RBI Grade B 2019 Phase 1-2 PYQs

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Dear Students,
It is with great pleasure that we present to you this question paper document
with detailed explanations for the RBI Grade B 2019 – Phase 1 exam. This
document has been meticulously to serve as a valuable resource for candidates
preparing for the RBI Grade B officer exam.
Aspiring candidates are often confused about the pattern, difficulty level and
types of questions that may appear in their upcoming exam.
Each question has been carefully solved, and its underlying concepts and
principles have been thoroughly explained. This will help you in not only to
practice answering questions but also helps you understand the reasoning and
logic behind each correct answer. Through explanations, you will be able to
reinforce your understanding, clarify any doubts, and develop a deeper grasp of
the subject matter.
We wish you all the best in your exam preparation journey and hope that this
document proves to be a valuable asset in your pursuit of success.
Disclaimer: While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy and
relevance of the questions, there can be some variations in the question
language and options. Therefore, we encourage you to use these questions as a
reference point. This will help you acquire a comprehensive understanding of the
syllabus and increase your chances of success in the upcoming RBI Grade B
officer exam.
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Section: - Reasoning
Direction (1 – 5): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight people M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a straight line facing north direction. They all have
different ages, viz. 8, 12, 14, 21, 28, 36, 44 and 56 but not necessarily in the same order. Two people
are sitting between O and the one whose age is 56 years. The one whose age is 14 years is sitting
second to the left of O. N is sitting to the immediate left of the one whose age is 56 years. One
person is sitting between T and the one whose age is 56 years. Either T or the one whose age is 56
years is sitting at the extreme end. The one who is 56 years old is not sitting to the left of T. There is
a difference of 7 years between the ages of R and S and two people are sitting between them. The
one whose age is 12 years is sitting second to the left of P. P is not sitting at the extreme end. There
is one people sitting between R and the one whose age is 44 years. M is an immediate neighbor of
the one whose age is 44 years. Q and the one whose age is 21 years are immediate neighbors. T is
older than M and N is younger than Q
Q1. How many people sit(s) between R and the one who is 21 years old?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. More than three
E. None
Q2. What is the age difference between M and S?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
E. None of these
Q3. What is the age of P?
A. 56 years
B. 44 years
C. 12 years
D. 21 years
E. None of these
Q4. What is the sum of the ages of the people who sit the extreme ends?
A. 30 years
B. 84 years

C. 48 years
D. 65 years
E. None of these
Q5. What is the name of the person who is 28 years old?
A. M
B. O
C. R
D. P
E. None of these
Direction (6 – 9): Study the following information to answer the given questions: In a certain code,
‘make security in theme lists’ is written as ‘jo ti tis su nic’,
‘India make old regime’ is written as ‘die min tip ti’,
‘old lists with correction’ is written as ‘za tis die kee’ and
‘theme curbs regime’ is written as ‘tip ba nic’.
Q6. What is the code for ‘security’?
A. jo
B. ti
C. tis
D. su
E. Can’t be determined
Q7. What does ‘za’ stand for?
A. old
B. lists
C. correction
D. with
E. Either with or correction
Q8. ’tis da tip’ could be a code for which of the following?
A. old regime lists
B. regime lists arise
C. correction theme case
D. India with regime

E. None of these
Q9. Which of the following may represent ‘transparency in old security’?
A. su die mac ti
B. die mac jo tip
C. die jo nic su
D. jo die su mac
E. None of these
Q10. If it is possible to make one meaningful word with the 1st, 5th, 6th and 9th letters of the
word OVERWHELM, which of the following will be the second letter from the right end of that
word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such words can
be made, give ‘V’ as the answer.
A. M
B. H
C. O
D. X
E. V
Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q11. Statements:
Only a few Men are Boys.
All Boys are Kids.
No Kids are Children.
Conclusions:
I. Some Men are not Children.
II. Some Men are not Boys.
A. If only conclusion II follows
B. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
C. If both conclusions I and II follow
D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Q12. Statements:
Some Fruits are Mangos.
Only Mangos are Tasty.
Only a few Mangos are Guavas.
Conclusions:
I. All Guavas are Mangos.
II. No Tasty being Fruit is a possibility.
A. If only conclusion I follows
B. If only conclusion II follows
C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
D. If both conclusions I and II follow
E. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Q13. Statements:
Only a few Dairy Milk is Milky Bar.
Some Milky Bar is Munch.
Only Munch is Perk.
Conclusions:
I. All Dairy Milk can be Milky Bar
II. Some Munch is Milky Bar.

Q14. Statements:
All Trees are Plants.
Some Plants are Bushes.
Only a few Bushes are Grass.
Conclusions:
I. No Plant is Grass.
II. All Bushes can be Grass.
Q15. Statements:
Only a few Dinners are Cake.
No Dinner is Apple.
Only a few Apples are figures.
Conclusions:
I. Some apples are not figures.
II. No Apple is Cake.
Direction (16 – 20): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions below.
Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are going to market on seven different days starting from Monday
to Sunday and buy any one item among Chair, Table, Lamp. Not more than three people buy the

same item. E buys table before Wednesday. Three people go to the market between E and B. The
one who goes to the market on Thursday buys Chair. A goes to the market immediately before G.
Two people go to the market between G and F. Only A and the one who goes to the market on
Saturday buy Lamp. F neither goes to the market on Thursday nor buy lamp. Only one people goes
to the market between D who buys Table and the one who buys Chair. C does not buy table. C go to
the market neither immediately after nor immediately before B.
Q16. Who among the following goes to the market immediately before F?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. E
E. F
Q17. Who among the following goes to the market on Monday?
A. C
B. G
C. D
D. E
E. F
Q18. D buys which of the following item?
A. Chair
B. Lamp
C. Table
D. Either Chair or Lamp
E. Either Lamp or Table
Q19. How many people go the market between C and B?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. More than four
Q20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, find the one which doesn’t belong to that
group.
A. EG

B. AD
C. CA
D. GB
E. EF
Direction (21 – 24): Study the following information carefully and answer the question based on it.
Raga started walking in East direction from point R. After walking 15 m she reached point S, from
there she takes a left turn and walks 10 m to reach point T. From T, she turns left and walk 7 m and
reaches point U. Then, she turns left and walks 34 m to reach point V. From point V she turns right
and walks 28 m. Now she reached point W and from there she turns right and walks 40 m to reach
point X. From point X she turns right and walks 32 m to reach point Y.
Q21. What is the direction of X with respect to R?
A. North
B. East
C. North – West
D. West
E. South – West
Q22. If point A is the point of intersection of line segment RS and UV then which of the following
is/ are true about A?
A. Point Y is North of A
B. AV + AU = XW – 6
C. A is to the North of U
D. All are true
E. None is true.
Q23. What is total distance travelled by Raga in west direction?
A. 64 m
B. 35 m
C. 45 m
D. 28 m
E. 56 m
Q24. What is the direction of point T with respect to Y?
A. South
B. North – West
C. South – East

D. South – West
E. North – East
Direction (25 – 27): In these questions, statements are given followed by two sets of conclusions
numbered I and II. These statements show relationship between different elements. You have to
assume the statement to be true and then decide which of the given two conclusions logically
follows from the given information given in the statement.
Q25. Statements: S ≤ T < P = D; P ≤ M; R ≥ M
Conclusions:
I. M≤S
II. D > S
A. Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
B. Either conclusion I or II is true.
C. Only conclusion II is true.
D. Both conclusions I and II and true.
E. Only conclusion I is true.
Q26. Statements: S ≤ T < P = D; P ≤ M; R ≥ M
Conclusions:
I. D<R
II. R = D
Q27. Statements: L ≥ J ≥ U ≤ P; D ≤ P; U > T
Conclusions:
I. L>T
II. D ≤ J
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Direction (28 – 34): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is
an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them
are facing south. In row-2 P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore,
in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other
row. V sits third to the right of S. S faces F and F does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. D
sits third to the right of C. R faces C. The one who is facing E sits third to the right of P. B and P do
not sit at the extreme ends of the line. T is not an immediate neighbour of V and A is not an
immediate neighbour of C. R does not sit at the extreme end.
Q28. Who amongst the following faces D?
A. T
B. P
C. Q
D. R
E. None of these
Q29. Who amongst the following represent the people sitting at the extreme ends of the rows?
A. R, F
B. T, A
C. D, R
D. C, Q
E. S, A
Q30. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to that group?
A. B-T
B. A-Q
C. C-S
D. F-P
E. D-R
Q31. How many persons are seated between R and T?
A. ONE
B. TWO
C. THREE
D. FOUR

E. None of these
Q32. Who amongst the following faces Q?
A. D
B. B
C. E
D. A
E. None of these
Q33. Which of the following is true regarding B?
A. B sits to the immediate left of C
B. B faces Q
C. B sits fourth from the extreme left end of the line
D. D and F are immediate neighbours of B
E. None of these
Q34. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘Rockabilly’ each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet (Both forward and backward)?
A. Nil
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
E. None of these
Direction (35 – 39): When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of
words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of
input and its rearrangement (All the numbers are two-digit numbers).
Input: not 10 bold 21 curse hockey 31 28 49 44
Step I: 10 21 not bold curse hockey 31 28 49 44
Step II: not bold 10 21 curse hockey 31 28 49 44
Step III: 28 31 not bold 10 21 curse hockey 49 44
Step IV: curse hockey 28 31 not bold 10 21 49 44
Step V: 44 49 curse hockey 28 31 not bold 10 21
And Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained. As
per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input: judge 20 12 gone ear 17 11 sitting 34 dinner arranges 29

Q35. How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
E. None of these
Q36. Which word/Number would be at the fifth place from the right in Step IV?
A. 11
B. ear
C. 12
D. gone
E. None of these
Q37. How many elements are there between ‘judge’ and ‘34’ in step II?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None of these
Q38. Which of the following represents the position of ‘sitting’ in step V?
A. 1st from right
B. 5th from left
C. 6th from left
D. 2nd from right
E. None of these
Q39. Which of the following elements is third to the left of 6th element from the right end in the
last step?
A. 34
B. judge
C. Arranges
D. ear
E. None of these

Q40. Each of the consonants in the word ORGANISATION is replaced by number 3 and each vowel
is replaced by its numeric place value in the English alphabet series i.e. A is by 1, E is by 5 and so
on. What is the total sum of all the numbers once the replacement is completed?
A. 65
B. 70
C. 72
D. 68
E. None of these
Direction (41 – 45): Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
W, X, Y, T, U, V and Z are seven colleagues, who live in a seven-storey building. The ground floor is
numbered 1; the floor above it is numbered 2; and so on, until the topmost floor is numbered 7.
Each of them works in different companies i.e., IOC, RIL, BPCL, SBI, Tata Motors, ONGC and HPCL but
not necessarily in the same order. Z and X don’t work in SBI. The one, who works in Tata motors,
lives just above X. The one, who works in HPCL, lives above T. Z lives on the fifth floor. Neither X nor
Z works in RIL. There are two floors between the floors on which X and V lives. The one, who works
in ONGC, lives on the topmost floor. V lives on an even numbered floor. Y works in BPCL. There is
only one floor between U and the one, who works in RIL. There are three floors between T and the
one, who works in IOC.
Q41. Who among the following works in IOC?
A. The one, who lives just below W
B. The one, who lives on sixth floor
C. The one, who lives between V and X
D. The one, who lives two floors above X
E. None of these
Q42. If V is related to Tata motors and T is related to HPCL then in the same way, Z is related to __.
A. RIL
B. SBI
C. BPCL
D. ONGC
E. None of these
Q43. How many persons are living above the one, who works in BPCL?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Five

D. Four
E. None of these
Q44. Find the odd one.
A. W, RIL
B. T, BPCL
C. Z, Tata motors
D. V, SBI
E. Y, HPCL
Q45. Find the correct statement.
A. Y works in BPCL and lives just above X
B. Four persons are living between W and the one, who works in SBI
C. U works in Tata motors and lives two floors away from T
D. V lives three floors away from the one, who works in HPCL
E. None is correct
Direction: In the following question is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I
and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Q46. Statement: "You are here by appointed as a curriculum developer with a period of probation
that shall last for 6 months; at the end of which you will be confirmed or let go as per your
performance evaluation" A line in an offer letter.
Assumptions:
I. The performance of any professional can usually not be measured at the time of offering the job.
II. The probation period is for the professional to prove his capabilities.
A. If only assumption I is implicit
B. If only assumption II is implicit
C. If either I or II is implicit
D. If neither I nor II is implicit
E. If both I and II are implicit
Direction: In the question given below, one statement is followed by three assumptions numbered
I, II, and III. Read the statement carefully and decide which of the given assumptions are implicit in
the Statement.
Q47. Statement: Overwhelmed with grief and anger, families have been returning to what is left of
their homes in the Old City of Mosul, following its liberation from Isis, the terrorist organization.

Assumptions:
I. The terrorist organization, Isis, destroyed the Old City of Mosul before they left.
II. Most of the residents of Mosul had left/ been driven away when Isis took over their city.
III. None of the residents of Mosul supported Isis, which is why they left the city.
A. If only assumption I is implicit
B. If only assumption II is implicit
C. If only assumption III is implicit
D. If both assumptions I and II are implicit
E. If none of the assumptions are implicit
Direction: In the questions given below, a statement is given followed by three courses of action.
A course of action is taken for improvement, follow up, etc.
Read the statement carefully and give your answer as:
Q48. Statement: The Indian High Commission in Antigua and Barbuda had asked the authorities
there to stop billionaire diamond trader Mehul Choksi from travelling around the world, sources
said on Monday.
Courses of Action:
I. All billionaire diamond traders should immediately stop travelling to Antigua and Barbuda for
the time being.
II. Mehul Choksi should seek asylum in some other country to avoid being caught.
III. The Indian High Commissioner should himself go and arrest Mehul Choksi.
A. If only course of action I follows
B. If only course of action II follows
C. If both I and II follow
D. If both II and III follow
E. If none of them follow
Direction: In the question given below, a statement is given followed by two courses of action. A
course of action is taken for improvement, follow up, etc.
Read the statement carefully and give your answer accordingly.
Q49. Statement: Disposal of nonbiodegradable electronic waste is another problem that the
government, which is unable to reduce the use of plastic, has to handle in the near future.
Courses of Actions:
I. The government should not worry about electronic waste now.

II. The government should learn from its failure to reduce the use of plastic and take early steps
for effective disposal of electronic waste.
A. Only course of action I follows
B. Only course of action II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow
Direction: In each of the following question, two statements are given. They may either be
independent causes, independent effects or bear a cause-and-effect relationship that is unique to
each other. Read both the statements carefully and mark:
Q50. Statements:
I. Kochi got its new traffic light system that was specially designed to cope with the increasing
traffic problems and roadblocks.
II. The number of road accidents in Kochi has come down in the past 2 months.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Direction (51 – 55): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven different boxes of different colours i.e., black, silver, red, pink,
yellow, white and green but not necessarily in the same order. Box S is kept immediately above the
yellow colour box. More than three boxes are there between pink and silver colour box. There are
two boxes between box Q and box T. There is only one box between box T and box W. There are
three boxes between box W and box P, which is of black colour. There are only two boxes between
box P and box R, which is of white colour. The silver colour box is kept immediately above the box
W. More than three boxes are there between yellow and pink colour box. The colour of box T is red.
Q51. Which box is of yellow colour?
A. Q
B. S
C. V
D. W
E. P
Q52. How many boxes are there between the green coloured box and silver coloured box?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None
Q53. Box Q is of which colour?
A. Silver
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Black
E. Pink
Q54. Which box is placed immediately above red colour box?
A. P
B. S
C. R
D. T
E. W
Q55. How many boxes are there between box W and box Q?
A. Four
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
E. None
Direction: In each question below, a statement is given followed by three conclusions numbered I,
II, and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two
conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from
the information given in the statement.
Q56. Statement: Mexico’s ruling Institutional Revolutionary Party (PRI), which has dominated its
politics for the better part of a century, seems at risk of a defeat in the July 1 election.
Conclusions: I. The PRI has won most of the elections held in Mexico in the last 100 years.
II. The PRI will no longer remain the reigning party in Mexico post July.
III. The leaders of PRI seemed to have irked the sentiments of the common people in Mexico.

A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Both II and III follows
E. Both I and III follow
Direction: In the questions below, a statement is given followed by two arguments. Choose the
most appropriate option.
Q57. Statement: In 2016, the Government of India put a ban on all Rs 500 and 1000 notes in an
effort to curtail the shadow economy and impede the use of illegal and fake currency that funds
illegal activities and terrorism.
Arguments:
I. This was the best way to tackle corruption and to stop the use of counterfeit cash.
II. Demonetisation looks like a bad idea, badly executed on the basis of some half-baked notions.
A. Only 1 is strong
B. Only 2 is strong
C. Both are equally valid
D. None are valid
E. Together, they can be used to make a strong argument
Direction: A statement is given followed by two inferences numbered I and II. Consider the
statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide
which of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Q58. Statement: Sea level rise driven by climate change is set to pose an existential crisis to many
US coastal communities, with new research finding that as many as 311,000 homes face being
flooded every two weeks within the next 30 years.
Inferences:
I. This research report will potentially inflict a huge financial and emotional toll on all those
Americans who live in the properties at risk of having their basements, backyards, garages or living
rooms inundated every other week.
II. Greenhouse gas emissions, the main cause of rising sea levels, need to severely curtailed with
immediate effect.
A. Only I can be inferred
B. Only II can be inferred
C. Both of them can be inferred
D. None of them can be inferred

E. Either Only I or II
Q59. The lifeline of Mumbai is its railway network, which is one of the most crowded places in the
city. A Group of commuters of the Mumbai suburban railways called for a strike in response to the
increase in the number of accidents in some routes in the past year due to overcrowding. The
commuters want to continue the strike unless the authorities agree to increase the frequency of
the trains in that route. Which of the following can be inferred from the forementioned
statements?
A. Increase in the frequency of the trains would lead to decrease in the number of such accidents
B. The trains in the Mumbai suburban run overcrowded
C. The railway authorities are indifferent to the safety of the commuters
D. The railways did not increase the frequency of trains in proportion to the increase in the number
of commuters in the past year.
E. None of these
Direction: A statement is given followed by three inferences numbered I, II, and III. Consider the
statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide
which of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
60. Statement: Digital payment systems have ballooned in popularity in India since the
government scrapped large value banknotes in 2016.
Inferences:
I. People find it easier to pay via electronic methods rather than cash.
II. The common people have realised the convenience of digital payments, which is why it has
gained popularity.
III. Digital payments methods have become popular in India because of good advertising.
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Both II and III follows
E. Both I and III follow
Section: - Quant
Direction (61 – 66): Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions:
Data regarding the number of Doctors(D) and Engineers(E) in three colleges - A, B and C is given.
College A: Ratio of male doctors and male engineers is 12: 5 and the difference between them is

280. Total number of female doctors and female engineers is 300. Number of male engineers is 30
more than that of the number of female engineers. College B: Sum of the number of male doctors
and male engineers is equal to the sum of the number of female doctors and female engineers in
college A. Ratio of the male doctors and male engineers together and female doctors and female
engineers together is 6: 7. Ratio of female doctors and female engineers is 2: 3. Number of male
doctors in college B is 1/3rd of the number of male engineers in college C. College C: Male engineers
is 1.5 times the number of female doctors. Sum of the number of female doctors and female
engineers is 550. Number of female engineers is 70 more than the number of female doctors. Total
number of male doctors and male engineers is 760.
Q61. What is ratio of total number of male and female doctors together in college B to that in
college C?
A. 12: 25
B. 13: 32
C. 14: 19
D. 23: 34
E. 19: 32
Q62. What is total number of male and female engineers in colleges A, B and C together?
A. 1390
B. 1510
C. 1430
D. 1500
E. 1300
Q63. In another college D, total number of females is 640 out of which 25% are doctors and
number of male doctors in college is 12.5% more than that in college C. What is the total number
of doctors in college D?
A. 610
B. 570
C. 590
D. 630
E. None of these
Q64. Average number of female doctors in colleges A, B and C is?
A. 160
B. 150
C. 180
D. 200

E. 170
Q65. Female doctors and engineers in college C is approximately what percent less than total male
doctors and engineers in college A?
A. 28
B. 8
C. 19
D. 34
E. 4
Q66. Find the difference between male engineers in college B and female engineers in the same
college.
A. 35
B. 20
C. 40
D. 30
E. None of these
Q67. A number when multiplied by 7 gives another number which is as much above 260 as the
original number itself is below 260. What is 32% of the original number?
A. 16
B. 18.5
C. 20.8
D. 17.5
E. None of these
Q68. Cost price of B is Rs 180 more than the Cost price of A. A is sold at profit of 20% and B is sold
at loss of 40%. Ratio of selling price of A and B is 5:4. What is the cost price of A?
A. Rs. 400
B. Rs. 300
C. Rs. 360
D. Rs. 350
E. Rs. 250
Q69. Ratio of present ages of A and B is 6:5. After 10 years, the ratio of their ages will be 7:6. Find
the difference in their present ages?
A. 5 years
B. 6 years

C. 10 years
D. 12 years
E. 15 years
Q70. Ratio of heights of right circular cylinders A and B is 1:2. Ratio of curved surface areas of right
circular cylinders A and B is 2:3. Find the ratio of radii of right circular cylinders A and B?
A. 3:2
B. 2:1
C. 3:4
D. 4:3
E. 3:5
Q71. Train A, 240 m long, crosses a platform double its length in 24 seconds. Find the approx. time
taken to cross train B, 200 m long and travelling at 108 kmph in opposite direction?
A. 12 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 14 seconds
D. 15 seconds
E. 7 seconds
Direction (72 – 75): Find the wrong term in the given series:
Q72). 13, 22, 40, 76, 152, 292, 580
A. 292
B. 76
C. 22
D. 152
E. 40
Q73). 4, 15, 37, 100, 224, 439, 781
A. 37
B. 439
C. 100
D. 15
E. 224
Q74). 15, 20, 27, 37, 51, 72, 95
A. 20

B. 37
C. 27
D. 51
E. 72
Q75). 26, 29, 22, 25, 18, 23, 14
A. 23
B. 22
C. 25
D. 29
E. 18
Direction (76 – 79): Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to
determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You
should use the data and your knowledge of mathematics to choose the best possible answer.
Q76. There are 4 positive integral values A, B, C and D. Find the value of C?
I. Average of A, B, C and D is 42.
II. A<B<C<D. Average of B and C is 40. A and B are equidistant from 28. A and C are equidistant
from 32.
A. Data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question
B. Data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while he data in Statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. Data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
E. Data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Q77. In how many days, 4 men and 4 women can complete the work?
I. 6 men and 10 women can complete the work in 10 days.
II. 8 men and 20 women can complete the work in 6 days.
B. Data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I

Q78. What is A’s mother present age?
I. Ratio of A’s father present age and A’s present age is 3:1.
II. Combined present age of A’s father & A is 8 years more than the combined present age of A’s
mother & A. 12 years ago, A’s father that time was times A’s mother that time.
B. Data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I
Q79. Find the cost of paving the rectangular field at the rate of Rs. 12 per
Statement I: The length of a rectangular field is equal to the diagonal of a square of area 162 and
ratio of length and breadth of the rectangle is 3: 2 respectively.
Statement II: The perimeter of the rectangle is 40 m less than the perimeter of a square of area
4096
A. If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in Statement I or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
D. If the data in both Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
E. If the data even in both Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Direction (80 – 84): Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the given questions.
5 TV channels A, B, C, D and E show the two types of movies-Bollywood and Hollywood. Number
of movies shown by these 5 TV channels in a year is given in the bar graph.

Q80. Number of Hollywood movies telecasted on channel E is what percent more than the number
of Bollywood movies telecasted on the same channel?
A. 25%
B. 20%
C. 37.5%
D. 16.66%
E. 33.33%
Q81. What is the average number of Hollywood movies telecasted on the channels B, D and E
together?
A. 640
B. 720
C. 680
D. 750
E. 760
Q82. What is the ratio of the total number of movies telecasted on channel A and channel E?
A. 5: 6
B. 6: 7
C. 5: 7
D. 6: 5
E. 4: 7
Q83. what is the difference between the number of Bollywood movies telecasted on channels A
and C and the number of Hollywood movies telecasted on channels B and D?

A. 360
B. 390
C. 420
D. 480
E. 520
Q84. 30% of the Bollywood movies telecasted on channel E and 20% of the Hollywood movies
telecasted on the same channel were on historical events. How many movies telecasted on
channel E were on historical events?
A. 256
B. 292
C. 264
D. 262
E. 272
Q85. A shopkeeper sold a wrist watch at 20% discount to Sohan and Sohan sold this watch at the
profit of 12.5% profit for Rs. 2700, Then find the discount.
A. 600
B. 450
C. 550
D. 870
E. 700
Q86. A person travels a total distance of 1260 km partly by bike and partly by Car. The speed of
Bike and Car is 4: 3. If the distance travelled by car is 180 km more than that by bike, then What is
the ratio of time taken by car and bike to travel?
A. 11: 9
B. 16: 6
C. 9: 16
D. 16: 9
E. 17: 5
Q87. Two pipes can fill a tank in 36 hours and 12 hours respectively. If the pipe C can empty the
one-fourth of the tank in 8 hours, then in how much time all the three pipes can fill half the empty
tank?
A. 8
B. 6

C. 6
D. 5
E. 6
Q88. Bina invested 10% of her monthly income in stocks. She spent 15% of remaining on groceries
and gave the remaining 30600 to her husband. What is the difference between the amount spent
on groceries and the investment in stocks?
A. 1930
B. 1500
C. 2200
D. 1300
E. 1400
Q89. Cost of 4 shirts and 3 trousers is Rs. 1700. If the price of a shirt is 37.5% more than the price
of a trouser, then what is the difference between the price of a shirt and a trouser?
A. 87
B. 65
C. 75
D. 88
E. 95
Q90. Wages of a labour are increased by 15% and his working hours are also increased by 9%.
Initially he used to earn Rs.18,000 per month for 300 hours in a month. Find his total earning in a
month now?
A. Rs.21,000
B. Rs.22,563
C. Rs.23,623
D. Rs.24,868
E. Rs.23,456
Section: - English Language

Direction (91 – 95): In the given question, five words are printed in bold and are numbered A, B, C,
D and E. The positions of some highlighted words may be incorrect and need to be exchanged with
another highlighted to make the sentence correct. Find the words that need to be exchanged.

Q91. As the spread (A) of habitat and biodiversity loss suggest (B) humans to more zoonotic diseases
that destruction (C) from animals to humans, a key programme to study the spread of these
diseases and expose (D) ways to control them has been in the works (E) in India since 2018.
A. Only A-B
B. Both C-D & B-E
C. Both A-D & C-E
D. Both A-C & B-D
E. No exchange required
Q92. The public school’s multicultural (A) included curriculum (B) program that taught (C) students
about ethnic (D) from different inventors (E) background.
A. A-B and C-D
B. D-B and C-D
C. A-B and D-E
D. B-D and D-E
Q93. With its diverse world (A), the cities (B) is considered (C) one of the most cosmopolitan city (D)
in the population(E).
A. D-E
B. D-A
C. A-D and D-E
D. A-E and B-D
Q94. To restrict (A) the study to the compliant patients, only those completing (B) a second
department (C) at the outpatient visit (D) were included (E).
A. A-E and B-D
B. C-D
C. A-B and D-E
D. B-C
Q95. As the comment (A) are at a delicate (B) stage the senior staff at the observatory preferred (C)
to make no negotiations (D) when contacted (E) yesterday.
A. A-B
B. B-C

C. D-E
D. A-D
Direction (96 – 98): In this question, two columns I and II and three sentences are given, which are
divided into two parts. Column I (A, B and C) consist of first half of each sentence and Column II (D,
E and F) consists of second half of each sentence. Match column I with column II, so that the
sentences formed are both meaningful and grammatically correct. Choose the option as your
answer.
Q96. I.
A) There was a biographical note about
B) His research is at the cutting
C) I have no idea how to set
II.
D) edge of new therapies for cancer.
E) the author on the back of the book.
F) off changing a tyre on a car.
A. B-E and C-F
B. A-E and B-D
C. A-E
D. B-F
E. A-E, B-D and C-F
Q97. I.
A) The more precious the metals that go into the
B) We must ensure that tourism develop
C) The government is being widely
II.
D) criticized in the press for its strict step.
E) in harmony with the environment.
F) making of the alloy, the higher are the charge.
A. B-E and C-D
B. A-E, B-D and C-F
C. A-E and C-E

D. B-F
E. None of the above
Q98. I.
A) This method was criticized for being wasteful
B) The admission process was faulty
C) The portal aims at improving the
II.
D) These had to be conducted all over again.
E) And causing inconvenience to the common man.
F) Availability of coal to consumers.
A. B-E and C-D
B. A-D, B-F and C-E
C. A-E and C-E
D. A-E and C-F
Direction (99 – 103): Given below are six statements A, B, C, D, E and F, which when arranged in
the correct order, form a coherent and meaningful paragraph. The sentence marked E is fixed and
would fit in the fifth position. Rearrange the other statements in a proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions that follow.
A) They have worked against the rules which state that GI is given to goods where a given quality
and reputation are drawn from its geographic origin.
B) The result of this belief is that today, India has more than 600 GI products in defiance of logic,
rules and any economic rationale.
C) The officials who hand out the GI trademarks believe that they have the mandate to push up the
number of GIs it awards, while blithely ignoring the rules that govern its issuance.
D) This is a perpetually silly reason presented by the officials while assigning GIs at the Geographical
Indications (GIs) registry.
E) However, the officials seem to believe in numbers and made people jostle for the GI label in the
mistaken belief that it would magically boost their business.
F) The tag was meant to safeguard monopolies and was a right given to a community of producers,
not individuals.
Q99. Which of the following will be the first statement after rearrangement?
A. C
B. E

C. D
D. F
E. A
Q100. Which of the following will be the fourth statement after rearrangement?
A. C
B. E
C. B
D. F
E. A
Q101. Which of the following will be the third statement after rearrangement?
A. C
B. E
C. B
D. F
E. A
Q102. Which of the following will be the second statement after rearrangement?
A. C
B. D
C. B
D. F
E. A
Q103. Which of the following will be the last statement after rearrangement?
A. C
B. E
C. B
D. F
E. A
Direction (104 – 109): In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. These numbers correspond to the question numbers. Against each question, five
words have been suggested, one of which would fill the blank appropriately. Mark the suitable
word as the answer.

Countries are (###Q104###) species to move to new places by enabling climate change, and at the
same time, making it harder for them to move. Across geologic time, the Earth has apparently
survived five mass extinctions, and we are on the verge of the Sixth. We don’t believe humanity can
survive this wave, unless we make rapid (###Q105###). There has been a rising tide of ignorance in
the face of absolute facts in the global arena. The very science that the world is (###Q106###) to
reach the moon, Mars and beyond, is now telling us that we might have to abandon ship if we keep
polluting and (###Q107###) the environment and have leaders who ignore science. Large
corporations, especially energy corporations, release carbon emissions into the atmosphere. Factors
that have been influencing these emissions are very much within our control. One of them is
consumerism which (###Q108###) climate change. The Food and Agriculture Organization of the
United Nations, in its report titled ‘Livestock’s Long Shadow’, argues that livestock is a major stressor
on many ecosystems and on the planet as a whole. It is one of the largest sources of greenhouse
gases, and these gases will only increase if we, as consumers, don’t make conscious (###Q109###).
Q104. Find the appropriate word in each case.
A. carrying
B. abandoning
C. forcing
D. finding
E. ensuring
A. proceeds
B. amends
C. plots
D. Gauge
E. atone
A. daunting
B. craving
C. heartening
D. scraping
E. using
A. outgrowing
B. illustrating
C. warping

D. abusing
E. depraving
A. amplifies
B. misemploys
C. expounds
D. elucidates
E. clucks
A. illuminates
B. transitive
C. choices
D. reasoning
E. prophecies
Direction (110 – 114): A statement with one blank is given below. Choose the set of words from
the given options which can be used to fill the given blank.
Q110. Despite almost ubiquitous scepticism, the electoral bonds have prevailed and, that too,
almost solely _________________ rhetorical claims of “transparency of political funding system,”
“clean money,” and “donor’s anonymity.”
i. with the backing of the ruling government’s
ii. based on the endorsement derived from the political party at power’s
iii. backed by the political party at power’s
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Only iii
D. Both i and ii
E. All of these
Q111. Impeachment experts testified before the House judiciary committee on Wednesday that
Donald Trump’s misconduct offered ____________ as prescribed by the constitution and applied
over the course of US history.
i. the perfect example for impeachment
ii. the correct case
iii. a textbook case of impeachable offenses

A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both i and iii
D. Both i and ii
E. All of these
Q112. More energy intake than energy expenditure, will in the long-term lead to fat deposition,
insulin resistance and a fatty liver ______________ diet composition.
i) regardless of the
ii) despite having a proper
iii) though a different
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both ii and iii
D. Both i and ii
E. All of these
Q113. Some eighty thousand years ago, hunters and gatherers ate fruit sporadically, since these
were ________________.
i) not widely available.
ii) not good hunting.
iii) competes with birds.
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both i and iii
D. Both i and ii
E. All of these
Q114. ______________ cloud based blockchain services on various platforms from start-up to
language platforms, experimentation is getting easier with time.
i) In the rise of
ii) Due to the emergence of
iii) With the use of
A. Only i
B. Only ii

C. Both ii and iii
D. Both i and ii
E. All of these
Direction (115 – 120): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Most every job seeker has, at some point, either applied to or interviewed for a position only to be
met by radio silence. Follow-up emails go unanswered, and the once-promising opportunity vanishes
into the void. A few years ago, this might simply have been called part of the job hunt. Today, this
disappearing act is referred to as “ghosting,” and it’s a practice that’s becoming more prevalent
among applicants. Now the tables have turned. It’s employees who more and more often are
ghosting employers. With the unemployment rate at a low 3.5%, job seekers are optimistic about
the job market, so much so that 28% of job seekers have backed out of an offer after accepting it,
with 44% of those doing so for another, more attractive proposition, according to a study. If multiple
companies are pursuing one candidate, he or she may accept the first offer, set a start date and then
receive and accept a second offer without letting the first company know. Research from Indeed
found that of the 83% of employers who report having been ghosted, 65% say the candidate
accepted their offer but failed to show up on day one. Some 27% ceased communication after
getting a counteroffer from their current employer and 19% after hearing negative feedback about
the company. And job seekers aren’t only ghosting employers after accepting offers, says McDonald,
who has first-hand experience with this phenomenon. Some are bailing on interviews, while others
are completing several rounds of interviews before shutting down the lines of communication. How
can employers avoid this fate? McDonald advises that companies stay in constant communication
with candidates to minimize the likelihood of them being a no-show. Once they accept, hiring
managers should continue correspondence, whether through emails, texts, phone calls or even in-
person meetings. At the end of the day, though, it’s really up to the candidates. While Indeed found
that 94% of job seekers who have ghosted say they’ve not experienced many, if any, negative
repercussions, McDonald says it’s only a matter of time before their actions catch up to them. Once
job seekers ghost, they burn bridges, ones that can be challenging to repair, and with every future
job search will come the chance of running into someone from their past. He advises that candidates
who are no longer interested in pursuing opportunities communicate that to hiring managers,
whether in the form of an email or a phone call. When the average cost-per-hire is $4,425, the
sooner, the better.
Q115. Which of the following statements can be correctly inferred from the passage?
I. The author states that nowadays, even though the unemployment rate is 3.5%, job seekers do
not get jobs easily and they have to stick to whatever jobs they get.
II. The culture of ‘ghosting’ is appreciated by big companies.
III. The author states that the potential employees should not ghost the companies they get
selected in as there will be consequences, if not today, but in future.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Both I and II

E. Both II and III
Q116. Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to the passage?
A. Out of 83 percent of the employers who were ghosted, research from Indeed found that 35% of
the candidates who accepted their offer and showed up on day one.
B. A person who is ghosting after accepting the job keep in touch in the form of an email or a phone
call.
C. 6 percent of the job seekers who have ghosted might have faced negative repercussions.
D. Companies can avoid ghosting of employees by using their hiring managers to be in constant
touch with the employee whether through emails, texts, phone calls or even in-person meetings.
E. According to the passage, since the unemployment rate is low, it gives more power to employees
when it comes to selecting a job.
Q117. According to the author, what is the central theme of the passage?
A. Bad treatment of the employers
B. Proper jobs in the market
C. Growth in jobs market due to a boost in the economy
D. Sudden vanishing of employees after accepting the job
E. Reading habits of company employees
Q118. Out of the given options, choose the most similar meaning to the phrase marked in bold in
the passage 'vanishes into the void'.
A. vanishing into thin air
B. as smooth as butter
C. vanishing into the ocean
D. over the moon
E. fat chance
Q119. What determines the ‘ghosting’ as it is becoming more prevalent among applicants?
A. Lack of job opportunity in the market
B. Multiple opportunities in the job market
C. Cost of application
D. Employers do not follow back
E. Rudeness of employers
Q120. Which of the following correctly describes the tone of the passage?
A. Speculative
B. Grandiose

C. Factual
D. Reflective
E. Nostalgic
Section: - General Awareness

Q121. Where is the headquarters of Credit Saison India, which has received a nonbanking financial
company (NBFC) licence from the Reserve Bank of India?
A. Mumbai
B. Kolkata
C. Chennai
D. Bengaluru
E. New Delhi
Q122. Lalji Tandon is an Indian politician serving as the 22nd and current Governor of which state?
A. Rajasthan
B. Odisha
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Gujarat
E. Bihar
Q123. The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2019 was given for the development of ______.
A. Work on the structure of protein and insulin
B. Lithium-Ion Battery
C. Structure of atom
D. Radioactivity
Q124. The World Economic Forum Meeting in the Year 2020 will be held in which city?
A. Davos, Switzerland
B. Madrid, Spain
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. Paris, France
E. Berlin, Germany
Q125. India-Maldives joint military exercise ‘Ex EKUVERIN – 2019’ was held in which one of the
following places?

A. Jodhpur
B. Vishakhapatnam
C. Pune
D. Dehradun
E. Balasore
Q126. Indian cricketer Rohit Sharma has launched the ‘Rohit4Rhinos’ campaign in partnership
with WWF India and which of the following organization to create awareness about conservation
of the Indian Rhino?
A. World Animal Protection India
B. Animal Welfare Board of India
C. International Fund for Animal Welfare
D. Animal Planet
Q127. Which organization has announced relaxation in norms for ‘Muni Bonds’ to help smart
cities?
A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. IRDAI
D. TRAI
E. None of these
Q128. Which organization has constituted a working group on Social Stock Exchanges (SSE) under
the chairmanship of Ishaat Hussain?
A. RBI
B. Finance Ministry
C. SEBI
D. IRDAI
E. TRAI
Q129. The Minister of Railways and Minister of Commerce, Piyush Goyal is Rajya Sabha MP from
which constituency?
A. Karnataka
B. Maharashtra
C. Delhi
D. Rajasthan

E. Gujarat
Q130. Who is the director of the Indian movie ‘Gully Boy’?
A. Frahan Akhtar
B. Karan Johar
C. Rohit Shetty
D. Zoya Akhtar
E. Ranvir Singh
Q131. Which of the following organizations has launched the “Project Netra”?
A. ISRO
B. DRDO
C. Google India
D. Microsoft
E. None of these
Q132. The National Unity Day was celebrated on 31st October in the remembrance of who among
the following?
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. Chaudhari Charan Singh
E. Rajiv Gandhi
Q133. What was the theme of the ‘World Teacher’s Day 2019’?
A. Young Teacher: The future of the profession
B. Youth: the Next Wave for Change
C. Education for betterment
D. Educating Young collective responsibility
E. None of these
Q134. Kamlang tiger reserve is located in which state?
A. Manipur
B. Meghalaya
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Assam

E. Mizoram
Q135. The Largest Solar Park in India is located in which state?
A. Gujarat
B. Rajasthan
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Maharashtra
E. Karnataka
Q136. The railway minister has made an association with which Indian institute of technology, on
a project of ‘Industry 4.0’?
A. IIT Delhi
B. IIT Kanpur
C. IIT Bombay
D. IIT Kharagpur
E. IIT Guwahati
Q137. Sarah Taylor, who recently announced her retirement from cricket, belongs to which
country?
A. Australia
B. New Zealand
C. England
D. South Africa
E. West Indies
Q138. Indian Government has recently approved the infusion of Rs 9300 Crore in which of the
following banks?
A. ICICI Bank
B. IDBI Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. Axis Bank
E. None of these
Q139. The first-ever world cotton day was observed on October 7, in which one of the following
cities?
A. Geneva, Switzerland
B. New York, USA

C. Ahmedabad, India
D. London, England
E. Paris, France
Q140. Who held Women’s World record in 400 meter race?
A. Marita Koch
B. Shelly-Ann
C. Jarmila Kratochvílová
D. Salwa Eid Naser
E. Marie-José Pérec
Q141. Which one of the following banks have been merged with the Punjab National Bank?
A. Union Bank
B. United Bank of India
C. Canara Bank
D. Punjab and Sindh bank
E. Bank of India
Q142. Ratapani Tiger Reserve is located in which state of India?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
C. Chhattisgarh
D. Odisha
E. Jharkhand
Q143. In a bid to raise awareness about the importance of Life Insurance, the industry has come
together with which tagline as a part of its media campaign?
A. Jindagi ke sath bhi jindagi ke bad bhi
B. Sabse Pehle Life Insurance
C. SabseAchha Jeevan Beema
D. SabsePahle Apni Suraksha
E. None of these
Q144. Which country has recently taken the presidency of the “UN convention to combat
desertification”, from China for next 2 years?
A. India
B. Japan

C. Philippines
D. Australia
E. South Africa
Q145. PLA is the name of the Army of which country?
A. USA
B. Japan
C. North Korea
D. China
E. Pakistan
Q146. India’s first ever Comprehensive National Nutrition Survey has been conducted by the
ministry of health & family welfare (MOHFW) in collaboration with _____.
A. UNESCO
B. UNICEF
C. WHO
D. FAO
E. WTO
Q147. Padma Shri Awardee Shri Dr Hargovind Laxmishanker Trivedi who passed away recently was
veteran _____.
A. Geologist
B. Neurologist
C. Nephrologist
D. Journalist
E. Environmentalist
Q148. The 5th World Parliament of Science Religion & Philosophy was held in _____.
A. Mumbai
B. Nagpur
C. Pune
D. Ahmedabad
E. Jaipur
Q149. The courage in journalism award is a prize awarded by which of the following
organizations?
A. World Media Foundation

B. International Women’s Media Foundation
C. Interactive Media Foundation
D. New Media Foundation
E. None of these
Q150. Recently, INS Khanderi was commissioned into the Indian Navy at which Port?
A. Mormugao Dockyard, Goa
B. Mazagaon Docks, Mumbai
C. Vishakhapatnam
D. Paradip Dockyard, Odisha
E. None of these
Q151. Who among the following has recently won the “Peter Mackler Award” which is given for
courageous and ethical journalism?
A. Robert Fisk
B. Paolo Borrometi
C. Kate Adie
D. Christiane Amanpour
E. Bob Woodward
Q152. Which one of the following exercises has been conducted by India near the China border in
eastern Ladakh?
A. Vajra Prahar
B. Hand-in-Hand
C. Yudha Abhyas
D. Chang Thang
E. Surya Kiran
Q153. Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Lakshmi Vilas Bank
Parthasarathi Mukherjee has announced his resignation citing personal reasons. The headquarter
of the Lakshmi Vilas Bank is situated in?
A. Mumbai
B. Madurai
C. Chennai
D. Delhi
E. Mangalore

Q154. Which of the following Southeast Asian countries has inaugurated Southeast Asia’s largest
solar power farm which has the capacity to produce 688 million kWh of electricity per year?
A. Thailand
B. Laos
C. Cambodia
D. Vietnam
E. Malaysia
Q155. Where is the headquarters of the International Atomic Energy Agency located?
A. Manila
B. Vienna
C. Paris
D. Washington DC
E. London
Q156. Reserve Bank of India comes out with draft norms for ‘on-tap’ licensing of Small Finance
Banks (SFBs). In the draft guidelines, the RBI has proposed the minimum paid-up equity capital of
________ for the SFBs.
A. ₹100 crore
B. ₹200 crore
C. ₹300 crore
D. ₹400 crore
E. ₹500 crore
Q157. Where is the headquarters of UN Habitat located?
A. Rome, France
B. Austria, Vienna
C. Nairobi, Kenya
D. Geneva, Switzerland
E. New York, US
Q158. James Peebles, Michel Mayor and Didier queloz have won the Nobel Prize 2019 in which
one of the following categories?
A. Medicine
B. Chemistry
C. Physics

D. Economics
E. Peace
Q159. Pakyong Airport is located in ____.
A. Sikkim
B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Mizoram
E. None of these
Q160. On 1st and 2nd of November, 2019, two day meeting of the council of heads of government
(CHG) of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was held in _______.
A. Beijing, China
B. Nur-Sultan, Kazakhstan
C. Tashkent, Uzbekistan
D. Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan
E. Dushanbe, Tajikistan
Q161. Who is the author of the book ‘The Third Pillar-How Markets and the State leave the
Community Behind’?
A. Raghuram Rajan
B. Anita Desai
C. Chetan Bhagat
D. Arundhati Roy
E. Ravinder Singh
Q162. Which of the following global payment technology company has signed up newly crowned
World Champion P.V. Sindhu as an athlete member for the 2020 Tokyo Olympic Games?
A. Mastercard
B. Global payments
C. VISA
D. Heartland
E. PayPros
Q163. The Ramsar wetland Rudrasagar lake is located in which of the following state in India?
A. Assam
B. Tripura

C. Meghalaya
D. Manipur
E. Mizoram
Q164. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Lieutenant (Lt) Governors of
Ladakh, the newly created Union Territories of India?
A. Dineshwar Sharma
B. Girish Chandra Murmu
C. Satya Pal Malik
D. P S Sreedharan Pillai
E. Radha Krishna Mathur
Q165. Which of the following countries will host the G20 summit in 2020?
A. Japan
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Canada
D. India
E. Indonesia
Q166. ‘Lessons Life Taught Me, Unknowingly’ is the autobiography of _______.
A. Lal Krishna Advani
B. Pranab Mukherjee
C. Amitabh Bachchan
D. Anupam Kher
E. Sanjay Dutt
Q167. Helsinki is the capital of which of the following country?
A. Norway
B. Sweden
C. Finland
D. Croatia
E. Belgium
Q168. Recently, RBI has turned down Lakshmi Vilas Bank’s proposal to merged with which of the
following companies?
A. PNB Housing Finance Limited
B. LIC Housing Finance Limited

C. Indiabulls Housing Finance Ltd
D. ICICI Housing Finance
E. None of these
Q169. IAAF World Athletics Championships 2019 was held in which country?
A. Qatar
B. UAE
C. Iran
D. Saudi Arabia
E. Turkey
Q170. Which of the following Mutual Fund has been renamed as ‘Nippon India Mutual Fund’?
A. Religare Mutual Fund
B. Bharti AXA Mutual Fund
C. Reliance Mutual Fund
D. HSBC Mutual Fund
E. ICICI Prudential Mutual Fund
Q171. Recently, Edgar Chagwa Lungu visited New Delhi, he is the President of which of the
following country?
A. Zambia
B. Jamaica
C. Zimbabwe
D. Kenya
E. Kongo
Q172. Which of the following banks has recently announced the launch of ‘Express FD’, a digital
fixed deposit (FD) product that allows the customer to open an FD account in three minutes
through the digital mode without opening a savings account with the bank?
A. ICICI Bank
B. HDFC Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. Yes Bank
E. Kotak Mahindra Bank
Q173. According to the ‘Swachh Rail, Swachh Bharat 2019’ report, which railway station topped
the list of the cleanest railway station in India?

A. Jhansi
B. Jaipur
C. Kharagpur
D. Bhopal
Q174. What is the theme of the International Day of the Girl Child (IDGC) for the year 2019?
A. Innovating for girl's education
B. GirlForce: Unscripted and Unstoppable
C. Empowering Adolescent Girls: Ending the Cycle of Violence
D. EmPOWER Girls: Before, during and after crises
E. Girls' Progress = Goals
Q175. Which country has launched the World's Biggest Transport Spaceship, Kounotori-8 for Space
Station in September 2019?
A. China
B. Russia
C. USA
D. Japan
E. Israel
Q176. The 7th annual World Hindu Economic Forum (WHEF) 2019 held in _______.
A. Chicago, USA
B. Paris, France
C. Mumbai, India
D. London, UK
E. Kathmandu, Nepal
Q177. During the UN Climate Change Summit, 2019 the 16-year-old environmental activist Greta
Thunberg shook world leaders with her speech at the United Nations, accusing world leaders of
failing to take action on climate change. She belongs to which country?
A. Sweden
B. Norway
C. Denmark
D. Finland
E. Austria

Q178. Who among the following has won the 2019 Japan Open single title in Tokyo, Japan?
A. Roger Federer
B. Rafael Nadal
C. Novak Djokovic
D. John Millman
E. Daniil Medvedev
Q179. Which of the following cities has hosted the first-ever India International Cooperatives
Trade Fair (IICTF)?
A. Ahmedabad
B. Lucknow
C. Patna
D. New Delhi
E. Indore
Q180. Which among the following countries had decided to withdraw its membership from
Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) effective from January 2019?
A. Iran
B. Venezuela
C. Iraq
D. Qatar
E. United Arab Emirates
Q181. The joint military exercise ‘Vajra Prahar’ was held between India and which country?
A. Japan
B. China
C. USA
D. Russia
E. Israel
Q182. On October 11, 2019, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) came up with a new reporting system
called Central Information System for Banking Infrastructure (CISBI) for__________.
A. all commercial banks
B. all regional rural banks
C. all cooperative banks
D. all NBFCs

E. all foreign banks
Q183. Jagdeep Dhankar has been appointed the new Governor of which state?
A. West Bengal
B. Bihar
C. Jharkhand
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Uttar Pradesh
Q184. Which among the following countries has recently abolished the most controversial labour
system called “Kafala”?
A. Kuwait
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Qatar
D. Bahrain
E. None of these
Q185. The new version of Bharat Interface for Money app, BHIM 2.0 will now support how many
additional languages with existing 13 languages?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
Q186. Which of the following Ministry has launched Pradhan Mantri Innovative Learning
Programme (PMILP) ‘DHRUV’ from ISRO Headquarters Bengaluru?
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Ministry of Food Processing Industries
C. Ministry of Environment
D. Ministry of Human Resource Development
E. None of the Above
Q187. Which company has become the 1st Indian company to hit Rs. 9 lakh crore market
capitalization?
A. Tata
B. Wipro

C. Reliance
D. Infosys
E. None of the Above
Q188. Which of the following banks has announced to launch a new Fixed Deposit (FD) scheme ‘FD
Health’ that will offer the dual benefit of a fixed deposit along with free critical illness coverage
with a sum assured of Rs 1 lakh?
A. HDFC Bank
B. Yes Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. ICICI Bank
E. Kotak Mahindra Bank
Q189. Which state has smallest land area?
A. Goa
B. Nagaland
C. Sikkim
D. Tripura
E. Mizoram
Q190. Bernardine Evaristo has won the 2019 Booker Prize for which of the following novel?
A. The Testaments
B. Quichote
C. The Handmaid's Tale
D. Girl, Woman, Other
E. None of these
Q191. Kuchipudi is a folk dance of...............
A. Mizoram
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Jammu & Kashmir
D. Maharashtra
E. Tamil Nadu
Q192. The 2020 Summer Olympics is scheduled to take place in ____.
A. Beijing, China
B. Pyeongchang, South Korea

C. Jakarta, Indonesia
D. Tokyo, Japan
E. Gold Coast, Australia
Q193. Which Payment Bank has recently (July 2019) announced to shut down all its banking
operations?
A. Paytm Payments Bank
B. Fino Payments Bank
C. Airtel Payments Bank
D. Aditya Birla Payments Bank
E. Jio Payments Bank
Q194. The headquarters of the International Solar Alliance (ISA)is located in which city in India?
A. Chandigarh
B. Gurgaon
C. Mysuru
D. Surat
E. None of these
Q195. Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?
A. Italy
B. Switzerland
C. Belgium
D. France
E. Uk
Q196. Which country will host the 46th G7 summit which is scheduled to be held from 10 to 12th
June 2020?
A. England
B. Italy
C. France
D. USA
E. Canada
Q197. The India arm of Netherlands-based Home Credit Group has tied up with which bank for
joint lending to tap the large unbanked customer base across?
A. Yes Bank

B. ICICI Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. HDFC Bank
E. Karur Vysya Bank
Q198. Which of the following banks has launched Digi Smart credit card?
A. Standard Chartered Bank
B. ABN Amro Bank
C. Deutsche Bank
D. HSBC Bank
E. Federal Bank
Q199. In which of the following cities India’s first e-waste clinic will be set up?
A. Indore
B. Jabalpur
C. Bhopal
D. Raipur
E. New Delhi
Q200. Which of the following British cricketers has been named as the players' player of the year
at the Professional Cricketers' Association awards.?
A. Joe Root
B. Eoin Morgan
C. Ben Stokes
D. Jos Buttler
E. Tom Curran

Dear Students,
It is with great pleasure that we present to you this question paper document with detailed
explanations for the RBI Grade B 2019 – Phase 2 exam. This document has been
meticulously to serve as a valuable resource for candidates preparing for the RBI Grade B
officer exam.
Aspiring candidates are often confused about the pattern, difficulty level and types of
questions that may appear in their upcoming exam.
Each question has been carefully solved, and its underlying concepts and principles have
been thoroughly explained. This will help you in not only to practice answering questions
but also helps you understand the reasoning and logic behind each correct answer. Through
explanations, you will be able to reinforce your understanding, clarify any doubts, and
develop a deeper grasp of the subject matter.
We wish you all the best in your exam preparation journey and hope that this document
proves to be a valuable asset in your pursuit of success.
Disclaimer: While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy and relevance of the
questions, there can be some variations in the question language and options. Therefore,
we encourage you to use these questions as a reference point. This will help you acquire a
comprehensive understanding of the syllabus and increase your chances of success in the
upcoming RBI Grade B officer exam.

Q.1) Which theory says that in an organization, employees compare themselves on the
basis of input and output of their colleagues?
Static or Current – STATIC

1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKER
Finance or Management – MANAGEMENT
Difficulty Level – EASY
Topic – MOTIVATION
Options:
(a) Valence Theory

(b) Equity Theory
(c) Self-efficacy Theory
(d) Theory X & Y
(e) None of Above
Answer: (b) Equity Theory
Explanation:
According to Adams, author of the theory, people judge the fairness of their work
situation in 2 ways:
1.By comparing the inputs that they contribute to the outputs that they receive from
their job. This concept is also known as Equity Norm.
2.Employees determine what their equitable return should be after comparing their
inputs and outcomes with those of their co-workers. This concept is referred to as
"social comparison".
A person will feel angry, demotivated when:
1. When people feel that their inputs far outweigh the outputs they receive in return,
motivation and productivity slumps. The greater the perceived disparity between the
inputs and the outputs, the greater the demotivation.
2.Another important aspect is that people tend to compare their output/input with the
output/Input of others (references in the market). So, if a co-worker or other friends in
other company has been rewarded more compared to their input then employee will feel
demotivated.

Q.2) A council which governs all the issues related to GST is headed by?

Finance or Management – FINANCE
Topic – GST
Options:
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) RBI Governor
(d) Finance Secretary
(e) None of Above
Answer: (a) Finance Minister
Explanation:
Q.3) In India, Fiscal Policy is implemented through a budget. Which government body is
responsible for it?

1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKS
Topic – FISCAL POLICY
Options:
(a) RBI
(b) Finance Ministry
(c) PMO

(d) RBI & Finance Ministry
(e) None of Above
Answer: (b) Finance Ministry
Explanation:
Fiscal Policy is implemented through a budget and Finance ministry is the responsible
government body. Under the fiscal policy, the government deals with taxation and spending by
the Centre.
Importance of Fiscal Policy in India:
• In a country like India, fiscal policy plays a key role in elevating the rate of capital
formation both in the public and private sectors.
• Through taxation, the fiscal policy helps mobilise considerable amount of resources
for financing its numerous projects.
• Fiscal policy also helps in providing stimulus to elevate the savings rate.
• The fiscal policy gives adequate incentives to the private sector to expand its
activities.
• Fiscal policy aims to minimise the imbalance in the dispersal of income and wealth.
Q.4) Geneva based, Basel committee on Banking supervision has come up with Basel
Norms, which have been formed to address which issues?

1 marker or 2 marker – 1 MARKS
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – RISK MANAGEMENT IN BANKING SECTOR
Options:
a) Market risk
b) Political risk
c) Bank risk
d) Systemic risk
e) None of the above
Answer: c) Bank risk
Explanation:

The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) is an international committee
formed to develop standards for banking regulation. The Committee, headquartered at
the Bank for International Settlements in Basel.
As of 2019, it is made up of Central Banks and other banking regulatory authorities from
28 jurisdictions. It has 45 members.
It introduced a set of reforms designed to mitigate risk within the international banking
sector, by requiring banks to maintain proper leverage ratios and keep certain levels of
reserve capital on hand.
Q.5) Derivatives are financial instruments to hedge risk. It derives its value from which
of the following?

Topic – BASICS OF DERIVATIVES
Options:
a) Exchange Determined
b) Fixed by SEBI
c) Underlying
d) Market Determined
e) None of Above
Answer: c) Underlying
Explanation:
A derivative is a contract between two or more parties whose value is based on an

agreed-upon underlying financial asset (like a security) or set of assets (like an index).
Common underlying instruments include bonds, commodities, currencies, interest rates,
market indexes, and stocks.
Futures contracts, forward contracts, options, swaps, and warrants are commonly used
derivatives.
Derivatives can be used to either mitigate risk (hedging) or assume risk with the
expectation of commensurate reward (speculation).

Q.6) Which of the following risk can be eliminated by derivatives?

Topic – BASICS OF DERIVATIVES
Options:
(a) Market risk

(b) Unsystematic risk
(c) Systematic risk
(d) Interest rate risk
(e) None of the above
Answer: (d) Interest rate risk
Explanation:
Derivatives are contracts that allow businesses, investors, and municipalities to transfer
risks and rewards associated with commercial or financial outcomes to other parties.
Holding a derivative contract can reduce the risk of bad harvests, adverse market
fluctuations, or negative events, like a bond default, Interest rate risk etc.
In each derivatives transaction, just like in any stock or bond trade, there is one party
that wants to increase their exposure to a specific risk and one party that is looking to
take the opposite risk.
Interest rate risk is measured by a fixed income security's duration, with longer-term
bonds having a greater price sensitivity to rate changes. Interest rate risk can be reduced
through diversification of bond maturities or hedged using interest rate derivatives.
Q.7) Treasury Bills is a financial instrument, which is a

Topic – MONETARY POLICY
Options:
(a) Corporate issued securities

(b) RBI securities
(c) Government securities issued by RBI for managing short term funding requirements.
(d) Security issued and managed by government.
(e) NONE OF THE ABOVE
Answer: (c) Government securities issued by RBI for managing short term funding
requirements.
Explanation:
Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt
instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors,
namely, 91-day, 182 day and 364 day. Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay
no interest.
Q.8) Commercial papers are issued for what purpose?

Options:
(a) By banks for managing liquidity requirement

(b) By government for managing short term requirements
(c) By companies for short term borrowing
(d) By local government bodies
Answer: (c) By companies for short term borrowing
Explanation:
Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a
promissory note.
Corporates, primary dealers (PDs) and the All-India Financial Institutions (FIs) are eligible
to issue CP.
A corporate would be eligible to issue CP provided –
a) the tangible net worth of the company, as per the latest audited balance sheet, is
not less than Rs. 4 crore
b) company has been sanctioned working capital limit by bank/s or all-India financial
institution/s; and

c) the borrowal account of the company is classified as a Standard Asset by the
financing bank/s/ institution/s.
CP can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum of up to
one year from the date of issue. Hence it is used to fund short term liabilities.
Q.9) Who gave the management principle of ‘MBO’?

Topic – GENERAL MANAGEMENT
Options:
(a) Philip Kotler

(b) Michael Porter
(c) Henri Fayol
(d) Peter Ducker
(e) NONE OF THE ABOVE
Answer: (d) Peter Ducker
Explanation:
Management by objectives (MBO) is a strategic management model that aims to

improve the performance of an organization by clearly defining objectives that are
agreed to by both management and employees. According to the theory, having a say in
goal setting and action plans encourages participation and commitment among
employees, as well as aligning objectives across the organization.
The term was first outlined by management guru Peter Drucker in his 1954 book, The
Practice of Management.
Q.10) Alderfer has condensed 5 needs of Maslow’s theory into 3 categories of human
needs in which theory?


Options:
(a) Expectancy Theory

(b) Hygiene Theory
(c) Reduction Theory
(d) ERG Theory
Answer: (d) ERG Theory
Explanation:
Clayton P. Alderfer's ERG theory from 1969 condenses Maslow's five human needs into
three categories: Existence, Relatedness and Growth.
Q.11) Which of the following banks launched India’s first banking robot named
Lakshmi?
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS

Topic – CHANGING LANDSCAPE OF BANKING SECTOR
Options:
(a) ICICI Bank

(b) HDFC Bank
(c) City Union Bank
(d) SBI Bank
Answer: (c) City Union Bank
Explanation:
Q.12) For the first time, which of the following companies formally practiced the 360-
degree feedback appraisal?

Topic – HUMAN RESOURCE DEVELOPMENT
Options:
(a) ESSO- Exxon Mobil

(b) General Electric
(c) Tech Mahindra
(d) Infosys
Answer: (b) General Electric
Explanation:
A 360-degree feedback is a process through which feedback from an employee's

subordinates, colleagues, and supervisor, as well as a self-evaluation by the employee
themselves is gathered.
The CEO of General Electric, Jack Welsh was one of the first to use 360s for appraisals, in
which he used the results to justify firing the bottom 10% of workers in every feedback
cycle. Since then, the application of 360s has evolved from Jack Welch’s cutthroat
streamlining process.
Q.13) What's the term for giving authority or responsibility to a group or people?

Options:
(a) Delegation
(b) Assignment
(c) Management
(d) Agency Function
(e) All of the above
Answer: (a) Delegation
Explanation:
Delegation is commonly defined as the shifting of authority and responsibility for

particular functions, tasks or decisions from one person (usually a leader or manager) to
another.

Q.14) Operational Risk in an organization arises from which of the following reasons?

Topic – CORPORATE GOVERNANCE
Options:
(a) New regulatory norms

(b) Inadequate internal control process
(c) Inadequate external control process
(d) Strict internal control process
Answer: (b) Inadequate internal control process
Explanation:
Operational risk summarizes the uncertainties and hazards a company faces when it
attempts to do its day-to-day business activities within a given field or industry. A type of
business risk, it can result from breakdowns in internal procedures, people and systems.
Operational risk is heavily dependent on the human factor: mistakes or failures due to
actions or decisions made by a company's employees.
Q.15) Which of the following assessment process analysis an employee’s personality

traits & psychological process to assess his future potential?

Options:
(a) Emotional Appraisal

(b) Counselling
(c) Career review

(d) Psychological Appraisal
Answer: (d) Psychological Appraisal
Explanation:
Psychological appraisal is one of the most exciting and intuitive appraisal methods. This
method assesses the employees' potential for future performance rather than their past
one.
It focuses on employees' emotional, intellectual, and other personal characteristics
affecting their performance.
This method suits the best for the workforce today. Employees now are quite vulnerable
and often fall into the pit while balancing their work and personal life. This method
understands that aspect and allows employees to shine in the future.
Q.16) Which of the following is a 4 – stage training evaluation model?

Options:
(a) Daniel Goleman

(b) Clayton
(c) Kirkpatrick
(d) Joseph Schumpeter
Answer: (a) Kirkpatrick
Explanation:
Kirkpatrick Model of Training Evaluation

1. Reaction of the Trainee - thoughts and feelings of the participants about the
training. In other words, these are reactions of the Trainees about the training.
2. Learning - the increase in knowledge or understanding because of the training. This
can be measured by conducting a test before and after the training.
3. Impact on Behaviour - extent of change in behaviour, attitude, or capability.
Trainees apply knowledge to actual situations, and this can be gauged whether
learners are able to apply learning at workplace. This may reflect is work
performance after training.
4. Results - the effect on the bottom line of the company because of the training.
Q.17) In hypothecation_________?

Topic – FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS
Options:
(a) Only value of asset is transferred

(b) Only ownership is transferred
(c) Both value & ownership is transferred
(d) Neither value & nor ownership is transferred
(e) None of Above
Answer: d) Neither value & nor ownership is transferred
Explanation:
Hypothecation occurs when an asset is pledged as collateral to secure a loan. The owner
of the asset does not give up title, possession, or ownership rights, such as income
generated by the asset. However, the lender can seize the asset if the terms of the
agreement are not met.

A rental property, for example, may undergo hypothecation as collateral against a
mortgage issued by a bank. While the property remains collateral, the bank has no claim
on rental income that comes in; however, if the landlord defaults on the loan, the bank
may seize the property.
Q.18) Which of the following phenomenon includes High inflation & high
unemployment?

Topic – INFLATION
Options:
(a) Hyperinflation
(b) Deflation
(c) Disinflation
(d) Re-Inflation
Answer: (e) None of the above
Explanation:
Inflation simply means rising prices of goods and services across the economy along with
the resulting loss of purchasing power.
Deflation is the opposite of inflation. It designates falling prices of goods and services in
the economy.
Stagflation is high inflation coupled with low growth and a steadily high rate of
unemployment.
Disinflation is a quirky middle ground where prices are generally rising but at a
decreasing rate.
Hyperinflation is a term to describe rapid, excessive, and out-of-control general price

increases in an economy. While inflation is a measure of the pace of rising prices for
goods and services, hyperinflation is rapidly rising inflation, typically measuring more
than 50% per month.
Q.19) If Reserve Bank decreases cash reserve requirements for the banks, then banks
will be able to?

Options:
(a) Lend less credit
(b) Increase interest rate
(c) Lend more credit
(d) Decrease interest rate
(e) None of Above
Answer: (c) Lend more credit
Explanation:
If the RBI decides to decrease the CRR then a lesser amount of money will need to be
held as reserve and money is freed up to lend.
An increase in CRR has the opposite effect and holds back money from the system.
Q.20) A leadership theory in which dyadic relationship between leaders & followers are
formed is known as _______?

Topic – LEADERSHIP
Options:
(a) CRT Theory
(b) LMX Theory
(c) Vroom Model
(d) Path Goal Theory
Answer: (b) LMX Theory
Explanation:
The Leader-Member Exchange Theory first emerged in the 1970s. It focuses on the
relationship that develops between managers and members of their teams. This theory,
also known as LMX or the Vertical Dyad Linkage Theory, explores how leaders and

managers develop relationships with team members; and it explains how those
relationships can either contribute to growth or hold people back.
The leader–member exchange (LMX) theory is a relationship-based approach to

leadership that focuses on the two-way (dyadic) relationship between leaders and
followers. It suggests that leaders develop an exchange with each of their subordinates,
and that the quality of these leader–member exchange relationships influence
subordinates' responsibility, decisions, and access to resources and performance.
Q.21) A leadership style in which rewards are given for contingent Performance.

Options:
(a) Transformational
(b) Managerial
(c) Transactional
(d) Bureaucratic
Answer: (c) Transactional
Explanation:
Transactional leadership, also known as managerial leadership, focuses on supervision,

organization, and performance.
Transactional leadership is a style of management based on the setting of clear objectives

for sub-ordinates and with ‘punishment or reward’ to promote or encourage compliance
e.g., carrot and stick approaches to management.
Q.22) Which of the following is the indicator of ‘Low Morale’ in team?

Options:
(a) High Productivity
(b) Low level of the motivation of some employee
(c) High labor turnover
(d) High level of motivation
Answer: (c) High labor turnover
Explanation:
In case of low morale, the features are:
(a) Lack of Loyalty to the organization leading to high labor turnover
(b) Indiscipline
(c) Lack of Interest in Job
(d) Lack of Employees Initiative
(e) Lack of Team-spirit and Cooperation
(f) Confidence of Employees is missing.
Q.23) A person’s intellectual abilities, decision making capabilities, his behavior under
high stress situations can be termed as______

Options:
(a) Intellectual Traits
(b) Personality Types
(c) Personality Traits
(d) Personality Variables
Answer: (c) Intellectual Traits

Explanation:
Intellectual personality is feelings, behavior, beliefs, attitudes, and ways of reasoning,

evaluation and a decision making that people utilized when they face with a cultural
phenomenon-social, political - religious, historical, economic and then accept or reject it.
Intellectual personality is resulted in multiple factors which influence the character of the
internal (genetic and temperament) and external (environment, education, training and
life stories) of individual. Therefore, the human intellectual interpretation is a mental
process, a figure that is based on the information processing and decision making of
events evaluation.
Intellectual traits include intellectual integrity, independence, perseverance, empathy,

humility, courage, confidence in reason and fair-mindedness etc.
Q.24) Which of the following items doesn’t come under GST?

Topic – GST
Options:
(a) Gold
(b) Petroleum Products
(c) Salt
(d) Milk
Answer: (b) Petroleum Products
Explanation:

Q.25) In Banking Sector, Market risk arises mainly due to ___

Topic – RISK MANAGEMENT IN BANKING SECTOR
Options:
(a) Geographical factors
(b) External factors
(c) Natural calamities
(d) Internal factors
Answer: (b) External factors
Explanation:

Market risk, or systematic risk, affects the performance of the entire market
simultaneously.
Market risk may arise due to changes to interest rates, exchange rates, geopolitical
events, or recessions i.e., external factors.
Q.26) Which of the following is not a fund-based transaction?

Topic – BANKING SYSTEM IN INDIA
Options:
(a) Recurring Deposit
(b) Fixed credit
(c) Cash credit
(d) Letter of credit
Answer: (d) Letter of credit
Explanation:
A letter of credit, or "credit letter" is a letter from a bank guaranteeing that a buyer's
payment to a seller will be received on time and for the correct amount. In the event that
the buyer is unable to make a payment on the purchase, the bank will be required to
cover the full or remaining amount of the purchase. It may be offered as a facility and
thus is not a fund-based transaction.
Q.27) Which of the following a characteristic of Bond and not a characteristic of Equity?

Topic – PRIMARY AND SECONDARY MARKET
Options:
(a) Dilution of ownership
(b) Fixed income
(c) variable income
(d) Dividend
Answer: (b) Fixed income
Explanation:
What is equity?
In the stock market, equity represents a ‘share’ or partial ownership in a company.
Companies issue shares when they want to raise funds from the public, for the purpose
of expansion or growth. When you buy ‘shares or ‘equity’ in a certain company, you are
investing in its future. In return for your investment, the company offers you certain
rights and privileges. These include the ability to share in the company’s profits (usually
paid out as dividends) or the right to cast your vote and influence major decisions.
Similarly, when the company fails to perform well in the share market, you become an
equal partner in its losses limited to the invested amount. As such, equity is nothing but
partial ownership in a company and it involves a certain exposure to risk.
What is a bond?
A bond is another way for a company to raise money from the public. When a company
or a government entity needs to raise funds, for development or growth, it offers bonds.
A bond is essentially a debt instrument like a loan; wherein the company offering the
bond is the borrower and the investor is the lender. It is a fixed-income-or-returns-
yielding investment instrument. A bond essentially works like a fixed deposit, in that the
company promises to pay a certain percentage as interest, which earns you a fixed
income. The bond comes with a pre-determined maturity date, and when it matures, you
get back your capital investment as well.
Q.28) Which of the following type of banks, act as government of India agent for
financial inclusion in rural area?

Topic – BANKING SYSTEM IN INDIA
Options:
(a) BCs
(b) Private Banks
(c) PSBs
(d) RRBs
Answer: (d) RRBs

Explanation:
Regional Rural Banks
Regional Rural Banks are local level banking organizations operating in different States of
India. They have been created with a view to serve primarily the rural areas of India with
basic banking and financial services. However, RRBs may have branches set up for urban
operations and their area of operation may include urban areas too. The area of
operation of RRBs is limited to the area as notified by Government of India covering one
or more districts in the State.
RRBs perform various functions in following heads:
• Providing banking facilities to rural and semi-urban areas.

• Carrying out government operations like disbursement of wages of MGNREGA
workers, distribution of pensions etc.
• Providing Para-Banking facilities like locker facilities, debit and credit cards.
Q.29) _________ is a psychological technique in which intensive group discussion and

interaction are used to increase individual awareness of self and others.

Options:
(a) Sensitivity Training
(b) Skill Training
(c) Team Training
(d) Managerial Training
Answer: (a) Sensitivity Training
Explanation:

Sensitivity training is a form of training with the goal of making people more aware of
their own goals as well as their prejudices, and more sensitive to others and to the
dynamics of group interaction.
Sensitivity training is a psychological technique in which intensive group discussion and

interaction are used to increase individual awareness of self and others.
It is practiced in a variety of forms under such names as T-group, encounter group,

human relations, and group-dynamics training.
Q.30) Which of the following is exempted from Income Tax?

Topic – DIRECT AND INDIRECT TAXES
Options:
(a) Interest earned from deposits.
(b) Income from sale of Agri Products
(c) Capital gains on Securities.
(d) Sale of Property
Answer: (b) Income from sale of Agri Products
Explanation:
Agriculture Income, Scholarship, Income from gratuity, Amount received under voluntary
retirement are some of the exemptions under Income Tax Act.
--------------------x--------------------x---------------------x--------------------x-------------------------
Para 1. A passage on 3-D Leadership Model was given which was followed by 3
questions i.e Q. 1-3
The Three-Dimensional Grid or 3-D Leadership Model is developed by Professor Bill

Reddin, who introduced the concept of “situational demands” which talks about the way
in which the leader must behave to be most effective.

When the leadership style meets the demands of the situation, then the leadership is
said to be effective else ineffective. On the basis of this, there are four styles that a
manager adopts: Separated Manager, Related Manager, Dedicated Manager, and
Integrated Manager.
Q.1) Leader enjoys involving team members & creating social bond & allows more
freedom. Which leadership style is described above?

Options:
(a) Integrated
(b) Separated
(c) Related
(d) Dedicated
(e) None of the Above
Answer: (c) Related
Explanation:
Reddin 3-D Leadership Model
• The Separated Manager is the one who is engaged in correcting deviations. He is

the person who formulates the rules and policies and imposes these on others.

• The Related Manager is the one who likes to work with others and see an
organization as a social system where everyone works together. He does not worry
about the time and accepts others as they are and do not try to change them.
• The Dedicated Manager is the one who is task oriented and is only concerned with
the production. He does not like to mix up with the subordinates and cannot work
without power and responsibility.
• The Integrated Manager is the one who mixes up with the subordinates and
facilitate two-way communication. His major emphasis is on building a strong
teamwork and effective communication network.
Q.2) A manager retains the cooperative nature of the group and encourages 2-way
communication. Which leadership is described above?

Options:
(a) Integrated
(b) Separated
(c) Related
(d) Dedicated
Answer: (a) Integrated
Explanation:
• The Integrated Manager is the one who mixes up with the subordinates and
facilitate two-way communication. His major emphasis is on building a strong
teamwork and effective communication network.
Q.3) The managerial grid theory on which reddens model is based, was given by

Options:
(a) Tannenbaum and Schmidt

(b) Blake & Mouton
(c) Huneryager and Heckman
(d) Hersey & Blanchard
Answer: (b) Blake & Mouton
Explanation:
Para 2. A passage on Corporate Governance was given which was followed by 3

questions i.e Q. 3-6
Corporate governance is the combination of rules, processes or laws by which businesses

are operated, regulated or controlled. The term encompasses the internal and external
factors that affect the interests of a company’s stakeholders, including shareholders,
customers, suppliers, government regulators and management. The board of directors is
responsible for creating the framework for corporate governance that best aligns
business conduct with objectives.
Specific processes that can be outlined in corporate governance include action plans,
performance measurement, disclosure practices, executive compensation decisions,
dividend policies, procedures for reconciling conflicts of interest and explicit or implicit
contracts between the company and stakeholders.
Q.4) Which of the following is related to external mechanism of corporate governance?

Options:
(a) Company policy
(b) Internal audit
(c) Reporting to Industry body
(d) Independent Directors
Answer: (c) Reporting to Industry body
Explanation:
External stakeholders play an important role in ensuring proper corporate governance

processes in a business organization. Some of the key external corporate governance
controls include:
• Government regulations – Government regulations are the most effective external
controls on the governance of a company. Companies are required to comply with
these or face penalties for violations. This includes reporting to regulatory bodies,
Industry bodies etc.
• Media exposure- Media scrutiny of the workings and processes of a company
ensures, to a certain degree, the proper governance in an organization
• Market competition- Companies with the best corporate governance practices
have the best standing in the market. Reputation, credibility and positive public
perception all play a vital role in boosting a company’s image and thus help it
trump its competition and best its peers.
• Takeover activities- Takeover activities lay a company’s internal processes and
workings open to public scrutiny. Both government regulators and the media will
focus on the internal policies and governance structures, thus acting as an effective
external control.
• Public release and assessment of financial statements- exposes them open to
assessment or scrutiny by regulators, investors, members of the public and so on.
Q.5) Which of the following objectives are achieved through internal corporate
governance mechanism?

Options:
(a) Avoid customer Dissatisfaction

(b) Compliance to avoid legal complications
(c) Improved employee performance
(d) To curb malpractices across industry
(e) None of Above
Answer: (b) Compliance to avoid legal complications
Explanation:
Objective of corporate governance:

The fundamental objective of corporate governance is to boost and maximize
shareholder value and protect the interest of other stake holders. World Bank described
Corporate Governance as blend of law, regulation and appropriate voluntary private
sector practices which enables the firm to attract financial and human capital to perform
efficiently, prepare itself by generating long term economic value for its shareholders,
while respecting the interests of stakeholders and society as a whole. Corporate
governance has various objectives to strengthen investor's confidence and intern leads to
fast growth and profits of companies. These are mentioned below:
1. A properly structured Board proficient of taking independent and objective
decisions is in place at the helm of affairs.
2. The Board is balanced as regards the representation of suitable number of non-
executive and independent directors who will take care of the interests and well-
being of all the stakeholders.
3. The Board accepts transparent procedures and practices and arrives at decisions
on the strength of adequate information.
4. The Board has an effective mechanism to understand the concerns of
stakeholders.
5. The Board keeps the shareholders informed of relevant developments impacting
the company.
6. The Board effectively and regularly monitors the functioning of the management
team.
7. The Board remains in effective control of the affairs of the company at all times.
8. The Board ensures that management follow the legal compliance in order to avoid
complications.
Q.6) Which of the following is a secondary stakeholder in corporate governance.


Options:
(a) Customers
(b) Employee
(c) Shareholders
(d) Government bodies
Answer: (d) Government bodies
Explanation:
Primary stakeholders:
Stakeholders that hold a direct interest in a business or organization and its dealings are
known as primary stakeholders. These stakeholders usually invest their financial capital
directly into the business. Examples of primary stakeholders include shareholders,
employees, customers, suppliers, vendors and business partners.
Secondary stakeholders:
Stakeholders that do not hold direct interests in a business but can have a reasonable
influence over a business’s dealings are known as secondary stakeholders. An
organization does not directly depend upon these stakeholders for survival of its
immediate interests. Business competitors, trade unions, media groups, pressure groups
and state or local government organizations are some examples of secondary
stakeholders.
Para 3. A passage on ‘PJ Nayak’ committee and RBI Fit and Proper Criteria was given
which was followed by 3 questions i.e Q. 7-9
The P J Nayak Committee or officially the Committee to Review Governance of Boards of

Banks in India was set up by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to review the governance of
the board of banks in India. The Committee was set up in January 2014. The committee
recommended to set up a Bank Investment Company (BIC) as a holding company or a
core investment company. Until the BIC is formed, a temporary body called the ___ will
be formed to do the functions of the BIC.
The committee also reviewed the 'fit and proper' criteria, for all categories of directors of
banks, including tenor of directorship.

Q.7) Which of the following body was created in 2017 as per ‘PJ Nayak ‘committee
recommendations?

Topic – CORPORATE GOVERNANCE IN BANKING SECTOR
Options:
(a) IBBI
(b) IBC
(c) Payment Banks
(d) Bank Board Bureau
(e) None of Above
Answer: (d) Bank Board Bureau
Explanation:
About Banks Board Bureau (BBB)
• In 2016, the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) was constituted and started functioning as an
recommendatory body.
• It is an autonomous body, constituted to:
o Improve the governance of Public Sector Banks
o Recommend selection of chiefs of government owned banks and financial
institutions
o To help banks in developing appropriate strategies for their growth and
development and capital raising plans
o It is a step towards governance reforms in Public Sector Banks (PSBs) as
recommended by P. J. Nayak Committee.
Q.8) As per the recent RBI guidelines, Fit and proper guidelines are applicable to:

Options:

(a) RRBs
(b) Cooperative banks
(c) Private banks
(d) PSBs
Answer: (d) PSBs
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has notified guidelines on Fit and Proper criteria for
elected directors on the boards of Public Sector Banks (PSB).
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has mandated that the elected directors of public
sector banks (PSBs) are to be appointed by the Nomination and Remuneration
Committee (NRC) of the board of the respective banks.
• Under Fit and Proper criteria, RBI has mandated all the banks to constitute a
Nomination and Remuneration Committee (NRC) consisting of a minimum of three
non-executive directors from amongst the board of directors.
• Of these non-executive directors, not less than one-half shall be independent
directors and should include at least one member from the Risk Management
Committee of the board.
• Fit and proper regime is intended to keep centre’s nominated directors away from
the PSB board and ensure minimum political intervention.
• Members of Parliament, state legislatures, and local governments not eligible to be
members of PSB boards.
Q.9) As per the recent RBI guidelines, maximum number of non-executive directors in
NRC committee will be?

Options:
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 10
(e) 7

Answer: (b) 3
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has notified guidelines on Fit and Proper criteria for
elected directors on the boards of Public Sector Banks (PSB).
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has mandated that the elected directors of public
sector banks (PSBs) are to be appointed by the Nomination and Remuneration
Committee (NRC) of the board of the respective banks.
• Under Fit and Proper criteria, RBI has mandated all the banks to constitute a
Nomination and Remuneration Committee (NRC) consisting of a minimum of three
non-executive directors from amongst the board of directors.
• Of these non-executive directors, not less than one-half shall be independent
directors and should include at least one member from the Risk Management
Committee of the board.
• Fit and proper regime is intended to keep centre’s nominated directors away from
the PSB board and ensure minimum political intervention.
• Members of Parliament, state legislatures, and local governments not eligible to be
members of PSB boards.
Para 4. A passage describing economic reform in India starting from 90’s was given.
Apart from that, recent disinvestment policy was also discussed in the context of
economic reforms. Passage also discussed about Bank mergers. The passage was
followed by 3 questions i.e Q. 10-12
Q.10) Reforms introduced in 90’s was also Known as:

Topic – PUBLIC SECTOR REFORM
Options:
(a) Globalization, Industrialization and Liberalization

(b) Industrialization, Privatization and Liberalization
(c) Globalization, Privatization and Industrialization
(d) Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization

Answer: (d) Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization
Explanation:
New Economic Policy of India was launched in the year 1991 under the leadership of P. V.
Narasimha Rao. This policy opened the door of the India Economy for the global exposure
for the first time. In this New Economic Policy P. V. Narasimha Rao government reduced
the import duties, opened reserved sector for the private players, devalued the Indian
currency to increase the export. This is also known as the LPG Model of growth i.e.,
Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization.
Former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is considered to be the father of New Economic
Policy (NEP) of India.
Q.11) Which of the following sectors have been exempted from the disinvestment
process?

Topic –DISINVESTMENT
Options:
(a) Power & Railway

(b) Atomic power & Railway with certain exceptions
(c) Atomic power & Railway
(d) Defense & Power
Answer: (b) Atomic power & Railway with certain exceptions
Explanation:
Part of Current Affairs. Policy changes year on year basis.
Q.12) Which bank was merged with Bank of Baroda?


Topic – CHANGING LANDSCAPE OF BANKING SECTOR
Options:
(a) Dena Bank & UCO Bank

(b) Vijaya Bank & UCO Bank
(c) Dena Bank & Vijaya Bank
(d) OBC & Vijaya Bank
Answer: (c) Dena Bank and Vijaya Bank
Explanation:
State-run Bank of Baroda recently completed integration of 3,898 branches of erstwhile

Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank with itself. In a first three-way amalgamation, Vijaya Bank and
Dena Bank were merged with Bank of Baroda from April 1, 2019.
Para 5. A passage was Incentives and its effect on employee was given which was
Most workers need a bit more than a virtual pat on the back from the boss to stay
motivated. That's why many employers implement employee incentive programs to keep
their staff engaged and working hard. These employee incentives can help you get more
out of your team while keeping them motivated and satisfied.
While money can be a motivating factor, it can lose its appeal quickly. Sure everyone likes
to be compensated, but there are a few reasons why it may not always be enough to
boost employee engagement and performance.
Many people don’t necessarily care about a small financial incentive and would rather
have some recognition instead. They want to grow in their role, get promoted, and have
their managers or higher ups recognize their value. In the long run, being recognized and
valued will increase an employees performance.
Money incentives can also sometimes encourage some employees to cheat their way to
get a bonus. This could also be unethical practices or ways to beat the system just to get
the bonus, which doesn’t mean work performance is boosted.
Q.13) In an organization, employee’s morale can be boosted by providing:

Options:
(a) High incentives to best performer

(b) Higher bonus
(c) Incentives to best performer
(d) Equal opportunities to earn incentives
Answer: (d) Equal opportunities to earn incentives
Explanation:
Cash bonuses, additional days off and other incentives intended to boost morale may
backfire when they spark conflict among co-workers. Employers can avoid perceptions of
favoritism that might create such conflicts and hamper morale by giving employees at all
levels equal opportunities to earn incentives.
Q.14) The best strategy to boost morale of a team is:

Options:
(a) To provide incentives immediately after target is achieved.

(b) To provide incentives to all the employees at same time
(c) To provide higher bonuses
(d) To reward select few employee
Answer: (b) To provide incentives to all the employees at same time

Explanation:
Cash bonuses, additional days off and other incentives intended to boost morale may
backfire when they spark conflict among co-workers. Employers can avoid perceptions of
favoritism that might create such conflicts and hamper morale by giving employees at all
levels equal opportunities to earn incentives and also provide incentives to all the
employees at same time.
Q.15) An organization uses incentives to motivate employee along with

Options:
(a) Minimizing operational challenges

(b) Taking leading position in industry
(c) Achieving business goals
(d) Attracting more talented employee
Answer: (c) Achieving business goals
Explanation:

Para 6. A passage on communication was given which was followed by 3 questions i.e
Q. 16-18
Communication is simply the act of transferring information from one place, person or
group to another. Every communication involves (at least) one sender, a message and a
recipient. This may sound simple, but communication is actually a very complex subject.
Words play a crucial role in communication process, to transmit the message in the way
it is intended to be conveyed. When words are used in the process of communication, it
is known as verbal communication. Verbal transfer of information can be performed,
orally or in written form. Oral Communication is the oldest means of communication,
which is most commonly used as a medium for the exchange of information. It involves
gathering or disseminating information through spoken words. Written Communication,
on the other hand, is a formal means of communication, wherein message is carefully
drafted and formulated in written form.
Q.16) Written communication is preferred in formal communication, because

Topic – COMMUNICATION
Options:
(a) It is instantaneous
(b) It require less effort and can be conveyed to large number of people
(c) It can be stored & documented for legal validation
(d) It is cost effective
Answer: (c) It can be stored & documented for legal validation
Explanation:
Advantages of Written Communication

• Written communication helps in laying down apparent principles, policies, and
rules for running of an organization.
• Permanent: It is a permanent means of communication. Thus, it is useful where
record maintenance is required.

• Good for Delegation of Responsibilities: It assists in proper delegation of
responsibilities. While in case of oral communication, it is impossible to fix and
delegate responsibilities on the grounds of speech as it can be taken back by the
speaker or he may refuse to acknowledge.
• Precise: Written communication is more precise and explicit.
• Formal: Effective written communication develops and enhances an organization’s
image. It is formal form of communication.
• Legally Valid: Legal defenses can depend upon written communication as it
provides valid records.
Q.17) Which of the following is an advantage of written communication?

Options:
(a) It is formal mode of communication.

(b) It can be used for delegation of authority.
(c) It can be presented as legal proof.
(d) It can be stored as permanent record.
Answer: (a) All of the above
Explanation:
Advantages of Written Communication

• Written communication helps in laying down apparent principles, policies, and
rules for running of an organization.
• Permanent: It is a permanent means of communication. Thus, it is useful where
record maintenance is required.
• Good for Delegation of Responsibilities: It assists in proper delegation of
responsibilities. While in case of oral communication, it is impossible to fix and
delegate responsibilities on the grounds of speech as it can be taken back by the
speaker or he may refuse to acknowledge.
• Precise: Written communication is more precise and explicit.

• Formal: Effective written communication develops and enhances an organization’s
image. It is formal form of communication.
• Legally Valid: Legal defenses can depend upon written communication as it
provides valid records.
Q.18) Which of the following is true about oral communication?

Options:
(a) Oral communication is not prone to distortion.

(b) Oral communication is free of error of interpretation.
(c) Oral communication is not useful in addressing large number of people.
(d) Oral communication retains same aspect of relationship as Social cue.
Answer: (d) Oral communication retains same aspect of relationship as Social cue.
Explanation:
Social cues are verbal or non-verbal signals expressed through the face, body, voice,
motion (and more) and guide conversations as well as other social interactions by
influencing our impressions of and responses to others. These percepts are important
communicative tools as they convey important social and contextual information and
therefore facilitate social understanding.
A few examples of social cues include:

• eye gaze
• facial expression
• vocal tone
• body language
Para 7. A passage on Henry Mintzberg -types of Managers was given which was

Henry Mintzberg recommends breaking down management roles and responsibilities and
organizing the workplace to simplify complex concepts. This helps to organize companies
into a more efficient culture, and it allows each member to develop their own skills.
The term management role refers to specific categories of managerial behavior. He

identified 10 identified roles of a manager played in an organization which falls into 3
basic categories: Interpersonal roles, Informational roles and Decisional roles.
Interpersonal Roles: These roles relate to the manager’s behavior that focuses on
interpersonal contact Interpersonal roles are roles that involve people (subordinates and
persons outside the organization) and other duties that are ceremonial and symbolic. The
three interpersonal roles include being a Figurehead, Leader and Liaison.
Informational Roles: Informational roles involve receiving, collecting, and disseminating

information. The 3 informational roles include Monitor, Disseminator, and Spokesperson.
Decisional Roles: Decisional roles revolved around making choices. Managers’

interpersonal role leads to decisional roles. Information and resources that are collected
and gathered by the interpersonal make a manager able to play the decisional roles or
responsibilities that he is obligated to. The four decisional roles include being an
entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, and negotiator.
Q.19) A leader who shares information with team members is an example of

Options:
(a) Spokesperson
(b) Liaison
(c) Disseminator
(d) Disturbance Handler
Answer: (c) Disseminator
Explanation:

Q.20) A leader who on the behalf of the company addresses a meeting organized by
industry body is playing the role of

Options:
(a) Figurehead
(b) Liaison
(c) Disseminator
(d) Disturbance Handler
Answer: (a) Figurehead
Explanation:
Refer Image attached in question 19.
Q.21) A leader who states a plan and allocates the resources is playing a role of:

Options:
(a) Resource Allocator

(b) Planner
(c) Entrepreneurship
(d) Figure Head
Answer: (a) Resource Allocator
Explanation:
Refer Image attached in question 19.

Para 8. A passage on Financial Market was given which was followed by 3 questions i.e
Q. 22-24
Financial markets refer broadly to any marketplace where the trading of securities
occurs, including the stock market, bond market, forex market, and derivatives market,
among others. Financial markets are vital to the smooth operation of capitalist
economies.
Financial markets exist for several reasons, but the most fundamental function is to allow
for the efficient allocation of capital and assets in a financial economy. By allowing a free
market for the flow of capital, financial obligations, and money the financial markets
make the global economy run more smoothly while also allowing investors to participate
in capital gains over time.
Without financial markets, capital could not be allocated efficiently, and economic
activity such as commerce & trade, investment, and growth opportunities would be
greatly diminished.
Q.22) Capital market facilitates issuance of new securities & their trading. Which type
of capital market facilitates IPO?

Options:
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Primary and Secondary
(d) Primary and Forex
Answer: (a) Primary
Explanation:

Q.23) Which type of buyer has the right to sell the security before maturity?

Options:
(a) Call Buyer

(b) Put Buyer
(c) Put Seller
(d) Call Seller
Answer: (b) Put Buyer
Explanation:

Q.24) A bond which matures multiple time over a period of time and can also be
redeemed is known as_________

Options:
(a) Series Bond

(b) Multiple Bond
(c) Multi Bond
(d) Serial Bond
Answer: (d) Serial Bond
Explanation:
Serial bonds (or installment bonds) describes a bond issue that matures in portions over
several different dates. Instead of facing a large lump-sum principal re-payment at
maturity, an issuer can opt to spread the principal repayment over several periods.
For example:
Para 9. A passage on FRBM Act was given which was followed by 3 questions i.e Q. 25-
27

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 sets a target for the
government to establish financial discipline in the economy, improve the management of
public funds and reduce fiscal deficit.
As per the requirements of the Act, Centre needs to limit fiscal deficit to 3 per cent of the
country's gross domestic product (GDP) by March 31, 2021. While government's debt
should be restricted to 40 per cent of GDP by 2024-25.
Most economies around the world, including India, run in a fiscal deficit. In other words,
the government’s expenditure is more than its income. The converse is also possible –
Fiscal Surplus. This happens when the government’s income is more than its expenditure.
It is essential to note that the fiscal deficit does not mean that the country is not
economically sound. If the government is spending a lot on developmental projects like
constructing highways, airports, etc., or industries that will contribute to its income in the
coming years, then its current fiscal deficit can be high. Hence, while looking at the fiscal
deficit figure, it is important to analyze the income and expenditure sections carefully
too.
Q.25) If we deduct interest payment from Fiscal deficit, it known as:

Options:
(a) Revenue Deficit

(b) Primary Deficit
(c) Budget Deficit
(d) Secondary Deficit
Answer: (b) Primary Deficit
Explanation:
Budgetary deficit is the excess of total expenditure (both revenue and capital) over total
receipts (both revenue and capital).
Following are three types (measures) of deficit:

1. Revenue deficit = Total revenue expenditure – Total revenue receipts.

2. Fiscal deficit = Total expenditure – Total receipts excluding borrowings.
3. Primary deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest payments
Q.26) Which of the following is not the mode of deficit financing?

Options:
(a) Borrowings
(b) Issuing more government securities
(c) Increasing tax rate
(d) Issuing treasury securities
Answer: (c) Increasing tax rate
Explanation:
Former Planning Commission of India has defined deficit financing as:
"The direct addition to gross national expenditure through budget deficits, whether the
deficits are on capital or on revenue account.”
So, whenever the expenditure of the government exceeds its revenue then government
envisage the process of deficit financing. So, the temporary arrangement of the funds
through various methods is known as deficit financing.
The deficit financing is done in three ways:
1) Printing new currency notes
2) Borrowing from internal sources (RBI, General Public, Ad-hoc Treasury Bills &
government bonds etc.)
3) Borrowing from External Sources (like borrowing from developed countries and
International institutions like World Bank, IMF, etc.)
Q.27) Government measures to manage its finance by fiscal consolidation leads to


Options:
(a) Reduce government expenditure.
(b) Increased borrowings
(c) Reduced tax collection
(d) Decreasing tax rates
Answer: (a) Reduce government expenditure.
Explanation:
Fiscal consolidation is a reduction in the underlying fiscal deficit. Fiscal Consolidation

refers to the policies undertaken by Governments (national and sub-national levels) to
reduce their deficits and accumulation of debt stock. It is not aimed at eliminating fiscal
debt.
Following measures from the expenditure side and revenue side are envisaged by the
government to achieve fiscal consolidation.
(a) Improved tax revenue realization: For this, increasing efficiency of tax administration
by reducing tax avoidance, eliminating tax evasion, enhancing tax compliance etc. are
to be made.
(b) Enhancing tax GDP ratio by widening the tax base and minimizing tax concessions and
exemptions also improves tax revenues.
(c) Better targeting of government subsidies/Expenditure and extending Direct Benefit
Transfer scheme for more subsidies.
Para 10. A passage on Career Planning and Development was given which was followed
by 3 questions i.e Q. 28-30
In recent decades, career development has seen a shift in the way it is approached.
Traditionally, it was up to an organization to ensure that its employees had the skills to
meet the company’s long-term goals. Now, however, employees advocate that they
are—and should be—responsible for their own career development.
This shift has changed the way that organizations handle career development. Career
development is viewed today as a kind of partnership with employees. It is also a key
component of a company’s attraction and retention strategy. Many candidates will not
consider employment with an organization unless it offers career development as a basic
component of its culture.

Each employee should have a career plan that has been discussed with their manager.
Generally, this would take place during the performance review process.
The career plan includes an assessment of the “gaps” or training requirements. The
career plan should be reviewed on an ongoing basis. This ensures that both the
employee’s and the organization’s needs and objectives are adjusted over time.
Q.28) A process in which a person seeks guidance & advance from his mentor is:

Options:
(a) Career Planning
(b) Career Counselling
(c) Career Target
(d) Career Path
Answer: (b) Career Counselling
Explanation:
Career counselling refers to counselling provided by career counsellors who help

individuals choose an appropriate career based on their interests, skills and abilities. The
main objective of career counselling is to help individual pick a field that complements
their abilities and skills the most.
Q.29) Throughout his career, a person moves across various positions travelling
through horizontal, lateral hierarchy is known as:

Options:
(a) Career Progress

(b) Career Goal
(c) Career Target

(d) Career Path
Answer: (d) Career Path
Explanation:
Career paths are routes that individuals take from their first foray into the job market
through to their final position before retirement. Generally speaking, career paths start
with the most junior position and end with the most senior position.
It is also defined as the way that you progress in your work, either in one job or in a series
of jobs.
Q.30) A person’s vertical movement across the organization hierarchy is termed as:

Options:
(a) Career Hierarchy

(b) Career Ladders
(c) Career Target
(d) Career Path
Answer: (b) Career Ladders
Explanation:
A career ladder is a formal process within an organization that allows employees to

advance their careers to higher levels of salary, responsibility or authority. Once
employees meet certain criteria, they are eligible to move into higher-level roles.
Para 11. A passage on Financial Inclusion was given which was followed by 3 questions
i.e Q. 31-33
The role of Microfinance has been critical in driving financial inclusion in India. The
microfinance lenders have been providing easy access to formal credit to customers
particularly in semi-urban and rural geographies through a branch, business
correspondent model. Microfinance lenders have transformed themselves to deliver
beyond lending to the clients – they have leveraged the relationship with clients and the
community to offer insurance, savings, services around health, environment, education &
financial literacy, water, energy and a host of other relevant services. We are seeing
opportunities for MFIs to grow through credit plus products, leveraging data & analytics
to drive efficiencies and fostering partnerships to cater to customers’ needs at an optimal
cost.
Q.31) Which of the following is of Micro- Finance institution is a universal bank now?

Topic – FINANCIAL INCLUSION
Options:
(a) ESAF Finance Bank

(b) Bandhan Financial service
(c) Ujjivan Finance Bank
(d) AU Small Finance Bank
Answer: (b) Bandhan Financial service
Explanation:

On 17 June 2015, the Reserve Bank of India granted the universal banking licence
to Bandhan Bank.

Q.32) Which of the following is not a scheme related to financial inclusion?

Options:
(a) Jan Dhan Scheme

(b) Easy KYC norms
(c) MUDRA Scheme
(d) Banking Correspondence
Answer: (c) MUDRA Scheme
Explanation:

Q.33) Which of the following acts as agent of Micro- Financial institutions?

Options:
(a) Insurance Companies

(b) NBFCs
(c) Self-Help Groups
(d) Regional Rural Banks
Answer: (c) Self-Help Groups
Explanation:
A self-help group (commonly abbreviated SHG) is a financial intermediary committee

usually composed of 10 to 25 local women between the ages of 18 and 40. Most self-help
groups are in India, though they can be found in other countries, especially in South Asia
and Southeast Asia. An SHG is generally a group of people who work on daily wages who
form a loose grouping or union. Money is collected from those who are able to donate
and given to members in need.
Members may also make small regular savings contributions over a few months until
there is enough money in the group to begin lending. Funds may then be lent back to the
members or to others in the village for any purpose. In India, many SHGs are linked with
banks for the delivery of micro-credit.
Para 12. A passage on GDP Measurement was given which was followed by 2 questions
i.e Q. 34-35
Economists use many different methods to measure how fast the economy is growing.
The most common way to measure the economy is real gross domestic product, or real
GDP. GDP is the total value of everything - goods and services - produced in our
economy. The word "real" means that the total has been adjusted to remove the effects
of inflation.
In countries with deep cultural, religious and economic diversity such as India, it is
extremely important for the government to allocate resources wisely. Various factors
such as uplifting underprivileged sections of the society, facilitating financial inclusion,
mitigating regional disparity, upgrading defense capabilities, providing proper
educational facilities, and much more need to be focused on. Therefore, a well-planned
budget is of utmost importance for any government to ensure economic stability and
growth.
Q.34) What is the base year for calculating India's GDP?

Options:
(a) 2005-06
(b) 2011-12
(c) 2001-02
(d) 2014-15
(e) 2017-18
Answer: (b) 2011-12
Explanation:
Q.35) Which of the following is not an example of developmental expenditure?


Options:
(a) Grants to states

(b) Developing Infrastructure Project
(c) Defense Expenditure
(d) Developing Railways
Answer: (c) Defense Expenditure
Explanation:
(i) Developmental Expenditure
Developmental expenditure refers to the expenditure of the government which helps in

economic development by increasing production and real income of the country.
Developmental expenditure on revenue is divided into developmental expenditure on

revenue account and developmental expenditure on capital account.
(ii) Non-Developmental Expenditure
It refers to those expenditure of the government which does not directly help in
economic development of the country. Cost of tax collection, cost of audit, printing of
notes, internal law and order, expenditure on defense etc.

Question Paper Analysis: OBJECTIVE
TABLE 1
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL MARKS
SUBJECT
QUESTIONS ASKED ALLOCATED
FINANCE 35 52
MANAGEMENT 30 48
TABLE 2
TOTAL NUMBER OF
DIFFICULTY LEVEL
QUESTIONS ASKED
EASY 51
MODERATE 13
DIFFICULT 1
Important take away from Table 1 and 2
❖ Finance was given slightly more weightage (52%) than Management (48%).
❖ Overall objective paper was on easier side.
Finance Analysis
Finance Marks Distribution Static / Current
0% 0%
10 Marks
18 Marks
2 Marker Static
1 Marker Current
34 Marks
42 Marks

Syllabus Wise Distribution of Marks
DISINVESTMENT 2
CHANGING LANDSCAPE OF BANKING SECTOR 3
RISK MANAGEMENT IN BANKING SECTOR 2
PUBLIC SECTOR REFORMS 2
PRIMARY AND SECONDARY MARKET 7
MONETARY POLICY 3
INFLATION 1
GST 2
FISCAL POLICY 11
FINANCIAL INSTRUMENT 1
FINANCIAL INCLUSION 6
DIRECT AND INDIRECT TAXES 1
CORPORATE GOVERNANCE IN BANKING SECTOR 7
BASICS OF DERIVATIVES 2
BANKING SYSTEM IN INDIA 2
0 2 4 6 8 10 12
Important take away from Finance Analysis.
❖ Current Affairs
o Current Affairs focused on 1st in News. – Like Lakshmi – India’s 1st AI Banking
Robot.
o RBI Notification (< 6 month) preferred. – RBI fit and proper criteria – Aug
2019.
o Even older current Affairs (> 6 months) were asked. – Bank of Baroda
Merger.
❖ No Numerical asked
❖ Static was on easier side.

Management Analysis
Management Marks Distribution
0%
12 Marks
2 Marker
1 Marker
36 Marks
GENERAL MANAGEMENT 8
LEADERSHIP 9
MOTIVATION 9
HUMAN RESOURSE DEVELOPMENT 10
CORPORATE GOVERNANCE 6
COMMUNICATION 6
0 2 4 6 8 10 12
Important take away from Management Analysis.
❖ Management questions were slightly on the application side.

❖ Paragraph based questions tried to cover one topic in entirety- Henry Mintzberg-
Types of Managers, 3-D Leadership Model etc.
❖ Majority of questions were direct and thus easy.

Dear Students,
officer exam.

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1) Who among the following coined the term ‘Animal Spirits’?

Economics or Social Issues – ECONOMICS
Topic – GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT - MEASUREMENT OF GROWTH:
NATIONAL INCOME AND PER CAPITA INCOME
Options:
(a) David Ricardo

(b) John Maynard Keynes
(c) Thomas Malthus
(d) John Stuart Mill
(e) Adam Smith
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Animal spirits come from the Latin spiritus animalis: "the breath that awakens the
human mind." It was coined by British economist, John Maynard Keynes in 1936.
• Animal spirits refer to the ways that human emotion can drive financial decision
making in uncertain environments and volatile times.
• We may observe the concept of animal spirits in action during financial crises,
including the Great Recession of 2007–2009.
Q.2) The term National Income represents:

1 marker or 2 marker – ONE MARKER
Options:
(a) gross national product at market prices minus depreciation

(b) gross national product at market prices minus depreciation plus net factor income
from abroad

(c) gross national product at market prices minus depreciation and indirect taxes plus
subsidies
(d) gross national product at market prices minus net factor income from abroad
Answer: C
To reach National Income (that is, NNP at FC)
• Add Net Factor Income from Abroad: GNP at MP = GDP at MP + NFIA

• Subtract Depreciation: NNP at MP = GNP at MP – Dep
• Subtract Net Indirect Taxes: NNP at FC = NNP at MP – NIT
Q.3) Which of the following term denotes the average income earned by a person in
India?

Options:
(a) GDP per capita

(b) Per capita income
(c) Personal income
(d) Personal Disposable Income
Answer: B
Explanation:
Per capita income (PCI) or average income measures the average income earned per
person in a given area (city, region, country, etc.) in a specified year. It is calculated by
dividing the area's total income by its total population. Per capita income is national
income divided by population size.
Q.4) Which among the following defines Marginal Standing Facility Rate?

Options:
(a) The rate at which banks place their surplus funds with the RBI
(b) The rate at which banks can borrow against their excess SLR securities to meet
additional liquidity requirements
(c) The rate at which the Reserve Bank is prepared to buy or re-discount bills of exchange
or other commercial paper eligible for purchase
(d) The rate at which banks borrow funds from the Reserve Bank against eligible
collaterals
Answer: B
Explanation:
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is a new scheme announced by the RBI in its Monetary
Policy (2011-12) and refers to the penal rate at which banks can borrow money from the
central bank over and above what is available to them through the LAF window.
It is a facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of
overnight money from the Reserve Bank by pledging their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
portfolio up to a limit at a penal rate of interest.
Q.5) Excess of total expenditure over total receipts less borrowings and interest
payment is

Options:
(a) Fiscal Deficit

(b) Budget Deficit
(c) Revenue Deficit
(d) Primary Deficit
Answer: D
We must note that the borrowing requirement of the government includes interest
obligations on accumulated debt.
The goal of measuring gross primary deficit is to focus on present fiscal imbalances.
To obtain an estimate of borrowing on account of current expenditures exceeding

revenues, we need to calculate what has been called the primary deficit. It is simply the
fiscal deficit minus the interest payments.
The formula for Gross primary deficit is:
Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal deficit – Net interest liabilities
Net interest liabilities consist of interest payments minus interest receipts by the
government on net domestic lending.
Q.6) Which of the following is not accounted for in the capital account under Balance of
Payment?

Difficulty Level – TOUGH
Topic – BALANCE OF PAYMENTS
Options:
(a) Direct Investment

(b) External Commercial Borrowing
(c) Remittances and Grants
(d) Portfolio Investment
(e) All of the above are accounted for in the capital account under Balance of Payment
Answer: C
Explanation:

Q.7) ‘World Economic Outlook’ report is published by
Static or Current – CURRENT

Topic – INTERNATIONAL ECONOMIC INSTITUTIONS
Options:
(a) World Economic Forum

(b) World Bank
(c) Asian Development Bank
(d) United Nations Development Programme
(e) International Monetary Fund
Answer: E
Explanation:
As part of its World Economic and Financial Surveys, the IMF publishes flagship reports
on multilateral surveillance twice a year:
• World Economic Outlook (WEO)

• Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR)
• Fiscal Monitor (FM).
The WEO provides detailed analysis of the state of the world economy, addressing issues
of pressing interest such as the protracted global financial turmoil and ongoing economic
recovery from the global financial crisis.

The GFSR provides an up-to-date assessment of global financial markets and prospects
and highlights imbalances and vulnerabilities that could pose risks to financial market
stability.
The FM updates medium-term fiscal projections and assesses developments in public

finances. The IMF also publishes Regional Economic Outlook (REO) reports as part of its
World Economic and Financial Surveys.
Q.8) Article 1(a) of the Constitution of India refers to India as

Economics or Social Issues – SOCIAL ISSUES
Topic – INDIAN POLITICAL SYSTEM
Options:
(a) Hindustan
(b) Bharat
(c) Bharatiya Ganrajya
(d) Hind
Answer: B
Explanation:
ARTICLE 1 OF CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
1. Name and territory of the Union.—
(1) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
(2) The States and the territories thereof shall be as specified in the First Schedule.
(3) The territory of India shall comprise—
(a) the territories of the States;
(b) the Union territories specified in the First Schedule; and
(c) such other territories as may be acquired.
Q.9) The imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be improper under which of
the following situations?

Topic – INDIAN POLITICAL SYSTEM
Options:
(a) Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority.
(b) Where a constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state
government.
(c) Internal subversion of the Constitution of India.
(d) Stringent financial exegencies of the state.
Answer: D
Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives the President of India the power to suspend
state government and impose President’s rule on any state in the country “if he is
satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be
carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”. It is also known as
‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
Conditions for Prez Rule
• Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, that is,
Hung Assembly.
• Where the party having a majority in the assembly declines to form a ministry and the
governor cannot find a coalition ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.
• Where a ministry resigns after its defeat in the assembly and no other party is willing
or able to form a ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.
• Where a constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state
government.
• Internal subversion where, for example, a government is deliberately acting against
the Constitution and the law or is fomenting a violent revolt.
• Physical breakdown where the government willfully refuses to discharge its
constitutional obligations endangering the security of the state.
Fouling factors
The imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be improper under the following
situations:

• Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support in the assembly
and the governor recommends imposition of President’s Rule without probing the
possibility of forming an alternative ministry.
• Where the governor recommends imposition of President’s Rule without allowing the
ministry to prove its majority on the floor of the Assembly.
• Maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or
stringent financial exigencies of the state.
• Where the state government is not given prior warning to rectify itself except in case
of extreme urgency leading to disastrous consequences.
• Where the power is used to sort out intra-party problems of the ruling party.
Q.10) According to the ‘CS Gender 3000 in 2019: the changing face of companies
report’, what is the percentage increase in India’s female representation on boards
over the past 5 years in the year 2019?

Topic – GENDER ISSUES
Options:
(a) 15.6%
(b) 15.2%
(c) 14.8%
(d) 14.4%
(e) 13.9%
Answer: B
Explanation:
• India is near the bottom of the rankings for female representation at senior
management levels, only marginally better than Japan and South Korea, according to
a new study by the Credit Suisse Research Institute (CSRI).
• CSRI released its third CS Gender 3000 report, which is titled "The CS Gender 3000 in
2019: The changing face of companies."
• Ranked 23 globally, India’s female representation on boards has increased by 4.3
percentage points over the past five years to 15.2% in 2019. This is significantly below
the global average of 20.6%.

Q.11) How much amount would be injected by the Union Government in the Alternate
Investment Fund (AIF) which has a total corpus of Rs.25000 crore?

Options:
(a) Rs 12,000 crore

(b) Rs 15,000 crore
(c) Rs 10,000 crore
(d) Rs 5,000 crore
(e) Rs 7,500 crore
Answer: C
Explanation:
• The government approved a plan to set up a ₹25,000 crore alternative investment

fund (AIF) to revive stalled housing projects, as it seeks to provide relief to distressed
homebuyers and rekindle animal spirits in the ailing realty sector.
• While the government will invest ₹10,000 crore in the fund, the remaining ₹15,000
crore will come in from State Bank of India, Life Insurance Corporation of India and
other such institutions.
Q.12) The RBI has permitted ARCs to purchase financial assets from peers provided the
transaction is on a ___________.

Options:
(a) Cheque Basis

(b) Advance Basis
(c) Credit Basis
(d) Cash Basis
(e) Escrow Basis
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed asset reconstruction companies (ARCs) to
buy financial assets from other such entities. However, all such transactions have to
settled in cash.
Q.13) The Union Government has imposed 2% TDS on cash withdrawal exceeding which
of the following amounts?

Options:
(a) Rs 1 crore
(b) Rs 1.5 crore
(c) Rs 2 crore
(d) Rs 1.25 crore
(e) Rs 0.50 crore
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The revenue department on Friday said the 2 per cent tax deduction at source (TDS)
on cash withdrawals of over Rs 1 crore will come into effect from September 1
• The government had made the provision of levying 2 per cent TDS on cash
withdrawals exceeding Rs 1 crore in the Union Budget with an aim to discourage cash
transactions and move towards less cash economy.
Q.14) Which of the following organization has submitted a master plan of $300m for
logistics infrastructure development in Kolkata?

Options:
(a) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

(b) Asian Development Bank
(c) World Bank
(d) New Development Bank
Answer: C
Explanation:
• According to West Bengal Finance Minister Amit Mitra the World Bank has submitted
a conceptual master plan for development of logistics infrastructure within the city
metropolitan area.
• The proposed project will entail a cost of around $300 million, likely to be funded by
the World Bank.
• The focus will be on multimodal logistics development, including rail and road. The
World Bank is also believed to have expressed interest in a review of industrial parks,
logistics hubs and SEZs in West Bengal with the aim of improving logistics
competitiveness, employment generation and ease of doing business.
Q.15) What is India’s Life Expectancy according to the National Health Profile 2019?

Topic – SOCIAL SECTORS IN INDIA, HEALTH AND EDUCATION
Options:
(a) 68.2 years

(b) 68.7 years
(c) 68.3 years
(d) 68.5 years
(e) 68.9 years
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Life expectancy in India has increased from 49.7 years in 1970-75 to 68.7 years in
2012-16, as per the National Health Profile 2019.
• For the same period, the life expectancy for females is 70.2 years and 67.4 years for
males.

Q.16) As per the UN’s Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index report, India has lifted how
many people out of poverty between 2005/6 and 2015/16?

Topic – POVERTY ALLEVIATION AND EMPLOYMENT GENERATION IN INDIA
Options:
(a) 285 Million People

(b) 271 Million People
(c) 260 Million People
(d) 270 Million People
(e) 265 Million People
Answer: B
Explanation:
As per 2019 global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) from the UN Development
Programme (UNDP), the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI), India
lifted 271 million people out of poverty between 2006 and 2016, recording the fastest
reductions in the multidimensional poverty index values during the period with strong
improvements in areas such as “assets, cooking fuel, sanitation and nutrition.”
Q.17) ‘Global Green New Deal’ Report has been published by which of the following
organizations?

Topic – SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT AND ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
Options:
(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature

(b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) United Nations Development Program
(e) United Nations Environment Program
Answer: E

Explanation:
Global Green New Deal report was commissioned by UNEP in response to the multiple
global crises of 2008 – fuel, food and financial. The report proposes a mix of policy
actions that would stimulate economic recovery and at the same time improve the
sustainability of the world economy.
Q.18) The Steering Committee on Fintech related issues constituted by the Ministry of
Finance is headed by?

Options:
(a) Secretary, Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance

(b) Vice Chairperson, NITI Aayog
(c) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(d) Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance
(e) Union Finance Minister
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Steering Committee on Fintech related issues was constituted by the Ministry of
Finance, Department of Economic Affairs.
• It is headed by Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs. The other members of the
committee are Secretary (MeitY); Secretary (DFS); Secretary (MSME); Chairperson
(CBIC); CEO (UIDAI); Deputy Governor (RBI); Executive Director (SEBI); CEO, Invest
India with Additional Secretary (Investment), DEA as the convener of the panel.
Q.19) School Education Quality Index (SEQI) was developed by which of the following
organization?

Options:

(a) NITI Aayog
(b) UNESCO
(c) UNICEF
(d) World Bank
(e) All India Council for Technical Education
Answer: A
Explanation:
School Education Quality Index (SEQI) was developed by NITI Aayog to evaluate the
performance of States and Union Territories (UTs) in the school education sector. The
index aims to bring an ‘outcomes’ focus to education policy by providing States and UTs
with a platform to identify their strengths and weaknesses and undertake requisite
course corrections or policy interventions.
Q.20) The Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures to

Prevent Base Erosion & Profit Shifting (BEPS) will be effective from which of the
following financial year?

Options:
(a) 2022-23
(b) 2021-22
(c) 2019-20
(d) 2020-21
Answer: D
Explanation:
India has ratified the Multilateral Convention to Implement Tax Treaty Related Measures
to Prevent Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (MLI), which was signed by the Hon’ble
Finance Minister at Paris on 7th June, 2017 on behalf of India, along with representatives
of more than 65 countries. On 25th June, 2019, India has deposited the Instrument of
Ratification to OECD, Paris along with its Final Position in terms of Covered Tax
Agreements (CTAs), Reservations, Options and Notifications under the MLI, as a result of

which MLI will enter into force for India on 01st October, 2019 and its provisions will
have effect on India’s DTAAs from FY 2020-21 onwards.
Q.21) Share of exports of products related to India’s MSME during the year 2018-19
stood at?

Topic – EXPORT-IMPORT POLICY
Options:
(a) 49.60 per cent

(b) 48.50 per cent
(c) 48.10 per cent
(d) 47.40 per cent
(e) 47.90 per cent
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) Sector contributes significantly to the
Indian Economy in terms of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Exports and Employment
generation.
As per the information received from the Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of
Statistics & Programme Implementation (MOSPI), the Share of MSME Gross Value Added
(GVA) in total GVA during 2016-17 was 31.8%.
As per the information received from Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and
Statistics (DGCIS) the Share of MSME related Products in total Export from India during
2018-19 is 48.10%.
Q.22) According to the Financial Benchmark Administrator (FBA) guidelines by the RBI,
no FBA shall administer a significant benchmark without obtaining authorization of?

Options:

(a) Bureau of Indian Standards
(b) Financial Stability and Development Council
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(e) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: E
Explanation:
No FBA shall administer a significant benchmark without obtaining prior authorisation of

the Reserve Bank under Financial Benchmark Administrators (Reserve Bank) Directions,
2019.
Q.23) According to Socio Economic and Caste Census 2011, about how much
percentage of rural households are landless and derive a major part of their income
from manual casual labour?

Options:
(a) 27%
(b) 30%
(c) 35%
(d) 32%
(e) 29%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Socio Economic and Caste Census 2011 (SECC): Among the crucial findings of the
exercise, conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development, was that about 30 per cent of
rural households are landless and derive a major part of their income from manual,
casual labour. The second most common form of deprivation was literacy with close to a
quarter – 23.5 per cent — of rural households having no literate adults above the age of
25.
Q.24) The Annual Meeting of the World Economic Forum marking its 50th anniversary
will be held in which of the following places?
Options:
(a) Davos, Switzerland

(b) Paris, France
(c) London, Uniter Kingdom
(d) New York, The United States of America
(e) Berlin, Germany
Answer: A
Explanation:
The World Economic Forum (WEF) hosts an annual meeting at the end of January in
Davos, a mountain resort in Graubünden, in the eastern Alps region of Switzerland.
Q.25) The contribution of agriculture to the GVA has decreased from 15% in 2015-16 to
_____in 2018-19?

Options:
(a) 14.6%
(b) 14.2%
(c) 14.4%
(d) 13.5%
(e) 14.1%
Answer: C
Explanation:
The contribution of agriculture to the GVA has decreased from 15% in 2015-16 to 14.4%
in 2018-19. The decline was mainly due to decrease in share of GVA of crops from 9.2% in

2015-16 to 8.7% in 2017-18. Water resources: Almost 89% of groundwater is extracted
for irrigation.
Q.26) As per the Revised Economic Capital Framework for RBI, RBI is to maintain the
Contingency Risk Buffer (CRB) within what range of the RBI’s balance sheet?

Options:
(a) 4.0% to 5.0%
(b) 5.0% to 6.0%
(c) 4.5% to 5.5%
(d) 5.5% to 6.5%
(e) 6.0% to 7.0%
Answer: D
Explanation:
‘Expert Committee to Review the Extant Economic Capital Framework of the Reserve
Bank of India’ (Chairman — Bimal Jalan).
RBI should maintain CRB within the range of 6.5-5.5 per cent of the RBI’s balance sheet
comprising 5.5-4.5 per cent for monetary and financial stability risks, and 1 per cent for
credit and operational risks.
Q.27) In the Eastern Economic Forum, India has pledged how much amount as the Line
of Credit for the development of Russia’s Far East?

Topic – REGIONAL ECONOMIC COOPERATION
Options:
(a) $750 million

(b) $1 billion
(c) $1.5 billion
(d) $500 million
(e) $1.25 billion
Answer: B
Explanation:
India will walk shoulder-to-shoulder with Russia in its development of the Far East region
and announced a $1 billion line of credit for the development of the resource-rich region.
Q.28) SEIS is one of the two schemes introduced under the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-
20. What is the full form of SEIS?

Topic – EXPORT-IMPORT POLICY
Options:
(a) Software Exports from India Scheme

(b) Services Exports Incentive Scheme
(c) Software Exports Incentive Scheme
(d) Services Exports Initiative from India
(e) Services Exports from India Scheme
Answer: E
Explanation:
Service Exports from India Scheme (SEIS) aims to promote export of services from India
by providing duty scrip credit for eligible exports. Under the scheme, service providers,
located in India, would be rewarded under the SEIS scheme, for all eligible export of
services from India.
Q.29) As per the NITI Aayog Health Index, which of the following state has performed
the worst?

Options:
(a) Jharkhand

(b) Bihar
(c) Assam
(d) Manipur
(e) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: E
Explanation:
Kerala has occupied the top slot in terms of health performance among large states
followed by Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra, whereas Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
remained at the bottom, according to the NITI Aayog's second round of Health Index. The
ranking was done under three categories -- larger states, smaller states and Union
territories (UTs) -- to ensure comparison among similar entities.
Q.30) Green Bonds have been released by which of the following organization?

Options:
(a) Bank for International Settlements

(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Bank
(d) European Central Bank
(e) Asian Development Bank
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) has launched a euro-denominated, open-
ended fund for green bond investments by central banks and official institutions. The
launch follows the successful introduction of a first BIS green bond fund denominated in
US dollars in September 2019. Together, the two BIS green bond funds will manage some
$2 billion in green bonds for central banks with the expectation that the funds will
continue to grow considerably.

Q.31) As per the report prepared by the Labour Bureau under the Ministry of Labour &
Employment, the number of employees in the establishments that availed loans under
the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Scheme increased to how many millions from 39.3 million
before the loans?

Options:
(a) 51.3 million

(b) 50.2 million
(c) 50.4 million
(d) 48.7 million
(e) 45.6 million
Answer: C
Explanation:
Loans availed through the PMMY has led to a 28 per cent rise in jobs that were created
by establishments that availed the loans, as mentioned in an official survey by the
government. The report prepared by the Labour Bureau under the Ministry of Labour and
Employment revealed that the number of employees in such establishments increased to
50.4 million from 39.3 million before the loans.
Q.32) As part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, what is the total
number of targets that are to be achieved under the 17 SDGs?

Options:
(a) 189
(b) 180
(c) 179
(d) 169
(e) 164
Answer: D
Explanation:
SDGs are officially known as Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable
Development as a set of 17 "Global Goals" with 169 targets between them. The
Sustainable Development Goals are a UN Initiative.
PARAGRAPH ON SDG INDIA INDEX
Q.33) The SDG India Index tracks progress of all States and UTs on some Priority
Indicators selected by NITI Aayog. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
regarding the same?

Statements:
1. There are 62 Priority Indicators selected by NITI Aayog.

2. These Priority Indicators are guided by MoSPI’s National Indicator Framework
comprising 306 indicators.
3. Priority Indicators were selected keeping in mind their relevance to the UN SDG
targets.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
(e) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: E
Explanation:
The SDG India Index is a product of a chain of three stages.
Each of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals are mapped with a set of 169 targets to
be achieved by 2030. These were used as the foundation for building the SDG India Index.
The next stage was to identify the national level Priority Indicators and map them to the
169 targets of the SDGs for 2030.
NITI Aayog selected a list of 62 Priority Indictors that was guided by the MoSPI’s National
Indicator Framework.
MoSPI was entrusted with the responsibility of identifying the nationally available
datasets that align with the 17 SDGs and their 169 targets. MoSPI thus developed the
draft National Indicator Framework for measuring India’s progress against SDGs and
associated targets.
The National Indicator Framework is the largest monitoring framework in the country,
comprising of 306 indicators. It consists of nationally defined indicators corresponding to
national priorities and needs. Guided by the MoSPI’s National Indicator Framework, NITI
Aayog constructed a draft list of 62 Priority Indicators. These Priority Indicators were
selected by following a set of criteria.
Criteria Adopted in selecting National Indicators
1. Relevance to the UN SDG targets
2. Drawn from National Indicator Framework
3. Availability of data at national level for States and UTs from official statistical systems
4. Consent from respective Ministries
5. Ownership of data by the data source Ministries
6. Sufficient data coverage, such that data for at least 50 percent of the States/UTs is
available
SDG India Index score was computed for India and each of its States and UTs based on
the 62 Priority Indicators. The Index measures India’s progress towards the 13 of the 17
Sustainable Development Goals, leaving out SDG 12, 13, 14 and 17 from the purview of
this Index. Progress on SDG 12, 13 and 14 could not be measured because relevant state
level data could not be consolidated or found. SDG 17 was left out because the Goal is
focussed on international partnerships, being less relevant for domestic level policy
actions.
Q.34) Which of the following organization along with the UN has partnered with NITI
Aayog in releasing the SDG India Index?

Options:
(a) Global Green Growth Institute

(b) Global Commission on the Economy and Climate
(c) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
(d) Green Climate Fund
(e) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
Answer: A
Explanation:
NITI Aayog recently released the second edition of the Sustainable Development Goals
(SDG) India Index, which comprehensively documents the progress made by India’s
States and Union Territories towards achieving the 2030 SDG targets.
The SDG India Index—which has been developed in collaboration with the Ministry of
Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), United Nations in India, and Global
Green Growth Institute—was launched by NITI Aayog Vice-Chairman Dr. Rajiv Kumar.
Q.35) Which of the following states in India is not among the FRONT RUNNERS as per
the SDG India Index?

Options:
(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
(e) Chandigarh
Answer: B
Explanation:
Front Runners as per the SDG India Index were: Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, Tamil Nadu,
Chandigarh and Puducherry.
Q.36) The SDG India Index aligns the SDGs with the Prime Minister’s clarion call of
Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, which embodies the five Ps of the global SDG movement.
Which of the following is not one among the 5 Ps?
Options:
(a) People
(b) Planet
(c) Perspective
(d) Prosperity
(e) Partnerships
Answer: C
Explanation:
“5 Ps” that shape the SDGs: People, Planet, Prosperity, Peace, and Partnerships. The 5 Ps
highlight how the SDGs are an intertwined framework instead of a group of siloed goals.
Progress on one P must balance and support progress on another.
PASSAGE ON NIRMAYA SCHEME
Q.37) Which of the following is an insurance scheme for Persons with Disabilities in
India?

Topic – SOCIAL JUSTICE: POSITIVE DISCRIMINATION IN FAVOR OF THE
UNDER PRIVILEGED
Options:
(a) DISHA
(b) VIKAAS
(c) SAMARTH
(d) SAHYOGU
(e) NIRMAYA
Answer: E
Explanation:
This scheme is to provide affordable Health Insurance to persons with Autism, Cerebral
Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities.
Q.38) Which of the following is true about the scheme?

UNDER PRIVILEGED
Options:
(a) It provides a Health insurance cover of up to Rs. 10 lakh.

(b) It has a differential premium across age band.
(c) Pre-insurance medical tests are required.
(d) All persons with disabilities under the National Trust Act with valid disability certificate
will be eligible and included.
(e) Treatment can be taken only from any hospital.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Scheme Description
• The scheme envisages delivering comprehensive cover which will:

• Have a single premium across age band
• Provide same coverage irrespective of the type of disability covered under the
National Trust Act
• Insurance cover upto Rs.1.0 lakh , on reimbursement basis only.
• All persons with disabilities under the National Trust Act with valid disability certificate
will be eligible and included.
• No pre-insurance medical tests
• Treatment can be taken from any hospital.
Q.39) Which of the following is a statutory body of the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment, Government of India, set up under the “National Trust for the Welfare
of Persons with Autism, Cerebral Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities”
Act (Act 44 of 1999)?


UNDER PRIVILEGED
Options:
(a) The Divyangjan Trust

(b) Persons with Disability Welfare Trust
(c) Empowerment of Person with Disability Trust
(d) The National Trust
Answer: D
Explantion:
The National Trust is a statutory body of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment,
Government of India, set up under the “National Trust for the Welfare of Persons with
Autism, Cerebral Palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disabilities” Act (Act 44 of
1999).
GOAL Scheme
Q.40) The above-mentioned scheme was launched by which of the following

organizations/companies?

UNDER PRIVILEGED
Options:
(a) Facebook
(b) Apple
(c) Microsoft
(d) Amazon
(e) Google
Answer: A
Explanation:
Going Online as Leaders (GOAL) Program was launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(MoTA) and Facebook on 15th May 2020 to digitally skill and empower 5000 youth from
tribal communities over five years. The project aims to identify and mobilise 2500
renowned people from the industry which include policy makers and influencers,

teachers, artists, entrepreneurs and social workers known for their achievements in their
respective domains, to personally mentor tribal youth across India. The nine-month
program includes seven months of mentorship in areas such as digital literacy, life skills,
leadership & entrepreneurship and sector-specific skills followed by a two-month
internship for the mentees to gain an on-ground experience.
The programme has been designed for the youth in tribal areas and targets their capacity
building which will in turn inspire, guide and encourage them and boost their confidence
levels while igniting higher aspirations among them. The acquired skills and abilities will
help them gain leadership skills, and equip them to identify challenges in the society, find
solutions to fight those challenges and use that knowledge to support their livelihood as
well as the society’s socio-economic status. The core areas of mentorship program are
digital literacy, life skills, leadership & entrepreneurship and sector-specific skills.
Q.41) The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has partnered with which of the following
organizations to run this scheme?

UNDER PRIVILEGED
Options:
(a) TRIFED
(b) SIDBI
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) District Mineral Foundation
(e) KVIC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ministry of Tribal Affairs has partnered with NITI Aayog and Facebook for the Second
Phase of Going Online as Leaders (GOAL), a Facebook program.
Q.42) Which of the following statements is true about the scheme mentioned above?


UNDER PRIVILEGED
Options:
(a) The program aims to enable Scheduled Tribe (ST) youth in remote areas to use digital
platforms.
(b) All the mentees will be provided with smartphones and Internet.
(c) The program will focus on three core areas - Digital Literacy, Life Skills and Leadership
and Entrepreneurship.
(d) The program intends to upskill and empower 5,000 tribal youths
Answer: E
Explanation:
Key Points
• The GOAL programme is designed to provide mentorship to tribal youth through

digital mode.
• The program will focus on three core areas - Digital Literacy, Life Skills and Leadership
and Entrepreneurship.
• The program intends to upskill and empower 5,000 tribal youths in the current phase
to harness the full potential of digital platforms and tools to learn new ways of doing
business, explore and connect with domestic and international markets.
• The programme has been designed with a long-term vision to develop the potential of
tribal youth and women to help them acquire skills and knowledge through
mentorship in various sectors including horticulture, food processing, bee keeping,
tribal art and culture, medicinal herbs, entrepreneurship among others.
• The program aims to enable Scheduled Tribe (ST) youth in remote areas to use digital
platforms for sharing their aspirations, dreams and talent with their mentors.
• All the mentees will be provided with smartphones and Internet access (for one year)
by Facebook along with exposure to various external forums that will give opportunity
to the participants to showcase their entrepreneurial skills and leadership abilities.
• The program will also create awareness amongst tribal beneficiaries about various
schemes initiated by Central and State Governments for welfare of STs as well as their
fundamental duties.
Skill India Mission

Q.43) Which of the following is the tagline of the scheme mentioned in the above
passage?

Options:
(a) Skill hai toh Bhavishya hai

(b) Trained India, Prosperous India
(c) Skilled Bharat, Saksham Bharat
(d) Kaushal Bharat, Kushal Bharat
(e) Padhe Bharat, Bhade Bharat
Answer: D
Explanation:
Landmark initiatives like National Skill Development Mission, National Policy for Skill
Development and Entrepreneurship 2015, Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
scheme and the Skill Loan scheme along with logo for Skill India with the tagline 'Kaushal
Bharat, Kushal Bharat' were launched at the event. It is important to note that The
National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, 2015 is the country's first
integrated national policy for developing skills and promoting entrepreneurship on a
large scale.
Q.44) In 2015, four landmark initiatives were launched along with the scheme
mentioned in the above passage. Which one of the following was not one among
them?

Options:
(a) National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

(b) National Skill Development Mission
(c) Stand-Up India

(d) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
(e) Skill Loan Scheme
Answer: C
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 15 July 2015 formally launched four initiatives-
National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship 2015, National Skill
Development Mission (NSDM), Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and Skill
Loan scheme-aimed at achieving the vision of Skill India.
They were launched in a programme held on the occasion of first-ever World Youth Skills
Day in New Delhi.
The four initiatives are aimed at making India as a hub of world’s human resource capital.
Q.45) Which of the following statements is true about the above-mentioned scheme?

Options:
(a) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana and Jan Shikshan Sansthan are being for short
term training.
(b) Skill India Mission aims to train over 40 crore people in India in different skills by 2022.
(c) Long Term Training is imparted through Industrial Training Institutes under Craftsmen
Training Scheme.
(d) Setting up of Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) and its operation are in the domain of
respective State Governments
Answer: E
Explanation:
• The National Skill Development Mission (NSDM) was launched by the Hon’ble Prime
Minister on July 15, 2015, to provide a strong institutional framework to implement
and scale up skill development efforts across the country and to impart training to one
crore youth every year.
• Under Skill India Mission, Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship imparts
employable skills to the youth through long term and short term training.

• The Ministry is implementing Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY 2.0) and
Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS) for short term training.
• The Long Term Training is imparted through Industrial Training Institutes under
Craftsmen Training Scheme.
• The total no. of ITIs have increased from 11964 in the year 2014 to 14939 in the year
2018-19 and trainees enrolment increased from 16.90 lakh to 23.08 lakh during the
period.
• Setting up of Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) and its operation are in the domain of
respective State Governments, whereas preparation of norms and designing
curriculums along with conducting examination and certification are the responsibility
of Central Government.
Q.46) Which of the following actor & actress have promoted the mission talked about
in the passage given above through one of their Hindi movies, Sui Dhaga?

Options:
(a) Varun Dhawan & Alia Bhatt

(b) Ranveer Kapoor & Anushka Sharma
(c) Varun Dhawan & Anushka Sharma
(d) Ranveer Singh & Deepika Padukone
(e) Ranveer Kapoor & Alia Bhatt
Answer: C
Explanation:
Varun Dhawan and Anushka Sharma, through their much awaited film ‘Sui Dhaaga –
Made in India’ are saluting India’s entrepreneurs and skilled workforce, especially
homegrown artisans, craftspeople and weavers who are making the country proud the
world over.
Q.47) Which of the following is/are the reasons for the slowdown experienced in Q4 of
2018-19?


Topic – GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT – MEASUREMENT OF GROWTH:
Options:
(a) Weaker domestic consumption

(b) Slower global growth
(c) Weak increase in fixed investment
(d) Muted exports
Answer: E
Explanation:
A declining growth of private consumption, weak increase in fixed investment and muted
exports were some reasons for the slowdown, the ministry’s department of economic
affairs said in a report titled ‘Monthly Economic Report’ for March 2019.
The lower GDP growth figures are attributed to weaker domestic consumption, slower
global growth and tensions between the United States and China.
Passage on RCEP
Q.48) Which organization has been referred to in the above-mentioned passage?

Options:
(a) Comprehensive Economic Partnership for East Asia

(b) Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership
(c) Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership
(d) South Asian Free Trade Area
(e) Free Trade Area of the Asia-Pacific
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership is a proposed free trade agreement

between the Asia-Pacific nations of Australia, Brunei, Cambodia, China, Indonesia, Japan,

Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, South Korea,
Thailand, and Vietnam.
Q.49) The referred deal is a free trade agreement with ________ and their 5 Free Trade
Agreement partners?

Options:
(a) African Union

(b) Four Asian Tigers
(c) BASIC
(d) CLMV
(e) ASEAN
Answer: E
Explanation:
ASEAN Plus Three was the first of attempts for further integration to improve existing ties
of Southeast Asia with East Asian countries of China, Japan and South Korea.
The group became ASEAN Plus Six with Australia, New Zealand, and India, and stands as
the linchpin of Asia Pacific's economic, political, security, socio-cultural architecture, as
well as the global economy.
Codification of the relations between these countries has seen progress through the
development of the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership, a free-trade
agreement involving the 15 countries of ASEAN Plus Six.
Q.50) Which of the following is/are the reasons for India to leave the deal referred to in
the above-mentioned passage?

Statements:

1. To protect domestic industry, India had proposed an auto trigger mechanism which
has not been accepted.
2. Lack of Consensus on Rules of Origin.
3. Proposed trade bloc represents an insignificant share of global trade.
4. India has already signed FTA with all the countries of proposed trade bloc except
China.
Options:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
India has blocked itself from a trade bloc that represents 30% of the global economy and
world population, touching over 2.2 billion people.
Reasons for India's Withdrawal
• Unfavourable Balance of Trade: Though trade has increased the post-Free Trade
Agreement with South Korea, ASEAN countries and Japan, imports have risen faster
than exports from India.
• Chinese Angle: India has already signed FTA with all the countries of RCEP except
China. Trade data suggests that India’s deficit with China, with which it does not have
a trade pact, is higher than that of the remaining RCEP constituents put together.
• Non-acceptance of Auto-trigger Mechanism: To deal with the imminent rise in
imports, India had been seeking an auto-trigger mechanism.
• Protection of Domestic Industry: India had also reportedly expressed apprehensions
on lowering and eliminating tariffs on several products like dairy, steel etc.
• Lack of Consensus on Rules of Origin: India was concerned about a “possible
circumvention” of rules of origin.
Paragraph on Industrial Policy
Q.51) Government of India plans to launch the third industrial policy in India after the
ones that were released in 1956 & 1991. The new policy will be framed keeping in mind

Topic – INDUSTRIAL & LABOUR POLICY
Options:
(a) Frugal Innovation

(b) Industry 4.0
(c) Work 4.0
(d) Industrial Ecology
(e) Environmental Technology
Answer: B
Explanation:
The government will soon announce a new industrial policy aimed at promoting growth
of industries and creation of jobs, President Ram Nath Kovind said recently. Addressing
the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, the President said work is underway in full
earnest to transform India into a global manufacturing hub. “Keeping in view Industry
4.0, a new industrial policy will be announced shortly,” he said.
Q.52) Which of the following has released the policy talked about in the above-
mentioned passage?

Options:
(a) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
Answer: A
Explanation:
The group has been setup after the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal
Trade (DPIIT) prepared the draft industrial policy and sent it for Cabinet approval, but
certain new suggestions have been made with regard to the policy.

This will be the third industrial policy after the first in 1956 and the second in 1991. It will
replace the industrial policy of 1991 which was prepared in the backdrop of the balance
of payment crisis. The DPIIT had initiated the process of formulation of a new industrial
policy in May 2017. The new policy will subsume the National Manufacturing Policy
(NMP).
Q.53) The main objectives of the Industrial Policy of the Government are?

Options:
(a) to maintain a sustained growth in productivity

(b) to enhance gainful employment
(c) to achieve optimal utilisation of human resources
(d) to transform India into a major partner and player in the global arena
(e) all of the above
Answer: E
Explanation:
The main objectives of the Industrial Policy of the Government are (i) to maintain a
sustained growth in productivity;(ii) to enhance gainful employment;(iii) to achieve
optimal utilisation of human resources; (iv) to attain international competitiveness; and
(v) to transform India into a major partner and player in the global arena. To achieve
these objectives, the Policy focus is on deregulating Indian industry; allowing freedom
and flexibility to the industry in responding to market forces; and providing a policy
regime that facilitates and fosters growth. Economic reforms initiated since 1991
envisages a significantly bigger role for private initiatives. The policy has been
progressively liberalized over years to at present, as would be evident in subsequent
paragraphs.
Q.54) Which of the following is the aim of the National Manufacturing Policy talked
about in the above given passage?

Options:
(a) Enhancing the share of manufacturing in GDP to 25% within a decade and creating
100 million jobs.
(b) Enhancing the share of manufacturing in GDP to 20% within a decade and creating
100 million jobs.
(c) Enhancing the share of manufacturing in GDP to 25% within a decade and creating
200 million jobs.
(d) Enhancing the share of manufacturing in GDP to 20% within a decade and creating
200 million jobs.
(e) Enhancing the share of manufacturing in GDP to 25% within a decade and creating
150 million jobs.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Government of India has announced a national manufacturing policy with the
objective of enhancing the share of manufacturing in GDP to 25% within a decade and
creating 100 million jobs. It also seeks to empower rural youth by imparting necessary
skill sets to make them employable. Sustainable development is integral to the spirit of
the policy and technological value addition in manufacturing has received special focus.
Paragraph on Jal Shakti Abhiyan
Q.55) Which of the following is/are the components of the mission talked about in the
passage?

Options:
(a) Water conservation and rainwater harvesting

(b) Renovation of traditional and other water bodies/tanks
(c) Watershed development
(d) Intensive afforestation
Answer: E
Explanation:
Secretary, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Shri Parameswaran Iyer,

informed that the Jal Shakti Abhiyan is a collaborative effort of various Ministries of the
Government of India and State Governments, being coordinated by the DDWS.
He said that teams of officers from the central government will visit and work with
district administration in 1592 water stressed blocks in 256 districts, to ensure five
important water conservation interventions. These will be water conservation and
rainwater harvesting, renovation of traditional and other water bodies/tanks, reuse, bore
well recharge structures, watershed development and intensive afforestation.
Q.56) How many blocks have been covered as part of the mission talked about in the
passage?

Options:
(a) 1548
(b) 1592
(c) 1496
(d) 1689
(e) 1336
Answer: B
Secretary, Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Shri Parameswaran Iyer,

informed that the Jal Shakti Abhiyan is a collaborative effort of various Ministries of the
Government of India and State Governments, being coordinated by the DDWS. He said
that teams of officers from the central government will visit and work with district
administration in 1592 water stressed blocks in 256 districts, to ensure five important
water conservation interventions.
Q.57) The mission referred to in the passage is being coordinated by which of the
following ministries?

Options:
(a) Ministry of Jal Shakti

(b) Ministry of Rural Development
(c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(d) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare
Answer: A
Explanation:
Jal Shakti Abhiyan is a collaborative effort of various ministries of the Government of

India and state governments, being coordinated by the Department of Drinking Water
and Sanitation (DDWS) that comes under the Jal Shakti Ministry.
Paragraph on External Benchmarks
Q.58) Under the External Benchmark Based Lending of the personal or retail loans,
which one of the following is not one of the benchmarks for linking the loan rates?

Options:
(a) Repo Rate

(b) Three-month treasury bill yield
(c) Banks own cost of fund rate
(d) Six-month treasury bill yield
(e) All of the above are benchmarks
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Wednesday made it mandatory for all banks to link
floating rate loans — to retail customers and loans to micro, small and medium
enterprises (MSME) — to an external benchmark.

The move is aimed at faster transmission of monetary policy rates.
Banks can choose from one of the four external benchmarks — repo rate, three-month
treasury bill yield, six-month treasury bill yield or any other benchmark interest rate
published by Financial Benchmarks India Private Ltd.
Q.59) What will be the impact of the transmission of lower interest rates on loans?

Options:
(a) Lower requirement of collateral

(b) Lower default risk
(c) Lower tenor of loans availed
(d) Lower uptake of loans
(e) Lower EMI of loans
Answer: E
Explanation:
You repay the loan in Equated Monthly Installments (EMIs) comprising both principal and
interest. Repayment by way of EMI starts from the month following the month in which
you take full disbursement. (For understanding how EMI is calculated, please see annex).
The EMI of a floating rate loan changes with changes in market interest rates. If market
rates increase, your repayment increases. When rates fall, your dues also fall. The
floating interest rate is made up of two parts: the index and the spread. The index is a
measure of interest rates generally (based on say, government securities prices), and the
spread is an extra amount that the banker adds to cover credit risk, profit mark-up etc.
The amount of the spread may differ from one lender to another, but it is usually
constant over the life of the loan. If the index rate moves up, so does your interest rate in
most circumstances and you will have to pay a higher EMI. Conversely, if the interest rate
moves down, your EMI amount should be lower.

Q.60) As per the bimonthly monetary policy released by the RBI in October 2019, what
is the GDP growth forecast for 2019-20?

Options:
(a) 6.5%
(b) 6.3%
(c) 6.4%
(d) 6.1%
(e) 5.9%
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reserve Bank of India revised GDP growth downwards to 5 per cent for 2019-20 from 6.1
per cent projected in its October policy.
Q.61) What has been the forecast of India’s growth rate for 2019 by the United Nations
Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)?

Options:
(a) 5.8%
(b) 6.2%
(c) 6.4%
(d) 6%
(e) 6.3%
Answer: D

Explanation:
The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) has pegged India’s
economic growth rate at a seven-year low of 6 per cent in calendar year (CY) 2019. It also
highlighted the pitfalls of shadow banking in countries such as India and China, citing the
example of Infrastructure Leasing & Financial Services (IL&FS).
Q.62) Who is the Chair of committee on Ban of virtual Currencies in India?

Options:
(a) Shaktikanta Das

(b) Subhash Chandra Garg
(c) Amitabh Kant
(d) Arvind Panagariya
(e) Rajiv Kumar
Answer: B
Explanation:
A high-level Inter-ministerial Committee (IMC)was constituted on2nd November, 2017

under the Chairmanship of Secretary, DEA to study the issues related to Virtual
Currencies and propose specific action to be taken in this matter. The mandate of the
Committee included an examination of the policy and legal framework for the regulation
of virtual currencies. The subject of virtual currency is complex owing to its unique
featuresandvaryingdegreeofunderstandingindifferentjurisdictions.
Q.63) Recently, Union Finance Minister proposed establishing a social stock exchange
under the regulatory ambit of which of the following bodies?

UNDER PRIVILEGED

Options:
(a) Reserve Bank of India

(b) Securities Exchange Board of India
(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(d) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
Answer: B
Explanation:
In budget session, Finance Minister proposed a social stock exchange (SSE) under the
regulatory ambit of the Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to support social
enterprises and non-profits in raising funds.
Q.64) The report titled “World Resources Report: Creating a Sustainable Food Future”
has been issued by which of the following organisations?

Options:
(a) World Bank

(b) UN Environment Programme
(c) UN Development Programme
(d) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
The report titled “World Resources Report: Creating a Sustainable Food Future” was co
issued by the World Bank, UN Environment Programme and UN Development
Programme. The report offers solutions to ensure we can feed 10 billion people by 2050
without increasing emissions, fueling deforestation or exacerbating poverty.
Q.65) Recently, the Government of India has granted approvals for establishment of
National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZ). Which of the following locations
is not one of those selected for establishment of NIMZ?
Options:
(a) Prakasam
(b) Sangareddy
(c) Kalinganagar
(d) Jind
Answer: D
Explanation:
Recently, the Government of India has granted the final approval to three National
Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZ), namely Prakasam (Andhra Pradesh),
Sangareddy (Telangana) and Kalinganagar (Odisha).

Question Paper Analysis:
TABLE 1
ECONOMICS
STATIC OR DIFFICULTY
QUESTION # MARKS OR SOCIAL TOPIC
CURRENT LEVEL
ISSUES
GROWTH AND
DEVELOPMENT –
MEASUREMENT OF
1 1 ECONOMICS STATIC EASY
GROWTH: NATIONAL
INCOME AND PER
CAPITA INCOME
GROWTH AND
DEVELOPMENT –
MEASUREMENT OF
GROWTH: NATIONAL
INCOME AND PER
CAPITA INCOME
GROWTH AND
DEVELOPMENT –
MEASUREMENT OF
GROWTH: NATIONAL
INCOME AND PER
CAPITA INCOME
4 1 ECONOMICS MONETARY POLICY STATIC MODERATE
5 1 ECONOMICS FISCAL POLICY STATIC EASY
BALANCE OF
6 1 ECONOMICS STATIC TOUGH
PAYMENTS
INTERNATIONAL
7 1 ECONOMICS ECONOMIC CURRENT EASY
INSTITUTIONS
SOCIAL INDIAN POLITICAL
8 1 STATIC MODERATE
ISSUES SYSTEM
SOCIAL INDIAN POLITICAL
9 1 STATIC TOUGH
ISSUES SYSTEM
10 1 ECONOMICS GENDER ISSUES CURRENT TOUGH
11 1 ECONOMICS FISCAL POLICY CURRENT MODERATE
12 1 ECONOMICS MONETARY POLICY CURRENT MODERATE
INTERNATIONAL
14 1 ECONOMICS ECONOMIC CURRENT MODERATE
INSTITUTIONS
SOCIAL SECTORS IN
SOCIAL
15 1 INDIA, HEALTH AND CURRENT MODERATE
ISSUES
EDUCATION
POVERTY
ALLEVIATION AND
16 1 ECONOMICS EMPLOYMENT CURRENT MODERATE
GENERATION IN
INDIA
SUSTAINABLE
17 1 ECONOMICS CURRENT MODERATE
DEVELOPMENT AND

ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
SOCIAL SECTORS IN
SOCIAL
19 1 INDIA, HEALTH AND CURRENT EASY
ISSUES
EDUCATION
INTERNATIONAL
INSTITUTIONS
EXPORT-IMPORT
POLICY
POVERTY
ALLEVIATION AND
SOCIAL
23 1 EMPLOYMENT CURRENT MODERATE
ISSUES
GENERATION IN
INDIA
INTERNATIONAL
INSTITUTIONS
GROWTH AND
DEVELOPMENT -
MEASUREMENT OF
GROWTH: NATIONAL
INCOME AND PER
CAPITA INCOME
REGIONAL
COOPERATION
EXPORT-IMPORT
28 1 ECONOMICS CURRENT EASY
POLICY
SOCIAL SECTORS IN
SOCIAL
29 1 INDIA, HEALTH AND CURRENT MODERATE
ISSUES
EDUCATION
SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
POVERTY
ALLEVIATION AND
31 2 ECONOMICS EMPLOYMENT CURRENT MODERATE
GENERATION IN
INDIA
SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND
33 2 ECONOMICS CURRENT TOUGH
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
SUSTAINABLE
34 2 ECONOMICS DEVELOPMENT AND CURRENT MODERATE
ENVIRONMENTAL

ISSUES
SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
SOCIAL JUSTICE:
POSITIVE
SOCIAL
37 2 DISCRIMINATION IN CURRENT MODERATE
ISSUES
FAVOR OF THE
UNDER PRIVILEGED
SOCIAL JUSTICE:
POSITIVE
SOCIAL
38 2 DISCRIMINATION IN CURRENT TOUGH
ISSUES
FAVOR OF THE
UNDER PRIVILEGED
SOCIAL JUSTICE:
POSITIVE
SOCIAL
ISSUES
FAVOR OF THE
UNDER PRIVILEGED
SOCIAL JUSTICE:
POSITIVE
SOCIAL
40 2 DISCRIMINATION IN CURRENT EASY
ISSUES
FAVOR OF THE
UNDER PRIVILEGED
SOCIAL JUSTICE:
POSITIVE
SOCIAL
41 2 DISCRIMINATION IN CURRENT MODERATE
ISSUES
FAVOR OF THE
UNDER PRIVILEGED
SOCIAL JUSTICE:
POSITIVE
SOCIAL
ISSUES
FAVOR OF THE
UNDER PRIVILEGED
POVERTY
ALLEVIATION AND
43 2 ECONOMICS EMPLOYMENT CURRENT EASY
GENERATION IN
INDIA
POVERTY
ALLEVIATION AND
44 2 ECONOMICS EMPLOYMENT CURRENT TOUGH
GENERATION IN
INDIA
POVERTY
ALLEVIATION AND
45 2 ECONOMICS EMPLOYMENT CURRENT TOUGH
GENERATION IN
INDIA
46 2 ECONOMICS POVERTY CURRENT EASY

ALLEVIATION AND
EMPLOYMENT
GENERATION IN
INDIA
GROWTH AND
DEVELOPMENT –
MEASUREMENT OF
GROWTH: NATIONAL
INCOME AND PER
CAPITA INCOME
REGIONAL
COOPERATION
REGIONAL
COOPERATION
REGIONAL
COOPERATION
INDUSTRIAL &
LABOUR POLICY
INDUSTRIAL &
LABOUR POLICY
INDUSTRIAL &
LABOUR POLICY
INDUSTRIAL &
LABOUR POLICY
SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
59 2 ECONOMICS MONETARY POLICY CURRENT EASY
GROWTH AND
DEVELOPMENT –
MEASUREMENT OF
GROWTH: NATIONAL
INCOME AND PER
CAPITA INCOME
GROWTH AND
DEVELOPMENT –
MEASUREMENT OF
GROWTH: NATIONAL
INCOME AND PER
CAPITA INCOME
62 2 ECONOMICS MONETARY POLICY CURRENT EASY
63 2 SOCIAL SOCIAL JUSTICE: CURRENT EASY

ISSUES POSITIVE
DISCRIMINATION IN
FAVOR OF THE
UNDER PRIVILEGED
SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
INDUSTRIAL &
LABOUR POLICY
Analysis:
• This paper was not fundamentally different from the papers of the previous years.
TABLE 2
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL MARKS
SUBJECT
QUESTIONS ASKED ALLOCATED
ECONOMICS 52 80 MARKS
SOCIAL ISSUES 13 20 MARKS
Analysis:
• Trend of economics having relatively higher weightage has continued. This is likely to
continue going ahead as well. Students are advised to prioritize Economics over Social
Issues in their overall preparation.
TABLE 3
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL NUMBER OF
DIFFICULTY LEVEL
QUESTIONS ASKED MARKS
EASY 22 35
MODERATE 32 46
TOUGH 11 19
Analysis:
• Above break up of questions and marks confirm the feeling of many students that this
paper was of easy to moderate levels.
• Many data/number/fact based questions were asked and these have been classified
as being of moderate difficulty level. It is important to be mindful of collecting

relevant facts and figures and committing the same to memory as a part of the
preparation.
TABLE 4
TYPE OF QUESTION
CURRENT 8 8
STATIC 57 92
Analysis:
• Trend of current affair being more important than static part of the syllabus has
continued. Most of the current affairs-based questions were based on developments
that took place within six months before the exam.
• Therefore, current Affairs covering a period of 6 months before the examination
should be prepared very thoroughly from EduTap’s current affairs magazine. Note
that current affairs comprises of three important pillars: General current affairs,
Government Schemes and Programmes and Reports.
• Students must not make the folly of completely leaving static syllabus untouched.
Remember, the trend can always reverse; understanding of static syllabus is key to
answering descriptive questions well; and the interviewer can always be an economy
buff wanting to have a long and meaningful conversation regarding the Indian
economy!!
TABLE 5
TYPE OF QUESTION
QUESTIONS BASED ON OLD SCHEMES (LAUNCHED MORE THAN
09 17
AN YEAR BEFORE THE EXAM)
QUESTIONS BASED ON NEW SCHEMES (LAUNCHED WITHIN
06 12
THE ONE YEAR PERIOD BEFORE THE EXAM)
QUESTIONS BASED ON OLD AND NEW SCHEMES 15 29
Analysis:
• About 30% of the marks are devoted to government schemes and programmes and
therefore these should be covered very well by students.

• As the above table shows, students are advised to cover both old and new schemes
well.
TABLE 6
TOTAL NUMBER
TOTAL NUMBER
TYPE OF QUESTION OF QUESTIONS
OF MARKS
ASKED
QUESTIONS BASED ON NATIONAL REPORTS 10 16
QUESTIONS BASED ON INTERNATIONAL REPORTS 05 06

QUESTIONS BASED ON NATIONAL AND
15 22
INTERNATIONAL REPORTS
Analysis:
• Overall, questions on reports and indices had more than 20% weightage in terms of
marks.
• Both national and international reports and indices should be covered well by
students.
TABLE 7
TOTAL NUMBER OF
NAME OF CHAPTER TOTAL MARKS ALLOCATED
QUESTIONS ASKED
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
11 20
AND ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
SOCIAL JUSTICE: POSITIVE
DISCRIMINATION IN FAVOR OF 07 14
THE UNDER PRIVILEGED
MONETARY POLICY 09 12
POVERTY ALLEVIATION AND
EMPLOYMENT GENERATION IN 07 12
INDIA
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT –
MEASUREMENT OF GROWTH:
07 10
NATIONAL INCOME AND PER
CAPITA INCOME
INDUSTRIAL & LABOUR POLICY 05 10
REGIONAL ECONOMIC
04 07
COOPERATION
INTERNATIONAL ECONOMIC
04 04
INSTITUTIONS
SOCIAL SECTORS IN INDIA,
03 03
HEALTH AND EDUCATION

FISCAL POLICY 02 02
EXPORT-IMPORT POLICY 02 02
INDIAN POLITICAL SYSTEM 02 02
BALANCE OF PAYMENTS 01 01
GENDER ISSUES 01 01
Analysis:
• Picking and choosing a handful of chapters of the syllabus as a part of preparation can
be a risky strategy. As can be seen from the above table, questions have been asked
from a diverse set of chapters. Each and every mark is important to finally clear the
exam with a rank.

1|P a g e W W W . E D U T A P . C O . I N QUERY? HELLO@EDUTAP.CO.IN / 8146207241
Dear Students,
officer exam.

R. B. I. (Gr. B.) -2019
(Maximum Marks—100) [Duration: 90 Minutes]
PAPER II English
Instructions. —
(1) All questions are compulsory.
(2) Each question should be answered in the box provided and the question
number must be written on the top.
(3) The answers of parts of the same question, if any, should be written
together. In other words, the answer of another questions should not be
written in-between the Parts of a question.
(4) Marks will be deducted if an answer far exceeds or falls short of the set
limit, or is irrelevant.
(5) Answers must be written in English only.
1) Write an essay of about 300 words on any one of the following:

—
(40 Marks)
1. Higher Education
- Higher education deals with the tertiary level of education.
Under-graduate colleges, Post-graduate college. Universities and
centres, of advanced studies are coming under scope of higher
education. As on 31.02.05, there were 342 Universities including 18
central Universities, 211 state Universities, 95 deemed Universities
and 5 institutions established under state legislation and 13 Institutes
of National Importance.
There were 17625 colleges, of which 5286 have been recognized by

UGC. In 2004-05, an estimated 104.81 lakh students were enrolled in
the institutions of Higher Education and the faculty strength was 4.71
lakh. Higher education has special value in the emerging knowledge
society. It contributes directly as well as indirectly to the wealth of a
nation. Therefore, the country’s future depends on a massive
expansion of education particularly at higher education level.
Objective of Higher Education:

The University Education Commission -1048-49 have made a number
of significant recommendations on various aspects of higher
education.
(1) Wisdom and knowledge:

Since education is both a training of minds and training of souls, it
should give both knowledge and wisdom. No amount of factual
information would take ordinarily into educated men unless
something is awakened in them. Therefore, there should be
inculcation of wisdom and knowledge.
(2) Aims of the social order:

Our education system must find its guiding principle in the aims of
the social order for which it prepares. Unless we preserve the value
of democracy, justice, liberty, equality and fraternity, we cannot
Preserves our freedom.
(3) Love for higher values of life:
The greatness of a country does not depend on the extent of its
territory, the length of its communication or the amount of its
wealth, but on the love for higher values of life. We must develop
thought for the poor and sufferings, regards and respect for women,
faith in brotherhood regardless of race, colour, religion etc.
(4) Training for leadership:
One of the important aims of higher education is the training for

leadership in the profession and public life. It is the function of
universities to train men and women for wise leadership.
The Indian Education Commission (1964-66) has made the following

recommendations:
(1) To seek and cultivate new knowledge, to engage vigorously and

fearlessly in the spirit of truth and to interpret old knowledge and
beliefs in the light of new needs and discoveries.
(2) To provide the right kind of leadership in all walks of life, to

identify gifted youth and help them develop their potential to the full
by cultivating physical fitness, right interests, attitudes and moral and
intellectual values.
(3) To provide society with competent men and women train in

agriculture, arts, medicine, science and technology and various other
professions, who will also be cultivated citizen individuals imbued
with a sense of social justice.
(4) To strive to promote equality and social justice and to reduce

social and cultural differences through diffusion of knowledge.

(5) To foster in the teachers and students and through them in
society generally the attitudes and values needed for developing the
good life.
2. Stress among Youth

- Reasons of Stress in Adolescents in a Family
• History of depression and/or suicide in the family

• Alcoholism or drug use in the family
• Sexual or physical abuse patterns in the family
• Chronic illness in oneself or family
• Family or individual history of psychiatric disorders such as
eating disorders, schizophrenia, manic-depressive disorder,
conduct disorders, delinquency
• Death or serious loss in the family
• Learning disabilities or mental/physical disabilities
• Absent or divorced parents; inadequate bonding in adoptive
families
• Family conflict; poor parent/child relationships
Change in Personality Traits
• Personality traits, especially when they change dramatically, can

signal serious trouble. These traits include:
• Impulsive behaviors, obsessions and unreal fears
• Aggressive and antisocial behavior
• Withdrawal and isolation; detachment
• Poor social skills resulting in feelings of humiliation, poor self-
worth, blame and feeling ugly
• Over-achieving and extreme pressure to perform
• Problems with sleeping and/or eating
Psychological & Social Events

Psychological and social events contribute to the accumulation of
problems and stressors. These are:
• Loss experience such as a death or suicide of a friend or family

member; broken romance, loss of a close friendship or a family
move
• Unmet personal or parental expectation such as failure to
achieve a goal, poor grades, social rejection
• Unresolved conflict with family members, peers, teachers,
coaches that results in anger, frustration, rejection
• Humiliating experience resulting in loss of self-esteem or
rejection
• Unexpected events such as pregnancy or financial problems
Predispositions, stressors and behaviors weave together to form
a composite picture of a youth at high risk for depression and
self-destructive behavior
• Death or serious loss in the family
• Learning disabilities or mental/physical disabilities
• Absent or divorced parents; inadequate bonding in adoptive
families
• Family conflict; poor parent/child relationships
3. NBFC Loan Collection Issues

- Common Lending Challenges Faced By NBFCs
With increased competition in the lending market and high cost of
borrowing, there is a need for every business player to be as agile in
the practices they follow as possible. Modern borrowers are tech-
savvy and have hi-tech demands when it comes to credit facilities.
Following a more customer-appealing approach, like technological
integrations and innovations, can give a financial lending entity an
edge above the rest. However, there are impediments to the current
growth rate of NBFCs. Some of them are listed below:

1. Manual Handling of the Lending Process can be Cumbersome and
Expensive
Lending processes can be time-consuming and tedious. A lot of
paperwork is required, and manual evaluation and verification can
take days altogether. The companies need to maintain a thriving
workforce to meet the growing needs of the business, which further
incurs more expenses.
2. Limited Expansion Opportunities

The reduced risk appetite of traditional banks is one of the biggest
pushes that has lead to the growth of NBFCs. They target applicants
that get rejections from formal bankers and rural unorganised and
under-banked populace. To further expand, NBFCs need to develop
insights into their target audience. Gaining knowledge about the
lending landscape would help them reach their market goals and
bring in better revenues. NBFCs also find it difficult to target new
customers and ensure expansion.
3. Difficulty in Hosting Customised Customer Experiences

Although NBFCs boast of highly customised services to suit the needs
of particular clients, to differentiate themselves from traditional
lenders, it remains challenging to execute. Increasing competition
often coaxes them to use new strategies to reach the target audience
and impress them. There is a need to break from the standard loan
dispensing norms and offer highly innovative and tailored credit
offerings to individuals.
4. Below Par Customer Experiences

NBFCs aspire to expand the market share they capture by offering
diverse credit disbursement avenue to applicants who get rejected at
the hands of traditional lending institutions. They also target the
under-banked and unbanked sector of the populace. Given the
enormous volume of loan applications and limited staffing, the
customer service they offer suffers miserably.

5. Debt Recovery
NBFCs often come under the purview of regulatory authorities with
strict scrutiny on their collection processes. All financial lending
companies need to strengthen their debt recovery strategies to earn
steady streams of revenue. Given the regulations, NBFCs often
struggle with coming up with debt recovery strategies and which
adversely affects their returns.
The Right Lending Lifecycle Management Software Can Help

Overcome These Woes!
• Seamless Customer Experience for The Borrower
• Cost-cutting and Time Saving by Omitting Manual Effort
• Market Share Capturing & Customer Base Expansion
• Curating Highly Customised Lending Experiences
• Automotive Debt Recovery Tools
4. Democracy and Importance of Vote

- Elections form the bedrock of the largest democracy in the world -
India. Since Independence, as many as 15 Lok Sabhas have been
formed through elections, the first one being held in 1951-52. The
methodology of election is through universal adult suffrage, whereby
every citizen of India over 18 years of age is an eligible voter in the
eyes of the Constitution.
Elections provide a way to the people to assert their voice, opinion

and choose the person whose priorities and ideas matches with them
most. In India the elections are not new and they started taking place
before the independence from British rule itself. But before
independence the franchise was quit limited and very few were
having rights to participate and vote. After independence, India
adopted universal adult suffrage and each adult Indian got the right
to vote.
The importance of elections in India—and for that matter, in any

democracy—is as follows:
Choice of leadership: Elections provide a way for the citizens of India
to choose their leaders. They do so by casting their vote in favour of
the candidate or party whose views appeal to them. This ensures that
the will of the people is reflected in the elected candidates.
Change of leadership: Elections in India are also a platform for the

public to voice their resentment against a ruling party. By voting for
other parties and helping elect a different government, citizens
demonstrate that they possess ultimate authority.
Political participation: Elections open the door for new issues to be

raised in public. If a citizen of India wishes to introduce reforms that
are not the agenda of any of the parties, he or she is free to contest
the elections either independently or by forming a new political
party.
Self-corrective system: Because elections are a regular exercise,

occurring every five years in India, the ruling parties are kept in check
and made to consider the demands of the public. This works as a self-
corrective system whereby political parties review their performance
and try to appease the voters.
With a population of over 1.2 billion (according to the 2011 census)

spread across 28 states and 7 union territories, India has a system of
elections that is both daunting and praiseworthy.
5. Scope of 5G in India
- India’s National Digital Communications Policy 2018 highlights the
importance of 5G when it states that the convergence of a cluster of
revolutionary technologies including 5G, the cloud, Internet of Things
(IoT) and data analytics, along with a growing start-up community,
promise to accelerate and deepen its digital engagement, opening up
a new horizon of opportunities.
10 | P a g e W W W . E D U T A P . C O . I N QUERY? HELLO@EDUTAP.CO.IN /
8146207241
In the case of India, 5G networks could improve the accessibility of
services such as mobile banking and healthcare, and enable
exponential growth in opportunities for unemployed or
underemployed people to engage in fulfilling and productive work.
In this context, the Indian government has set a target of

commercializing 5G by 2020. However, there is a need for India to
pursue the rollout of 5G with a cautious approach.
▪ What is 5G?
▪ 5G is the next generation of mobile broadband that will
eventually replace, or at least augment 4G LTE connection.
▪ 5G offers exponentially faster download and upload speeds.
▪ 5G will deliver multi-Gbps peak rates, ultra-low latency,
massive capacity, and a more uniform user experience.
o Latency, or the time it takes devices to
communicate with wireless networks, will also
drastically decrease.
▪ A government panel report points out that with 5G, the peak
network data speeds are expected to be in the range of 2-20
Gigabit per second (Gbps).
o This is in contrast to 4G link speeds in averaging 6-7
Megabit per second (Mbps) in India as compared to
25 Mbps in advanced countries.
▪ KPMG in its report, released at the Indian Mobile Congress
2019, predicts the cumulative impact of 5G in India at $1
trillion by 2035.
▪ Application of 5G
▪ 5G will help in creating cyber-physical networks which not
only interconnect people, but also interconnect and control
machines, objects, and devices. It will deliver new levels of
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performance and efficiency that will empower new user
experiences and connect new industries.
▪ Due to high-speed, high-reliability, low-latency network, 5G
networks will act as an enabler for the Industrial revolution
4.0.
5G is expected to form the backbone of emerging
technologies such as the Internet of Things (IoT) and
machine to machine communications, thereby supporting a
much larger range of applications and services, including
driverless vehicles, telesurgery and real-time data analytics.
▪ A government panel on 5G says the technology will extend
the use of wireless technologies — for the first time —
across completely new sectors of the economy from
industrial to commercial, educational, health care,
agricultural, financial and social sectors.
▪ Also, the primary applications of 5G will be the
implementation of a sensor-embedded network that will
allow real-time relay of information across fields such as
manufacturing, consumer durables and agriculture.
▪ Why should India not hurry rollout of 5G?
▪ Expensive Enabling Infrastructure: Besides the spectrum, 5G
will require a fundamental change to the core architecture of
the communication system. The major flaw of data transfer
using 5G is that it can't carry data over longer distances.
Hence, 5G needs to be augmented to enable infrastructure.
▪ 5G-A Critical Infrastructure: 5G due to its expansive
applications forms the part of critical infrastructure. This
makes the consequences of the networks failing or being
deliberately sabotaged in a cyber attack significantly more
serious.
8146207241
▪ Financial Hurdles: Telecom industry body Cellular Operators
Association of India (COAI) has also expressed concerns
about the financial health of the telecom sector (AGR issue).
▪ Price Sensitivity: Device cost is of relevance to a price-
sensitive market such as ours.
o 5G smartphone models are likely to cost much more
than the most advanced 4G devices currently
available — with enhanced features, additional
cameras and sensors to support AR and VR
applications.
Way Forward
▪ Regulatory frameworks will also need to evolve to keep pace
with this change. In this context, there is a need for India to
enact a data protection law.
▪ There is a need to set up universal standards and procedure
for seamless integration of services and infrastructure under
5G.
In order to deal with the concern of technical companies
(like in case of Huawei) leaking critical information, a “no-
backdoor” agreement with the Indian government and
telecom companies will ensure that no snooping is allowed
on its network.
▪ In order to mitigate initial high cost for establishing enabling
infrastructure for 5G, base stations might move to drones or
balloons to ensure that the Internet of Everything is also the
Internet of Everywhere.
o This new revolution will take access to connectivity
and, through it, access to knowledge to vast sections
of the population, and entire geographies that have
been cut off so far.
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▪ India needs to invest in research and development in
technologies related to critical infrastructure and strive to
indigenize them as soon as possible.
2) Make a precis of the following passage reducing it to about 170

words, and also, give it a suitable title. ( 30 Marks)
Rural-urban inflation divergence does not persist in the long run and
converges over time, and both exhibit a long-term equilibrium
relationship, said an RBI article.
This convergence of rural-urban inflation supports the relevance of
one inflation target as nominal anchor at the national level, said the
article prepared by Binod B Bhoi, Himani Shekhar and Ipsita Padhi,
Department of Economic and Policy Research, RBI.
"Rural urban inflation dynamics in India reveals close co-movement,
with episodic divergences driven by different components – food,
fuel or ex-food and fuel – which do not persist long," it said.
Empirical estimates, it said, revealed that the differentials between
rural and urban inflation are transient and both exhibit a long-run
equilibrium relationship, with a significant error correction in the
short-run.
At the state level, urban and rural inflation rates converge over time,
the article said, adding "these findings support the relevance of one
inflation target as the nominal anchor at the national level for both
rural and urban areas as well as all states".
8146207241
The RBI said the views expressed in the article are those of the
authors and do not represent the views of the central bank.
The article noted that headline Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation
witnessed significant and sustained moderation during 2012-13 to
2018-19, before rising thereafter.
Both rural and urban inflation exhibited a similar trend with the only
difference that urban inflation started rising from 2018-19.
Moreover, annual average urban inflation which was ruling below
rural inflation till 2017-18, moved above it during 2018-19 and 2019-
20. Both food and non-food inflation contributed to the divergence
between urban and rural inflation.
The authors said contributions of major groups to annual inflation,
however, mask intra-year movements in inflation in the rural and
urban areas, given significant differences in the composition of the
CPI baskets.
"It can be observed from monthly data that rural and urban all
groups inflation have often diverged during 2012-2020, but the
divergence has not persisted long, suggesting the existence of a long-
run relationship between them," the article said.
This is further corroborated by the fact that the divergence has been
driven not by any single component over time but by different
components of CPI, food, fuel and excluding food and fuel items,
during different periods, it added.
It further said that in 2020-21 so far, headline inflation has firmed up
further reflecting the impact of COVID-19 induced lockdown
measures and associated supply chain disruptions. Rural and urban
8146207241
inflation, however, have displayed significant convergence, broadly
mirroring the trends in food price inflation after April-May 2020.
This could be attributed to the nature of the spread of COVID-19 and
imposition of various lockdown measures to contain the spread,
which was initially confined to urban areas before eventually
spreading to rural areas,” it said.
The RBI has been tasked by the government to keep the retail
inflation at four percent (+, - two percent).
Answer –
RURAL- URBAN INFLATION: NOT SO DISPARATE
Needless to mention about India’s diversity, rural and urban are the
major diversifications of India. The socio-economic scenario being
evidently different, financial indicators such as consumption,
inflation, income must show divergence. Although, citing an article by
Department of Economic and Policy Research, RBI, there is a striking
co-movement of rural urban inflation dynamics. Coming to the
measuring tool of inflation, Consumer Price Index (CPI) has witnessed
similar trends in both rural and urban areas in recent years. Major
contributions of various groups to annual inflation do seem to show
disparity owing to the heterogeneous nature of CPI baskets. Looking
at the estimates, the differentials between the two are not
prominent and tend to exhibit an equilibrium in the long run. In 2020-
21, rural urban inflation has shown convergence mirroring the food
price rise after April-May 2020. Hence, these findings support the
relevance of one inflation target at the national level for all.
Q.3 Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions on the basis of the passage in your own words.
India’s economy is likely to grow two and half times to $7 trillion by
2030, from about $3 trillion now, making India the world’s third
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largest economy. This implies that nominal GDP growth is likely to
average just over 10% through the next decade, Deutsche Bank said
in a research report, Imagine 2030.
The sharp slowdown in the recent years, despite Indian economy’s
promise over the last decade, is not indicative of what is in the store
for the next decade, Deutsche Bank said.
“Despite its promise over the last decade, the Indian economy has
slowed down sharply in recent years. That has led some to predict
the decade ahead will be one of lower growth and frustration that
India’s enormous potential will, yet again, go unfulfilled," the report
said.
As far as India’s economic growth is concerned, it may remain below
potential in the near term. However, ongoing government measures
will give major push to its potential in the future.
“For starters, to offset the demand slowdown, the government took
the bold decision in September (2019) to meaningfully cut the
corporate tax rate. This will likely incentivise greater foreign direct
investment flow into the country and support private investment in
the economy, which has remained weak over the last eight years,"
the report said.
Additionally, the Reserve Bank of India’s decision to cut the key
lending rate by 135 basis points in calendar 2019 will revive growth,
the report said. “Apart from these stimulus measures, reforms
initiated in the last few years, should also improve the medium term
outlook," it added.
“As economies with significantly higher informal sector employment,
such as India, typically have lower per capita income, policies which
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are aimed at the greater formalisation of the economy should help to
accelerate per capita income levels," the report said.
Reforms such as demonetisation and roll out of the goods and
services tax (GST) are likely to play major role in formalisation of the
economy and will bear fruits in the next decade, the report said.
While demonetisation has resulted in incentivising a faster pace of
digitisation, GST, by the very nature of its design, will expedite
formalisation of the economy, and will consequently improve the
fiscal and growth dynamics of the country, it added.
Demonetisation and GST apart, India’s bankruptcy law that came into
force in 2017 will also help drive growth in the upcoming decade.
Even the Reserve Bank’s move to adopt inflation targeting and
establish positive real interest rates in the economy will boost growth
in the next decade.
Q.3 Read the passage given above and answer the following
questions on the basis of the passage in your own words. (30
Marks)
1) Discuss the current state of the Indian economy.
- The year 2020 has been a complete nightmare for all the economies
of the world. Be it developed or developing economies of the world,
the COVID-19 has hit hard on all. India aims to become a $7 trillion
economy by the year 2030 as also mentioned in research report,
Imagine 2030 by Deutsche Bank. We can say that the Indian economy
has a lot to offer in the coming decade. But the realities are quite
contradictory. In December 2020, the RBI predicted India’s GDP to
grow at -7.5% for the financial year ending on March 31, 2021. The
central bank also mentioned that India is recovering at a faster pace
than expected in the later half of 2020. Recent years have also
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witnessed a slump in India’s growth because of lower demand. The
government is optimistic for the future and has also brought in a slew
of reforms, new initiatives to push the economy to desired results.
2) Describe how the Govt. plans to revive the economy.
- The revival of the Indian economy is of utmost importance for the
Indian Government since recent times owing to the slowdown of
demand and slump in economic growth. Firstly, in 2019 to incentivise
Foreign Direct Investment in the country, the government cut the
corporate tax rate. This will also aid in ease of doing business and
support private investment in the economy. Also, the RBI has also cut
the key lending rate, also known as the repo rate by 135 basis points
in 2019 and to just 4% in the year 2020. Recent reforms introduced
by the government majorly focus on financial inclusion to raise
demand and run the economic cog wheels. Greater formalisation of
economies intend to bring in more and more people from informal
sector to participate in the economic revival. Demonetisation has led
to emergence of digitisation of the Indian economy. And, the GST by
its very nature will improve the fiscal and growth dynamics of the
country bearing fruits in the next decade.
3) Discuss the purpose of the author to write this article?
- The author has purposely written this article to get the attention of
the readers to the prevailing condition of the India economy. As is
evident from the article, India has high potential to become the third
largest economy of the world by the year 2030. Clearly, the world has
observed India’s growth rate over the years and the zeal to improve.
Hence, the Deutsche Bank has mentioned Indian economy and its
future forecast in its report Imagine 2030. It mentions how in spite
off enormous potential, India’s efforts to become a $7 trillion
economy may not get fulfilled, yet again. The slowdown is prominent
enough and requires dynamic effective reform exercises in order to
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revive the economy. Major reason being the slump in demand in
recent years, the government has come up with various changes
which tend to push the Indian economy towards its goal. The author
has lauded the measures taken by the government and the central
bank in recent years and keeps up the hope that they will bear fruits
in the coming decade. In all, optimism with continued efforts will
pave the way for India to become the largest economy of the world
someday.
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1|Page www.edutap.co.in Query? hello@edutap.co.

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D. More than three

Q2. What is the age difference between M and S?

Q3. What is the age of P?

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Q5. What is the name of the person who is 28 years old?

‘make security in theme lists’ is written as ‘jo ti tis su nic’,

‘India make old regime’ is written as ‘die min tip ti’,

‘theme curbs regime’ is written as ‘tip ba nic’.

Q6. What is the code for ‘security’?

Q7. What does ‘za’ stand for?

E. Either with or correction

Q8. ’tis da tip’ could be a code for which of the following?

A. old regime lists

B. regime lists arise

C. correction theme case

D. India with regime

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Q9. Which of the following may represent ‘transparency in old security’?

B. die mac jo tip

Only a few Men are Boys.

All Boys are Kids.

No Kids are Children.

I. Some Men are not Children.

II. Some Men are not Boys.

A. If only conclusion II follows

B. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

C. If both conclusions I and II follow

D. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

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Some Fruits are Mangos.

Only Mangos are Tasty.

Only a few Mangos are Guavas.

I. All Guavas are Mangos.

II. No Tasty being Fruit is a possibility.

A. If only conclusion I follows

B. If only conclusion II follows

C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

D. If both conclusions I and II follow

E. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Only a few Dairy Milk is Milky Bar.

Some Milky Bar is Munch.

Only Munch is Perk.

I. All Dairy Milk can be Milky Bar

II. Some Munch is Milky Bar.

A. If only conclusion I follows

B. If only conclusion II follows

C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

D. If both conclusions I and II follow

E. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

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All Trees are Plants.

Some Plants are Bushes.

Only a few Bushes are Grass.

II. All Bushes can be Grass.

A. If only conclusion I follows

B. If only conclusion II follows

C. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

D. If both conclusions I and II follow