive convergence
(d) artificial selection
108. Which statement is correct?
(a) Lamarck theory – Struggle for existence
(b) Darwin theory – Use and disuse of an organ
(c) Biogenetic law – Recapitulation theory
(d) Lamarck theory – Theory of continuity of germplasm
109. Match the correct set.
Column I Column II
I. Modified form of Lamarckism A. G.L. Stebbins (1950)
II. Variation and evolution in plants B. Neo- Lamarckism
III. Germinal selection theory C. Etienne Geoffroy
IV. Supporter of Lamarck’s theory D. August Weismann
(a) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
(b) I – D, II – B, III – C, IV – A
(c) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C
(d) I – D, II – A, III – C, IV – B
110. The cosmozoic theory was given by
(a) Darwin
(b) Richter
(c) Aristotle
(d) Von Baer
111. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of
natural selection in organic evolution?
(a) Development of transgenic animals
(b) Production of ‘Dolly’ the sheep by clothing
(c) Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects
(d) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation
112. Retrogressive evolution is shown by
(a) man
(b) birds
(c) tunicates
(d) fish
113. Match the correct set
Column I Column II
I. Fossil A. 345-405 million years ago
II. Devonian period B. Fossillium
III. Cambrian period C. 425-500 million years ago
IV. Ordovician period D. 500-600 million years ago
(a) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
 (b) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
(c) I – B, II – C, III – D, IV – A
(d) I – B, II – D, III – C, IV – A
114. In a population, a group of individuals of similar phenotypes are formed
due to differential reproduction due to
(a) genetic drift
(b) natural selection
(c) migration
(d) selective hybridization
115. Phylogenetic evolution refers to
(a) genetic relationship and evolutionary sequence
(b) similar habitat
(c) the natural affinity of genes
(d) similar character
116. Genetic drift occurs when few individuals colonize, the phenomenon is
(a) bottleneck effect
(b) assortative mating
(c) founder’s effect
(d) random mating
117. Sympatric speciation arises due to
(a) the non-overlapping population of the same area
(b) geographical isolation
(c) the overlapping population of the same area
(d) the non-reproductive population of the same area
118. Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium is known to be affected by gene flow,
genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination and
(a) evolution
(b) limiting factor
(c) saltation
(d) natural selection
119. Which does not apply to the Biological species concept?
(a) hybridization
(b) natural population
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) gene pool
120. Mass extinction of the end of the mesozoic era was probably due to?
(a) continental drift
(b) the collision of earth with large meteorites
(c) massive glaciations
(d) change in earth’s orbit
121. Apes share which blood groups with man
(a) A, B, AB
(b) A, B, O
(c) AB, O
(d) A and B only
122. The present age of humans is known as
(a) atomic age
(b) iron age
(c) bronze age
(d) silver age
123. Who was the first civilized man?
(a) Cro-magnon man
(b) Neanderthal man
(c) Java ape man
(d) Peking man
124. Leakey and Leakey discovered the fossils of
(a) apeman
(b) erect man
(c) Peking man
(d) the toolmaker
125. The correct sequence of course of cultural evolution from Cromagnon to
modern man is
(a) Palaeolithic – Mesolithic – Neolithic – Bronze – Iron – Atomic
(b) Mesolithic – Bronze – Neolithic – Iron – Atomic
(c) Palaeolithic – Neolithic – Iron – Bonze – Atomic
(d) None above
126. Neanderthal man differs from modern man in
(a) receding jaw
(b) protruding jaw
(c) could make good tools
(d) none of the above
127. ‘Piltdown man’ is
(a) Hemo habilis
(b) Eoanthropus
(c) Homo sapiens
(d) Pithecanthropine
128. The most recent in human evolution is
(a) mesolithic
(b) neolithic
 (c) upper palaeolithic
(d) middle palaeolithic
129. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
(b) Fossils of Cromagnon has been found in Ethiopia
(c) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
(d) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapience
130. The evolution of genera ‘Homo’ occurred in
(a) Pleistocene
(b) Pliocene
(c) Miocene
(d) Oligocene
131. Closest primate to man is
(a) gorilla
(b) rhesus monkey
(c) orangutan
(d) lemur
132. There are two opposing views about the origin of modern man,
According to one view, Homo erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern
man. A study of variation of DNA however suggested the African origin of
modern man. What kind of observation on DNA variation could suggest this?
(a) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
(b) Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa
(c) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
(d) Similar variation in Africa and Asia
133. The first man to use fire was
(a) neanderthal man
(b) Homo erectus
(c) cro-magnon man
(d) Australopithecus
134. Human evolution actually started in
(a) France
(b) America
(c) Central Asia
(d) Africa
135. Peking man is known as
(a) Australopithecus
(b) Sinanthropus
(c) Pithecanthropus
(d) Homo sapiens
136. Which of the following is a correct match regarding cranial capacity and
location of respective fossil.
(a) Australopithecus – Africa (450 600 CC)
(b) Java man – Germany (800 CC)
(c) Neanderthal – Africa (500–600 CC)
(d) Homo sapiens – Southeast Asia
137. Which one of the following ancestors of man first time showed bipedal
movement?
(a) Australopithecus
(b) Cro-magnon
(c) Java apeman
(d) Peking man
138. One of the oldest, best preserved and most complete hominid fossil
commonly known as ‘Lucy’ belongs to the genus.
(a) Oreopithecus
(b) Dryopithecus
(c) Pithecanthropus
(d) Australopithecus

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) Alleles
2. (b) Mendel worked on garden peas
3. (a) There is no real progress in the idea of evolution
4. (b) blastogenic variation
5. (d) The size of the brain of Homo eructus was smaller than homo sapiens
6. (a) similarities in appearance and function but different in structure.
7. (d) Lamarck
8. (a) Archaeopteryx
9. (b) Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle
10. (a) Weismann
11. (c) Homo sapiens
12. (c) phylogenetic trees
13. (a) a new gene pool is formed
14. (b) fossils
15. (d) None of the above.
16. (c) Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that do not affect an
individual’s ability to survive and reproduce
17. (d) All of the above
18. (a) Two children have different eye colours
19. (b) Marge dyes her hair blue
20. (c) Sexual selection is a type of natural selection
21. (b) Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a
species
22. (d) Extinctions are due to catastrophic events
23. (d) Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the
implications of his theory
24. (a) With natural selection “picking” is due to the fit of an organism with
its environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder “picks” which
organisms will breed
25. (a) When the organisms comprising two populations of a species can no
longer interbreed, the flow of genetic material between them stops
26. (d) a and c
27. (b) Natural selection is nevertheless a directed process – the likelihood
one variant will be favoured in a given environment over another is
predictable, even if the origin is not
28. (d) a and c
29. (d) All of above
30. (c) a and b
31. (d) Over a short period, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10
to 8%
32. (a) Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait
they also share with contemporary amphibians
33. (d) The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the
species
34. (d) Some traits appear to have no adaptive value
35. (a) The first fish species and every living organism that looks like a fish
36. (d) All of the above
37. (d) All of the above
38. (c) A and B only
39. (a) Sunfish and dolphins
40. (c) Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than
others. If larger beak size was advantageous, they would be more likely to
survive and reproduce. As such, large beaked birds increased in
frequency relative to small beaked birds
41. (b) Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed
in their ability to see. If maintaining the ability to see in the cave was a
waste of energy, blind salamanders might actually have more offspring
than those who could see
42. (b) A lion who has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood
43. (b) A branch ends
44. (b) She locates a specimen of a more distantly related snake to see if it
has a forked tongue
45. (a) 6000 degree Celsius
46. (b) cloud of gas and dust
47. (b) Jean Baptiste Van Helmont
48. (d) RNA
49. (d) 3500 million years ago
50. (c) Nucleic acid Amino acid Chlorophyll
51. (c) eobionts
52. (d) chlorophyll
53. (c) lichen
54. (c) biogenesis
55. (a) archaeozoic
56. (d) hydrogen, ammonia, methane and water vapour
57. (c) material cycles
58. (a) Relationship between primitive plants and people
59. (d) bacteria
60. (c) Urey and Miller
61. (b) 130 degree Celsius
62. (c) a and b
63. (a) heterotrophic and anaerobic
64. (a) Oxygen
65. (d) Urey and Miller
66. (d) CH4, NH3, H2, H2O
67. (a) non-living matter
68. (c) origin of a new biological group
69. (d) replacement of common characteristics in different groups
70. (d) adaptive convergence of closely related groups.
71. (d) dinosaurs
72. (d) both (a) and (c)
73. (c) vestigial organs
74. (b) Analogous
75. (c) atavism
76. (c) duck-billed platypus between reptiles and mammals
77. (a) embryological character
78. (c) Lays 5 eggs, 5 hatch and 5 reproduce
79. (a) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
80. (b) protochordata
81. (a) endemic
82. (b) life history of an organism reflects its evolutionary history
83. (d) a combination of all these
84. (c) amount of uranium present
85. (b) Limulus
86. (d) divergence
87. (b) wisdom tooth, vermiform appendix, coccyx
88. (c) comparative serology
89. (c) mimicry
90. (a) cobra
91. (c) Mesozoic
92. (b) Morphology
93. (a) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C
94. (c) reptiles
95. (d) Differentiation and adaption of species as unique entities
96. (d) all above
97. (b) homologous and vestigial organs
98. (b) have edible parts which are analogous organs
99. (d) Ileum
100. (b) phylogeny
101. (a) theory of special creation
102. (b) Wright
103. (b) explains the adaption of certain inherited characters
104. (c) 3, 4, 1, 2
105. (b) adaptive radiation
106. (a) variations
107. (c) adaptive convergence
108. (c) Biogenetic law – Recapitulation theory
109. (c) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C
110. (c) Aristotle
111. (b) Production of ‘Dolly’ the sheep by clothing
112. (a) man
113. (a) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
114. (a) genetic drift
115. (c) the natural affinity of genes
116. (d) random mating
117. (d) the non-reproductive population of the same area
118. (a) evolution
119. (a) hybridization
120. (c) massive glaciations
121. (c) AB, O
122. (d) silver age
123. (a) Cromagnon man
124. (a) apeman
125. (a) Palaeolithic – Mesolithic – Neolithic – Bronze – Iron – Atomic
126. (a) receding jaw
127. (d) Pithecanthropine
128. (d) middle Palaeolithic
129. (d) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapience
130. (b) Pliocene
 131. (a) gorilla
132. (c) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
133. (b) Homo erectus
134. (d) Africa
135. (b) Sinanthropus
136. (a) Australopithecus – Africa (450 600 CC)
137. (a) Australopithecus
138. (d) Australopithecus

Important Extra Questions

Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
When did life appear on earth?

Question 2.
Arrange the following substances in a proper sequence with regard to the formation
of chemical constituents at the time of origin of life: Sugar, methane, nucleic acid,
and amino acid.

Question 3.
Mention the type of nutrition in the cells that originated first during the origin of life.
Answer:
Heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 4.
Which group of organisms were responsible for the appearance of free oxygen in the
atmosphere of the primitive earth?
Answer:

Question 5.
Give the three key factors of the modern concept of evolution.
Answer:
Genetic variations, natural selection, and isolation.

Question 6.
What is the ultimate source of organic variation?

Question 7.
What is proved by the phenomenon of resistance to DDT in mosquitoes?
Question 8.
Attempt giving a clear definition of the term species.

Question 9.
What causes speciation according to Hugo de Vries? (CBSE Delhi 2008)

Question 10.
How did Charles Darwin express ‘fitness’? (CBSE Delhi 2019)

Question 11.
Name the scientist who disproved spontaneous generation theory. (CBSE 2010)

Question 12.
Mention the type of evolution that has brought the similarity as seen in potato tuber
and sweet potato. (CBSE 2009)

Question 13.
Briefly explain the theory of biogenesis. (CBSE 2012)

Question 14.
Write the probable difference in eating habits of Homo habilis and Homo erectus.

Question 15.
How do we compute the age of a living tree?

Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What are we referring to when we say “simpler organisms” or “complex organisms”?

Question 2.
Louis Pasteur’s experiments, if you recall, proved that life can arise from only pre-
existing life. Can we correct this as life evolves from pre-existent life or otherwise we
will never answer the question as to how the first forms of life arose? Comment.
Or
State the two principal outcomes of the experiments conducted by Louis Pasteur on
the origin of life.
Question 3.
What is convergent evolution?

Question 4.
What are analogous organs? Give examples. (CBSE 2016)

Question 5.
What are vestigial organs? Give examples.

Question 6.
Write the significance of vestigial organs.

Question 7.
What are fossils?

Question 8.
Why is Archaeopteryx called a connecting link between reptiles and birds?
Or
What is the significance of Archaeopteryx in the study of organic evolution?

Question 9.
What is adaptive radiation? Or
Describe one example of adaptive radiations. Or
How did Darwin explain the existence of different varieties of finches on the
Galapagos Islands?

Question 10.
List the main points of Lamarck’s theory.

Question 11.
Give the main points of Darwin’s Theory of Evolution. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)

Question 12.
Name the following:
(i) Who conceived the idea of the chemosynthetic hypothesis of the origin of life on
earth?
(ii) Who proved that spontaneous generation does not occur?
(iii) Who experimentally proved that life develops from pre-existing life only?
(iv) Who gave the theory of organic evolution? (CBSE 2010).

Question 13.
Describe De Vries Mutation theory. (CBSE Delhi 2011)

Question 14.
State a reason for the increased population of dark-colored moths coinciding with the
loss of lichens (on tree barks/during industrialization period in England).

Question 15.
Select the homologous structures from the combinations given below:
1. Fore-limbs of whale and bats
2. A tuber of potato and sweet potato
3. Eyes of Octopus and Mammals
4. Thorn of Bougainvillea and Tendril of Cucurbita. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2015)

Question 16.
According to Hardy-Weinberg’s principle, the allele frequency of a population
remains constant. How do you interpret the change of frequency of alleles in a
population? (CBSE 2009)

Question 17.
With the help of two suitable examples, explain the effect of anthropogenic actions
on organic evolution. (CBSE Delhi 2013)

Question 18.
Can we call human evolution adaptive radiation?

Question 19.
State two postulates of Oparin and Haldane with reference to the origin of life.

Question 20.
Write the names of the following:
(i) A 15 mya primate that was ape-like
(ii) A 2 mya primate that lives in East African grasslands Question 21.
(i) Write two differences between Homo erectus and Homo habilis.
(ii) Rearrange the following from early to late geologic periods: Carboniferous,
Silurian, Jurassic. Answer:
Silurian, Carboniferous, Jurassic.

Long Answer Type

Question 1.
What are homologous organs? Give similar or different functions are catted
examples. (CBSE 2016) homologous organs.

Question 2.
How has the study of fossils helped in convincing scientists that organisms have
come into existence through evolution? (CBSE Outside Delhi 2019)

Question 3.
Explain antibiotic resistance observed in light of Darwinian selection theory.

Question 4.
How does natural selection operate according to Darwin’s theory of natural
selection? (CBSE Delhi 2016, 2019 C)

Question 5.
Distinguish between microevolution and macroevolution. Narrate the significance of
population genetics in evolution.

Question 6.
Compare and contrast the theories of evolution proposed by Darwin and Hugo De
Vries.

Question 7.
How would the gene flow or genetic drift affect the population in which either of them
happens to take place? (CBSE Delhi 2019)

Question 8.

Question 9.
Summarise Milter’s simulation experiment for organic synthesis. Comment on its
efficacy.
Question 10.
With the help of an algebraic equation, how did Hardy-Weinberg explain that in a
given population the frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene is supposed to
remain the same through generations? (CBSE Delhi 2018)
Or
Explain Hardy-Weinberg’s principle. (CBSE Delhi 2019 C)

Question 11.
(i) Differentiate between analogous and homologous structures.
Answer:

(ii) Select and write analogous structures from the list given below:
(o) Wings of butterfly and birds
(b) Vertebrate hearts
(c) Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns of Bougainvillea
(d) Tubers of sweet potato and potato (CBSE Delhi 2018)

Question 12.
Write thecharacteristicsofRamapithecus, Dryopithecus, and Neanderthal man.

Question 13.
How does the process of natural selection affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? List
the other four factors that disturb the equilibrium. (CBSE Outside Delhi 2013)
Or
Write Hardy-Weinberg principle.
Or
How can Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium be affected? Explain giving three reasons. (

Question 14.
Define genetic drift. How does it produce the founder effect and genetic bottleneck?
Or
How does the original drifted population become a founder? (CBSE 2019 C)

Question 15.
How does Darwin’s theory of natural selection explain new forms of life on earth?
Struggle for existence

Question 16.
Describe the present-day concept of evolution.

Question 17.
(i) Name the primates that lived about 15 million years ago. List their characteristic
features.
(ii) (a) Where was the first man-like animal found?
(b) Write the order in which Neanderthals, Homo habilis, and Homo erectus
appeared on the earth. State the brain capacity of each one of them.

(c) When did modern Homo sapiens appear on this planet