Haramaya University

Haramaya Institute of Technology

Department of Mechanical Engineering

Mock Examination for BSc Degree in Mechanical Engineering

Time Allowed: 3 hrs.

General Instruction

Please write your details(name & ID ) on the answer sheet space

provided;
Make sure the total number of questions are 121;
Read the questions carefully, choose your correct answer from the
given alternatives, and shade the correct answer on the separately
attached answer sheet form;
Cheating or any attempt of copying from others during the exam is
strictly prohibited;
Using a mobile phone is strictly forbidden;
Using an unnecessary piece of paper or any form of written thing on
different body parts lead to disqualification from the exam; and
At the end of the exam, the question paper will be returned along with
the answer sheet.

Prepared by
Department of Mechanical Engineering
March 17, 2023
1. Which of the following is not a property of engineering materials?
A. Mechanical properties C. Polymorphism
B. Chemical properties D. Electrical properties

2. Which one is CORRECT about the crystal structure of aluminum

A. Body-Centered Cubic C. Hexagonally closed Pack
B. Body-Centered Tetragonal D. Face-Centered Cubic

3. The temperature (in oC) of the eutectoid reaction in the iron-carbon phase diagram is?
A. 1120 C. 910
B. 725 D. 820
4. What is the slip plane for an FCC crystal?
A. 110 C. 112
B. 111 D. 123

5. Which of the following is not the failure process in metals?

A. Spectroscopy C. Creep
B. Fatigue D. Fracture

6. In the continuous growth process, the driving force for solidification ΔG is given as
A. ΔG= L(ΔTi/Tm) C. ΔG= ΔTi/(Tm*L)
B. ΔG= L(Tm/ΔTi) D. ΔG= Tm/(L*ΔTi)

7. The equation related to the net rate of solidification is given as

A. R = K*ΔTi C. R = K*Tm
B. R = K*ΔTi/Tm D. R = K*(Tm/ΔTi)

8. What are the impurities added to the steel

A. Silicon C. Sulphur
B. Manganese D. Silicon, Manganese, Sulphur

9. How much is the carbon content (%) in hard steel?

A. 0.5-0.8 C. 0.3-0.5
B. 0.8-1.5 D. 0.15-0.3

10. Thermoplastic materials are those materials which

A. Do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and no chemical
change occurs.
B. Are formed into shape under heat and pressure and result in a permanently hard
product.
C. Are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable conditions.
D. Are used as a friction lining for clutches and brakes

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11. Normalizing of steel is done to
A. Refine the grain structure
B. Remove strain caused by cold working
C. Remove dislocations caused in the internal structure due to hot working
D. All of the above

12. A uniformly tapered circular rod of diameter D1 and D2 is subjected to an axial load P
and the total extension of the circular rod is given by
A. C.

B. D.

13. A cantilever beam of length 4m carries a uniformly distributed load of intensity 2kN/m
over the whole length and the bending moment at the fixed end is
A. -4kNm C. 4 kNm
B. 16 kNm D. -16 kNm

14. The bending moment is maximum at a section when the shearing force is
A. Minimum C. zero
B. Positive D. Maximum

15. A simply supported timber beam of width 100mm, height 160mm, and length 5m carries
a uniformly distributed load of intensity 16kN/m. The maximum bending stress in the
beam is
A. 146 MPa C. 234.38 MPa
B. 117.19 MPa D. 187.5 MPa

16. A solid circular shaft of diameter 60mm transmits 300kW power at 200rpm. The
maximum shear stress induced by the shaft is
A. 300.21 MN/m2 C. 600.42 MN/m2
B. 675.47 MN/m2 D. 337.74 MN/m2

17. A solid shaft of a diameter of 0.2m is used to transmit torque. If the maximum shear
stress is 40kN/m2 the maximum torque be
A. 31.4 Nm C. 62.83 Nm
B. 15.7 Nm D. 20 Nm
18. A cantilever beam of length 2m is carrying a point load of 15kN at the free end. If the
moment of inertia of the beam is equal to 107 mm4 and the value of E is 2*105N/mm2 the
deflection at the free end be
A. 20 mm C. 30 mm
B. 60 mm D. 40 mm

19. The tensile stresses at a point across two mutually perpendicular planes are 120N/mm2
and 80N/mm2. The tangential stress on the inclined plane at 30° to the axis of the minor
axis be
A. 86.6 N/mm2 C. 34.64 N/mm2
B. 17.32 N/mm2 D. 50 N/mm2

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20. Find the neutral axis location of a curved beam with a rectangular cross-section of width
20mm and depth 25mm. The beam is curved in a plane parallel to the depth and the mean
radius of curvature is 40mm, taking the h2 value 150mm2.
A. 3.48 mm C. 9.96 mm
B. -9.96 mm D. -3.48 mm
21. The maximum shear stress at any point in a thin cylinder, subjected to internal fluid
pressure is given as
A. C.

B. D.
22. When a body is strained up to an elastic limit a maximum strain energy is stored in the
body, this maximum energy is called
A. Resilience C. Proof resilience
B. Modulus of resilience D. Total strain energy

23. A tensile load of 60kN is suddenly applied to a circular bar of diameter 0.05m and 4m
long. The strain energy stored in the bar is (Take E = 1.5*105 MN/m2)
A. 24.45 Nm C. 23.56 Nm
B. 94.25 Nm D. 48.89 Nm

24. What is the factor of safety?

A. The ratio of stress to strain
B. The ratio of permissible stress to the ultimate stress
C. The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress
D. The ratio of longitudinal strain to stress

25. A fixed-end beam carrying an inclined point load at the center is statically indeterminate
to
A. 6th degree C. 3rd degree
B. 2nd degree D. 4th degree
26. The necessary condition for the flow to be uniform is that
A. The velocity is constant at a point with respect to time
B. The velocity is constant in the flow field with respect to space
C. The velocity changes at a point with respect to time
D. The velocity changes in the flow field with respect to space.

27. The increase in temperature

A. Increase the viscosity of fluids
B. Decreases the viscosity of fluids
C. Increase the viscosity of liquids and decreases the viscosity of gases
D. Decreases the viscosity of liquids and increases the viscosity of gases

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28. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
A. Centre of gravity C. Centre of buoyancy
B. Centre of pressure D. Metacenter
29. The ratio of the specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of pure water at a
standard temperature is called
A. Density of liquid
B. The specific gravity of the liquid
C. The Compressibility of liquid
D. The surface tension of the liquid
30. Euler's equation in the differential form for the motion of liquids is given by
A. + 𝑔. 𝑑𝑧 + 𝑣. 𝑑𝑣 = 0

B. − 𝑔. 𝑑𝑧 + 𝑣. 𝑑𝑣 = 0
C. 𝜌. 𝑑𝑝 + 𝑔. 𝑑𝑧 + 𝑣. 𝑑𝑣 = 0
D. 𝜌. 𝑑𝑝 − 𝑔. 𝑑𝑧 + 𝑣. 𝑑𝑣 = 0
31. When a liquid is flowing through a pipe, the velocity of the liquid is
A. Maximum at the center and minimum near the walls
B. Minimum at the center and maximum near the walls
C. Zero at the center and maximum near the walls
D. Maximum at the center and zero near the walls

32. A person prefers to sit near a fire during the cold winter months. Which of the following
heat transfer gives him the most heat?
A. Convection and radiation together
B. Radiation will provide quick warmth
C. If it is near the fire, convection sounds good
D. Conduction from the fire
33. A heating unit is made in the form of a vertical tube of 50 mm outside diameter and 1.2
m height. The tube is fitted with 20 steel fins of rectangular section with a height of 40
mm and thickness of 2.5 mm. The temperature at the base of the fin is 75 degree Celsius,
the surrounding air temperature is 20 degree Celsius and the heat transfer coefficient
between the fin, as well as the tube surface and the surrounding air, is 9.5 W/m 2 K. If the
thermal conductivity of the fin material is 55 W/mK, find the amount of heat transferred
from the tube without fin
A. 118.44 W C. 8.44 W
B. 98.44 W D. 908.44 W
34. In which direction the heat transfer is believed to occur in a long, hollow cylinder that is
kept at consistent but varied temperatures on its inner and outer surfaces?
A. Axial and Radial C. No heat transfer takes place
B. Radial only D. Axial only

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35. Which of the following is a case for steady-state heat transfer
A. Electric bulb cools down by the surrounding atmosphere
B. The chilling effect of cold wind on a warm body
C. Boilers and turbines
D. Cooling of I.C engine
36. On a summer morning, Gadisa walks barefoot across his paved driveway with no
problem. However, later that afternoon he steps barefoot onto the same driveway and
must quickly run off because the bottoms of his feet feel like they are burning. Which of
the following best explains the above scenario?
A. As the temperature increased during the day, the particles in the pavement moved
slower and the thermal energy increased.
B. As the temperature increased during the day, the particles in the pavement moved
slower and the thermal energy decreased.
C. As the temperature increased during the day, the particles in the pavement moved
faster and the thermal energy increased.
D. As the temperature increased during the day, the particles in the pavement moved
faster and the thermal energy decreased.

37. Two balls of the same material and finish have their diameters in the ratio of 2:1 and both
are heated to the same temperature and allowed to cool by radiation. The rate of cooling
by the big ball as compared to a smaller one will be in the ratio of;
A. 1:1 C. 1:2
B. 2:1 D. 4:1

38. When the absolute humidity increases at atmospheric pressure, which one of the
following is TRUE?
A. Wet bulb temperature increases
B. Enthalpy decreases
C. Dry bulb temperature remains constant
D. Dew point temperature decreases

39. Which one of the following temperatures of atmospheric air at any point on the
psychometric chart can be determined by drawing a horizontal line from the point of the
saturation curve?
A. Dry bulb temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. Adiabatic saturation Temperature

40. Mr. Bekele plans to go on a vacation from Addis Ababa to Hawassa by driving his
automobile. Before he starts his journey, he wants to check the gauge pressure of the tires
to make sure a safe drive. However, the absolute pressure is 3.15𝑘𝑝, and the atmospheric
pressure is 0.97𝑘𝑝𝑎, as a result, what will be the gauge pressure?
A. 2.18𝑘𝑝𝑎 C. 3.055kpa
B. 4.12𝑘𝑝𝑎 D. 3.247kpa

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41. The pressure that is measured relative to absolute vacuum and is the actual pressure at a
given position is called
A. Gage Pressure C. Absolute Pressure
B. Vacuum Pressure D. Atmospheric Pressure

42. Let us consider three bodies A, B, and C, if bodies A and C, and B and C are in thermal
equilibrium with each other, therefore bodies A and B are also in thermal equilibrium.
The statement best suited for:
A. The first law of thermodynamics
B. Quasi-Equilibrium
C. Thermal Equilibrium
D. Zeroth’s law of thermodynamics

43. A system that consists of a fixed amount of mass and NO mass can cross its boundary
but energy can cross is called
A. Isolated System C. Closed System
B. Control Volume D. Open System

44. Which one of the following properties is NOT an extensive property?

A. Total momentum C. Total volume
B. Total mass D. Volume

45. The lower percentage of steam quality tolerated during the operation of power plants is
about up to?
A. 85 percentage C. 87 percentage
B. 90 percentage D. 95 percentage

46. Which one of the following terms is used as a parameter to compare the performance of
reciprocating engines of equal size?
A. Compression ratio C. Coefficient of performance
B. Thermal efficiency D. Mean effective pressure

47. Which of the following ideal cycles increases their thermal efficiency with the
compression and specific heat ratios?
A. Otto cycle C. Dual cycle
B. Diesel cycle D. Open cycle

48. Which one of the following cycles has equal efficiency to the Carnot cycle?
A. Ericsson cycle and Otto cycle
B. Otto cycle and Stirling cycle
C. Stirling cycle and Ericsson cycle
D. Brayton and Stirling cycle

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49. The use of a regenerator in a gas turbine engine is recommended only when?
A. The compressor exit temperature is higher than the turbine exhaust temperature
B. The turbine exhaust temperature is higher than the compressor exit temperature
C. The compressor inlet temperature is higher than the turbine inlet temperature
D. The turbine exhaust temperature is higher than the compressor inlet
temperature

50. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is

A. Higher in winter than in summer
B. Lower in winter than in summer
C. Same in winter and summer
D. Not dependent on the season

51. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of the water is higher than the dry bulb
temperature of the entering air, then the air is
A. Heated and dehumidified C. Cooled and humidified
B. Heated and humidified D. Cooled and dehumidified

52. The evaporator changes the low-pressure liquid refrigerant from the expansion valve into
A. High-pressure liquid refrigerant
B. Low-pressure liquid and vapor refrigerant
C. Low-pressure vapor refrigerant
D. None of these

53. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle has a C.O.P. of 5. It works as a
refrigerator taking 1 kW of work input. The refrigerating effect will be
A. 1 kW C. 3 kW
B. 2 kW D. 4 kW

54. Pickup wrong statement for Design cooling load assumptions of a building air
conditioning system.
A. Design outside conditions is selected from a long-term statistical database.
B. The load on the building due to solar radiation is estimated for cloud sky
conditions.
C. The building occupancy is assumed to be at full design capacity.
D. All building equipment and appliances are considered to be operating at a
reasonably representative capacity.

55. From Heat Gain listed below one is categorized under Latent heat gain (LHG) load for
air condition design.
A. The heat gain through the walls of ducts carries conditioned air through
unconditioned space in the building.
B. The heat gain from the fan work.
C. The heat gain due to moisture passing directly into the conditioned space
through permeable walls or partitions from the outside or adjoining regions
D. The heat gain from solar radiation.

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56. Identify the elements which are not part of the data acquisition system
A. Digital to analog converter C. Display
B. Filter D. Timer

57. Which one of the following is the input provided to Piezo- electric transducer?
A. Temperature C. Light
B. Pressure D. Resistance

58. Which one of the following is an active type of transducer

A. Thermocouple C. LDR
B. Photocell D. Potentiometer
59. The voltage of a circuit is measured by a voltmeter having an input impedance
comparable with the output impedance of the circuit thereby causing error in voltage
measurement. This error may be called
A. Gross error
B. Random error
C. Error caused by misuse of instrument
D. Error caused by loading effect

60. Which one of the following may not be a feature of data acquisition application software?
A. Manage the data stored in computer memory
B. Plot-acquired data
C. Report relevant information such as the number of samples acquired
D. Acquire data from the real world

61. Which one is INCORRECT about calibration?

A. Producing data agreeable for analysis
B. Comparison of an instrument with standard
C. Cleaning and adjusting of instrument
D. Comparing the output of an instrument against the output of a known
instrument

62. In which thermodynamic cycle, the petrol engine works

A. Otto cycle C. Rankine cycle
B. Joule cycle D. Stirling cycle

63. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased
by:
A. Decreasing the density of intake air
B. Increasing the temperature of intake air
C. Increasing the pressure of intake air
D. Decreasing the pressure of intake air

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64. A carburetor is used to supply
A. Petrol, air, and lubricating oil
B. Air and diesel
C. Petrol and lubricating oil
D. Petrol and air

65. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is

A. Minimum turbulence
B. Low compression ratio
C. High thermal efficiency and power output
D. Low volumetric efficiency

66. The function of a distributor in a coil ignition system of I.C. engines is

A. To distribute spark C. To distribute current
B. To distribute power D. To time the spark

67. In a four-stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the
A. Beginning of the suction C. Beginning of exhaust stroke
stroke D. End of the exhaust stroke
B. End of the suction stroke

68. The delay period in compression ignition engines depends upon

A. Temperature and pressure in the cylinder at the time of injection
B. Nature of the fuel mixture strength
C. The relative velocity between the fuel injection and air turbulence pressure of
residual gases
D. All of the above

69. Which of the following is not the cause of stress concentration?

A. Abrupt changes in cross-section
B. Discontinuity in the component
C. Machining scratches
D. Point load applied on the component

70. Which of the following theory of failure is mostly used for ductile materials?
A. Maximum principal stress theory
B. Maximum shear stress theory
C. Distortion energy theory
D. Haigh’s theory

71. Which type of failure in a riveted joint is impossible?

A. Crushing failure of the plate
B. Shear failure of rivet
C. Tensile failure of the plate between rivets
D. Shear failure of the plate

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72. The designation M33 x 2 of a bolt means
A. Metric threads of 33 threads in 2 cm
B. Metric threads with a cross-section of 33 mm
C. Metric threads of 33mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch
D. Bolt of 22mm nominal diameter having 2 threads per cm

73. Which is useful when the pulley or hub has to slide axially on the shaft to some distance?
A. Circular taper key C. Flat saddle key
B. Feather key D. Round key

74. Longitudinal stress in the pressure vessel is given by

A. Pd/2t C. Pd/4t
B. 2pd/t D. 4pd/t

75. Which of the following is not the function of a spring?

A. They are used for the measurement of force and to control motion
B. They are used to absorb shocks and vibrations
C. They are used to store energy
D. They are used to measure displacement

76. The maximum shear stress induced in a transmission shaft, subjected to bending stress
(σb) and torsional shear stress (τ), is given by,
A. √[(σb/2)2 + τ2] C. σb/2 + ½ √[(σb/2)2 + τ2]
B. √[σb2+ τ2] D. None of above

77. The module of gear is given by

A. d/t C. d/2t
B. 2d/t D. d/3t

78. Bevel gears transmit power between

A. Parallel shafts C. Skew shafts
B. Angular shafts D. None

79. Belt slip may occur due to

A. Heavy load C. Driving pulley is too small
B. Loose belt D. All of the above

80. Which of the following is true about the roller bearing in comparison with the ball
bearing?
A. Power lost in friction is more
B. Axial dimensions are less
C. Radial dimensions are more
D. They have a point contact

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81. When the intensity of pressure between the block and the brake drum is uniform, the
angle of contact between the block and the brake drum is less than
A. 30 C. 60
B. 45 D. 90

82. In disc clutch, the engine flywheel acts as a

A. Driving plate C. Pressure plate
B. Driven plate D. None of the above

83. In the air compressor performance curve, a surge line represents

A. Limit of compressor discharge
B. Limit of compressor efficiency
C. Limit of stable operation
D. Lower critical speed the of shaft

84. All of the following are positive displacement compressors EXCEPT

A. Vane blower C. Screw compressor
B. Roots blower D. Axial flow compressor

85. A hydraulic turbine develops 1000 kW power for a head of 40 m. If the head is reduced
to 20 m, the power developed (in kW) is:
A. 177 C. 707
B. 354 D. 500

86. The piping diameter for the Pump can be selected based on the following factors,
EXCEPT
A. The economy of the whole installation (pumps and system)
B. Maximum flow velocity to minimize erosion in piping and fittings
C. Plant standard pipe diameters.
D. None

87. From the following which statement IS CORRECT?

A. The composite curve is obtained by adding heads for a given flow rate when the
pumps operate in parallel
B. Where pumps operate in series, the composite is obtained by adding the flow
rate for a given head.
C. Proper pumping system design is the most important single element in
maximizing the life cycle cost.
D. In an axial flow pump, pressure is developed by the flow of liquid over the
airfoil section blades.

88. What will happen to the cross-sectional area of water from a runner in the reaction turbine
is discharged into the tail race through a draft tube?
A. Constant C. Gradually increasing
B. Gradually decreasing D. Uneven

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89. How does air velocity vary while passing through the impeller followed by a diffuser in
a centrifugal compressor?
A. Air velocity goes no increase in the impeller followed by the diffuser
B. Air velocity goes no decreasing in the impeller followed by the diffuser
C. Air velocity increases in the impeller and then decreases in a diffuser
D. Air velocity decreases in the impeller and then increases in a diffuser

90. Wheelbarrows are used for

A. Lifting and lowering
B. Vertical Transportation
C. A and B
D. None of the above

91. Match the following

Device Purpose
A. Overhead crane 1. Horizontal transportation
B. Pumps 2. Lifting and lowering
C. Chutes 3. Lifting and transportation

The CORRECT order is

A. A-2, B-1, C-3 C. A-3, B-2, C-1
B. A-1, B-2, C-3 D. A-2, B-3, C-1

92. Material handling consists of the movement of material from

A. One machine to another C. Stores to shop
B. One shop to another shop D. All of the above

93. Which of the following application is a belt conveyor used for?

A. Material Transportation over long distances
B. Material Transportation within the premises
C. Material Transportation for processing
D. All of the Mentioned

94. In case of overhead traveling, the hoisting unit is supported on

A. A Pillar C. A Tower
B. A Bridge D. Any of the above

95. Which is the most commonly used equipment for transportation?

A. Dump Trucks C. Trucks
B. Rollers D. Bulldozers

96. The following is used to transport materials having flat bottoms

A. Belt conveyor C. Chain conveyor
B. Roller conveyor D. None of the above

97. Which of the following cam follower is most applicable in automobile engines?
A. Spherical-faced follower C. flat-faced follower
B. knife edge follower D. roller follower

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98. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the cam follower mechanism?
A. It can be held together in contact by mechanical means
B. It can be held together in contact by the action of external force
C. The pairing of elements takes place at a point
D. All of the above

99. What type of motion could transmit between the teeth of gears in the mesh?
A. Neither sliding nor rolling C. Only sliding
B. Both sliding and rolling D. Only rolling

100. The mechanism forms a structure when the number of degrees of freedom (n) is equal
to
A. 1 C. -1
B. 2 D. 0

101. Consider four-bar linkage with the lengths of shortest, longest, and the other two links
are denoted by s, l, p, and q, then which result would satisfy Grashof’s condition?
A. l + p < s + q C. l + s < p + q
B. l + q < s + p D. l + p = s + q

102. Which of the following is an inversion of a single slider crank chain?

A. Beam engine
B. Watt’s indicator mechanism
C. Geneva Mechanism
D. Whitworth quick return motion mechanism

103. Which of the following IS AN EXAMPLE of turning pair?

A. The lead screw of a lathe with a nut
B. Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine
C. Shaft with collars at both ends fitted in a circular hole
D. Ball and socket joint

104. Crater wear occurs mainly on the

A. Nose part, front relief face, and side relief face of the cutting tool
B. The face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only
C. Cutting edge only
D. Front face only

105. A fixture is defined as a device which

A. Holds and locates a workpiece and guides and controls one or more cutting tools
B. Holds and locates a workpiece during an inspection or for a manufacturing
operation
C. Is used to check the accuracy of the workpiece
D. All of the above

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106. Which of the following statement is WRONG about ultra-sonic machining?
A. It is best suited for machining hard and brittle materials.
B. It cuts materials at very slow speeds.
C. It removes a large amount of material.
D. It produces a good surface finish.

107. In up-milling, the thickness of the chip is

A. Minimum at the beginning of the cut and maximum at the end of the cut.
B. Maximum at the beginning of the cut and minimum at the end of the cut.
C. Uniform throughout the cut.
D. None of these

108. Grinding wheels should be tested for balance

A. Only at the time of manufacture
B. Before starting the grinding operation
C. At the end of the grinding operation
D. Occasionally

109. Dielectric is used in

A. Electrochemical machining C. Electro-discharge
B. Ultra-sonic machining machining
D. Laser machining

110. Misrun is a casting defect that occurs due to

A. Very high pouring temperature of the metal
B. Insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
C. Absorption of gases by the liquid metal
D. Improper alignment of the mould flasks

111. In which type of welding a gas shield, a consumable electrode is used, and the welding
can be done in all positions?
A. ARC welding C. TIG welding
B. Submerged ARC welding D. MIG welding

112. Green sand mould indicates

A. Polymeric mould has been cured
B. Mould has been totally dried
C. The mould is green in colour
D. Mould contains moisture

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113. Match the processes (Column I) with the corresponding defects (Column II).
Column I Column II
(P) Extrusion (1) Earing
(Q) Deep drawing (2) Cold shut
(R) Forging (3) Edge cracking
(S) Rolling (4) Fir-tree cracking

From the above table, which one is in the CORRECT order?

A. P – 1, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 3 C. P – 4, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 3
B. P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3 D. P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3

114. The correct sequence of machining operations to be performed to finish a large diameter
through-hole is
A. Drilling, boring, reaming C. Drilling, reaming, boring
B. Boring, drilling, reaming D. Boring, reaming, drilling

115. In the linear arc welding process, the heat input per unit length is inversely proportional
to:
A. Welding current
B. Welding voltage
C. Welding speed
D. The duty cycle of the power source,

116. One is incorrect about Maintenance planning and scheduling.

A. Maintenance planning and scheduling are two similar functions that, when used
together, form a maintenance program.
B. Maintenance Planning and Scheduling focuses on the planning and scheduling
of routine, day-in, and day-out maintenance.
C. A planner writes instructions on completing a job, and even determines and
gathers the necessary parts and/or tools before a job is assigned.
D. Planners should not file on a system level but rather on an individual component
level.

117. The reliability of a system/product depends on many factors. So, one should concentrate
at the grass-roots level to improve the product’s reliability. Some of the ways of
improving systems reliability are:
A. Usage of better production equipment
B. Preventive maintenance is necessary at the appropriate time
C. A sufficient number of standby units
D. All of the above

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118. Installation of machinery is the process of assembling parts of equipment and mounting
or erecting the whole system of machines, apparatus, and accessories in its place and
setting up or arranging it for practical work as per the layout/drawing, etc. whereas,
Commissioning of machinery is the process of carrying out all necessary tests and
procedures required by industry standards to show that the plant can deliver the result for
the purpose for which it was installed. The proper installation and commissioning of
engineering equipment are critical in preventing later failure. One is WRONG about the
installation procedure of these systems:
A. Site accessibility, utility availability, installation consumables, and document
availability are some of the Pre-installation activities
B. Noticing risk assessments, Safety procedures, and other pertinent safety
standards, having the necessary permission to complete installation activities,
providing safe access and working arrangements, safely isolating services,
disposing of waste in a safe and environmentally responsible manner, and
leaving the work area in a safe condition.
C. A sufficient number of standby units
D. None

119. One is incorrect about maintenance instruction manuals.

A. The extent of documentation required for maintenance instruction will depend
on the complexity of the systems and components concerned and on the policy
of the Operating Organization.
B. It is a paradox to note that the maintenance department is complaining about the
non-availability of the spare parts to meet their requirement and the finance
department is facing the problem of increasing locked-up capital in spare parts
inventory
C. To secure uniformity and conformance with quality assurance requirements,
maintenance instruction preparation shall be in accordance with an
administrative procedure describing the method, format, and level of detail
required in the instructions.
D. A and C

120. The maintenance function of a modern industry faces several challenges attributable to:
A. The rapid growth of technology results in current technology becoming obsolete
and requirements of keeping both outdated and modern machines in service
B. Effective maintenance of the old equipment for higher availability
C. Development of indigenous sources for parts for import substitution.
D. All of the above

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121. In most cases, visual and instrumental inspection methods are used to identify problems
and assess the extent of the damage. Why is it a common practice to inspect machinery
and equipment regularly?
A. Spare parts are not that easily available in the market as they are not fast-moving
items
B. Ensure that equipment that needs attention at specific times gets it, ensure safe
and effective operation, assess whether repairs are feasible, and oversee the
standard of work
C. It may be hourly, daily, weekly, and monthly
D. Alignment, leveling, linear measuring, speed measuring, multimeter, continuity
tester, bleeding equipment, pressure testing, flow testing, diagnostic aids, PLC
equipment

END

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