Aircraft General Knowledge PPL

1. Uri a modern light aircraft with a cantilever wing the weight is supported by;

a) the metal skin.

b) internal wire bracing.
c) the ribs.
d) one or more deep spars.

2. The component parts of the wing shown in the diagram are:

A B C
a) Primary Spar Ribs Stringer
b) Front Spar Secondary Spar Ribs
c) Front Spar Ribs Rear Spar
d) Stringers Secondary Spar Ribs

3. The 'Ply Rating' of a tyre;

a) indicates the number of rayon or nylon cords.

b) shows how many breaker strips are embedded in the tyre.
c) has nothing to do with the strength of the tyre.
d) is an index of the strength of the tyre.

4. On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel, steering on the ground
is normally effected by;

a) cables operated from the aileron control wheel.

b) use of the differential braking technique, only.
c) hydraulic jacks which allow self-centring.
d) control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals.

5. The type of gas which is stored in the activating cylinder of a life jacket;

a) is extremely toxic and great care should be taken, when topping up the lifejacket, not to
breathe any of it in.
b) is Carbon Dioxide.
c) is highly inflammable.
d) is Carbon Monoxide.

6. On the trailing edge of control surfaces, usually one of the ailerons, of some light
aircraft there is a small fixed metal tab. The purpose of this is;

a) to discharge static electricity.

b) a label for manufacturer's reference number.
c) to allow a licensed engine to adjust lateral trim on the ground.
d) to allow the pilot to adjust lateral trim on the ground to compensate for a load change.

7. The principal reason why light training aircraft have fixed undercarriages is that:

a) training aircraft need to manoeuvre on the ground.

b) training aircraft need to ensure that kinetic energy on landing is absorbed.
c) training aircraft need to be supported at a convenient height.
d) the reduced performance caused by the additional drag of a fixed undercarriage is offset by its
simplicity, low cost and easy maintenance.

8. Tyre creep may be identified by;

a) two yellow diametrically opposed arrows painted on the tyre sidewalls.

b) a tyre pressure check.
c) alignment marks painted on the tyre sidewall and wheel flange.
d) two white blocks painted on the wheel flange.

9. Most nose wheels on modern light aircraft are:

a) oleo pneumatic shock-absorber struts.

b) spring steel struts.
c) spring coil struts.
d) compressed rubber struts.

10. Aquaplaning speed;

a) increases as the depth of tread on the tyres reduces.

b) increases as the depth of water on the ground increases.
c) can be calculated, in knots, by multiplying the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI by nine.
d) is measured in miles per hour.

11. A flying control lock;

a) will constrain the control column to its design limits so as not to overstress the airframe during
normal operations.
b) must always be used when flying in gusty conditions.
c) is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in high wind conditions.
d) is only necessary on the elevators.

12. If a fire occurs in a wheel and tyre assembly, and immediate action is required to
extinguish it, the safest extinguishant to use is;

a) dry powder.
b) carbon dioxide (C02).
c) bromotrifluoromethane (BTF).
d) water acid.

13. Awl vents in an aircraft tyre:

a) prevent damage to the tyre which might be caused at high altitude because of pressure
trapped between the tyre plies.
b) enable tyre creep to be detected.
c) assist in balancing the wheel assembly.
d) prevent tyre slippage.
14. Tyre creep;

a) can be prevented by painting lines on the tyre and wheel.

b) refers to the movement of an aircraft against the brakes.
c) can be recognised by the misalignment of markings painted on the tyre and the wheel.
d) can be prevented with glue.

15. The undercarriage legs of many light aircraft, particularly the nose leg, are sprung and
damped using compressed air and oil. This type of structure is known as;

a) an oleo.
b) a hydraulic jack.
c) a pneumatic strut.
d) a seruodyne.

16. Water-based fire extinguishers are most suitable for use on:

a) combustible metals and fuel.

b) electrical equipment and paper.
c) paper and furnishing fabrics.
d) wheel and brake fires.

17. ABCF fire extinguisher;

a) gives off highly toxic fumes and should never be used in an enclosed cockpit.
b) is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit.
c) is only suitable for wood or fabric fires and is, therefore, of no use in a cockpit.
d) is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit if the cockpit is subsequently ventilated.

18. It is good practice, when flying over large areas of water, that life jackets;

a) should be carried under the pilots' seats.

b) are worn, uninflated.
c) should be inspected periodically for leaks.
d) are worn inflated.

19. A true 'monocoque' structure:

a) would have bulkheads set in place to separate the different sections of the aircraft.
b) would have a framework consisting of light gauge steel tubes welded together.
c) is sometimes referred to as 'Strained Skin' construction.
d) would have no apertures at all.

20. Semi-monocoque can be defined as;

a) a stressed skin with supported apertures containing an internal structure framework.

b) a framework of light-gauge steel tubes welded together to form a space frame of triangular
shape.
c) a structure with no apertures at all.
d) an apertureless structure with load bearing formers being supported by stringers and
longerons over a stressed skin.

21. What kind of flaps increase the wing area as well as the camber?

a) Slotted flaps.
b) Split flaps.
c) Kruger flaps.
d) Fowler flaps.
22. What major advantage has semi-monocoque structure over monocoque structure?

a) It is lighter
b) Easier to assambe
c) Withstands greater flight loads
d) Better strength to weight ratio

23. The empennage normally consists of a horizontal surface, a vertical fin,a rudder and an
elevator. Which part provides directional stability?

a) The horizontal surface,

b) The elevator,
c) The rudder
d) The vertical fin

24. From which type of flight control is movement around the vertical axis controlled?

a) The aileron
b) The rudder
c) The elevator
d) Altimeter

25. Before beginning the refueling operation, which precaution should be taken to protect
against an electrical potential difference between the aircraft and fuel truck?

a) Connect a static bounding wire between the fuelling truck and the ground,
b) Connect a static bounding wire between the fuelling truck and the aircraft,
c) Connect a static bounding wire between the aircraft and the ground,
d) Shut down all electrical equipment in the aircraft,

26. To calculate Calibrated Air Speed from Indicated Air Speed, account must be taken of:

a) instrument error.
b) position error.
c) temperature error.
d) instrument and position error.

27. Complete the following sentence to give the most correct statement. At constant air
temperature and volume, if its pressure is increased:

a) its density will decrease.

b) its density will be unaffected because the volume remains constant.
c) its density will be unaffected because the temperature remains constant.
d) its density will increase.

28. Which of the options below completes the most accurate statement concerning aircraft
instruments powered by either an electrically-driven or ground-driven gyro? The
following aircraft instruments are driven by gyro:

a) Turn Coordinator and Artificial Horizon only

b) Artificial Horizon, Vertical Speed Indicator and ASI.
c) Direction Indicator, Artificial Horizon. Turn Indicator only.
d) Turn Coordinator, Artificial Horizon, Turn Indicator, Direction Indicator and Radio Magnetic
Indicator.
29. What will be the effect on air density of a reduction in air pressure while humidity and
temperature remain constant?

a) The air density will decrease.

b) The air density will increase.
c) The air density will remain unchanged.
d) The density of the air is independent of pressure at constant volume.

30. The air pressure that acts on anything immersed in it:

a) is also known as Dynamic Pressure.

b) is also known as Static Pressure.
c) is greater at altitude than at sea level.
d) is also known as Total Pressure.

31. A magnetic heading:

a) is the sum of the compass heading, compass deviation and variation.

b) is not affected by turning errors.
c) is always referenced to True North.
d) is the sum of the compass heading and compass deviation.

32. If, on a given day, the actual outside air temperature at 4000 ft is 23°C, what is the
pproximate difference between the actual and ISA temperature?

a) 7°C
b) 15°C
c) 8°C
d) 16°C

33. How is the vacuum provided to drive gyroscopic instruments?

a) By an engine driven pump.

b) By the static vent.
c) By the alternate static source.
d) By a vacuum reservoir charged before flight.

34. An altimeter:

a) contains a barometric capsule, connected to a total pressure source, that contracts during a
descent.
b) contains a barometric capsule that expands during a descent.
c) consists of a sealed instrument case connected to a static pressure source. The instrument
case contains a sealed, partially-evacuated aneroid capsule which contracts during a
descent.
d) contains a partially evacuated capsule that expands during a descent.

35. The gyro in an artificial horizon is:

a) an earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's lateral axis.
b) an earth gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis.
c) an earth gyro rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis.
d) a tied gyro rotating in a horizontal plane about the aircraft's longitudinal axis.

36. If, while an aircraft is descending, the static vent leading to the Vertical Speed Indicator
becomes blocked, the indicator will:
a) continue to show the same reading.
b) indicate a climb.
c) indicate a descent.
d) show a zero reading, after a short delay.
37. A Direction Indicator (Dl) may be aligned with the magnetic compass:

a) when the wings are level and the aircraft is in either accelerated or un-accelerated flight.
b) periodically, to offset the affect of acceleration during a turn.
c) to eliminate the effect of liquid swirl.
d) by using the caging knob to rotate the Dl azimuth card when the aircraft's wings are level and
the aircraft is in un-accelerated flight.

38. If, during descent, the static sources to the airspeed indicator and altimeter become
blocked by ice:

a) the airspeed indicator will over-read and the altimeter will under-read.
b) the airspeed indicator will under-read and the altimeter will over-read.
c) both instruments will over-read.
d) both instruments will under-read.

39. The purpose of the compass deviation card fixed next to an aircraft's magnetic
compass is to:

a) compensate for the influence of magnetic material carried on the person of the pilot and/or
passengers.
b) indicate the discrepancy between the heading shown on the compass and the actual magnetic
heading.
c) indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and magnetic north.
d) indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft's track and true north.

40. When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the following
four options is correct?

a) The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes density to increase.

b) The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
c) The temperature reduction with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
d) The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.

41. A tied gyro:

a) does not suffer from apparent wander (drift) because of rotation of the earth about its axis,
b) has its axis in the vertical or pitching plane of the aircraft.
c) has its axis in the horizontal or yawing plane of the aircraft.
d) cannot be used in a Direction Indicator because of the apparent wander caused by the
rotation of the earth about its axis.

42. Magnetic compasses suffer from a problem called "dip", which is:

a) the tendency of the needle to tilt during turns.

b) the deviation which cannot be eliminated by a compass swing.
c) is caused by the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field present at high latitudes.
d) is caused by the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field present at all latitudes.

43. The Direction Indicator must be aligned with the magnetic compass at a suitable point
before take off because:

a) the gyro will only just have reached its correct speed at this point.
b) the magnetic variation may have changed since start up.
c) it has no means of detecting magnetic north
d) the runway in use may have been changed.
44. Assuming that the pressure at sea level is ISA, but the temperature is 10°C higher than
ISA, the density will be:

a) as per ISA.
b) greater than ISA.
c) less than ISA.
d) unaffected.

45. Ignoring any Instrument or Position Errors, in what conditions will the Air Speed
Indicator indicate the True Airspeed of an aircraft?

a) In ISA, sea-level conditions only.

b) At any altitude or temperature.
c) At any altitude, provided that the temperature lapse rate is in accordance with ISA.
d) At any altitude, but only when ISA conditions prevail.

46. Density:

a) reduces with altitude increase.

b) is unaffected by temperature change.
c) increases with altitude increase.
d) reduces with temperature reduction.

47. A gyro driven directional indicator has to be re-aligned periodically with the magnetic
compass because of:

a) mechanical drift.
b) apparent drift.
c) transport error.
d) all of the above..

48. When referring to the magnetic compass in the Northern Hemisphere, pilots must bear
in mind that:

a) turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South, and minimum when
turning through East and West.
b) turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West, and minimum when turning
through North and South.
c) turning errors increase, the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Equator, and diminish as the
aircraft approaches the Magnetic Poles.
d) acceleration errors increase the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Poles, and diminish as
the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Equator.

49. The rigidity in space of a gyro:

a) keeps its axis pointing in a fixed direction in space unless it is acted on by an external force.
b) is decreased by manufacturing the rotor from brass.
c) is maximum at the magnetic equator.
d) is minimum at the magnetic equator.
50. The principle of operation of the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) is that it:

a) compares static pressure in a capsule, sensed through a direct static vent, with that in the
instrument's case, sensed though a metered vent. The VSI is, thus, able to detect the rate of
change of static pressure with height.
b) compares total pressure from the pitot tube with static pressure from the static vents. The VSI
is calibrated to show the difference between the two as a vertical speed in feet per minute.
c) compares dynamic pressure from the pitot tube with static pressure from the static vents. The
VSI is calibrated to show the difference between the two as a vertical speed in feet per minute
or metres per second.
d) senses total pressure only, from the pitot tube, and converts the change in total pressure with
height into a rate of climb or descent, measured either in feet per minute or metres per
second.

51. During the complete cycle the crankshaft revolves

a) Four times
b) Twice
c) Once
d) A number of times depending on the number of cylinders

52. A wet sump lubrication system, the oil is normally stored in:

a) A separate tank
b) The engine sump
c) The engine sump and a separate tank
d) The engine lubricating gallery

53. The coolant temperature of a liquid cooled engine is controlled by

a) Cowling
b) Oil cooler shutters
c) Thermostat
d) Radiator

54. At low engine RPM and power settings, the:

a) Ignition should be advanced

b) Mixture should be rich
c) Priming pump should be switched on
d) CHT will be normally very high

55. The firing order of a 4 cylinder In-line engine is;

a) 1.2.4.3
b) 1.5.3.6.2.4
c) 3.1.4.2
d) 4.5.2.6.3.1
56. During a prolonged climb, you notice that the engine oil pressure is reducing and the
oil temperature rising. You discount any failure of the lubrication system. What, then, is
the most probable cause and remedy?

a) You are climbing at too high an airspeed causing overcooling of the lubrication system, thus
increasing oil viscosity. You reduce power and reduce airspeed.
b) The low airspeed and high engine speed associated with the climb are reducing cooling of the
lubrication system, thus lowering oil viscosity. You reduce power and increase airspeed.
c) You are climbing at too high an airspeed causing overcooling of the lubrication system, thus
lowering oil viscosity. You increase power but reduce airspeed.
d) The low airspeed and high engine speed associated with the climb are reducing cooling of the
lubrication system, thus increasing oil viscosity. You increase power and reduce airspeed.

57. The most probable cause of the needle of the oil pressure gauge fluctuating when the
aircraft is in level flight with the engine running at cruise RPM is;

a) a low oil supply.

b) the presence of air in the oil tank.
c) a loose electrical connection.
d) the low power setting.

58. If the engine gets too hot, the mixture may ignite before the spark plug fires.

a) This is called detonation.

b) The mixture should be weakened to assist in cooling the engine.
c) The throttle should be opened to assist in cooling the engine.
d) This is called pre-ignition.

59. The power output of a four-stroke piston engine at sea level:

a) is proportional to the volume of mixture induced into the cylinder.

b) is constant as RPM increases.
c) increases initially, then remains constant as RPM increases.
d) increases as RPM increases.

60. Airflow through the venturi of a carburettor causes a;

a) rise in pressure and a drop in velocity at the narrowest point.

b) drop in pressure and a rise in temperature at the narrowest point.
c) drop in pressure and a rise in velocity at the narrowest point.
d) drop in pressure and a drop in velocity at the narrowest point.

61. A propeller blade is twisted from root to tip:

a) to provide maximum thrust at the root.

b) to provide maximum thrust at the tip.
c) because the local angle of attack of the segment is dependent on segment movement in the
plane of rotation and the aircraft true air speed.
d) because the local angle of attack of the segment is dependent on segment movement in the
plane of rotation and the segment velocity.

62. Within one "Otto" cycle, the valves of a four stroke piston engine will each open:

a) once.
b) twice.
c) during the power stroke.
d) during the induction stroke.
63. In the engine fuel system, what is the relationship between the ambient pressure in the
float chamber of a carburettor and the static pressure in a carburettor's venturi?

a) The static pressure in the venturi will be greater than the ambient pressure in the float
chamber.
b) There is no difference, because the terms ambient and static pressure have the same
meaning.
c) The static pressure in the venturi will be lower than the ambient pressure in the float chamber.
d) Both pressures are equal.

64. Complete the following sentence by choosing the most correct of the four options to
make an accurate statement. In a dry sump lubricating system;

a) oil pressure gauges are unnecessary.

b) the oil is stored in the sump itself.
c) a scavenge pump returns the oil from the sump to a separate oil storage tank.
d) a separate oil storage tank is not required.

65. Engine compression ratio is the ratio of the;

a) total volume to the clearance volume.

b) clearance volume to the swept volume.
c) swept volume to the total volume.
d) swept volume to the clearance volume.

66. The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is;

a) higher maximum thrust available.

b) higher maximum efficiency.
c) more blade surface area available.
d) nearly maximum efficiency over wide speed range.

67. Detonation could result from using;

a) too weak a mixture.

b) too low a manifold pressure.
c) a higher grade fuel than recommended.
d) too high an RPM.

68. A propeller blade is twisted along its length in order to;

a) give a progressively increasing blade angle from root to tip.

b) give a progressively increasing pitch from root to tip.
c) compensate for the decreasing linear speed of the blade from root to tip.
d) maintain the optimal Angle of Attack from root to tip.

69. Pre-ignition:

a) is also known as pinking.

b) occurs after ignition.
c) is usually caused by a hot spot in the combustion chamber.
d) happens after the spark occurs at the plug.
 70. Aircraft piston engines are fitted with two independent ignition systems;

a) to assist in engine starting.

b) one is used and the other is a back-up.
c) for safety.
d) for efficient combustion and safety.

71. Baffles:

a) are placed within the lubrication system to slow down the passage of oil into the engine.
b) reduce the flow of air around the engine.
c) are directional air guides which direct the airflow fully around the cylinder.
d) must be close fitting to reduce the flow of air around the engine.

72. To achieve the correct value timing in a piston engine, the values are opened by a
camshaft running at;

a) twice crankshaft speed.

b) engine speed.
c) twice engine speed.
d) half crankshaft speed.

73. The primary object of lubrication is to:

a) To help seal the cylinder

b) Reduce friction to eliminate engine failure
c) Cool the engine
d) Increase power

74. When the pilot moves the mixture level of a piston engine towards a lean position, the

a) Amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced

b) Volume of air entering the carburetor is reduced
c) Amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased
d) Volume of the air entering the carburetor is increased

75. When the carburetor air intake is in “hot air”, the power output of the engine is reduced
because:

a) The mixture has a lower density

b) The mixture has a higher density
c) The air pressure in the induction manifold is increased
d) The mixture is weaker

Air Law PPL

1. A person shall not recklessly or negligently act in a manner likely to endanger an
aircraft or any person therein. To whom does this apply?
a) Only to airline crew.
b) Only to cabin staff.
c) Only to the pilot in command.
d) To every person.

2. The navigation lights of a flying machine or airship should cover the following arcs,
green and red wingtip-lights______degrees each side from dead ahead and the white
tail-light ______degrees either side of dead astern.
a] 220 140
b) 110 70
c) 100 90
d) 90 90

3. With a VMC clearance, responsibility for maintaining flight conditions, safe

separation from other aircraft and terrain clearance rests with:
a) the ATC controller who gave the clearance.
b) the radar controller.
c) the pilot in command.
d) the approach controller.

4. Which of the following groups correctly identifies items not normally subject to
customs and excise duty when the aircraft of one ICAO contracting state lands in
another contracting state?
a) Tobaccos, wines and spirits.
b) Fuel, lubricants and oils, only.
c) Fuel, lubricants and oils, only, which are remaining on board the aircraft.
d) Fuel, lubricants, oils, spare parts (technical consumables) and standard equipment
remaining on board the aircraft.

5. The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over
another state shall be:
a) those of the state of the visiting aircraft.
b) those agreed by ICAO contracting states to apply in all contracting states.
c) those of the state whose airspace is entered and transited.
d) those stipulated by JAA operational procedures.

6. For the purposes of the Chicago Convention of 1944, the airspace above the territory
of a State shall be deemed to be under that State’s ___
a) Control.
b) Jurisdiction.
c) Regulation.
d) Sovereignty.

7. In level flight at night, from your aircraft, you see an anti-collision beacon and a red
navigation light. The lights are at the same altitude as yourself and are steady. This
indicates:
a) an airship which should give way to you.
b) a flying machine which should give way to you.
c) a flying machine to which you should give way.
d) no threat.

8. No aircraft or personnel who have endorsed certificates or licences may participate in

international navigation:
a) under any circumstances.
b) except when a general exemption has been awarded by any ICAO contracting state.
c) except with the permission of the State whose territory is entered.
d) except when a general exemption has been awarded by the State in which the aircraft is
registered or which issued the licence.
9. Which classes of medical certificate meet the requirement for a JAA PPL (A)?
a) Class 1 or 2.
b) Class A or B.
c) Class 2 or 3.
d) Class B or C.

10. The Freedoms of the Air permit transit of the airspace of contracting States by:
a) scheduled commercial flights only.
b) both scheduled and non-scheduled commercial flights.
c) non-commercial, non-scheduled flights only.
d) non-commercial, scheduled flights only.

11. When flying beneath a Terminal Manoeuvring Area, the subscale of the altimeter
should be set to:
a) the Regional Pressure Setting.
b) the lower of the RPS and the QNH of an airfield situated within the TMA.
c) the QNH of an airfield situated within the TMA.
d) the Standard Pressure Setting.

12. Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, if a contracting state issues a Certificate
of Airworthiness (C of A) in accordance with ICAO requirements and standards:
a) the C of A will be recognized as valid by another contracting state.
b) the C of A nevertheless remains valid only in the state of issue.
c) the C of A will be recognized as valid by another contracting state only if accompanied by
a translation of the C of A into that state’s principal language.
d) the C of A will be recognized as valid by another contracting state except for JAA member
states.

13. Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an

ICAO member state?
a) Certificate of Registration.
b) Certificate of Airworthiness.
c) Flight crew licences.
d) Flight crew birth certificates.

14. If two aircraft are approaching head on:

a) both aircraft should turn left.
b) the smaller aircraft should give way, by turning right.
c) both aircraft should turn right.
d) the larger aircraft should give way by turning right.

15. An aircraft flying over a congested area of a city, town or settlement shall not fly
below:
a) the MSA.
b) a height of 1500 feet above the highest obstacle within 600 metres of the aircraft.
c) a height of 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 600 metres of the aircraft.
d) a height of 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within 600 metres of the aircraft.

16. What is the basic assumption about VFR flight?

a) That the pilot holds the correct rating to allow the aeroplane to be flown in VFR.
b) That the flight will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditions.
c) That the flight will only take place in class G airspace.
d) That the flight will not take place above FL180.

17. The height above airfield level of the lowest part of the cloud obscuring more than
half the sky.
a) Cloud base.
b) The overcast.
c) Cloud ceiling.
d) Cloud tops.

18. As you are taxiing back to the apron you encounter a vehicle towing an aircraft.
Your correct course of action is:
a) stop.
b) continue because you have right of way.
c) turn right.
d) give way to the vehicle/aircraft combine; it has the right of way.

19. If you see another aircraft and you have the right of way, you should maintain;
a) heading and height.
b) course and speed.
c) level, course and speed,
d) heading and speed.

20. When may you fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement at a height
from which it would not be possible to land safely in the event of an emergency arising?
a) Never.
b) Only to keep clear of cloud and remain in visual contact with the ground.
c) Only when necessary for take off and landing.
d) Only where the operator has given permission.

21. When are navigation lights required to be shown?

a) When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.
b) From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority.
c) Whenever the pilot in command thinks it is sensible to switch them on
d) At night or when specified by the authority.

22. When two or more aircrafts are on final approach:

a) the higher aircraft has the right of way.
b) the lower aircraft has the right of way.
c) the lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order.
d) the aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the runway threshold has the
right of way.

23. In order to minimise the risk of collision the following rules apply when aircraft of
different categories are converging:
a) powered aeroplanes must give way to airships, gliders and balloons.
b) gliders must give way to powered aeroplanes and airships.
c) airships must give way to powered aeroplanes, gliders and balloons.
d) towing aircraft with a glider on tow must give way to all other airspace users.
24. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has
the other on its right is required to give way. True or false?
a) True, provided they are in the same class.
b) False. The one that has the other on its left has right of way.
c) True, unless the other aircraft has a glider on tow.
d) False, provided the other aircraft is not towing anything.

25. In order to minimise the risk of collision the following rules apply when aircraft of
different categories are converging:
a) aeroplanes must give way to helicopters and airships.
b) gliders must give way to powered aeroplanes and airships.
c) aeroplanes and helicopters must give way to towing aircraft with a glider on tow.
d) aeroplanes give way to helicopters and towing aircraft with a glider on tow.

26. A Control Area (CTA) established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of
one or more major aerodromes is known as:
a) an Airway.
b) a Control Zone (CTR).
c) a Terminal Control Area (TMA).
d) an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ).

27. Which of the following definitions most correctly defines a Control Zone?
a) A portion of airspace around an aerodrome between ground level and a specified altitude or
flight level where an ATC service is provided to IFR and some VFR traffic.
b) An area around one or more aerodromes where a common approach control is applied.
c) A zone of defined radius centred upon the longest runway of an aerodrome extending up to
2000 ft.
d) A danger, prohibited or restricted area.

28. What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?

a)7777
b)7000
c) 7700
d)7600

29. What services are available, in normal circumstances, to VFR flights within the
Class G airspace?
a) Air Traffic Control Service.
b) A Flight Information Service and, if the pilot has filed a Flight Plan, or if an ATSU is
otherwise aware of the flight, an Alerting Service.
c) Radar vectors to the ILS.
d) A Precision Approach Procedure.

30. What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency?

a) 123.45 MHz
b) 121.50 MHz
c) 243.00 MHz
d) 406.00 MHz
31. The primary aims of Air Traffic Services are to:
a) maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
b) prevent collisions, on the ground and in flight.
c) provide information and advice for the efficient and safe conduct of flights and to assist
aircraft in need of search and rescue facilities.
d) all of the above at a, b and c.

32. A large white T placed in an airfield signal square means:

a) land on the hard runway only.
b) landing must be carried out in a direction parallel to the shaft of the T and towards the
crossbar.
c) landing must be carried out in a direction parallel to the shaft of the T and away from the
crossbar.
d) landing must be carried out parallel to the crossbar of the T from a right hand circuit.

33. The area of an airport used specifically for the embarkation and disembarkation of
passengers and cargo, aircraft fuelling, line maintenance and short term parking is
a) the manoeuvring area.
b) the marshalling area.
c) the apron.
d) the maintenance area.

34. What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground?
a) Return to the apron.
b) Move clear of the landing area.
c) Clear to take off.
d) Clear to move or taxy on the landing area.

35. Runway stop end lights should be fixed, unidirectional and:

a) white.
b) green.
c) red.
d) amber.

36. What is the meaning of a flashing red light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?
a) Return to this airfield.
b) Do not land. Continue orbiting and await a green light signal.
c) Do not land at this airfield. The airfield is unavailable for landing.
d) An aircraft below you has priority to land.

37. What is the meaning of a steady red light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground?
a) Return to the apron.
b) Move clear of the landing area.
c) Give priority to the aircraft ahead of you.
d) Stop.

38. Visual signals on an airfield are displayed:

a) adjacent to the main runway.
b) in the centre of the aerodrome.
c) by the runway threshold.
d) in a signals square close to the ATC tower.

39. Fixed signs on an aerodrome whose indication is mandatory for pilots have the
following common characteristic:
a) they have black inscriptions on a yellow background.
b) they have white inscriptions on a red background.
c) they have white inscriptions on a blue background.
d) they have black inscriptions on a white background.

40. What is the purpose of the aiming point marking?

a) To show where the instrument and visual glide paths coincide.
b) To make the optimum touchdown point easier to see in poor visibility.
c) To define a safe landing area on a runway.
d) It is an alternative method of indicating a displaced threshold.

41. What is the meaning of a flashing red light from ATC to an aircraft on the ground?
a) Hold your position.
b) Refuelling now available.
c) Return to the apron.
d) Move clear of the landing area,

42. What colour are runway markings?

a) Red
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) White

43. An aircraft taxiing on an aerodrome manoeuvring area must give way to:
a) motor vehicles.
b) pedestrians.
c) refuelling vehicles only.
d) a vehicle towing an aircraft.

44. What colour are paved taxiway markings?

a) Red
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) White

45. You are on final approach and you see a steady red
a) continue approach and wait a green light.
b) do not land. Airfield closed.
c) do not land. Give way. Continue circling.
d) do not land. Divert to your alternate airfield.
46. What is the meaning of a flashing white light from ATC to an aircraft on the
ground?
a) Return to starting point on the aerodrome.
b) Move clear of the landing area.
c) Give priority to the aircraft ahead of you.
d) Stop.
47. Fixed unidirectional runway threshold lights are:
a) white.
b) green.
c) red.
d) amber.

48. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above
mean sea level, when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale?
a) Elevation
b) Height
c) Altitude
d) Flight Level

49. An aeroplane has a maximum take off mass of 136,000 kg. What is its wake
turbulence category?
a) Medium.
b) Heavy.
c) A wide bodied aeroplane would be Heavy; a narrow bodied would be Medium.
d) It depends on the actual take off mass not the maximum take off mass.

50. What is the definition of transition altitude ?

a) The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as a Flight
Level.
b) The altitude at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as altitude .
c) The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as height .
d) The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as altitude

51. What is the definition of transition level?

a) The Flight Level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as height.
b) The transition altitude expressed as a Flight Level.
c) The lowest available Flight Level above the transition altitude.
d) The Flight Level at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as
altitude.

52. A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircraft. What is
the minimum separation required?
a) 2 minutes
b) 4 minutes
c) 3 minutes
d) 5 minutes

53. A pilot intending to land at a civil aerodrome should initiate his descent below
transition level with the altimeter subscale set to:
a) aerodrome QNH.
b) aerodrome QFE.
c) regional QNH.
d) 1013 Millibars.
54. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an
airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale?
a) Elevation.
b) Height.
c) Altitude.
d) Flight Level.

55. If an ATC clearance is not suitable for the planned flight the pilot should:
a) try to obtain an amended clearance.
b) comply with the clearance because ATC have a greater knowledge of the overall situation.
c) proceed in a manner which he considers safe.
d) abandon the flight immediately.

56. What is the meaning of State of Registry as far as an aircraft is concerned?

a) The state which issued the licence and type rating to pilots entitled to fly the aircraft.
b) The state which issued the current Certificate of Airworthiness.
c) The state in which is situated the company which constructed the aircraft and which
compiled the operating manual.
d) The state in which an aircraft is currently registered and where that aircraft’s details,
including details of its ownership, are entered on the state’s register.

57. Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness?

a) The JAA.
b) The authority of the state of registration.
c) ICAO.
d) The operator.

58. Where must the Certificate of Registration for an aircraft be

a) In the registered office of the owner.
b) By the authority of the State of registration.
c) On the ground at the point of departure.
d) In the aircraft.

59. If a pilot holding a medical certificate issued under the authority of JAR-FCL
receives an injury or is suffering from a medical condition which affects his ability to act
as the crew member of an aircraft:
a) the medical certificate ceases to be valid.
b) the medical certificate will be suspended after 25 days following the date of the injury or
onset of the illness unless the pilot has again been declared fit.
c) the medical certificate will be suspended if the illness or injury has been reported to the
authority.
d) the medical certificate will remain valid.

60. Following a 21 day period of being medically unfit to fly, a PPL holder may resume
flying as a pilot:
a) without a formal check being carried out.
b) provided that the Authority has been informed.
c) provided that the Authority has been informed in writing and the pilot has been re-
examined and certified medically fit.
d) after seeing an AME.
61. If you have an illness that prevents you flying, at what point are you re appropriate
authority?
a) Immediately.
b) On the 21st day of the illness.
c) On the 20th day of the illness.
d) It is not necessary to report it to anybody but your AME.

62. A JAA PPL licence is valid for:

a) five years.
b) one year.
c) three years.
d) for life.

63. Who is responsible for ensuring that all relevant aircraft documentation is carried
on an international flight?
a) The organisation hiring out the aircraft.
b) The air traffic organisation to whom the flight plan is submitted.
c) The flying supervisor at the airfield of departure.
d) The pilot in command.

64. When a Single Engine Piston (Land) rating is revalidated it is valid for:
a) life.
b) 12 months from the date of the revalidation.
c) 24 months from the date of the revalidation.
d) 24 months from the upcoming expiry date.

65. How long is a JAAPPL (A) issued for?

a) 3 years.
b) 5 years.
c) 10 years.
d) 8 years.

66. Take Off Distance Available is:

a) take Off Run Available plus Clearway, if available.
b) take Off Run Available x 1.33
c) take Off Run Available plus Emergency Distance Available.
d) take Off Run Available x 1.43

67. If_______is set on the subscale of an altimeter, it will indicate altitude,

a)QFF
b)QFE
c)QNH
d) 1013.2 mb
68. If_______is set on the subscale of an altimeter, it will indicate flight levels
a) QFF
b)QFE
c)QNH
d) 1013.2 hPa

69. If_______is set on the subscale of an altimeter, it will indicate height.

a)QFF
b) QFE
c) QNH
d) 1013.2 mb

70. To indicate that assistance is required, survivors would use which of the following
signals from the Ground to Air Emergency Code?
a) X
b) V
c) -»
d) R

71. Which of the following is not an SAR ground to air signal'

a)V
b)N
c)R
d)Y

72. The correct transponder code for radio failure is:

a)7700
b)7600
c) 7500
d)7000

73. The definition of 'Distress' is:

a) the aircraft has an urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of persons on board or
within sight.
b) the aircraft has an immediate message to transmit concerning the safety of persons on
board or within sight.
c) the aircraft is in immediate and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.
d) a crew member is distressed and requires medical assistance.

74. If a pilot judges that his aircraft is in imminent danger, his message should begin
with the words:
a) Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan.
b) Either Pan Pan, Pan Pan, Pan Pan or Mayday, Mayday, Mayday.
c) Mayday, Mayday, Mayday.
d) Emergency, Emergency, Emergency.
75. Which one of the following statements is false?
An accident must be reported if, between the time that anyone boards an aircraft to go flying
and until everyone has left it:
a) anyone is killed or seriously injured while in or on the aircraft.
b) the aircraft incurs damage or structural failure.
c) the aircraft is completely inaccessible or missing.
d) a passenger dies from natural causes.

COMMUNICATION PPL QUESTIONS

1. In any exchange of RT calls certain words may be omitted provided there is no possibility
of confusion or ambiguity. Choose the option below which contains only those words
which may be omitted.

a) WILCO; AFFIRM; OUT.

b) ROGER; WILCO; NEGATIVE.
c) OVER; OUT; ROGER.
d) OUT; CHANGING TO; CLEARED.

2. If a controller passes an instruction and you understand it and will comply, the standard
reply is:

a) Verify
b) Roger
c) Confirm
d) Wilco

3. A time of 1300 UTC is transmitted as:

a) one thousand three hundred.

b) one three zero zero.
c) one three hundred UTC.
d) thirteen hundred UTC.

4. The correct abbreviation for the callsign G-ABCD is;

a) CHARLIE DELTA.
b) G-ALPHA BRAVO.
c) GOLF CHARLIE DELTA.
d) GOLF ALPHA DELTA.

5. A pilot is required to read back;

a) SSR operating instructions, take off clearances, altimeter settings, VDF information, frequency
changes.
b) altimeter settings, taxy information, terminal weather, runway clearances, approach aid.
c) serviceability
d) route clearances, speed instructions, weather reports, taxy clearances, runway state
information. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, conditional clearances, actual weather
reports.

6. How do you ask for a message to be repeated?

a) Please say the message again.

b) Say again.
c) Repeat message.
d) Say all again.
7. The meaning of WILCO is;

a) I heard your message.

b) I will try to comply with your instructions.
c) I have understood your message and will comply.
d) I only heard part of your message.

8. The point to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance is the;

a) limit point.
b) clearance limit.
c) no go point.
d) point of No Return.

9. The time 1020 hours, transmitted at 0930 hours, would be transmitted as:

a) ten twenty hours.

b) 'one zero two zero'.
c) 'two zero'.
d) ten two zero.

10. Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full;

a) level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information.

b) clearance to enter, land on, take off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway;
speed instructions, SSR instructions.
c) VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service, serviceability of approach aid.
d) ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.

11. An altitude of 1500 feet is transmitted as;

a) fifteen hundred feet.

b) wun tousand fife hundred feet.
c) wun fife hundred feet.
d) wun fife zero zero feet.

12. VERIFY' means:

a) repeat your last transmission.

b) check and confirm your last message.
c) read backVDF bearing.
d) confirm your last message.

13. The correct pronunciation for the number 3500 when used to pass altitude, height, cloud
height or visibility by radiotelephony is:

a) TREE FIFE ZERO ZERO.

b) TREE TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED.
c) THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.
d) TREE FIFE HUNDRED.

14. You call an ATSU and receive the reply "G-XX Stand-By" you should:

a) acknowledge immediately; "Stand-by G-XX".

b) say nothing, assuming no onward clearance and wait until called.
 c) call the ATSU again after 5 min to obtain a clearance.
d) change frequency.

15. You are flying on a NE heading at 2500 ft. You would report your heading and level as;

a) HEADING 045 ATTOOTOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET.

b) HEADING 045 ATTOO FIFE ZERO ZERO FEET.
c) HEADING 045 AT 25 HUNDRED FEET.
d) FLYING ATTOOTOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET ON HEADING 045.

16. When can you omit the callsign of an aeronautical station?

a) Only when given permission.

b) Never.
c) Only when the station does so first.
d) When there would be no confusion.

17. What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station?

a)QDR
b)QNH
c)QTE
d)QFE

18. How would you correctly reply to the ATC instruction "G-CD, Change to Stephenuille
Tower, 118.7?

a) G-CD, 118.7.
b) Change to Stephenuille Tower 118.7, G-CD.
c) Wilco, G-CD.
d) wun wun eight dayseemal seven, Golf Charlie Delta.

19. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station?

a)QGH
b)QDM
c)QNH
d)QDR

20. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Having established communications with an ATSU, and following the initial reply to "Go
Ahead", you should put your callsign at the end of each of your transmissions during regular two-
way exchanges with the ATSU.
b) When replying to a ground station you put your callsign at the beginning of the message.
c) The position of the callsign depends on the type of air traffic service you are receiving.
d) When speaking to a ground station you put your callsign at the beginning of the message until
the controller tells you to put it at the end.

21. The word 'ROGER' means:

a) that is correct.
b) message received and understood.
c) pass your message.
d) I have received all of your last transmission.

22. Your radio check is reported as 'Readability 3', your transmission is:
 a) unreadable.
b) perfectly readable.
c) reading only half the time.
d) readable but with difficulty.

23. A pilot may abbreviate his aircraft callsign only;

a) when changing frequency.

b) after establishing communication with a ground station.
c) if it has first been abbreviated by the ground station on the frequency in use.
d) when he considers that no confusion is likely to occur.

24. Altitude is defined as;

a) the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from mean
sea level.
b) the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from
another point.
c) the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from an
aircraft.
d) the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from an
airfield.

25. Callsign of ATC for control of aircraft and vehicles on manoeuvring area?

a) TOWER
b) GROUND
c) DISPATCH
d) APRON

26. QDM stands for:

a) magnetic bearing to station

b) magnetic radial form station
c) true bearing to station
d) true bearing from station

27. The Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station is:

a)QTE
b)QUJ
c)QDR
d)QDM

28. The Q code for altitude is:

a)QDR
b)QNH
c)QDM
d)QFE

29. In order to make messages effective you should:

a) speak slower
b) speak at a constant volume
c) use words twice
d) repeat the message

30. READABILITY 5 means:

 a) readable now and then
b) readable
c) unreadable
d) perfectly readable

31. If you wish to say "Wait and I will call you" the correct phrase to use is:

a) HOLD
b) I SAY AGAIN
c) STANDBY
d) GO AHEAD

32. The true bearing from a station is:

a) QDM
b) QUJ
c) QTE
d) QDR

33. When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say:

a) SPEAK SLOWER
b) REPEAT MESSAGE
c) SAY AGAIN
d) WORDS TWICE

34. "WILCO" means

a) I have received all your last transmission

b) I understand your message and will comply with it
c) Premission for proposed action granted
d) That is correct

35. Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to "RECYCLE SQUAWK" is to:

a) reselect the numbers on the control unit

b) set the numbers to 7000
c) press the IDENT button
d) switch to standby and back to ON

36. Readability 3 means that your transmission is:

a) readable but with difficulty

b) readable now and then
c) readable
d) unreadable

37. The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC "X-CD CHANGE
FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7" is:

a) TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD
b) 118.7 X-CD
c) 118.7
d) CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD

38. The name or suffix on the callsign of an aeronautical station may be omitted:

a) never
b) provided that the aircraft is in visual contact with the aerodrome
c) only when first used by the ground station
 d) once satisfactory comms have been established and providing there will be no confusion

39. The phrase to use when you want to say "yes" is:

a) AFFIRMATIVE
b) AFFIRM
c) ROGER
d) WILCO

40. If you are flying an aircraft without a transponder then the reply to an instruction to
SQUAWK should be:

a) NEGATIVE
b) NO SQUAWK
c) NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER
d) SQUAWK NOT POSSIBLE

41. How is the time 9.20 am reported on RT if there is no possibility of confusion about the
hour?

a) ZERO NINE TWO ZERO

b) TWO ZERO
c) NINE TWO ZERO
d) DECIMAL TWO ZERO

42. The abbreviation of an aircraft callsign XY-ABC is:

a) XY-BC
b)BC
c.)ABC
d) X-BC

43. The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be:

a) APRON
b) CLEARANCE
c) TOWER
d) GROUND

44. If you wish to backtrack then your transmission should be:

a) REPORTING BACKTRACK
b) REQUEST BACKTRACK
c) BACKTRACKING
d) REQUEST VACATE RUNWAY

45. The callsign suffix of a station giving flight information is:

a) AFIS
b) CONTROL
c) INFORMATION
d) GROUND

46. The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is:

a) QDR
b) QDM
c) QNH
 d) QTE

47. The correct call to make asking for radio check on the ground is:

a) G-ABCD RADIO CHECK

b) STEPHENVILLE TOWER G-ABCD HOW DO YOU READ 118.7
c) STEPHENVILLE TOWER G-ABCD READABILITY CHECK 118.7
d) STEPHENVILLE TOWER G-ABCD RADIO CHECK 118.7

48. When told "RE-CYCLE SQUAWK 1015" you should:

a) switch on mode C
b) press the IDENT button
c) reselect the digits on the transponder mode A
d) set 1015 on your altimeter

49. The callsign suffix for an aeronautical station supplying only flight information service is:

a) RADAR
b) BROADCASTING
c) INFORMATION
d) CONTROL

50. Report of altitude based on:

a) QDM
b) QFF
c) QNH
d) QFE

51. SQUAWK IDENT means:

a) select the SSR transponder code to 7000.

b) select the SSR transponder mode to 'ALT.
c) say again your callsign.
d) operate the SSR transponder 'Special Position Identification' feature.

52. Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position Report?

a) Call Sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading , Request.
b) Call Sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA.
c) Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.
d) Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Call Sign.

53. A Blind Transmission is:

a) a transmission of information relating to the safety of air navigation that is not addressed to a
specific station or stations.
b) a transmission from an aircraft to obtain VDF guidance to descend from the initial approach
altitude to a position from which an approach can be completed visually.
c) a transmission from an aeronautical station to all aircraft on its frequency.
d) a transmission made in circumstances where two-way communications cannot be established
but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.

54. With the SSR transponder selected ON, the ATC message 'G-ABCD verify your level' would
be made to:

a) identify aircraft position.

 b) check your altimeter setting.
c) check and confirm the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the controller.
d) check with the pilot that Mode C is selected ON.

55. Information regarding traffic on a conflicting path will be given in a particular sequence.
Which of the following sequences is correct:

a) distance from conflicting traffic; level and speed of conflicting traffic; relative bearing in relation
to magnetic north.
b) relative speed of conflicting traffic; relative bearing of conflicting traffic in terms of 12 hour clock;
distance from and direction of flight of conflicting traffic.
c) relative bearing of conflicting traffic in terms of 12 hour clock; distance from and direction of
flight of conflicting traffic; level and type of aircraft of conflicting traffic.
d) direction and relative speed of conflicting traffic; relative bearing of conflicting traffic in relation
to true north; relative distance from conflicting traffic.

56. When flying in VMC an aircraft with communications failure shall continue to fly VMC and:

a) land as soon as possible and report arrival to ATC.

b) land at the nearest suitable airfield and close the flight plan.
c) land at the nearest suitable airfield and report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means.
d) land as soon as possible and report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means.

57. On a long straight-in approach to land, the call 'Long Final' would be made at a range of
about:

a) 2 nm
b) 4nm
c) 8 nm
d) 25 nm

58. Which of the following conditions will NOT affect the radar controller's ability to see an
aircraft:

a) being very close.

b) being very low.
c) being very high.
d) being very far away.

59. Which of the following is NOT a means of establishing radar identification of an aircraft:

a) use of SSR.
b) radar vectors.
c) bearing and distance information.
d) altitude information.

60. The correct RTF call when you are ready to take off is:

a) Roger take off.

b) Request take off.
c) Request departure clearance.
d) Ready for departure.

61. In the event of a radio failure the SSR transponder should be set to:
 a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 7500
d) 7000

62. A conditional clearance should contain:

a) callsign, QNH, the clearance.

b) callsign, runway in use, the clearance.
c) callsign, the condition, the clearance.
d) callsign, airfield weather, the clearance,

63. Taxy instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which will normally
be:

a) the threshold of the runway in use.

b) the holding point of the runway in use.
c) the entrance to the parking area.
d) the holding point of an intermediate runway.

64. The phrase 'take off' is used by a pilot:

a) only to acknowledge take off clearance.

b) never. It is used only by a ground station.
c) only to request immediate clearance.
d) after the aircraft is airborne.

65. Where ATIS is provided an arriving aircraft will acknowledge receipt of the broadcast:

a) when making the overhead call.

b) in the initial call to the airfield.
c) when downwind.
d) any time that is convenient.

66. Under what circumstances would a conditional clearance be used to direct movements on
an active runway?

a) When an aircraft not equipped with a radio is landing or taking off.

b) When air traffic movements are particularly dense, provided it is safe to do so.
c) When all aircraft and/or vehicles included in the clearance can be seen by the controller issuing,
and the pilot receiving, the clearance, and provided that the clearance relates to a single
movement.
d) When vehicles not equipped with radio require to cross the active runway.

67. Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout:

a) Mode Alpha.
b) Mode Bravo.
c) Mode Charlie.
d) Mode Delta.

68. The phrase "Squawk Charlie" means:

a) transponder.
b) select 'ALT' on the transponder.
 c) confirm the transponder is selected ON.
d) select 7700 on the transponder.

69. VACATE RIGHT' means:

a) turn right to leave the runway.

b) clear the runway immediately.
c) the next runway exit is on the right.
d) turn right after take off.

70. If you suspect you have radio failure which of the following series of checks would you do
first?

a) Correct frequency; correct volume; microphone plug; within radio range; check ground station
is open.
b) Correct frequency; correct volume; headset plugs; radio fuse; check ground station is open.
c) Correct frequency, correct squelch setting; headset plugs, radio fuse; check ground station is
open.
d) Correct frequency; correct volume; headset plugs; within radio range; check ground station is
open.

71. Loss of communications is indicated by which transponder code?

a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 7500
d) 7400

72. In a radar environment heading information given by the pilot and heading instructions
given by controllers are in:

a) degrees magnetic.
b) degrees true.
c) degrees Celsius.
d) degrees Absolute.

73. You are at the holding point of the runway in use, have completed all your pre-flight vital
checks and are ready to enter the runway and take off. What RT phraseology would you
use to inform ATC of your readiness?

a) (Callsign) Ready for take off.

b) (Callsign) Ready for line up.
c) (Callsign) Ready to proceed.
d) (Callsign) Ready for departure.

74. You receive the message "G-ABCD Squawk Ident". You should:

a) select STANDBY on the SSR transponder.

b) select ALT- altitude reporting facility (Mode C) on the SSR transponder.
c) operate the special position identification on the SSR transponder.
d) reply giving your callsign.

75. On the final approach, the FINAL call should be made at about:

a) 2 nm
b) 4nm
c) 8 nm
d) 25 nm
 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING PPL QUESTIONS

1. A moment is defined as:

a) The distance from the datum to the point through which a mass is said to act.
b) The sum of the mass multiplied by the arm.
c) The mass divided by the arm.
d) The distance from the datum to the aircraft CG.

2. If the Take-off Mass is increased, you would expect:

a) Increased Take-off run, followed by an increased angle of climb.

b) Decreased angle of attack.
c) Increased stall speed resulting in a longer take-off run.
d) Increased lateral stability, but decreased range.

3. If your maximum take-off mass allowable was exceeded the effect on your landing
would be:

a) A slower approach speed coupled with a short landing roll.

b) A higher touchdown speed and a longer landing roll with a possibility of the brakes
overheating.
c) Greater height loss during a go-around and an increase in climb rate.
d) A steeper approach path.

4. If your aircraft was loaded with the CG forward of the forward limit, the possible effect
would be:

a) Increased stability.
b) Less trim drag and therefore an increase in range.
c) A decrease in stability.
d) A greater trim drag resulting in decreased landing and take-off distances.

5. If the aircraft is loaded in such a way that the CG is aft of the aft limit, which the
following is true:

a) Increase in stall speed.

b) The aircraft becomes less stable longitudinally and it will become increasingly difficult to
control.
c) Decreased landing and take-off distance, due to decreased trim drag.
d) None of the above.

6. The stall and spin recovery will:

a) Degrade with a forward CG.

b) Increase with an aft CG.
c) Degrade with an aft CG.
d) Not be affected by the CG.
7. The Current position of the CG of the example below is 3,42 m aft of the reference
datum. What is the new CG if we remove the 100 kg mass in the example above?

500
kg
100
kg
50 kg
1m

2,5m
mm
4m

CG
1m
Reference

a) 3.46 m forward of the datum.

b) 3.56 m forward of the datum.
c) 3.86 m aft of the datum.
d) 4.26 m aft of the datum.

8. Given the following information, calculate the new CG of the aircraft when an extra 2750
kg of Cargo is loaded:
TOM = 19.720 kg
Cargo hold arm = 14.9 m aft of the datum
Current position of the CG = 26.2 m aft of the datum

a) 21.1 m aft of the datum.

b) 24.8 m aft of the datum.
c) 22.9 m aft of the datum.
d) 23.7 m aft of the datum.

9. Traffic load;

a) Includes drinkable water and lavatory chemicals.

b) Is the total mass of passangers, baggage, freight and fuel.
c) Is the total mass of passangers, baggage and freight.
d) Includes the Basic Empty Mass.
10. Your aircraft has:
A take off mass of = 2353 lbs
A calculated cg for departure = 89.75 inches aft of the datum
An estimated fuel burn = 200 lbs with a CG of 85.00 inches after datum
The position of CG at landing will be;

a) 90.19 inches aft of the datum.

b) 82.52 inches aft of the datum.
c) 105.98 inches aft of the datum.
d) 96.97 inches aft of the datum.

11. When calculating the MZFM (maximum zero fuel mass) , the following are included;

a) crew, passengers and baggage

b) crew, passengers, baggage and catering
c) crew, passengers, baggage and catering and fuel
d) drinkable water and lavatory chemicals

12. The CG limits are set by the manufacturer and:

a) have only a forward limit

b) are a guide only
c) have only an aft limit
d) are mandatory

13. If a body has a mass of 160 kgs, what is its weight? (g = 10 m/s^2)

a) 16 Newtons
b) 160 Newtons
c) 1600 Newtons
d) 1600 Watts

14. The basic empty moment of an aeroplane is 22000 lbs.inches. If a 220 lbs body is
loaded 55 inches aft of the datum, what is the new total moment of the aircraft?

a) 22275 lbs.inches
b) 22004 lbs.inches
c) 34100 lbs.inches
d) 10200 lbs.inches

15. Datum of the aeroplane is defined by:

a) the airlines
b) the crew
c) the manufacturers
d) JAA

16. An aircraft is loaded and its mass is 16500 kgs. CG is at 155 cms aft of the datum. There
are 2 cargo holds and their moment arms are; for hold A = 130 cm, for hold B = 165 cm.
The CG limits of the air craft are 140 cm and 150 cm aft of the datum. What is the mass
of the minimum load that must be transferred between holds to move CG to the limits?

a) 2357 kg from Hold A to Hold B

b) 2357 kg from Hold B to Hold A
c) 7071 kg from Hold A to Hold B
d) 7071 kg from Hold B to Hold A
17. An aircraft is loaded and its mass is 16500 kgs. CG is at 155 cms aft of the datum. There
are 2 cargo holds and their moment arms are; for hold A = 130 cm, for hold B = 165 cm.
The CG limits of the air craft are 140 cm and 150 cm aft of the datum. What is the mass
of the maximum load that must be transferred between holds to move CG to the limits?

a) 2357 kg from Hold A to Hold B

b) 2357 kg from Hold B to Hold A
c) 7071 kg from Hold A to Hold B
d) 7071 kg from Hold B to Hold A

18. An aircraft is loaded and its mass is 16500 kgs. CG is at 155 cms aft of the datum. There
are 2 cargo holds and their moment arms are; for hold A = 130 cm, for hold B = 165 cm.
If 5250 kgs of load is transferred from Hold A to Hold B, what will be the new CG
position?

a) 144 cm aft of the datum

b) 144 cm front of the datum
c) 166 cm aft of the datum
d) 166 cm front of the datum

19. If the take off weight is increased;

a) Take off distance required increases

b) Range decreases
c) Landing distance increases
d) All of these

20. The weight of 230 US gallons of fuel is;

(1 US gallon = 3.78 liters, density of fuel = 0.79 kg/liters, g = 9.8 m/s^2)

a) 2300 Newtons
b) 869.4 Newtons
c) 686.6 Newtons
d) 6730.8 Newtons

21. If the take off weight is increased;

a) Stall speed increases

b) Lift off speed increases
c) Take off distance increases
d) All of these

22. Ramp mass minus start up and taxi fuel mass is;

a) Landing mass
b) Take off mass
c) Zero fuel mass
d) Total mass

23. The loaded CG position of an aircraft will move rearwards during flight if;

a) Fuel tanks are behind the loaded CG position

b) Fuel tanks are forward of the loaded CG position
c) Air density increases
d) Air density decreases
24. If the weight of the aircraft increased;

a) Range decreases because of the decreased drag.

b) Range increases because of the decreased drag.
c) Range decreases because of the increased drag.
d) Range increases because of the increased drag.

25. If an increased longitudinal stability is desired;

a) weight must be decreased

b) weight must be increased
c) CG must be moved forward
d) CG must be moved rearward

26. What should the operator include in the preflight calculation of usable fuel?

a) Taxy, Trip, reserve, final reserve and extra fuel.

b) APU, taxy, trip and additional fuel.
c) Taxy, Trip, reserve (consisting of contingency, alternate, final reserve, additional and extra
fuel).
d) Taxy, trip contingency (consisting of reserve, alternate, final reserve, additional and extra fuel).

27. Where the highest obstacle or terrain, within 10 NM of a route between two fixes, has an
elevation of 7250 ft, what is the route MORA?

a) 9300 ft.
b) 8300 ft.
c) 9250 ft.
d) 5300 ft.

28. In fuel calculations, what must be left remaining, when calculating fuel required
proceeding to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made?

a) Final Reserve fuel.

b) Unusable fuel.
c) Taxi Fuel.
d) Extra Fuel.

29. Alternate fuel should be sufficient from where to where? From………………..

a) Final approach fix to landing.

b) Initial approach fix to parking at required stand.
c) MDA or DH, to parking at the required stand, at the destination alternate requiring the most
fuel, if two destination alternates are required.
d) A missed approach from the applicable MDA at the destination aerodrome, to landing at the
alternate destination requiring the most fuel, if two destination alternates are required.

30. What is the maximum and minimum MTOM for Medium Wake Turbulence Category
Aircraft, according to the Jeppesen Student Pilot Route Manual?

a) 7 000 kg 136 000 kg.

b) 136 000 kg 7 000 kg.
c) More than 136 000 kg Less than 7 000 kg.
d) More than 7 000 kg Less than 136 000 kg.
31. After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given
period of time?

a) VY
b) VX
c) VA
d) VS

32. An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG
limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane
would be

a) A longer takeoff run.

b) Difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
c) Stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.
d) increased elevator effectiveness

33. Increasing the mass on your aircraft will have the following affects:

a) Reduced rate and angle of climb, higher landing speeds, lower maximum altitude.
b) Reduced rate and angle of climb, longer landing roll, higher maximum altitude.
c) Increased rate and angle of climb, shorter landing roll, higher maximum altitude.
d) Decreased angle of attack.

34. The stall and spin recovery will:

a) Degrade with a forward CG.

b) Increase with an aft CG.
c) Degrade with an aft CG.
d) Not be affected by the CG.

35. Forward CG position (I)………… range, because (II) ……. Drag (III)………….

a) I. Increases, II. Parasite, III. Decreases

b) I. Decreases, II. Form, III. Decreases
c) I. Increases, II. Trim, III. Increases
d) I. Decreases, II. Trim, III. Increases

36. What is Vs?

a) Minimum ground speed from which a sudden failure of the critical engine can be controlled by
use of primary flying control only. The other engine remaining at T/O power.
b) Speed at which the pilot can make a decision, following failure of critical engine.
c) The Speed at which rotation is initiated to reach V2 at an altitude of 35 feet.
d) Minimum stalling speed for specified configuration. It is a function of the aircraft weight and
altitude.

37. What is V1?

a) Minimum ground speed from which a sudden failure of the critical engine can be controlled by
use of primary flying control only. The other engine remaining at T/O power.
b) Speed at which the pilot can make a decision, following failure of critical engine.
c) The Speed at which rotation is initiated to reach V2 at an altitude of 35 feet.
d) Minimum stalling speed for specified configuration. It is a function of the aircraft weight and
altitude.
38. Absolute ceiling is?

a) The altitude at which the theoretical rate of climb is zero.

b) The altitude at which VMO and MMO are equal.
c) The altitude at which the climb gradient is 5%.
d) The altitude at which the rate of climb is 100 fpm.

39. What effect would a 2% downslope have on the landing distance required?

a) Increase it by 5%
b) Decrease it by 5%
c) Increase it by 10%
d) Decrease it by 10%

40. The recommended factor by which to adjust your landing distance for a upward sloping
runway is:

a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) There isn’t one

41. What speed must be flown to attain the maximum cruise range?

a) Speed for best angle of climb (Vx)

b) Maximum speed
c) Speed for minimum drag (VMD)
d) Speed for minimum power (VMP)

42. What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on rotate speed and take off safety speed?

a) It will decrease both speeds.

b) It will increase rotate speed and decrease take off safety speed.
c) It will increase both speeds.
d) It will decrease rotate speed and increase take off safety speed.

43. Compared to landing on a level runway, what would be the effect of landing on a
downward sloping runway?

a) The landing performance will improve.

b) The landing distance will be decreased.
c) The landing distance will be increased.
d) The landing distance will be unaffected.

44. In order to maximize glide angel, in still air, an aircraft should be flown:

a) at high angles of attack

b) at high angles of attack at VMP
c) at negative angles of attack
d) at low angles of attack at the speed for minimum drag (VMD)

45. The recommended factor by which to increase the Take Off Distance Required on dry
grass up to 20 cm long is:

a) 1.1
b) 1.2
c) 1.15
d) 1.33
46. To gain the greatest amount of height in the shortest time period the aircraft should be
flown at:

a) 60 kt.
b) the best rate of climb speed (VY)
c) the best angle of climb speed (VX)
d) at the speed for maximum endurance

47. One effect of operating the aircraft with partial flap extension would be:

a) An improved climb performance.

b) A decreased co-efficient of drag.
c) A decreased co-efficient of lift.
d) A reduced rate and angle of climb.

48. Complete the following statement as accurately as possible using one of the options a),
b), c) or d).
The main reason for taking off into wind is to:

a) Decrease the ground speed of the aircraft at lift-off

b) Decrease the take off distance available
c) Increase the ground distance of the aircraft
d) Increase the take off distance

49. Climbing at VY will achieve:

a) The maximum angle of climb

b) The greatest increase in altitude in a given period of time
c) The maximum increase in height in the shortest horizontal distance
d) The best obstacle clearance performance

50. Increasing the mass (and, therefore, weight) of the aircraft will:

a) Decrease the rate and angle of climb

b) Increase the rate and angle of climb
c) Increase the rate of climb and decrease the angle of climb
d) Decrease the rate of climb and increase the angle of climb

51. Climbing at VX will achieve:

a) The best time to height

b) The greatest increase in altitude in a given period of time
c) The maximum angle of climb
d) The maximum horizontal distance for a given vertical distance

52. The indicated airspeed for the best rate of climb when climbing to cruise altitude will
tend to:

a) Decrease then increase

b) Remain the same
c) Increase
d) Decrease

53. The maximum glide range will be achieved by:

a) A relatively high angle of attack being maintained

b) A relatively low angle of attack being maintained
c) A negative angle of attack being maintained
d) A high descent range
54. If weight is increased, the range of aircraft will be:

a) Reduced
b) Unchanged
c) Increased
d) Reduced if no increase in lift is achieved

55. When gliding for maximum range, an aircraft with a greater weight will:

a) Have a reduced glide angle

b) Have a shallower descent angle
c) Have a faster descent speed but the same descent angle
d) Have a faster descent speed and a reduced descent distance

56. A wing contaminated by a small amount of ice will produce:

a) More weight and more lift

b) More drag, more weight and less lift
c) An increase in both lift and drag co-efficient
d) An increase in weight and decrease in drag

57. When landing, if an aircraft’s true airspeed is significantly less than true ground speed
then the aircraft is experiencing:

a) A tailwind
b) A headwind
c) A reduced atmospheric density
d) A cross wind

58. To allow for landing on a wet, paved surface the Landing Distance Required should be
multiplied by a factor of:

a) 1.43
b) 1.6
c) 1.15
d) 1.35

59. Why is flap used for landing?

a) The approach speed is increased and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward
vision
b) The approach speed is reduced and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward
vision
c) The approach speed is reduced and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward
vision
d) The approach speed is increased and a steeper approach path is flown which improves
forward vision

60. The VREF to be attained by the landing screen height of 50 ft must be:

a) 1.15 times the stalling speed in the take off configuration

b) 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration
c) 1.43 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration
d) 33% of stall speed
61. The recommended factor by which to increase the Landing Distance Required on dry
grass up to 20 cm long is:

a) 1.1
b) 1.2
c) 1.15
d) 1.33

62. If the approach and landing speed is higher than the recommended speed in the aircraft
manual the effect will be that:

a) The landing distance will be increased

b) The landing distance will be decreased
c) The landing performance will improve
d) The landing distance will be unaffected

63. Landings are carried out into wind because:

a) It increases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance required.
b) It decreases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance available
c) It gives the pilot greater control over the aircraft at lower speeds.
d) It will reduce the ground speed and reduce the landing distance required.

64. In relation to an aerodrome, a balanced field is when:

a) TODA = TORA
b) TODA = ASDA
c) TORA = ASDA
d) The runway is usable in both directions

65. Vx is defined as:

a) Speed for best cruise

b) Speed for best angle of climb
c) Speed for best rate of climb
d) Speed for best glide

66. Vy is defined as:

a) Speed for best rate of climb single engine

b) Speed for best angle of climb
c) Speed for best rate of climb
d) Speed for soft field landing

67. Calibrated Airspeed means:

a) Indicated airspeed corrected for pressure error.

b) Indicated airspeed corrected for density error and instrument error
c) Indicated airspeed corrected for pressure error and density error
d) Indicated airspeed corrected for position error and instrument error.

68. Accelerate-stop distance available is:

a) TORA plus clearway

b) Maximum 1.5 x TORA
c) TODA plus stopway
d) TORA plus stopway
69. For a given aircraft mass, the climb gradient:

a) increases if the aircraft is accelerating and if the temperature increases

b) decreases if the aircraft is accelerating and if the temperature increases
c) increases if the aircraft is accelerating and if the temperature decreases
d) decreases if the aircraft is accelerating and if the temperature decreases

70. Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the
following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics?

a) At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier
b) There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
c) At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter
aeroplane.
d) At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier
aeroplane.

71. How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain
constant and not limiting?

a) A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass

b) An uphill slope increases take-off mass
c) Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope
d) A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass

72. When does thrust = drag?

a) Climbing at a constant IAS

b) Decreasing at a constant IAS.
c) Flying level at a constant IAS
d) All of the above.

73. If there is an increase in atmospheric pressure and all other factors remain constant, it
should result in:

a) Decreased take off distance and increased climb performance.

b) Increased take off distance and increased climb performance.
c) Decreased take off distance and decreased climb performance.
d) Increased take off distance and decreased climb performance.

74. For take off performance calculations, what is taken into account?

a) OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight

b) Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight.
c) Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight.
d) Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight

75. You are the commander of a light twin piston aircraft. The aircraft performance has
been calculated, but before departure another passenger is taken on board. What will
be the effect of the extra passenger on board?

a) No effect
b) The performance will be degraded; the performance calculations should be performed again
c) The performance will be improved
d) The take-off performance will be degraded and the climb performance will be improved.
HUMAN PERFORMANCE PPL QUESTIONS

1. Complete the following statement. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude
increases in the Troposphere, air density:

a) decreases.
b) also increases.
c) stays the same.
d) will not be affected as air density is independent of altitude.

2. Complete the following statement. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude
increases in the Stratosphere, temperature:

a) also increases.
b) decreases.
c) fluctuates between positive and negative temperatures.
d) remains almost constant at -56 degrees Celsius.

3. Complete the following statement. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude
increases in the Troposphere, pressure:

a) also increases.
b) decreases.
c) stays the same.
d) will not be affected as pressure is independent of altitude.

4. Complete the following statement. At altitude the pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere
is:

a) the same as at mean sea level (MSL).

b) higher than at MSL.
c) lower than at MSL
d) unaffected, as partial pressure is independent of altitude.

5. At what altitude will atmospheric pressure be approximately half that at sea-level?

a) 36,000 ft.
b) 18,000 ft.
c) 10,000 ft.
d) 8000 ft.

6. As an unpressurised aircraft climbs the amount of oxygen available to the pilot

decreases because of:

a) a decrease in atmospheric pressure.

b) a decrease in atmospheric temperature.
c) a decrease in the proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere.
d) an increase in the proportion of nitrogen in the atmosphere.

7. In which layer or layers of the atmosphere do conventional aircraft fly?

i. The Troposphere
ii. The Stratosphere
iii. The Ionosphere

a) i and ii.
b) ii and iii.
c) i and iii.
d) i only.
8. Complete the following statement. The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) sea-level
pressure is equal to:

a) 1013.25 mb.
b) 1014.00 mb.
c) 1014.25 Hpa.
d) 50 inches of mercury.

9. In the Earth's Atmosphere, how does the proportion of Oxygen in the air change with
altitude?

a) As altitude increases, the proportion of Oxygen in the air decreases.

b) As altitude increases, the proportion of Oxygen in the air increases.
c) There is no change in the proportion of Oxygen in the air with changing altitude. It remains
constant throughout the Atmosphere.
d) In the Troposphere, the proportion of Oxygen in the air decreases with increasing altitude, but
remains constant throughout the Stratosphere.

10. Complete the following statement. In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA), as altitude
increases in the Troposphere, temperature:

a) also increases.
b) decreases.
c) stays the same.
d) will not be affected as it is independent of altitude.

11. Complete the following statement. If the atmospheric pressure decreases, the partial
pressure of the oxygen in the atmosphere will:

a) increase.
b) decrease.
c) stay the same.
d) not be affected as it is independent of atmospheric pressure.

12. Complete the following statement. At altitude, the volumetric proportion of oxygen in
the atmosphere is:

a) the same as at mean sea level (MSL).

b) higher than at MSL.
c) lower than at MSL.
d) dependent on the actual altitude.

13. If a pilot's body is short of oxygen, he will suffer from:

a) Hyperventilation.
b) Anoxia.
c) Hypsigiena.
d) Hypoxia.

14. The red haemoglobin cells in blood are more readily attracted to which of the following
gases?

a) Oxygen.
b) Carbon dioxide.
c) Carbon monoxide.
d) Nitrogen.
15. Complete the following statement. Blood pressure may be too high due to:

a) age.
b) stress.
c) smoking.
d) all of the above.

16. You have two passengers in your unpressurised aircraft and at an altitude of 8000 feet
one of them displays symptoms of hypoxia but the other does not. The most likely
reason for this is that the hypoxic passenger is probably:

a) suffering from a cold.

b) a smoker.
c) elderly
d) pregnant.

17. Which body system is responsible for distributing oxygen around the body?

a) The Nervous System.

b)The Respiratory System.
c) The Circulatory System.
d)The Oxidation System.

18. Carbon monoxide leaking from the exhaust system into an aircraft's cabin heating
system is most easily detectable by:

a) a carbon monoxide detector card.

b) its odour.
c) its colour.
d) both b) & c)

19. The blood carries around the body and removes from the body with the
exchange occurring in the .

a) Oxygen Carbon Dioxide Capillaries

b) Carbon Dioxide Oxygen Veins
c) Oxygen Carbon Dioxide Arteries
d) Carbon Dioxide Oxygen Capillaries

20. Which of the following is not a part of the human ear?

a) Tympanum.
b) Semi-circular canal.
c) Cornea.
d) Otoliths.

21. Respiration is a spontaneous act regulated by:

a) atmospheric pressure.
b) the level of C02 in the blood.
c) the level of carbon monoxide in the blood.
d) the level of oxygen in the blood.

22. Suffering from the "bends" is a result of which gas coming out of solution from the
blood?

a) Carbon dioxide.
b) Carbon monoxide.
c) Oxygen.
d) Nitrogen.
23. After donating blood, what is the minimum time a pilot should wait before flying?

a) 2 hours.
b) 12 hours.
c) 24 hours.
d) 48 hours.

24. Enter into the following statement the most correct pair of figures from the options
below. The maximum recommended levels of alcohol consumption per week are for
men, and for women.

a) 21 units 14 units
b) 14 units 21 units
c) 3 units 7 units
d) 7 units 3 units

25. A pilot may experience the bends at cabin altitudes as low as 6000 ft. If a pilot has been
scuba diving breathing compressed air, he is advised not to fly within hours of
diving to depths in excess of 30 ft, or within hours of diving to depths shallower
than 30 ft.

a) 24-12
b) 20-10
c) 36 - 24
d) 48 - 24

26. Which gas, which is absorbed by the body during normal breathing, plays an important
role in decompression sickness?

a) Oxygen.
b) Carbon Dioxide.
c) Carbon Monoxide.
d) Nitrogen.

27. Which of the following gases regulates the rate and depth of breathing, depending on
the levels at which the gas is present in the blood?

a) Oxygen.
b) Nitrogen.
c) Carbon Dioxide.
d) Carbon Monoxide.

28. Enter into the following statement the most correct pair of gases from the options
below. Haemoglobin in red blood cells is more readily attracted to than .

a) Nitrogen Oxygen
b) Oxygen Nitrogen
c) Carbon Dioxide Nitrogen
d) Carbon Monoxide Oxygen

29. Hyperventilation is a problem which:

a) does not affect healthy people.

b) only affects the elderly.
c) only occurs at altitudes higher than those at which normal light aircraft operations take place.
d) pilots should be familiar with, and know how to control.
30. Following a deep dive, a scuba diver ascending too rapidly to the surface may suffer
from a condition known as "decompression sickness" or the "bends". The same
condition may occur in a pilot who flies too high very soon after scuba diving.
Decompression sickness is caused by the release of bubbles of which gas from the
blood?

a) Carbon Dioxide.
b) Oxygen.
c) Water Vapour.
d) Nitrogen.

31. Which organ controls all other bodily functions?

a)The heart.
b)The brain.
c)The lungs.
d) The spinal cord.

32. At low altitudes if your passenger started to breathe abnormally and display some of
the signs of hypoxia, he is probably suffering from:

a) Hyperventilation.
b) Motion sickness.
c) Carbon monoxide poisoning.
d) Hypothermia.

33. Complete the following statement. When a person is experiencing stress or fear,
adrenaline is released into the blood stream causing immediate:

a) fatigue.
b) loss of consciousness.
c) decrease in the pulse-rate.
d) increase in the pulse-rate.

34. Half of the 621 fatal accidents which occurred during the period 1980-1996 happened at
which stage of flight?

a) Take-off
b) Cruise
c) Approach and landing
d) Initial descent

35. What is the composition of gas in the troposphere?

a) %78 O2 %21 Nitrogen % 1 Other gases

b) %21 O2 %78 Nitrogen % 1 Helium
c) %78 O2 %21 Nitrogen % 1 Hydrogen
d) %21 O2 %78 Nitrogen % 1 Other gases

36. By what height in the atmosphere is total pressure equal to ½ atmospheric pressure at
sea level?

a) 10000 feet
b) 15000 feet
c) 18000 feet
d) 26500 feet
37. What is the name of the blood vessel which carries blood from the hearth to the lungs?

a) Pulmonary vein
b) Pulmonary artery
c) Coronary artery
d) Coronary vein

38. What is the function of platelets (trombosit)?

a) To fight bacteria
b) To prevent anemia
c) To coagulate the blood
d) To combat inflammation

39. How can the condition of the hearth be monitored?

a) Electroencephalogram
b) Electro stenograph
c) Electrocardiogram
d) Electro audiogram

40. What are the three parts of the nervous system?

a) Central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, automatic nervous system

b) Central nervous system, peristalgic nervous system, automatic nervous system
c) Central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, autonomic nervous system
d) Central nervous system, peristalgic nervous system, autonomic nervous system

41. What are component parts of the CNS?

a) The thoracic and lumbar systems

b) The brain and the thoracic system
c) The brain and the spinal chord
d) The sympathetic and the parasympathetic system

42. What part of the eye is responsible for the greatest part of the focusing?

a) Iris
b) Cornea
c) Lens
d) Pupil

43. What is the name of the part of the retina on which best acuity is achieved?

a) Optic nerve
b) Optic chiasma
c) Fovea
d) Optic centre

44. What are two functions of the ear?

a) Hearing and filtering noise

b) Hearing and balance
c) Balance and filtering noise
d) Hearing noise and filtering balance
45. If a pilot believes that he /she is losing spatial awareness what should he/she do?

a) Look for good visual clues

b) Declare an emergency on the frequency in use
c) Land as soon as possible
d) Concentrate on instrument flying to regain/retain spatial awareness

46. What is the meaning of the mnemonic IMSAFE which a pilot should remember to decide
whether he/she is both mentally and physically fit to fly?

a) No illness, not under medication, not stressed, not been drinking alcohol, not fatigued and
has eaten
b) No illness, no mental problems, no sleep problems, no attitude problems, not fatigued and
has eaten
c) No illness, not under medication, no sleep problems, not been drinking alcohol, not fatigued
and has eaten
d) No illness, no mental problems, not stressed, not been drinking alcohol, not fatigued and
has eaten

47. What are the initials of the equipment which is used to monitor brain waves?

a) ECG
b) EEG
c) EGG
d) BPG

48. Define human information processing?

a) The interpretation of neural illusions in the brain

b) The transmission of nerve impulses to the brain where they are interpreted
c) The transmissions of nerve impulses to the brain where the information is interpreted and
decisions are made
d) The transmission of nerve impulses via the neural path ways to the brain where they are
interpreted decisions are made and action is taken

49. What is the current approach to human error?

a) Realization that humans are infallible and that systems and procedures should be brought
into line to prevent system/procedural errors
b) Realization that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures should be designed to
minimize human error
c) Realization that humans are infallible and that systems/procedures should be designed to
minimize human error
d) Realization that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures should be brought into
line to prevent system and procedural errors

50. What errors are associated with skill-based behavior?

a) Action slip, and error of commission

b) Action slip, and environmental capture
c) Confirmation Bias, error of commission
d) Action slip, and confirmation Bias
51. What are the three cognitive elements necessary to create and adequate situational
awareness?

a) Where is the aircraft, how is the weather, how is the fuel doing
b) Where is the aircraft, where could the aircraft be, what is the safe endurance
c) Where is the aircraft, where is it going, how is the fuel doing
d) Where is the aircraft, where has it been, where is it going

52. What are the two basic parts of the personality?

a) Parent mode and child mode

b) Traits and adult mode
c) States and traits
d) Child mode and parent mode

53. Which mode of behavior is the best to adopt in the management of conflict?

a) Parent mode
b) Child mode
c) Adulte mode
d) Critical mode

54. What are the categories into which stress is divided?

a) Acute and severe

b) Severe and chronic
c) Acute and chronic
d) Mental and physical
55. Select from the following list environmental stressors?

1. Heat
2. Humidity
3. Divorce
4. Lack of rest
5. Loss of job
6. Noise

a) 1, 2, 3, 6
b) 1, 2, 4, 6
c) 1, 2, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6

56. What are the two biological functions for sleep?

a) Sleep refreshes the body and the brain

b) Sleep refreshes the long term and short term memories
c) Sleep ensures homeostasis in the bodies’ internal and external environment
d) Sleep reduces the body functions and increases the long term memory store

57. How many stages of sleep are there and how often does the cycle recur?

a) There are 5 stages of sleep and the cycle recurs every 60 min
b) There are 4 stages of sleep and the cycle recurs about 5 times in an average sleep period
c) There are 5 stages of sleep and the cycle recurs every 90 min
d) There are 4 stages of sleep and the cycle recurs 4-5 times in an average sleep period
58. From the following list select advantages of automation?

1. Reduction in the manual task of flying

2. Low work load in the cruise
3. More cost effective
4. Highly accurate system
5. System autonomy
6. Multifunctional display enhances situational awareness

a) All of the above

b) 1, 3, 4, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 3, 4, 5

59. Internal conflict within oneself is termed as:

a) Intermediate-personal conflict
b) Intra-personal conflict
c) Inter-personal conflict
d) Intro-personal conflict

60. Approximately ................... of all communication is achieved by factors other than

words (metacommunications)

a) 80%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) 30%

61. Expressed as a simple mathematical statement when considering a crew of two, good
synergy is:

a) 1-1=>2
b) 1+1=>2
c) 1+1=<2
d) 1 +/- 1 = < 2

62. The choice of words and their packaging become more important in the cockpit of an
aircraft because:

a) Loss of body language

b) Loss of hypertext
c) Loss of perception
d) Loss of situational awareness

63. Complete the following statement. After SCUBA diving to a depth of just over 30 ft,
using compressed air, it is recommended that a person does not fly for:

a) 12 hours.
b) 24 hours.
c) 48 hours.
d) 6 hours.

64. That part of atmospheric pressure caused by the presence of Oxygen in the air is
known as:

a) Liquid Oxygen.
b) Air Pressure.
c) The Partial Pressure of Oxygen.
d) Vacuum.
65. Complete the following statement with the most correct of the options a), b), c) or d).
Compared to a non-smoker, someone who smokes is likely to experience the effects of
hypoxia at:

a) a higher altitude.
b) a lower altitude.
c) the same altitude.
d) any altitude.

66. Complete the following statement. A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of Hypoxia
might be:

a) cyanosis.
b) increased heart rate.
c) formication.
d) all of the above.

67. Why do aircrew and passengers suffer from lack of Oxygen at high altitude?

a) Because of the rapid decrease in temperature with altitude.

b) Because of the decrease in the proportion of Oxygen in the air with increasing altitude,
c) Because the air at altitude is thin.
d) Because of the lower atmospheric pressure at altitude.

68. Complete the following statement. The condition whereby the body does not receive
enough oxygen to function correctly is known as:

a) Hypotension.
b) Hyperventilation.
c) Hyperglycaemia.
d) Hypoxia.

69. What would be the most likely initial symptoms of lack of oxygen?

a) Difficulty in carrying out mental tasks, and loss of inhibitions.

b) Memory loss.
c) Poor muscular control.
d) Nausea and a light-headed sensation.

70. You are taking a friend flying and are cruising at 6000 ft. Your passenger complains of
tingling sensations, dizziness and visual disorders, and then becomes anxious and
begins breathing abnormally. Your passenger is probably suffering from:

a) Hypoxia.
b) Hyperventilation.
c) Food poisoning.
d) Angina.

71. Complete the following statement. A likely symptom, or likely symptoms, of Hypoxia
might be:

a) unconsciousness.
b) impaired judgement.
c) tingling fingers and toes.
d) all of the above.
 72. You are flying at 2500 ft on the Regional Pressure Setting. Your passenger begins to
display symptoms associated with hypoxia, and is showing signs of laboured
breathing. The passenger is probably suffering from:

a) Airsickness.
b) Travel Sickness.
c) Hallucinations.
d) Hyperventilation.

73. You have two passengers in your unpressurised aircraft and, at an altitude of 8000 feet,
one of them displays symptoms of hypoxia but the other does not. The most likely
reason for this is that the hypoxic passenger is probably:

a) elderly.
b) a small child.
c) has consumed several units of alcohol, whilst the other has not.
d) is suffering from blocked sinuses.

74. Which of the following factors is responsible for regulating breathing?

a) The pressure of the atmosphere.

b) The differential pressure across the diaphragm.
c) The level of Carbon Dioxide in the blood.
d) The capacity of the lungs.

75. Complete the following sentence. If, while piloting an aircraft, you suspect that you are
suffering from spatial disorders (e.g. a feeling of tumbling backwards after a rapid
transition from a climb to straight and level flight), the correct action to take would be:

a) to trust your senses, because instruments can give false information.

b) to concentrate on looking out.
c) to trust your aircraft's instruments.
d) to close your eyes for a few seconds to regain your orientation.

METEOROLOGY PPL QUESTIONS

1. The International Standard Atmosphere assumes a lapse rate of:

a) 2°C/1000 ft.
b)1.5°C/1000ft.
c)3°C/1000ft.
d)1.98°C/1000ft.

2. You are at FL120 with an outside air temperature is -2°C. Where would you find the
freezing level?

a)FL110
b)FL100
c) FL090
d)FL140

3. The Tropopause is lower:

a) in summer in mid latitudes.

b) at the North Pole than at the Equator.
c) in summer at the Equator.
d) at the Equator than at the South Pole.

4. What are the proportions of gases in the atmosphere?

a) Oxygen 21%, Nitrogen 78%, other gasses 1%.

b) Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 78%, other gasses 1%.
c) Nitrogen 78%, Argon 21%, Oxygen 1%.
d) Nitrogen 78%, Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 1%.

5. What is the average height of the Tropopause at the equator?

a) 16 km
b) 11 km
c) 5 km
d) 3km

6. The layer closest to the earth's surface where the most of weather phenomena occurs:

a) Tropopause.
b) Troposphere.
c) Stratosphere.
d) Mesosphere.

7. Relative humidity:

a) is not affected by temperature.

b) is not affected by air expanding and contracting.
c) does not change when water is added.
d) changes when water is added, even if the temperature is the same.

8. Where is most of the water vapour in the atmosphere contained?

a) Tropopause.
b) Stratosphere.
c) Troposphere.
d) Stratopause.

9. The temperature at 3000 ft above mean sea level is forecast to be 3°C. What is the
deviation from ICAO Standard Atmosphere?

a) ISA-6
b) ISA +6
c) ISA+5
d) ISA -6

10. A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressures at the
same level and time is?

a) An isotherm.
b) An isallobar.
c) A contour.
d) An isobar.

11. What is the significance of closely spaced isobars?

a) They indicate a large pressure gradient and strong winds.

b) They indicate a weak pressure gradient and light winds.
c) They indicate a weak pressure gradient and strong winds.
d) They indicate a large pressure gradient and light winds.

12. What is the name of the instrument which gives a continuous printed reading and
record of the atmospheric pressure?

a) Barometer.
b) Hygrometer.
c) Anemograph.
d) Barograph.

13. The pressure change with height of the atmosphere:

a) decreases at an increasing rate as height increases.

b) decreases at a constant rate as height increases.
c) decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases.
d) decreases at a constant rate up to the tropopause and then remains constant.

14. Density at the surface will be low when:

a) pressure is high and temperature is high,

b) pressure is high and temperature is low.
c) pressure is low and temperature is low.
d) pressure is low and temperature is high.

15. As altitude increases:

a) temperature decreases and density increases.

b) temperature, pressure and density decrease.
c) temperature and pressure increase and density decreases.
d) temperature decreases whilst pressure and density increase.

16. What is the density at sea level in the International Standard Atmosphere?

a) 12.25g/m3
b) 1225g/m3
c) 1.225 g / m3
d) 122.5 g/m3

17. Under what conditions would density be the minimum value at any given place?
a) Low altitude, high temperature and high humidity.
b) High altitude, high temperature and high humidity.
c) High altitude, high temperature and low humidity.
d) Low altitude, low temperature and low humidity.

18. What is density defined as?

a) Mass per unit volume.

b) Mass per unit area.
c) Weight of air per unit area.
d) Volume divided by mass.

19. The sun gives out______amounts of energy with______wavelengths.

The earth gives out relatively______amounts of energy with relatively______
wavelengths. Complete the sentence above using the correct words:

a) large, long, small, short.

b) small, short, large, long.
c) large, long, small, long.
d) large, short, small, long.

20. The method by which energy is transferred from one body to another with which it
is in contact is called:

a) radiation.
b) convection.
c) conduction.
d) latent heat.

21. The surface of the earth is heated by:

a) convection.
b) conduction.
c) long wave solar radiation.
d) short wave solar radiation.

22. The diurnal variation of temperature is:

a) greater over the sea than over land.

b) less over desert areas than over temperate grassland,
c) reduced anywhere by the presence of cloud.
d) increased anywhere as wind speed increases.

23. An inversion is when:

a) there is no horizontal gradient of temperature.

b) there is no change of temperature with height.
c) there is an increase of temperature as height increases,
d) there is a decrease of temperature as height increases,
24. An active low pressure system is approaching. What difference would you notice in
the altimeter reading of an aircraft parked in the ground, over a 30 minute period?

a) The reading would remain the same.

b) The reading would show an increase in height.
c) The reading would fluctuate rapidly.
d) It is impossible to determine how the altimeter would react.

25. During the winter months, which of the following weather conditions would most
likely be produced by an anticyclone?

a) Subsidence due to surface cooling creating extensive cloud.

b) During the day, the surface warming would create an unstable atmosphere with extensive
convective cloud.
c) During the night, as the land cools, there would be an increase in the vertical cloud
development.
d) General subsidence with adiabatic warming, clear skies, and an inversion.

26. Lack of cloud at low level in a stationary high is due to:

a) instability.
b) rising air.
c) sinking air.
d) divergence at high level.

27. A trough of low pressure at the surface is generally associated with:

a) convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation.

b) divergence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
c) subsidence causing increased cloud and precipitation.
d) subsidence causing decreased cloud and precipitation.

28. A ridge of high pressure is generally associated with:

a) convergence at the surface causing increased cloud and precipitation.

b) convergence at the surface causing an improvement in the surface visibility.
c) subsidence then divergence at the surface causing cloud to break up and more precipitation.
d) subsidence of air, then divergence at the surface causing clear skies.

29. What is the relationship between QFE and QNH at an airport 54 ft below MSL?

a) QFE = QNH
b) QFE is less than QNH
c) QFE is greater than QNH
d) There is no clear relationship.

30. An aircraft flies from aerodrome "A", (QNH= 1020 hPa), to aerodrome "B", (QNH=
999 hPa). Aerodrome "A" is 800 ft above mean sea level and aerodrome "B" is 540 ft
above mean sea level. If the altimeter sub scale is not changed from 1020, what is the
altimeter indication on landing. (Assume 1 mb = 30 ft)
a) 1470 ft
b) 170 ft
c) 1170 ft
d) -170 ft

31. With which setting on the altimeter subscale will the altimeter read zero at
aerodrome level?

a) QFF
b) QNH
c) QNE
d) QFE

32. You are flying at a constant indicated altitude with the QNH of 1015 set within the
subscale and you notice the outside air temperature has been falling constantly. What
can you expect to have happened to your true altitude?

a) The true altitude will have decreased.

b) The true altitude will have increased.
c) The true altitude will have remained the same.
d) The true altitude will have increased then decreased.

33. The altimeter will always read:

a) the vertical separation from mean sea level, with 1013 set on the subscale.
b) the height above the airfield datum, with airfield QNH set on the subscale.
c) the vertical distance above the pressure level set in the sub scale.
d) the correct flight level with regional QNH set.

34. When flying towards a low pressure system at a constant indicated altitude, the true
altitude will be;

a) lower than indicated.

b) higher than indicated.
c) the same as indicated,
d) lower than indicated at first then the same as indicated later.

35. An aircraft flies at a constant indicated altitude from airfield A (QNH= 1009 hPa) to
airfield B (QNH= 1019 hPa). If the subscale is not reset from 1009, what would be
expected when over airfield B?

a) The indicated altitude would be the same as actual altitude.

b) The indicated altitude would be less than actual altitude.
c) The indicated altitude would be more than actual altitude.
d) The indicated altitude may be greater or less depending on the airfield elevation.

36. The process of change of state from a liquid to a gas is known as:

a) condensation in which latent heat is released.

b) evaporation in which latent heat is relea
c) condensation in which latent heat is absorbed.
d) evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed.

37. A change of state directly from a solid to a vapour is:

a) insolation.
b) condensation.
c) evaporation.
d) sublimation.

38. The instrument used for measuring the humidity of air is a:

a) hydrometer.
b) hygrometer.
c) wet bulb thermometer.
d) gyroscope.

39. The process of change of state from a gas to a liquid is known as:

a) evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed.

b) evaporation in which latent heat is released.
c) condensation in which latent heat is absorbed.
d) condensation in which latent heat is released.

40. A low level temperature inversion may produce?

a) Turbulence and wind shear.

b) An on-shore breeze.
c) A decrease in stability.
d) Good visibility by day due to the steep temperature lapse rate.

41. In a mountain wave situation, the worst of the turbulence is most likely to be found
when flying:

a) at about mid-height between the lenticular and roll cloud.

b) in or just below the roll cloud,
c) in the cap cloud.
d) in the lenticular cloud.

42. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across at least two cloud levels?

a) ST
b) NS
c) CI
d) SC

43. Which of the following indicates medium to upper level instability and the possible
formation of TS?
a) Halo.
b) Red cirrus.
c) Altocumulus Lenticularis.
d) Altocumulus castellanus.

44. The use of the suffix "nimbus" or the prefix "nimbo" in cloud names means?

a) Rain bearing.
b) Wispy, detached orfiberous.
c) Medium cloud.
d) Dark and threatening.

45. What is, generally, the most likely depth of radiation fog?

a) 500 ft
b) 2000 ft
c) 3000 ft
d)1500 ft

46. Cu is an indication of:

a) stability.
b) vertical movement of air.
c) the approach of a warm front.
d) the approach of a cold front.

47. Isolated thunderstorms (TS) in summer are caused by:

a) convection.
b) cold fronts.
c) warm front occlusions.
d) cold front occlusions.

48. From which cloud do you get hail?

a) SC
b) CB
c) NS
d) TS

49. What is the typical base of altocumulus in summer?

a) In the height band 0 – 1500 ft

b) In the height band 1500 ft – 7000 ft
c) In the height band 7000ft – 45,000 ft
d) In the height band 7000 ft – 16,500 ft

50. The correct name for heaped type cloud is;

a) cumulus.
b) cirrus.
c) stratus.
d) virga.

51. Which of the following cloud types can stretch across all three cloud levels (low,
medium and high level)?

a) CI
b) ST
c) AC
d) CB

52. What is the most common freezing precipitation?

a) Freezing pellets.
b) Freezing rain and freezing drizzle.
c) Freezing graupel.
d) Freezing hail and freezing snow.

53. Meteorological textual information defines the height of cloud bases as follows:

a) METAR - agl TAF - amsl Area Forecast - amsl

b) METAR - agl TAF - agl Area Forecast - amsl
c) METAR - amsl TAF - amsl Area Forecast - agl
d) METAR - amsl TAF - agl Area Forecast - agl

54. Precipitation produced by stratus is normally?

a) Heavy showers.
b) Heavy rain.
c) Drizzle.
d) Light showers.

55. Coriolis force in the Northern Hemisphere will cause moving air to be apparently
deflected to:

a) the left and cause the wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2000 ft agl.
b) the right and cause the geostrophic wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2000 ft agl.
c) the left and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2000 ft agl.
d) the right and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2000 ft agl.

56. What prevents air from flowing directly from a high to a low pressure area:

a) centripetal force.
b) centrifugal force.
c) pressure force.
d) Coriolis force.
57. Which of the following types of weather report or forecast give wind direction with
respect to true north?

a) TAF, ATIS, AIRMET.

b) METAR, ATIS, SIGMET.
c) TAF, METAR, VOLMET.
d) METAR, TAF, ATIS.

58. Wind is caused by?

a) Mixing of fronts.
b) Horizontal pressure difference.
c) Earth rotation.
d) Surface friction.

59. Where is icing worst?

a) Near condensation level.

b) Near freezing level.
c) -2°C to-15°C.
d) -16°C to-30°C.

60. Which of the following frontal systems is most likely to produce thunderstorm
activity?

a) A cold front.
c) A ridge of high pressure.
d) A quasi-stationary front.
b) A warm front.

61. Clear ice forms as a result of:

a) large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze.

b) ice pellets splattering on the aircraft.
c) small supercooled water droplets splashing over the aircraft.
d) water vapour freezing to the aircraft.

62. In the METAR shown below, the cloud base has been omitted. At what height might
you expect the cloud base to be if cumulus cloud was present?
28005KT 9999 SCT??? 12/05 Q1020 NOSIG

a) SCT042
b) SCT082
c) SCT280
d) SCT028

63. The abbreviation BKN, with respect to cloud cover means:

a) 1 - 4 oktas
b) 3 - 4 oktas
c) 5 - 7 oktas
d) half cover

64. In a METAR a gust is reported when:

a) it is 10 kt greater than the mean wind speed.

b) it is 15 kt greater than the mean wind speed.
c) it is 20 kt greater than the mean wind speed.
d) it is 5 kt greater than the mean wind speed.

65. A METAR may be defined as being?

a) A routine weather report for a large area.

b) An aerodrome forecast containing a TREND for the next two hours.
c) A routine weather report concerning a specific aerodrome.
d) A forecast weather report concerning a specific aerodrome.

66. The visibility group R20/0050 in a METAR means:

a) as measured by runway measuring equipment for Runway 20, a current runway visibility of
50 metres.
b) for Runway 20, a current visibility of 500 metres measured by runway visual range
equipment.
c) the runway visibility reported is 50 metres as measured by the runway visual range
equipment within the last 20 minutes.
d) on Runway 20, the current visibility is less than 5000 metres.

67. BECMG 1820 BKN030 in a TAF means:

a) becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft agl.
b) becoming from 1820 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft agl.
c) becoming from 1820 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft agl.
d) becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft agl.

68. A temperature group of 28/24 in a METAR means that:

a) the temperature is 28°C at the time of the reporting, but is expected to become 24°C by the
end of the TREND report.
b) the dry bulb temperature is 28°C and the wet bulb temperature is 24°C.
c) the dew point is 28°C and the temperature is 24°C.
d) the temperature is 28°C and the dew point is 24°C.

69. TEMPO in a TAF means:

a) a temporary variation to the main forecast that will last for less than one hour, or, if
recurring, for less than half the period indicated.
b) a temporary variation to the main forecast lasting less than an hour.
c) the development of unpredictable temporary conditions that may be a hazard to aviation.
d) a variation to the base line conditions laid down in the main forecast that will continue to
prevail until the end of the main forecast.

70. When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the trend is a forecast valid for:

a) 1 hour after the time of observation.

b) 2 hours after the time of observation
c) 2 hours after it was issued.
d) 1 hour after it was issued.

71. How would a forecast easterly wind of 22 knots, gusting to 32 knots be represented in
a TAF?

a) 09022-32KT
b) 090/22 G32 KT
c) 09022KTG32
d) 09022G32KT

72. As air rises and cools, its relative humidity will:

a) increase
b) decrease
c) decrease until the dew point is reached
d) stay the same

73. Decode the cloud bases being described in this METAR for an aerodrome: 261450Z
07007KT 9999 FEW035 SCT043 BKN240 21/12 Q1016 NOSIG

a) 1-2 oktas at 3500 ft, 2-3 oktas at 4300 ft, 5-8 oktas at 24000 ft
b) 1-2 oktas at 350 ft, 3-4 oktas at 430 ft, 5-7 oktas at 2400 ft
c) 2-3 oktas at 3500 ft, 4-5 oktas at 4300 ft, 6-7 oktas at 24000 ft
d) 1-2 oktas at 3500 ft, 3-4 oktas at 4300 ft, 5-7 oktas at 24000 ft

74. You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 54 ft above
MSL. The QNH you have been given is 1031 hPa. What would you expect the
aerodrome QFE to be?

a) 1029 hPa
b) 1001 hPa
c) 1032 hPa
d) 1009 hPa

75. Cloud types are classified under family headings, these are:
a) High, medium and low
b) High, medium, low and layer
c) Cirrus, stratus, cumulus and layer
d) Stratus, cumulus and layer
 NAVIGATION PPL

1. The calibrated air speed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS):
a) An instrument and position/pressure error correction
b) An instrument and density correction
c) A compressibility correction
d) A compressibility and density correction

2. Which of the following statements is true of a great circle?

a) It is the path radio waves that travel over the earth.
b) The smaller arc of it represents the shortest distance between two points on the earth.
c) Its plane passes through the centre of the Earth.
d) All of these.
3. Which of these statements about a small circle is false?
a) The smaller arc of it does not represent the shortest distance
b) All lines of lattitude are small circles.
c) Its plane doesn’t pass through the centre of the Earth.
d) A radio wave never follows a small circle
4. What is the angular distance in degrees for latitudes?
a) N / S of the Equator to a maximum of 180 degrees N / S
b) E / W of the Equator to a maximum of 90 degrees E / W
c) N / S of the Equator to a maximum of 90 degrees N / S
d) E / W of the Equator to a maximum of 180 degrees E / W

5. Which of these statements about a rhumb line is false?

a) It is a line of constant direction on the Earth’s surface.
b) All lines of lattitude are rhumb lines but not great circles.
c) All meridians are rhumb lines semi great circles.
d) If the rhumb line bearing of A from B is 090 (T), the rhumb line bearing of B from A is
270 (T).
6. Which of the following statement on the shape of the Earth is correct?
a) The diameter of the Earth is the same at all latitudes.
b) The longest diameter is between the poles.
c) It is slightly flattened at the poles.
d) The diameter of the Equator is about 60 NM longer than the diameter between the
poles.
7. Which one of the following statements on longitudes is correct?
a) Longitude is stated in degrees up to 360.
b) The largest value of longitude is 180.
c) The value of longitude will never exceed 90 degrees.
 d) The largest value of change of longitude is 90.
8. The angular difference between the Magnetic North and the True North is;
a) Inclination
b) Magnetic correction
c) Variation
d) Deviation
9. Given, variation 6’ E, deviation (-4), True Heading 136 degrees. What is the compass
heading?
a) 130
b) 134
c) 138
d) 126

10. Variation in a position is 13 W and true course is 136 degrees. Consider the following
statements:
a) The compass heading is 149
b) Magnetic course is 149
c) Looking north from this position the Magnetic North pole seems to be located to the
East of the True North Pole.
d) The position most likely is located at Northern latitudes and on Eastern longitudes.

11. True heading is 355 degrees (T), variation is 12 degrees W and compass heading is 002
degrees. The magnetic heading of the aircraft is …. and the deviation is…..?
a) 343 (M); -7
b) 007 (M); +5
c) 343 (M); +19
d) 007 (M); -5

12. One Nautical Mile equals to

a) 1852 km
b) 6076 feet
c) 0.869 Statute Mile
d) 3281 Yards
13. An aircraft, flying at 088 TC at a speed of 100 Kts TAS, is affected by the wind blowing
from 060 degrees at a speed of 30 Kts (060/30). Calculate the drift and the ground speed.
a) Right 8, GS 74 Kts
b) Right 13, GS 128
c) Right 8, GS 117
d) Left 13, GS 64

14. An airplane, flying at a speed of 74 Kts per Hour (GS), what is the estimated en-route
time (ETE) for a distance of 68 Nautical miles?
 a) 0h 45 Minutes
b) 1h 45 Minutes
c) 0h 55 Minutes
d) 0h 35 Minutes

15. Pressure altitude: 10 000 feet; temperature: -30. IAS: 180. Determine True Air Speed.
a) 162
b) 186
c) 210
d) 200

The following scenario will be used for questions 16 and 17;

TC: 124 degrees; TAS: 110 KTS; W/V: 340/15; Variation E 3 degrees; Deviation between 120 and
150 degrees heading: “ – 2 “
16. What is the Compass Heading (CH)?
a) 122
b) 128
c) 118
d) 125
17. What is the Ground Speed (GS)?
a) 98
b) 121
c) 127
d) 115

18. What rate of descent is required to descend from 2500 ft to 1000 ft in 5 nm if your
groundspeed is 80 kts?

a) 300 ft / min
b) 350 ft / min
c) 400 ft / min
d) 450 ft / min

19. Calculate your true airspeed (TAS) for an indicated airspeed (IAS) of 100 knots, if you
are flying at an altitude of 5000 ft where the temperature is zero degrees Celsius.

a) 104 kts
b) 105 kts
c) 106.5 kts
d) 108 kts
20. Your true air speed is 106 kts, and the wind is 325/10. If the variation is 1 degree west,
what magnetic heading would you need to steer in order to maintain a desired true track of
068?

a) 060
b) 062
c) 064
d) 066

21. If it takes you 41 minutes to cover a distance of 58 nautical miles, what is your ground
speed?

a) 93 knots
b) 77 knots
c) 85 knots
d) 87 knots

22. Having travelled 30 nm, you discover you are 2 nm off track. What is your track error?

a) 3 degrees
b) 4 degrees
c) 6 degrees
d) 8 degrees

23. Which one is true?

a) The equator is approximately 40000 km.

b) The angle between magnetic and compass north is called deviation

c) Maximum deviation can be 180 degrees

d) All of these

24) True track: 350, variation: 10 east, deviation: 5 east. What is the compass track?

a) 005

b) 355

c) 335

d) 345
25) True Track: 225, TAS: 150 kt, W/V = 130/ 25. Ground Speed = ?

a) 140 kt

b) 150 kt

c) 160 kt

d) 179 kt

26) True Track: 225, TAS: 150 kt, W/V = 130/ 25. True Heading = ?

a) 245

b) 235

c) 225

d) 215

27) An aircraft flies with an IAS of 240 kts. Its FL is 150 and OAT (outside air temperature)
is - 20° C. There is a tailwind of 20 kts. How long does it take to fly 450 ground nautical miles?

a) 1,4 minutes

b) 100 minutes

c) 68 minutes

d) 84 minutes

28) Which one is true?

a) 0° paralel of latitude is longer than 30° N paralel of latitude.

b) 0° meridian is longer than 30° W meridian.

c) 0° paralel of latitude is shorter than 0° meridian.

d) Equinox is the 23° 27' latitude.

29) Magnetic heading: 015, variation: 6, TAS: 140 kt, W/V = 320 (T) / 30 kt. What is the true
track?

a) 017

b) 009

c) 023

d) 033

30) When accelerating westerly in North magnetic hemisphere;

a) Direct reading compass does not occur.

b) Direct reading Compass indicates a false turn to South.

c) Direct reading compass indicates a false turn to North.

d) Direct reading compass is useless in acceleration and deceleration.

31) When accelerating westerly in South magnetic hemisphere;

a) Direct reading compass does not occur.

b) Direct reading Compass indicates a false turn to South.

c) Direct reading compass indicates a false turn to North.

d) Direct reading compass is useless in acceleration and deceleration.

32) If the pressure altitude is 30000 feets and OAT is - 35°, true altitude is;

a) 30000

b) 41200

c) 25200

d) 31200
33) Assuming no instrument and position errors, 150 kt of IAS, FL 100 under ISA
conditions, what is TAS?

a) 181

b) 165

c) 170

d) 175

34) TAS: 160 kt, GS: 140 kt, Heading: 150°, Track: 144°. W / V = ?

a) 114 / 26

b) 186 / 36

c) 114 / 36

d) 186 / 26

35) Track: 300°, GS: 170 kt, W/ V: 150° / 30 kt. TAS = ?

a) 195

b) 300

c) 120

d) 145

36) Track: 300°, GS: 170 kt, W/ V: 150° / 30 kt. Heading = ?

a) 145

b) 306

c) 180

d) 294
37) True Heading: 290°, VAR: - 12, DEV: 8 E, drift 5 L. True Track= ?

a) 273

b) 288

c) 302

d) 285

38) True Heading: 290°, VAR: - 12, DEV: 8 E, drift 5 L. Magnetic Track= ?

a) 295

b) 302

c) 293

d) 297

39) True Heading: 290°, VAR: - 12, DEV: 8 E, drift 5 L. Compass Track= ?

a) 299

b) 296

c) 287

d) 289

40) If you fly a ground distance of 82 nm in 46 minutes, then your ground speed is;

a) 126 kt

b) 95 kt

c) 63 kt

d) 107 kt

41) The accuracy of VHF Direction Finding (VDF) could be affected by:

a) Propagation and site errors.

b) Night effect.

c) Airframe quadrantal errors.

d) Coastal refraction.
42) Having received a request for a QDM the controller responds 'QDM 080 Class Bravo'
This means the controller has passed:

a) The magnetic bearing of the aircraft from the VDF station accurate to within +/- 10°.

b) The True bearing of the aircraft from the VDF station accurate to within +/-10°.

c) The magnetic bearing of the VDF station from the aircraft accurate to within +/- 5°.

d) The true bearing of the VDF station from the aircraft accurate to within +/- 5°.

43) What is the presentation format of VDF information to an Air Traffic controller?

a) A series of radar blips on the primary radar.

b) A cathode ray tube on which lines radiate to represent magnetic or true bearings.

c) A digital readout of the magnetic bearing of the aircraft.

d) A digital readout of the true bearing of the aircraft.

44) Which of the following statements is wrong?

a) QDM - magnetic bearing TO the station.

b) QDR - magnetic bearing FROM the station.

c) QTE - true bearing FROM the station.

d) QDR - true bearing TO the station

45) Which of the following is true of an aircraft ADF system?

a) It comprises a single aerial and a controller.

b) The RMI and RBI needles always indicate the selected radial.

c) The ADF measures the bearing of an NDB relative to the fore/aft axis of the aircraft.

d) The ADF measures the bearing of an NDB relative to the lateral axis of the aircraft.

46) A Non-Directional Beacon (NDB) consists of:

a) A loop aerial and a sense aerial which combine to determine an NDB signal direction.

b) A radio magnetic compass and associated azimuth card and needle display.

c) A ground based transmitter which transmits omnidirectionally.

d) A dipole aerial with a circular polar diagram.

47) The component parts of an ADF are:

1) Receiver.

2) Cockpit display

3) Non-directional beacon

4) Loop aerial.

5) Sense aerial.

The correct combination of statements is;

a) 1,2,4,5.

b) All of them.

c) 1,2,3,4.

d) 1,2,3,5.

48) Which of the following does not affect the accuracy of the ADF?

a) Thunderstorms.

b) Night effect.

c)Mountain effect.

d) Cloud effect.

49) The DOC of an NDB defines the maximum range from an NDB at which you will
receive the required level of bearing accuracy and applies;

a) By night only.

b) Both day and night.

c) By day only.

d) At dawn and dusk.

50) AVOR radial may be defined as;

a) A magnetic bearing from the VOR station.

b) A true bearing from the VOR station.

c) A magnetic bearing to the VOR station.

d) A true bearing to the VOR station.

51) Which of the following uses of a VOR is wrong:

a) Can be used to mark the centre line of airways.

b) Can be used as a letdown aid at aerodromes using published procedures.

c) Can be used as a precision approach aid at aerodromes using published procedures.

d) Can be used as a holding point for aircraft.

52) Which of the following does not affect the operations range of a VOR?

a) Height of transmitter and receiver.

b) Intervening high ground or man made structures.

c) Transmitter power.

d) Night operations.

53) Which of the following does not affect the accuracy of a VOR?

a) Site error.

b) VOR scalloping.

c) Mountain error.

d) Propagation error.

54) The accuracy of DME equipment fitted to a modern aircraft is:

a) +or — 3% of range or 0.5 nm whichever is the greater.

b) +or—1.25% of range.

c) + or — 3% of range.

d) + or —0.2nm.

55) What condition must prevail for DME equipment on an aircraft's instrument panel to
give a usable groundspeed reading and time to the DME ground station?

a) The aircraft must have the DME ground station on its port beam.

b) The aircraft must have the DME ground station on its starboard beam.

c) The aircraft must be heading directly towards the ground station.

d) The aircraft must be heading directly towards or away from the ground station.
56) In a time interval of one minute, your DME instrument shows that your aircraft has
travelled 1.7 nautical miles directly towards a VOR/DME beacon, what is the groundspeed of
the aircraft?

a) 102 knots.

b) 110 knots.

c) 96 knots.

d) 100 knots.

57) On which of the following principles does Distance Measuring Equipment function?

a) The principle of VHF direction finding.

b) The principle of primary radar.

c) The principle of secondary radar.

d) The principle of VHF omnidirectional ranging.

58) The DME instrument in the aircraft gives the distance read out from the beacon.

a) Horizontal.

b) Slant.

c) Oblique.

d) Return.

59) Which of the following is not true with regard to Aerodrome Surveillance Approach
Radars? They provide:

a) Positional information up to 25 nms and control of aircraft approaching an aerodrome.

b) Radar vectoring to the ILS final approach.

c) Surveillance radar approach.

d) Positional information up to 35 nms and control of aircraft approaching an aerodrome.

60) En Route Surveillance Radars are:

a) Long range radars with typical ranges of 200 — 300 nms.

b) Radars providing positional information above 25 nms.

c) Radars with a range of 75 nms used for controlling traffic in a Terminal Area.

d) Radars providing surveillance below FL 245.

61) A code transponder fitted to an aircraft is essential equipment to provide a controller
with what type of information?

a) Primary radar.

b) Secondary Surveillance Radar.

c) Precision Approach Radar.

d) Area radar.

62) The special code to set on a transponder to indicate an emergency condition is;

a) 7600

b) 7500

c) 7700

d) 2000

63) SSR information is:

a) Presented in analogue form on the controller's strip.

b) Displayed digitally on the secondary radar screen via a computer.

c) Displayed by a system of lights on the controller's console.

d) Displayed on the same screen as primary radar information.

64) If the CDI is deflected three dots to the right and your VOR indicator and heading
indicator are in general agreement, where is your desired course?

a) 6º left

b) 3º right

c) 6º right

d) 3º left

65) ADF equipment is capable of receiving signals from what type(s) of facility?

a) Any FM radio station

b) NDBs and AM commercial broadcast stations

c) Specially equipped VOR or VORTAC stations

d) VHF communication radio stations

66) What are the three main GPS segments?

a) Control, Space, User

b) Ground, Airborne, Space

c) Monitor, Uplink, Control

d) Earth, Space, Moon

67) The visual and aural indications obtained when overflying an ILS middle marker are:

a) continuous low pitched dashes with synchronised blue light.

b) continuous high pitched dots with synchronised amber light.

c) alternating medium, pitch dots and dashes with amber light.

d) one letter in Morse with synchronised white light.

68) Principle of operation of primary radar is:

a) phase difference.

b) difference of dept of modulation.

c) differential range.

d) pulse technique.

69) The frequency band and rate of scan of Airfield Surface Movement radars are:

a) SHP; 60RPM

b) SHP; 200RPM

c) EHF; 100RPM

d) EHF: 10RPM

70) The special SSR codes are as follows: emergency______, radio failure______,
unlawful interference with the conduct of the flight_______.

a) 7700; 7600; 7500.

b) 7700; 7600; 2000.

c) 7600; 7500; 7700.

d) 7500; 7600; 7700.

71) Secondary Surveillance Radar is a form the________band.

a) primary pulse SHF

b) primary pulse UHF

c) secondary FM SHF

d) secondary pulse UHF

72) The phenomenon of coastal refraction which affects the accuracy of ADF bearings:

a) is most marked at night.

b) can be minimised by using beacons situated well inland.

c) can be minimised by taking bearings where the signal crosses the coastline at right
angles.

d) is most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset.

73) ADF Quadrantal Error is caused by:

a) static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo's Fire.

b) the aircraft's major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the incoming
NDB transmissions.

c) station interference and/or night effect.

d) NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propagation.

74) The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within the Promulgated Range (DOC) is:

a) ± 3°

b) ± 5°

c) ± 6°

d) ± 10°

75) The principal propagation path employed in an NDB/ADF system is:

a) skywave.

b)surface wave.

c) direct wave.

d) ducted wave.
 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES PPL QUESTIONS

1. If a pilot judges that his aircraft is in grave and imminent danger, his message should
begin with the words:

a) Mayday Mayday Mayday.

b) Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan.
c) Either Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan Pan or Mayday Mayday Mayday.
d) Emergency Emergency Emergency.

2. Which one of the following statements is false?

An accident must be reported if, between the time that anyone boards an aircraft to go
frying and until everyone has left it:

a) The aircraft incurs damage or structural failure.

b) Anyone is killed or seriously injured while in or on the aircraft.
c) A passenger dies from natural causes.
d) The aircraft is completely inaccessible or missing.

3. Which of the following cases constitutes an aircraft accident?

a) A burst main gear or tailwheel tyre during the take-off or landing roll.
b) A lightning strike on an aircraft in flight.
c) An engine failure in flight.
d) The injury of a person on the ground after being struck by any part of an aircraft which had
detached from the aircraft while it was airborne but where the safety of the aircraft was not
necessarily compromised.

4. If a pilot elects to make a distress or urgency call, on which frequency should he first
transmit, as an alternative to 121.5 MHz?

a) The frequency he is currently using.

b) He should always change immediately to 121.5 MHz before transmitting.
c) The frequency of the nearest airfield with a full Air traffic Control Service.
d) His home airfield frequency.

5. In establishing noise preferential routes, turns during take off and climb should not be
required unless the aircraft has reached:

a) 1000 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
b) 500 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
c) 1500 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.
d) 2000 ft above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path.

6. Which of the following is not a Search & Rescue Alerting phase?

a) Alert Phase.
b) Uncertainty phase.
c) Urgency phase.
d) Distress phase.
7. It's the pilot's responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly equipped for the
planned flight. If there is any doubt the pilot should consult:

a) Pilot's Operating Handbook.

b) Certificate of Airworthiness.
c) Certificate of Maintenance Review.
d) Minimum Equipment List.

8. Before flight it is the pilot's responsibility to check that the aircraft is properly
registered, is airworthy and has been maintained properly. To this end he must check a
variety of documents. Which one of the following is not required to be checked?

a) Certificate of Airworthiness.
b) Minimum Equipment List.
c) Technical log.
d) Third Party Insurance certificate.

9. All aircraft on the aircraft movement area of an aerodrome with engines running are
display lights to indicate this. Which one of the following is used for this purpose?

a) Landing light.
b) Red anti-collision light
c) Navigation lights.
d) Tail light.

10. For night operation, airplanes and gliders must be equipped with the following
lights:

a) Right wing tip: green light, left wing tip: red light, tall: white light.
b) Left wing tip: green light, right wing tip: red light, tail: white light.
c) Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tail: red light.
d) Left wing tip: white light, right wing tip: white light, tall: orange light.

11. In the course of a flight during daylight hours, a pilot notices that the aircraft's anti
collision light has failed. What course of action should he take?

a) Land immediately at the nearest aerodrome.

b) Continue with the flight, as long as it can be completed in daylight, and get the light
repaired at the earliest opportunity.
c) Land as soon as practically possible at the nearest suitable airfield.
d) Return to his base airfield and declare the aircraft unserviceable until the light has been
repaired.

12. When must the anti-collision beacon on an aircraft be operating (if installed)?

a) Must be switched on after engine start-up and switched off before engine shut-down.
b) All the time the aircraft is flying.
c) Must be on all the time the engine of an aircraft is running.
d) Must be switched on shortly before takeoff and switched off when the aircraft vacates the
runway.

13. At the scene of an aircraft accident, a survivor has made a ground signal showing a
large cross with angles of 90° between the arms of the cross. What does this mean?

a) All survivors are uninjured.

b) Require assistance.
c) This is our position.
d) Require medical assistance.

14. Official data regarding operating limitations and allowed mass of your aircraft could
be found in:

a) Aircraft's Flight Manual.

b) Maintenance Log.
c) Certificate of Airworthiness and in Certificate of Registration.
d) Official Gazette of Civil Aviation Authority.

15. The pilot of an aircraft taking-off from an airfield where the altimeter setting Is not
readily available, shall set the aircraft altimeter to:

a) 1013.2 hPa.
b) The altitude zero.
c) The elevation of the airfield.
d) The altimeter setting of the nearest controlled airport.

16. What unit of measurement is in use in aviation when vertical velocity parameters are
reported?

a) Feet per minute.

b) Meters per minute.
c) Meters per second.
d) Feet per second.

17. What units of measurement are in use in aviation when wind parameters are
reported to the pilot (with the exception of takeoff and landing)?

a) Magnetic direction and statute miles per hour.

b) True direction and kilometers per hour.
c) True direction and knots.
d) Magnetic direction and knots.
18. During a walk around check you move the control column of your aircraft to one
side and notice that the up-aileron deflects more than the down-aileron. You would
normally:

a) Fix uneven deflections by adjusting the regulating screws on the aileron control system.
b) Call the mechanic.
c) Consider situation normal as long as the difference In deflections on opposite sides Is
equal, however you would make a technical remark in the book.
d) Do nothing, because the ailerons are of the type "differential".

19. When tying down an aircraft, when should some slack be left in the rope?

a) When using manila ropes tie-down.

b) When using nylon ropes tie-down.
c) Where there are strong winds.
d) Tie-downs should be tied firmly, never leave slack.

20. What should be done if your aircraft engine overheats while taxiing?

a) Shut off the engine immediately.

b) Turn into wind and idle at the recommended RPM.
c) Speed up the engine for improved airflow over the cooling fins.
d) Enrich mixture to provide cooler combustion temperatures.

21. What is the proper pilot procedure in case of a popped-out circuit breaker?

a) Push the circuit breaker in with the related electrical equipment switched off.
b) Not to push in the circuit breaker in any case.
c) Wait until the circuit breaker cools and push it in; If it popes up again, do not Push the
circuit breaker and hold it firmly in by finger until land.
d) Push it again.

22. What should you do if your cylinder head temperature drops too low during an
approach to land or in a glide?
a) Lean the mixture.
b) Turn on carburetor heating.
c) Reduce airspeed to decrease the cooling effect of the airflow.
d) Apply sufficient power to keep the engine warm.

23. What is the reason for shutting down an aviation reciprocating engine using the
mixture lever rather than the ignition switch?

a) Because an engine cannot be shut down by switching the magnetos off.

b) By doing that we avoid self-ignition due to presence of the fuel/air mixture in cylinders.
c) By doing that we prevent the engine to be shut down at too high temperature.
d) Because at magnetos switching off the engine stops very rapidly and damage of the main
shaft bearings could occur.
24. What Initial precaution should betaken by the pilot when parking an aircraft with a
magneto that is unable to be grounded because of a faulty connection in the ignition
switch?

a) Other pilots should be warned against flying the aircraft.

b) A placard should be placed on the aircraft warning others of "live magnetos".
c) The aircraft should be grounded by making an entry in the Journey Log.
d) The CCA should be notified at once.

25. What is the most reliable practical method of checking the fuel level in the reservoirs
of an aircraft while on ground?

a) Visual checking the fuel level in the reservoir.

b) Reading the fuel gauges with engine running.
c) Weighing of an aircraft.
d) Shaking the wingtip and observing the fuel bouncing.

26. Why should you check a sample of fuel from the sump and filter before each flight?

a) To be certain that the fuel is free flowing.

b) To be certain that the fuel is free of contaminants and of the proper grade.
c) To know that the fuel pump is working properly.
d) To be sure that the proper grade of fuel is used.

27. Which fuel contaminant Is the most difficult to isolate with simple filter systems?

a) Grease or oil.
b) Fine rust or dirt particles.
c) Water.
d) Ice.

28. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank
sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the :

a) Any point in the fuel system.

b) Fuel strainer drain.
c) Lowest point in the fuel system.
d) Fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

29. What happens if the filler cap comes loose on one of your wing fuel tanks?

a) The low pressure on the top of the wing will cause all the fuel to be siphoned out.
b) Rainwater will enter the tank and contaminate the fuel.
c) The loose cap will cause damage to control surfaces if it flies off.
d) The aerodynamics flow about the fuel filler neck will disrupt fuel flow.

30. What will happen if the fuel primer pump is not locked enough after its use?
a) Dropping of a fuel in the cockpit.
b) The fuel/air mixture will be too poor because of the air leaking into the intake manifold.
c) The fuel/air mixture will be too rich because of the fuel leaking into the intake manifold.
d) Detonations in the engine because of too rich fuel/air mixture.

31. What is the specific mass of aviation gasoline?

a) 0.72 kg/liter.
b) 0.60 kg/liter.
c) 1.00 kg/liter.
d) 1.72 kg/liter.

32. 1 USA gallon of AVGAS 100 LL weights :

a) 4 lbs.
b) 3 lbs.
c) 6 lbs.
d) 5 lbs.

33. 53 liters of AVGAS 100 LL weights :

a) 80 kg.
b) 42 kg.
c) 74 kg.
d) 38 kg.

34. Aviation gasoline 80/87 grade is colored?

a) Red.
b) Green.
c) Blue.
d) Violet.

35. Aviation gasoline 100/130 grade is colored?

a) Red.
b) Green.
c) Blue.
d) Violet.

36. Aviation gasoline 100LL is colored:

a) Green.
b) Red
c) Blue.
d) Violet.

37. What fuel should you use in your aircraft if the specified grade is not available?

a) Automotive gas SUPER of the same or next higher grade.

b) The next lower grade of aviation fuel.
c) Unleaded automotive gas of the same grade.
d) The next higher grade of aviation fuel.
38. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine Is lower than specified for the engine, it
will most likely cause:

a) A mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.

b) Detonations.
c) Lower cylinder head temperatures.
d) An increase in power which could overstress internal engine components.

39. When an engine is started up, the pilot should monitor oil pressure. If the engine is
cold prior to start up, it should be :

a) Shut down immediately if oil pressure does not rise immediately upon start up.
b) Shut down, if oil pressure is not seen to rise within approximately 30 seconds of start up.
c) Shut down, if oil pressure has not reached normal limits by the time the airplane is ready
for takeoff.
d) Operated normally, since it may take 10 minutes for oil pressure to rise.

40. What should normally be done if after start-up of a hot four-stroke aviation engine
oil pressure does not reach proper level?

a) Shut down the engine.

b) Increase engine RPM thus allowing the oil pump to Increase oil pressure.
c) Nothing, because instruments on modern aircraft are cheap and unreliable.
d) Enrich the mixture to prevent abnormal rise of the cylinder heads temperature.

41. The most probable reason for propeller back-rotating during starting of an
reciprocating aviation engine is:

a) Insufficient priming of fuel.

b) Excessive priming of fuel.
c) Too poor mixture.
d) Too rich mixture.

42. The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has
been turned off is:

a) A magneto ground wire is In contact with the engine casing.

b) Carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs.
c) A broken magneto ground wire.
d) Angular momentum of the crankshaft.

43. When and where should the pilot check the aircraft wheel brakes?

a) After takeoff.
b) Any time during taxiing towards a runway.
c) On the runway, after the aircraft gains some speed.
d) Immediately after leaving the parking spot.
44. When should the pressure in the barometric subscale of an aircraft altimeter be set?

a) Before each flight and in the air, if necessary.

b) Yearly.
c) Monthly.
d) Each morning before flying.

45. The accuracy of an altimeter is checked by:

a) Cross-checking of altimeter readings and radioaltimeter readings.

b) Low-passing near towers with known height.
c) Setting the altimeter to QNH in checking the elevation reading while on ground.
d) Cross-checking of flight altitudes and altitudes from an aeronautical geographical chart
1:500 000.

46. How frequently should the aviation magnetic compass be swung?

a) Each year before an annual inspection of an aircraft or after Installing of optional

instruments or radio equipment or more frequently, if necessary.
b) Before first initial inspection of an aircraft.
c) Each month.
d) After each long flight.

47. The pilot could normally check the state of charge of the oleo-pneumatic units
during a walk around inspection by:

a) Inspecting the hydraulic fluid level in the oleo-pneumatic units.

b) Measuring the pressure in the oleo-pneumatic units.
c) Inspecting how much the struts extend.
d) This check could not be performed by the pilot.

48. The red creep marks on the main tyre and the wheel of an aircraft serve for:

a) Tyre pressure checking.

b) Tyre type recognizing.
c) Wheel balancing.
d) Tyre-wheel alignment checking.

49. If a tyre has moved so that the creep marks are out of alignment, then:

a) It should be inspected and possibly re-fitted or replaced.

b) It is serviceable.
c) Tyre pressure should be checked.
d) The brakes will be unserviceable.

50. How should the flight controls be deflected while taxiing a tailwheel aeroplane with a
strong tailwind?

a) Up.
b) Down.
c) In neutral.
d) Fully up.

51. What would be most likely to cause an upset while taxiing a nose-wheel equipped
aircraft in strong wind?

a) Accelerating suddenly.
b) Applying the brakes suddenly & firmly.
c) Turning sharply (causing the wind to lift the up-wind wing).
d) Lifting the nose-wheel.

52. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What
will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

a) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively reach.

b) There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the
excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
c) The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause
detonation.
d) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

53. During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness
that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat
check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

a) Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.

b) Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
c) Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
d) Check the mixture control lever is in FULL RICH position.

54. What is indicated by black smoke emitted from the engine exhaust during the run-
up?

a) The choke is out too far.

b) The mixture is too rich.
c) The piston rings are stuck or worn.
d) The carburetor is set too lean.

55. What is indicated by blue smoke emitted from the engine exhaust during the run-
up?

a) The piston rings are stuck or worn.

b) The choke is out too far.
c) The mixture is too rich.
d) The carburetor is set too lean.

56. How should the mixture control be set for takeoff at sea level?
a) Aft (FULL RICH).
b) Forward (FULL RICH).
c) Aft (FULL LEAN).
d) Forward (FULL LEAN).

57. During cruise flight you apply full carburetor heat to your aircraft with fixed-pitch
propeller. What is the expected effect in RPM under normal conditions?

a) It would cause a slight increase in RPM due to hot air intake.

b) No effect.
c) It would cause a slight decrease in RPM due to the change in fuel/air mixture.
d) The RPM would fluctuate due to the unstable fuel/air mixture.

58. During engine run-up test on ground the pilot can check the proper functioning of
carburetor heating by moving the carburetor heat lever to HOT and noting:

a) This check could not be performed on ground.

b) A slight rise In RPM.
c) Increased flow of hot air Into the cockpit.
d) A slight drop in RPM.

59. The carburetor heat during taxi should be used with caution due to:

a) Dust and other foreign particles which can cause damage if ingested Into engine.
b) High temperatures which can cause detonations.
c) Rich mixture which can cause fouling of the spark plugs.
d) Overheating of the engine.

60. How should you select propeller pitch for takeoff if your aircraft has a constant
speed propeller?

a) Coarse pitch (Low RPM| for minimum noise.

b) Fine pitch (Low RPM) for maximum efficiency.
c) Fine pitch (High RPM| for maximum power.
d) Coarse pitch (Low RPM| for maximum thrust.

61. In an airplane with a controllable pitch propeller, power reduction should be made
by first reducing

a) The manifold pressure with the throttle, and then adjusting the RPM with the propeller
control.
b) The RPM with the throttle and then reducing the manifold pressure with the propeller
control.
c) The RPM with the propeller control, and then reducing the manifold pressure with the
throttle.
d) The manifold pressure with the propellercontrol, and then reducing the RPM with the
throttle.
62. When transiting an airplane with a constant-speed propeller from a cruise to a
climb, the pilot should:

a) Increase the RPM with the throttle first, and then increase the manifold pressure with the
propeller control.
b) Increase the manifold pressure with the throttle first, and then increase the RPM with the
propeller control.
c) Increase the PRM with the propeller control before advancing the throttle.
d) Decrease the manifold pressure with the propeller control first, and then increase the RPM
with the throttle.

63. What may zero reading on the center-zero ammeter in flight indicates?

a) Abnormal condition; the battery provides electrical power for electrical equipment.
b) Alternator off-line.
c) No electrical equipment is switched on.
d) Normal condition; the alternator provides electrical power for electrical equipment.

64. In flight you notice that the pointer of a center-zero ammeter is deflected to the left.
What does this Indication mean and what should you as the pilot of an aircraft normally
do?

a) Not-normal condition; the accumulator deplenishes, because the alternator is not

functioning or is not capable to cover all the demands of electrical consumers connected. If
after switching off-on of the master switch the situation does not recover, an electrical
consumption should be reduced to minimum and a landing should be made to the nearest
suitable airfield.
b) Normal condition; the accumulator is charging, therefore the flight will be continued, the
indication of an instrument should be monitored and a drop of Indication should be expected.
c) Normal condition; the instruments indicate present consumption of the electricity, provided
by the alternator.

65. In flight you notice the orange light glowing on the instrumental panel. What does
this mean?

a) Too high output voltage.

b) Alternator does not deliver any electrical current.
c) Flat battery.
d) Overheated alternator.

66. What precautions are required when stopping a light aircraft behind a heavy
aircraft that is stopped on the manoeuvring area?

a) The light aircraft should face away from the large aircraft.
b) The light aircraft should be facing the large aircraft.
c) The light aircraft should be stopped clear of the jet blast danger area.
d) The light aircraft should be no closer than 125 m from rear of large aircraft.
67. Following separation of the airflow from one wing and banking and slipping to one
side, the pilot would prevent an aircraft of developing a full spin by :

a) Opening the airbrakes immediately (if installed).

b) Deflection of all flight controls to the opposite side of rotation instantly.
c) Applying back pressure on the control stick thus recovering from a dive.
d) Deflecting the rudder to the opposite side of slipping and easing the elevator forward to
gain the speed.

68. Choose the correct procedure for spin recovery in an aeroplane?

a) Apply the rudder in direction of rotation, ailerons opposite to direction of rotation, and pull
on the stick backward.
b) Apply the rudder opposite to direction of rotation, ailerons to neutral, elevator control ease
forward, and recover gently from a dive.
c) Apply the rudder opposite to direction of rotation, ailerons to neutral, elevator control
backward
d) Deflect the rudder and the stick in direction of rotation and firmly push on the stick
forward.

69. One of the main function of flaps during the approach and landing is to:

a) Decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal approach to be made.

b) Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
c) Permit touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
d) Decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

70. Wing flaps at the recommended takeoff setting:

a) Increase lifting ability for a small penalty of drag.

b) Increase lifting ability for a large penalty of drag.
c) Significantly increase drag for a small decrease in lifting ability.
d) Will not affect lift and drag.

71. Wing flaps at the recommended landing setting:

a) Increase lifting ability for a small Increase of drag.

b) Cause a large drag increase and a small increase in lifting ability.
c) Significantly increase drag for a small decrease in lifting ability.
d) Will not affect lift and drag.

72. During landing close to the surface and at low airspeed, it could be dangerous to
retract wing flaps, because of:
a) Rapid increase of the airspeed and resulting rapid climb.
b) Drag Increase and resulting rapid decrease of the airspeed.
c) Rapid decrease of lift and resulting sink into runway.
d) Great decrease in effectiveness of wing flaps.

73. Wing flaps at takeoff are not set to fully deflected position to avoid:

a) Damage of the flaps.

b) Excessive lift.
c) "Nose heavy" aircraft.
d) Excessive drag.

74. Which of the following describes threshold lights?

a) Green unidirectional.
b) Red unidirectional.
c) Green omni-directional.
d) Red omni-directional.

75. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:

a) Flashing red.
b) Flashing yellow.
c) Fixed red.
d) Fixed orange.

Principles of Flight PPL Questions

01. An aeroplane wing stalls when:

a) The indicated airspeed is too law.
b) The critical angle of attack is exceeded.
c) The laminar airflow becomes turbulent.
d) It is subjected to unusually high “G” forces.

02. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircrft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude.
It is:
a) Statically and dynamically unstable.
b) Statically stable but dynamically unstable.
c) Statically unstable but dynamically stable.
d) Statically and dynamically stable.

03. A positively cambered aerofoil starts to produce lift at an angle of attack of

approximately:
a) Minus 4 degrees.
b) 0 degrees.
c) 4 to 6 degrees.
d) 16 degrees.

04. The stalling speed of an aircraft in straight and level flight is 60 kt, IAS. What is its
stalling speed in a level 60º banked turn?
 a) 85 kt
b) 60 kt
c) 43 kt
d) 120 kt

05. Considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane, at constant airspeed, which
statement is correct?
a) Weight always acts vertically downwards towards the centre of the Earth.
b) Lift acts perpendicular to the chord line and must always be greater than weight.
c) Thrust acts parallel to the relative air flow and is greater than drag.
d) The lift force generated by the wings always acts in the opposite direction to the
aircraft’s weight.

06. To trim an aircraft which tends to fly nose heavy with hands off, the top of the
elevator trim wheel should be:
a) Moved forward to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to
move down, and the alevator to move up.
b) Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to
move down, and the alevator to move up.
c) Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to
move up, and the alevator to move up.
d) Moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to
move up, and cause the nose to rise.

07. What force makes an airplane turn?

a) The horizontal component of lift.
b) The vertical component of lift.
c) Thrust.
d) Centrifugal force.

08. The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will:

a) increase if the CG is moved forward.
b) change with an increase in gross weight.
c) increase with the increasing load factor
d) remain the same regardless of gross weight.

09. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to:
a) decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
b) permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
c) increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
d) increase the angle of attack.

10. On an aerofoil section, the force of Iilt acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag
acts
parallel to, the:
a) Flightpath.
b) Longitudinal axis.
c) Chord line.
d) Aerofoil section upper surface.
11. If the aircraft weight is increased, without change of C of G position, the stalling
angle of attack will:
a) Remain the same.
b) Decrease.
c) Increase.
d) Remain the same. The position of the C of G does not affect the stall speed.

12. The air flew over the wing’s upper surface in straight and level flight, when
ccmpared with the airflow that is unaffected by the wing, will have:
a) A higher velocity.
b) A higher density.
c) A reduced velocity.
d) The same velocity.

13. With the flaps Iowered, the stalling speed will:

a) Increase.
b) Decrease.
c) Increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack.
d) Remain the same.

14. If the indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is increased from 50 kts to 100 kts, parasite
drag will be:
a) Four times greater.
b) Six times greater.
c) Two times greater.
d) One quarter as much.

15. ln a climb at a steady speed, the thrust is:

a) Equal to the aerodynamic drag.
b) Less than the aerodynamic drag.
c) Greater than the aerodynamic drag.
d) Equal to the weight component along the flight path.

16. lf a disturbing force causes an aircraft to roll:

a) Wing dihedral will cause a rolling moment which tends to correct the sideslip.
b) The fin will cause a yawing moment which reduces the sideslip.
c) Wing dihedral will cause a yawing moment which tends to correct the sideslip.
d) Wing dihedral will cause a nose up pitching moment.

17. When considering the changes in density of the air with altitude, which of the
following four options is correct?
a) The temperature increase with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
b) The reduction in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.
c) The temperature reduction with increasing altitude causes density to increase.
d) The increase in pressure with increasing altitude causes density to reduce.

18. If the Angle of Attack and other factors remain constant, and the airspeed is
doubled, lift will be:
a) Doubled.
b) One quarter of what it was.
c) The same.
d) Quadrupled.
19. As airspeed increases induced drag _____ , parasite drag _____ and total drag
_____ .
a) Increases Increases Increases
b) Increases Decreases Increases then decreases.
c) Decreases Decreases Decreases
d) Decreases Increases Decreases then Increases.

20. Air prsssure:

a) Acts only vertically downwards.
b) ls measured in Pascals per square inch.
c) Acts in all directions.
d) Increases with altitude.

21. An aircraft is disturbed from its flight path by a gust of wind. If it tends to return to
its original flight path without pilot intervention, the aircraft is said to possess:
a) Instability.
b) Negative Dynamic Stability.
c) Neutral Dynamic Stability.
d) Positive Dynamic Stability.

22. An aeroplane which is inherently stable will:

a) Require less effort te centrol.
b) Be difficuIt to stall.
c) Not spin.
d) Have a built-in tendency to return to its original state following the removal of any
disturbing force.

23. When an aircraft is disturbed from its established flight path by, for example,
turbulence, it is said to have positive stability if it subsequently:
a) Remains on the new flight path.
b) Re-establishes its original flight path without any input from the pilot.
c) Becomes further displaced from its original flight path.
d) Continues to pitch in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by
opposing control forces.

24. Which of the answer options most correctly completes the sentence?

The amount of lift a wing produces is directly proportional to:

a) The dynamic pressure minus the static pressure.
b) The square root of the velocity of the air flowing over it.
c) The air density.
d) The air temperature.

25. A typical stalling angle of attack for an aircraft wing is:

a) 4°
b) 16°
c) 30°
d) 45°

26. Assuming that the pressure at sea level is lSA, but the temperature is 10°C higher
than lSA, the density will be:
a) As per ISA
b) Greater than lSA.
c) Less than ISA.
 d) Unaffected.

27. lf the Angle of Attack is increased beyond the Critical Angle of Attack, the wing will
no Ionger produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft:
a) Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed.
b) Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude.
c) Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon.
d) In which case, the control column should be puIIed—back immediately.

28. The primary and secondary effects of applying the left rudder alone are:
a) Left yaw and left roll.
b) Left yaw and right roll.
c) Right yaw and left roll.
d) Right yaw and right roll.

29. The air pressure that acts on anything immersed in it:

a) ls also known as Dynamic Pressure.
b) ls also known as Static Pressure.
c) Is greater at altitude than at sea level.
d) ls also known as Total Pressure.

30. By changing the Angle of Attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane’s:
a) Lift and airspeed, but not drag.
b) Lift, gross weight, and drag.
c) Lift, airspeed, and drag.
d) Lift and drag, but not airspeed.

31. lf the control column is moved to the right, a balance tab on the left aileron shouId:
a) Move up relative to the aileron.
b) Move down relative to the aileron.
c) Not move unless tho aileron trim whel is turned.
d) Move to the neutral position.

32. When the control column is pushed forward, a balance tab on the elevator:
a) Will move up relative to the control surface.
b) Will move down relative to the control surface.
c) Will only move if the trim wheel is operated.
d) Moves to the neutral position.

33. The unit of force is the:

a) Newton.
b) bj Newton-metre.
c) Joule.
d) Mass-kilogram.

34. That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called:
a) Parasite drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
b) Induced drag, which is not affected by changes in airspeed.
c) Induced drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
d) Parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed.

35. The presence of water vapour:

a) In air will increase its density.
b) In the atmosphere will increase the power output of a piston engine.
 c) In the atmosphere will increase the amount of lift generated by an aircraft.
d) In air will reduce its density.

36. An aeroplane will stall at the same:

a) Angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon.
b) Airspeed, regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon.
c) Angle of attack, regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon.
d) Indicated airspeed, regardless of altitude, bank angle and load factor.

37. VNE is:

a) The airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive.
b) The maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approaching the stall may be
carried out.
c) The maximum airspeed at which the aircraft may be flown.
d) The maximum speed, above which flaps should not be extended.

38. A pilot lowers the flaps while keeping the airspeed constant. In order to maintain
level flight, the angle of attack:
a) Must be reduced.
b) Must be increased.
c) Must be kept constant but power must be increased.
d) Must be kept constant and power required will be constant.

39. When considering air:

1-Air has mass
2- Air is not compressible
3- Air is able to flow or change its shape when subject to even small pressures
4-The viscosity of air is very high
5-Moving air has kinetic energy
The correct combination of all true statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5.
b) 2, 3 and 4.
c) 1 and 4.
d) 1, 3, and 5.

40. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended (VFE) is lower than cruising
speed because:
a) Flaps are used only when preparing to land.
b) Too much drag is induced.
c) Flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed.
d) At speeds higher than VFE, the aerodynamic forces would overload the flap and
wing structures.

41. If the velocity of an air mass is increased:

a) The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase.
b) The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase.
c) The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static
pressure will decrease.
d) The mass flow will stay constant, the dynamic pressure will decrease and the
static pressure will increase.
42. Full flaps should be selected when:
a) Commencing final approach.
b) On go-around.
c) Landing into a strong headwind.
d) Committed to land.

43. As Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is reduced, in order to maintain altitude, the pilot
must:
a) Increase the angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force.
b) Decrease the angle of attack to reduce the drag.
c) Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag.
d) Reduce the thrust.

44. The surface that gives an aircraft directional stability is:

a) The rudder.
b) The horizontal tailplane.
c) The rudder trim tab.
d) The fin.

45. The maximum value of the Coefficient of Lift is found:

a) At negative angles of attack.
b) At the stalling angle of attack.
c) When lift equals drag.
d) During steep turns.

46. If the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced:

a) The mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases.
b) The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the mass flow increases.
c) The mass flow remains constant and the static pressure increases.
d) The velocity of the airflow remains constant and the kinetic energy increases.

47. The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to:

a) Trim the aircraft.
b) Reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds.
c) Reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only.
d) Ensure that the pilot's physical control load increases with increase of control
surface deflection.

48. An aircraft wing is constructed with positive dihedral in order to give:

a) Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.
b) Longitudinal stability about the lateral axis.
c) Lateral stability about the normal axis.
d) Directional stability about the normal axis.

49. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
a) Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface.
b) Higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface.
c) Vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface.
d) Higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.
50. The maximum gliding distance from 6000 feet, for an aircraft in clean
configuration, with a lift/drag ratio of 8:1, is approximately 8 nautical miles. If flaps are
deployed:
a) The maximum gliding distance will increase.
b) The maximum gliding distance will be less.
c) Lift/Drag ratio will be unaffected but will be achieved at a lower airspeed.
d) The maximum gliding distance will be unaffected.

51. An imaginary straight line running from the midpoint of the leading edge of an
aerofoil to its trailing edge, is called the:
a) Mean camber.
b) Aerofoil thickness.
c) Chord.
d) Maximum camber.

52. Wing leading-edge devices such as slots, designed to allow flight at higher angles
of attack, do so by:
a) Providing an extra lifting surface and hence increase the lift available.
b) Changing the shape and hence the lift characteristics of the wing.
c) Re-energising the airflow over the top of the wing, delaying separation.
d) Decreasing lift and hence induced drag.

53. Movement of the aircraft about its normal (vertical) axis is known as:
a) Yawing.
b) Rolling.
c) Pitching.
d) Side slipping.

54. The maximum speed at which the aircraft can be flown with flaps extended is
called:
a) VYSE.
b) VFE.
c) VNE.
d) VN0

55. When the aircraft is in a spin, the direction of spin is most reliably found by
reference to which of the following indications?
a) Artificial horizon.
b) Slip indicator.
c) Direction indicator.
d) Turn needle.

56. If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle:

a) Lift and drag will both decrease.
b) Lift will decrease and drag will increase.
c) Lift will increase and drag will decrease.
d) Lift and drag will both increase.

57. In straight and level flight, the free stream airflow pressure, compared to that
flowing under the wing, is:
a) Equal.
b) Higher.
c) Lower.
 d) Equal pressure but travelling faster.

58. If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed must be:
a) Reduced.
b) Increased.
c) The same as for a landing with flaps.
d) The same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach.

59. An aircraft rotates about:

a) Its wings.
b) Its centre of gravity.
c) Its main undercarriage.
d) Its rudder.

60. The angle of attack is the angle between the:

a) Camber line and free stream flow.
b) Chord line and the Longitudinal axis of the aeroplane.
c) Chord line and the horizontal plane.
d) Chord line and the relative airflow.

61. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original flight
situation, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as:
a) Manoeuvrability.
b) Controllability.
c) Stability.
d) Instability.

62. A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of
such a moving mass of air will be subject to:
a) Static pressure and dynamic pressure.
b) Static Pressure.
c) Dynamic pressure.
d) Dynamic pressure minus static pressure.

63. The purpose of a trim tab is:

a) To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls.
b) To zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required.
c) To provide feel to the controls at high speed.
d) To increase the effectiveness of the controls.

64. The symbol for dynamic pressure is:

a) Q
b) P
c) R
d) D

65. The angle of climb is proportional to:

a) The amount by which the lift exceeds the weight.
b) The amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag.
c) The amount by which the thrust exceeds the weight.
d) The angle of attack of the wing.
66. The respective percentages of the four most abundant gases that make up the
atmosphere are?
a) Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%
b) Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%
c) Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Monoxide 0.05%
d) Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Monoxide 0.05%

67. What must be the relationship between the forces acting on an aircraft in flight, for
that aircraft to be in a state of equilibrium?
a) Lift must equal drag, and thrust must equal weight.
b) Lift must equal weight, and thrust must equal drag.
c) Lift must equal thrust plus drag.
d) Lift must equal thrust, and weight must equal drag.

68. As airspeed increases, induced drag:

a) Increases.
b) Decreases.
c) Is dependant on the weight of the aircraft.
d) Remains unchanged.

69. Relative airflow is _____ and _____ the movement of the aircraft.
a) Perpendicular to Opposite to.
b) Parallel to Opposite to.
c) Perpendicular to In the same direction as.
d) Parallel to In the same direction as.

70. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:
a) Remains the same, but CLMAX increases.
b) Increases and CLMAX increases.
c) Decreases, but CLMAx increases.
d) Decreases, but CLMAx remains the same.

71. The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which:

a) Passes through the wing tips.
b) Passes through the Centre of Pressure, at right angles to the direction of the
airflow.
c) Passes through the quarter-chord point of the wing root, at right angles to the
longitudinal axis.
d) Passes through the Centre of Gravity, parallel to a line through the wing tips.

72. If the control column is moved forward and to the left:

a) The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up.
b) The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down.
c) The left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves down.
d) The left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up.

73. Density:
a) Reduces with altitude increase.
b) Is unaffected by temperature change.
c) Increases with altitude increase.
d) Reduces with temperature reduction.
74. Ailerons give:
a) Lateral control about the lateral axis.
b) Longitudinal control about the lateral axis.
c) Directional control about the normal axis.
d) Lateral control about the longitudinal axis

75. The primary and secondary effects of the aileron control are:
a) Roll and pitch.
b) Pitch and yaw
c) Roll and yaw.
d) Yaw and roll.