Neurology MCQ Mix

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Part 1.

Sensitivity

1. What structures belong to peripheral nervous system?


a. spinal ganglion
b. medulla
c. peripheral nerves
d. spinal cord anterior horn
e. spinal cord posterior horn

2. What are the types of complicated sensitivity?


a. sense of discrimination
b. vibration sense
c. sense of localization
d. sense of space
e. temperature sense
f. kinesthesia
g. stereognosis
h. pain and touch sense

3. What nervous elements are involved in the system of sensitivity analyzer?


a. receptors
b. sensitivity tracts
c. extrapyramidal tract
d. pyramidal tract
e. appropriate area of the brain cortex
f. cerebellum tract
g. reticulospinal tract

4. Where is the body of the first sensitivity neuron of all types of sensitivity
localized?
a. Burdach’s and Goll’s nuclei
b. in spinal cord lateral horn
c. in spinal cord posterior horn
d. in spinal ganglion
e. in thalamus

5. Where is the end of the first sensitivity neuron of temperature and pain
sensation localized?
a. in postcentral gyrus
b. in thalamus
c. in spinal cord posterior horn
d. in spinal cord lateral horn
e. Burdach’s and Goll’s nuclei

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6. Where is the end of the first sensitivity neuron of deep sensitivity localized?
a. in postcentral gyrus
b. in thalamus
c. Burdach’s and Goll’s nuclei
d. in spinal cord posterior horn
e. in spinal cord lateral horn

7. Where is the end of the second sensitivity neuron of all types of sensitivity
localized?
a. in spinal cord lateral horn
b. Burdach’s and Goll’s nuclei
c. in thalamus
d. in spinal cord posterior horn
e. in postcentral gyrus

8. Where is the decussation of the second sensitivity neurons of superficial


sensitivity localized?
a. in the medulla level
b. in the pons level
c. in the red nucleus level
d. in the anterior white commisure level
e. between spinal cord and medulla

9. Where is the decussation of the second sensitivity neurons of deep


sensitivity localized?
a. between olivas in medulla
b. in the anterior white commisure level
c. between spinal cord and medulla
d. in the pons level
e. in crus cerebri

10. Where is the nucleus of superficial sensitivity analyzer localized?


a. in precentral gyrus
b. in frontal lobe
c. in postcentral gyrus
d. in temporal lobe
e. in occipital lobe

11. In what part of the brain cortex the projection of a hand sensitive
innervation is presented?
a. in the postcentral gyrus lower part
b. in the postcentral gyrus upper part
c. in the precentral gyrus upper part

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d. in the precentral gyrus middle part
e. in the postcentral gyrus middle part

12. In what part of the brain cortex the projection of a head sensitive
innervation is presented?
a. in the postcentral gyrus middle part
b. in the precentral gyrus upper part
c. in the postcentral gyrus lower part
d. in the postcentral gyrus upper part
e. in the precentral gyrus upper part

13. In what part of the brain cortex the projection of a leg sensitive
innervation is presented?
a. in the precentral gyrus upper part
b. in the postcentral gyrus middle part
c. in the postcentral gyrus upper part
d. in the postcentral gyrus lower part
e. in the precentral gyrus lower part

14. What are the quantitative kinds of sensitive disorders?


a. polyesthesia
b. hyperpathia
c. hypoesthesia
d. dysesthesia
e. hyperesthesia
f. anesthesia
g. bathyanesthesia

15. What are the qualitative kinds of sensitive disorders?


a. bathyanesthesia
b. hypoesthesia
c. polyesthesia
d. hyperpathia
e. hyperesthesia
f. dysesthesia
g. anesthesia

16. What are the types of sensitive disorders?


a. central
b. conductive
c. hyperesthesia
d. hypoesthesia
e. mononeural
f. polyneural

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g. segmental
h. anesthesia

17. What kinds of sensitivity will be injured if peripheral nerves are multiple
damaged?
a. only pain and temperature sense
b. only touch sense
c. only kinesthesia
d. only vibration sense
e. all kinds

18. What are the features of peripheral nerve lesion?


a. dissociative type of sensitive disorders
b. hemianesthesia
c. anesthesia of “gloves and socks” type
d. anesthesia of all sensitivity kinds in nerve innervation zone
e. segmental anesthesia
f. paresthesias
g. pain

19. What are the features of posterior root lesion?


a. radix pain
b. type of sensitive disorders
c. stretch symptoms on the side of injury
d. conductive type of sensitive disorders
e. anesthesia of “gloves and socks” type
f. segmental anesthesia
g. herpetic skin rash

20. What are the features of spinal cord posterior horn lesion?
a. conductive type of sensitive disorders
b. anesthesia of “gloves and socks” type
c. preservation of deep sensitivity
d. stretch symptoms
e. pain and temperature sense segmental anesthesia
f. herpetic skin rash

21. What are the features of thalamus lesion?


a. hemiataxia on the side opposite to the lesion
b. hemiparesis on the side opposite to the lesion
c. monoanesthesia
d. hemianesthesia on the side opposite to the lesion
e. hemianopsia

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f. thalamic pain
g. anesthesia of “gloves and socks” type
h. dissociative anesthesia

22. Lesion of what structures can cause disorders of all types of sensitivity?
a. spinal cord posterior funicle
b. peripheral nerves
c. half of spinal cord diameter
d. anterior root
e. spinal cord posterior horn
f. postcentral gyrus

23. Lesion of what structures can cause sensitivity disorders by segmental


type?
a. medial loop
b. peripheral nerve
c. postcentral gyrus
d. spinal cord posterior horn
e. posterior root
f. anterior white commisure
g. spinal ganglion
h. thalamus

24. What symptoms are the most common for polyneural type of sensitive
disorders?
a. pain in the limbs
b. monoanesthesia
c. sensitivity disorders in appropriate dermatomes
d. anesthesia in the limbs’ distal parts
e. hemianesthesia

25. Lesion of what structures can cause conductive sensitivity disorders?


a. precentral gyrus
b. spinal cord posterior funicle
c. medial loop
d. internal capsule
e. spinal ganglion
f. peripheral nerve
g. postcentral gyrus
h. spinal cord lateral funicle
i. thalamus
j. spinal cord posterior horn

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Part 2. Motor system

1. Indicate the mucosa membrane reflexes


a. abdominal
b. plantar
c. corneal
d. palatine
e. knee
f. conjunctival
g. pharyngeal
h. Achilles

2. Indicate the superficial cutaneous reflexes


a. abdominal
b. Achilles
c. corneal
d. knee
e. plantar
f. anal
g. cremasteric
h. pharyngeal

3. Indicate the periosteal reflexes


a. knee
b. Achilles
c. supraorbital
d. flexor ulnar
e. extensor ulnar
f. mandibular
g. brachioradial
h. plantar

4. Indicate the tendon reflexes


a. flexor ulnar
b. plantar
c. mandibular
d. knee
e. Achilles
f. brachioradial
g. supraorbital
h. extensor ulnar

5. Indicate the reflexes of oral automatism

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a. nasolabial
b. Gordon’s
c. Oppenheim’s
d. distance-oral
e. Babinski
f. palm-mental
g. lip
h. Schaffer’s
i. Shtrumpel’s

6. Сhoose the pathological extensory foot reflexes


a. Rossolimo
b. Oppenheim’s
c. Schaffer's
d. Shtrumpel’s
e. Babinski
f. Gordon’s
g. Bechterev’s
h. Jukovski’s

7. Сhoose the pathological flexory foot reflexes


a. Rossolimo
b. Oppenheim’s
c. Shtrumpel’s
d. Bechterev’s
e. Babinski
f. Gordon’s
g. Jukovski’s

8. Where are unconditioned reflexes localized?


a. in limbic system
b. in segmental part of spinal cord
c. in cerebellum in segmental part of spinal cord
d. in segmental part of brainstem
e. in cerebral cortex

9. Where are conditioned reflexes localized?


a. in segmental part of spinal cord
b. in segmental part of brainstem
c. in cerebral cortex
d. in limbic system
e. in cerebellum

10. Where are the central motor neurons localized?

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a. in posterior part of upper temporal gyrus
b. in precentral gyrus
c. in postcentral gyrus
d. in posterior part of lower frontal gyrus

11. Where is cortical projection of leg movements localized?


a. in upper part of precentral gyrus
b. in posterior part of upper temporal gyrus
c. in middle part of precentral gyrus
d. in lower part of precentral gyrus

12. Where is cortical projection of arm movements localized?


a. in lower part of precentral gyrus
b. in upper part of precentral gyrus
c. in middle part of precentral gyrus

13. Where is cortical projection of facial movements localized?


a. in middle part of precentral gyrus
b. in lower part of precentral gyrus
c. in posterior part of upper temporal gyrus
d. in upper part of precentral gyrus

14. In which part of internal capsule are fibers of cortico-spinal tract


localized?
a. in 2/3 of anterior part of posterior limb
b. in 1/3 of posterior part of posterior limb
c. in frontal portion
d. in genu

15. In which part of internal capsule are fibers of cortico-nuclear tract


localized?
a. in frontal portion
b. in posterior part of posterior limb
c. in genu
d. in 2/3 of anterior part of posterior limb

16. Where is the decussation of pyramidal tract localized?


a. at the level of mesencephalon
b. at the level of pons
c. at the level of anterior white commissure
d. between brainstem and spinal cord
e. at the level of medulla

17. Where are the crossed fibers of pyramidal tract in spinal cord localized?

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a. in lateral funiculus
b. in dorsal funiculus
c. in frontal funiculus
d. in frontal white commissure
e. in posterior horns

18. Where are uncrossed fibers of pyramidal tract in spinal cord localized?
a. in lateral funiculus
b. in dorsal funiculus
c. in frontal funiculus
d. in frontal white commissure
e. in posterior horns

19. Where do fibers of cortico-spinal tract finish?


a. in cells of anterior horns
b. in cells of posterior horns
c. in cells of lateral horns

20. Where do fibers of cortico-nuclear tract finish?


a. in sensory nuclei of cranial nerves
b. in anterior horns of spinal cord
c. in motor nuclei of cranial nerves
d. in posterior horns of spinal cord

21. Choose the signs of central paralysis


a. high muscle tone
b. presence of pathological reflexes
c. low muscle tone
d. absence of pathological reflexes
e. muscular atrophy
f. low or absent cutaneous reflexes
g. high response of deep reflexes
h. fibrillar twitching of muscles

22. Choose the signs of peripheral paralysis


a. absence of reflexes
b. high response of deep reflexes
c. presence of pathological reflexes
d. muscular atrophy
e. sensory impairment
f. muscular atonia
g. high muscle tone

23. What does the term "hemiplegia" mean?

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a. paralysis of one extremity
b. paralysis of three extremities
c. paralysis of four extremities
d. paralysis of extremities on the same side
e. paralysis of lower extremities

24. What does the term "paraplegia" mean?


a. paralysis of four extremities
b. paralysis of one leg
c. paralysis of extremities on the same side
d. paralysis of upper or lower extremities
e. paralysis of one arm

25. What does the term "monoplegia" mean?


a. paralysis of four extremities
b. paralysis of three extremities
c. paralysis of one extremity
d. paralysis of two extremities
e. paralysis of extremities from similar side

26. Choose the signs of Brown-Sequard syndrome?


a. tetraplegia
b. peripheral type of sensitivity impairment
c. conducting anesthesia of pain and temperature sensitivity on the side
opposite to the lesion
d. central paralysis on the side of damage
e. pelvic disorders
f. impairment of deep sensitivity on the side of damage
g. lower paraplegia

Part 3. Extrapyramidal system

1. What structures are included into extrapyramidal system?


a. nucleus caudatus
b. nucleus lentiformis
c. Burdach’s and Goll’s nuclei
d. nucleus ruber
e. precentral gyrus
f. reticular formation of brainstem
g. substantia nigra
h. postcentral gyrus

2. Describe physiological functions of extrapyramidal system


a. realization of unvoluntary movements

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b. muscle tone support
c. realization of conditioned reflexes
d. constriction of striated muscles
e. miostatic regulation
f. organization of motive emotional elements and defensive movements

3. Choose the symptoms of impairment of pallidar system


a. low muscular tone
b. hyperkinesis
c. bradykinesis
d. micrographia
e. quiet, monotonous speech
f. high muscular tone (plastic type)
g. hypomimia
h. central paresis
i. peripheral paresis

4. Choose the symptoms of striatic system impairment


a. low muscular tone
b. propulsions
c. high muscular tone
d. hyperkinesias
e. amimia
f. quiet, monotonous speech

5. Choose the symptoms of Parkinson disease


a. central paresis of extremities
b. peripheral paresis of extremities
c. hyperkinesis
d. low muscular tone
e. quiet, monotonous speech
f. micrographia
g. propulsions
h. mannequin’s posture

6. Choose extrapyramidal hyperkinesis


a. intention tremor
b. athetosus
c. chorea
d. motor jackson epilepsy
e. torsion dystonia
f. myoclonus
g. functional tremor
h. epileptiform convulsions

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7. What kind of speech disorder appears in case of impairment of pallidar
system?
a. scanning speech
b. dysarthria
c. aphasia
d. quiet, monotonous speech
e. mutismus

8. What are the functions of cerebellum?


a. keep organism ready for movements
b. realization of voluntary movements
c. realization of conditioned reflexes
d. regulation of muscular tone
e. coordination of movements
f. regulation of equilibrium
g. performing of mimic expression

9. What are the symptoms of cerebellum impairment?


a. low muscular tone
b. scanning speech
c. shaking in Romberg test
d. myoclonus
e. muscular rigidity
f. intention tremor
g. high reflexes
h. presence of pathological reflexes

10. What kind of speech disorder appears in the case of cerebellum


impairment?
a. silent speech
b. dysarthria
c. aphasia
d. scanning speech

11. Indicate the coordination tests


a. finger-nasal test
b. reflexes exam
c. diadochokinesia test
d. heel-to-knee test
e. Barre’s test
f. Rhinne`s and Weber`s tests

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Part 4. Cranial nerves

1. In what structures of the brain are nuclei of cranial nerves localized?


a. crus cerebri
b. internal capsule
c. pons
d. medulla
e. cerebral cortex

2. Where is the cortical part of olfactory analyzer localized?


a. frontal lobe
b. occipital lobe
c. anterior central gyrus
d. temporal lobe
e. postcentral gyrus

3. Damage of what part of visual analyzer is the cause of homonymous


hemianopsia?
a. optic nerve
b. optic tract
c. optic chiasm
d. optic radiation
e. retina

4. Where is the cortical projectional zone of visual analyzer localized?


a. calcarine sulcus
b. temporal lobe
c. parietal lobe
d. lingual gyrus
e. cuneus
f. frontal lobe

5. Damage of what part of visual analyzer is the cause of amaurosis?


a. optic nerve
b. thalamus
c. internal capsule
d. optic tract
e. occipital lobe

6. Where is the pathological process in the case of visual hallucinations


localized?
a. optic nerve
b. postcentral gyrus
c. occipital lobe

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d. temporal lobe
e. subcortical optic centers

7. What part of visual analyzer is damaged in the case of binasal


hemianopsia?
a. middle part of optic chiasm
b. noncrossing fibers of optic chiasm
c. optic nerve
d. optic tract
e. calcarine sulcus

8. What are the oculomotor nerve damage symptoms?


a. exophthalmia
b. divergent strabismus
c. mydriasis
d. convergent strabismus
e. miosis
f. enophthalmia

9. Indicate the localization of pathological center in case of alternating


Weber`s syndrome
a. crus cerebri
b. oculomotor nerve
c. abducens nerve
d. pons
e. medulla

10. Indicate the alternating Weber`s syndrome symptoms


a. divergent strabismus
b. convergent strabismus
c. ghosting
d. enophthalmia
e. miosis
f. sight paresis
g. ptosis of the upper eyelid
h. opposite side central hemiparesis

11. Indicate the Horner`s syndrome symptoms


a. mydriasis
b. exophthalmia
c. miosis
d. ptosis
e. divergent strabismus
f. enophthalmia

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12. What are the trochlear nerve damage symptoms?
a. ghosting when eye is turned down
b. divergent strabismus
c. sight paresis
d. ghosting when eye is turned outside
e. mild convergent strabismus

13. What are the symptoms of the Argyll Robertson’s syndrome?


a. no pupil light direct and consensual reaction
b. no convergence and accommodation of pupil reaction
c. partial ptosis of upper eyelid
d. intact convergence and accommodation of pupil reaction
e. sight paresis

14. Indicate the abducens nerve damage symptoms


a. convergent strabismus
b. ptosis of upper eyelid
c. divergent strabismus
d. ghosting
e. absence of pupil reaction

15. Indicate the alternating Foville`s syndrome symptoms


a. convergent strabismus
b. ghosting
c. pupil reactions are absent
d. central hemiparesis on the side opposite to the lesion
e. divergent strabismus
f. peripheral paresis of extremities
g. peripheral paresis of mimic muscules
h. central hemiparesis on the side of the lesion

16. Damage of what cranial nerves leads to ghosting?


a. facial
b. trigeminal
c. olfactory
d. oculomotor
e. trochlear
f. abducens

17. Indicate symptoms of trigeminal nerve ophthalmic branch damage


a. miosis
b. loss of supaorbital reflex
c. herpetic rash on face
d. loss of corneal reflex

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e. impairment of all sensitive modalities in the zone of innervation
f. mydriasis
g. partial ptosis of upper eyelid
h. dissociated sensitive disorder on face

18. Indicate symptoms of trigeminal ganglion damage


a. dissociated sensitive disorder in the Zelders`s zones
b. masseteric muscles paresis
c. mimic muscles paresis
d. herpetic rash on face
e. impairment of all sensitive modalities in the zone of innervation

19. Impairment of what nerve structures leads to sensitive disorders on face of


segmental dissociative type?
a. trigeminal nerve branches
b. trigeminal nerve ganglion
c. nucleus of trigeminal nerve spinal tract
d. postcentral gyrus lower part
e. internal capsule

20. Indicate symptoms of damage of motor fibres of trigeminal nerve


a. masseteric muscles atrophy
b. lower jaw deviation while opening the mouth to the side of the lesion
c. mandibular reflex is absent
d. mimic muscles peripheral paresis
e. tongue muscles atrophy

21. Where is the source of damage localized in the case of central paresis of
mimic muscles?
a. corticonuclear tract
b. facial nerve nucleus
c. facial nerve
d. anterior central gyrus lower part
e. trigeminal nerve

22. Indicate the signs of cerebellopontine angle syndrome


a. mimic muscles peripheral paresis
b. hearing disturbances
c. cerebellum disturbance on the side opposite to the lesion
d. dissociated sensitive disorders on face
e. pain and sensitive loss on face
f. taste impairment on tongue anterior two thirds
g. cerebellum disturbance on the side of the lesion

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23. Where is cortex hearing zone localized?
a. superior temporal gyrus
b. transverse temporal [Heschl's] gyrus
c. postcentral gyrus
d. anterior central gyrus
e. inferior frontal gyrus

24. Where is the lesion in case of tongue muscles central paresis localized?
a. anterior central gyrus lower part
b. corticonuclear tract
c. glossopharyngeal nerve nucleus
d. hypoglossal nerve nucleus
e. hypoglossal nerve root

25. What are the signs of the central paresis of tongue muscles?
a. muscles atrophy
b. tongue muscle fibrillations
c. tongue deviation to the side of the lesion
d. dysarthria
e. tongue deviation to the opposite side of the lesion
f. muscles atrophy is absent

26. Indicate the signs of hypoglossal nerve nucleus damage


a. mouth orbicular muscle atrophy
b. alternating Jackson’s syndrome
c. tongue muscle fibrillations
d. tongue muscles atrophy
e. pharyngeal reflex is absent
f. tongue muscles atrophy is absent
g. alternating Fovill’s syndrome
h. alternating Millard-Gubler’s syndrome

27. What are the signs of the peripheral paresis of tongue muscles?
a. tongue muscles atrophy
b. dysphagia
c. dysphonia
d. tongue deviation to the side of the lesion
e. dysarthria
f. absence of tongue atrophy
g. taste impairment on tongue anterior two thirds

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Part 5. Cortex

1. What are the basic kinds of aphasias


a. scanning speech
b. mutism
c. sensory
d. motor
e. dysarthtia
f. anarthria
g. semantic
h. amnestic

2. What is the kind of aphasia, that occurs in case of the damage of the left
frontal lobe?
a. semantic
b. motor
c. sensory
d. amnestic
e. total

3. What is the kind of aphasia, that occurs in case of the damage of the left
temporal lobe?
a. motor
b. sensory
c. amnestic
d. total

4. What pathology occurs in case of the damage of brain right hemisphere?


a. autotopagnosia
b. sensory aphasia
c. motor aphasia
d. acalculia
e. disturbance of mentality
f. parakinesias (automated gesticulations)
g. alexia

5. Indicate the signs of frontal lobe lesion


a. monoplegia
b. frontal ataxia
c. monoanesthesia
d. look paresis
e. hemianopsia
f. visual agnosia
g. disturbance of mentality

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6. Indicate the signs of temporal lobe lesion
a. acoustic agnosia
b. motor aphasia
c. visual hallucinations
d. sensory aphasia
e. apraxia
f. monoplegia
g. taste agnosia
h. smell agnosia

7. Indicate the signs of occipital lobe lesion


a. scanning speech
b. visual agnosia
c. monotonous speech
d. dysphonia
e. quadrantic hemianopsia

8. Indicate the cortical speech disturbances


a. amnestic aphasia
b. mutism
c. monotous speech
d. dysphonia
e. motor aphasia
f. sensory aphasia
g. scanning speech

9. What are the basic kinds of apraxias?


a. efferent
b. ideational
c. semantic
d. amnestic
e. constructional
f. afferent

10. The patient has in the left arm astereognosis, superficial kinds of
sensitivity are saved. Where is the lesion localized?
a. in internal capsule
b. in thalamus
c. lesion localized
d. in left parietal lobe
e. in right temporal lobe
f. in right parietal lobe
g. in left temporal lobe

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11. The sensory aphasia is characterized by loss of ability to name familiar
subjects
a. disturbance of expressive speech
b. disturbance of speech comprehension
c. speech dysarthria
d. disturbance of logically-grammatic structures comprehension
e. loss of ability to name familiar subjects

Part 6. Autonomous nervous system

1. What structures of the brain belong to above-segmental level of


autonomous nervous system?
a. substantia nigra
b. spinal cord lateral horns
c. sympathetic trunk
d. parasympathetic nuclei of cranial nerves
e. hypothalamus
f. limbic-reticular complex

2. What are the formations of segmentary level of sympathetic autonomous


nervous system?
a. brainstem reticular formation
b. hypothalamus
c. lateral horns cells of CVIII-LII segments
d. preganglionary and postganglionary sympathetic fibers
e. juxtaspinal and prevertebral units
f. limbic system

3. What are the formations of segmentary level of parasympathetic


autonomous nervous system?
a. Yakubovich's nucleus
b. inferior and superior salivatory nuclei
c. hypothalamus
d. reticular formation
e. X pair dorsal nucleus
f. juxtaspinal units
g. the urination and defecation sacral centers
h. neurons of spinal cord lateral horns (CVIII - LII)

4. What are the functions of autonomous nervous system?


a. innervation of internal organs
b. coordination of movements
c. equilibrium regulation

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d. adaptation of vital functions (circulation, digestion, excretion)
e. maintenance of sensitive innervation
f. trophic function
g. posture regulation

5. What are the craniobulbar formations of parasympathetic nervous system?


a. salivatory nuclei
b. dorsal motor nucleus of vagus nerve
c. Gaulle's and Burdah's nuclei and XII pair nucleus
d. caudatus nucleus
e. Yakubovich's nucleus
f. red nucleus

6. What are the basic functions of the above-segmental department of


autonomous nervous system?
a. the emotions regulation
b. maintenance of alimentary and sex behaviour
c. maintenance of voluntary movements
d. sensitive innervation
e. integrative function
f. dream and wakefulness regulation
g. memory substrate
h. visual function

7. What are the symptoms of the damage of subthalamic area?


a. thermoregulation disturbance
b. jackson epilepsy
c. paresis of extremities
d. neuro-endocrine disturbances
e. coordination disturbance
f. diabetes insipidus

8. What are the forms of the neurogenic urination disturbance?


a. real urinary incontinence
b. ischuria paradoxa
c. anuria
d. imperative feeling of urination
e. polyuria
f. hematuria
g. oliguria
h. periodic urinary incontinence

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Part 7. Additional methods

1. Indicate the pathology where the encephalographic complexes "peak-wave"


appear
a. myotonia
b. multiple sclerosis
c. epilepsy
d. brain contusion

2. For diagnostics of which disease echoencephaloscopia is used?


a. demyelinating diseases of nervous system
b. brain tumours
c. syringomyelia
d. subdural and intracerebral hematomas
e. syringobulbia
f. brain toxic damage

3. What rhythms are on the EEG of a healthy person in the alert condition?
a. ∆- delta-rhythm
b. θ- theta rythm
c. α- alpha-rhythm
d. β- beta-rhythm

4. What methods are additional for diagnostics in neurology?


a. angiography
b. reflexes examination
c. sensitivity examination
d. electroencephalography
e. hearing examination
f. taste examination
g. rheoencephalography
h. echoencephaloscopia
i. vision examination

5. What methods are additional for diagnostics of subarachnoid space and


brain ventricles?
a. electroencephalography
b. electromyography
c. pneumoencephalography
d. cerebral CT scan & MRI
e. craniography
f. spondilography
g. lumbar puncture
h. CSF analysis

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i. CSF dynamic tests
j. echoencephaloscopia

Part 8. Liquor

1. What are the ways of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) circulation?


a. cerebral lateral ventricles
b. subdural space
c. epidural space
d. aqueduct of cerebrum
e. cerebral third ventricle
f. abdominal aorta
g. cerebral fourth ventricle
h. subarachnoid space

2. What are the formations, that produce CSF?


a. vascular plexuses of brain ventricles
b. cerebral pia mater
c. endoneurium
d. epineurium
e. perineurium
f. ventricles’ ependyma

3. What are the CSF changes in case of protein-cellular dissociation?


a. protein increases
b. protein decreases
c. the enlarged cytosis
d. normal cytosis
e. glucose increases

4. What are the CSF changes in case of cellular-protein dissociation?


a. the enlarged cytosis
b. normal or a little bit raised protein
c. normal cytosis
d. glucose decreased
e. sodium chlorides decreased

5. What are the basic meningeal signs?


a. occipital muscle rigidity
b. Babinski’s sign
c. Brudzinski’s sign
d. Lasegue’s sign
e. Kernig’s sign
f. Vassermann’s sign

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6. What are the main meningeal symptoms?
a. Babinski’s symptom
b. rigid occipital muscles
c. Brudzinski’s syndrome
d. Kerning’s symptoms
e. Wassermann’s symptom
f. Lassegue’s symptom

7. What factors can cause hypertensive syndrome (liquor hypertension)?


a. slowing down of venous drainage from cranium
b. brain cortex atrophy
c. CSF hyperproduction
d. CSF hypoproduction
e. intracerebral tumor

8. What are the hypertensive syndrome subjective features?


a. speech disturbances
b. heart pain
c. numbness of extremities
d. nausea and vomiting
e. headache
f. vertigo

9. What are the objective signs of hypertensive syndrome?


a. oedema disks of optic nerves
b. the craniogram digital impression intensification
c. reduced CSF pressure
d. oculomotorius disorders
e. osteoporosis of sella turcica, distension of sella turcica entrance
f. extremities paresis
g. sensation disturbances

10. What are the eye bottom changes in case of hypertensive syndrome?
a. optic neuritis
b. optic nerve disk atrophy
c. oedema disks of optic nerves
d. Salus’ symptom
e. chorioretinitis

11. What changes can we see on the craniogram in case of hypertensive


syndrome?
a. osteoporosis of the sellae turcica
b. fissured cranial bones
c. digital impression intensification on the craniogram

24
d. dilatation of meatus acusticus internus
e. distension of sella turcica entrance
f. ventricles dilatation

Part 9. Meningitis

1. What are the signs of meningococcal meningitis?


a. headache, vomiting
b. fibrillary tremor in muscles
c. hyperthermia
d. paraplegia
e. Kerning’s sign
f. nuchal rigidity
g. true urinary incontinence
h. sensitivity disturbances similar to “gloves” and “socks”

2. What are the features of the fulminant meningococcal meningitis?


a. protein-cellular dissociation in CSF
b. hyperthermia is absent
c. hyperglycemia
d. respiratory and cardial malfunction
e. abrupt onset of disease
f. loss of consciousness
g. hyperthermia
h. hepatic failure

3. What are the features of tuberculous meningitis?


a. lymphocytic pleocytosis
b. subacute clinical current
c. fibrin membrane in CSF
d. acute clinical current
e. neutrophilic pleocytosis
f. positive Wassermann reaction

4. What are the main sings of the secondary purulent meningitis?


a. lymphocytic pleocytosis
b. protein-cellular dissociation in CSF
c. neutrophilic pleocytosis
d. arises as complication of primary infectious disease
e. high body temperature
f. meningeal syndrome

5. What are the CSF changes in the case of meningococcal meningitis?


a. meningococces inside and outside of leukocytes in CSF

25
b. lymphocytic pleocytosis
c. low content of chlorides
d. cellular-protein dissociation in the liquor
e. neutrophilic pleocytosis
f. positive Wassermann reaction

6. Which meningitis shows purulent changes in CSF?


a. syphilitic
b. pneumococcal
c. tuberculous
d. staphylococcal
e. parotid
f. meningococcal

7. Which meningitis shows serous changes in CSF?


a. tuberculous
b. viral
c. pneumococcal
d. staphylococcal
e. meningococcal

8. What CSF signs can you see in meningococcal meningitis?


a. pellucid
b. opalescent
c. bloody
d. turbid
e. purulent
f. xanthochromic

9. What are the CSF peculiarities in tuberculous meningitis?


a. opalescent
b. pellucid
c. turbid
d. purulent
e. bloody

Part 10. Encephalitis, poliomyelitis, myelitis

1. What parts of central nervous system are damaged in epidemic


encephalitis?
a. hypothalamus
b. pyramidal tracts

26
c. substantia nigra
d. cells of anterior horn
e. cells of posterior horn
f. reticular formation
g. oculomotor nerves nuclei
h. sensory tracts

2. What are the clinical forms of epidemic encephalitis?


a. oculolethargic
b. hyperkinetic
c. vestibular
d. poliomyelitic
e. radiculoneuritic
f. polyneuritic

3. What are the characteristics of epidemic encephalitis in acute form?


a. reverse Argyll Robertson’s syndrome
b. bulbar disturbances
c. paralyses of extremities
d. pathological somnolence
e. oculomotor disturbances
f. parkinson syndrome

4. What are the characteristics of epidemic encephalitis in chronic form?


a. “dropping head” symptom
b. mannequin’s posture
c. hypersalivation
d. hypomimia, hypokinesis
e. Kojevnikoff’s epilepsy
f. paralyses of extremities
g. high muscular tone (plastic type)
h. sensitive disorders

5. What is the pathogenic organism of tick-borne encephalitis?


a. neurotropic virus
b. staphylococcus
c. pallid spirochaeta
d. Koch’s bacillus
e. meningococcus

6. What are the characteristics of tick-borne encephalitis?


a. acute beginning
b. bulbar disturbances

27
c. pathological somnolence
d. oculomotor disturbances
e. flaccid pareses of upper extremities’ proximal parts
f. Kojevnikoff’s epilepsy

7. What brain structures are damaged in chorea minor?


a. nucleus caudatus
b. putamen
c. red nucleus
d. substantia nigra
e. globus pallidus

8. What are the symptoms of chorea minor?


a. hyperirritation
b. high muscle tone
c. hypokinesis
d. low muscle tone
e. hyperkinesis
f. paresis of extremities
g. aphasia
h. sensitive disorders

9. What pathogenic organism causes poliomyelitis?


a. staphylococcus
b. meningococcus
c. enterovirus
d. pneumococcus
e. Koch’s bacillus

10. Where are the main locations of lesions in poliomyelitis?


a. in cranial nerves motor nuclei
b. in basal ganglions
c. in spinal cord lateral funicles
d. in spinal cord anterior horns
e. in cerebellum

11. What are the symptoms of poliomyelitis?


a. flaccid pareses of extremities
b. peripheral paresis of mimic muscles
c. bulbar paralysis
d. spastic hemiplegia
e. deep sensitivity disorders

12. Indicate the periods of paralytic form in poliomyelitis

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a. preparalytic
b. paralytic
c. remission
d. recurrent
e. rehabilitation
f. residual
g. not full remission

13. In which form of poliomyelitis are there respiratory impairments?


a. abortive
b. pontine
c. asymptomatic
d. bulbar
e. bulbospinal
f. spinal

14. What are the symptoms of myelitis?


a. movement and trophic disturbances
b. alternating syndromes
c. bulbar disturbances
d. conductive type of sensitive disorders
e. bladder malfunction
f. hyperkinesis

15. What are the symptoms of myelitis with the lesion in the inferior thoracic
spinal cord?
a. flaccid paraplegia of lower extremities
b. bulbar disturbances
c. tetraplegia
d. central paraplegia of lower extremities
e. conductive type of sensitive disorders

16. What are the symptoms of myelitis with the lesion in the lumbar spinal
cord?
a. tetraplegia
b. peripheral paralyses of lower extremities
c. central paraplegia of lower extremities
d. pelvic disorders
e. decubituses
f. alternating syndromes

Part 11. Neurosyphilis

1. Indicate diagnostic criteria of basal syphilitic meningitis

29
a. paresis of extremities
b. oculomotor disturbances
c. facial nerve neuritis
d. meningeal symptoms
e. decreased sensitivity
f. urination disturbances

2. Indicate CSF changes in syphilitic meningitis


a. neutrophilic pleocytosis
b. transparent
c. bloody
d. lymphocytic pleocytosis
e. muddy

3. What diseases need to be differentiated from cerebral gumma?


a. brain parasitogenic diseases
b. brain abscess
c. Huntington's chorea
d. subdural hematoma
e. brain tumor
f. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
g. multiple sclerosis

4. Indicate the main stages of tabes dorsalis


a. preparalytic
b. residual
c. meningeal
d. neuralgic
e. atactic
f. paralytic

5. Indicate main clinical features of tabes dorsalis


a. bulbar disturbances
b. root pain, paresthesias
c. absence of knee and Achilles reflexes
d. Argyll Robertson’s syndrome
e. cerebellar ataxia
f. primary atrophy of optic nerve disks
g. sensitive ataxia
h. meningeal symptoms
i. stagnant optic nerve disks

6. Indicate symptoms of the neuralgic stage in tabes dorsalis

30
a. root pain, paresthesias
b. hyperreflexia of knee and Achilles reflexes
c. reverse Argyll Robertson’s syndrome
d. stagnant optic nerve disks
e. Argyll Robertson’s syndrome
f. reduction or absence of knee and Achilles reflexes

7. Indicate symptoms of the atactic stage in tabes dorsalis


a. cerebellar ataxia
b. sensitive ataxia
c. hyperreflexia of knee and Achilles reflexes
d. reverse Argyll Robertson’s syndrome
e. absence of knee and Achilles reflexes

8. Indicate symptoms of paralytic stage in tabes dorsalis


a. severe sensitive ataxia
b. Argyll Robertson’s syndrome
c. cerebellar ataxia
d. paresis of extremities
e. fibrillar twitching
f. trophic disturbances

Part 12. Prion diseases. AIDS

1. What are the peculiarities of prion diseases?


a. short incubation period
b. inflammatory changes are absent
c. long incubation period
d. acute current
e. chronic current
f. intact of immune system

2. Indicate main prion diseases


a. myasthenia
b. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
c. kuru
d. progressive muscle dystrophy
e. chronic malnutrition disease

3. What are the main causes of Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease?


a. prions
b. viruses
c. bacteria

31
d. simplest organisms

4. What is the aetiology of AIDS?


a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. HIV
c. cytomegalovirus

5. What tumors of nervous system arise in AIDS?


a. primary lymphoma
b. Kaposi’s sarcoma
c. meningeoma
d. angioma

Part 12. Multiple sclerosis. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

1. Indicate the main causes of multiple sclerosis


a. viral infection
b. inherited predisposition
c. geographic factor
d. disturbances in blood circulation
e. bacterial infection
f. disturbances in copper metabolism

2. What structures are damaged in multiple sclerosis most frequently?


a. brain grey matter
b. peripheral nerves
c. brain and spinal cord white matter
d. spinal cord grey matter
e. brain membranes

3. What pathomorphological changes are in nervous system in multiple


sclerosis?
a. nerve tissue hemorrhage
b. nerve fibres demyelination
c. nerve fibres remyelination
d. neuron dystrophic alterarions
e. cerebral membranes inflammation
f. white matter sclerotic plaques

4. Which parts of nervous system are frequently damaged in multiple


sclerosis?
a. optic nerve
b. anterior central gyrus

32
c. postcentral gyrus
d. cerebellar and its pathways
e. spinal cord lateral funicle
f. spinal cord posterior funicle
g. spinal cord anterior horns
h. olfactory nerve

5. Indicate clinical forms of multiple sclerosis


a. regressive
b. remittent
c. remittent-progressive
d. fulminant
e. secondary-progressive
f. primary-progressive
g. two-wave length

6. Indicate early symptoms of multiple sclerosis


a. dizziness and unsteadiness
b. smell reduction
c. hearing reduction
d. vibration sense decreasing
e. abdominal reflexes absence
f. trophism disorder
g. bulbar disorder
h. paresthesias
i. retrobulbar neuritis
j. stagnant optic nerve disks

7. What kind of sensitivity disturbance is on early stage of multiple sclerosis?


a. touch sense
b. temperature sense
c. pain sense
d. vibration sense
e. stereognosis

8. Indicate changes of motor system in multiple sclerosis


a. central paresis
b. high muscle tone
c. jackson epilepsy
d. peripheral paresis
e. pathological reflexes
f. muscles atrophy

33
9. Indicate main features of multiple sclerosis
a. spastic paraparesis of lower extremities
b. anosmia
c. intention tremor
d. stagnant optic nerve disks
e. nystagmus
f. peripheral paresis
g. decreased vibration sense
h. muscles atrophy

10. Indicate main criteria of multiple sclerosis diagnosis


a. elderly age onset of disease
b. peripheral paresis of extremities
c. young age onset of disease
d. stagnant optic nerve disks
e. multiple lesions of central nervous system
f. remittent or progressive clinical current

11. Indicate features of Charcot's triad


a. nystagmus
b. dyplopia
c. scanning speech
d. paleness of optic nerves’ disks temporal halfs
e. intention tremor
f. abdominal reflexes absence

12. What drugs are used in acute stage of multiple sclerosis?


a. antibiotics
b. corticosteroids
c. cytostatics
d. immunomodulators
e. coagulants

13. What structures of nervous system are damaged in amyotrophic lateral


sclerosis?
a. pyramidal tracts
b. spinal cord anterior roots
c. motor nuclei of bulbar nerves
d. peripheral nerves
e. sensitive pathways
f. spinal cord anterior horns

14. Indicate main clinical forms of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis


a. bulbar

34
b. peripheral
c. cerebellar
d. trembling
e. lumbosacral
f. cervicothoracic

15. Choose the clinical signs of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis


a. urination disturbances
b. taste disturbances
c. sensitive disturbances
d. muscle atrophy of extremities
e. fibrillar twitching in the impaired muscles
f. bulbar and pseudobulbar pareses
g. hyperreflection of deep reflexes
h. alternating syndromes

16. What cranial nerves nuclei are damaged in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
a. III, IV, VI
b. IX, X
c. VIII
d. XI
e. XII
f. VII

17. Indicate the clinical signs of bulbar form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
a. facial sensory disorders
b. dysarthria, dysphagia, dysphonia
c. atrophy and fibrillar twitching of tongue muscles
d. absence of tongue muscles atrophy
e. peripheral paraparesis of lower exteremities

Part 13. Сerebrovascular diseases

1. Choose the main extracranial vessels


a. middle cerebral artery
b. internal carotid artery
c. anterior cerebral artery
d. vertebral artery
e. posterior cerebral artery

2. Indicate the internal risk factors of cerebrovascular diseases


a. high arterial blood pressure
b. hypercholesterinemia
c. emotional stresses
d. hypodynamia
35
e. inherited susceptibility
f. tolerance to carbohydrates disturbances
g. nicotine intoxication (smoking)
h. nutrition peculiarities

3. Indicate the social risk factors of cerebrovascular diseases (that


characterize lifestyle)
a. nicotine intoxication (smoking)
b. emotional stresses
c. hypercholesterinemia
d. inherited susceptibility
e. high arterial blood pressure
f. nutrition peculiarities
g. hypodynamia
h. tolerance to carbohydrates disturbances

4. Indicate the main clinical forms of cerebral blood circulation disorders


a. initial signs of cerebral blood perfusion insufficiency
b. transient disturbances of cerebral blood circulation
c. Raynaud`s syndrome
d. strokes
e. discirculatory myelopathy
f. discirculatory encephalopathy
g. migraine
h. hematomyelia

5. Indicate the clinical signs of transient ischemic attacks in the vertebro-


basilar basin
a. system dizziness
b. visual disorders
c. bulbar disorders
d. amnestic aphasia
e. jackson epilepsy
f. motor aphasia
g. diplopia
h. alternating syndromes
i. sensory aphasia
j. body scheme disturbance

6. Indicate the cerebral stroke types


a. transient ischemic attack
b. discirculatory encephalopathy
c. hemorrhagic
d. ischemic

36
e. initial signs of cerebral blood perfusion insufficiency

7. Indicate the subtypes of ischemic stroke


a. discirculatory encephalopathy
b. discirculatory myelopathy
c. lacunar
d. atherothrombotic
e. cardioembolic
f. transient ischemic attack
g. hemodynamic
h. hemorheologic

8. Indicate the subtypes of hemorrhagic brain stroke


a. parenchymatous hemorrhage
b. subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. parenchymatous-subarachnoid hemorrhage
d. hematomyelia
e. discirculatory encephalopathy
f. hematorrhahis
g. subarachnoid-parenchymatous hemorrhage
h. discirculatory myelopathy

9. What is the pathogenesis of hemorrhagic stroke?


a. failure of cerebral blood flow autoregulation
b. diapedesis of small arteries, veins, capillaries
c. rupture of the pathologically changed vessel
d. vascular cerebral insufficiency
e. “robbing” phenomenon

10. Indicate the signs of blood circulation disorders in middle cerebral artery
a. hemiplegia or hemiparesis
b. motor aphasia (lesion in left hemisphere)
c. diplopia
d. hemianaesthesia
e. hemianopsia
f. alternating syndromes
g. dysphagia
h. cerebellar ataxia

11. What are the signs of blood circulation disorders in posterior cerebral
artery?
a. motor jackson epilepsy
b. alternating syndromes
c. homonymous quadrant hemianopsia
d. amaurosis
37
e. visual agnosia

12. Where is the localization of cerebral blood circulation’s impairment in


case of hormetonic syndrome?
a. hemorrhage in cerebellum
b. hemorrhage in brain hemisphere
c. thrombosis of internal carotid artery
d. thrombosis of middle cerebral artery
e. cerebral hemorrhage with blood leakage in ventricles

13. What signs are more common for hemorrhagic stroke?


a. meningeal symptoms are absent
b. general brain symptoms are absent
c. slow progress of local symptoms
d. strongly marked general brain symptoms
e. person’s face is crimson-red, cyanotic
f. CSF is without changes
g. blood in CSF
h. meningeal symptoms

14. Indicate the basic signs of subarachnoid hemorrhage


a. general brain symptoms and psychomotor excitation
b. blood in CSF
c. no changes in CSF
d. hemiparesis
e. meningeal symptoms
f. epileptiform attacks
g. alternating syndromes
h. homonymous hemianopsia

15. What are the basic clinical criteria for differential diagnostics of ischemic
and hemorrhagic strokes
a. consciousness condition (lost or not)
b. patient age (middle or aged)
c. dysfunction of pelvic organs
d. arterial blood pressure level, pulse and breathing
e. neurological deficit degree
f. predominance of general or local brain symptoms
g. electroencephalographic picture
h. presence or absence of meningeal syndrome

16. Which additional diagnostic signs could confirm hemorrhagic type of


stroke?
a. hypointensive type of lesion on cerebral CТ

38
b. displacement of М-echo on 1-2 mm
c. red or xanthochromic CSF
d. displacement of М-echo on 5-7 mm
e. hyperintensive type of lesion on cerebral CТ

17. Prescribe the differentiated therapy in ischemic stroke


a. anticoagulants and thrombolytic drugs
b. antiagregant therapy
c. decongestant therapy
d. antifibrinolytic drugs
e. neuroprotective therapy
f. hemostatic drugs

Part 14. Peripheral nervous system

1. Indicate structures of the peripheral nervous system


a. peripheral nerves
b. nervous plexus
c. vertebral and vegetative nervous nodes
d. precentral gyrus
e. spinal cord lateral funicles
f. anterior and posterior roots of spinal cord
g. internal capsule
h. spinal cord posterior funicles

2. Indicate the signs of the peripheral nerve lesion


a. central monoparesis
b. pain and anaesthesia in the innervation area
c. absence of muscle atrophy
d. high muscle tone
e. peripheral monoparesis
f. muscle atrophy
g. pathological reflexes

3. Indicate the signs of the posterior root lesion


a. sharp pain
b. segmental anaesthesia
c. fascicular twitching
d. high reflexes
e. symptoms of tension
f. peripheral paresis of extremities

4. Indicate the tension symptoms of peripheral nerves and nervous roots


a. Lasegue symptom

39
b. Fovill symptom
c. Babinski symptom
d. Neri symptom
e. Kernig symptom
f. Wasserman symptom
g. Bernar-Horner symptom

5. Indicate the signs of “horse tail” impairment


a. polyneural type of sensitive disorders
b. periodic urine incontinence
c. sensitive disorders in perineal area
d. true urine incontinence
e. central paresis of lower extremities
f. conductive type of sensitive disorders
g. sharp root pain
h. pathological reflexes

6. Indicate the diseases of peripheral nervous system


a. radiculitis
b. plexitis
c. neuralgia
d. neuropathy
e. polyneuropathy
f. encephalitis
g. meningitis
h. myelitis
i. arachnoiditis

7. Indicate common symptoms for neuralgias


a. muscle atrophy
b. areflexia
c. muscle paresis
d. hyperaesthesia
e. paresthesia
f. pain attacks

8. What are the clinical signs of trigeminal neuralgia's attack?


a. paresis of masticatory muscles
b. pain in one or more nerve branches area
c. trigger areas
d. herpetic rash on face
e. vegetative disorders on the face
f. dissociative anesthesia

40
9. What are the clinical signs of the facial nerve neuropathy?
a. enophthalmus
b. central mimic paresis
c. peripheral mimic paresis
d. taste disturbance
e. normal supraorbital reflex
f. watering or xerophthalmus
g. absence of supraorbital reflex

10. What are the symptoms of the radial nerve neuropathy?


a. paresis of forearm, hand and fingers extensors
b. absence of triceps reflex
c. absence biceps reflex
d. absence of fingers flexors
e. drop hand
f. clawhand

11. What are the characteristic symptoms of median nerve neuropathy?


a. disturbed hand pronation
b. disturbed flexion of the hand first three fingers
c. hyperreflexia of biceps reflex
d. absence of triceps reflex
e. drop hand
f. anesthesia in the innervation zone
g. thenaris atrophy

12. What are the characteristic symptoms of ulnar nerve neuropathy?


a. disturbed IV and V fingers flexion
b. drop hand
c. absence of triceps reflex
d. hyperreflexia of triceps reflex
e. hand deformation as “clawhand”
f. anesthesia of ulnar surface of forearm, hand, IV and V fingers

13. What are the characteristic symptoms of sciatic nerve neuropathy?


a. anesthesia of thigh front surface
b. absence of knee reflex
c. Babinski sign
d. foot paresis
e. absence of Achilles reflex

14. What are the characteristic symptoms of tibial nerve neuropathy?


a. absence of knee reflexes

41
b. absence of foot and fingers plantar flexion
c. absence of Achilles reflex
d. Babinski sign
e. absence of foot dorsal flexion

15. What are the characteristic symptoms of perineal nerve neuropathy?


a. absence of Achilles reflex
b. absence of foot dorsal flexion
c. absence of knee reflexes
d. steppage gait
e. absence of foot and fingers plantar flexion
f. anesthesia in the shin outer surface and dorsum foot

16. What are the characteristic symptoms of femoral nerve neuropathy?


a. paresis of quadriceps and tailor's muscle
b. paresis of gastrocnemius muscle
c. absence of plantar reflex
d. absence of knee reflex
e. Wasserman symptom
f. Lasegue sign

17. What are the main symptoms of polyneuropathies?


a. peripheral paresis of hands and feet
b. peripheral type of sensitive disorders
c. trophic and vasomotor disorders of hands and feet
d. central paresis of extremities
e. pathologic reflexes
f. disorders of sphincters function
g. conductive type of sensitive disorders

18. What are the main symptoms of alcoholic polyneuropahty?


a. paresis of hands and feet
b. conducting type of sensitive disorders
c. hypoesthesia with hyperpathia of hands and feet
d. paresis of proximal parts of extremities
e. disorders of pelvic functions
f. hyperhidrosis, cyanosis of hands and feet

19. What are the symptoms of diabetic polyneuropahty?


a. central paresis of extremities
b. extremities pains and paresthesias
c. hypotrophy of thighs' and legs' muscles
d. conductive type of sensitive disorders
e. areflexia of knee reflexes and Achilles reflexes

42
f. pathological foot reflexes

20. What are the symptoms of postdiphtheritic polyneuropahty?


a. dysphagia, dysarthria
b. polyneuritic type of sensitive disorders
c. central paresis of extremities
d. choreoathetosis
e. paresis of hands and feet
f. urination disorders

21. What are the symptoms of Erba-Dushen upper brachial plexitis?


a. paresis of hands and feet
b. sensitive disorders on the hand
c. absence of biceps reflex
d. sensitive disorders on the external surface of brachium
e. paresis of the proximal part of arm

22. What are the symptoms of lower brachial plexitis?


a. sensitive disorders on the brachium
b. sensitive disorders on the hand and fingers
c. hand pain and up to nerve trunks
d. paresis of the proximal part of arm
e. atrophy of the forearm and small muscles of hands
f. paresis of the distal part of arm

23. What are the clinical signs of herpes zoster?


a. radicular pain
b. segmental hyperesthesia or hypoesthesia
c. exudative skin rash
d. dissociative sensitive disorders
e. central paresis

24. What are the clinical signs of acute Guillain-Barre


polyradiculoneuropathy?
a. peripheral paresis of the distal part of extremities
b. hyperreflexia of tendon reflexes
c. tendon reflexes are low or absent
d. protein-cellular dissociation in CSF
e. bulbar disturbances
f. central paresis of extremities

25. Which methods can you use for diagnostics of radiculitis?


a. spinal radiography
b. myelography

43
c. electroencephalography
d. spinal MRI-scan
e. craniography

26. What are the reflex syndromes of spinal osteochondrosis?


a. radiculitis L5
b. myelopathy
c. encephalopathy
d. lumbalgia
e. cervicalgia
f. thoracalgia

27. What are the reflex syndromes of cervical spinal osteochondrosis?


a. cervicobrachialgia
b. cervicocranialgia
c. cervicalgia
d. lumbalgia
e. lumboischialgia
f. lumbago

28. What are the symptoms of lumboischialgia?


a. back pain
b. tension of back muscles
c. Lasegue and Neri signs
d. muscle atrophy
e. areflexia
f. conductive anesthesia

29. What are the main treatment principles of neuropathy?


a. drugs for improvement of the neuromuscular transmission
b. thermal procedures in acute period
c. antibiotic therapy
d. physiotherapy, massage
e. dehydration drugs

30. What are the main treatment principles of radiculitis?


a. antibiotics
b. dehydration drugs
c. analgetics
d. sulfanilamides
e. orthopedic decompression

31. What are the main treatment principles of facial nerve neuropathy?
a. dehydration drugs

44
b. anticholinergic drugs
c. anticonvulsant drugs
d. nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs
e. thermal procedures
f. sleeping-draught

Part 15. Injury

1. What are the forms of closed craniocerebral injury?


a. hematomyelia
b. hematorrhachis
c. brain concussion
d. brain contusion
e. cerebral compression with or without contusion

2. What are the clinical signs of brain concussion?


a. central paresis
b. loss of consciousness
c. headache, vomiting
d. autonomic disorders
e. apraxia
f. motor aphasia

3. What are the clinical signs of brain contusion?


a. Brown-Sequard's syndrome
b. Argyll Robertson syndrome
c. meningeal symptoms
d. optico-pyramid syndrome
e. general cerebral syndrome
f. focal neurological signs

4. Which are the traumatic intracranial hematomas according to their


localization?
a. epidural
b. subdural
c. subarachnoid
d. parenchymatous
e. hematomyelia
f. hematorrhachis
g. haematuria

5. In wich cases of craniocerebral injury can you see “lucid” space?

45
a. subarachnoid hematomas
b. epidural hematomas
c. subdural hematomas
d. brain concussion

6. What are the symptoms of epidural hematomas?


a. paresis of extremities
b. Lasegue sign
c. hypertensive syndrome
d. miosis on the hematoma's side
e. mydriasis on the hematoma's side
f. cellular-protein dissociation in CSF

7. What are the main clinical signs of the subdural hematomas?


a. focal neurological symptoms
b. hypertensive syndrome
c. miosis on the hematoma's side
d. cellular-protein dissociation in CSF
e. “lucid” space
f. mydriasis on the hematoma's side
g. optico-pyramid syndrome
h. sensitive disorders in Zelder zones

8. What are the symptoms of traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage?


a. general cerebral symptoms
b. meningeal symptoms
c. blood in CSF
d. motor aphasia
e. paresis of extremities
f. homonymous hemianopsia

9. What kinds of cerebral trauma are accompanied with focal signs?


a. haematorrachis
b. epidural, subdural hematoma
c. brain concussion
d. brain contusion
e. intracerebral haematoma
f. subarachnoid haemorrhage

10. What additional diagnostic method is the most valuable in case of a


subarachnoid haemorrhage?
a. liquor assessment
b. echoencephaloscopy
c. cranial x-ray examination

46
d. radioisotope scanning

11. What additional diagnostic methods confirm the presence of cerebral


hematoma?
a. brain CT and MRI scanning
b. cranial x-ray examination
c. ophthalmoscopy
d. echoencephaloscopy
e. electromyography
f. spondylography

Part 16. Tumors

1. What is the classification of brain tumors by their localization?


a. intramedullar
b. extramedullar
c. supratentorial
d. subtentorial
e. medullar tumors

2. What tumors belong to supratentorial?


a. medullar tumors
b. frontal lobe tumors
c. parietal lobe tumors
d. temporal lobe tumors
e. occipital lobe tumors
f. cerebellar tumors
g. IV ventricle tumors

3. What tumors belong to subtentorial?


a. medullar tumors
b. cerebellar tumors
c. frontal lobe tumors
d. parietal lobe tumors
e. tumors of the pontino-cerebellar angle
f. temporal lobe tumors
g. occipital lobe tumors

4. Indicate the pituitary tumors


a. Meningeoma
b. Craniopharingeoma
c. Astrocytoma
d. Adenoma
e. Medulloblastoma

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5. What tumor is mostly localized in pontinocerebellar angle?
a. meningeoma
b. astrocytoma
c. neurinoma
d. medulloblastoma
e. adenoma
f. ependymoma
6. Indicate syndromes which characterize intracerebral tumors
a. optico-pyramidal
b. brown-Sequard syndrome
c. increased intracerebral pressure
d. brain dislocation
e. focal neurological signs

7. Indicate signs of increased intracerebral pressure


a. paleness of parietal halves of optic nerves
b. optical nerves neuritis
c. headache, which increases in the morning
d. angiopathy of retina
e. vomiting
f. stagnation of optic nerves discs

8. What are the symptoms of generalized signs?


a. headache
b. vomiting
c. dizziness
d. acromegaly
e. dyplopia
f. Broca’s aphasia

9. What are the symptoms of cerebellar tumor?


a. spastic paraplegia of the lower extremities
b. ataxia
c. aphasia
d. low muscle tone
e. scanning speech
f. high muscle tone

10. What are the symptoms of frontal lobe tumors?


a. personality changes
b. visual hallucinations
c. sensitive disorders
d. Wernicke’s aphasia

48
e. frontal ataxia
f. grasp reflex

11. What are the symptoms of precentral gyrus tumors?


a. monoanaesthesia
b. Jackson sensitive seizures
c. central monoparesis
d. Jackson motor seizures
e. scanning speech

12. What are the symptoms of parietal lobe tumors?


a. visual hallucinations
b. sensitive disorders
c. hemiparesis
d. amnestic aphasia
e. Wernicke’s aphasia
f. taste, smell and acoustic hallucinations

13. Indicate additional diagnostic methods for brain tumors


a. electromyography
b. brain CT and MRI scanning
c. spondylography
d. examination of sensitivity
e. echoencephaloscopy
f. angiography

14. What is the classification of spinal cord tumors by their localization?


a. extramedullary
b. intramedullary
c. subtentorial
d. supratentorial

15. What are the symptoms of extramedullary spinal cord tumors?


a. dissociative segmental type of sensitive disorders
b. stagnation of optic nerve disc
c. Foster-Kennedy syndrome
d. radicular pain
e. Brown-Sequard syndrome
f. protein-cell dissociation in the liquor

16. Indicate additional diagnostic methods for spinal cord tumors


a. electroencephalography
b. spinal cord MRI scanning
c. myelography

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d. angiography
e. echoencephaloscopy

Part 17. Epilepsy

1. What is the classification of epilepsy?


a. posttraumatic
b. idiopathic
c. symptomatic
d. cryptogenic
e. diencephalic

2. What is the classification of epileptic seizures?


a. hypoxic paroxysms
b. metabolic paroxysms
c. vegetative paroxysms
d. generalized
e. partial

3. Indicate the kinds of generalized seizures


a. Jackson epilepsy
b. status epilepticus
c. absences
d. adversive
e. tonic-clonic
f. Kozhevnikov epilepsy

4. Indicate the kinds of focal seizures


a. status epilepticus
b. absences
c. Jackson epilepsy
d. generalized tonic-clonic seizures
e. Kozhevnikov epilepsy

5. Indicate phases of secondary generalized seizure


a. hyperkinetic
b. aura
c. tonic phase
d. polyuria
e. clonic phase
f. intention tremor
g. coma

6. Where is the localization of epileptic lesion in seizure with motor aura?

50
a. in the precentral gyrus
b. in the postcentral gyrus
c. in the parietal lobe
d. in the occipital lobe
e. in the temporal lobe

7. Where is the localization of epileptic lesion in seizure with visual aura?


a. in the parietal lobe
b. in the frontal lobe
c. in the occipital lobe
d. in the temporal lobe
e. in the postcentral gyrus

8. Where is the localization of epileptic lesion in seizure with auditory aura?


a. in the temporal lobe
b. in the parietal lobe
c. in the frontal lobe
d. in the occipital lobe
e. in the postcentral gyrus

9. Indicate additional diagnostic methods for patients with epilepsy


a. brain CT and MRI scanning
b. electroencephalography
c. examination of sensitivity
d. pneumoencephalography
e. analysis of cuprum concentration in the blood
f. myelography

10. What additional diagnostic method can prove the diagnosis of epilepsy?
a. brain CT scanning
b. echoencephaloscopy
c. electroencephalography
d. pneumoencephalography
e. radioisotope methods

11. What disease is suggested by spike-and-wave electroencephalographic


changes?
a. multiple sclerosis
b. syringomyelia
c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
d. epilepsy
e. Huntington disease

12. What cerebral diseases can result in the epileptic syndrome?

51
a. brain tumor
b. toxic encephalopathy
c. stroke
d. Pier Mary family ataxia
e. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
f. Huntington disease

13. What drugs are used for epilepsy treatment?


a. antibiotics
b. sulfanilamids
c. pyracetam, encefabol
d. carbamazepine
e. phenobarbital
f. valproic acid

Part 18. Hereditary diseases

1. What are the features of Duchenne primary muscle dystrophy?


a. patients are 3-5-year-old boys
b. central paresis of extremities
c. sural muscle pseudohypertrophy
d. “slapping” gait
e. muscle fibrillation
f. endocrine disorders

2. What are the features of progressive primary muscle dystrophy?


a. sensitive disorders
b. “waddling” gait
c. presence of pathologic reflexes
d. decreasing or absence of tendon reflexes
e. decreasing of muscle tone
f. muscle fibrillation

3. What are the features of Charko Mary neural amyotrophy?


a. decreasing or absence of tendon reflexes
b. “slapping” gait
c. peroneal muscle atrophy
d. muscle fibrillation
e. central paresis of extremities
f. sural muscle pseudohypertrophy

4. What are the main treatment principles of progressive primary muscle


dystrophies?

52
a. anticoagulants, vasoactive
b. antibiotics, sulfanilamids
c. midocalm, baclofen
d. improvement of metabolism and muscle trophy
e. improvement of neuro-muscular conducting
f. biogenic stimulators, vitamins

5. What are the features of Shtrumpell spastic paraplegia?


a. dissociated type of sensitive disorders
b. central lower paraplegia
c. presence of pathologic foot reflexes
d. peripheral lower paraplegia
e. pelvic dysfunction
f. leg muscles hypertone

6. What are the features of Huntington disease?


a. central limb paresis
b. hyperkinetic syndrome
c. muscle hypotone
d. muscle hypertone
e. peripheral paresis of extremities
f. dementia

7. What are the features of Parkinson’s disease?


a. high muscular tone (plastic type)
b. central hemiparesis
c. “slapping” gait
d. “shuffle” gait
e. fine rhythmic tremor
f. onset in 50-60 years
g. muscle hypotone
h. onset in 3-5 years

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