C23 - DCE Curriculum Question Papers

DCE C23 CURRICULUM
Model Unit Test and End Exam Question

Papers
DIPLOMA IN CIVIL ENGINEERING
SCHEME OF INSTRUCTION AND MODEL BLUE PRINT FOR EVALUATION
CURRICULUM-2023
FIRST YEAR
Instruction
Scheme Of Examination
Periods/Week Total
Sub Period
Name of the Subject Dur
Code s Per Session End Total
Theor Practi atio
Year al Exam Mark
y cal n
Marks Marks s
(hrs)
THEORY
C-101 English 3 90 3 20 80 100
Engineering Mathematics
C-102 5 150 3 20 80 100
–I
C-103 Engineering Physics 3 90 3 20 80 100
Engineering Chemistry
C-104 and Environmental 3 90 3 20 80 100
studies
C-105 Engineering Mechanics 5 150 3 20 80 100
C-106 Surveying-I 4 120 3 20 80 100
PRACTICAL
C-107 Engineering Drawing - 6 180 3 40 60 100
Surveying - I Practice &
C-108 - 4 120 3 40 60 100
Plotting
C-109 Physics Laboratory - 45 1½ 20 30 50
3
C-110 Chemistry Laboratory - 45 1½ 20 30 50
Computer Fundamentals
C-111 - 3 90 3 40 60 100
Practice
Student Centric Learning
3 90
Activities
Total 23 19 1260 280 720 1000
CURRICULUM-2023
THIRD SEMESTER
Instruction
Total Scheme Of Examination
Periods/Week
Sub Name of the Periods
End
Code Subject Per Duration Sessional Total
Theory Practical Exam
Year (hrs) Marks Marks
Marks
THEORY
C-301 Engineering 4 60 3 20 80 100
Mathematics –
II
Mechanics of
C-302 Solids & Theory 5 75 3 20 80 100
of Structures
C-303 Hydraulics 5 75 3 20 80 100
C-304 Surveying-II 4 60 3 20 80 100
C-305 Construction 3 45 3 20 80 100
Materials
PRACTICAL
Civil
C-306 Engineering - 4 60 3 40 60 100
Drawing-I
C-307 CAD Practice-I 4 60 3 40 60 100
Surveying - II
C-308 Practice & - 4 60 3 40 60 100
Plotting
C-309 Material - 3 45 3 40 60 100
Testing
Practice
C-310 Hydraulics - 3 45 3 40 60 100
Practice
Student Centric - 3 45
Learning
Activities
Total 21 21 630 280 720 1000
CURRICULUM-2023
FOURTH SEMESTER
Instruction
Periods/Week
Sub Name of the Period
End
Code Subject s Per Duration Sessional Total
Year (hrs) Marks Marks
Marks
THEORY
Construction
C-401 Technology & 4 60 3 20 80 100
Valuation
Design and
C-402 Detailing of 5 75 3 20 80 100
R.C.Structures
Construction
C-403 4 60 3 20 80 100
Practice
Transportation
C-404 4 60 3 20 80 100
Engineering
Irrigation
C-405 4 60 3 20 80 100
Engineering
PRACTICAL
Civil Engineering
C-406 6 90 3 40 60 100
Drawing-II
Concrete & Soil
C-407 3 45 3 40 60 100
Testing Practice
Communication
C-408 3 45 3 40 60 100
Skills
Surveying-III
C-409 3 45 3 40 60 100
Practice
C-410 CAD Practice-II 3 45 3 40 60 100
Student Centric
Learning 3 45
Activities
Total 21 21 630 300 700 1000
CURRICULUM-2023
FIFTH SEMESTER
Instruction
Periods/Week
Sub Name of the Periods
End
Code Subject Per Duration Sessiona Total
Year (hrs) l Marks Marks
Marks
THEORY
C-501 Steel Structures 4 60 3 20 80 100
Environmental
C-502 5 75 3 20 80 100
Engineering
Quantity
C-503 5 75 3 20 80 100
Surveying
Advanced Civil
C-504 Engineering 4 60 3 20 80 100
Technologies
Construction
C-505 Management & 3 45 3 20 80 100
Entrepreneurship
PRACTICAL
Structural
C-506 Engineering
4 60 3 40 60 100
Drawing
C-507 Field Practices 4 60 3 40 60 100
C-508 Life Skills 3 45 3 40 60 100
Computer
C-509 Applications in 4 60
Civil Engineering
C-510 Project work 3 45 3 40 60 100
Student centric
3 45
learning
Total 21 21 630 280 720 1000
CURRICULUM-2023
SIXTH SEMESTER
Scheme of evaluation
SI.
Subject Duration Max.
No. Item Nature
Marks
Assessment of Learning
1.First Assessment at
outcomes by both the
Industry 120
faculty and training Mentor
(After 12 Weeks)
of the industry
Assessment of Learning
2.Second Assessment at
Industrial outcomes by both the
1 6 months the Industry 120
Training faculty and training Mentor
(After 22 weeks)
of the industry
Final Summative Training Report 20
assessment at institution l Demonstration of any one of
(After 24 weeks) 30
the skills listed in learning
outcomes
Viva Voce 10
TOTAL MARKS 300
 The Industrial Training shall carry 300 marks and pass mark is 50% in assessment at industry (first and second
assessment put together) and in final summative assessment at institution put together
 If the student fails to secure 50% marks in final summative assessment at institution level, the student shall
reappear for final summative assessment, in the subsequent board examination.
 During Industrial Training the candidate shall put in a minimum of 90% attendance. If the student fails to secure
90% attendance during industrial training, the student should reappear for 6 months industrial training.
C23- C-101: ENGLISH: END EXAM ( 80 Marks )
Question Paper Pattern (Division of Topics: Question wise)
S.No. Weightage of Language Skill / Sub aspects & Description
of the Marks grammatical Concept of the
Questi question
on
PART-A ; 10 questions X3 marks = 30 Marks
1 3 Articles & a) Definite, indefinite articles
( 6 Questions X ½ Prepositions b) prepositions of place, time,
Mark) directions
2 3 Vocabulary Synonyms, Antonyms, affixes,
( 6 Questions X ½ words& phrases, Phrasal Verbs,
Mark) words matching with meanings,
one word substitutions,
3 3 Helping Verbs a) Primary helping verbs

( 6 Questions X ½ ( be/do/have)
Mark) b) Modal verbs
4 3 Tenses Using appropriate Verb forms
( 3 questions 1
mark each )
5 3 Voice Conversion : Active & Passive
( 3 questions 1 voice
mark each )
6 3 Adjectives Using appropriate adjective form/
( 3 questions 1 conversion : Degrees of
mark each ) comparison
7 3 Types of sentences & Conversion from one type of

( 3 questions 1 positive, negative sentences sentence to the other , making
mark each ) negative sentence
8 3 Syntheses of Sentences / Transformation of sentences :

( 3 questions 1 Conjunctions / linkers Simple, complex & compound
mark each ) sentences / use of linkers/
conjunctions
9 3 Direct& Indirect Speech Conversion from Direct to Indirect
( 3 questions 1 & Vice versa
mark each )
10 3 Correction of Sentences Remaining grammar aspects

( 3 questions 1 ( concord & usage based…etc)
mark each )
PART –B ; 5 QX10 M = 50 Marks
11 10 Marks Paragraph Writing From Units 1,2,3
(theme based- focus on importance
of learning and using English)
12 10 Giving instructions or From Units 4,5,6,7
directions Theme based / Situation based /role
13 10 Dialogue writing play/ general topic
14 10 Essay writing From Units 8,9,10,11
(theme based )
15 10 Letter writing Formal / informal letters
16 10 Report Writing Report on Mini projects/ industrial
visits / camps/ events / celebrations
17 10 a) E-Mail writing a) E mail etiquette
( 2 questions X 5 b) Framing questions b) Wh & Yes-No questions
Marks)
18 10 (Ten questions Reading Comprehension An unseen piece of prose text with
1 mark each ) 10 questions for reading
comprehension check
Model Question Paper: End Exam C23- C- 101

SBTET – I Year End Examinations
C23-C-101: ENGLISH
Time: 3 Hrs. Max.Marks: 80
PART-A 10X3=30 Marks
Instructions: Answer all the questions and each question carries 3 marks. Marks will be awarded only for the
desired and accurate language / grammatical expressions.
1. A) Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles:
My father sent me _____ envelope through ______ messenger and ______ cover contained a bank
cheque in my favour.
B) Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions:
My mother arranged a beautiful flower vase ______ my study table, just beside my computer,
______ which she keeps fresh flowers every day. The vase is made _____ ceramic.
2. A) Give synonyms for the words: i) depressed ii) caricature
B) Give antonyms for the words: i) natural ii) visible
C) Add affixes to the words: i) prefer ii) proper
3. A) Fill in the blanks with suitable Primary Helping Verbs (Be/ do/ have forms):
i) All the books _______ already been sold out.
ii) She paid condonation fees as she_______ not attend the classes regularly last semester.
iii) Why _______ you not giving me reply?
B) Fill in the blanks with suitable Modal verbs based on the clue given in brackets.
i) Pratap is an ambidextrous; he _______ write with his two hands. (ability)
ii) Jyothsna __________ pay the tuition fees by tomorrow. ( obligation)
iii) My grandfather ________ to ride a horse in his youth. ( Past habit)
4. Fill in the blanks with suitable verb form using the base form given in the brackets.
i) Suma_________ ( bring) a pup to the class yesterday.
ii) Johnny __________(play) the piano in a music band every weekend.
iii) Girija _______ (watch) a movie on TV when I visited her last Sunday.
5. Change the voice of the following:
i) My elder brother paid my exam fees yesterday.
ii) These two chapters will be taught in next month.
iii) They are constructing a new house.
6. i) Pacific is ___________( big) ocean of all. (Fill in with appropriate degree of the adjective given in the
bracket)
ii) No other food item is as nutritious as honey. ( Change into Comparative degree)
iii) Bangalore is one of the beautiful cities of India. ( Change into Positive degree)
7. i) You need two thousand rupees to buy a new pair of shoes. Write a polite expression asking your father
for money.
ii) Radhika has been invited for the wedding. ( Convert into a negative sentence)
iii) Our pet pigeons flew away last night. ( Convert into a negative sentence)
8. i) Ramesh can’t reach on time ______ he travels by a superfast train. ( Fill in with suitable conjunction)
ii) Though the long bell was given, the children stayed in the classroom. (Change into a simple sentence)
iii) Get a ticket on a sleeper coach, and then you can sleep during journey. (Change into a complex
sentence)
9. i) Tarun said, “ Prathima, I shall return your notes tomorrow”. (change into a reported speech )
ii) Arjun requested his sister Priya not to disturb him while he was studying. (change into a direct speech)
iii) Teacher said, “Students, why are you talking in the class?” (change into a reported speech )
10. Correct the following sentences:
i) These flowers are smelling sweet.
ii) Either the father or his children has arrived home early.
iii) Every bike rider should abide to the traffic rules.
PART-B 10X5=50Marks
Instructions: a) Answer any FIVE questions and each question carries TEN marks.
b) The criterion for the award of marks is the appropriate content, quality and clarity of expression but not the
length of your answer.
11. Write a paragraph in 120 words about the problems you are experiencing in speaking English and your
own solutions to overcome them.
12. Write a set of instructions to create a word file and insert a Table using MS office on a computer.
13. Write a dialogue in at least eight turns between a sales person and you at a readymade garment
showroom as you want to buy a readymade dress.
14. Write an essay in about 175 words on valuing opposite gender and show mutual respect.
15. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner about the menace of street dogs in your area.
16. Imagine that your class had visited an industry / organisation relevant to your branch of Engineering;
write a report about the visit to submit to your HOD.
17. a) Write an E-mail to your cousin requesting him/her to send you the diploma study material by a
courier or post.
b) Frame THREE ‘wh’ questions & TWO ‘Yes-No’ questions from the following passage.
Dolphins are intelligent animals. A dolphin’s nose is on top of its head. So, it can easily breathe on the
surface of the water. The skin of a dolphin has no scales. It is soft and smooth. They swim in ‘pods’; a very
large pod is called a ‘herd’. They are very social and help each other fight off predators. Dolphins brain has
two sides. One side sleeps while the other side stays awake.
18. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be accurate,
precise and limited to a word or phrase or a simple sentence.
The Indian Army is the land-based branch and the largest component of the Indian Armed Forces.
The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Army, and it is commanded by the Chief of
Army Staff (COAS), who is a four-star general. The primary mission of the Indian Army is to ensure
national security and national unity, defending the nation from external aggression and internal threats, and
maintaining peace and security within its borders. It conducts humanitarian rescue operations during natural
calamities and other disturbances, like Operation Surya Hope, and can also be requisitioned by the
government to cope with internal threats. It is a major component of national power alongside the Indian
Navy and the Indian Air Force. The army has been involved in four wars with neighbouring Pakistan and
one with China. Other major operations undertaken by the army include: Operation Vijay, Operation
Meghdoot and Operation Cactus.
a) What is the largest component of Indian Armed Forces?
b) Who is the four-star general?
c) “Maintaining internal peace and security is not one of the responsibilities of Indian
Army”. Is the statement True or False ?
d) What is the primary mission of the Indian Army?
e) Name the operation held by the Indian Army during natural disaster.
f) What are the other two forces mentioned in the passage?
g) If you were to join Armed forces, which wing do you prefer? State your reason in a
sentence.
h) Pick the word from the passage that would mean: ‘forcefulness or violent behavior’
i) Give the antonym for the word: ‘internal’
j) Suggest a suitable title for the passage in a word or phrase.
_________________
C23- C101: ENGLISH: UNIT TEST Exams 1,2,3 ( 40 Marks each )

Question Paper Pattern (Division of Topics: Question wise)
UNIT TEST-1 Marks : 40 ; Time 90 Mnts. ( Lessons 1,2,3 ) :
PART-A : 16 Marks
S.No. Marks Grammatical concept/ Sub topics / concepts
allotted aspect/ skill
1 4 Marks Vocabulary a) Affixes, b) Synonyms

( 8 Questions c) antonyms
X ½ Mark) d) one word substitutes
2 3 (6 Questions Articles & Prepositions a) Definite, indefinite articles
X ½ Mark) b) Prepositions of place, time direction
3 3 ( 3 questions Adjectives a) Using appropriate forms of adjectives
1 mark each ) b) Conversion of Degrees of comparison
4 3 Helping Verbs a) Primary helping verbs ( be/do/have)

( 6 questions ½ b)Modal verbs
mark each )
5 3 Marks Phrasal verbs Using phrasal verbs in sentences of one’s
( 3 questions 1 own
mark each )
Part – B : 8X3 = 24 Marks

6 8 Marks Paragraph question Theme based questions : Lesson 1 :
A or B ( internal choice) Focus on LSRW skills, problems and
solutions in using English, Importance of
English, English for employability,
SWOC analysis
7 8M Dialogue making Conversation / Role play between two
A or B ( internal choice ) people :
a) Dialogue on themes of lessons 2&3
b) Dialogue on General topic / a situation
8 8M Reading Comprehension Unseen prose passages with 8 different
A or B questions ( F I V E model questions+
( internal choice ) Others)
Unit Test -2: Marks : 40 ; Time 90 Mnts. ( Lessons 4,5,6,7)

Part – A: 16 Marks
1 4 Marks Tenses Present, Past, Future tenses : Filling in
with proper verb forms using the given
base form
2 3M Concord Concord: agreement between subject and
verb
3 3M Framing questions Framing Wh & Yes-No questions
4 3M Types of sentences Conversion of sentences ( except

questions) , Using of proper linkers /
discourse markers
5 3M Words& Phrases , linkers Using words& phrases, linkers in
sentences of one’s own
Part – B : 8X3 = 24 Marks

6 8 Marks Paragraph writing a) Themes on lessons 4/5
A or B ( internal choice ) b) Themes based on lessons 6/7
7 8M Letter Writing a) Letter writing : formal
( internal choice : A or B ) b) Letter writing: Informal
8 8M a) Paragraph: Tenses a) Paragraph on Routines/ past narration
Reinforcement / Future plans
b) Email & Instructions/ b) i) E- Mail writing ( formal or
directions informal)
ii ) Giving instructions/ directions
Unit Test -3: Marks : 40 ; Time 90 Mnts. ( Lessons 8,9,10,11)

Part – A ; 16 Marks
1 4 Marks Error Analysis Find errors and make corrections

2 3M Voice Conversion: Active & Passive voice
3 3M Synthesis of sentence Conversion: Simple, complex &
compound sentences
4 3M Reported speech Conversion: Direct & Indirect speech
5 3M Words & phrases, linkers Matching words with their meanings/
Using words& phrases, linkers in
sentences of one’s own
Part- B : 8X3 = 24 Marks
6 8 Marks Essay writing a) Theme based ( lessons 8 / 9 )
A or B ( internal choice ) b) Theme based ( Lessons 10/11)
7 8M Report writing a) Report on Mini projects/ industrial
A or B ( internal choice ) visits / camps/ events /exhibitions /
celebrations
b) themes from lessons 8 to 11 …like
disaster management / technical
inventions / gender equality/ goal setting
8 8M Reading Comprehension Reading passages with 8 different
A or B ( internal choice ) questions ( FIVE model+ others)
Model Question Papers : Unit Tests
Unit Test-1: C23- C-101: English
Time: 90 Mnts. Max. Marks: 40
Part-A 16 Marks
Instructions: Answer all the questions and the first question carries 3 marks. Questions from 2 to 5 carry
three marks each. The marks will be awarded only for the desired and accurate language / grammatical
expressions.
1. A) Give synonyms for the words: i) abruptly ii) advantage ( ½ X2=1 M)
B) Give antonyms for the words: i) pure ii) dry ( ½ X2=1 M)
C) Add affixes for the words: i) connect ii) worth ( ½ X2=1 M)
D) Give one word substitute for the following: ( ½ X2=1 M)
i) The interactive web page that can be updated frequently by an individual or group.
ii) An ability that can be acquired by anyone through practice.
2. A) Fill in the blanks with proper Articles: ( ½ X3 = 1 ½ M)
i) My cousin joined M.Tech in ______ University in Tamil Nadu.
ii) Mrs. Rekha Chatterjee is _______ MLA from the West Bengal.
iii) My father came to _______ college yesterday to pay my exam fees.
B) Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions: ( ½ X3 = 1 ½ M)
i) What can I do ______ you , Sarat?
ii) Mr. Agarwal distributed his property _______ his two daughters.
iii) The coach was pleased _______the performance of the players.
3. Rewrite / Fill in the following blanks as directed in the brackets: (1X3 = 3 M)
a) Burj Khalifa is one of ________( tall) buildings in the world. ( Fill in with proper form of the
adjective given in the brackets)
b) The tiger is more ferocious than the leopard. (Change into Positive degree)
c) Very few cities in India are as populous as Mumbai. ( Change into comparative degree)
4. A) Fill in the blanks with proper Primary Helping Verbs ( be/do/have forms) ( ½ X3 = 1 ½ M)
i) Prasad _______ (be) at the canteen when I saw him a few minutes ago.
ii) He _______ (do) this work always.
iii) The teacher ______just left the classroom.
B) Fill in the blanks with appropriate Modal verbs based on the clue given in the brackets: ( ½ X3 = 1 ½
M)
i) We all _______ respect our elders. ( moral obligation)
ii) Sir, ________ I come in please? ( seeking permission)
iii) Tarun _____ easily win the match. ( ability)
5. Use the following phrasal verbs in sentences of your own. (1X3 = 3 M)
i) bring up ii) give away iii) put off
Part-B 8X3=24 Marks

Instructions: Answer all the questions. Each question carries 8 marks. The marks will be awarded for the
appropriate content, quality and clarity of expressions, but not the length of your answer.
6. A) Write a paragraph in around 120 words about the significance of learning and using English in your
present and future life.
OR
B) Write a paragraph in around 120 words about challenges you are facing in speaking and writing English
and the solutions to overcome them.
7. A) Write a dialogue between two friends in at least six turns discussing the advantages and disadvantages
of social media.
OR
B) Write a dialogue between two friends, who have joined different courses in different colleges after their
tenth class and now exchanging information about their newly joined courses and colleges.
8. A) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be accurate,
precise and limited to a word or phrase or a simple sentence:
Treating life as an adventure is the best quality of successful people. A person's security lies not in his
comfort zone, but in his initiative, creativity and courage. Effective people do not label others from their past
success or failure, but rediscover each time they meet them. These people are not overawed by top celebrities,
cine personalities and sadhus. Winning people are excellent team players to take part in the process of
creative problem solving. They are skillful at balancing their strengths and weaknesses with others. The final
character of victorious people is exercising the four dimensions of life i.e., physical, mental, emotional, and
enthusiastic.
Questions:
a) What is the best quality of successful people?
b) List out the three qualities which make a person secure?
c) Why are the effective people not wondered at the lives of celebrities?
d) What do the team players do?
e) What is the special skill of the winning people?
f) What is the final character of victorious people?
g) What qualities of effective or winning people do you want to inculcate?
h) Pick the word from the passage that would mean: “the feeling of respect, wonder and fear all together at
something or someone”
OR
B) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be accurate,
precise and limited to a word or phrase or a simple sentence:
Benjamin Franklin was born in 1706 in Boston, Massachusetts. He came from a big family. He had
16 brothers and sisters. When Benjamin was 15, his brother started the first Boston newspaper. It was called
‘The New England Courant’. He worked for the newspaper for a short time, but he was not happy. So, he
went to Philadelphia and worked as a printer. In 1729, he bought a newspaper business. The newspaper was
the ‘Pennsylvania Gazette’. He was very busy. In 1733, he started publishing ‘Poor Richard’s Almanac’. His
pen name (the name he used as an author) was Richard Saunders. This book came out every year. Almanacs
have information about weather and crops. They also have wise sayings. The wise saying “A penny saved is a
penny earned” comes from Poor Richard’s Almanac. Benjamin Franklin was also an inventor. In 1743 he
invented a very good stove called the Franklin stove. He invented swim fins. He invented bifocal glasses. He
also invented the first odometer. He retired from his newspaper business in 1749. He stopped working on it.
Then he became busy with science. Benjamin Franklin was also very interested in American politics. He
helped Thomas Jefferson write the Declaration of Independence. In 1776, he and other people signed the
Declaration of Independence. Franklin died on April 17, 1790. He was 84 years old.
Questions:
a) How many siblings did Benjamin Franklin have?
b) What was the newspaper started by his brother?
c) What did he buy after working as a printer?
d) What information was available in his Almanacs?
e) Mention any two inventions made by Benjamin Franklin?
f) Rewrite the meaning of the saying in your own words: “A penny saved is a penny earned”
g) Which American president was Benjamin Franklin associated with?
h) Pick the word from the passage that would mean: “external limbs of fish that help them swim and steer”.
---------------------------
Part-A 16 Marks
Instructions: Answer all the questions and the first question carries 4 marks. Questions from 2 to 5 carry
Three marks each. The marks will be awarded only for the desired and accurate language / grammatical
expressions.
1. Fill in the blanks with proper verb form using the base form given in the brackets. (1X4=4M)
a) The match ______ (start) already before we entered the stadium.
b) Rani ________ ( clean) dishes when the phone rang.
c) They _____( hold) the thief tightly until the police arrived.
d) Mr. Rajesh and his team _________( work) on this project since last month.
2. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word from the pair given in the brackets. (1X3=3M)
a) Bread and butter _______ a wholesome breakfast. ( is / are )
b) The minister accompanied by his staff _______already arrived. ( have/ has)
c) Not only the film director but also all the actors _____facilitated by the committee. ( was/ were)
3. Frame two different ‘Wh’ questions and one ‘Yes-No’ question from the following: (1X3=3M)
India is the second most populous country just behind China. It is expected that in a few months, India
stands top on the list due to our unprecedented birth rate. On the contrary, Japan is losing its population. The
rate of death in Japan is double when compared to its birth rate of the country.
4. Convert the following sentences as directed. (1X3=3M)
a) I want your bike for one hour. ( convert into an imperative sentence)
b) It is a very beautiful garden. ( convert into an exclamatory sentence)
c) Alas! what a great tragedy. (convert into a declarative sentence )
5. Use the following words/ phrases/ linkers in sentences of your own: (1X3=3M)
a) struggle ii) ground breaking iii) however
Part-B 8X3=24 Marks

Instructions: Answer all the questions. Each question carries 8 marks. The marks will be awarded for the
appropriate content, quality and clarity of expressions, but not the length of your answer.
6. A) Write a paragraph in around 120 words about dealing with obstacles and failures in one’s life.
OR
B) Write a paragraph in around 120 words about protecting our environment.
7. A) Write a letter to your Principal requesting him / her to issue your Original Tenth marks list as you need
to update your ADHAR card with date of birth and other details and return the certificate after the updating
work.
OR
B) Write a letter to your father requesting him to send you two thousand rupees as you have to pay your
hostel fees.
8. A) Write a paragraph in around 120 words about your future plans after Diploma.
OR
B) i) Draft an E-mail to your friend inviting him/her to your village to spend the weekend with you.
ii) Write a set of instructions at least in five sentences about drawing money from an ATM.
**********
Part-A 16 Marks
Instructions: Answer all the questions and the first question carries 4 marks. Questions 2 to 5 carry Three
marks each. The marks will be awarded only for the desired and accurate language / grammatical expressions.
1. Correct the following sentences: ( 1X4=4M)
a) All the books have been sold out last week.
b) I, Ramesh and you will together book a cab.
c) I am feeling terribly cold.
d) The police has arrested the gang of robbers.
2. Change the voice of the following: ( 1X3=3M)
a) A cat is chasing two rats.
b) The news has been published recently.
c) They will certainly win the match.
3. Rewrite the sentences as directed: ( 1X3=3M)
a) Though Rakesh studied well, he could not get the first class. ( Convert into a simple sentence)
b) It was raining heavily, and so the match was cancelled. ( Convert into a complex sentence)
c) The horse was too old to gallop. ( Convert into a compound sentence)
4. Change the speech of the following as directed: ( 1X3=3M)
a) Satwik said to his mother, “I forgot my water bottle in my classroom.”
b) The teacher ordered the students not to make noise.
c) Swapna said, “Rajesh, what are you searching for?”
5. Use the following words /phrases/ linkers in sentences of your own: ( 1X3=3M)
i) apologize to ii) occasionally iii) for a while
Part-B 8X3=24 Marks Instructions:
Answer all the questions. Each question carries 8 marks. The marks will be awarded for the appropriate
content, quality and clarity of expressions, but not the length of your answer.
6. A) Write an essay in about 175 words on how the technical inventions changed our lives.
OR
B) Write an essay in about 175 words about the significance of the gender equality.
7 A) Write a report about any disaster that you have read in newspaper or witnessed including your
suggestions for better preventive measures to mitigate the loss.
OR
B) Write a report about the Inter Polytechnics Sports and Games Meet (IPSGM) held in your
District headquarters.
8 A) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be
accurate, precise and limited to a word or phrase or a simple sentence.
Animals living in modern zoos enjoy several advantages over animals in the wild; however, they must
also suffer some disadvantages. One advantage of living in the zoo is that the animals are separated
from their natural predators; they are protected and can, therefore, live without risk of being attacked.
Another advantage is that they are regularly fed a special, well-balanced diet; thus, they do not have to
hunt for food or suffer times when food is hard to find. On the other hand, zoo animals face several
disadvantages. The most important disadvantage is that since they do not have to hunt for food or face
their enemies, some animals became bored, discontented or even nervous. Another disadvantage is that
zoo visitors can endanger their lives. Some animals can pick up airborne diseases from humans.
Questions:
a) What are the two animal habitations mentioned in the passage?
b) Give the main advantage of animals living in zoo.
c) What kind of food is the zoo animals fed with?
d) What is the most disadvantage aspect faced by the zoo animals?
e) How do you think that the visitors can harm the zoo animals?
f) Do you support keeping the animals in a zoo for our entertainment? Justify your answer in a sentence.
g) Pick the word from the passage that would mean: A violent or bigger animal that kills and eats the other
tiny animal.
h) Suggest a suitable title for the passage.
OR
B) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answer should be
accurate, precise and limited to a word or phrase or a simple sentence.
“I say to you today, my friends, even though we face the difficulties’ of today and tomorrow, I
still have a dream. I have a dream that one day this nation will rise up, live out the true meaning of its creed.
I have a dream that one day on the red hills of Georgia sons of former slaves and sons of former slave-
owners will be able to sit down together at the table of brotherhood. I have a dream that my four little
children will one day live in a nation where they will not be judged by the colour of their skin but by the
content of their character. I have a dream…. I have a dream that one day in Alabama, with its vicious racists,
with its governor having his lips dripping with the words of interposition and nullification, one day right
there in Alabama little black boys and black girls will be able to join hands with little white boys and white
girls as sisters and brothers:” On 28th August in 1963, Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. spoke these immortal
words to a crowd of over 200000 people who had gathered for the now historic march in Washington to
demand an end to racial segregation in the USA, and for equality in jobs and civil rights.
Questions:
a) Who is the speaker of the above speech and what is his nationality?
b) What is the occasion of the above speech: ( )
i) a birthday party ii) an election campaign
iii) a movement for a right cause iv) a government function
c) What sort of discrimination did the speaker fight against?
d) What good does he expect regarding the children of slaves and masters?
e) What is the contextual meaning of the frequently used word “dream” ?
f) How should a nation be judged?
g) What are the two places mentioned by the speaker in his speech?
h) Pick the word from the passage that would mean: “that lives for ever without death”
******************
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS-I
(Common to all Branches)
Course Code Course Title No. of Periods/week Total No. of Marks for FA Marks for SA
periods
Engineering
C-102 5 150 20 80
Mathematics-I
C –23, C -102
Unit Test I
State Board of Technical Education and Training, A. P.
First Year
Subject name: Engineering Mathematics-I
Sub Code: C-102
Time: 90 minutes Max.marks:40
Part-A 16Marks
Instructions: (1) Answer all questions.
(2) First question carries four marks and the remaining questions carry
Three marks each.
1. Answer the following:
a. If and , then defined by
is a function: State TRUE/FALSE. (CO1)
b. If then 3A =________. (CO1)

,
c. The value of sin 45 ° +cos 45o is _____. (CO2)
d. The formula for in terms of is _________. (CO2)
A+ B .
2. If then find (CO1)
,
[ ]
2 −1 4
3. Find the determinant of 0 −2 5 . (CO1)
−3 1 3
4. Find the value of sin750. (CO2)
5. Prove that (CO2)

Part-B 3×8=24
(2) Each question carries eight marks
(3) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation
is the content but not the length of the answer.
6. A) Resolve into partial fractions. (CO1)

or
x−4
B) Resolve into partial fractions. (CO1)
( x−2)(x−3)
7. A) If and , then find AB (CO1)
Or
[ ] [ ]
3 1 4 1 5 −3
B) If P= 1 −2 0 and Q= 0 6 9 , show that
3 1 6 −2 7 8
(CO1)
8. A) Find the adjoint of the matrix (CO1)
or
B) Solve the following system of linear equations by Cramer’s rule:
(CO1)
-o0o-
C –23, C -102
Unit Test II
State Board of Technical Education and Training, A. P.First Year
Sub Code: C- 102
Time: 90 minutes Max.marks:40
Part-A 16Marks
(2) First question carries four marks and the remaining questions carry three marks each
1. Answer the following.
a. : State TRUE/FALSE (CO2)
b. If sin
−1
( 35 )=tan −1
( x ) , then x=¿ . (CO2)
c. If , then =_______. (CO2)
d. The eccentricity of the rectangular hyperbola is ______. (CO3)
2. Express in terms of (CO2)
3. Find the intercepts made by the straight line x +5 y−10=0. (CO3)
4. Find the centre and radius of the circle (CO3)
5. Find the vertex and focus of the parabola y 2=8 x . (CO3)
Part-B 3×8=24
sin 5 θ+ sinθ
6. A) Prove that =tan3 θ (CO2)
cos 5 θ+cosθ .
or
B) Prove that tan

−1
( 14 )+ tan ( 35 )= π4
−1
(CO2)
7. A) Solve (CO2)
or
B) If a =3, b=4, c=5, find the area of the ∆ ABC . (CO2)
8. A) Find the equation of the line passing through and perpendicular to the
line . Also find the perpendicular distance from the given point
to the given line. (CO3)
or
B) Find the equation of the ellipse whose focus is (2, 0), directrix is x+y-1= 0 and eccentricity is ½.
(CO3)
C –23, C -102
Unit Test III
State Board of Technical Education and Training, A. P

First Year
Sub Code: C-102
Time: 90 minutes Max.Marks:40
Part-A 16 Marks
(2) First question carries four marks and the remaining questions carry three marks each.
a. State TRUE/FALSE. (CO4)
d n
b. For any constant n, ( x )=¿_____ (CO4)
dx
c. (CO4)
d. Write the formula for finding the percentage error in x. (CO5)
sin 2 θ
2. Evaluate lim (CO4)
θ→0 θ
3. Find the derivative of w.r.t. x. (CO4)
4. Differentiate w.r.t. x. (CO4)
5. Find the slope of the tangent to the curve at the point . (CO5)
Part-B 3×8=24
dy
6. A) if x=a t 2 and y=2at then find (CO4)
dx
or
B) Find , if (CO4)
7. A) If then prove that (CO4)

or
∂u
∧∂ u
B) If u ( x , y )=log (x + y ), then find ∂ x (CO4)
∂y
8. A) The radius of a sphere is decreasing at a rate of 0.2 cm/sec. How fast is its
surface area decreasing when the radius is 10 cm. (CO5)
or
B) Find the maximum and minimum values of the function .

(CO5)
-o0o-
END-EXAM MODEL PAPERS

STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION, A.P
C-23 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS-I, C- 102
TIME: 3 HOURS MODEL PAPER- I MAX.MARKS: 80M
PART-A
Answer All questions. Each question carries THREE marks. 10x3=30M
1. If and is a function defined by then find the range of
(CO1)
2. Resolve the function into partial fractions.

(CO1)
3. If and find A+B

(CO1)
[ ]
2 −1 4
4. Find the determinant of the matrix 0 −2 5 by Laplace’s expansion.
(CO1)
−3 1 3
5. Show that
(CO2)
6. Prove that
(CO2)
7. Find the modulus of the complex number3+ 4 i.

(CO2)
8. Find the distance between the parallel lines and

(CO3)
9. Evaluate
(CO4)
10. Find if
(CO4)
PART-B
Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries TEN marks. 5x10=50M
11. Solve the system of linear equations and using matrix inversion method.
(CO1)
sin 7 θ+sin 5 θ (CO2)

=tan 6 θ .
12. A) Show that cos 7 θ+cos 5θ
B) Prove that tan

−1
( 17 )+ tan ( 131 )=tan ( 29 )
−1 −1
(CO2)
13. A) Solve
(CO2)
B) If a =10, b=12, c =5, then find the area of the ΔABC.

(CO2)
A) Find the equation of the circle with (4, 2) and (1, 5) as the two ends of its diameter.
14.
(CO3)
B) Find the equation of the conic whose focus is (1,0), directrix is 3x+4y+1=0 and
eccentricity is 2.
(CO3)
15. A) Find the derivative of 3 tanx−4 logx−7 e x +sin−1 x w.r.t x.

(CO4)
B) Find the derivative of x 2 e3 x w.r.t x.
(CO4)
A) If , then find
16. (CO4)
∂u
∧∂ u
B) If u ( x , y )= x2 y + y 2 x , then find ∂ x
(CO4)
∂y
17. A) Find the equation of tangent to the curve y=x 2 +1 at (2,1) .

(CO5)
B) If the radius of a circular plate is increasing at 0.7 cm/sec, find the rate
of increase in its area when the radius is 10 cm.
(CO5)
18. A) Find maximum or minimum value of f ( x )=x 2−4 x +3.
(CO5)
B) If an error of 0.02 cm is made in the side of a square, what is the approximate error in the area and
perimeter of the square?
(CO5)
-o0o-
STATE BOARD OF TECHNICAL EDUCATION, A.P.
C-23 ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS-I, C- 102
TIME: 3 HOURS MODEL PAPER- II MAX.MARKS: 80M
PART-A
1. If A={-1, 0, 1} and f : A → B is defined by f ( x )=x 2−x +1, then find the range of f.
(CO1)
2. Resolve the function into partial fractions.

(CO1)
3. If A = [
3 9 0
1 8 −2 ]
and B=
4 0 2
7 1 4 [ ]
, then find (A+B)T.
(CO1)
4. If A= [−14 21]
, then find A2.
(CO1)
0 0
5. Find the value of cos 360 + sin 36 0 =tan 810 .
cos 36 −sin 36 (CO2)
1+ cos 2 θ
6. Prove that =cotθ .
sin 2 θ (CO2)
7. Find the modulus of the complex number 3+2i.

(CO2)
8. Find the point of intersection of the non-parallel lines and
(CO3)
9. Evaluate
(CO4)
10. Find if
(CO4)
PART-B
Answer any FIVE questions. Each question carries TEN marks. 5x10=50M
and
11. Solve the system of linear equations
using Cramer’s rule. (CO1)
12 A) Show that .
0 0
cos 40 +cos 80 +cos 160 =0
0 (CO2)
B) Prove that tan

−1
( 14 )+ tan ( 35 )= π4
−1
(CO2)
13. A) Solve (CO2)

o
, then find the area of the ΔABC.
B) If a =5, b=7, C =30 (CO2)
14. A) Find the equation of the circle passing through the points (0, 0), (2, 0), and (0, 3)
(CO3)
.
2
B) Find the vertex, focus, directrix and latus rectum of the parabola y =16 x (CO3)
15. A) Find the derivative of 3 sin x+ log x+2 tan−1 x +8 e−x w.r.t.x.
(CO4)
2
1−x w.r.t. x.
B) Find the derivative of 2 (CO4)
1+ x
16. A) If , then find

(CO4)
B) If then prove that

(CO4)
17. A) Find the equation of tangent to the curve y=x 3−2 x 2 +4 at (2,4).
(CO5)
B) If s ( t )=t 2 +2 t+ 3 is the displacement of a particle, find its velocity

and acceleration at the time t=3 sec.
(CO5)
18. A) Find maximum or minimum value of .
(CO5)
B) If an error of 0.02 cm is made in the side of a square, then what is the percentage error in the
calculated value of its area?
(CO5)
-o0o-
ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Course code Course title No.of periods Total no. of Marks for FA Marks for SA
per week periods
C -103 Engineering 03 90 20 80
Physics
(C–23) COMMON C-103

UNIT TEST - I, FIRST YEAR
ENGINEERING PHYSICS
Time : 90 M i n u t e s Total Marks : 40
PART—A 16 Marks
Instructions : (i) Answer all questions.

(i) Question 1 carries 4 marks. Question numbers from (2) to (5) carries 3 marks each.
1. (i) Which among the following is a fundamental quantity.
(a) Force (b) Momentum (c) Time (d) Density (CO1)
(ii) Pascal is the S.I unit of pressure. (True/ False) (CO1)
(iii) Displacement is vector quantity (Yes/No) (CO1)
(iv) The formula for orbital velocity is _______________ (Fill in the blank) (CO2)
2. Define absolute, relative errors and percentage errors. (CO1)
3. Define equal vectors, unit vector and co-initial vectors. (CO1)
4. A force of 100 N acts at a point at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. Find
the horizontal and vertical components of force. (CO1)
5. Define natural and artificial satellites. Give one example each. (CO2)
PART—B 24 Marks

(ii) Each question carries 8 marks with interal choice.
6. (a) Define concurrent and co-planar forces. Explain Lami’s theorem.

(CO1)
OR
(b)Two forces 20 N and 30N acts at a point an angle of 60°between them.
Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant. (CO1)
7. (a) State and explain Kepler’s law of planetary motion. (CO2)

OR
(b) Define acceleration due to gravity (g). Write any three factors affecting
Thevalueof g. (CO2)
8. (a) Write a brief note on PSLV and GSLV. (CO2)

(OR)
(b) State Newton’s universal law of gravitation and derive the relationship between g
and G. (CO2)
UNIT TEST -II, FIRST YEAR
ENGINEERING PHYSICS

PART—A 16 Marks

(ii) Question 1 carries 4 marks. Question numbers from (2) to (5) carries 3 marks each.
1 (i) Which among the following is unit of Work.

(a) newton (b) pascal (c) joule (d) watt (CO2)
(ii) According to Boyle’s law, at constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is directly
proportional to its volume (True/ False) (CO3)
(iii) Velocity of sound in a medium varies with temperature (Yes/No) (CO3)
(iv) The S.I unit of intensity of sound _______________ (Fill in the blank) (CO3)
2 Define potential energy, give one example. (CO2)
3 Briefly write about absolute scale of temperature. (CO3)
4 An ideal gas of given mass at temperature 100 °C occupies a volume of 240 CC at constant pressure. Find its
volume at 150 °C. (CO3)
5 Write any three differences between musical sound and noise. (CO3)
PART—B 24 Marks

6. (a) Write about solar energy and solar thermal conversion. (CO2)
OR
(b). Define kinetic energy and derive the relationship between KE and
momentum. (CO2)
7. (a) Write ideal gas equation and calculate the value of R for 1 gram mole
of a gas. (CO3)
OR
(b) Define conduction, convection and radiation with one example each.
(CO3)
8. (a) Write four methods of reducing an echo and four applications of
echo. (CO3)
(OR)
(b) What are ultrasonics. Mention six applications of it. (CO3)
UNIT TEST - III, FIRST YEAR
ENGINEERING PHYSICS

PART—A 16 Marks
Instructions : (i) Answer all questions

(ii) Question 1 carries 4 marks. Question numbers from (2) to (5) carries 3 marks each.
1. (i) The unit of specific resistance is
(a) Ω (b) Ω /m (c) Ω -m (d) pascal (CO4)
(ii) Magnetic field lines are open curves. (True/False) CO4)
(iv) Photoeletric cell converts ____ energy into electric energy (Fill in the blank) (CO4)
2. Find the current passing through a conductor of resistance 2 Ω when P.D of 50 V is applied across it. (CO4)
3. State the Coulomb’s inverse square law of magnetism and write the equation for it. (CO4)
4. State three laws of photo electric effect. (CO4)
5. Write any three applications of superconductors. (CO4)
PART—B 24 Marks

6. (a) State and explain Kirchoff’s laws. (CO4)
OR
(b) Draw circuit diagram of Meter bridge. Two resistors of 10 Ω and
30 Ω are connected in the left and right gaps of a meter bridge. Find the
balancing length. (CO4)
7. (a) Define para, ferro and dia magnetic materials with two examples each.
(CO4)
OR
(b) Explain the principle and working of an optical fiber. (CO4)
8. (a) Explain intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors. (CO4)

(OR)
(b) Explain conductors, semiconductors and insulators based on energy gap. (CO4)
BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATION, (C–23)
FIRST YEAR EXAMINATION
ENGINEERING PHYSICS (C-103)
Time : 3 hours Total Marks : 80
PART—A 3×10=30

(2)
Each question carries three marks.
(3)
Answers should be brief and straight to the point and shall not exceed five
simple sentences.
1. Write any three advantages of S.I units. (CO1)
2. Define moment of force. Write its SI unit. (CO1)
3. Find the work done in lifting a body of mass 10 kg through a height

of 20 m against gravity. (CO2)
4. Define absolute zero temperature. Convert -10 °C into Kelvin

temperature. (CO3)
5. Define Doppler effect. Mention one application. (CO3)
6. Write the Sabine’s formula for reverberation time and name the
parameters in it. (CO3)
7. Define specific resistance. Write its S.I unit. (CO4)
8. Write any three characteristics of magnetic lines of force. (CO4)
9. Draw a neat diagram of photoelectric cell and name the parts. (CO4)
10. Write any three applications of optical fibers. (CO4)

PART—B 10×5=50
Instructions : (1) Answer any five questions.

(2) Each question carries ten marks.
(3) Answers should be comprehensive and the criterion for
valuation is the content but not the length of the
answer.
11. (a) State and explain triangle law of vectors. 6

(b) A force of 100 N acts on a particle at an angle of 30° to the
horizontal. Find the horizontal and vertical components of force. 4
(CO1)
12. State and explain Kepler’s law of planetary motion. 10
(CO2)
13. (a) Derive the r e l a t i o n s h i p b e t w e e n g a n d G .
(b) Calculate the orbital velocity of a satellite so that it revolves around
the earth if the Radius of earth = 6.5 × 106 m, mass of earth = 6×1024 kg and
Gravitational constant G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/kg2. 5+5 (CO2)
14. Explain the principle of solar thermal conversion and photo voltaic effect. 5+5 (CO2)
15. (a) Derive the ideal gas equation.
(b) Volume of a gas at 27 °C is 100 CC. Keeping the pressure constant,
find its volume at a temperature of 50 °C. 7+3 (CO3)
16. (a) Write any five methods of reducing noise pollution.
(b) Define echo. Write three applications of it. 5+2+3 (CO3)
17. (a) Derive an expression for balancing condition of

Wheatstone’s bridge with neat circuit diagram.
(b) The values of resistance of P, Q, R are 50 Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω
respectively in the balanced condition of the bridge.
Find the unknown resistance S. 7+3 (CO4)
18. Explain n-type and P-type semiconductors. 5+5 (CO4)
ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY AND ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
Course code Course Title No. of Periods Total No. of Marks for FA Marks for SA
per week Periods
Engineering
Chemistry and
C-104 3 90 20 80
Environmental
Studies
Model question paper for Unit Test with Cos mapped

UNIT TEST –I
Model Question Paper (C-23)
ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY & ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (104)
TIME: 90 minutes Total Marks: 40
PART-A
16 Marks
(2) First question carries 4 marks and each of rest carries 3 marks.
(3) Answers for Q.No. 2 to 5 should be brief and straight to the point and shall not
exceed five simple sentences.
1. a. Number electrons present in Na+ ion is ---------- (CO1)
b. The molarity and normality of NaOH is the same (True or False) (CO1)
c. Acid with pH 6 is stronger than Acid pH 4 (True or False) (CO1)
d. 2s is spherical shaped orbital but 3p is ------------ (CO1)
2. Distinguish between orbit and orbital. ( CO1)
3.Define buffer solution. Give two examples. (CO1)
4.Calculate the number of moles present 10.6 gm. of Na2CO3. (CO1)
5.Draw the atomic structures of Si and Ge. (CO1)
PART – B
3x8M = 24M
Answer either (A) or (B) from each questions from Part-B.
Each question carries 8 marks.
6. a) Explain Postulations of Bhor’s atomic theory. Give its limitations. (CO1)
(OR)
b) Explain the significance of Quantum numbers. (CO1)
7. a) Define molarity normality. Calculate the molarity and normality of 10.6 gm of Na2CO3 present
in 500 ml solution. (CO1)
(OR)
b) Explain Arrhenius theory of acids and bases. Give its limitations (CO1)
8. a) Define ionic bond. Explain the formation of ionic bond in NaCl. (CO1)
(OR)
b) Define solution. Explain the types of solutions based on its solubility. (CO1)
UNIT TEST –II

ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY & ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES (C-104)
TIME: 90 minuts Total Marks:40
PART-A
16 Marks
(3) Answers for Q. No. 2 to 5 should be brief and straight to the point and shall not
1. a) Graphite is an insulator. (True of False) (CO2)

b) ------------ is an electrolyte in Hydrogen-Oxygen fuel cell (CO2)
c) Zinc is more active than Iron. (True or False) (CO2)
d) Write the Chemical formula of rust. (CO2)
2. Write any three differences between metallic conduction and electrolytic conduction. (CO2)
3. Write a short note on stress cell. (CO2)
4. Define hard water. Mention any two salts that cause hardness (CO3)
5. What is the role of salt bridge? (CO2)
PART – B 3x8M = 24M

6. a) Explain construction and working of galvanic cell with neat diagram . (CO2)
(OR)
b) Explain construction and working of Lead storage battery. (CO2)
7. a) Calculate the temporary, permanent and total hardness of water containing the following salts:
CaSO4 =13.6 mg/lit, Mg(HCO3)2 = 7.3 mg/lit , Ca(HCO3)2 =
16.2 mg/lit, MgCl2 = 9.5 mg/lit (CO3)
(OR)
b) Explain Ion-Exchange process of softening of hard water. (CO3)
8. a) What is rusting of iron? Explain Mechanism of rusting of iron. (CO2)

(OR)
b) Explain cathodic protection methods. (CO2)
UNIT TEST –III
TIME: 90 minutes Total Marks:40
PART-A
16 Marks
(3) Answers for Q. No. 2 to 5 should be brief and straight to the point and shall not
1. a) Semiconductor Nano Crystals are called ................ (CO4)

b) Chloroprene is the monomer of Neoprene. (True/False) (CO4)
c) Give any two examples for green house gases. (CO5)
d) Presence of ozone in stratosphere is a pollutant. ( Yes/No) (CO5)
2. Define liquid crystals. State the types. (CO4)
3. Write the commercial production of Hydrogen by electrolysis of water. (CO4)
4. Define Green Chemistry. List any two benefits. (CO5)
5. Define TLV. Give one example. (CO5)
PART – B 3x8M = 24M

6. a) Define polymerisation. Explain condensation polymerisation by taking nylon 6,6

as an example. . (CO4)
(OR)
b) Define elastomers. Give a method of preparation and applications of Buna-S. (CO4)
7. a) What is air pollution? Discuss any one of Global impacts of air pollution. (CO5)
(OR)
b) Write the composition and uses of the following:
i) LPG ii) CNG iii) Biogas iv) Power Alcohol (CO4)
8. a) Define e-waste. State the sources and explain e-waste management. (CO5)
(OR)
b) Define water pollution. Write the causes of water pollution. (CO5)
TIME: 3hrs Total Marks:80
PART-A
Instructions: (1) Answer all questions. (2) Each question carries Three marks. 3x10=30M
1. Draw the atomic structures of Si and Ge. (CO1)

2. Write the anomalous electronic configuration of Chromium and Copper. (CO1)
3. State the limitations of Arrhenius theory of acids and bases. (CO1)
4. Define solution. Classify solutions based on solubility. (CO1)
5. State the applications of Li-ion batteries. (CO2)
6. List the factors that influence the rate of corrosion of metals. (CO2)
7. Mention disadvantages of hard water used in industries. (CO3)
8. State any three applications of nanotubes. (CO4)
9. Write the composition and uses of LPG. (CO4)
10. What is e-waste? State the sources of e-waste. (CO5)
PART – B
Instructions: (1) Answer any five questions. (2) Each question carries Ten marks. 10x5=50M
11. Explain the significance of quantum numbers. (CO1)
12. Define molarity and normality. Calculate the molarity and normality
of 250 ml of solution that contains 5.3 gm of sodium carbonate. (CO1)
13. a) Define ionic bond. Explain the formation of ionic bond in NaCl. (CO1)
b) Define Buffer solution. Give any two examples and applications.
(CO1)
14. a) Explain the construction and working of Fuel cells. (CO2)
b) State any four differences between electrolytic cells and Galvanicl cells. (CO2)
15. a) Explain mechanism of rusting of iron. (CO2)
b) Write a short note on Sacrificial anodic method of prevention of corrosion. (CO2)
16. Define hard water. Explain ion-exchange of softening of hard water

with a neat diagram . (CO3)
17. a) Define elastomer. Write a method of preparation and any two

applications of Buna-s . (CO4)
b) What are Liquid Crystals? Give any two examples and applications. (CO4)
18. a) Define deforestation. State the impacts of deforestation. (CO5)

b) Write a short note on Ozone layer depletion. (CO5)
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
Course Course Title No. of Total No. Marks for Marks for
Code Periods per of Formative Summative
Week Periods Assessment Assessment
C-105 ENGINEERING MECHANICS 05 150 20 80
Model Paper for Unit Test-I:

State Board of Technical Education and Training, A.P.
Diploma in Civil Engineering (DCE)
First Year : C-105 ENGINEERING MECHANICS
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test –I Maximum Marks:
40 PART- A 16
Marks
Instructions:
(i) Answer all questions
(ii) First question carries FOUR marks, each question of remaining carries THREE marks.
1. (a) & Dynamics are the branches of Engineering Mechanics (CO1)
(b) The forces, which are lying in the same plane, are called as forces
(CO1)
(c) The centroid of a semi-circle with radius ‘r’ lies at a distance of from the base (CO2)
(d) The cycle pedal is the example for a Collinear force (True/False) (CO1)
2. State the (i) Parallelogram law of forces (ii) Lami’s Theorem
3. Two forces act at an angle of 120°. The bigger force is 60 kN and the resultant is perpendicular
to the smaller one. Find the smaller force. (CO1)
4. State the need for finding the centroid and centre of gravity for various engineering
Applications (CO2).
5. Determine the centre of gravity of the remaining portion of a circular sheet metal of radius
50 mm, when a hole of 25 mm radius of circle is cut from the right side horizontal axis of
the 50 mm radius circle (CO2)
PART- B 3 x 8 = 24 Marks
Instructions: (i) Answer all questions

(ii) Each question carries EIGHT marks
(iii) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the
content but not the length of the answer.
6. (A) Find the magnitude and direction of resultant force for following forces acting at a point
(a) 30 KN due S
(b) 25 KN due N-E
(c) 62 KN due W
(d) 80 KN at 600 E of S and
(e) 70 KN at 400 S of W (CO1)
(OR)
(B) Four forces acting at a point are in equilibrium. Three of them are: 200N due S,
400N due N-E, and 500N at 300 east of south. Find analytically the magnitude and
direction of the Fourth force. (CO1)
7. (A) A body of weight 1000 N is suspended by two strings of 4 meters and 3 meters lengths
attached at the same horizontal level 5 meters apart. Calculate the forces in the strings.
(CO1)
(OR)
(B) Five forces 20N, 30N, 40N, 50N and 60N are acting on one of the angular points of a
regular hexagon towards the other five angular point taken in order. Find the magnitude
and direction of the resultant force. (CO1)
8. (A) A masonry dam is trapezoidal in section with one face vertical. The top width is a
m, bottomwidth is b m and the height is h m. Find the position of centroid from the
vertical face of the dam.(CO2)
(OR)
(B) Find the C.G. of an I-section with top flange 100mmX20mm, web 30mmX200 mm
and bottom flange 300mmX40mm (CO2)
***
Model Paper for Unit Test-II:
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test –II Maximum Marks: 40
PART- A 16 Marks

(ii) First question carries FOUR marks, each question of remaining carries THREE
marks.
1. (a) The second moment of an area is called (CO2)
(b) The formula for moment of inertia of a triangle about its base is (CO2)
(c) The stress is directly proportional to the strain within limit (CO3)
(d) The ratio between linear strain and lateral strain is called (CO3)
2. The moment of inertia of a square about its base is 900 mm4. Find the values of Ixx, Iyy and Izz
for the square. (CO2)
3. Define the terms Young’s Modulus and Shear modulus (CO3)
4. Draw Stress-Strain Curve for Mild Steel specimen and indicate salient points (CO3)
5. Write any three relationships among elastic constants. (CO3)
6.(A) Find the Moment of Inertia of an angular section 350 x 250 x 16 mm with its
long leg vertical.
(CO2)
(OR)
(B) Determine the moment of inertia about the centroidal axes for a built - up section having
four equal angle sections forming a box of size 180 mm. The single angle section is 90 mm ×
90mm × 10mm. The properties of angle section A= 1047 mm2; Ixx = Iyy = 8.1 × 105
mm4, Cxx = Cyy= 24.2 mm (CO2)
7.(A) A steel flat of 400mm length, 80mm width and 15mm thickness is subjected to an axial
compression of 150 KN. The young’s modulus of steel is 2 x 105 N/mm2 and Poisson’s ratio is
0.3. Determine change in length, width and volume of flat. (CO3)
(OR)
(B) A round bar400 mm2 in cross sectional area and 100 mm in length is subjected to an
axial thrust of 80 kN.If the length of the bar is decreased by 0.17 mm and its diameter
increases by
0.01 mm. Determine the Poisson’s ratio and three elastic moduli for the material of the bar.
(CO3)
8. (A) Two channels ISLC 400 are to be placed back to back so that I XX and IYY of sections are equal.
Determine the clear distance between back of the channels. For each channels I XX =1.4 x108
mm4 , IYY = 4.6 x 106 mm4 , A = 5800 mm2 , CYY = 30 mm. (CO3)
(OR)
(B) A bar of 25 mm diameter and 600 mm long is subjected to a pull of 50 kN. The change
in diameter and length was observed to be 0.03 mm and 0·30 mm. Calculate (a) Young’s
modulus, (b) Poission’s ratio, (c) Modulus of rigidity and (d) Factor of safety if ultimate
stress
= 204 N/mm2 . (CO3)
***
Model Paper for Unit Test-III:
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test –III Maximum Marks: 40
PART- A 16 Marks
marks.
1. (i) The bending moment at the point of contra flexure is (CO4)
(ii) What is the bending moment at end supports of a simply supported beam? a)
Maximum
b) Minimum c)
Zero
d) Uniform (CO4)
(iii) How do point loads and udl be represented in
SFD? a) Simple lines and curved lines
b) Curved lines and inclined
lines c) Simple lines and
inclined lines
d) Cant represent any more (CO4)
(iv) The parallel axis theorem gives the moment of inertia to the
surface of consideration.
a) Linear
b) Non-Linear
c) Perpendicular
d) Parallel (CO3)
2. A wooden wheel of 2000 mm diameter is to be fitted with a steel ring of 1990 mm internal
diameter. Determine (a) Stress developed in steel and (b) Minimum temperature required to
fit the steel ring over wooden wheel. Take Young’s modulus of steel as 2 × 105 N/ mm 2 and
Co- efficient of thermal expansion as 12 × 10-6/0C (CO3)
3. Write the relationship between rate of loading, shear force and bending moment. (CO4)
4. A simple supported beam of span 6 m carries a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m over
the left-hand half of the span and a concentrated load of 20 kN at a distance of 1 m from the
right- hand support. Find the reaction at the supports. (CO4)
5. A cantilever 4 meters long carries a uniformly distributed load of 8 kN/m over a length of 2·5
m from free end. Draw the shear force and bending moment diagrams for the above loading
system. (CO4)
Instructions:
(iii)Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content but
not the length of the answer.
6. (A) A load of 80 kN is suddenly applied on a bar 4 m long and 1000 mm 2 in cross-section.

Calculate the maximum instantaneous stress produced and strain energy stored in the
bar if E = 200 GPa. (CO3)
(OR)
(B) An RCC column 500 mm × 450 mm in section is provided with 6 nos. of 40 mm diameter
bars. The column carries an axial load of 600 kN. Find the stresses in concrete and steel
and also calculate the loads shared by concrete and steel if m = 15. (CO3)
7.(A) A cantilever of length 4 m carries a point load of 5 kN at its free end and a u.d.l. of 2
kN/m over a length of 2 m from the fixed end. Draw the SF and BM diagrams indicating
their
maximum values. (CO4)
(OR)
(B) A uniform beam of 8 m length is supported at its left hand end and at 2 m from its
right hand end. Three point loads of 180 kN, 50 kN and 30 kN are carried by the beam
at 2 m, 4 m and 8 m from its left support respectively. Draw SF and BM diagrams and
show the values at salient points. (CO4)
8. (A) A simply supported beam of span 8 meters carries a uniformly distributed load of 20
kN/m in the right half of the beam and a concentrated load of 40 kN at a distance of 2 m
from left support. Draw the shear force and bending moment diagram. Also show the
maximum bending moment . (CO4)
(OR)
(B) A beam of length 12 m is supported by two supports at 2 m from left end and another
at 2m from right end. It carries a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m over its 12 m
length. It is also loaded with a point load of 20 kN placed at 5 meters from left support
and another point load of 4 kN placed at right face end. Draw the shear force diagram
and bending moment diagram. Also determine the position and magnitudes of maximum
hogging and sagging moments (CO4)
oOo
Model Paper for End Examination
MODEL PAPER – BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATION,
(C–23) DCE—FIRST YEAR EXAMINATION
ENGINEERING MECHANICS (C-105)
Time: 3 hours] [Total Marks: 80
PART—A 10×3 =30 Marks
(2) Each question carries three marks.
(3) Answers should be brief and straight to the point and shall not exceed five
simple sentence
1) Define the terms 1.Statics 2.Dynamics. (CO1)
2) State Parallelogram and triangle law of forces (CO1)
3) State the characteristics of couple. (CO1)
4) Distinguish between centriod and centre of gravity (CO2)
5) State and explain Parallel axis theorem (CO2)
6) Find the M.O.I of rectangle of width 200 mm and depth 400 mm about it’s base (CO2)
7) Draw Stress-Strain Curve for Mild Steel specimen and indicate salient points (CO3)
8) State elastic constants and write their relationship. (CO3)
9) Define the terms Shear Force and Bending Moment (CO4)
10) Obtain the expressions for maximum SF and BM for SS beam carrying UDL through its length.
(CO4)
PART – B 5 x 10 = 50 marks
Instructions:
i) Answer any FIVE questions
ii) Each question carries TEN marks.
iii) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content
but not the length of the answer.
11) (A) Find the magnitude and direction of resultant force for following forces acting at a point
(a) 80 KN due N
(b) 20 KN due N-E
(c) 40 KN due E
(d) 60 KN at 600 E of S and
(e) 70 KN at 600 S of W (CO1)
12) Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant of the two forces 80kN and
120 kN acting at a point with an included angle 60° between them. The force
120 kN being
horizontal
(C01)
13) Locate the centre of gravity of given Z – section with reference to the axes OX and OY.(CO2)
14) Find the Moment of Inertia of an angular section 350 x 250 x 16 mm with its long leg
vertical.
15) A metal bar of 3 m long and 30 mm x 80 mm in cross section is stretched by
1.5 mm under an axial pull of 60 kN. Calculate the Tensile Stress,
Longitudinal strain produced and Young’s modulus of the material of the bar. (CO3)
16) A steel bar 30 mm diameter is acted upon by forces as shown in the fig.
Find the total elongation in the bar taking E=2.1x105 N/mm2
17) A cantilever 5m long carries three point loads of 20 kN, 30 kN at 1m, 2.5m and 4m
respectively from free end . Draw S.F and B.M diagrams. Calculate S.F and B.M at 4.5 m
from free end. (CO4)
18) A beam of span 8m freely supported at its ends carries a UDL of 10kN/m over a length of
3m from the left hand support. It also carries another UDL of 15kN/m over a length of 2m
from the right hand support in addition to a point load of 30kN at its mid span. Calculate
the Maximum SF and BM and draw SFD and BMD. (CO4)
Surveying-I
Course Course Title No. of Periods Total No. of Marks for Marks for
Code per Week Periods Formative Summative
Assessment Assessment
C-106 SURVEYING-I 04 120 20 80
Model Paper for Unit Test-I :

State Board of Technical Education and Training,
A.P. Diploma in Civil Engineering (DCE)
First Year :C-106 SURVEYING-I
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test –I Maximum Marks : 40
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions :
1.(a) Marine survey deals with water bodies for the purpose of navigation, water supply,
harbour works etc. (TRUE/FALSE) (CO1)
(b) Number of links in 30 m metric chain is (CO2)
(c) Optical square is used to establish (CO2)
(d) The method performed to set out perpendicular using chain alone is (CO2)
1. State fundamental principles of surveying. (CO1)
2. Define plane surveying and Geodetic surveying. (CO1)
3. Define Base line, check line and Tie line. (CO2)
4. What are the instruments used in chain surveying. (CO2)
Instructions :(i) Answer all questions

5. (A) Plot the following cross staff survey of a field ABCDEFG and calculate its area in hectares.
(CO2)
(OR)
(B) Explain with sketches the method of direct and indirect ranging.. (CO2)
6. (A) A chain was tested before starting the survey and was found to be 20m. At the end of the
survey it was tested again and found to be 20.12m. Area of the plan of the field drawn to a
scale of 10mm=6m, was 5040sqm. Find the true area of the field in Square meters.(CO2)
(OR)
(B) A survey line ABDE intersects a building between B and D. To overcome the obstacle a
perpendicular BC 90m long, is set out at B. From C, two lines CD and CE are set out at angles
45o and60o respectively with CB. Find the lengths CD and CE such that points D and E fall on
the prolongation of line AB. Also find the obstructed distance BD. (CO2)
7. (A) The following perpendicular offsets were taken from a survey to a hedge. (CO2)
Distance 0 5 10 15 20 30 40 55 70
(m)
Offset 3.29 4.05 6.23 5.75 4.76 5.26 4.32 3.92 2.91
(m)
Find the area between the survey line and the hedge by Trapezoidal rule and Simpsons rule.
(OR)
(B) What are the types of obstacle in chaining? Explain by any two methods how chaining
is continued when a river comes across a chain line. (CO2)
-OO
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test –II Maximum Marks : 40
PART- A 16
Marks
Instructions :(i) Answer all questions
marks.
1. (a) Whole circle bearing of a line is 354o30’then Quadrantal bearing is (CO3)
(b) Line joining points of same declination is called (CO3)
(c) The arithmetical check formula in the case of Height of Instrument method of reduction of
levels is (CO4)
(d) The readings taken on a staff at which instrument shifted is called (CO4)
2. Calculate back bearings for the following fore bearing of the lines.
(CO3) (i) 310o30’ (ii)
145o15’ (iii) 210o30’
3. Convert following Quadrantal bearings into whole circle bearings:
(CO3) (i) N 45o15’ E (ii) S 45o20’ E (iii) S 10o45’ W
4. Define the following terms: (CO4)
(i) Back sight (ii) Fore sight (iii) Change point
5. Define (i) Level surface (ii) Datum. (CO4)

6. (A) Draw the neat sketch of prismatic compass and explain the function of parts
(OR) (CO3)
(B) The bearings of the sides of the traverse ABCDEA are given below. Sketch and
compute interior angles of the traverse. (CO3)
Line FB BB
AB 110o15’ 290o15’
BC 35o15’ 215o15’
CD 276o30’ 96o30’
DE 195o30’ 15o30’
EA 132o15’ 312o15’
7. (A) The following bearings were observed in a closed traverse ABCDA. Identify the stations
effected by local attraction and correct it. (CO3)
Line FB BB
AB 46o10’ 226o10’
BC 119o20’ 298o40’
CD 169o30’ 351o10’
DA 280o20’ 99o20’
(OR)
(B).What are the instrumental errors that normally occur in doing survey with prismatic
compass? How they can be avoided. (CO3)
8. (A) Draw the neat sketch of Dumpy level and mention its parts (CO4)
(OR)
(B) The following observations were observed on a continuously sloping ground:

0.605, 1.105, 1.895, 2.300, 0.950, 1.340, 1.975, 0.760, 1.785, 0.905 and
1.235.
The R.L of first point was 120.650.
Enter the readings properly into the levelling field book proforma. Reduce the levels by Height
of Instrument method and Rise and Fall method. Apply the arithmetical check. (CO4)
-oOo
Model Paper for Unit Test-III
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test –III Maximum Marks : 40
PART- A 16
Marks
Instructions :
1. (a) B.S = 1.525 and R.L of B.M=+100.000 then Height of the Instrument is (CO4)
(b) Line joining the points of same elevation is called
(CO4)
(c) Level difference between any two consecutive contours is called
(CO4)
(d) Pentagraph is used to
(CO5)
2. Define (i) Contour interval and (ii) Contour gradient. (CO4)
3. What is reciprocal levelling? When it is resorted to? (CO4)
4. State any three characteristics of contours. (CO4)
5. State any three uses of Abney level. (CO5)
6. (A) The following reciprocal levels were taken with Dumpy level. (CO4)
Staff readings on Remarks
Instrument at
A B AB = 1200m
A 1.156 2.597 RL of A = +625.555
B 0.987 2.418
Find (i) True level difference between A and B (ii) RL of B (iii) The combined correction
for curvature and refraction and (iv) The error in collimation adjustment of the level.
(OR)
(B) Describe briefly the effect of curvature and refraction in levelling. Derive an expression for curvature
correction, refraction correction and for combined correction. (CO4)
7. (A) The following is the page of a level book entered in pencil. Some of the entries got erased,
and have been marked with crosses. Calculate the missing readings. (CO4)
Station BS IS FS Rise Fall RL
1 x 150.000
2 2.457 0.827 X
3 2.400 x X
4 2.697 x x 148.070
5 x 2.051 148.716
6 2.500 149.784
7 2.896 149.388
8 x 0.124 X
9 2.672 149.612
(OR)
(B) The following observations were taken during the testing of a dumpy level. (CO4)
Staff Readings on
Instrument Near to
A B
A 1.275 2.005
B 1.040 1.660
Is the instrument in adjustment? To what reading should the line of collimation be adjusted
when the instrument is near to B.
8. (A) Workout the difference in levels between points A and B if curvature and refraction effects
are taken into account in the following case: (CO4)
Level is setup over A, and the staff held at
B RL of A = 150.000,
Height of the Instrument at A =
1.000 Reading of staff at B = 1.800
Distance AB = 500m
(OR)
(B) The areas enclosed by the contours in a lake are as follows: (CO4)
Contour (m) 270 275 280 285 290
Area (sqm) 2050 8400 16300 24600 31500
Calculate the volume of water between the contours 270m and 290m by (i) Trapezoidal formula
(ii) Prismoidal formula.
***
Model paper for End Exam
MODEL PAPER – BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATION, (C–23)
DCE—FIRST YEAR EXAMINATION
SURVEYING-I (C-106)
PART—A 10×3=30 Marks
simple sentence
1) State the Classification of Survey based on the Instruments used. (CO1)
2) What are the equipment used in Chain surveying? (CO2)
3) What is an Offset? Distinguish between perpendicular and oblique offsets. (CO2)
4) Distinguish between Magnetic bearing and True bearing of a Survey line. (CO3)
5) Convert the following Whole Circle Bearings to Quadrantal Bearings.
(i) 25030’ (ii) 165020’ (iii) 312045’ (CO3)
6) Define (i) Back Sight (ii) Fore Sight (iii) Intermediate Sight (CO4)
7) State the relationship between the Fundamental Lines of a Level. (CO4)
8) Write the differences between Height of Inst and Rise and Fall methods. (CO4)
9) State any three uses of Contour Maps. (CO4)
10) State any three uses of Abney Level. (CO5)
Instructions:
iii) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content but
11) State the fundamental principles of Surveying (CO1)
12) From the following Cross Staff Survey of Field ABCDEFG and calculate its Area in Hectares. The readings
are in meters. (CO2)
121
13) Calculate the area enclosed between the chain line and the irregular boundary using
Trapezoidal and Simpson’s rule from the data given. (CO2)
Distance(m) 0 3 6 9 12 15 18 21 24
Offset (m) 048 1.36 1.57 3.1 2.65 2.05 1.98 1.56 0.85
14) Draw a neat sketch of a Prismatic Compass and explain the function of the parts. (CO3)
15) The following bearings were observed in running a compass traverse. (CO3)
Line F.B. B.B. Line F.B. B.B.
0 0
AB 45 15’ 225 15’ BC 123 15’ 303015’
0
CD 181000’ 1000’ DA 289030’ 109030’
Calculate the interior angles of the traverse)( CO4)
16) The following readings were observed successfully with a levelling Instrument. The Instrument
was shifted after 5th and 11th readings. Draw up a page of Level book and determine the R.L. of
various points if R.L. of first reading was 158.340 m. Use Height of Collimation method.
0.475, 1.015, 1.625, 3.185, 3.925, 0.565, 1.275, 1.805, 2.495, 3.410, 3.785, 1.745, 0.615 and
0.580. (CO4)
17) Explain Contouring by i) Method of Squares and ii) Cross-Section Method. (CO4)
18) The following is the page of a level book entered in pencil. Some of the entries got erased, and
have been marked with crosses. Calculate the missing readings. (CO4)
Station BS IS FS Rise Fall RL
1 x 150.000
2 2.457 0.827 X
3 2.400 x X
4 2.697 x x 148.070
5 x 2.051 148.716
6 2.500 149.784
7 2.896 149.388
8 x 0.124 X
9 2.672 149.612
ENGINEERING DRAWING
Course Course Title No. of Periods Total No. of Marks for Marks for
Code per Week Periods Formative Summative
ENGINEERING
C-107 06 180 40 60
DRAWING
Model Paper for End Examination

MODEL PAPER – BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATION, (C–
23) DCE—FIRST YEAR EXAMINATION
ENGINEERING DRAWING (C-107)
PART—A ( 4 X 5 = 20 Marks)
(2)
Each question carries five marks.
(3)
All dimensions are in mm.
1. Write the following in single-stroke vertical lettering of size 10 mm in capital letters:

“CLEAN AND GREEN IS OUR PERFECT DREAM” (CO1)
2. Redraw the following figure to full-scale and dimension it according to SP : 46

— 1988byusingalignedsystem:
(CO1)
3. Drawacommonexternaltangenttotwocirclesofradii25 mm and 20 mm. The distance

between hecentresofcirclesis75mm. (CO2)
4. Draw the auxiliary view of the objects given below: (CO3)

PART—B ( 4 x 10=40)
Instructions: (1) Answer any four questions.
(2)
Each question carries ten marks.
(3)
All dimensions are in mm.
5. Drawahelixofcylinderdiameter50mmandpitch70mm. (CO2)
6. Draw the top view and front view of a circular plane, if the
surface of the plane is perpendicular to HP and inclined at
30º to VP.
(CO3)
7. A hexagonal pyramid of base side 30 mm and axis 75 mm long is resting on its base in HP
having a base side parallel to VP. It is cut by a section plane which is inclined at 30º to HP,
perpendicular to VP and passing through a point on the axis at a distance of 35 mm from
the vertex. Draw its sectional front view and sectional top view. (CO3)
8. Draw the Front view, top view and side view of the given figure: (CO3)
9. Draw the isometric view of the object for the views given below. (CO4)
10. A right circular cone of diameter 50 mm and axis 75 mm long is resting on its base in HP. It is
cut by a section plane which is perpendicular to VP, inclined at 60º to HP and passing
through a point on the axis at a height of 40 mm from the base. Draw the surface
development of the bottom position of truncated cone. (CO5)
C-23 C-301
ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS-II
(common to A/AA/CER/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/TT)
No. of Total No. of

Course Marks for FA Marks for SA
Course Title Periods/week periods
Code
Engineering
C-301 4 60 20 80
Mathematics-II
UNIT TEST MODEL PAPERS C –23, C-301

Unit Test I
III SEM
Subject Name: Engineering Mathematics-II
Sub Code: A/AA/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/TT-301
Time: 90 minutes Max. Marks: 40
Part-A 16 Marks
(2) First question carries four marks and the remaining questions carry three marks each.
a.
(CO1)
b. (CO1)
c. : State TRUE/FALSE (CO1)
d. (CO2)
2. Evaluate (CO1)
3. Evaluate (CO1)
4. Evaluate (CO2)
5. Evaluate (CO2)
Part-B 3×8=24 Marks

(3) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content
6. A) Evaluate (OR) (CO1)
B) Evaluate (CO1)
7. A) Evaluate (OR) (CO1)
B) Evaluate (CO1)
1 −1
8. A) Evaluate ∫ tan x dx (OR) (CO2)
2
0 1+ x
B) (CO2)
-o0o-
Unit Test II C –23, C -301

III Sem
Subject name: Engineering Mathematics-II
Sub Code: A/AA/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/TT-301
Time : 90 minutes Max. Marks: 40
Part-A 16 Marks
(2) First question carries four marks and the remaining questions carry three marks
each
a. Formula to find area bounded by y=f (x ) and X-axis from x=a to x=b is____ (CO3)
dy
b. Integrating factor of + P ( x ) y=Q(x ) is e∫ Pdx: State TRUE/FALSE (CO4)
dx
c. The order of the differential equation is ___________. (CO4)
d. The auxiliary equation of the differential equation is ____(CO4)

2. Find the area bounded by the curve axis, between the lines
(CO3)
3. Find the mean value of in the interval (CO3)
4. Form the differential equation by eliminating the arbitrary constant from
(CO4)
5. Solve the differential equation (CO4)
Part-B 3×8=24 Marks

(3) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content
6. A) Find the R.M.S value of over the range and (OR) (CO3)
B) Calculate the approximate value of by using Trapezoidal rule by dividing the range into 5 equal
intervals. (CO3)
7. A) Solve
dy 2 x+ y (OR) (CO4)
=e
dx
B) Solve (CO4)
8. A) Solve ( D 2−2 D+1 ) y=e−x (OR) (CO4)
B) Solve ( D 2 +6 D+9 ) y=sin 3 x (CO4)
-o0o-
END EXAM MODEL PAPERS

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – II
A/AA/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/TT-301
MODEL PAPER-1
TIME : 3 HOURS MAX.MARKS : 80M

PART-A
11. Evaluate (CO 1)
12. Evaluate (CO 1)

−1
sin x
13. Evaluate ∫ dx (CO 1)
√ 1−x 2
14. Evaluate (CO 2)
15. Evaluate (CO 2)

16. Find the area bounded by the curve the X-axis between the lines (CO3)
and
17. Find the mean value of the function in the interval . (CO 3)
18. Find the order and degree of the differential equation . (CO 4)
19. Form the differential equation for the family of curves y=mx by eliminating the arbitrary constant m.
(CO 4)
20. Solve (CO 4)
PART-B
Answer any five questions. Each question carries TEN marks. 5x10=50M
11. (a) Evaluate (CO 1)
(b) Evaluate (CO 1)

1
12. (a) Evaluate ∫ dx (CO 1)
√ 25 x2 +9
(b) Evaluate (CO 1)

π /2
(b) Evaluate ∫ xcosx dx (CO 2)
0

(b) Find the RMS value of √ x over the range x=1 and x=2. (CO 3)
15. Calculate the approximate value of by using Simpson’s 1/3rd rule by dividing the range into 8
equal parts. (CO 3)
dy y 1
16. Solve + = (CO 4)
dx x x2
17. (a) Solve (D¿¿ 2+ 4 D+4 ) y =0 ¿ (CO 4)
(b) Solve (CO 4)

18. Solve (D¿¿ 2+5 D+6) y=e 3 x +sin 2 x ¿ (CO 4)
-o0o-
END EXAM MODEL PAPERS

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS – II
A/AA/C/EE/M/MET/MNG/TT-301
MODEL PAPER- 2
TIME : 3 HOURS MAX.MARKS : 80M

PART-A
1. Evaluate (CO 1)
2. Evaluate (CO 1)
logx
3. Evaluate ∫ dx (CO 1)
x
4. Evaluate (CO 2)
5. Evaluate (CO 2)
6. Find the area bounded by , X-axis and the lines x=0, x=1. (CO 3)
f ( x )=2 x +3
7. Find the mean value of the function f ( x )=x 2 in the interval [1,2] (CO 3)
8. Find the order and degree of the differential equation

(CO 4)
9. Form the differential equation for the family of curves y=a e x +b e x by eliminating the arbitrary constants a
and b. (CO4)
10. Solve (CO 4)
PART-B
Answer All questions. Each question carries TEN marks. 5x 10=50M
(b) Evaluate (CO 1)

9
12. (a) Evaluate ∫ dx (CO 1)
√ 25−x 2
(b) Evaluate (CO 1)

1
(b) Evaluate ∫ ( x +2 ) ( 2 x −1 ) dx (CO 2)
0

(b) Find the R.M.S. value of the function f (x)=√ sinx over the range x=0 and x=π
(CO3)
11
15. Find the approximate value of ∫ ( x +1 ) dx using Trapezoidal rule by dividing the interval into 10 equal
1
parts. (CO 3)
16. Solve dy + y cotx=cosecx (CO 4)
dx
17. (a) Solve (D¿¿ 2+ 4) y=0 ¿ (CO 4)
(b) Solve (CO 4)

18. Solve (D¿¿ 2−5 D+ 4) y=x +sin 2 x ¿ (CO 4)
-o0o-
MECHANICS OF SOLIDS AND THEORY OF STRUCTURES
No. of Total No. Marks for Marks for

Course
Course Title Periods per of Formative Summative
Code
Week Periods Assessment Assessment
MECHANICS OF SOLIDS AND

C-302 05 75 20 80
THEORY OF STRUCTURES
Model Paper for Unit Test-I

Third Semester:C-302 MECHANICS OF SOLIDS & THEORY OF STRUCTURES
PART- A 16 Marks

marks.
1. (a) A triangular beam of depth 300 mm is subjected to a max comp stress of 40N/mm2 at the
top. The tensile stress at the bottom of the beam is (CO1)
(b) The formula for section modulus of rectangular beam of dimensions bxd is (CO1)
(c) The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length ‘L’ subjected to u.d.l w kN/m
acting throughout the length of the beam is (CO2)
(d) The ratio between effective length of the column to its least radius of gyration is called
as (CO3)
2. Find the moment of resistance of rectangular beam of breadth 240mm depth
400mm.If the bending stress is not to exceed 12 N/mm2.
(CO1)
3. Draw the shear stress distribution for a rectangular cross section. (CO1)
4. A cantilever beam of span 3m carries a point load of 10kN at free end. Find the slope
and deflection at the free end using Moment area method. Take E = 210 kN/mm2 and
I = 42 X 106 mm4.
(CO2)
5. Define (i) Critical load (ii) Safe load (iii) Slenderness ratio (CO3)
Instructions : (i)Answer all questions
6. (A) A T-Section shown in fig. is used as a beam over a span of 4m. Calculate the bending
stress in the beam if it carries a UDL of 12 kN/m. (CO1)
(OR)
(B) A simply supported beam having a span of 8m carries a uniformly distributed loadof
18kN/m over its entire span and a point load of 60kN at its centre. Design a suitable
rectangular beam if b/d ratio is 0.45, the bending stress is not to exceed 18N/mm2.
(CO1)
7. (A) A beam 6m long is Simply supported at its ends and carries a load of 20kN at a
distance of 1m from each end. Calculate the values of Maximum slope and Maximum
deflection occurring in the beam using Moment area method. Take EI = 42000 kNm2.
(CO2)
(OR)
(B) A beam of length 5m is fixed at one end and free at the other end, subjected to
uniformly distributed load of 2 kN/m over a length of 3 m from the fixed end.
Determine the maximum deflection at the free end. Take EI=1X1013 Nmm2.
(CO2)
8. (A) An I-Section Joist of top & bottom flanges 200x20mm and web 20x360mm is 6m
long, used as a column with both ends fixed. Calculate Euler's crippling load for the
column? Assume E = 2x 105 N/mm2.
(CO3)
(OR)
(B) A hollow cast iron column of external diameter 200mm, thickness of 20mm
and 4.5m long, fixed at both ends. Calculate the safe load by Rankine’s formula using
a factor of safety
4. Also determine ratio of Euler and Rankine’s critical load. Given E = 100
kN/mm2, fc = 550N/mm2, a = 1/1600.
(CO3)
OOo
Third Semester:C-302 MECHANICS OF SOLIDS & THEORY OF STRUCTURES
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions :
1. (a) For no tension to occur at the base of the dam, the resultant force acting in the
dam c/s should pass within the middle third points (TRUE/FALSE)
(CO3)
(b) If angle of repose of soil mass is 30o, the ratio between Co-efficient of passive earth
pressure to Co-efficient of active earth pressure is (CO3)
(c) Degree of statical indeterminacy of propped cantilever is (CO4)
(d) The frame is said to be perfect, when it satisfies the condition: n=2j-3 (TRUE/FALSE)
(CO5)
2. Draw the stress distribution diagrams at the base of dam for three possible cases. (CO3)
3. Define (i) Critical load (ii) Safe load (iii) Slenderness ratio (CO3)
4. A propped cantilever beam of span 3.5m subjected to u.d.l of 20 kN/m acting

throughout the length of the beam. If prop is provided at free end, find the prop
reaction.
(CO4)
5. What are the assumptions made in the analysis of truss. (CO5)

6. (A) A trapezoidal concrete dam has its water face vertical with 2.5m top width, stores
water to a depth of 14 m with a free board of 2.0m. Take density of concrete as 24
kN/m3. Calculate the minimum base width required.
(CO3)
(OR)
(B) Calculate the stresses at the base of a masonry retaining wall of trapezoidal
section given top width 1.0m, bottom width 3.0m, height 8m and the earth face
vertical.It is retaining earth level with its top. Ø =450, γ =18 kN/m3, unit weight of
masonry = 24 kN/m3. (CO3) (CO3
7. (A) Plot SFD and BMD of a propped cantilever beam of span 4m subjected to u.d.l of 20
kN/m acting throughout length of the beam.
(CO4)
(OR)
(B) A propped cantilever beam of span 3.0m subjected to two-point loads 25 kN and
30 kN at 1m and 2m respectively from fixed end. If prop is provided at the free end,
find the prop reaction and also plot SFD and BMD.
(CO4)
8. (A) Explain the procedure of finding the forces in the members of a pin jointed
truss by using method of joints (CO5)
(OR)
(B) Determine the forces in the frame shown below by method of joints. (CO5)
oOo
Model Paper for End Examination:
MODEL PAPER - DIPLOMA EXAMINATION, (C–23)
DCE—THIRD SEMESTER EXAMINATION
MECHANICS OF SOLIDS AND THEORY OF STRUCTURES (C-302)
Time : 3 hours ] [ Total Marks : 80

PART—A 3×10=30marks
Instructions : (1) Answer all questions.

simple sentences.
1. State any three assumptions made in the theory of simple bending. (CO1)
2. Define (i) Neutral Axis (ii) Flexural rigidity. (CO1)
3. Distinguish between strength and stiffness of a beam. (CO2)
4. State Mohr’s theorem and its limitations. (CO2)
5. Write any two differences between long columns and short columns. (CO3)
6. State the stability conditions for the Dams. (CO3)
7. Define the following terms:
(a) Active earth pressure(b) Passive earth pressure. (CO3)
8. What is meant by degree of static indeterminacy? (CO4)
9. State the advantages of continuous beams. (CO4)
10. Name three different methods used to find the stresses in the members of a frame. (CO5)
Instructions:
11) Calculate maximum shear force and bending moment for a cantilever beam of span 3 m
and carries an u.d.l. of 2 kN/m over a length of 1 m from free end and a point load of 10
kN is acting at a distance of 1 m from fixed end.
(CO1)
12) A beam of I—section, 150 mm deep and 80 mm wide has flanges 6·8 mm thick and web
4·8 mm thick is Simply Supported and carries a u.d.l of 20 kN/m over its entire span. Find the
maximum permissible span without exceeding the shear stress of 60 N/mm2. Take I xx =
688.2 x104 mm4 and A = 1808 mm2. (CO1)
13) A Simply supported beam of span 5m carries a point load of 50kN acting at 3m from Left
hand support. Find the maximum deflection using Macaulay’s method. Assume EI = 4500
kN- m2.(CO2)
14) Two concentrated loads of 60 kN and 100 kN are placed on a simply supported beam of
span 6 m at distances of 2 m and 3 m respectively from the left end. Determine the
deflections under the two point loads, taking EI = 3000 kN/m2.
(CO2)
15) A circular column of diameter 200mm and 4 m long is fixed at both ends. Calculate
the safe load by Rankine’s formula using a factor of safety 5. Also determine ratio
of Euler and Rankine’s critical load. Given E = 100 kN/mm2, fc = 500 N/mm2, a
= 1/1500.
(CO3)
16) A masonry dam 10 m high, 2 m at top and 6 m wide at bottom retains water to a depth of
7.5m, water face of dam is vertical. Find maximum and minimum stresses at base. Weight
of masonry 23 kN/m3 and specific weight of water 10 kN/m3. (CO3)
17) A propped cantilever beam of span 3.0m subjected to two-point loads 25 kN and 30 kN
at 1m and 2m respectively from fixed end. If prop is provided at the free end, find the
prop reaction and also plot SFD and BMD. (CO4)
18) Find the magnitude and nature of forces in all members of the truss shown below: (CO5)
HYDRAULICS
No. of Marks for Marks for
Course Total No. of
Course Title Periods per Formative Summative
Code Periods
Week Assessment Assessment
C-303 HYDRAULICS 05 75 20 80

Third Semester:C-303 HYDRAULICS
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions :
1. (a) Specific gravity has the same unit as that of mass density – True/False (CO1)
(b) Viscosity is the resistance to flow of fluids – True/False (CO1)
(c) The unit for measuring discharge in SI system is -------------- (CO2)
(d) The ratio of actual discharge of orifice to the theoretical discharge is called. (CO3)
2. Define (a) Specific weight (b) Cohesion (c) Surface tension (CO1)
3. State the types of fluid pressure measuring devices (CO2)
4. State and briefly explain the equation of continuity (CO3)
5. Define a Notch and state the types based on its shape. (CO3)
Instructions :
(ii) Each question carries EIGHT mark
(iii) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content
6. (A) A rectangular plate 3 m long and 1.5 m wide is immersed vertically in water in such
a way that its 3m side is parallel to water surface and its top edge is 2.5m below the
free surface. Find the total pressure and depth of centre of pressure on one side of the
plate? (CO1)
(OR)
(B) A circular plate 2.1M diameter is immersed in water so that its plane makes an
angle of 300 to the water surface and higher point of the plate is 2.0M below the
surface. Calculate the total pressure and centre of pressure. (CO1)
7. (A) A pipe 340 m long has a slope 1 in 100 and tapers from 1.25 m diameter at the
higher end to 625mm diameter at the lower end. Determine the pressure at lower
end. If the pressure at the higher end 0.14N/mm2 and the discharge through the pipe
is 108lit/sec of water. (CO2)
(OR)
(B) (i) write any three assumptions of Bernoulli’s equation? (ii)A pipe of 0.3m diameter
carries an oil of specific gravity 0.9 at the rate of 120 lit/sec. Pressure at a point A in
the pipe is 24.5 kN/m2. If the point A is 5m above the datum line calculate the total
head in meters of oil. (CO2)
8. (A) A circular tank of diameter 3m contains water up to a height of 9m. An orifice of

diameter 400mm is provided at the bottom of the tank. Calculate time required for
empty the tank, if cd =0.97.
(CO3)
(OR)
(B) A Right-angle triangular V-Notch was used to measure discharge of a centrifugal

pump. If the depth of water at V-Notch is 200mm, calculate the discharge over the
notch in lit per minute. Cd=0.62. (CO3)
oOo
Model Paper for Unit Test-II
Third Semester:C-303 HYDRAULICS
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions :
1. (a) Weirs are used to find the discharge of rivers – True/False (CO3)
(b) If the Reservoirs are kept at the same level the head loss is zero – True/False (CO4)
(c) In open channel, If the flow characteristics unchanged with space the flow is called---(CO4)
(d) Low specific speed of turbine implies it is a......... Turbine (CO4)
2. State (i) Darcy’s equation (ii) Chezy’s equation to find the Loss of head due to Friction(CO4)
3. Define the terms (a) Reynold’s number (b) Hydraulic mean Depth (CO4)
4. Sketch a Centrifugal pump and show its parts. (CO5)
5. State any three components of a Hydro Electric Power Station. (CO5)
Instructions :
6. (A) Water is passing over a rectangular notch flows subsequently over a right-angled
triangular notch. The length of the rectangular notch is 0.6 m and its coefficient of
discharge is 0.62. If the coefficient for triangular notch is 0.59, what will be the head
through the triangular notch when the head over rectangular notch is 0.15m?
(CO3)
(OR)
(B)A broad crested weir is constructed across the entire 3 m width of a rectangular
channel. If the head on the weir crest is 56 cm, find the discharge over the weir. Take
Cd = 0·96. (CO3)
7. (A) Two reservoirs are connected by a pipe line 22 m long consisting of two pipes one
of 15 cm dia. and length 6m and the other of diameter 22.5 cm and 16 m length. If the
difference of water levels in two reservoirs is 6 m, calculate the discharge considering
all losses. Take
f = 0.04. (CO4)
(OR)
(B) Two Reservoirs are connected by a straight pipe 1500 m long. For the first 800m
length it has 200 mm diameter and then reduced to 150mm diameter for the remaining
length. The water levels in the two reservoirs differ by 25m. Determine all the losses of
head and also the Discharge in cumecs. Take friction f = 0.01.(CO4)
8. (A) A Trapezoidal channel section has side slopes 1 vertical to 2 horizontal. The
discharge in the channel is 16 m3/sec, with a bed slope of 1 in 2000. Design the
channel for the most economic section. Use manning formula with N = 0.012
(CO4)
(OR)
(B) A trapezoidal channel has side slopes 1 : 1 and is discharging 20 m3/sec with bed slope of
0·5 m per 1000 m. Manning’s n = 0·01. Determine the section of the channel. (CO4)
***
Model Paper for End Examination :
(C–23) DCE—THIRDSEMESTER EXAMINATION
HYDRAULICS (C-303)
PART—A 10×3 =30 Marks

(3) Answers should be brief and straight to the point and
shall not exceed five simple sentences.
1. Define the terms viscosity, capillarity and surface “tension”. (CO1)

2. State the relation among atmospheric pressure, gauge pressure and absolute pressure.
(CO1)
3. State the Bernoulli’s theorem and express it in equation form (CO2)
4. State the classification of mouth pieces according to shape and according to position.(CO3)
5. Find the discharge over a rectangular notch having width 2m and a constant head
of 30cm. assume Cd = 0.62.
(CO3)
6. List the classification of weirs. (CO3)
7. Define Reynold’s number. How it is useful in determining the type of flow. (CO4)
8. What do you understand by the term most economical section of channel? (CO4)
9. List the functions of air vessels in reciprocating pumps. (CO5)
10. State the component parts of a hydroelectric power plant. (CO5)
Instructions:
11. U-tube differential manometer is used to find out a pressure difference of liquids in pipe A
and pipe B as shown in figure. If the pipe A contains liquid of specific gravity 1·6 and pipe B
contains water, find the difference of pressure between the two points. Manometric liquid
is mercury of specific gravity 13.6. (CO1)
12. The diameter of a pipe changes gradually from 150mm at point A to 100mm at point B,
which are situated at 20m and 16mrespectively above the datum. Determine the
pressure at B, if the pressure at A is 0.2 N/mm2 and velocity of flow at A is 1.1m/sec.
Neglect the losses between a and B.
13. A pipe 340 m long has a slope 1 in 100 and tapers from 1.25 m diameter at the higher
end to 625mm diameter at the lower end. Determine the pressure at lower end. If the
pressure at the higher end 0.14N/mm2 and the discharge through the pipe is 108lit/sec
of water. (CO2)
14. Calculate the discharge passing through an orifice 80 cm wide and 60 cm deep in the side
of tank. It is having a water level of 3·5 m above the upper edge of the orifice and tail
water is 20 cm above the lower edge of the orifice. Take Cd = 0·62.
(CO3)
15. Water passing over a rectangular notch flows subsequently over a right-angled triangular
notch. The length of the rectangular notch is 0·6 m and the coefficient of discharge is
0·62. If the coefficient of discharge of triangular notch is 0·59, what will be the head
through the triangular notch when the head over rectangular notch is 0·15 m?
(CO3)
16. A compound piping system consists of three pipes of lengths 1500 m, 1200 m and 1000 m
and diameters 0·5 m, 0·4 m and 0·3 m respectively are connected in series. Convert the
system to (a) an equivalent Length of 0·4 m diameter pipe; (b) an equivalent size of pipe
3700 m long.
17. A 2 km long water main has to carry a discharge of 0·5 cumec. If the maximum allowable
loss of head due to friction is 26 m, find the minimum diameter required. Use Darcy’s
equation. Assume f = 0.008. Neglect the minor losses.
18. A rectangular channel having most economical section is 6m wide. Find the discharge, if
the bed slope is 1 in 1200. Assume ‘C’ as 50.. (CO4)
SURVEYING-II
Course Total No. of
Course Title Periods per Formative Summative
Code Periods
Week Assessment Assessment
C-304 SURVEYING-II 04 60 20 80

Third Semester:C-304 SURVEYING-II
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions :
1. (a) Swinging the telescope is revolving the telescope through 180° in a vertical
plane (True/False) (CO1)
(b) Horizontal Axis of Theodolite is also called as ------------------
(CO1) (c)When the base of the object is inaccessible two instrument stations are
used (True/False)
(CO2)
(d) When the Horizontal distance between an accessible object and instrument is D
and angle of elevations is A then the height of the object is H = .......... (CO2)
2. State any three errors that are eliminated by method of repetition. (CO1)
3. State three methods of traversing with a theodolite. (CO1)
4. Define (i) Latitude (ii) Departure (CO1)
5. What do you mean by Trigonometric levelling? When do you use it? (CO2)
Instructions :
but not the length ofthe answer.
6. (A) Sketch and explain the parts of a Transit Theodolite. (CO1)

(OR)
(B) Explain the procedure to determine the horizontal angle by reiteration
method (CO1)
7. (A) Explain briefly the steps involved in Temporary adjustments of a

theodolite. (CO1)
(OR)
(B) Explain the measurement of horizontal angles by repetition method. (CO1)
8. (A) Determine the RL of top of Roof of a building “P”, with the following observations:
Instrument at Staff reading on Vertical angle Remarks
A 2.325 16045’ AB = 40 m
B 1.435 13030’ RL of BM = 225.00
(CO2)
(OR)
(B) Describe the procedure to find the distance and elevation of the object when the base
of the object is inaccessible and instrument stations and object are not in the same
vertical plane.
(CO2)
oOo
Model Paper for Unit Test-II :
Third Semester:C-304 SURVEYING-II
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (a) A Tacheometer is used when a Theodolite is not available – True/False (CO3)

(b) Tacheometer has number of horizontal hairs (CO3)
(c) In linear method of setting out curve, Theodolite is used-------True/False (CO4)
(d) The value of Radius if the value of Degree of curve D is given as 23.76m
. (CO4)
2. State the methods of Tacheometry (CO3)
3. Define the terms (i) Point of intersection (ii) Mid-ordinate (CO4)
4. Briefly explain the working principle of GPS. (CO5)
5. Write the application of drone surveying in agriculture and irrigation (CO5)
Instructions:
but not the length ofthe answer.
6. (A) A Tacheometer fitted with anallatic lens was set up at an intermediate station O on a
line AB and the following observations were made on a vertically held staff at A and
B. Take multiplying constant (f/i) =100.
Instrument
Staff at Vertical angle Stadia readings
at
A + 15030’ 1.850, 2.325, 3.225

O
B - 050 30’ 1.175, 1.450, 1.655
Compute the RL of B and if the RL of A is +325.50. (CO3) (OR)

(B)Explain the procedure for determining tacheometric constants in the field. (CO3)
7. (A) Two tangents intersect at a change of 1620 m, the deflection angle being 300.
Calculate all the necessary data for setting out a circular curve of radius 320 m by the
method of offsets from the chord produced, taking a peg interval of 30 m.
(CO4)
(OR)
(B) Explain the procedure for setting out a curve by any one of the linear methods. (CO4)
8. (A) Explain various segments of GPS and their functioning. (CO5)

(OR)
(B) Discuss various applications of GIS in Civil Engineering. (CO5)
oOo
(C–23) DCE—THIRD SEMESTER EXAMINATION
SURVEYING-II (C-304)
PART—A 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
simple sentences.
1) Define the terms (i) Transiting (ii) Swinging (ii) Face left observation (CO1)
2) Define the terms (i) Latitude (ii) Departure. (CO1)
3) State the different cases which come under trigonometric levelling. (CO2)
4) Define the situations where Tacheometry is suitable. (CO3 )
5) List the methods of tacheometery. (CO3)
6) Draw neat sketch of simple curve and name its elements. (CO4)
7) State the methods of curve setting using chain and tape. (CO4)
8) Define the terms (i) GPS (ii) GIS . (CO5)
9) Write the application of drone surveying in agriculture and irrigation (CO5)
10) Write any three techniques which are used in drone surveying for controlling errors (CO5)
Instructions:
11) Sketch and explain the parts of a Transit Theodolite. (CO1)
12) Explain various methods of Theodolite Traversing. (CO1)

13) Find the R.L. of top of chimney from the following data. (CO2)
STATION INSTRUMENT ANGLE RL REMARKS

AT
BM A 1.578 RL OF BM 543.075
C A +10012” DIST B/W A&B=30
BM B 1.269
C B +8020”
14) (B) (i) Explain stadia Tacheometery and its classification.(CO3)
(ii) Find the constants of tacheometery
Inst. Station staff distance Stadia interval
A C 50 0.495
B C 75 0.745
15) A Tacheometer fitted with anallatic lens was set up at an intermediate station O on a
line AB and the following observations were made on a vertically held staff at A and
B. Take multiplying constant (f/i) =100.
Instrument
Staff at Vertical angle Stadia readings
at
A + 15030’ 1.850, 2.325, 3.225

O
B - 050 30’ 1.175, 1.450, 1.655
Compute the RL of B and if the RL of A is +325.50. (CO3) (OR)

16) Two straight intersects at chainage 1060m and the angle of intersection is 120 0 if the
radius of the simply curve is 600m find a) tangent distance b) chainage of point of
commencement
c) chainage of point of tangency d) length of long cord.(CO4)
17) Explain the procedure for setting out a curve by any one linear method.(CO4)
18) (A) State the merits and demerits of GPS. (CO5)

CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS
Marks for Marks for

Course No. of Periods Total No. of
Course title Formative Summative
Code per week Periods
Construction
C-305 03 45 20 80
Materials

Third Semester: C-305 CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test –I Maximum
Marks: 40 PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (a) Un-stratified rocks are not layered or stratified (True/False) (CO1)
(b) The colour of good bricks should be brown (True/False) (CO2)
(c)The increase in the volume of sand in the presence of moisture is known as (CO2)
(d) The process of making of cement was first developed by (CO4)
2. List any properties of granite stone (CO1)
3. State the classification of bricks as per ISI (CO2)
4. State any three important functions of sand. (CO3)
5. Write any three usages of stone ware pipes. (CO3)
Instructions:
6. (A) State the physical classification of rocks. (CO1)

(B) Explain any eight characteristics of a good building stone. (CO1)
7. (A) State any eight qualities of good bricks (CO2)

(OR)
(B) Explain Water absorption test and compressive strength test on bricks (CO2)
8. (A) State any eight uses of cement. (CO4)

(OR)
(B) Describe the method of manufacture of cement by dry process. (CO4)
Third Semester: C-305 CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (a) The soundness test on cement is done by using Lechatlier apparatus (True/False)(CO4)
(b) The process by which the moisture in the timber is reduced is known as of timber.
(CO5)
(c) The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is a.) 5% b.) 10% c.) 15% d.) 20% (CO5)
(d) glass is used in the manufacture of superior quality apparatus (CO5)
2. State any six types of cements used in the construction industry. (CO4)
3. Define ‘Water cement ratio’ and state the effect of increased water cement ratio on concrete.
(CO4)
4. Define the term ‘Mortar’ and state different types of mortars. (CO4)
5. State any three characteristics of good timber. (CO5)
Instructions:
6. (A) State different method of mixing of concrete and Describe the method of mixing of
concrete by machine mixing.
(CO4)
(OR)
(B) Explain the following types of glasses (CO5)
7. (A) Define admixture. Write short notes about (a) plasticizers and (b) super plasticizers (CO4)
(OR)
(B) State any two uses of the following : (a) Veneer (b) Plywood (c) Straw board (d)
Laminated board(CO5)
8. (A) Explain ‘Ready-mix concrete’ and state any four advantages of ready mix concrete. (CO4)
(OR)
(B) i.) list the uses of glass

ii.) list the merits of plastic (CO5)
***
77
Model Paper for end examination:
MODEL PAPER – BOARD DIPLOMA
EXAMINATION, (C23) DCE-THIRD
SEMESTER EXAMINATION
CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS (C-305)
TIME : 3 Hours] [ Total Marks : 80
PART – A 10 x 3 = 30 marks
Instructions : 1) Answer All Questions
2) Each question carries three marks
3) Answers should be brief and straight to the point and shall not
1. Define the terms rock and stone. (CO1)

2. Name the classification of bricks as per ISI. (CO2)
3. What is meant by bulkage allowance of sand? (CO3)
4. State the uses of porcelain? (CO4)
5. State the classification of cement. (CO4)
6. What is the difference between ordinary cement & portaland cement? (CO4)
7. What are the functions of mortar? (CO4)
8. Describe any two methods of curing of concrete. (CO4)
9. State any three advantages of float glass. (CO5)
10. List the merits and demerits of asbestos products (CO5)
Instructions:
11. (i) Explain the purpose of dressing of stones . (CO1)
(ii) List characteristics of good building stone
12. (A) Describe the stages of drying and burning of bricks in the brick
manufacturing process.
(CO2)
13. (A) Briefly explain the characteristics of good sand. (CO3)

14. Briefly explain the characteristics of good tiles. (CO3)
15. Explain the properties of Ordinary Portland cement. (CO4)
16. Explain different steps involves in concreting. (CO4)
17. Differentiate normal strength concrete and high strength concrete.(CO4)
18. a ) Name the common verities of timber used in civil engineering works.
b) State the object of seasoning of timber.
78 ( CO5)
CIVIL ENGINEERING DRAWING-I
Course Total No. of
Course Title Periods Formative Summative
Code Periods
per Week Assessment Assessment
C-306 CIVIL ENGINEERING DRAWING-I 04 60 40 60

(C–23) DCE—THIRD SEMESTER EXAMINATION
CIVIL ENGINEERING DRAWING- I (C-306)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 60
PART – A 5 X 4 = 20
Instructions: 1. Answer all questions.

2. Part – A need not be drawn to a scale.
3. Any missing data may be assumed suitably.
1. Draw at the site plan of a residential building as per local bye-laws to plot of size 12 m x 18
m.
2. Draw the cross section of a load bearing wall and label the parts.
3. Draw the elevation of fully paneled door and label the parts.
4. Prepare Electric Layout for a single room of 4.0 m x 6.0 m with 300 mm
wall thickness..
5. Draw the foundation plan of a single room 3.25 m x 4.75 m having wall thickness 380 mm
and width of foundation 1100 mm.
79
PART – B 25 + 15 = 50
Instructions: 1. Answer all questions.
2. Any missing data may be assumed suitably..
6. Draw the following items to a scale of 1:50 for Fig.1

a) Fully Dimensioned Plan 15 M
b) Section along A-A. 10 M
Specifications:
(i) Foundation:
a) Overall depth of foundation= 1000 mm
b) C.C. Bed (1:3:6) : 1000 mm x 300 mm
c) First Footing : R.R Masonry in CM (1: 6) : 1000 mm x 300 mm
d) Second Footing : R.R Masonry in CM(1: 6) : 1000 mm x 300 mm
(ii) Basement : R.R Masonry in CM(1: 6) : 450 mm x 600 mm
(iii) Super structure: Brick masonry CM(1: 6) : 300 mm thick and
Height 3000 mm.
(iv) Roof: R.C.C. (1:1.5:3) 120 mm thick.

*
(V) Lintels: On all wall openings 300 mm x 250 mm
(vi) Sunshades: On all external openings, projected lengths 700
mm. And 50mm uniform thickness.
(vii) Parapet wall: Brick masonry in CM (1:6) of 100 mm thick and

viii) 900mm height.
(a) Doors: D1 : 1000 x 2000 mm ; D2 : 800 x 2000 mm
(b) Windows: W1: 1200 mm x 1200 mm; W2: 1000x 1200 mm
(c) Ventilators: V: 600 mm x 80

450 mm.
(ix) Flooring: C.C (1:2:4) 40 mm thick over C.C. (1:4:8) OF 100 mm Thick.
(x) Steps: Rise : 150 mm, Tread: 300 mm.

A
W1 W1 W1
D1 DRAWING HALL BED ROOM BED ROOM

3.00 x 3.00 m 3.00 x 3.00 m
3.6 m x 4.5 m
W1 D1 D1
D1
D1
D1
BED ROOM D2 D2 D2
3.00 x 3.00 m
Toilet
1.5 x 2.5 m KITCHEN
W1 Toilet 3.00 x 2.5 m
1.5 x 2.5 m
W1 V V
7. Draw the line diagram of an Apartment Plan of the Floor with 6 Units each
@ 90 to 120 sq.m. 15 m
81
Construction Technology and Valuation
Marks for Marks for
Course No. of Total no. of
code period/week periods
Construction
Technology
C-401 and 04 60 20 80
Valuation
Model Test Paper

Fourth Semester: C-401 CONSTRUCTION TECHNOLOGY AND VALUATION
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test – I Maximum Marks: 40

PART – A 16 Marks
Instructions:
(ii) First question carries FOUR marks.
(iii) Remaining questions carries THREE marks.
1. (i) Which one of the following is an ingredient of concrete? (C01)

i. Binding material
ii. Fine aggregate
iii. Both (a) and (b)
iv. Neither (a) nor (b)
(ii) A _________ is used to level the ground and spreads the loose material. (C02)
(iii) A Fire detector cannot detect the following, (C03)

i. Radiation
ii. Heat
iii. Light
iv. Smoke
(iv) Water cement ratio is defined as the ratio of (C01)
i. Volume of water to volume of cement
ii. Weight of water to weight of cement
iii. Volume of cement to volume of water
iv. Weight of cement to weight of water
2. Define workability. (C01)
3. State any one example of each of the following Machinery / Equipment, (C02)
(i) Excavation Equipment, (ii) Compaction Equipment and (iii) Hauling Equipment
4. Define Daylight factor. (C03)
5. State any three causes of Fire. (C03)
82
PART – B 3 X 8 = 24 Marks
Instructions:
(ii) Each question carries EIGHT marks.
(iii) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content but
6. (A) Explain the procedure of Concrete Mix Design as per IS. (C01)
OR
(B) Explain the relation between strength of concrete, workability and w/c ratio. (C01)
7. (A) Explain the uses of any one excavation equipment and any one conveying
equipment. (C02)
OR
(B) Explain the uses of any one compaction equipment and any one hauling
equipment. (C02)
8. (A) Explain hot water supply distribution using solar water heating system with
the help of circuit diagram. (C03)
OR
(B) Write any eight requirements of good lighting in building. (C03)
---O0o0O---
Model Test Paper

Time: 90 Minutes ______ Unit Test – II ____________ Maximum Marks: 40

PART – A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (i) Which of the following parameters does not affect the lift waiting time? (C03)
I. Rated load
II. Number of stops
III. Door closing time
IV. Handling capacity
(ii) _________ is the built-up covered area of a building measured at floor level of any
story. (C05)
83
(iii) __________ is required to make out an estimate for a work. (C03)
(iv) The Earthquakeforce is a function of ___________. (C04)
2. Define the magnitude, intensity and energy release of an Earthquake. (C04)
3. Define the terms value, cost and price. (C05)
4. What is a seismic zone? How many seismic zones INDIA is made of? (C04)
5. State the causes of fire. (C03)
Instructions:
6. (A) Explain about firefighting. (C03)

OR
(B) Explain about air conditioning. (C03)
7. (A) Explain the seismic construction with brick stone masonry buildings as per
codal provisions. (C04)
OR
8. (B) Explain the seismic construction and ductile detailing as per codal provisions. (C04)
9. (A) Explain the methods of valuation of buildings. (C05)

OR
(B) Explain the methods of rent fixation of buildings. (C05)
---O0o0O---
84
Model Test Paper

Time: 180 Minutes _ End Examinations ______ Maximum Marks: 80

PART – A 10 x 3 = 30 Marks
Instructions:
(ii) First question carries THREE marks.
(iii) Answer should be brief and straight to the point and shall not exceed
five simple sentences.
1. State any three grades of concrete recommended for different types of work. (C01)
2. State any three reasons for need of mechanization of construction work. (C02)
3. State any three requirements of good electrical wiring. (C03)
4. List any three characteristics of earthquake. (C04)
5. State any three needs for valuation. (C05)
6. List any three methods of fixing the rent of a building. (C05)
7. State any three causes of seismic waves. (C04)
8. List any three fire extinguishers. (C03)
9. State any one example each of the following machinery, (a) crane,
(b) conveying equipment and (c) Rollers. (C02)
10. List any three factors affecting variability of concrete strength. (C01)
PART – B 10 x 5 = 50 Marks
Instructions:
(i) Answer any FIVE questions
(ii) Each question carries TEN marks.
11. Explain about ‘Mirco concrete’ and ‘Shotcrete’. (C01)
12. Explain uses of Clamshell and Dumpers. (C02)
13. Explain about Natural ventilation and Artificial ventilation. (C03)
14. Explain about seismic zoning with the help of neat sketch. (C04)
85
15. Explain the terms, (i) Depreciation, (ii) Sinking Fund and (iii) Annuity (C05)
16. Explain any two methods of valuation of a building. (C05)
17. Explain about Polymer concrete and Hot weather concreting. (C01)
18. Explain about firefighting. (C03)
---- oO0Oo ----
86
DESIGN AND DETAILING OF R.C. STRUCTURES
Marks for Marks for
Course Total no. of
Course title No. of period/week Formative Summative
code periods
Design and
C-402 Detailing of R.C. 05 75 20 80
Structures

Fourth Semester: C-402 Design and Detailing of R.C. Structures
Marks : 40 PART- A
16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (a) The value of factor of safety adopted for concrete as per working stress method is
(CO1)
(b) Partial safety factor adopted for material strength steel as per IS 456 is
(CO2)
(c) As per IS456-200, the basic value of span to depth ratio for simply supported beams for
spans upto 10m is (CO2)
(d) When the ration between longer span to shorter span is greater than 2 such slabs
are to be designed as two-way slab (TRUE/FALSE).
(CO4)
2. What is the necessity of providing the reinforcement in concrete? Why steel is used as
reinforcement.
(CO1)
3. State the methods of design of reinforced concrete structures. (CO2)
4. The dimensions of a singly reinforced, simply supported rectangular beam are

300x450mm deep effective, provided with Fe-415 steel and M20 grade concrete.
Determine the Limiting moment of resistance of the beam.
(CO2)
5. Distinguish between one way slabs and two way slabs. (CO2)
87
Instructions :
(iii)Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content
6. (A) Calculate the area of reinforcement required for a simply supported reinforced
concrete beam 230x400mm effective depth to resist ultimate moment of 80kN-m.
Assume M20 concrete Fe415 steel.
(CO2)
(OR)
(B)Design a rectangular simply supported reinforced concrete beam over a clear span of
4.3m. The superimposed load is 20kN/m and support width is 230mm each, use M20
concrete Fe415 steel. Check the design for deflection(CO2)
7. (A) Calculate the ultimate Moment of Resistance of an R.C. beam of rectangular section
300x400mm effective depth. Area of steel consists of 6nos 16mm dia in tension zone
and 3nos 16mm dia in compression zone. Assume steel of grade Fe415 and
concrete of grade M20 and effective cover to compression reinforcement is 40mm.
(CO2)
(OR)
(B) Design a rectangular reinforced rectangular concrete beam for a clear span of 4.0m.
The Super imposed load is 35kN/m and the size of the beam is restricted to
250x400mm overall depth. Use M20 grade concrete Fe415 grade steel. Support width
is 300mm and effective cover is 40mm.(CO2)
8. (A) An R.C.C. beam 250mm wide and 450mm effective depth is reinforced with 6nos 16mm
diameter bars in tension zone of which two bars are cranked up near the support. If the
design shear is 120 kN, design the shear reinforcement considering bent up bars. use
M20 concrete Fe415 steel.(CO2)
(OR)
(B) A simply supported R.C.C. slab has to be provided for a roof slab of a room of clear
dimensions 3x8m. Width of supporting wall is 300mm. The weight of weathering course
over the slab is 1 kN/sqm. Take Live load on the slab 2 kN/sqm. Design the slab using
M20 grade concrete and Fe415 grade steel. Check the design for stiffness.(CO2)
88
Fourth Semester: C-402 Design and Detailing of R.C. Structures
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions :
1. (a) Maximum diameter of the bar in the slab shall not exceed times total
thickness of the slab.
(CO2)
(b) Minimum %of tensile reinforcement in slabs when HYSD bars are used (CO2)
(c) The effective width of flange of T-Beam is given by (CO3)
89
(d) Minimum no. of longitudinal bars to be used in the circular R.C.C. column is _ (CO4)
2. Find the effective flange width of the following simply supported T-beam. (CO3)
Effective span =
5.0m c/c
distance between adjacent panels = 4m
breadth of web =
300mm
Thickness of slab = 110mm.
3. A continuous R.C.C. rectangular beam of size 250x500mm overall is supported on
300x300mm masonry column at a clear interval of 4.0m. Calculate the effective spans.
(CO3)
4. For a square column 450x450mm reinforced with 8bars 20mm diameter of grade
Fe415 and grade of concrete is M20. Calculate load carrying capacity as per IS code.
(CO4)
5. A reinforced concrete column of size 300x300mm carries a load of 700kN. The SBC
of soil is 200kN/m2. Find the size of the footing. Use M20 concrete and Fe415 grade
steel. (CO4)
Instructions :
6. (A) Calculate the ultimate moment resistance of a T-beam for the following data.
(CO3) Width of flange = 1500mm
Depth of flange = 150mm
Effective depth = 600mm
Width of rib = 300mm
Area of steel in tension = 3nos
25mm dia. Concrete grade M20 and steel Fe415.
(OR)
(B) A T-beam floor consists of 150mm thick R.C.C. slab monolithic with 300mm wide
beams. The beams are spaced at 3.5m intervals and their effective span is 6.0m. If the
super imposed load on the slab is 5 kN/m2, design the intermediate T-beam. Use M20
Concrete and Fe415 steel. (CO3)
7. (A) Design a short column square in section to carry an axial load of 2000kN using M20 Concrete and Fe415
steel. Take load factor of 1.5.(CO4)(OR)
(B) Design a short circular column to carry an axial load of 1500kN using M25 Concrete and
Fe415 steel. Take load factor of 2.
8 (A) Design an R.C.C. footing of uniform thickness to carry an axial load of 1000kN from a
square column of size 350x350mm. The SBC of the soil is 180 kN/m2 use M20
Concrete and Fe415 steel.(CO4)
(or)
(B) Explain the design procedure of isolated square footing of uniform depth under a square column.
90
Model Test Paper

Fourth Semester: C-402 DESIGN AND DETAILING OF R.C.STRUCTURES

Instructions:
1. State the types of steel used in R.C. members. Why is steel used as reinforcement? (C01)
2. State the loads to be considered in the design of beams as per IS: 875. (C02)
3. State various limit states to be considered in limit state design. (C02)
4. What are the types of bond? Write the anchorage value for a standard U-type hook.(C02)
5. Write any three differences between oneway slab and two way slab (C02)
6. State the functions of distribution steel in one way slabs (CO2)
7. Find the effective flange width of simply supported T-beam with the following data:
Effective span—530 m, breadth of web—300 mm, C/C of adjacent panels—4·0 m,
Thickness of slab—100mm. (C03)
8. State any three design specifications of column. (C04)
9. List any three design specifications of footing. (C04)
10. A reinforced concrete column of size 400x400mm carries a load of 1000kN. The
SBC of soil is 250 kN/m2. Find the size of the footing. Use M20 concrete and Fe415
grade steel. ( CO4)
Instructions:
(iv) Answer any FIVE questions
(v) Each question carries TEN marks.
(vi) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content but
11. Design a rectangular simply supported beam over a clear span of 6·0 m to carry a super imposed load
of 30 kN/m,the support width is 230 mm. Check for deflection. (C02)
12. Design a rectangular simply supported reinforced concrete beam over a clear span of 4 m. The
superimposed load is 20 kN/m and support width is 250 mm each, use M25 concrete Fe500 steel.
Check the design for deflection (C02)
13. Design a simply supported R.C.C. slab over a roof of a room of clear dimensions 2·5 m x 5·5 m. The
width of supporting wall is 300 mm. The slab
91
carries a superimposed load of 2·5kN/m2 and floor
finish of 1kN/m2.Use M20grade concrete and Fe415steel. (CO2)
14. A simply supported R.C.C. slab has to be provided for a roof slab of a room of clear dimensions 3 x
8m. Width of supporting wall is 300mm. The weight of weathering course over the slab is 1
kN/sqm. Take Live load on the slab 2 kN/sqm. Design the slab using M20 grade concrete and
Fe415 grade steel. Check the design for stiffness. (C02)
15. Find the moment carrying capacity of a T-beam of effective flange width 1300 mm,thickness of slab
110 mm, rib width 300 mm and effective depth 520 mm, reinforced with 4-number of Fe 415 grade
steel bars of 16 mm diameter. The concrete used is of grade M20.
(C03)
16. Design the reinforcement for an axially loaded short square column to carry an axial load of 1200
kN. Use M25 grade concrete and Fe 415 steel.
(C04)
17. Design a square column 400mm x 400mm, 3·3 m long subjected to a working load of 1000 kN. Use
M 20 and Fe 415. The column is effectively held in position and direction at both the ends.
(C04)
18. A reinforced concrete column of size 300mm x 300mm carries a load of 750 kN. The safe bearing
capacity of soil is 200 kN/m2. Design an isolated column footing with uniform thickness. Use M 20
grade concrete and Fe 415 steel. Check for development length and check for bearing pressure is not
required. (C04)
92
CONSTRUCTION PRACTICE
Marks for Marks for

No. of Periods Total No. of
Course Code Course Title Formative Summative
per Week Periods
Construction
C-403 04 60 20 80
Practice
Model Test Paper
Fourth Semester: C - 403 CONSTRUCTION PRACTICE
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test – I Maximum Marks: 40

PART – A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (i) The full form of DPC is ____________________. (C01)
(ii) The queen closer is a brick of full length and thickness but half the width.
(True/False) (C02)
(iii) The depression made in the brick on its surface during manufacturing
is called _________________ (C02)
(iv) The full form of DPC is ___________________. (C01)
2. Define the bearing capacity. (C01)
3. Draw the top view of two consecutive layer of one brick wall in English bond. (C02)
4. State three principles of locating doors in building. (C03)
5. State any three types of windows. (C03)
Instructions:
93
6. (A) Explain any two classifications of buildings as per NBC with examples. (C01)
OR
(B) Explain any two investigations required for foundation as per NBC. (C01)
7. (A) What are the general principles to be in stone masonry construction? (C02)
OR
(B) Explain with the neat sketches, the construction of brick masonry wall in English
bond for alternate layers of one brick wall thickness. (C02)
8. (A) Explain about any four component parts of a Paneled door with a neat sketch. (C03)
OR
(B) Explain any two special types of doors and windows. (C03)
---O0o0O---
Model Test Paper

PART – A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (i) A lintel is constructed above openings to increase the strength of wall. (True/False)
(C03)
(v) The trusses provided in workshops by the use of glazing on steeper pitch for lighting
purpose are called ___________. (C03)
(vi) The steel scaffolding is generally not preferred as it rusts quickly. (True/False)(C05)
(vii) The temporary support for forming structural building components is known as
____________________. (C05)
2. State any three functions of Lintels. (C03)
3. Draw the line diagrams of any two types of 94

staircase. (C04)
4. State any three advantages of steel formwork over timber formwork. (C04)
5. State any three methods of termite proofing. (C05)
Instructions:
(iv) Answer all questions
(v) Each question carries EIGHT marks.
6. (A) Explain the functions of sunshade, canopy and sun breakers. (C03)
OR
(B) Sketch and explain about (i) King and (ii) Queen post trusses. (C04)
7. (A) Describe the construction of Mosaic flooring. (C04)

OR
(B) Explain the seismic method of providing weather proof course on roofs. (C04)
8. (A) Sketch and Explain about the tubular scaffolding. (C05)

OR
(B) Explain the method of white washing and color washing. (C05)
---O0o0O---
Model Test Paper

Instructions:
1. State any three objectives of soil exploration. (C01)
2. State the situations under which under reamed piles are used. (C01)
3. Define the following terms, (i) Header, (ii) Stretcher

95 and (iii) Course. (C02)
4. State any three functions of sun shade. (C03)
5. Draw the line diagram of plan of dog-legged and label the parts. (C04)
6. State any three types of trusses used in pitched roofs. (C04)
7. List any three types of scaffolding. (C05)
8. State any four objectives of plastering. (C05)
9. Define termite proofing. (C05)
10. State any three uses of wall putty. (C05)
Instructions:
(vii) Answer any FIVE questions
(viii) Each question carries TEN marks.
(ix) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content but
11. Explain the method of construction of any two spread footings. (C01)
12. Explain any four functions of any two components of a building. (C01)
13. Explain about pre-cast concrete solid block and hollow blocks with neat sketches. (C02)
14. Explain about any two types of fittings and fastenings. (C03)
15. Explain the method of construction of C.C flooring. (CO4)
16. Write the principles considered for the location of a staircase. (C04)
17. Explain with the help of neat sketch the arrangement of form work for columns (CO5)
18. Explain about the method of anti-termite treatment for the soil before construction
of a building. (C05)
---- oO0Oo ----
96
TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
Marks for Marks for
Course No. of Total no.
code period/week of periods
Transportation
C-404 04 60 20 80
Engineering

Fourth Semester: C-404 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
Marks : 40 PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (a) The longitudinal slope of a road is called (CO1)

(b) Rise of the outer edge of the road above the inner edge is called (CO1)
(c) Example for mandatory sign is
(CO2)
(d) The purpose of catch basin in the road drainage system is to
(CO3)
97
2. Define the terms (a) Liquid limit (b) Plasticity index (CO1)
3. Draw the cross section of flexible pavement showing various components. (CO2)
4. What are the traffic signs? State the classification. (CO2)
5. Write any three requirements of good highway drainage system. (CO3)
Instructions:
(iii)Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the
6. (A) Explain how different engineering surveys are conducted for locating the alignment of road.
(CO2)
(OR)
(B) State factors influencing selection of alignment for road project. (CO2)
7. (A) State objects of traffic survey and state various studies that are generally carried out.
(CO2)
(OR)
(B) Explain about various traffic signs used in highways. (CO2)
8. (A) State and explain about surface drainage and sub-surface drainage with the help
of neat sketches.(CO3)
(OR)
(B) Explain various types of machinery used in highway construction. (CO3)

Fourth Semester: C-404 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (i) The expansion of W.B.M (ii)Which of the following causes stresses in
Sleepers?
a) Eccentric vertical loads
b) Contact shear stress of wheel and rail
c) Lateral deflection of sleepers (CO3)
d) Track components (CO4)
(iii) Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following: (a)Fish plates fit the underside of the rail
head
(b) Fish plates fit the top of the rail foot
(c) Fish plates fit the web of the rail section
(d) Cross sectional area of fish plates, is normally the same as that of the rail section (CO4)
(iv) The difference between the bridge and culvert is with respect to (CO5)
2. Distinguish between rigid pavement and flexible pavement. (CO3)
3. Write any three functions of railway sleepers. (CO4)
4. Define gauge. State different types of gauges adopted in Indian railways. (CO4)
5. State any three facilities provided in loco yards. (CO4)
Instructions:
(iii)Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content
6. (A) Explain the method of construction of W.B.M road. (CO3)

(OR)
(B) Explain different stages involved in the construction of cement concrete pavement.
(CO3)
7. (A) Explain different types of rail joints with a neat sketch. (CO4)
(OR)
(B) Draw a neat sketch of cross section of a permanent way and indicate the parts and
mention the purpose of each part.
(CO4)
8. (A) Explain different types of yards with neat sketches. (CO4)

(OR)
(B) State the factors to be considered for selection of site for a bridge. (CO5)
OOo
Model Test Paper
Fourth Semester: C - 404 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING

Instructions:
1. State any three important functions of I.R.C.` (C01)
2. List any three types of soils. (C01)

3. State the necessity of widening of roads in curves. (C02)
4. What is meant by grade separation on roads? (C03)
5. State the need for joints in Cement Concrete roads. (C03)
6. Define the terms (i) Freeboard, (ii) Scour depth and (iii) Afflux. (C04)
7. State the classification of bridges based on materials and type of super structure. (C04)
8. State the classification of stations (CO4)
9. Define the terms (i) Water way (ii) Afflux (CO5)
10. List any three types of causeways. (C05)
Instructions:
(i) Answer any FIVE questions
(ii) Each question carries TEN marks.
11. Explain the components of a road with a neat sketch (CO1)
12. What are the factors influencing alignment of road in plain and hilly areas. (C02)
13. Explain the traffic islands with neat sketches (CO2)
14. Explain the methods of providing sub surface drainage (C03)
15. Explain the method of construction of WBM road (CO3)
16. Explain any four types of rail joints with neat sketches. (C04)
17. Describe different types of turnouts with neat sketches (CO4)
18. Sketch a bridge sub structure and explain the component parts (C05)
---- oO0Oo ----

IRRIGATION ENGINEERING
Marks for Marks for
Course No. of Total no. of
Irrigation
C-405 04 60 20 80
Engineering
Model Test Paper
Fourth Semester: C - 405 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test – I ______ ____Maximum Marks: 40

PART – A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (i) The inundation irrigation system is functional through the year. (True/False) (C01)
(ii) The process of measurement of discharge and water level of a river is known as ____. (C02)
(iii) When the percolating water exerts pressure and when the apron is not
sufficiently strong, it fails due to _____________. (C02)
(iv) The difference between ‘Gross Storage’ and ‘Dead Storage’ is known as _________. (C03)
2. Define the terms (a) Delta, (b) Base period and (c) Crop period. (C01)
3. List the use of rainfall records. (C02)
4. Sketch the cross section of a weir and show the components. (C02)
5. List any three situations where earthen dams are suitable. (C03)
Instructions:
6. (A) Explain the method of measurement of rainfall using Symons’s rain gauge. (C02)
OR
(B) State any ten points to be considered for site selection of canal head works. (C02)
6. (A) Draw the layout of head woks and explain any four component parts of head
works. (C02)
OR
(B) State any eight points to be considered for selection of site for a gravity dams. (C02)
7. (A) Define spillway and list any six types of spillways provided in a gravity dam. (C03)
OR
(B) Write short notes on (i) Drainage gallery and (ii) Construction joints in a dam. (C03)
---O0o0O---
Model Test Paper

PART – A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (i) Which of the following statement is correct with reference to earthen dams? (C03)
(a) These dams are very costly as compared to other types.
(b) Gravity dams are less susceptible to failure as compared to rigid dams.
(c) Highly skilled labour is generally not required.
(d) These dams are suitable for construction on almost every type of foundation.
(ii) The entire system of canals by which the irrigation water is carried from the head works to
the irrigated lands with necessary regulation works is called _____________. (C04)
(iii) Pick the correct sequence of the part of a canal system from the following, (C04)
(a) Head works-distributaries-branch canal-minor.
(b) Head works-main canal-branch canal-distributaries-minor.
(c) Head works-main canal-branch canal-minor-distributaries.
(d) Head works-branch canal-main canal-distributaries-minor.
(iv) The process in which the soil is made in fertile and non-productive due to excessive moisture
being present in its pores creating anaerobic conditions is called ______. (C05)
2. State any three situations that are suitable for construction of earthen dams. (C04)
3. Draw typical cross sections of canal in cutting, partial cutting and embankment. (C04)
4. State any three objectives of river training works. (C05)
5. State any three advantages of drip irrigation. (C05)
Instructions:
6. (A) List different types of earthen dams and draw neat sketches showing each type. (C03)
OR
(B) Explain any four causes of failure of earthen dams and their preventive measures. (C03)
7. (A) List out cross drainage works and explain about any two types. (C04)
OR
(B) Explain two methods of aligning a canal with neat sketches. (C04)
8. (A) Explain any four types of groynes with neat sketches. (C05)
OR
(B) List the methods of land reclamation and explain any two methods. (C05)
---O0o0O---
Model Test Paper

Instructions:
1. State any three advantages of irrigation. (C01)
2. List any three functions of a canal head regulator. (C02)
3. Write any three characteristics of good catchment area. (C02)
4. State any three situations where earthen dams are suitable. (C03)
5. List the loads coming on gravity dams. (C03)
6. What is meant by ‘balancing depth of cutting’. (C04)
7. State the classification of canals based on their alignment. (C04)
8. State any three effects of water logging. (C05)
9. State the ill effects of soil erosion (CO5)
10. What are the methods of water harvesting through check dams. (C05)
Instructions:
(iv) Answer any FIVE questions
(v) Each question carries TEN marks.
11. Explain the functions of different component parts of a weir with a neat sketch. (C02)
12. Sketch and explain briefly the working of Symon’s rain gauge. (C02)
13. Explain any four failures of gravity dams. (C03)

14. Explain about any four types of common spill ways. (C03)
15. Compare between Kennedy’s and Lacey’s silt theories. (C04)
16. Explain the need for canal lining. And write two advantages and two
disadvantages of canal lining. (C04)
17. Describe about Warabandi system of water management. (C05)
18. Explain artificial recharges of ground water using percolation tanks. (C05)
---- oO0Oo ----

CIVIL ENGINEERING DRAWING – II
Marks for Marks for

Course No. of Total No. of
Course Title Formative Summative
code periods/week periods
Civil Engineering
C-406 06 90 40 60
Drawing – II

(C–23) DCE—FOURTH SEMESTER EXAMINATION
CIVIL ENGINEERING DRAWING- II (C-406)
Time: 3 hours] [Total Marks:60
PART—A 5×4 =2 0

(2) Each question carries four marks.
(3) Part—A may be drawn not to scale.
(4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
1. Draw the cross-section of a pipe along with bedding and benching for a
pipe culvert and name the parts.
2. Draw the cross-section of a stone masonry abutment of an RCC bridge

with the following data.
Thickness of C.C. foundation bed –400 mm.
Bottom width of foundation bed –1500 mm.
Bottom width of abutment –900 mm.
Top width of abutment –600 mm.
(Water face vertical)
Height of an abutment –4000 mm

Width of bed block –600 mm
Thickness of bed block –300 mm.
3. Name any four facilities to be provided in a lavatory or sanitary block of a

large building.
4. Draw the cross-section of a homogeneous earthen bund and name the parts.
5. Name any four component parts of a tank sluice with tower head.
PART—B 25 +15 = 40

(2) Assume suitable data if necessary.
6. Draw the following views of a septic tank to a scale of 1:20 from the
given specifications :
(a) Plan 25
(b) Longitudinal section
Specifications :
Internal dimensions = 1000 × 2800 mm
Brick masonry wall thickness = 230 mm Thickness
of CC bed = 450 mm
CC offset for masonry walls = 300 mm
Depth of water = 1000 mm
Free board = 300 mm
Thickness of RCC roof panels = 120 mm and width 450 mm fitted with bent
handles for lifting.
Scum board = RCC precast slab 90 mm thick fixed at a height of
300 mm from floor level and extending upto a height
of 150 mm below roof. This shall be fixed at a
distance of 900 mm from inside of wall at inflow
end into a groove of 90 mm deep.
Standing baffle = RCC precast slab 90mm thick kept on floor at a
distance of 650 mm from inside of wall at out flow
* end. The top of baffle shall be 150 mm below water
level.
Inflow and outflow pipes = 100 mm dia. tee shaped pipes
Vent pipe = 50 mm dia. AC pipe with a cowl extending to a
height of 2·0 m above G.L.
Masonry pedestal = 450 mm dia. circular brick masonry pedestal
shall be provided around the vent pipe up to G.L.
General ground level = 300 mm above top of RCC precast roof panels.
7. Draw the longitudinal section of a canal drop to a scale of 1:50 from
the following specifications : 15
(a) Canal particulars :

U/S SIDE D/S SIDE
Ground level at the site +120·600 +120·600
Bed level +120·000 +118·600
FSL +120·500 +119·100

Canal bund level (CBL) +121·100 +121·100
Canal bed width 1·60 m 1·30 m

Canal bund width 1·00 m 1·00 m
Canal slopes in cutting 1:1 1:1
Level of 1·0 m wide berm +120·600 +120·600
Slopes in embankment :
Water face 1·5:1 1·5:1
Rear face to connect GL 2:1 2:1
(b) Body wall :

Top level = +120·000
Bottom level = CCfoundation top level = +118·600
CC foundation bottom level = +117·850
Top width = 600 mm
Bottom width = 1200 mm with U/S face vertical
Length = 8·5 m
Width of CC foundation = 1·80 m with equal offset
(C) Notch wall or Notch pier :
Thickness of notch wall = 450 mm
Top level of notch wall = CBL = +121·100
Notch wall is constructed over body wall and one No. of notch is provided at the
centre with its sill level at bed level of canal of U/S.
* (d) CC apron on D/S of drop :
CC apron shall be provided in continuation with CC bed under body wall

with same thickness. Length of CC apron from the edge of CC bed under
body wall is 2·75 m
Top level of CC apron = Bed level of canal on D/S = +118·600 Bottom level of
CC apron = +117·850
(e) Rough stone bed pitching :
Upstream side : Bed pitching consists of 300 mm size stone boulders to a

length of 1·5 m including toe. Bottom level of the toe wall +119·25
Downstream side : Bed pitching consists of 300 mm size stone boulders to a
length of 3·5 m including toe. Bottom level of the toe wall +117·85
(f ) Revetment to canal slopes :

Upstream side : Revetment is provided to the sides of canal from bed level to
FSL for a length of 2·8 m. A slope of 1:1 is given at the end of revetment to
connect the revetment with bed level.
Downstream side : To the side slopes of canal revetment starts from canal
bund level at the notch wall and is taken to a level of
+120·500 (FSL on U/S) at the end of CC apron in an inclined direction.
From the end of CC apron, revetment is continued at the same level
(+120·500) up to the end of rough stone bed pitching and vertically dropped
to the level of +119·50. From this point revetment is continued at the same
level for a distance of 3·0 m.
Rough stone boulders of size 300 mm are used for revetment to canal slopes.
C23-C-408: English Communication Skills ( Lab Practice )
Course Title : English Communication Course code: C23-C- 408

Skills ( Common to all Branches)
Year/ Semester : IV Semester Number of Periods : 45
( 3 periods per week)
Type of Course : Practical Max Marks : 100
( Internal 40 + External 60 )
ASSESSMENT
C23-C-408: English Communication Skills Lab
 The assessment for C23-Common 408 : ‘English Communication Skills’ is on par with all other
practical subjects comprising 40 marks for Internal assessment and 60 marks for External
examination attaining the final total of 100 Marks.
 The Internal Assessment can be conducted in the form of Assignments in all the 8 Units. One or Two
assignments ( oral / written) can be conducted in each Unit, awarding 10 marks for each assignment
and the total marks can be averaged to 40 marks as suggested below.
 These assignments should focus mostly on LISTENING and SPEAKING skills rather than writing.
The questions for assignments can be customized according to the topic.
 Listening skills can be tested by playing different Audio/ Video clips ( appropriate in content and
language, preferably without subtitles). Follow pre-while-post stages of listening activity and
students should answer general, specific, inferential, vocabulary questions etc.
 Self -Introduction, JAM, Interview Skills, making presentation on a place/a thing/ a person/ an
event / a picture etc.. are some of the topics for individual speaking skills.
 GD should be made as group activity and the teacher assesses various skills of the students as
given in the workbook.
 The performance of the students in various Internal assessment activities should be documented as
guided in the following Assessment sheet (one for each student) to award Internal marks.
Calculating Internal marks through Assignments :

Name of the Student: PIN: Branch: Academic Year:
S. Title of the Unit Assignment 1: Assignment 2: Total Marks in
No. 10 Marks 10 Marks each Unit
(Average for 10
Marks )
1 Listening Skills
2 Workplace etiquette
3 Introducing Oneself
4 Short Presentations (JAM)
5 Group Discussion
6 Resume & Cover Letter
7 Interview Skills
8 Presentation Skills
Marks Scored Ex: 65
Total No. of Units 8
Internal Assessment : (65/8 ) X4 = 32.5 33 ( for 40 Marks)
Average for 40 Marks
C23-C-408 : English Communication Skills Lab

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Guidelines to prepare the question paper of the Lab End exam for 60 marks:
I. Listening Skills: 10 Marks
Students listen to the audio / watch the video clip ( without subtitles) and answer the questions
supplied to them in advance; observe the three stages of the Listening activity.
II. Individual Speaking skills: 25 Marks
a) Self-Introduction (5 M)
b) Speak for a minute (JAM) on the given topic, can be allotted through chits/lots: (5M )
c) Presentations ( 10M)
c) Interview skills – (10)
III. Group Discussion 20 Marks
Communication Parameters to Assess Speaking Skills

Content Awareness of the topic, focus on the topic, adequacy of ideas related
to the topic,
Language Quality, clarity and relevance of ideas, Fluency, Vocabulary
Pronunciation, Grammar ( Syntax, semantics), style, rhetorics
Organising Coherence, cohesion of , relevant ideas , Proper beginning, topic
sentence, expansion/details, conclusion ,Using proper Linkers ,
Avoid repetitions, clichés, fillers
Body Language Postures, Gestures, Eye contact, facial expressions, Audibility, pitch,
modulations , appropriate /acceptable pauses ,
STEEL STRUCTURES
Marks for Marks for

Course No. Of Total no. Of
Steel
C-501 04 60 20 80
Structures
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-I
STEEL STRUCTURES, C-501 C-23
Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 40

PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (a) Unit mass of steel is ………………. (CO1)
(b) Minimum size of fillet weld is based on thickness of thinner part (True/False) (CO2)
(c) Length of end return should not be less than…………times size of weld (CO2)
(d) Tension member also known as ……………….. (CO3)
2. Define (a) Permanent Action (b) Variable Action (c) Accidental Action (CO1)
3. Sketch a fillet weld and name various parts. (CO2)
4. Define (a) Size of fillet weld (b) Throat thickness of fillet weld (CO2)
5. Differentiate Net Area and Net Effective Area (CO3)
6. (A) An angle ISA 130X130X10mm carrying an axial load of 220kN is connected to a gusset plate 12mm
thick. Design the welded connection with side and end welds if ultimate shear stress in weld is 410MPa,
connections are made in shop. (CO2)
(OR)
(B) A tie member of a roof truss consists of 2 ISA 100mmx65mmX8mm.The angle are connected to either
side of a 10 mm gusset plate and the member is subjected to a working load of 280kN.Design the side fillet
weld only. Assume connections are made in the workshop. Take fu =410N/mm2 (CO2)
7. (A) Design a single angle tension member to carry a tensile force of 250kN.The angle is to be connected
to a gusset plate with longer leg by fillet welds. Take fy =250N/mm2
fu =410N/mm2. Assume length of the connection as 150mm. (CO3)
(OR)
(B) Determine the design strength of a tensile member ISA 150mmX75mmX10mm when its longer leg is
connected to 10mm gusset plate by 7mm fillet welds. The effective length of the weld is 170mm. Take fy
=250MPa & fu =410 MPa. (CO3)
8 (A) Determine the design strength of a tensile member ISA 125mmX75mmX8mm when its shorter leg is
connected to 10mm gusset plate by 7mm fillet welds. The length of the weld is 180mm. Take fy =250MPa
& fu =410 MPa. (CO3)
(OR)
(B) Write the design specifications for fillet weld as per IS 800-2007 (CO2)
MODEL PAPER
UNIT TEST-II
STEEL STRUCTURES, C-501 C-23
Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 40

PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1. (a) Compression member in a truss is called ………………. (CO4)

(b) In plate girder, flange plate is designed to resists…………… (CO5)
(c) The value of shape factor for circular section is …………… (CO5)
(d) The top chord member of a roof truss is called ……………….. (CO5)
2. Write any three codal provisions of batten system as per IS: 800-2007 (CO4)
3. Define (a) shape factor (b) plastic moment of resistance (CO5)
4. State the situations where plate girders are necessary (CO5)
5. Determine the live load on truss if angle of slope of roof is 250 (CO5)
PART-B 3X8 = 24Marks
6. (A) Design a slab base for a column ISHB 300 @ 577 N/m carrying an axial load of 1000kN.Also design the
concrete pedestal if the SBC of soil is 190kN/m3.M20 concrete is used for foundation. Yield stress of steel
is 250 M Pa. (CO4)
(OR)
(B) Write the design specifications for lacing as per IS: 800-2007 (CO4)
7. (A) Design a steel column section to carry an axial load of 410kN.The column is 4.2m long and restrained
against translation and free against rotation. Yield stress of steel is 250 M Pa. (CO4)
(OR)
Design a single angle section to carry a compression of 100kN. The c/c distance between end connections
is 2m. Assume that the end connection is done by the fillet welds. The grade of steel is E-250. (CO4)
8. (A) Determine the shape factor of a symmetrical I-section with flange dimensions 140mmX16mm and
web dimensions 8.9mm x 368mm. (CO5)
(OR)
(B) A simply supported beam ISLB 300 @370N/m has an effective span of 5 m.
Find the (i) design bending strength of beam (ii) design shear strength of beam. Assume Fe 250 grade
steel. The beam is laterally supported. (CO5)
MODEL PAPER DIPLOMA EXAMINATION, (C–23)

DCE—FIFTHSEMESTER EXAMINATION
STEELSTRUCTURES (C-501)
Time:3 hours] [TotalMarks:80
PART—A 3×10=30Marks
Instructions:
(1)Answer all questions. Each question carries three marks
(2)Answers should be brief and shall not exceed five simple
sentences
(3) Use of IS: 800-2007 and steel tables are permitted
1. List the mechanical properties of structural steel. (CO1)
(a)Size of fillet weld (b)Throat thickness o f fillet weld
3. What shall be the maximum size of the fillet weld applied to the (CO2)
ii) square edge of a plate, and(b) round edge of a flange
4. Write any three applications of tension members. (CO3)
iii)Least radius of gyration and (b) Slenderness ratio
6. Write any three codal provisions to be followed in the design of lacing
system as per IS: 800-2007 (CO4)
7. Write any three provisions for design of double angle strut as IS800-2007. (CO5)
8. Draw the cross section of plate girder and label the component parts. (CO5)
9. Define elastic moment and plastic moment of resistance. (CO5)
10. Determine the live load per square meter of plan area of the pitched roof of slope 26°.(CO5)
Instructions:
11. An angle ISA 100 mm × 100 mm × 12 mm is carrying an axial design tensile

force of 220 kN acting through the CG of the angle isto be connected to a
gusset plate 12 mm thick by a lap joint using side welds and end welds, at
site. Design the joint taking the ultimate design stress in the filet weld as
410N/mm2. (CO2)
12.Determine the design strength of a tensile member ISA 100 mm × 75 mm × 10
mm when its longer leg is connected to 10 mm gusset plate by 7 mm size
fillet welds. The effective length of the weldis170mm.[Takef y=250Mpa andf
u=410Mpa.](CO3)
13. Design a double angle tension member to carry an axial tension of 480 kN,
using steel of yield stress 250 N/mm2& ultimate stress 410 N/mm2. The
effective length of the member is 6 m. The angle are
tobeconnectedoneithersideof12mm gusset plate by fillet welds. (CO3)
14. Design a steel column using a single rolled I-section to carry an axial load of
800 kN. One end of the column is restrained against translation and rotation
and the other end is restrained against translation and free against rotation.
The actual length of the column between intersections is 6 m and the yield
stress of steel is250Mpa.(CO4)
15. Design a slab base for a column consisting of ISHB 350 @724 N/m. The
column carries an axial load of 520kN. M20 grade concrete is used for
foundation. Assume Fe-410 grade steel used.
(CO4)
16. Determine the design compressive strength of single angle discontinuous
strut ISA 80 mm ×80 mm × 10 mm of length 2 m when connected to gusset
plate through one leg by fillet welds at each end. Yield stress of steel used is
340 Mpa and modulus of elasticity of steel is 2 x 10 5 Mpa. The gusset fixity
may be taken as hinged. (CO4)
17. Find the shape factor for an I Section with top and bottom flange
200mmX10mm and web 380mmX10mm. (CO5)
18. A roof a hall measuring 8m X 12m consists of 100mm thick RCC slab
supported on steel I beam spaced at 3m apart. The finishes load may
be taken as 1.5kN/m2,l ive load as1.5 kN/m2 and self weight of beam
as 0.5 kN/m. Design the steel beam. Assume E=2x105 N/mm2 and
fy=250 N/mm2 (CO5)
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
Marks for Marks for

Course No. Of Total No.
Course Title Formative Summative
code periods/week Of periods
Environmental
C-502 05 75 20 80
Engineering
Fifth Semester :C-502 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
Marks : 40
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions :
1. (a) For an average Indian conditions, per capita consumption of water is lpcd. (CO1)
(b) Yield per unit draw down is called (CO1)
(c) In water treatment plants, commonly used coagulant is (CO2)
(d) The valve which allows flow in one direction is called (CO2)
2. What is the difference between environment and ecology? (CO1)
3. List various surface and sub surface sources of water. (CO1)
4. List out the objects of sedimentation. (CO2)
5. What is the function of sluice valve? Draw the sketch. (CO2)
Instructions :
(iii)Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the
6. (A) Estimate the future population of the town in 2021 by Arithmetic Increase
method and Incremental Increase method.(CO1)
Year 1931 1941 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991
Population 350000 466000 994000 1560000 1623000 1839000 2430000
(OR)
(B) Describe briefly the construction and working of Infiltration wells with the help of neat sketch.
(CO1)
7. (A) Explain working of a slow sand filter with the aid of neat sketch. (CO2)
(OR)
(B) What do you understand by “Break point chlorination” and explain with the help of diagram
the significance of various stages in it. (CO2)
8. (A) Explain “Grid iron system” with a sketch and mention the advantages and dis advantages.
(CO2)
(OR)
(B) How do you detect leakages and what are the preventive measures. (CO2)
oOo
Fifth Semester : C-502 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions :
1. (a) Rational formula for calculation of storm water flow is given by Q = (CO3)
(b) The Hydraulic mean depth of a circular sewer running half full is (CO3)
(c) The bacteria which can survive and grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen are
called (CO4)
(d) The pipe which is used to prevent 416ehaviour action in drainage pipes is
called
(CO5)
2. List any three objects of sewerage works. (CO3)
3. State three advantages of Trickling filter. (CO4)
4. What is the significance of BOD in sewage treatment? (CO4)
5. Define Soil pipe, waste pipe, vent pipe. (CO5)
Instructions :
6. (A) what is meant by water carriage system? List the merits and demerits of it. (CO3)
(OR)
(B) Explain the circular sewer with the help of a sketch and list any two merits and demerits.
(CO3)
7. (A) Draw the flow diagram of conventional sewage treatment plant and indicate the main
functions of each unit.(CO4)
(OR)
(B) What do you mean by Activated sludge process? Draw the flow diagram. (CO4)
8. (A) Sketch and Explain the working of a Septic tank. (CO4)

(OR)
(B) What is meant by composting? Explain the Bangalore method and Indore
method of Composting.(CO5)
oOo
MODEL QUESTION PAPER FOR BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATION, (C–23)
DCE—FIFTH SEMESTER EXAMINATION
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING(C-502)
Time:3 hours] [TotalMarks:80
PART—A 3×10=30Marks
Instructions: (1)Answer all questions.
(2)Each question carries three marks.
(3)Answers should be brief and straight to the point and
1. List any three factors affecting per capita demand. (CO1)
2. State the classification of sources of water (CO2)
3. Define Sedimentation. (CO2)
4. List the methods of distribution. (CO2)
5. Define Dry weather flow. (CO3)
6. Draw the sketch of drop manhole. (CO3)
7. List any three objects of treatment of sewage. (CO4)
8. Define the terms COD and BOD. (CO4)
9. What are the different methods of testing drains? (CO5)
10. What are the sources of air pollution? (CO5)
PART–B 5x10=50 marks
11) Explain the canal intake with a legible sketch (CO1)
12) Explain the construction and operation of slow sand filter (CO2)
13) Explain any two systems of water distribution with sketches. (CO2)
14. Sketch And explain a typical water supply connection to a building

(CO2)
15. Explain types of sewerage systems and their suitability (CO3)
16. Explain the construction and working of a Man hole (CO3)
17. Explain construction and working of Trickling filter with a neat sketch. (CO4)
18. Explain method of sewage disposal on land and water. (CO4)

QUANTITY SURVEYING
Marks for Marks for

No. of Total no. of
Course code Course title Formative Summative
period/week periods
Quantity
C-503 05 75 20 80
Surveying

Fifth Semester: C-503 QUANTITY SURVEYING
Time: 90 Minutes Unit Test –I Maximum Marks: 40
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1.(i) The preparation of bills for the payment is not one of the duties of quantity
surveyor (True/False) (CO1)
(ii) The reinforcement in R.C.C. is measured in kN. (True/False) (CO1)
(iii) Area of ceiling plastering is equal to the following areas
(a) Area of plastering of internal walls
(b) Area of flooring
(c) Area of plastering of parapet wall
(d) Area of plastering of external wall (CO2)
(iv) The order of booking dimensions is
a) Length, breadth, height
b) Breadth, length, height
c) Height, breadth, length
d) None of the these (CO2)
2. State any three rules in calculating the plinth area of a building (CO2)
3. State units of measurements for (i) Plastering (ii) R.C.C in beams
(iii) R.C.C. Sunshades (CO1)
4. A room has 6·0 m × 3·5 m internal dimensions with 300 mm wall thickness. The basement has a cross-section of
400 mm width and 600 mm height. Calculate (a) plinth area and (b) brick masonry in CM (1:8) in basement.
(CO2)
5. The internal dimensions of a room are 6m × 4 m. Find the quantity of sand filling in basement, if the height and
width of basement are 0.8 m and 0.4 m respectively. The wall thickness of room is 0.30 m.
(CO2)
Instructions:
(iii) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content but not
the length of the answer.
6. (A) Prepare the detailed estimate for the following items of works from Drawing No.1
a. Earth work in excavation
b. R.C.C. (1:1 ½ :3) for roof slab. (CO2)
Drawing No.1
(OR)
(B) Prepare the detailed estimate for the following items of works from Drawing No.1
a. Sand filling in basement
b. Ceiling plastering (CO2)
7. (A) Explain briefly the ‘long-wall & short-wall method’ and ‘central line method’ mentioning the advantages of
each one. (CO2)
(OR)
(B) Briefly explain any two methods of Approximate Estimate. (CO2)
8. (A) Find the cost of the following items of work from the lead statement and labour charges given below:
a) Cost of 1 cum of C.C. (1:4:8)
b) Cost of 1 cum of brick masonry in CM (1:6)
C.C (1:4:8):
Unit 1 Cum
40 mm HBG 0.92 cum
Sand ________
Cement ________
Masons 0.2 Nos.
Men Mazdoors 1.8 Nos.
Women Mazdoors 1.4 Nos.
Sundries L.S.
Brick masonry in C.M. (1:6):
Unit 1 Cum
Bricks 512 Nos.
CM(1:6) 0.2 cum
Masons 1.4 Nos.
Women Mazdoors 2.1 Nos
Sundries L.S.
Lead statement of materials:

S. No. Material Cost at source (Rs.) Lead in km. Conveyance charges Seigniorage charges
1. 40 mm. HBG metal 110.00/cum 10 3.00/cum/km 4.50
2. Sand 45.00/cum 6 2.50/cum/km 3.50
3. Bricks 1600.00/1000 Nos. 8 5.50/1000 Nos./km --
4.Cement 5000.00/1 MT at site
Labour charges:
I class masons - Rs.100.00 per day
II class masons - Rs.90.00 per day
Mazdoors - Rs.55.00 pr day
Mixing charges of CM- Rs.20.00 per cum. (CO2)
(OR)
(B) Find the cost of the following items of work from the lead statement and labour charges given below:
a) CR masonry in CM (1:6) in superstructure for 1 cum
Unit 1 Cum
Stones 1.25 cum
Mortar 0.42 cum
Masons 1.2 Nos.
Women Mazdoors 2.6 Nos.
Sundries L.S.
c) Plastering with Cement mortar (1:6) for 10 sq. m
Unit 1 Cum
Cement 0.046cum
Sand 0.28 cum
Masons 0.8 Nos.
Sundries L.S.

S.No. Material Cost at source Lead in km. Conveyance charges Seigniorage charges
1. 40 mm. HBG metal 110.00/cum 10 3.00/cum/km 4.50

2. Sand 45.00/cum 6 2.50/cum/km 3.50
3. Bricks 1600.00/1000 Nos. 8 5.50/1000 Nos./km --
4. Cement 5000.00/1 MT at site
Labour charges:
Masons - Rs.90.00 per day
Man mazdoors - Rs.65.00 per day
Woman mazdoors - Rs.60.00 pr day (CO2)

Fourth Semester: C-503 QUANTITY SURVEYING
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions:
1 (i) The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes is based
a.) The end sections are parallell planes
b.) The mid area of a pyramid is half the average area of the ends
c.) The volume of prismoidal is over estimated and hence a prismoidal correction is applied.
d.) All of the above.
(ii) If the formation level of an highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length and the ground level is having
a longitudinal slope, the earth work may be calculated by (CO4)
(a) Mid-sectional formula
(b) Trapezoidal formula
(c) Prismoidal formula
(d) All the above
(iii) If ‘b’ is the bottom width, ‘d’ is the depth of cutting and ‘1 in n’ is the side slope of a canal, then
the top width is given by____________ (CO4)
(iv) The storage of reservoir between bed level and sluice sill level is called (a) Gross
storage
(a) Effective storage
(b) Dead storage
(c) Any of the above (CO4)
2. A cement-concrete pavement 150 mm thick and 6.20 m wide is laid over a base course
100 mm considering a length of 1200 m. Calculate the following quantities: (a) CC required for pavement (b) CC
required for base course ( CO3)
3.Prepare the detailed estimate of granular shoulders, on either side of the WBM road of 800 m. The
width of shoulder is 1.00 m. The compacted thickness is 100 mm and loose thickness is 116 mm.
(CO3)
4. Explain the terms lead and lift for the formation of roads and give the values of initial lead and initial lift.
(CO4)
5. The depths at two ends of an embankment of a road of length 80 m are 2·5 m and 3·4 m. The formation width and
side slopes are 12 m and 2:1 respectively. Estimate the quantity of earthwork by mid sectional area method.
(CO4)
Instructions:
(iii) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content but not
the length of the answer.
6. (A)A road is to be formed in embankment with the following data

Chainage in m 0 30 60 90 120 150 180
R.L. of ground 98.20 98.40 97.70 97.50 98.10 98.40 98.50
Formation width of road is 12 m. Side slopes of embankment are 1½:1. The formation level may be taken as
100.00 throughout the length of road. The ground in transverse direction is level. Calculate the quantity of
earth work by
i. Trapezoidal formula
ii. Prismoidal formula (CO4)
(OR)
(B) The ground levels along the ridge of proposed canal area are shown below:
Station A B C D E F G
Groun 252.00 252.15 251.70 251.75 251.95 251.85 252.00
d
Levels
The bed of the canal is 4.0 m wide and sloped 1 in 100 downwards in longitudinal direction. The side slopes
are 2:1 and the bed level of canal at A is 250.00. Determine the volume of the earth work in cutting, if the
chainage between the points is 20 m by (a) Trapezoidal Rule (b) Prismoidal Rule
(CO4)
7. (A) From the particulars of a reservoir given below, calculate the live and surplus capacity
of the reservoir (CO4)
Contour level in m. Contour areas in m2 Particulars
110 17000 Bed level of reservoir
120 22000 -
130 29000 Sill of sluice
140 32000 -
150 68000 -
160 122000 F.T.L.
170 M.W.L
131000
(OR)
(B) From the particulars of a reservoir given below, calculate the capacity of reservoir
between the sill level and MWL using Prismoidal and Trapezoidal rule (CO4)
40.00 1500 Bed level of reservoir
42.00 2800 -
44.00 4200 Sill of sluice
46.00 6500 -
48.00 9500 -
50.00 12000 F.T.L.
52.00 15000 M.W.L
8.(A) Prepare the detailed estimate for the following items of work for the R.C.C.
overhead tank shown in the following figure(CO4)
(OR)
(B) Calculate the following quantities of WBM road shown in the fig.5 for a length of
1.50 km:
i. Collection of 65 mm HBG for base course.
ii. Spreading of 40 mm HBG for wearing course.
Fig.5 (CO3)

DCE—FOURTH SEMESTER EXAMINATION
QUANTITY SURVEYING-I (C-403)

(3) Answers should be brief and straight to the point and shall not
1. State units of measurements for (i) Plastering
(ii) R.C.C.
(iii) Earth work in excavation
(iv) Flooring. (CO1)
2. List various types of “Approximate Estimates” (CO1)
3. A room has 5.4 m x 3.2 m internal measurements with 300 mm thick wall.
The basement has a cross section of 400 mm wide and 600 mm deep. (CO2)
Calculate (a) Brick masonry in CM (1:6) for basement
(c) Internal area of plastering
4. A room of size 4m x 5m with wall thickness of 230 mm is provided with an R.C.C. roof slab of 150 mm thick.
The slab is projected by 300 mm all-round the building. Calculate the quantity R.C.C. in slab.
(CO2)
5. Determine the quantity of cement required for 5 cum of R.C.C. 1: 2: 4 using
20 mm HBG metal. (CO2)
6. Write short notes on the following: (a) Seigniorage charges (b) Cess charges (CO2)
7. Explain the terms lead and lift for the earth work and give the values of
initial lead and lift. (CO3)
8. Calculate quantity of earth work for a road, given formation width is 15 m,
side slopes are 2:1, depth of embankment at ends is 3.1 m and 4.4 m and
length of the road is 1200 m. by mean sectional area method. (CO3)
9. A cement concrete pavement 150 mm thick and 6.20 m wide is laid over a base course 100 mm considering a
length of 1200 m. Calculate the quantity of C.C. required for pavement (CO4)
10. The cross section of a circular well is shown in the fig.1, calculate the quantity of masonry in parapet wall.
Fig.1 (CO4)
Instructions:
11. A) Prepare the detailed estimate for the following items of works from the fig.1 (CO2)
i. Brick masonry in CM (1:6) in super structure -- 5 marks
ii. White washing in two coats for internal walls -- 5 marks
Fig.1 (CO2)
12. Prepare the detailed estimate for the following items of works from the fig.1 (CO2)
a) Ceiling Plastering with CM (1:5) -- 5 marks
b) R.C.C. (1:2:4) in lintels -- 5 marks
13. Find the cost of the following items of work from the lead statement and labour charges given below:
CR masonry in CM (1:6) in superstructure for 1 cum (CO2)
Unit 1 Cum
Stones 1.25 cum
Cement Mortar 0.42 cum
Masons 1.2 Nos
Men mazdoors 0.7 Nos.
Women mazdoors 2.6 Nos.
Sundries L.S
14. Find the cost of the following items of work from the lead statement and labour charges given below:
Plastering with Cement mortar (1:6) for 10 sq.m (CO2)
Unit 1 Cum
Cement 0.046 cum
Sand 0.28 cum
Masons 0.8 Nos
Men mazdoors 1.8 Nos.
Sundries L.S
S. No Material Cost at Lead in km Conveyance Seiniorage

Source (Rs.) charges charges
1 40 mm. 110.00/cum 10 3.00/cum/km 4.50
HBG metal
2 Sand 45.00/cum 6 2.50/cum/km 3.50
3 Bricks 1600.00/100 8 5.50/1000 --
0 Nos. Nos./km
4 Cement 5000.00/1 --
MT at site
Labour charges:
Masons - Rs.90.00 per day
Man mazdoor - Rs.65.00 per day
Woman mazdoor - Rs.60.00 pr day
15. A road is to be formed in embankment with the following data
Chainage in m 0 30 60 90 120 150 180
R.L. of ground 98.20 98.40 97.70 97.50 98.10 98.40 98.50
Formation width of road is 12 m. Side slopes of embankment are 1½:1. The formation level may be taken as
100.00 throughout the length of road. The ground in transverse direction is level. Calculate the quantity of
earth work by
iii. Trapezoidal formula
iv. Prismoidal formula (CO3)
16. From the particulars of a reservoir given below, calculate the live and surplus capacity
of the reservoir
110 17000 Bed level of reservoir
120 22000 -
130 29000 Sill of sluice
140 32000 -
150 68000 -
160 122000 F.T.L.
170 131000 M.W.L
(CO3)
17. Prepare the detailed estimate for the cement concrete road of 1 km length with the
following components (Fig.4)
i. Base course of CC (1:4:8) with 40 mm size HBG metal 150 mm thick
ii. Wearing coat with CC (1:2:4) with 20 mm size HBG metal 100 mm thick.
Fig.4 (CO4)
18. Calculate the following quantities of WBM road shown in the fig.5 for a length of
1.50 km:
i. Collection of 65 mm HBG for base course.
ii. Spreading of 40 mm HBG for wearing course.
Fig.5 (CO4)
Advanced Civil Engineering Technologies
Course Course title No. Of Total no. Of Marks for Marks for Summative
code period/week periods Formative Assessment
Assessment
C-504 Advanced Civil 04 60 20 80
Engineering
Technologies
C-504, ADVANCED CIVIL ENGINEERING TECHNOLOGIES

DCE V SEMESTER,
UNIT TEST-I
Time: 1 hour 30 Min Max Marks 40

PART – A
Answer all Questions, (4 x 1 )+ (4x 3) = 16Marks
1. (a) Full form of IOT…………….(CO1)
(b) Freyssinet system is a pretensioning system (True/False) (CO2)
© Losses are more in post tension system (True/False) (CO2)
(d) Example for advanced earth retaining system:
(a) Power Grid (b) Geo Grid (c) Poly Grid (d) None (CO3)
2. List the components of IoT (CO1)
3. What are different types of losses of Prestress? (CO2)
4. State the advantages of Advanced earth retaining Structures? ( CO3)
5. Define the term Geo-mat (CO3)
PART – B
Answer all Questions; each question carries 8 Marks 3 x 8 = 24
6.(A) State any eight applications of IoT in smart cities (CO1)
(OR)
(B) Mention the application of IOT in Food, water tracking and security. (CO1)
7.(A) Explain the method of Magnel -Blaton system post tensioning (CO2)
(OR)
(B) Explain the method of Gifford Udal system of post tensioning (CO2)
8.(A) Explain the method of Anchored Earth wall retaining Structure (CO3)
(OR)
(B) Explain the construction of earth retaining structure using Geogrids (CO3)
&&&
Model Paper for Unit Test-II
C-504, ADVANCED CIVIL ENGINEERING TECHNOLOGIES

DCE V SEMESTER,
UNIT TEST-II
Time: 1 hour 30 Min Max Marks 40

PART – A
Answer all Questions, (4 x 1 )+ (4x 3) = 16
1.a) Pre-fabricated construction is economical in small scale projects. (true/false) (CO4)

b) The Pre-fabricated panels form a ……………….type of structure. (CO4)
c) Structures which are built with eco friendly materials is called …………….(CO5)
d) The concept of air movement is called ……………….(CO5)
2. State the alternatives or cast-in-situ structures (CO4)
3. State any two advantages and disadvantages of pre-fabricated structures. (CO4)
4. Define the concept of “Green-building”. (CO5)
5. List any three solar energy utilities. (CO5)
PART – B
Answer all Questions; Each question carries 8 Marks 3 x 8 = 24
6. A) Explain the importance of standardization and modularization in
Prefabrication. (OR) (CO 4)
B) Explain the large systems of Pre-fabrication. (CO 4)
7. A) Explain the mixed systems of Pre-fabrication. (CO 4)

(OR)
B) How does green building effect the environment (CO 5)
8. A) Describe the water conservative methods in case of Green-building (CO 5)

(OR)
B) Explain roof-top solar power generations systems. (CO 5)
MODEL QUESTION PAPER, BOARD DIPLOMA EXAMINATION, (C–23)
ADVANCED CIVIL ENGINEERING TECHNOLOGIES, C-504
Time : 3 hours ] [ Total Marks : 80

PART-A 3×10=30
Instructions :(1) Answer all questions.
(3) Answers should be brief and straight to the pointand shall not exceed five simple sentences.
1. Define the term IoT (CO1)
2. State any three key features of smart city (CO1)
3. List three advantages of pre stressed concrete (CO2)
4. List any six losses of pre-stress. (CO2)
5. What is retaining wall? (CO3)
6. State any three types of retaining walls. (CO3)
7. Define prefabrication (CO4)
8. Define embodied energy in building materials (CO5)
9. List the four main types of solar energy (CO5)
10. What is solar energy? (CO5)

PART—B 5×10=50
Instructions :(1) Answer any five questions.
(2) Each question carries 10 marks.
(3) Answers should be comprehensive and the criteria for valuation are the content but not the length ofthe
answer.
11. Explain the applications of IoT in (a) smart buildings and (b) smart transportation. (CO1 )
12. Explain the Gifford-Udal system of post tensioning with necessary legible sketch (CO2)
13. Explain the Freyssinet system of Post-tensioning with a sketch. (CO2)
14. Explain the process of reinforcing earth with Geogrids. (CO3)
15. Explain Geomats in advanced earth retaining structures(CO3)
16. Explain the types of prefabricated systems (CO4)
17. Explain prefabricated systems Slab/Column with wall (CO4)
18. Explain environmental, economic and social benefits of Green Building (CO5)
CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Marks for Marks for

Construction Management
C-505 03 45 20 80
and Entrepreneurship

Fifth Semester :: C-505, Construction Management and Entrepreneurship
Time: 90 Minutes Maximum
Marks : 40 PART- A 16
Marks
Instructions:
1. (a) A construction manager will supervise &manage contractors and labour at

construction sites. - True/False (CO1)
(b) The difference between the time available to do a job and the time required to do a
job is known as Bloat –
True/False (CO2)
(c) The sanction of the competent authority to a properly detailed estimate for a
work to be done is known as ------------------
(CO1)
(d) The process whereby governments and financial institutions invite bids for large
projects that must be submitted within finite deadlines
(CO3)
2. State the need for scientific management of projects (CO1)
3. Define the terms CPM and PERT. (CO2)
4. What do you mean by (i) Activity (ii) Event (CO2)
5. State three contract systems. (CO3)
Instructions:
(ii) Answer should be comprehensive and the criterion for valuation is the content
6. (A) Describe the duties of a Chief Engineer in Government Engineering Department (CO1)
(OR)
(B) Explain the organization structure of a public sector construction company. (CO1)
7. (A) Describe the process of preparation of a net work diagram using basic rules of
network formation. (CO2)
(OR)
(B) Draw the following CPM network diagram and find the critical path and its duration. (CO2)
Activity 1-2 1-3 2-5 3-4 3-5 4-5
Duration in
4 3 3 1 3 5
days
8. (A) State the merits and limitations of different contract systems. (CO3)
(OR)
(B) State the general conditions of contract for civil engineering construction project (CO3)
Model Paper for Unit Test-II :
Fifth Semester :: C-505, Construction Management and Entrepreneurship
Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks : 40
PART- A 16 Marks
Instructions :
1. (a) EMD stands for Earliest Money deposit -- True/False (CO3)

(b) Indent refers to the process of taking orders from stores – True/False (CO4)
(c) The method of resolving disputes outside the courts is known as----------------------(CO3)
(d) The process whereby governments and financial institutions invite bids for large
projects that must be submitted within finite deadlines ...
(CO3)
2. State the qualifications of a contractor that make him eligible for tender . (CO3)
3. State the importance of verification of stores. (CO4)
4. List different stages of material management. (CO4)
5. State the characteristics of an entrepreneur. (CO5)
Instructions :
6. (A) List out the conditions of contract agreements. (CO3)

(OR)
(B) State the need for arbitration and list the advantages of arbitration. (CO3)
7. (A) Explain the preventive maintenance of plant and equipment . (CO4)
(OR)
(B) Explain the importance of training of operators (CO4)
8. (A) Explain the role of entrepreneur in economic development. (CO5)

(OR)
(B)Explain the role of human relations and performance in organization. (CO5)
Model paper for End Examination:
(C–23) DCE—FIFTH SEMESTER EXAMINATION
CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP (C-505)
(3) Answers should be brief and straight to the point and
1. State any three functions of management (CO1)
2. What is the need for technical sanction (CO1)
3. Define CPM and PERT (CO2)
4. Define the terms EMD and security deposit (CO3)
5. State the qualifications required for a contractor (CO3)
6. State the need for mechanization. (CO4)
7. Define the terms Indent and Invoice (CO4)
8. Define entrepreneurship. (CO5)
9. State the characteristic of good entrepreneur

(CO5)
10. Explain briefly about human resource management. (CO5)
PART – B 5x 10 marks =
50
Answer any FIVE questions.
11. Draw a flow chart and explain organization of a construction company for an
irrigation project. (CO1)
12. State any ten advantages of network analysis. (CO2)
13. Explain the use of bar chart and its limitations

(CO2)
14 “All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts.” Explain.
(CO3)
15.Explain various steps involved in tender system. (CO3)
16. Explain the importance of verification of stores. (CO4)
17. Explain the requirements of centering, shuttering and scaffolding (CO4)
18. State role of Human relations and Performance in organization. (CO5)

STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING DRAWING
Marks for Marks for

Structural
C-506 04 60 40 60
Engineering Drawing

STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING DRAWING- II (C-506)
Time: 3 hours] [Total Marks:60
PART—A 4×5=20

(2) Each question carries four marks.
(3) Any missing data may be assumed suitably.
1. Redraw the figure given below and mark the columns and beams as per
Grid Reference Scheme.
2. State any two guiding principles each for positioning of columns and
beams in structural planning of buildings.
3. Draw the cross section of an isolated square column footing with the following
specifications :
Column : 230 × 230 mm with 4 nos. of 16 mm dia steel and lateral ties of 8
mm @ 150 mm c/c.
Footing : 1200 × 1200 mm with 12 mm bars at 150 mm c/c both ways Thickness
of footing : 350 mm
Thickness of base course : 150 mm. Assume covers as 50 mm.
4. Prepare the bar bending schedule and estimate the quantity for the given
reinforcement of the simply supported RCC beam with the following data :
Clear span of beam : 5000 mm, Width of beam : 230 mm, Overall depth of
beam : 450 mm, Width of support : 230 mm (full bearing)
Main reinforcement : 20 mm bars 4 nos. ( 2 bars cranked at 700 mm from the

face of support)
Hanger bars: 12 mm 2 nos.
Covers : Top and bottom : 25 mm End cover : 40 mm.
5. Prepare bar bending schedule and calculate the steel quantity for the one
way slab with the following data :
Size of room : 7000 mm × 3000 mm
Wall thickness : 300 mm
Slab thickness : 130 mm
Main reinforcement : 10 mm @125 mm c/c. All the bars are

cranked on one side and cranks placed
alternatively at a distance of 300 mm from the
face of support.
Distribution Steel : 8 mm @150 mm c/c All
covers are of 20 mm.

PART-B 2×20=40 Marks
(2) Each question carries twenty marks.
(3) All parts must be drawn to scale.
(4) Any missing data may be assumed suitably.
1. An RCC lintel with sunshade has the following specifications :
Clear span of lintel : 1500 mm

Width of wall : 230 mm
Size of lintel : 230 mm × 200 mm
Bearing on walls : 150 mm
Projection of sunshadefrom face of the wall : 600 mm
Thickness of sunshade : 100 mm to
50 mm Reinforcement of Lintel :
Main reinforcement : 3 nos. Of 12 mm dia (all straight bars)
Hanger bars : 2 nos. Of 10 mm dia
Stirrups : 6 mm dia. 2-legged at 150
mm c/c Reinforcement of Sunshade :
Main bars : 10 mm dia bars at 140
mm c/c Distribution steel : 6 mm dia @ 120 mm c/c
Draw to a scale of 1 : 10 :
(a) Longitudinal section of lintel 10+10
(b) Cross-section of lintel with sunshade 10Width of canal bund = 900 mm
2. Draw the reinforcement details of a simply supported RCC two way slab whose
corners are free to lift, with the following specifications :
Size of the room—4·0 m × 5·0 m

Edge conditions—simply supported, corners not
held down Overall depth of slab—140 mm
Bearing on walls—
230 mm Materials:
Concrete—M-20 grade , Steel
—Fe 415 Reinforcement:
Along shorter span—# 12 at 200 mm c/c
(alternate bars are cranked at a distance of 400 mm from the face of the support)
Along longer span—# 10 at 250 mm c/c
(alternate bars are cranked at a distance of 500 mm from the face of the support)
Provide 3#8 hanger bars at each edge to keep top bars in

position. Covers:
Bottom clear cover
12 mm Top clear
cover 12 mm End
covers 20 mm
(i) Bottom plan of the reinforcement 10+5+5
(ii) Top plan of the
reinforcement (iii)Cross-section
along the shorter span
C23- C-508: Life Skills
Course Title : Life Skills Course code : C23- C-508

( Common to all Branches)
Year/ Semester : V/ VI Semester Total periods : 45
Type of Course : Lab Practice Max Marks : 100
( Sessional 40 + External 60)
ASSESSMENT
C23-Common-508: Life Skills ( Lab Practice )
 The assessment for C23-Common 508 is on par with all other practical subjects
comprising 40 marks for Internal Assessment and 60 marks for External examination
attaining the final total of 100 Marks.
 The Internal Assessment can be conducted in the form of Assignments in all the 11
Units together, taking the average for 40 marks as suggested below.
 The Assessment sheet provided after each lesson in the Life Skills workbook should
be considered as assignment (A) for 10 marks. In addition to that, another assignment
(B) can be conducted for 10 marks in each Unit, awarding total average of 10 marks
for each Lesson. Finally, the cumulative total should be averaged to 40 marks as
Internal marks.
 The questions for Assignment can be customized according to the topic and need. We
can also consider the questions of assignments given after each lesson in the
workbook.
 The assignment questions can also be given based on case studies, personal
experiences, observations, making inferences/ analysis/ forming opinions, solving
puzzles, questions on logical thinking, reasoning, evaluating and writing reviews, etc.
Calculating Internal marks through Assignments

Name of the student: PIN: Branch: Academic Year:
S. Title of the Unit / Assignment A: Assignment B: Total Marks in
No. Lesson 10Marks 10 Marks each Unit/ Lesson
( assessment sheets ( Average for
after each lesson) 10 Marks)
1 Attitude
2 Adaptability
3 Goal setting
4 Motivation
5 Time Management
6 Critical Thinking
7 Creativity
8 Problem Solving
9 Team work
10 Leadership
11 Stress Management
Marks scored Example: 90
Total Number of 11
Assignments
Internal Assessment: Example: (90/11) X4=32.7 33
Average for 40 Marks
C23-Common-508 : Life Skills Lab

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Guidelines to prepare the question paper of the End exam for Life Skills Lab for 60
marks:
I. Define any two concepts related to Life skills: ( Oral ) – 10 Marks
( From Lessons 1 to 11)
II. Recollect and narrate an incident either from your personal experience or
observation where you have exhibited/ learned about any one of the following
life skills. (oral) – 15 Marks.
( From Lessons 1 to 4: Attitude/ Adaptability/Motivation/Goal setting/
III. Recollect and narrate an incident either from your personal experience or
observation where you have exhibited/ learned about any one of the following
life skills. (oral) – 15 Marks.
( From Lessons 5, 9,10,11 : Time Management, Team Work, Leadership,
Stress Management )
IV. A question on problem solving skill, using creativity and critical thinking.
( A case study/a problematic situation should be provided by the examiner
and the students should answer it in writing.)
Ex: Analyse the following problematic situation and write down the possible
solutions and choose the best among them using your creativity and critical
thinking / How do you solve the following problem?– ( written ) 20 Marks
( From Lessons 6,7,8: Creativity/ Critical Thinking/ Problem Solving )
Note: The questions I to III can be evaluated through Viva Voce and Q.No. IV should
be answered by the students in writing. The examiner can adopt the blended mode of
evaluation ( oral& written) considering the strength of the class and availability of
time.

C23 - DCE Curriculum Question Papers

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

C23 - DCE Curriculum Question Papers

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

C23 - DCE Curriculum Question Papers

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

DCE C23 CURRICULUM

Model Unit Test and End Exam Question

TOTAL MARKS 300

3 3 Helping Verbs a) Primary helping verbs

7 3 Types of sentences & Conversion from one type of

8 3 Syntheses of Sentences / Transformation of sentences :

10 3 Correction of Sentences Remaining grammar aspects

Model Question Paper: End Exam C23- C- 101

C23- C101: ENGLISH: UNIT TEST Exams 1,2,3 ( 40 Marks each )

1 4 Marks Vocabulary a) Affixes, b) Synonyms

4 3 Helping Verbs a) Primary helping verbs ( be/do/have)

Part – B : 8X3 = 24 Marks

Unit Test -2: Marks : 40 ; Time 90 Mnts. ( Lessons 4,5,6,7)

4 3M Types of sentences Conversion of sentences ( except

Part – B : 8X3 = 24 Marks

Unit Test -3: Marks : 40 ; Time 90 Mnts. ( Lessons 8,9,10,11)

1 4 Marks Error Analysis Find errors and make corrections

Part-B 8X3=24 Marks

Part-B 8X3=24 Marks

1. Answer the following:

a. If and , then defined by

is a function: State TRUE/FALSE. (CO1)

b. If then 3A =________. (CO1)

c. The value of sin 45 ° +cos 45o is _____. (CO2)

d. The formula for in terms of is _________. (CO2)

4. Find the value of sin750. (CO2)

5. Prove that (CO2)

6. A) Resolve into partial fractions. (CO1)

7. A) If and , then find AB (CO1)

8. A) Find the adjoint of the matrix (CO1)

1. Answer the following.

a. : State TRUE/FALSE (CO2)

c. If , then =_______. (CO2)

d. The eccentricity of the rectangular hyperbola is ______. (CO3)

2. Express in terms of (CO2)

3. Find the intercepts made by the straight line x +5 y−10=0. (CO3)

4. Find the centre and radius of the circle (CO3)

5. Find the vertex and focus of the parabola y 2=8 x . (CO3)

B) Prove that tan

Unit Test III

State Board of Technical Education and Training, A. P

1. Answer the following:

a. State TRUE/FALSE. (CO4)

d. Write the formula for finding the percentage error in x. (CO5)

3. Find the derivative of w.r.t. x. (CO4)

4. Differentiate w.r.t. x. (CO4)

7. A) If then prove that (CO4)

B) Find the maximum and minimum values of the function .

END-EXAM MODEL PAPERS

1. If and is a function defined by then find the range of

2. Resolve the function into partial fractions.

3. If and find A+B

7. Find the modulus of the complex number3+ 4 i.

8. Find the distance between the parallel lines and

sin 7 θ+sin 5 θ (CO2)

B) Prove that tan

B) If a =10, b=12, c =5, then find the area of the ΔABC.

15. A) Find the derivative of 3 tanx−4 logx−7 e x +sin−1 x w.r.t x.

17. A) Find the equation of tangent to the curve y=x 2 +1 at (2,1) .

2. Resolve the function into partial fractions.