NEET MOCK TEST-1

6. A uniform wire of length 20 cm is bent into a circle. It is

PHYSICS
placed gently on the surface of water of surface tension
0.07 Nm-1. The extra force, than its weight, required to
SECTION - A pull it out of the water is
1. Two tanks A and B contain water at 30°C and 80°C, (1) 0.014 N
respectively. Calculate the amount of water that must
(2) 0.028 N
be taken from tank A and tank B, respectively, to
prepare 40 kg of water at 50°C. (3) zero

(1) 24 kg, 16 kg (4) 0.0035 N

7. Find the value of colour-coded resistance shown in
(2) 16 kg, 24 kg
figure
(3) 20 kg, 20kg

(4) 30 kg, 10 kg

2. When an external force is applied at the centre of

mass of a system of particles, then it undergoes
(1) 520  ± 10%
(1) only translatory motion
(2) 5200  ± 1%
(2) only rotatory motion
(3) 52000  ± 10%
(3) both translatory and rotatory motion
(4) 52000  ± 1%
(4) an oscillatory motion
8. If the maximum safe speed of a car taking a curve of
3. When a current changes from +2 A to –2 A in 0.05 s, radius 9.8 m is 9.8 ms-1, the angle of banking of road is
an EMF of 8 V is induced in a coil. The coefficient of
self induction of coil is (1) 30°
(2) 45°
(1) 0.4H
(3) 60°
(2) 0.8 H
(4) 90°
(3) 0.1 H 9. A body moves a distance of 20 m along a straight line
under the action of a force of 10 N. If the work done is
(4) 0.2 H 100 J, the angle between force and displacement
vectors is,
4. Three resistances 4  ,6  , and 10  are connected
(1) 0°
in parallel, and a potential difference of 30 V is applied
across the terminals of combination. The current (2) 30°
flowing through 6  resistance is (3) 45°
(1) 10 A (4) 60°

(2) 5 A 10. The following truth table corresponds to the logic gate

(3) 15 A A B X
0 0 0
(4) 20 A
0 1 1
5. A body executing SHM has a maximum velocity 1m/s
and maximum acceleration of 4m/s2. Its amplitude, 1 0 1
in metres, is 1 1 1
(1) 1 (1) NAND
(2) 0.75 (2) AND

(3) 0.5 (3) XOR

(4) 0.25 (4) OR

1
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
11. A parallel plates capacitor is being charged by a battery. (1) Both statement I and statement II are false.
A dielectric is introduced between the plates, when
the battery is still in contact. Then its (2) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

a) capacity increases (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false.

b) potential difference increases (4) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(1) b alone is true 16. If the net electric flux through a closed surface is zero,
(2) Both a) and b) are true then we can infer that

(3) a) alone is true (1) no net charge is enclosed by the surface.

(4) Both a) and b) are false (2) uniform electric field exists within the surface.

12. An electromagnetic radiation has an energy of (3) electric potential varies from point to point inside
14.4 eV. To which region of electromagnetic spectrum the surface.
does it belong?
(4) charge is present inside the surface.
(1) Ultraviolet region
17. A shell of mass 0.01 kg is fired by a gun of mass 10
(2) Visible region kg. If the muzzle speed of the shell is 50 ms–1, what is
the recoil speed of the gun?
(3) X-ray region
(1) 0.01 m/s
(4)  -ray region
(2) 0.02 m/s
13. When heat is added to a system, which of the
following is not possible? (3) 0.03 m/s

(1) internal energy of the system increases (4) 0.05 m/s

(2) work is done by system 18. If angular momentum is conserved, then

(3) neither does the internal energy increase, (1) linear momentum must be constant.
nor is work done by the system (2) net external torque acting on the system must be
zero.
(4) internal energy increases and also work is also
done by the system (3) angular velocity must be constant.

14. The root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is (4) rotational kinetic energy must be conserved.
300 m/s. What will be the root mean square speed of
the molecules if the atomic weight is doubled and 19. The change in frequency due to Doppler’s effect does
absolute temperature is halved? not depend on

(1) 300 m/s (1) the speed of the source

(2) 150 m/s (2) the speed of the observer

(3) 600 m/s (3) the frequency of the source

(4) 75 m/s (4) separation between the source and the observer

15. Given below are two statements: 20. The frequency of a light wave in a material is
0
Statement I : Acceleration due to gravity is different 2  1014 Hz and wavelength is 5000 A . The refractive
at different places on the surface of index of material will be
the earth.
(1) 1.40
Statement II : Acceleration due to gravity increases
as we go down below the earth’s (2) 1.50
surface.
(3) 3.00
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below. (4) 1.33

2
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
21. A parallel beam of light is incident on a system of two (a) (b) (c) (d)
convex lenses of focal lengths f1 = 20 cm and f2 = 10 (1) iii iv ii i
cm.
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) i iii ii iv
(4) iv ii iii i
25. The frequency of incident light falling on a
photosensitive metal plate is doubled. The kinetic
energy of the emitted photo-electron is
(1) double the earlier value
What should be the distance between the two lenses
so that the rays after refraction from both the lenses (2) unchanged
pass undeviated? (3) more than doubled
(1) 60 cm (4) less than doubled
(2) 30 cm 26. Two concentric circular coils A and B have radii 25 cm
and 15 cm, and carry currents 10 A and 15 A,
(3) 90 cm respectively. A has 24 turns and B has 18 turns. The
(4) 40 cm direction of currents are in opposite order. The magnetic
induction at the common centre of the coil is
22. The susceptibility of diamagnetic material
(1) 120 µ0T
(1) decreases with temperature
(2) 480 µ0T
(2) increases with temperature
(3) 420 µ0T
(3) may increase or decrease with temperature
(4) 1500 µ0T
(4) does not change with temperature
27. A block of mass 20 kg is pushed with a horizontal
23. A body is allowed to fall from a height h above the force of 90N. If the coefficient of static and kinetic
ground. Then, match the following. friction are 0.4 & 0.3 respectively, the frictional force
acting on the block is (g=10 ms–2 )
Column – I Column – II
(1) 90 N
a) PE = KE i) at height h/2
(2) 80 N
b) PE = 2KE ii) constant at any point (3) 60 N
c) KE = 2PE iii) at height 2h/3 (4) 30 N
d) PE + KE iv) at height h/3 28. A voltmeter has a resistance of 2000  and it can
(a) (b) (c) (d) measure upto 2 V. If we want to increase its range to
10 V, then the required resistance in series will be
(1) i iii iv ii
(1) 2000 
(2) iii i ii iv
(2) 4000 
(3) ii iii i iv (3) 6000 
(4) i iv iii ii (4) 8000 
24. Match List I and List II. 29. The current from the circuit below, if forward resistance
Column – I Column – II of the diode is 30  , will be
a) Boyle’s law i) PV = NkBT
b) Charles’s law ii) P/T = constant, at
constant volume
(1) 0.03 A
c) Gay–Lussac’s law iii) V  T at constant
(2) 0.01 A
pressure
(3) 0.5 A
d) Equation of state of iv) P1V1 = constant
an ideal gas (4) 0.1 A
3
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
30. The ratio of radii of gyration of a circular ring and a SECTION - B
circular disc, of the same mass and radius, about an
36. By what percent should the impedance in a series LCR,
axis passing through their centres and perpendicular
to their planes, are AC circuit be increased so that the power factor changes
from 1 / 2  to 1 / 4  (assume resistance R remains
(1) 1 : 2 constant)

(2) 3 : 2 (1) 200%

(3) 2 :1 (2) 100%

(4) 2 :1 (3) 50%

31. When a charged particle is projected in a uniform (4) 400%

magnetic field, 37. A particle has initial velocity (2iˆ  3ˆj) and
acceleration (0.3iˆ  0.2 ĵ). The magnitude of velocity
(1) it has a constant kinetic energy after 10 seconds will be
(2) it always moves with a constant velocity (1) 9 units

(3) it cannot move in a straight line (2) 9 2 units

(3) 5 2 units
(4) it can move in an elliptical path
(4) 5 units
32. The function of a moderator in a nuclear reactor is to
38. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two
(1) speed up the slow neutrons materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If YA and
(2) slow down the fast neutrons YB are the Young's modulii of the materials, then

(3) absorb the excess neutrons

(4) absorb all the neutrons
33. Potentiometer is an ideal instrument, because
(1) no current is drawn from the source of unknown
EMF
(1) YB = 2YA
(2) current is drawn from the source of unknown EMF
(2) YA = YB
(3) it gives deflection even at null point
(3) YB = 3YA
(4) it has variable potential gradient
(4) YA = 3YB
34. Energy of an electron in an excited hydrogen atom is
–3.4 eV. Its angular momentum will be 39. The electric potential inside a conducting sphere
(Planck’s constant: h = 6.626  10 34 Js ) (1) increases from centre to surface
(1) 1.11  1034 Js (2) decreases from centre to surface
(2) 1.51  1031 Js (3) remains constant from centre to surface
(3) 2.11  1034 Js (4) is zero at every point inside
(4) 3.72  1034 Js 40. The half-life period of a radioactive element X is same
as the mean lifetime of another radioactive element Y.
35. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial
Initially, both of them have the same number of atoms.
velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the range of the
Then
missile is
(1) X and Y have the same decay rate initially
(1) 50 m
(2) 60 m (2) X and Y decay at the same rate always

(3) 20 m (3) Y will decay at a faster rate than X

(4) 40 m (4) X will decay at a faster rate than Y

4
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
41. A sonometer string and a tuning fork, when sounded 46. A non-viscous fluid of constant density of 1000 kg/m3
together, give 6 beats/s, whether the length of flows in a streamline motion along a tube of variable
sonometer string is 95 cm or 100 cm. The frequency cross-section. The area of cross-section at two points P
of tuning fork (in Hz) is and Q at heights of 5 m and 3 m are 40 cm2 and 20
cm2, respectively. If velocity of fluid at P is 3 m/s, then
(1) 262
find the velocity of the fluid at Q.
(2) 256
(3) 260

(4) 234
42. Assertion (A) : Light of red colour travels faster than
the light of violet colour in vacuum.
Reason (R) : Refractive index of a medium, in
general, depends on wavelength, and
its value reduces with the increase of
wavelength.
(1) 3 m/s
(1) Assertion is true, reason is a correct explanation
(2) Assertion is true, reason is not a correct (2) 4 m/s
explanation
(3) 5 m/s
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false
(4) Assertion is false, reason is true (4) 6 m/s

43. A round object is rolling without slipping down a rough 47. A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling
inclined plane having inclination 30° with horizontal with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic
with acceleration 2.5 m/s2. If g =10 m/s2, the object 
induction B . At the position MNQ, the speed of the
must be a
ring is V, and the potential difference developed across
(1) thin ring the ring is
(2) solid cylinder
(3) solid sphere
(4) hollow sphere
44. Two spheres A and B moving in opposite directions
have velocities of 10 ms-1 and 20 ms-1. The two
spheres collide with each other elastically. If A
continues to move in the same direction at 4 ms-1, the
velocity of sphere B just after the collision is (1) zero
(1) 34 m/s in the same direction of A
(2) BVR2 / 2 and M is at a higher potential
(2) 34 m/s in the opposite direction of A
(3)  RBV and Q is at a higher potential
(3) 26 m/s in the same direction of A
(4) 2RBV and Q is at a higher potential
(4) 26 m/s in the opposite direction of A
48. A string of mass 2.50 kg is under a tension of 200 N.
45. A boat is rowed perpendicular to the bank with a
The length of the stretched string is 20.0 m. If the
velocity of 7.2 km/h. The current carries it 150 m
transverse jerk is struck at one end of the string, how
downstream. Find the velocity of the current. (The width
of the river is 0.5 km) long does the disturbance take to reach the other end?

(1) 0.4 ms–1 (1) 0.5 s

(2) 1.2 ms–1 (2) 1 s

(3) 0.5 ms–1 (3) 1.5 s
(4) 0.6 ms–1
(4) 2 s
5
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
49. Two point charges Q and –3Q are placed at some 54. The earliest species of Homo is believed to be
distance
 apart. If the electric field at the location of Q
is E , the field at the location of –3Q is (1) Homo neanderthalensis
 (2) Homo sapiens
(1) E
 (3) Homo erectus
(2) – E
(4) Homo habilis

E 55. Which of the following is not associated with the genital
(3) 
3 pouch of the male cockroach?

E (1) Male genital pore
(4) 
3 (2) Phallomeres
50. Unpolarised light of intensity I0 is incident on surface of (3) Anus
a block of glass at Brewster’s angle. In that case, which
one of the following statements is true? (4) Spermatheca
(1) Transmitted light is partially polarised with intensity 56. The first sign of the growing human foetus is noticed by
I0/2.
(1) detecting foetal antibodies in maternal blood
(2) Reflected light is partially polarised with intensity
I0/2. (2) ultrasound image detecting foetal movements
(3) Reflected light is completely polarised with (3) measuring the tidal volume by spirometer
intensity less than I0/2.
(4) listening to heart sounds through a stethoscope
(4) Transmitted light is completely polarised with
intensity less than I0/2. 57. Which of the following is a broadly utilitarian argument
for the conservation of biodiversity?
ZOOLOGY
(1) Species are important for their own sake and have
SECTION - A intrinsic value.
51. Which of the following are the receptors responsible (2) Species diversity provides ecosystem services that
for the maintenance of balance of the body and are essential for human well-being.
posture?
(3) Biodiversity provides opportunities for future
(1) Cochlea and ampulla
economic development.
(2) Crista and macula
(4) Biodiversity is a cultural asset that should be
(3) Macula and fovea preserved for future generations.
(4) Malleus and incus 58. Chromosome 1 of human being
52. Dobson units are used to quantify
(1) is the first to be completely sequenced
(1) the intensity of noise relative to the threshold of
human hearing (2) is the largest human chromosome
(2) the amount of ozone in a vertical column of Earth’s (3) has the largest known human gene
atmosphere
(4) has the fewest number of genes
(3) the sedimentation rate of macromolecules in a
centrifuge 59. Ovulation in humans involves the rupture of

(4) the amount of oxygen required by microbes to (1) primary follicle and the release of primary oocyte
decompose organic matter in water
53. Wings of pigeon are analogous to (2) secondary follicle and the release of secondary
oocyte
(1) legs of pigeon
(3) tertiary follicle and the release of second polar
(2) wings of butterfly
body
(3) forelimbs of cheetah
(4) Graafian follicle and the release of secondary
(4) wings of parrot oocyte
6
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
60. Which of the following tissues often serves as a support Select the correct answer from the options given below.
framework for epithelium? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Areolar tissue (1) iv i ii iii
(2) Adipose tissue (2) iv iii ii i
(3) Muscle tissue
(3) i iii iv ii
(4) Neural tissue
(4) ii iii i iv
61. Read the following statements.
66. Match the items given in column I with those in column II.
Statement I : All chordates are vertebrates.
Statement II : All vertebrates are chordates. Column I Column II
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (a) Mortality (i) Escape in time
answer from the options given below.
(b) Diapause (ii) Birth rate
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(c) Migration (iii) Death rate
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(d) Natality (iv) Escape in space
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
62. Which of the following hormones are called
gonadotropins? (1) ii iii iv i
(1) FSH and LH (2) ii i iv iii
(2) FSH and MSH (3) iv i iii ii
(3) LH and GH (4) iii i iv ii
(4) PRL and ADH 67. Muscle fascicles are held together by a sheet called
63. Select the correct statement about sex determination fascia mainly made up of
in grasshoppers.
(1) collagen
(1) Males are heterogametic
(2) elastin
(2) Half of the ova lack X chromosome
(3) keratin
(3) Females are diploid, and males are haploid
(4) chitin
(4) Males have two X chromosomes
68. In the context of contraception, which of the following
64. The energy requirements of animals, and the energy
is the correct difference between oral pills and
content of food, are expressed in terms of measure of
implants?
(1) light energy
(1) Pills inhibit implantation while implants inhibit
(2) electrical energy ovulation.
(3) heat energy (2) Pills contain hormones while implants do not
(4) mechanical energy contain hormones.
65. Match the items given in column I with those in column II. (3) Pills are used by women while implants are used
by men.
Column I Column II
(a) Stenothermal (i) Organisms that (4) Implants have longer effective periods than pills.
tolerate a wide range 69. As per the provisions of The Medical Termination of
of salinities Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017, how many
(b) Euryhaline (ii) Organisms that can registered medical practitioners must confirm the
tolerate wide range existence of legal grounds for MTP within the first 12
of temperatures weeks of pregnancy?
(c) Eurythermal (iii) Organisms that are
(1) One
restricted to a narrow
range of salinities (2) Two
(d) Stenohaline (iv) Organisms restricted (3) Three
to a narrow range of
temperatures (4) Four
7
 NEET MOCK TEST-1

70. Which of the following best represents the interaction 75. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
between Balanus and Chthamalus in the intertidal
regions on the rocky seacoasts of Scotland? (1) Milk yield is primarily dependent on the quality of
breeds in the farm.
(1) – , 0 (2) Bird flu is a viral poultry disease that created a
(2) – , – scare in our country.

(3) + , 0 (3) Beeswax is used in the preparation of cosmetics

and polishes.
(4) + , +
(4) Outcrossing is the mating of males of one breed
71. Which of the following is not a correct match regarding
with females of another breed.
chemical classes of hormones?
76. For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function through
(1) Glucagon – Peptide ECG, multiple leads are attached to the
(2) Cortisol – Steroid (1) ankle
(3) Thyrocalcitonin - Iodothyronine (2) chest
(4) Epinephrine – Amine (3) wrist
72. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(4) abdomen
(1) PCR and ELISA serve the purpose of early 77. FSH stimulates
diagnosis of diseases.
(1) Leydig cells
(2) Mature insulin has three disulphide bonds.
(2) Sertoli cells
(3) ADA deficiency can be permanently cured by bone
marrow transplantation. (3) Paneth cells

(4) The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced milk that (4) Schwann cells
contained human alpha-lactalbumin. 78. Which of the following is not true about ‘Nirodh’?
73. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as (1) It is a popular brand of male condoms in India.
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(2) It protects the user from contracting STIs and AIDS.
Assertion (A) : Compound epithelium has a limited
role in secretion and absorption. (3) It is effective as emergency contraceptive if used
within 72 hours of coitus.
Reason (R) : Compound epithelium is made of
(4) It can be self-inserted and thereby gives privacy to
more than one layer of cells.
the user.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most 79. Which of the following Mendelian disorder in humans
appropriate answer from the options given below. is caused by the mutation of a gene on X chromosome?
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(1) Myotonic dystrophy
explanation of (A).
(2) Cystic fibrosis
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A). (3) Haemophilia
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (4) Thalassemia
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. 80. Select the correct statement about the functions of
hormones.
74. The type of symmetry exhibited by echinoderm larvae
is also found in (1) LH maintains the corpus luteum.

(1) adult annelids (2) Prolactin stimulates milk ejection.

(2) adult echinoderms (3) Secretin stimulates the secretion of pancreatic

enzymes.
(3) larvae of cnidarians
(4) Oestrogen stimulates the formation of mammary
(4) most adult sponges
alveoli.
8
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
81. Raymond Lindman’s ‘Ten per cent law’ of ecosystem SECTION - B
ecology states that
86. There is a high risk of erythroblastosis foetalis when
(1) only ten per cent of the incident solar radiation is
(1) Rh-ve woman carries Rh+ve foetus for the second
photosynthetically active
time
(2) only ten per cent of the energy is lost as heat energy (2) Rh-ve woman carries Rh+ve foetus for the first time
between successive trophic levels
(3) Rh+ve woman carries Rh-ve foetus for the second
(3) plants capture only ten per cent of the time
photosynthetically active solar radiation
(4) Rh+ve woman carries Rh-ve foetus for the first time
(4) only ten per cent of the energy is transferred from
87. The maximum volume of air a healthy man can exhale
each trophic level to the next trophic level after a normal inhalation is about
82. Mary Mallon was named as ‘Typhoid Mary’ because
she (1) 0.5 litre
(2) 2.5 litres
(1) died of typhoid
(3) 1 litre
(2) was a carrier of typhoid
(4) 1.5 litres
(3) discovered the cause of typhoid
88. Which of the following is not correctly matched with its
(4) discovered the cure for typhoid description?
83. Pharynx is perforated by gill-slits in (1) Serosa – The innermost layer
of the wall of
(1) angelfish and devilfish
alimentary canal
(2) catfish and cuttlefish made up of thin
mesothelium and
(3) sawfish and starfish
some connective
(4) hagfish and dogfish tissue
84. Match the items given in column I with those in column II. (2) Hepatic lobules – Structural and
functional unit of the
Column I Column II liver covered by a thin
(a) DCT (i) Counter current connective tissue
multiplier sheath called the
Glisson’s capsule.
(b) Collecting duct (ii) Reabsorption of urea
(3) Chylomicrons – Protein-coated fat
(c) PCT (iii) Reabsorption of globules formed in
essential nutrients the epithelial cells of
(d) Henle’s loop (iv) Conditional the mucosa of the
small intestine that
reabsorption of Na+
are transported into
and water
the lacteals in the
Select the correct answer from the options given below. villi.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Diarrhoea – The abnormal
(1) iv ii iii i frequency of bowel
movement and
(2) iv i ii iii increased liquidity of
(3) iv i iii ii the faecal discharge
89. Select the incorrect statement about polyblend.
(4) iii i iv ii
(1) It is a fine powder of recycled modified plastic.
85. Select the correct ascending order of the given animal
phyla based on the number of species. (2) It is mixed with the bitumen that is used to lay
roads.
(1) Annelida < Arthropoda < Mollusca
(3) The raw material for creating polyblend is plastic
(2) Annelida < Mollusca < Arthropoda film waste.
(3) Mollusca < Annelida < Arthropoda (4) It increases road life by reducing the bitumen’s
water repellent properties.
(4) Mollusca < Arthropoda < Annelida
9
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
90. Read the following statements and choose the set of In the light of the above statements, choose the most
correct statements. appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) Interferons are the cytokines secreted by virus- (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
infected cells. explanation of (A).
(b) Memory cells are produced only during (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
anamnestic immune response.
correct explanation of (A).
(c) Cell mediated immunity is mainly responsible for
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
graft rejection.
(d) Colostrum has abundant IgE antibodies that (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
provide passive immunity to the newborn. 94. Read the following statements.
(e) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder. A. Association of cerebral cortex responsible for
Choose the correct answer from the options given memory and communication are either clearly
below. sensory or clearly motor in function.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct B. The ionic gradients across the resting axonal
(2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct membrane are maintained by the sodium-
potassium pump which actively transports 3 Na+
(3) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
outwards for 2 K+ into the cell.
(4) (a), (c) and (e) are correct
91. Select the incorrect statement from the following. C. A reflex action occurs without conscious effort or
thought and does not require the involvement of
(1) The opening of the vagina is often covered central nervous system.
completely by a membrane called hymen.
D. Transmission of an impulse across electrical
(2) Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by
synapses is very similar to impulse conduction
skin and pubic hair.
along a single axon.
(3) The clitoris lies at the upper junction of the two
labia minora above the urethral opening. Which of the above statements are true?

(4) The labia majora are fleshy folds of tissue, which (1) A and B
extend down from the mons pubis.
(2) B and C
92. Given below are two statements.
(3) C and D
Statement I : In an aquatic ecosystem, detritus food
chain is the major conduit for energy (4) B and D
flow. 95. On a logarithmic scale, the species-area relationship is
Statement II : In a terrestrial ecosystem, a much described by the equation log S = log C + Z log A. In this
larger fraction of energy flows through equation, the rate at which the number of species
the grazing food chain than through
increases with increasing area is represented by
the detritus food chain.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (1) S
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(2) Z
(1) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(3) C
(2) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
(4) A
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
96. Two major current environmental issues are global
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. warming and ozone depletion. Which of the following
93. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as contributes to both the issues?
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : True ribs of human being are termed (1) CO2
bicephalic. (2) CH4
Reason (R) : Dorsally, they are attached to the
(3) CFC
thoracic vertebrae and ventrally they
are connected to the sternum. (4) SF6

10
 NEET MOCK TEST-1

97. Cryopreservation is a/an

CHEMISTRY
(1) conventional in situ conservation method
SECTION - A
(2) advanced in situ conservation method
101. The compound in which cation is isoelectronic with
(3) conventional ex situ conservation method anion is
(1) NaCl
(4) advanced ex situ conservation method
(2) CsF
98. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as
(3) NaI
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(4) K2S
Assertion (A) : Mucus forms a physical barrier that
contributes to innate immunity in the 102. C1–C2 sigma bond in CH2  CH  C  CH is due to
body. overlapping of _____hybrid orbitals

Reason (R) : Mucus protects the lining of the (1) sp and sp

alimentary canal from the action of (2) sp2 and s
enzymes. (3) sp2 and sp2
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (4) sp and s
appropriate answer from the options given below. 103. Match column - I (digit) and column - II (symbol).
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct Column – I Column – II
explanation of (A). (Digit) (IUPAC Symbol)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the a) 7 i) t
correct explanation of (A). b) 9 ii) h
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. c) 6 iii) s
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. d) 3 iv) e
99. Genetic equilibrium of a population can be disturbed (a) (b) (c) (d)
by which of the following?
(1) ii iv iii i
(a) gene migration
(2) iii iv i ii
(b) genetic drift
(3) i iv ii iii
(c) random mating
(4) iii iv ii i
(d) gene flow
104. For a zero order reaction, R  P; half-life time is 0.05
(e) natural selection s. Rate constant of zero order reaction is equal to
[R0 = initial concentration of reactant; K = zero order
Select the correct answer from the options given below. rate constant]
(1) (a), (b) and (d) only (1) 0.05R0
(2) (b), (d) and (e) only (2) 0.1R0
(3) R0
(3) (a), (b), (d) and (e)
(4) 10R0
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
100. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is 105. Glycinate ion is NH2 CH2 COO  . The donor atoms in
this ligand is
(1) greater than that in the oxygenated blood (1) O,O
(2) lesser than that in the oxygenated blood (2) N,N
(3) lesser than that in the deoxygenated blood (3) N,O
(4) equal to that in the systemic tissues (4) C,N and O

11
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
106. Among the following, identify non-electrolytic 111. Match the following.
chromium complex?
Column – I Column – II
(1) CrCl3.5NH3
a) Wavelength i) J
(2) CrCl3.3NH3
b) Wave number ii) m
(3) CrCl3.6NH3
c) Frequency iii) m-1
(4) CrCl3.4NH3
d) Velocity of light iv) ms-1
107. Total number of electrons donated by ligands to cobalt v) s-1
ion in [Co(en)(H2O)Cl3] is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 5
(1) ii iii iv v
(2) 10
(2) ii iii v iv
(3) 8
(3) iii ii iv v
(4) 12
(4) i ii iv iii
108. For the given hypothetical reversible reaction
112. Identify the correct match.
A (g)  3B(l)  C (s)  3D(g) , the temperature at which
Kp and Kc are equal is (R = Gas constant) Column – I Column – II

(1) a) Eka–Aluminium i) Germanium

R
b) Eka–Silicon ii) Unknown elements
1 at the time of
(2)
R Mendeleev
(3) R c) Tellurium–Iodine iii) Gallium

1 d) Ga, Ge iv) Anomalous pair

(4)
R (a) (b) (c) (d)
109. Chloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. (1) iii i iv ii
This can be explained using
(2) i iii ii iv
(1) –M effect of Cl
(3) iii i ii iv
(2) –I effect of Cl

(3) –I effect of COOH (4) i iii iv ii

(4) +I effect of Cl 113. Ziegler’s Natta catalyst is used in the manufacture of

(1) HDPE
(2) PVC
(3) PTFE
110. Locants for OH, C = O and C = C is x,y and
(4) Nylon–6, 6
114. The noble gas with highest value of positive electron
z, according to IUPAC system. Sum of x,y,z is gain enthalpy is
(1) 9
(1) He
(2) 8
(2) Ne
(3) 11
(3) Rn
(4) 6 (4) Xe
12
 NEET MOCK TEST-1

115. Hybridisation of nickel in Ni(CO)4  is 121. The reagent with which ethanol is oxidised to ethanal is

(1) Tollen’s reagent

(1) sp3
(2) Nitrobenzene
(2) dsp2 (3) PCC
(3) sp2d (4) Chromic acid
122. Cyanohydrin of which compound, on hydrolysis, will
(4) dsp3
give lactic acid(2-hydroxy propanoic acid)?
116. ‘X’ is a component of photo chemical smog. ‘Y’ is a
component of classical smog. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are, (1) C6H5CHO
respectively, (2) HCHO

(1) PAN, SO2 (3) CH3CHO

(4) CH3–CH2–CHO
(2) SO2, CH4
123. Which of the following compounds does not have a
(3) Acrolein, CO2 carboxyl group?

(4) SO2, CO (1) methanoic acid

117. The biomolecule that cannot be hydrolysed further is (2) ethanoic acid
(3) picric acid
(1) starch
(4) benzoic acid
(2) glycogen
124. Acetic acid is treated with metallic sodium to form
(3) cellulose hydrogen and X. When X is treated with sodalime, Y
(4) glucose and sodium carbonate are formed. Y is

(1) C2H6
118. H2 O2  Na2 CO3  Na2 O2  H2 O  CO2
in the above reaction, H2O2 acts like (2) CH4
(3) CH3COONa
(1) acid
(4) CH3CONH2
(2) reducing agent
125. NH4NO3 
heat
 X  2H2O
(3) oxidising agent
(4) bleaching agent
2Pb NO3 2 
heat
 Y  PbO  O2
119. The exothermic hydride among the following is

Cool
Y  
 Z
(1) NH3 Heat

(2) PH3 X, Y, and Z, respectively, are

(3) AsH3 (1) N2O, NO2, N2O4
(4) SbH3 (2) NO2, N2O, N2O4
120. Statement I : The absence of d -orbitals limits
(3) NO, NO2, N2O
covalency of nitrogen to four.
Statement II : Bond dissociation enthalpy increases (4) N2, NO2, NO
from top to bottom in group 16 126. Among the following, which oxoacid of phosphorous
hydrides. disproportionates to give H3PO4 and PH3?
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
(1) H4P2O6
(2) Both Statement I and statement II are false.
(2) HPO3
(3) Statement I is true, statement II is false. (3) H4P2O7
(4) Statement I is false, statement II is true. (4) H3PO3

13
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
127. For the generation of electrical potential of 1.1 V, the 132. r S for the reaction 2CO2(g)  2CO(g)  O2(g) is
ideal concentration of zinc and copper ion (in mol
dm-3) under standard conditions in the Galvanic cell is Substance Standard entropy of
substance (JK-1 mole-1)
(1) 1 and 1
(2) 2 and 1 CO2(g) 213

(3) 3 and 2 CO (g) 197

O2(g) 205
(4) 4 and 2
(1) -173 kJ/K
128. The limiting molar conductivities  0 for NaCl, KBr and (2) 173 kJ/K
KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mol-1 ,respectively.
(3) -173 J/K
The  0 for NaBr S cm2 mol-1 is
(4) 173 J/K
(1) 302
133. In Dumas method, 0.5 grams of an organic compound
(2) 176 containing nitrogen gave 112 ml of nitrogen at STP.
(3) 278 The percentage of nitrogen in the given compound is

(4) 128 (1) 28

129. Benzene reacts with Cl2 in presence of AlCl3 and forms
(2) 38
chlorobenzene. In this reaction, electrophile is
(1) Cl + (3) 18

(2) Cl (4) 48

(3) Cl 2 134. Statement I : pH of aqueous solution of KCl is 7 at
(4) Cl 25°C
Statement II : Both K + and Cl – are isoelectronic
130. Mg  s  Mg
2
 aq  Al 3
 aq Al s  species

For the given cell representation, total number of (1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
electrons transferred is (2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(1) 2 (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(2) 3 (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) 6 135. "S'' is solubility of a sparingly soluble salt (X) in mole/
(4) 5 lit. Solubility product of salt (X) is S2 (mole/lit)2. Identify
salt (X) from the following?
131. Match column I (concentration term) with column II
(units). (1) BaSO4

Column – I Column – II (2) Ag 2 CrO4

a) Normality i) no units (3) AlCl3

b) Molality ii) moles/ kg (4) Hg 2 Cl2

c) Molarity iii) moles/lit SECTION - B
d) Mole fraction iv) equivalents/lit 136. Which of the following is an exothermic reaction ?
v) gm/lit (1) H2(g)  Cl2(g)  2HCl(g) ; H  184.6KJ
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) N2(g)  O2(g)  2NO(g) ; H  180.8KJ
(1) iv i iii ii
(2) iv ii iii i (3) C (graphite)  H2 O(g)  CO2  H2(g)  131.4KJ
(3) iii i ii iv
(4) C (graphite)  2S(g)  91.9KJ  CS2(l)
(4) iv i v ii
14
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
137. Match column I (thermochemical reaction) with 141. Co NH3 5 NO2  SO4 can exhibit
column II (type of enthalpy of reaction).
Column – I Column – II (1) ionisation and optical isomerism
1
a) CO(g)  O2(g)  CO2(g ) i) enthalpy of
2 (2) ionisation and linkage isomerism
hydration
b) CO2(s)  CO2(g) ii) enthalpy of (3) linkage and optical isomerism
formation (4) ionisation isomerism only
c) 6C(graphite)  3H2(g)  C6H6(l) iii) enthalpy of solution 142. Butanenitrile may be prepared by heating

CuSO4  5H2 O  (1) propyl alcohol with KCN

d) iv) enthalpy of
CuSO4  5H2 O (2) butyl alcohol with KCN
sublimation (3) butyl chloride with KCN
v) enthalpy of (4) propyl chloride with KCN
combustion 143. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl
substituted amines in aqueous solution is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) v iv ii i (1)  CH3 2 NH  CH3NH2   CH3 3 N
(2) v iv ii iii (2)  CH3 3 N  CH3NH2   CH3 2 NH
(3) ii iv v i
(3)  CH3 3 N   CH3 2 NH  CH3NH2
(4) ii v iv i
(4) CH3NH2   CH3 2 NH   CH3 3 N
138. At a certain temperature pH of 0.01 N Ba(OH)2 solution
is 12. At the same temperature [OH–] ion concentration 144. The 3d series element with highest IP1 is
is
(1) Mn
(1) 2 x 10-2 M
(2) Cr
(2) 2 x 10-12 M (3) Ni
(3) 10-12 M (4) Zn

(4) 10-2 M

139. Consider the given reaction.

con  H2 SO4 145.
Carbon X (g)  2Y(g)  2H2 O .

Identify the correct option from the following.
The type of temporary effect observed in II and I,
(1) X = acidic; Y = neutral respectively, will be (E = Electromeric effect)
(1) +E, –E
(2) X = acidic; Y = acidic
(2) +E, +E
(3) X = neutral; Y = acidic (3) –E, +E
(4) X = acidic; Y = basic (4) –E, –E
146. In which of the following compounds does the lone
140. Maltose is composed of
pair present on hetero atom not participate in
(1)   D  glucose and   D  fructose resonance?

(2)   D  glucose and   D  glucose

(3)   D  galactose and   D  glucose (1)

(4)   D  glucose and   D  glucose

15
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
149. Consider the following carbocations:

I) C 6H5 C H2
(2) 
II) C 6H5 CH2 CH2

III) C 6H5 CHCH3

IV) C 6H5 C  CH3 2
The correct sequence of the stabilities is
(3)
(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) IV > III > I > II
(4)
150. In which of the following compounds CH3 group
exihibits only +I effect?
147. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value
of molal depression constant K f  will be

(1) halved (1)

(2) tripled
(3) unchanged
(4) doubled
(2)
148. Column – I Column – II
(Benzene derivative) (Electron migration
effect observed)

(3)

a) i) +I, +Hyper

conjugation
(4)

b) ii) -I, +M
BOTANY

SECTION - A

151. Cyclosporin A is used for

c) iii) -I, -M
(1) removal of blood clots
(2) lowering blood cholestrol level
(a) (b) (c) (3) immuno suppression

(1) ii i iii (4) lowering blood sugar level

(2) ii iii i 152. The fruit and seed in the members of Solanaceae, in
general, are
(3) iii i ii (1) berry and endospermic seed
(4) i ii iii (2) capsule and non-endospermic seed

16
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
(3) berry and non-endospermic seed 159. Select an incorrect match.
(4) drupe and endospermic seed (1) Actinomorphic – Datura
153. The label on herbarium sheet does not carry
(2) Zygomorphic – pea
information about
(3) Asymmetric – canna
(1) local names
(2) height of the plant (4) Hypogynous – cucurbits

(3) place of collection 160. Identify the function of the part labelled as ‘A’ from the
diagram given below.
(4) family name
154. The most abundant prokaryotes, useful to humans in
making curd from milk and in production of several of
antibiotics, are described based on their mode of
nutrition as
(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Archaebacteria
(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(4) Heterotrophic bacteria
155. Pick up the incorrect statement.
(1) Helps to increase the length of the root.
(1) In diatoms, the cell walls form two thin overlapping
shells, which fit together as in a soap box. (2) It is mainly involved in asexual reproduction of
angiosperms.
(2) Fungi show a great diversity in morphology and
habitat. (3) It secretes mucilage which acts as lubricant and
(3) Claviceps is used extensively in biochemical and helps in easy penetration of root in the soil.
genetic work.
(4) Cells of this region undergo repeated divisions.
(4) Mycoplasma is the smallest living cell that can
survive without oxygen. 161. Plant linear growth is indefinite mainly because of
156. Which organism causes spindle tuber disease in (1) intercalary meristem
potato?
(1) Virus (2) apical meristems

(2) Bacterium (3) cork cambium

(3) Viroid (4) vascular cambium
(4) Fungus
162. Which tissues are responsible for the plant's flexibility?
157. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non­-
flagellated gametes? (1) Collenchyma tissues

(1) S ar ga ss um (2) Chlorenchyma tissues

(2) Ectocarpus (3) Sclerenchyma cells
(3) Ulothrix (4) Parenchyma cells
(4) Spirogyra
163. The sapwood occupies
158. How many of the following plants shows haplo-diplontic
life cycle? (1) the central or innermost layers of the stem and
has deposition of organic compounds like tannins,
Fucus; Spirogyra, Equisetum, Ectocarpus, Cycas;
resins, oils, gums, aromatic substances, and
Kelps; Marchantia, Polysiphonia
essential oils
(1) Four
(2) the peripheral region of the secondary xylem and
(2) Eight has deposition of organic compounds like tannins,
(3) Five resins, oils, gums, aromatic substances and
essential oils
(4) Six

17
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
(3) the central or innermost layers of the stem and is 169. The bonds representing the labels ‘A’ and ‘B’,
involved in the conduction of water and minerals respectively, are
from root to leaf
(4) the peripheral region of the secondary xylem and
is involved in the conduction of water and minerals
from root to leaf
164. Identify the cell organelle and select the correct match.

(1) Chloroplast- ATP synthesis

(2) Chloroplast- Photosynthesis
(3) Mitochondria- Found less in number in (1) hydrogen bond; peptide bond
metabolically active cell.
(2) glycosidic bond; peptide bond
(4) Mitochondria- Inner membrane contains
infoldings that help in increasing the surface area. (3) hydrogen bond; N - glycosidic bond

165. Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus (4) hydrogen bond; hydrogen bond
are the site for active synthesis of 170. Which one of the following cannot be included under
(1) protein co-factors?

(2) mRNA (1) Protein constituents

(3) rRNA (2) Prosthetic groups

(4) tRNA (3) Metal ions

(4) Co-enzyme
166. Identify the correct statement with regard to G1 phase
(Gap 1) of interphase. 171. The phenomenon responsible for facilitating loss of
water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at
(1) Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.
night and in early morning is
(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not
(1) root pressure
replicate its DNA.
(2) imbibition
(3) Nuclear division takes place.
(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place. (3) plasmolysis

167. A bivalent of meiosis I consists of (4) transpiration

(1) two chromatids and one centromere 172. As glucose is prepared at the source by photosynthesis,
it is then moved into the ___A___ and then into
(2) two chromatids and two centromeres ___B___ by ___C___.
(3) four chromatids and two centromeres (A) (B) (C)
(4) four chromatids and four centromeres (1) sieve tube companion passive
cells cells transport
168. Ricin is a secondary metabolite that belongs to which
of the following group? (2) companion sieve tube active
cells cells transport
(1) Alkaloids
(3) companion sieve tube passive
(2) Drug cells cells transport
(3) Toxin (4) sieve tube companion facilitated
(4) Terpene cells cells diffusion

18
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
173. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric 179. How many of the following auxins are synthetic?
nitrogen in leguminous plants is
IAA; IBA; NAA; 2, 4-D
(1) NO3 
(1) One
(2) glutamate
(3) NO2  (2) Two

(4) ammonia (3) Three

174. Choose the incorrect match with respect to
(4) Four
photosynthesis.
(1) Thylakoids of chloroplast - Light reaction of 180. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?
photosynthesis
(1) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
(2) Reaction center of photosystem I - P680
(2) Globule and nucule present on the same plant
(3) Cornelius van Niel - Experiments on purple and
green bacteria (3) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
(4) Chlorophyll b - Component of light harvesting (4) Globule is male reproductive structure
complex of photosystems
181. Statement A : Michelia has apocarpous pistil
175. What is the ratio between the number of CO2 involved,
ATP needed and NADPH required, respectively, for Statement B : Nucellus has abundant reserve food
successful completion of one turn of Calvin cycle? materials.
(1) 1: 2 : 3
(1) Both statements A and B are correct.
(2) 1: 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 3 : 1 (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect.

(4) 3 : 1 : 2 (3) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect.

176. All are true about glycolysis, except
(4) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct.
(1) it is a ten-step process
182. How many meiotic divisions are required for the
(2) glucose is phosphorylated to give rise to glucose-
production of 100 seeds?
6–phosphate by the activity of hexokinase
(3) reduces two molecules of NAD+ for one glucose (1) 100
molecule
(2) 125
(4) it produces one pyruvic acid molecule from each
glucose molecule (3) 150
177. The reactions of Kreb’s cycle take place
(4) 200
(1) in cytoplasm
183. Geitonogamy involves
(2) in endoplasmic reticulum
(3) in matrix of mitochondria (1) fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from another
flower of the same plant
(4) on the surface of mitochondrion
178. Which one of the following plants does not show (2) fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from the same
plasticity? flower
(1) Coriander (3) fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from a flower
(2) Buttercup of another plant in the same population
(3) Maize
(4) fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from a flower
(4) Cotton of another plant belonging to a distant population

19
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
184. Identify the trait of pea as identified by Mendel, that 189. The direction of the synthesis of the lagging strand and
can express itself in homozygous condition only. the polarity of the template producing the leading strand
are ____ and _______, respectively.
(1) Yellow seed colour
(1) 5  3, 3  5
(2) Violet flower colour
(2) 3  5, 3  5
(3) Yellow pod colour
(3) 5  3, 5  3
(4) Axial flower position
(4) 3  5, 5  3
185. Among the following, which one correctly represents
the monohybrid test cross? 190. Assertion (A) : In nucleosome, histone proteins are
basic in nature.
(1) Cross between two true breeding tall plants
Reason (R) : Histones are rich in basic amino acid
(2) Cross between two dwarf plants residues lysine and arginine.
(3) Cross between F1 monohybrids (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(4) Cross between the F2 tall and dwarf parental plant
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct
SECTION - B explanation of (A).
186. Observe the following diagram related to genotype of (3) (A) is correct, But (R) is incorrect.
Drosophila. What is the phenotype of the organism?
(4) (A) is incorrect, But (R) is correct.

191. Which nitrogen base containing nucleotides do not

polymerise in PCR?

(1) Thymine

(2) Adenine
(1) It is female with yellow body and red eyes
(3) Uracil
(2) It is female with yellow body and white eyes
(4) Guanine
(3) It is male with yellow body and red eyes
192. Which of the following are referred to as 'molecular
(4) It is male with brown body and red eyes scissors'?
187. With respect to which amino acids, the genetic code is (1) Restriction enzymes
non-degenerate?
(2) Vectors
(1) Tryptophan and methionine
(3) Recombinant DNA
(2) Leucine and methionine
(4) Ligases
(3) Serine and tryptophan
193. If we add alien DNA at site Sal I in pBR322, then
(4) Alanine and glycine (1) transformant recombinant colonies become
sensitive for tetracycline
188. Which of the following acts as inducer for the expression
of Lac operon? (2) transformed colonies remain sensitive for
ampicillin
(1) Glucose
(3) transformant recombinant colonies remain
(2) Galactose resistant for both tetracycline and ampicillin
(3) Lactose (4) proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid
are not form
(4) Lactose and galactose
20
 NEET MOCK TEST-1
194. To control cotton boll worm, the following gene of Bt is 198. Select the correct statement w.r.t
selected Nucleopolyherdovirus.
(1) cry IAb (1) Shows broad spectrum insecticidal applications.
(2) cry IIAc
(2) Shows negative impact on mammals, birds, fish
(3) cry IIAb and plants.

(4) cry IIAA (3) Fatal impact even on non-target insects.

195. RNA interference is used for which of the following (4) Excellent candidate for species-specific
purposes in the field of biotechnology? applications.
(1) To reduce post harvest losses
199. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus
(2) To develop a plant tolerant to abiotic stresses cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-
D). Identify the blanks.
(3) To develop a pest resistant plant against
infestation by nematode

(4) To enhance the mineral usage by the plant

196. Use of bio-resources by multinational companies and

other organisations, without proper authorisation from
countries and people concerned, without
compensatory payment, is

(1) biopatent

(2) bioprospecting

(3) biopiracy
A B C D
(4) resource partitioning
(1) Rock Detritus Litter fall Producers
197. Match column I with column II. minerals

Column I Column II (2) Litter fall Producers Rock Detritus

minerals
(a) Sonalika (i) Better yielding semi-
dwarf variety of rice (3) Detritus Rock Producers Litter fall
minerals
(b) Parbhani kranti (ii) Wheat having high
(4) Producers Litter fall Rock Detritus
protein content
minerals
(c) Ratna (iii) High yielding variety
200. Prothallus of a pteridophyte is
of wheat
(1) multicellular vascular gametophyte
(d) Atlas 66 (iv) Resistance to yellow
mosaic virus in (2) multicellular non vascular sporophyte
bhindi
(3) autotrophic, non-vascular gametophyte which
(a) (b) (c) (d) bears sporangia
(1) ii iv i iii (4) multicellular non-vascular gametophyte which
(2) iii iv i ii bears sex organs

(3) iii i iv ii

(4) iii ii i iv
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