TNPSC Ae / Overseer/Jdo / Ri / Surveyor / Draftsman TRB Polytechnic / Engg

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SPAARKZ ACADEMY
 TNPSC AE / OVERSEER/JDO /
RI / SURVEYOR / DRAFTSMAN
 TRB POLYTECHNIC / ENGG

CONTACT
9677711366 PREPARED BY ,
SPAARKZ ACADEMY
TNPSC JDO/OVERSEER

CIVIL ENGINEERING

STATE LEVEL MOST


PREDICTED MOCK TEST
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
 SUBJECT :CIVIL
 TOTAL QUESTIONS :200
 EACH QUESTION :1.5 MARKS
 MAXIMUM MARKS :300
 TIME DURATION :3 HOURS
SPAARKZ ACADEMY
OVERSEER/JDO EXAM
CIVIL ENGINEERING
STATE LEVEL PREDICTED MOCK TEST

SUB : FULL TOTAL QUESTIONS : 200


DURATION : 3hrs TOTAL MARKS :300

1.A layer of dry bricks put below the foundation course ,in the case of
soft soils, is called
a)soling
b)shoring
c)D.P.C

2.Cost of fittings and their fixing is specified for the following


sanitary fittings
A. Water closets
B. Flushing pipes
C. Lavatary basins
D. All the above.

3.Anti-siphonage pipe is connected to


A. Main soil pipe
B. Bottom of P trap W.C.
C. Top of P trap W.C.
D. Side of water closet

4.The correct Prismoidal formula for volume is


A. D [first area + last area + Ʃ Even area + 2 Ʃ odd areas]
B. D/3 [first area + last area + 4 Ʃ Even area + 2 Ʃ odd
areas]
C. D/3 [first area + last area + 2 Ʃ Even area + 4 Ʃ odd
areas]
D. D/6 [first area + last area + 2 ∑ Even area + 4 ∑ odd
areas]

5.Pick up the excavation where measurements are m.ade in


square meters for payment.
A. Ordinary cuttings up to 1 m
B. Surface dressing up to 15 cm depths
C. Surface excavation up to 30 cm depths
D. Both (B) and (C)

6.The floor area includes the area of the balcony up to


a) 100%
b) 75%
c) 50%
d)25%.

7.The most reliable estiamte is


A. Detailed estimate
B. Preliminary estimate
C. Plinth area estimate
D. Cube rate estimate

8.Which department looks after the execution and maintanence


of water supply and sanitary works?
a)public work department
b)social welfare department
c)public health department
d)none of the above

9.For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1 : 6 on 100 sq.m new


brick work, the quantity of cement required, is
A. 0.200 m3
B. 0.247 m3
C. 0.274 m3
D. 0.295 m3

10.The total length of a cranked bar through a


distance at 45° in case of a beam of effective length L, is
a) L + 0.42 d
b)L + 2 x 0.42 d
c) L - 0.42 d
d) L - 2 x 0.4 d.

11.The head of the circle of public works department is


a)assistant engineer
b) circle engineer
c)executive engineer
d) superintending engineer

12.The slope of the outlet of 'P trap' below the horizontal is


kept
A. 8°
B. 10°
C. 12°
D. 14°

13.The quantity for expansions joint in buildings is worked out


in
a)m3
b)m2
c)m
d)lump-sum

14.For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1 : 2: 4) 4 cm thick floor,


the quantity of cement required, is
A. 0.90 m³
B. 0.94 m³
C. 0.98 m³
D. 1.00 m³

15.The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed


estimate, is
A. Quantity of the materials
B. Availability of materials
C. Transportation of materials
D. All the above.

16.Minimum side lap required for asbestos cement sheet is


a)4cm
b)10cm
c)15cm
d)25cm

17.The measurement is not made in square metres in case of


A. D.P.C. (Damp proof course)
B. Form works
C. Concrete Jaffries
D. R.C. Chhajja

18.The inspection pit or chamber is a manhole provided in a


base drainage system
A. at every change of direction
B. at every change of gradient
C. at every 30 m intervals
D. All the above

19.When engineering departments undertake the works of


other department the amount charged towards design,
supervision and execution etc,is called
a)work changed establishment
b)contingencies
c)service charges
d)centage charges

20.In the analysis of rates, the profit for the contractor is


generally taken as
a)20%
b)15%
c)10%
d)5%

21.Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area


estimate
A. Wall thickness
B. Room area
C. Verandah area
D. Courtyard area.

22.Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known


as
A. Line organization
B. Line and staff organization
C. Functional organization
D. Effective organization

23.The process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or


replanning is called
A. Resource levelling
B. Resource smoothening
C. Updating
D. Critical path scheduling

24.The Overall in-charge of an organisation at the site


responsible for the execution of the works, is
A. Executive Engineer
B. Engineer
C. Junior Engineer
D. Sub overseer

25.Match the List I with List II


List I (Activity types) List II (Property of
activity)
a) Critical activity to be crashed first 1. It has float
to reduce project duration

b) Critical activity 2. It has least cost slope


c) Dummy activity 3. It maintains logic of
network
d) Subcritical 4. It has no float
a) A- 1 B-2 C-3 D-4
b) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
c) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1
d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2

26.While filling the tender for any work, the contractor


considers
A. site survey
B. availability of construction material
C. Availability of labour
d. all the above

27.The time by which a particular activity can be delayed


without affecting the preceding and succeeding activities is
known as
A. Total float
B. Free float
C. Interfering float
D. Independent float

28.Slack time refers to


A. An activity
B. An event
C. Both event and activity
D. None of the above
29.In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and
probability of their occurrence follow
A. Normal distribution curve
B. Poisson's distribution curve
C. Beta distribution curve
D. None of the above

30.Preliminary project report for a road project must contain


A. The detailed estimated cost based on detailed design
B. The several alternatives of the project that have been
considered
C. The soil survey, traffic survey, concept design and
approximate cost
D. The contract documents for inviting tenders

31.Match the List I with List II


List I (Description of activity floats) List II (Names of
the floats)
a) Earliest start time of its successor activity 1. Total
minus earliest finish time of the activity in
question minus the duration
b) Time available for an activity performance 2. Free
minus the duration of the activity
c) Excess of minimum available time over the 3. Interfering
required activity duration
d) Difference between total float and free float of 4. Independent
an activity
a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
b) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
c) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3

32.Mobilization advance up to 10% of the cost of work is given


to a contractor
a.On commencement of work at site for payment of loan taken
by him
b.For the purchase of construction materials
c.For the payment of advances to labour and other staff
d.For all activities required to start the work at site on
finalization of the contract document

33.The constraints in case of resource smoothening operation


would be
A. Resources
B. Project duration time
C. Both resources and project duration time
D. None of the above

34.Which one of the following represents an activity?


A. Excavation for foundation
B. Curing of concrete
C. Setting of question paper
D. All the above

35.Interfering float is the difference between


A. Total float and free float
B. Total float and independent float
C. Free float and independent float
D. None of the above

36.The main disadvantage of line organization, is


A. Rigid structure
B. Extraordinary delay in communications
C. Top level executions over work
D. All the above

37.For the supply of materials for concrete, form work


reinforcing and placing of concrete, removal of form work
and curing of concrete, number of bar(s) required on bar
chart, is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6

38.Time and progress chart of a construction, is also known as


A. Bar chart
B. Gantt chart
C. Modified Mile stone chart
D. All the above

39.For a given activity, the optimistic time, pessimistic time


and the most probable estimates are 5, 17 and 8 days
respectively, The expected time is
A. 8 days
B. 9 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days

40.In limit state design of concrete for flexure, the area of


stress block is taken as
a) 0.530 fck. Xu
b) 0.446 fck. Xu
c) 0.420 fck. Xu
d) 0.360 fck. Xu

41.The minimum grade of reinforced concrete is seawater as


per IS 456-2000 is
a) M 15
b) M 20
c) M 30
d)M 40

42.For a continuous slab of 3m × 3.5 m size, the minimum


overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical deflection limits is
a) 120 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 75 mm
d) 50 mm

43.Match the List I with List II


List I List II
A IS -875 1 Earthquake resistant design
B IS-1343 2 Loads
C IS-1893 3 Liquid storage structure
D IS-3370 4 Prestressed concrete

a)A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2


b) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
c) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
d) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3

44.Magnitude of minimum reinforcement recommended for


reinforced concrete using mild steel in slabs/ columns are
a) 0.15%/0.60%
b) 0.25%/0.80%
c) 0.50%/1.00%
d) 0.15%/0.80%

45.As per IS 456-2000, which one of the following correctly


expresses the modulus of elasticity of concrete? (read with the
relevant units)
a) Ec=0.7 √fck
b) Ec=500 √fck
c) Ec=5000 √fck
d) Ec=5700 √fck

46.The minimum head room over a stair must be


a) 200 cm
b) 205 cm
c) 210 cm
d) 200 cm

47.The cover of longitudinal reinforcing bar in a beam


subjected to sea spray should not be less than which one of the
following?
a. 50 mm
b. 70 mm
c. 75 mm
d. 80 mm

48.Which one of the following states falls under the ‘Limit state
of serviceability’ as per IS-456?
a) Stability under load
b) Loss of equilibrium of a structure
c) Floor vibration
d) d) Formation of mechanism

49.An R.C.C. lintel is spanning an opening of 2 m span in a


brick wall. The height of the roof is 2.9 m above the floor level
and that of the opening is 2.1 m above the floor level. The
lintel is to be designed for self weight plus
a) triangular load of the wall
b) UDLofwall
c) UDL of wall + load from the roof
d)triangular load + load from the roof.

50.Match List I with List II


List I(Beam List II (Design Provision)
Variable)
A. Flexure 1. Minimum depth of section
B. Shear 2. Longitudinal steel
reinforcement
C. Bond 3. Stirrups
D. Deflection 4. Anchorage in support

A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 2 3 4 1

51.The final & deflection due to all including effects of


temperature, creep and shrinkage measured from as—cast
level of the supports of floors, roofs and all other horizontal
members of reinforced concrete should not normally exceed
a. Span / 350
b. Span / 250
c. (Span / 350) or 20 mm whichever is less
d. (5/348) of span

52.Assertion (A) : In limit state design, over reinforced


sections are not permitted.
Reason (R) : As the Concrete failure is brittle, the structure
fails suddenly without any warning.

53.If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than


the depth of critical neutral axis, then the beam is called
a) balanced beam
b) under-reinforced beam
c) over-reinforced beam
d) none of the above

54.The bracing provided in the plane of end posts is called


a) sway bracing
b) portal bracing
c) top lateral bracing
d) bottom lateral bracing

55.Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by


using
a) vertical intermediate stiffener
b) end baring stiffer
c) load bearing stiffener
d) d) none of the above

56.The connection of one beam to another beam by means


of an angle at the bottom and an angle at the top, is known
as
a) unstiffened seated connection
b) stiffened seated connection
c) seated connection
d) none of these

57.Web crippling generally occurs at the pointwhere


a) bending moment is maximum
b) shearing force is minimum
c)concentrated loads act
d) all of the above

58.Stiffeners are used in a plate girder


a) to reduce the shear stress
b) to take the bearing stress
c) to avoid bulking of web plate.
d) all of the above

59.The overlap of batten plates with the main members in


welded connections should be more than
a) 3t
b) 4t
c) 6t
d) 8t
where t = thickness of the batten plate

60.The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be


avoided by
a) decreasing the web thickness
b) providing suitable stiffeners
c) increasing the length of the bearing plates
d) none of the above

61.Match List I with List II


List I (Type of member ) List II
(Slenderness
ratio)
A. For compression members carrying dead and 1. 350
superimposed loads
B. For members carrying compressive loads 2. 180
due to wind or seismic forces only
C. For members carrying tension but in which 3. 250
the reversal of stress occurs due to wind or
seismic forces
a. A-1 B-2 C-3 b. A-2 b-3 c-1
c. A-3 B-1 C-2 d. A-1 b-3 c-2

62.Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as


a) gross diameter of bolt
b) nominal diameter + 1.5 mm
c) nominal diameter + 2.0 mm
d) nominal diameter of bolt

63. As per IS;800 the maximum deflection in a beam should


not exceed
a) L / 180
B) L / 250
C) L / 325
D) L/ 360

64.the tilt displacement in an aerial photograph is radial from


a) plumb point
b) isocentre point
c) principle point
d) nadir point

65.If whole circle bearing of a line is 120°, its reduced bearing


is
a) S 20° E
b) S 60° E
c) N 120° E
d) N 60° E

66.The 'point of curve' of a simple circular curve, is


a) point of tangency
b) point of commencement
c) point of intersection
d) mid-point of the curve.

67.If the angle of intersection and radius of simple circular are


120o and 700 m respectively, then i) length of long chord is
700 m ii) length of curve is 700/2m
a) only (i) is correct
b) only (i) is correct
c) both (i) and (ii) are correct
d) none is correct
68.When total station is sighted to the target, which of the
operation acts first?
a) Rotation of optical axis
b) Rotation of vertical axis
c) Rotation of horizontal axis
Rotation of line of collimation

69.A ‘level line’ is a


a) horizontal line
b) line parallel to the mean spheroidal surface of earth
c) line passing through the centre of cross hair and the centre
of eye piece
d) line passing through the objective lens and the eyepiece of a
dumpy or tilting

70.If “Fore bearing” of a line is S 490 52’ E (assuming there is


no local attraction), the “Back bearing” of the line will be
a) S 520 49’ E
b) S 490 52’ E
c) N 490 08’ E
d) N 490 52’ W

71.The main principle of surveying is to work


a) from part to the whole
b) from whole to the part
c) from higher level to the lower level
d) from lower level to higher level.

72.If i is the stadia distance, f is the focal length and d is the


distance between the objective and vertical axis of the
techeometer, the multiplying constant, is
a) f/i
b) i/f
c) (f+d)
d) f/d

73.Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?


1. Telemeter Measurement of distance
2. Price Measurement of difference in elevation
meter between points
3. Sounding Measurement of
sextant horizontal angles
4. Clinometer Measurement of vertical angles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1,3 and 4
c) 1,2 and 4
d) 1,2 and 3

74.An invar tape is made of an alloy of


a) copper and steel
b) brass and nickel
c) brass and steel
d) nickel and steel

75.The angle of intersection of a contour and a ridge line, is


a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°.

76.The correction to be applied to each 30 metre chain length


along 6° slope, is
a)30 (secθ - 1) m
b) 30 (sin θ - 1) m
c) 30 (cos θ - 1) m
d) 30 (tanθ - 1) m

77.In an adjusted level, when the bubble is central, the axis of


the bubble tube becomes parallel to
a)axis of altitude level
b) line of collimation
c) axis of the telescope
d) None of these.

78.A well conditioned triangle has no angle less than


a) 20°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 60°.

79.In geodetic surveys higher accuracy is achieved, if


a) curvature of the earth surface is ignored
b) curvature of the earth surface is taken into account
c) angles between the curved lines are treated as plane angles
d) d) none of these.

80.The product of H+ ions OH- ions in a stronger alkali is


a) 0
b) 1
c) 10-1
d) 10-14

81.In which unit sound is measured?


a)Kilometer
b)Pascal
c)Kilogram
d) Decibel

82.Match List-I ( Parameters) with List II (Permissible


concentration in drinking water' and
List-I List II
A. Hardness 1. 0.1 mg/L
B. Nitrate concentration 2. 0.5 mg/L
C. Iron concentration 3. 200 mg/L
D. Fluoride concentration 4. 45 mg/L
a) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
c) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2

83.Efficiency of activated sludge process is


(a) 30 to 40 %
(b) 50 to 60%
(c) 60 to 98%
(d) 90 to 95%

84.Colour of fresh sewage is


(a) Green
(b) brown
(c) Pink
(d) grey

85.For fish habitat in a river, the minimum dissolved oxygen


required is
a) 2 mg/L
b) 4 mg/L
c) 8 mg/L
d) 10 mg/L

86.Aerosol is
a)air in solution in a liquid medium
b)finely dispersed liquid or solid in a gas
c)air saturated with a liquid droplets
d)air blended with grit

87.Pumping system is best suited when


(a) Fire accidents occur frequently
(B) Density of population is high and space available is
less
(c) Source of water is at low level
(D)Power failures are more common.
88.Which one of the following filters should be recommended
for protected rural water supply project?
a) pressure filter
b) slow sand filter
c) diatomaceous earth filter
d) rapid sand filter

89.BOD represents
(a) Pollutional strength of a waste
(b) Pollutional strength of an organic fraction of wastes
(c) Pollutional strength of inorganic fraction of wastes
(d) Pollutional strength of bio-degradable organic wastes.

90.Greater D.O. is undesirable in


(a) boilers
(b) aerobic treatment
(c) natural water bodies
(d) Anaerobic treatment

91.Match List-I with List


List I List II
A. Soil pipe 1. Ventilating
pipe
B. Intercepting 2. Wash basin
trap
C. P-trap 3. Water closet
waste
D. Cowl 4. House
drainage
a) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
b) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
c) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2

92.Water for domestic use should have


(a) Sweet smell
(b) faint smell
(c) Inoffensive smell
(d) no smell.

93.Zero hardness of water is achieved by


a) using lime soda process
b) excess lime treatment
c) ion exchange method
d) using excess alum dosage

94.Which of the following solid wastes describes the term


‘Municipal Solid Waste’?
(a) Toxic
(b) Hazardous
(c) Non-toxic
(d) Non-hazardous

95.The equation for steady state yield from a tubewell was first
developed by
(a)Darcy
(b)Dupuit
(c) Jacob
(d)Chow

96.Darcy's law for ground water motion states that


the velocity
(a) Is proportional to hydraulic gradient
(b) Is proportional to the square of hydraulic gradient
(c) Is inversely proportional to hydraulic gradient
(d) Is proportional to the logarithm of hydraulic gradient.

97.Infiltration capacity of the soil is defined as


(a) The depth of water absorbed by the soil during the storm
(b) The maximum rate at which the soil absorbs water
(c) The average rainfall intensity during the storm
(d) The rate at which the runoff is generated
98.According to Chezy’s formula, the discharge through an
open channel is
a) A√m xi
b) C√m xi
c) AC √m xi
d) mi √A xC

99.The loss of head due to viscosity for laminar flow in pipes is


a) 4uvl / wd^2
b) 8uvl / wd^2
c) 16uvl / wd^2
d) 32uvl / wd^2

100.Match List I (name of instrument) with List II


(variable measured)
List I List II
A Hot-wire 1 Boundary shear
anemometer stress
B Orifice meter 2 Discharge
C Pitot tube 3 Mean velocity
D Preston tube 4 Gas velocity
a) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
b) A-1 B-2 c-3 D-4
c) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
d) A-4 B-2 C-3

101.The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of diameter


(d) is
a) d/6
b)d/4
c) d/2
d) d

102.The hydraulic mean depth or the hydraulic radius is the


ratio of
a) area of flow and wetted perimeter
b) wetted perimeter ad diameter of pipe
c) velocity of flow and area of flow
d) d) none of these

103.The Cipolletti weir is a …….weir


a) rectangular
b) triangular
c) trapezoidal
d) circular

104.The discharge over a triangular notch


3/2
a) inversely proportional to H
3/2
b) directly proportional to H
5/2
c) inversely proportional to H
5/2
d) directly proportional to H

105.An average value of coefficient of velocity is


a)0.62
b)0.76
c)0.84
d)0.97

106.A pitot tube is used to measure the


a)velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe
b)pressure difference between two points in a pipe
c)total pressure of liquid flowing in a pipe
d)discharge through a pipe

107.Bernoulli’s equation is applied to


a)venturimeter
b)orificemeter
c)pitot tube
d)all of these

108.According to Bernoulli’s equation


a) Z + p/w + v^2 / 2g = constant
b) Z+ p / w – v^2 / 2g = constant
c) Z – p/ w + v^2 / 2g = constant
d) Z – p/w – v^2 / 2g = constant

109.According to equation of continuity


a)w1a1 = w2a2
b) w1v1 = w2v2
c) a1v1 = a2v2
d) a1/v1 = a2/v2

110.One cubic metre of water weighs


a)100litres
b)250 litres
c)500litres
d)1000litres

111.Match List-I with List-I I


List-I List-ll
A. sugar 1. Dilatant fluid
Concentrat
ed solution
B. Sewage 2. Bingham plastic fluid
sludge
C. Blood 3. Pseudo-plastic fluid
D. Air 4. Newtonian fluid
a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
b) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
c) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D

112.PERT analysis is based on


a) optimistic time
b) pessimistic time
c) Most likely time
d) all of these
113.The point at high the resultant pressure on an immersed
surface acts,is known as
a)centre of gravity
b)centre of depth
c)centre of pressure
d)centre of immersed surface

114.The absolute pressure is equal to


a)gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
b)gauge pressure-atmospheric pressure
c)atmospheric pressure-gauge pressure
d)gauge pressure +vacuum pressure

115.The atmospheric pressure at sea level is


a)103kN/m2
b)10.3m of water
c)740mm of mercury
d)all of these

116.The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge


is called
a)atmospheric pressure
b)gauge pressure
c)absolute pressure
d)mean pressure

117.The pressure intensity in kN/m2 (or kPa) at any point in a


liquid is
a)w
b)wh
c)w/h
d)h/w
where W=specific weight of liquid,and h=depth of liquid
from the surface

118.A glass tube of small diameter (d) is dipped in the


fluid.The height of rise or fall in the tube is given by a)4wd/σ
cosα
b) σ cosα /4wd
c)4 σ cosα/wd
d)wd/4 σ cosα
where w=specific weight of liquid 𝛂=angle of contact of
the liquid suface and 𝛔=surface tension

119.The mass of 2.5m3 of a certain liquid is 2 tonnes.Its mass


density is
a)200kg/m3
b)400kg/m3
c)600kg/m3
d)800kg/m3

120.Specifications are of two types- General specification or


and __________________
a) Short specification
b) General specification
c) Detailed specification
d) Brief specification

121.Plastering on external exposed surface is known as


a) Rendering
b) Blending
c) rebranding
d) None of these.

122.The horizontal members of the shutters of a door or


window are called
a)sills
b)horns
c)rails
d)panels

123.A roof which slopes in all the four direction is


a)gable roof
b)hip roof
c)gambrel roof
d)mansard roof

124.A type of bond in a brick masonry in which each course


consists of alternate headers and stretchers, is called
a) English bond
b) Flemish bond
c) Stretching bond
d) heading bond

125.The minimum thickness of a wall in stone masonry should


not be less than
a) 100mm
b) 200mm
c) 350mm
d) 450mm

126.A horizontal layer of bricks laid in mortar is known as


a) course
b) stretcher
c) header
d) closer

127.The damp-proof course


a) may be horizontal or vertical
b) should be continuous
c) should be of good impervious material
d) all of these.

128.For D.P.C. at plinth level, the commonly adopted material


is
a) bitumen sheeting
b) plastic sheeting
c) mastic sheeting
d) cement concrete

129.The oil/liquid in which base and pigment are dissolved to


form a paint is called
(a) thinner
(b) filler
(c) vehicle
(d) none of the above
130.The main ingredient in the manufacture of glass is
(a) silica
(b) potash
(c)soda
(d)lime

131.The property of material enabling it to be drawn into thin


wires is called
(a) toughness
(b) hardness
(c) ductility
(d) malleability

132.In a well-seasoned timber, the moisture content will be in


the range of
(a) 20—25%
(b)15—20%
(c) 10—12%
d)5—7%.

133.The aggregate is called the cyclopean aggregate if its size


is
(a) between 0.15 mm and 4.5 mm
(b) 4.75 mm to 40 mm
(c) 75 mm to 150 mm
d) more than 150.

134.The length of Vicat plunger in Vicat's apparatus varies from


a)20 to 30 mm
b)30 to 40 mm
c) 40 to 50 mm
d)50 to 60 mm

135.Match List I with List II


A Serviceability 1 Sliding
B Shear key 2 Deflection
C Shrinkage 3 Cracking
D Concrete 4 Corrosion
spalling
a) A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2
b) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
c) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4
d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3

136.The strength and durability of concrete depends upon


a)size of aggregates
b)grading of aggregates
c) moisture contents of aggregates
d)all of these

137. A good building stone should not absorb water more than
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

138.The modulus of elasticity (E) of concrete is given by


a) E= 1000fck
b) E = 5000√fck
c) E = 7000√fck
d) E = 10,000 √fck

139.Good quality cement contains higher percentage of


a) Tricalcium silicate
b) Di-calcium silicate
c) Tri-calcium aluminate
d) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite

140.Bulking of is caused due to


sand
a) surface moisture
b) air voids
c) viscosity d) clay contents
141.Refractorybricksresist

a) Hightemperature
b) chemical soon
c) dampness
d) all the above

142.The minimum compressive strength of second class bricks


should be
a) 95 kg/cm2
b) 70 kg/cm2
c) 105 kg/cm2
d) 120 kg/cm^2

143.Laterite is a/an
a) volcanic rock
b) argillaceous rock
c) calcareous rock
d) silicious rock.

144.Match List I (type of soil) with List II (mode of transportation and


deposition
List I List II
A Lacustrine 1 Transportation by wind
soils
B Alluvial soil 2 Transportation by running
water
C Aeolian soils 3 Deposited at the bottom of
lakes
D Marine soils 4 Deposited in sea water
(a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
(b) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
(c) A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1
(d) A-1 B-3 C-2 D-4

145.Arboriculture means _______


a) Agriculture
b) Wood culture
c) Tree culture
d) None of these Tree culture.

146.The shrinkage index is equal to


a) liquid limit + plastic limit
b) plastic limit - liquid limit
c) plastic limit - shrinkage limit
shrinkage limit - liquid limit

147.textural classification is merely based on


(a) Grain size
(b) Plasticity index
(c) Shape of particles
(d) Consistency limits

148.Valid range for degree of saturation of a soil in percentage


(a)0<S<100
(b)0 ≤ S ≤ l00
(c)0>S>100
(d)S ≤ 0.

149.At liquid limit a soil has


(a) High shear strength
(b) No shear strength
(c) Negligible (or) very small shear strength
(d) Nothing to do with shear strength.

150.The shearing strength of the following soil will be poor


(a) CL
(b) OL
(c) SC
(d) GC

151.relation between porosity (n) and void ratio (e) is given by


a) n = e/1+e
b) e = n-1
c) n = 1-e
d) e = n+1

152.The reaction time of a driver………with the increase in speed.


a) remains constant
b) decreases
c) increases
d) None of the above

153. In an ideal transition curve, the radius of curvature


a) is constant
b) At any point is directly proportional to its distance from the point of
commencement
c) At any point is inversely proportional to its distance from the point
of commencement
d) is directly proportional to the radius of main curve

154.Excessive camber on pavements may cause


a) deterioration of central portion
b) slip of the speedy vehicles towards the edges
erosion of the berms
c) all the above

155. In water bound macadam roads, binding material,


a) sand
b) stone dust
c) cement
d) brick dust

156.Match List-I (Tests) with List- II (Properties) and


List-I List- II
A. CBR test 1.Modulus of sub-
grade reaction
B. Plate bearing test 2.Arbitrary soil
strength
C. Triaxial test 3.Exudation and
expansion pressure
D. Stabilometer and 4.Shear parameters
Cohesion-meter test
(a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
(b) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
(c) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
(d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3

157.In traffic engineering, the elements are classified into how many
categories?
a)One
b)Two
c)Three
d)Four

158.The span length of truss bridge is in between


A) 20m-50m.
B) 40m-80m.
C) 50m-110m.
D) 70m-120m

160. If the diameter of a shaft subjected to torque alone is doubled,


then the horse power P can be increases to
a) 16P
b) 8P
c) 4P
d) 2P

161. If a person studies about a fluid which is at rest, what will you call his
domain of study?
a) Fluid Dynamics
b) Fluid Mechanics
c) Fluid Statics
d) Fluid Kinematics

162. When is a fluid called turbulent?


a) High viscosity of fluid
b) Reynolds number is greater than 2000
c) Reynolds number is less than 2000
d) The density of the fluid is low

163. The phenomenon of decreased resistance of a material


to reversal of stress is called
a) creep b) fatigue c) resilience d) plasticity

164.The ratio of intensity of stress in case of a gradually


applied load to that in case of a suddenly applied load is
a) ½
b) 1
c) 2
d) more than 2

165.Two circular bars A and B of same material and same


length are of diameters DA and DB respectively. The bars are
subjected to the same torque T. The ratio of strain energies
stored in the bars A and B is proportional to
a) Da / Db
b) Db / Da
c)( Da / Db ) ^2
d) ( Db/ Da ) ^2

166.The core of a rectangular section with sides b


and d is a
√b2+d2 √b2+d2
a) square with side
b) rhombus with side
6 6
c) rectangle with sides b/3 and d/3
b d
d) parallelogram with sides 6√2 and

167.A cantilever beam AB, fixed at A and carrying a load W at


the free end B, is found to deflect by 5 at the mid-point of AB.
The deflection of B due to a load W/2 at the mid-point will be
a) 25
b) 5
c) 5/2
d) 5/4

168. A fixed beam AB is subjected to a triangular


load varying from zero at end A to w per unit
length at end B. The ratio of fixed end moment at
B to A will be
The frame shown in Fig has

a) one unknown
reaction component
b) two unknown
reaction components
c) three unknown
reaction components
d) six unknown reaction
components

169.The following methods are used for structural analysis:


1. Macaulay method 2. Column analogy method 3. Kani's method 4.
Method of sections Those used for determinate structural analysis
would include
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 4
170. Match List-I (Method of analysis) with List-II
(Unknowns being evaluated)
List I List II
A. 1. Degrees of freedom
Flexibi
lity Method
B. 2. Redundant forces
Stiffne
ss Method
C. Kani's 3. Rotations by incremental iteration
Method and unknown sways of plane frames
D. Moment 4. Displacement, rotations and
Distribution sways of plane frames
Method
a) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
c) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
d) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2

171.When a unit rotation is given at end A of the beam shown in Fig

the moment produced at end B will be a)


0 b) 2EI/L c) 4 EI/L d) 6 EI/

172.The strain energy of a structure due to bending is given by


M2dxM2dx 2M2dxM2dx
a) ∫ b) c) ∫ d)
EIEI EIEI

173.What is the degree of static indeterminacy of the beam shown in


Fig. ?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

174.What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy of the frame


shown in Fig if the axial deformation is ignored?

a)8
b)10
c)12
d)14

175.Match List I List II


List I List II
(Type of beam (S. F. diagram)
with type of
loading)

a) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1


b) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2
c) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
d) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1

176.The bending moment diagram for an overhanging beam is


a) A and F
b) B and E
c) C and D
d) A and D

177. Couple M is applied at C on a simply supported beam AB.


What is the maximum shear force for the beam
a) Zero
b) M
c) 2M/3
d) M/3

178. Stagnation point is the point in fluid mechanics where the


velocity of the fluid at that point is _____
a) unity
b) constant
c) infinite
d) zero

179. Which among the following is an assumption of Hagen-Poiseuille


equation?
a) Fluid is uniform
b) Fluid is laminar
c) Fluid is turbulent
d) Fluid is compressible

180.If the Young’s Modulus ‘E’ is equal to the bulk modulus ‘K’,
then what is the valve of the Poisson’s ratio? (IES -2005)
a) ¼
b) ½
c) 1/3
d) ¾
181.In the cantilever truss shown in fig the reaction at
A is

a) 10t
b) 20t
c) 30t
d) 40t

182.A prismatic beam fixed at both ends carries a uniformly


distributed load. The ratio of bending moment at the supports to the
bending moment at mid-span is
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 1.5
d) 2.0

183.A beam of uniform strength has at every crosssection same


a) bending moment
b) bending stress
c) deflection
d) stiffness

184.Match List I (Euler load formulae for different end restraints)


with List II (conditions of end restraints)
List I List II
A. 𝟒𝛑𝐋𝟐𝟐 𝐄𝐈 1. Pin –ended at both ends
B. 𝛑𝟒𝟐𝐋 𝐄𝐈𝟐 2other end . Fixed at one end and pinned
at the
C. 𝛑𝟐𝐋𝟐 𝐄𝐈 3. Fixed at both ends
D. 𝟐𝛑𝐋𝟐𝟐 𝐄𝐈 4other end . Fixed at one end and free at the

a) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1


b) A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
c) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
d) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-
185.A simply supported beam of length I carries a load varying
uniformly from zero at left end to maximum at right end. The
maximum bending moment occurs at a distance of
a) 1/ 3 from left end
b) 1/3 from left end
c) 1/ 3 from right end
d) 1/3 from right end

186.A steel rod of circular section tapers from 2 cm diameter to 1 cm


diameter over a length of 50 cm. If the modulus of elasticity of the
material is 2 x 106 kg/cm2, then the increase in length under a pull of
3000kg will be
a) 0.3 / 2  cm
b) 30 /  cm
c) 300 /  cm
a) 750 cm

187.For a linear, elastic, isotropic material, the number of


independent elastic constants is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

188.The relationship between Young’s modulus of elasticity E, bulk


modulus K and Poisson’s ratio 𝛍 is given by
a) E = 2K(1-2μ)
b) E = 3K(1+μ)
c) E = 3K(1-2μ)
d) E = 2K(1+μ)

189.If a point in a strained material is subjected to equal normal and


tangential stresses, then the angle of obliquity is
a) 00
b) 450
c) tan-1(1/2)
d) tan-1(2)

190.Poisson’s ratio for incompressible is,


a) 1/8
b) ¼
c) ½
d)1

191.The bending stress in a beam is section modulus.


(A) Inversely proportional to two times
(B) Directly proportional to
(C) Inversely proportional to
(D) None of these

192.The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at


(A) Smaller end
(B) Larger end
(C) Middle
(D) Anywhere

193.The relationship between the radius of curvature R, bending


moment M and flexural rigidity El is given by
a) R = M/EI
b) M = El/R
c) EI =R/M
d) E = Ml/R

194..For a simply supported beam of length ‘l’, when a concentrated


load W is applied in the center of the beam, the maximum deflection
is
(A) 5WL³/ 384EI
(B) WL³/384EI
(C) WL³/ 348EI
(D) WL³/ 48EI

195.A propped cantilever of span ‘l’ carries a uniformly distributed


load of ‘w’ per unit run over its entire span. The values of prop
reaction to keep the beam horizontal is
a) wl / 3
b) 3/8 wl
c) wl / 2
d ) 5/8 wl

196. Which is the cheapest device for measuring flow / discharge


rate.
a) Venturimeter
b) Pitot tube
c) Orificemeter
d) None of the mentioned

197.Ratio of stress to strain 2. Poisson’s ratio C. Ratio of The


relationship between the radius of curvature R, bending moment
M and flexural rigidity El is given by
a) R = M/EI
b) M = El/R
c) EI =R/M
d) E = Ml/R

198. When is orifice called ‘large orifice’?


a) If the head of liquid is less than 5 times the depth of orifice
b) If the head of liquid is less than 2.5 times the depth of orifice
c) If the head of liquid is less Hence, 4 times the depth of orifice
d) If the head of liquid is less than 1.5 times the depth of orifice

199.If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated, then the copper
bar will be under
a) tension
b) compression
c) shear
d) torsion
200.If a material has identical properties in all
directions, it is said to be
a) homogenous
b) isotropic
c) elastic
d) orthotropic

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