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 Section: - Reasoning
Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Ten persons from K to T are attending meeting on five different months
among January, February, March, April and May but not necessarily in the same order. The
meeting held on two different dates like 11th and 22nd of each month. No two persons attend
the meeting on same date. Only two persons attend meeting before O. Three persons attend
meeting between L and R. P attends meeting in March. L attends meeting on 22nd of the
month which has less number of days. K and N attend on odd date. K attends on month which
has 31 days. Two persons attend meeting between N and T. S attends meeting immediately
before T. Two persons attends meeting between S and Q.
Q1. How many persons attend the meeting before Q?

A. 3.
B. 4.
C. 5.
D. 6.
E. None of these.

Q2. Who among the following attends the meeting on 11th of May?
A. N.
B. T.
C. P.
D. S.

E. None of these.
Q3. Which among the following statements is definitely true?
A. R and the person who attends meeting immediately before T are attends the meeting in
same month.
B. Number of persons attends the meeting between M and P is same as Q and T.
C. More than four persons attends the meeting after N.
D. Q and S attends the meeting in the same date.

E. None of these.
Q4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which of
the following does not belong to the group?
A. P
B. K

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 C. T
D. O
E. Q

Q5. Which of the following persons attend meeting in a month which has 30 days?
A. R and S
B. L and O
C. N and R
D. M and O

E. T and P
Directions (Q. 6 – 7): Study the following information carefully and answer the question
given below.
Eight persons I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting around a circular table. Two of them are facing
outward and rest are facing inward, but not necessarily in the same order. K sits second to
the right of J and I facing outward. N sits on the immediate right of I and sits fourth to the left
of J. P, who is an immediate neighbour of J, sits second to the left of I. O sits third to the left
of M. L is an immediate neighbour of J and K. the immediate neighbours of L are facing
outward. M is an immediate neighbour of K.
Q6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group?
A. P, J

B. K, P
C. N, I
D. K, M
E. O, I
Q7. Who among the following sits third to the right of J?

A. L
B. K
C. O
D. M
E. None of the above

Directions (Q. 8 – 12): Study the following information carefully and answer the below given
questions.

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 Eight people Aarush, Bindu, Chunnu, Divya, Etti, Prithvi, Gopal and Harish live in an eight-
storey building, but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor is numbered 1 and
the topmost floor is numbered 8. Aarush lives on an even-numbered floor but not on the floor
numbered second or fourth. Only three floors are there between Aarush and Bindu. Only two
people live between Chunnu and Etti. Prithvi lives on a floor above Divya. There are equal
numbers of floors between the floors on which Etti and Bindu live and between the floors on
which Aarush and Etti live. Harish lives immediately below Divya’s floor. Gopal lives
immediately below Aarush’s floor.
Q8. Prithvi lives on which of the following floors?
A. 3rd

B. 5th
C. 6th
D. 7th
E. None of the above
Q9. How many floors are there between Bindu and Divya?

A. 5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. None of the above

Q10. Who among the following lives on the first floor?

A. Harish
B. Chunnu
C. Prithvi
D. Etti

E. None of these
Q11. Who among the following lives on the seventh floor?
A. Etti
B. Prithvi
C. Gopal

D. Chunnu
E. None of the above

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 Q12. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Aarush lives on the sixth floor
B. Divya lives on the topmost floor

C. There are two people between Prithvi and Chunnu

D. Harish lives just above Aarush
E. Chunnu lives on the third floor.
Directions (Q. 13 – 15): In each of these questions, a relationship between elements is
shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer.
Q13. Statement: A ≥ C > R = P ≤ Z = Y
Conclusions: I. A ≥ Z II. R ≤ Y

A. if only conclusion I is true.

B. if only conclusion II is true.
C. if either conclusion I or II true.
D. if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E. if both conclusions I and II are true.

Q14. Statement: E ≤ H < L = M = V ≤ O

Conclusions: I. H < V II. O ≥ L
A. if only conclusion I is true.
B. if only conclusion II is true.
C. if either conclusion I or II true.

D. if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

E. if both conclusions I and II are true.
Q15. Statements: X ≥ I = M ≥ U ≥ V < O
Conclusion: I. X > U II. X = U
A. if only conclusion I is true.

B. if only conclusion II is true.

C. if either conclusion I or II true.
D. if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E. if both conclusions I and II are true.

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 Directions (Q. 16 – 20): In each question given below three statements are followed by three
conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions definitely do(es) not follow logically from the given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer.

Q16. Statements: All fruits are vegetables.

Some sweets are vegetables.
No sweet is a namkeen.
Conclusions: I. No fruit is a sweet.
II. Some vegetables being namkeens is a possibility.

III. Some namkeens are sweets.

A. if conclusion I does not follow.
B. if conclusion II does not follow.
C. if conclusion III does not follow.
D. if both conclusion I and II do not follow.

E. None of the above

Q17. Statements: All pens are papers.
Some pencils are papers.
Some pencils are novels.
Conclusions: I. No paper is a pen.

II. Some papers are pens.

III. Some pencils being pens is a possibility.
A. if conclusion I does not follow.
B. if conclusion II does not follow.
C. if conclusion III does not follow.

D. if both conclusion I and II do not follow.

E. None of the above
Q18. Statement: No copy is a book.
All papers are copies.
No book is a pen.

Conclusion: I. Some copies are not papers.

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 II. Some books are not papers.
III. No pen is a book.
A. Only I follow

B. Only II and III follows

C. Only II follows
D. Only III follows
E. None of the above
Q19. Statement: Some clerks are officers.

No officer is a manager.
All peons are clerks
Conclusion: I. Some clerks not being officers is a possibility
II. All clerks being peonsis a possibility.
III. Some managers are definitely not clerks

A. Only I and II follow

B. Only either I or II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Only II follows
E. None of the above

Q20. Statements:
Some suits are pants.
No pant is a shirt
All jeans are shirts.
Conclusions:

I. No jean is a pant.
II. Some suits are definitely not shirts.
A. if only conclusion I follows
B. if only conclusion II follows
C. if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

D. if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

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 E. if both conclusions I and II follow

Section: - Quant
Directions (21-22) Read the instruction carefully and answer the given question

Q21. A started a business with a certain amount, after 4 months B replace A. The ratio of
their investment is 7 :3. If the total profit after one year is 143000, then find the difference
between the profit of A and B?
A. 12250

B. 13000
C. 14000
D. 11250
E. 11000
Q22. Waqar sold the watch after giving a discount of 13% on the marked price and gain
30.5%. Had he sold it at 30% discount on marked price then find the gain or loss percentage?

A. 5% profit
B. 6 % loss
C. 5% loss
D. 6% profit
E. none of these

Directions (23-25) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number
series.

Q23. 1 3 9 31 ? 651
A. 129
B. 172
C. 325
D. 284

E. 540
Q24. 8 ? 45 110 236 453
A. 25
B. 18
C. 17

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 D. 31
E. 16
Q25. 28 29 27 33 09 ?

A. 06
B. 64
C. 129
D. 134
E. 272

Directions (26-28) Read the instruction carefully and answer the given question
Q26. Ratio of age of A and B is 4 :5. Eight years hence A will be equal to sum of B’s age 8
years ago and C’s age 8 years ago. Average of Present age of B and C is 30, then present age
of C
A. 12 years
B. 14 years
C. 15 years
D. 18 years

E. 24 years
Q27. There are two right circular cylinder C1 and C2. The ratio of volume of C1 and C2 is 4
:1 and the height of C1 and C2 is equal. Difference between the radius of C1 and C2 is 7. Find
the radius of C2?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 12

Q28. If simple interest earned on a sum of money is 37.5% of amount earned on same
money for 4 years at R% per annum simple interest. What is R?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20

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 E. None of these
Directions (29-34) Study the table carefully and answer the given question

TOTAL PEOPLE RATIO OF MALE & % OF PEOPLE (OUT

(MALE +FEMALE) FEMALE OUT OF OF TOTAL MALE +
WHO REGISTRED TOTAL PEOPLE WHO FEMALE REGISTRED)
DAY FOR SEMINAR REGISTRED FOR WHO ATTENDED
SEMINAR SEMINAR

MONDAY 875 4 :3 80%

TUESDAY 1250 12:13 70%

WEDNESDAY 1100 3: 8 50%

THURSDAY 1500 3 :2 60%

Q29. If number of people (male + female) registered on Friday is 20% more than the total
number of people (male + female) registered on Monday. If there were 40% female among
who registered on Friday then find the number of males who registered on Friday?
A. 700
B. 750
C. 630

D. 1000
E. None of these
Q30. Find difference between the total number of people registered on Tuesday &
Wednesday and total number of people attended on Monday & Thursday.
A. 700
B. 750
C. 630

D. 1000
E. None of these
Q31. If on Wednesday the ratio of number of male and female who attended seminar is 4
: 1 then the number of female who registered for seminar but not attended seminar
A. 710
B. 650

C. 670

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 D. 690
E. None of these
Q32. The number of females registered for seminar in Thursday is what % more than the
number of males registered for seminar on Monday
A. 10

B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
E. None of these
Q33. The ratio of number of people attended on Tuesday and number of people attended
on Wednesday.

A. 11: 34
B. 35: 22
C. 13: 11
D. 40: 37
E. None of these

Q34. If on Thursday 40% of female who registered for seminar also attended it then the
number of males who attended seminar

A. 710
B. 650
C. 660
D. 690
E. None of these

Directions (35-37) Read the instruction carefully and answer the given question
Q35. Monthly income of Waseem is 130% of Shabana. Saving of Waseem and Shabana is
equal and spend remaining. Shabana saves 12000 per month which is 20% of his salary. How
much Waseem spend in a month?
A. 66000
B. 77000
C. 88000
D. 55000

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 E. 22000
Q36. A vessel contains 240L of mixture of milk and water, in which the quantity of milk is
200L. 40L water is added to vessel and 35L mixture taken out. Find the quantity of milk is
approximately what percent in the mixture?
A. 51%
B. 58%

C. 61%
D. 67%
E. 71%
Q37. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 16 hours and 20 hours. The tank is already 1/4
full. Pipe A is opened for 6 hours then closed. In how much time can pipe B alone fill the
remaining tank?
A. 2 hours
B. 3.5 hours
C. 4 hours

D. 6.5 hours
E. 7.5 hours
Directions (38-40): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You
have to solve both the equations and give answer.
Q38.

I. 𝒙𝟐 + 𝟕𝒙 + 𝟏𝟐 = 𝟎

II. 𝒚𝟐 + 𝟓𝒚 + 𝟔 = 𝟎

A. x > y
B. x ≤ y
C. x ≥ y
D. x < y
E. x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established

Q39.

I. 𝟑𝒙𝟐 + 𝟖𝒙 + 𝟒 = 𝟎

II.𝟔𝒚𝟐 + 𝟕𝒚 + 𝟐 = 𝟎
A. x > y

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 B. x ≤ y
C. x ≥ y
D. x < y

E. x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established

Q40.

I. 𝒙𝟐 − 𝟓𝒙 − 𝟖𝟒 = 𝟎

II. 𝒚𝟐 − 𝟗𝒚 − 𝟓𝟐 = 𝟎
A. x > y
B. x ≤ y

C. x ≥ y
D. x < y
E. x = y or relationship between x and y can't be established

Section: - English Language

(Directions 41-44): In each of the following questions a sentence is given with some part of
it marked in bold. You have to identify the option that would replace the bold part and
make the sentence contextually and grammatically correct. If no correction is required then
mark option 'E' as your answer.

Q41. Some respondents do agree these are knee-perk reactions and a more scientific
approach was needed to tackle pollution.
A. knee-jerk reactions
B. knee-crack reaction
C. knee-drop reactions
D. knee-deep reactions
E. No correction required

Q42. There has hardly been a day in eight years where I haven’t been inspired to walk out
into my porch to capture an unusual call or species.
A. when I haven’t been inspired to walk out into
B. than I haven’t been inspired to walk out onto
C. when I haven’t been inspired to walk out onto
D. where I haven’t been inspired to walk out onto

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 E. No correction required
Q43. We expect the addition of these two high quality portfolios to be highly complimentary
for our existing assets and to contribute to long-term leasing growth as India’s leading mobile
operators accelerate their 4G network deployments.
A. to highly compliment to
B. to be high compliment for
C. to be highly complemented to
D. to be highly complementary to
E. No correction required
Q44. Businesses have been disrupted by last year's ban on high-value notes and the roll-out
of a goods and services tax.
A. rolling-out of a goods and services tax
B. roll-out of goods and services tax
C. rolled-out of goods and services tax
D. rolled-out of a goods and services tax
E. No correction required
(Directions 45-49): Fill in the blanks in the following sentence with appropriate words,
choosing one of the combinations given below the sentence.
Q45. Here is a case to be made for the Centre to give telcos relief by _________ spectrum
payments and reducing the burden of high telecom __________.
A. Advancing, Grants
B. Hindering, Engagement
C. Deferring, Levies
D. Offering, Evolution
E. None of these

Q46. India has been unable to ___________ the philanthropic potential of its diaspora
because the latter perceives the development sector to be corrupt and inefficient, and is
___________ by regulatory constraints and unfavourable tax policies.
A. Discover, Afraid
B. Leverage, Overwhelmed
C. Respond, Vibrant
D. Deduce, Crippled
E. None of these

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 Q47. The vast majority of alcohol consumers are occasional drinkers; hence, if any
__________ are placed in their path to consumption, many of them will __________ their
drinking behaviour.
A. Hurdles, Curtail
B. Incentives, Abandon
C. Fallacy, Buoyant
D. Conformity, Rebel
E. None of these
Q48. While the financial strain on telcos and churn in the market may make regulatory
intervention __________, a heavy-handed approach would be __________.
A. Delusion, Celebratory
B. Panic, Accelerated
C. Tempting, Counterproductive
D. Ambush, Criticized

E. None of these
Q49. The lawyer took the rare step of reading part of her __________ aloud from the bench,
__________ in the special collar she reserves for such occasions.
A. memoir, hung
B. mind, drape
C. dissent, clad

D. confusion, looking
E. None of these
(Directions 50-54): Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions.
In the past, the richest states often grew the fastest and the poor ones the slowest. But India's
record GDP growth of 8.49% per year in the 5-year period 2004-09 is a case of improved
productivity and growth in customarily poor states trickling up and aggregating into rapid
growth at the national level. Nobody should call this a success of trickle-down economics.
Trickle-down assumes that fast growth can be had simply by changing a few policies that
benefit the rich, after which some benefits trickle down to the poor. In fact, miracle growth is
globally rare, precisely because it is so difficult for countries to improve the productivity of a
substantial proportion of the population.
Only when productivity improvement is widespread is there enough productivity
improvement from all regions and people to add up to fast growth. In other words, fast
growth does not trickle down; it trickles up. Once a country grows fast, government revenues
will boom and can be used to accelerate spending in social sectors and welfare. Miracle

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 growth and record revenues enabled the Central Government to finance social welfare
schemes, farm loan waivers and enormous oil subsidies. This can be called the trickling down
of part of the revenue bonanza into welfare and workfare. But neither welfare nor workfare
could have caused the sharp acceleration of economic growth. The growth bonanza itself was
sparked by state-level political and policy changes that accelerated local growth, which then
trickled up to the national level.

Q50. To which of the following factors does the author attribute India's high growth rate
during 2004-09?

A. Tremendous growth of the vast majority of richer states

B. Change in national-level policies to benefit only large well-off states
C. Gains of richer states have been used to fund social welfare schemes in the larger states
D. Improved productivity of traditionally low-performing states
E. None of the above

Q51. Which of the following best describes the author's view of trickle-down theory?
A. It has largely failed to drive sustained growth
B. It ensures accountability of the government even at the grassroots level
C. It has been effective in helping poor 9tates catch up with richer ones
D. It promotes inclusive growth over quick growth

E. It targets social welfare at the cost of economic growth

Q52. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
A. Developed countries use the same model of development as India
B. Widespread growth is best achieved through Central Government-monitored schemes
C. At present India's traditionally poor states are more prosperous than her socially
developed ones
D. India's growth was more, inclusive in nature during 2004-2009 than it had been in the
past

E. There should be no government expenditure in social sectors it the current high growth
rate is not maintained

Q53. Why have countries found it difficult to achieve high growth?

A. Ensuring an increase in the output among a large number of citizens is difficult.
B. Corruption of politicians at the grassroots level results in the benefits of growth not
reaching the poor.
C. The government's failure to allocate sufficient income to inclusive social welfare schemes.

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 A. A & B
B. B & C
C. Only A

D. All of these
E. None of these
Q54. What is the author's objective in writing this passage?
A. Advocating greater autonomy for the richest states in India
B. Urging government to invest in social development to facilitate economic growth

C. Criticizing traditional economic principles on which the Indian economy is based

D. Encouraging larger states to disburse more wealth at the grassroots level
E. None of these
(Directions 55-60): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are written below the passage and against each, five
words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word/phrase in each case.
With the anticipated end of the country’s (55) from global commerce in the nuclear field,
India-Russia nuclear partnership will enter a new phase, National Security Adviser (NSA) MK
Narayanan told his Russian interlocutors in Moscow. Mr. Narayanan is discussing security,
defence and regional security (56) with Russian officials. He said the reopening of nuclear
collaboration would not (57) Mean expanding the (58) In constructing the nuclear plant at
Koodankulam in Tamil Nadu, but also collaboration in new projects, according to Andrei
Orlov, chief of PIR Centre (Centre for Policy Studies), a quasi-government think-tank (59) by
influential persons in the decision-making process. In addition, India indicated that
cooperation (60) Be extended to other strategic fields such as space. The NSA also indicated
that the clouds over the India-US deal had almost lifted despite misgivings in some Indian
political circles outlining The Russian position, Dr. Orlov described the deal as a ‘rare bird’ in
the US Russian relations as both the countries seemed to be supporting India in its bid to
break out of nuclear seclusion.
Q55. Select option for answer-
A. collaboration
B. involvement

C. participation
D. presence
E. isolation
Q56. Select option for answer-

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 A. problem
B. aspect
C. issues
D. facet
E. personnel

Q57. Select option for answer-

A. again
B. only
C. all
D. have
E. also

Q58. Select option for answer-

A. space
B. area
C. relationship
D. existence
E. resources

Q59. Select option for answer-

A. backed
B. supportive
C. owned
D. overcome
E. dominating
Q60. Select option for answer-
A. can’t
B. will

C. was
D. would
E. may
(Directions 61-65) In each of the questions, a sentence is divided into five parts namely A,
B, C, D, and E in which two of the parts have some grammatical or contextual errors in them.
You have to identify which pair among the given alternatives represents the parts that
contain those errors. If none of the parts has any error, then, mark option 5, i.e., ‘No error’
as your answer.

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 Q61. The Iraqi Parliament on (A) Sunday voted of expel the (B) US troops from its territory
which have be there (C) to help the Iraq dispensation fight (D) the Islamic State terror group
(E).
A. A & C
B. C & D
C. A & E

D. B & C
E. No error

Q62. Describe the election as “a U.S. Brexit,” (A) the authors warned that much (B) of the
risk would arise from (C) the result being contested — whether (D) or not Trump emerged
victory (E).
A. B & D
B. A & C
C. A & E

D. C & D
E. No error
Q63. Milk makers in the United States are (A) disappearing as consolidation in (B) the
industry and changing consumer (C) tastes have made it tougher (D) for small farms to
survive. (E)
A. A & B
B. B & C
C. C & D

D. D & E
E. No error
Q64. There have been regular low-intensity (A) skirmishes among Iran and the US in (B) the
Gulf waters and in Iraq (C) itself ever since Trump reinstated (D) sanctions on Iran at
November 2018 (E).
A. B & C
B. A & D
C. C & E

D. B & D

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 E. No error
Q65. Cyclical companies, such as machinery companies (A) Caterpillar and Eaton, as well as
(B) commodity chemical companies such as (C) Dow, depends on the business cycle and the
(D) strength for the economy in order to grow (E).
A. A & C
B. B & E

C. D & E
D. C & D
E. No error
(Directions 66-72) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
Agriculture forms the problematic nucleus of the macroeconomic knot which ties us up. It
called out for attention even before the pressing necessity of having to cope with a 10-day
farmers’ agitation starting 1 June. Agriculture (along with agricultural taxation) is on the state
list of the Constitution. Strictly speaking, there should never have been a Union ministry of
agriculture at the Centre. After the egregious neglect of agriculture by the Nehruvian focus
on big industry, which was transmitted to the states, we hit the wall of food grain insufficiency
in the 1960s. It was the Centre’s trespassing on to agricultural territory that solved the cereal
sufficiency problem, even if the problem itself was largely a result of priorities set at the
Centre. Cereal anxiety led the Centre to offer minimum support prices (MSPs) for the major
cereals, which distorted cropping patterns into the “cerealization” of agriculture, as it is
called.
Fast forward to the present time. The cost of food is an ever-present threat to the acceptable
inflation limits (4% with a 2% band on either side) adopted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI),
and even without that, runs up against the low inflation tolerance of the Indian consuming
public. We continue to follow the long-standing policy of trying to keep down the price of
foodstuffs by subsidizing agricultural inputs. Zero pricing of power for agriculture has indeed
led to enhanced land productivity, but at the expense of over-mining ground water and
seriously threatening our survival in the not-too-distant future. The burden of zero-priced
power for farmers was meanwhile borne by the state power sector utilities, leading to a build-
up of power sector debt and default to the banking sector. The problem was finally sought to
be resolved by shifting the debt build-up to state governments under the Ujwal Discom
Assurance Yojana (UDAY) scheme formulated by the Centre in 2015. State governments which
have opted for it are mandated to absorb a stated percentage of annual losses of power
utilities, to incentivize them into right pricing of power for farmers. The evidence so far
suggests that states prefer to shoulder the fiscal costs rather than charge farmers a non-zero
price for power.
In the Union Budget 2018, for the first time, there was a national commitment to MSPs across
the board for all crops. Disregarding the debate over how cultivation costs will be configured,
this was for the first time a national policy of crop neutrality in agriculture, although the

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 responsibility for actually delivering on the MSP promise is split in a confusing way between
Centre and states, depending on the crop. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(CACP) posts MSPs on its website for food grains, oilseeds, sugarcane and some non-food
commercial crops (23 in all, not counting variants). State governments can optionally
announce a further enhancement to the MSP for their farmers for these crops. The whole
picture is muddied by the fact that the open-ended commitment to absorb all produce at the
announced price, implicit in an MSP, is most usually not honoured, on account of either fiscal
or warehousing limits. There is the further problem that the MSP is payable to owners and
not to tenants actually cultivating the land.
When the price of onions in Madhya Pradesh crashed at the time of the rabi harvest in 2017
to 50 paise per kg, there were farmer riots, which were quelled by police firing. The state
government re-constituted price support into a Bhavantar (price differential) scheme—the
Bhavantar Bhugtan Yojana—with a commitment to top up the farm gate price in case it fell
below a threshold level. This year, the farm gate price of the onion harvest is reported to have
fallen further, to a low of 30 paise per kg. The announced threshold price for onions was Rs8
per kg.
With that kind of a market price crash, Bhavantar has basically morphed into a full-fledged
MSP, the only difference being that there is no government procurement, and therefore no
need for public warehousing. Before onions this year, there was the garlic price crash. Both
onions and garlic are storable crops which have been bought by traders at throwaway prices
for slow release later.
Q66. According to the passage, what had led to the terrible state of farmers?
A. Negligence in agriculture sector by the government.
B. insufficient food grains
C. Excessive fall in prices of food grains
D. distorted cropping pattern
E. All of the above
Q67. According to the passage, Zero pricing power leads to?
(I) increase in costs of the crops productivity.
(II) increase in land productivity
(III) increase in power sector debt
A. Only (I)
B. Only (III)
C. Both (I) and (II)
D. Both (II) and (III)
E. All are correct

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 Q68. How is it correct to say that the MSP structure of the CACP is fairly ragged at the
margins?
A. As it leads to cereal anxiety among the farmers.
B. As MSP is payable to owners not to tenants.
C. The prices of crops set by the government is not obeyed by all.
D. both (b) and (c)
E. All are correct
Q69. Which of the following sentences is/ are correct for Minimum support prices in
context of the passage?
(I) It is announced first time in Union budget 2018 to set the prices for all crops.
(II) Minimum support prices can uplift the condition of farmers.
(III) It is decided by the central government only.
(IV) It is defined as the rise in the cost of production of all the crops.
A. Only (I) and (II)
B. Only (II) and (III)
C. Only (I), (II) and (IV)
D. Only (II), (III) and (IV)
E. All are correct
Q70. The appropriate title of the passage is
A. The cereal sufficiency problem
B. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
C. The Union Budget announcement 2018
D. The Minimum support prices for farmers.
E. Agricultural core of macroeconomic problem
Q71. Which of the following alternatives among the five provides the most similar
meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in the passage?
Egregious
(I) flagrant
(II) heinous
(III) nefarious
(IV) atrocious
A. Only (I) and (II)

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 B. Only (II) and (III)
C. Only (I), (II) and (IV)
D. Only (II), (III) and (IV)
E. All are correct
Q72. Which of the following alternatives among the five provides the most similar
meaning(s) of the word given in BOLD as used in the passage?
Quell
(I) rile
(II) thwart
(III) quench
(IV) annihilate
A. Only (I) and (II)
B. Only (II) and (III)
C. Only (I), (II) and (IV)
D. Only (II), (III) and (IV)
E. All are correct
(Directions 73-77): In the questions given below, a passage has been given with a number
of statements in bold. These statements may/may not be correct grammatically and
contextually. You are required to study each of the bold statements and choose from the
options the one which contextually and grammatically replaces the given sentence best. If
the given statement is correct as well appropriate, choose option E as your answer.
(A) The trade brawl between the United States and China on steel, aluminum, and other
goods is a product of US President Donald Trump’s scorn for multilateral trade
arrangements and the WTO. Before announcing import tariffs on more than 1,300 types of
Chinese-made goods worth around $60 billion per year, in early March Trump unveiled
sweeping tariffs of 25% on steel and 10% on aluminum, which he justified on the basis of
national security. Trump insists that a tariff on a small fraction of imported steel – the price
of which is set globally – will suffice to address a genuine strategic threat.

(B) Most experts, however, find that rational dubious. Trump himself has already undercut
his national-security claim by exempting most major exporters of steel to the US. Canada, for
example, is exempted on the condition of a successful renegotiation of the North American
Free Trade Agreement, effectively threatening the country unless it gives into US demands.
But there are a host of issues in contention, involving, for example, lumber, milk, and cars. Is
Trump really suggesting that the US would sacrifice national security for a better agreement
on these minor irritants in US-Canadian trade? Or perhaps the national-security claim is

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 fundamentally bogus, as Trump’s secretary of defence has suggested, and Trump, as muddled
as he is on most issues, realizes this.
As is often the case, Trump seems to be fixated on a bygone problem. Recall that, by the time
Trump began talking about his border wall, immigration from Mexico had already dwindled
to near zero. And by the time he started complaining about China depressing its currency’s
exchange rate, the Chinese government was in fact propping up the renminbi.
(C) Likewise, Trump is introducing his steel tariffs after the price of steel have already
increased by about 130% from its trough, owing partly to China’s own efforts to reduce its
excess capacity. But Trump is not just addressing a non-issue. He is also inflaming passions
and taxing US relationships with key allies. Worst of all, his actions are motivated by pure
politics. He is eager to seem strong and confrontational in the eyes of his electoral base.

(D) Even if Trump had no economists advising him, he would have to realize that what
matters is the multilateral trade deficit, not bilateral trade deficits with any one
country. Reducing imports from China will not create jobs in the US. Rather, it will increase
prices for ordinary Americans and create jobs in Bangladesh, Vietnam, or any other country
that steps in to replace the imports that previously came from China. In the few instances
where manufacturing does return to the US, it will probably not create jobs in the old Rust
Belt. Instead, the goods are likely to be produced by robots, which are as likely to be located
in high-tech centres as elsewhere. Trump wants China to reduce its bilateral trade surplus
with the US by $100 billion, which it could do by buying $100 billion worth of US oil or gas.

Predictably, China has answered Trump’s tariffs by threatening to respond to their imposition
with tariffs of its own. Those tariffs would affect US-made goods across a wide range of
sectors, but disproportionately in areas where support for Trump has been strong. China’s
response has been firm and measured, aimed at avoiding both escalation and appeasement,
which, when dealing with an unhinged bully, only encourages more aggression.
(E) One hope that US courts or congressional Republicans will rein in Trump. But, then again,
the Republican Party, standing in solidarity with Trump, seems suddenly to have forgotten its
longstanding commitment to free trade, much like a few months ago, when it forgot its
longstanding commitment to fiscal prudence.
Q73. (A) The trade brawl between the United States and China on steel, aluminium, and
other goods is a product of US President Donald Trump’s scorn for multilateral trade
arrangements and the WTO.
A. The trade dispute between the United States and China on steel, aluminium, and other
goods is a product of US President Donald Trump’s scorn for multilateral trade arrangements
and the WTO.
B. The trade race between the United States and China on steel, aluminium, and other goods
is a product of US President Donald Trump’s scorn for multilateral trade arrangements and
the WTO.

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 C. The trade altercation between the United States and China on steel, aluminium, and other
goods is a product of US President Donald Trump’s scorn for multilateral trade arrangements
and the WTO.
D. The trade fracas between the United States and China on steel, aluminium, and other goods
is a product of US President Donald Trump’s scorn for multilateral trade arrangements and
the WTO.
E. No replacement required
Q74. (B) Most experts, however, find that rational dubious.
A. Most experts, however, find that rationally dubious.
B. Most experts, however, find that rationale dubious.
C. Most experts, however, find that rationalizing dubious.
D. Most experts, however, find that rationalism dubious.
E. No replacements required.
Q75. (C) Likewise, Trump is introducing his steel tariffs after the price of steel have already
increased by about 130% from its trough, owing partly to China’s own efforts to reduce its
excess capacity.
A. Likewise, Trump is introducing his steel tariffs after the prices of steel have already
increased by about 130% from its trough, owing partly to China own efforts to reduce its
excess capacity.
B. Likewise, Trump has introduced his steel tariffs after the price of steel have already
increased by about 130% from its trough, owing partly to China’s own efforts to reduce its
excess capacity.
C. Likewise, Trump is introducing his steel tariffs after the price of steel has already increased
by about 130% from its trough, owing partly to China’s own efforts to reduce its excess
capacity.
D. Likewise, Trump is introducing his steel tariffs after the price of steel has already increase
by about 130% from its trough, owing partly to China’s own efforts to reduce its excess
capacity.
E. No replacements required.
Q76. (D) Even if Trump had no economists advising him, he would have to realize that what
matters is the multilateral trade deficit, not bilateral trade deficits with any one country.
A. Even if Trump had no economists advising him, he would have to realize that what matters
is the multilateral trade deficit, not bilateral trade surplus with any one country.
B. Even if Trump had no economists advising him, he would have to realize that what matters
is the multilateral trade deficit, not bilateral balance of trade with any one country.
C. Even if Trump had no economists advising him, he would have to realize that what matters
is the multilateral trade deficit, not bilateral trade opportunity with any one country.

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 D. Even if Trump had no economists advising him, he would have to realize that what matters
is the multilateral trade deficit, not bilateral trade relations with any one country.
E. No replacements required.
Q77. (E) One hope that US courts or congressional Republicans will rein in Trump.
A. One hopes that US courts or congressional Republicans will rein Trump.
B. One hopes that US courts or congressional Republicans will reinforce Trump.
C. One hopes that US courts or congressional Republicans will rescind Trump.
D. One hopes that US courts or congressional Republicans will rein in Trump.
E. No replacements required.
(Directions 78-80): In the given question, a word has been mentioned and there are three
ways in which the word has been used in either similar or different ways. You are required
to check which of the sentences have correctly used the highlighted word, and mark that as
your answer.
Q78. Fudge
I. All the participants were treated with a square of fudge at the entrance of the conference.
II. The government has been fudging the figures of GDP to show that the economy is in the
pink of its health.
III. This new offer of settlement is excellent going by the terms and conditions and it seems
the management really wants it to be the fudge that has been missing from the negotiations.
A. Both I and II
B. Only III
C. Only II
D. Both II and III
E. All the above
Q79. Vulnerable
I. The students were in a vulnerable position since they did not have any other alternative.
II. The new home is meant for vulnerable youths and adults who are in need of love and care.
III. Sachin Tendulkar saw India off from that vulnerable position to a thumping victory over
the world champion Australia in the Tri-nation tournament.
A. Both I and III
B. Only III
C. Both II and III
D. Only II

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 E. All the above
Q80. Implication
I. The short-sighted move of the government will have far-reaching implications but the
government is unable to predict them
II. It is very necessary that the criminal should be implicated at any cost and if one can do
anything about it that must be done
III. The implication is that all of them were responsible for the mishap at the office
A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Both II and III
D. Both I and III
E. All are correct

Section: - General Awareness

Q81. Who is the current chairman of LIC, appointed in the month of March 2019?

A. MR Kumar

B. Vipin Kumar

C. Susheel Kumar

D. Rajeev Kumar

E. Nripendra Mishra

Q82. Recently in the month of March 2019, Prime Minister has declared the year 2019-20
dedicated to which of the following?

A. Information and Communication Technology

B. Construction Technology

C. Artificial Intelligence

D. Pulses

E. Soil

Q83. Who has been appointed as Managing Director of Truecaller for its India operations,
in the month of May 2019?

A. Sandeep Patil

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 B. Sanjeev Kumar

C. Anita Bhatia

D. Ajay Singh

E. Jayshree Vyas

Q84. Which of the following is responsible for launching the Model Code of Conduct in
India?

A. Ministry of Home Affairs

B. Election Commission of India

C. NITI Aayog

D. Ministry of Human Resource Development

E. None of the above

Q85. “Mitra Shakti” is a bilateral military exercise, that has recently taken place in the
month of March 2019 between India and ___________

A. Sri Lanka

B. Myanmar

C. Bangladesh

D. Maldives

E. Nepal

Q86. Which of the following countries has recently launched its first ever satellite RAVANA
-1, recently in the month of April 2021?

A. Nepal

B. Sri Lanka

C. Bangladesh

D. Pakistan

E. Afghanistan

Q87. Who is the author of the book “celestial bodies”, which has recently won the Man
Booker International for 2019 announced in the month of May?

A. Jhumpa Lahiri

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 B. Annie Zaidi

C. Elon Musk

D. Yiyun Li

E. Jhokha Alharti

Q88. Who has been appointed as the new External Affairs Minister recently in the month
of May 2019?

A. Sushma Swaraj

B. Amit Shah

C. Rajnath Singh

D. Nirmala Sitharaman

E. S. Jaishankar

Q89. A new railway zone for Andhra Pradesh has been recently created in the month of
February 2019. Which of the following cities will be the headquarter for this new zone?

A. Vishakhapatnam

B. Guntur

C. Vijaywada

D. Hyderabad

E. None of the above

Q90. Who among the following has been appointed as the “Goodwill Ambassador” of street
child cricket world cup, recently in April 2019?

A. Harmanpreet Kaur

B. Mithali Raj

C. Ekta Bisht

D. Karu Jain

E. Jhulan Goswami

Q91. What is the name of the card that has been launched recently in March 2019 as a
single card for making multipurpose payments like shopping, traveling money across India?

A. National Common Service Card

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 B. National Common Mobility Card

C. National Single Service Card

D. National One for All Card

E. None of the above

Q92. Government of India has signed a deal with which of the following companies to
digitize the Postal Department of India, in the month April 2019?

A. HCL

B. Infosys

C. TCS

D. IBM

E. None of the above

Q93. Oscar Award 2019 has been recently won by which of the following as Best male actor,
announced in the month of Feb 2019?

A. John Ottman

B. Spike Lee

C. Frank Marshall

D. Rami Malek

E. Peter Farelly

Q94. Which of the following nations has recently in April 2021 has launched the first ever
amphibious drone boat of the world?

A. China

B. India

C. Israel

D. USA

E. Singapore

Q95. Kanyashree scheme has received an international recognition by The United Nations.
It was launched by which of the following states?

A. Haryana

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 B. Assam

C. Telangana

D. Tripura

E. West Bengal

Q96. Which of the following states has launched “Annadata Sukhibhava” scheme for the
welfare of farmers, in the month of June 2019?

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Maharashtra

C. Gujarat

D. Andhra Pradesh

E. Odisha

Q97. Which of the following companies has been conferred with the “non-life insurer of
the year” award by Assocham in the month of March 2019?

A. General Insurance Company of India

B. HDFC Ergo

C. Bharti AXA General

D. United Insurance Company of India

E. None of the above

Q98. Which of the following states has taken steps to control West Nile Virus due to the
first cases being found in India here, in the month of March 2019?

A. Karnataka

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Kerala

D. Gujarat

E. Madhya Pradesh

Q99. Which of the following countries has installed World’s first wireless electric car
charging stations, in the month of March 2019?

A. Sweden

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 B. Norway

C. Finland

D. Russia

E. USA

Q100. NITI Aayog was established in which of the following years?

A. 2010

B. 2011

C. 2016

D. 2014

E. 2015

Section: - Economics & Social Issues (ESI)

Q101. Which of the following institutions has supported SANKALP and STRIVE initiatives of
the Government of India, as announced in the January 2019?

A. World Bank
B. IMF
C. ILO
D. World Economic Forum
E. None of the above

Q102. Which of the following institutions has launched (in the month of Oct 2018), a
National Level Entrepreneurship Awareness Campaign, Udyam Abhilasha in 115
Aspirational Districts identified by NITI Aayog in 28 States and reaching to around 15,000
youth?

A. RBI
B. NABARD
C. SIDBI
D. EXIM
E. None of the above

Q103. Nabventures is a subsidiary of which of the following?

A. RBI
B. NABARD
C. SIDBI
D. EXIM

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 E. None of the above

Q104. CSO and NSSO have been merged into National Statistical Office (NSO), in the month
of May 2019. This new entity shall be headed by the secretary of which of the following?

A. MoSPI
B. MoF
C. MCA
D. NITI Aayog
E. None of the above

Q105. As per the United Nations Population Fund’s State of World Population Report 2019
(released in April 2019), India's population grew at an average annual rate of 1.2 per cent
between 2010 and 2019 to _____________.

A. 1.46 bn
B. 1.36 bn
C. 1.16 bn
D. 1.24 bn
E. 1.01 bn

Q106. Per drop more crop is a component of which of the following schemes?

A. PMFBY
B. PMKSY
C. PKVY
D. RKVY
E. NFSM

Q107. Which of the following has distributed more than one lakh bee-boxes among farmers
and unemployed youths across the country, in May 2019, in less than two years under its
'Honey Mission' initiative?

A. NSAP
B. NIRD
C. KVIC
D. CSIR
E. None of the above

Q108. Which of the following states has launched Atal Solar Krishi Pump Yojana, in the
month of January 2019?

A. West Bengal
B. Odisha
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Maharashtra

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 E. Karnataka

Q109. The criteria for connecting unconnected habitations under PMGSY is set by which of
the following?

A. Ministry of Rural Development

B. Ministry of Road, Transport and Highways
C. Ministry of Housing & Urban Poverty Alleviation
D. NITI Aayog
E. None of the above

Q110. IMPRESS Web Portal, launched by the Govt in Oct 2018, comes under which of the
following Ministries?

A. MoAF&W
B. MoHFW
C. MoHRD
D. MoFP&I
E. MoWCD

Q111. Under Ayushman Bharat Scheme launched in the month of September 2018,
hospitalization cover is provided upto what amount?

A. 4 lakh Per Person Per Annum

B. 5 lakh Per Family Per Annum
C. 4 Lakh Per Family Per Annum
D. 5 lakh Per Person Per Annum
E. 2 lakh Per Family Per Annum

Q112. Which of the following states has launched scheme KALIA, in the month of January
2019?

A. Odisha
B. Maharashtra
C. Nagaland
D. Assam
E. Maharashtra

Q113. India and World Bank have signed USD 250 million agreement to launch NRETP, in
the month of Feb 2019. What does R stand for in NRETP?

A. Revised
B. Rural
C. Risk
D. Regional
E. None of the above

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 Q114. KUSUM scheme has been approved by the Union Cabinet in the month of February
2019, what does ‘S’ stand for?

A. Seva
B. Surya
C. Suraksha
D. Solar
E. None of the above

Q115. As per the National Annual Rural Sanitation Survey, results of which were declared
in March 2019, how much percentage of people have access to toilet?

A. 88
B. 93
C. 73
D. 63
E. 66

Q116. DAY – NRLM comes under which of the following ministries?

A. Ministry of Rural Development

B. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
C. Ministry of Road Transport & Highways
D. Ministry of Housing and Poverty Alleviation
E. None of the above

Q117. Under NRLM credit services delivery is provided to the rural areas through?

A. Self Help Groups

B. Payment Banks
C. Post Offices
D. Public Sector Banks
E. None of the above

Q118. According to SECC 2011, how much percentage of rural households earn their
livelihood by casual labour?

A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 35%
D. 25%
E. 50%

Q119. POSHAN Abhiyan, launched by the Government in March 2018, comes under which
of the following ministries?

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 A. MoAF&W
B. MoHFW
C. MoWCD
D. MoFP&I
E. None of the above

Q120. According to Agri Census 2015-16, how much percentage of landholdings are small
and marginal - less than 2 hectares of land?

A. 51.24%
B. 66.34%
C. 77.2%
D. 86.21%
E. 32.87%

Q121. Agri landholdings are categorized under 5 categories. Landholdings from 4 to 10

hectares belong to which of these categories?

A. Marginal
B. Medium
C. Large
D. Semi-Medium
E. None of the above

Q122. Under PMKVY, Government has planned to train 10 million youth in skill
development by which year?

A. 2020
B. 2022
C. 2025
D. 2019
E. 2028

Q123. Under the PMSYM scheme announced by the Government in the Interim Budget
2019-20, what is the upper age limit of the target beneficiaries?

A. 30 Years
B. 40 Years
C. 20 Years
D. 55 Years
E. 60 Years

Q124. Under PMSYM, what is the contribution ratio of beneficiary and the Central
Government?

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 A. 50:50
B. 60:40
C. 90:10
D. 75:25
E. 40:60

Q125. Under PMSYM, what is the minimum monthly pension that would be given to
subscribers of the scheme?

A. Rs.5000
B. Rs.3000
C. Rs.2000
D. Rs.2500
E. Rs.3500

Q126. PAiSA Portal has been developed by which of the following banks, that was launched
in the month of November 2018?

A. State Bank of India

B. Punjab National Bank
C. Allahabad Bank
D. Bank of India
E. None of the above

Q127. Which month was celebrated as the RASHTRIYA POSHAN MAAH under the Poshan
Abhiyan?

A. February 2019
B. September 2018
C. July 2018
D. April 2019
E. May 2019

Q128. Saura Jalnidhi scheme has been launched by which of the following State
Governments, in November 2018?

A. West Bengal
B. Odisha
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Maharashtra
E. Punjab

Q129. According to the National Annual Rural Sanitation Survey (released in March 2019),
how much percentage of people who have access to toilets, have actually used those?

A. 88.5%

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 B. 96.5%
C. 73.5%
D. 63.7%
E. 55%

Q130. PM SAUBHAGYA Yojana has prioritized providing electricity to?

A. Rural Establishments
B. Urban Establishments
C. Rural Industrial Units
D. Rural & Urban Establishments
E. None of the above

Q131. According to the Mind the Gap State of Employment Report released in March 2019,
what is not one of the reasons for the low participation of women in rural jobs?

A. Transformation and development in rural areas

B. Social stigma
C. Unavailability of rural others
D. Burden of household work
E. None of the above

Q132. How many jobs have been generated in the last five years under PMEGP, as per the
data released in the month of Feb 2019?

A. 10 Lakh
B. 20 Lakh
C. 15 Lakh
D. 30 Lakh
E. 25 lakh

Q133. TRIFED is responsible for the employment generation of which of the following
section of people?

A. Minority Communities
B. Tribal Artisans
C. Scheduled Caste Communities
D. Women
E. None of the above

Q134. What is the corpus of the Women livelihood Bond launched by the World Bank and
SIDBI, launched in the month of Feb 2019?

A. Rs.250 crore
B. Rs.300 crore

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 C. Rs.350 crore
D. Rs.400 crore
E. Rs.500 crore

Q135. What is the theme of the 4th edition of NITI Aayog Lecture Series, held in the month
of Oct 2018?

A. AI for ALL: Leveraging Artificial Intelligence for Inclusive Growth

B. Transformation and Development
C. Renewable Energy
D. Sustainable Development
E. None of the above

Q136. National Skill Development Mission is related to the Ministry of ____________

A. Labour and Employment

B. Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
C. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
D. Finance
E. Both a & b

Q137. Those who use 150 units of power or less in a month have to pay Rs. 1 per unit for
first 100 units under Griha Jyoti Yojana. Which of the following states run this electricity
subsidy scheme?

A. Gujarat
B. Haryana
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh

E. Bihar

Q138. PMKVY scheme is under which of the following Ministries?

A. Ministry of Human Resource Development

B. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

C. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
E. Ministry of Women and Child Development
Q139. Which among the following is related to the economic development and prosperity
of fisheries sector in India?

A. White Revolution

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 B. Blue Revolution
C. Golden Revolution
D. Pink Revolution

E. Ocean Revolution
Q140. According to the provisional data of Agri Census 2015-16, The average size of
operational holding has declined to _______ ha in 2015-16 from 1.15 ha in 2010-11.

A. 1.05
B. 1.12

C. 1.08
D. 1.09
E. None of these

Section: - Agriculture & Rural Development (ARD)

Q141. Black Soils are formed from which of the following soil orders?

A. Vertisols

B. Entisols

C. Oxisols

D. Alfisols

E. Aridosols

Q142. The Minimum Support Prices for Agricultural Commodities is announced by?

A. CACP

B. Central Government

C. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmer’s Welfare

D. NABARD

E. None of the above

Q143. The PMMY loans granted for allied activities to agriculture can be covered under
_____.

A. CGFF

B. CGCFF

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 C. CGFMU

D. CGFEL

E. None of the above

Q144. Which of the following is the major objective of Drip Irrigation to crops?

A. Prevent the soil run off

B. Prevent the water run off

C. Prevent the water from seeping into the soil

D. Prevent the wastage of water by applying it to the root zone

E. None of the above

Q145. In the regions of Maharashtra, North Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh grape vines are
pruned in?

A. April - May

B. February - March

C. June - July

D. September - October

E. None of the above

Q146. Which of the following state is identified as the Agriculture Export Zone for cashew
nut?

A. Karnataka

B. Tamil Nadu

C. Kerala

D. Andhra Pradesh

E. None of the above

Q147. PMKVY comes under which of the following ministry?

A. Ministry of Rural Development

B. Ministry of Agriculture and farmers welfare

C. Ministry of Human Resources and Development

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 D. Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship

E. None of the above

Q148. Which of the following is the lending rate for farmer’s loans upto 3 lakhs for which
2% interest subvention applies?

A. 7%

B. 4%

C. 5%

D. 9%

E. None of the above

Q149. When was the NITI Aayog launched?

A. 14th November 2016

B. 2nd October 2016

C. 14th April 2015

D. 1st January 2015

E. None of the above

Q150. Sussex is the world-famous breed of?

A. Dog

B. Poultry

C. Pigs

D. Cattle

E. None of the above

Q151. What is the seed rate of medium sized wheat grain?

A. 150 Kg/ha

B. 50 Kg/ha

C. 75 Kg/ha

D. 100 kg/ha

E. None of the above

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 Q152. Which of the following air breathing fishes has the highest demand in the market?

A. Murrel striped

B. Rohu

C. Murrel giant

D. Nagur

E. None of the above

Q153. Which of the following is correct with respect to the Premium Rates of PMFBY?

A. 2% for commercial crops and 5% for Rabi crops

B. 5% for Kharif crops and 2% for Rabi crops

C. 2% for Kharif crops and 1.5% for Rabi crops

D. 1.5% for Kharif crops and 2% for Rabi crops

E. None of the above

Q154. Muga Silk is largely produced in which of the following states in India?

A. Maharashtra

B. Assam

C. Sikkim

D. Jharkhand

E. None of the above

Q155. Grameen Kaushalya Yojana targets which of the following age groups?

A. >21 years

B. 18-35 years

C. 20-45 years

D. 15-35 years

E. None of the above

Q156. Which of the following is the full form of APEDA?

A. Agri Food & Packaged Food Processing Development Authority

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 B. Agricultural & Processed Food Products Export Development Authority

C. Agricultural Packaged Food Export Development Authority

D. Agri Food Processing Export Development Authority

E. None of the above

Q157. Why is the Buffalo Milk not yellowish in colour?

A. It contains Casein

B. It contains Carotene

C. It lacks Casein

D. It lacks Carotene

E. None of the above

Q158. NRLM stands for?

A. National Rurban Livelihoods Mission

B. National and Regional Long-Term Maintenance Mission

C. National Rural Livelihoods Mission

D. National Rurban Long-Term Maintenance Mission

E. None of the above

Q159. The Solar Charkha Mission targets which of the following segments?

A. Artisans

B. Farmers

C. Industrial workers

D. Women farmers

E. Women in rural areas

Q160. A seed packet carrying Blue Colour Certificate denotes which of the following type of
seeds?

A. Certified Seed

B. Nucleus Seed

C. Registered Seed

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 D. Foundation Seed

E. None of the above

Q161. Who is a marginal farmer?

A. Farmer owning land upto 2.5 hectares

B. Farmer owning land upto 1 hectare

C. Farmer owning land upto 4 hectares

D. Farmer owning land upto 8 hectares

E. None of the above

Q162. According to APEDA Report 2011-16, which if the following commodity has seen the
maximum export in terms of volume?

A. Basmati rice

B. Buffalo meat

C. Non-Basmati Rice

D. Fruits and Vegetables

E. None of the above

Q163. MUDRA stands for?

A. Micro-Units Development and Restructuring Agency

B. Micro-Units Division and Reconstruction Agency

C. Micro-Units Development and Refinance Agency

D. Micro-Units Division and Refinance Agency

E. None of the above

Q164. Which of the following states has the maximum area under Pineapple?

A. Maharashtra

B. Assam

C. Meghalaya

D. Chattisgarh

E. None of the above

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 Q165. The Kisan Credit Cards are given to the farmers for?

A. Helping them get credit for other rural activities

B. Opening Jan Dhan accounts

C. Helping them to meet the medium-term credit requirements for Family health
requirements

D. Helping them to meet the short-term credit requirements for the cultivation of crops

E. None of the above

Q166. Which of the following is the pH value of alkali soils?

A. >8.5

B. 3-5

C. 7-8.5

D. <3

E. None of the above

Q167. In which of the following place is the National Research Centre for Orchids located?

A. Kerala

B. Assam

C. Nagaland

D. Meghalaya

E. Sikkim

Q168. Which of the following is a sub-scheme under the Green Revolution Mission which
caters to food and nutritional security & the socio-economic empowerment of farmers?

A. NASE

B. NMSA

C. NFSM

D. NASMF

E. None of the above

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 Q169. What is the target (in percentage) for lending to non-corporate farmers under PSL for
2018-19?

A. 20%

B. 12%

C. 4%

D. 8%

E. None of the above

Q170. What is the amount allocated for MGNREGA in the Interim Budget 2019-20?

A. 40000 Crores

B. 60000 Crores

C. 25000 Crores

D. 75000 Crores

E. None of the above

Q171. Yellow Revolution is related to which of the following?

A. Oil seeds

B. Jute production

C. Solar energy

D. Silk production

E. None of the above

Q172. GOBAR-DHAN scheme comes under which of the following ministry?

A. Ministry of Social justice

B. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers welfare

C. Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation

D. Ministry of Rural Development

E. None of the above

Q173. Which of the following equipment is used for determining specific gravity of milk?

A. Caseinometer

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 B. Barometer

C. Milkmeter

D. Lactometer

E. None of the above

Q174. Which of the following states is not covered under Atal Bhujal Yojana?

A. Gujarat

B. Haryana

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Rajasthan

E. Odisha

Q175. Which of the following Act regulates the Market of Agricultural Products in India?

A. Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937

B. National Food Security Act 2013

C. Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by respective States

D. FSSAI Act 2006

E. None of the above

Q176. Where is the Headquarter of Central Institute of Medicinal Aromatic Plants?

A. Varanasi

B. Coimbattore

C. Cochin

D. Pune

E. Lucknow

Q177. Which of the following organizations maintains RIDF?

A. SIDBI

B. RBI

C. NABARD

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 D. Ministry of Finance

E. Central Government

Q178. What is the fat content of Double Toned Milk?

A. 0.5%

B. 5%

C. 3%

D. 8%

E. 1.5%

Q179. Which of the following buffalo breeds has a sickle shaped horn?

A. Surti

B. Murrah

C. Jaffarabadi

D. Tarai

E. None of the above

Q180. Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research is located in which of the following states?

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Karnataka

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Odisha

E. Maharashtra

Section: - Computer Knowledge

Q181. Which of the following is secondary storage device?

A. Hard Disk Drive

B. Flash Memory

C. Cache Memory

D. RAM

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 E. ROM

Q182. Which of the following is a search engine?

A. MS- Windows

B. Bing

C. Ubuntu

D. Solaris

E. None of the above

Q183. IP stands for which of the following?

A. Intelligent Protocol

B. Internet Programme

C. Internet Protocol

D. Intelligent Programme

E. Internet Protection

Q184. What are number of bits in IPv4 and IPv6 respectively?

A. 32 bits and 128 bits

B. 32 bits and 64 bits

C. 64 bits and 128 bits

D. 118 bits and 128 bits

E. 128 bits and 264 bits

Q185. Which of the following is the syntax for concatenation in MS Excel?

A. +CONCATENATE

B. =CONCATENATE

C. -CONCATENATE

D. >CONCATENATE

E. <CONCATENATE

Q186. Which of the following is the shortcut key to find text in MS Word?

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 A. SHIFT+F

B. CTRL+F

C. ALT+F

D. ALT+SHIFT+F

E. None of the above

Q187. Which of the following provides backup storage for instructions and data that are not
currently being used by the processor?

A. RAM

B. ROM

C. Both A & B

D. Cache

E. All of the above

Q188. Identify the correct option out of the below given statements, indicating increasing
price of different types of computers.

A. Micro Computer, Mini Computer, Mainframe Computer, Super Computer

B. Mainframe Computer, Super Computer, Micro Computer, Mini Computer

C. Super Computer, Micro Computer, Mini Computer, Mainframe Computer

D. Mainframe Computer, Micro Computer, Mini Computer, Super Computer

E. None of the above

Q189. Which of the following is the short cut for hyperlink in MS-Word?

A. Shift + H

B. Ctrl + H

C. Alt + K

D. Shift + K

E. Ctrl + K

Q190. Which of the following is an application software?

A. Web Browser

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 B. Spreadsheet

C. Word Processor

D. Database

E. All of the above

Q191. SMTP is a type of communication protocol that allows two or more entities of a
communications system to transmit information. What does T in the acronym SMTP stands
for?

A. Transmission

B. Transfer

C. Transmit

D. Transport

E. Transportation

Q192. Which of the following term is best suited for unsolicited e- mails?

A. Usenet

B. Newsgroup

C. Spam

D. Flaming

E. Phishing

Q193. ____________ is a structured database in which data is stored in the form of tables.

A. Network Database

B. Hierarchical Database

C. Cloud Database

D. All of the above

E. Relational Database

Q194. Which of the following is identified as a collection of conceptual tools for describing
data, relationships, semantics and constraints?

A. ER Model

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 B. Data Model

C. DBMS

D. Base Model

E. None of the above

Q195. Internet Explorer and Firefox are referred to as __________

A. Development Software

B. Utility Software

C. Internet

D. Browsers

E. None of the above

Q196. Which of the following is the extension of graphical files?

A. GIF

B. JPG

C. CPX

D. Both A & B

E. All of the above

Q197. Which of the following is a computer program that converts assembly language to
machine language?

A. Compiler

B. Interpreter

C. Converter

D. Assembler

E. Translator

Q198. What is the name of process of finding errors in a software code?

A. Compiling

B. Running

C. Testing

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 D. Debugging

E. None of the above

Q199. 1 nibble equals to ________

A. 4 bits

B. 8 bits

C. 16 bits

D. 32 bits

E. 12 bits

Q200. The mode of transmission that allows both communicating devices to transmit and
receive data simultaneously is called as

A. Full Duplex

B. Half Duplex

C. Simplex

D. Simple Complex

E. None of the above

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