EVS MCQ’s

1. Which of the following conceptual spheres of the environment is having the

least storage capacity for matter?
Answer: A) Atmosphere

2. The range of temperature in the mantle of the earth’s interior part is,
Answer: C) 700 to 1800 degree Celsius

3. The largest reservoir of nitrogen in our planet is

Answer: B) Atmosphere

4. The major atmospheric gas layer in the stratosphere is

Answer: C) Ozone

5. World Environment day is celebrated on

Answer: B) 5th June

6. Mesosphere extends roughly to the altitude of

Answer: D) 65 to 125 km

7. Who proposed the term Environment?

Answer: C) Charles Elton

8. The Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
Answer: D) 1972
9. In which of the following countries, WWF-International NGO is located
Answer: D) Switzerland

10. About ……… % of the earth’s surface is covered by water

Answer: C) 74.5 %

11. Which is the first country amended laws for the punishment of crimes
relating to environmental pollution?
Answer: A) Spain

12. The Forest Conservation Act was enacted in the year

Answer: A) 1986

13. The Central Pollution Control Board was established under the provision of
Answer: A) Environmental (Protection) Act

14. The leader of the Chipko movement is

Answer: A) Sunderlal Bahuguna

15. “The state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment” as per
the article
Answer: B) 51-A

16. The first world summit on sustainable development was held at

Answer: A) Johannesburg in 2002
17. The Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year
Answer: B) 1974

18. The first United National conference on Human Environment was held at
…… in the year June 1972
Answer: A) Stockholm

19. In which year did the Honourable Supreme Court of India direct to make
environmental education a compulsory subject at all levels of education?
Answer: B) 1997

20. The plastic region in the upper part of the mantle is called
Answer: D) Asthenosphere

21. Earth Day is held every year on

Answer: C) April 22nd

22. Which of the following is the authority to monitor industrial effluents?

Answer: B) State Pollution Control Board

23. Which of the following statements is true

Answer: B) Water percolating downward through agriculture lands carries
with it dissolved chemicals and contaminates groundwater

24. Which of the following components of the environment are effective

transporters of matter?
Answer: C) Hydrosphere and Lithosphere
25. Atmosphere consists of 78 percent Nitrogen and 21 percent Oxygen by
Answer: A) Volume

26. The word ‘Environment’ is derived from

Answer: A) Greek

27. Which atmospheric sphere is closest to the earth’s surface?

Answer: D) Troposphere

28. The temperature difference of Stratosphere is

Answer: B) -60 to -2 degree Celsius

29. Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused due to leakage of

Answer: A) Methyl Iso Cyanate

30. Sustainable development is

Answer: C) Balance between human needs and the ability of Earth to provide
the resources

31. Eutrophication is
Answer: C) The result of the accumulation of plant nutrients in water bodies

32. The adverse effect of modern agriculture is

Answer: D) All of the above

33. Which of the following statements is false

 Answer: D) Soil erosion helps to retain water and nutrients in the root zone

34. Which among the following is not a step involved in the process of projects
approval under EIA,
Answer: D) Adjourning

35. The oceans are the largest storage of water on earth, containing
_________.
Answer: C) 97 % of earth’s water

36. Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year

Answer: A) 1986

37. The first of the major environmental protection Acts to be promulgated in

India was
Answer: B) The Air (Prevention & Control of pollution) Act

38. The Wild Life Protection Act was enacted in the year
Answer: D) 1972

39. Environmental Protection is the fundamental duty of the citizens of India

under the Article:
Answer: B) 51-A

40. Silent Valley movement succeeded in

Answer: B) Canceling the Kerala state government hydel project and saving
the Lion-Tailed Monkeys
41. The committee which submitted its report to the Government of India on
Environmental education, which recommended the formation of MOEF is,
Answer: C) Banerjee Committee

42. Troposphere extends up to

Answer: C) 0 to 12 km

43. E.I.A. can be expanded as

Answer: C) Environmental Impact Assessment

44. Waterlogging is a phenomenon in which

Answer: B) Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over-irrigation

45. The condition in which the temperature of the atmosphere increases with
altitude in contrast to the normal decrease with altitude is called
Answer: A) Temperature inversion

46. The percentage of fresh water available, compared to the total amount of
water on earth is
Answer: A) Less than 1%

47. The equatorial diameter of the earth is

Answer: B) 12756 Km

48. The composition of the earth’s core is

Answer: C) Iron and Nickel
49. The approximate thickness of the earth’s outer core is
Answer: C) 2300 Km

50. The approximate thickness of the earth’s inner core is

Answer: A) 2250 Km

51. In which year did UNESCO publish the guiding principles of environmental
education?
Answer: C) 1971

52. Which among the following is not an objective of environmental

education?
Answer: D) Punctuality

53. What is the average mass density of the earth?

Answer: C) 7.5 g/cc

54. According to UNESCO’s guiding principles, environmental education must

be compulsory right from Primary level up to _________ level.
Answer: C) Postgraduate

55. Which among the following is the oldest NGO in India,

Answer: A) Gandhi Peace Foundation

56. In which year was the “biomedical waste rules” formulated?

Answer: B) 1995
57. In which year were “Noise pollution rules” framed?
Answer: D) 1990

58. “Motor vehicle act” was enacted in which year?

Answer: D) 1988

59. “The national environment tribunal act” was promulgated in the year,
Answer: C) 1990

60. Which among the following is not an international NGO,

Answer: C) UKSN

61. Who invented DDT?

Answer: B) Paul Muller

62. The definition of sustainable development was stated by

Answer: B. G H Brundtland

1. The global warming potential of chlorofluorocarbons is

Answer: B) 1500

2. Bio-remediation means the removal of contaminants from

Answer: D) Both Soil and Groundwater

3. Minamata episode of Japan is due to poisoning of

Answer: C) Mercury
4. A long term atmospheric impact of burning fossil fuel is
Answer: B) Global warming

5. Which among the following is not a greenhouse gas?

Answer: B) Sulphur dioxide

6. Anthropogenic activity refers to

Answer: B) Human activity

7. The disease “pulmonary oedema” is caused by which among the following

pollutant,
Answer: C) NOx

8. The atmospheric life time of the nitrous oxide (laughing gas) is,
Answer: C) 154 Years

9. Each chlorine atom is capable of destroying up to_____________ ozone

molecule,
Answer: B) 10000

10. Which among the following is not an effect of automobile pollution?

Answer: D) None of the above.

11. World ozone day is celebrated every year on

Answer: A) September 16th
12. The pH of the acid rainwater is
Answer: A) 5.6

13. The formation of Ozone in the stratosphere is explained by

Answer: C) Chapman’s reaction

14. The atmospheric life time of Methane is,

Answer: B) 11 Years

15. The global warming potential of Nitrous oxide is

Answer: B) 1500

16. The relative contribution of carbon dioxide towards global warming is

Answer: C) 55 %

17. The father of acid rain concept is

Answer: A) Robert Angus Smith

18. The relative contribution of agricultural activity towards global warming is

Answer: B) 13 %

19. The Snow blindness/Photokeratitis is caused by

Answer: A) Ultraviolet radiation

20. Which among the following pollutant causes damage to the respiratory
system, blood vascular systems, and excretory system?
Answer: B) Sulphur dioxide
21. The international protocol to protect the Ozone layer is
Answer: D) Montreal protocol

22. The protocol that reduces greenhouse gas emissions is

Answer: A) Kyoto protocol

23. Bharath – III emission standard came into effect from

Answer: A) April 2005

24. The major effect of Acid rain is

Answer: A) Reduces soil fertility.

25. Normal average thickness of stratospheric ozone layer across the globe is
around
Answer: C) 400 DU

26. Which of the following is not an ill effect of acid rain?

Answer: D) Causes cataract.

27. Freons are also referred to as

Answer: D) CFC

28. Ozone hole was first discovered over

Answer: B) Antarctic region

29. CFCs have been used as

 Answer: D) All of these

30. The steady decline of ozone in the stratosphere is called

Answer: C) Ozone thinning

31. Which of the following is not the safe method for the disposal of solid
waste
Answer: C) Ocean dumping

32. Which of the following is not the source of biomedical waste,

Answer: B) Agriculture

33. Which of the following are the safe disposal methods for biomedical
wastes,
Answer: D) All the above.

34. An Autoclave device was invented by

Answer: A) Charles Chamberland

35. Acid rain has been increasing day by day due to

Answer: B) Industrialization

36. Ozone layer thickness is measured in

Answer: D) Dobson unit

37. Which of the following statements about ozone is true?

Answer: D) All of the above
38. Acid rain can be controlled by
Answer: A) Reducing SO2 and NO2 emissions

39. The method where the biomedical waste is subjected to indirect heating by
applying steam in the outer jacket is called as
Answer: A) Autoclaving

40. _____________ is a process by which biomedical wastes are deshaped or

cut into smaller pieces so as to make the wastes unrecognizable.
Answer: D) Shredding

41. _______________ is a low-heat thermal process where steam is brought

into direct contact with biomedical waste in a controlled manner and for a
sufficient duration to disinfect.
Answer: C) Autoclaving

42. ______________ refers to the biochemical degradation of organic material

in urban solid waste to yield a sanitary soil supplement.
Answer: D) Composting

43. Solder in printed circuit boards, glass panels, and gaskets in computer
monitors consist of which among the following material?
Answer: D) Lead

44. Chip resistors and semiconductors consist of which among the following
material that is teratogenic?
Answer: D) Lead
45. Relays, switches & printed circuit boards consist of which among the
following materials that cause chronic damage to the brain?
Answer: A) Mercury

46. Front panel of Cathode ray tubes consists of which among the following
material that causes muscle weakness?
Answer: B) Beryllium

47. Motherboards consist of which among the following carcinogenic material?

Answer: C) Cadmium

48. Which among the following methods adopted in electronic waste

minimization in industries;
Answer: D) All the above

49. When the solid waste consists of large amounts of organic matter & if the
moisture content is high, which of the methods of treatment will be ideal?
Answer: D) Composting

50. The term acid rain was coined by Robert Angus Smith in the year,
Answer: B) 1872

51. The term ‘pollution’ is derived from which language?

Answer: D) Latin

52. Which of the following does not cause soil pollution,

 Answer: C) Needle leaf afforestation

53. The definition ‘Any liquid, solid, or gaseous substance present in such a
concentration as may be or tend to be injurious to the environment’ is called
as
Answer: A) Pollution

54. ‘The points of entry of pollutants which are easily identifiable’ are called
as
Answer: A) Point source

55. Which among the following is not a secondary pollutant?

Answer: D) Carbon dioxide

56. “The substances that normally occurring in the environment and acquire
the status of pollutant when their concentration increased due to the activities
of humans” is called
as
Answer: C) Quantitative pollutant

57. ISO 14000 standards deal with which among the following aspects;
Answer: C) Environmental Management

58. Which among the following is not an adverse effect of Sulphur dioxide on
plants?
Answer: D) Premature falling of leaves & Curling
59. Which among the following diseases is water-induced disease?
Answer: B) Cholera

60. The emission of exhaust from automobiles can be reduced by adopting

_______ to the vehicles,
Answer: B) Catalytic converters

61. Major pollutants from light petrol vehicles are,

Answer

: A) CO and Hydrocarbons

62. Which type of afforestation increases acidification of soil?

Answer: B) Coniferous afforestation

63. Bharath – VI emission standard came into effect from

Answer: D) April 2020

64. In which year the Montreal Protocol came into effect?

Answer: B) 1987.

65. Montreal protocol aims at which of the following matter?

Answer: B) Phasing out ozone-depleting substances.

66. The only UN treaty related to environmental issues which has been ratified
by all 197 UN member states is
Answer: B) Paris Agreement
67. What is the main aim of Kyoto Protocol?
Answer: C) To reduce greenhouse gases.

68. When the Kyoto protocol was held for the first time?
Answer: B) November 1997

69. Which countries rejected the idea that was tossed during the Kyoto
protocol?
Answer: B) India, China, and USA.

70. When did the Kyoto protocol come into force?

Answer: A) June 16, 2005

71. Which one of the following is not a very wise option for reducing carbon
emissions?
Answer: D) Using thermal power plant for energy production.

72. What is India’s global ranking in the carbon credit list?

Answer: B) Second.

73. When was the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
(OPCW formed)?
Answer: B) Hague, Netherlands.

74. When was the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons
(OPCW formed)?
 Answer: A) 29th April 1997.

75. How many countries are the members of the OPCW?

Answer: D) 190.

76. Which country is not a member of the OPCW?

Answer: C) Egypt.

1. What percentage of geographical area of a country should be under forest

cover?
Answer: D) 33%

2. Major causes of deforestation are

Answer: D) All of these

3. Which of the following statements about forest is not correct?

Answer: D) None of the above

4. ……….. are referred to as earth’s lungs.

Answer: A) Forests

5. Among the total water available on the earth, the percentage of fresh water
is about
Answer: D) Less than 1%

6. Mineral resources are

Answer: C) Non-renewable
7. The oceans are the largest storage of water of earth containing
Answer: C) 97% of earth’s water

8. Which of the following is not a part of the hydrological cycle?

Answer: D) Perspiration

9. The ground water depends on

Answer: D) All of the above

10. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

Answer: A) Fossil fuels

11. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy

sources?
Answer: C) Unreliable supply

12. ‘OTEC’ is an energy technology that converts

Answer: C) Energy in ocean due to thermal gradient to generate electricity

13. Which of the following source of energy is less eco-friendly?

Answer: D) Nuclear

14. Solar energy is stored in

Answer: B) Green leaves

15. Identify the non-renewable source of energy from the following

 Answer: A) Coal

16. Wind Farms are located in

Answer: C) Hilly area

17. Wind energy generation depends on

Answer: B) Velocity of wind

18. With a minimum resource, maximum energy can be created by

Answer: A) Solar radiation

19. Direct conversion of solar energy is attained by

Answer: A) Solar photovoltaic system/Solar Cells

20. Which among the following is the source of power generation in

Hydropower plants?
Answer: D) Water

21. Nuclear power is being produced from

Answer: B) Nuclear fission

22. Nuclear fusion uses which among the following as fuel

Answer: C) Hydrogen

23. Which is the source of energy that can be replaced at the same rate at
which it is used?
Answer: D) Biomass
24. Biomass consists of
Answer: D) All of the above

25. Which of the following is used mostly as a moderator in the nuclear

reactor?
Answer: A) Graphite

26. Nuclear wastes are active for

Answer: D) Centuries

27. Nuclear power plant in Karnataka is located at

Answer: D) Kaiga

28. Fossil fuels are converted into energy by

Answer: A) Combustion

29. Which among the following predominant components exist in Natural gas?
Answer: C) Methane

30. Which among the following places in India, the tidal energy has been
experimented first?
Answer: B) Karnataka

31. Highest producer of Oil and petroleum is

Answer: A) Middle East countries
32. Generally Cow Dung can be used for which among the following purpose?
Answer: D) All of these

33. Biogas is gaseous fuel composed mainly of

Answer: A) Methane and Carbon dioxide

34. Molasses from sugar industry is used to generate

Answer: C) Bioethanol

35. Which of the following is a conventional source of energy?

Answer: B) Thermal Energy

36. One Joule of energy is equivalent to ________ in terms of Calorie.

Answer: C) 238.9

37. The World’s annual energy consumption rate is increasing at a rate of

Answer: A) 5 to 10%

38. Radiated energy can be transferred in

Answer: D) Both medium of air and free space

39. EMR propagates energy with a velocity of

Answer: B) 3 x 10^8 m/sec

40. A long term atmospheric impact of burning fossil fuel is

Answer: B) Global warming
41. Which solar thermal system can be used to achieve a temperature of 1000
degrees Celsius?
Answer: B) Parabolic dish collector

42. Physical & Chemical characteristics of Coal depend on

Answer: C) Both temperature and pressure

43. Heating of Coal in the absence of air to produce coal gas is called
Answer: B) Coal gasification

44. One gram of U235 can give electrical energy equivalent to

Answer: D) 1000 MW

45. Most popular biogas plants in rural India have the capacity of
Answer: C) 10 m^3/day

46. Out of the following nutrients in fertilizer, which one causes minimum
water pollution?
Answer: D) Organic matter

47. What is the permissible range of pH for drinking water as per the Indian
standards?
Answer: D) 6.5 to 8.5

48. Energy actually used by the herbivores is only _____ of the gross
productivity of producers.
 Answer: D) 15%

49. Excess fluorides in drinking water are likely to cause

Answer: B) Fluorosis

50. The required iron content in drinking water specified by USPH is

Answer: D) 0.3 mg/L

51. The term sustainable energy is applicable to which among the following
sources;
Answer: D) None of these.

52. What is the wavelength of ultraviolet radiation?

Answer: A) 200 to 400 nm

53. Kaiga nuclear power plant is located at

Answer: D) Karnataka

54. Mini and micro hydroelectric plants are of the capacity

Answer: D) 1KW to 100 KW

55. An electrochemical energy conversion device that converts hydrogen and

oxygen into water, producing electricity and heat in the process is known as
Answer: B) Fuel cell

56. What is the permissible range of pH for drinking water as per the USPH
standards?
 Answer: D) 6.5 to 8.5

57. The permissible iron content in drinking water specified by BIS standard is
Answer: D) 0.3 mg/L

58. The technique involved in the removal of underwater mineral deposits is

known as
Answer: C) Dredging

59. The minerals which are removed from parent rocks and deposited at the
bases of hills and valley bottoms are known as
Answer: A) Placer deposits

60. Turbidity in water is measured in terms of the unit;

Answer: A) NTU

61. The maximum permissible levels of TDS in domestic water according to

USPH standard are
Answer: C) 700 PPM

62. The intensity of color is measured in _________ units.

Answer: A) Co-Pt unit

63. The permissible level of colour in drinking water is,

Answer: B) 20 ppm
64. Which solar thermal system can be used to achieve a temperature of 300
degrees Celsius?
Answer: C) Parabolic trough collector

1. The term “Ecology” was coined in 1869 by

Answer: A) Ernst Haeckel

2. The word ecology is derived from

Answer: B) Greek

3. “Ecology is the scientific study of the interactions that determine the

distribution and abundance of organisms” defined by
Answer: B) Odum, 1963

4. In ecology, the study of an individual species is known as

Answer: C) Autecology

5. In ecology, the study of a group of species in a community is known as

Answer: A) Synecology

6. Desert ecosystem is an example of

Answer: B) Terrestrial ecosystem

7. The transitional lands between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems are

known as
Answer: D) Wetland ecosystem
8. The term ecosystem was proposed by
Answer: A) Ernst Haeckel

9. The annual rainfall mostly required for the temperate grassland biome is
Answer: C) 25 to 75 cm

10. The coldest of all the biomes in the world is

Answer: A) Tundra biome

11. The word ‘Tundra’ originated from the word ‘tunturi’ of ____________
language.
Answer: D) Finnish

12. Plants can take up nitrogen in two forms ……….

Answer: A) NH4+ & NO3-

13. Flowing water in the aquatic ecosystem is also referred to as

Answer: C) Lotic water

14. Tropical Savanna biome exists mainly in which part of the world
Answer: C) South America

15. Which among the following biomes requires annual rainfall around 200 to
225 cm?
Answer: C) Tropical rainforest biome

16. Plants that require high-level light intensity for their growth are called,
 Answer: B) Heliophytes

17. Plants that require low-level light intensity for their growth are called,
Answer: C) Sciophytes

18. Plants that survive long periods of droughts are known as

Answer: A) Xerophytes

19. Plants that require moderate water conditions are known as

Answer: B) Mesophytes

20. Plants which grow in saline water conditions are known as

Answer: D) Halophytes

21. The optimum range of soil pH for most plants on earth is between
Answer: A) 5.5 to 7.5

22. Herbivores are also referred to as

Answer: A) Primary consumers

23. Microorganisms like Bacteria and Fungi are also called

Answer: B) Saprophytes

24. The amount of chemical energy as biomass that primary producers can
create in a given length of time is called
Answer: C) Gross primary production
25. The process of change in the species structure of an ecological community
over time is called
Answer: A) Ecological Succession

26. The concept of resilience in ecological systems was first introduced by the
Canadian ecologist _______________.
Answer: D) C.S. Holling

27. The time required for an ecosystem to return to an equilibrium or steady-

state following a perturbation is known as
Answer: B) Ecosystem resilience

28. The term __________________means ‘the ability of nature to remain

unchanged, readjusting with small disturbances’.
Answer: D) Ecological balance

29. Biological diversity or biodiversity involves which among the following;

Answer: A) Genetic diversity and ecological diversity

30. The living species that can produce their own food for their growth are
called
Answer: D) Autotrophs

31. The dynamic relations that exist between the living forms and their physical
environment, which involve continuous circulation of the essential elements
and compounds required for life is known as
Answer: C) Bio-geochemical cycle
32. Example of sedimentary cycle is
Answer: A) Phosphorous cycle

33. The water reservoir that exists in the rocky area is known as
Answer: B) Aquifers

34. Which among the following does not belong to the hydrological cycle?
Answer: D) Perspiration

35. The high amount of energy required for the physical process of the
nitrogen cycle is provided by,
Answer: C) Lava flow and forest fire

36. The step which involves the conversion of nitrogen compounds into
ammonia is called
Answer: A) Ammonification

37. The step which involves the conversion of ammonium salts into
nitrites/nitrates is called
Answer: C) Nitrification

38. The step which involves the conversion of nitrates into atmospheric
nitrogen is called
Answer: D) Denitrification

39. The process of conversion of molecular nitrogen in the air into nitrogenous
compounds in soil is called
Answer: B) Nitrogen fixation
40. Which among the following ecosystems consists of an inverted pyramid of
biomass?
Answer: C) Pond ecosystem

41. Which among the following bacteria helps in oxidizing nitrites into nitrates
in soil and marine systems?
Answer: C) Nitrobacter

42. Which among the following is an ammonia-oxidizing, gram-negative

bacteria?
Answer: D) Nitrosomonas eutropha

43. Which among the following is a denitrifying bacteria?

Answer: D) All

44. The major reservoir of carbon among the following;

Answer: C) Oceans

45. The study of energy transfer between different trophic levels in an

ecosystem is known as
Answer: B) Bioenergetics

46. In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is always _____________

Answer: A) Unidirectional

47. Green plants use only up to ___________ of the total solar radiation.
 Answer: C) 1 to 15%

48. Energy actually used by herbivores is only _____ of the gross productivity
of producers.
Answer: D) 15%

49. The transfer of energy and nutrients from one feeding group of organisms
to another in a series is called
Answer: B) Food web

50. The food chain that starts from dead organic matter is known as
Answer: D) Detritus food chain

51. The food chain that starts from primary producers is known as
Answer: C) Grazing food chain

52. The network of food chains where different types of organisms are
connected at different levels is referred to as
Answer: B) Food web

53. The concept of Ecological pyramid was introduced in 1927 by

Answer: A) Charles Elton

54. An ecosystem contains a lesser number of producers than those of

consumers. Pyramid of this type is called
Answer: A) Inverted pyramid
55. An ecosystem contains a lesser number of consumers than those of
producers. Pyramid of this type is called

Answer: B) Upright pyramid

56. The Ten percent energy Transfer Law was proposed by

Answer: D) Raymond Lindemann

57. The pyramid which has the relationship between different trophic levels in
terms of the weight of organisms is known as
Answer: C) Pyramid of biomass

58. In an ecosystem, the pyramid of energy is always

Answer: A) Upright

59. The Ten percent energy Transfer Law was proposed in the year
Answer: C) 1932

60. According to which ecologist, an ecosystem is a natural unit consisting of all

plants, animals and micro-organisms in an area functioning with all of the non-
living things
Answer: A) Sir Arthur Transley