NEET 2020 PAPER DISCUSSION

13th September’ 2020

CODE: F1

Biology

1. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the

transfer of electrons from
(A) PS-I to NADP+
(B) PS-I to ATP synthase
(C) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(D) Cytb6f complex to PS-I

2. The sequence that controls the copy number of the

linked DNA in the vector is termed
(A) Palindromic sequence
(B) Recognition site
(C) Selectable marker
(D) Ori site

3. The specific palindromic sequence which is

recognized by EcoRI is
(A) 5’ - CTTAAG - 3’
3’ - GAATTC - 5’
(B) 5’ - GGATCC - 3’
3’ - CCTAGG - 5’
(C) 5’ - GAATTC - 3’
3’ - CTTAAG - 5’
(D) 5’ - GGAACC - 3’
3’ - CCTTGG - 5’

4. Identify the wrong statement with reference to

immunity.
(A) Active immunity is quick and gives full response
(B) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is
an example for passive immunity
(C) When exposed to antigen (living or dead)
antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called
“Active immunity”
(D) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it
is called “Passive immunity”

5. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory

of inheritance was done by
(A) Boveri
(B) Morgan
(C) Mendel
(D) Sutton
6. Match the following concerning essential elements
and their functions in plants
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis
(d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
(A) (a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)
(B) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
(C) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)
(D) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)

7. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can

be visualized with the help of
(A) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(B) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(C) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(D) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
8. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
helix during transcription.
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) RNA polymerase
(C) DNA ligase
(D) DNA helicase

9. In which of the following techniques, the embryo are

transferred to assist those females who cannot
conceive?
(A) ICSI and ZIFT
(B) GIFT and ICSI
(C) ZIFT and IUT
(D) GIFT and ZIFT

10. Identify the basic amino acid from the following

(A) Lysine
(B) Valine
(C) Tyrosine
(D) Glutamic Acid
11. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
transport of oxygen.
(A) Higher H+ conc. In alveoli favours the formation of
oxyhaemoglobin
(B) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation of
oxyhaemoglobin
(C) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly
related to partial pressure of O2
(D) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with O2
binding with haemoglobin

12. Floridean starch has structure similar to

(A) Mannitol and algin
(B) Laminarin and cellulose
(C) Starch and cellulose
(D) Amylopectin and glycogen

13. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of

sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
rams?
(A) Cross breeding
(B) Inbreeding
(C) Out crossing
(D) Mutational breeding

14. Match the following columns and select the correct

option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipid
us
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(A) (a) - (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (ii)
(B) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d) - (iii)
(C) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
(D) (a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)

15. Select the option including all sexually transmitted

diseases.
(A) AIDS Malaris, Filaria
(B) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(C) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
(D) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
16. Choose the correct pair from the following:
(A) Nuclease - Separate the two strange of DNA
(B) Exonuclease - Make cuts at specific positions
within DNA
(C) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
(D) Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments

17. Ray florets have

(A) Hypogenous ovary
(B) Half inferior ovary
(C) Inferior ovary
(D) Superior ovary

18. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology

(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
(b) Thermus aquaticus (ii) Construction
of first
rDNA
(c) Agrobacterium tumefociens (iii) DNA
polymerase
(d) Salmonella typhimurium (iv) Cry proteins
Select the correct option from the following:
(A) (a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i)
(B) (a) - (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
(C) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii); (d) - (i)
(D) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)

19. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase

in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are:
(A) Ammonia and oxygen
(B) Ammonia and hydrogen
(C) Ammonia alone
(D) Nitrate alone
20. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
spraying on sugarcane crop increases the length of
stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop
(A) Ethylene
(B) Abscisic acid
(C) Cytokinin
(D) Gibberellin

21. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at

(A) Nucellus
(B) Chalaza
(C) Hilum
(D) Micropyle
22. The process of growth is maximum during
(A) Senescence
(B) Dormancy
(C) Log phase
(D) Lag phase

23. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are

exemplified by
(A) Aschelminthes
(B) Annelida
(C) Ctenophora
(D) Platyhelminthes

24. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic

sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
(A) Effluents of primary treatment
(B) Activated sludge
(C) Primary sludge
(D) Floating debris
25. Match the following columns and select the correct
option.
Column I Column-II
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
second & seventh ribs
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the Humerus
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect with the
sternum
(A) (a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv); (d) - (i)
(B) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
(C) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii)
(D) (a) - (i); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iv)

26. Identify the wrong statement with regard to

Restriction Enzymes.
(A) They are useful in genetic engineering
(B) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases
(C) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the
length of a DNA sequence
(D) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites

27. Match the following columns and select the correct

option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (i) Asterias
(b) Adult with radial symmetry & (ii) Scorpion
larva with bilateral symmetry
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(A) (a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)
(B) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)
(C) (a) - (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iv)
(D) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)

28. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for

few days because:
(A) The head holds a small proportion of a nervous
system while the rest is situated along the vetral part of
its body
(B) The head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while
the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body
(C) The supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach
are situated in ventral part of abdomen
(D) The cockroach does not have nervous system

29. Which of the following regions of the globe is

exhibits highest species diversity?
(A) Himalayas
(B) Amazon forests
(C) Western Ghats of India
(D) Madagascar

30. Which is the important site of formation of

glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?
(A) Golgi bodies
(B) Polysomes
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Peroxisomes

31. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular

algae?
(A) Anaboena and Volvox
(B) Chlorella and Spirulina
(C) Laminaria and Sargossum
(D) Galidium ad Graciloria

32. Which one of the following is the most abundant

protein in the animals?
(A) Lectin
(B) Insulin
(C) Haemoglobin
(D) Collagen

33. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs

during:
(A) Diplotene
(B) Leptotene
(C) Pachytene
(D) Zygotene

34. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did

Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in
one character with contrasting traits?
(A) 14
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 2

35. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of micevilli

is found in:
(A) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(B) Eustachian tube
(C) Lining of intestine
(D) Ducts of salivary glanda

36. Match the following with respect to meiosis:

(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
Select the correct option from the following:
(A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(B) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)
(C) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(D) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
37. Which of the following statements about inclusion
bodies is no correct?
(A) They lie free in the cytoplasm
(B) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm
(C) They are not bound by any membrane
(D) These are involved in ingestion of food particles

38. Which of the following would help in prevention of

diuresis?
(A) Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
(B) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(C) More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of
ADH
(D) Reabsorption of Na+ and water and from renal
tubules due to aldosterone

39. The transverse section of a plant shows following

anatomical features:
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles
surrounded by bundle sheath
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground tissues
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent
(A) Dicotyledonous stem
(B) Dicotyledonous root
(C) Monocotyledonous stem
(D) Monocotyledonous root

40. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
(B) Adenine does not pair with thymine
(C) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
(D) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond

41. Match the following columns and select the correct

option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ii) Cellular
defence
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of
HIV infection
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
thuringiensis
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)

42. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:

(A) Industrial melanism
(B) Natural selection
(C) Adaptive radiation
(D) Convergent evolution

43. The oxygenation activity of RuBinco enzyme is

photorespiration leads to the formations of:
(A) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
(B) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-
C compound
(C) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
(D) 1 molecule of 3-C compound

44. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the

human body is:
(A) Female gametocytes
(B) Male gametocytes
(C) Trophozoites
(D) Sporozoites

45. Identify the incorrect statement.

(A) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylems and is
lighter in colour
(B) Due-to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc heart
wood is dark in colour
(C) Heart wood does not conduct water but given
mechanical support
(D) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and
minerals from root to leaf

46. Which of the following is correct about viroida?

(A) They have DNA with protein coat
(B) They have free DNA without protein coat
(C) They have RNA with protein coat
(D) They have free RNA without protein coat

47. Match the following diseases with the causative

organism and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Typhoid (i) Wucheria
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(C) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

48. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the

gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(A) When IA and IB are present together, they express
same type of sugar
(B) Allele ‘i’ does not produce my any sugar
(C) The gene (1) has three alleles
(D) A person will have only two of the three alleles

49. According to Robert May, the global species

diversity is about
(A) 50 million
(B) 7 million
(C) 1.5 million
(D) 20 million

50. Which of the following is not an attribute of a

population?
(A) Mortality
(B) Species interaction
(C) Sex ration
(D) Natality

51. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes

place by:
(A) Wind and water
(B) Insects and water
(C) Insects or wind
(D) Water currents only

52. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:

(A) Depolarisation of ventricles
(B) Repolarisation of ventricles
(C) Repolarisation of auricles
(D) Depolarisation of auricles
53. Select the correct match.
(A) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive trait,
chromosome-11
(B) Thalassemia - X linked
(C) Haemophilia - Y linked
(D) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant traint
54. The number of substrate level phosphorylations in
one turn of citric and cycle is:
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Zero
(D) One

55. Match the following:

(a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (i) Ricin
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(c) Cell wall material in fungi (iii) Chitin
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
Choose the correct option from the following:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

56. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)

of organisms which have evolved due to changes in
environment brought about by anthropogenic action?
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like
dogs
(A) (b) (c) and (d)
(B) Only (d)
(C) Only (a)
(D) (a) and (c)

57. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter
vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage
(G0). This process at the end of:
(A) S phase
(B) G2 phase
(C) M phase
(D) G1 phase

58. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine

and caffeine are produced by plants for their:
(A) Defence action
(B) Effect on reproduction
(C) Nutritive value
(D) Growth response

59. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is

completed:
(A) After zygote formation
(B) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
(C) Prior to ovulation
(D) At the time of copulation

60. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked
together by hydrogen bonds
(B) Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E-
Coli
(C) In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin
(D) The proinsulin has a extra peptide called C-
peptide-

61. Show- blindness in antarctic region is due to:

(A) High reflection of light from snow
(B) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays
(C) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
(D) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B
radiation

62. Strobili or cones are found in:

(A) Marchantia
(B) Equisetum
(C) Salvinia
(D) Pteris

63. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino

acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:
(A) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600oC
(B) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600oC
(C) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800oC
(D) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800oC
64. In relation to gross primary productivity and Net
primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the
following statements is correct?
(A) Gross primary productivity and Net primary
productivity are one and same.
(B) There is no relationship between Gross primary
productivity and Net primary productivity.
(C) Gross primary productivity is always less than Net
primary productivity.
(D) Gross primary productivity is always more than
Net primary productivity.

65. Match the trophic levels with their correct species

examples in grassland ecosystem.
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
Select the correct option:
(A) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(D) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

66. Select the correct statement.

(A) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
(B) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia
(C) Glucocorticoids stimulates gluconeogenesis
(D) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.

67. Select the correct events that occur during

inspiration.
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases
(d) Intrapulmonary pressure increases
(A) (a), (b) and (d)
(B) Only (d)
(C) (a) and (b)
(D) (c) and (d)

68. The roots that originate from the base of the stem
are:
(A) Prop roots
(B) Lateral roots
(C) Fibrous roots
(D) Primary roots

69. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from:

(A) Chondrocytes
(B) Compound epithelial cells
(C) Squamous epithelial cells
(D) Columnar epithelial cells

70. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control

of:
(A) Release of Green House gases
(B) Disposal of e-wastes
(C) Transport of Genetically modified organisms from
one country to another
(D) Emission of ozone depleting substances

71. Which of the following statement are true for the

phylum-Chordata?
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail
and it is present throughout their life.
(b) In Vertebrates notochord is present during the
embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is doral and hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata,
Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
(A) (a) and (b)
(B) (b) and (c)
(C) (d) and (c)
(D) (c) and (a)

72. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and

peptide bond, respectively in their structure:
(A) Cellulose, lecithin
(B) Inulin, insulin
(C) Chitin, cholesterol
(D) Glycerol, trypsin

73. Match the following columns and select the correct

option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Placenta (a) Androgens
(b) Zona pellucida (b) Human Chorionic
 Gonadotropin (HCG)
(c) Bulbourethral (c) Layer of the ovum
Glands
(d) Leydig cells (d) Lubrication of the
penis
(A) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(C) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(D) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

74. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs

is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pair os a DNA
double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 X 109
bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately
(A) 2.2 meters
(B) 2.7 meters
(C) 2.0 meters
(D) 2.5 meters

75. The ovary is half inferior in:

(A) Sunflower
(B) Plum
(C) Brinjal
(D) Mustard
76. Identify the correct statement with regard to G1
phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(A) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not
replicate its DNA
(B) Nuclear Division takes place.
(C) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(D) Reorganization of all cell components takes place.

77. Which of the following hormone levels will cause

release of ovum (ovulation) from the graafian follicle?
(A) Low concentration of LH
(B) Low concentration of FSH
(C) High concentration of Estrogen
(D) High concentration of progesterone

78. Identify the correct statements with reference to

human digestive system
(A) ILeum is a highly coiled part
(B) Vermiform appendix arise from duodenum.
(C) ILeum opens into small intestine.
(D) Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary
canal
79. Match the following columns and select the correct
option.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Eosinophils (a) Immune response
(b) basophils (b) Phagocytosis
(c) neutrophils (c) Release histaminase,
destructive enzymes
(d) Lymphocytes (d) Release granules
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(D) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

80. The plant parts which consist of two generations

one within the other:
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(A) (c) and (d)
(B) (a) and (d)
(C) (a) only
(D) (a), (b) and (c)

81. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the

introduction toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (bt) is
resistant to:
(A) Plant nematodes
(B) Insect predators
(C) Insect pest
(D) Fungal diseases

82. The first phase of translation is:

(A) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(B) Recognition of an anti-codon
(C) Binding of mRNA to ribaotine
(D) Recognition of DNA molecules

83. Embryological support for solution was

disapproved by
(A) Charles Darwin
(B) Oparin
(C) Karl Ernst von Baer
(D) Alfred wallace

84. Match the following columns and select the correct

option.
Column -I Column-II
(a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits (i) Trygon
(b) Heterocercal caudal fin (ii) Cyclostomes
(c) Air bladder (iii) chondrichthyes
(d) Poison sting (iv) osteichthyes
(A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(B) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

85. Match the following columns and select the correct

option
Column -I Column-II
(a) Clostridium butylicum (i) Cyclosporin-A
(b) Trichoderma polysporum (ii) Butyric acid
(c) Monascus purpureus (iii) Citric Acid
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
 lowering agent.
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(B) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

86. Which of the following is not and inhibitory

substance governing seed dormancy?
(A) Phenolic acid
(B) Para-ascorbic acid
(C) Gibberellic acid
(D) Abscisic acid

87. Match the following columns and select the

correct option.
Column -I Column-II
(a) Organ of corti (i) Connects middle
ear and pharynx
(b) Cochles (ii) Coiled part of the

labyrinth
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval
 window stapes (iv) Located on the basilar
membrane
(A) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(D) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

88. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of:

(A) Caseinogen into casein
(B) Pepsinogen into pepsin
(C) Protein into polypeptides
(D) Trypsinogen into trypsin

89. Presence of which of the following conditions in

urine are indicative of diabetes mellitus?
(A) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(B) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(C) Uremia and ketonuria
(D) Uremia and Renal Calculi
90. The process responsible for facilitating loss of
water in liquid form the tip of grass blades at night and
in early morning is:
(A) Imbibition
(B) Plasmolysis
(C) Transpiration
(D) Root pressure
 NEET 2020 PAPER DISCUSSION
13th September’ 2020
CODE: F1

PHYSICS

91. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 16 × 10-

9
Cm. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point
at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole,
situated on a line making an angle of 600 with the
 1 9 2 2
 = 9 × 10 NM / C 
dipole axis is :  4πε 0 
A. 400 v
B. Zero
C. 50 v
D. 200 v

Solution:
p= 16 × 10−9 C − m
1 Pcord 9 × 104 × 16 × 10−4 cos 60
=V =
( )
2
4π P r 2 0.6
16 × 9 1
= × × 100
= 200V
36 2

92. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage

source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase
difference between current and voltage Is π/3. If
 instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase
difference is again π/3 between current and voltage.
The power factor of the circuit is
A. 1.0
B. -1.0
C. Zero
D. 0.5

Solution:
Xc
tan
= 60o = ; X L XC
12
X
tan 60o = L
2

93. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency W

incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the
photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and
intensity is doubled ?
A. one – fourth
B. zero
C. doubled
D. four times

Solution:
Theoretical

94. Dimensions of stress are :

 ML0T −2 
A.
  ML−1T 2 
B.
 MLT −2 
C.
 ML2T −2 
D.

Solution:
 MLT −2 
stress =
= 
 ML T 
−1 −2

 L 
2

95. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential

difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of
the electron is 1.227 x 10-2 nm, the potential difference
is :
A. 103v
B. 104v
C. 10v
D. 102v
Solution:
12.27 o
λD = A
v
−31
m= p 9.1 × 10
−212.27 × 10−10
9
0.1227 × 10 × 10 =
V
12.27
=V = 100
0.1227
V = 1054 V
96. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as
medium is 6 𝜇𝜇F. With the introduction of a dielectric
medium, the capacitance becomes 30 𝜇𝜇F. The
permittivity of the medium is : (ε0 = 8.85 x 10-12 C2 N-1
m-2)
A. 0.44 × 10-10 C2 N-1 m-2
B. 5.00 C2 N-1 m-2
C. 0.44 × 10-13 C2 N-1 m-2
D. 1.77 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2

Solution:
C = C0 K
30 = 6 K
K=5

97. The solids which have the negative temperature

coefficient of resistance are :
A. Semiconductors only
B. Insulators and semiconductors
C. Metals
D. Insulators only

Solution:
ε m = t0 .k
5 × 0.05 × 10−12
=
= 44.25 × 10−12
= 0.44 × 10−10
98. For transistor action, which of the following statements
is correct?
A. Both emitter junction as well as the collector
junction are forward biased.
B. The base region must be very thin and lightly
doped.
C. Base, emitter and collector regions should have
same doping concentrations
D. Base, emitter and collector regions should have
same size
Solution:
Semiconductor.

99. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there

are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
The pitch of the screw guage is
A. 0.5mm
B. 1.0mm
C. 0.01mm
D. 0.25mm

100. The phase difference between displacement and

acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion
is :
A. π/2 rad
B. zero
C. π rad
D. 3π/2 rad
 Solution:
Pitch
α .C =
µ0 of d
Pitch
0.01
= = 0.5m
s0

101. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns

carries a current 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre
of the solenoid is (μ0 = 4π x 10-7 T m A-1)
A. 6.28 × 10-5 T
B. 3.14 × 10-5 T
C. 6.28 × 10-4 T
D. 3.14 × 10-4 T

Solution:
B = µ0 m
100
= 4π 10−7 × 2.5
5.0
= 4π × 5 × 10−5
=20 × 3.14 × 10−5
= 6.28 × 10−4

102. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity

of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground
after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of
the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2)
A. 320m
 B. 300m
C. 360m
D. 340m
Solution:
2
v= u 2 − 2 gh
ω 400
64= = 29h
6000 = 20h
h = 300m

103. The color code of a resistance is given below :

The values of resistances and tolerance, respectively are

A. 4.7 kΩ, 5%
B. 470 Ω, 5%
C. 470 kΩ, 5%
D. 47 kΩ, 10%

104. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be:

A. 450 < ib < 900
B. ib = 900
C. 00 < ib < 300
D. 300 < ib < 450
 Solution:
µ = tan θ1
1 < µ < 90o
45o < θ < 90o

105. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one

surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A)
and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the
refractive index of the material of the prism is μ, then
the angle of incidence is nearly equal to
A. µA
B. µA/2
C. A/2 µ
D. 2A/ µ

Solution:
sin1o
µ=
sin A
i = µA
 106. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a
magnetising field of 1200 Am-1. The permeability of
the material of the rod is : (𝜇𝜇0 = 4𝜋𝜋 x 10-7 Tm A-1)
A. 2.4𝜋𝜋 × 10-5 Tm A-1
B. 2.4𝜋𝜋 × 10-7 Tm A-1
C. 2.4𝜋𝜋 × 10-4 Tm A-1
D. 8.0 × 10-5 Tm A-1

Solution:
µ r = (1 + x ) = 599 + 1 = 600
µ = µ0 µ r
=4π × 10−7 × 600
= 24π × 10−5
= 2.4 × 10−4 TmA−1

107. Find the torque about the origin when a force of

acts on a particle whose position vector is
A. ˆ
−6iNm
B. 
6kNm
C. ˆ
6iNm
D. 6 jNm

Solution:
 
F = 3 j

r = 2k
  
τ= r×F
= 2k × 3 j
= 6  k × j 
 
= −6 j

108.The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas

is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute
temperature)
5
k BT
A. 2
7
k BT
B. 2
1
k BT
C. 2
3
k BT
D. 2
Solution :

f
U = nRT
2
f N
= RT
2 NA
T
f  R 
= N 
2  NA 
f
U = Nk BT
2
Where N → No. of atoms
NA → Avogadro Number
U → Total thermal energy
T → Temperature
R → Gas constant
KB → Boltzmann constant
Average energy = U/N
f
= k BT
∴ Average thermal energy 2
For mono-atomic gas f = 3
3
U avg = k BT
2
109. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose
objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
A. 7.32 × 10-7 rad
B. 6.00 × 10-7 rad
C. 3.66 × 10-7 rad
D. 1.83 × 10-7 rad

Solution:
Limit of Resolution of Telescope :
1.22 × Wavelenght
=
diameter of Telescope
122 × 600 × 10−9 ( m )
=
2( m)
= 3.66 × 10−7

110. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a

non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface
area 20 cm2. The energy received by the surface during
time span of 1 minute is :
A. 24 × 103 J
B. 48 × 103 J
C. 10 × 103 J
D. 12 × 103 J

Solutions :
Intensity or average flux 20 W/cm2
 Energy
Intensity=
Area × Time
w Energy
20 2 =
cm 20cm 2 × 60sec
Energy=24000J
= 24 × 103 J

111.The ratio of contributions made by the electric field

and magnetic field components to the intensity of an
electromagnetic wave is : (c = speed of electromagnetic
waves)
A. 1:c
B. 1:c2
C. c:1
D. 1:1
Solution:
 E0
E0 CB0 →
=
B0 = C
E0 → Amplitude electric field
C → Speed of light
B → Amplitude of magnetic field
E.M. wave consists of electric and magnetic field.
Intensity x Energy Average energy density due to
electric field
dU 1
|avg = ε 0 E0 2
au 2
Average energy density due to magnetic field
dU 1 B0 2
|avg =
au 2 µ0
1
µ 0ε 0 =
c2
1
ε 0 Eo 2
=2
1 B0
2 µ0
E0 2 1
= µε 0 = 2
=2
1:1
s B0 c
112.Which of the following graph represents the variation
of resistivity (𝜌𝜌) with temperature (T) for copper ?

A.

B.

C.
D.

Solution :

Reference : N.C.E.R.T
Fact base

113.The quantities of heat required to raise the

temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii r1 and r2
(r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the ratio
A. 3/2
B. 5/3
C. 27/8
D. 9/4

Solution:
General formula for heat required in order to raise the
temperature of an object mass m by ∆T is
Where s is specific heat
Given are to solid sphere of radius r1 and r2

Both spheres are made up of same material, so their

density and specific heat capacities will be same
4 3
m1 = p  π r1 
Mass of sphere -1 i.e 3 
4 
m1 = p  π r23 
Mass of sphere -2 i.e 3 
Both spheres are raised by same
temperature = ∆T
So Heat required Q1 for sphere -1 is
Q1 = m1 s∆T
So Heat required Q2 for sphere -2 is
Q2 = m2s∆T
 4 
ρ  π e13 
Q m s∆T m1 3
∴ 1 = 1 = =  
Q2 m2 ∆T m2 4 3
ρ  π r2 
3 
3 2
 r1   3  27
= =  = 
r
 2  2  8

114.A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre

bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a
point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If
the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length
of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is :
A. 1.5 × 10-1 m
B. 1.5 × 10-2 m
C. 1.0 × 10-2 m
D. 1.0 × 10-1 m

Solution:
115.Given length of unknown resistance = 1.5 m
We have to find length of unknown resistance when its
resistance will be 1m.
Let us assume the resistance of meter bridge there to be
R since Rα l
So the resistance of wire AB will be = 3R/5
Resistance of wire BC = 2R/ 5
Principle of wheatstone Bridge

y 10
=
3R 2 R
5 5
10 × 3
y= = 15Ω
2
So when the resistance of unknown wire is 15 Ω its
length resistance = 1.5 m
 So when the resistance of unknown wire is 1 Ω then its
1.5
× 1Ω
length will be 15 Ω
1
= Ω
10
or 10-1 m
116.The increase in the width of the depletion region in
a p-n junction diode is due to :
A. Both forward bias and reverse bias
B. Increase in forward current
C. Forward bias only
D. Reverse bias only

Solution:
117.A 40 𝜇𝜇F capacitor is connected to a 200V, 50 Hz ac
supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is,
nearly :
A. 2.5A
B. 25.1A
C. 1.7A
D. 2.05A

Solution:
ω = 2π f
θ = 2π ( 50 )
= 100π rad
1 1 1
Capacitive Reactive ← X c = = ×
ω c 40 × 10−6 100π
 1
Ω
4 × 100 × π
−3

Vrms 200
I= =
rms
Xc 1
4 × 10−3 π
= 200 × 4 × 10−3 π
= 0.8 × π
I rms = 2.51 Ampere

118.Taking into account of the significant figures, what is

the value of 9.99m - 0.009 m ?
A. 9.980m
B. 9.9m
C. 9.901m
D. 9.98m

Solution:
9.99
−0.0099
9.9801
 In case of addition or subtraction final answer should be
according to the value that constant least number places

after decimal So final answer is 9.98

119.A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 x

10-4 ms-1 in an electric field of 3 x 10-10 Vm-1, has a
mobility in m2 V-1 s-1 of :
A. 2.5 × 10-6
B. 2.25 × 10-15
C. 2.25 × 1015
D. 2.5 × 106

Solutions:
V= µε 7.5 × 10−4 m / s =
V → drift velocity
?= µ → Mobility
ε → Electric field
3 × 10−10V / m −1 =
7.5 × 10 = µ × 3 × 10−10
−4

7.5 × 10−4 7.5

µ= = × 10 6
= 2.5 × 10 6

3 × 10−10 3

120.In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same

material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of
frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased,
the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of
A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:
A. 536 Hz
B. 537 Hz
C. 523 Hz
D. 524 Hz

Solution:
1 T
f =
L µ
fα T
6 Hz
f1 − f 2 =
530 − f 2 =
6
f 2 = 54 Hz
Tension in T is decreased So its frequency will decrease,
So that is why the no beats will increase so from here we
can say f1 > f2

121.Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are

attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with
negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from
the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of :
A. 67 cm
B. 80 cm
C. 33 cm
D. 50 cm

Solutions:
5 ( 0 ) + (10 )(1)
x=
10 + 5
10
= = 0.6666m
15
= 67cm

122.A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 16 ×

10-9 Cm. The electric potential due to the dipole at a point
at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole,
situated on a line making an angle of 600 with the dipole
 1 9 2 2
 = 9 × 10 NM / C 
axis is :  4πε 0 
A. 400 v
B. Zero
C. 50 v
D. 200 v

Solution:
 16 × 10−9 C − m
p=
1 Pcord 9 × 104 × 16 × 10−4 cos 60
=V =
( )
2
4π P r 2 0.6
16 × 9 1
= × × 100
= 200V
36 2

123.A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage

source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase
difference between current and voltage Is π/3. If instead C
is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again
π/3 between current and voltage. The power factor of the
circuit is
A. 1.0
B. -1.0
C. Zero
D. 0.5

Solution:
Xc
tan
= 60o = ; X L XC
12
o XL
tan 60 =
2

124.Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency

W incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the
photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and
intensity is doubled ?
A. one – fourth
B. zero
C. doubled
D. four times

Solution:
Theoretical

Dimensions of stress are :

 ML0T −2 
A.
 ML−1T 2 
B.
 MLT −2 
C.
 ML2T −2 
D.

Solution:
 MLT −2 
stress =
= 
 ML T 
−1 −2

 L 
2

125.An electron is accelerated from rest through a

potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie
wavelength of the electron is 1.227 x 10-2 nm, the
potential difference is :
A. 103v
B. 104v
C. 10v
D. 102v
 Solution:
12.27 o
λD = A
v
−31
m=p 9.1 × 10
−2 12.27 × 10−10
9
0.1227 × 10 × 10 =
V
12.27
=V = 100
0.1227
V = 1054 V

126.The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air

as medium is 6 𝜇𝜇F. With the introduction of a dielectric
medium, the capacitance becomes 30 𝜇𝜇F. The permittivity
of the medium is : (ε0 = 8.85 x 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2)
A. 0.44 × 10-10 C2 N-1 m-2
B. 5.00 C2 N-1 m-2
C. 0.44 × 10-13 C2 N-1 m-2
D. 1.77 × 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2

Solution:
C = C0 K
30 = 6 K
K=5

127.The solids which have the negative temperature

coefficient of resistance are :
A. Semiconductors only
 B. Insulators and semiconductors
C. Metals
D. Insulators only

Solution:
ε m = t0 .k
5 × 0.05 × 10−12
=
= 44.25 × 10−12
= 0.44 × 10−10

128.For transistor action, which of the following

statements is correct?
A. Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction
are forward biased.
B. The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
C. Base, emitter and collector regions should have same
doping concentrations
D. Base, emitter and collector regions should have same
size

Solution:
Semiconductor.

129.A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there

are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
The pitch of the screw guage is
A. 0.5mm
B. 1.0mm
A. 0.01mm
B. 0.25mm

130.The phase difference between displacement and

acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is :
A. π/2 rad
B. zero
C. π rad
D. 3π/2 rad

Solution:
Pitch
α .C =
µ0 of d
Pitch
0.01 = 0.5m
=
s0

131.A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns

carries a current 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of
the solenoid is (μ0 = 4π x 10-7 T m A-1)
A. 6.28 × 10-5 T
B. 3.14 × 10-5 T
C. 6.28 × 10-4 T
D. 3.14 × 10-4 T

Solution:
 B = µ0 m
100
= 4π 10−7 × 2.5
5.0
= 4π × 5 × 10−5
=20 × 3.14 × 10−5
= 6.28 × 10−4

132.A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity

of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after
some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the
tower is : (g = 10 m/s2)
A. 320m
B. 300m
C. 360m
D. 340m
Solution:
2
v= u 2 − 2 gh
ω 400
64= = 29h
6000 = 20h
h = 300m

133.The color code of a resistance is given below :

The values of resistances and tolerance, respectively are

A. 4.7 kΩ, 5%
B. 470 Ω, 5%
C. 470 kΩ, 5%
D. 47 kΩ, 10%

134.The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be:

A. 450 < ib < 900
B. ib = 900
C. 00 < ib < 300
D. 300 < ib < 450
Solution:
µ = tan θ1
1 < µ < 90o
45o < θ < 90o

135.A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one

surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A)
and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the
refractive index of the material of the prism is μ, then the
angle of incidence is nearly equal to

A. µA
B. µA/2
C. A/2 µ
D. 2A/ µ

Solution:
 sin1o
µ=
sin A
i = µA
 NEET 2020 PAPER DISCUSSION
13th September’ 2020
CODE: F1

CHEMISTRY

136. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in

presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
A. Cross Cannizzaro's reaction
B. Cross Aldol condensation
C. Aldol condensation
D. Cannizzaro's reaction

Solutions:
NaOH
C6 H 5CHO + CH 3COC6 H 5 
− H 2O
→
O
||
C6 H 5 − CH= CH − C − C6 H 5
Benzyl acetophenone

137. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining

which property of colloidal solution?
A. Stability of the colloidal particles
B. Size of the colloidal particles
C. Viscosity
D. Solubility
 Solutions:
Stability of colloidal particles.
The colloids with high zeta potential are electrically
stable and with low tends to coagulate

138. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than the

secondary butyl carbocation because of which one of
the following
A. -R effect of -CH3 group
B. Hyperconjugation
C. -I effect of -CH3 groups
D. +R effect of -CH3 groups

Solutions:
Tertiary carbocations are stable due to +I effect &
hyper conjugation

139. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas

under adiabatic condition is
 A. q < 0, △T = 0 and w = 0
B. q > 0, △T > 0 and w > 0
C. q = 0, △T = 0 and w = 0
D. q = 0, △T < 0 and w > 0

Solutions:
● Free expansion, W =0
● Adiabatic process, q = 0
● ΔU = q + w = 0
● Therefore ΔT = 0

140. Match the following.

Oxide Nature
(a) CO (i) Basic
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
Which one of the following is correct?
A. (a) (iii); (b) (iv); c (i); d (ii)
B. (a) (iv); (b) (iii); c (ii); d (i)
C. (a) (i); (b) (ii); c (iii); d (iv)
D. (a) (ii); (b) (i); c (iv); d (iii)

Solutions:
Oxide Nature
(a) CO (i) Neutral
 (b) BaO (ii) Basic
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Amphoteric
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Acidic

141. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium

chloride followed by hydrolysis will give
A. Tert. butyl alcohol
B. Isobutyl alcohol
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Sec. butyl alcohol

Solutions:

3o butyl alcohol

142. The following metal ion activates many enzymes

participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP
and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of
nerve signals
 A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Iron
D. Copper

Solutions:
● The Potassium ions that are abundant within the cell
fluids can activate many enzymes
● They participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce
ATP and along with Sodium ions , they are responsible
for the transmission of nerve signals.

143. Which of the following is a basic amino acid?

A. Tyrosine
B. Lysine
C. Serine
D. Alanine

Solutions:
144. Identify compound X in the following aqueous of
reaction:

A.

B.

C.

D.
 Solutions:

145. Which of the following is the correct order of

increasing field strength of ligand to form coordination
compound?
A. F− < SCN− < C2O42− < CN−
B. CN− < C2O42− < SCN− < F−
C. SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−
D. SCN− < F− < CN−< C2O42−

Solutions:
Weak Field
I − < Br < S 2 < SCN − < CI − <
NO3− < F − < C2O42− < H 2O < NCS − <
CH 3CN < NH 3 < en < bipy < phen <
NO2 − < PPh3 < CN −CO Strong Field

146. Which of the following is cationic detergent?

A. Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
 B. Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
C. Sodium lauryl sulphate
D. Sodium stearate

Solutions:
● Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide(CTAB) is
Cationic type of detergent in which the active part of
the molecule is a positive ion (cation).
● In cationic detergents, cationic part contains long
chain of hydrocarbon and has a positive charge on N
atom

147. Which one of the followings has maximum number

of atoms
A. 1g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
B. 1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
C. 1g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
D. 1g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]

Solutions:
 No.of atoms = 6.023 × 1023 × 1 g
Atomic mass
Lower is atomic mass, more is number of atoms

148. Match the following.

Name IUPAC Official name
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
Which one of the following is correct?
A. (c) (iii)
B. (d) (iv)
C. (a) (i)
D. (b) (ii)

Solutions:
(a) Unnilunium ⇒ 101 ⇒ Md
(b) Unniltrium ⇒ 103 ⇒ Lr
(c) Unnilhexium ⇒ 106 ⇒ Sg
(d) Unununnium ⇒ 111 ⇒ Rg

149. Which of the following amine will give the

carbylamine test?
A.

B.

C.

D.
 Solutions:

150. Paper chromatography is an example of

A. Thin layer chromatography
B. Column chromatography
C. Adsorption chromatography
D. Partition chromatography

Solutions:
Paper chromatography is a type of partition
chromatography

151. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains

7g of N2 and 8g of Ar. If the total pressure of the
 mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial
pressure of N2 is:
A. 15 bar
B. 18 bar
C. 9 bar
D. 12 bar

Solutions:
Mass of N2 = 7g
7 1
= =
moles of N2 = 28 4
Mass of Ar = 8g
8 1
=
moles of Ar = 40 5
moles of N 2
=
mole fraction of N2 total moles
⇒ pN = XN ptot.
= 5/9 ⨉ 27 = 15 bar

152. The number of protons. Neutrons and electrons Lu.

respectively, are:
A. 71, 71 and 104
B. 175, 104 and 71
 C. 71, 104 and 71
D. 104, 71 and 71

Solutions:
175
71Lu
Z = 71
A = 175
No. of protons = 71
No. of electrons = 71
No. of neutrons = 175 - 71
= 104

153. The rate constant for a first order reaction 4.606 ⨉

10-3 8-1. The time required to reduce 2.0g of the reactant
to 0.2g is:
A. 500s
B. 1000s
C. 100s
D. 200s

Solution:
 Kt = 2.303log
[ A0 ]
[ At ]
2.303 2
t= log
4.606 × 10−3 0.2
( As
= k 4.606 × 10−3 )
t = 500sec.

154. Identify a molecule which does not exist.

A. C2
B. O2
C. He2
D. Li2

Solutions:
He 2 →  
No of e −  
in BMO = No . of e −  
in ABMO
( 2) ( 2)

155. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following

reaction
Sucrose + H2O ⇌ Glucose + Fructose
If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 ⨉ 1013 300 K, teh
vale of ΔrG0 at the same temperature will be:
A. 8.314 J mol-1 K-1 × 300 K × ln(3n × 1013)
B. -8.314 J mol-1 K-1 × 300 K × ln (4 × 1013)
 C. -8.314 J mol-1 K-1 × 300 K × ln (2 × 1013)
D. 8.314 J mol-1 K-1 × 300 K × ln (2 × 1013)

Solutions:
As ΔG0 = - RT ln Kc
ΔG0 = - 8.314 ⨉ 300 ln (2 ⨉ 1013)

156. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) ➝ Cl2(g), the correct option

is:
A. 0 ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0
B. ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS < 0
C. ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS > 0
D. ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS <

Solutions:
2Cl (g) ➝ Cl2(g)
As bond formation is accompanied by release of energy
∴ ΔH = -ve.
Also, no. of particles dec. so
ΔS = -ve

157. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH

given that the solubility product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 ⨉ 1015
A. 1 ⨉ 10-13M
B. 1 ⨉ 108 M
 C. 2 ⨉ 10-13 M
D. 2 ⨉ 10-8 M

Solutions:
Ni(OH)2
Let solubility be s
Ni(OH)2 ⇌ Ni2+ + 2OH-
s 2S + 0.1
Ksp = [Ni2+] [OH-]2
⇒ 2 ⨉ 10-15 = S (2s + 0.1)2
2 × 10−15
⇒s=
( ) [2s + 0.1 ≈ 0.1]
2
0.1

s = 2 ⨉ 10-13M

158. on electrolysis of dil. Sulphuric acid using platinum

(Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be:
A. H2S gas
B. SO2 gas
C. Hydrogen gas
D. Oxygen gas

Solutions:
 On electrolysis of dil. H2SO4 using it electrolysis,
At cathode we obtain H2g
At anode we obtain O2g
Cathode:
2H+ (....) + 2 e- ➝ H2(g)
Anode:
4(OH-) ➝ 2H2O + O2(g) + 4e-

159. Which of the following is not correct about carbon

monoxide?
A. The carboxyhemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to
CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
B. It is produced due to incomplete combustion.
C. It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
D. It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood

Solutions:
Carboxyhemoglobin is more stable complex because
CO is stronger ligand than O2

160. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce 20g

of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca =
40 g mol-1) is:
 A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2

Solutions:
As, m = Zq
⇒ 20 g = mass of Ca deposited
Ca2+ + 2e- ➝ Ca
40g Ca deposited by 2F change
20g Ca deposited by 1F change

161. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form

pent-2-ene is:
(a) β-Elimination reaction
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(c) Dehydration reaction
(d) Dehydration reaction
A. (b), (c), (d)
B. (a), (b), (d)
C. (a), (b), (c)
D. (a), (c), (d)
 Solutions:
a) 𝛃𝛃-Elimination reaction

b) Zaitsev rule: Double bond “C” has more

substitution.
c) removal of both H and Br - “De” “Hydro”
“Halogenation”

162. What is change in oxidation number of carbon in the

following reaction?
CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) ➝ CCl4(1) + 4HCl(g)
A. -4 to +4
B. 0 to -4
C. +4 to +4
D. 0 to + 4

Solutions:
ln CH4 the or. st. of C = -4 and in CCl4 or. st. of C = +4
163. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in
good good yield by wurtz reaction
A. n-Heptane
B. n-Butane
C. n-Hexane
D. 2,3-dimethylbutane

Solutions:
Wurtz Reaction is limited to the synthesis of
symmetrical alkanes.

164. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:

A. 𝛼𝛼-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
B. 𝛼𝛼-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
C. β-D-Glucose + 𝛼𝛼-D-Fructose
D. 𝛼𝛼-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose

Solutions:
165. Identify the incorrect statement.
A. Interstitial compounds are those that are formed
when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the
crystal lattices of metals.
B. The oxidation states of chromium in CrO42- and
Cr2O72- are not teh same
C. Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
Fe2+(d6) in water.
D. The transition metals and their compounds are
known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to
adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes

Solutions:
CrO42- Cr2O72-
x = 8 = -2 2x - 14 = -2
x=+6 2x = 12
x=+6

166. CHl was passed through a solution of CaCl2 and

NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
crystallise(s)?
A. Only MgCl2
B. NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
C. Both CgCl2 and CaCl2
D. Only NaCl
 Solutions:
H 2O
Crude CaCl 
filter
→ solution
↓ CHI gas
NaCl ↓
CaCl2 and mgCl2 due to solubility remain in solution

167. Identify the correct statements from the following:

(a) CO2(M) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and
frozen food
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six carbon
rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols
into gasoline.
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
A. (b) and (c) only
B. (c) and (d) only
C. (a), (b) and (c) only
D. (a) and (c) only

Solutions:
ZSM-5 is a zeolite which converts alcohol directly into
gasoline(petrol)
Carbon dioxide, CO2, is a colorless, odorless, and
tasteless gas.
168. An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a
reaction leads to change in:
A. Threshold energy
B. Collision frequency
C. Activation energy
D. Heat of reaction

Solutions:
As No. of particles increase, No. of collisions increase

169. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+

ion is:
A. 5.92 BM
B. 2.84 BM
C. 3.87 BM
D. 4.90 BM

Solutions:
Cr = 3d5 4s1
Cr+2 = 3d4
u= n ( n + 2 )= 4 ( 4 + 2 )= 24= 4.90 BM

170. Match the following and identify the correct option.

(a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i)Mg(HCO3)2+

 Ca(HCO3)2
(b)Temporary hardness of water
(ii) An electron deficient hydride
(c)B2H6 (iii)Synthesis gas
(d)H2O2 (iv)Non-planar structure

A. (a)(iii); (b)(iv); (c)(ii); (d)(i)

B. (a)(i); (b)(iii); (c)(ii); (d)(iv)
C. (a)(iii); (b)(i); (c)(ii); (d)(iv)
D. (a)(iii); (b)(ii); (c)(i); (d)(iv);

Solutions:
Co + H2 ⟶ Syn gas
Temporaty hardness ⇒ sue to bicarbonates of mg+2 and
a+2
B2H6 ⟶ e- defficient
H2O2 ⟶ Half open book ⇒ Non-planar

171. The mixture which shows positive deviation from

Raoult’s law is:
A. Acetone + Chloroform
B. Chloroethane + Bromoethane
C. Ethanol + Acetone
 D. Benzene + Toluene

Solutions:
● A mixture of ethanol and acetone shows positive
deviation from Raoult's Law.
● Introduction of acetone between the molecules of
ethanol results in breaking of some of these hydrogen
bonds
Due to weakening of interactions, the solution shows
positive deviation from Raoult's law

172. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives

A. C6H5OH + C2H5I

B. C6H5I + C2H5OH

C. C6H5OH + CH3I
 D. C6H5I + CH3OH

Solutions:

173. Urea reacts with water to form A which will

decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+
(aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the
formula of C from the following?
A. Cu(OH)2
B. CuCO3. Cu(OH)2
C. CuSO4
D. [Cu(NH3)4]2+

Solutions:
 O
||
NH 2 – C – N H 2 + H 2O → ( N H 4 ) 2 CO3 ( A )
↓

O
NH 3  
+ CO 2  
+ H 2O
( B)
Cu2 + NH3 (a) ⟶ [Cu(NH3)4]+2(or) deep-blue.

174. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) af

benzene is 5.12 K kg mol-1. The freezing points
depression for the solution of molality 0.087 n
containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places):
A. 0.40K
B. 0.60K
C. 0.20K
D. 0.80K

Solutions:
∆Tf = Kf m
Kf of benzene = 5.12 kg mol-1
molality, m of solution = 0.078 m
∆Tf = 5.12 × 0.078 K
= 0.399 K ≈ 0.40 K

175. which of the following oxoacid of solphur has - O - O

- linkage?
 A. H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
B. H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
C. H2SO3, sulphurous acid
D. H2SO4, sulphuric acid
Solutions:

176. Identify the correct statement from the following:

A. Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel
by Van Arkel method.
B. Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
C. Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
D. Blister copper has blistered appearance due to
evolution of CO2.
Solutions:
Option 1: Mond’s process is carried for Ni
Option 3: Purest form of iron
Option 4: Due to So2 bubbies.

177. Which of the following is a natural polymer?

A. Polybutadiene
B. Poly (Butadiene - acrylonitrile)
 C. Cis - 1, 4 - polyisoprene
D. Poly (butadiene - styrene)
Solutions:

Natural polymers are always cis isomers

178. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure

with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic radius is:
4
× 283 pm
A. 3
4
× 288 pm
B. 2
3
× 288 pm
C. 4
2
× 288 pm
D. 4
Solutions:
In bcc unit cell,
A = 288 pm
 3a = 4r
3 3
⇒ r= s= × 288 pm
4 4

179. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the

product. Its structure is:

A.

B.

C.

D.
Solutions:
180. Which of the following set of molecules will have
zero dipole moment?
A. Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1, 3-
dichlorobenzene
B. Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon
dioxide, 1, 4-dichlorobenzene
C. Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1, 4-
dichlorobenzene
D. Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide,
1, 3-dichlorobenzene
Solutions: