UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS

General Certificate of Education

Advanced Subsidiary Level and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY (US) 9184/11

Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2013
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
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There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
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This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB13 11_9184_11/FP
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1 Which cell structure can be seen only with an electron microscope?

A cell wall
B chromosome
C nucleolus
D ribosome

2 Which statement is not correct in its description of a light microscope or an electron microscope?

A A light microscope has a maximum resolution of 0.2 µm.

B An electron microscope has a maximum resolution of 0.05 nm.
C A light microscope can resolve specimens as small as 200 nm in diameter.
D An electron microscope can resolve specimens as small as 0.5 nm in diameter.

3 The electronmicrograph shows part of an animal cell.

What will be synthesized in large quantities in this cell?

1 ATP
2 glucose
3 RNA

A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

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4 Which statements about a typical eukaryotic cell are correct?

1 It is smaller than 2 µm.

2 It has a nucleolus.
3 It has linear DNA.
4 It only has small (70S) ribosomes.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only

5 Which animal cells would have the most Golgi apparatus?

A ciliated epithelial cells

B goblet cells
C red blood cells
D smooth muscle cells

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6 Which diagram shows the reaction that occurs to link two monomers that form cellulose?

C C C C
H C O H H C O H H C O H H C O H

A C C C C C C O C C

HO C C OH HO C C OH HO C C C C OH

H 2O

H 2O
C C C C
H C O OH H C O OH H C O C O OH
B C C C C C C C C

HO C C H HO C C H HO C C H HO C C H

H 2O
C C
H C O OH HO C C H H C O C C H

C C C C C C C O C C

HO C C H H C O OH HO C C H H C O OH
C C

H 2O
C C
H C O H HO C C OH H C O C C OH
D C C C C C C C C

HO C C OH H C O H HO C C OH H C O H
C C

7 Which bonds will be broken when a molecule of glycogen is hydrolyzed?

1 α-1, 4

2 β-1, 4

3 α-1, 6

4 β-1, 6

A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 4 only C 1, 2 and 3 only D 2, 3 and 4 only

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8 Collagen is a macromolecule with three polypeptides lying closely side by side in the form of a
triple helix.

Every third amino acid in each polypeptide has the shortest possible R-group or side chain (– H)
to allow close packing of the polypeptides.

Which is the amino acid?

A glucose
B glycerol
C glycine
D guanine

9 The diagrams show the structures of two amino acids, each of which has two amine (–NH2)
groups.

1 2 4 5
H 2N CH COOH H 2N CH COOH

CH2 CH2

C 3 CH2
O NH2
C 6
O NH2

A peptide bond is formed between the two amino acids.

Which groups form the peptide bond?

A 1 and 4 B 1 and 5 C 2 and 6 D 3 and 5

10 Each list, 1, 2 and 3, shows some substances found in animal tissues.

1 glucose, cholesterol, triglycerides, water.

2 glycogen, antibodies, adenine, phospholipids.
3 hemoglobin, carbon dioxide, mRNA, monosaccharides.

Which shows one or more substances that contain nitrogen atoms?

A 1, 2 and 3
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only

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11 Which statements about competitive inhibitors of enzyme action are correct?

1 Increasing the concentration of the enzyme’s substrate will reduce their effect.
2 They bind to an enzyme at its active site.
3 They reduce the activation energy required for a reaction to take place.
4 They reduce the maximum rate of reaction.

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 2, 3 and 4 only

12 An enzyme is completely denatured at 50 °C. A fixed concentration of this enzyme is added to a

fixed concentration of its substrate. The time taken for completion of the reaction is measured at
different temperatures.

Which graph shows the results?

A B

time taken time taken

for completion for completion
of the reaction of the reaction

10 20 30 40 50 60 10 20 30 40 50 60
temperature / °C temperature / °C

C D

time taken time taken

for completion for completion
of the reaction of the reaction

10 20 30 40 50 60 10 20 30 40 50 60
temperature / °C temperature / °C

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13 Molecules 1, 2 and 3 are found in cell surface membranes.

1 glycolipids
2 glycoproteins
3 phospholipids

Which contribute to cell recognition?

A 2 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only

14 What are the features of facilitated diffusion?

uses proteins molecules move down a

uses ATP
in membrane concentration gradient

A


key:
B 


correct
C

 incorrect
D



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15 The stalk of a dandelion flower is a hollow tube. Pieces of the stalk are cut as shown and placed
in sucrose solutions of different water potentials.

thick walled
outer cells
hollow center
of stalk

cuts thin walled

inner cells

Which diagram shows the piece that is placed in the sucrose solution with the highest water
potential?

A B

C D

16 What happens to an animal cell when it is placed in a solution with a more negative water
potential?

A It loses solutes to the solution and swells.

B It loses water by osmosis and shrinks.
C It takes in solutes and swells.
D It takes in water by osmosis and bursts.

17 Exposure to which of the following increases the risk of developing a cancerous growth?

ultraviolet carbon
viruses X-rays
light monoxide

A


key
B



increases risk
C 

  does not increase risk
D



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18 The diagram shows an outline of the process of sexual reproduction.

adult cell adult cell

1 1

gamete P gamete

fertilization

Q zygote

fetus

Which row identifies the type of cell division occurring during stages 1 and 2 and the number of
chromosomes in cells P and Q?

1 2 P Q

A meiosis meiosis diploid haploid

B meiosis mitosis haploid diploid
C mitosis meiosis haploid diploid
D mitosis mitosis diploid haploid

19 A short piece of DNA 19 base pairs long was analyzed to find the number of nucleotide bases in
each of the polynucleotide strands. Some of the results are shown below.

number of nucleotide bases

A C G T
strand 1 4
strand 2 7 5

How many nucleotides containing C were present in strand 1?

A 2 B 3 C 5 D 7

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20 Which statements about complementary base pairing are correct?

1 Cytosine forms two hydrogen bonds with guanine.

2 Purines and pyrimidines are different sizes.
3 Adenine forms the same number of hydrogen bonds with thymine and uracil.
4 The base pairs are of equal length.

A 1, 2 and 3 only B 1, 2 and 4 only C 1, 3 and 4 only D 2, 3 and 4 only

21 What does the enzyme DNA polymerase synthesize in a cell?

A a polypeptide using DNA as a template

B a strand of DNA using a polypeptide as a template
C a strand of DNA using DNA as a template
D a strand of mRNA using DNA as a template

22 The statements describe some of the properties of water.

1 requires a lot of heat energy to evaporate

2 retains a lot of heat energy
3 is able to form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules
4 is able to form hydrogen bonds with other polar and non-polar molecules

Which properties are important for transport in xylem?

A 1, 2 and 3 only
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 3 and 4 only

23 Which row is correct?

needs energy from

transfers heat energy carries assimilates
ATP

A translocation mass flow xylem vessel element

B translocation transpiration phloem sieve tube element
C transpiration mass flow xylem vessel element
D transpiration translocation phloem sieve tube element

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24 Which feature of xylem vessel elements allows them to have reduced resistance to water
movement?

A lignin forms an incomplete secondary wall

B new vessels carry extra water as a plant grows
C there are no cross walls between vessel elements
D vessel elements join to form narrow tubes

25 An investigation was carried out into the effect of light intensity on the rate of transpiration. All
other variables were standardized. A student was asked to explain the results shown in the graph
below.

30

25

20
transpiration
rate / cm3 h –1 15

10

0
0 10 20 30 40
light intensity / arbitrary units (au)

Which explanation is correct?

A At light intensities above 30 au the stomata close rapidly.

B The rate of transpiration increases as the light intensity increases.
C The rate of transpiration never falls to 0 cm3 because some stomata are always open.
D Water uptake by the plant increases as the light intensity increases from 0 to 30 au.

26 Different substances, such as sucrose and amino acids, can move in different directions in the
phloem sieve tubes.

Which statement explains this?

A Active transport occurs in some phloem sieve tubes and mass flow occurs in other phloem
sieve tubes.
B Both active transport and mass flow occur in each individual phloem sieve tube.
C Mass flow occurs in both directions at the same time in each individual phloem sieve tube.
D Mass flow occurs in different directions in different phloem sieve tubes at the same time.

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27 Which reactions will be taking place in blood that is passing through active tissues?

1 HbO8 → Hb + 4O2

2 HbO8 + H+ → HHb + 4O2

3 HCO3– + H+ → H2CO3

4 H2O + CO2 → H2CO3

A 1, 2, 3, and 4
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 3 only

28 During a cardiac cycle, the pressure in the right ventricle is lower than that in the right atrium and
lower than that in the pulmonary artery.

Which row is correct?

atrioventricular
semilunar valve
valve

A closed closed
B closed open
C open closed
D open open

29 What correctly describes an event in the cardiac cycle that follows atrial systole?

A A wave of excitation passes through the sinoatrial node (SAN), before spreading down to the
base of the septum.
B Electrical impulses pass from the muscles of the atria to the muscles of the ventricles to
cause ventricular systole.
C Electrical impulses pass through conducting fibres, which cause a delay before spreading to
Purkyne tissue.
D The opening and closing of the semilunar valves occurs later than the opening and closing of
the atrioventricular valves.

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30 ‘Heart block’ is a disease which can result in a lower than normal heart rate. A doctor treating a
patient suffering from heart block found that electrical impulses were initiated as normal but were
not correctly conducted to the ventricles, so the rate of ventricular contraction was slowed.

Which may be functioning incorrectly in the patient?

1 atrioventricular node (AVN)

2 Purkyne tissue
3 sinoatrial node (SAN)

A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 only

31 What correctly describes the effect of carcinogens on lung tissue?

A Cells of the alveoli walls divide more rapidly than normal by reduction division causing a
tumour to develop.
B Cilia are paralyzed and mucus accumulates in the lungs, causing DNA to change and a
tumour to develop.
C DNA changes, causing bronchial epithelial cells to divide by mitosis in an uncontrolled way,
causing a tumour to develop.
D Hemoglobin carries less oxygen, causing bronchial cells to divide by mitosis in an
uncontrolled way, causing a tumour to develop.

32 A disease damages alveoli walls.

What effect does this have on the gas exchange surface area and on the volume of the lungs?

surface area volume

A decreased decreased
B decreased increased
C decreased no change
D no change no change

33 Which is a correct description of part of the gas exchange system?

part of gas
ciliated smooth
exchange cartilage goblet cells
epithelium muscle
system

A alveolus 
  key
B bronchus




present
C bronchiole 

  absent
D trachea




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34 Which is correct for TB, measles and malaria?

TB measles malaria
causative causative causative
transmission transmission transmission
agent agent agent
A bacteria air-borne virus air-borne protoctist insect vector
B bacteria water-borne protoctist air-borne virus insect vector
C virus air-borne bacteria water-borne protoctist insect vector
D virus insect vector protoctist insect vector bacteria water-borne

35 What do the causative agents of HIV / AIDS, malaria and TB have in common?

they have a cell they have they have

they respire key
surface membrane genes ribosomes

present in each
A



causative agent
B
 

 not present in
C 

each causative
agent
D 
 

36 The photomicrograph shows human blood, with three types of white cell labeled.

T R

Which row correctly identifies these white cells?

cell R cell S cell T

A lymphocyte lymphocyte lymphocyte

B lymphocyte phagocyte phagocyte
C phagocyte lymphocyte phagocyte
D phagocyte phagocyte lymphocyte

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37 What are the function(s) of T-lymphocytes during an immune response?

1 destroy infected body cells

2 differentiate into memory cells
3 secrete antibodies

A 1 only B 3 only C 1 and 2 only D 2 and 3 only

38 A student wrote down three statements about antibodies.

1 Their structure depends on peptide, hydrogen and disulfide bonds.

2 They are protein molecules with both tertiary and quaternary structure.
3 Four polypeptides provide four antigen binding sites.

Which statements are true?

A 1, 2 and 3

B 1 and 2 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 2 and 3 only

39 An insect consumes 180 J of plant material. Of this, 95 J of energy is passed out in the insect’s
faeces and 58 J is used for respiration.

Which percentage of the energy, in the original plant material taken in by the insect, is converted
into biomass?

A 10 % B 15 % C 32 % D 47 %

40 Decomposition of organic matter can cause the concentration of ammonia to rise in a fish tank.
High concentrations of ammonia in the tank are toxic to fish. Bacteria may be added to remove
the ammonia.

Which type of bacteria should be added?

A ammonifying
B denitrifying
C nitrifying
D nitrogen-fixing

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