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SPSC 2018 Paper Type A

This document contains a 40 question quiz on various topics in dentistry. The questions cover subjects like oral pathology, dental radiography, endodontics, prosthodontics, oral surgery, periodontology and more. For each question, there are typically 4 answer choices listed from A to D. The questions are multiple choice in format and test knowledge of dental topics, conditions, procedures, anatomical structures and more.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
278 views8 pages

SPSC 2018 Paper Type A

This document contains a 40 question quiz on various topics in dentistry. The questions cover subjects like oral pathology, dental radiography, endodontics, prosthodontics, oral surgery, periodontology and more. For each question, there are typically 4 answer choices listed from A to D. The questions are multiple choice in format and test knowledge of dental topics, conditions, procedures, anatomical structures and more.

Uploaded by

Meena
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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SPSC 2018 Paper Type A

Q1-Patient presents with lateral subconjunctival hemrrhage. Infraorbital step and diplopia on right
side with inability to open mouth , he can be having;

A. Fracture subcondylar right side


B. Fracture zygoma right side
C. Fracture Le Fort II right side
D. Fracture of floor of the orbit

Q2-Following a lower molar extraction a patient develops transient bell's palsy. This may be due to
penetration by the local aesthesia in to ;

A. Maxillary artery
B. Buccinator muscles
C. Temporalis muscles
D. Parotid gland

Q3-Antibiotic prophylaxis is required for;

A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Bronchial Asthma
C. Angina pectoris
D. Valvular heart disease

Q4-Local anesthetics are excreted mainly by;

A. Lungs
B. Fecal route
C. Kidneys
D. Uterus

Q5-The lower dentures are unstable in mouth due to;

A. Low denture bearing area


B. Muscle attachments
C. Tongue movements
D. Lack of proper extension of denture flange

Q6-A young 12-years old patients presents with reddish overgrowth of tissue protruding from
carious;

A. Pulp polyp
B. Pulpal hyperemia
C. Vericosis of pulp
D. Pulpal smear layer
Q7-If child's teeth do not form, this would primarily affect the growth of ;

A. Maxilla
B. Alveolar bone
C. Whole face
D. Mandible

Q8-Single sitting root canal treatment can be done on a tooth which is ;

A. Asymptomatic vital tooth


B. Single rooted
C. Multirooted
D. None vital

Q9-First evidence of calcification of deciduous incisors is at;

A. 2 months
B. Between 1-2 months
C. 30 weeks in utero
D. 14 weeks in utero

Q10-Malberry molars are characteristics features of ;

A. Severe fluorosis
B. Trauma at the time of birth
C. Congenital syphills
D. Due to chronic suppurative abscess in overlying gingival tissue

Q11-A 65-years old lady with ill fitting dentures and very poor oral hygiene under treatment for
Addison's diseases has generalized inflamed mucosa with some white patches. The blood tests are
normal. It is suggestive of ;

A. Lichen planus
B. Leukoplakia
C. Candidiasis
D. Oral submucous fibrosis

Q12-When simultaneous extraction have to be carried out in one maxillary segment the order of
extraction should be ;

A. Incisors, canine, premolars, molars


B. 3rd molar, 2nd molar, 2nd premolar, 1st molar, 1st premolar, incisrs, canine
C. Molars, premolars, canine, incisors
D. Molars, premolars, incisors, canine
Q13-If bone is not contacted before injecting local anesthesia in inferior alveolar nerve block, there
are chances of;

A. Lingual Nerve anesthesia


B. Transient facial palsy
C. Transient maxillary anesthesia
D. None of these

Q14-The primary reason why conventional porcelain alone is not used as a crown and bridge
restorative material is its;

A. Microleakage
B. Lack of strength
C. Complicated fabrication technique
D. Extreme hardness

Q15-Generally, path of insertion of posterior crown should be;

A. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth


B. Perpendicular to the occlusal surface of the tooth
C. Parallel to the long axis of the adjacent teeth
D. Perpendicular to the occlusal plane of the arch

Q16-Which of the following is most likely to occur from excessive improper brushing of teeth?

A. Attrition
B. Abrasion
C. Erosion
D. Exfoliation
E. None of these

Q17-The treatment of choice for a fractured mandibular central incisor involving the distoincisal
angle but not the pulp, in a 13 year old patient is;

A. A lingual dovetail inlay


B. A porcelain fused to metal crown
C. A pinledge restoration
D. Acid etched resin restoration

Q18-On clinical examination in 60-years old female had a tumor in left buccal mucosa, the size of
tumor was about 1.5 to 2cm in diameter. There was no involvement of regional lymph nodes and also
had no distant metastasis. TNM stage of tumor is;

A. T1,N0,M0
B. T1,N1,M0
C. T1,N2,M0
D. T2,N0,M0
E. T2,N1,M0
Q19-In a 48-years old patient the treatment of dentigerous cyst impacted molar lying near lower
border of mandible would be;

A. Enucleation with primary closure and IMF


B. Marsuplisation with extraction of molar
C. Marsuplisation with IMF
D. Enucleation with secondary closure
E. Enucleation with primary closure

Q20-The most common emergency seen after the use of local anesthetics for extraction of right lower
third molar is;

A. Syncope
B. Trismus
C. A toxic reaction
D. An allergic reaction
E. An anaphylactic reaction

Q21-Mandibular molar was extracted because of advanced dental caries. A month later, an indurated
swelling arise externally adjacent to be extracted site. Several draining sinuses appeared
spontaneously and draining pus. The most probable diagnosis is;

A. Syphilis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Actinomycosis
D. Histoplasmosis
E. Streptococcal infection

Q22-The longevity of the following dental restorations is highest in the mouth;

A. Composites
B. Compomers
C. Cermet
D. Amalgam
E. GIC

Q23-To distinguish between mesiolingual and mesiobuccal canal of mandibular 1st molar when going
for working length radiograph . Which projection of x'ray is needed;

A. Mesial angulation cone shift x-ray


B. Distal angulation cone shift x-ray
C. Simple parallel technique radiograph
D. Bisecting angle technique works well here

Q24-If the canal orifices are identified as being calcified , the best way to manage is ;

A. An ultrasonically energized tip can be used to loosen calcified debris at orifices after lubrication with
Naocl
B. Naocl or EDTA solution can be used as soak in chamber for 10 minutes
C. Small K file or path finder file can be used to provide penetration into orifices
D. Small orifices shaper can be used for tapered orifices penetration
E. G.G burs will not be beneficial as they have not cutting tip
Q25-Common cause of cervical area external root resorption of the tooth is ;

A. Infection develops in the pulp space


B. Infection develops around the root canal (damaging cementum)
C. Following avulsion injuries
D. Bleaching of non-vital teeth
E. Non vital teeth

Q26-Clinically periodontal pocket & their depth is diagnosed by;

A. Present of pacs at gingival sulcus


B. Tooth mobility
C. Sub gingival collelus
D. Bleeding on probing
E. Probing of the gingival margin

Q27-The salivary antibacterial substances which is an effective agglutinin and also inhabits the
adherence and thus prevent colonization of bacteria is ;

A. Lactoperoxidase
B. Lactoferin
C. Lysozyme
D. Lactoferitin
E. IgA

Q28-The treatment of arch length tooth length discrepancy includes ;

A. Derotation of molars require more space


B. Derotation of anterior does not require any space
C. Anterior tooth derotation provide space
D. Posterior tooth derotation cause TMJ problem
E. Derotation of posterior provide space

Q29-Which condition show some more clinical correlations with periodontitis. As compared to others;

A. Stroke
B. Low birth weight babies
C. Respiratory disease
D. Prenicious anaemia
E. Cardiovascular disease

Q30-Which of the following infection is the cause for multiple sites of osteomyelitis of the jaw;

A. Peritonsillar abscess
B. Local trauma
C. Haematogenous infection
D. Buccal space infection
Q31-The complication of using air rotor at 30,000 rpm for impacted molar is;

A. Necrosis of bone
B. Dehiscence
C. Tissue laceration
D. Emphysema

Q32-Zygomatic arch fractures are best seen in;

A. Submentovertex view
B. Occipitomental view
C. Lateral view of skull
D. Posterio-anterior view of skull

Q33-The insertion of a tooth in its socket after its complete avulsion is ;

A. Transplantation
B. Implantation
C. Replantation
D. Recapitulation

Q34-Which of the following skin lesions have accompanying oral manifestations;

A. Lichen planus
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Erythema multiforme
D. All of these

Q35-A patient with a history of radiation therapy requires special consideration because ;

A. The vascularity of bone may be disrupted


B. Salivary function may be increased
C. Plaque accumulation greater than normal can be expected
D. The potential for periodntal disease is greatly increased

Q36-The anatomical landmarks used to establish the general location of posterior border of the
posterior palatal seal include ;

A. Pterygomaxillary notches & fovea palatine


B. Pterygomaxillary notches & posterior nasal spine
C. Posterior border of tuberosity & the posterior border of palatine bone
D. Anterior border of tuberoosity , palatine raphe & the posterior border of palatine bone

Q37-The maxillary labial frenum which is attached at the incisive papilla is likely to be responsible
for;

A. An abnormally high degree of tooth mobility


B. Problems in speech
C. Presence of a diastema between the central incisors
D. Difficulty in swallowing fluids
Q38-The most common cause of impacted teeth is ;

A. Lack of space due to crowding


B. Rotation of the tooth buds
C. Premature loss of deciduous teeth
D. Ankylosis of the developing tooth germ

Q39-Prophylactic antibiotics are administered prior to oral surgical procedures, in patients with
rheumatic heart disease to prevent;

A. Subacute bacterial endocarditis


B. Recurrence of rheumatic fever
C. Excessive post surgical bleeding
D. Secondary infection from inhibiting wound healing

Q40-Which of the following is incorrect when applying the forceps to the tooth for extraction?

A. The direction of the beaks should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth
B. The forceps should be grasped firmly
C. The lingual beak should be placed first,then the buccal
D. The beaks should be placed on the crown and above the cementoenamel junction

Q41-Servile is opposite of ;

A. Puerile
B. Futile
C. Haughty
D. Foul

Q42-Capital of Jordan is ;

A. Muscat
B. Amman
C. Riyadh
D. Manama

Q43-Which of the following is most elastic ?

A. Steel
B. Rubber
C. Glass
D. Sponge
E. None of these
Q44-The imaginary line of zero degree longitude which passes through Greenwich is called ;

A. Meridian
B. Equator
C. Tropic of cancer
D. Tropic of Capricorn

Q45-Penguin is in the classification of ;

A. Bird
B. Mammal
C. Reptile
D. Fish

Q46-The book "war and peace" is written by

A. Earnest Hemingway
B. Charles Dickens
C. Leo Tolstoy
D. Walter scott

Q47-Tides are highest ;

A. When earth is nearest to sun


B. When earth is nearest to moon
C. When sun, moon and earth are in same line
D. None of these

Q48-The term butterfly is associated with ;

A. Kabaddi
B. Swimming
C. Boxing
D. Wrestling

Q49-Which is the oldest known science ?

A. Physiology
B. Astronomy
C. Archeology
D. Anatomy

Q50-Choose the appropriate modal verbs to complete the sentence ; A new report suggests that a
vaccine that offers at least partial protection against HIV_____available in the near future ;

A. Had to be
B. Could be
C. Used to be
D. Might have been

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