Evaluation in Education MCQs

Q. 1–Process of quantifying given traits, achievement or performance of someone is called:

 Test
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Evaluation
Q. 2 A collection of procedure used to collect information about students’ learning progress is
called:
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Evaluation
Q. 3 The process of collection, synthesis, and interpretation of information to aid the teacher in
decision making is called:
 Test
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Evaluation
Q. 4 According to…………assessment is a general term that includes the full range of procedure
used to gain information about students learning and formation of value judgments concerning
learning progress:
 Arirasian
 Gay
 Linn and Gronlund
 Gronlund
Q. 5 Evaluation is process of:
 Assigning number to a given trait
 Making value judgment of student’s learning
 Making value judgment of institutions, program or project
 Making value judgment of teacher’s performance
Q. 6 Measurement includes………. procedures:
 Quantitative
 Qualitative
 Quantitative as well as quantitative
 None of these
Q. 7 An evaluation of student performance in a specific learning context is called:
 Process evaluation
 Product evaluation
 Formative evaluation
 Summative evaluation
Q. 8 Examination of experiences and activities evolved in the learning situation is called:
 Process evaluation
 Product evaluation
 Formative evaluation
 Summative evaluation
Q. 9 Evaluation is an umbrella term that covers:
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Testing
 All of above
Q. 10 Learning style of students is determined by:
  Text book
 Learning material
 Assessment
 Teacher
Q. 11 Result of students assessment can be used for:
 Clarifying the nature of the learning outcomes
 Providing short term goals to work toward
 Providing feedback concerning learning progress
 All of the above
Q. 12 Information from carefully developed tests and other types of assessments can aid in judging:
 The appropriateness and attainability of the instructional goals
 The usefulness of the instructional methods
 The effectiveness of the instructional methods
 All of the above
Q.13 Decision regarding the placement of students in suitable educational set up is called:
 Selection decision
 Placement decision
 Classification decision
 Diagnostic and remedial decision
Q. 14 Norm referenced assessment emphasis on:
 Description of student’s performance
 Discrimination among individuals
 Both A&B
 Neither A or nor B
Q. 15 Test items in which examines testers are required to select one out of two options in response
to a statement are called:
 Multiple choices
 Matching items
 Alternate response items
 Restricted response items
Q. 16 An alternative response item is a special case of the ………….item format:
 Multiple items
 Matching items
 Alternative response items
 Restricted response items
Q. 17 The most common use of the true false items is in measuring the ability to:
 Identify the correctness of statement of fact
 Definition of terms
 Statement of principles
 All of the above
Q. 18 The multiple choices item consists of:
 A problem and alternative solution
 A problem and solution
 Response and distracters
 Options and distracters
Q. 19 The problem in multiple choices item is presented in:
 Distracters
 Options
 Stem
 Responses
Q. 20 In matching type test premises refer to the items:
  For which match is sought
 Selected for match
 Describing the action
 None of these
Q. 21 Matching type consists of:
 Two columns
 Three columns
 Four columns
 Five columns
Q. 22  The homogenous material is used in single exercise of:
 Matching tests
 Multiple choice items
 True false items
 Alternative items
Q. 23 The correct or best answer of all options is sought in:
 Matching tests
 True false items
 Multiple choice items
 Alternative items
Q. 24 The completion item requires the students to:
 Answer a question
 Complete a statement by filling in blank with the correct word or phase
 Answer a question or to finish incomplete statement by filling in a blank with the correct
word or phase
 None of these
 Q. 25 The main advantage of using completion items is that these can:
 Provide a wide sampling of content
 Providing irrelevant clues
 Be more time consuming
 Me more difficult
Q. 26 Short answer items can measure efficiency student’s ability to:
 Recall specific information
 Analyze the information received
 Synthesis the different bits of information
 Evaluation the worth of something
Q. 27  a brief written response is required in:
 Short answer type items
 Restricted response items
 Extended response items
 Completion type items
Q. 28  Topics of limited scope are assessed by:
 Short answer type items
 Restricted response items
 Extended response items
 Completion type items
Q. 29 The students ability’s that to analyze assessed through:
 Short answer type items         
 Restricted response items
 Extended response items
 Completion type items
Q. 30 The students ability’s to respond complex situation is assessed through:
  Short answer type items
 Restricted response items
 Extended response items
 Completion type items
Q. 31 Integration and application of high level skills are stressed in:
 Short answer type items
 Short answer type items
 Restricted response items
 Extended response items
 Completion type items
Q. 32 The action verb examine is used for:
 Analysis
 Understanding
 Application
 Synthesis
Q. 33 Items that requires a student to structure a long written response up to several paragraphs
are called:
 Essay
 Short answer items
 Completion type items
 Fill in the blanks
Q. 34 Which of the following provides the best definition of authentic assessment? Authentic
assessment asks students to:
 Demonstrate understanding
 Demonstrate knowledge and skills
 Demonstrate intelligence within a real life situation
 Demonstrate knowledge and skills within a real life situation
Q. 35 In essay type questions, the word “What, Who, Which and where’ are used tomeasure:
 Lower mental process                                                                                          
 Middle mental process
 Higher mental process
 None of these
Q. 36 In essay type questions, the word ‘contrast’ used to measure:
 Lower mental process
 Middle mental process
 Higher mental process
 None of these
Q. 37 Essay type items are classified as:
 Extended response items
 Restricted response items
 Extended response and restricted response items
 None of these
Q. 38 An extended response type of essay question permits a students to demonstrate its ability to:
 Recall factual knowledge
 Evaluate factual knowledge
 Organize his ideas
 All of these
Q. 39 Question that allow students to present their ideas in a coherent and logical way are called:
 Extended response questions
 Restricted response questions
 Extended response and restricted response questions
  None of above
Q. 40 Question that allow students to restrict to the from and scope of his answer are called:
 Extended response questions
 Restricted response questions
 Extended response and restricted response questions
 None of above
Q. 41 Test items requiring students to work or select correct or best answer are called:
 Subjective questions
 Essay type questions
 Objective type questions
 Short answer questions
Q. 42 The main characteristic of an objective test is:
 Reliability of scores
 Adequate content sampling
 Measure lower level of cognitive abilities
 All of these
Q. 43 Large number of questions are included in;
 Essay tests
 Subjective tests
 Objective tests
 Short answer test
Q. 44 Essay type question are:
 Relatively easy to make
 Relatively difficult to make
 Relatively less time consuming in marking
 None of these
Q. 45 Teacher made tests are meant to administer at:
 Class level
 School level
 Board level
 Inter board level
Q. 46 Teacher made tests cover a:
 Wide content area
 General content area
 Narrow content area
 All of above
Q. 47 Assessment tool that teachers use to monitor student’s progress are called:
 Formative assessment tool
 Summative assessment tool
 Diagnostic assessment tool
 Remedial assessment tool
Q. 48 Assessment tolls that teachers use to know the actual status of student’s cumulative learning
are called:
 Formative assessment tool
 Summative assessment tool
 Diagnostic assessment tool
 Remedial assessment tool
Q. 49 Tests developed by a team of experts are termed as:
 Teacher made tests
 Standardized tests
 Board tests
  Published tests
Q. 50 A standardized achievement test has definite unique feature, including:
 A fixed set of items
 Specific directions for administration and scoring the tset
 Norms based on representative group of individuals
 All of the above
Q. 51 High technical quality is assured in:
 Teacher made tests
 Standardized tests
 Board tests
 Published tests
Q. 52 Direction for administrating and scoring are so precisely stated in:
 Teacher made tests
 Standardized tests
 Board tests
 Published tests
Q. 53 Norms are based on national samples of students in the grades in:
 Teacher made tests
 Standardized tests
 Board tests
 Published tests
Q. 54 Standardized tests are………….in nature:
 Flexible
 Changeable
 Adaptable
 Inflexible
Q. 55 National education assessment system (NEAS) has been established under ministery of
education:
 Regular program
 Sector reform action plan
 Social action plan
 None of above
Q. 56 The purpose of national assessment to improve the quality of education through:
 Providing information to policy makers for effective intervention
 Providing information to develop education services
 Monitoring the performance of the educational system
 All of above
Q. 57 NEAS is planned as a sample based national assessment for:
 Grade 4 to 8
 Grade 6 to 8
 Grade 5 to 8
 Grade 6 to 8
Q. 58 PEC stands for:
 Punjab education commission
 Punjab examination commission
 Punjab evaluation commission
 Pakistan examination commission
Q. 59 Punjab examination is an autonomous body responsible for conducting examination for:
 Grade 1 to 5
 Grade 6 to 8
 Grade 5 to 8
  Grade 9 to 10
Q. 60 Punjab examination commission is an:
 Autonomous body
 Government body
 Private body
 Non government body
Q. 61 Results of PEC examination can be used for:
 Identification of skills and concepts individual students have learnt
 Diagnostic in structural needs
 Monitoring academic growth over that time
 All of above
Q. 62 If a test is consistent in its measurements whenever it is administered, the test is called:
 A valid test
 A reliable test
 An adequate test
 An economical test
Q. 63 When a test’s reliability is determined by administering it twice to the same group is called:
 Test retest reliability
 Split half reliability
 Equivalent forms reliability
 All of above
Q. 64 Split half method is used to measure……… of a test:
 Stability
 Equivalence
 Internal consistency
 External consistency
Q. 65 Kuder Richardson method measure:
 Stability
 Equivalence
 Internal consistency
 External consistency
Q. 66 The degree to which a test measure what it is supposed to measure is called:
 Validity
 Reliability
 Objectivity
 Adequate
Q. 67 sampling of content/subject matter is evaluated in:
 Content validity
 Construct validity
 Concurrent validity
 Predicative validity
Q. 68
Construct validity is determined of:
 Achieve tests
 Intelligence tests
 Aptitude tests
 None of above
Q. 69
If a test validity is determined of:
 Achievement tests
 Intelligent tests
  Aptitude tests
 None of these
Q. 70
When a test samples sufficient widely into subject to ascertain representativeness of scores with the
total performance in the area measures is called:
 Reliability
 Adequacy
 Objectivity
 Practicality
Q. 71
The degree to which equally competent scores obtain the same results in a test is called:
 Adequacy
 Validity
 Reliability
 Objectivity
Q. 72
Prerequisite skills needed by students to succeed in a unit or course are evaluated by:
 Placement assessment
 Formative assessment
 Diagnostic evaluation
 Summative evaluation
Q.
73 pupil’s learning progress during instruction is assessed by:
 Placement assessment
 Formative assessment
 Diagnostic evaluation
 Summative evaluation
Q. 74
An objective has………components:
 Two components
 Three components
 Four components
 Five components
Q.
75 Bloom classified educational objectives into:
 Two components
 Three components
 Four components
 Five components
 Q. 76
 Domain of educational objectives that encompasses knowledge and intellectual
development is called:
 Cognitive domain
 Affective domain
 Psychomotor domain
 Structural domain
Q. 77
Writing of test items on separate index cards is called:
 Recording test items
 Reviewing test items
 Arranging test items
  All of above
Q. 78
General directions for of tests should include:
 Purpose of the test
 Time allowed for answering
 Procedure for recording the answer
 All of the above
Q.
79 S=R-W is formula used to correct guessing in:
 Multiple choice items
 Alternative response items
 Completion items
 Fill in the blanks
Q.80
S=R-W/3 is a formula used to correct guessing in multiple chouice items having ……….option:
 Two
 Three
 Four
 Five
Q. 81
Relationship of a score with 100 is called:
 Percentage
 Mean score
 Mean point average
 Quartile
Q. 82
Raw score of tests are as:
 Dada
 Information
 Finding
 Conclusion
Q. 83
Data arranged in groups or class is called:
 Grouped data
 Frequency distribution
 Both A&B
 None of them
Q. 84
The number obtained by dividing the sum of the score by their number is called:
 Mean
 Median
 Mode
 None of these
Q. 85
The number dividing data into equal parts such a way that half of the total scores are less then that
number whereas other half score are more than that number is called:
 Mean
 Median
 Mode
 None of these
Q. 86
The values that divide a set of scores into four wqual parts are called:
 Quartiles
 Percentiles
 Percentile rank
 None of these
Q. 87
The range is a measure of:
 Central tendency
 Dispersion
 Chance
 Probability
Q. 88
he total area under the normal curve is equal to:
 1
 2
 3
 4
Q. 89
Communication of educational outcomes is called:
 Education reporting
 Marking answer sheets
 Grading students learning
 All of these
Q. 90
Grades in assessment are:
 Provide data for parents on their children’s progress
 Certify promotional status and graduation
 Serve as an incentive to do school lesson
 All of these
Q. 91
The progress of converting qualities data into quantitative form is called;
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Evaluation
 All of above
Q. 92
Which process assign numbers to individual?
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Evaluation
 All of above
Q. 94
The process of obtaining a numerical description of the degree to which an individual processes
particular characteristics is called:
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Evaluation
 All of above
Q. 95
The way of judging how well student is doing by looking at this work during educational process is:
 Measurement
  Assessment
 Evaluation
 All of above
Q. 96
The construction, administration and scoring od tests as the measurement process, interpreting
such scores saying whether they are good or bad for a specific purpose is evolution. ‘this was stated
by:
 L.R. ay
 Vahit S.R
 Thorndike and Hagen
 Stanley and Hopins
Q. 97
Assessment and evaluation are:
 Continues process
 Discrete process
 Systematic process
 Intermittent process
Q. 98
Which one is the process of finding the value of something?
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Evaluation
 All of above
Q. 99
Educational measurement refer to any device for the general study and practice of testing, scaling
and appraising the outcomes of:
 Educational process
 Educational development
 Educational model
 Educational structure
Q. 100
The allocation of scores to the results of instruction and/or learning at school is called:
 Educational measurement
 Educational assessment
 Educational model
 Educational structure
Q. 101
Which of the following differentiated between educational measurement and evolution:
 Stanley and Hopkins
 William Wiersma
 Norman E. Gronlund
 Thorndike and Hagen
Q. 102
The Process of characterizing and appraising aspects of an educational process is known:
 Educational measurement
 Educational assessment
 Educational model
 Educational structure
Q. 103
Stability reliability is also called:
 Re test reliability
  Inter rater reliability
 Parallel reliability
 None of these
Q. 104
Which type of evaluation is done for indentifying the problems of students?
 Summative
 Placement
 Formative
 Diagnostic
Q. 105
Which type of evaluation is done during studies?
 Formative
 Summative
 Placement
 Diagnostic
Q. 106
The monitoring learning progress provides feed back to reinforce and correct learning in which
type of evolution?
 Formative
 Summative
 Placement
 Diagnostic
Q. 107
Which type of evaluation is done at the end of the program?
 Formative
 Summative
 Placement
 Diagnostic
Q. 108
Which type of evaluation determined the student’s prerequisite skills to begin instruction:
 Formative
 Summative
 Placement
 Diagnostic
Q. 109
Measure of performance which interprets an individual’s relative standing in some kowon group is:
 Norm reference
 Criterion reference
 Homothetic
 Idiographic
Q. 110
Measure of student’s performance against a certain criterion as:
 Norm reference
 Criterion reference
 Homothetic
 Idiographic
Q. 111
The purpose of summative evaluation is to information about:
 Effectiveness of teaching
 Problem of students
 Essentials of course content
  None of these:
Q.
112 ………….refers to the process of administrating scoring and interpreting tests:
 Testing
 Training
 Teaching
 Experiment
 Q. 113
Measurement may be defined as the act of assigning numbers or symbols to characteristics of
objects (as well as people, event or other things) according to:
 Test
 Scale
 Rule
 None of these
Q. 114
Which method criteria are fixed:
 Grading
 Normal curves
 Pass/fail
 Percentage
Q.
115 Which is not typically considered when evaluating the technical quality of a test?
 Personality
 Reliability
 Validity
 Both A&B
Q.
116 A good test has a:
 Clearly defined purpose
 Standard and specific content
 Set of scoring rules
 All of above
Q. 117
Test is a systematic process of collecting:
 Data
 Information
 Both A&B
 None of these
Q. 118
Diagnostic tests may be distinguished from evaluation tests in that diagnostic tests are typically
designed to:
 Pinpoint difficulties
 Make pass/fail type of discussion
 Measure achievement
 All of above
Q.
119 Tests scores are frequently expressed as numbers and statistical tools are frequently used to:
 Describe test scores
 Make inference from test scores
 Draw conclusions about test scores
 All of above
Q. 120
In which types of test, we can measure a maximum proportion of the content:
 Subjective type test
 Objective type test
 Psychological test
 Both A&B
Q. 121
Which type of test to judge the specific knowledge of the learner within the whole contet?
 Subjective type test
 Objective type test
 Psychological test
 Both A&B
Q. 122
Which of the following types of items is not a selection items?
 True false
 Multiple choice items
 Matching exercise
 Short answer
Q. 123
Which of the following is an example of supply response item?
 True false
 Multiple choice items
 Matching exercise
 Short answer
Q. 124
Criterion referenced tests:
 Are referred to as domain referenced tests
 Are referred to as domain referenced method
 Have derive from the standards of the test developer
 All of above
Q. 125
The difference between a speed test and a power test has to with:
 Whether or not the range has been restricted
 The time limit allotted for completion of the items
 Both A&B
 None of these
Q. 126
which test is designed to be administered to one person at a time?
 Individual test
 Personality test
 Group test
 Performance test
Q. 127
The test having clear and unambiguous scoring criterion is known as:
 Objective type test
 Subjective type test
 Essay type test
 All of above
Q. 128
which type of test typically compromise two columns:
 Multiple choice items
  Matching exercise
 True false items
 None of these
Q. 129
Which test require the students to match  series of response with corresponding items in stimulate
list?
 Multiple choice items
 Matching exercise
 True false items
 None of these
Q. 130
A list of three or more choices from which the exams is required to choose the correct one is given
in:
 Multiple choice items
 Matching exercise
 True false items
 None of these
Q. 131
Short answer items are answered by word, phrase, number or symbol and is a complex from of
objective type was said by:
 Gronlund
 Aggarwal
 W. Best
 Gillbert
Q. 132
Which type of items format requires the students to structure a rather long written response up to
several paragraphs?
 Short answer items
 Essay type items
 Story type items
 All of them
Q.
133 ……….tests are commonly used to attempts as measuring the intelligence of children and
mainly with abstract intelligence:
 Vocal
 Verbal
 Language
 Non verbal
Q. 134
Item difficulty analysis is not appropriate to:
 Personality test
 Achievement tests
 Aptitude tests
 Objective class test
Q. 135
The test in which coordination of color, sound and visual is measurable called:
 Mechanical ability tests
 Sensory ability tests
 Spatial ability tests
 None of these
Q. 136
Which type of test is helpful in giving educational and vocational guidance to students:
 Achievement
 Machenical aptitude
 Diagnostic aptitude
 Scholastic aptitude
Q. 137
Group tests were introduced in:
 Germany
 Switzerland
 USA
 Russia
Q. 138
The tests designed to predict future performance in some activity are:
 Intelligence
 Achievement
 Knowledge
 Aptitude
Q. 139
Medical tests are included in:
 Intelligence tests
 Performance tests
 Aptitude tests
 Achievement tests
Q. 140
Aptitude test help to measure:
 Probability of success
 Intellectual level
 Problems of students
 Both A&B
Q. 141
Spatial aptitude tests are generally used for those who choose a career in:
 Special education
 Swimming
 Sports
 Space
Q. 142
How much students have learned through instruction is determined through:           
 Intelligence tests
 Diagnostic tests
 Aptitude tests
 Achievement tests
Q. 143
Support of schools achievement tests that faithfully reflect what is taught in the school is reflected
in support of:
 Standardized measurement procedures
 Examination require rote memory
 Curriculum based assessment
 All of these
Q. 144
The founder of the concept of IQ is:
 William Sturn
  Alfred Binet
 William James
 Spearman
Q. 145
Concept of IQ was presented by Binet in:
 1905
 1909
 1911
 1912
Q. 146
An IQ test does not provide:
 High internal reliability
 Good prediction learning experiences
 High internal consistency
 Good validity
Q.147
In contrast to achievement tests, aptitude tests measure:
 Natural potential
 Less formal learning experiences
 Meaningful behavior
 All of above
Q. 148
Symbolic behavior of a person means:
 Meaningful behavior
 Convert behavior
 Overt behavior
 Significant behavior
Q. 149
Which psychologist developed a questionnaire consisting 116 questions to judge the introvert and
extrovert persons?
 Woodworth
 Agarwal
 P.K. Sinah
 John W. Best
Q. 150
Which behavior can be assessed in a great many ways, depending upon the situation in which a
person finds himself?
 Intellectual behavior
 Responding behavior
 Effective behavior
 All of these
Q. 151
American psychologist Terman introduced the Binet test for general use in……… of brightness and
dullness:
 Highlighting
 Differentiating
 Similarly
 Establishment
Q. 152
According to ……….an English statisticians intelligence consists of general ability what works in
conjunction with special abilities:
  Spearman
 Binet
 John Dewey
 William James
Q. 153
If there is a problem of sitting arrangements during lecture, it is considered inappropriate:
 Psychological environment
 Administration
 Guidance
 None of these
Q. 154
The process of developing a test in five stages beginning with test conceptualization what is the fifth
stage of this process?
 Item analysis
 Test structure
 Test revision
 Test construction
Q. 155
Item sampling is a source of error variance within the context of:
 Test construction
 Test administration
 Test scoring
 All of these
Q. 156
the two most important characteristics of a standardized test are:
 Reliability and validity
 Reliability and accuracy
 Accuracy and equality
 Practicality and validity
Q. 157
The Edwards personal preference schedule is a personality test features positive scoring. This
means that the strength of various needs of the test taker may be compared:
 To the strength of the needs of the test takers
 To the strength of the needs both same test taker
 Both A&B
 None of these
Q. 158
What is a good item? The answer to this question:
 Can never be made with certainly
 Can be made with reference to item analysis data
 Much like beauty is in the eyes of the beholder
 All of these
Q. 159
Pilot work is typically necessary in test development to:
 Evaluate the utility of including specific items
 Gather suggestions for data on all test takers
 Transform ratio level data into interval level data
 All of above
Q. 160
A good measure what is purpose of measure and does son in a relatively consistent fashion. This
statement is a reference to the:
  Degree to which a tool of assessment is precise
 Degree to which a tool of assessment is not concise
 Technical or psychological quality of a test   
 Computer administrated versions of a paper and pencil test
Q. 161
A test developer intends on obtaining a distribution of scores that approximates the normal curve
may statistically:
 Normalize the distribution
 Regress the distribution
 Digest the distribution
 All of the above
Q. 162
Which a source of error variance?
 Test constriction
 Test administration
 Test scoring
 All of above
Q. 163
The results of all tests may be affected by many factors inherent in the testing condition, the child’s
background of………. and other favorable or unfavourable elements:
 Interest
 Intelligence
 Experience
 Ability
Q. 164
The degree to which an instrument measure what is supposed to be measuring is its:
 Validity
 Internal consistency
 Sensitivity
 Equivalence
Q. 165
The degree to which a test measure intended hypotheticl ckontsruct is called:
 Predictive validity
 Content validity
 Construct validity
 Concurrent validity
Q. 166
Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting ionferences based test scores?
 Validation
 Validity
 Reliability
 Prediction
Q. 167
Which of these following is not a type of validity index of a research instruments?
 Predicative validity
 Concurrent validity
 Content validity
 Construct
 Validity
Q. 168
The adequacy of an instrument in differentiating between the performance or behavior on some
future criterion is termed as:
 Predicative validity
 Concurrent validity
 Content validity
 Construct
 Validity
Q. 169
Which of the following is a test validation method that determines wether a test measure certain
traits that are important in performing a job or not?
 Concept validity
 Criterion validity
 Construct validity
 Content validity
Q. 170
Which of the following is not a procedure for establishing construct validity of an instrument?
 Known group technique
 Factor analysis
 Combach’s alpha
 None of these
Q. 171
Which of the following is a type of criterion related validity evidence?
 Concurrent evidence
 Predicative
 Evidence
 Internal consistency
 Both A&B
Q. 172
The extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other participants is called:
 Sampling validity
 External validity
 Construct validity
 Internal validity
Q. 173
Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the relationship between two
variable is casual?
 Internal validity
 External validity
 Population validity
 Statistical conclusion validity
Q. 174
Discriminate evidence of construct validity is otherwise known as:
 Discriminate validity
 Convergent validity
 Predicate validity
 None of these
Q. 175
Test retest is the more conservative method to estimate:
 Validity
 Reliability
 Accuracy
  Correctness
Q. 176
The term that refers to a judgment of the extent to which scores from a test can be used to infer, or
predicate the examinees performance in some activity is:
 Content reliability                     
 Face validity
 Criterion related validity
 Inference validity
Q. 177
The degree of consistency with which an instrument measures the attribute, it is supposed to be
measuring is called:
 Validity
 Reliability
 Sensitivity
 Objectivity
Q. 178
Which of the following is not a type of reliability?
 Test-retest
 Split half
 Content
 Internal consistency
Q. 179
The reliability of a measuring tool has not……. Aspect:
 Stability
 Internal consistency
 Efficiency
 Equivalence
Q. 180
In general, as test length increases, test reliability:
 Increase
 Decrease
 Both A&B
 None of these
Q. 181
If a measure is consistence over multiple occasions, is has:
 Inter rather reliability
 Construct validity
 Internal validity
 Test related reliability
Q. 182
The spearman Brown formula is used to estimate:
 Test retest reliability
 Internal consistency
 Equivalence
 Validity
Q. 183
The extent to which the same results are obtained opn repeated administrations of the instruments
is termed as:
 Internal consistency
 Validity
 Sensitivity
  Stability
Q. 184
The stability index of measuring tool is derived through procedures that evaluate:
 Inter rater reliability
 Internal consistency
 Crombach’s alpha
 Test-retest reliability
Q. 185
It is most appropriate to use the Spearman Brown formula to estimate:
 Test-retest reliability
 Equivalence
 Validity
 Split half reliability
Q. 186
Measurement reliability refers to the……of the scores:
 Consistency
 Dependency
 Accuracy
 Comprehensiveness
Q. 187
What is the procedure instruments used for measuring sample of behavior?
 Test
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Evaluation
Q. 188
Which term is broader meaning?
 Aims
 Objectives
 Instructional objectives
 Specific objectives
Q. 198
The term limited to quantitative description of pupils is:
 Evaluation
 Measurement
 Test
 Examination
Q. 190
Example of psychomotor domain is that student:
 Demonstrates awareness to environmental pollution
 Performs an experiment
 Can narrate a story
 Can compare results of two experiments
Q. 191
Procedure use to determine person’s abilities are:
 Maximum referenced test
 Criterion
 Typical performance test
 Norm referenced test
Q. 192
The purpose of evaluation is to:
  Make judgment about the quality of something
 Assign a mark or score to a student
 Measure the achievement of students
 Test the student in a subject
Q. 193
What objective relates to effective domain?
 Student paint a picture
 Student can draw a graph
 Student values honest
 Student can write a letter
Q. 194
In norm referenced test the comparison is between:
 Groups
 Individuals
 Areas
 Interests
Q. 195
In which question marking will be more reliable?
 Completion
 Short answer
 Completion
 Essay
Q. 196
facility values of less than 0.20 means:
 Item is too short
 Item is too hard
 Item is acceptable
 Item is hard
Q. 197
Objective type question have advantage over essay type because such questions:
 Are easy to prepare
 Are easy to solve
 Are easy to mark
 Test criteria thinking
Q. 198
The purpose of the evolution is to make:
 Decision’
 Prediction
 Judgment
 Opinion
Q. 199
Ability to bring together scientific ideas to form a unique idea:
 Application
 Analysis
 Synthesis
 Evaluation
Q. 200
Discrimination value of more than 0.4 means:
 Item is good
 Item is acceptable
 Item is weak
  Item discriminating negativity
Q. 201
Ability to develop a life style based upon the preferred value system is:
 Responding
 Valuing
 Organizing
 Characterizing
Q. 202
The purpose of evaluation is to make judgment about educational:
 Quantity
 Quality
 Time period
 Age
Q. 203
Which form of evaluation monitors learning progress?
 Placement evaluation
 Formative evaluation
 Diagnostic evaluation
 Summative evaluation
Q. 204
A formal and systematic procedure of getting information is:
 Assessment
 Test
 Measurement
 Evaluation
Q. 205
Test involving the construction of criterion patterns or solve problems in terms of concrete
materials are called:
 Intelligence test
 Performance test
 Scholastic aptitude test
 Interest tests
Q. 206
In multiple choice items, the stem of the items should be:
 Large
 Small
 Meaningful
 Relative
Q. 207
Which appropriate verb you use to make an objective behavioral?
 To known
 To appreciate
 To understand
 To construct
Q. 208
Example of cognitive domain is:
 Describe a topic
 Develop an X-Ray film
 Type letter
 Test responsibility for tools
Q. 209
Which ability is at the highest level of hierarchy?
 Understanding
 Application
 Evaluation
 Analysis
Q. 210
What is the process of obtaining numerical values?
 Test
 Application
 Evaluation
 Measurement
Q. 211
Students can design a laboratory according to certain specification. In which category of objective?
 Analysis
 Synthesis
 Evaluation
 Knowledge
Q. 212
A sum of questions is called:
 Test
 Testing
 Assessment
 Examination
Q. 213
The number of taxonomy of education abjectives is:
 Two                                        
 Three
 Four
 Five
Q. 214
Objectives representing the purpose of instruction of a teacher are called:
 Performance
 Instructional
 Attainment
 Terminal objectives
Q. 215
The main advantage of essay type is:
 The can measure complex learning outcomes which cannot be measured with other types
of questions
 The students can guess the answers
 Are essay to mark
 Can diagnose the learning difficulties of students
Q. 216
In which scale numbers are assigned to each trait?
 Description
 Numerical scale
 Behavioral scale
 Graphic scale
Q. 217
The first step in measurement is:
 Decision of what to measure
  Development of the test
 Administering the test
 Marking of the test
Q. 218
Running description of active behavior of a student observed by the teacher is:
 Anecdotal record
 Autobiography
 Interview
 Questionnaire
Q. 219
A test popular with class room teacher is:
 True false
 Completion test
 Matching items
 Multiple choices
Q. 220
It is difficult to assess the personality of an individual because:
 The personality is very complex
 Regular units of measurement to personality
 Some children are born with zero personality
 Exact tools of assessment of personality
Q. 221
The purpose of formative evaluation is:
 Monitoring progress of students
 Selecting students
 Promotion to next grade
 Check final status
Q. 222
Differential aptitude test battery
(DATB) is a test to measure:
 Special abilities of children
 General aptitude
 Intelligence
 Interest
Q. 223
The highest level of cognitive domain is:
 Synthesis
 Analysis
 Comprehension
 Evaluation
Q. 224
Frequently used tools of summative evaluation are:
 Test
 Teacher observation
 Daily assignment
 Oral questioning
Q. 225
Which of the following statement is a criterion referenced interpretation:
 Asjad can state Newton’s 2nd law of motion
 Dawood GRE score is 350
 Rishma percentile in math test is 35
  Ahmad got highest score
Q. 226
then most commonly used guessing correction formula to predict and control is:
 S=R-W
 S=R-W/2-1
 S=R-W/N-1
 S=R-W/1
Q. 227 The summative evaluation is:
 Diagnostic
 Certifying judgment
 Continuous
 On going
Q. 228
The diofference between maximum and mnimum values is:
 Mean
 Mode
 Range
 Quartiles
Q. 229
The number of score lying in a class interval is:
 Midpoint
 Quartiles
 Class boundaries
 Q Frequencies
Q. 230
A multiple choice question is composed of question or statement refers as:
 Stem
 Distracter
 Foil
 Response
Q. 231
What is the process of determining the value or worth of anything?
 Test
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Evaluation
Q. 232
Item difficulty refers to:
 Percentage of students who got the item correct
 Percentage of students who attempt the item
 Percentage of students got an item incorrect
 Percentage of students who did not attempt the item
Q. 233
To assess achievement at the end of instructions is:
 Placement assessment
 Formative assessment
 Summative assessment
 Diagnostic assessment
Q. 234
In a norm referenced test which item is best? Whose:
 Item difficulty is near zero
  Item difficulty is near 100
 Item difficulty is near 70
 Item difficulty is near 50
Q. 235
Which question has increasing objectivity of marking:
 Unstructured essays
 Structured essays
 Short answer
 Multiple type questions
Q. 236
The most widely used format on standardized test in USA is:
 Multiple choices
 Essay type
 Matching list
 Short answer
Q. 237
Which questions are difficult to mark reliability:
 Multiple type questions
 Short answer
 Structured essays
 Unstructured essays
Q. 238
Projective techniques are used to measure:
 Aptitude
 Intelligence
 Knowledge
 Personality
Q.239
test meant for prediction on a criterion is called:
 Achievement test
 Aptitude test
 Personality test
 None standardizes test
Q. 240 Kuder Richardson method is used to estimate:
 Reliability
 Validity
 Objectivity
 Usability
Q. 241
Which one is vast of al scope?
 Test
 Measurement
 Assessment
 Evaluation
Q. 242
Value that divides the data into two equal parts is:
 Mean
 Median
 Mode
 Mean deviation
Q. 243
The test measure what we intend to measure. This quality of the test is called:
 Validity
 Reliability
 Usability
 Objectivity
Q. 244
the process by which another group or person’s beliefs are accepted can be defined as:
 Affective taxonomy
 Analysis
 Synthesis
 Evaluation
Q. 245
Which is the right sequence?
 Test, assessment, evaluation, measurement
 Assessment, measurement, evaluation, test
 Test, measurement, assessment, evaluation
 Evaluation, test, measurement, assessment
Q. 246
The length of a test is an important factor in obtaining a representative:
 Mode
 Sample
 Group
 Factor
Q. 247
Median of 1, 6, 4, 5, 2, 3 is:
 2
 2.5
 3
 3.5
Q. 248
The test is made to compare the performance of student with other students is called:
 Criterion reference
 Norm reference
 Achievement
 Diagnostic
Q. 249
The test is made to compare the performance of students with the other students is called:
 Criterion reference
 Norm reference
 Achievement
 Diagnostic
Q. 250
When is summative evaluation is used:
 At the start of the program
 At the end of the program
 during the program
 All the times
Q. 251
The appearance of normal curve resemble with:
 U
 Bell
  V
 Skewness
Q. 252
Which one is used to fined out permanent difficulties in learning?
 Summative evaluation
 Diagnostic evaluation
 Formative evaluation
 None of these
Q. 253
How many domains have educational objectives been divide into?
 Two
 Three
 Four
 Five
Q. 254
When was taxonomy of educational objectives presented by Bloom?
 1946
 1956
 1966
 1976
Q. 255
Who presented the classification of cognitive domain?
 Benjamin S. Boolm
 Skinner
 Karthwol
 Simpson
Q. 256
How many subgroups to cognitive domain have?
 Three
 Four
 Five
 Six
Q. 257
Which is placed at the lowest level of learning in cognitive domain?
 Comprehension
 Application
 Knowledge
 Synthesis
Q. 258
Which is placed at the highest level of learning in cognitive domain:
 Evaluation
 Synthesis
 Analysis
 Application
Q. 259
Which is the right sequence of subgroups of cognitive domain?
 Knowledge, comprehension, application, synthesis, analysis, evaluation
 Knowledge, comprehension, application, evaluation, analysis, synthesis
 Knowledge, comprehension, evaluation, application, analysis, synthesis
 Knowledge, comprehension, application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation
Q. 260
What is knowing / memorizing and recalling concerned with:
 Comprehension
 Application
 Knowledge
 Evaluation
Q. 261
What is the ability to grasp the meaning of the material:
 Comprehension
 Application
 Knowledge
 Evaluation
Q. 262
What is the ability to use previous learned material in new situation:
 Comprehension
 Application
 Knowledge
 Evaluation
Q. 263
What is the ability to break down material into component parts to know its organizational
structure:
 Comprehension
 Application
 Analysis
 Synthesis
Q. 264
What is the ability to put ideas together to form a new whole:
 Evaluation
 Synthesis
 Analysis
 Application
Q. 265
What is the ability to know worth or value of material:
 Analysis
 Application
 Knowledge
 Evaluation
Q. 266
Which domain does reflect the intellectual skills:
 Cognitive domain
 Affective domain
 Psychomotor domain
 None of these
Q. 26
Which domain does reflect attitudes, values and interests:
1. Cognitive domain
2. Affective domain
3. Psychomotor domain
4. None of these
Q. 268
Which domain is concerned with physical and motor skills:
 Cognitive domain
  Affective domain
 Psychomotor domain
 None of these
Q. 269
Which is the focus of cognitive domain:
 Physical and motor skills
 Intellectual skills
 Attitudes and interests
 None of these
Q. 270
Who classified the affective domain of educational objectives:
 Benjamin Bool
 Simpson
 Karthwhol
 Burner
Q. 271
How many sub-groups is affected domain divide into:
 Four
 Five
 Six
 Seven
Q. 272
Which is placed at the lowest level of learning in affective domain:
 Attending
 Responding
 Organization
 Characterization
Q. 273
Which is placed at the highest level of learning in affective domain:
 Attending
 Responding
 Organization
 Characterization
Q.274
Which is right order of sub-groups of affective domain:
 Attending, responding, valuing, characterization, organization
 Attending, responding, characterization, valuing, organization
 Attending, valuing, responding, organization, characterization
 Attending, responding, valuing, organization, characterization
Q. 275
Name of ability that shows willingness to attend to particular phenomenon:
 Attending/Receiving
 Responding
 Valuing          
 Organization
Q. 276
Which sub-group of affective domain focuses on active participation:
 Attending/Receiving
 Responding
 Valuing
 Organization
Q. 277
Bringing together different values into a consistent value system is:
 Attending/Receiving
 Responding
 Valuing
 Organization
Q. 278
Which sub0group of  affective domain focuses on adoption of a value system as part of life style:
 Responding
 Valuing
 Organization
 Characterization
Q. 279
When was the psychomotor domain classified by Simpson:
 1962
 1972
 1982
 1992
Q. 280
When was affective domain divided into subgroups by Karthwhol:
 1954
 1964
 1974
 1984
Q. 281
How many subgroups was psychomotor domain divided by Simpson?
 Four
 Five
 Six
 Seven
Q. 282
What is the characteristic of behavioral objectives:
 Observable and immeasurable
 None- Observable and immeasurable
 Observable and measurable
 None of these
Q. 283
Which is the right sequence of sub-group of psychomotor domain:
 Perception, set, guided response, mechanism, complex overt response, adaption,
organization
 Perception, complex overt response, set, guided response, mechanism, adaption,
organization
 Set, organization, guided response, mechanism, complex overt response, adaption,
perception
 Guided response, mechanism, adaption, set, adaption, organization, complex overt
response
Q. 284
What is the alternative name of the “Table of specification”?            
 Test blue print
 Test construction
 Test scoring
  Test reporting
Q. 285
Where does “able of specification” help?
 Test developing
 Test administration
 Test scoring
 Test reporting
Q. 286
What is the purpose of Table of specification?
 To develop integration between objectives and contents
 To develop a balanced test
 To helps the teacher to sampling question from all contents
 All of above
Q. 287
How is table of specification prepared?
 By developing help of instructional contents
 Be the draft of course of draft contents
 By prepare two way charts
 Al of above
Q. 288
Which one is the supply type test item:
 True/false item
 Matching item
 M.C.Q items
 Completion items
Q. 289
Which one is alternative response item?
 True/false item
 Matching item
 M.C.Q items
 Completion items
Q. 290
How many columns matching items have?
 One
 Two
 Four
 Five
Q. 291
The item in the column for which a match is sought is called:
 Premise
 Response
 Distracter
 None of these
Q.292
The ability of identifying relationship between two things is demonstrated by item
 True / false
 Completion item
 Matching item
 Short questions
Q. 293
What is the statement of problem called in MCQs:
  Stem
 Option
 Distracter
 Short answer
Q. 294
What is the list suggested in MCQs is called?
 Answer
 Distracter
 Response
 None of these
Q. 295
What is the correct option in MCQs is called?
 Answer
 Distracter
 Response
 None of these
Q. 296
What are the incorrect option in MCQs is called?
 Answer
 Distracter
 Response
 None of these
Q. 297
Which is the most widely applicable test item:
 Short answer
 Completion
 Matching
 MCQs
Q. 298
What is the type of essay item which content in answer are limited:
 Restricted response questions
 Extended response questions
 MCQ
 None of these
Q. 299
The ability to select, organize, integrate and evaluate ideas is semonstrated by:
 Restricted response
 Extended response question
 MCQ
 True/ False
Q. 300
What will be the score of a student getting 70 correct and 90 incorrect answer True/ False items by
applying guessing correction formulas:
 30
 40
 50
 60
Q. 301
What will be the score of a student getting 70 correct and 30 incorrect answer MCQ itens having
four option by applying guessing correction formula:
 30
  40
 50
 60
Q. 302
Where is the analysis of items cecessary:
 Teacher made test
 Standardized test
 Both   
 None of above
Q. 303
Which one is the type of test by purpose:
 Essay type test
 Standardized test
 Criterion reference test
 Norm referenced test 
Q. 304
Which is the type of the test by method:
 Essay type test
 Standardized test
 Objective referenced test
 Norm referenced test
Q. 305
Name the test in which student’s performance is compared with others students:
 Criterion referenced test
 Objective referenced test
 Norm referenced test
 None of these
Q. 306
Name the test in which student’s performance is compared with clearly defined learning tasks:
 Criterion referenced test
 Objective referenced test
 Norm referenced test
 None of these
Q. 307
What is tests that measure learning outcome of students:
 Aptitude test
 Intelligence test
 Achievement test
 Diagnostic test
Q. 308
What are the tests designed to predict future performance in same activity:
 Aptitude test
 Intelligence test
 Achievement test
 Diagnostic test
Q 309
Who was the founder of modern intelligent tests:
 Alferd binet
 Terman
 Stern
 Gulford
Q. 310
Who presented the formula to determine IQ:
 Alferd binet
 Terman
 Stern
 Gulford
Q. 311
What will be the IQ of a student having same physical and mental age:
 90
 100
 110
 120
Q. 312
What will be the IQ of a student having twelve years mental and age ten years physical age:
 90
 100
 110
 120
Q. 313
What is the quality of test that measure “ What it claims measure”
 Reliability
 Validity
 Objectivity
 Differentiability
Q. 314
What is the characteristics of a test to discriminate between high achievers and low achievers:
 Reliability
 Validity
 Objectivity
 Differentiability
Q. 315
If the scoring of the test is not effected by any factor, quality of test is called:
 Reliability
 Validity
 Objectivity
 Differentiability / Discriminate
Q. 316
What is the quality of test to give same scores when administrated at different occasions:
 Reliability
 Validity
 Objectivity
 Differentiability
Q. 317
If the sample of the question in the test is sufficiently large enough, the quality of est is:
 Validity
 Usability
 Adequacy
 Objectivity
Q. 318
The quality of test showing case of time, cost, administration and interpretation is called:
 Validity
  Usability
 Adequacy
 Objectivity
Q. 319
Item analysis focuses to find out:
 Facility index
 Discrimination power
 Effectiveness of distracters
 All of above
Q. 320
What facility index (Difficulty level) of an item determine?
 Ease or difficulty
 Discrimination power
 Effectiveness of distracters
 All of above
Q. 321
high and low achievers are sorted out by:
 Ease or difficulty
 Discrimination power
 Effectiveness of distracters
 All of above
Q. 322
Test item is acceptable when index / difficulty level ranges from:
 20-60%
 30-70%
 40-80%
 10-50%
Q. 323
Test item is very easy when vale of facility index / difficulty level is less than:
 70%
 30%
 40%
 50%
Q. 324
Test item is very difficult when vale of facility index / difficulty level is less than:
 0.31-1
 0.2-1
 0.1-1
 10-1
Q. 325
discrimination power of an item is acceptable when its value ranges from:
 0.30-1                                                                     
 0.2-1
 0.1-1
 10-1
Q. 26
Test item discriminates 100% when its value for discrimination is:
 1
 0.1
 0.01
 10
Q. 327
Tets item discriminates 100% when its value for discrimination is:
 1
 .1
 0.01
 10
Q. 328
Good distracter is that which:
 Attracts high achievers more than low achievers
 Attracts low achievers more that high achievers
 Attracts quality high and low achievers
 Does not attract
Q. 329
Bad distracter is that which:
 Attracts high achievers, more than low achievers
 Does not attract all any students
 Attracts high achievers and low achievers quality
 All above
Q.330
What is the type of interview when interviewee is one:
 Individual interview
 Single interview
 Structural interview
 Focused interview
Q. 331
What is interview called when interviewee is more than one:
 Group interview
 Panel interview
 Structural interview
 Focused interview
Q. 332
What is the planned interview is called:
 Group interview
 Panel interview
 Structural interview
 Focused interview
Q. 333
Discussion is concentrated on one problem in:
 Group interview       
 Panle interview
 Structural interview
 Focused interview
Q. 334
What the collection of productive work called used to evaluate the performance of students:
 Port folio
 Project
 Assignment
 All above
Q. 335
What is the type of marking and reporting system:
 Traditional marking system
  Pass-fail system
 Letters to the parent   
 All of above
Q. 336                                                                                                                                    
According to exmaniation reform 2002, what will be the grade of students getting 65% marks:
 A-grade
 B+-grade
 B-grade
 C-grade
Q. 337
When were examination system under examination reform 2002 is for classes:
 2000
 2001
 2002
 2003
Q. 338
The continues assessment system under examination reform 2002 is for calss:
 1-5
 1-8
 1-10
 1-12
Q. 339
Under examination reform 2002, how many times would a student’s be evaluated per anum:
 3 times
 4 times
 5 times
 6 times
Q. 340
What is the no. of stages in continuous assessment under examination reform 2002:
 3
 4
 5
 6
Q. 341
Under examination reform 2002, there was no pass-fail system upto class:
 1-5
 1-8
 1-10
 1-12
Q. 342
What was that %age of knowledge and comprehension questions under examination reforms 2002:
 25%
 50%
 75%
 100%
Q. 343
What was that %age of application questions under examination reforms 2002:
 25%
 50%
 75%
 100%
Q. 344
What was that %age of analysis, synthesis and evaluation questions under examination reforms
2002:
 25%
 50%
 75%
 100%
Q. 345
under the examination reforms 2002, there was no pass/fail system for classes:
 1-5      
 1-8
 1-10
 1-12
Q. 346
Under the changes in examination reforms 2002, how many stages internal assessment system
consisted of:
 2
 4
 6
 8
Q. 347
Under the changes in examination reforms 2002, what was the proportion of objectives and
subjective questions:
 50-50%
 40-60%
 60-40%
 25-75%
Q. 348
What is the average of 20,21,22,23:
 20
 21
 21.5
 22
Q. 349
What is the mode of 5,6,7,2,5,7:
 2
 5
 6
 7
Q. 350
What is median of 3,4,5,7,1,9,2,6,8:
 1
 3
 5
 7
Q. 351
What is the median of 1,6,4,5,2,3:
 2
 2.5
 3
 3.5
Q. 352
Under examination reforms 2002, parents will be given report of continues assessment:
 Monthly
 Quarterly
 After six months
 Annually
Q. 353
Item with difficulty index of 5% is:
 Very easy
 Easy
 Acceptable
 Difficult
Q. 354
quality of a test to give same score at two times is called:
 Validity
 Reliability
 Objectivity
 Usability
Q. 355
Alfer binet’s major contribution was testing in the field Of:
 Mental
 Achievement
 Diagnosis
 None of above
Q. 356
The effective domain of learning deals with:
 Intellectual abilities
 Feelings
 Motor skills
 All of above
Q. 357
psychomotor domain of learning deals with:
 Intellectual abilities
 Feelings
 Moto skills
 All of the above
Q. 358
Mr. Qasim has decided to use manly multiple choice items on his final exam which of the following
likely influenced this assessment decision?
 He is most interested in measuring declarative knowledge
 He is most interested in measuring procedural knowledge
 He is most interested in measuring Meta cognitive knowledge
 Insufficient information exist to answer this question
Q. 359
 The score in a distribution which has maximum frequency is called:
mean
 Median
 Mode
 Range
Q. 360 The first five step in measurement is:
 Deciding the style of item
  Scoring procedure
 Making table of specification
 Define objectives
 Of the test
Q. 361
Accuracy is measurement is called:
 Validity
 Reliability
 Practicability
 Al of above
Q. 362
Which type of measurement is called:
 Validity
 Reliability
 Practicability
 All of above
Q. 363
Which type of test ends to have lowest reliability?
 True-False
 Completion
 Matching
 Essay
Q. 364
Most of the tests used in our schools are:
 Intelligence tests
 Achievement tests
 Aptitude tests
 Personality tests
Q. 365
………involves professional judgment of the value or worth of measured performance:
 Test
 Evaluation
 Assessmtn
 Measurement
Q. 366
The term evaluation usually covers:
 Students performance
 Teacher performance
 Instructions performance
 All of above
Q. 367
Multiple cjhoice question provid a broas sampling:
 Knowledge
 Learning
 Content
 Comprehension
Q. 368
Norm reference test are designed to rank pupil:
 Learning                
 Effort
 Achievement
  Knowledge
Q. 369
Reliability is concerned with the …..of students:
 Consistency
 Stability
 Dependability
 All of above
Q. 370
Project may concern with:
 Practical work
 Theoretical work
 Physical work
 Mental work
Q. 371
………..is calculated by adding all the scores in distribution and then having that sum by the
numbers of scores:
 Mean
 Medina
 Mode
 Standard deviation
Q. 372
The primary determinant of a grade is the…………of students:
 Knowledge
 Learning
 Performance
 Assessment
Q. 373
Referring Bloom taxonomy, knowledge analysis, synthesis indicate:
 Cognitive domain
 Effective domain
 Psychomotor
 Domain
 All three domain
Q. 374
Generally if the difficulty index of an item is 5, then the item is supposed to be:
 Very easy
 Easy
 Moderate
 Difficult
Q. 375
The number which occurs most frequently in a set of data is:
 Arithmetic mean
 Median
 Mode
 quartile
Q. 376
If the result of test and retest are same, it is in fact:
 Validity
 Reliability
 Objectivity
 Usability
Q. 377
Into how many domains Bloom and others has classified the behavior of an individual?
 One
 Two
 Three
 Four
Q. 378
What does an ability test include?
 Achievement, aptitude & attitude
 Aptitude, attitude and interest
 Attitude, interest & intelligence
 Achievement, aptitude & intelligence
Q. 379
Where do we use simulation as a teaching technique?
 Short answers                                
 Completion items
 Performance test
 Matching exercises
Q. 380
What is the main purpose of classroom, testing?
 Compare students performance
 Measure teacher effectiveness
 Reporting to parents
 Improve instruction
Q. 381
Diagnostic evaluation is done?
 Before teaching
 After teaching
 Between teaching
 None of the above
Q. 382
What the individual can perform in future is measured by test:
 Intelligence
 Personality
 Achievement
 Aptitude
Q. 383
The best measure to avoid the guessing in a structured test is to use:
 True / False items
 Completion items
 Matching items
 Multiple choice items
Q. 384
The first and most important step in making a test is:
 Collecting context
 Defining objectives
 Determine process
 Proper planning
Q. 385
The final product of measurement is:
 Test item
  Scores
 Interpretation
 Performance
Q. 386
Easy test have advantage over objective test because they:
 Are free form opportunities of bluffing
 Have high consistency is making   
 Provide adequate representation
 Provide opportunities to organize knowledge
Q. 387
The function of educational measurement is to find out students:
 Achievement
 Attitude
 Habits
 Interest
Q. 388
If a criterion referenced that is reliable, then score from test are:
 Useful
 Standardized
 Consistent
 Valid
Q. 389
Construct validity established through:
 Logical analysis
 Standardized analysis
 Both A&B         
 Neither A or nor B
Q. 390
The standard error of measurement is a measure of:
 Location
 Central tendency
 Variability
 Association
Q. 391
Which is following is not strength of multiple choice items:
 Effective testing of higher cognitive levels
 Content sampling
 Score reliability
 Allows for educated guessing
Q. 392
When constructing multiple choice items, it is best to:
 Make all option of same length
 Put main ideas in items
 Use only two options
 Repeat key words of stem in options
Q. 393
Use of many selected responses in a test can provide good:
 Level of difficulty
 Objectivity 
 Contest sampling
 Time sampling
Q. 394
Variation in scores of an individual from time to time could be best judge by reliability techniques
of:
 Parallel test forms
 Rational equivalence
 Split half
 Test-retest
Q. 395
The most significant advantage of true-false items is:
 Wide sampling
 Item validity
 Ease of construction
 Elimination of guessing
Q. 396
Improvement scores on a post test after having the pre test the threat affecting the result is referred
as:
 Instrumentation
 History
 Testing
 Mortality
Q. 397
The most comprehensive term used in the process of educational testing is called:
 Test
 Interview
 Evaluation
 Measurement
Q. 398
Monitoring the outcomes with reference to the objectives the term used is called:
 Test
 Interview
 Evaluation
 Measurement
Q. 399
Learning difficulties during instruction can be checked with the help of evaluation type called:
 Placement
 Summative
 Diagnostic
 Formative
Q. 400
Test designed to measure the number of items an individual can attempt correctly in given time is
referred type of test as:
 Power
 Supply
 Achievement
 Speed
Q. 401
Test designed to measure the learning during specific time of an individual is referred type of test
as:
 Power
 Supply
 Achievement
  Speed
Q. 402
Which of the following about the use of standardized testing is true?
 Standardized testing has tended to widen the curriculum by having clearer standards
 Standardized testing has tended to produce wide spread cheating by schools
 Standardized testing has appeared to produce some gains in achievement on state test but
not the NEAP
 Standardized test is embraced by teachers but not the larger public
Q. 403
In a multiple choice test number of alternative (N) is 4. What would be the score of candidate who
has done 40 items correctly and 9 items wrongly?
 43
 31
 37
 49
Q. 404
Which one of the following is Spearman Brown prophecy formula.
 R=2r/1+r
 S=R-W
 S-R-W/N-1
 P=1-6 D2/N(-1)
Q. 405
What does an aptitude test measure of a students?
 Overall mental ability
 Attained ability
 Present attainment
 Potential ability
Q. 406
What is called the knowledge, skills, attitude and values to learned?
 Objectives
 Content
 Syllabus
 Course
Q. 407
The first step in constructing a test is to:
 Select a variety of items from which to choose
 Define the objectives of course
 Delimit the content to be covered by the test
 Decide what kind of test to use
Q. 408
Other things being equal, which type of test tends to have the lowest reliability:
 True-false
 Completion
 Matching
 Essay
Q. 409      
The chief point of distinction between teacher-made test and standardized tests lies in the area of:
 Objectivity
 Norms
 Overall quality
 Sampling
Q. 410
Seventy fifthe percentile may also be termed as:
 Q1
 Q2
 Q3
 Q4
Q. 411
The quality testing in education is only possible by using:
 Achievement
 Intelligence test
 Aptitude test
 Standardized Achievement test
Q. 412
chievement test batteries are widely used at:
 Elementary school level
 Secondary school level
 Intermediate level
 Degree level
Q. 413
Any scale which permits the qualification in fixed units of the intervals between the data is called:
 Ordinal scale
 Interval scale
 Ratio scale
 Nominal scale
Q. 414
The scale that is used for attitude measurement is named as:
 Technical scale
 Ordinal scale
 Likret scal
 Projective scale
Q. 415
 Validity of test is related to:
 Accuracy of the measurement
 Student ability to get ore marks
 What a test score mean
 Achievement of instructional objectives
Q. 416 Variation the scores of an individual from time to time could best be judge by the reliability
technique of:
 Parallel test forms
 Rational equivalence
 Split half
 Test-retest
Q. 417
The type of test used for obtaining dependable ranking of the students is:
 Norm reference
 Diagnostic
 Prognostic
 Criterion reference
Q. 418
Which of the following statements about assessment and evaluation is true?
 Ten to 30 percent of a teacher/s time is spent on assessment and evaluation
  Standardized tests are used to diagnose and evaluate student academic progress
 Classroom teachers are responsible for developing and administering standardized tests
 Formative evaluation plays a key role in determining student’s grades
Q. 419
Tests that show how well a student performed inrelation to other students are called:
 Norm referenced
 Criterion referenced
 Functionally referenced
 Teacher student referenced
Q. 420
A test is said to be valid when it:
 Is fair and free from teacher bias
 Measure what are claims to measure
 Procedure consistent result over time
 Has safeguard against cultural bias
Q. 421
A test is said to be reliable when it:
 Is fair and free from teacher bias
 Measure what are claims to measure
 Procedure consistent result over time
 Has safeguard against cultural bias
Q. 422
Which of the following statement is true about formative evaluation an contrasted to summative
evaluation?
 Formative evaluation places greater demands on issues of validity and reliability
 Formative evaluation is used to inform teacher decision making
 Formative evaluation is used to make final judgment about student achievement
 All of the above statements are the true
Q. 423
Which of the following statements seams to an supported by search on the effects of grades on older
students?
 Students perform better under fail/pass system than they do under graded system
 Students perform better under graded system than they do under pass/fail systems
 Students performance is not affected by the graded system
 We have no evidence on the effected of grades on student performance
Q. 424
Percentile rank can best be defined as:
 The actual score received on a test
 The percentage on a test
 The proportion of students who received the same or lower raw score
 The proportion of students who received passing scores      
Q. 425
Administration in a small school district want to find out how well their district is achieving
standard set by a teacher administrator community committee a few years before. They decide to
test students to find out what sort of test should be for their purpose.
 Norm referenced
 Criterion referenced
 Functionality referenced
 Teacher referenced
Q. 426
Which of the following is not the three major purpose for testing within individual classroom?
  To diagnose students prior knowledge
 To provide corrective feedback to students
 To make judgment about students achievement
 To make judgment about human intelligence
Q. 427
Which of the following is not one of Grounlund general principles for making tests?

 Create test items to measure all instructional objectives

 Use of a fairly large number of test items, to make the test more fair
 Use the type of test item that is most reliable
 Create test items to cover all cognitive domains
Q. 428
A test blue print is a device for helping teachers:
 Specify important test objectives
 Specify how much test space to devote to various topics
 Specify criterion level for tests
 Specify criterion levels for student’s grades
Q. 429
Which of the following is an advantage of selected response tems?
 They are fairer to students
 The allow greater coverage of topics
 They eliminate to guessing
 They are easier to make than other test items
Q. 430 Which of the following is an advantage of essay test items?
 They can tap higher level thinking
 They eliminate writing effects
 They allow coverage of more topics
 They are freer of grading bias
Q. 431 When assigning grades based on a master or criterion level, teachers should first:
 Compute the class’s mean score on the test
 Determine prior knowledge with necessary to constitute mastery
 Decide the cutoff scores for each letter grade
 Define the content and skill necessary to constitute mastery
Q. 432 Which of the following kinds of dilemmas must be resolved by teachers opting for grading
on a curve?
 Should the more able students be required to perform more work than the less able?
 Should a descriptive report card be sent home?
 Should all students receive a passing grade?
 Should some percentage to a class for gifted students receive failing marks?
Q. 433 Which of the following is not a way to reduce teacher bias in grading essay question? The
teacher could…..….
 Write a sample answer ahead of time
 Read answer blind of student’s names
 Write questions that have definite answer
 Make expectations clear to students
Q. 434 Mr. Ali has prepared a test for his twelfth grade history class. The test has twenty true false
items and twenty items asking students to recall information from the text. He spent the class
period prior to the test day on review, explaining to students the material they were responsible for.
He also reiterated his grading policy, and how this test would be used in conjunction with his other
weekly tests in determining their grades. What testing guidelines has Mr. Ali violated?
 Test all levels of Loom’s taxonomy
  Inform students about what they will be tested on
 Test frequently
 Inform students about grading procedures
Q. 435
students in Mr. Ramzan biology class are to write a mock letter to the newspaper arguing that
more resources should be spent on cleaning up toxic waste. Mr. Ramzan will assess both their ideas
and their writing. What is this an example of?
 Essay assessment
 Authentic assessment
 Portfolio assessment  
 Open response assessment
Q. 436
Students in a fifth classroom are asked to collect various artifacts opf their work and put the work
in a notebook to demonstrate what they can do for their teacher and their parents. What is this an
example of?
 Essay assessment
 Authentic assessment
 Portfolio assessment
 Open response assessment
Q. 437
The process of evaluating a program’s effectiveness or the worth of student performance after
instruction is known as:
 Assessment evaluation
 Evaluation
 Formative evaluation
 Summative evaluation
Q. 438
The term used to refer to the full range of information gathered and synthesized by teachers about
their students and classroom is called:
 Assessment
 Evaluation      
 Formative evaluation
 Summative evaluation
Q. 439
The Pakistan High School Math Department wanted to consolidate the final exam used by four
department algebra teachers. One of the primary objectives was to ensure that students would be
uniformly tested on their knowledge of facts and concepts that appear on a national college exam
test that many of the students take. A comprehensive test was constructed with the participation of
all four teachers and the department chairperson. To evaluate the quality of test, students took the
test twice, once on Monday and again two weeks later. After students finished taking the test the
second time, results were compared, and it as found that 95 percent of the students had scores on
both tests that were very similar, it could be said that this test:
 Is valid
 Has retest reliability
 Has split half reliability
 Is not valid
Q. 440 One of the disadvantage of selected response test is:
 They are too easily scored
 They provided limited coverage
 They are too objectives          
 They are focused on low level thinking skills
Q. 441 Which of the following statements best describe the findings of studies done on the effect of
assigning grades as an incentive for performing work?
 Grades are not usually a strong incentive for performing work
 Grades used as negative incentives would be more powerful than grades used as positive
incentives
 Grades used positive incentives have been shown to be an overwhelming motivational
factor for performing work
 Studies have been inconclusive with respect to the impact of grades as motivational
reinforces
Q. 442 In general, criterion referenced tests are most appropriate for which of the following
purpose?
 Comparing student achievement in one school with those nationally
 Helping to determine what students should do after high school     
 Helping teachers to know whether their particular objectives have been met
 Showing students achievement gains over time
 Both C & D
Q. 443 A selected response question requires the student to:
 Construct the correct answer
 Construct the correct answer from several possibilities
 Recognize the correct answer
 Explain the correct answer
Q. 444 Which of the following is an example of constructed response test item?
 Rubic scored questions
 Essay questions
 Multiple choice questions
 Matching questions
Q. 445 A test products similar results when it is given to the same students on two different
occasions is said to have:
 Internal validity
 Test retest reliability
 Internal reliability
 All of the above
Q. 446 Ms. Maryam wants to supplement her paper and pencil test with alternative assessments
that require students to demonstrate their growth in a number of areas. Which of the following
would she likely use?
 Performance assessment        
 Selected response assessment
 Essay exam
 Closed response exam
Q. 447 Which of the following is not an appropriate guidance for test?
 Using multiple measure
 Testing at all level
 Testing infrequently
 Communicating to students what they will be tested on
Q. 448 Which of the following is not a role for teacher in regard to standardized testing?
 Help parents understand standardized testing
 Go over test formats with students
 Communicates results to parents
 Give students a few of the actual test items