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Contents
I I
1 Constitutional Framework . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
1.1 Historical Background . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
1.2 Making of the Constitution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 46
1.4 Constitutional developement . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 55
1.5 Preamble of the Constitution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 62
1.6 Preamble resource . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 67
1.7 Union and its Territory . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 72
1.8 Fundamental Rights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78
1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 95
1.10 Fundamental Duties . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 113
1.11 Amendment of the Constitution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 124
1.12 Structure of the indian constitution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 138
II II
2 System of Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 141
2.1 Indian Parliamentary System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 141
2.2 Federal System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 148
2.3 Centre and the states relations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 153
2.4 Challenges to Nation Building . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 163
2.5 Emergency Provisions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 172
III III
3 Central Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 180
3.1 President . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 180
3.2 Vice-President . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 186
3.3 Prime Minister . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 192
3.4 Central Council of Ministers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 193
NARAYAN CHANGDER
3.5 Cabinet Committees . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 200
3.6 Parliament . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 203
3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 205
3.8 Indian Supreme Court . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 223
3.9 Judiciary . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 226
3.10 Public Interest Litigation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 248
3.11 Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 250
IV IV
4 State Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 256
4.1 Governor . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 256
4.2 State Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 257
4.3 Chief Minister . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 274
4.4 State Legislature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 280
4.5 Tribunals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 282
4.6 Indian High Court . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 285
V V
5 Local Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 290
5.1 Panchayati Raj . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 290
5.2 Local Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 320
VI VI
6 Union Territories & special areas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 327
6.1 Union Territories . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 327
6.2 Scheduled and Tribal Areas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 333
VII VII
7 Constitutional bodies . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 338
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7.1 Election Commission . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 338
7.2 Public Service Commission . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 340
7.3 Finance Commission india . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 355
7.4 GST council . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 358
7.5 NITI Aayog . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 391
7.6 RTI Act . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 394
VIII VIII
8 Non-constitutional bodies . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 400
8.1 Vigilant . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 400
8.2 Lokpal and Lokayuktas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 415
8.3 Disaster Management Act . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 417
IX IX
9 Other constitutional dimension . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 433
9.1 Official Language . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 433
9.2 Political Parties . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 434
9.3 Constituent Assembly . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 436
9.4 Electoral Politics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 441
9.5 The State Executive . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 462
9.6 Union Executive . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 470
9.7 Indian budget . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 494
9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 522
9.9 Foreign policy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 533
9.10 Government Initiatives . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 539
9.11 Unification of India . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 542
9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 547
9.13 The Government of India . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 559
9.14 Reservation is an egalitarian policy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 565
9.15 Keshavananda Bharati case . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 569
9.16 Indian Constitution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 570
9.17 Union Legislature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 641
1
X X
10 Miscellenous Competitive examinations
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. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 679
10.1 IAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 679
10.2 Miscellenous . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 698
10.3 CDS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 769
XI XI
11 One liner . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 805
11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 805
11.2 Fundamental rights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 815
11.3 Directive principles of state policy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 821
11.4 Fundamental duties . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 824
11.5 Union / central government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 826
11.6 State government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 848
11.7 Constitutional provisions for SC’s and St’s, women, children and OBC’s 853
11.8 Emergency provisions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 854
11.9 Electoral process . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 856
I
I
1 Constitutional Framework . . . . . . . . . 3
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 Historical Background . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
1.2 Making of the Constitution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution . . . . . . . . . 46
1.4 Constitutional developement . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 55
1.5 Preamble of the Constitution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 62
1.6 Preamble resource . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 67
1.7 Union and its Territory . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 72
1.8 Fundamental Rights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78
1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy . . . . . . . . . . 95
1.10 Fundamental Duties . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 113
1.11 Amendment of the Constitution . . . . . . . . . . . 124
1.12 Structure of the indian constitution . . . . . . . . 138
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1. Constitutional Framework
1.1 Historical Background
1. Consider the following Assertion and Rea- C. Article 15
son based statements:Assertion (A):The
D. Article 16
President has no discretionary power
under any circumstances.Reason (R):The
4. Which Indian artist decorated the hand-
President has a right to be informed of all
written copy of the Constitution?
important matters and deliberations of the
Council of Ministers. Choose the correct A. Mihir Sen
answer using the options given below:
B. S. N .Banerjee
A. Both A and R are individually correct
and R is the correct explanation of A. C. Mukesh Bandopadhyaya
B. Both A and R are individually correct D. Nandalal Bose
but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
5. The Constituent Assembly was composed
C. A is incorrect but R is correct
roughly along the lines suggested by the:
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
A. August offer
2. This is the fundamental right of every In-
dian child between the age of 6 and 14- B. Wavell plan
A. Right to Equality C. Cabinet mission
B. Right to Education D. None of the above
C. Right to Information
6. which state has bicameral legislature?
D. Right to Freedom of Religion
A. kerala
3. Which article is related to Equality before
law? B. assam
A. Article 13 C. uthar pradesh
B. Article 14 D. tamilnadu
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. C
1.1 Historical Background 4
7. Consider the following statements:1. the executive. Reason (R):The Cabinet ini-
There are many articles in the Constitu- tiates policies, sets the agenda for gover-
tion, which mention that these articles can nance and carries them through. Choose
be amended by a simple law of the Parlia- the correct answer using the options given
ment. 2. Admitting new states into union below:
is one such feature of the Constitution A. Both A and R are individually correct
which can be amended by passing ordi- and R is the correct explanation of R.
nary laws in the Parliament. The correct
statement(s) is/are: B. Both A and R are individually correct
NARAYAN CHANGDER
but R is not the correct explanation of R
A. only 1
C. A is correct but R is incorrect
B. only 2
D. Both are incorrect
C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2 12. first indian women become un assembly
president
8. Which act created Secretary of state for in- A. captain lekshmi
dia and was responsible to the British par-
liament? B. vijaya lekshmi pandit
A. Indian Councils Act of 1861 C. sarojini naidu
B. GOI Act of 1858 D. anie beasent
C. Charter Act of 1853 13. in which year Simon commission submitted
D. Charter Act of 1833 it’s report?
A. 1930
9. Under this act, any Indian can file an infor-
mation request to a government body and B. 1919
it is compulsory for that body to give the C. 1926
applicant all the details.
D. 1927
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Information 14. Which act distinguished b/w the commer-
cial and political functions of East India
C. Right to freedom of speech company?
D. Right against exploitation A. Regulating Act of 1773
10. Who is known as the chief architect of the B. Pitt’s India Act of 1784
Indian Constitution? C. Charter Act of 1833
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad D. Charter Act of 1853
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
15. Consider the following assertion and
C. Mahatma Gandhi reason based statements:Assertion
D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (A):According to the Indian Constitution
makers, a Constitution should not be a
11. Consider the following Assertion and Rea- frozen and unalterable document. Rea-
sons based statements:Assertion (A):In In- son(R):It is a document made by human
dia, legislature is losing central place to beings and may need revisions, changes
7. C 8. B 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. A
1.1 Historical Background 5
and re-examination. Choose the correct 19. crps mission came to india in
answer using the options given below: A. 1987
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A. Both A and R are individually correct B. 1943
and R is the correct explanation of A
C. 1942
B. Both A and R are individually correct
but R is NOT the correct explanation of A D. 1927
C. A is correct but R is incorrect 20. Consider the following statements:1. In a
D. Both are incorrect presidential system, the President is the
Head of State as well as the Head of Gov-
16. Consider the following statements:1. A ernment. 2. Under this system, the of-
public bill can only be introduced by a min- fice of Prime Minister is the actual exec-
ister. 2. The Rajya Sabha can delay an utive authority. The correct statement(s)
ordinary bill passed by the Lok Sabha for is/are:
indefinite period of time till the bill lapses. A. only 1
3. The Rajya Sabha can-not delay pass-
ing a money bill for more than two weeks. B. only 2
Which of these is/are true? C. both 1 and 2
A. 1 and 2 D. neither 1 nor 2
B. 2 and 3 21. Consider the following statements:1. The
C. 1 and 3 fundamental rights enshrined in the Consti-
D. only 1 tution provide that Citizens are protected
from being arrested arbitrarily and for no
17. Consider the following statements:1. The reason. 2. These rights cannot be cur-
Rajya Sabha has the same powers as Lok tailed under any circumstances. The cor-
Sabha in approving Constitutional Amend- rect statement(s) is/are:
ment Bill. 2. Only the Rajya Sabha can A. only 1
give the Union parliament power to make
laws on matters included in the State. The B. only 2
correct statement(s) is/are: C. both 1 and 2
A. only 1 D. neither 1 nor 2
B. only 2 22. Consider the following statements:1. The
C. both 1 and 2 Parliament can unilaterally alter the
D. neither 1 nor 2 boundary of any State or even its name. 2.
The Constitution has very powerful emer-
18. Which act initiated the process of de- gency provisions, which can turn our fed-
centralisation by restoring the legislative eral polity into a highly centralised system
powers to Bombay and Madras presiden- when emergency is in force. The correct
cies from Bengal? statement(s) is/are:
A. Indian Councils Act of 1861 A. only 1
B. Indian Councils Act of 1892 B. only 2
C. Indian Councils Act of 1909 C. both 1 and 2
D. Indian Councils Act of 1919 D. neither 1 nor 2
16. D 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. A 21. A 22. C
1.1 Historical Background 6
23. under whose leader ship chitaghong ar- 27. Consider the following statements:1. Per-
moury done? sons selected by the UPSC for Indian Ad-
A. bhagath sigh ministrative Service and Indian Police Ser-
vice constitute the backbone of the higher
B. sugdev level bureaucracy in the States. 2. An IAS
C. surya sen or IPS officer is assigned to a particular
D. birsa munda State, where he or she works under the
supervision of the Union Government. The
correct statement(s) is/are:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
24. Which of the following is correct with re-
spect to semi-presidential executive sys- A. only 1
tem?
B. only 2
A. The President is the head of the Gov-
ernment. C. both 1 and 2
B. The Prime Minister is the Head of the D. neither 1 nor 2
state.
C. The Prime Minister and his council are 28. What is the Fundamental law of the coun-
responsible to the legislature. try?
D. None of the above A. Preamble
25. Which statement regarding the tenure of B. Constitution
judges of Supreme Court is not correct? C. Legislature
A. The Judge of the Supreme Court can D. Executive
remain in office till the age of 65 years.
B. The Judge of the Supreme Court, gives 29. What kind of majority is needed in the Par-
his resignation letter to the Chief Justice. liament for Rescheduling of the constituen-
cies?
C. On the recommendation of the Parlia- A. Special majority of Parliament
ment, he can be removed by the President.
B. General majority of Parliament
D. A Supreme Court judge can be re- C. Special majority
moved only in the condition of misconduct. D. None of the above
26. Which of the following tool(s) provide
30. Who of the following was/were in shape
some sort of Parliamentary control over
and influenced the liberal character of the
executive work? 1. Deliberation and dis-
Indian Constitution? 1. Raja Rammohan
cussion 2. Approval or Refusal of law 3.
Roy 2. Swami Vivekanand 3. Justice
Financial control 4. No confidence motion
Ranade Choose the correct answer using
Choose the correct answer using the op-
the options given below:
tions given below:
A. Only 1, 2 and 3 A. 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. Only 1, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 3
D. All of the above D. all of the above
23. C 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. B 30. D 31. A
1.1 Historical Background 7
31. The Constitution of India was first written C. both of above
in which language?
D. none of the above
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A. Hindi
36. who is got oppertunity to become presi-
B. English
dent, vice president, jief justice of india
C. Gujarati
A. k r narayanan
D. Pali
B. m hidayathulla
32. Who was the British Governor General
C. pattabhi sitharamayya
who took initiative to strengthen Local
Governments in India? D. nota
A. Lord Dalhousie 37. When did the Constitution of Indian come
B. Lord Bentinct into force?
C. Lord Rippon A. 26 Jan 1950
D. Lord Hastings B. 26 Nov 1949
33. In which of the following respect the Ra- C. 26 Dec 1950
jya Sabha has powers with Lok Sabha at D. 15 Aug 1948
par? 1. Constitutional amendments 2. Im-
peaching the President 3. Removing the 38. First Governor General of Bengal-Lord
Vice President Choose the correct answer Canning (a)2) First Viceroy of India-Lord
using the options given below: Warren Hastings (b)3) First Governor-
A. 1 and 2 General of India-Lord William Bentick (c)
B. 2 and 3 A. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
C. 1 and 3 B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
D. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
34. Consider the following statements:1. The D. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
Constitution has given the States the op-
39. India is also known as
tion of establishing either a unicameral or
bicameral legislature. 2. At present only A. Bharat
eight States have a bicameral legislature.
B. God’s own country
The correct statement(s) is/are:
C. Sapta Sindhu
A. only 1
D. Gangetic Plain
B. only 2
C. both 1 and 2 40. which act abolished board of control and
D. neither 1 nor 2 court of directors?
A. GOI act 1858
35. the president can advance money to meet
the unforseen expenses from the? B. GOI act 1919
A. the consolidated fund of india C. GOI act 1935
B. the contigency fund D. Independence act 1947
32. C 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. A 41. D 42. A
1.1 Historical Background 8
41. who founded ghadar party? 46. Consider the following assertion and
A. gopala krishna ghokhale reason based statements:Assertion
(A):Parliamentary sovereignty is the ba-
B. annie beasant sis of the Constitutional amendment pro-
C. khan abdul gaffar khan cedure. Reason (R):The Constitutional pro-
D. lala hardayal cess underlines that only elected represen-
tatives of the people are empowered to
42. The Indian Constitution was prepared by consider and take final decisions on the
question of amendments. Choose the cor-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
rect answer using the options given be-
A. The Constituent Assembly
low:
B. Parliament
A. Both A and R are individually correct
C. Supreme Court and R is the correct explanation of A
D. Central Government B. Both A and R are individually correct
but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
43. In which of the following Constitutional
Amendment Act, it was made clear that C. A is correct but R is incorrect
the advice of the Council of Ministers will D. Both are incorrect Answer
be binding on the President?
47. in which year Simon commission was set
A. 42nd CAA up?
B. 43rd CAA A. 1917
C. 44th CAA B. 1919
D. None of the above C. 1926
44. Which of the following is the most impor- D. 1927
tant feature of Parliamentary system of 48. The Local Government finds mention in
Government? which of the Constitutional provisions? (a)
A. Separation of Powers among various Fundamental Duties (FDs)
organs of the Government. A. Fundamental Duties (FDs)
B. The President is the Head of State B. Fundamental Rights (FRs)
while the Prime Minister is the Head of the
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
Government
(DPSP)
C. Accountability of the executive to leg-
D. None of the above
islature
D. None of the above 49. Which of the following reason(s)
has/have caused into success of the Indian
45. Which act introduced a system of Commu- Constitution for decades? 1. The Constitu-
nal representation for muslims by accept- tion is itself flexible and admits the neces-
ing ‘separate electorate’? sity of change on occasions. 2. Political
A. Indian Councils Act of 1861 practice and judicial rulings have shown
maturity and flexibility in implementing
B. Indian Councils Act of 1892 the Constitution. The correct statement(s)
C. Indian Councils Act of 1909 is/are:
D. Indian Councils Act of 1919 A. only 1
43. C 44. C 45. C 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. C
1.1 Historical Background 9
B. only 2 C. nandini sathpathy
C. both 1 and 2 D. mahabooba mufti
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D. neither 1 nor 2 53. Which act made Governor-General of Ben-
gal as the Governor-General of India?
50. Consider the following Assertion and Rea-
son type statements:Assertion (A):The A. Regulating Act of 1773
government can implement special B. Pitt’s India Act of 1784
schemes and measures for improving the
C. Charter Act of 1833
conditions of certain sections of society
such as children, women, and the socially D. Charter Act of 1853
and educationally backward classes. Rea-
54. the speaker of the loksabha can be re-
son (R):Equality of opportunity means that
moved by
all sections of the society enjoy equal op-
portunities. Choose the correct answer A. resolution passed by the parliament
using the options given below: B. president
A. Both A and R are individually correct C. vice president
and R is the correct explanation of A
D. nota
B. Both A and R are individually correct
but R is not the correct explanation of A 55. Consider the following statements:1. Gov-
ernment of India Act, 1919 for the first
C. A is incorrect but R is correct time had provisions related to Local Gov-
D. Both A and R are incorrect ernments. 2. During India’s freedom
movement, Mahatma Gandhi had strongly
51. Consider the following Assertion and Rea- pleaded for decentralisation of economic
son type statements:Assertion (A):One of and political power. The correct state-
the major functions of a constitution is to ment(s) is/are:
set some limits on what a government can
impose on its citizens. Reason (R):The A. only 1
most efficient way to put restrictions on B. only 2
the Government powers is to specify the C. both 1 and 2
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
Choose the correct answer using the op- D. neither 1 nor 2
tions given below: 56. who was the first governor general of In-
A. Both A and R are individually correct dia?
and R is the correct explanation of A A. Warren Hastings
B. Both A and R are individually correct B. lord William Bentinck
but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. lord canning
C. A is correct but R is incorrect.
D. lord Cornwallis
D. Both A and R are incorrect
57. Which committee recommended the inclu-
52. first women chief minister of jammu and sion of Fundamental Rights in the Consti-
kashmir tution of India?
A. anwara taimur A. Drafting Committee
B. sucheta kripalani B. Swaran Singh Committee
50. A 51. C 52. D 53. C 54. A 55. C 56. B 57. C
1.1 Historical Background 10
C. Sapru Committee B. Both A and R are individually correct
D. Parliamentary Affairs Committee but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C. A is correct but R is not correct
58. Which of the following Fundamental
Rights was called the “soul of the con- D. Both A and R are incorrect
stitution and the very heart of it” by Dr.
Ambedkar? 62. If there are 545 members in the Lok Sabha,
five members are absent, 50 do not partic-
A. Right to Equality ipate in the voting, and how many mem-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Right to Freedom bers will be required to pass a bill from
the effective majority in Lok Sabha?
C. Cultural and Educational Rights
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies A. 270
B. 254
59. which act provided the establishment of
Reserve Bank of India? C. 276
A. GOI act 1858 D. 245
B. GOI act 1919
63. The British India has had which kind of
C. GOI act 1935 Government system?
D. Independence act 1947 A. Presidential system
60. Consider the following statements regard- B. Semi-Presidential
ing the constitution of India 1. Indian fed- C. Parliamentary system
eration is not the result of agreement be-
tween the units of which it is made of. 2. D. Both b and c
India was already a union at the time of
constituent assembly debates. The correct 64. Which of the following come(s) under the
statement(s) is/are: original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. Dispute between two or more states.
A. only 1
2. Give orders to the executive to act.
B. only 2 3. Rendering advice to the President on
C. both 1 and 2 issues of public importance. Choose the
correct answer using the options given be-
D. neither 1 nor 2 low:
61. Consider the following Assertion and Rea- A. 1 and 2
son based statements:Assertion (A):The
B. only 1
Indian Constitution has a pretty strong lib-
eral character. Reason (R):During the free- C. 1 and 3
dom movement, Indian leaders learnt the
D. 1, 2 and 3
value of individual liberties and freedom
that is often taken for granted in current 65. Which of the following is/are among im-
time. Choose the correct answer using the portant rationale behind the Local Govern-
options given below: ment? 1. It involves the day-to-day life
A. Both A and R are individually correct and problems of ordinary citizens. 2. Local
and R is the correct explanation of A knowledge and local interest are essential
58. D 59. C 60. C 61. A 62. D 63. C 64. B 65. D
1.1 Historical Background 11
ingredients for democratic decision mak- electoral system:1. Under FPTP system,
ing. 3. Necessary for efficient and people- the winning candidate need not secure a
friendly administration. Choose the cor- majority of the votes.2. The Indian elec-
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rect answer using the options given be- toral system is based on the First Past
low: the Post (FPTP).The correct statement(s)
A. 1 and 2 is/are:
B. 1 and 3 A. only1
C. 2 and 3 B. only 2
D. all of the above C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
66. Who can remove the Judge of the Supreme
Court? 70. Which act established a system of double
government by creating Board of control
A. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
from court of directors?
B. Only President.
A. Regulating Act of 1773
C. Only Parliament.
B. Pitt’s India Act of 1784
D. Both the Parliament and the President.
C. Charter Act of 1833
67. Consider the following statements:1. In D. Charter Act of 1853
the parliamentary system, the legislature
also exercises control over the administra- 71. Which of the following is correct with re-
tion. 2. The administrative officers can spect to Fundamental Rights enshrined in
act in total independence of the policies the Constitution?
adopted by the legislature. The correct A. In order to change Fundamental
statement(s) is/are: Rights, one needs to change only the
A. only 1 statutory laws.
B. only 2 B. In order to change Fundamental
Rights, one needs to amend the Consti-
C. both 1 and 2
tution.
D. neither 1 nor 2
C. Fundamental Rights cannot be
68. Which of the following provisions can be changed in whatsoever manner.
passed with the simple majority of the Par- D. None of the above
liament?
72. Which qualification is wrong for being a
A. Removal of Chief Justice of Supreme judge in the Supreme Court?
Court
A. It is compulsory to be a citizen of India.
B. Constitution of State Legislative Coun-
cil
B. He should be a respected jurist in the
C. Salaries and allowances of Members eyes of the Parliament.
of Parliament
C. He Must be a judge in the High Court
D. Fundamental Rights for at least 5 years.
69. Consider the following statements with D. He should be a lawyer in the High Court
reference to First Past the Post (FPTP) for at least 10 years.
66. D 67. A 68. D 69. C 70. B 71. B 72. B
1.1 Historical Background 12
73. Consider the following statements:1. Fi- 77. Consider the following statements:1. The
nancial dependency upon legislature is an Indian Constitution was made by the Con-
essential component of judicial accountabil- stituent Assembly which had been elected
ity. 2. The Constitution provides that the from divided India. 2. Its members were
salaries and allowances of the judges are chosen by indirect election by the mem-
not subject to the approval of the legisla- bers of the Provincial Legislative Assem-
ture. The correct statement(s) is/are: blies established under the Government of
A. only 1 India Act, 1935. The correct statement(s)
is/are:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. only 2
A. only 1
C. both 1 and 2
B. only 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
C. both 1 and 2
74. Which of the following is valid limita- D. neither 1 nor 2
tion(s) upon the Right to Freedom?
78. SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, AND
A. Freedom of an individual will not
DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC-All these are de-
threaten the freedom of others
scribed as the of India.
B. Freedom of an individual or group of
A. Fundamental Rules
individuals will not threaten the law and
order. B. Preamble
C. both a and b C. Basic Principles
D. none of the above D. Structure
75. the impeachment of president is carried by 79. The concept of the Directive Principles of
whom State Policy was borrowed from the Con-
stitution of
A. attorney general
A. U.K.
B. members of legislative
B. Canada
C. parliament
C. Ireland
D. prime minister
D. U.S.A
76. In 1989, one of the global super pow-
ers USSR disintegrated into numerous in- 80. Consider the following statements:1. The
dependent republics. Which of the follow- P.K. Thungon Committee recommended
ing was/were reason(s)? 1. Weak cen- constitutional recognition for the Local
tral power in USSR. 2. Overarching role Government bodies for the first time. 2.
of Russia in USSR policy decisions. Choose A constitutional amendment to provide for
the correct answer using the options given periodic elections to Local Government in-
below: stitutions, and enlistment of appropriate
functions to them, along with funds, was
A. only 1
recommended. The correct statement(s)
B. only 2 is/are:
C. both 1 and 2 A. only 1
D. neither 1 nor 2 B. only 2
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1.1 Historical Background 13
C. both 1 and 2 85. A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court
can be removed only on the ground(s) of:1.
D. neither 1 nor 2
Proven misbehaviour 2. Incapacity 3. Vio-
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81. Consider the following statements:1. The lation of the Constitution Choose the cor-
73rd and 74th Amendments granting con- rect answer using the options given be-
stitutional status to Local Government low:
bodies came into force in 1990. 2. All A. 1 and 2
States now have a uniform three-tier Pan-
chayati Raj structure. The correct state- B. 2 and 3
ment(s) is/are: C. only 3
A. only 1 D. all of the above
B. only 2
86. In which year did English East India com-
C. both 1 and 2 pany obtain the diwani?
D. neither 1 nor 2 A. 1605
82. Which of the following is/are among func- B. 1685
tion(s) of the Constitution? 1. Provid- C. 1705
ing rule for minimum co-ordination among
D. 1765
members of society. 2. Specify rules re-
garding formation of Government. 3. Lim-
87. Consider the following statements:1. Un-
its on powers of government. Choose the
like other western countries, the Indian
correct answer using the options given be-
Constitution envisages asymmetric feder-
low:
alism. 2. Under Article 371A, the privi-
A. 1 and 2 lege of special status was accorded to the
North-Eastern State of Arunachal Pradesh.
B. 2 and 3
The correct statement(s) is/are:
C. 1 and 3
A. only 1
D. 1, 2 and 3
B. only 2
83. dandi march is done by mahathma gandhi C. both 1 and 2
followed by what reason?
D. neither 1nor 2
A. non cooperation
B. civil disobedience 88. A provision related to the set of rights
guaranteed by the Constitution can be
C. quit india movement found in Constitutions of which of the fol-
D. nota lowing country(ies)? 1. India 2. The USA
3. South Africa Choose the correct answer
84. father of indian unrest? using the options given
A. bal gangadhar tilak A. Only 1 and 2
B. lala lajpat ray B. only 1 and 3
C. bipin chandra pal C. only 2 and 3
D. mahathma gandhi D. all of the above
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1.1 Historical Background 14
89. in which year states recognised on the ba- 94. who has the power to proclaim emer-
sis of language gency?
A. 1950 A. prime minister
B. 1956 B. vice president
C. 1965 C. president
D. 1990 D. chief justice
NARAYAN CHANGDER
90. which act empowered the viceroy to issue 95. which act abolished trade Monopoly of
ordinance during emergency? company in India?
A. Indian councils act 1861 A. charter act 1793
B. Indian councils act 1892 B. charter act 1813
C. Indian councils act 1909 C. charter act 1833
D. GOI act 1935 D. charter act 1853
96. d Constitution Amendment is related to
91. Who was the Vice-President of Interim
Govt (1946) under the Viceroy’s execu-
tive council? A. Finance Commission
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad B. Foreign Exchange
B. Dr B.R Ambedkar C. Panchayati Raj
C. Jawaharlal Nehru D. Election Commission
D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel 97. What is the Soul of the Indian Constitu-
tion?
92. Who was the architecture of the Indian
Constitution? A. Preamble
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad B. Parliamentary form
B. Jawaharlal Nehru C. Directive Principles
C. Gandhiji D. Single Citizenship
D. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar 98. Which statement is true about Panchayati
Raj?
93. Consider the following statements:1. The
A. The panchayat samiti and zila parishad
government can interfere in religious mat-
should be constituted with directly elected
ters on grounds of destabilisation of law
members.
and order. 2. Freedom of Religion includes
the freedom to profess, follow and propa- B. Minimum age should be 18 years to
gate any religion. The correct statement(s) contest elction at the panchayat level.
is/are: C. Election of the Panchayati Raj institu-
A. only 1 tions is conducted under the guidance of
the State Election Commission.
B. only 2
D. For the financial review of Panchayats,
C. both 1 and 2 the State Finance Commission is estab-
D. neither 1 nor 2 lished after 6 years.
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1.1 Historical Background 15
99. who was the viceroy of India in 1919? A. GOI Act of 1858
A. Minto B. GOI Act of 1909
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B. Morley C. GOI Act of 1919
C. montagu D. GOI Act of 1935
D. Chelmsford 104. Which of the following Acts had provi-
sions related to the Local Government for
100. which democratic country is said to be the first time?
federal in form but unitary in character?
A. Government of India Act, 1935
A. Ireland
B. Pitts India Act, 1984
B. India C. Government of India Act, 1909
C. U.S.A D. Government of India Act, 1919
D. U.K.
105. To respect the National Flag and National
101. Consider the following statements with Anthem is our-
respect to the difference between FPTP A. Fundamental Duty
and proportional representation:1. Under B. Fundamental Right
FPTP, the country is divided into small geo-
graphical units called constituencies or dis- C. Directive Principles
tricts. 2. Under Proportional representa- D. Freedom
tion, the country cannot be divided and is
106. Who is the “Guardian “of the Indian Con-
strictly treated as one constituency. The
stitution?
correct statement(s) is/are:
A. Supreme Court
A. only 1
B. High Court
B. only 2
C. Chief Justice
C. both 1 and 2
D. Parliament
D. neither 1 nor 2
107. Consider the following Assertion
102. Consider the following statements:1. Un- and Reason type statements:Assertion
der the Parliamentary system, the Prime (A):Fundamental Rights are different from
Minister and all the ministers have to be other rights available to us. Reason
members of the Parliament. 2. 91st (R):While ordinary legal rights are pro-
Amendment Act (2003) puts a constitu- tected and enforced by ordinary law, Fun-
tional limitation upon the size of the Coun- damental Rights are protected and guar-
cil of Ministers. The correct statement(s) anteed by the Constitution of the country.
is/are: Choose the correct answer using the op-
A. only 1 tions given below:
B. only 2 A. Both A and R are individually correct
and R is the correct explanation of A
C. both 1 and 2
B. Both A and R are individually correct
D. neither 1 nor 2 but R is Not the correct explanation of A
103. Which act features the dual scheme of C. A is correct but R is incorrect
governance (dyarchy) in the provinces? D. Both A and R are incorrect
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1.1 Historical Background 16
108. Consider the following statements:1. 112. mahathma gandhiji started his political
Self-governing village communities in In- entrance from?
dia were British innovations in the 18th
A. sabarmati
century. 2. Lord Rippon is considered
the pioneer of the Indian Local Government B. champaran
during the British colonial rule. The correct
C. ahmedabad
statement(s) is/are:
D. delhi
A. only 1
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. only 2 113. Which of the following best conveys the
C. both 1 and 2 meaning of ‘Collective responsibility’ of
the executive to the legislature?
D. neither 1 nor 2
A. It means that the vote of no-
109. Consider the following statements:1. All confidence can be brought only against
federal polities across the world have dual the Prime Minister.
citizenships. 2. The details of dual sys-
B. No-confidence cannot be passed with-
tem of government are spelt out in a writ-
out the consent of Council of Ministers.
ten constitution The correct statement(s)
is/are: C. No-confidence even against a single
A. only 1 minister leads to the resignation of the en-
tire Council of Ministers.
B. only 2
D. None of the above.
C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2 114. Which of the following decade saw the
highest number of Constitutional amend-
110. The Constitution can be thought to be a ments?
source of one’s:
A. 1950-60
A. Political identity only
B. 1980-90
B. Moral identity only
C. 2001-10
C. Both political as well as moral identity
D. 1960-70
D. None of the above
115. Consider the following statements:1. No
111. Consider the following statements:1. one can be arrested without being told the
The Constitution of India provides for a grounds for such an arrest. 2. In case of
single integrated judicial system. 2. The arrest, it is mandatory for the police to
structure of the judiciary in India is pyra- take that person to the nearest magistrate
midal with the Office of the President at within 24 hours. The correct statement(s)
the top. The correct statement(s) is/are: is/are:
A. only 1 A. only 1
B. only 2 B. only 2
C. both 1 and 2 C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2 D. neither 1 nor 2
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1.1 Historical Background 17
116. Consider the following statements:1. 120. who put forth the partition plan of In-
The states demand expect that the division dia?
of powers should be changed in favour of
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A. Mountbatten
the States and more powers and impor-
tant powers be assigned to the States. 2. B. Morley
States resent the control of the centre over C. montagu
the administrative machinery. The correct
D. Chelmsford
statement(s) is/are:
A. only 1 121. When do we celebrate Constitution
B. only 2 Day?
C. both 1 and 2 A. November 26
D. neither 1 nor 2 B. October 26
C. September 26
117. first europian president of inc?
D. December 26
A. george youle
B. a o hume 122. Which of the following statements is not
C. indira gandhi correct with respect to Local Government
in India?
D. sonia gandhi
A. Panchayati Raj was established in In-
118. Consider the following statements:1. dia by Jawahar Lal Nehru.
The functions and responsibilities of the B. Madhya Pradesh was the first state
Supreme Court are defined nowhere in the which implemented the Panchayati Raj
Constitution. 2. The Supreme Court of In- system in India.
dia can advise the President on matters of
public importance and law on its own. The C. 73rd Constitutional amendment was
correct statement(s) is/are: implemented in 1992.
A. only 1 D. Tamil Nadu has adopted bicameral
method.
B. only 2
C. both 1 and 2 123. Consider the following assertion and rea-
son type statements:Assertion (A):In In-
D. neither 1 nor 2
dia, the Prime Minister enjoys a pre-
119. Which of the following is incorrect with eminent place in the Government. Reason
respect to legislature of India? (R):The Council of Ministers cannot exist
without the Prime Minister. Choose the
A. Lok Sabha represents the people of In-
correct answer using the options given be-
dia.
low:
B. The Rajya Sabha represents the States.
A. Both A and R are individually correct
and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. There are only 98 topics in the center
B. Both A and R are individually correct
list at this time.
but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
D. The Rajya Sabha protects the State
with unnecessary interference from the C. A is incorrect but R is correct
Center. D. Both A and R are incorrect.
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1.1 Historical Background 18
124. The provision of ‘Fundamental Rights’ 128. Consider the following statements:1. All
has been taken from which of the follow- elections are democratic in nature. 2. A
ing country’s Constitution? large number of non-democratic countries
also hold elections. The correct state-
A. USA
ment(s) is/are:
B. France
A. only 1
C. Britan
B. only 2
D. None of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. both 1 and 2
125. money bill of a state is originated by the D. neither 1 nor 2
reccomendation of whom?
129. Consider the following statements with
A. president respect to Secularism as enshrined in the
B. chief justis Constitution:1. Unlike western Constitu-
tions, the Indian Constitution recognises
C. advocate general community based rights. 2. Constitution
D. governor does see religion merely as a ‘private’
matter concerning the individual. The cor-
126. Consider the following statements:1. rect statement(s) is/are:
The Election Commission of India has been A. only 1
a multi-member body since the enactment
of the Constitution. 2. The Chief Election B. only 2
Commissioner (CEC) presides over the Elec- C. both 1 and 2
tion Commission, but does not have more
D. neither 1 nor 2
powers than the other Election Commis-
sioners. The correct statement(s) is/are: 130. . Which of the following can be held
A. only 1 as valid achievement(s) of the Indian Con-
stitution? 1. The Constitution reinforces
B. only 2 and reinvents forms of liberal individual-
C. both 1 and 2 ism. 2. The Constitution upholds the princi-
ple of social justice without compromising
D. neither 1 nor 2 on individual liberties3. The Constitution
upholds its commitment to group rights.
127. Which of the following right(s) has/have
Choose the correct answer using the op-
been incorporated within the Right to Life
tions given below:
under Article 21 by the Supreme Court
over a period of time? 1. Right to live A. 1 and 2
with human dignity 2. Right to be free B. 2 and 3
from exploitation 3. Right to shelter and
livelihood Choose the correct answer using C. 1 and 3
the options given below: D. all of the above
A. Only 1 and 2 . 131. Consider the following statements:1.
B. Only 1 and 3 The Constitution forbids employment of
children below the age of 16 years in dan-
C. Only 2 and 3
gerous jobs like factories and mines. 2.
D. All the above Forced labour or Begar is a criminal act as
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1.1 Historical Background 19
per the Constitutional provisions. The cor- A. charter act 1793
rect statement(s) is/are: B. charter act 1813
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A. only 1 C. charter act 1833
B. only 2 D. charter act 1853
C. both 1 and 2
136. Which Act provided for the establishment
D. neither 1 nor 2 of a Supreme Court at Calcutta?
132. Match the Column:1) First Governor- A. Regulating Act of 1773
General of Bengal-(a) Lord Canning2) First B. Pitt’s India Act of 1784
Viceroy of India-(b)Lord Warren Hast-
ings3) First Governor-General of India- C. Charter Act of 1833
(c)Lord William Bentick D. Charter Act of 1853
A. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
137. Consider the following Assertion
B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c and Reason type statements:Assertion
C. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b (A):Constitutions are often subverted by
small groups, who wish to enhance their
D. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a own power. Reason (R):Well-crafted con-
133. chairman of union constituitional commi- stitutions fragment power in society intel-
tee? ligently so that no single group can sub-
vert the constitution. Choose the correct
A. br ambedkar answer using the options given below:
B. jawaharlal nehru A. Both A and R are individually correct
C. john mathai and R is the correct explanation of A
D. annie beasent B. Both A and R are individually correct
but R is not the correct explanation of A
134. Consider the following statements:1. In
C. A is incorrect but R is correct.
separate electorate system, for electing a
representative from a particular commu- D. Both A and R are incorrect
nity, only those voters would be eligible
who belong to that community. 2. Under 138. Consider the following statements:1. A
reserved constituency system, all voters in bill proposed by a minister is described as
a constituency are eligible to vote but the Government Bill. 2. Under the Indian Par-
candidates must belong to only a particular liamentary system, no member other than
community or social section for which the Government can propose a law in the Par-
seat is reserved. The correct statement(s) liament. The correct statement(s) is/are:
is/are: A. only 1
A. only 1 B. only 2
B. only 2 C. both 1 and 2
C. both 1 and 2 D. neither 1 nor 2
D. neither 1 nor 2 139. The first temporary 2-day President of
135. which act provided the spread of Western the Constituent Assembly was-
education in India? A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
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1.1 Historical Background 20
B. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha C. both 1 and 2
C. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar D. neither 1 nor 2
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
143. who is the first viceroy of India?
140. Consider the following statements:1. A A. Warren Hastings
person can only be arrested under one and
B. lord William Bentinck
only one circumstance that if he has com-
mitted some crime.2. The Constitution al- C. lord canning
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lows for arrest of a person, if law author- D. lord Cornwallis
ities have apprehension about his inten-
tions or actions that may destabilise the 144. Which act separated, for the first time,
law and order situations.The correct state- the legislative and executive functions of
ment(s) is/are: the Governor-General’s council?
A. only 1 A. Charter Act of 1853
B. only 2 B. Charter Act of 1833
C. both 1 and 2 C. Pitt’s India Act of 1784
D. neither 1 nor 2 D. Regulating Act of 1773
141. Consider the following statements:1.
145. in 1939 subhash chandra bose become
The Election Commissioners are appointed
president of india by defeating
by the President of India on the advice of
the Council of Ministers. 2. The Consti- A. pattabhi sitharamayya
tution ensures the security of the tenure B. vijayalekshmi pandit
of the CEC and Election Commissioners.
3. The Election Commissioners can be re- C. lokamanya tilak
moved by the President if both Houses of D. a o hume
Parliament make such a recommendation
with a special majority. Choose the correct 146. under which act portfolio system was in-
answer using the options given below: troduced?
A. 1 and 2 A. Indian councils act 1892
B. 2 and 3 B. Indian councils act 1861
C. 1 and 3 C. Indian councils act 1909
D. all of the above D. Government of India act 1919
142. Consider the following statements:1. No 147. The PIL has become an important tool
country from the first world had to adopt of justice for the downtrodders and the
a new Constitution even at the face of ad- underprivileged. What is the correct full
versity. 2. Since its adoption, the Indian name of PIL?
Constitution continues to serve its purpose
A. People Interests Litigation.
without any major change. The correct
statement(s) is/are: B. Public Interests Litigation.
A. only 1 C. People Informatory Litigation.
B. only 2 D. Public Informatory Litigation.
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1.1 Historical Background 21
148. Which of the following function(s) is/are 152. Which act features the dual scheme of
performed by the Parliament? 1. Judicial governance (dyarchy)?
functions 2. Electoral functions 3. Con-
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A. GOI Act of 1858
stituent functions Choose the correct an-
swer using the options given below: B. GOI Act of 1909
A. 1 and 2 C. GOI Act of 1919
B. 2 and 3 D. GOI Act of 1935
C. 1 and 3 153. Consider the following Assertion and
Reason type statements:Assertion (A):In
D. 1, 2 and 3
representative democracy, the citizens
149. Which of the following Constitutional have a limited role in taking major de-
Amendment brought down the age to vote cisions and in running the administra-
to 18 from erstwhile 21? tion.Reason (R):A representative democ-
racy is one where the citizens directly
A. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act participate in the dayto-day decision-
B. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act making and in the running of the govern-
ment.Choose the correct answer using the
C. 72nd Constitutional Amendment Act options given below:
D. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act A. Both A and R are individually correct
and R is the correct explanation of A.
150. Consider the following statements:1.
The Indian Constitution is born out of a B. Both A and R are individually correct
fullfledged referendum, where all the peo- but R is not the correct explanation of A.
ple vote on the desirability of a constitu- C. A is correct but R is not
tion. 2. The Indian Constitution reflected
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
the broad national consensus at the time
of its enactment. The correct statement(s) 154. Consider the following statements:1.
is/are: The Election Commission of India is respon-
A. only 1 sible for elections of union and state leg-
islative assemblies as well as local bodies.
B. only 2
2. The State Election Commissioners work
C. both 1 and 2 independently of the Election Commission
of India and each has its own sphere of op-
D. neither 1 nor 2
eration.The correct statement(s) is/are:
151. Which of the following is/are among es- A. only 1
sential feature(s) of a federalism? 1. Dual
B. only 2
citizenship 2. Written Constitution 3. In-
dependent judiciary Choose the correct an- C. both 1 and 2
swer using the options given below: D. neither 1 nor 2
A. Only 1 and 2
155. Which one of the following is not a Fun-
B. Only 1 and 3 damental Right?
C. Only 2 and 3 A. Right against exploitation
D. All the above B. Right to constitution remedies
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1.1 Historical Background 22
C. Right to property 160. in which year Central public service com-
mission was set up?
D. Cultural and educational rights
A. 1917
156. The latest 101st amendment to the Con-
B. 1919
stitution of India is-
C. 1926
A. Right to Education
D. 1927
B. Freedom of Expression
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Right to Equality 161. who was the viceroy of India in 1947?
D. Goods and Service Tax (GST) A. Mountbatten
B. Morley
157. Which of the following provisions of the
Indian Constitution ensure fair trial at C. montagu
courts of law? 1. A person is always D. Chelmsford
assumed to be guilty unless proven other-
wise. 2. No person is punished for the 162. In which of the following cases, a special
same offence more than once. 3. No law majority is used in the Parliament?
shall declare any action as illegal from a
A. Removal of Vice President
backdate. Choose the correct answer us-
ing the options given below: B. For removing Speaker & Deputy
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
A. only 1 and 2
C. Acquisition and Termination of Citizen-
B. only 1 and 3
ship
C. only 2 and 3
D. For Removal of Chairman or Vice-
D. all of the above Chairman of the Legislative Council
158. Which of the following is/are mentioned 163. which act made the governor general of
under the Concurrent List? 1. Forests2. Bengal as the governor general of India?
Agriculture and animal husbandry3. Adul-
A. charter act 1793
terationChoose the correct answer using
the options given below: B. charter act 1813
A. 1 and 2 C. charter act 1833
B. 1 and 3 D. charter act 1853
C. 2 and 3 164. It is said that Indian Constitution has bor-
D. all of the above rowed many features from Constitutions
across the world. The ‘Principles of Lib-
159. Which act was the final step towards cen- erty, Equality and Fraternity’ have been
tralisation in British India? taken from:
A. Regulating Act of 1773 A. The USA constitution
B. Pitt’s India Act of 1784 B. French constitution
C. Charter Act of 1833 C. British constitution
D. Charter Act of 1853 D. None of the above
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1.1 Historical Background 23
165. under regulating act in which year the 169. Consider the following statements:1.
supreme court was established? The Constitution provides for reservation
of seats in the Lok Sabha, State Legisla-
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A. 1773
tive Assemblies for the Scheduled Castes,
B. 1774 Scheduled Tribes and women as well. 2.
C. 1781 Proportional representation is followed
D. 1784 nowhere in Indian electroral process. The
correct statement(s) is/are:
166. Consider the following statements:1.
A. only 1
The Delimitation Commission is appointed
by the Parliament and works in collabo- B. only 2
ration with the Election Commission of In- C. both 1 and 2
dia. 2. A quota of constituencies to be D. neither 1 nor 2
reserved in each State is fixed depending
on the proportion of SCs or STs in that 170. Which of the following states adopted
State.The correct statement(s) is/are: the Panchayati Raj for the first time in in-
A. only 1 dependent India?
B. only 2 A. Rajasthan
C. both 1 and 2 B. Gujarat
D. neither 1 nor 2 C. Andhra pradesh
D. Kerala
167. Which one of the following Acts provided
the setting up of a Board of Control in 171. Which act introduced bicameralism and di-
Britain, through which the British Govern- rect elections in the country?
ment could fully control the British East In- A. Indian Councils Act of 1909
dia Company’s civil, military and revenue
affairs in India? B. GOI Act of 1919
A. Regulating Act of 1773 C. GOI Act of 1935
B. Pitt’s India Act of 1784 D. Indian Independence Act of 1947
C. Charter Act of 1833 172. Which act introduced bicameralism in the
D. Government of India Act of 1858 country?
A. Indian Councils Act of 1909
168. Consider the following statements:1.
The Constitution framers placed the Con- B. GOI Act of 1919
stitution above ordinary law and expected C. GOI Act of 1935
that the future generations will respect D. Indian Independence Act of 1947
this document. 2. They also recognised
that in the future, this document may re- 173. Consider the following statements:1. Ini-
quire modifications. The correct state- tially, the constitutional framers of India
ment(s) is/are: were in opinion to bring in a unitary type
A. only 1 of Government. 2. There was acute
awareness that Indian society had a re-
B. only 2 gional diversity and a linguistic diversity.
C. both 1 and 2 The correct statement(s) is/are:
D. neither 1 nor 2 A. only 1
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1.1 Historical Background 24
B. only 2 177. Consider the following Assertion and
C. both 1 and 2 Reasons based statements:Assertion
(A):The subject of Local Government includ-
D. neither 1 nor 2 ing panchayats did not receive adequate
174. Which of the following South Asian Coun- importance. Reason (R):The turmoil due to
tries have had long overdue outstanding the Partition resulted in a strong unitary
issues related to drawing up a successful inclination in the Constitution. Choose the
constitution? correct answer using the options given
below:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Bangladesh
A. Both A and R are individually correct
B. Bhutan and R is the correct explanation of A
C. Maldives B. Both A and R are individually correct
D. Nepal but R is not correct explanation of A
175. Consider the following Assertion C. A is incorrect but R is correct
and Reason type statements:Assertion D. A is correct but R is incorrect
(A):There is a significant difference be-
tween the older constitutions and the 178. Consider the following statements:1.
constitutions of 21st century. Reason The Indian Constitution provided adult
(R):While older constitution only limits franchise even when several western Con-
the powers of a Government, the new stitution had no such provisions. 2. As
constitutions has some positive enabling early as in 1928 Motilal Nehru Report
provisions for a government also. Choose had advocated for universal adult fran-
the correct answer using the options given chise political rights. The correct state-
below: ment(s) is/are:
A. Both A and R are individually correct A. only 1
and R is the correct explanation of A B. only 2
B. Both A and R are individually correct C. both 1 and 2
but R is not the correct explanation of A
D. neither 1 nor 2
C. A is correct but R is incorrect.
179. which act is also known as montagu
D. Both A and R are incorrect Answer:
chelmsford reforms?
176. Consider the following statements:1. A. GOI act 1858
The practice of untouchability has been
B. GOI act 1919
abolished under the Right to Equality. 2.
The Right to Equality also provides that C. GOI act 1935
the state shall confer no title on a person D. Independence act 1947
except those who excel themselves in mil-
itary or academic field. The correct state- 180. who is known as the father of communal
ment(s) is/are: electorate?
A. only 1 A. lord Minto
B. only 2 B. lord William Bentinck
C. both 1 and 2 C. lord canning
D. neither 1 nor 2 D. lord Cornwallis
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1.1 Historical Background 25
181. Right to information is A. Indian councils act 1861
A. Fundamental Right B. Indian councils act 1892
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B. Legal rights C. Indian councils act 1909
C. Neither Fundamental Rights nor legal D. GOI act 1935
rights
D. Both Fundamental Rights as well as le- 186. The number of articles in our Constitution
gal rights is
182. Whcih act ended the system of double A. 468
govt by abolishing Board of Control and B. 448
Court of directors of the company?
C. 458
A. Charter Act of 1853
D. 428
B. Pitt’s India Act of 1784
C. GOI Act of 1858 187. Which act laid the foundations of central
administration in India?
D. Indian Councils Act of 1861
A. Pitt’s India Act of 1784
183. Consider the following statements:1. All
minorities can set up their own educational B. Regulating Act of 1773
institutions. 2. The government, can, C. Charter Act of 1833
while granting aid to educational institu-
tions, positively discriminate against any D. Charter Act of 1853
educational institution on the basis that it
is under the management of minority com- 188. Consider the following statements:1. Un-
munity. The correct statement(s) is/are: der proportional representation, even
smaller political parties get the represen-
A. only 1 tation in central legislature. 2. Under this
B. only 2 system, a party gets seats in the legisla-
ture in proportion to the votes polled by it.
C. both 1 and 2
The correct statement(s) is/are:
D. neither 1 and 2
A. only 1
184. Consider the following statements:1. B. only 2
The term ‘secular’ is mentioned nowhere
in the Constitution. 2. Secular states are C. both 1 and 2
widely seen as treating religion as only a D. neither 1 nor 2
private matter. The correct statement(s)
is/are: 189. The Fundamental Right of ‘Protection
A. only 1 of language, culture of minorities’ is en-
shrined under the:
B. only 2
C. both 1 and 2 A. Cultural and Educational Rights
D. neither 1 nor 2 B. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. Right to Freedom
185. which act is also known as Minto Morley
reforms? D. None of the above
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1.1 Historical Background 26
190. which act attempted to introduce a sys- B. 1861
tem of open competition for selection of C. 1862
civil servants?
D. 1892
A. charter act 1793
B. charter act 1813 195. Before the 61st Amendment, what was
the age of an Indian citizen eligible to vote
C. charter act 1833 in elections?
D. charter act 1853 A. 22 years
NARAYAN CHANGDER
191. under which act lord Cornwallis was ap- B. 23 years
pointed as the governor general of Ben- C. 21 years
gal?
D. 16 years
A. act of 1781
196. The are guidelines to the government
B. act of 1784
A. Fundamental Rights
C. act of 1786
B. Directive Principles
D. act of 1788
C. Fundamental Duties
192. Guess the changes in C A after Indian in-
D. Preamble
dependence?
A. member reduction from 389 to 299 197. the members nominated by lord canning
to his legislative council
B. C A became the sovereign body
A. Raja of Benaras
C. C A became the legislative body
B. maharaja of Patiala
D. All of the above
C. sir Dinkar Rao
193. Consider the following Assertion and
D. all the above
Reasons based statements:Assertion
(A):Federalism helps countries to remain 198. if a bill is neglected in a house of parlia-
united even if the country has enormous ment the joint sitting by both of the parties
cultural diversities within the country. is presided by?
Reason (R):All the countries that had to
A. presdient
see a division of the country were not fed-
erations. Choose the correct answer using B. vice president
the options given below: C. attorney genral
A. Both A and R are individually correct D. prime minister
and R is the correct explanation of A
199. Consider the following statements:1.
B. Both A and R are individually correct Since the independence, the senior-most
but R is not correct explanation of A judge of the Supreme Court has always
C. A is incorrect but R is correct been appointed as the Chief Justice of In-
D. A is correct but R is incorrect dia. 2. The other Judges of the Supreme
Court and the High Court are appointed by
194. In which year lord canning nominated the Prime Minister after ‘consulting’ the
three Indians to his legislative council CJI. The correct statement(s) is/are:
A. 1858 A. only 1
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1.1 Historical Background 27
B. only 2 204. what is highlighted in the novel
by bangim chandra chatterjee namely
C. both 1 and 2
“anandha math”
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D. neither 1 nor 2
A. sipoy revolt
200. . Consider the following statements:1. B. sanyasi rebellion
The original provision provided reserva- C. quit india movement
tions to SC/ST for a period of ten years
D. kakory conspiracy
only. 2. After every ten years an amend-
ment is made to extend this period by an- 205. Consider the following Assertion and
other ten years. The correct statement(s) Reason type statements:Assertion (A):All
is/are: Constitutions across the world seek to
A. only 1 establish the same type of Government
with similar powers and limitations. Rea-
B. only 2 son (R):Most modern constitutions create
C. both 1 and 2 a form of government that is democratic in
some respects, most claim to protect cer-
D. neither 1 nor 2 tain basic rights. Choose the correct an-
swer using the options given below:
201. Which country is known as the mother of
the Parliament? A. Both A and R are individually correct
and R is the correct explanation of A
A. United States
B. Both A and R are individually correct
B. France but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. India C. A is incorrect but R is correct
D. Britain D. A is incorrect but R is correct
202. Who became the first Indian to join as 206. Which of the following country (ies) had
law member of the Viceroy’s executive to face a territorial disintegration? 1.
council by the Act of 1909? Czechoslovakia 2. Yugoslavia 3. Pakistan
4. Canada Choose the correct answer us-
A. Liaquat Ali khan ing the options given below:
B. Satyendra Prasad Sinha A. Only 1, 2 and 4
C. Sardar Baldev Singh B. Only 1, 3 and 4
D. Jagjivan Ram C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. All the above
203. Which of the following country’s constitu-
tion is famously known as “Peace Consti- 207. Consider the following statements:1. Ar-
tution” and its preamble gives prominent ticles 33 and 34 authorise the Parliament
place to the term “peace”? to protect persons in the service of the
union or a state in respect of any action
A. Germany taken by them during martial law to main-
B. France tain or restore order. 2. The Armed
Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) has
C. Japan
been made on the basis of these provi-
D. USA sions. The correct statement(s) is/are:
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1.1 Historical Background 28
A. only 1 213. Consider the following statements:1.
B. only 2 The actions and decisions of the judges are
immune from personal criticisms. 2. The
C. both 1 and 2 Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of
D. neither 1 and 2 the judges under any circumstances. The
correct statement(s) is/are:
208. which act abolished the East India com-
A. only 1
pany?
B. only 2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. GOI act 1858
C. both 1 and 2
B. GOI act 1919
D. neither 1 nor 2
C. GOI act 1935
D. Independence act 1947 214. Consider the following statements:1.
Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected
209. which act allowed Christian missionaries for a term of five years. 2. Every two
for enlightening the people in India? years, one third members of the Rajya
A. charter act 1793 Sabha retires and fresh elections are held
for those vacant seats. The correct state-
B. charter act 1813 ment(s) is/are:
C. charter act 1833 A. only 1
D. charter act 1853 B. only 2
210. Which article is related with “Abolition C. both 1 and 2
of Untouchability”? D. neither 1 nor 2
A. Article 20
215. who was the first governor general of
B. Article 19 Bengal?
C. Article 18 A. Warren Hastings
D. Article 17 B. lord William Bentinck
211. In which year Pitt’s India act was C. lord canning
passed? D. lord Cornwallis
A. 1773
216. whose arrest leads to jalian wala bhagh
B. 1774 massacre
C. 1781 A. birsa munda
D. 1784 B. lala lajpat rai
212. Which of the following words has not C. sugdev singh
been added in the objectives of the Con- D. saifuddin kitchlew
stitution?
217. Which act changed the designation of
A. Secular Governor-General of India to that of
B. Republic Viceroy of India?
C. Linguistic A. GOI Act of 1858
D. Democratic B. GOI Act of 1919
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1.1 Historical Background 29
C. GOI Act of 1935 222. Who said the following statement? “The
D. Indian Independence Act of 1947 Preamble of the Constitution is the horo-
scope of Indian Republic”.
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218. which act introduced an open competition A. Mr. Mahatma Gandhi
system of selection and recruitment of civil
servants? B. Mr. K.M.Munshi
A. charter act 1793 C. Mr. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. charter act 1813 D. Mr. B.R. Ambedkar
C. charter act 1833 223. hindustan socialist republican association
founded by?
D. charter act 1853
A. sughdes
219. Consider the following Assertion and
B. bhgat singh
Reasons based statements:Assertion
(A):The Indian Constitution has created C. subhash chandra bose
a strong Central Government. Reason D. saifuddin kichlew
(R):The makers of the Constitution also
believed that the socio-economic problems 224. A political philosophy approach to the
of the country needed to be handled by Constitution is needed, because:1. It helps
a strong Central Government in coopera- us to find out the moral values embedded
tion with the States. Choose the correct in the Constitution. 2. It helps us arbi-
answer using the options given below: trate between varying interpretations of
the many core values in our polity. Choose
A. Both A and R are individually correct
the correct answer using the options given
and R is the correct explanation of A
below:
B. Both A and R are individually correct
A. only 1
but R is not correct explanation of A
B. only 2
C. A is incorrect but R is correct
C. both 1 and 2
D. A is correct but R is incorrect
D. neither 1 nor 2
220. under Indian councils act of 1909 the
number of members in Central legislative 225. Consider the following statements:1.
council was raised from Federalism consist of a set of fixed prin-
ciples, which are applied to different his-
A. 15 to 45
torical situations. 2. Under federalism,
B. 16 to 60 each government is autonomous in its own
C. 21 to 70 sphere. The correct statement(s) is/are:
D. 30 to 100 A. only 1
B. only 2
221. Which Indian state has English as a offi-
cial language? C. both 1 and 2
A. Manipur D. neither 1 nor 2
B. Andhra Pradesh 226. charter act was passed in which year?
C. Nagaland A. 1786
D. Karnataka B. 1784
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1.1 Historical Background 30
C. 1788 C. both 1 and 2
D. 1793 D. neither 1 nor 2
227. who was the secretary of the state in 231. Who was the first law minister of inde-
1919? pendent India?
A. Minto A. Maulana Abul Kalam
B. Morley B. K. M. Munshi
C. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. montagu
D. Chelmsford D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
228. Consider the following statements:1. 232. Macaulay committee was appointed in
One of the functions of the Constitution is which year?
to provide rules for maximal co-operation A. 1833
among its various organs. 2. The Con- B. 1834
stitution decides how the government will
be constituted. The correct statement(s) C. 1853
is/are: D. 1854
A. only 1 233. Consider the following statements with
B. only 2 reference to the Constituent Assembly:1.
C. both 1 and 2 The method of selection in the case of
representatives of Princely States was to
D. neither 1 nor 2 be determined by consultation. 2. The
229. Consider the following statements:1. seats in each Province were distributed
The Indian Constitution enables the gov- among the three main communities, Mus-
ernment to take positive welfare mea- lims, Sikhs and general. The correct state-
sures legally.2. The Directive Principles ment(s) is/are:
of State of Policy (DPSP) is one such fea- A. only 1
ture of the Indian Constitution. The correct B. only 2
statement(s) is/are:
C. both 1 and 2
A. only 1
D. neither 1 nor 2
B. only 2
234. Consider the following statements:1. In
C. both 1 and 2
a parliamentary system, the Prime Minis-
D. neither 1 nor 2 ter is the Head of Government. 2. Un-
der this system, the role of the President
230. Consider the following statements:1.
or Monarch is primarily ceremonial and
The Supreme Court itself is not bound by
the Prime Minister along with the cabinet
its decision and can at any time review it.
wields effective power. The correct state-
2. Decisions made by the Supreme Court
ment(s) is/are:
are binding on all other courts within the
territory of India. The correct statement(s) A. only 1
is/are: B. only 2
A. only 1 C. both 1 and 2
B. only 2 D. neither 1 nor 2
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1.1 Historical Background 31
235. The Detective Principles are embodied in 1. There is no need of any law by the
the Part of of our Constitution parliament to acquire a new territory. 2.
There is need of legislation by the parlia-
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A. III
ment to establish new state. The correct
B. IV statement(s) is/are:
C. IIIA A. only 1
D. II B. only 2
236. In which year act of settlement passed? C. both 1 and 2
A. 1773 D. neither 1 nor 2
B. 1774 240. which act provided the establishment of
C. 1781 public service commission?
D. 1784 A. GOI act 1858
237. Consider the following statements:1. B. GOI act 1919
The advice rendered by the Council of Min- C. GOI act 1935
isters to the President is binding upon the D. Independence act 1947
President. 2. They President can ask the
Council of Ministers to reconsider its ad- 241. Consider the following statements:1.
vice but, has to accept the reconsidered Union Legislature alone has the power to
advice of the Council of Ministers. The cor- legislate on such matters which are not
rect statement(s) is/are: listed under any three lists given in the
A. only 1 Constitution. 2. Under the Indian feder-
alism, the States have immense responsi-
B. only 2 bilities but very meagre revenue sources.
C. both 1 and 2 The correct statement(s) is/are:
D. neither 1 nor 2 A. only 1
238. Consider the following statements:1. B. only 2
The Constitution of India vests the exec- C. both 1 and 2
utive power of the Union formally in the
D. neither 1 nor 2
Prime Minister. 2. The election of the
President takes place in accordance with 242. the committee on Indian civil service was
the principle of proportional representa- appointed in?
tion with single transferable vote. The cor-
A. 1833
rect statement(s) is/are:
B. 1834
A. only 1
C. 1853
B. only 2
C. both 1 and 2 D. 1854
D. neither 1 nor 2 243. Which viceroy put forth the partition plan
through Independence Act of 1947?
239. With reference to the power of parlia-
ment to admit into union or establish new A. Lord Curzon
states. Which of the following is true? B. Lord Mountbatten
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1.1 Historical Background 32
C. Lord Canning 247. Consider the following statements:1. Ju-
D. Lord Wellesley dicial Review means the power of the
Supreme Court (or High Courts) to exam-
244. Consider the following Assertion ine the constitutionality of any law passed
and Reason type statements:Assertion by the Parliament or the state legislatures.
(A):Fundamental Rights as enshrined un- 2. The term Judicial Review is nowhere
der the Constitution are absolute in nature. mentioned in the Constitution.The correct
Reason (R):Executive as well as legisla- statement(s) is/are:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tive actions can be declared illegal by the A. only 1
judiciary if these violate the Fundamental B. only 2
Rights or restrict them in an unreasonable
manner. Choose the correct answer using C. both 1 and 2
the options given below: D. neither 1 nor 2
A. Both A and R are individually correct 248. Consider the following statements:1. A
and R is the correct explanation of A . direct democracy is one where the citi-
B. Both A and R are individually correct zens directly participate in the day-to-day
but R is Not the correct explanation of A running of the government. 2. Indian
democracy is an example of direct democ-
C. A is incorrect but R is correct racy with no exception. The correct state-
D. Both A and R are incorrect ment(s) is/are:
A. only 1
245. Consider the following statements:1.
Community Development Programme in B. only 2
1952 seeking to promote people’s partic- C. both 1 and 2
ipation in local development in a range D. neither 1 nor 2
of activities was the first step towards
democratic decentralisation. 2. Some 249. who introduced portfolio system?
States like Gujarat, Maharashtra adopted A. lord canning
the system of elected local bodies much be-
B. lord macaulay
fore than the 73rd and 74th Constitutional
Amendment Acts. The correct statement(s) C. lord Cornwallis
is/are: D. lord Bentinck
A. only 1 250. Consider the following Assertion and
B. only 2 Reason based statements:Assertion
(A):Indian Constitution makers preferred
C. both 1 and 2
Parliamentary system over Presidential
D. neither 1 nor 2 system of Government. Reason (R):The
makers of the Indian Constitution wanted
246. From which country India adopted the a government with strong executive
Idea of Fundamental Rights? branch, but enough safeguards should be
A. France there to check against the personality cult.
Choose the correct answer using the op-
B. The USA
tions given below:
C. Russia A. Both A and R are individually correct
D. Ireland and R is the correct explanation of A.
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1.1 Historical Background 33
B. Both A and R are individually correct making concerning their lives, their needs
but R is NOT the correct explanation of A. and above all their development. Choose
the correct answer using the options given
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C. A is correct but R is not correct
below:
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
A. Both A and R are individually correct
251. The largest Constitution in the world? and R is the correct explanation of A
A. Australian B. Both A and R are individually correct
B. Japanese but R is not correct explanation of A
C. Indian C. A is incorrect but R is correct
D. Canadian D. A is correct but R is incorrect
252. Consider the following statements:1. 255. lord canning‘s portfolio system was in-
The Constitution has also guaranteed the troduced in the year?
right to convert other people in one’s own
religion. 2. The Constitution only gives us A. 1858
the right to spread information about our B. 1859
religion and thus attract others to it. The
C. 1861
correct statement(s) is/are:
D. 1862
A. only 1
B. only 2 256. which act distinguished the commercial
C. both 1 and 2 and political functions of the company?
D. neither 1 nor 2 A. Pitt’s India act 1784
B. charter act 1813
253. Which of the following is/are dimen-
sion(s) of independence of judiciary? 1. C. charter act 1833
Non-interference from other branches of
D. regulating act 1773
the Government. 2. Judges be allowed to
act without fear or favour. 3. Absence of 257. Consider the following Assertion and
accountability from judiciary. Choose the Reasons based statements:Assertion
correct answer using the options given be- (A):Countries with large size and much di-
low: versity usually prefer to have two houses
A. 1 and 2 of the national legislature. Reason (R):A
B. 2 and 3 bicameral legislature makes it possible to
have every decision reconsidered. Choose
C. 1 and 3 the correct answer using the options given
D. 1, 2 and 3 below:
254. Consider the following Assertion and A. Both A and R are individually correct
Reasons based statements:Assertion and R is the correct explanation of R.
(A):Strong and vibrant local governments B. Both A and R are individually correct
ensure both active participation and pur- but R is not the correct explanation of R.
poseful accountability. Reason (R):It is
C. A is correct but R is incorrect.
at the level of local government that com-
mon citizens can be involved in decision D. Both are incorrect.
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1.1 Historical Background 34
258. Consider the following Assertion and A. The rights had been separately listed
Reasons based statements:Assertion by the Constitution itself.
(A):The central legislature can, on certain B. The Constitution itself ensures that
occasions, legislate on matters from the they are not violated by the government.
State List. Reason (R):The Constitution
clearly states that executive powers of
the Centre are superior to the executive C. both a and b
powers of the States. Choose the correct D. None of the above
answer using the options given below:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
262. Consider the following statements:1.
A. Both A and R are individually correct The importance of rights guaranteed by a
and R is the correct explanation of A Constitution was realised by the Constitu-
B. Both A and R are individually correct tional framers long ago during the freedom
but R is not correct explanation of A movement itself. 2. The Motilal Nehru
Committee had demanded a bill of rights
C. A is incorrect but R is correct
as far back as in 1928. The correct state-
D. A is correct but R is incorrect ment(s) is/are:
259. In the First Past the Post system, that A. only 1
candidate is declared winner who: B. only 2
A. Secures the largest number of postal C. both 1 and 2
ballots. D. neither 1 nor 2
B. Belongs to the party that has highest
263. The Preamble to our Constitution was in-
number of votes in the country.
spired by the Preamble to the Constitution
C. Has more votes than any other candi- of the which also starts with “We the
date in the constituency. people”.
D. Attains first position by securing more A. U.K.
than 50% votes.
B. USSR
260. implies the “We feeling” towards C. Ireland
one another which creates a feeling of Em- D. U.S.A
pathy.
264. Consider the following statements:1. An
A. Justice
amendment aiming to change the distri-
B. Liberty bution of powers between centre and
C. Fraternity states need to get secured by the con-
sent of at least half of the states. 2.
D. Equality
So far, despite the complexity of amend-
261. Which of the following best conveys the ment process, the Indian Constitution was
meaning of the term ‘fundamental’ in Fun- amended 103 times. The correct state-
damental Rights under the Indian Constitu- ment(s) is/are:
tion? (a) The rights had been separately A. only 1
listed by the Constitution itself. (b) The B. only 2
Constitution itself ensures that they are
not violated by the government. (c) Both C. both 1 and 2
(a) and (b) (d) None of the above D. neither 1 nor 2
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1.1 Historical Background 35
265. Consider the following Asser- C. both 1 and 2
tion and Reason based state- D. neither 1 nor 2
ments:Assertion(A):One of the reasons for
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having constitutions is the need to restrict 269. Who among the following allocates ranks
the exercise of power. Reason (R):Most and portfolios to the ministers in the Coun-
states are prone to harming the interests cil of Ministers?
of at least some individuals and groups. A. President
Choose the correct answer using the op-
B. Prime Minister
tions given below:
C. The Cabinet Secretary
A. Both A and R are individually correct
and R is the correct explanation of A D. Parliament
B. Both A and R are individually correct 270. Which act provided for the establishment
but R is NOT the correct explanation of A of RBI to control currency and credit of the
country?
C. A is correct but R is not correct
A. GOI Act of 1858
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
B. GOI Act of 1919
266. under which act the governor general of C. GOI Act of 1935
India changed to viceroy of India? D. Indian Independence Act of 1947
A. GOI act 1858
271. Consider the following statements:1.
B. GOI act 1919 The legislature is not involved in the pro-
C. GOI act 1935 cess of appointment of judges. 2. The
judges have a fixed tenure. Under excep-
D. Independence act 1947
tional circumstances only they can be re-
267. What was the main purpose behind bring- moved earlier than their tenure. The cor-
ing Panchayati Raj system in India? rect statement(s) is/are:
A. only 1
A. To prevent criminalization of politics.
B. only 2
B. Development of villages.
C. both 1 and 2
C. Decentralisation of the political power
to the general people. D. neither 1 nor 2
D. To reduce election expenses. 272. In which year the regulating act was
passed?
268. Consider the following statements:1. All A. 1770
amendments to the Constitution are ini-
tiated only in the Parliament. 2. To B. 1765
amend some features like the delimitation C. 1772
of boundaries of legislative assemblies, an D. 1773
outside agency-like a constitution commis-
sion or a separate body-is required for 273. Consider the following statements:1.
amending the Constitution. The correct The Rajya Sabha gives equal representa-
statement(s) is/are: tion to all the States of the country ir-
respective of their size or population. 2.
A. only 1 The number of members to be elected from
B. only 2 each State in the Rajya Sabha has been
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1.2 Making of the Constitution 36
fixed by the fourth schedule of the Consti- D. none of above
tution. The correct statement(s) is/are:
276. Consider the following statements:1. A
A. only 1
flexible Constitution is susceptible to sub-
B. only 2 version by interests group and therefore,
C. both 1 and 2 successful constitutions are always rigid.
2. Due to its greater flexibility, the Indian
D. neither 1 nor 2
Constitution has been described as ‘a liv-
274. Consider the following Assertion and ing’ document. The correct statement(s)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Reason based statements:Assertion is/are:
(A):Rajya Sabha can criticise the gov- A. only 1
ernment but cannot remove it. Reason
B. only 2
(R):The Council of Ministers is responsi-
ble to the Parliament. Choose the correct C. both 1 and 2
answer using the options given below: D. neither 1 nor 2
A. Both A and R are individually correct
and R is the correct explanation of R. 277. azad hind fauj was founded by?
B. Both A and R are individually correct A. chanhdra shekhar azad
but R is not the correct explanation of R B. bhagat singh
C. A is correct but R is incorrect C. abul kalam azad
D. Both are incorrect D. subhash chandra bose
275. Which one of the following is correct?
278. Which country has the lengthiest Consti-
A. Minto morley reforms-1919 & Mon- tution in the world?
tagu Chelmsford reforms-1909
A. United States
B. Minto morley reforms-1909 & Mon-
B. France
tagu Chelmsford reforms-1919
C. Montagu Chelmsford reforms-1909 & C. India
Minto morley reforms-1919 D. Japan
1.2 Making of the Constitution
1. Who framed the constitution of India? C. Chief Justice
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar D. Human Rights Minister
B. Constituent Assembly 3. The federal government derives its pow-
C. cabinet mission ers from the
D. Simon Commission A. President
B. PM
2. Who is the true power holder in the Par-
liamentary System of Government? C. Constitution
A. President D. Courts
B. Prime Minister 4. Which Institution of the Government is
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1.2 Making of the Constitution 37
called the “Watch dog of the Constitu- B. Dr B. R. Ambedkar
tion”? C. H. C. Mukherjee
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A. Parliament D. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Executive Head
10. Who was the constitutional advisor to the
C. Judiciary govt of India?
D. Election Commission A. S.N. Mukherjee
5. The constitution was finally adopted by B. B N Rao
constituent assembly on 26 November C. J.L. Nehru
1949 and it came into force on
D. B.P. Khailan
A. 26 January 1949
11. In which year did our Constitution come
B. 26 January 1950
into effect?
C. 26 January 1951
A. 1990
D. 26 January 1952
B. 2020
6. The second major event in the life of In- C. 1947
dian constitution has been a supreme court
D. 1950
judgement popularly known as case
A. Chandrashekhar Azad 12. The chapter on which laws can be made are
divided into
B. Keshav Nanda Bharti
A. Central list
C. Subhash Chandra Bose
B. State list
D. None
C. Concurrent list
7. The institution that drafted the Constitu-
D. All three list
tion of India was called the
A. Constituent Assembly 13. In India we have a powerful central gov-
ernment
B. National Assembly
A. no, our union government is not strong
C. Parliament
D. none of above
B. our states have absolute freedom
8. How many members were in Indian Con- C. yes, our union government is stronger
stituent Assembly? than the states
A. 929 D. none of above
B. 299 14. The of any country provides a certain
C. 392 basic structure and principles according to
D. 263 its state functions
A. Constitution
9. Who amongst the following was not a
member of the Constituent Assembly of In- B. Assembly
dia? C. Parliament
A. Dr Rajendra Prasad D. Government
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1.2 Making of the Constitution 38
15. Who is the chairman of Indian constituent 21. Who declared separate electorate as ‘ poi-
assembly? son that has entered the body politic of our
A. BR Ambedkar country’
B. Mahatma Gandhi A. B R Ambedkar
C. Jawaharlal Nehru B. J L Nehru
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad C. Raajendra prasad
D. Sarder Patel
16. Who is the mother of the Indian Constitu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion? 22. The draft constitution contains articles
A. Dakshayani Velayudhan and schedules.
B. Bhikaji Cama A. 315 & 8
C. Leela Roy B. 375 & 8
D. None of these. C. 395 & 8
D. 308 & 10
17. The cabinet mission also ensured that
members from schedule caste are repre- 23. Who is the first President of India?
sented in the assembly A. Doctor BR Ambedkar
A. 25 B. Babu Rajendra Prasad
B. 26 C. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. 27 D. Mahatma Gandhi
D. 28
24. A minor change or addition made to a doc-
18. Which article is related is to Equality Be- ument of law:
fore Law? A. Legislature
A. Article 13 B. Amendment
B. Article 14 C. Preamble
C. Article 15 D. Sovereign
D. Article 16
25. Constituent Assembly was set up in the
19. The Chairman of Drafting committee was: year:
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad A. 1947
B. Dr. B. R. Prasad B. 1946
C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar C. 1950
D. Dr. Frank D. 1956
20. The members of the constituent Assembly 26. Who was the President of the Indian Con-
were elected on the basis of stituent Assembly?
A. 1946 Provincial elections A. Motilal Nehru
B. Cabinet Mission selection B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
C. 1944 Provincial election C. Sarojini Naidu
D. Complete independence resolution D. B. R. Ambedkar
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1.2 Making of the Constitution 39
27. The Framing of Indian constitution ended B. Independence Day
on C. Gandhi Jayanti
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A. 26 Jan 1950
D. Constitution Enforcement Day
B. 26Jan 1930
33. Who prepared the Constitution for India in
C. 15 Aug 1947
1928?
D. 26 Nov 1949
A. Motilal Nehru
28. The people of India play a direct role in B. B. R. Ambedkar
electing representatives
C. Dr Rajendra Prasad
A. true
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. false
C. not really 34. What is the introduction to the Constitu-
tion called?
D. none of above
A. Articles of Confederation
29. The Fundamental Rights in our Constitu-
tion was inspired by the Constitution of B. Declaration of Independence
C. Bill of Rights
A. United States of America D. Preamble
B. Canada
35. Which Country has the largest written con-
C. United Kingdom stitution of the world?
D. Switzerland A. South Africa
30. Constitution of India was adopted by Con- B. Indian
stituent Assembly on- C. U.S.A.
A. 25 Oct 1998 D. U.K.
B. 25 Oct 1949
36. Amendments to the Contitution are done
C. 26 Nov 1948
by
D. 26 Nov 1949
A. Supreme Court
31. Supreme law of a country, containing fun- B. President
damental rules governing the politics and
society in a country. C. Parliament
A. Constitution D. State Assembly
B. Preamble 37. Which of the following amendment acts
C. Constituent Assembly amended the Preamble of the Indian con-
stitution?
D. Law
A. 44th Amendment act
32. Which of the following days is celebrated
B. 42nd Amendment act
to mark the enforcement of the Indian Con-
stitution? C. 56th Amendment act
A. Republic Day D. It has never been amended
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1.2 Making of the Constitution 40
38. It is not a basic matter to maintain unity 44. How many ‘Fundamental Duties’ are in-
in India cluded in the Constitution?
A. Single judiciary A. Nine
B. Uniformity in laws B. Ten
C. Common all India civil service
C. Eleven
D. Dual judiciary
D. Twelve
NARAYAN CHANGDER
39. The idea of Preamble was borrowed from
which country? 45. Which year is related to Berubari Case?
A. United Kingdom A. 1972
B. France B. 1960
C. Germany C. 1970
D. United States of America
D. 1976
40. A country with an elected head of state:
46. Which of the following Amendment Act
A. Socialist amended the Preamble & added words
B. Secular “Socialist” and “Secular”?
C. Republic A. 7th Amendment 1956
D. Sovereign B. 35th Amendment 1974
41. When did the Indian Constitution come into C. 42nd Amendment 1976
force?
D. 44th Amendment 1978
A. 26th November, 1949
B. 15th August, 1947 47. The first session of Constitution Assembly
was held:
C. 26th January, 1950
D. 26th January, 1930 A. From 9th December to 23rd December,
1946
42. The ‘Soul of the Constitution’ is
B. From 29th June to 9th July, 1947
A. Preamble
C. From 19th December to 31st Decem-
B. Fundamental Rights ber 1946
C. Fundamental Duties
D. From 8th December to 22nd Decem-
D. Directive Principles ber, 1946
43. Identify the fundamental right:You are
48. The parliamentary form of government is
free to travel and reside anywhere within
borrowed from:
the country.
A. British form of government
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom B. United States of America
C. Right against Exploitation C. Japanese form of government
D. Right to Constitutional remedies D. Australian form of government
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1.2 Making of the Constitution 41
49. How many articles are there in Indian con- 55. In the continent of right to equality it was
stitution at present? decided to legally put an end to the prac-
tice of
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A. 470
B. 265 A. Zamindari system
C. 520 B. Untouchability
D. 99 C. Patwari system
50. Which is the supreme law making author- D. Privy purse
ity in India
56. The first meeting of Constitution Assembly
A. President were held in
B. Parliament A. June 1946
C. Advocat General
B. July 1947
D. Supreme Court
C. July 1946
51. When was the Constitution of India came D. June 1950
into effect?
A. 26 January, 1947 57. Fundamental rights refers to
B. 26 January, 1949 A. The list of subjects of the state govern-
C. 26 January 1950 ment
D. 27 January, 1949 B. The basic rights which are granted to
citizens
52. Parliamentary System of Indian Constitu-
tion was taken from C. The list of subjects of the central gov-
ernment
A. America
D. The list of subjects of both the state
B. Russia and Central Government
C. Canada
D. Britain 58. Who among the following wanted the
term ‘Minority’ to be interpreted in the
53. Who was the first elected as the President economic term?
of the constituent Assembly? A. Jaipal Singh
A. J.L. Nehru
B. R.V. Dhulekar
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
C. N.G. Ranga
C. Baldev Singh
D. B.N. Rao
D. Maulana Azad
54. Who served as the chairman of the draft- 59. A drafting committee was set up under the
ing committee chairmanship of
A. N. G Ranga A. Dr. B. R Ambedkar
B. B.R.Ambedkar B. Radha Krishna
C. Pocker Bahadur C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. none of above D. Subhash Chandra Bose
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1.2 Making of the Constitution 42
60. The Indian Constitution came into effect on 66. Railways, Defence, Post & Telegraph
comes under which of the following?
A. 26th Nov 1950 A. Concurrent List
B. 26 Jan 1950 B. State List
C. 26 Jan 1949 C. Union List
D. 26 Nov 1949 D. Cabinet List
61. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting 67. On which date the Indian Constitution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Committee of the Constituent Assembly? came into effect
A. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad A. On 26 November 1949
B. Rajendra Prasad B. On 26 January 1950
C. Dr BR Ambedkar C. On 26 September 1949
D. Bhagat Singh D. On 26th March 1950
62. In which year did we adopt our constitu- 68. Which of the following word has not been
tion? written in the preamble of the Indian Con-
stitution?
A. 1949
A. Sovereign
B. 1950
B. Socialist
C. 1946
C. Democratic
D. 1947
D. Indians
63. Who was the chairman of the Drafting
69. Under Constitutional Article 343, which is
Committee for making the Constitution of
the official language of the Union?
India?
A. Urdu
A. Dr, Rajendra Prasad
B. Hindi
B. Baldev Singh
C. English
C. H. C. Mukherjee
D. b & c
D. Dr B. R. Ambedkar
70. Which was described by Dr. Ambedkar as
64. The draught constitution has been before the ‘Heart and Soul’ of the Constitution?
the public for
A. Right to Equality
A. 6 months
B. Right against Exploitation
B. 8 months
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
C. 11 months
D. Right to freedom of Religion
D. 10 months
71. which fundamental right safeguards Indian
65. The introduction of a constitution is: citizens from any kind of discrimination
A. Law A. Right to freedom
B. Constitution B. Right to equality
C. Amendment C. E right to get redressal
D. Preamble D. Right to education
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1.2 Making of the Constitution 43
72. When was the constitution of India 78. The constitution of India was prepared and
adopted? adopted by
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A. January 25, 1950 A. Legislative
B. February 26, 1950 B. Judiciary
C. January 26, 1950 C. Constituent assembly
D. none of above D. Executive
73. Who is known as the father of Indian Con- 79. The true interpreter of the Constitution is
stitution
A. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru A. Legislature
B. Dr BR Ambedkar B. Judiciary
C. Vijayalakshmi Pandit C. Executive
D. Sarojini Naidu D. President
74. Constitution drafting committee was ap- 80. Which day is observed as Indian Constitu-
pointed by tion Day or Samvidhan Divas?
A. British Empire A. 26th January
B. Cabinet Mission B. 26th November
C. Constituent Assembly C. 15th August
D. People of India D. 02 October
75. The constituent assembly appointed: 81. There were women members in con-
A. Designing committee stituent assembly
B. Demanding committee A. 9
C. Drafting committee B. 26
D. Departing committee C. 35
D. 11
76. What is the meaning of “social equality”
in the Indian Constitution? 82. The first elections were held in Nepal un-
A. Lack of opportunities der the constitution issued by by king
B. Lack of equality A. Narendra
C. Equal opportunities for all sections of B. Mahendra
the societies C. Koirala
D. None of the following D. None
77. What type of Government System does In- 83. The branch of a government that puts laws
dia follow? or bills into execution:
A. Presidential System A. Legislature
B. MonarchySystem B. Executive
C. Central System C. Judiciary
D. Parliamentary System D. Parliament
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1.2 Making of the Constitution 44
84. Here are some of the guiding values of the C. July 22, 1947
Constitution and their meaning. choose
D. none of above
the correct option(a) Sovereign (i) Govern-
ment will not favor any religion(b) Repub-
89. The Preamble to the Constitution was writ-
lic (ii) People have the supreme right to
ten by
make decisions(c) Fraternity (iii) Head of
the state is an elected person(d) Secular A. Kruplani
(iv) People should live like brothers and B. Vallabhai Patel
sisters
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
A. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
B. a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-ii D. Rajendra Prasad
C. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii 90. The Constitution describes India as
D. a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii A. A Union of States
85. Constitution refers to B. Unitary State
A. Verbal spoken rules and regulations C. Quazi Federal
B. Written rules and regulation which
D. Federation of States & Union Territo-
governs a country
ries
C. It is a set of rules and principles that
all persons in a country can agree upon as 91. the Indian Constitution has borrowed the
the basis of the way in which they want the ideas of Preamble from the
country to be governed
A. Italian Constitution
D. Statements of ministers
B. Canadian Constitution
86. When was the Indian constituent assembly
C. French Constitution
formed?
A. 1946 D. Constitution of USA
B. 1947 92. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
C. 1948 was
D. 1964 A. Mahatma Gandhi
87. After Independence who played the role to B. Jawaharlal Nehru
unite the princely states? C. Dr. B . R Ambedkar
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. none of above
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Sardar Vallavbhai Patel 93. The time taken to frame the Indian Consti-
tution:
D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
A. 2 years, 11 months, 17 days
88. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt
the national flag? B. 2 years, 10 months, 11 days
A. August 15, 1950 C. 3 years
B. Jan 26, 1950 D. 5 years
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1.2 Making of the Constitution 45
94. The legislature includes the state assem- 100. For the first time Indian legislature was
blies made”Bi-Cameral” under:
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A. true A. Government of India Act, 1861
B. false B. Government of India Act, 1892
C. no, it is nothing but the Parliament only C. Government of India Act, 1915
D. Government of India Act, 1919
D. none of above
101. Major changes in the constitution were
95. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly made during
was
A. 1960
A. Rajendra Prasad
B. 1970
B. S Radhakrishnan
C. 1980
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. 1990
D. BR Ambedkar
102. The Concept of Constitution originated in
96. What Constitutional Principle says “We
the People”?
A. Switzerland
A. Popular Sovereignty
B. Britain
B. Judicial Review
C. U. S. A.
C. Limited Government
D. Japan
D. Separation of Powers
103. According to the Cabinet Mission Plan,
97. The purpose of constituent assembly was:
the Constituent Assembly was to consist
A. To make a program for election of
B. To frame guidelines for education A. 285 members
C. To make voter list B. 380 members
D. To frame a constitution C. 389 members
98. Who was the chairman of the Constituent D. 490 members
Assembly
104. The Preamble doesn’t call India a ?
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
A. Sovereign
B. Dr. Rajendra Agarwal
B. Republic
C. Sardar Vallabh bhai Patel
C. Secular
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D. Communist
99. The constituent assembly was dominated
by which party? 105. The Constitution of India is:
A. Muslim League A. a) flexible
B. Congress B. (b) rigid
C. Hindu Mahasabha C. (c) partly flexible and partly rigid
D. Rashtriya Krantikari Dal D. (d) none of these
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1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution 46
106. Under Presidential form is the Head 109. The Constitution Assembly that formed
of the Executive body. the Constitution had members.
A. Prime Minister A. 300
B. Chief Minister B. 299
C. President C. 350
D. Governor D. 250
NARAYAN CHANGDER
107. Who moved the crucial ‘objective Resolu- 110. Fundamental Rights protects all citizens
tion’ from
A. J.L Nehru A. the PM
B. Sarder Patel B. the President
C. Mohd. Ali Jinnah C. the arbitrary use of power by any gov-
D. Mahatma Gandhi ernment
D. army
108. How many Schedules are contained in the
Constitution of India? 111. The Constitution of India begins with
A. 13 schedules A. We, the people of India
B. 14 schedules B. We, the Sovereign authority of India
C. 12 schedules C. We, the Republicans of India
D. 11 schedules D. We, the Socialists of India
1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution
1. The Union Council of Ministers is collec- C. Amendments
tively responsible to
D. Union of states
A. RajyaSabha
B. President 4. Which country’s constitution provides dual
citizenship?
C. House of the People
D. Prime Minister A. The USA
B. India
2. Where was the Congress session of 1931
held: C. Canada
A. Delhi D. France
B. Madras
C. Bombay 5. ‘To write on public property’ is my
D. Karachi A. fundamental duty
3. Article 368 ? B. fundamental right
A. Federal system C. ignorance of fundamental duty
B. Parliamentary system D. violation of fundamental right
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1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution 47
6. Feature that not borrowed from American 12. When the Vice President officiates as Pres-
Constitution? ident he draws the salary of
A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
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A. Fundamental Rights
B. Judicial Review B. President
C. Impeachment of President C. Member of Parliament
D. Procedure established by law D. All the above
7. Which of the following is not a fundamen- 13. How many volumes do the printed “Con-
tal Rights. stituent Assembly Debates” have?
A. Right to Constitutional Remedies A. Four
B. Right Against Exploitation B. Twelve
C. Right to Titles C. Seventeen
D. Right to Equality D. Nine
8. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to 14. The power to decide an election petition is
vested in the
A. Legislative Assembly A. High Court
B. Rajya Sabha B. Election Commission
C. Parliament
C. Prime Minister
D. Supreme Court
D. Governor
15. What is EVM?
9. Who among these were a bitter critic of
Mahatma Gandhi? A. Electronic Voting Machine
A. Sarojini Naidu B. Machine Containing the names of Vot-
ers
B. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Elected Voting Member
C. Dr Rajendra Prasad
D. Election Voting Machine
D. B.R.Ambedkar
16. Who, among the following, has the final
10. The President of India can be removed right to sanction the expenditure of public
from his office by the money in India?
A. Parliament A. Speaker
B. Chief Justice of India B. President
C. Prime Minister C. PrimeMinister
D. Lok Sabha D. Parliament
11. The correct phrase that explains ‘funda- 17. Which are the three organs of the govern-
mental rights’ ment?
A. basic freedom A. Legislature
B. basic human rights B. Judiciary
C. expensive human rights C. Executive
D. seven-fold rights D. All of the above
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1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution 48
18. Part III of the constitution deals with B. The governors of state are elected by
what? president
A. citizenship C. There is distribution of power between
B. union government union and state
C. fundamental duties D. There is both nominal and real execu-
tive
D. fundamental rights
24. The idea of ’concurrent list’ in the Indian
NARAYAN CHANGDER
19. Which of the following sentences is wrong constitution is taken from the Constitution
about Dr B.R. Ambedkar? of ?
A. He was the founder of the Republican A. Ireland
Party of India.
B. Canada
B. He was the Chairman of the Drafting
Committee. C. Australia
C. He was law minister in post- D. Japan
independence India.
25. ‘conditions essential for all-round develop-
D. He was born in Maharashtra. ment of a human being’ are called
20. When was the first meeting of the Con- A. fundamental rights
stituent Assembly held? B. fundamental duties
A. July 1946 C. basic humanity
B. December 1946 D. Right to Education
C. January 1950
26. Which amendment reduced the voting age
D. July 1946 in India from 21 to 18?
21. Which principle split the power of the gov- A. 63rd
ernment into three branches? B. 71st
A. Self-government C. 61st
B. Republicanism D. 73rd
C. Separation of Powers
27. Which country’s constitution allows for
D. Limited government temporary suspension of the fundamental
rights during emergency?
22. Which one of the following is not a key
feature of the Indian Constitution A. Weimar
A. separation of power B. Australia
B. Secularism C. Vietnam
C. Presidential form of government D. Mongolia
D. Federalism 28. The constitution of Indian was signed on
23. The constitution of India is Federal in char-
acter because:? A. 26th January, 1950
A. The head of the state is elected B. 26th November, 1949
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1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution 49
C. 24th January, 1950 34. What is the most remarkable feature of
the Indian constitution?
D. 14th November, 1949
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A. Federal government
29. The Chairman of the Planning Commission B. Secularism
in India is the
C. Equality
A. President
D. none of above
B. Minister of Planning
35. Which among the following case is related
C. Finance Minister
to the theory of basic structure of consti-
D. Prime Minister tution as propounded by Supreme court?
A. Shankari Prasad Case (1951)
30. How many years did Rajendra prasad was
a president? B. Golaknath case (1967)
A. 1950-1962 C. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
B. 1951-1946 D. Minerva Mills case (1980)
C. 1949-1960 36. When a State Governor dies or resigns,
who normally exercises his functions till a
D. 1952-1959
new Governor is appointed?
31. How many times the President of India can A. Advocate General of the State
seek re-election to his post? B. Secretary General of the Governor
A. Once C. Chief Justice of the High Court
B. Any number of times D. A person designated by State Cabinet
C. 2 times 37. The constitution begins with a short state-
D. 3 times ment of its basic values. This is called the
of the constitution
32. Decides what a law means A. Preamble,
A. Executive Branch B. Constitution
B. Legislative Branch C. Democracy
C. Judicial Branch D. None of them
D. none of above 38. What are General Election?
33. The total number of members nominated A. The election which are held in all the
by the President to the LokSabha and the constituencies
RajyaSabha is B. The elections which are held in some
A. 12 states
C. The elections which held in one con-
B. 18
stituency
C. 14
D. The elections which are held due to the
D. 16 death of member of Lok Sabha
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1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution 50
39. The five year term of the President is cal- A. Socialist-Industry is responsible to re-
culated from the duce socio-economic inequality.
A. Day he assumescharge B. Justice-The rights of disadvantaged
B. First day of the month following the groups of citizens must be safeguarded by
month he assumes charge the Government.
C. First day of the month he assumes C. Democratic-A form of government in
charge which people enjoy political rights based
on their merits or demerits.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Date of his election result
D. Fraternity-No one should treat anyone
40. The power and independence of Election else, or be treated, as an inferior.
Commission(EC) of India is equivalent to
which one of the following? 45. For what period does the Vice President of
A. Governor India hold office?
B. Assistant Commissioner of Police A. Till the age of 65 years
C. Judiciary B. 5years
D. National Human Rights Commission C. 2 years
41. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC? D. 6years
A. President 46. Which among the following feature is not
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha adopted from Australian Constitution?
C. Chief Justice of India A. 2 houses of parliament
D. Prime Minister B. concurrent list
42. Prof. K C Wheare said that our constitu- C. freedom of trade
tion is at most: D. dpsp
A. Federal Structure
47. Who among the following has the Consti-
B. Quasi federal tutional authority to make rules and reg-
C. Weak Federation ulations fixing the number of members of
D. Strong Federation the UPSC?
A. President
43. What is Universal Adult Franchise?
B. Vice-President
A. Single Citizenship conferred upon In-
dian Citizen C. Home Ministry
B. Having only on e Adhar Card D. Cabinet Secretary
C. Any citizen above 18 years of age can 48. What is the minimum age for appointment
vote irrespective of caste creed religion as a Governor?
D. All of the above
A. 40years
44. The following pairs denote terms in B. 35years
the Indian Preamble and their fea-
ture/definition. Identify the incorrect C. 30 years
pair. D. 25years
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1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution 51
49. Which of the following terms is used for 54. Which of the following is a fundamental
the areas when our country is divided into right?
different areas for purposes of elections?
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A. Right to Exploitation
A. Panchayats B. Right against Equality
B. Wards C. Right of Justice
C. Blocks D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
D. Constituencies 55. Enforces the laws
50. Which of the following appointments is not A. Executive Branch
made by the President of India? B. Legislative Branch
A. Speaker of the LokSabha C. Judicial Branch
B. Chief of the AirForce D. none of above
C. Chief Justice of India 56. Right to work in India is what?
D. Chief of the Army A. fundamental right
51. Desire to pursue one’s profession of choice B. directive principle
is protected by the Constitution using the C. statutory right
following fundamental right
D. constitutional duty
A. Right of Education
57. Who has the real executive power in In-
B. Right against exploitation dia?
C. Right to Freedom A. The Prime minister
D. Right to Equality B. The president
52. When we’re the elections for provinsial C. The Chief minister
legislatures and ministries all over British D. none of above
india held?
58. A proclamation of emergency issued under
A. 1937 Article 36 must be approved by the Parlia-
B. 1934 ment within
C. 1946. A. 6 weeks
D. 1923 B. 1 Month
C. 2 months
53. Which is not a feature of parliamentary
form of government in India are D. 3months
A. Majority party rule 59. what was added to the preamble of the
constitution?
B. Presence of nominal and real execu-
tive A. secularism
C. Collective responsibility of legislature B. fraternity
to the executive C. socialism
D. dissolution of lower house D. united nation
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1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution 52
60. Fundamental rights are incorporated in C. 6 years
Part of Indian Constitution. D. 10 years
A. Part IV
66. Most countries (and democracies) have a
B. Part VI
Preamble at the beginning of their Consti-
C. Part II tution. This version of a Constitution is
D. Part III according to which country’s model?
A. U.S.A
NARAYAN CHANGDER
61. The first woman Governor of a state in
free India was B. India
A. Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit C. UK
B. Mrs. Sarojini Naidu D. South Africa
C. Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani 67. The Election commission holds election for
D. Mrs. Indira Gandhi
A. The parliament, State legislative As-
62. Who appoints the Prime Minister of In-
semblies and the State Council
dia?
B. The Parliament
A. Citizens of India
C. The parliament and the State Legisla-
B. LokSabha
tive Assemblies
C. Parliament
D. The Parliament, State Legislature and
D. President the posts of the president and theVice-
President
63. Right that protects secular nature of the
Indian State. 68. What is the position of a Minister of State
A. Right to Equality in the Central Government?
B. Right to Freedom A. He is the nominee of the State Cabinet.
C. Right to Freedom of Religion
B. He is the nominee of the State Gover-
D. Right against Exploitation
nor.
64. Constitution of India has been framed af- C. He looks after the interests of the
ter ransacking all the known constitutions State Cabinet.
of the world
D. He is a Minister of Central Government
A. B R Ambedkar but not a member of the Cabinet
B. K C Wheare
69. Which articles of the Indian Constitution
C. Morris Jhones give concrete shape to the concept of se-
D. Rajendra Prasad cualrism?
A. Article 35-38
65. In India, Vidhan Sabha and Lok Sabha elec-
tions are conducted after every B. Article 26-29
A. 5 years C. Article 25-28
B. 5 months D. Article 107-111
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1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution 53
70. How many members had the Constituent C. Africa
Assembly that wrote the Indian Constitu-
D. US
tion?
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A. 199 76. Which is a factor that contributed to the
B. 299 elephantine size of the Indian constitu-
tion?
C. 198
A. Geographical Factors, eg, vastness
D. 245
and diversity
71. Suspension of fundamental rights during B. Historical Factor that Pazhassi Raja
emergency was borrowed from which con- was defeated by Britishers
stitution?
C. dual constitution
A. South Africa
D. Dominance of political lumanaries
B. French
C. Germany 77. What does the Judicial Branch do?
D. Japan A. Congress-it makes the laws
72. Who was the first Prime Minister of In- B. The President-carries out the laws
dia? C. Supreme Court it interprets the laws
A. Mahatma Gandhi D. none of above
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Mrs. Indira Gandhi 78. describes India as a union of states?
D. Jawaharlal Nehru A. Article 4
B. Article 3
73. The number of basic freedoms guaranteed
by the Constitution. C. Article 2
A. 3 D. Article 1
B. 6
79. What is not taken from British Constitu-
C. 7 tion in the Constitution of India?
D. 4 A. Parliamentary rule
74. The Chief Election commissioner is ap- B. Single citizenship
pointed by whom among the following?
C. Fundamental Rights
A. Lok Sabha Speaker
D. Cabinet System
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The President of India 80. The Mid-Term Elections are held when
D. The vice-President of India A. The Lok Sabha dissolves
75. election of members of rajya sabha was B. A seat of member falls vacant
adopted from? C. The Lok Sabha dissolves after expiry of
A. Australia its normal term
B. CANADA D. none of above
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1.3 Salient Features of the Constitution 54
81. In Nepal, by 2005, king Gyanendra C. Secular
took over as the head of the government. D. Religion
A. February
86. According to which Act were the elections
B. March held to provincial legislatures in India in
C. April 1937?
D. November A. Government of India Act, 1909
B. Government of India Act, 1919
NARAYAN CHANGDER
82. Which one of the following is not cor-
rect about Parliamentary form of Govern- C. Government of India Act, 1935
ment? D. None of the above
A. The head of the state can dissolve the
lower house of the legislature 87. The President’s Rule in a state means that
the state is ruled by
B. The executive is a part of legislature
A. A caretaker government
C. The executive is responsible to the leg-
islature B. The Governor of the State
D. All the ministers are the members of C. The President directly
lower house / lok sabha D. The Chief Minister nominated by the
President
83. What are directive principles of state pol-
icy? 88. The Chairman and members of State Public
A. basic rights given to every citizen of In- Service Commission are appointed by the
dia
B. guidelines to be followed by the gov- A. President
ernment in the governance B. Prime Minister
C. state ensuring maximum happiness C. Chairman, UPSC
for maximum number of people living
D. Governor
within its state
D. goals of the Indian Government 89. What makes an election democratic?
84. Minimum age required to contest for Pres- A. Right to choose
identship is B. Freedom of choice
A. 23 years C. Free and Fair Elections
B. 21 years D. All of the above
C. 35 years 90. ‘To cherish and follow the noble ideals
D. 30 years which inspired our national struggle for
freedom’ is our
85. Which of the following terms is not in-
cluded in the Preamble to the Indian Con- A. basic freedom
stitution? B. fundamental duty
A. Liberty C. fundamental right
B. Equality D. Education and and Cultural rights
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1.4 Constitutional developement 55
91. Which of the following is not a member of A. The Vice-President
the constituent assembly?
B. The President
A. Dr. H.C. Mukherjee
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C. The Prime minister
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar D. none of above
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 94. ‘Satyagraha’ is an example of the follow-
92. ‘A 13 year old child not receiving educa- ing basic freedom:
tion.’ is a violation of the following right: A. Freedom to practise any profession
A. Right against Exploitation
B. freedom to form associations and
B. Educational and Cultural rights unions
C. Right to Education C. freedom to assemble peacefully with-
D. Right to Equality out arms
93. Who is the constitutional head of the D. freedom to move freely throughout In-
state? dia
1.4 Constitutional developement
1. Which one of the following statements is 4. Expansion and reconstitution of Cen-
correct? [IAS 2004] tral and Provincial Legislatures.
A. The Constituent Assembly of India was A. 1, 2 and 3
elected by the Provincial Assemblies in B. 1, 2 and 4
the year 1946
C. 2, 3 and 4
B. Jawaharlal Nehru; M.A. Jinnah and D. 1, 3 and 4
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members
of the Constituent Assembly of India 3. The first attempt at introducing a represen-
tative and popular element in administra-
C. The First Session of the Constituent As-
tion was made by:
sembly of India was held in January, 1947
A. Indian Councils Act, 1900
D. The Constitution of India was adopted B. Indian Councils Act, 1909
on 26th January, 1950 C. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Indian Councils Act, 1919
2. Which of the following are the princi-
pal features of Government of India Act, 4. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Sta-
1919? tus Constitution for India was made in re-
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the exec- sponse to the [CDS 2011]
utive government of the provinces. A. Minto-Morley Reforms
2. Introduction of separate communal B. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority C. Simon Commission
by the Centre to the Provinces. D. First Round Table Conference
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1.4 Constitutional developement 56
5. Who among the following was not a mem- 10. The Constitution of India was adopted by
ber of the Constituent Assembly estab- the: [Teachers’ Exam 1994]
lished in July 1946? [UTI 1993] A. Governor General
A. Vallabhbhai Patel B. British Parliament
B. Mahatma Gandhi C. Constituent Assembly
C. K.M. Munshi D. Parliament of India
D. J.B. Kripalani 11. The Indian Constitution establishes a secu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lar state, meaning:
6. The amendment procedure laid down in the
Constitution of India is on the pattern of? I) the State treats all religions equally.
II) freedom of faith and worship is al-
A. Government of India Act, 1935 lowed to all the people.
B. Government of India Act, 1947 III) educational institutions, without ex-
ception, are free to impart religious
C. Constitution of South Africa instruction.
D. Constitution of UK IV) the State makes no discrimination
on the basis of religion in matters
7. Who among the following was not a mem- of employment.
ber of the Constituent Assembly? [CDS A. I and II
2009]
B. I, II and III
A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
C. II, III and IV
B. Acharya J.B. Kriplani D. I, II and IV
C. Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan
12. Which of the following items is wrongly
D. K.M. Munshi matched?
A. December 9, 1947-Constituent As-
8. Who among the following was the Chair-
semby’s first meeting
man of the Union Constitution Committee
of the Constituent Assembly? [IAS 2005] B. November 26, 1949-the people of In-
dia adopted, enacted and gave to them-
A. B.R. Ambedkar selves the Constitution
B. J.B. Kripalani C. January 24, ’ 1950-the Constitution
C. Jawaharlal Nehru was finally signed by the members of the
Constituent Assembly
D. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
D. January 26, 1950-the date of com-
9. The most profound influence on the draft- mencement of the Constitution
ing of the Indian Constitution was exer-
13. The Crown took the Government of India
cised by the
into its own hands by:
A. U.S. Constitution A. Charter Act, 1833
B. British Constitution B. Government of India Act, 1858
C. Government of India Act, 1935 C. Indian Council Act, 1861
D. French ideals of Liberty and Fraternity D. Government of India Act, 1935
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1.4 Constitutional developement 57
14. The Constitution of India divided the states 17. The Constitution of India was promulgated
of India in categories A. B. C. and D in on January 26, 1950 because:
the year 1950. In this context which of
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A. this day was being celebrated as the
the following statements is correct? [CDS
Independence Day since 1929
2011]
B. it was the wish of the framers of the
A. The Chief Commissioner was the exec-
Constitution
utive head of category A states. The Ra-
jpramukh was the executive head of cate- C. the British did not want to leave India
gory B states. The Governor was the ex- earlier than this date
ecutive head of categories C and D states. D. it was an auspicious day
B. The Pajpramukh was the executive 18. India became a Sovereign, democratic re-
head of category A states. The Chief public on:
Commissioner was the executive head of A. Aug 15, 1947
categories Band C states. The Governor
was the executive head of the category D B. Jan 30, 1948
states. C. Jan 26, 1950
C. The Governor was the executive head D. Nov 26, 1929
of category A states. The Rajpramukh was
the executive head of category B states. 19. Which of the following proved to be the
The Chief Commissioner was the execu- most short lived of all the British constitu-
tive head of categories C and D states. tional experiments in India?
D. The Governor was the executive head A. Government of India Act, 1919
of category A states. The Chief Commis-
B. Indian Council Act, 1909
sioner was the executive head of category
B states. The Rajpramukh was the execu- C. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
tive head of categories C and D states. D. Government of India Act, 1935
15. The demand for the Constituent Assembly 20. Which one of the following made the In-
was put forward by the Indian National dian Legislature bicameral:
Congress in 1936 at its session held at:
A. Indian Councils Act, 1909
A. Kanpur
B. Government of India Act, 1919
B. Bombay
C. Government of India Act, 1935
C. Lucknow
D. Lahore D. Indian Independence Act, 1947
16. Which of the following Acts gave represen- 21. Who among the following was the Chair-
tation to Indians for the first time in the man of the Drafting Committee of the In-
Legislature? dian Constitution? [CDS 1992]
A. Indian Councils Act, 1909 A. Rajendra Prasad
B. Indian Councils Act, 1919 B. Tej Bahadur Sapru
C. Government of India Act, 1935 C. C. Rajagopalachari
D. None of the above D. B. R. Ambedkar
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1.4 Constitutional developement 58
22. Who proposed the Preamble before the 27. Which one among the following is a funda-
Drafting Committee of the Constitution? mental duty of citizens under the Constitu-
[UDC 1994] tion of India? [CDS 2012]
A. Jawaharlal Nehru A. To provide friendly cooperation to the
B. B.R. Ambedkar people of the neighbouring countries
C. B.N. Rao B. To protect monuments of national im-
portance
D. Mahatma Gandhi
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. To defend the country and render na-
23. Which of the following was not one of tional service when called upon to do so
the features of Government of India Act,
1935? D. To know more and more about the his-
A. Provincial autonomy tory of India
B. Dyarchy of centre 28. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested
C. Bicameral Legislature the residuary power in the:
D. All India federation A. British Parliament
B. Federal Legislature
24. Who was the first Foreign Minister of free
India? [NDA 2008] C. State Legislature
A. Jawaharlal Nehru D. Governor-General
B. Gulzari Lal Nanda 29. The Constitution of India was enacted by
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri a Constituent Assembly set up:
D. John Mathai A. under the Indian Independence Act,
1947
25. Consider the following statements. The In-
B. under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
dian Constitution is:
1. unwritten Constitution. C. through a resolution of the provisional
2. written Constitution. government
3. largely based on Government of In- D. by the Indian National Congress
dia Act, 1935.
30. How long did the Constituent Assembly
A. 2 and 1 are correct take to finally pass the Constitution?
B. 2 and 3 are correct A. about 6 months in 1949
C. 1 and 2 are correct B. exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948
D. 1 and 3 are correct C. about 2 years since Aug 15, 1947
26. Who among the following is known as the D. about 3 years since Dec 9, 1946
Father of the Indian Constitution?
31. When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar England, announce the transfer of power
B. Mahatma Gandhi to the Indians?
C. Jawaharlal Nehru A. February, 1947
D. Vallabhbhai PateI B. August, 1947
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1.4 Constitutional developement 59
C. June, 1948 C. 319
D. June, 1949 D. 331
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32. What was the main stipulation of Govern- 37. Under whom among the following was the
ment of India Act, 1935? first draft of the Constitution of India pre-
A. A federation was suggested pared in October 1947 by the advisory
branch of the office of the Constituent As-
B. Unitary form of government was rec- sembly? [IAS 2006]
ommended
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Complete independence guaranteed
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Dyarchy was made applicable at
C. K.M. Munshi
provincial level
D. B.N. Rau
33. The idea of the Constitution of India was
first of all given by: 38. Who among the following was the Consti-
tutional adviser to the Constituent Assem-
A. Mahatma Gandhi
bly of India? [CDS 1995]
B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
A. Dr. B.N. Rao
C. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D. M.N. Roy C. K.M. Munshi
34. The nationalist demand for a Constituent D. M.C. Setalvad
Assembly was for the first time conceded
by the British Government, though indi- 39. The Constituent Assembly for undivided In-
rectly and with reservations in the: dia first met on
A. Cripps proposals A. 6th December, 1946
B. August Offer B. 9th December, 1946
C. 20th February, 1947
C. Cabinet Mission Plan
D. 3rd June, 1947
D. Act of 1935
40. The office of Governor General of India
35. Which one of the following Acts formally
was created by: [Asstt Grade 1991]
introduced the principles of elections for
the first time? A. Charter Act, 1813
A. Indian Councils Act, 1909 B. Charter Act, 1833
B. Government of India Act, 1919 C. Government of India Act, 1858
C. Government of India Act, 1935 D. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947 41. Which of the following features do not con-
tribute to making the Indian Constitution
36. When the Constituent Assembly for the the bulkiest in the world?
Dominion of India reassembled on 31 st
October, 1947, its reduced membership I) Various types of emergencies are
was: considered in detail.
II) It codifies the rights and privileges
A. 299 of the members of Parliament and
B. 311 State Legislatures.
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1.4 Constitutional developement 60
III) It enumerates all types of Indian cit- 45. The first session of the Constituent Assem-
izenship and how it can be termi- bly was held in:
nated. A. Bombay
IV) It contains not only a list of funda-
B. Calcutta
mental rights but also the restric-
tions to be placed on them. C. Lahore
A. I and II D. New Delhi
B. I and IV 46. The members of the Constituent Assembly
NARAYAN CHANGDER
were:
C. II and III
A. elected by Provincial Assemblies
D. II, III and IV
B. elected directly by people
42. Which of the following statements regard- C. nominated by the government
ing the’ Constituent Assembly are true? D. only representatives of the princely
[IAS 1993] States
1. It was not based on Adult Franchise. 47. The design of the National Flag was
2. It resulted from direct elections. adopted by the Constitutent Assembly of
3. It was a multi-party body. India in:
4. It worked through several Commit-
tees. A. July, 1948
B. July, 1950
A. 1 and 2
C. July, 1947
B. 2 and 3
D. August, 1947
C. 3 and 4
48. Who presided over the inaugural meeting
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Constituent Assembly of India?
43. Which of the following is correct regarding A. Sachidananda Sinha
the Indian Constitution? B. B. R. Ambedkar
A. It is completely based on British Con- C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
stitution D. P. Upendra
B. It is made only on the basis of Govern- 49. Who was the President of the Constituent
ment of India Act, 1935 Assembly?
C. It is a mixture of several Constitutions A. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D. It is original C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
44. The Cabinet Mission to India was headed D. C. Rajagopalachari
by: [Asstt Grade 1992] 50. Which among the following is/are the fea-
A. Stafford Cripps ture (s) of a Federal State? [NDA 2008]
B. A.V. Alexander 1. The powers of the Central and
the State (Constituent Unit) Govern-
C. Lord Pethick Lawrence
ments are clearly laid down
D. Hugh Gaitskell 2. It has an unwritten Constitution.
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1.4 Constitutional developement 61
Select the correct answer using the codes A. July 22, 1947 1. Adoption of Na-
given below tional Song by the
Constituent Assem-
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A. 1 only
bly
B. 2 only B. January 24, 1950 2. Adoption of
C. Both 1 and 2 National Emblem by
the Government
D. Neither 1 nor 2 C. January 26, 1950 3. Adoption of Na-
tional Calendar by
51. Which of the following statements is/are the Government
not correct about the Objectives Resolu-
D. March 22, 1957 4. Adoption of Na-
tion?
tional Flag by the
I) It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru Constituent Assem-
in the Constituent Assembly. bly
II) It called for just rights for minori-
ties.
III) It formed the basis for the chapter A. A − 1, B − 2,C − 3, D − 4
on Fundamental Rights. B. A − 4, B − 2,C − 1, D − 3
IV) It called for the establishment of a C. A − 4, B − 1,C − 3, D − 2
socialist and secular polity.
D. A − 4, B − 1,C − 2, D − 3
A. I and II
55. The Constituent Assembly arrived at deci-
B. I, II and III
sions on the various provisions of the Con-
C. III and IV stitution:
D. Only III A. by a majority vote
B. by a two-thirds majority
52. The Constituent Assembly which framed
the Constitution for Independent India was C. by consensus
set up in: D. unanimously
A. 1945 56. Which of the following is/are correctly
B. 1946 matched?
C. 1947 I) India’s National Song-Vande
Mataram
D. 1949 II) India s National Flower-Rose
III) India’s National Animal-Tiger
53. Which one of the following aimed at pro-
IV) India’s National Bird-Eagle
viding a federal structure for India?
A. I and IV
A. Indian Council Act, 1909
B. I, II and III
B. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act,
1919 C. II, III and IV
C. Charter Act, 1831 D. I and III
D. Government of India Act, 1935 57. Which of the following provisions of the
Constitution came into force from Novem-
54. Match the following: ber 26, 1949?
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1.5 Preamble of the Constitution 62
I) Provisions relating to citizenship. A. I and II
II) Provisions relating to elections. B. I, III and IV
III) Provisions relating to provisional
Parliament. C. I, II and III
IV) Fundamental Rights. D. None of the above.
1.5 Preamble of the Constitution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. how many articles, schedules and parts 5. By which amendment was socialism added
are there to the constitution and preamble?
A. 370, 45, 87 A. 45 amendment of 1950
B. 375, 22, 12 B. 40 amendment of 1970
C. 395, 12, 22 C. 42 amendment of 1976
D. 46 amendment of 1949
D. not specified
6. Which of the following statements is not
2. Which is the correct sequence of the fol- true?
lowing words in the preamble of the con-
stitution? A. The date of implementation of the In-
dian Constitution is November 26, 1949
A. Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Sec-
B. The “Secular” word was added by the
ular, Republic
42nd Constitution Amendment
B. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Demo- C. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment
cratic, Republic was done in 1976
C. Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Sec- D. Social, Economic and political justice
ular, Republic has been taken from the Russian Revolu-
D. None of these tion in the Indian Constitution
7. The chairman of the Constituent Assembly
3. When was the final draft of the Constitu-
of India was
tion of India.
A. Maulana Azad
A. 26 November 1949
B. Sarojini Naidu
B. 28 December 1961
C. Dr Rajendra Prasad
C. 1 January 2020
D. B. R. Ambedkar/
D. 13 Febraury 2010
8. which of these are not characteristics of
4. The people of India elect their own govern- secularism
ment because India is a country. A. Upholding international peace and se-
A. republic curity.
B. Equal status to all religion.
B. safest
C. Discrimination on the basis of reli-
C. democratic
gion isneither allowed nor followed by the
D. free state
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1.5 Preamble of the Constitution 63
D. Freedom of faith, worship and belief 14. what is not the preamble?
isallowed to all. A. a reflection of the vision of the consti-
tution
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9. The Constitution of India was framed by
the B. introductory note of the constitution
C. soul of the constitution
A. Constituent Assembly
D. the constitution
B. Republic Assembly
C. Secular Assembly 15. What does it mean by existence of two or
moretiers of government?
D. Socialist Assembly
A. federalism
10. who is the chairman of the drafting com- B. subject list
mitee C. sovereignty
A. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar D. seperation of power
B. Dr.Rajendra Prasad 16. Which of this is not a rule of the law?
C. gandhi A. No one is above the Law.
D. none of above B. human rights and welfare of the peo-
ple must be valued
11. A democracy can work only if there is a C. People holding power should be
spirit of among the different sections guided by law
of society.
D. Constitution legitimizes a law
A. jealousy
17. India adopted federalism concept from
B. brotherhood
A. Canada
C. competition
B. US
D. friendship C. British
12. Why is India a republic nation? D. Russia
A. Republic day is celebrated 18. Three organs of the government:
B. Elected head called Prime Minister is A. central, state, local government
chosen B. The Legislature, the executive and
C. Elected head called President is cho- theJudiciary.
sen C. The Union List, State List andConcur-
rent List.
D. All of the above
D. none of above
13. India won freedom from rule on 15 Au-
19. what is not the key values of the pream-
gust 1947.
ble
A. British
A. justice
B. French B. liberty
C. Portuguese C. equality
D. Spain D. socialism
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1.5 Preamble of the Constitution 64
20. when was the first meeting? 25. The source of the Indian Constitution is
A. 9 December 1987 A. the democracy
B. 26 november 1949 B. the President
C. 26 january 1950 C. the Prime Minister
D. 9 December 1946 D. the people of India.
21. Who among the following was not a mem- 26. The Indian Constitution divides the powers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ber of the Drafting Committee of the In- of theunion and the state government on
dian Constitution? the basis ofthree lists-
A. KM Munshi A. The Union List, State List andconjoined
list
B. b) DP Khaitan
B. The Union List, State List andpachyati
C. c) Rajendra Prasad raj list
D. d) N Madhava Rao C. The Union List, State List andConcur-
rent List.
22. India adopted a parliamentary form ofgov-
ernment from D. The Union List, State List local list
A. canada 27. Which statement is not correct in the case
B. British of “Sovereign India”?
C. US A. India is not dependent on any country
D. Australia B. India is not a colony of any other coun-
try
23. Which of the following is not a preamble? C. India can give any part of its country
A. a reflection of the vision of the consti- to any other country
tution D. India is obliged to obey the UN in its
B. introductory note of the constitution internal affairs
C. soul of the constitution 28. India adopted a parliamentary form ofgov-
D. an exam paper ernment from
A. canada
24. In 1928, the All Parties Conference chaired
by Jawaharlal Nehru and other Congress B. British
leaders drafted a constitution for India. C. US
This was popularly known as Nehru’s re- D. Australia
port. Muslim league leaders rejected the
proposals made in the report Which of the 29. The constitution of India derives its ulti-
statements given above is/are correct? mate authority from ?
A. 1 only A. Supreme court of india
B. 2 only B. goverment of india
C. both 1 and 2 C. people of india
D. none D. constituent assembly of india
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1.5 Preamble of the Constitution 65
30. The Preamble was written By B. Special importance to a religion re-
A. Dr. B R Ambedkar lated to minorities
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B. The People of India C. One religion is promoted by the gov-
ernment
C. The Constitution Drafting Committee
D. None of the following
D. The people of China
31. what is constitution? 36. which of this is not rule of law
A. A Supreme Law that establishes, orga- A. No one is above the Law.
nizes and empowers thegovernment.
B. human rights and welfare of the peo-
B. an introductory to the constitution ple must be valued
C. rules and regulation C. People holding power should be
D. none of above guided by law
32. The first meeting of the Constituent As- D. Constitution legitimizes a law
sembly was held.
37. The Preamble is Important Because
A. 1946
A. It tells us what the constitution is
B. 1948
about
C. 1947
B. None of the Aboove
D. 1950
C. It tells us about the right and Duties of
33. Which of the following in the Indian Con- Indian Citizens
stitution highlights the secular character of
D. It talks about the basic ethos of the
the Indian State? 1 Preamble2 Fundamen-
constitution.
tal Rights 3 Schedule VII of the Indian Con-
stitution4 Directive Principles of State Pol-
icy Select the correct answer code: 38. What is Liberty
A. 1 and 2 A. Assuring the dignity of an Individual
B. 2 and 3 B. Thought, Expression, Belief, faith and
workship
C. 1 2 4 only
D. all C. Secular
D. Sovereign
34. when was the first meeting held?
A. 9 December 1987 39. The language of Preamble” of the Indian
B. 26 november 1949 constitution is taken from the constitution
of
C. 26 january 1950
A. america
D. 9 December 1946
B. australia
35. What is the true meaning of “Secular”?
C. canada
A. All religions are equal in the eyes of the
government D. jalandhar
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1.5 Preamble of the Constitution 66
40. Which of the following features of the 44. Justice
Indian Constitution is borrowed from the A. Social, Economic and Political
USA? 1 Judicial review2 Concept of “pro-
cedure established by Law” 3 Advisory ju- B. Social, status and Faith
risdiction of the Supreme Court4 Removal C. Economic, Belief and unity
of Supreme Court and High Court Judges
D. expression, opportunity and Thought
Select the correct answer code:
A. 1 and 3 45. In India no form of discrimination allowed.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
This is which value?
B. 1 and 4
A. Justice
C. 3 and 4
B. Equality
D. none
C. Secular
41. What is Democracy D. option 1 and 2 both
A. Democracy means Faith 46. India became independent.
B. Democracy is a system of government A. 1950
B. 1946
C. Democracy is a constitution
C. 1947
D. Democracy means monarchy
D. 1945
42. what means existence of two or moretiers
47. The Constitution of India was passed.
of government
A. 1949
A. federalism
B. 1948
B. subject list
C. 1945
C. sovereignty
D. 1940
D. seperation of power
48. What is a preamble
43. With reference to the Constituent Assem- A. A Preamble is an introduction to a doc-
bly, consider the following statements:1 ument
The Constituent Assembly was constituted
under the scheme formulated by the Cab- B. A preamble is an other name of Consti-
inet Mission Plan. 2 The total strength tution
of the Constituent Assembly was 398. C. A preamble means India
3 Representatives of the princely states
D. A preamble is also known as Justice
were nominated by the British Viceroy.
Which of the given statements is/are cor- 49. The President of India has a fixed term of
rect? years.
A. 1 only A. 5
B. 2 only B. 4
C. 3 only C. 6
D. all D. 3
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1.6 Preamble resource 67
50. The Constitution of India was amended. A. president only
A. 1950 B. prime minster only
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B. 1978 C. president and prime minister
C. 1985 D. Prime Minister and his Cabinet, all of
D. 1976 whomare members of the legislature.
51. state does not have an official reli- 54. A Secular State is a state which
gion.
A. Does not discriminate on grounds of
A. democratic
religion
B. secular
B. Does discriminate on the basis of their
C. socialist culture
D. republic C. Treats all citizens equally
52. The Preamble tells us about the of the D. All of the Above
Constitution.
A. origin 55. India became a sovereign, democratic re-
public.
B. source
C. spring A. 1948
D. history B. 1950
C. 1946
53. The real power in such a system rests with
the D. 1947
1.6 Preamble resource
1. Which of the following is a feature com- 3. Which Constitution has inspired the Indian
mon to both the Indian Federation and the concepts of rule of law, parliamentary sys-
American Federation? [IAS 1993] tem and law-making procedure?
A. A single citizenship A. US Constitution
B. Dual Judiciary B. British Constitution
C. Three lists in the Constitution C. Canadian Constitution
D. A Federal Supreme Court to interpret D. All of the above
the Constitution
4. The word ’Socialist’ was added to the
2. Which one of the following statements re- Preamble, its main aim is to:
garding the Preamble is correct?
A. eliminate inequality in economic and
A. It is not enforceable in a court of law political status
B. the Supreme Court has recently ruled B. eliminate inequality in political and re-
that it is not a part of the Constitution ligious affairs
C. It has been amended twice C. eliminate inequality in income and sta-
D. All the above are correct tus and standards of life
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1.6 Preamble resource 68
D. eliminate class based society C. Article 25, would enable the Court to
ensure freedom guaranteed under that Ar-
5. The Indian Constitution is regarded as: ticle
A. federal D. Article 23, would enable the Court to
B. unitary reduce inequality in income and status
C. parliamentary 10. The source of India’s sovereignty lies in
D. federal in form and unitary in spirit the:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. President
6. Which of the following is not a part of the
Preamble to the Indian Constitution? B. Prime Minister
A. Secularism C. People of India
B. Sociaiism D. Preamble to the Constitution
C. Democratic Republic 11. From which of the countries, Constitution
D. Federalism of India has adopted fundamental duties?
A. USA
7. The Constitution of India borrowed the
scheme of Indian Federation from the Con- B. Canada
stitution of: [IAS 1992] C. Erstwhile USSR
A. USA D. UK
B. Canada 12. The constitution of India is republican be-
C. Ireland cause it [CDS 2012]
D. UK A. provides for an elected Parliament
B. provides for adult franchise
8. Indian President and Prime Minister are a
replica of the heads of the State of which C. contains a bill of rights
country? D. has no hereditary elements
A. Britain 13. Which of the following determines that the
B. USA Indian Constitution is federal? [IAS 1994]
C. Ireland A. A written and rigid Constitution
D. Russia B. An independent Judiciary
C. Vesting of residuary powers with the
9. Which one among the following state-
Centre
ments is not correct? The word “socialist”
in the Preamble of the Constitution of In- D. Distribution of powers between the
dia, read with [CDS 2012] Centre and States
A. Article 39A, would enable the Court to 14. The inspiration of ’Liberty, Equality and
uphold the constitutionality of nationaliza- Fraternity’ was derived from:
tion laws A. American revolution
B. Articles 14, would enable the Court B. French revolution
to strike down a statute which failed to
achieve the socialist goal to the fullest ex- C. Russian revolution
tent D. None of the above
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1.6 Preamble resource 69
15. Secularism means: [RRB 1994] B. the Nehru Report
A. suppression of all religions C. a resolution adopted at Karachi ses-
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B. freedom of worship to minorities sion of the Indian National Congress
C. separation of religion from State D. the Objectives Resolution adopted by
the Constituent Assembly
D. a system of political and social philos-
ophy that does not favour any particular 20. Who among the following moved the Ob-
religious faith jectives Resolution which formed tile basis
of the Preamble of the Constitution of In-
16. In a Federal State: [I. Tax 1993]
dia in the Constituent Assembly on Dec 13,
A. States are more powerful than the Cen- 1946? [CDS 2009]
tre
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B. Centre is more powerful than States
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. a Presidential form of government
functions C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. Constitution effects division of powers D. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
between the Centre and States with safe-
guards against transgression of jurisdic- 21. The Indian Constitution closely follows the
tion constitutional system of: [I.Tax1989]
A. USA
17. The Indian Constitution comprises of [BPSC
2011] B. UK
A. 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Sched- C. Switzerland
ules D. Russia
B. 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Sched-
ules 22. Which of the following describes India as
a Secular State?
C. 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules
A. Fundamental Rights
D. 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules B. Ninth Schedule
C. Directive Principles
18. Which of the following is a feature of the
Parliamentary form of government? D. Preamble to the Constitution
A. Executive is responsible to Judiciary
23. Which of the pairs is correctly matched?
B. Executive is responsible to Legislature
A. Republic - Head of the State is heredi-
tary Monarch
C. Judiciary is responsible to Executive
B. Sovereign - Constitution rests on peo-
D. Legislature is responsible to Executive ple’s will
19. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that C. Democratic - Constitution does not
were first spelt out in: recognise legal supremacy of another
A. the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the country
banks of Ravi when he called for Purna D. Secular - State is without any religion
Swaraj of its own
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1.6 Preamble resource 70
24. The Preamble of our Constitution: 29. The part of the Constitution that reflects
A. is a part of the Constitution the mind and ideals of the framers is:
B. contains the spirit of the Constitution A. directive principles
C. is a limitation upon the granted power B. fundamental rights
C. preamble
D. None of the above D. citizenship
NARAYAN CHANGDER
25. In a parliamentary form of government, 30. India is a democratic republic, because:
real powers of the State are vested in the:
[Railways 1994] A. there is independence of judiciary
A. Council of Ministers headed by the B. the Head of the State is elected by the
Prime Minister people
B. President C. there is distribution of powers be-
tween the Centre and the States
C. Government
D. there is Parliamentary supremacy
D. Parliament
26. In India, the concept of single citizenship is 31. India opted for a federal form of govern-
adopted from [SSC Grad 2011] ment because of: [Railways 1994]
A. England A. vast-territory
B. U.S.A. B. cultural integration
C. Canada C. linguistic and regional diversity
D. France D. administrative convenience
27. The Constitution of India is designed to 32. Which of the following features does
work as a unitary government: the Indian Constitution borrow from the
Weimar Constitution of Germany?
A. in normal times
A. The idea of a federation with a strong
B. in times of Emergency
centre
C. when the Parliament so desires
B. The method of presidential elections
D. at the will of the President
C. The Emergency powers
28. Which of the following emerges clearly D. Provisions concerning the suspension
from the Preamble? of fundamental rights during National
I) When the Constitution was enacted. Emergency
II) The ideals that were to be achieved.
III) The system of government 33. The President of the Indian Union has the
IV) The source of authority same constitutional authority as the:
A. II, III and IV A. British Monarch
B. I and II B. President of USA
C. I, II and III C. President of Egypt
D. I, II, III and IV D. President of Russia
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1.6 Preamble resource 71
34. The Preamble of the Constitution of India 37. Which of the following features of the Con-
envisages that: stitution of India does not resemble the
American Constitution?
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A. it shall stand part of the Constitution
A. Written Constitution
B. it could be abrogated or wiped out
from the Constitution B. Federal form of government
C. it does not acknowledge, recognise or C. Fundamental Rights
proclaim anything about the Constitution D. Parliamentary form of government
D. it has separate entity in the Constitu- 38. The word “socialist secular” and “unity
tion and integrity of the Nation” were added
to our Constitution by:
35. Which of the following is not a basic fea-
A. 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
ture of the Indian Constitution?
B. 44th Amendment of the Constitution
A. Presidential Government
C. 46th Amendment of the Constitution
B. Parliamentary Government
D. None of the above
C. Federal Government
39. Which one of the following statements is
D. Independence of Judiciary correct?
36. Match List-l with List-II and select the cor- A. Preamble of the Constitution is the
rect answer using the codes given below part of the Constitution and can be
the Lists: [CDS 2009] amended under Article 368
B. Preamble of the Constitution is not a
List-I - (Provision of List-II (Source) part of the Constitution and cannot be
the Constitution of amended
India) C. Preamble is the part of the basic
A. Amendment of 1. Constitution of structure of the Constitution and can be
the Constitution Germany amended only if no change in the basic
B. Directive Princi- 2. Constitution of structure is made
ples Canada
D. Preamble can be amended by Parlia-
C. Emergency 3. Constitution of ment simply by an objective Resolution
Power of the Presi- South Africa
dent 40. The correct nomenclature of India accord-
D. The Union-State 4. Irish Constitu- ing to the Preamble is:
Relationship tion
A. Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Repub-
lic
A. A − 1, B − 2,C − 4, D − 3 B. Sovereign, Democratic Republic
B. A − 3, B − 4,C − 1, D − 2 C. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Demo-
cratic Republic
C. A − 1, B − 4,C − 2, D − 3
D. Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democ-
D. A − 3, B − 1,C − 4, D − 2 racy
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1.7 Union and its Territory 72
1.7 Union and its Territory
1. Match the following:a.) Sikkim-1.) 6. Which city is the capital of Kerala
1972b.) Nagaland-2.) 1975c.) Gujarat- A. Thiruvananthapuram
3.) 1963d.) Manipur-4.) 1960
B. Kanyakumari
A. 2 3 1 4
C. Chennai
B. 2 4 3 1
D. Amaravati
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 2 3 4 1
7. Which of the following is an island union
D. 3 1 4 2
territory India?
2. Which major river flows through and A. Puducherry
drains into Bay of Bengal in Odisha?
B. Delhi
A. Ganges
C. Daman & Diu
B. Mahanadi
D. Andaman & Nicobar
C. Saraswathi,
8. Consider the following statements &
D. none of above choose the correct ones:1. Article 1 de-
scribes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Feder-
3. If you are now in Karnataka, which state
ation of States’2. Article 2 relates to the
is towards the North of you?
admission or establishment of new states
A. Madhya Pradesh that are not part of the Union of India3.
B. Assam Article 3 relates to the formation of or
changes in the existing states of the Union
C. Maharashtra of India
D. Tamil Nadu A. All of the above
4. Which of the following territories were B. 1 & 2 only
acquired by India by means of a po- C. 3 only
lice action? 1. Goa2. Hyderabad3.
Pondicherry4. Daman & Diu5. Dadra & D. 2 & 3 only
Nagar Haveli 9. Hyderabad is the capital of which state?
A. 1, 2 & 3 A. Andhra Pradesh
B. 2, 4 & 5 B. Telengana
C. 1, 2 & 4 C. Madhya Pradesh
D. 1, 2, 4 & 5 D. Odisha
5. Assam’s capital is 10. Capital of Andhra Pradesh
A. Bengaluru A. Silvassa
B. Dispur B. Mumbai
C. Shimla C. Chennai
D. Aizawl D. Hyderabad
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1.7 Union and its Territory 73
11. How many union territories are there in 16. Which is the most populated state of In-
India? dia?
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A. 10 A. Maharashtra
B. 7 B. Uttar Pradesh
C. 9 C. Uttarakhand
D. 8 D. Tamil Nadu
12. HOW MANY STATES ARE THERE IN INDIA 17. Goa
A. 25 A. Panaji
B. 27 B. Thiruvanathapuram
C. 28 C. Madras
D. 29 D. Shimla
13. Name the union territory which lies in the 18. Which is the financial capital of India
northern tip of India.
A. Mumbai
A. Jammu & Kashmir
B. Kolkata
B. Dadra & Nagarhaveli
C. Bengaluru
C. Chandigarh
D. Hyderabad
D. Ladakh
19. A Union Territory is under the control of
14. A union territory is under the control of:
the
A. Prime minister
A. President
B. Chief minister
B. Prime-Minister
C. President
C. Chief Minister
D. none of above
D. none of above
15. Consider the following statements &
choose the incorrect ones:1. Fazl Ali Com- 20. Which is the capital of India
mission (States Reorganisation Commis- A. London
sion) was appointed in December 1953 & B. New Delhi
submitted its report in September 19552.
JVP Committee (Linguistic Provinces Com- C. Washington DC
mittee) was appointed in December 1948 D. Singapore
& submitted its report in April 19493.
Dhar Commission (Linguistic Provinces 21. Article 4:Laws made under Articles 2 & 3
Commission) was appointed in June 1948 to provide for the amendment of the First
& submitted its report in December 1948 & the Schedules
A. I only A. 5th
B. II only B. 4th
C. III only C. 7th
D. None D. 6th
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1.7 Union and its Territory 74
22. Which Indian state is popularly known as C. Imphal
“God’s Own Country”? D. Agartala
A. Gujarat
28. Silvassa is the capital of which Union Ter-
B. Madhya Pradesh
ritory?
C. Lakshadweep
A. Dadar and Nagar Haveli
D. Kerala
B. Ladakh
23. Laws made for admission or establish-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Puducherry
ment of new states & formation of new
states and alteration of areas, boundaries D. none of above
or names of existing states can be passed
29. Consider the following statements &
by (Article 4)
choose the correct ones:1. Of the 552
A. Special Majority of Parliament & Con- princely states situated within the geo-
sent of States graphical boundaries of India, 3 (Hyder-
B. Special Majority of Parliament abad, Junagarh & Kashmir) refused to join
India2. Kashmir was integrated with In-
C. Simple Majority of Parliament
dia by means of military action3. Sikkim
D. Simple Majority of concerned State & Junagarh were integrated with India by
Legislature means of referendum
24. . is the capital of Meghalaya. A. 1 & 2 only
A. Aizawl B. All of the above
B. Kohima C. 2 & 3 only
C. Shillong D. 1 & 3 only
D. Agartala
30. Which of the following is NOT a state?
25. How many union territories are in india A. Andhra Pradesh
2020?
B. Telangana
A. 8
C. Lakshadweep
B. 7
D. Tamil Nadu
C. 9
D. 10 31. What is the capital of Assam?
26. capital of the state of Orissa A. Raipur
A. Cuttack B. Rachi
B. Bhubaneswar C. Kolkata
C. Patna D. Dispur
D. Puri 32. Consider the following statements &
27. Where is the union territory Puducherry choose the correct ones:1. Portuguese
ruled Dadra & Nagar Haveli territory un-
A. Tamil Nadu til its liberation in 19542. French handed
B. Gangtok over Puducherry to India in 19543. India
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1.7 Union and its Territory 75
acquired Goa, Daman & Diu from the Por- C. Not Sure
tuguese in 1961 D. I don’t know
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A. I only
38. Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar are a
B. II only group of and are also the union terri-
C. III only tories of India.
D. All of the above A. peninsula
B. islands
33. WHAT IS THE CAPITAL OF ASSAM
C. oceans
A. DISPUR D. none of above
B. KOHIMA
39. WHICH IS THE SMALLEST IN INDIA
C. IMPHAL
A. KASHMIR
D. AGARTALA
B. DEHLI
34. Consider the following statements & C. KERALA
choose the correct ones:1. USA is de- D. GOA
scribed as ‘a destructible union of inde-
structible states’2. India is described 40. What is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh?
as ‘an indestructible union of destructible A. Itanagar
states’ B. Dispur
A. 1 only C. Gandgtok
B. 2 only D. Shimla
C. Both 41. Consider the following statements &
D. None choose the correct ones:1. Bangladesh
has the longest border with India of 4096
35. capital of the state of Tripura kms2. 9th Amendment Act, 1960 facili-
A. Agartala tated the cession of Berubari Union (West
Bengal) to Pakistan as provided in Nehru-
B. Imphal
Noon Agreement (1958)3. 100th Amend-
C. Aizawl ment Act, 2015 ratified the Land Boundary
D. Udaipur Agreement between India and Bangladesh
A. 1 & 3 only
36. Which Peninsular river is known as Dak-
shin Ganga (Ganga of the south)? B. 1 & 2 only
A. Yamuna C. All of the above
D. 2 & 3 only
B. Godavari
C. Indus river 42. Which is the second smallest state of In-
dia?
D. none of above
A. Goa
37. Is Ladakh now a Union Territory? B. Sikkim
A. Yes C. Tripura
B. No D. Meghalaya
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1.7 Union and its Territory 76
43. WHICH GROUP OF ISLANDS IS A UNION C. Daman & Diu
TERRITORY WHICH IS ON THE WEST OF D. Lakshadweep
INDIA
A. LAKSHWADEEP 49. Consider the following statements &
choose the correct ones:1. Sates of Chhat-
B. ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS tisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were
C. SRILANKA created out of the territories of Mad-
D. AUSTRALIA hyaPradesh, Uttar Pradesh & Bihar, re-
spectively in 20012. Union Territories of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
44. HOW MANY UNION TERRITORIES ARE Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh & Goa came
THERE IN INDIA into being as states in 19863. Union
A. 7 territories of Manipur & Tripura and the
sub-state of Meghalaya got statehood in
B. 10 1971
C. 9 A. I only
D. 8 B. II only
45. What is the capital of Bihar? C. III only
A. Patna D. None
B. Muzaffarpur 50. Consider the following statements &
C. Gopalganj choose the correct ones:1. Presently
D. Buxar (2022), the number of states and union
territories are 28 & 92. By States
46. Arrange the following North Eastern Reorganisation Act & 7th Constitutional
states in chronological order (by their cre- Amendment Act, 14 states & 6 union
ation date):1. Meghalaya2. Manipur3. territories were created on November 1,
Mizoram4. Tripura5. Arunachal Pradesh 19563. States Reorganisation Commis-
A. 2-1-4-5-3 sion suggested the creation of 16 states
& 3 centrally administered territories
B. 2-4-1-3-5
A. 2 only
C. 1-4-2-3-5
B. 2 & 3 only
D. 1-4-2-5-3
C. 1 & 2 only
47. Which of the following is the capital of D. All of the above
Jammu & Kashmir
A. Kavaratti 51. What is the capital of Chhattisgarh?
B. Leh A. Dantewada
C. Port Blair B. Raipur
D. Jammu C. Bilaspur
D. Durg
48. Which of the following union territories
lies in the Arabian Sea? 52. Which of these are neighbouring states?
A. Dadra & Nagarhaveli A. Punjab-Haryana
B. Andaman & Nicobar islands B. Karnataka-Maharashtra
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1.7 Union and its Territory 77
C. Madhya Pradesh-Rajasthan 58. Identify the incorrect pair:(4-fold classifi-
D. All of the above cation of the states & territories of the In-
dian Union in 1950)
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53. Match the following (State/UT- A. Part B-nine princely states withlegisla-
Constitutional Amendment Act):a.) tures
Puducherry-1.) 10th, 1961b.)
B. Part D-Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Meghalaya-2.) 12th, 1962c.) Dadra and
and some princely states
Nagar Haveli-3.) 14th, 1962d.) Goa,
Daman and Diu-4.) 22nd, 1969 C. Part C-chief commissioner’s provinces
& some princely states
A. 1 4 2 3
D. Part A-nine governor’s provinces
B. 3 4 2 1
C. 3 4 1 2 59. Name the union territory which is a capital
of two states.
D. 4 3 1 2
A. Chhattisgarh
54. HOW MANY UNION TERRITORIES DEOES B. Chandigarh
INDIA HAVE?
C. Delhi
A. 10
D. Lakshadweep
B. 5
60. Which of the following IS a state?
C. 9
A. Delhi
D. 8
B. Arunachal Pradesh
55. How many states are there in India C. Ladakh
A. 24 D. Chandigarh
B. 28
61. WHICH IS THE LARGEST STATE
C. 29
A. RAJASTHAN
D. 27
B. MADYA PRADESH
56. Article 371-F & 36th Constitutional C. JAMMU AND KASMIR
Amendment Act (1975) is related to which
D. UTTAR PREDASH
state?
A. Meghalaya 62. Identify the incorrect pair (State & their
Formation):
B. Mizoram
A. Telangana-2014
C. Sikkim
B. Tripura-1972
D. Manipur
C. Haryana-1966
57. HOW MANY STATES DOES INDIA HAVE D. Himachal Pradesh-1970
A. 23
63. Kavaratti is the capital of which Union Ter-
B. 29 ritory?
C. 28 A. Jammu and Kashmir
D. 26 B. Chandigarh
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 78
C. Lakshadweep D. none of above
D. none of above 65. The river Ganga empties into which water
64. There are states and union territo- body?
ries in India. A. Bay of Bengal
A. 27, 8 B. Pacific ocean
B. 27, 7 C. Indian ocean
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 28, 9 D. none of above
1.8 Fundamental Rights
1. THE ARE THE PRIVILEGES GIVEN TO B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
EVERY CITIZEN BY THE CONSTITUTION OF C. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
INDIA
D. none of above
A. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
B. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS 5. Children in which age group should be
given free education
C. DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES
A. O-6 years
D. none of above
B. 10-16 years
2. Choose the incorrect statement.
C. 6-14 years
A. Directive Principles are certain poli-
D. 16-18 years
cies that the government should adopt.
B. Directive Principles are certain rights 6. According to constitution of India there are
citizens should enjoy apart from Funda- fundamental rights
mental Rights A. 4
C. Directive Principles are justiciable B. 5
D. Directive Principles are goals what so- C. 6
ciety should adopt.
D. none of above
3. Our procedure to amend the Constitution
7. Who has given the responsibility to pro-
is sourced from the Constitution of
tect the rights of people
A. South Africa
A. Central government
B. Japan
B. State government
C. Nicaragua
C. Local government
D. Nigeria
D. Supreme court
4. People in each state can also set up their
own schools and colleges in any part of In- 8. Which of the following article of the Con-
dia. stitution contains fundamental duties?
A. CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL A. 45 A
RIGHTS B. 51 A
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 79
C. 30 14. The concept of secularism is based on equal
D. 51 treatment to all
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A. citizens
9. Which of the following services are paid
for by taxes collected from residents? B. only one community
A. banks and private businesses C. All the Religions
B. roads, schools, hospitals, and parks D. people of one religion
C. delivery services, taxis, and the postal
15. When a midwife puts the bed in the low-
service
est position because the patient is in dan-
D. the growing and shipping of food from ger of having convulsion at any time, she
farms is observing the:
10. What is NOT part of Right to Equality? A. Principle of Non Maleficence
A. No one will be discriminated based on B. Principle of Beneficence
caste, religion or gender. C. Principle of Autonomy
B. Equality of opportunity in public em- D. Principle of Justice
ployment
C. Right to food 16. Right to Constitutional Remedies is:
D. All are equal before the law A. Right to complain to the government
11. Which committee suggested to incorporate B. Right to speak one’s mind
fundamental duties in the constitution C. Right to criticise the government and
A. Narasimha committee the courts
B. Swarnsingh committee D. Right to move the courts if you feel
your Fundamental Rights are being vio-
C. Ambedkar committee
lated.
D. none of above
17. We should perform these
12. People of india are free to follow the reli-
gion of their choice A. Fundamental rights
A. Right to equality B. Directive principles
B. Right to freedom C. Fundamental duties
C. Right to education D. none of above
D. none of above 18. Under which Article of Constitution of In-
13. A boy of 12 years is employed in a fac- dia, a writ petition can be filed in the
tory with a hazardous job. Which among Supreme Court
the following is violated in this case? A. Article 226 of the Constitution of India
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to freedom B. Article 34 of the Constitution of India
C. Abolition of Untouchability C. Article 26 of the Constitution of India
D. Right Against Exploitation D. Article 32 of the Constitution of India
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 80
19. are the basic human rights written in C. Part III
the Constitution of India which are guaran- D. In schedule IV-A
teed to all citizens.
A. Fundamental duties 25. All citizens of India will be treated as
equals
B. Directive principles
A. Right to freedom
C. Fundamental rights
B. Right to equality
D. All of these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Right to freedom of religion
20. This is the longest written in the world.
D. none of above
A. India’s national anthem
26. Can the state discriminate amongst people
B. India’s national song
on the basis of caste, colour, gender, reli-
C. India’s constitution gion, etc under the Right to Equality?
D. none of above A. Yes
21. Which term is correctly matched with its B. No
definition? C. Probably
A. Constitution-power of the government D. none of above
to take property
27. The constitutions of India adopted funda-
B. double jeopardy-being tried twice for
mental duties from the constitutions of
the crime
A. America
C. eminent domain-plan for government
B. Japan
D. none of above
C. Russia
22. What are directive Principles
D. Britain
A. Requests
B. Instructions 28. Which fundamental Right has been added
recently?
C. Commands
A. Right to Equality
D. Guidelines
B. Right to Education
23. Who was the chairman of the drafting com- C. Right to religion
mittee of the Indian constitution
D. none of above
A. Dr Rajendra Prasad
B. Dr B.R.Ambedkar 29. Which among the following amendments
of Constitution of India had accorded prece-
C. Pt.J.K Nehru dence to Directive Principles over Funda-
D. none of above mental Rights?
24. The fundamental duties are mentioned in A. 25th
which of the following? B. 42nd
A. Part IV A C. 59th
B. Part IV D. 44th
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 81
30. Which statement is not true II. Uniform Civil Code III. Formalisation of
A. Fundamental Rights are universal Panchayati Raj Institutions
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B. Fundamental rights are absolute A. I and II
C. Fundamental rights are universal B. II and III
D. Fundamental rights can be suspended C. I and III
D. All of the above
31. Right to education was included in consti-
tution in the year 36. This is a list of the Rights of Persons
A. 2001 arrested under ordinary circumstances.
Which of these is NOT a valid right?
B. 2008
A. No person shall be detained in custody
C. 2002 without being informed of the reason for
D. 2005 such detention.
B. Every person shall have the right to be
32. Which of the following is an ethical issue:
defended by a lawyer of their choice.
A. Deciding whether to have French fries
C. A person has the right to be produced
or a salad
before the magistrate within 24 hours of
B. Choosing between buying a new shirt such arrest.
or a new book
D. No person may be arrested after sun-
C. Deciding whether to lie to a friend or down and before dawn, i.e., during the
not hours of dark.
D. Choosing which movie to see this
37. What is the basis of democracy all over
weekend
the world? Which right ascertains that all
33. Supreme Court has made Right to Free Ed- individuals are equal before the law?
ucation as the part of which among the fol- A. Equality, Right to freedom
lowing rights?
B. Freedom, Right to Equality
A. Right to life
C. Equality, Right to equality
B. Right against Exploitation
D. Freedom, Right to freedom
C. Right to freedom of speech and expres-
sion 38. In , the 44th amendment to the Consti-
tution removed the right to property from
D. Cultural and Educational Rights
the list of Fundamental Rights and con-
34. Sovereign means verted it into a simple legal right.
A. Democracy A. 1973
B. Equality B. 1975
C. Free country C. 1977
D. none of above D. 1978
35. Which of the following directive principles 39. The Government cannot make any law
have been made into laws? I. Right of that take away the basic rights of its
children to free and compulsory education A. country
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 82
B. neighboring country 45. In case of imprisonment, the citizen can
C. citizen ask the court to see if it is according to the
provisions of the law of the country.This
D. none of above can be followed under
40. what is 26 january celebrated as A. Right to constitutional remedies
A. Christmas day B. Right against exploitation
B. independence day C. Right to freedom
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. republic day
D. Right to equality
D. none of above
46. Who was the president of India when the
41. The is important because without this
constitution of India was formed
right, we would not be able to enjoy the
other rights. A. Lala Lajpat Rai
A. Right to freedom B. Pandit Jawaharlal yadav
B. Right against Exploitation C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Right to Equality
D. Rajendra Prasad
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
47. Which one of the following is NOT a writ:
42. Which one of the following promotes sec-
ularism? A. Certiorari
A. National Commission for the welfare B. Quo Warranto
of the women
C. Prohibition
B. Environment Protection Act
D. Prevention
C. Right To Education
D. Communal Harmony 48. Which word is correctly matched to its
meaning?
43. Which is the the longest written constitu-
tion in the wold A. Remedy-very important
A. Australia B. Deprived-lack of something
B. American C. Condemn-approve of something
C. India D. Exploitation-member of a particular
D. none of above country
44. In which among the following parts of Con- 49. Freedom of speech falls under which of the
stitution of India are enshrined the Funda- rights listed below?
mental Duties?
A. Right to Equality
A. Part III
B. Part IIIA B. Cultural and educational rights
C. Part IVA C. Right to freedom
D. Part IV D. Right to constitutional remedies
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 83
50. Safeguarding the public Property, develop- the right to elect their leaders who will
ing scientific temper and promoting com- run the country.Statement B:The Directive
munal harmony come under which of the Principles of our Constitution include Gand-
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following? hian principles.
A. Fundamental Rights A. Statement A is correct; B is wrong.
B. DPSP B. Statement B is correct; A is wrong.
C. Fundamental Duties C. Both the statements are correct.
D. None of the Above D. Both the statements are wrong.
51. Meaning of Sovereign 56. Which article of the Constitution abolishes
Untouchability?
A. Other country controls a country
A. Article 18
B. The king of that place controls the
place B. Article 15
C. Buying things from other country C. Article 14
D. The country is an independent coun- D. Article 17
try. No other country can impose its
57. year old Ashok is employed in a cafeteria.
supremacy on her.
Which of his FUNDAMENTAL Rights are be-
52. How many Rights does the Indian consti- ing violated?
tution consist of A. Right to freedom
A. 9 B. Cultural and Educational Rights
B. 7 C. Right against Exploitation
C. 6 D. Right to equality
D. 5
58. Prohibiton of employment of children be-
53. Behaving ethically means doing low the age of 14years comes under which
fundamental Right
A. what your friends do.
A. Right to freedom
B. only what’s legal.
B. Right to equality
C. the right thing.
C. Right against exploitation
D. what benefits you the most.
D. Right to information
54. When did the first draft of fundamental
rights was prepared by drafting company 59. What does PIL stands for
A. February 1948 A. Public interest limitation
B. March 1948 B. Public interest litigation
C. April 1948 C. Personal interest limitation
D. August 1948 D. Personal interest litigation
55. Read the statements carefully and select 60. Which of the following is not a fundamen-
the correct option. Statement A:India is tal duty for a student?
a democratic country, where people have A. Keep the school properties safe.
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 84
B. Keep the school clean. C. Habeas Corpus
C. Hurt others D. Certiorari
D. Help others
66. The Fundamental Rights are enshrined
61. Which is NOT a reason for calling certain within Articles to in Part III of the
rights ‘Fundamental’ Rights? Indian Constitution
A. They are guaranteed by the Constitu- A. 19 to 32
tion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 12 to 32
B. They cannot be taken away by the gov- C. 12 to 35
ernment
D. 19 to 35
C. They safeguard the liberty of the peo-
ple 67. Directive principles listed in our constitu-
D. They guarantee fun, hence fun-da- tion were adopted from
mental A. The constitution of Italy
62. Is this task a right, duty, or responsibility? B. Constitution of Ireland
OBEY LAWS C. Constitution of Iran
A. Right D. none of above
B. Duty
68. Which fundamental right allows citizens to
C. Responsibility
move to a court of law in case they are de-
D. none of above nied their fundamental rights?
63. Who is father of Indian fundamental A. Right to freedom
rights B. Right against exploitation
A. Subhash Chander Bose C. Right to constitutional remedies
B. B.R Ambedkar D. Right to equality
C. Narendra Modi
69. The word SECULAR was introduced in the
D. Narasimha Rao
Preamble in by the Amendment
64. Which of the following is not a Fundamen- A. 1975, 41st
tal Right in the Constitution of India?
B. 1985, 49st
A. Right to work
C. 1976, 42nd
B. Right to Equality
D. 1987, 42nd
C. Right to Freedom of Religion
D. None of the above 70. From which constitution Fundamental
rights are borrowed?
65. If the court finds that a person isholding of-
A. American constitution
fice but is not entitled to hold that office,
it issues the writ of B. England constitution
A. Mandamus C. France constitution
B. Quo Warranto D. Irish constitution
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 85
71. Which of the following is not a Fundamen- 76. Why are fundamental duties important?
tal right of the people? A. To make citizens responsible.
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A. Right to change the Fundamental ide- B. For the smooth functioning of our coun-
als of the constitution try.
B. Right to criticise the government C. So that people don’t misuse their
C. Right to Participate in the elections rights.
D. Right to organise public meetings and D. All of these
rallies
77. Untouchability is prohibited by law accord-
72. How many fundamental duties are in the ing to Article
Indian constitution A. 14
A. 9 B. 22
B. 11 C. 17
C. 12 D. 18
D. 20 78. Right to Life and Personal Liberty is
73. Which one of the following is NOT a Fun- A. Article 14
damental Right? B. Article 16
A. Right to Equality C. Article 21
B. Right to Law D. Article 21 A
C. Right to Freedom of Religion
79. Constitution of India came into effect on
D. Cultural and Educational Rights
A. 26 Jan 1947
74. Freedom to form associations comes under B. 26 Jan 1950
A. Right to freedom of religion C. 15th aug 1947
B. Right to freedom D. none of above
C. Right to Equality 80. our constitution is based on basis prin-
D. Cultural and educational rights. ciple
A. 1
75. The following are the features of Directive
Principles of State Policy. Choose the one B. 2
that does not belong. C. 3
A. Directive Principles are non-justiciable D. 4
rights of the people.
81. Which article of our constitution opposes
B. Directive Principles are fundamental the practice of untouchability?
in the governance of the country.
A. 14
C. Directive Principles are the ideals of
the nation as envisaged by the Founding B. 15
Fathers of our Constitution. C. 16
D. none of above D. 17
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 86
82. The constitution defines the goals, rights 87. Which of he following is one of the MAIN
and duties of the Indian citizen responsibilities of a citizen?
A. True A. picking up litter
B. False B. obeying the law
C. Maybe C. washing the dishes
D. none of above D. running for public office
88. My fundamental right is taken away.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
83. From which constitution State Directive
Priciples are borrowed? Where should I go and ask for a solution?
A. American constitution A. Neighbour’s house
B. Irish constitution B. Society head
C. A court
C. England constitution
D. none of above
D. Russian constitution
89. This principle means equal rights to every-
84. Fundamental Rights have no value with-
one.
out?
A. Democracy
A. Right to Freedom
B. Socialism
B. Right to Freedom of Religion
C. Secularism
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
D. none of above
D. All of the above
90. Right to property was removed from fun-
85. Individual with certain rights and duties damental rights in the year through
under a government and who, by birth or amendment.
by choice, owes allegiance to that govern-
A. 1978, 44th Amendment
ment
B. 1978, 42nd Amendment
A. responsibilities
C. 1978, 46th Amendment
B. citizen
D. 1976, 44th Amendment
C. jury
D. taxes 91. Protection of wild life comes under which
of the following in Constitution of India?
86. Which of the following is NOT part of Cul- A. Fundamental Rights
tural and Educational Rights?
B. Fundamental Duties
A. Right to make speaking a language
C. Both a) and b)
compulsory
D. None of the above
B. Right to establish educational and cul-
tural institutions of one’s choice. 92. What are the number of Fundamental
C. Right to preserve and promote your Rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitu-
language and culture. tion?
D. Right to preserve dance, drama and A. 5
music. B. 6
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 87
C. 7 98. In which part of the Indian Constitution,
D. 8 the Fundamental rights are provided?
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A. Part II
93. Integrity means acting with
B. Part III
A. humility.
C. Part V
B. leadership skills.
D. Part IV
C. a sense of humor.
D. honesty. 99. What is a law?
A. things you are expected to do
94. When do we celebrate Republic Day?
B. a person who has rights and responsi-
A. 26 January bilties
B. 26 September C. A rule set by the community
C. 26 August D. Things you are entitled to or deserve
D. 26 July
100. The “Bill of Rights” and “Judicial Re-
95. Read the following statements and select view” are features of which of the follow-
the correct option. a) Every Indian citizen ing countries constitution?
must harm public property.b) Every Indian A. USA
citizen must protect the country.c) Every
Indian citizen must not follow the rules B. UK
written in the Constitution.d) Every Indian C. Germany
citizen must condemn violence. D. Australia
A. F, T, F, T
101. This means everyone is free to choose
B. T, T, F, F any religion they like.
C. F, F, F, T A. Democracy
D. T, F, T, F B. Socialism
96. The Fundamental Right that ceased to ex- C. Secularism
ist in 1978: D. none of above
A. Right to Equality
102. Fundamental rights are mentioned in
B. Right to Education which part of our constitution?
C. Right to Property A. 1st part
D. Right to Information B. 2nd part
97. The government of India should see to it C. 3rd part
that every child is provided education at D. 4th part
least till years of age.
A. 12 103. A small firm invites applications for the
job of office staff, stating “ Only men
B. 15 of higher castes need apply.” Which fun-
C. 14 damental right is involved here.
D. 13 A. Right to freedom
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 88
B. Cultural and Educational Rights 109. Article of the Constitution states the
Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen
C. Right against Exploitation
A. 51-A
D. Right to equality
B. 53-A
104. Fundamental rights was put on use on C. 52-A
A. 26 January 1950 D. 50-A
B. 26 January 1949
NARAYAN CHANGDER
110. If a group of people are not given permis-
C. 26 November 1949 sion to open telegu medium school in Ker-
ala which fundamental right is violated
D. 26 November 1950
A. Right to freedom
105. The Ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fra- B. Right against exploitation
ternity (mentioned in the Preamble) are in-
C. Cultural and educational rights
spired by the Constitution of
D. none of above
A. USA
B. USSR 111. Find odd option
A. Judiciary
C. France
B. Misuse With Everyone
D. Ireland
C. Executive
106. Which is odd? D. Legislature
A. Right to Justice 112. THERE ARE FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
B. Right to fight A. SIX
C. Right to Freedom B. FIVE
D. Right to Equality C. SEVEN
D. none of above
107. When was Our constitution enforced?
A. 26th January 1950 113. Which of the following in not a fundamen-
tal right
B. 15th August 1947
A. Right to freedom
C. 9th August 1947
B. Right to work
D. 26th November 1949 C. Right to vote
108. Who defined democracy as ‘’the govern- D. Right to equality
ment of the people, for the people and by
114. In the Indian Constitution, Fundamental
the people? ”
Duties are given in which article?
A. Abraham Lincoln A. Article 12 to 35
B. George Washington B. Article 51 A
C. Mahatma Gandhi C. Article 19
D. Donald Trump D. Article 36
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 89
115. Constitution = A set of 121. Secularism included in Indian constitution
A. games in the year
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B. rules A. 1980
C. books B. 1976
D. none of above C. 1990
116. Right to Education has been inserted as D. none of above
A. Article 21
B. Article 31 122. The fundamental duties are included in
the constitution by which of the following
C. Article 31 A act?
D. Article 21 A
A. 40th Amendment Act
117. The set of rules which every country has
B. 44th Amendment Act
is called
A. Fundamental rights C. 43rd Amendment Act
B. Constitution D. 42nd Amendment Act
C. Fundamental duties
123. What should the government of India
D. none of above must ensure?
118. A government of the people, by the peo- A. Every citizen has work.
ple and for the people.
B. Every citizen has good living conditions.
A. Democracy
B. Socialism
C. No rich person exploits the poor.
C. Secularism
D. All of these
D. none of above
119. Writs can be issued by- 124. The constitution of India provides how
many fundamenetal Rights?
A. A District Court
B. A Gram Panchayat A. 5
C. A Civil Court B. 6
D. A High Court C. 7
120. Justice is defined as: D. 8
A. over-indulgence of the concupiscible
appetite. 125. The word ‘Secular’ was added to the
Preamble by the 42nd Amendment in
B. inequality.
C. “Virtue that allows man to give his A. 1978
neighbor what rightfully belongs to him” B. 1951
C. 1972
D. “Virtue of knowing how things are to
be done rightly & well.” D. 1976
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 90
126. Which of the following terms signifies B. It is an official paperwork that makes
‘equal respect to all religions’? the non-government associated people
A. Sovereign work.
B. Secular C. It is a legal document which is only for
the people who don’t work in givernment
C. Socialist jobs
D. none of above D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
127. Under the writ of , the court orders a 132. A child below the age of 14 years can’t
lower court to transfer a matter pending be employed in any occapation
before it to the higher authority.
A. Right to freedom
A. Prohibition
B. Right to equality
B. Certiorari
C. Right against exploitation
C. Mandamus
D. none of above
D. Quo Warranto
133. Habeas Corpus is an example for
128. A writ of means that the court or- A. Rights
ders that the arrested person should be
presented before it. B. Special Order
A. Habeas Corpus C. Writs
B. Mandamus D. Fundamental Duties
C. Quo Warranto 134. Is this task a right, duty, or responsibil-
D. Prohibition ity? FREEDOM OF RELIGION
A. Right
129. Which of the following Articles contain
the right to religious freedom? B. Duty
A. 25-28 C. Responsibility
D. none of above
B. 29-30
C. 32-35 135. Our constitution lists some guidelines for
the government to ensure the welfare of
D. 23-24
the people is called
130. The panchayat raj system care in exis- A. Fundamental rights
tence by the?
B. Constitutional remedies
A. 42nd constitutional amendment
C. Directive Principles
B. 52nd constitutional amendment
D. none of above
C. 26th constitutional amendment
136. Fundamental Duties were added in
D. 73th constitutional amendment
of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd
131. What is a writ? Amendment Act, 1976
A. It is a legal document that orders a per- A. Part III
son to do a particular thing. B. Part IV
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 91
C. Part VI B. Educational Rights
D. Part V C. CulturalRights
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D. none of above
137. Under Directive Principles of State Policy,
India has been deemed a welfare state. A 142. This is a list of Fundamental Rights of the
welfare state seeks to provide to its peo- Indian citizen. Which of these statements
ple all of the following except: is correct about this list? A. Right to Equal-
A. Employment and Education ity B. Right to Freedom C. Right Against
Exploitation D. Right to Freedom of Reli-
B. Assistance in cases of old age, sick-
gion E. Right to Constitutional Remedies F.
ness and disability
Cultural and Educational Rights
C. Reduction of economic inequality A. The list is complete and accurate
D. Universal access to healthcare B. The list is complete but not accurate
138. Right to work has been implemented for (has some incorrect entries in addition to
the rural unemployed under all the correct entries)
A. MNREGA C. The list is accurate but not complete
D. The list is neither accurate nor com-
B. DPSP
plete
C. Fundamental Rights
143. This right makes other rights effective.
D. The five writs
A. Right to Constitutional Remedies
139. Which of the following is odd? B. Right to Equality
A. Rabindranath Tagore C. Right to Freedom
B. Bhim rao ambedkar D. Right against exploitation
C. M.S. Dhoni
144. “No person shall be deprived of his life
D. Subhash chandra bose or personal liberty except according to the
procedure established by law. “Which Ar-
140. Why does the government provide public
ticle of the Indian Constitution is quoted
goods such as roads?
above? Which Fundamental Right does it
A. Citizens can all benefit from public correspond to?
goods so all contribute through taxes.
A. 25, Freedom of Religion
B. Public goods are too expensive for cor- B. 21, Right to Life and Liberty
porations to build on their own.
C. 21, Right against exploitation
C. People disagree about the need to
build and maintain some public goods. D. none of above
D. Government competes with private 145. Which among the following fundamental
companies to keep prices low for public rights is available to Indian Citizens but
goods. not to aliens?
A. Freedom of expression and speech
141. A person reject his admission only be-
cause of caste this is against which B. Equality before Law
right C. Protection of life & liberty
A. Equality D. None of the above
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 92
146. Right to Information Act was imple- 151. As citizens of India, we have to perform
mented as Fundamental Right in the year these.
A. 2004 A. Fundamental Rights
B. 2005 B. Fundamental Duties
C. 2006 C. Directive Principles
D. none of above
D. 2007
152. Which article of the Indian Constitution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
147. Which option best describes the ‘Right to provides the right to constitutional reme-
equality’? dies, that allows Indian citizens to stand
A. It guarantees equal rights for every- up for their rights against anybody-even
one, irrespective of religion, gender and the government of India? [A] Article
caste. 31[B] Article 32[C] Article 33[D] Article
34
B. It guarantees freedom to express our-
selves. A. Article 31
C. It guarantees freedom to practice any B. Article 32
religion. C. Article 34
D. All of these D. Article 33
148. Fundamental duties are included in the 153. We celebrate Republic day on
Constitution of India in the year A. 15th Aug
through amendment. B. 27th January
A. 1972, 43rd amendment C. 26th January
B. 1976, 42nd amendment D. none of above
C. 1976, 44th amendment 154. Which of the following is correct with re-
D. 1972, 42nd amendment spect to “Right against exploitation”?
A. Prohibition of traffic in human beings
149. All Indian more than years old have and forced labour
the right to vote
B. Freedom as to payment of taxes for
A. 16 the promotion of any particular religion
B. 18 C. Protection of interests of minorities
C. 17 D. Equality before law
D. none of above 155. This right gives us the power to seek jus-
tice in a court of law if our Fundamental
150. How could a person BEST show good cit-
Rights are taken away.
izenship?
A. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
A. by reading history books
B. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. by visiting national parks
C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REME-
C. by voting in elections DIES
D. by listening to speeches D. none of above
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 93
156. Fundamental rights are essential and im- 161. Which of the following is NOT a cor-
portant right people must have in a rect statement with respect to Freedom of
speech and expression in India?
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A. city
A. It is enshrined in Part III of the Consti-
B. book
tution
C. social country B. It is not an absolute right to express
D. democracy one’s thoughts freely
C. It can not be curtailed by legislation
157. Secular state means
D. It can be suspended in emergency
A. Official religion is there
B. No official religion 162. All citizens are before the law
C. Only one religion A. higher
B. equal
D. none of above
C. best
158. To enforce the fundamental rights, which D. none of above
among the following court(s) has / have
authority to issue writs? 1.Supreme Court 163. Which of the following committee advo-
High 2.Courts District CourtsSelect the cor- cated the Fundamental Duties in the Indian
rect option from the codes given below: constitution?
A. Only 1 A. Verma Committee
B. Only 1 & 2 B. Sarkaria Committee
C. Only 2 & 3 C. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
D. 1, 2 & 3 D. Swaran Singh Committee
159. Which of the following are Fundamental 164. Fundamental Rights are divided into how
Duties? many categories
A. Safeguarding public property A. 6
B. 7
B. Protecting the sovereignty, integrity
and unity of India C. 9
C. Developing scientific temper and hu- D. 5
manism
165. You’re a famous celebrity on a private
D. All the above holiday. Someone takes a picture of you
with a powerful zoom lens and publishes
160. The fundamental Duties were added to it on the net. You can take the person to
the Indian Constitution in the court under:
A. 1974 A. Right to Equality
B. 1975 B. Right to Freedom
C. 1976 C. Right to Freedom of Religion
D. 1952 D. Right against exploitation
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1.8 Fundamental Rights 94
166. What does the article 25 provides 172. He is known as the Father of the Indian
A. Right to speak constitution
B. Right to equality A. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Right to freedom of religion B. Dr B.R Ambedkar
D. Right to vote C. Pd Jawaharlal Nehru
D. none of above
167. A person compells to work more hours
without extra payment is comes under
NARAYAN CHANGDER
173. Who wrote our national anthem?
A. Right against equality A. B. R. Ambedkar
B. Right against exploitation B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Right against Religion C. Rabindranath Tagore
D. none of above D. none of above
168. ....is issued when a public servant fail to 174. At present how many Fundamental Du-
perform his duty ties are in the Constitution of India?
A. Habeas corpus A. 10
B. Mandamus B. 9
C. Quo warranto
C. 6
D. Prohibition
D. 11
169. If a child below the age of 14 working
175. Up to which age education is free and
in a factory, then which of the following
compulsory
right is not being followed?
A. 15
A. Right against exploitation
B. Right to constitutional remedies B. 14
C. Right to education C. 13
D. Right to freedom D. none of above
170. Hand written Constitution of India is dec- 176. Directive Principles are guidelines made
orated by artist from for the
A. Kalaniketan A. people
B. Shantiniketan B. government
C. Prayag samiti C. children
D. none of above D. none of above
171. The Directive Principles of State Policy is 177. The right that allows the minorities to de-
borrowed from the Constitution of velop and preserve their culture is
A. Israel A. Right to freedom
B. Britain B. Cultural and educational rights
C. USA C. Right against exploitation
D. Ireland D. none of above
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 95
1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy
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1. The judiciary has been separated from the A. I, II and III
B. I and II
A. Judiciary C. I, II and IV
B. Legislature D. II, III and IV
C. Government
6. Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental
D. Executive right to life and personal liberty. These
rights are available to:s
2. What does democracy mean?
A. citizens and non-citizens
A. Ruled by a small group
B. natural persons as well as artificial
B. Local and Central share power persons
C. Ruled by people C. citizen only
D. Ruled by one person D. all persons who have juristic personal-
ity
3. Where are the directive principles of state
policy located in the Indian Constitution? 7. All minorities, religious or linguistic, can
set up their own educational institutions.
A. Part IV Choose the incorrect option with regard to
B. Part II the above statement.
C. Part III A. This statement supports the right of
minorities to preserve their culture.
D. Part I
B. This statement violates the principle of
4. Article 14 guarantees equality before law Secularism.
and equal protection of law to: C. This statement supports the right of
A. all persons living within the territory of minorities to develop their own culture.
India D. This statement does not violate the
B. all Indian citizens living in India principle of equality of all religions.
C. all persons domiciled in India 8. Respect for the National Flag and National
D. all persons natural as well as artificial Anthem is:
A. Fundamental Right of every citizen
5. Which of the following are among the Fun-
B. Fundamental Duty of every citizen
damental Duties as listed in the Constitu-
tion? C. Directive Principle of State policy
I) To preserve the heritage of our com- D. ordinary duty of every citizen
posite culture. 9. In which one of the following does the sub-
II) To abide by the Constitution. ject of Co-operative Societies fall? [CDS
III) To strive for excellence in scientific 2005]
research to win international fame.
IV) To render national service when A. Union List
called upon to do so. B. State List
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 96
C. Concurrent List C. Equal pay irrespective of gender
D. Residuary Powers Government D. none of above
10. WHAT IS THE DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES’ 15. Directive Principles in India are inspired by
MAIN AIM? the constitution of
A. TO HELP THE WOMEN IN THE COUN- A. Scottland
TRY
B. Switzerland
B. TO CREATE SUITABLE SOCIAL AND
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ECONOMIC FOR CITIZENS C. Ireland
C. BOTH OF THEM D. none of above
D. none of above
16. Which one of the following is a Gandhian
11. “Fair and Equal distribution of the eco- Principle .
nomic resources and wealth” falls under A. Improve Public Health
which Directive Principles
B. Organize Village panchayats
A. Gandhian
C. Both 1 And 2
B. Communism
C. Socio-Economic D. None of these
D. none of above 17. The Constitution describes India as a:
12. The enforcement of Directive Principles de- A. Federation of States
pends most on:
B. Union of States
A. the Courts
C. Confederation of States
B. an effective opposition in Parliament
D. Unitary State
C. resources available to the Govern-
ment 18. Which of the following statements is/are
D. public cooperation correct? 1. The territory of the units
of the Indian federation may be altered
13. Which of the following is not a Directive by Parliament by a simple majority. 2.
Principle of the State Policy? [CBI 1993] The consent of a State Legislature is nec-
A. To raise the level of nutrition essary before Parliament redistributes its
territory. 3. The President’s recommen-
B. To develop the scientific temper dation is necessary for introducing in Par-
C. To promote economic interests of liament a Bill on redistributing territory of
weaker sections any State. 4. The President must receive
D. To separate the Judiciary from the Ex- the State’s opinion before recommending a
ecutive Bill on altering the name of the State.
A. I only
14. “The Equal Remuneration Act” talks about
what B. I and II
A. Minimum wage for all workers C. I, II and IV
B. Equal pay for all level workers D. I and III
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 97
19. Which language is not recognised in the C. Both I and II
8th Schedule though it is an official lan- D. Neither I nor II
guage of a State?
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A. English 23. If an Indian citizen is denied a public of-
fice because of his religion, which of the
B. Sindhi
following Fundamental Rights is denied to
C. Sanskrit him? [Asstt Grade 1994]
D. Kashmiri A. Right to Freedom
20. In the Constitution of India, promotion of B. Right to Equality
international peace and security is men- C. Right to Freedom of Religion
tioned in the: [Asstt Comm 2008]
D. Right against Exploitation
A. Preamble to the Constitution
B. Directive Principles of State Policy 24. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fun-
damental Rights can be presented:
C. Fundamental Duties
A. in the Supreme Court only
D. Ninth Schedule
B. in the High Court only
21. The Right to Fair Compensation and Trans-
C. either in the Supreme Court or in the
parency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation
High Court
and Resettlement Bill aims to
A. provide equal pay for equal work D. first in the Supreme Court and then in
the High Court
B. provide fair compensation to those
whose land is taken away 25. which the are the following directive prin-
C. abolish the zamindari system ciples
D. nationalise banks and other key indus- A. To cherish and follow the noble ideals
tries which inspired our national struggle for
freedom.
22. Consider the following statements:
B. Right against Exploitation
I) A person who was born on 26th Jan-
C. Cultural and Educational rights
uary, 1951 in Rangoon, whose fa-
ther was a citizen of India by birth D. none of above
at the time of his birth is deemed to
be an Indian citizen by descent. 26. What is the minimum permissible age
II) A person who was born on 1st July, for employment in any factory or mine?
1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is [Delhi Police 1994]
a citizen of India at the time of A. 12 years
his birth but the father was not, is
B. 14 years
deemed to be a citizen of India by
birth. C. 16 years
Which of the statements given above D. 18 years
is/are correct? [CDS 2009]
27. Which among the following conditions are
A. I only necessary for the issue of writ of quo war-
B. II only ranto?
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 98
1. The office must be public and must A. It contains the scheme of the distribu-
be created by a Statute or by the tion of power between the Union and the
Constitution itself. States
2. The office must be a substantive one B. It contains the language listed in the
and not merely the function or em- Constitution
ployment of a servant at the will
and during the pleasure of another. C. It contains the provisions regarding
3. There has been a contravention of the administration of tribal areas
the constitution or a Statutory In-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. It allocates seats in the Council of
strument, in appointing such person States
to that office.
32. Which of the following rights was de-
Select the correct answer using the code
scribed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ’The
given below: [CDS 2012]
Heart and Soul of the Constitution’?
A. 1 and 2 only
A. Right of Freedom of Religion
B. 1 and 3 only
B. Right to Property
C. 2 and 3 only
C. Right to Equality
D. 1, 2 and 3
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
28. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens
33. Right to Information is [Asstt Commdt
were provided by:
2011]
A. an amendment of the Constiution
A. fundamental right
B. a judgement of the Supreme Court
B. legal right
C. an order issued by the President
C. neither fundamental right nor legal
D. a Legislation adopted by the Parlia- right
ment
D. both fundamental right as well as legal
29. The directive principles of state policy can Right
be broadly classified under headings.
34. “Foreign Affairs” falls under which Direc-
A. 2 tive Principle
B. 3 A. Socio-Economic
C. 4 B. Gandhian
D. 5 C. General
30. Indian constitution does not contain D. none of above
A. Equality 35. One of the Gandhian principles is Providing
B. Fundamental Rights free and compulsory education for children
C. Reservations upto the age of years.
D. Discrimination A. 15
B. 18
31. Which one of the following statements cor-
rectly describes the Fourth Schedule of the C. 13
Constitution of India? [IAS 2004] D. 14
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 99
36. Censorship of the press: A. Santhanam Committee
A. is prohibited by the Constitution B. Sarkaria Committee
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B. has to be judged by the test of reason- C. Swaran Singh Committee
ableness D. Indira Gandhi Committee
C. is a restriction on the freedom of the
41. Which one is not correctly matched?
press mentioned in Article 19
A. Freedom of speech and expression -
D. is specified in Article 31 of the Consti-
Include freedom of press
tution
B. Freedom of conscience - Include right
37. Which of these is NOT part of Right to to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs
Freedom?
C. Right to Personal liberty - Include right
A. No person would be punished for the to carry on any trade or business
same offence more thanonce.
D. Right to Equality - Include principles of
B. If arrested, the person has the right to natural justice
defend himself by a lawyer of his choice.
42. In India the right to “freedom of speech
C. No citizen can be denied his or her life
and expression” is restricted on the
except by procedure as laid down under
grounds of
the law.
1. the sovereignty and integrity of In-
D. The practice of untouchability has dia.
been abolished. 2. contempt of court.
38. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India 3. friendly relation with foreign states.
contains special provisions for the admin- 4. protection of minorities.
istration and control of Scheduled Areas in Select the correct answer using the code
several States? [IAS 2008] given below: [CDS 2010]
A. Third A. 1, 2 and 3
B. Fifth B. 2, 3 and 4
C. Seventh C. 1 and 3
D. Ninth D. 1, 2 and 4
39. The Fundamental individual are: 43. Which one of the following is a human
right as well as a fundamental right under
A. limited to the State action only
the Constitution of India? [BPSC 2011]
B. meant to protect persons against the
A. Right to Information
conduct of private persons
B. Right to Work
C. meant to protect persons against the
police action C. Right to Education
D. All of the above are correct D. Right to Housing
40. Fundamental duties have been added in 44. Which of the following is not in the Gen-
the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, eral principles?
1976 in accordance with the recommenda- A. Protecting International Peace and Se-
tions of: curity
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 100
B. Improve public health and education B. implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decen-
C. Protect an improve the environment tralized state
C. check the use of arbitrary powers by
D. Provide equal opportunity for legal aid
the government
45. Which of the following is/are included in D. promote welfare of the backward sec-
the Directive Principles of State Policy? tions of the society
[IAS 2008]
49. Consider the following statements: 1.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. Prohibition of traffic in human be- There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid
ings and forced labour down in the Constitution of India for every
2. Prohibition of consumption except citizen of India. 2. There is no provision
for medicinal purposes of intoxicat- in the Constitution of India for direct en-
ing drinks and of other drugs which forcement of the Fundamental Duties. 3.
are injurious to health. One of the Fundamental Duties of every
A. 1 only citizen of India is to cast his/her vote in
general or State elections so as to main-
B. 2 only
tain a vibrant democracy in India. Which
C. Both 1 and 2 of the statements given above is/are cor-
D. Neither 1 nor 2 rect? [CDS 2005]
A. 1 and 2
46. Which of the following is not specifically
B. 2 only
mentioned in Article 19 of the Constitu-
tion? C. 2 and 3
A. Freedom of speech and expression D. 3 only
B. Freedom to assemble peacefully with- 50. These are guidelines and instructions to
out arms the state to help in and of policies.
C. Freedom to move freely A. framing and making
D. Freedom of the press B. breaking
C. making
47. Which Article of the Constitution of India
says, ’No child below the age of fourteen D. framing
years shall be employed to work in any
51. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of
factory or mine or engaged in any other
religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution
hazardous employment? [IAS 2004]
of India) is a Fundamental Right classifi-
A. Article 24 able under: [IAS 1995]
B. Article 45 A. the Right to Freedom of Religion
C. Article 330 B. the Right against Exploitation
D. Article 368 C. the Cultural and Educational Rights
D. the Right to Equality
48. The purpose of Directive Principles of
State Policy is to [CDS 2011] 52. Directive Principles are important because
A. lay down positive instructions which they serve as
would guide State Policy at all levels A. Guidelines
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 101
B. Manifesto 57. Which statement/s is/are not correct re-
garding the Fundamental Rights? I. Some
C. Moral Compass
of these rights are not available to the
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D. none of above Armed Forces. II. They are automatically
suspended when any emergency is pro-
53. Dr. Ambedkar considered the right to claimed by the President. III. The Presi-
as ‘heart and soul of the constitution’. dent alone can decide upon modifying their
A. Freedom application to the Armed Forces. IV. They
cannot be amended as they form a basic
B. Freedom of Religion feature of the Constitution
C. Constitutional Remedies A. I and II
D. Right to Equality B. II, III and IV
54. Which of the following is correct about the C. I and IV
Fundamental Duties? D. I, II, III and IV
I) These are not enforceable.
II) They are primarily moral duties. 58. Suppose a legislation was passed by the
III) They are not related to any legal Parliament imposing certain restrictions on
rights. newspapers. These included page ceiling,
price and advertisements. The legislation
A. I, II and III is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Con-
B. I and III stitution of India. In this context, which
one among the following statements is cor-
C. II and III
rect? [CDS 2012]
D. I and II
A. The legislation is invalid as it violates
the freedom of Press
55. Which of the following is/are listed
among the Directive Principles in Part IV? B. The legislation is valid by virtue of Ar-
I. Equal pay for equal work. II. Uniform ticle 31 B
civil code. III. Small family norm IV. Edu- C. The legislation is invalid as it imposes
cation through mother tongue at primary unreasonable restrictions under Article
level. 19(2) of the Constitution
A. I, II and III D. The legislation is valid as the Press is
B. I and II not a citizen under Articles 19 of the Con-
stitution
C. II and III
D. I, II, III and IV 59. In the Constitution, opportunities for the
development of scientific temper, human-
56. Who are directive Principles? ism and spirit of inquiry and reform are
A. To make sure that the ideas of pream- found in:
ble are put into Practice A. Fundamental Rights
B. Who make laws and orders B. Preamble
C. Who make the preamble C. Fundamental Futies
D. none of above D. Directive Principles
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 102
60. Which of the following statements is/are B. Agriculture
correct? [CDS 2008] Article 26 of the C. Fisheries
Constitution of India states that subject
to public order, morality and health, ev- D. Public health
ery religious denomination or any section 63. The right to constitutional remedies in In-
thereof shall have the right dia is a vailable to:
1. to establish and maintain institu- A. citizens of India only
tions for religious and charitable pur-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
poses. B. all persons in case of infringement of
2. to manage its own affairs in matters any fundamental right
of religion. C. any person for enforcing any of the fun-
3. to own and acquire movable and im- damental rights conferred on all persons
movable property.
A. 1 only D. an aggrieved individual alone
B. 2 and 3 64. Which of the following statements regard-
C. 1 and 3 ing the Fundamental Duties as contained
in the Constitution of India is/are correct?
D. 1, 2 and 3
1. They can be enforced through writ ju-
61. Indian citizenship of a person can be termi- risdiction. 2. They have formed a part
nated if: of the Constitution since its adoption. 3.
They are applicable only to citizens of In-
I) a person voluntarily acquires the cit- dia. Select the correct answer using the
izenship of some other country. code given below: [Asstt Commdt 2011]
II) a person who has become a citizen
through registration is sentenced to A. 1, 2 and 3
imprisonment for not less than 10 B. 1 and 2 only
years within five years of his regis- C. 2 and 3 only
tration.
III) the Government of India is satis- D. 3 only
fied that citizenship was obtained 65. Which one among the following state-
by fraud. ments regarding the constitutionally guar-
IV) a person who is a citizen by birth in- anteed Right to Education in India is cor-
dulges in trade with an enemy coun- rect? [CDS 2011]
try during war.
A. This right covers both child and adult
A. I and III illiteracy and’ therefore universally guar-
B. I, II and III antees education to all citizens of India
C. I, III and IV B. This right is a child right covering the
age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes
D. I, II, III and IV
operational from the year 2015
62. Which one of the following subjects is un- C. This right has been taken from the
der the Union List in the Seventh Schedule British Constitution which was the first
of the Constitution of India? [IAS 2006] Welfare State in the world
A. Regulation of labour and safety in D. This right has been given to all Indian
mines and oilfields children between the ages of 6 to 14 Years
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 103
under the 86th Constitutional Amendment C. Hindustan
Act D. Aryavarta
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66. Untouchability is abolished and its practice
71. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes
is punishable according to:
under:
A. Article 15
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Article 16
B. Legal Rights
C. Article 17
C. Constitutional Rights
D. Article 15(4)
D. Natural Rights
67. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19
are suspended during emergency caused 72. Which of the following were added to the
by: Directive Principles by amendments to the
Constitution? I. To protect and improve
A. war or external aggression the environment and safeguard wild life.
B. failure of constitutional machinery of a II. Right of workers to participate in man-
State agement of industries. III. Right to work
C. internal armed rebellion IV. To protect and maintain places of his-
toric interest.
D. financial crisis
A. I and III
68. The theory of Fundamental Rights implies:
B. II and IV
[NDA 1992]
C. I, III and IV
A. sovereignty of the people
D. I and II
B. equality of opportunity for all
C. limited government 73. Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the
Constitution in:
D. equality of all before law
A. Part II
69. Which of the following statements is not
correct about Directive Principle of State B. Part II, Articles 5-11
Policy? C. Part II, Articles 5-6
A. If a State does not apply Directive Prin- D. Part I, Articles 5-11
ciple of State Policy, then a case may be
filed against it in court. 74. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, In-
dian citizenship cannot be acquired by:
B. ‘Gandhism’ is also an element of Direc-
tive Principle of State Policy. A. children of the diplomatic personnel or
alien enemies born in India on or after
C. Principles have been taken from the
26th January, 1950
Constitution of Ireland.
D. These principles are not binding on the B. children born of Indian citizens abroad
state.
C. incorporation of territory not forming
70. The Constitution names our country as: part of India at the commencement of the
A. Bharat Constitution
B. India, that is Bharat D. naturalization
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 104
75. Which of the following Directive Principles 79. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall
is based on Gandhian ideology? be:
A. Equal pay for equal work for both men A. the national language of India
and women B. the language of communication be-
B. Uniform civil code for all citizens tween the State Governments
C. Separation of Judiciary from Executive C. the official language of the Union of In-
dia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Promotion of cottage industries D. the language of communication be-
tween the Union Government and the
76. The ’Union of India’ consists of: State Governments
I) States 80. Which of the following can impose rea-
II) Union Territories sonable restrictions on the Fundamental
III) Acquired Territories Rights of the Indian citizens?
A. l only A. Supreme Court
B. II only B. Parliament
C. I and II C. President on the advice of the Council
D. I, II and III of Ministers
D. None of these; the restrictions have al-
77. Which of the following Fundamental
ready been included in the Constitution
Rights is also available to a foreigner on
the soil of India? 81. Which of the following is not a condition
A. Equality of opportunity in the matter of for becoming a citizen of India?
public employment A. Birth
B. Freedoms of movement, residence B. Acquiring property
and profession C. Descent
C. Protection from discrimination on D. Naturalisation
grounds only of religion, race, caste or
sex 82. Which of the following cannot be termed
D. Protection of life and personal liberty ’Gandhian’ among the Directive Princi-
against action without authority of law ples?
A. Prevention of cow slaughter
78. As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the
B. Promotion of cottage industries
fundamental rights? granted under Arti-
cles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are: C. Establishment of village panchayats
A. not available at all D. Uniform civil code for the country
B. available to armed forces but not to 83. ‘Equal pay for work, without any gender
other forces distinction’The above sentence belongs to
C. available only at the discretion of the which principle?
chief of army staff A. Principals promoting economic equal-
D. available only according to law made ity
by Parliament B. Gandhian principles
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 105
C. General principles 88. We should all show respect towards our:
D. None of these A. National Anthem
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B. National Flag
84. Details on how citizenship may be acquired
and terminated are enumerated in: C. Constitution
A. Part II of the Constitution D. All of these
B. the Citizenship Act, 1955 89. “Encouraging all types of small scale and
C. Schedule I of the Constitution cottage industries” this statement falls un-
der which Directive Principle?
D. various enactments by Parliament
A. Socio-Economic
85. With reference to the Constitution of India, B. Gandhian
which one of the following pairs is not cor-
C. General
rectly matched? Subject - List
D. none of above
A. Stock Exchange - State List
B. Forest - Concurrent List 90. Which one among the following pairs is no
correctly matched? [Asstt Commdt 2011]
C. Insurance - Union List
A. Power of the Parliament: Creating a
D. Marriage and Divorce - Concurrent List new state
86. Provide free legal aid for the needy.The B. Power of state legislature: Altering
above sentences belongs to which princi- the name of the state
ple? C. Equality before law: Guaranteed to
A. Principles Promoting Economic Equal- both Indian citizens and noncitizens
ity D. Equality of opportunity: Guaranteed to
B. Gandhian Principles only Indian citizens
C. General Principles 91. RTE states that private schools must re-
D. None of the above serve % seats for children from eco-
nomically weaker sections of the society.
87. Which one of the following has been A. 20
dropped from the list of personal freedoms
B. 15
enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitu-
tion? C. 25
A. Freedom to assemble peacefully with- D. 30
out arms
92. The Indian Constitution contains that
B. Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose protect us against state power.
of property
A. Fundamental duties
C. Freedom to reside and settle in any
part of the country B. Directive principles of state policy
C. Fundamental rights
D. Freedom to carry on any profession,
occupation; trade or business D. None of these
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 106
93. Which of the following are envisaged as C. Minerva Mills Case
being part of the ’Right against Exploita- D. All the above cases
tion’ in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohi-
bition of traffic in human beings and forced 98. The total number of Fundamental Duties
labour. 2. Abolition of untouchability. 3. mentioned in the Constitution is:
Protection of the interests of the minori-
A. 9
ties. 4. Prohibition of employment of chil-
dren in factories and mines. Select the cor- B. 10
NARAYAN CHANGDER
rect answer using the code given below: C. 11
[CDS 2011]
D. 12
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3 99. Once the proclamation of emergency is
made, the right of a citizen to move to the
C. 1 and 4
Supreme Court for the enforcement of his
D. 2, 3 and 4 fundamental right is suspended by the:
94. “Providing free and compulsory education A. Prime Minister of India
to all children till the age of 14 B. President of India
A. Socio-Economic C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Gandhian
D. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
C. General
D. none of above 100. Providing adequate means of earning a
livelihood.The above sentence belongs to
95. The Purpose of the Directive Principles of which category?
State is to create a welfare state in India: A. Principles promoting economic equal-
A. True ity
B. False B. Gandhian principles
C. Can’t say C. General principles
D. none of above D. None of the above
96. The Fundamental Right to has been 101. A person can become a citizen of India
deleted by the Amendment Act. even if born outside India if his/her:
A. form associations; 44th A. father is a citizen of India
B. property; 44th
B. mother is a citizen of India
C. against exploitation; 42nd
C. father is a citizen of India at the time
D. private property; 42nd of the person’s birth
97. In which case did the Supreme Court re- D. father or mother is a citizen of India at
store the primacy of the Fundamental the time of the person’s birth
Rights over the Directive Principles of
State Policy? [CPO SI 2010] 102. Which of the following statements is/are
not indicative of the difference between
A. Golaknath Case Fundamental Rights and Directive Princi-
B. Keshavananda Bharti Case ples?
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 107
I) Directive Principles are aimed at pro- 106. What are directive principles?
moting social welfare, while Funda-
A. Guide lines for the citizens
mental Rights are for protecting in-
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dividuals from State encroachment. B. Guidelines for the government
II) Fundamental Rights are limitations
C. Compulsory polices for the govern-
on State action, while Directive Prin-
ment
ciples are positive instructions for
the Government to work towards a D. Non of these
just socioeconomic order.
III) Fundamental Rights were included 107. Directive Principles and go hand in
in the original Constitution, but Di- hand
rective Principles were added by the
A. Fundamental Rights
first Amendment.
IV) Fundamental Rights are amendable, B. State Policy
but Directive Principles cannot be C. Welfare State
amended.
D. none of above
A. I and II
B. II and III 108. On whom does the Constitution confer
C. III and IV special responsibility for the enforcement
of Fundamental Rights?
D. I, II and III
A. Parliament
103. The Ninth Schedule was added by the
Amendment. B. Supreme Court
A. First C. President
B. Ninth D. State legislature
C. Thirty-fifth
109. A government is federal or unitary on the
D. Thirty-sixth basis of relations between the:
104. In which part of the Indian constitution A. three organs of government
the Directive Principle of State Policy are
B. Centre and States
mentioned?
A. Part 2 C. Legislature and the Executive
B. Part 3 D. Constitution and the States
C. Part 4
110. Which Article of the Constitution envis-
D. Part 5 ages free and compulsory education for
children upto the age of 14 years? [Rail-
105. The three Directive Principles are as fol-
ways 1993]
lows
A. Article 45
A. Socialism, Capitalism, Communism
B. Gandhian, Socio-Economic, General B. Article 19
C. General, Capital, Gandhian C. Article 29
D. none of above D. Article 32
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 108
111. Right to education is a fundamental right C. Fundamental Duties
emanating from right to: D. Union Executive
A. freedom of speech and expression un-
der Article 19 (1) (a) 116. The Fundamental Duties were included in
the Constitution with the idea of:
B. culture and education under Articles
29 and 30 A. giving more importance to the Funda-
mental Rights
C. life and personal liberty under Article
B. curbing subversive and unconstitu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
21
tional activities
D. equality before law and equal protec-
tion of law under Article 14 C. preventing abuse of Fundamental
Rights
112. Separation of the Judiciary from the Ex- D. giving more power to the executive
ecutive is enjoined by:
117. Consider the following statements: 2.
A. Preamble
The Article 20 of the Constitution of India
B. Directive Principle lays down that no person shall be deprived
C. Seventh Schedule of his life and personal liberty except ac-
cording to procedure established by law.
D. Judicial Decision
3. The Article 21 of the Constitution of In-
113. Providing free and compulsory education dia states that no person can be convicted
for children upto the age of for any offence except for the violation of
law in force at the time of the commission
A. 15 of the act charged as an offence. Which
B. 20 of these statements is/are correct? [CDS
2004]
C. 14
A. 1 only
D. 9
B. 2 only
114. Which is NOT a fundamental duty of an
C. Both 1 and 2
Indian Citizen?
D. Neither 1 nor 2
A. Freedom to practise one’s religion
B. Promote harmony and the spirit of 118. Which of the following rights conferred
brotherhood by the Constitution of India is also avail-
able to non-citizens? [BPSC 2011]
C. Defend the country and render na-
tional service A. Right to constitutional remedies
D. Uphold and protect the sovereignty, B. Freedom to speech
unity and integrity of India C. Freedom to move and settle in any part
of the country
115. With what subject do the Articles 5 to
8 of the Constitution of India deal? [CDS D. Freedom to acquire property
2005] 119. Under the Constitution of India, which
A. Details of Indian Union and its territory one of the following is not a fundamental
duty? [CSAT 2011]
B. Citizenship A. To vote in public elections
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 109
B. To develop the scientific temper 124. The right to an adequate means of liveli-
C. To safeguard public property hood is:
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D. To abide by the Constitution and re- A. A fundamental right
spect its ideals B. A directive principle of state
120. Establish village C. fundamental duty
A. School D. human right
B. Panchayats
125. Which of the following comes under Right
C. Colleges to Equality? 1. Non-discrimination by
D. none of above State on grounds of religion or race. 2.
Equal protection of the laws. 3. Equal pay
121. Which of the following statements re- for equal work. 4. Equality of opportu-
garding the acquisition of Indian citizen- nity in matters of employment under the
ship is correct? State.
A. If citizenship is to be acquired by reg-
A. I, II and III
istration, six months residence in India is
essential. B. II, III and IV
B. If citizenship is to be acquired by nat- C. II and IV
uralisation the person concerned must D. I, II and IV
have resided in India for 5 years.
C. If born in India, only that person can 126. Which of the following statements is in-
acquire citizenship at least one of whose correct?
parents is an Indian. A. The State cannot interfere in matters
D. Rules regarding the citizenship of In- of religion at any cost.
dia shall not be applicable to Jammu and B. A a person may choose any religion or
Kashmir. may choose not to follow any religion
122. Which of the following act is covered un- C. India does not have any official reli-
der the elements of Directive Principle? gion.
A. Ban on slaughter of milking animals D. The institutions run by the state will
B. All citizens have the right to get equal not preach any religion or give religious
opportunities for livelihood education nor will they favour persons of
any religion.
C. Free education for all children up to
fourteen years 127. Which of the following rights are avail-
D. All able to Indian citizens as well as foreign-
ers residing in Indian territory? I. Cultural
123. The state shall consider its primary duty and Educational Rights. II. Right to Free-
to stop the use of intoxicating drinks dom of religion. III. Right against discrimi-
A. General Principle nation by the State on grounds of religion,
B. Gandhian principle race, caste, sex or place of birth. IV. Right
to personal liberty.
C. Principle promoting economic equality
A. I and II
D. none of above B. III and IV
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 110
C. II and IV Union, State and Concurrent Lists C. VIIth
D. I, II, III and IV Schedule 3. Languages D. Vlth Schedule 4.
Related to tribal areas A B C D
128. Match the following [IAS 2004] Articles A. 1 2 3 4
of the Constitution of India 1. Article 14
B. 3 2 1 4
2. Article 15 3. Article 16 4. Article 17
Provision 1. The State shall not discrimi- C. 1 3 2 4
nate against any citizen on grounds only D. 4 2 3 1
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth
or any of them 2. The State shall not deny 132. Article 6 enshrines the provision confer-
to any person equality before the law or ring Rights of citizenship of certain per-
the equal protection of laws within the ter- sons who have migrated to India from Pak-
ritory of India 3. ’Untouchability’ is abol- istan. Which one of the following provi-
ished and its practice in any form is forbid- sions is incorrect?
den 4. There shall be equality of opportu- A. He or either of his parents or any of
nity for all citizens in matters relating to his grand-parents was born in India as de-
employment or appointment to any office fined in the Government of India Act, 1935
under the State A B C D
A. 2 4 1 3 B. Such person has so migrated before
B. 3 1 4 2 19 July, 1948
C. 2 1 4 3 C. Such person has so migrated on or af-
ter the 19 July, 1948, he has been regis-
D. 2 4 1 2 tered as a citizen
129. To acquire citizenship by registration a D. Such person has got married in India
person must have been resident in India
133. Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV A
for immediately before making an ap-
of the Constitution are:
plication:
A. enforceable duties and Parliament can
A. six months
impose penalties or punishments for the
B. one year non- compliance
C. three years B. like Directive Principles that: are man-
D. five years dates to people
C. like Fundamental Rights that are en-
130. According to Article 23, the following are forceable
prohibited:
D. no more than meant to create psycho-
A. traffic in human beings, beggary, slav- logical consciousness among the citizens
ery and bonded labour and of education value
B. monopoly of trade
134. Secularism means
C. sale of incenses
A. Separation of religion from the state
D. visit to terrorist infected areas B. People do not enjoy freedom of reli-
131. Match the following: A. Xth Schedule 1: gion
Provision as to the disqualifications on the C. People have to follow the religion out-
grounds of defection B. VIIIth Schedule 2. lined by the state
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 111
D. State interferes in materials of religion B. Declaration of the Rights of Man and
Citizen (France 1789)
135. Under Article 368, Parliament has no
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power to repeal Fundamental Rights be- C. Constitution of Ireland
cause they are: D. All of the above
A. enshrined in Part III of the Constitu- 140. Freedom of speech and expression are re-
tion stricted in the Constitution on grounds of
B. human rights I. defamation II. contempt of court III. pro-
C. transcendental rights tecting a scheduled tribe IV. friendly rela-
tions with foreign states
D. part of bask structure of essential
A. I, II and III
framework of the Constitution
B. II, III and IV
136. The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitu-
C. I and IV
tion:
D. I, II and IV
A. contains provrsions relating to elec-
tions to Panchayats 141. The Fundamental Duties:
B. contains subjects over which Munici- I) were introduced by the 44th Amend-
palities may have control ment.
C. contains recommendations relating to II) are incorporated in Part Ill-A.
establishment of State Finance Commis- III) are not justiciable.
sion A. I and II
D. was added by the 73rd Amendment Act B. I and III
137. Which part of the Constitution deals with C. II and III
the Directive Principles of State Policy? D. III only
A. Part III
142. Which one among the following is not
B. Part IV guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
C. Part V [CDS 2011]
D. Part II A. Freedom to move freely throughout
the country
138. Principle promoting economic equality
B. Freedom to assemble peacefully with-
A. Protect health of working people out arms
B. Establish village panchayats C. Freedom to own, acquire and dispose
C. Equal pay for work without gender dis- of property anywhere in the country
crimination D. Freedom to practice any trade or pro-
D. both 1 and 3 fession
139. The framers of the constitution borrowed 143. Regarding equality before law, the In-
certain principles from the , and dian Constitution makes exceptions in the
case of:
A. American independence (America A. the President or a Governor
1776) B. foreign sovereigns only
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1.9 Directive Principles of State Policy 112
C. the President only 149. The right against exploitation prohibits
D. None children:
A. below 14 years of age from employ-
144. The Directive Principle have been taken ment in family businesses
from the constitution of ?
B. below 14 years of age from being em-
A. Britain ployed in hazardous occupations
B. Canada C. below 14 years from working on family
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. America farms
D. Ireland D. from doing all the above
145. A country that looks after the socio- 150. Under which Article of the Constitution
economic well being of the citizens is called are the Cultural and Educational Rights
a state granted? [Railways 1995]
A. Socialist A. Article 29 and 31
B. Welfare B. Article 29 and 32
C. Democracy C. Article 29 and 30
D. Article 30 and 31
D. none of above
151. Tick the correct option-
146. Right to education act 2009 ensures free
and compulsory education for children of A. Directive Principles are guidelines to
ages years be followed by the government
A. 11 to 20 B. Directive Principles are substitute
laws for the country
B. 6 to 14
C. Directive Principles and Fundamental
C. 7 to 10 Duties are the same.
D. 4 to 9 D. Directive Principles are included in Ar-
147. Indian Constitution recognises minorities ticles 36 to 51
on the basis of: 152. After whom are the Gandhian principles
A. religion named?
B. caste A. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. population B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
D. colour C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. P.M Narendra Modi
148. Which is the competent body to prescribe
conditions for acquisition of citizenship? 153. Citizens must preserve their cultural her-
[SSC (10+2) 2010] itage is a Fundamental Duty
A. Election Commission A. True
B. President B. False
C. Parliament C. Can’t Say
D. Parliament and Assemblies D. Hmmmm!
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 113
154. Which of the following Articles describes C. I, III and IV
about the person voluntarily acquiring cit-
D. III and IV
izenship of a foreign state not to be citi-
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zens? 156. In which part of the Constitution are the
A. Article 5 Directive Principles included?
B. Article 7 A. Part III
C. Article 8 B. Part IV
D. Article 9 C. Part V
155. Which of the following factors do not Ex- D. Part VI
plain why the rights included in Part III
of the Constitution are called ’fundamen- 157. Who is competent to prescribe conditions
tal’? I. They are equally available to cit- as for acquiring Indian citizenship? [Asstt
izens and aliens. II. They are superior to Grade 1992]
ordinary law III. They are fundamental for A. Parliament
governing the country. IV. They are not
absolute. B. State Legislatures
A. II and IV C. President
B. I, II and III D. Attorney General
1.10 Fundamental Duties
1. By-Election is the election which is held- A. The fundamental duties are confined
A. Directly. to citizens only and do not extend to for-
eigners.
B. Indirectly.
B. Fundamental duties are non-
C. To fill up a vacancy in the legislature. justiciable.
D. When a legislature is dissolved before C. There is no legal sanction against the
the expiry of its normal term. violation of fundamental duties.
2. Promote harmony and the spirit of com- D. none of above
mon brotherhood amongst all the people of
4. Which among the following is not a feature
India transcending religious, linguistic and
of the Indian Constitution?
regional or sectional diversities and to re-
nounce practices derogatory to the dignity A. Parliamentary form of government.
of . B. Federal form of government.
A. Indian C. Double citizenship.
B. Women D. A written constitution.
C. Men
5. How many members did the Constituent
D. Children Assembly of India have?
3. Consider the following statements:(select A. 299
the correct statement) B. 199
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 114
C. 399 11. The Constitution of India was framed by-
D. 279 A. British Monarchy.
6. Which Fundamental righy has been added B. A Constituent Assembly.
recently C. British Parliament.
A. Right to education D. Indian Parliament.
B. Right to religion
12. Which of the following is not the Funda-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Right to equality
mental Duty?
D. none of above
A. Safeguarding public property
7. Which of these are suspend during the pe- B. To obey the parents
riod of emergency
C. To make compulsory education to chil-
A. Fundamental rights dren of 6 to 14 years
B. Fundamental duties D. To spread brotherhood among the peo-
C. Directive principles ple
D. none of above
13. In Democracy Elections are important be-
8. Find the wrong option amongst the follow- cause
ing: A. The formation of government becomes
A. To defend the country and render na- easy.
tional service when called upon to do so. B. They help in the formation of opposi-
tion party.
B. To promote harmony and spirit of com- C. They are a check on the working of the
mon brotherhood government.
C. To value derogatory practices
D. All of the above.
D. none of above
14. Which of the following is not matched cor-
9. Which is not an example of a duty. rectly?
A. Paying Taxes A. Forest Conservation Act:1980
B. Obeying Laws
B. Wildlife Protection Act:1974
C. Voting
C. Public Representation Act:1951
D. Selective Service (Men Only)
D. Civil Duties Protection Act:1955
10. h Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
added a duty (11th one) to provide oppor- 15. Is this task a right, duty, or responsibility?
tunities for education to his child or ward RESPECT THE RIGHTS AND OPINIONS OF
of the age? OTHERS
A. upto 6 years A. Right
B. 6 to 14 years B. Duty
C. upto 14 years C. Responsibility
D. 6 to 12 years D. none of above
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 115
16. Which of the following statements is/are B. May 20 1204
not correct with respect to features of Fun- C. December 25 1548
damental Duties? 1. Some of them are
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moral duties while others are civic duties2. D. none of above
Fundamental Duties extend to all persons 21. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act,
whether citizens or foreigners3. They es- 2002 puts duty on parent or guardian to
sentially contain a codification of tasks in- provide opportunities for education to his
tegral to the Indian way of life4. The Con- Child or Ward in the age of
stitution provides for their direct enforce-
A. 6 to 14
ment by the courts
B. 6 to 10
A. 2 & 4 only
C. 5 to 15
B. 2 & 3 only
D. 6 to 16
C. 1 & 2 only
D. 1 & 4 only 22. In which of the following years, the Fun-
damental Duties have been added in the
17. Which one of the following amendment Constitution of India?
accorded precedence to Directive Principle A. 1965
over fundamental rights?
B. 1976
A. 44
C. 1979
B. 24
D. 1982
C. 39
23. “To uphold & protect the Sovereignty
D. 42 Unity & Integrity of India” is a provision
18. Provide opportunities for education to his made in the (CS 2015)
child or ward between the age of and A. Preamble of the Constitution
fourteen years B. Directive Principles of State Policy
A. 2 C. Fundamental Rights
B. 4 D. Fundamental Duties
C. 8
24. Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity
D. The answer is not there in the options and integrity of
A. Independent
19. President of India is elected B. Indian
A. Directly by the people. C. India
B. By members of both the Houses of Par- D. Unity
liament .
25. The members of the Constituent Assembly
C. The State Legislature. were elected by
D. Indirectly by the members of an elec- A. British Government
toral college.
B. People of USA
20. India gained Republic day C. People of India
A. January 26 1950 D. Landlords
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 116
26. In the context of India, which one of the 31. Indian constitution has principles.
following is the correct relationship be- A. 2
tween Rights & Duties? (CS 2017)
B. 3
A. Rights are correlative with Duties
C. 4
B. Rights are personal & hence indepen-
dent of society & Duties D. 5
C. Rights, not Duties, are important for 32. Elections in India for Parliament and State
NARAYAN CHANGDER
advancement of the personality of citizen Legislatures are conducted by
D. Duties, not Rights, are important for A. President.
the stability of the State B. Prime Minister.
27. When Fundamental duties were added in C. Governor.
the constitution of India? D. Election Commission of India.
A. 1976
33. Fundamental Duties were added on the rec-
B. 1965 ommendation of which committee?
C. 1970 A. Swaran Singh Committee
D. 1992 B. Sarkaria Committee
28. Is this task a right, duty, or responsibility? C. Urjit Patel Committee
SERVE ON A JURY OR AS A WITNESS IN D. Nayar Committee
COURT
A. Right 34. How many duties were in the original con-
stitution(when the constitution was cre-
B. Duty ated)?
C. Responsibility A. Eight
D. none of above B. Ten
29. Which one of the following is not a Funda- C. Four
mental duty under Article51-A of the Con- D. Zero
stitution of Undia?
A. To render national service when called 35. There are fundamental rights
upon to do so. A. Ten
B. To cast vote in the elections. B. Five
C. To strive for excellence. C. Seven
D. To develop scientific temper. D. none of above
30. Members of Election Commission are ap- 36. The meetings of Rajya Sabha are presided
pointed by over by
A. President of India . A. President.
B. Prime Minister of India. B. Speaker.
C. Elected by the people. C. Prime Minister.
D. Chief Justice of India. D. Vice-President of India
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 117
37. Which of the following statements is 42. In the Indian Constitution the word ‘Secu-
false? larism’ means
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A. Fundamental duties are given in Part A. The government having secular pow-
IV of the Constitution ers.
B. After the forty second constitutional B. All citizens have right to vote.
amendment fundamental duties have
been added to the Constitution of India C. All citizens having right to equality.
D. All citizens having complete freedom
C. In 2002, after the 82nd Constitutional to follow any religion.
amendment act another fundamental duty
was added. 43. Lok Sabha(House of People) is
D. Public representation Act, enacted in A. More powerful than RajyaSabha (Coun-
1951 cil of State )
38. The memebers of Rajya Sabha are elected B. Less powerful than Rajya Sabha.
for years.
C. Both houses enjoy equal powers.
A. 4
D. None of the above.
B. 5
C. 6 44. Abide by the Indian Constitution and
D. 7 its ideals and institutions, the National
Flag and the National Anthem
39. Is this task a right, duty, or responsibil-
ity? SERVE IN THE ARMED FORCES IF A. Salute
DRAFTED B. respect
A. Right C. Put a finger in the head
B. Duty
D. Don’t know
C. Responsibility
D. none of above 45. At present how many Fundamental duties
are there in the constitution of India?
40. The members of the constituent assembly
were elected by the A. 6
A. British government B. 7
B. People of India C. 10
C. Landlords D. 11
D. none of above
46. Respect for the National flag and the Na-
41. Instructions to the legislature and execu- tional anthem is
tive on what to do
A. fundamental right of every citizen
A. Rights
B. Election Manisfesto B. fundamental duty of every citizen
C. Preamble C. directive principle of state policy
D. Directive Principles of State Policy D. an ordinary duty of every citizen
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 118
47. The ‘Fundamental Duties’ are intended to 52. Which of the following is not correctly
serve as a reminder to: matched?
A. The State to perform duties conferred A. Fundamental duties-Part IV-A
by the Constitution. B. Directive principles of State policy-
B. The judiciary to administer justice Part IV
properly. C. Fundamental rights-Part III
C. Every citizen to observe basic norms of D. none of these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
democratic conduct.
53. Who was the First Governor General of In-
D. The legislature to make laws for the dependent India?
welfare of the people.
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
48. How many languages are accepted in the B. Dr. S.Radhakrishnan
Indian Constitution? C. Mahatma Gandhi
A. 22 D. Lord Mount Batten
B. 28 54. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
C. 15 was adopted on
D. 20 A. December 1, 1948
B. December 10, 1948
49. Develop scientific temper, humanism and
C. December 11, 1948
the spirit of inquiry and
D. December 31, 1948
A. Reformed
B. Terminator 55. Which Constitutional Amendment Act was
passed to provide compulsory education to
C. Reform children between 6 and 14 years?
D. An explorer A. 86th Amendment
B. 85th Amendment
50. and follow the noble ideals that in-
spired the national struggle for freedom C. 82nd Amendment
A. Merish D. 84th Amendment
B. Charish 56. The constitution of India, adopted Funda-
mental Duties from the constitution of
C. Cherish
?
D. Chirshed A. America
51. When was the prevention of insults to Na- B. Japan
tional Honour Act passed? C. Russia
A. 1976 D. Great Britain
B. 1972 57. Jana Gana Mana we written by
C. 1974 A. Subhash Chandra Bose
D. 1971 B. Mahatma Gandhi
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 119
C. Rabindranath Tagore C. Maybe
D. none of above D. none of above
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58. Which of the following Articles of the Con- 64. Prime Minister of India is
stitution of India relate to the protection
and improvement of environment A. Elected directly by the people.
A. Article 48A only. B. Appointed by the President.
B. Article 51 A only. C. Appointed by Chief Election Commis-
C. Both Article 48A and Article 51A sioner.
D. Neither Article 48A nor Article 51 A. D. Elected by the Legislative Assemblies
of the Stste
59. What is the minimum age required to con-
test Lok Sabha elections? 65. Swaran Singh committee recommenda-
A. 18 tions resulted in formulation of
B. 25 A. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. 18 B. Minorities
D. 20 C. Fundamental Rights
60. Respect for the National Flag and the Na- D. Fundamental Duties
tional Anthem is
66. The head of government is
A. A Fundamental Right of every citizen
A. President.
B. A Fundamental duty of every citizen.
B. Vice-President.
C. A directive principle of state policy.
D. An ordinary duty of every citizen. C. Prime Minister.
D. Governor.
61. Who made the Directive Principles?
A. Central Government 67. Protect and improve the natural environ-
B. Our Constitution ment including forests, lakes, rivers and
and to have compassion for living crea-
C. People of India tures
D. State Government A. Wildlife
62. Who is the first prime minister of India? B. Life
A. Jhawalal Nehru C. Wild
B. Mohandas Karamchan Ghandhi D. Cold
C. Sarojini Naidu
68. Who is the 2nd Prime minister of india?
D. Indira gandhi
A. Lalbadhur shastri
63. All citizens must help to keep the country
united B. Jawhalal nehru
A. True C. Sardarvalabhai patel
B. False D. Indira gandhi
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 120
69. How many seats are reserved for the 74. At which date india was independent-
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in A. 15 August 1947
the Lok Sabha?
B. 26 January 1950
A. 49, 79
C. 13 May 1948
B. 50, 80 D. 9 June 1947
C. 79, 49
75. No of people is allowed!
D. 49, 50
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. gathering
70. Which of the following in the Constitution B. travelling
can be amended? 1. Fundamental duties2. C. exploitation
Fundamental Rights3. Directive Principles
D. none of above
A. 1 and 2
76. The President of India is elected for
B. 1 and 3 years.
C. 2 and 3 A. 2
D. 1, 2 and 3 B. 3
C. 4
71. How many states and union territories
have? D. 5
A. 29 state and 10 union territories 77. India is a Secular State because
B. 27 states and 8 union territories A. There is no state religion.
B. Every citizen has the right to adopt and
C. 28 states and 8 union territories
practice any religion .
D. 30 states and 8 union territories C. No discrimination can be made among
citizens on the basis of religion .
72. Who among the following was the Chair-
man of the Drafting Committee of the Con- D. All of the above.
stituent Committee which framed the con- 78. During the Election’s duty, the government
stitution of India? officers work under:
A. Dr Rajendra Prasad. A. Governor.
B. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar. B. President.
C. Jawaharlal Nehru. C. Parliament.
D. Mahatma Gandhi. D. Election Commission.
79. Who define democracy as the Government
73. Is this task a right, duty, or responsibility?
of the people for the people and by the
PAY TAXES
people
A. Right
A. Abraham Lincoln
B. Duty B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Responsibility C. George Washington
D. none of above D. none of above
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 121
80. Strive towards excellence in all spheres of Constitution which for the first time spec-
and collective activity so that the na- ified a code of eleven duties of the citi-
tion constantly rises to higher levels of en- zens2. They have been added in the Con-
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deavour and achievement stitution during the operation of the inter-
A. Individual nal emergency3. They have been included
as an appendage to Fundamental Rights of
B. Group the Constitution
C. Certain committee A. All of the above
D. I don’t know the answer B. 1 & 2 only
81. Which among the following is not a funda- C. 2 only
mental duty of the citizens of India? D. 2 & 3 only
A. To respect the Institution
86. President is-
B. To abide by the constitution.
A. Nominal head of the State.
C. To respect the National Song.
B. Head of the Government.
D. To respect the National Anthem.
C. Real head of the State.
82. Is this task a right, duty, or responsibility? D. None of these.
REGISTER AND VOTE
87. Which of the following is/are among the
A. Right
Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down
B. Duty in the Indian Constitution? 1. To preserve
C. Responsibility the rich heritage of our composite culture2.
To protect the weaker sections from social
D. none of above
injustice3. To develop the scientific temper
83. Under Indian Constitution, ‘To value and and spirit of inquiry4. To strive towards
preserve the rich heritage of our compos- excellence in all spheres of individual and
ite culture’ is a? collective activitySelect the correct answer
using the codes given below:(CS 2012)
A. Fundamental Right
A. 1 & 2 only
B. Fundamental Duty
B. 2 only
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. 1, 3 & 4 only
D. Social Morality
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
84. is the highest court of the state.
88. National anthem of india
A. high court
A. Vande mataram
B. supreme court
B. Jana gana mana
C. district court
C. Saree jahaa se acchaa
D. gram court
D. none of above
85. Consider the following statements reg
Fundamental Duties & choose the correct 89. Safeguard property and to abjure vio-
ones:1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment lence
Act added Part IVA & Article 51A to the A. Original
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 122
B. Public 95. Article 51 A provides for the fundamental
C. Government duties of
D. Relationship A. Citizens of India
90. Value and preserve the rich of the B. Foreigners
country’s composite culture C. Public servants
A. Protein
D. None of the above
B. Heritage and respect
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Heritage 96. ‘Equal pay for equal work’ has been en-
D. Respect sured in the Indian Constitution as one of
the
91. India gained independence on
A. Fundamental Rights
A. 15 August 1947
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. 29 January 1950
C. 11 May 1948 C. Economic Rights
D. none of above D. Fundamental Duties
92. Find the right fundamental duty amongst
97. Which of the following is not a feature of
the following:
Election system in India?
A. To destroy forest and natural environ-
ment A. Universal Adult Franchise.
B. To strive towards failure in all sphere B. Secret Voting.
of individual and collective activity
C. Reservation of seats in the legislature
C. it is the duty of a parent or guardian for the members of Scheduled Castes and
to provide opportunity for education to his Scheduled Tribes.
child
D. Communal Electorate.
D. none of above
93. The Rights provided by the Constitution 98. How many fundamental duties are there in
are called the Indian constitution?
A. Governmental Rights A. 5
B. Optional Rights B. 8
C. Economic Rights
C. 10
D. Fundamental Rights
D. 11
94. Which countries constitution became the
source of Fundamental duties in the con- 99. Who is the first president of india?
stitution of India?
A. Dr.Rajendra Prasad
A. USA
B. Lalbadhur Shastri
B. Britain
C. France C. Sarojini Naidu
D. USSR D. Mahatma gandhi
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1.10 Fundamental Duties 123
100. Which of the following fundamental du- 105. Into how many Constituencies the coun-
ties has been added by the 86th Amend- try is divided during the Lok Sabha elec-
ment of the Constitution? tions?
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A. duty to develop scientific temper A. 543
B. duty to safeguard public property B. 545
C. duty to defend country and render na- C. 550
tional service when called upon to do so
D. 530
D. duty of parent to provide opportunity 106. When did the Constitution of India come
for education to his child into effect?
101. Defend the country and render ser- A. 26th January 1947
vice when called upon to do so B. 26th January 1950
A. Local C. 15th August 1950
B. International D. 15th August 1947
C. National
107. Which of the following is not a fundamen-
D. Urban tal duty?
102. Who is the father of Constitution? A. To vote in public elections.
A. B.R Ambedkar B. To develop the scientific temper.
B. Mahatma Gandhi C. To safeguard public property.
C. Jawalal Nehru D. To uphold and protect the sovereignty,
unity and integrity of India.
D. Subhash Chandra Bose
103. Protection of lakes is an objective ex- 108. Which among the following is not the fun-
pressly stated in which one of the follow- damental duties?
ing? A. To abide by the constitution and re-
A. Fundamental Duties. spect the national flag and the national an-
them
B. Directive Principles of State Policy.
B. To promote a single religion
C. Fundamental Rights.
C. To promote the spirit of common broth-
D. Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. erhood among all the people in India
104. In which case, the Supreme Court has D. To develop the scientific temper and
held that fundamental duties must be used spirit of inquiry
as a tool to control state action drifting
from Constitutional values? 109. has been added to the Constitution
by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002.
A. L.K. Koolwal v. State of Rajasthan
A. Right to Property
B. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
B. Right to Privacy
C. Sachidanand Pandey v. State of West
Bengal C. Right to Information
D. AIIMS Students Union v. AIIMS D. Right to Education
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 124
110. Which of the following statements is/are B. President
correct with respect to significance of Fun- C. Governor
damental Duties? 1. They help the courts
in examining & determining the constitu- D. Prime minister
tional validity of a law2. They are enforce- 113. The protection and improvement of envi-
able by law3. They are non-justiciable ronment including forests and wild life of
A. All of the above the country is
B. 1 & 3 only A. Directive Principle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 2 & 3 only B. Fundamental Duty
D. 1 & 3 only C. National Policy
D. Both Directive Principle and Funda-
111. Who is honoured as the father of nation
mental Duty
A. Dr BR Ambedkar
114. Who among the following was not a
B. Jawahar Lal Nehru
member of the Constituent Assembly?
C. Mahatma Gandhu
A. Mahatma Gandhi.
D. None
B. Jawahar Lal Nehru .
112. The is the head of the state. C. Dr Rajendra Prasad.
A. minister D. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar.
1.11 Amendment of the Constitution
1. Under which one of the following Consti- B. Haryana State was split
tution Amendment Acts, four languages
C. First official census in India was held
were added to the languages under the
Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of In- D. First general elections to the Lok
dia, thereby raising their number to 22? Sabha were held
[IAS 2008]
A. Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) 3. Which of the following would be construed
Act as a reasonable restriction of the ’right to
freedom’? [CDS 2009]
B. Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment)
Act A. When the State disallows a candidate
from securing votes in the name of reli-
C. Constitution (Ninety-second Amend- gion
ment) Act
B. When the State disallows citizens from
D. Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) forming a club out of State funds that de-
Act nies access to women
2. Why is the year 1952 important in Indian C. When the Government of Nagaland dis-
History? allows temporary residents to buy immov-
able property in Nagaland.
A. States Reorganisation Act was passed
D. AII of the above
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 125
4. By which Amendment, the power to amend 9. Which of the following are correct re-
the Constitution was specifically conferred garding the Parliament’s power of amend-
upon the Parliament? [NDA 1992] ment?
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A. 56th I) It can amend the Fundamental
B. 52nd Rights.
II) It can amend the basic structure of
C. 42nd the Constitution.
D. 24th
A. Only I
5. Department of Border Management is a B. Only II
Department of which one of the following
Union Ministries? [IAS 2008] C. Both I and II
A. Ministry of Defence D. None of the above
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
10. Territorial waters of India extends upto
C. Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport how many nautical miles? [IFS 1989]
and Highways
A. 8
D. Ministry of Environment and Forests
B. 12
6. What is the document published by the
C. 18
government to apprise the public on any
issue? [Central Excise 1990] D. 22
A. Gazette
11. The Constitution envisages:
B. Report of Public Accounts Committee
A. two types of civil services-
C. White Paper administrative and police
D. None of the above
B. two types of civil services-Indian and
7. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of Provincial
India was: [UDC 1993] C. three types of civil services-all- India,
A. added by the first Amendment Central and regional
B. added by the 24th Amendment D. three types of civil services-all- India,
Central and State
C. added by the 42nd Amendment
D. a part of the original Constitution 12. Which is the highest ranking post among
the following?
8. In which one of the following years did the
Right to Information Act come into force? A. Chief of the Air Staff
[CDS 2008]
B. Judge of the Supreme Court
A. 2003
C. Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
B. 2004
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. 2005
D. 2006 13. Match the following [IFS 1993]
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 126
A. MP Elected by an Elec- C. Ministry of Human Resource Develop-
toral College ment
B. President Elected by the Par-
D. Ministry of Information and Broad
liament
casting
C. Vice-President Elected by the Lok
Sabha 16. There are different arguments given in
D. Speaker Elected by adult vot- favour of power sharing in a democratic
ing political system. Which one of the follow-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing is not one of them? [CDS 2011]
A. 1 2 3 4 A. It reduces conflict among different
communities
B. 2 3 4 1
C. 3 4 1 2 B. Majority community does not impose
its will on others
D. 4 1 2 3
C. Since all are affected by the policies of
14. According to the Constitution (Fifty Second the government, they should be consulted
Amendment) Act 1985asamended in 2003, in the governance of the country
a legislator attracts disqualification under D. It speeds up the decision making pro-
the Tenth Schedule if cess and improves the chances of unity of
I) he voluntarily gives up the member- the country
ship of the party on whose ticket he
was elected. 17. Consider the following statements in re-
II) he votes or abstains from voting spect of protection of copyright in India
contrary to any direction issued by I) Copyright is a legal right given to
his political party. creators of literacy, dramatic, musi-
III) as a result of split, less than one cal and artistic works and produces
third of the members formed a new of cinematograph films and sound
group or party in the house. recordings.
IV) a member who has been elected as II) Copyright protects only the expres-
an independent member joins any sion and not the ideas. There is no
political party. copyright in an idea.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above
given below [CDS 2009] is/are correct? [CDS 2009]
A. II and III A. I only
B. I, II and IV B. II only
C. I and III C. Both I and II
D. I, II, III and IV D. Neither I nor II
15. Department of Official Language (Raj 18. In India, if a religious sect/community is
Bhasha Vibhag) comes under which one of given the status of a national minority,
the following Ministries? [CDS 2008] what special advantages is it entitled to?
A. Ministry of Culture 1. It can establish and administer ex-
B. Ministry of Home Affairs clusive educational institutions.
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 127
2. The President of India automatically III) 51st Amendment - Curbed political
nominates a representative of the defections
community to Lok Sabha. IV) 61st Amendment - Reduced voting
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3. It can derive benefits from the Prime age.
Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
A. I, II and IV
Which of the statements given above
B. II, III and IV
is/are correct? [CSAT 2011]
A. 1 only C. I and IV
B. 2 and 3 only D. II and III
C. 1 and 3 only 23. Which of the following Amendments
D. 1, 2 and 3 would need State ratification?
19. Which of the following countries has the I) Provisions affecting President’s
briefest Constitution in the world? election.
II) Provisions affecting the Union Judi-
A. France ciary.
B. USA III) Amendment procedure.
C. UK IV) Reservation of seats for SC/ST in
Parliament.
D. Canada
A. I, II and IV
20. In the Minerva Mills batch of cases the
B. III and IV
Supreme Court has further reaffirmed its
decision in: C. I and IV
A. Golakh Nath Case D. I, II, III and IV
B. Keshavanand Bharati case
24. The quarantine regulation for preventing
C. Sajjan Singh Case entry of diseased plants into the country is
D. None of the above done by which one of the following? [CDS
2008]
21. Which Amendment of the Constitution
A. National Botanical Research Institute
gave priority to Directive Principles over
Fundamental Rights? B. Botanical Survey of India
A. 24th Amendment C. National Bureau of Plant Genetic Re-
B. 39th Amendment sources
C. 42nd Amendment D. Council of Scientific and Industrial Re-
search
D. 40th Amendment
22. Which of these Amendments and their sub- 25. How many States are required to ratify
ject matter is/are incorrectly matched? certain Amendments to the Constitution?
I) 26th Amendment - Abolition of ti- A. Not less than half the number
tles and privileges of former rules B. Three-fourths of the number
of princely states
C. At least 10 States
II) 21st Amendment - Curtailed the
right to property D. All States in some cases
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 128
26. Which of the following is true about C. Ra- and in a State must not exceed 15 percent
jgopalachari? of the total number of members in the Lok
A. He was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha Sabha and the total number of members
after independence of the Legislative Assembly of that State,
respectively? [IAS 2007]
B. He was the Chairman of the Constitu-
tion Drafting Body of India A. 91st
C. He was the first and last Indian Gover- B. 93rd
NARAYAN CHANGDER
nor General of India after independence C. 95th
D. 97th
D. He was the Governor of Tamil Nadu
31. Which one of the following pairs is not cor-
27. Of all the Amendments in the Indian Consti-
rectly matched? [IAS 2006]
tution, the most Comprehensive and Con-
troversial Amendment was: A. States Reorganisation Act: Andhra
A. 42nd Pradesh
B. 43rd B. Treaty of Yandabu: Asom
C. 44th C. State of Bilaspur:Himachal Pradesh
D. 45th D. Year 1966: Gujarat becomes a State
28. By which Amendment Act of the Consti- 32. The President of USA is elected after ev-
tuttion of India were the Directive Princi- ery:
ples of the State Policy given precedence
over the Fundamental Rights wherever A. 3 years
they come into conflict? [CDS 200S] B. 4 years
A. 40th C. 5 years
B. 42nd D. 6 years
C. 44th
33. Which of the following statements regard-
D. 46th
ing literacy in India are correct?
29. The Amendment regarding the formation I) A person who can only read but can-
of a new State by separating territory not write is not defined literate.
from any other State must be passed by: II) Children below 5 years of age are
A. only Lok Sabha not taken into consideration even if
they are able to read and write.
B. only Rajya Sabha
III) For the purpose of census, a per-
C. both the Houses of Parliament son is deemed literate if he or she
D. both the Houses of Parliament and be- can read and write with understand-
fore that the opinion of that State is to be ing in any of the 22 languages men-
ascertained by the President tioned in the Constitution
IV) The fact that a district has attained
30. Which of the following Constitution hundred percent literacy does not
Amendment Acts seeks that the size of mean that the entire population in
the Councils of Ministers at the Centre the district is literate.
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 129
A. I, III and IV A. system of judiciary
B. II, III and IV B. composition of Parliament
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C. I, II and III C. Executive-Legislature relationship
D. I, II and IV D. provisions pertaining to Fundamental
Rights
34. In which one of the following Ministries,
the census organisation has been function- 38. The National Commission for Women was
ing on a permanent footing since 1961? created by [CDS 2012]
[CDS 2009] A. an amendment in the Constitution of
A. Health and Family Welfare India
B. Home Affairs B. a decision of the Union Cabinet
C. Social Justice and Empowerment C. an Act passed by the Parliament
D. Human Resource Development D. an order of the President of India
35. Who is entitled to initiate a Bill for Consti- 39. Civil servants are not permitted to become:
tutional Amendments? [Delhi Police 1994]
A. State Legislative Assemblies A. Chief Election Commissioner
B. Lok Sabha only B. Vice-Chancellors of Universities
C. Either House of Parliament C. Heads of Commissions of Enquiry
D. Rajya Sabha only D. Members of Parliament
36. Consider the following statements with 40. Under which one of the Ministries of the
reference to the linguistic reorganization Government of India does the Food and Nu-
of States in independent India: trition Board work? [IAS 2005]
1. The separate State of Andhra for the A. Ministry of Agriculture
Telugu people came into existence in B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
1953. C. Ministry of Human Resource Develop-
2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly ment
in favour of the movement for lin-
D. Ministry of Rural Development
guistic reorganisation of States that
came in the wake of the success of 41. An Amendment of the Bill relating to the
the Andhra movement. manner and mode of election of the Presi-
Which of the statements given above dent:
is/are correct? [IAS 2008] A. does not need the assent of the Presi-
A. 1 only dent
B. 2 only B. does need the assent of the President
C. Both 1 and 2
C. does not need the assent of the Presi-
D. Neither 1 nor 2 dent if passed by ratification of the States
37. If India decides to have a Presidential
form of government, the first and fore- D. on approval of the Bill by the cabinet,
most Amendment has to be made affecting assent of the President may be dispensed
the: with
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 130
42. Which Amendment provided for an au- C. The power under Article 368 to amend
thoritative version of the Constitution in the Constitution cannot be so exercised as
Hindi? to alter the basic structure or the essen-
A. 56th tial features of the Constitution
B. 58th D. The Supreme Court has full authority
to pronounce on the Constitutional Valid-
C. 60th ity of any State law
D. 61st
46. The provision of amending the Constitu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
43. Consider the following events: tional Provision is given in:
1. Fourth general elections in India A. Part XIX Article 356
2. Formation of Haryana State B. Part XX Article 356
3. Mysore named as Karnataka
C. Part XX Article 368
4. Meghalaya and Tripura
D. Part XIX Article 368
Which one of the following is the correct
chronological order of the above? [IAS 47. Which of the following condi-
2004] tion/conditions must be fulfilled by the
A. 2, 1, 4, 3 NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in
India?
B. 4, 3, 2, 1
1. They must be physically present in
C. 2, 3, 4, 1 their place of origin to exercise their
D. 4, 1, 2, 3 franchise.
2. NRIs whether they have acquired
44. Consider the following: citizenship of other countries or not
1. Disputes with mobile cellular compa- are eligible to vote
nies. 3. Eligible NRIs have to register by fill-
2. Motor accident cases, ing up form 6-A with electoral regis-
3. Pension cases. tration office.
For which of the above are Lok Adalats Select the correct answer using the code
held? [IAS 2005] given below: [UP PCS 2011]
A. 1 only A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 D. 3 only
45. What was the decision of the Supreme 48. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by
Court in Keshavanand Bharati case? both Houses of Parliament
A. Parliament is supreme in the matters A. does not need the assent of the Presi-
of legislation dent
B. In matters relating to compulsory ac- B. does need the assent of the President
quisition of private property the court had
the ultimate powers of determining what C. does not need the assent of the Presi-
is public purpose under Article 31 dent if passed by ratification of States
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 131
D. None of the above B. Prime Minister
49. Which one of the following Union Min- C. President
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istries is implementing the Biodiesel Mis- D. Vice-President
sion (as Nodal Ministry)? [IAS 2008]
54. Indian Constitution was amended for the
A. Ministry of Agriculture first time in:
B. Ministry of Science and Technology A. 1950
C. Ministry of New and Renewable En- B. 1951
ergy
C. 1952
D. Ministry of Rural Development
D. 1953
50. The Constituent Assembly appointed the
Linguistic Provinces Commission in the 55. The State having the largest population of
year 1948 to enquire into the desirability scheduled castes is:
of linguistic provinces. Who among the fol- A. Rajasthan
lowing was the Head of that Commission? B. Tamil Nadu
[IAS 2008]
C. Bihar
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Uttar Pradesh
B. Justice S.K. Dhar
C. Justice Fazl AIi 56. Which of the following provisions can be
amended by simple majority?
D. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
A. Creation of new States
51. Which Amendment restored the power of B. Creation or abolition of upper houses
judicial review to the Supreme Court and in State Legislatures
High Courts after it was curtailed by the
42nd Amendment? C. Reconstitution of existing States
A. 42nd D. All of the above
B. 43rd 57. The Constitution of India does not mention
C. 44th the post of:
D. 56th A. the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha
52. Who among the following was the Finance B. the Deputy Prime Minister
Minister of India in the Interim Govern-
ment during 1946-1947? [CDS 2008] C. the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
A. R.K. Shanrnukharn Chetty D. the Deputy Speaker of the State Leg-
islative Assemblies
B. John Mathai
C. Liaquat Ali Khan 58. The decision of the Supreme Court in the
Golakh Nath Case was that:
D. Chintamanrao Deshmukh
A. Judiciary is independent of Parliament
53. Who is the head of the National Defence
Committee? [BPSC 2011] B. Fundamental Rights could not be
A. Home Minister amended or abridged
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 132
C. the Constitution is supreme Which of the statements given above
D. the basic structure of the Constitution is/are correct? [IAS 2007]
should not be changed A. 1 only
B. 2 only
59. When the name of the State is changed or
a new State is created, the Constitution of C. Both 1 and 2
India is required to be amended by Parlia- D. Neither 1 nor 2
ment by a:
62. Which one of the following is the correct
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. simple majority as under Articles 107 sequence in the descending order of prece-
and 108 dence in the warrant of precedence? [IAS
B. majority of total numbers of both the 2004]
Houses under Article 368 A. Attorney General of India - Judges of
C. special majority under Article 368 the Supreme Court - Members of Parlia-
ment - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
D. special majority after obtaining opin-
ion of the concerned State under Article B. Judges of the Supreme Court - Deputy
3 of the Constitution Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Attorney Gen-
eral of India - Members of Parliament
60. If the procedure for the election of the C. Attorney General of’ India - Deputy
President of India is sought to be modi- Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Judges of the
fied, which of the following conditions are Supreme Court - Members of Parliament
required?
D. Judges of the Supreme Court - Attor-
1. An Amendment of the Constitution ney General of India - Deputy Chairman of
passed by simple majority in Lok Rajya Sabha - Members of Parliament
Sabha
2. A referendum 63. A merger will not invite action under the
3. An Amendment of the Constitution Anti-Defection Act if members of a po-
passed by two-thirds majority in litical party decide to join another political
both Houses of Parliament. party.
4. Ratification of the legislatures of at A. one-third
least half the number of States. B. two-thirds
A. 1 and 4 C. half
B. 2 and 3 D. one-fourth
C. 3 and 4 64. Which of the following cannot be altered
D. None of the above, as the election pro- by the Parliament by ordinary legislative
cedure cannot be changed procedure?
A. Acquistion and termination of citizen-
61. Consider the following statements:
ship
1. In India, the legislation passed by B. Privileges of the Parliament
the Parliament is subject to judicial
review. C. Composition of State Legislative Coun-
2. The Constitution of India lays down cils
the mechanism for the enforcement D. Representation of States in the Parlia-
of Fundamental Rights. ment
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 133
65. Next to Hindi, language spoken by the A. I only
largest number of people in the Indian sub- B. II only
continent is: [CDS 1993]
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C. I and II
A. Bengali
D. I, II and III
B. Tamil
70. Which one of the following is not an in-
C. Telugu
dependent Department under the Govern-
D. Marathi ment of India? [CDS 2009]
66. In the Government of India, under which A. Department of Atomic Energy
Ministry is the National River Conserva- B. Department of Bio-Technology
tion Directorate? [IAS 2009] C. Department of space
A. Ministry of Agriculture D. Planning Commission
B. Ministry of Earth Sciences
71. Who was made the Home Minister when
C. Ministry of Environment and Forests Jawaharlal Nehru formed the Interim Gov-
D. Ministry of Water Resources ernment in 1946? [Asstt Grade 1995]
A. Baldev Singh
67. Which of the following Constitutional
Amendments banned the floor crossing in B. Sardar Patel
Parliament? [UGC 1989] C. Mohd. Ali Jinnah
A. 42nd D. Liaqat Ali Khan
B. 44th 72. Regarding Constitutional Amendments
C. 52nd I) the Provision of joint sitting is not
D. 53rd available.
II) they become operative from the
68. National Capital Territory of Delhi has date both Houses have passed the
been constituted by: Bills.
A. 71st Amendment III) the President’s assent to a Constitu-
tional Amendment is obligatory.
B. 69th Amendment IV) Parliament may amend any part of
C. ordinance promulgated by the Presi- the Constitution according to the
dent procedure laid down in Article 368.
D. ordinance promulgated by the Lieu- A. I and III
tenant Governor B. I, II and III
69. The Sarkaria Commission has: C. I, III and IV
I) Favoured the implementation of the D. I, II, III and IV
three-language formula. 73. Which one of the following is not correctly
II) Turned down the/demand for the matched?
abolition of the office of the Gover-
nor. A. Emergency due to war declared for the
III) Favoured liberal use of Article 356 first time - 1. October1962
of the Constitution in the interest of B. Lok Sabha held its first sitting - 2. May
the country’s integrity. 1952
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 134
C. Sarkaria Commission set up -3. June 77. Which of the following is correctly
1983 matched?
D. National Commission for Minorities A. 1960- Third general elections in India
set up - 4. April 1980
B. 1958-Bombay bifurcated into Maha-
74. Match the following: Amendment Provi- rashtra and Gujarat
sion C. 1966-lndira Gandhi became Prime Min-
A. 42nd 1. Panchayati Raj ister
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 44th 2. Fundamental Du- D. 1970-Nationalisation of banks
ties
C. 61st 3. Voting age low- 78. The Archaeological Survey of India is an at-
ered from 21 years tached office of the Department/Ministry
to 18 years of: [IAS 2004]
D. 73rd 4. Right to Property
A. Culture
abolished
B. Tourism
A. A − 3, B − 2,C − 4, D − 1 C. Science and Technology
B. A − 2, B − 4,C − 3, D − 1 D. Human Resource Development
C. A − 4, B − 1,C − 3, D − 2
79. Which one among the following commis-
D. A − 2, B − 3,C − 1, D − 4 sions was set up in pursuance of a definite
provision under an Article of the Constitu-
75. The National River Conservation Direc-
tion of India? [IAS 2006]
torate is under: [Asstt Comm 2008]
A. Ministry of Agriculture A. University Grants Commission
B. Ministry of Environment and Forests B. National Human Rights Commission
C. Ministry of Earth Sciences C. Election Commission
D. Ministry of Water Resources D. Central Vigilance Commission
76. Which of the following statements regard- 80. Put in chronological order the following
ing 74th Amendment of the Constitution Amendments to the Constitution.
are correct?
I) Addition of Ninth Schedule to the
I) It provides for the insertion of a new
Constitution.
schedule to the Constitution.
II) Abolition of privy purses and privi-
II) It restructures the working of the
leges of former princes.
municipalities.
III) Insertion of XI Schedule
III) It provides for the reservation of
IV) Removal of Right to Property from
seats for women and scheduled
Constitutional Rights.
castes in the municipalities.
A. I only A. I, II, III, IV
B. I and III B. II, I, IV, III
C. I and II C. I, II, IV, III
D. I, II and III D. IV, I, II, III
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 135
81. As per the Anti-Defection Law, the final Which of the statements given above
authority to decide on a member’s disqual- is/are correct? [IAS 2006]
ification from the House is:
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A. 1 only
A. President
B. 2 only
B. Governor
C. Both 1 and 2
C. Speaker of the House
D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Council of Ministers
82. Which of the following statements is/are 85. Consider the following statements:
not violative of the principle of federal- 1. The Ministries/Departments of the
ism? [NDA 2010] Union Government are created by
1. The President of India takes over ad- the Prime Minister.
ministration of provinces under the 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-
emergency officio Chairman of the Civil Services
2. The Parliament of India has exclu- Board.
sive power to make any law with Which of the statements given above
respect to any matter not enumer- is/are correct? [CDS 2008]
ated in the Concurrent list of State
list. A. 1 only
3. The distribution of powers between B. 2 only
the Union and provinces is done
C. Both 1 and 2
through three different lists enumer-
ated in the Constitution of India. D. Neither 1 nor 2
A. 1 and 2
86. The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater
B. 2 and 3 emphasis on; [CDS 2004]
C. 3 only A. Gram Sabha
D. 1 and 3
B. Mandal Panchayat
83. Which was the Capital of Andhra State C. Taluk Panchayat Samiti
when it was made a separate State in the
year 1953? [IAS 2008] D. Zila Parishad
A. Guntur 87. Which one of the following can be provided
B. Kurnool under RTI Act, 2005? [CDS 2010]
C. Nellore A. Information leading to incitement of
D. Warangal an offense
B. Information leading to disclosure that
84. Consider the following statements:
may constitute contempt of court
1. There is no provision in the Consti-
C. Conditional disclosure relating to infor-
tution of India to encourage equal
mation on intellectual property
pay for equal work for both men and
women. D. Information relating to Cabinet Papers
2. The Constitution of India does not recording deliberations of Council of Min-
define backward classes. isters
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 136
88. The song ’Jana-Gana-Mana’ composed by 92. A major portion of the Constitution:
Rabindra Nath Tagore was first published A. can be amended by simple majority
in January 1912under the title of [CPO SI
2010] B. can be amended by two-thirds majority
A. Jay He
C. can be amended only with State ratifi-
B. Rashtra Jagriti cation
C. Bharat Vidhata D. cannot be amended
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Matribhoomi 93. Which one of the following States has
granted Sanskrit language the status of
89. Which of the following is/are instance(s)
the second official language of the State?
of violation of human rights?
[UP PCS 2011]
1. A person was detained by the secu- A. Bihar
rity forces while going for casting
vote in Parliamentary Election. B. Chhattisgarh
2. A civilian was killed by the army C. Uttar Pradesh
while undertaking combing opera- D. Uttarakhand
tion. [NDA 2010]
A. 1 only 94. Consider the following statements:
1. Free and compulsory education to
B. 2 only
the children of 6-14 years age group
C. Both 1 and 2 by the State was made a Fundamen-
D. Neither 1 nor 2 tal Right by the 76th Amendment to
the Constitution of India.
90. Holding a ’Bandh’ was declared illegal for 2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to pro-
the first time in India by which one of the vide computer education even in ru-
following High Courts? [CDS 2008] ral areas.
3. Education was included in the Con-
A. Rajasthan High Court
current List by the 42nd Amend-
B. Gujarat High Court ment, 1976 to the Constitution of
C. Kerala High Court India.
D. Maharashtra High Court Which of the statements given above are
correct? [IAS 2006]
91. Which one of the following is/are all-India A. 1, 2 and 3
services?
B. 1 and 2
I) Indian Administrative Service C. 2 and 3
II) Indian Foreign Service
III) Indian Police Service D. 1 and 3
IV) Indian Defence Service 95. Which one of the following statements
A. I and II is/are correct?
B. I and III I) The committee on the status of
women in India (NSW/) recom-
C. II, III and IV mended the setting up of a National
D. I, II, III and IV Commission for Women.
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1.11 Amendment of the Constitution 137
II) The first Chairperson of the National C. delivering a foreign national for the
Commission for Women was Mrs. trial of offences
Jayanti Patnaik.
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D. blocking the trade of other countries
III) The main task of the Commission is with a particular country
to study and monitor all matters re-
lating to the constitutional and legal 99. Which of the following provisions of the
safeguards provided for women. Constitution can be amended only if (a)
Select the correct answer using the code they are passed by a majority of total -
given below [CDS 2009] membership of each House of Parliament
and not less than two-thirds of the mem-
A. I, II and III bers present and voting in each House of
B. II only Parliament, and (b) are ratified by the leg-
C. I and II islatures of one-half of the States? [IAS
1995]
D. I and III
I) Method of election of President.
96. The expression ’Creamy layer’ used in the II) Provisions regarding the High Court.
judgement of the Supreme Court relating III) Abolition of Legislative Council in
to the case regarding reservations refers any State.
to: [RRB 1994] IV) Qualifications for Indian citizenship
A. those sections of the society which pay V) Representation of States in Parlia-
income tax ment.
B. those sections of socially and educa- A. I, III, IV and V
tionally backward classes of the society B. II, III and V
that are developed
C. I, II and V
C. those sections of the society that are
D. I, II, III, IV and V
considered advanced according to the
Karpuri Thakur formula 100. In which of the following States, no tribe
D. all sections of the upper castes of the has been declared as ’Scheduled’ by the
society President? [IFS 1993]
A. Uttar Pradesh
97. For which one of the following reforms
was a Commission set up under the Chair- B. Tamil Nadu
manship of Veerappa Moily by the Govern- C. Haryana
ment of India? [IAS 2008]
D. Bihar
A. Police Reforms
101. By Convention, who of the following is
B. Tax Reforms
the Chairman of Press Council of India?
C. Reforms in Technical Education [Asstt Comm 2008]
D. Administrative Reforms A. An eminent journalist of India
98. Extradiction means: B. A senior Civil Services Officer
A. forcing a foreign national to leave the C. A retired Judge of the Supreme Court
country of India
B. forcing a citizen of the country to leave D. The Union Minister of Information arid
the country Broadcasting
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1.12 Structure of the indian constitution 138
102. The Amendment procedure laid down in B. Government of India Act, 1935
Indian Constitution is on the pattern of: C. Constitution of South Africa
A. Constitution of Canada D. Constitution of USA
1.12 Structure of the indian constitution
1. Which part of the Indian Constitution tells B. Languages
NARAYAN CHANGDER
us about ELECTIONS?
C. Emergency Provisions
A. Part 1
D. Citizenship
B. Part 9(B)
C. Part 15 5. Which constitutional amendment added
the ninth schedule?
D. Part 6
A. 3rd, 1954
2. Article 32(A) provides
B. 8th, 1960
A. that a citizen an approach the Supreme
Court of India by due process of law for C. 7th, 1956
the implementation of the Fundamental D. 1st, 1951
Rights included in the Constitution
B. the bill of rights 6. In how many years Indian Constitution
gets ready?
C. right to minorities to establish educa-
tional institutions A. 2 Years, 11 Months and 18 Days
D. the Indian Parliament can empower B. 2 years, 4 Months and 20 Days
any court to issue notice within its jurisdic- C. 2 Years, 7 Months and 27 Days
tion without infringing or influencing the
powers of the Supreme Court of India D. 2 Years, 2 Months and 11 Days
3. Case Amendment:-A. Golak Nath case 1. 7. Who is the Chairman of House Commit-
Constitutional validity of the 7th Amend- tee?
ment.B. Shankari Prasad case 2. Constitu-
A. K.M. Munshi
tional validity of the 42nd Amendment.C.
Kesavananda Bharati case 3. Constitu- B. Rajendra Prasad
tional validity of the 1st Amendment.D. C. B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
Minerva Mills case 4. Constitutional va-
lidity of the 24th Amendment. D. Alaadi Krishnaswami Iyer
A. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
8. Who is the Chairman of Ad Hoc Committee
B. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 on National Flag?
C. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 A. Rajendra Prasad
D. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 B. B.R. Ambedkar
4. Article 15 stands for C. K.M. Munchi
A. Prohibition of Discrimination D. Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer
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1.12 Structure of the indian constitution 139
9. Who is the Chairman of the Drafting Com- 10. Which Article states ‘’ CULTURAL AND ED-
mittee? UCATIONAL RIGHTS”?
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A. B.R. Ambedkar A. Article 29-30
B. Rajendra Prasad B. Article 14-18
C. K.M. Munshi C. Article 31-32
D. Mahatma Gandhi D. Article 19-22
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II
II
NARAYAN CHANGDER
2 System of Government . . . . . . . . . . 141
2.1 Indian Parliamentary System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 141
2.2 Federal System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 148
2.3 Centre and the states relations . . . . . . . . . . . . 153
2.4 Challenges to Nation Building . . . . . . . . . . . . . 163
2.5 Emergency Provisions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 172
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2. System of Government
2.1 Indian Parliamentary System
1. Country following parliamentary form of A. French
government B. British
A. USA C. Dutch
B. United Kingdom D. Portugese
C. North Korea
5. Parliamentary government is based on
D. China
A. Selection of bureaucrats
2. The sessions of parliament is summoned B. Leader’s choice
and closed by the
C. Universal Adult Franchise
A. Prime minister
D. Hereditary
B. Speaker
C. President 6. The parties act as a check on the ruling
party by criticising its policies.
D. Vice President
A. Majority
3. The elections to the Indian legislatures are B. Minority
conducted by a Independent body called
set up under the provisions of the con- C. Opposition
stitution. D. Political
A. Planning Commission 7. Which is called as the House of the Peo-
B. Election Commission ple?
C. Finance Commission A. Rajya Sabha
D. Parliamentary Commission B. Vidhan Sabha
4. The Indian Parliamentary System was in- C. Vidhan Parishad
fluenced from the D. Lok Sabha
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2.1 Indian Parliamentary System 142
8. which organ of the government frames the C. Cannot be removed
law
D. Resolutiob
A. Judiciary
B. Executive 14. If there is no overall majority then two or
more parties may join together to form a
C. President government. This is called a
D. Legislature
A. Alliance
emergency can be declared under Arti-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
9. B. Agreement
cle 356
C. Arrangement
A. National
D. Coalition
B. Financial
C. State 15. How many members are elected from the
D. None of these states for the Lok Sabha
A. 530
10. which of the following bills contains the
provision related to tax regulations B. 532
A. money bill C. 232
B. ordinary bill D. 230
C. budget
16. How many sessions of the lok sabha take
D. constitutional amendment bill place in a year?
11. The president is elected by the members of A. 2
B. 4
A. Elected Members of both the Houses
of the Parliament C. 3
B. Elected members of the State Legisla- D. 1
tive Assembly
17. The body which elects the President is
C. Electoral College called
D. none of above A. Electoral college
12. Who among the following appoints the B. Legislative assemblies
Election Commissioner in India?
C. Parliament
A. The Chief Justice
D. Election college
B. President
C. Governor 18. To whom are the questions asked in the
Lok Sabha addressed to?
D. Prime Minister
A. Prime Minister
13. The process of removal of the President is
called B. President
A. Resignation C. Leader of Opposition
B. Impeachment D. Speaker
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2.1 Indian Parliamentary System 143
19. The party that wins (the majority) of C. Usher and Clerk
the seats In Lok Sabha can form a govern- D. none of above
ment and the party leader becomes Prime
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minister. 25. CURRENT LOK SABHA SPEAKER? ? ? ?
A. 273 A. Incumbent Om Birla
B. 272 B. NARENDRA MODI
C. 274 C. IRON MAN
D. 280 D. CAPTAIN AMERICA
20. The most significant function of the Parlia- 26. The parliament consists of the , the Lok
ment is Sabha and the
A. Prime minister, Rajya Sabha
A. Law Making
B. President, Prime minister
B. Constitution Amendment
C. President, Rajya Sabha
C. Administration
D. President, Legislative Assembly
D. Solving disputes
27. the upper house of the parliament is the
21. FIRST WOMEN SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA?
? A. Lok Sabha
B. prime minister
A. INDIRA GANDHI
C. Rajya Sabha
B. MEIRA KUMAR
D. constitution
C. YOURSELF
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE 28. The Legislature is called the
A. Vidhan Sabha
22. organ of the Indian Parliament is re-
sponsible for making Law B. Vidhan Parishad
C. Parliament
A. Legislature
D. Assembly
B. Executive
C. Judiciary 29. A candidate of Lok Sabha can be disquali-
fied if
D. Supreme court
A. he is the citizen of India
23. How many Rajya Sabha members can be B. he is not less than 25 years of age
nominated by the President?
C. he is of sound mind
A. 20
D. he has acquired the citizenship of an
B. 2 other country
C. 12
30. “Parliamentary Government” is also
D. 22 known as
24. Who runs the meetings in the House of A. Cabinet government
Representatives and Senate chambers? B. Limited tgovernment
A. Prime Minister and Serjeant-at-Arms C. Republic government
B. The Speaker and The President D. non of the above
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2.1 Indian Parliamentary System 144
31. Why do most of the countries adopt the A. Government
parliamentary form of government? B. People
A. Parliamentary form of government is C. Ministers
responsible and accountable.
D. President
B. There is no other option for the coun-
tries. 37. The country is divided into voting ar-
C. Powers flow from the leaders eas, called , and each is represented by
one MP.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. President is the real head
A. 544, Constituency
32. Who appoints the Prime Minister? B. 543, wards
A. President C. 543, Constituency
B. Council of Ministers D. 545, Constituency
C. State Legislative Assembly
38. An ordinance expires after weeks once
D. Elected Members of the both Houses the Parliament is back in session
of the Parliament
A. 9
33. What is the minimum age required to be B. 5
President of India?
C. 4
A. 25
D. 6
B. 30
C. 35 39. The parliament of india consists of the fol-
lowing
D. 40
A. President
34. Who is known as the father of lok sabha? B. Lok sabha and Rajay sabha
A. P. A sangma C. Both a and b
B. G.V mavalankar D. All of the above
C. Balram jakhar
40. head of government in a parliamentary
D. Rabi ray democracy
35. What are the two houses of Indian Parlia- A. president
ment? B. prime minister
A. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha C. dictator
B. House of representatives and house of D. monarchy
lords
C. Senate and house of lords 41. The members of the Rajya Sabha are
elected for a term of years.
D. Legislative assembly and legislative
council A. two
B. ten
36. Though Lok Sabha is called the lower
house, it is more powerful because in it C. six
reside the will of the D. five
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2.1 Indian Parliamentary System 145
42. Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) we’re C. Article 360
used through out the country for the first
D. Article 368
time in
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A. 1991 48. THE LOK SABHA IS PRESIDED BY THE
B. 2000 A. SPEAKER
C. 2001 B. DISTRICT COLLECTOR
D. 2004 C. CHIEF MINISTER
43. Who highlights the drawback of various D. VICE PRESIDENT
policies?
A. Members of parliament 49. THE PARLIAMENT OF INDIA CONSISTS OF
B. Members of executive
A. PRESIDENT, GOVERNOR, CHIEF MIN-
C. Member of legislative
ISTER
D. Opposition Party
B. LOK SABHA, RAJYA SABHA, PRESI-
44. The President can submit his resignation to DENT
C. SARPANCH, COLLECTOR, SHO
A. The Parliament D. none of the above
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Chief Justice of India 50. What is usually the title of chief executive
in a presidential democracy?
D. The Vice President
A. prime minister
45. Why do we need Parliament?
B. CEO
A. To make laws
C. CFO
B. For financial control
D. president
C. For debating important issues
D. All of the above 51. Union Legislature comprises of
46. A major development in the voting system A. Two Houses
is the use of against the traditional bal- B. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
lot paper.
C. 2 Houses and the President of India
A. Electronic Voting Machine
D. none of above
B. Manual Voting
C. Preferential voting system 52. Name the country which has adopted the
Presidential System.
D. Transferable voting system
A. UK
47. Under which Article financial emergency
can be proclaimed? B. USA
A. Article 352 C. France
B. Article 356 D. India
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2.1 Indian Parliamentary System 146
53. During the declaration of the State of 59. Whose duty it is to keep the President in-
Emergency in 1975 who was the President formed of the decisions of the council of
of India Ministers?
A. Gyani Zail Singh A. The Vice President
B. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed B. The Parliament
C. Zakir Hussain C. The council of Ministers
D. B.D Jatti D. The Prime Minister
NARAYAN CHANGDER
54. The President is also the 60. The place where elected representatives of
A. Head of the Public Services the people take all important decisions re-
garding development is called
B. Supreme Commander of Armed forces
A. Supreme court
C. Commander of the Army B. Parliament
D. Supreme commander of the State C. High court
D. Constitutional assembly
55. The law making body in our country is
called the 61. What is the minimum age for holding office
A. Parliament in the lok sabha?
B. Congress A. 25
C. Federal Assembly B. 30
D. National Assembly C. 35
D. 42
56. The has two houses .
A. Lower House 62. the is called the ‘House of the people’
B. Upper House A. Rajya Sabha
C. Parliament B. Lok Sabha
D. none of above C. Parliament
D. Union Legislature
57. The lok sabha is also known as?
A. council of state 63. Who is the head of the Government?
B. the upper house A. Prime Minister
C. the house of people B. President
D. parliament C. Governor
D. Chief Minister
58. is a member of a country and has the
rights that are given by the country’s gov- 64. The supreme power to give orders to the
ernment. Indian Armed Forces lies with the
A. A citizen A. President of India
B. A government B. Prime Minister of India
C. A primary source C. Defence minister
D. A secondary source D. none of above
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2.1 Indian Parliamentary System 147
65. Who of these is appointed by the Presi- 71. In 1951 for the first time President s rule
dent? was imposed in state
A. Punjab
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A. The Chief Minister of a state
B. The Lok Sabha speaker B. Haryana
C. The Attorney General of India C. Tamil Nadu
D. The Police Commissioner D. Rajasthan
66. how are members of lok sabha elected. 72. The Parliament controls the government
through the- by
A. president A. Protesting
B. Questioning
B. prime minister
C. Force
C. general elections
D. going to the media
D. none of above
73. In India, which of the following types of
67. The Rajya Sabha is the council of emergencies can be proclaimed when a
A. People State Government fails to function?
B. States A. Military emergency
C. Minorities B. Constitutional emergency
D. Majority C. National emergency
D. Financial emergency
68. Members of which community are nomi-
nated by the President to the Lok Sabha? 74. The federal structure of government of In-
A. The Tribal Community dia provides
A. two tier syestem
B. The Minority community
B. one teir syestem
C. The community of the Union Territories
C. four tier syestem
D. The Anglo Indian Community D. none of the above
69. Name the country who first adopted the 75. how may times at least should the parlia-
parliamentary form of government . ment meet in a year
A. once
A. UK
B. twice
B. USA
C. thrice
C. Europe
D. every day
D. India
76. Maximum number of members in the Ra-
70. the indian parliament consist of jya Sabha
A. president A. 350
B. lok sabha B. 250
C. rajya sabha C. 238
D. all of these D. 230
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2.2 Federal System 148
77. How many nominated members in Rajya 80. what is the maximum strength of lok
Sabha? sabha and rajya sabha.
A. 14 A. 250, 530
B. 12 B. 20, 12
C. 11 C. 552, 250
D. 15 D. 0
NARAYAN CHANGDER
78. Who is speaker of lok sabha 2020? 81. what is the derivation of word Parlia-
A. Om birla ment?
B. Nityanand rai A. Parley and ment
C. Giriraj singh B. The house of people
D. none of the above C. debate
D. Rajya Sabha Lok sabha
79. Who’s resignation means the resignation
of the entire Council of Ministers? 82. FIRST SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA? ?
A. President A. NARENDRA MODI
B. Vice president B. YOURSELF
C. State Legislative Assembly C. GANESH. V MAVALANKAR
D. Prime minister D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
2.2 Federal System
1. List Includes Subjects Of Common In- C. By the creation of states based on
terest To Both The Union Government As caste
Well As The State Governments. D. None of these
A. State List
4. What is the role of Judiciary in federal sys-
B. Union List
tem of government?
C. Concurrent List:
A. Judiciary plays an important role in im-
D. none of above plementing constitutional rules and proce-
dures
2. Example of Holding Together is
A. India, US, Canada B. High courts and Supreme courts
makes decisions in case of disputes
B. Spain, Belgium, Australia
C. Both of these
C. India, Spain, Belgium
D. None of these
D. none of above
5. Example of coming together
3. How is federalism practiced in India?
A. USA, Australia, Switzerland
A. By the creation of linguistic states
B. By the creation of states based on reli- B. Australia, Spain and Switzerland
gion C. USA, India, Spain
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2.2 Federal System 149
D. none of above 11. Federalism is the idea that power is
A. Held only by the Federal Government
6. If There Is A Conflict In The Laws Made In
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The Concurrent List, The Law Made By The B. Held only by the State Governments
Government Will Prevail. C. Shared between Three Branches of
A. State Government Government
B. Judiaciary D. Shared between Federal and State
Governments
C. Union Government
12. In a Confederation
D. None Of The Above
A. the centre is weaker
7. This government has the right to make B. state is weaker
laws on residuary subjects
C. both have equal powers
A. the state
D. power lies with the people
B. the zila parishad
13. Print Money is a subject of
C. the union
A. union list
D. none of above
B. State list
8. Which of the following is not the key fea- C. both
tures of federalism?
D. none of above
A. There are two or more levels of feder-
alism 14. An ideal federal system must have
B. Each tier has its own jurisdiction in cer- A. Mutual trust between different levels
tain matters of government
C. The existence and authority of each B. Agreement to live together
tier is constitutionally guaranteed C. Both of these
D. The Constitution can be unilaterally D. None of these
changed by any one level of government
15. Provide police and emergency services
9. India Is An Example Of: A. union list
A. Coming Together Federation B. State list
B. Holding Together Federation C. concurrent list
C. All Of The Above D. none of above
D. None Of The Above 16. restructuring the relations in one more
way in which federalism has been
10. Collect Taxes strengthened in practice.
A. union list A. centre-state
B. State list B. state
C. Shared C. centre
D. none of above D. local
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2.2 Federal System 150
17. Concurrent Powers are given to B. India
A. The centre C. Spain
B. Both the state and the federal govern- D. Belgium
ment
23. In a ‘Holding together federation’:A. A
C. The state government
large country divides its power between
D. Local government constituent states and the national govern-
ment.B. The Central government tends to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
18. The plays an important role in over- be more powerful vis-a-vis the States.C.
seeing the implementation of constitution All the constituent states usually have
provisions and procedures. equal powers.D. Constituent states have
A. Executive unequal powers.Which of the above state-
B. Legislature ments are correct?
C. Judiciary A. A, B, C and D
D. All Of The Above B. A and D
C. B and C
19. restructuring the relations is one
more way in which federalism has been D. A, B and D
strengthened in practice.
24. Which of the following states has been
A. centre-state given a special status?
B. state A. Goa
C. centre B. Tripura
D. local C. Bihar
20. Sources of revenue of each level of govern- D. Haryana
ment are specified to ensure
25. The Constitution Originally Provided For A
A. regional diversity Tier System Of Government.
B. administration A. One
C. financial autonomy B. Two
D. none of above
C. Three
21. In India’s federal system, the state gov- D. Four
ernments have the power to legislate on
all those subjects which are included in the 26. Which of the following is not included in
State List
A. Union list
A. Law and Order
B. State list
B. National Defence
C. Concurrent list
C. Education
D. Residuary subjects
D. Agriculture
22. Which of the following countries is an ex-
ample of “coming together federation”? 27. Print Money
A. U.S.A A. union list
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2.2 Federal System 151
B. State list 33. Federal Political Order is?
C. both A. Non Centralised
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D. none of above B. Centralized
C. reflects autocracy
28. Which Indian State had been given special
status D. reflects dictatorship
A. Haryana 34. Which one of the following States in India
B. Assam has its own Constitution?
C. Delhi A. Uttarakhand
D. Jammu & Kashmir B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Jammu and Kashmir
29. Which Among These Enjoy Separate Juris-
dictions? D. Nagaland
A. Central Or Union Government 35. Which Of These Subjects Are A Part State
B. State Government List?
C. Local Government A. Defence, Foreign Affairs, Banking,
Communication, Currency
D. All Of The Above
B. Forest, Trade Union, Marriage, Educa-
30. Which of the following are the basic objec- tion
tive of the federal system C. Trade, Police, Commerce, Agriculture
A. safeguard and promote unity of the D. Computer Software, E-Commerce
country
36. Belgium has a
B. accommodate regional diversity
A. unitary system of governance
C. share powers among different commu-
nities B. federal system of governance
D. both A and B C. where constituent units have equal
power vis-a vis the federal system
31. Provide police and emergency services D. none of above
falls under
A. union list 37. The Ares Which Are Too Small To Become
An Independent State But Which Could Not
B. State list Be Merged With Any Of The Existing State
C. concurrent list Are Called
D. none of above A. Cities
B. Union Territories
32. The use of English for official purposes was
to stop in C. Districts
A. 1947 D. None Of The Above
B. 1974 38. Indian official language is
C. 1986 A. Hindi
D. 1965 B. English
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2.2 Federal System 152
C. Urdu C. Mizoram
D. Sanskrit D. Andra Pradesh
39. In what way changes can be made in the 44. In a Unitary System
federal constitution A. State government has power of its own
A. Changes can be Unilateral
B. Changes require consent of both the B. safeguards unity and accommodates
levels of government regional diversity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Changes can be through Judiciary C. one level of government or sub units
D. Changes require only consent of the are subordinate to the central govern-
people ment
D. none of above
40. The Government Alone Can Make
Laws Relating To The Subjects Mentioned 45. The period that saw the rise of regional
In The Union List. political parties was also the beginning of
A. State Government the era of
B. Union Government A. Monarcy government
C. Local Government: B. Democracy government
D. none of above C. Coalition government
D. none of above
41. The Highest institution of Panchayati Raj
System in rural 46. The concept of Decentralisation signifies
A. Gram Sabha A. The three tier government at urban
B. Gram Panchayat level
C. Gram Samiti B. The two tier government at only rural
level
D. Zilla Parishad
C. Power taken away from both State and
42. A system of government in which power Centre and given to local governance at
is divided between a central authority and both urban and rural levels
various constituent unit of the country is
D. Autonomy given to State government
called
A. Federalism 47. Make treaties and deals with foreign coun-
tries
B. Communalism
C. Socialism A. union list
D. Democracy B. State list
C. concurrent list
43. Which Among These State Does Not Enjoy
Special Powers Under Article 371 Due To D. none of above
Their Peculiar Social And Historical Circum- 48. Name Of The List That Contains Subject
stances? That were Added After The Constitution
A. Assam Was Made is:
B. Nagaland A. Concurrent List
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2.3 Centre and the states relations 153
B. Residuary List 54. What is Federalism?
C. Union List A. The form of government in which
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D. None Of The Above power is in the hands of Central govern-
ment
49. To make India strong federation we need
B. The form of government in which
A. Written constitution power is shared between central govern-
B. Rigid constituation ment and individual states or provinces.
C. Independent judiciary C. The form of government in which the
D. All the above ultimate power is given to state govern-
ment or provinces
50. Who is known as the Father of Panchayati
Raj System? D. None of these
A. Balwant Rai Mehta 55. The jurisdiction of different tiers of govern-
B. Abraham Lincoln ment are specified by the
C. Mahatma Gandhi A. State Government
D. Sardar Valla Bhai Patel B. Central Government
51. The Constitution in its eighth schedule has C. Constitution
A. 21 languages other than Hindi D. none of above
B. 23 languages
56. In federal system central government can-
C. 24 languages
not order to
D. none of above
A. Principal
52. Which of the following subjects is not in-
B. Local goverment
cluded in the state list?
A. Law and order C. State goverment
B. National defense D. None of the above
C. Education 57. A candidate in an examination conducted
D. Agriculture for the central government positions may
opt to take the examination in Lan-
53. Make treaties and deals with foreign coun-
guage.
tries falls under
A. union list A. Hindi
B. State list B. English
C. concurrent list C. Any
D. none of above D. State
2.3 Centre and the states relations
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2.3 Centre and the states relations 154
1. The Sarkaria Commission dealing with the 4. The States Reorganisation Act created
Centre-State .relationship has not laid States and Union Territories.
down which of the following regarding the A. 14;7
appointment of Governors?
B. 14;6
A. A politician from the ruling party at the
Centre should not be appointed to a State C. 15;7
run by some other party D. 15;6
B. The person should not be too closely
NARAYAN CHANGDER
5. GST is known as;
connected with the politics of the State
where he is to be posted A. Goods and Services Tax
C. He should have travelled extensively in B. Goods and Services Taxation
and out of India C. Gold and Services Tax
D. He should be eminent in some walk of D. Gold and Sanctions Tax
life
6. When did the first linguistic State of
2. Corporation Tax: [IAS 1995] Andhra come into existence?
A. is levied by the Union and collected and A. October 2, 1953
appropriated by the States
B. October 1, 1953
B. is levied by the Union and belongs to it
C. April 1, 1953
exclusively
D. January 5, 1953
C. is levied and appropriated by the
States 7. The largest contribution to the total com-
D. is levied by the Union and shared by bined annual tax revenue of the Centre
the Union and the States States and Union Territories in India is
made by: [SBI PO 1990]
3. Match the following: [CDS 1993]
A. Sales tax
A. Taxes on income 1. State list B. Income and Corporation Tax
other than agricul- C. Custom duties
tural income
D. Union Excise duties
B. Estate duty in 2. Residuary power
respect of agricul- 8. The executive power relating to concurrent
tural land subjects remain with:
C. Inter planetary 3. Concurrent List
A. the States
outer space travel
D. Acquisition and 4. Union List B. the Centre
requisitioning of C. the Constitution
property
D. the President
A. A − 4, B − 3,C − 2, D − 1 9. The State can legislate on subjects in the:
B. A − 4, B − 1,C − 2, D − 3 1. State List
2. Union List
C. A − 2, B − 3,C − 1, D − 4 3. Concurrent List
D. A − 3, B − 2,C − 4, D − 1 4. Residuary List
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2.3 Centre and the states relations 155
A. 1 and 2 A. I, II, III, IV
B. 1 only B. II, I, IV, III
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C. 1, 3 and 4 C. I, II, IV, III
D. 1 and 3 D. I, IV, II, III
10. Which of the following States and the year 15. Union Parliament has the power to legis-
of their creation is incorrectly matched? late on the subjects of all three lists in re-
spect of:
A. Andhra Pradesh: 1956
A. Scheduled areas
B. Maharashtra: 1960
B. Hill areas
C. Arunachal Pradesh: 1987
C. Backward areas
D. Goa: 1987
D. Union Territories
11. The authority empowered to make laws in
respect of matters not enumerated in any 16. The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
of three lists is/are: A. Village, State and Union levels
A. State Legislatures B. Village, District and State levels
B. Union Parliament C. Village, Block and District levels
C. Union Parliament and State Legisla- D. Village and State levels
tures
17. Which of the following is not included in
D. The Advocate General of the States the State List in the Constitution of India?
12. Which of the following government has A. Police
two or more levels? B. Prison
A. Community Government C. Law and Order
B. Coalition Government D. Criminal Procedure Code
C. Federal Government 18. Classification of taxes
D. Unitary Government A. Direct-Indirect
13. With reference to the Constitution of India, B. Legal-Criminal
which one of the following pairs is not cor- C. Cheap-expensive
rectly matched? [IAS 2004]
D. All are correct
A. Forests: Concurrent List
19. Jammu and Kashmir has a Constitution
B. Stock Exchanges: Concurrent List
framed by:
C. Post Office Savings Bank: Union List
A. the Constituent Assembly which
D. Public Health: State List framed India’s Constitution
14. Put in the correct order of their creation: B. a Constituent Assembly set up by Par-
liament
I) Asom
II) Nagaland C. a Constituent Assembly set up by the
III) Goa State
IV) Mizoram D. its State Legislature
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2.3 Centre and the states relations 156
20. Which of the following is/are extra consti- A. the State Law prevails
tutional and extra-legal device (s)for se- B. the Union Law prevails
curing co-operation and co-ordination be-
tween the States in India? [IAS 1995] C. the matter is resolved by the Supreme
Court
I) The National Development Council.
II) The Governor’s Conference. D. the law which had been passed first
III) Zonal Councils. would prevail
IV) The Inter-State Council 25. More taxes will affect to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. I and II A. farmers
B. I, III and IV B. small business
C. III and IV C. workers
D. Only IV D. all are correct
21. Select the incorrect answer 26. Taxes are used for
A. Taxes are voluntary fees A. All are correct
B. Taxes are paid by individuals and cor- B. Schools
porations C. Hospitals
C. Taxes are enforced by the government D. Police
D. Taxes finance government activities 27. Both Union and State Legislature can leg-
islate on:
22. taxes are generally not shifted and are A. criminal law and procedure
paid in lump sum for the whole year.
B. marriage, contracts and torts
A. Direct
C. economic and social planning
B. Indirect
D. All of the above
C. All of the above
28. Which of the following is regarded as an
D. none of above
essential function of the State? [Central
23. When can a State law on a subject in the Excise 1994]
Concurrent List get precedence over a Cen- A. To run schools for education
tral law on the same subject:
B. To provide defence against external at-
A. in no circumstance tacks
B. if it was made before the Central law C. To prevent diseases
C. if it had got the President’s assent be- D. To maintain good roads
fore the enactment of the Central law
29. Which of the following matters are not in-
D. if it had got the President’s consent be- cluded in the Union List?
fore being introduced as a Bill in the State
Legislature I) Defence
II) Prisons
24. In the case of a conflict between the Centre III) Liquor policy
and a State in respect of a subject included IV) Ports
in the Concurrent List: V) Irrigation
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2.3 Centre and the states relations 157
A. III and IV 35. Which of the following is in the Concur-
B. III, IV and V rent List in the Constitution of India? [IAS
1993]
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C. II, III, IV and V
A. Population control and family planning
D. II, III and V
30. Which one of the following is not adminis- B. Public health and sanitation
tered by a Lieutenant Governor?
C. Capitation taxes
A. Delhi
D. None of the above
B. Puducherry
C. Chandigarh 36. The first State to become bifurcated after
independence was:
D. Andaman and Nicobar
A. Madras
31. When was the Madras State renamed
B. Bombay
Tamil Nadu?
A. 1969 C. Punjab
B. 1970 D. Assam
C. 1968 37. Which Articles of Indian Constitution dis-
D. 1971 cuss the financial relations between the
Centre and the States?
32. Which one among the following pairs of
A. Articles 268 to 281
level of government and legislative power
is not correctly matched? [CDS 2011] B. Articles 278 to 291
A. Central government: Union List C. Articles 289 to 295
B. Local governments: Residuary powers D. Articles 168 to 171
38. The Union list contains:
C. State governments: State List
A. 47 subjects
D. Central and State governments: Con-
current List B. 97 subjects
C. 63 subjects
33. Tax whose burden can be shifted to others
D. 92 subjects
A. Direct Tax
B. Indirect Tax 39. The provisions regarding division of taxes
C. Both between Union and the States:
D. None of them A. can be suspended during National
Emergency
34. Indirect taxes are imposed on and
B. can be suspended during Financial
whereas the direct taxes are imposed on
Emergency
C. can be suspended only with the con-
A. Goods and Service, Facilities
sent of the majority of State legislatures
B. Goods and Service, Person
C. Goods and Person, Service D. cannot be suspended under’ any cir-
D. none of above cumstances
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2.3 Centre and the states relations 158
40. The residuary powers of legislation in case B. shall have effect in Jammu and Kash-
of Jammu and Kashmir belong to: mir only on the concurrence of the State
A. Parliament Legislature
C. shall apply to Jammu and Kashmir only
B. the State Legislature
on endorsement by its Governor
C. Governor D. has to be separately issued for Jammu
D. Both A and B. and Kashmir
NARAYAN CHANGDER
41. The Union Territories are administered by 46. With reference to the Finance Commission
the: of India, which of the following state-
ments is correct? [CSAT 2011]
A. Parliament
A. It encourages the inflow of foreign
B. Union Council of Ministers capital for infrastructure development
C. President, through administrators ap- B. It facilitates the proper distribution of
pointed by him finances among the Public Sector Under-
D. Prime Minister takings
C. It ensures transparency in financial ad-
42. The State of Bombay was bifurcated into ministration
Maharashtra and Gujarat on May 1, in the
D. None of the statements A, B and C
year:
given above is correct in this context
A. 1958
47. In which respect have the Centre-State re-
B. 1959 lations been specifically termed as ’munic-
C. 1962 ipal relations’? [IAS 1994]
D. 1960 A. Centre’s control of the State in the leg-
islative sphere
43. Under the Constitution, the residuary pow- B. Centre’s control of the State in finan-
ers vest with the: [Delhi Police 1994] cial matters
A. President C. Centre’s control of the State in admin-
B. Supreme Court istrative sector
C. Union Government D. Centre’s control of the State in plan-
ning process
D. State Governments
48. What can the President do if the States
44. An indirect tax is charged on fail to comply with the directives of Cen-
tral Government:
A. Profits
A. He can dissolve State Legislature and
B. Gains
order fresh elections
C. Spending B. He can send reserve police to the State
D. Income to secure compliance
C. He can declare the breakdown of con-
45. A proclamation of Emergency by the Pres- stitutional machinery in the State and as-
ident: sume responsibility for the governance of
A. cannot apply to Jammu and Kashmir the State
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2.3 Centre and the states relations 159
D. Any of the above C. by an order of the President under Ar-
ticle 370
49. Which of the following does not give cor-
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D. under no circumstance
rectly the name of the original State out
of whose territory the new State was cre- 54. English is the official language of which
ated? of the following States? [Railways 1995;
A. Andhra Pradesh from the State of MBA 1994]
Madras A. Manipur
B. Arunachal Pradesh from Assam B. Nagaland
C. Meghalaya from Assam C. Karnataka
D. Goa from Maharashtra D. Andhra Pradesh
50. Railways is a subject on the: [Teachers’ 55. In the Constitution of India, the word ’Fed-
Exam 1994] eral’ is used in [Asstt Commdt 2011]
A. Concurrent List A. the Preamble
B. Part III
B. Union List
C. Article 368
C. State List
D. Nowhere
D. Residual List
56. Which one of the following was an asso-
51. Which of the following features is/are ciate State of India before becoming a full
contrary to the norms of a federal polity? fledged State? [CDS 1992]
1. Common All India Service A. Meghalaya
2. Single integrated judiciary
B. Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the code C. Sikkim
given below: [CDS 2011]
D. Manipur
A. 1 only
57. Agricultural Income Tax is assigned to the
B. 2 only
State Governments by: [IAS 1995]
C. Both 1 and 2
A. the Constitution of India
D. Neither 1 nor 2 B. the National Development Council
52. The Concurrent List contains: C. the Finance Commission
A. 47 subjects D. the Inter-State Council
B. 68 subjects 58. Which subject was transferred from State
C. 42 subjects List to Concurrent List by the 42nd amend-
ment of the Constitution? [Teachers’
D. 38 subjects Exam 1993]
53. An amendment of the Constitution of India A. Agriculture
can extend to Jammu and Kashmir: B. Education
A. automatically C. Irrigation
B. only if ratified by State Legislature D. Local Self Government
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2.3 Centre and the states relations 160
59. The idea of incorporation of the Concurrent 64. Which of the following is not in the State
List in the Indian Constitution has been bor- List under the Constitution of India?
rowed from the Constitution of: A. Fisheries
A. Ireland B. Agriculture
B. Britain C. Insurance
C. Australia D. Gambling
D. Canada 65. The old name of which State/Union Terri-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tory is wrongly given?
60. Who of the following shall cause every rec-
ommendation made by the Finance Com- A. Karnataka - Mysore
mission to be laid before each House of B. Tamil Nadu - Madras
Parliament? [IAS 2010] C. Lakshadweep - Laccadive, Minicoy and
A. The President of India Amindiv Islands
B. The Speaker of Lok Sabha D. Meghalaya - Eastern Hill Province
C. The Prime Minister of India 66. Which of the following tax is not sub-
sumed in GST
D. The Union Finance Minister
A. VAT
61. The State List contains: B. Stamp Duty
A. 97 subjects C. Entry Tax
B. 69 subjects D. Entertainment Tax
C. 66 subjects 67. Which of the following were Union Territo-
D. 103 subjects ries before becoming States?
I) Himachal Pradesh
62. For those Union Territories, which have no II) Manipur
Legislative Councils of their own, laws are III) Sikkim
passed by: IV) Tripura
A. Union Ministry A. I, II and IV
B. President, through the appointed Ad- B. I and II
ministrator C. II and III
C. Parliament D. I and III
D. Appointed Administrator 68. In India both direct and indirect taxes are
levied by the Central and State Govern-
63. Talking about “direct taxes”
ment. Which of the following is levied
A. Taxpayer pays it from his own re- by the State Governments? [Railway Ap-
sources prentices’ Exam 1993]
B. Are less predictable A. Excise Duty on liquor
C. VAT (Value Addition Tax) is an example B. Capital gains Tax
C. Customs Duty
D. All are correct D. Corporation Tax
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2.3 Centre and the states relations 161
69. The Central Government’s exclusive pow- 73. Taxes can be
ers are enumerated in the: A. Local
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A. Concurrent List B. Regional
B. State List C. National
C. Union List D. All are correct
D. Federal List
74. A change in distribution of powers be-
70. The vesting of ’residuary’ powers in the tween the Centre and the States can be
central government by the Constitution of done by:
India indicates [Asstt Commdt 2010] A. the Central Government
A. that India is a federal polity B. the federating units by themselves
B. that India is neither federal nor unitary C. amending the Constitution
D. None of the above
C. that India is quasi federal
D. unitary character of Indian polity 75. Who among the following is chairman of
GST council?
71. Which of the following is/are correctly A. Prime Minister
matched?
B. Finance Minister
I) Stamp duties and duties on medi-
cal and toilet preparations-levied by C. Revenue Secretary
the Union but collected and appropri- D. Chairman, CBIC
ated by the States.
II) Duties on succession to property 76. The distribution of power between Centre
other ” than agricultural land-levied and the States is based on the scheme pro-
and’ collected by the Union but as- vided in:
signedto the States. A. Minto-Morley Reforms, 1909
III) Taxes on income other than corpo- B. Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919
ration tax and tax on agricultural
C. Government of India Act, 1935
income-levied. collected and appro-
priated by the Union. D. Indian Independence Act, 1947
IV) Receipts from Broadcasting-non- 77. When can Parliament legislate on a subject
tax revenue of the Union. in the State List?
A. I and III
I) If Lok Sabha passes a ’resolution by
B. I, II and III two-thirds majority that it is in na-
C. III and IV tional interest to do so.
II) When the legislatures of two or
D. I, II and IV
more States request Parliament to
72. A special category State invariably [CDS legislate on a State subject.
2011] III) Under a proclamation of Emergency.
A. is a border State A. I and III
B. has harsh terrain B. II and III
C. has low literacy rate C. I, II and III
D. has poor infrastructure D. I and II
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2.3 Centre and the states relations 162
78. What was the status of Sikkim at the com- II) State List
mencement of the Constitution? III) Concurrent List
A. A part B State A. I only
B. An independent State B. I and III
C. An independent kingdom attached to C. II and III
India by a special treaty D. I, II and III
D. A part C State
NARAYAN CHANGDER
83. GST was implemented in India from
79. In which one of the following cases the A. 1st January 2017
Supreme Court of India gave verdicts
which have a direct bearing on the Centre- B. 1st April 2017
State relations? [CDS 2011] C. 1st March 2017
A. Keshavananda Bharati case D. 1st July 2017
B. Vishakha case 84. Which of the following Union Territories at-
C. S. R. Bommai case tained statehood in February, 1987?
D. Indira Sawhney case A. Goa
B. Arunachal Pradesh
80. Which one among the following pairs is not
correctly matched? [NDA 2011] C. Pondicherry
A. Union List: Banking D. Daman and Diu
B. State List: Agriculture 85. Which of the following items comes under
C. Concurrent List: Marriage the Concurrent List?
D. Residuary List: Education A. Inter-State rivers
B. Trade Unions
81. Which of the following statements with
regard to the Federal System’ is/are cor- C. Citizenship
rect? D. Local Government
1. In a federation, two sets of govern-
86. Which of the following did India acquire
ments co-exist and there is distribu-
from France?
tion of power.
2. There is a written constitution. A. Yanam
Select the correct answer using the code B. Mahe
given below: [NDA 2011] C. Karaikal
A. 1 only D. All of these
B. 2 only
87. Indirect Taxes are those whose burden
C. Both 1 and 2 to others.
D. Neither 1 nor 2 A. Shifted
82. The Central Government can issue direc- B. Not shifted
tions to the States with regard to the: C. None of the above
I) Union List D. none of above
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2.4 Challenges to Nation Building 163
88. The highest GST rate applicable now is C. Corporation Tax
A. 100% D. Taxes on Railway fares and freight
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B. 28%
90. Lotteries organised by the government of
C. 18%
a State come under: [IFS 1993]
D. 50%
A. Union List
89. Which of the following taxes is exclusively
and totally assigned to the Central Govern- B. State List
ment by the Constitution [CDS 1992] C. Concurrent List
A. Estate Duty D. no list mentioned in the Seventh Sched-
B. Sales Tax ule
2.4 Challenges to Nation Building
1. During andhra movement, which of the 5. Name the state from which Haryana was
leader died from hunger strike? carved out
A. potty shri ramalu A. Punjab
B. Anti ramarav B. Gujarat
C. shri ram shri C. Delhi
D. none of above D. none of above
2. Mohammed Ali Jinnah addressed the con- 6. Which island was earlier known as lac-
stituent assembly of Pakistan in Karachi cadive Island
on: A. Andaman Island
A. 11th August, 1947 B. Maldives
B. 12th August, 1947 C. Nicobar Island
C. 15th August, 1947 D. Lakshwdeep Island
D. 14th August, 1947
7. Who was the leader of Muslim League dur-
3. Which state was once the union territory ing Partition?
A. Manipur A. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
B. Goa B. Salim Ahmad
C. Bengal C. Jagdish lal
D. Delhi D. Mohammad Ali Jinnah
4. How many princely states consisted at the 8. Which two provinces were divided on the
time of independence of India? basis of religion
A. 575 princely states A. Punjab and Bengal
B. 560 princely states B. Gujarat and Rajasthan
C. 565 princely states C. Punjab and haryana
D. 555 princely states D. Kerela and tamil Nadu
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2.4 Challenges to Nation Building 164
9. Who said that the administrative system B. Delhi, Mumbai and Gwalior.
in independent India was renewed without C. Lahore, Amritsar and Calcutta.
being remodelled, thus retaining many of
the colonial systems’ imperfections? D. none of above
A. Clement Attlee 15. At the time of independence, what was the
B. lord Mountbatten no. of princely states?
C. John Nicholson A. 564
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. C. Bettelheim B. 565
10. The interim government formed under the C. 567
cabinet mission plan was headed by D. 546
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
16. Which states boundaries were demarcated
B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. within a country on the basis of adminis-
C. Rajagopalachari trative and political grounds?
D. Jawaharlal Nehru. A. Bihar and Uttar pradesh
11. Name the leader who was popularly B. Gujarat and Rajasthan
known as Frontier Gandhi? C. Punjab and delhi
A. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khar D. Jharakhand and chattisgarh
B. Gaffar Abdul
17. The states of and were created in
C. Khan Abdul 1960.
D. None of these A. Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh
12. How many people migrated across the bor- B. Assam and Nagaland
ders? C. Maharashtra and Gujarat
A. 50 lakh D. Punjab and Haryana
B. 60 lakh
18. Which states were affected by partition of
C. 70 lakh
county
D. 80 lakh
A. Assam and sikkim
13. From which of the following states B. Punjab and West Bengal
haryana was carved out
C. Delhi and goa
A. Bihar
D. Harayana and punjab
B. Delhi
C. East punjab 19. Who played a historic role in integrating
Princely States of India?
D. Himachal pradesh
A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
14. The Cities that were divided into ‘com-
B. Sardar Patel
munal zones’ during the partition violence
were C. Nehru
A. Kashmir, Lucknow and Allahabad. D. Gandhi
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2.4 Challenges to Nation Building 165
20. When did Punjab come into being? 26. Which of the following princely states
A. 1960 resisted their merger with the Indian
Union?
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B. 1963
A. Manipur, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab
C. 1966 and Bengal
D. 1972 B. Junagadh, Hyderabad and Madras
21. What was the base of Indian state reor- C. Hyderabad, Jammu and Kashmir & Ma-
ganisation in 1956? harashtra
A. Language D. Junagadh, Hyderabad, Jammu and
B. Geographical Area Kashmir and Manipur.
C. caste 27. Who went for an indefinite fast for sepa-
rate state?
D. Religion
A. Govind Ballabh Pant
22. When did Punjab get statehood?
B. Potti Sriramulu
A. 1960
C. Kamraj Nadar
B. 1963
D. Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
C. 1966
28. Nation building is
D. 1972
A. One-dimensional approach
23. What was the biggest obstacle in nation
B. Two-dimensional approach
building at the time of India’s indepen-
dence? C. Three-dimensional approach
A. Partition D. Multi-dimensional approach
B. Unity in Diversity 29. In which Congress Session proposal for lin-
C. India’s Poverty guistic principles of reorganisation was ac-
cepted?
D. No Security Establishment
A. Lahore Congress Session of 1929.
24. Which Princely State never wanted to join
B. Nagpur Congress Session of 1920.
the Constituent Assembly?
C. Jaipur Congress Session of 1948.
A. Travancore
D. Amritsar Congress Session of 1919.
B. Bhopal
C. Hyderabad 30. What is WSF?
D. Junagadh A. World Society Federation
B. World Social Federation
25. When did the Central Government appoint
the States Reorganisation Commission? C. World Society Forum
A. 1952 D. World Social Forum
B. 1953 31. Who advanced Two Nation Theory?
C. 1954 A. Muslim League
D. 1955 B. Congress
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2.4 Challenges to Nation Building 166
C. British Government C. Maharaja of Kashmir
D. Extremists D. Nizam of Hyderabad
32. What did the Vishalandhra movement de- 38. Identify the speaker of the following
mand? lines.Tomorrow we shall be free from the
A. Separate Karnataka slavery of the British Domination.But at
midnight India will be partitioned.
B. Separate Tamil areas
A. Nehruji
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Separate Muslim areas
B. Gandhiji
D. Separate Telugu speaking areas
C. Sardar Patel
33. Who gave the famous speech ‘Tryst with
D. Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Destiny’?
A. Mahatma Gandhi 39. Which state experimented bilingual?
B. Sardar Patel A. Bombay
C. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Assam
D. Frontier Gandhi C. Punjab
34. Expand NEFA D. Madras
A. North-East Frontier Agency 40. The main reason for India’s partition is:
B. North-East Frontier Administration A. (a) Adamant attitude of Jinnah
C. North-East Front Agents B. b) Communal riots and disorder
D. None of the above C. c) Failure of the Interim Government
35. Name the leader associated with Hyder- D. All of these
abad
41. How many princely states we had at the
A. Potti sriramulu time of independence of India?
B. Nizam
A. 575 princely states
C. Bodhachandra Singh
B. 560 princely states
D. Ramnath Kovind
C. 565 princely states
36. Name the original state from which D. 555 princely states
Meghalaya was carved out?
A. Assam 42. Which government has been referred to as
the interim government?
B. Nagaland
A. The government of free India working
C. Arunachal Pradesh before the General elections i.e The In-
D. Manipur dian National Congress has been termed
as the Interim Government.
37. Which princely ruler was one of the
world’s richest men? B. The government of free India working
before the General elections i.e The Jan
A. Nawab of Bhopal Sangh has been termed as the Interim
B. Maharaja of Manipur Government.
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2.4 Challenges to Nation Building 167
C. The government of free India working 48. What was the main task of SRC?
before the General elections i.e The Mus-
A. To integrate the princely states.
lim League has been termed as the In-
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terim Government. B. To advise the government.
D. The government of free India work- C. To draw the external boundary of India
ing before the General elections i.e The
Viceroy (Lord Mountbatten) has been D. To draw the internal boundary of India.
termed as the Interim Government.
49. The States Reorganisation Commission
43. There are
was appointed in which year
A. 28 states & 7 UTs
A. 1950
B. 28 states & 9 UTs
B. 1951
C. 29 states & 9 UTs
C. 1953
D. 29 states & 8 UTs
D. none of above
44. Name the original state from which Chat-
tisgarh was carved out. 50. Which states boundaries were demarcated
within a country on the basis of religion
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Madhya Pradesh A. Punjab and haryana
C. Jharkhand B. Delhi and punjab
D. none of above C. Himachal pradesh and uttarakhand
D. Mahrashtra and kerela
45. On which date State Reorganisation Act
was put into practice? 51. The partition of India was caused by
A. January 1, 1956. A. RSS
B. January 1, 1952.
B. Nizams
C. November 1, 1956.
C. Policy of Paramountcy
D. November 1, 1953.
D. Two Nation Theory
46. The ‘’communal zones” exclude
52. Which among the following statements
A. Lahore.
about the partition is incorrect?
B. Kolkata.
A. Partition of India was the outcome of
C. Jammu & Kashmir the “two-nation theory”.
D. Amritsar. B. Punjab and Bengal were the two
provinces divided on the basis of religion.
47. Which neighbouring country of India is ear-
lier known as east Pakistan
A. Nepal C. East Pakistan and West Pakistan were
not contiguous.
B. Bhutan
D. The scheme of Partition included a
C. Bangladesh plan for transfer of population across the
D. Sri lanka border.
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2.4 Challenges to Nation Building 168
53. Muhammad Ali Jinnah belonged to C. Hyderabad
A. Indian National Congress D. Manipur
B. Jan-Sangh
58. The Nawab of was averse to joining
C. Muslim Leauge the Constituent Assembly.
D. Communist Party of India A. Bhopal
54. Which of the following is not a conse- B. Manipur
NARAYAN CHANGDER
quence of Partition?
C. Hyderabad
A. Cities like Lahore, Amritsar and
D. Junagadh
Kolkata became divided into communal
zones. 59. Name the leader who played a historic role
B. In many cases women were killed by in negotiating with the rulers of princely
their own family members to ‘preserve states to join the Indian Union.
the family honour’.
A. Mahatama Gandhi
C. The two Muslim majority provinces of
B. Subash Chander Bose
British India had very large areas where
non Muslims were in majority at the dis- C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
trict or even the lower level. D. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. In India it was decided that all citizens
would be equal irrespective of their reli- 60. strongly opposed Two Nation Theory.
gious affiliation. A. Muhammad AliJinnah
55. The states created in 1960 were B. Faiz Ahmed Faiz
A. Maharashtra and gujarat C. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
B. Rajasthan and Gujarat D. Abdul Kalam Azad
C. orissa and west bengal
61. Give the name of two provinces which
D. punjab and haryana were also divided during the partition of
India?
56. The States reorganisation Commission
was appointed in to look into the ques- A. bihar and pune
tion of redrawing of the boundaries of
B. Bihar and oddisha
states.
C. Punjab and Bengal.
A. 1951
D. none of above
B. 1952
C. 1953 62. The First Home Minister of independent In-
D. 1954 diawas
A. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
57. First Indian state to hold elections based
on ‘Universal Adult Franchise’ in 1948. B. Sardar Patel
A. Junagadh C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
B. Bhopal D. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
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2.4 Challenges to Nation Building 169
63. Which one of the following leaders played 69. made to merge with Pakistan
a vital role in the integration of princely A. NWFP
states with India?
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B. NEWP
A. Mahatma Gandhi
C. NEFP
B. Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
D. NWEP
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. Jawaharlal Nehru 70. Who delivered Tryst with Destiny.
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
64. The states created in 1960 were
A. Maharashtra and Gujarat B. Narendra modi
B. Orissa and West Bengal C. Sardar Vallabh bhai Patel
C. Rajasthan and Gujarat D. Maulana Azad
D. Punjab and Haryana 71. Challenges that India faced after indepen-
dence were:
65. “Tomorrow will be a day of rejoicing as
well as mourning”. Who said this? A. Shape a United Nation
A. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Establish Democracy
B. Mahatma Gandhi C. Welfare of the Masses
C. Sardar Patel D. All the above
D. B.R.Ambedkar 72. From which of the following states Gujarat
was carved out?
66. The famous ‘Tryst with Destiny’ speech
was made by A. Kerela
A. Sardar Vallabhai Patel B. Rajasthan
B. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru C. Bombay
C. Mohd. Ali Jinnah D. Maharashtra
D. Mahatma Gandhi
73. Which was the largest princely state?
67. Select a communal zone A. Chattisgarh
A. Lahore B. Orrisa
B. Amritsar C. Hyderabad
C. Both D. Bombay
D. None
74. Name the leader who demanded temples
68. When India got Independence? to be opened for dalits in Madras
A. 1947 A. B.R. Ambedkar
B. 1949 B. Potti Sriramulu
C. 1953 C. A.K. Gopalan
D. none of above D. Ramachandra Guha
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2.4 Challenges to Nation Building 170
75. Pick the odd one out 80. Goa and Daman Diu was ruled by be-
A. To shape a Nation fore 1961
A. British
B. Establish Democracy
B. Purtuguese
C. Development and Well Being of All
C. Denmark
D. Housing
D. France
76. During colonial rule, the state boundaries
81. Who was the First PM of independent In-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
were drawn either on convenience or
simply coincided with the territories an- dia?
nexed by the British government or the A. Pandit Nehru
territories ruled by the princely powers. B. Sardar Patel
A. linguistic C. Shastriji
B. regional D. Morarji Desai
C. religious 82. Which theory was behind the Partition of
D. administrative India?
A. Two land Theory
77. What was the basis of the report of States
Reorganisation Commission? B. Two Nation Theory
A. Distribution of boundaries of states on C. Two Identity Theory
Language basis D. Two Separate Theory
B. Distribution of boundaries of states on 83. Name the states which were bifurcated
Religion basis during Partition?
C. Distribution of boundaries of states on A. Punjab and Haryana
Cultural basis
B. Punjab and UP
D. Distribution of boundaries of states on
C. Bengal and Orissa
Reservation of Minorities basis
D. Punjab and Bengal
78. Which two languages were spoken in Bom-
bay state before it was divided in 1960? 84. Name the writer of the poem-Today I Call
Waris Shah
A. Hindi and Marathi
A. Faiz Ahmed Faiz
B. Hindi, Gujarati and Marathi
B. Manto
C. Gujarati and Marathi
C. Harivansh Rai Bachchan
D. Only Marathi D. Amrita Pritam
79. Name the para-military force of the Nizam 85. Which of the following was a princely
of Hyderabad state?
A. Panthers A. Jammu & Kashmir
B. Naxalite B. Andhrapradesh
C. National Security C. Meghalaya
D. Razakars D. Kashmir
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2.4 Challenges to Nation Building 171
86. was the first state in India to hold 91. Name the leader of the freedom move-
an election based on Universal Adult Fran- ment of India who was popularly known
chise. as Frontier Gandhi
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A. Hyderabad A. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan.
B. Jammu and Kashmir B. Khan Amir Gaffar Khan.
C. Bengal C. Kapoor Abdul Gaffar Khan.
D. Manipur D. none of above
87. The main recommendation of SRC was 92. Princely states ruled by princes enjoyed
some form of control over their internal
A. To draw boundary on religious basis affairs as long as they enjoyed British
B. To draw boundary on linguistic basis supremacy is called
C. To draw boundary on culture basis A. Accession
D. To draw boundary on Caste basis B. Paramountacy
C. Agreement
88. The issue of Junagadh was resolved after
a confirmed people’s desire to join In- D. Merger
dia.
93. The rulers of and decided on inde-
A. Instrument of Accession pendence.
B. Plebiscite A. Junagadh and Jammu and Kashmir
C. Standstill Agreement B. Junagadh and Hyderabad
D. Razakars C. Jammu and Kashmir and Hyderabad
89. The Madras province under British India D. Travancore and Hyderabad
did not create one of the following linguis- 94. When did Telegana become a separate
tic states: state?
A. Andhra Pradesh (Telugu) A. 2014
B. Madras (Tamil) B. 2013
C. Kerala (Malayalam) C. 2015
D. Karnataka (Kannad) D. 2016
90. States which were union territories before 95. The state Re-organisation Act was passed
becoming full-fledged states. in 1956 which created
A. Goa, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, A. 14 states and 7 Union territories.
Tripura and Mizoram
B. 14 states and 6 Union territories.
B. Meghalaya, Himachal Pradesh, Ma- C. 15 states and 6 Union territories.
nipur, Tripura and Mizoram
D. 15 states and 7 Union territories.
C. Goa, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Na-
galand and Mizoram 96. which of the following state was carved
D. Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur, Goa and out from Assam?
Mizoram A. Andhrapradesh
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2.5 Emergency Provisions 172
B. Meghalaya A. Parliament
C. Chattisgarh B. Lucknow
D. Kashmir C. Nagpur
97. Identify the princely state where Article D. Red Fort
370 is revoked .
A. Jammu & Kashmir 99. Select an appropriate percentage of Mus-
lims
B. Manipur
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 12
C. Meghalaya
D. Kashmir B. 13
C. 177
98. Where was the ‘tryst with Destiny’
speech delievered? D. 80 lakhs
2.5 Emergency Provisions
1. While a proclamation of emergency is in II) If any proclamation of financial
operation in the country, the State Gov- emergency is in operation. it is com-
ernment: petent for the President of India to
A. cannot legislate issue directions for the reduction of
salaries and allowances of all or any
B. can legislate only on subjects in the class of persons serving in connec-
Concurrent List tion with the affairs of the Union but
C. can legislate on the subject in the excluding the Judges of the Supreme
State List Court and the High Courts.
D. is suspended Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? [IAS 2007]
2. Who was the Prime Minister of India dur-
ing the Kargil War A. I only
A. H.D Devegowda B. II only
B. Manmohan Singh C. Both I and II
C. Atal Behari vajpayee D. Neither I nor II
D. P.V Narasimha Rao 4. The provision for Contingency Fund of In-
dia as well as for each State has been
3. Consider the following statements in re-
made under:
spect of financial emergency under Article
360 of the Constitution of India: A. Article 267
I) A proclamation of financial emer- B. Article 270
gency issued shall cease to operate C. Parliamentary Legislation
at the expiration of two months, un- D. Presidential order
less before the expiration of that
period it has been approved by the 5. Provisions of the Constitution relating to
resolutions of both Houses of Parlia- the administration of scheduled areas and
ment. tribes in Schedule V:
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2.5 Emergency Provisions 173
A. may be altered by the Governor B. two months unless before that period
B. may be altered by Parliament by it has been approved by resolution of both
Houses of Parliament
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amendment requiring two-thirds majority
C. six months unless before that period it
C. cannot be altered has been approved by resolution of both
Houses of Parliament
D. may be altered by Parliament by ordi-
nary legislation D. three years unless before that period
it has been approved by resolution of both
6. During financial emergency, the President Houses of Parliament
can:
I) ask the states to reduce the salaries 9. Consider the following statement in con-
arid allowances of all or any class of text Emergency provisions.1) Emergency
persons serving in connection with due to war, external aggression or armed
the affairs of the State rebellion that popularly known as National
II) ask the states to reserve money Emergency comes under Art. 356.2) An
bills passed by the state legislature Emergency due to the failure of the con-
for his consideration stitutional Machinery in the states comes
III) issue directions to states on finan- under Article 360.3) Financial Emergency
cial matters due to a threat to the financial stability
IV) issue directions for the reduction of or credit of India that popularly known as
salaries and allowances of persons President Rule in the country comes under
serving in connection with the af- Article 352.Which of the statement given
fairs of the Union above is / are correct.
A. I, II and III A. 1 & 2 only
B. I, III and IV B. 1, 2 & 3 onl
C. II, III and IV
C. 3 only
D. I, II, III and IV
D. None of the above
7. Which of the following Articles of Indian
Constitution guarantees equal opportuni- 10. Under which Article of the Constitution is
ties in public employment to persons be- the President’s rule promulgated on any
longing to SC/ST and the other minority State in India? [Bank PO 1994]
communities? A. 356
A. Article 15
B. 352
B. Article 16
C. 360
C. Article 22
D. 370
D. Article 27
8. Every proclamation issued under Article 11. While a proclamation of emergency is
356 shall cease to operate at the expira- in operation in the country under Article
tion of: 352:
A. one month unless before that period it A. the Parliament is empowered under
has been approved by resolution of both Article 250 to legislate with respect to any
Houses of Parliament matter in the State List
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2.5 Emergency Provisions 174
B. the power of the State Legislature to 16. The President’s rule is imposed for the pe-
make a law which is entitled to make a law riod of:
under the Constitution is suspended
A. 3 months
C. a law passed by the Parliament may be
B. 6 months
amended by a State Legislature with prior
permission of the President C. till the next election is held
D. Parliament can delegate some of its D. it depends upon the President’s wish
powers to the State Legislatures
NARAYAN CHANGDER
17. In case of proclamation of emergency on
12. On the basis of financial crisis Emergency grounds of war or external aggression:
has been declared by the President of In-
dia: A. all Fundamental Rights will be auto-
matically suspended
A. not even once
B. the right to move a court for enforce-
B. in 1962
ment of any Fundamental Right is sus-
C. in 1971 pended
D. in 1991 C. the President may order the suspen-
sion of enforcement of any Fundamental
13. Finance commission consisting of chair- Right except Article 20-21
man & members.
D. Parliament may authorise suspension
A. 1, 3 of all Fundamental Rights
B. 1, 5
18. Which is not a correct statement regarding
C. 1, 4
financial emergency?
D. 1, 6
A. President can ask States to follow a
14. A resolution for the revocation of procla- certain canon of financial propriety
mation of National Emergency may be B. The States may be asked to reserve
moved by: the money bills for the consideration of
A. ten members of Rajya Sabha the President
B. ten members of Lok Sabha C. President can suspend the normal al-
location of revenues
C. ten members of Parliament
D. President can reduce the salaries of
D. one-tenth of total membership of Lok
civil servants and not judges
Sabha
15. Emergency can be proclaimed: 19. What is the other name given to the lon-
gitude which passes through Greenwich,
A. in whole of the country England?
B. only in that part of country where ac- A. Rose line
tual aggression has taken place
B. Prime meridian
C. in any part of the country
C. Plimsoll line
D. in the entire country or any part of ter-
ritory of India D. Prime parallel
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2.5 Emergency Provisions 175
20. Proclamation of emergency under Article 24. The proclamation of emergency at the first
352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, instance can be restricted to:
has to be approved by:
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A. 3 months
A. Rajya Sabha and then will continue till B. 15 days
the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha which
must approve it within 30 days of its first C. 6 months
sitting D. 60 days
B. New Lok Sabha within 6 months of its 25. The President’s rule can be proclaimed in a
Constitution State: [CDS 1994]
C. Lok Sabha in next session after six A. when a bill introduced by the State Gov-
months ernment in the State Legislature is de-
D. Rajya Sabha only feated
B. if the President, on receipt of report
21. The President can issue proclamation of
from the Governor of the State is satis-
emergency:
fied that a situation is likely to arise in
A. on the advice of Prime Minister which the Government of the State cannot
B. on the advice of Council of Ministers be carried on in accordance with the pro-
visions of the Constitution
C. in his own decision
C. if the President, on receipt of a report
D. when the decision of Union Cabinet from the Governor of the State, or oth-
for the issuance of such proclamation has erwise, is satisfied that a situation has
been communicated to him in writing arisen in which the Government of the
22. Identify the wrong pair State cannot be carried on in accordance
with the provisions of the Constitution
A. Indira Gandhi-Emergency
D. when the Governor and the Chief Min-
B. Rajiv Gandhi-Development in Science ister of a State differ on many matters
and Technology
26. According to Article 164(1) of the Consti-
C. P.V Narasimha Rao-Economic Reforms
tution of India, in three States there shall
be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare
D. Chandra Sekhar-Mandal Commission who may in addition be in charge of the
welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Back-
23. National emergency can be declared by the
ward Classes. Which one of the following
President only
States is not covered by the Article? [CDS
I) on grounds of war 2009]
II) on grounds of external aggression A. Jharkhand
III) on grounds of internal disturbance
IV) on the written recommendation of B. Punjab
the Union Cabinet C. Madhya Pradesh
A. I and II D. Orissa
B. I, II and III 27. is known as the Father of the Green
C. I, II and IV Revolution
D. I, II, III and IV A. Verghese Kurien
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2.5 Emergency Provisions 176
B. Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata B. by each House of Parliament
C. B. R. Ambedkar C. by both the Houses of Parliament in a
D. M.S Swaminathan joint sitting
D. by each House of Parliament in sepa-
28. Who is the first indian to be honoured with
rate sittings with majority of total mem-
Nobel Prize?
bership of each House and by majority of
A. C V Raman not less than 2/3rd of members present
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Hargobind Khurana and voting
C. Rabindranath Tagore 33. The Government of India granted lan-
D. Mother Teresa guages as classical language status
29. Every proclamation issued under Article A. 6
352 shall be: B. 12
A. laid before each House of the Parlia- C. 22
ment
D. 14
B. laid before the Lok Sabha
C. decided by the Prime Minister and con- 34. National Emergency has been declared so
veyed to the President far:
D. All of the above A. once
30. The duration of proclamation of Financial B. twice
Emergency is: C. thrice
A. at the first instance one month D. four times
B. at the first instance two months
35. Provisions of having a UPSC and Pub-
C. at the first instance six months lic Service Commision for States are en-
D. at the first instance one year shrined in
31. The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd A. Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-324
majority of total number of members of B. Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-323
the House of Parliament is applicable in the
C. Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-323
case of:
D. Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-318
A. amendment of the Constitution
B. approval of proclamation of emer- 36. When a financial emergency is proclaimed:
gency [I. Tax 1994]
C. impeachment of President A. repayment of government debts will
D. disapproval of proclamation of emer- stop
gency B. payment of salaries to public servants
will be postponed
32. A resolution ratifying the proclamation
of National Emergency requires to be C. salaries and allowances of any class of
passed: employees may be reduced
A. by Parliament D. Union Budget will not be presented
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2.5 Emergency Provisions 177
37. During a proclamation of emergency due B. cannot be reviewed as the Constitution
to the breakdown of constitutional machin- bars the courts from reviewing political
ery in a State the President can actions
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I) assume all powers vested in and ex- C. can be reviewed as it goes against Fun-
ercisable by the Governor damental Rights
II) declare that the powers of the State D. can be reviewed as it is malafide
Legislature shall be exercised by
Parliament 41. Which of the following is/are resultant of
III) assume certain powers of the High a proclamation of National Emergency be-
Courts cause of war?
IV) suspend by order any or all Funda- I) The Union Government can give di-
mental Rights except those under rections to the States about how the
Articles 20 and 21 executive power of the State is to
A. I and II be exercised.
II) The Fundamental Rights stand auto-
B. I and III
matically suspended.
C. II, III and IV III) The State Legislature is suspended.
D. II and IV IV) Parliament can make laws with re-
spect to any subject in the State List.
38. While a proclamation of emergency is in A. I, II and IV
operation the duration of the Lok Sabha
B. I, III and IV
can be extended for a period [CDS 2012]
C. I only
A. not exceeding three months
D. I and IV
B. not exceeding nine months
C. of one year at a time 42. After approval by’ both Houses of Parlia-
ment, the proclamation of emergency is-
D. of two years at time sued by the President shall be valid:
39. Which Article of Indian Constitution pre- A. for period of six months
scribes Hindi in Devanagari script as the B. for an indefinite period unless revoked
official language of the Union? by the subsequent proclamation
A. 341 C. for an indefinite period if both Houses
B. 342 of Parliament approves the proclamation
after every six months
C. 343
D. for further period of two months only
D. 346
43. Th Indian Prime Minister who took an ini-
40. The Governor recommends to the Presi- tiative in resolving the question of the
dent of India that breakdown of Constitu- Tamil minority in Srilanka was
tional machinery in the State is imminent. A. Rajiv Gandhi
The President makes a proclamation under
Article 356. The action of the President: B. H.D Devegowda
A. cannot be reviewed as the President is C. Atal Behari Vajpayee
the sole judge of his emergency powers D. P.V Narasimha Rao
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2.5 Emergency Provisions 178
44. During the proclamation of National Emer- 46. Which one of the following Articles of the
gency: Constitution of India says that the execu-
A. all Fundamental Rights are suspended tive power of every State shall be so ex-
ercised as not to impede or prejudice the
exercise of the executive power of the
B. Articles 20 and 21 cannot be sus- Union? [IAS 2004]
pended
A. Article 257
C. Article 32 cannot be suspended
B. Article 258
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Article 19 cannot be suspended
C. Article 355
45. Article 340 of the Constitution of India pro-
vides for the appointment of a Commission D. Article 356
to investigate the conditions for the im- 47. Part V of the Constitution deals with:
provement of: [CDS 2004]
I) Union Executive
A. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
II) Parliament
Tribes
III) Supreme Court and High Courts
B. Socially and educationally backward IV) Comptroller and Auditor-General
classes
A. I and II
C. Socially and economically backward
B. I, II and III
classes
D. Educationally and economically back- C. I only
ward classes D. I, II and IV
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III
III
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3 Central Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . 180
3.1 President . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 180
3.2 Vice-President . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 186
3.3 Prime Minister . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 192
3.4 Central Council of Ministers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 193
3.5 Cabinet Committees . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 200
3.6 Parliament . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 203
3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? . . . . . . . . . . . . 205
3.8 Indian Supreme Court . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 223
3.9 Judiciary . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 226
3.10 Public Interest Litigation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 248
3.11 Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 250
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3. Central Government
NARAYAN CHANGDER
3.1 President
1. Who is the first women prime minister in C. All of the above
India? D. None of the above
A. Indira Gandhi
5. Who is the current President of India
B. Mother Teresa
A. APJ Abdul Kalam
C. Rani Lakshmi Bai
B. Narendra Modi
D. none of above
C. Ram Nath kovind
2. The real executive power rests with of D. Venkaiah Naidu
India.
6. Which of these is true of the President?
A. President
A. He is the ex-officio chairman of NITI
B. Prime Minister Aayog
C. Vice President B. He is the chairman of the Rajya-Sabha
D. none of above
C. He is the commander of the Armed
3. Did George W. Bush visit any other place Forces
rather than New Delhi?
D. He co-ordinates the functioning of the
A. Mumbai Council of Ministers
B. Chennai
7. Which of these is NOT a part of the oath
C. Agra of office that the President of India swears
D. Hyderabad to?
A. Discharge the functions of the Presi-
4. An electoral college consist of:
dent of India
A. Members of the Parliament B. Preserve, protect and defend the Con-
B. Members of the State Legislatures stitution and the law
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3.1 President 181
C. Bear true faith and allegiance to the 13. Whom did Richard Nixon meet with while
Constitution of India in India?
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D. Devote himself to the service and well- A. President Kocheril Raman Narayanan
being of the people of India and Prime Minister Morarji Desai
B. President Varahagiri Venkata Giri and
8. Who is the Supreme Commander of the
Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi
Armed Forces in India?
C. President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed and
A. The Prime Minister
Prime Minister Charan Singh
B. The Commander-in-chief
D. Acting President Mohammed Hidayat-
C. The President of India ullah and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi
D. Minister of Defence
14. Members of which of the following is a
part of the electoral college to elect the
9. In the union govt the council of Ministers
President
is collectively responsible to the:
A. Citizens of India
A. Prime Minister of India
B. Elected members of Lok Sabha only
B. Lok sabha
C. Elected members of Rajya Sabha only
C. Lok sabha and Rajya Sabha
D. Elected members of both the houses
D. Union cabinet
15. The Prime Minister is called the
10. All executive orders are issued in the name
of the A. Nominal Head
A. President B. Executive Head
B. Prime Minister C. None of the above
C. Governor D. none of above
D. Chief justice of India 16. The budget is placed before the Parlia-
ment in the name of the President.
11. Which one of these is NOT a type of emer-
gency in India? A. Annual
A. General Emergency B. Quarterly
B. Financial Emergency C. finally
D. none of above
C. Justitium
D. President’s Rule 17. On Whose advice does the President sum-
mon and Prorogue the Parliament?
12. The term of the President is
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
A. 3 years
B. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
B. 5 years
C. Prime Minister and Council of Minis-
C. 10 years ters
D. none of above D. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
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3.1 President 182
18. The administers the Oath of Office to A. Rajendra Prasad and Sarvepalli Rad-
the President. hakrishnan
A. Vice President B. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari and Ra-
jendra Prasad
B. Prime Minister
C. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari and
C. Chief Justice of India
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
D. Chief Election Commissioner D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
19. What does the word “armed forces” 23. Who is appointed as the Prime Minister?
mean?
A. Anyone chosen by the President.
A. groups that do not protect a country,
B. Leader of party or coalition that com-
such as the army, navy, air force, marines,
mands a majority in the Lok Sabha
and coast guard
C. Person suggested by the Previous
B. groups that protect a country, such as Prime Minister
the army, navy, air force, marines, and
coast guard D. none of above
C. groups that may protect a State, such 24. A Bill passed by the Parliament becomes a
as the schools, park, playgrounds, skies, law only
and oceans. A. if President signs it
D. groups B. when introduced in Lok Sabha
20. While President Carter visited India who C. None of the above
was the special guest to greet President D. none of above
Carter at the airport?
25. Who is the First Prime Minister of India?
A. Madurai Sadashivan Subbulakshmi
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Asha Bhosle
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam
C. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
D. Agnes Gonxha Bojaxhiu (Mother D. none of above
Teresa)
26. Narendra Modi is the of India.
21. Which of these is true regarding the func-
A. President
tions of the President?
B. Governor
A. He has the power to make declarations
of war and peace. C. Prime Minister
B. He formulates the policies of the Gov- D. none of above
ernment. 27. Jawaharlal Nehru and Sarvepalli Radhakr-
C. He is the leader of the Council of Min- ishnan met with which president?
isters. A. Harry S Truman
D. none of above B. John Fitzgerald Kennedy
22. Who were the 2nd and 3rd President of C. Dwight David Eisenhower
India respectively? D. Franklin Delano Roosevelt
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3.1 President 183
28. For how many years the President is 33. Which of the following is not a qualifica-
elected tion for the post of a President
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A. 3 years A. Must be a citizen of India
B. 5 years B. must be qualified to become a member
of the Lok Sabha
C. 6 years
C. Must be 25 years of age
D. 4 years
D. none of above
29. No person is Eligible for election as the
34. How many members can be nominated to
President unless one has completed the
the rajya sabha by president of India?
age of years.(Write the answer in
Numbers) A. 10
A. 30 B. 12
B. 35 C. 14
C. 25 D. 18
D. 18 35. A bill can’t be introduced unless recom-
mended by the President.
30. In whom is the executive power of the In-
A. Non Money bill
dian Union vested?
B. Money Bill
A. The Prime Minister
C. Ordinary bill
B. The Council of Ministers
D. none of above
C. The Cabinet
D. The President 36. Which Prime Ministers did. Barack Obama
meet?
31. Who administers the oath of office to the A. Manmohan Singh and Narendra Modi
Vice-President?
B. Charan Singh and Manmohan Singh
A. The President C. Inder Kumar Gujral and Narendra
B. The Chief Justice of India Modi
C. The seniormost judge of the Supreme D. Rajiv Gandhi and Charan Singh
Court
37. Which cities did Bill Clinton visit while pres-
D. The Prime Minister ident?
32. What power does the President have for A. Agra, Udaipur, Hyderabad, Bangalore,
a person convicted of an offence? Mew Delhi and Mumbai
A. To advice the court on the sentence B. New Delhi, Mumbai, Jaipur, Agra and
Hyderabad
B. To change the sentence given to the
C. Thiruvananthapuram, Jaipur, Hyder-
convict
abad, Chennai and New Delhi
C. To increase the punishment
D. Agra, Udaipur, New Delhi, Gandhina-
D. To grant pardon gar and Ahmedabad
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3.1 President 184
38. What is the function of the Executive? C. Members of both houses of Parlia-
A. makes laws ment, State legislative assemblies and
State Legislative Councils
B. interprets law
D. Elected members of both the houses of
C. enforces law Parliament and elected members of State
D. none of above legislative assemblies
44. The President of India is elected by the
39. Who is called the nominal head of the
members of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
state?
A. Elected Members of both the Houses
A. President of the Parliament
B. Governor B. Elected members of the State Legisla-
C. None of the above tive Assembly
D. none of above C. Electoral College
D. none of above
40. Who keeps the President informed on all
matters of the Government? 45. The of India administers the Oath of
Office to the President.
A. Vice President
A. Chief Justice
B. Prime minister
B. prime minister
C. Council of Ministers
C. Governor of the state
D. none of above D. none of above
41. In which of these cases is the President re- 46. Who is the real head of Indian Parliamen-
placed by the Vice-President? tary System?
A. Illness A. President
B. Impeachment B. Prime Minister
C. Resignation C. Governor
D. All of the above D. none of above
47. Who was the 4th President of India from
42. The first President of India 1969-1974
A. Narendra Modi A. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
B. Rajendra Prasad B. Zakir Hussain
C. Jawaharlal Nehru’s C. V V Giri
D. Vallabhbhai Patel D. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
43. who are the members of the electoral col- 48. Which place did Richard Nixon visit in In-
lege for Presidential election dia?
A. New Delhi
A. members of both the houses of the par-
liament B. Agra
B. Members of Lok Sabha and State leg- C. Mumbai
islative assemblies D. Hyderabad
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3.1 President 185
49. Who elects the President? 55. Choose the correct option. A new Presi-
A. Lok Sabha dent is elected when
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B. Rajya Sabha A. on the death of the president
C. State Legislative Assemblies B. when the president is on vacation
D. An Electoral College consisting of the C. when the president is impeached
elected members of all the above bodies D. none of above
50. The Nominal Executive or the head of the 56. No person is Eligible for election as the
State. President unless one has completed the
A. Prime Minister age of years.
B. Vice-President A. 35
C. President B. 25
D. none of above C. 30
D. none of above
51. Which Article of the Constitution provides
for a Vice-President of India? 57. To become a President one must be at least
A. Article 63 years old
B. Article 51 A A. 25 years
C. Article 69 B. 35 years
D. Article 34 C. 45 years
D. none of above
52. The real executive
A. President 58. Which of the following Union Territories is
a part of the electoral college for the elec-
B. Prime Minister tion of the President
C. Vice President A. Legislative Assemblies of Andaman
D. none of above Nicobar and Delhi
53. The Supreme Commander of the Defence B. Legislative Assemblies of Puducherry
Forces of India. and Chandigarh
A. Prime Minister C. Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and
Puducherry
B. President
D. none of above
C. Vice President
D. none of above 59. Which of this is not the qualification to the
be the President?
54. Who is empowered to declare National A. Not hold any office of profit under Cen-
Emergency? tral or State governments.
A. Parliament B. Be 25 years of age or more.
B. Governors of State C. qualify to be the member of Lok Sabha
C. President of India
D. Prime Minister of India D. Citizen of India
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3.2 Vice-President 186
60. Who appointed the Chief Justice and Other B. President of India
Judges of the Supreme Court of India? C. The Governor of the concerning State
A. The C.M of the concerned State D. Prime Minister of India
3.2 Vice-President
1. Consider the following statements.1) 7th 5. Which of the following authorities has the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 fa- power to declare an area as disturbed area
cilitated the appointment of the same per- under the Armed Forces Special Power Act
son as a governor for two or more states. (AFSPA).a) President of India b) Governor
2) The governor is the chief executive head of a state c) Both the President and gover-
of the state. 3) Part VI of the constitu- nor of a state d) Armed Forces
tion is not applicable to the state of Jammu
and Kashmir.Which of the statement given A. a
above is / are correct.a) 1 only b) 1 & 3 B. b
only c) 2 & 3 only d) 1, 2 & 3 only
C. c
A. a
B. b D. d
C. c
6. What is the 25th Amendment?
D. d
A. it ensures that if the vice president be-
2. Which of the following do not participate comes president, they can choose their
in the election of the Vice-President of In- own vice president and gives vice presi-
dia? dents a say in whether a president is fit to
A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha serve
B. Elected Members of State Legislative B. it allows vice presidents to serve as
Assemblies the tie-breaking vote in the Senate
C. Elected Members of the Parliament
C. it requires that if the vice president be-
D. a and c comes the president, the speaker of the
3. How long is a Presidential term? house becomes vice president
A. 4 years D. it gives the vice president the power to
B. 8 years choose electors for states where there is
a tie between the candidates
C. 6 years
D. 2 years 7. Who was the ex-officio chairman of Rajya
4. When the Vice-President officiates as Sabha
President he/she draws the salary of? A. President of India
A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. Vice-President of India
B. President
C. Member of Parliment C. Prime minister of India
D. a and c D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
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3.2 Vice-President 187
8. In a case, if the same person is appointed d. The office of governor of a state is
as the governor of two or more states, an employment under the Central govern-
the emoluments and allowances payable ment.
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to him will bear by:a. One of the two A. a
states decided by the President b. The
first state in which he was appointed c. B. b
Both the states shared by in such propor- C. c
tion as determined by the President of In-
D. d
dia. d. The second state in which he has
been appointed 12. How much do U.S.presidents get paid per
A. a year?
B. b A. $1.4 million
C. c B. $400, 000
D. d C. $250, 000
D. $589, 000
9. When the vacancy is going to be caused
by the expiration of the term of the sit- 13. The President of India is indirectly elected.
ting vice-president, an election to fill the Which is of the following is NOT a reason
vacancy must be held a. Before the for this?
expiration of the term b. After the expi-
ration of the term c. It doesn’t matter be- A. to save time & money
fore and after the expiration of the term d. B. real powers are enjoyed by the PM and
Within 6 months of expiration of the term not the President
A. a C. high illiteracy rate in India
B. b D. none of above
C. c 14. When President of India dies while in of-
D. d fice, the Vice-President can act as Presi-
dent for a maximum period of?
10. Who comes after the vice president in the
line of succession? A. 3 months
A. attorney general B. 6 months
B. secretary of the state C. 9 months
C. president pro tempore of the senate D. 1 year
D. speaker of the house 15. During any period when the Vice-
President acts as President or discharges
11. Which of the following statement is/are the functions of the President, he is enti-
not true about the status of Governor of tled to salary or allowance payable to:a.
a state in India? a. Appointment of the The Chairman of Rajya Sabha b. The Vice
same person as a governor for two or President of India c. The President of India
more states is possible. b. A Governor d. Both a and b
acts as an agent of the central government.
c. A Governor is a nominal executive head A. a
(titular or constitutional head) of the state. B. b
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3.2 Vice-President 188
C. c A. a
D. d B. b
16. The oath of office to the Vice-President is C. c
administered by whom among the follow- D. d
ing? a. The President of India b. Some
person appointed on behalf by the Presi- 20. What amendment made the presidential
dent c. Prime Minister d. Any one of both term limits law?
a and b
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 23rd Amendment
A. a
B. 26th Amendment
B. b
C. 25th Amendment
C. c
D. 22nd Amendment
D. d
21. He is the Head of the Union Administration,
17. What are the requirements for becoming
Controls State Goverments/UTs/Border
vice president?
Areas and Appoints all major officials of
A. at least 35 years old, naturalized cit- the nation are powers of the President
izen, lived in the country for at least 14 of India.
years
A. EMERGENCY
B. at least 30 years old, a citizen for at
least 9 years B. FINANCIAL
C. at least 35 years old, native-born cit- C. LEGISLATIVE
izen, lived in the country for at least 14 D. EXECUTIVE
years
D. at least 25 years old, a citizen for at 22. While acting as President or discharg-
least 7 years ing the functions of President by Vice-
President who among the following will
18. Electoral College that elects the President perform the duties of the office of the
of India includes & chairman of Rajya Sabha? a. Deputy
A. MPs Chairman of Rajya Sabha b. Speaker of
the Rajya Sabha c. Deputy Speaker of the
B. MLAs Rajya Sabha d. Vice-President itself
C. MPs AND MLAs A. a
D. none of above
B. b
19. . Consider the following statements.1) All C. c
executive actions of the Government of
a state are formally taken by Governor’s D. d
name. 2) The Governor can not promul-
23. The tenure of the President
gate ordinances when the state legislature
is not in session. 3) No demand for a grant A. 6
can be made except on Governor recom- B. 5
mendations.Which of the statement given
above is / are correct.a) 1 only b) 2 only C. 4
c) 1 & 3 only d) a, 2 & 3 only D. 3
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3.2 Vice-President 189
24. Consider the following statements.1) Art. B. 4 years
157 lays down two qualifications for the C. 5 years
office of the Governor. 2) The governor’s
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should be a member of the state legisla- D. 6 years
ture. 3) Governor should have completed
29. EX-OFFICIO CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA
the age of 40 years before the appoint-
IS
ment.Which of the statement given above
is / are correct.a) 1 only b) 2 & 3 only c) A. PRESIDENT
1 & 3 only d) 1, 2 & 3 only B. VICE PRESIDENT
A. a C. PM
B. b D. COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
C. c
30. Consider the following statements regard-
D. d ing the function of vice-President:I. He
acts as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya
25. Who administers the President’s oath of
Sabha. II. He acts as the ex-officio Chair-
office.
man of Lok Sabha. III. He acts as President
A. CJI when a vacancy occurs in the office of the
B. President President due to his resignation, removal,
death or otherwise. Which of the follow-
C. Prime Minister
ing statement(s) is/are correct? a. Only I
D. none of above b. I and II c. I and III d. All of the above
26. The president’s role as leader of the na- A. a
tion’s armed forces B. b
A. Chief of the Armed Forces C. c
B. Supreme Leader of the Armed Forces D. d
C. Chief Commander
31. Which one of the following is not ap-
D. Commander in Chief pointed by the President of India?
27. Which of the following is not a function of A. Chief Justice of Supreme court
the Vice-President? B. Governors of the States
A. He acts as the ex-officio chairman of C. Vice-President of India
the Rajya Sabha
D. Chief Justice of High Court
B. He presides over the sessions of the
Rajya Sabha 32. Who among the does not include in the
C. He presides over the joint sessions of electoral college for the election of the
the Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha Vice-President? a. Elected members of
the state legislative assemblies b. Elected
D. In the event of vacany in the office of members of Lok Sabha c. Nominated mem-
the President he shall act as President bers of Lok Sabha d. Elected members of
28. Vice-President of India holds the office for Rajya Sabha
a term of? A.
A. 3 years B.
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3.2 Vice-President 190
C. C. II and III
D. D. All of the above
33. Which of the following powers does not 36. Who among the following can remove the
possessed by a Governor? a. Diplomatic governor of a state from office? a .Presi-
Powers b. Executive powers c. Judicial dentb. Supreme courtc. Parliamentd. Leg-
powers d. Legislative powers islative assembly
A. a
A. a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. b
B. b
C. c
C. c
D. d
D. d
37. Who among the following did not serve as
34. With reference to the term of office of the Vice-President of India before becom-
the Vice-President which of the following ing the President of India?
statement is not correct? a. A formal im- A. Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
peachment is required for his removal. b.
He is not eligible for re-election to that of- B. Dr. Zakir Husain
fice. c. He can be removed by a resolution C. Shri K. R . Narayanan
of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute D. Neelami Sanjeeva Reddy
majority (i.e., a majority of the total mem-
bers of the House) and agreed to by the 38. IN CASE OF FOREIGN AGGRESSION THE
Lok Sabha. d. The Vice-President cannot PRESIDENT CAN PROCLAIM
hold office beyond his term of five years A. FINANCIAL EMERGENCY
in any case. B. NATIONAL EMERGENCY
A. a C. STATE EMERGENCY
B. b D. none of above
C. c 39. What are the requirements for becoming
D. d president?
A. at least 35 years old, high school
35. Consider the following statements re- diploma, clear criminal record
garding the election of Vice-President:I.
The Vice-President, like the president, is B. at least 35 years old, naturalized citi-
elected not directly by the people but by zen and 10 years living in the country
the method of indirect election. II. He is C. at least 35 years old, native born cit-
elected by the members of an electoral col- izen, lived in the country for at least 14
lege consisting of the members of both years
Houses of Parliament. III. It consists of D. at least 35 years old, naturalized citi-
both elected and nominated members of zen, 14 years military service
the Parliament (in the case of president,
only elected members). Which of the fol- 40. Which of the following is not matched
lowing statement(s) is/are correct? correctly? (A) Article 64:Vice President
will be the Ex-Officio Chairman of the
A. Only I State Councils(B) Article 65:Vice Presiden-
B. I and II tial election(C) Article 69:swearing by the
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3.2 Vice-President 191
Vice President(D) Article 61:Vice Presi- B. Prime Minister
dent’s tenure C. Vice-President
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A. a
D. Governors of State
B. b
C. c 46. The oath of office to the governor is admin-
istered by:a. The President of India b. The
D. d Chief Justice of the concerned state high
court c. The Chief Justice of the Supreme
41. The President & the Vice-President of In-
Court d. None of the above
dia holds the office for a term of?
A. 3 years A. a
B. 4 years B. b
C. 5 years C. c
D. 6 years D. d
42. Who chooses the president 47. Vice-President gives his resignation to
A. citizens the?
B. electors A. President of India
C. colleges B. Chief Justice of India
D. congressmen C. Parliament
D. Prime minister
43. What is the minimum age prescribed for
election as President & Vice-President of 48. In case of death of a sitting governor, who
India? among the following will discharge the
A. 21-30 years functions of the governor of that state? a.
B. 25-30 years The President of India b. The Chief Justice
of the Supreme Court c. The Chief Justice
C. 30-35 years of the concerned state high court d. None
D. 35-35 years of the above
44. Who elects the Vice-president of India? A. a
A. Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya B. b
Sabha C. c
B. Elected members of Lok sabha and Ra- D. d
jya Sabha
C. Elected members of Lok sabha, Rajya 49. What is the minimum age prescribed for
Sabha & State assemblies election as Vice-President of India?
D. Members of Lok Sabha only A. 18 years
B. 25 years
45. Who among the following occupied the sec-
ond highest office in India? C. 30 years
A. Chief Justice of India D. 35 years
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3.3 Prime Minister 192
3.3 Prime Minister
1. Who is First Prime Minister of India? 7. Who was 4th PM of India?
A. Jawahara Lal Nehru A. Narendra Modi
B. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar B. Morarji Desai
C. Sardar Vallabai Patel C. Rajiv Gandhi
D. Balagangadhara Tilak
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Indira Gandhi
2. The Lower House of the Indian Parliament 8. who was first Law Minister of India?
is known as:
A. Ambedkar
A. Rajyasabha
B. Tilak
B. Lok Sabha
C. Bose
C. Legislative assembly
D. Roa
D. Council of States
9. Who is the Prime Minister after the elec-
3. The tenure of the members of the Ra- tion of 16th Lok Sabha?
jyasabha is:
A. Smt. Indira Gandhi
A. 5 years
B. Mr. Rajiv Gandhi
B. 4 year
C. Narendra Modi
C. 6 years
D. Sh. Inder Kumar Gujral
D. 3 years
10. Who appoints the PM?
4. which is not a junk food?
A. Council of MInisters
A. Burger
B. pizza B. President
C. Rice C. Majority Party
D. sandwich D. Lok Sabha
5. The Indian Parliament is: 11. when India got independence?
A. Unicameral A. 1947
B. Three Houses B. 1957
C. Bicameral C. 1967
D. Four Houses D. 1977
6. The first President of India was: 12. Who is the prime minister of India
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad A. modi
B. Sh. V.V. Giri B. narendar
C. Gianni Sail Singh C. narendra modi
D. Rajiv Gandhi D. none of these
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3.4 Central Council of Ministers 193
13. Which of the following Institutions can D. The Parliament
make changes to an existing law of the
country? 14. Shortest serving PM of India was?
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A. Charan Singh
A. The Supreme Court
B. H.D. Devegowda
B. The President C. I.K. Gujral
C. The Prime Minister D. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
3.4 Central Council of Ministers
1. sh day K i man RI a few handles 5. The Ministry of Agriculture is divided into
A. Ministry of Law and Justice 2 departments .One of them is ‘Depart-
ment of Agriculture Research & Education’.
B. Ministry of Health and family Welfare Other one is:
C. Ministry of Home Affairs A. Department of Agriculture, co-
D. Ministry Of Railways operation & Farmers’ Welfare
B. Department of Agriculture Conve-
2. post has never been taken by a male nience
politician
C. Department of Agriculture & Govern-
A. MINISTER OF CHILD AND WOMEN DE- ment co-operation
VELOPMENT
D. Department of Farmers’ Comfort Con-
B. CHIEF MINISTER OF WEST BENGAL trol
C. MINISTER OF AGRICULTURE AND
6. Every minister must be a member of either
FARMERS’ WELFARE
House of the Parliament or must become
D. MINISTER OF HEALTH AND FAMILY one within of his appointment.
WELFARE A. 1 year
3. Before a Minister enters upon his office B. 6 months
the administers him the Oath of of- C. 3 months
fice.
D. none of above
A. President
7. Provisions regarding CAG are given under
B. Speaker
A. Article 148
C. PM
B. Article 150-151
D. none of above
C. Article 140-151
4. Attorney general is stated in which article D. Article 148-151
A. Article 76
8. There shall be a vice president in India is
B. Article 75 provided in
C. Article 77 A. Article 52
D. Article 73 B. Article 66(1)
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3.4 Central Council of Ministers 194
C. Article 63 14. Which of the following is/are true?
D. Article 62 A. The PM is the chair of the planning
commission
9. Resolution for removal of vice president B. The PM appoints ministers and
can be initiated in changes and removes them if necessary
A. Lok Sabha C. The PM is the advisor of the president
B. Rajya Sabha
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All of the above
C. Both A & B
D. None 15. are the most important members of
the Council of Ministers.
10. HOW LONG DOES THE MEMBERSHIP OF A. Cabinet Ministers
RAJYA SABHA MEMBERS EXIST?
B. Ministers of State
A. SEVEN YEARS
C. Deputy Ministers
B. FIVE YEARS D. none of above
C. SIX YEARS
16. Which is the most important category of
D. FOUR YEARS the Ministers?
A. Cabinet Ministers
11. COUNCIL OF MINISTERS ARE COLLEC-
TIVELY RESPONSIBLE TO? B. Ministers of State
A. RAJYA SABHA C. Deputy Ministers
B. LOK SABHA D. none of above
C. STATE ASSEMBLIES 17. IMPORTANT PORTFOLIOS ARE GIVEN TO
WHOM?
D. PRIME MINISTER
A. DEPUTY MINISTERS
12. WHICH IS CALLED AS THE PERMANENT B. CABINET MINISTERS
HOUSE?
C. MINISTERS OF THE STATES
A. RAJYA SABHA
D. OTHER MINISTERS
B. LOK SABHA
18. Who is the head of the Cabinet?
C. PRESIDENT OFFICE
A. President
D. VICE PRESIDENT OFFICE
B. PM
13. President takes advice of while ap- C. Speaker
pointing council of ministers. D. none of above
A. Vice president
19. PM KISAN is a scheme providing
B. Lok sabha speaker yearly 6000 rs assistance to small and
marginalised farmers. Which minister is
C. Prime minister
responsible for implementation and ac-
D. Chief justice of India countability of this scheme?
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3.4 Central Council of Ministers 195
A. Rajnath singh 25. The report submitted by CAG is discussed
in
B. Piyush Goyal
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Public accounts committee
C. Nirmala sitharaman
B. Public estimates committee
D. Narendra Tomar
C. Ethics committee
20. Shortest serving vice president? D. Standing committee for finance
A. Neelam sanjeev reddy
26. India resumes import of from Bhutan.
B. V.V. Giri
A. Potatoes
C. K.R Narayanan
B. Garlic
D. Hamid Ansari C. Carrot
21. Vice president is compensated as the D. None
A. Vice president of India 27. is the presiding member and chairper-
B. Chairman of rajya sabha son of the cabinet
C. Member of rajya sabha A. Home Minister
D. None of above B. Deputy Prime Minister
C. Prime Minister
22. CABINET IS THE BODY OF THE COUN-
D. President
CIL OF MINISTERS.
A. OUTER 28. COUNCILS OF MINISTERS ARE HEADED BY
WHOM?
B. ADVISORY
A. PRESIDENT
C. INNER/CORE
B. VICE PRESIDENT
D. none of above
C. PRIME MINISTER
23. WHAT SHALL BE THE AGE TO BE THE MEM- D. SPEAKER OF THE LOK SABHA
BER OF RAJYA SABHA?
29. Which one is not considered as power to
A. 25 YEARS Prime minister?
B. 35 YEARS A. Allocation and reshuffle of ministers
C. 40 YEARS portfolios
D. 30 YEARS B. Chief spokesperson of union govern-
ment
24. WHO ARE THOSE MINISTERS CALLED AS C. Chairman of planning commission
POLICY MAKING BODY OF THE GOVERN-
MENT? D. Power to call the urgent session of
house
A. CABINET MINISTERS
30. The meetings attended by the Council of
B. STATE MINISTERS
Ministers including the CabinetMinisters
C. DEPUTY MINISTERS are called
D. PRIME MINISTER A. Indian Council Meet
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3.4 Central Council of Ministers 196
B. Lok Sabha 36. If the Lok Sabha passes a vote of No Confi-
dence against the they have to resign
C. Rajya Sabha
collectively.
D. Cabinet Meetings
A. Rajya Sabha
31. CAG stands for B. Vidhan Sabha
A. Controller and auditor general C. Council of Ministers
B. Comptroller and Auditor general D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Chartered Accountant and general 37. How Many Finance Ministers have been
D. None of above there since 1946?
A. 36
32. WHO DECIDES THE TENURE OF THE COUN-
CIL OF MINISTERS? B. 38
A. VICE PRESIDENT C. 43
B. PRIME MINISTER D. 48
C. PRESIDENT 38. The size of the Council of Ministers at
the Centre and in the States to % of
D. RAJYA SABHA MEMBERS
the strength of the and State Legisla-
33. The Incumbent minister of Health & Family tures.
Planning is: A. 20%, Rajya Sabha
A. Dr. Harsh Gupta B. 10%, Parliament
B. Dr. Harsh Vardhan C. 15%, Lok Sabha
C. Dr. Harsh Vardham D. none of above
D. Dr. Harish Sharma 39. Defence Minister is the president of
34. The attorney general holds the office till A. the Defence Institute of Advanced
Technology
A. The pleasure of president B. National Defence University.
B. The tenure of 5 years C. the Institute for Defence Studies and
Analyses
C. 65 years of age
D. Indian cabinet
D. Tenure of the appointing government
40. which of the following was earlier home-
35. Thailand declared national emergency to minister and later DID NOT become prime
curb widespread protest sought minister
A. Removal of prime minister A. Lal bahadur shastri
B. Removal of king B. L.K Advani
C. Removal of controversial security law C. PV Narasimha rao
D. None D. Charan singh
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3.4 Central Council of Ministers 197
41. Who was the First Education Minister of 47. is the nominal head of State, is the
India? real head of the nation.
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A. Morarji Desai A. PM, President
B. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad B. Speaker, PM
C. L.K Advani
C. President, PM
D. PV Narasimha Rao
D. none of above
42. The Council of Ministers are:
A. appointed by the President 48. Ministry of law and justice is the oldest
limb of the government of Indiadating back
B. appointed by the Prime Minister
to
C. elected by Lok Sabha
A. 1833
D. elected by Rajya Sabha
B. 1837
43. WHO CAN INCLUDE OR REMOVE THE
COUNCIL OF MINISTERS? C. 1861
A. PRESIDENT OF INDIA D. 1920
B. VICE PRESIDENT
49. Select the option which is NOT a power of
C. PRIME MINISTER the Prime Minister.
D. SPEAKER A. To allocate portfolios and reshuffle the
44. The PM of India is Council
A. Selected B. Selection and dismissal of Ministers
B. Nominated C. Appointing Officials of States
C. Appointed D. Directing coordinate and policy
D. Elected
50. If president of India requires a legal advice
45. HOW LONG DO THE COUNCIL OF MINIS- related to any law. Whom he will call to
TERS HOLD THE OFFICE? seek advice?
A. FOUR YEARS
A. Prime minister
B. SIX YEARS
B. Chief justice of India
C. THREE YEARS
C. Attorney general
D. FIVE YEARS
D. Law minister
46. Women can seek residence to property be-
long to in laws even in case of domestic vi- 51. Gurjar reservation issue is related to
olence. Supreme court referred it in which which state?
case?
A. Haryana
A. SR batra vs Taruna batra
B. Ashok hurra vs rupa hurra B. Gujarat
C. Satish chander Ahuja vs Sneha Ahuja C. Rajasthan
D. None D. Uttar pradesh
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3.4 Central Council of Ministers 198
52. Recently Amit shah has been given respon- C. PARLIAMENT
sibility of a new ministry along with home D. CHAIRMAN OF THE RAJYA SABHA
ministry. What is this ministry called
which is to provide a separate adminis- 57. ALL THE MINISTERS ARE INDIVIDUALLY
trative, legal and policy framework for RESPONSIBLE TO WHOM FOR THEIR DE-
strengthening the co-operative movement PARTMENTS?
in the country?
A. PRIME MINISTER
A. Ministry of Health
B. VICE PRESIDENT
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Ministry of Cooperation
C. PRESIDENT
C. Ministry of Corporation
D. SPEAKER
D. Ministry of External affairs
58. is the first Women Cabinet Minister of
53. hold important portfolios and decide India (HINT:she was also the first Minister
major policies of the Government. Of Health & Family Planning )
A. Cabinet
A. AMRITA KAUR
B. Ministers of State
B. RAJKUMARI AMRIT KAUR
C. Deputy Ministers
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. none of above
D. SMRITI IRANI
54. Longest serving cabinet minister?
59. Who is current chairman of Rajya sabha?
A. Sardar Baldev Singh
A. M. Venkaiah Naidu
B. Jagjivan Ram
B. Harivansh Narayan
C. Jagat Prakash
C. Om Birla
D. JL Nehru
D. Sunil koddukil
55. In case, a non member of the Parliament
is appointed as a Minister, what criteria is 60. The resignation implies the resignation
he/she to fulfill? of the whole Cabinet.
A. Must get elected or nominated to the A. PM
Parliament within 6 months from the date B. President
of appointment
C. Speaker
B. Must get elected or nominated to the
Parliament within 3 months from the date D. none of above
of appointment
61. Which one is not the qualification of vice
C. Must get elected or nominated to the president?
Parliament within 6 week from the date of
A. Must have 30 years of age completed
appointment
B. Must be qualified to be the member of
D. Cannot be a part of the Minstry
lok sabha or rajya sabha.
56. WHICH IS SUBJECT TO DISSOLUTION? C. Must hold any office of profit under
A. LOK SABHA government
B. RAJYA SABHA D. All of above
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3.4 Central Council of Ministers 199
62. The Prime Minister the cabinet. 68. PRESIDENT IS ADVISED BY WHOM TO AP-
A. rules POINT THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS?
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B. leads A. VICE PRESIDENT
C. presides B. PRIME MINISTER
C. GOVERNORS
D. dominates
D. HOME MINISTER
63. Each Minister is answerable to for the
department under his control. 69. Who is the monarch of Thailand?
A. President A. King prayuth chan ocha
B. Parliament B. King giriraj
C. Cabinet C. King Maha Vajiralongkorn
D. none of above D. King Nordom shihamoni
64. Who is the Incumbent Secretary of State 70. Who is serving as current CAG of India?
for India A. Girish chandra murmu
A. The Vice President B. Rajiv maharshi
B. This post does not exist anymore C. Sunil Arora
C. The Chief Justice of India D. Krishnamurthy subramaniam
D. Chief Of Army 71. First Deputy Prime Minister of India was
[ANSWER IN CAPITAL LETTERS ONLY
65. In day to day governance of the country,
or else 0 points]
the advises the President, through the
PM. A. SARDAR VALLABHAI PATEL
A. Speaker B. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. MP’s C. RAJENDRA PRASAD
C. Cabinet D. APJ ABDUL KALAM
D. none of above 72. The post of Deputy Prime Minister has
been vacant since
66. The Prime Minister is appointed by the
A. 1960
A. Council of Ministers
B. 1947
B. Parliament
C. 1958
C. President
D. None of the above
D. none of above
73. The salaries and allowances of Ministers
67. Which Political Party is Renuka Chowd- are such as from time to time by law
hury from? determines.
A. Janata Dal A. Parliament
B. Aam Aadmi Party B. President
C. Indian National Congress C. Speaker
D. Bharatiya Janata Party D. none of above
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3.5 Cabinet Committees 200
74. On the death of president the vice presi- B. PRIME MINISTERS
dent succeeds him as president for C. CABINET MINISTERS
A. Max 3 years D. HOME MINISTER
B. Max 6 months
78. WHICH IS NOT SUBJECT TO DISSOLU-
C. Max one year
TION?
D. Remaining period of term
A. RAJYA SABHA
75. In a situation of war with any country
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. LOK SABHA
with India. Who holds the power to press
C. PARLIAMENT
the button for nuclear or atomic bombs?
A. Narendra Modi D. STATE ASSEMBLIES
B. Rajnath singh 79. Indira Gandhi has record to hold maximum
C. Ramnath kovind number of portfolios. Which one is not
part of them?
D. Bipin Rawat
A. Defence
76. By convention, the President has to accept B. External Affairs
the choice of the in the matter of ap-
pointment and dismissal of Ministers. C. Pensions
A. Parliament D. Agriculture
B. Prime Minister 80. The Prime Minister and the Council of Min-
C. Council of Ministers isters are directly reponsible to the
D. none of above A. Rajya Sabha
77. DEPUTY MINISTERS WORK UNDER MIN- B. Parliament
ISTERS WHO ARE THEY? C. Lok Sabha
A. MINISTERS OF THE STATE D. none of above
3.5 Cabinet Committees
1. Who is the Home Affairs minister? 3. A strong convention that all members of
A. Ram Vilas Paswan the government, especially cabinet minis-
ters, must defend all government policies
B. Manohar Parrikar in public even if they disagree in private.
C. Venkaiah Naidu This maintains cabinet unity and underpins
cabinet control by the prime minister.
D. Raj Nath Singh
A. Commander-in-chief
2. Who is the Finance minister? B. Hung parliament
A. Arun Jaitley C. Individual ministerial responsibility
B. Nitin Gadkari D. Collective ministerial responsibility
C. Suresh Prabhu 4. This includes detailed laws and regulations
D. Narendra Modi passed by ministers under powers granted
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3.5 Cabinet Committees 201
to them by primary legislation. Most A. Parliamentary Democracy
of them don’t concern Parliament, though
B. Cabinet committee
Parliament reserves the right to debate
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and vote on such legislation if it is contro- C. Cabinet government
versial. D. Parliamentary Monarchy
A. Devolved Legislation
B. Primary Legislation 9. Someone employed by a government de-
partment. The most of these are involved
C. Secondary legislation with presenting political decision makers
D. Prerogative Powers with information, viable options and neu-
tral advice. They are not politicians as
5. Who is the Defense minister? they are not elected and not accountable,
A. Manohar Parrikar and so cannot be involved in party politics,
B. Raj Nath Singh but they do have influence. They are per-
manent and are expected to serve minis-
C. Amar Singh
ters of any party equally faithfully.
D. Ramvilas Paswan
A. Parliamentary Democracy
6. This describes a situation where, after a B. Cabinet committee
general election, no one party has an over-
all majority of the seats in the House of C. Civil servant
Commons. It means either a minority gov- D. Parliamentary Monarchy
ernment or a coalition must be formed.
A. Hung parliament 10. A key source of power. It means the
B. Minority Government power to appoint and dismiss ministers,
officials and holders of public office. It
C. Supply and Confidence Deal grants power because those appointed, or
D. Coalition Government hoping to be appointed, owe loyalty to
the dispenser of patronage. The UK prime
7. A type of government, rare in the UK but minister considerable amount of power be-
common in the rest of Europe, where two cause of this, especially over their own
or more parties share government posts party’s MPs.
and come to agreement on common poli-
cies. Coalitions occur when no single party A. Prerogative
can command a majority in the legislature. B. Patronage
A. Collective C. Universal Credit
B. Cabinet
D. Coalition Government
C. Minority Government
D. Coalition 11. Who is the Women and Child Development
minister?
8. A term used to describe a situation where
the main decision making of government A. Maneka Gandhi
takes place in cabinet. In modern history B. Uma Bharati
this is not normally the case. Its main al-
C. Supriya Sule
ternative is the expression ‘prime ministe-
rial government’. D. Mamata Banerjee
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3.5 Cabinet Committees 202
12. A small, permanent group of senior min- C. Reshuffle
isters surrounding the prime minister who D. Firings
determine policy outside the main cabinet.
A. Hung parliament 17. The name given to the central part of gov-
ernment, the centre of power where key
B. Inner cabinet decisions are made. It is made up of a mix-
C. Cabinet ture of elected ministers and appointed ad-
visers or civil servants.
D. Coalition Government
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Sofa Politics
13. The arbitrary powers of the monarch now
B. Parliament
exercised on her behalf by the prime min-
ister of the day. The UK Parliament exer- C. Cabinet
cises no control over these powers. D. Core executive
A. Electric Power
18. Who is the Consumer Affairs and Food min-
B. Patronage ister?
C. Prerogative powers A. Sharad Pawar
D. Legislative Powers B. Ramvilas Paswan
14. This refers to authority which is consid- C. Uma Bharati
ered legitimate because it has existed for a D. Sadananda Gowda
long historical period. The authority of the
UK prime minister is traditional because he 19. The work of government is divided among
or she inherits the traditional authority of a number of these. In 2017 there were
the monarchy. 19 of them. Each is headed by a senior,
normally cabinet, minister. They are sub-
A. Prime Minsterial Powers divided into sections, each headed by a ju-
B. Convention nior minister, normally known as ministers
C. Prerogative Powers of state. They are staffed by a bureau-
cracy of civil servants and some other po-
D. Traditional authority litical advisers.
15. Who is the External Affairs minister? A. Select Committee
A. Pranab Mukherjee B. Civil Servant
B. Uma Bharati C. Cabinet
C. Sushma Swaraj D. Government department
D. Kalraj Mishra 20. A small committee of cabinet ministers
who formulate proposals for government
16. This occurs when a prime minister changes policy in various areas and present the pro-
the make-up of their government. A ma- posals to the whole cabinet for approval.
jor version is when a number of cabinet
members are dismissed, appointed or have A. Parliament
their jobs changed. B. Cabinet committee
A. Election C. Cabinet
B. Patronage D. Sofa Politics
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3.6 Parliament 203
21. A style of governing, attributed to Tony to control policy making.
Blair, but common to other prime minis- A. Devolved Legislation
ters such as Gordon Brown. It refers to
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the practice of conducting informal meet- B. Sofa politics
ings with colleagues outside cabinet, often C. Presidential Government
with private advisers in attendance, so as D. Dictatorship
3.6 Parliament
1. The thirteenth Vice President of India? 6. The Parliament of India consist of the fol-
A. Narendra Modi lowing
B. Venkaiadu Naidu A. President
C. Ram Nath Kovind B. Both a and b
D. none of above C. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
D. All of the above
2. The present Speaker at the Lok Sabha is
7. The Lok Sabha is also known as?
A. Sumitra Mahajan A. Council of State
B. Meera Kumari B. The Upper House
C. Nirmala Sitaraman C. The House of People
D. Pratibha Patil D. Parliament
3. Who is the head of the Election Commis- 8. There are members in the Lok Sabha
sion? A. 550
A. Lokh Sabha Chairman B. 551
B. Prime Minister C. 552
C. Chief Election Commissioner D. 555
D. none of above
9. Who is the Supreme Commander of the
4. Which organ of the Indian Parliament is re- armed forces?
sponsible for making laws? A. Chief Justice of India
A. Legislature B. Chief Justice of High Court
B. Executive C. Governor
C. Judiciary D. President
D. None of these
10. How many nominated members in parlia-
5. Which is the lower house. Of parliament ment?
A. Lok sabha A. 14
B. Rajya sabha B. 12
C. Supreme court C. 11
D. High court D. 15
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3.6 Parliament 204
11. Which article in the Indian Constitution 17. There are High Courts in our country.
deals with the Indian Parliament? A. 22
A. Article 79-122 B. 23
B. Article 63-112
C. 24
C. Article 70-95
D. 25
D. Article 45-100
18. The is the chief law making body of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
12. Who is considered father of Indian Consti- India.
tution
A. Lok Sabha
A. B R ambedkar
B. Rajya Sabha
B. Nehru
C. Parliament
C. Gandhi
D. Supreme Court
D. Bose
19. Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha?
13. What is the minimum age requirement to
cast vote in elections? A. Vice President of India
A. 20 B. Prime Minister
B. 15 C. President
C. 18 D. none of above
D. 13 20. The Lokh Sabha is known as the
14. Who can award a person or decrease the A. Upper house
verdict of an offended person, chiefly in B. Lower house
cases concerning punishment of death.
C. None of these
A. Prime Minister
D. All of the above
B. Union Government
C. Governor 21. State government is located in of the
state
D. President
A. center
15. Who is elected by whom
B. capital
A. chief minister by prime minister
C. union territory
B. prime minister by president
D. city
C. prime minister by chief minister
22. ‘Lok Sabha’ and ‘Rajya Sabha’ were
D. chief minister by governor
adopted by Indian Parliament in which
16. Who makes law for the whole country? year? ?
A. Judiciary A. 1890
B. Executive B. 1954
C. Union Government C. 1963
D. Prime Minister D. 1863
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 205
23. Presiding officer of Lokh Sabha is 26. How many houses are there in the parlia-
A. Speaker ment
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A. 1
B. Chairman
B. 4
C. None of these
C. 3
D. All of the above
D. 2
24. A bill passed by parliament becomes law
only when it is passed by 27. Term of a Rajya Sabha Member
A. 3
A. The Chief Justice of India
B. 2
B. The Rajya Sabha
C. 5
C. The Speaker
D. 6
D. The President
28. Indian parliamentary model is based on
25. State Legislative Assembly is also called which syestem?
A. Legislative Council A. Westminister model
B. Vidhan Sabha B. American model
C. Vidhan Parishad C. A and B
D. Zilla Parishad D. non of the above
3.7 Why do we need a Parliament?
1. The supreme law-making institution in In- C. 210
dia is the
D. 245
A. Lok Sabha
4. The idea of is the take off point for a
B. Rajya Sabha
democracy.
C. Parliament
A. Republic
D. Supreme Court
B. Consent
2. MLA’s are the elected representatives of C. Monarchy
A. Rajya sabha D. Freedom
B. Vidhan sabha
5. Every years, the elections are held in
C. Jila parishad India to elect the representatives of lok
D. State legislature sabha
A. 3
3. The Total membership of the Rajya Sabha
is B. 1
A. 545 C. 7
B. 543 D. 5
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 206
6. The president of India holds office for a pe- 11. which of the following is a necessary part
riod of:- of a Democracy?
A. 6 A. A parliamentary form of government
B. 5 B. A govt. elected by the people
C. 4 C. A presidential form of govt
D. 7 D. none of above
7. Lok sabha contains:- 12. The ideas like desire, approval and partic-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ipation of people are the main aspects of
A. 550
B. 552
A. Monarchy
C. 545
B. Democracy
D. None of these
C. Dictatorship
8. Who looks after the sanitary conditions of D. none of above
the country?
13. A bill is
A. Health Minister
A. something you must pay
B. Home Minister
B. a proposed law
C. Finance Minister
C. usually attached to a bird
D. Both (a) and (b)
D. none of above
9. THE MEMBERS OF THE RAJYA SABHA ARE
14. AFTER ELECTIONS WHEN NO PARTY HAS
ELECTED BY THE
BEEN ABLE TO GET ADEQUATE SEATS TO
A. STUDENTS FORM A CLEAR MAJORITY, PARTIES JOIN
B. MLAs TOGETHER TO FORM
C. POLITICIANS A. UNION
D. PEOPLE B. FEDERATION
C. COALITION
10. What are the 6 Fundamental Rights
D. AGREEMENT
A. right to equality, right to freedom,
right against exploitation, right to free- 15. THERE ARE TYPE OF BILLS
dom of religion, cultural and educational A. 5
rights, right to constitutional remedies.
B. 3
B. right to freedom, right to equality,
right against exploitation, right to con- C. 2
stitutional remedies, cultural and educa- D. 4
tional rights, right to freedom of religion,
16. THE LAW MAKING PROCESS INVOLVES
STAGES
C. right to constitutional remedies, cul-
A. FIVE
tural and educational rights, right to free-
dom of religion, right to equality, right to B. THREE
freedom, right against exploitation C. TWO
D. none of above D. SIX
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 207
17. A government that allows people to 23. The members of Rajya sabha are called:-
choose their representatives.
A. MLA
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A. Monarchy
B. MP
B. Democracy
C. PM
C. Dictatorship
D. President
D. None of these.
24. In which state lok sabha elections were
18. Third lok sabha election held in held in 1984?
A. 1973 A. Punjab
B. 1962
B. Assam
C. 1966
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. 1970
D. None of the above
19. What is the function of Rajya sabha?
25. Each constituencies elect:
A. To select the executive
A. a) 1 Person to the Parliament
B. To review and alter the laws initiated
by lok sabha B. (b) 2 People to the Parliament
C. To conduct the elections C. (c) 3 People to the Parliament
D. none of above D. (d) 4 People to the Parliament
20. is a party based in Maharashtra 26. In Parliament seats are reserved for:
A. Telugu desham party A. a) SCs
B. Samajwadi party B. (b) STs
C. Shiv sena C. (c) None of them
D. Janata dal (secular) D. (d) Both (a) and (b)
21. The Lok Sabha is presided over by the 27. The lok sabha was formed in
A. Prime Minister
A. 1950
B. President of India
B. 1941
C. Vice-President of India
C. 1948
D. Speaker
D. 1947
22. If the president has to resign, he sends his
resignation to:- 28. What does PMO refer to?
A. Prime minister A. Prime Master Office
B. Vice president B. Post Master Office
C. Chief minister C. Primary Municipal Office
D. Lok sabha speaker D. None of these
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 208
29. The combined strength of all political par- 34. The democratic government is formed by
ties in the Parliament with less than 50% the decision of
of representatives is A. Men
A. ruling party B. Women
B. opposition C. People
C. coalition
D. None of these
D. none of these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
35. At least how many votes are needed for a
30. When did the Indian National Congressde- party to form the government?
mand that there should be elected mem-
A. 272 or more
bers in the legislaturewith a right to dis-
cuss the budget and ask questions? B. 272 or less
A. 1886 C. 300 or less
B. 1785 D. 300 or more
C. 1885 36. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected?
D. 1985 A. Directly
31. How many members are nominated in Lok B. Indirectly
sabha by president?
C. Both (a) and (b)
A. 2
D. None of the above
B. 4
37. is the supreme representative author-
C. 5
ity of the people.
D. 7
A. a) Parliament
32. Enlist the components of Indian Parliament. B. b) Cabinet
What is the first statement of this audio
clip? C. Rajya Sabha
A. The Parliament of India is the supreme D. None of these.
legislative body of the Republic of India. 38. Which house also know as House of the
B. It is a bicameral legislature composed people and lower house .
of the President of India and the two A. Lok Sabba
house.
B. Rajya Sabha
C. The Rajya Sabha (Council of States)
and the Lok Sabha (House of the People). C. Both
D. none of above D. None of these
33. The parliament of India consists of 39. The Parliament of India is also known as
A. President, lok sabha, Rajya sabha
B. Prime minister, lok sabha, Rajya sabha A. Lok Sabha
B. Legislative Council
C. Vice president, Vidhan sabha C. Sansad
D. None of these D. Senate
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 209
40. Describe the three categories of ministers 45. Who nominates 12 members to the Rajya
that assist the Prime minister. Sabha?
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A. The Cabinet Ministers:The Cabinet A. The President
Ministers hold important portfolios like B. The Prime minister
Home, Defence, Finance, External Affairs,
Railways, etc. C. The speaker
B. Ministers of State:They may or may D. None of these
not hold an independent charge of any 46. Read the sentences and choose the best op-
portfolio. tiona)India is a democracyb)India has UAF
C. Deputy Ministers:They assist the Cabi- A. Both A and B are correct
net Ministers and the Council of Ministers.
B. Both A and B are correct and B is a fea-
ture of A
D. none of above
C. Both A and B are correct but they are
41. The most important function of the Lok not related
Sabha is to D. Either A or B is incorrect
A. select the executive.
47. The parliament of India consists:-
B. conducting elections
A. President, lok sabha, Rajya sabha
C. giving judgements
B. Prime minister, lok sabha, Rajya sabha
D. none of above
42. Representatives to the Parliament are cho- C. Vice president, Vidhan sabha
sen by the D. None of these
A. People
48. The parliament of India has houses.
B. Rulers
A. 2
C. Government
B. 6
D. None of these
C. 7
43. For general elections electronic voting ma- D. 3
chines were used for the first time in
A. 2001 49. Temporary alliance of groups of parties to
form a government.
B. 2005
A. alliance
C. 2004
B. grouping
D. 2009
C. coalition
44. What is the maximum strength of people D. none of above
in Rajya Sabha and how many are there
presently? 50. Rajya Sabha is chaired by the
A. 220, 198 respectively A. Prime Minister
B. 245, 250 respectively B. Speaker
C. 250, 245 respectively C. President
D. 240, 233 respectively D. Vice-President
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 210
51. When was 13th lok sabha elections held? 57. How many elected & nominated members
A. 1970 are there in Rajya sabha?
A. 238, 12
B. 1972
B. 233, 12
C. 1999
C. 240, 10
D. 2000
D. 242, 8
52. What established the Parliament?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
58. The members of Parliament (MPs) can
A. The King of England question the minister during-
B. A referendum A. Question Hour
C. The Constitution B. Zero hour
D. A vote by the public C. Adjournment motion
53. The Lok Sabha is presided over by the D. None of these
A. President of India 59. EVM means?
B. Speaker A. Equal vote measure
C. Prime minister B. Election voting machine
D. Vice-President of India C. Electronic voting machine
54. During British rule which Government of D. None of the above
India Act allowed some elected represen- 60. What did universal adult franchise mean:-
tation
A. Right to vote
A. Government of India Act 1919
B. Right to freedom
B. Government of India Act 1909
C. Right to equality
C. Government of India Act 1916
D. Right to adult freedom
D. Government of India Act 1947
61. The of India is the leader of theruling
55. The person of age has right to vote? party in the Lok Sabha.
A. 12 A. President
B. 15 B. Governer
C. 18 C. Chief executive
D. 20 D. Prime minister
56. THE RAJYA SABHA MEMBERS ARE 62. Write a short note on Lok Sabha. What is
ELECTED FOR A PERIOD OF the first statement of this audio clip?
A. 5 YEARS A. One of the most important functions of
the Lok Sabha is to select the executive.
B. PERMANENTLY
B. The executive is a group of persons
C. 4 YEARS who work together to implement the laws
D. 6 YEARS made by the Parliament.
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 211
C. The Prime Minister of India is the 68. What did Government of India Act 1909
leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha. state?
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A. All Indians can vote after the age of 18.
D. Lok Sabha (House of the People), with
a total membership of 545, is presided B. To expand participation of Indian in the
over by the Speaker. government of India.
63. The Parliament is made up with? C. India would become a federation if
50% of states joined it.
A. Prime minister, BJP
D. Allowed for some elected Indian mem-
B. President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha bers in the legislature.
C. Vidhan Sabha, Vidhan Mandal
69. Houses of people is
D. All of the above
A. Lok sabha
64. What is the most important function of Lok B. Vidhan sabha
Sabha? C. Rajya sabha
A. How to celebrate Diwali this year? D. Parliament
B. The Prime Minister selects minister to
70. The Parliament of India is also known as
work
A. Sansad
C. Both (a) and (b)
B. Parliament house
D. None of these
C. Lok Sabha
65. Select the odd one out D. None of the above
A. Vidhan Sabha
71. Who is the leader of ruling party in Lok
B. Lok sabha sabha?
C. Vidhan parishad A. Prime Minister
D. none of above B. MP’s
C. Chief minister
66. Who appoints the Rajya Sabha members?
D. Governer
A. MP
B. Prime minister 72. What is the main role of Lok sabha?
A. How to celebrate festival this year?
C. people of the country
B. How can we collect more tax than last
D. President
year?
67. Could government do whatever they want C. Both a and b
in a democracy? D. To select a executive
A. Yes
73. How many seats were won by BJP in Lok
B. Maybe Sabha Election 2014?
C. No A. 285
D. Don’t know B. 14
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 212
C. 114 C. Law Making
D. 141 D. All of these
74. Who are the People in Parliament? What 79. When did India become independent?
is the first statement of this audio clip? A. 13 August 1947
A. Parliament now has more and more B. 5 August 1947
people from different backgrounds.
C. 15 June 1947
B. For example, there are more rural
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 15 August 1947
members as also members from many re-
gional parties. 80. Name the organ of the government which
C. Groups and peoples that were till is entitled to make laws
now unrepresented are beginning to get A. Legislative
elected to Parliament. B. Executive
D. There has also been an increase in C. Judiciary
political participation from the Dalits and
backward classes. D. none of above
75. What is the key aspect of the functioning 81. Write a short note on Lok Sabha. What is
of Indian democracy the second statement of this audio clip?
A. President A. One of the most important functions of
the Lok Sabha is to select the executive.
B. Opposition party
B. The executive is a group of persons
C. Parliament who work together to implement the laws
D. None of these made by the Parliament.
C. The Prime Minister of India is the
76. Each constituency elects
leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha.
A. 1 person to the parliament
B. 2 person to the parliament D. Lok Sabha (House of the People), with
C. 3 person to the parliament a total membership of 545, is presided
over by the Speaker.
D. 4 person to the parliament
82. Important way to control the executive
77. One of the most important functions of the
LokSabha is to select the A. Assembly
A. Governor B. Zero hour
B. Director C. Question Hour
C. Executive D. none of above
D. MLA 83. Why do you think our national movement
supported the idea that all adults have a
78. What is the functions (Role) of the Parlia- right to vote?
ment?
A. Our national movement supported the
A. To Select the National Government idea that all adults have a right to vote
B. To Control, Guide and inform the Gov- because in our struggle for independence
ernment people from all walks of life participated.
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 213
B. They came from various backgrounds 88. There are elected members in the lok
and were united in their aspirations for a sabha
free, equal and independent nation where
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A. 540
decision-making would be in the hands of
the people. B. 543
C. The only way in which this would C. 545
be possible would be through elections- D. 455
allowing common people a vantage point
from where they can consent to and ap- 89. IS AN IMPORTANT MECHANISM
prove of a government that “they” have a THROUGH WHICH MPs CAN ELICIT INFOR-
right to choose. MATION ABOUT THE WORKING OF THE
PARLIAMENT
D. none of above
A. DEMONSTRATION
84. The Rajya Sabha functions primarily as B. QUESTION HOUR
A. representative of the of the people of C. MEDIA
India
D. PROTESS
B. representative of states of India .
90. The most important function of lok sabha
C. as the part of the Opposition party is
D. as a part of the parliament A. Judiciary
85. In the 2014 elections, what was the lead- B. Executive
ing party of the country C. Legislature
A. Communist party D. None of these
B. Bhartiya janta party
91. MLAs are the elected representatives of
C. Swatantra party
D. Indian National Congress A. State Legislature
86. The highest law-making body of our coun- B. Rajya Sabha
try consisting of the Lok Sabha and the Ra- C. Vidhan Sabha
jya Sabha is known as D. Jila Parishad
A. High court
92. What is the legislature at the national
B. Supreme court level in India called?
C. Parliament A. Parliament
D. none of these B. Lok Sabha
87. Parliament enables Indian citizens to par- C. Both A and B
ticipate in D. Neither
A. Decision making
93. To form a government, a party must win
B. Control the government at least seats in Lok Sabha.
C. Both (a) and (b) A. 272
D. None of these B. 255
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 214
C. 280 99. Which government of India Act allowed
D. 270 some elected representation
A. Act 1919
94. What are the major functions of the parlia-
B. Act 1909
ment? What is the first statement of this
audio clip? C. Act 1916
A. To select the National Government. D. Act 1947
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. To control, guide and inform the gov- 100. The Supreme law making institution is
ernment.
C. Law-Making. A. Parliament
D. none of above B. Supreme Court
C. President
95. Some of the parliament seats are reserved
for whom D. None of the above
A. Scheduled Castes 101. How many members are nominated in Ra-
B. Scheduled Tribes jya sabha by president?
C. MP A. 10
D. both (a) and (b) B. 12
C. 15
96. In a democratic form of government,
D. 20
power is vested in the hands of
A. Laws 102. How many members elected in the lok
sabha
B. Police
A. 5
C. People
B. 2
D. bureaucrats
C. 4
97. The Lok Sabha is usually elected once ev- D. 3
ery years.
103. When was the EVM used for the first
A. 15 years
time?
B. 5 years
A. 2000
C. 6 years
B. 2001
D. 2 years C. 2009
98. Which house known as Council of states D. 2004
and Upper house?
104. At times, it becomes difficult for a sin-
A. Lok Sabha gle political party to get the majority that
B. Rajya Sabha is required to form the government.They
thenjoin together with different political
C. Both parties whoare interested in similar con-
D. None of these cerns. What is this called?
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 215
A. Opposition party 110. THE RAYA SABHA PRIMARILY FUNC-
B. Rajya sabha TIONS AS THE REPRESNTATIVE OF THE
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A. VILLAGE
C. Coalition Government
B. TALUKS
D. Lok sabha
C. MUNICIPALITY
105. Rajya Sabha has elected members.
D. STATES
A. 233
111. Rajya sabha has members.
B. 213
A. 245
C. 245
B. 243
D. 243
C. 240
106. A group of people who come together to D. 235
contest elections and hold power in the
government is called a 112. There are 3 organs of state-The , The
Executive and The Judiciary
A. Federal
A. local
B. Union
B. state
C. Political Party
C. Legislature
D. Pressure group
D. none of above
107. What is the duty of the Opposition party
113. Select the correct option for-Every adult
A. Overthrow the ruling party citizen in a country having the right to
B. Highlight the drawbacks vote
C. Give valuable feedback to the govern- A. Democracy
ment B. Universal adult franchise
D. Both (b) and (c) C. Monarchy
108. Which political party has won most seats D. none of above
in all states in 8th lok sabha election 114. Which house dissolves after 5 years?
A. Telugu Desam party A. Parliament
B. Independents B. Lok Sabha
C. Kerala congress C. Rajya Sabha
D. Muslim league D. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
109. During the British Rule, the Indian Na- 115. is made up of all the representatives
tional Congress demanded elected by the Indian people.
A. More money A. Rashtrapati Bhavan
B. More Land for agriculture B. White House
C. More representation in Government C. Council of States
D. none of above D. Lok Sabha
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 216
116. Who all participates in electing the Pres- 122. In how many years is the lok sabha
ident of India? elected?
A. Both MLAs and MPs A. once in every five years
B. Only MPs B. once in every 3 yrs
C. Only MLAs C. once in every 4yrs
D. none of above D. once in every 6yrs
123. What is the term of the Rajya Sabha?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
117. who is the leader of lok sabha
A. Narendra modi A. 3 years
B. 4 years
B. Om prakash
C. 5 years
C. Smriti irani
D. 6 years
D. Rahul gandhi
124. The parliament session begins with
118. The South Block of the Central Secretariat
houses- A. Question hour
B. Zero hour
A. The Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
C. Both (a) & (b)
B. The Ministry of Defence
D. None of these
C. The Ministry of External Affairs
D. All of the above 125. What is Coalition Government?
A. When two parties join together with
119. ‘EVM’ means different wh has similar concerns.
A. Electronic voting machine B. The government formed by a second
B. Election voting machine election
C. Equal vote measure C. Reselection of the ruling party of the
last election
D. None of these
D. None of these
120. Parliament of India is law making in-
stitution 126. The maximum strength of Lom Sabha is
A. Midst
A. 550
B. Supreme
B. 552
C. Lowest C. 545
D. All of above D. 550
121. How many members are nominated by 127. Which among the following do not have
the President to the Rajya Sabha? reservations in the parliament?
A. 25 A. Scheduled Caste
B. 12 B. Scheduled Tribe
C. 22 C. women
D. 33 D. Brahmin
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 217
128. Meaning of unresolved C. Since there are 543 elected (plus 2
A. the situation in which the solution is Anglo-Indian nominated) members in Lok
Sabha, to have a majority a party should
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hard to find
have at least half the number i.e. 272
B. the situation in which the solution is members or more.
easy to find
D. none of above
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these 132. Which among the following is NOT the
function of the Parliament?
129. “With the coming of Independence we A. Law making
are going to be citizens of a free country”.
What did this mean for India? What is the B. To Control, Guide and Inform the Gov-
first statement of this audio clip? ernment
A. With the coming of independence, we C. To Select the National Government
were going to be citizens of a free country. D. To conduct general elections
133. The Supreme law-making institution is
B. This did not mean that the government
the
could do what it felt like, it meant that
the government had to be sensitive to peo- A. Lok Sabha
ple’s needs and demands. B. Rajya Sabha
C. The dreams and aspirations of the C. Parliament
freedom struggle were made concrete in
D. Judiciary
the Constitution of independent India that
laid down the principle of universal adult 134. The president appoints members of
franchise, i.e. rajya sabha
D. that all adult citizens of the country A. 20
have the right to vote.
B. 15
130. Which is an important way to control the C. 12
executive in Parliament?
D. 14
A. Assembly hour
135. How many houses have the Parliament?
B. Question hour
A. 2
C. Zero hour
B. 3
D. none of these
C. 4
131. Explain the ways in which political party
forms the government. What is the first D. 1
statement of this audio clip? 136. Who is the leader of ruling party in the
A. After the Lok Sabha elections, a list is lok sabha?
prepared showing how many MPs belong A. President
to each political party.
B. Secretary
B. For a political party to form the govern-
ment, they must have a majority of elected C. Prime Minister
MPs. D. None of the above
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 218
137. How does the Parliament of India con- B. For example, there are more rural
sists: members as also members from many re-
A. The President gional parties.
B. The Lok Sabha C. Groups and peoples that were till
now unrepresented are beginning to get
C. The Rajya Sabha elected to Parliament.
D. All of these D. There has also been an increase in
political participation from the Dalits and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
138. What is the usual term of Lok Sabha?
backward classes.
A. 3 years
B. 4 years 143. FULL FORM OF EVM
C. 5 years A. ELECTRIC VOTING MACHINE
D. 6 years B. ELECTRONIC VOTE MACHINE
C. ELECTRONIC VOTING MACHINE
139. For general elections, electronic voting
machines were used for the first time in D. none of above
A. 2001 144. There are 3 arms of government-the ,
B. 2005 The Executive and the Judiciary
C. 2004 A. local
D. 2009 B. state
140. The question hour is an important mecha- C. Legislature
nism through which D. none of above
A. country’s policies are considered 145. What reflects the strength and faith the
B. government is alerted to its shortcom- Indian people have in their democratic
ings form of government?
C. armed forces decide on foreign mat- A. The right to vote
ters B. The right to equality
D. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have
C. Right to raise questions
a joint session
D. All of the Above
141. What percent of MP women are there in
the parliament? 146. Which party got a maximum number of
seats?
A. 16%
A. BJP
B. 4%
B. SHS
C. 11%
C. AITC
D. 28%
D. NCP
142. Who are the People in Parliament? What
is the 2nd statement of this audio clip? 147. The organ responsible for giving justice
A. Parliament now has more and more to people is
people from different backgrounds. A. Executive
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 219
B. Judiciary 153. The maximum strength of the Rajya
C. legislature Sabha is
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D. none of above A. 240
B. 245
148. demanded from British government
in 1985 to allow elected members in the C. 250
legislature. D. 255
A. Indian National Congress 154. How does the individual give approval to
B. Swatantra Party the government? What is the first state-
C. Republican Party ment of this audio clip?
D. Hindu Mahasabha A. People would elect their representa-
tives to the Parliament, then, one group
149. Which house is elected every 5 years? from among these elected representa-
A. Parliament tives forms the government.
B. Lok Sabha B. The Parliament, which is made up of
all representatives together, controls and
C. Rajya Sabha guides the government.
D. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha C. In this sense people, through their
150. Which act allowed some elected represen- chosen representatives, form the govern-
tation? ment and also control it.
A. Govt of India Act 1809, allowed for D. none of above
some elected representation. 155. ONE OF THE MOST IMPORTANT FUNC-
B. Govt of India Act 1908, allowed for TION OF THE LOK SABHA IS TO SELECT
some elected representation. THE
C. Govt of India Act 1907, allowed for A. GRAM PANCHAYAT
some elected representation. B. EXECUTIVE
D. Govt of India Act 1909, allowed for C. ZILA PARISHAD
some elected representation.
D. COLLECTOR
151. Rajya sabha is also called
156. EVMs were used throughout the country
A. Parliament for the first time in the general elections
B. House of people held in year
C. Council of states A. 1977
D. None of these B. 1984
152. How many members are in the Lok Sabha C. 1999
and how many Anglo-Indians are there? D. 2004
A. 543, 2 157. The 12 nominated members of Rajya
B. 544, 3 Sabha is selected by
C. 545, 4 A. President
D. 546, 5 B. Prime minister
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 220
C. Election commission C. Chief Minister
D. none of above D. None of these
158. When was 1st election held in India? 164. The current President of India is
A. 1951 A. Ram Nath Kovind
B. 1984 B. Narendra Modi
C. 1971 C. Venkaiah Naidu
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 1964 D. none of above
159. In the 2014 elections, was the lead- 165. The parliament is begin with
ing party of the country. A. Question hour
A. Indian National Congress B. Zero hour
B. Bhartiya Janta Party C. Both a and b
C. Communist Party D. None of these
D. Communist Party
166. Lok sabha contains members:-
160. Are the seats reserved for women in Par- A. 570
liament?
B. 552
A. Yes
C. 545
B. Seats are reserved for only those who
are above 30 years D. None of these
C. No 167. The lok sabha is elected after every
D. none of above years
A. 5 years
161. Parliament is also known as:
B. 6 years
A. Sanskar
C. 4 years
B. Sansaar
D. 3 years
C. Sansad
D. Sanpad 168. What is the significant function of parlia-
ment?
162. The parliament of India has how many A. Law making
houses?
B. Social reform
A. 2
C. Child development
B. 6
D. none of these
C. 7
D. 3 169. Who makes the law and where is it
made?
163. Who is the head of the Executive at the A. Parliament makes the law and it is
central level? made in people’s houses
A. President B. Lok Sabha makes the law and it is
B. Prime Minister made in Parliament
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 221
C. MP’s or representatives make the law 175. Who was the 1st prime minister of In-
and it is made in Parliament dia?
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D. none of above A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Mahatma Gandhi
170. As far back as 1885, the Indian National
Congress demanded C. Rajender Parsad
A. there should be elated members in the D. None of above
legislature 176. Define Rajya Sabha.
B. British should leave India A. It is the representative of the states of
C. Indians should be sent to England India in the Parliament.
D. none of above B. It means all adult citizens of the coun-
try have the right to vote.
171. The total membership of the Rajya Sabha C. A group of persons who work together
is to implement the laws made by the Parlia-
A. 233 ment.
B. 245 D. is an expression of the faith of people
and represent their needs and interest.
C. 543
D. 545 177. For what period of time the President of
India holds office?
172. President electoral college consists of:- A. 6 years
A. M.P B. 5 years
B. M.L.A. C. 4years
C. Members of state legislative D. 7 years
D. Elected members of parliament & 178. When was The Indian Parliament cre-
state legislative ated?
173. An individual gives her consent to the A. 1964
government with the help of B. 1974
A. Movements C. 1947
B. Elections D. 1847
C. Opposition 179. heads the rajya sabha
D. Parliament A. Speaker
174. What is the term of the President in In- B. Vice president
dia? C. President
A. 6 years D. Cabinet minister
B. 4 years 180. who presides the lok sabha?
C. 5 years A. Prime Minister
D. 7 years B. President
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3.7 Why do we need a Parliament? 222
C. Leader of Opposition D. By asking questions the government
D. Speaker is alerted to its shortcomings, and also
comes to know the opinion of the people
181. Who creates a democratic government? through their representatives in the Par-
liament, i.e. the MPs.
A. People
B. Government 185. which is another name for the Union Par-
C. Villagers liament in India?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Children A. Vidhan Sabha
B. Lok Sabha
182. Often times in the recent past it has been
difficult for a single political party to get C. Executive
the majority that is required to form the D. none of above
government. They then join together with
different political parties who are inter- 186. The Lok Sabha has nominated mem-
ested in similar concerns to form what is bers from the Anglo-Indian Communities.
known as a
A. 2
A. Opposition party
B. 5
B. Coalition government
C. 3
C. State government
D. None of these
D. None of these
187. Who is the leader of the ruling party in
183. The Constitution of independent India
the Lok Sabha?
that laid down theprinciple of i.e. that
all adultcitizens of the country have the A. The President
right to vote. B. Prime Minister
A. Universal adult franchise C. Home Minister
B. Universal youth franchise
D. Opposition Leader
C. Federal Franchise
188. A IS REQUIRED TO PASS THE RAJYA
D. None of the above
SABHA IN ORDER TO BECOME A LAW
184. How does the Parliament control the ex- A. AMMENDMENT
ecutive? What is the first statement of
this audio clip? B. DOCUMENT
A. The Parliament, while in session, be- C. CLAUSE
gins with a question hour. D. BILL
B. The question hour is an important
mechanism through which MPs can elicit 189. ‘’EVM” for the first time used in:-
information about the working of the gov- A. 2007
ernment.
B. 2004
C. This is a very important way through
C. 2003
which the Parliament controls the execu-
tive. D. 1990
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3.8 Indian Supreme Court 223
190. What is the position of president in the A. 272
executive? B. 164
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A. Head executive C. 262
B. Constitutional head of government D. 198
C. Constitutional head of state
195. A dispute regarding the election of the
D. Head of party in power president is referred to the:-
191. Which of the following was NOT a reason A. Election commission
why we chose democracy. B. Parliament
A. Our colonial experiences C. Supreme Court
B. we wanted to be the largest democ- D. Vice president
racy in the world
C. Indian people were ready to be a part 196. THE HEAD OF THE RULING PARTY IN THE
of the decision making process. BECOMES THE PRIME MINISTER
D. none of above A. DISTRICT
B. VIDHAN SABHA
192. The EVMs were first used in elections in
the year C. LOK SABHA
A. 1970 D. LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY
B. 2005 197. What is the total number of members in
C. 2004 Lok Sabha
D. none of above A. 543
B. 545
193. EVMs were used throught the countary
for the first time in the general election C. 531
held in D. 526
A. 1962 198. Who plays a vital role in healthy function-
B. 1977 ing of democracy
C. 1999 A. Ruling party
D. 2004 B. Opposition party
194. What is the minimum number of votes C. Representatives
needed to form a government D. None of these
3.8 Indian Supreme Court
1. WHO CAN REMOVE THE JUDGE OF C. PRESIDENT
SUPREME COURT FROM HIS POSITION?
D. SPEAKER OF THE LOWER HOUSE
A. PRIME MINISTER
2. FOR HOW MANY YEARS SHOULD A PER-
B. VICE PRESIDENT SON BE AN ADVOCATE OF HIGH COURT
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3.8 Indian Supreme Court 224
TO BECOME THE JUDGE OF SUPREME 8. ACCORDING TO WHICH ARTICLE PRESI-
COURT? DENT OF INDIA APPOINTS THE JUDGES OF
A. 8 YEARS SUPREME COURT?
B. 6 YEARS A. 124(2)
C. 10 YEARS B. 126
C. 128
D. 7 YEARS
D. 135
NARAYAN CHANGDER
3. Who heads the supreme court?
9. FOR HOW MANY YEARS SHOULD A PER-
A. Chief officer of India
SON BE A JUDGE OF HIGH COURT TO BE-
B. Chief Judge of India COME THE JUDGE OF SUPREME COURT?
C. Chief Justice of India A. 12 YEARS
D. Chief Minister of India B. 6 YEARS
4. Where is the supreme court of India lo- C. 5 YEARS
cated? D. 7 YEARS
A. Agra 10. WHO IS CALLED THE GUARDIAN OF THE
B. Mumbai CONSTITUTION?
C. Delhi A. PRIME MINISTER
D. All of the above B. PRESIDENT
C. VICE PRESIDENT
5. THE JUDGES OF SUPREME COURT TAKE
AN OATH BEFORE WHOM? D. SUPREME COURT
A. PRIME MINISTER 11. THE JUDGES ARE APPOINTED BY WHOM?
B. PRESIDENT A. PRIME MINISTER
C. COUNCIL OF MINISTERS B. PRESIDENT
D. SPEAKER OF LOWER HOUSE C. GOVERNOR
6. The supreme court is at the apex of which D. COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
hierarchy of India? 12. Which court is at apex level?
A. Legislative A. High court
B. Executive B. District court
C. Judicial C. lower court
D. None of the above D. Supreme Court
7. Till what age can the supreme court judges 13. WHAT IS THE SALARY OF THE CHIEF JUS-
serve in the supreme court? TICE OF SUPREME COURT?
A. 64 A. 5 LAKHS
B. 63 B. 4 LAKHS
C. 65 C. 2 LAKHS AND EIGHTY THOUSAND
D. 60 D. 3 LAKHS
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3.8 Indian Supreme Court 225
14. THE JUDGE SHOULD BE A DISTINGUISHED C. President needs it
JURIST TO BE THE JUDGE OF SUPREME D. Supreme Court wants to tender the ad-
COURT IN WHOSE OPINION? vice
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A. PRIME MINISTER
20. HOW MANY MEMBERS FROM EACH OF
B. SPEAKER OF THE LOWER HOUSE THE TWO HOUSES OF PARLIAMENT BE
C. VICE PRESIDENT PRESENT AND VOTE FOR REMOVAL OF
THE JUDGE SUPREME COURT?
D. PRESIDENT
A. TWO THIRD OF THE TOTAL MEMBERS
15. What is the maximum number of judges B. ONE THIRD OF THE TOTAL MEMBERS
allowed to assist the chief Justice?
C. ONE FOURTH OF THE TOTAL MEMBERS
A. 35
B. 33 D. ALL THE MEMBERS
C. 31
21. Which year was the supreme court inaugu-
D. 30 rated?
16. HOW MANY JUDGES ARE THERE IN A. 1950
SUPREME COURT WITH CHIEF JUSTICE? B. 1951
A. 40 C. 1949
B. 28 D. 1948
C. 35 22. The Judiciary ensures to all it’s citizens
D. 33 .
A. Justice
17. The cases which start in the Supreme Court
and regarding which the Supreme Court B. Injustice
has exclusive jurisdiction come under: C. Economic Support
A. Appellate Jurisdiction D. Discrimination
B. Original Jurisdiction 23. Which among the following is the final au-
C. None of the above thority to interpret the Constitution of In-
dia?
D. none of above
A. President
18. WHAT IS THE SALARY OF THE JUDGE OF
B. Supreme Court
SUPREME COURT?
C. Council of Ministers
A. 3 LAKHS
D. Parliament
B. 4 LAKHS
24. Which among the following is the correct
C. 2 LAKHS
age of retirement of Judge of Supreme
D. 2 LAKHS AND FIFTY THOUSAND Court?
19. The Supreme Court of India tenders legal A. 58 years
advice to president of India when ? B. 60 years
A. Cabinet recommends it C. 62 years
B. Council of Minister recommends it D. 65 years
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3.9 Judiciary 226
25. What is referred to as the power of the 28. WHICH IS THE APEX COURT IN INDIA?
supreme court to examine the validity of A. HIGH COURT
the laws passed by the union and the
states? B. DISTRICT
A. Judiciary C. SUPREME COURT
D. LOWER COURT
B. Judicial Review
C. Judicial Power 29. Choose the correct sequence of ‘System of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Courts’ present in India from top to bot-
D. None of the above
tom:
26. To be appointed as a judge of Supreme A. Supreme Court, Subordinate Court,
Court a person should have been an advo- High Court
cate of a High Court for at least Yrs? B. High Court, Supreme Court, Subordi-
A. 5 nate Court
B. 10 C. Subordinate Court, High Court,
Supreme Court
C. 15
D. Supreme Court, High Court, Subordi-
D. 20 nate Court and Nyaya Panchayats
27. WHAT IS THE RETIREMENT AGE FOR THE 30. SUPREME COURT MAY GIVE ITS OPINION
JUDGE OF SUPREME COURT? ON CONSTITUTION TO WHOM?
A. 60 YEARS A. PRIME MINISTER
B. 65 YEARS B. PRESIDENT
C. 70 YEARS C. VICE PRESIDENT
D. 55 YEARS D. COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
3.9 Judiciary
1. gives judgement on cases involving se- D. writ
rious criminal cases.
3. The Bombay High Court does not have
A. District court a bench at which one of the following
B. High court places? [CDS 2008]
C. Subordinate court A. Nagpur
D. none of above B. Panaji
2. For the enforcement of Fundamental C. Pune
Rights, the Supreme Court may issue a/an: D. Aurangabad
[Stenographers’ Exam 1992]
4. Which High Court has jurisdiction over the
A. decree State of Arunachal Pradesh? [Railways
B. ordinance 1994]
C. notification A. Guwahati
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3.9 Judiciary 227
B. Mumbai C. 2
C. Kolkata D. 4
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D. Chandigarh
10. The oath to a High Court Judge is adminis-
5. The only Union Territory which has a High tered by the:
Court of its own: A. Chief Justice of India
A. Delhi
B. Chief Justice of that High Court
B. Lakshadweep
C. Governor
C. Chandigarh
D. President
D. Daman and Diu
11. The person who files causes in the court is
6. The High Courts in India were first started called-
at:
A. Writs
A. Bombay, Madras, Calcutta
B. Petitioner
B. Delhi and Calcutta
C. Bombay, Delhi, Madras C. Legislative
D. Madras and Bombay D. Person
7. What is meant by ’Court of Record’? [I. 12. Who among the following is the final inter-
Tax 1994] preter & guardian of Indian Constitution?
A. The court that preserves all its records A. President
B. Prime Minister
B. The court that maintains records of all
C. Supreme Court
lower courts
C. The court that can punish for its con- D. Supreme Court as well as High Court
tempt
13. The High Court which has the distinction of
D. The court that is competent to give di- having the first woman Chief Justice is
rections and issue writs
A. Allahabad High Court
8. Who can remove the chief justice of B. Delhi High Court
Supreme Court?
C. Himachal Pradesh High Court
A. Parliament by resolution
D. Guwahati High Court
B. Judges of supreme court by Majority
C. President on a resolution by parlia- 14. Qualifications to be a judge in the High
ment Court.
D. President on his/ her own discretion A. Advocate for 5 years
9. There are levels of the Indian Judiciary B. Experience in judicial office for at least
System . 10 years.
A. 1 C. Above 56 years of age.
B. 3 D. All the above options
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3.9 Judiciary 228
15. Violation is . 20. We need a judicial system to:
A. Act of breaking Law A. Provide freedom
B. Act of infringement of the fundamental B. Enforce laws
right C. Make laws
C. both a and b D. Execute laws
D. none of these 21. Judicial review refers to:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
16. Under the writ of ’Mandamus’, the Court A. powers of the Courts to interpret the
can: situation of war peace etc
A. ask the person to be produced B. powers of the Supreme Court to ap-
point/ suspend constitutional functionar-
B. ask to let a person free for a temporary
ies
period
C. powers of the Supreme Court to inter-
C. order to transfer the case from one
pret Constitution and to declare acts null
court
or void
D. direct the Government to do or not to D. All of the above
do a thing
22. The number of States under the jurisdiction
17. Judge of the High Court can be removed of a High Court is decided on the basis of:
from the office during his tenure by:
A. area and population to be served
A. the Governor, if the State passes reso-
B. funds at the disposal
lution by 2/3rd majority
C. intention of the government
B. the President, on the basis of resolu-
tion passed by the Parliament by 2/3rd D. number of judges available
majority
23. The Chief Justice of the High Court is ap-
C. the Chief Justice of Supreme Court on pointed by
the recommendation of Parliament A. the president on the recommendation
D. the Chief Justice of High Court on rec- of the chief justice of India and the gover-
ommendation of State Legislature nor of the state concerned
B. the prime minister on the advice of the
18. The first Lok Adalat was held in year.
chief justice of India
A. 1982
C. the prime minister on the advice of the
B. 1987 Chief Justice of India
C. 1984 D. none of these
D. 1981 24. If certain case required to take a decision
regarding constitution of India then which
19. Our Judiciary is an Judiciary.
court has power to do so?
A. Dependent
A. Supreme Court Only
B. Biased
B. Both High Court & Supreme Court
C. Independent C. Neither High court nor Supreme Court
D. none of above
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3.9 Judiciary 229
D. High court only C. Article 145 of the Constitution of India
25. The Constitution allows preventive deten-
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tion but stipulates: D. Article 34B of the Constitution of India
A. that no one should be detained beyond 30. A High Court consists of a Chief Justice
three months unless an Advisory Board and:
authorises detention beyond that period A. at least 5 other judges
B. that the grounds for detention should B. such other judges as specified in the
be conveyed to the detenu before arrest- Constitution
ing him
C. such other judges as determined by
C. that the detenu must be produced be- Parliament
fore the nearest magistrate within a pe-
D. such other judges as determined by
riod of 24 hours of his arrest
the President
D. All of the above
31. The High Court having the jurisdiction in Ju-
26. The right to seek advisory opinion of the dicial matters relating to’ the largest num-
Supreme Court on any question of law or ber of States/Union Territories is:
fact belongs to: A. Kolkata High Court
A. the President B. Kerala High Court
B. High Courts C. Mumbai High Court
C. the Governor D. Guwahati High Court
D. All of these
32. Who is the present Chief Justice of India?
27. When Judiciary assumes the law and func- A. Sharad Arvind Bobde
tions of, it becomes
B. Ranjan Gogoi
A. Judicial Criticism
C. Om Birla
B. Rule of Law D. Narendra Modi
C. Law Consensus
33. The of India is the highest court of Ap-
D. None peal
28. The statue situated in the premises of the A. Supreme court
supreme court in New Delhi is made by B. President
A. Shri chintamoni kaur C. High court
B. Shri chintamoni Kar D. Subordinate court
C. Chetan Bhagat
34. Public interest litigation applies to any
D. Shaman kar case of public injury arising from
29. Under which law it is prescribed that all A. the breach of any public duty
proceedings in the Supreme Court of India B. the violation of a constitutional provi-
shall be in English language? [CDS 2012] sion
A. The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 C. the violation of the law
B. A Legislation made by the Parliament D. All of the above
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3.9 Judiciary 230
35. An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court 3. A person to be eligible for appoint-
from any judgement of a High Court if the ment as a District Judge should be
High Court: an advocate or a pleader of seven
A. has on appeal reversed an order of years’ standing or more, or an offi-
acquittal of an accused person and sen- cer in judicial service of the Union or
tenced him to death the State.
4. When the Session judge awards
B. certifies that the case is a fit one for death sentence, it must be confirmed
appeal to the Supreme Court by the High Court before it is carried
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. has withdrawn for trial before itself out.
any case from any subordinate court and Which of the statements given above are
has convicted the accused person and sen- correct? [IAS 2004]
tenced him to death
A. 1 and 2
D. In all the above cases
B. 2, 3 and 4
36. Which is the Apex Court in the Indian Judi-
C. 3 and 4
cial System?
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. High Court
B. District Court 40. The age for retirement of judges from
supreme courts and high courts are respec-
C. Supreme Court
tively?
D. none of above
A. 65 & 62
37. How many supreme courts are there in in- B. 65 & 60
dia?
C. 65 for both
A. 2
D. 65 & 63
B. 1
C. 5 41. A high Court judge retires at the age of:
D. 25 A. 86 years
B. 62 years
38. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be re-
moved from office only on grounds of: C. 56 years
A. gross inefficiency D. 48 years
B. imbecile conduct 42. Which of the following statements regard-
C. proven misbehaviour or incapacity ing Judiciary in India are correct?
D. senility I) Supreme Court of India is free from
the control and influence of Legisla-
39. Consider the following statements: ture and Executive.
1. The highest criminal court of the dis- II) Subordinate courts are at the head
trict is the Court of District and Ses- of the judicial hierarchy of the State.
sions Judge. III) The Chief Justice and other Judges
2. The District Judges are appointed by of the High Court are appointed by
the Governor in consultation with the Governor in consultation with
the High Courts the Chief Justice of India.
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3.9 Judiciary 231
IV) A High Court can withdraw a case C. may hear the case if it is satisfied that
from a subordinate court and can the case involves a substantial question of
deal with the case itself if it is sat- law as to the interpretation of the Consti-
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isfied that the case involves a sub- tution
stantial point of constitutional law. D. may hear the case if the President
A. I and II calls upon it to do so
B. I and III 47. In which of the following cases ap-
C. I and IV peals cannot be lodged with the Supreme
Court?
D. II, III and IV
A. Constitutional matters involving a sub-
43. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India is stantial point of law
to hold office until he attains the age of: B. A sentence in a criminal case given by
A. 58 years the lower court and confirmed by the High
Court
B. 60 years
C. Criminal case in which High Court has
C. 62 years
given a death sentence J a criminal found
D. 65 years non- guilty by a lower court
44. In India, the power to increase the number D. Criminal case in which High Court after
of Judges in the Supreme Court lies with: withdrawing a case from the lower court,
[Asstt Comm 2008] has given a death sentence
A. The President of India 48. How many judges are there in Supreme
Court?
B. The Chief Justice of India
A. 30
C. The Union Ministry of Law
B. 28
D. The Parliament of India
C. 76
45. ’Judicial Review’ function of the Supreme D. 9
Court means the power to: [RRB 1994]
49. How many High Courts in India have juris-
A. review its own judgement
diction over more than one State (Union
B. review the functioning of judiciary in Territories not included)? [IAS 2008]
the country
A. 2
C. examine the constitutional validity of B. 3
the laws
C. 4
D. undertake periodic review of the Con-
stitution D. 5
50. A group of girls is harassed by a group of
46. If a High Court in India does not give
boys comes under .
the certificate to a case that it involves a
substantial question of law, the Supreme A. Civil Law
Court: B. Social Law
A. can never hear the case C. Economical Law
B. does not enter into the picture D. Criminal Law
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3.9 Judiciary 232
51. What is freedom of religion? Choose one: A. I and II
A. You can’t choose the time you practice B. I, II and IV
your religion
C. II and IV
B. You must choose a religion
D. I, II, III and IV
C. . You can practice any religion, or not
practice a religion. 57. Which organ of the government resolves
any problem related to the violation of
D. No one can practice a religion.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
law
52. Almost each state has a: A. Executive
A. Judiciary B. Prime minister
B. Supreme Court C. Judiciary
C. High Court D. Deputy Speaker
D. None of the above
58. The Constitution gives the powers of su-
53. Which Judge of the Supreme Court was un- perintendence over all subordinate courts
successfully sought to be impeached? to the High Courts under Article:
A. Justice H.R. Khanna A. 226
B. Justice A.N. Grover B. 227
C. Justice M. Hidayatullah C. 228
D. Justice Ramaswami D. 229
54. When was High Court under British Rule 59. Which of the following statements with re-
first established spect to the judiciary in India is/are cor-
rect?
A. In 1862
1. Unlike in the United States, India
B. In 1866 has not provided for a double sys-
C. In 1986 tem of courts.
2. Under the Constitution of India,
D. In 1966
there is a single integrated system
55. Who appoint chief justice of India? of courts for the Union as well as
the states.
A. Prime Minister 3. The organisation of the subordinate
B. President judiciary varies slightly from state
to state.
C. Chief Minister
Select the correct answer using the code
D. Governor of India
given below: [CDS 2011]
56. The main sources of law in India are: A. 1 only
I) The Constitution B. 1 and 2 only
II) Statutes
C. 1, 2 and 3
III) Customary law
IV) Judicial decisions of superior courts D. 2 and 3 only
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3.9 Judiciary 233
60. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India? 65. The Chief Justice of a High Court is ap-
A. Prime Minister pointed by the President in consultation
with:
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B. President
I) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
C. Chief Minister II) Former Chief Justice of the High
D. Governor Court.
III) Other Judges of the High Court.
61. Which jurisdiction of the supreme court of IV) Governor of the State concerned.
India settles disputes between union and
A. I and II
states and among the states.
B. II and III
A. Appellate jurisdiction
C. I and IV
B. Appellate jurisdiction protector of fun-
damental rights D. I, III and IV
C. Advisory jurisdiction 66. Rule of Law means
D. Original jurisdiction A. one law favouring a particular group
62. Who is appointed as an adhoc Judge of the B. one law favouring many groups
Supreme Court?
C. many laws favouring many groups
A. A retired Judge of Supreme Court
D. one law for all the citizens
B. A sitting Judge of a High Court duly
qualified for appointment as a Supreme 67. The total number of High Courts in India at
Court Judge present is:
C. An acting Judge of the Supreme Court A. 15
B. 16
D. A person fully qualified for appoint- C. 18
ment as a Judge of the Supreme Court
D. 21
63. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme
Court are drawn from the: 68. Judicial System provides a mechanism for
resolving disputes between
A. Grants-in-aid
A. citizen
B. Contingency Fund
B. citizen and government
C. Consolidated Fund
C. two state government
D. Public Accounts
D. all of these
64. Which one of the following jurisdictions of
the Indian Judiciary covers Public Interest 69. Who has the right to seek advisory option
Litigation? [CDS 2009] of Supreme court on any question of law
A. Original Jurisdiction A. President
B. Appellate Jurisdiction B. any judge
C. Epistolary Jurisdiction C. no one
D. Advisory Jurisdiction D. prime minister
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3.9 Judiciary 234
70. When did the government devise the mech- C. the Chief Justice of India
anism of PIL system D. the Governor of the State
A. 1980s
76. A common High Court for two or more
B. 1967
States and/or Union Territory may be es-
C. 1959 tablished by: [Railways 1990]
D. 1920 A. President
NARAYAN CHANGDER
71. where is the supreme court situated? B. Parliament by Law
A. New Dehli C. Governor of the State
B. Uttarakhand D. Chief Justice of India
C. Gujarat 77. Which of the following systems is fol-
D. Maharashtra lowed by the Indian Judiciary?
72. What is the highest level of court? A. Independent system
A. District Court B. Integrated system
B. High Court C. Independent & Integrated system
C. Supreme Court D. None of these
D. Government 78. Judicial Review Can be done in cases of
73. If President and Vice President, both are A. Legislative
unavailable, who among the following B. Executive
would discharge the functions?
C. Both
A. Prime Minister
D. none of above
B. Lok Sabha Speaker
C. Chief Justice of India 79. which of the following is the work of high
court
D. Any person nominated by President or
Vice President A. deals with cases within the jurisdiction
of the state
74. If the Parliament passes a law which is
against the Constitution, it can be declared B. deals with cases arising in the court
as unconstitutional by the: C. hears cases of civil and criminal nature
A. Supreme Court
B. President D. none of the above
C. Chief Justice of India 80. which of the following is true about the
D. A bench of High Court Judges supreme court
A. it cannot amend the constitution
75. A Judge of a High Court wanting to resign
addresses his letter of resignation to: B. it is the highest federal court of india
A. the President C. it has only appellate jurisdiction
B. the Chief Justice of his High Court D. it does not have original jurisdiction
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3.9 Judiciary 235
81. The rules for regulating the practice and C. it involves a sum of money over RS. 10,
procedure of Supreme Court under Article 000
145 of the Constitution are made by the:
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D. the case had come to the High Court
A. President of India under an appeal from a subordinate court
B. Supreme Court with the approval of
the President of India 86. Who among the following can be ap-
pointed as adhoc judges of Supreme
C. Supreme Court alone Court?
D. Supreme Court in consultation with the A. Only Retired Judges of Supreme Court
Bar Council of India
82. The independence of Judiciary is important B. Only those qualified for appointed as
so that: judge of Supreme Court
A. The ordinary citizens are protected C. Only Retired Judges of High Courts
from the wrong acts of the Executive
D. District judges
B. The Parliament is protected from pub-
lic criticism 87. When can the salaries of the judges of
C. both 1 & 2 the Supreme Court be reduced during their
term of office?
D. none of the above
A. If the Parliament passes a bill to this
83. If the post of both the President and the effect
Vice-President falls vacant, the Chief Jus-
tice of India discharges the functions of the B. During a Financial Emergency
President. For how many times this has C. As and when the President desires
happened in India?
D. Never
A. One time only
B. Two Times 88. In recent petition sold by a lawyer the
High court directed the government to
C. Three times give free education to children in the BPL
D. zero times category.
84. Which of these is a criminal case? A. Mr. NK Sahoo, Dehli
A. Cases involving divorce B. Mr. Mk Sahoo, calcatta
B. Cases involving inheritance C. Mr. MS Sahoo, Kanpur
C. Cases involving property D. none of above
D. Cases involving theft
89. An appeal can be made in the Supreme
85. A civil case becomes a fit case for appeal Court of India in ?
to the Supreme Court if: A. Civil & Criminal Matters
A. it involves a point of Constitutional law
B. Criminal & Constitutional Matters
C. Civil, Criminal & Constitutional Matters
B. the High Court certifies that it involves
a point of law and needs interpretation of
the Constitution D. Constitutional and Criminal Matters
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3.9 Judiciary 236
90. The 2 Types of Cases are C. 4 June, 1951
A. Civil, Criminal D. 27 October, 1949
B. Critical, Robbery
96. The dispute between center and state
C. Judiciary, Civil comes under
D. Violence, Breaking Law A. High Court
91. Which of the following writs is issued by B. Lok Adalat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the court in case of illegal detention of a
C. District Court
person?
A. Habeas Corpus D. Supreme Court
B. Mandamus 97. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme
C. Certiorari Court?
D. Quo Warranto A. The Chief Justice
B. The President
92. THERE ARE LEVELS OF THE INDIAN JU-
DICIAL SYSTEM. C. The Prime Minister
A. 1 D. The Council of Ministers
B. 3
98. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by
C. 2 the:
D. 4 A. President
93. How many High Courts are there in India B. Council of Ministers
currently?
C. Prime Mnister
A. 31
D. Supreme Court
B. 25
C. 11 99. Consider the following:
D. 5 1. Supreme Court’s power to issue
writs is narrower than that of High
94. Which one of the following pairs of High Courts.
Courts and their seats is not matched cor- 2. a citizen is free to approach High
rectly? Court or Supreme Court as he
A. Karnataka - Bengaluru chooses, whenever his Fundamental
Rights are violated.
B. Madhya Pradesh - Bhopal 3. The law declared by the Supreme
C. Rajasthan - Jodhpur Court is binding on all courts
D. Kerala- Ernakulam throughout India.
A. 1 alone
95. On which date, Supreme Court of India
started operations in Independent India? B. 1 and 2
A. 25 January, 1950 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 28 January, 1950 D. 2 and 3
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3.9 Judiciary 237
100. Which of the following is not a qualifica- 105. Who is the highest level of authority of
tion for a person to be the Chief Justice of the high court?
High Court? A. The President
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A. He should have been a Judge in any B. Chief Justice
court of India for not less than 10 years
C. Chief Executive
D. None of the above
B. He should be a distinguished jurist
C. He should be a renowned writer in the 106. THE JUDICIARY ENSURES TO ALL ITS
field of law CITIZENS.
D. None of the above A. JUSTICE
B. INJUSTICE
101. Who is the final interpreter of our Consti-
C. ECONOMIC SUPPORT
tution?
D. none of above
A. Executive
B. Legislative 107. How many levels of court are there in In-
dia? a. Threeb. Twoc. Noned. One
C. Judiciary
A. One
D. Government
B. Two
102. Which court has the power of reviewing C. three
its own judgement. D. None
A. High court
108. Under a single, integrated, hierarchial ju-
B. Supreme court dicial system, the High Courts in the States
C. District court are directly under the:
A. President
D. President
B. Governor of the State
103. What makes the judiciary the guardian of C. Union Parliament
the constitution
D. Supreme Court
A. Judicial Review
109. Consider the following statements:
B. salary
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a
C. Service conditions
High Court in India is same as that of
D. independence removal of a Judge of the Supreme
Court.
104. The Supreme Court of India decides the 2. After retirement from the office, a
disputes regarding the election of: permanent Judge of a High Court
A. the Prime Minister cannot plead or act in any court or
before any authority in India.
B. the Speaker and Deputy Speaker
Which of the statements given above
C. the President and Vice-President is/are correct? [IAS 2007]
D. All of the above A. 1 only
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3.9 Judiciary 238
B. 2 only 114. Maintains Law and order in the nation is
C. Both 1 and 2 one of the
D. Neither 1 nor 2 A. Powers of judiciary
110. The Constitution places the High Courts B. functions of judiciary
under the control of the Union in certain C. order of the Judiciary
matters in order to keep them outside the
D. action of the Judiciary
range of regional politics. The Union exer-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cises its control in the matters of: 115. Supreme court is the of India.
I) transfer of Judges from one High A. Trial court
Court to another.
II) being able, to establish a common B. Second Appellate court
High Court for two or more States. C. Last Appellate court
III) determining disputes as to age of
High Court Judges. D. none of above
A. I only 116. which one of the following comes under
B. II and III the jurisdiction of both the high court and
supreme court
C. I and II
D. I, II and III A. disputes between the center and
states
111. Which of the following States/UTs are
B. protection against he violation of the
covered by the Mumbai High Court?
constitution
I) Maharashtra
C. disputes between the center and
II) Goa
states
III) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
IV) Daman and Diu D. protection of fundamental rights
A. I only
117. Appeals in Supreme Court regarding Con-
B. I and II stitution, Civil and Criminal matters come
C. I, III and IV under which kind of jurisdiction?
D. I, II, III and IV A. Appellate Jurisdiction
112. The Supreme Court is in: B. Advisory Jurisdiction
A. Mumbai C. Miscellaneous Powers
B. Kolkata D. None of the above
C. Kerala
118. Which of the .following amendments cur-
D. New Delhi tailed the power of Judicial review of the
Supreme Court and the High Courts?
113. The Supreme court was established on:-
A. 1950 A. 24th
B. 1949 B. 26th
C. 1962 C. 42th
D. 1980 D. 44th
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3.9 Judiciary 239
119. Who can impeach the Chief Justice? 124. The concept of Public Interest Litigation
originated in: [IAS 1997]
A. Parliament by resolution
A. the United Kingdom
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B. President
B. Australia
C. President on resolution by Parliament
C. the United States
D. Judges of Supreme Court by majority
D. Canada
120. The power of judicial review ensures: 125. Till now how many judges of Supreme
A. the supremacy of the Supreme Court Court of India have been removed from Of-
fice through impeachment?
B. that Supreme Court can review its own
judgements A. 1
C. the constitutionality of laws B. 2
C. 3
D. justice by the subordinate courts
D. none
121. Which of the following is covered un-
der the original jurisdiction of the Supreme 126. What are the two states in North India
Court? that have a common High court.
A. Dispute relating to civil matters A. Punjab & Haryana
B. Uttar Pradeah & Bihar
B. Dispute relating to criminal cases in-
volving murder C. Punjab & Uttar Pradesh
C. Disputes between two States of the In- D. Haryana & Uttar Pradesh
dian Union
127. Which of the following is not a function
D. Disputes between two citizens from of the Judiciary?
two different States A. Appoints the head of Federal agencies
122. Criminal case begin with the lodging of
the B. Protects the Fundamental Rights of
the citizens
A. CASE
C. Acts as the ‘Guardian of the Constitu-
B. TIL tion’
C. PIL D. none of above
D. FIR 128. To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief
Justice and other Judges of the Supreme
123. Which of the following writs may be
Court are debarred from practising law:
issued to enforce a Fundamental Right?
[CDS 1993] A. in any court other than the Supreme
Court
A. Habeas Corpus
B. in any court of India
B. Mandamus
C. in any court other than State High
C. Prohibition Courts
D. Certiorari D. in any Criminal Court
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3.9 Judiciary 240
129. Which of the following, regarding the ad- Justice and the administrative ex-
visory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court penses are charged on the Consoli-
are correct? [IAS 1994] dated Fund of India.
I) It is binding on the Supreme Court Which of the statements given above
to give its opinion on any matter re- is/are correct? [IAS 2005]
ferred to it by the President. A. 1 only
II) The full bench of the Supreme Court
B. 2 only
hears any reference made to it under
NARAYAN CHANGDER
its power of advisory jurisdiction. C. Both 1 and 2
III) The opinion given by the Supreme D. Neither 1 nor 2
Court on a reference under advisory
jurisdiction is not binding on the gov- 133. The Supreme Court is a court of record.
ernment. This implies:
IV) Not more than one reference at a I) it can punish for its contempt.
time can be made to the Supreme II) its decisions are admitted as evi-
Court under its power of advisory dence and can riot be questioned in
jurisdiction. any court of law.
A. I and II III) it has to keep a record of all the im-
portant cases that are conducted in
B. I and III India.
C. II and III IV) its decisions, once taken, are binding
D. II and IV upon it.
A. I, II and III
130. is the last court of appeal.
B. I and II
A. President
C. I, III and IV
B. Supreme court D. I, II, III and IV
C. High court
134. The age of retirement of the Judges of
D. none of above the High Court is:
131. Supreme court is in A. 62 years
A. Kerala B. 65 years
B. Mizoram C. 58 years
C. Maharashtra D. 60 years
D. New Delhi 135. Which one of the following comes under
the jurisdiction of both the High Court and
132. Consider the following statements: the Supreme Court?
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the A. Disputes between the Centre and the
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of States
India as its jurisdiction is limited to B. Disputes between the States
that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the C. Protection of the Fundamental Rights
Supreme Court and High Courts are D. Protection against the violation of the
appointed by the concerned Chief Constitution
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3.9 Judiciary 241
136. The Judges of the Supreme Court take an Judges of the Supreme Court and High
oath or affirmation before entering upon Court as he may deem necessary for the
office, conducted by: purpose
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A. Chief Justice of India D. by the President in consultation with
B. President or Vice-President Prime Minister
C. President or some person appointed, 141. The power of Judicial review in India lies
by him with the ?
D. None of the above A. Supreme Court only
137. The pension of a High Court Judge is B. High Courts and Supreme Court
charged to the: C. High Courts only
A. Consolidated Fund of India D. Lower courts only
B. Consolidated Fund of the State where
142. Judiciary settles
he last served
A. In india
C. Consolidated Funds of the different
States where he has served B. Prime minister s schedule
D. Contingency Fund of India C. Disputes
D. Rule of law
138. What is the correct structure of courts in
India 143. Each state has
A. Supreme courtDistrict courtHigh court- A. Judiciary
Subordinate court
B. Supreme Court
B. High courtSupreme courtDistrict court-
C. High court
Subordinate court
D. All of these
C. Supreme courtHigh courtDistrict
courtSubordinate court 144. Which of the following statements is/are
D. none of above correct?
I) The Supreme Court’s decrees and or-
139. Appeal from District Court of Haryana
ders are enforceable throughout In-
will go to:
dia.
A. Supreme Court II) The Supreme Court is not bound by
B. Nyaya Panchayat its earlier decisions
C. High Court III) In its power of judicial review the
Supreme Court can declare a law un-
D. Lok Adalat constitutional on the basis of the ob-
140. The Judges of the Supreme Court are ap- jectives underlying the law.
pointed: IV) The Constitution excludes no area
from judicial review.
A. by the President
A. I, II and III
B. by the President in consultation with
the Chief Justice of India B. I and II
C. by the President in consultation with C. II and III
the Chief Justice of India and out of the D. I, III and IV
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3.9 Judiciary 242
145. Indian Judiciary is: C. Writ of Prohibition - available against
A. A dependent judiciary autonomous bodies only
B. A biased Judiciary D. Writ of Certiorari - available against
public servants only
C. An independent judiciary
D. none of above 150. Which of the following High Courts cov-
ers more than one State/Union Territo-
146. Which one of the following statements is
ries?
correct? [NDA 2005]
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The President of India is the custodian A. Delhi
of the Constitution of India B. Allahabad
B. The Supreme Court of India can de- C. Guwahati
clare a law passed by any State/Union
Legislature null and void if it encroaches D. None of these
upon the Fundamental Rights guaranteed
by the Constitution of India 151. Which is not an eligibility criterion for
appointment as a Judge of the Supreme
C. The number of Judges in a High Court
Court? [UDC 1993]
is to be determined from time to time by
the Governor of the State concerned A. must have been a High Court Judge for
D. The Chief Justice of a High Court is at least 5 years
appointed by the Governor of the State B. must have attained the age of 55 years
concerned on the recommendation of the
Chief Justice of India
C. must have been an advocate of a High
147. Writ Petitions can be filed for Court for not less than 10 years
A. Only criminal cases D. must be in the opinion of the President,
B. Only civil cases a distinguished jurist
C. Both criminal and civil
152. Which of the following writs is a bulwark
D. none of above of personal freedom?
148. The power to decide an election petition A. Mandamus
in India is vested in the ?
B. Habeas Corpus
A. Parliament
C. Quo Warranto
B. Supreme court
C. High Courts D. Certiorari
D. President 153. Judiciary plays a crucial role because it is
149. Which one of the following pairs is cor- .
rectly matched? A. independent
A. Writ of Habeas Corpus - available B. dependent
against private individual as well
C. both a and b
B. Writ of Quo Warranto - available
against subordinate courts only D. none of these
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3.9 Judiciary 243
154. Justice, which is the soul of a democracy, 158. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the
must be administered without: High Court are appointed by the: [NDA
1994]
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A. Fear and Love
B. Fear and Favour A. President
B. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
C. Kindness and Morality
C. Governor of the concerned state
D. Appreciation and Favour
D. Chief Minister of the concerned State
155. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the
Supreme Court can be removed from their 159. The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme
office by an order of the President passed Court of India:
after: A. can never be reduced under any cir-
A. an address by each House supported cumstances
by the majority of the members present B. can be reduced during their term of of-
and voting has been presented to him fice
B. a resolution of both Houses passed by C. cannot be reduced during the term of
a 2/3rd majority of total membership is their office except during a financial emer-
presented to him gency
C. a resolution passed by 2/3rd majority D. are fixed by President of India
of total membership of Lok Sabha is pre-
sented to him 160. Which of the following is/are the
D. an address by each House supported part/parts of the procedure for the im-
by a majority of total membership of that peachment of a Judge of the Supreme
House and not less than 2/3rd of mem- Court of India?
bers present and voting has been pre- 1. A motion signed by atleast 100
sented to the President members of Lok Sabha or 50 mem-
bers of Rajya Sabha is delivered to
156. When can the salaries of High Court the Speaker or Chairman.
judges be reduced? 2. The motion is investigated by a Com-
A. If Parliament decrees it by two-thirds mittee of three Jurists constituted
majority by the Speaker or Chairman.
3. The Judge will be removed by the
B. During a Financial Emergency
Speaker or Chairman if the Commit-
C. If the State Legislature passes a law tee of three Jurists recommends.
to the effect
Select the correct answer using the code
D. At no time given below: [Asstt Commdt 2011]
157. Which article makes Supreme Court a A. 1, 2 and 3
Court of Record? B. 1 and 2 only
A. Article 126 C. 2 and 3 only
B. Article 128 D. 1 only
C. Article 129 161. The most important provision in the In-
D. Article 131 dian Constitution is:
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3.9 Judiciary 244
A. Fundamental rights 166. Who was the Chief Justice of India when
public interest litigation (PIL) was intro-
B. Parliamentary Form of Government
duced to the Indian Judicial System? [IAS
C. Separation of Powers 2006]
D. Right To Information A. M. Hidayatullah
B. A.M. Ahmadi
162. Disputes between two state govern-
ments are dealt by the court. C. A.S. Anand
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. High D. P.N. Bhagwati
B. Supreme
167. The Constitution of India has ensured in-
C. District dependence of judiciary by:
D. Nyaya Panchayat I) protecting salaries and service con-
ditions of judges.
163. Judges in India are paid handsome II) prohibiting the judges from carrying
salaries: on practice in courts of law after re-
A. So that they can remain impartial and tirement.
honest III) providing Single judiciary.
IV) ensuring security of tenure of
B. So that they take decisions against the judges.
current government
A. II, III, IV
C. As it brings a good reputation to the
Judiciary B. I, II, IV
D. All of the above C. I, II
D. I, II, III, IV
164. Which of the following cases cannot be
filed directly in the Supreme Court? [MBA 168. Which of the following is the function of
1994] judiciary
A. Disputes between two or more States A. does not apply laws to all the citizens
B. Cases against encroachment on Fun- B. It safeguards the rights of the citizens
damental Rights
C. If one’s property is forcefully occupied C. It does not resolve disputes
by the other
D. awards punishment to the guilty par-
D. Both A and B above tially
165. Which is the law-making body for the 169. Judiciary in India resolves the disputes
country? between
A. The Executive A. Citizen and Citizen
B. The Judiciary B. State and Citizen
C. The Parliament C. State and State
D. none of above D. All the above
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3.9 Judiciary 245
170. Once appointed, a judge can be removed 175. High courts were first established in
by: which of the 3 presidency cities?
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A. DIRECT JUDGE A. Punjab, Chandigarh, Madras
B. PRIME MINISTER B. Jammu and Kashmir, UP, Haryana
C. CHEIF MINISTER C. Madras, Tamil Nadu, Punjab
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE D. Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
176. court hear’s the cases of civil and
171. What is the system consisting of courts
criminal cases.
which interpret the constitution and give
judgement? A. District court
A. Judiciary B. High court
B. parliament C. Subordinate court
D. none of above
C. legislature
D. police 177. We have a Judicial system to
A. to provide freedom
172. The appropriate writ issued by the court
to quash the appointment of a person to a B. to provide food
public office is that of: C. to enforce the rule law
A. Prohibition D. none of these
B. Quo Warranto 178. Which is not correct statement? The
C. Certiorari Supreme Court:
D. Mandamus A. is a watch-dog of citizen’s liberty
B. interprets the Constitution
173. Judicial review in India does not extend
C. protects the Directive Principles of
to:
State Policy
A. the advice that the Council of Ministers
D. settles electoral disputes of the Presi-
gives to the President
dent and Vice-President of India
B. the discretionary powers of the Gover-
nors 179. Who decides the number of Judges in a
High Court?
C. the privileges enjoyed by Parliament
members A. State Government
B. President
D. Any of the above
C. Governor of the State
174. Which court consists of lok Adalat. D. Parliament
A. Subordinate court
180. The power of Judicial Review is impor-
B. High court tant for
C. Supreme court A. protecting Civil liberties
D. none of above B. giving minority rights
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3.9 Judiciary 246
C. for the proper interpretation of the 185. What is the minimum number of the
Constitution judges to decide an issue involving the
D. All of the above interpretation of the constitution or any
presidential reference?
181. How many High courts are there in India. A. 5
A. 25 B. 7
B. 21 C. 10
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 12 D. 15
D. 21
186. THE CHIEF JUSTICE OF THE SUPREME
182. Consider the following statements: The COURT IS APPOINTED BY THE
Supreme Court of India tenders advice to A. PRESIDENT
the President of India on matters of law
B. PRIME MINISTER
or fact
C. CHIEF MINISTER
1. on its own initiative (on any matter
of larger public interest). D. none of above
2. if he seeks such an advice.
187. The Constitution makes provisions to en-
3. only if the matters relate to the Fun-
sure the independence of judges. Which
damental Rights of the citizens
one of the provisions given below is wrong
Which of the statements given above in this context?
is/are correct? [IAS 2010]
A. Though appointed by the President
A. 1 only their removal is by a difficult process
B. 2 only B. Their salaries are charged on the Con-
C. 3 only solidated Fund of India (or the State)
D. 1 and 2 C. A retired judge cannot be appointed to
any office under the Government
183. The type of law that deals with disputes
D. The conduct of a judge cannot be dis-
between parties is
cussed in Parliament except upon a mo-
A. criminal law tion regarding his removal
B. common law 188. THE SUPREME COURT IS LOCATED IN
C. civil law A. NEW DELHI
D. constitutional law B. DELHI
184. Besides its permanent seat at Delhi, the C. KOLKATA
Supreme Court can also meet at: D. none of above
A. any other metropolitan city
189. The Supreme Court was set up under:
B. any other major city
A. Pitt’s India Act
C. any other place as decided by the Chief
Justice of India in consultation with the B. Regulating Act
President C. Indian Councils Act, 1861
D. any other Union Territory D. Indian Councils Act, 1892
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3.9 Judiciary 247
190. The salaries of the Judges of the High 2. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer is consid-
Courts are paid from the: ered as one of the progenitors of
public interest litigation (PIL) in the
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A. Funds collected as fees for cases
Indian judicial system.
B. Consolidated Fund of the State
Which of the statements given above
C. Consolidated Fund of India is/are correct? [IAS 2008]
D. State revenues A. 1 only
191. Which of the following is true about the B. 2 only
Supreme Court? C. Both 1 and 2
A. It has only the Appellate Jurisdiction D. Neither 1 nor 2
B. It is the highest federal court of India 195. The minimum number of judges to sit on
C. It does not have the Original Jurisdic- the Constitutional Bench or on Bench which
tion gives its advisory opinion on the reference
by the President must be:
D. It can amend the Constitution
A. one half of the total strength of the
192. To whom does a Judge of the Supreme Supreme Court
Court address his resignation if he wants B. seven
to leave office before his term is com-
plete? C. three
A. Chief Justice of India D. one-third of the total strength of the
court
B. Prime Minister
196. When Judiciary assumes the roles and
C. President
functions of the legislature and executive,
D. Union Law Minister thus diluting theconcept of separation of
powers, it becomes
193. Which of the following is incorrect regard-
ing Supreme Court? A. Judicial Criticism
A. It has the power to punish by fine and B. Judicial Over reach
imprisonment any person guilty of con- C. Judicial Consensus
tempt of its authority D. Judicial interference
B. It is a court of record and has all the
powers of such court including the power 197. The power to extend or restrict the juris-
to punish for contempt of itself diction of the High Court rests with:
A. the President
C. Its records are admitted in evidence
and cannot be questioned when produced B. the Parliament
in any Court of Law C. the concerned State Legislature
D. It is bound by its earlier decisions and D. the Governor
cannot depart from its previous decisions
198. What is the act of breaking a law as well
194. Consider the following statements: as to the breach or infringement of Funda-
1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer was the mental Rights?
Chief Justice of India A. Violation
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3.10 Public Interest Litigation 248
B. Acquit 202. What is the procedure of removal of
C. Dispute Judges called?
D. All of these A. Impeachment
B. Court Martial
199. In rural areas there are small courts
called C. FIR
A. Nyaya panchayat D. Suspension
B. Lok Adalat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
203. A retired Judge of High Court cannot:
C. High court
A. practice in the Supreme Court
D. none of above
B. practice in any High Court of India
200. We have judicial system to:- C. practice in the High Court from where
A. To enforce the rule law he has retired
B. To provide freedom D. practice in any Court of India
C. To provide food
204. The writ of “Habeas Corpus” can be is-
D. None of these sued in which of the following events?
201. Law that deals with serious crimes that A. to seek relief from the unlawful deten-
harm individuals or society is tion of him or herself
A. criminal law B. to seek refund of excess taxes
B. civil law C. to seek relief from the violation of free-
C. constitutional law dom to speak
D. common law D. None of the above
3.10 Public Interest Litigation
1. Indian judiciary introduced the concept of A. . closure
PIL in which of the following cases? B. . closing
A. ) Maneka Gandhi v Union of India C. . close
B. ) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivakant Shukla D. . closed
C. ) SP Gupta v. Union of India 4. There is little between Public Interest
D. ) None of the above Litigation (PIL) and Social Action Litigation
(SIL).
2. Which of the following scam was un-
earthed by a Public Interest Litigation? A. . different
B. . distinct
A. ) Fodder Scam
C. . distinctive
B. ) 2G Scam
D. . distinction
C. ) Bofors Scam
D. ) None of the above 5. Which State established the permanent
Lok-Adalat for hearing Public Utitlity Ser-
3. Law should not remain a shop. vices
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3.10 Public Interest Litigation 249
A. Orrisa 11. Concept of Lok-Adalat is derived from
B. West Bengal A. 39 A of the Constitution of India
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C. Rajasthan B. 14 of the Constitution of India
D. Assam
C. 32 of the Constitution of India
6. What is the full form of PIL D. 226 of the Constitution of India
A. Public information litigation
B. Personal International Law 12. Interpretation of which of the following
Article has gives rise to Environmental
C. Public interest litigation PILs in India?
D. none of above
A. ) Article 21
7. Who was the another Judge to accept PIL B. ) Article 23
along with Justice P.N.Bhagwati?
C. ) Article 24
A. Justice M. Katju
B. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer D. ) Article 10
C. Justice Ashok Bhan 13. The concept of Public Interest Litigation
D. Justice J.S. Verma originated in
8. In which of the following cases a Public In- A. United Kingdom
terest Litigation was filed against Ganga B. Canada
water pollution?
C. USA
A. ) MC Mehta v. Union of India
B. ) PUDR v. Union of India D. South Africa
C. ) Lilly Thomas v. State of Uttar Pradesh 14. Which of the following Public Interest Lit-
igation case mandated 27% reservation
D. ) None of the above for OBCs?
9. In the year in drought affected Ra- A. ) Indra Swahaney case
jasthan and Odisha, millions faced scarcity B. ) Hussainara Khatoon case
of food
C. ) Sunil Batra case
A. 2000
B. 2001 D. ) None of the above
C. 2004 15. Lok Adalat is Different from other Courts
D. 2003
A. Because its decision cannot be chal-
10. The supreme court in early evolved a lenged in any court of law
system of public interestlitigation(PIL) B. Because the system is developed by
A. 1940s the judges
B. 1980s C. Because the Parliamentary Act guides
C. 1990s it
D. none of above D. None of the Above
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3.11 Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 250
16. Which PIL case established right to A. . participating
pollution-free environment as a fundamen-
B. . participatory
tal right?
C. . participated
A. ) MC Mehta v. Union of India
B. ) Subhash Kumar v State of Bihar D. . participate
C. ) Council For Environment Legal Action 20. PIL in Supreme Court can be filed under
v/s Union of India which Article of the Constitution?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. ) None of the above A. ) Article 32
17. Which of the following case relaxed the B. ) Article 226
rule of locus standi?
C. ) Article 227
A. ) Golakhnath v. State of Punjab
D. ) Article 136
B. ) Sheela Barse v. State of Maharashtra
21. PIL can be directly filed to Supreme Court
C. ) Bar Council of Maharashtra v. M. V. A. ) Yes
Dabholkar
B. ) No
D. ) None of the above
C. ) Yes, only in cases of pollution
18. Which of the following PIL case made pro-
D. ) Yes, only in cases related to poverty
visions for seperate lock-ups for women?
schemes
A. ) Veena Sethi v. State of Bihar
B. ) People’s Union for Democratic Rights 22. The Chairman of District Legal Services Au-
& Others thority is
C. ) Sheela Barse v. State of Maharash- A. A Judge of High Court
tra B. B Chief Justice of concerned High
D. ) None of the above Court
C. C District Judge
19. Public Interest litigation is a part of
justice. D. D Advocate General
3.11 Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
1. Which is called the Lower House B. The Vice-President
A. Rajya Sabha C. Chief Minister
B. Vidhan Sabha D. Governor
C. Vidhan Parishad 3. The members of the LOK Sabha are called
D. Lok Sabha
A. Members of the Parliament
2. The of India is the chairman of the Ra- B. council of ministers
jya Sabha. C. none of these
A. The President D. none of above
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3.11 Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 251
4. The tenure of Rajya Sabha is for a period 10. Who nominates the two members of the
of years Anglo Indian Community in Lok Sabha?
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A. 3 years A. Speaker
B. 5 years B. Prime Minister
C. 6 years C. President
D. 7 years D. All of these
5. Which list allows the States to take final 11. What do we term the action of claiming
decisions in certain policies? any law invalid by the judiciary.
A. Union List A. Judicial Review
B. Concurrent List B. Impeachment
C. State List C. Public Interest Litigation
D. none of above D. Cancellation
6. Who is the presiding officer of the Rajya 12. Total Member of Rajya Sabha
Sabha? A. 250
A. The Speaker B. 290
B. The Deputy speaker C. 350
C. The Vice President D. 550
D. The President
13. A communication issued by an appropriate
7. The members of rajya, who are nominated authority stating the policy or decision of
by the president is called the government is called? ?
A. council of ministers A. Official Memorandum
B. nominated member B. Judicial Review
C. members of Lok sabha C. Law
D. members of Rajya sabha D. Impeachment
8. Number of Ministers in Council of Minis- 14. If the total member is 546, what will be
ters? the quorum of the House?
A. 60-80 A. 53
B. 20-25 B. 54
C. 60-100 C. 55
D. 25-100 D. none of above
9. The right to ask questions during QUES- 15. at what age can you be a member of rajya
TION HOUR is also known as sabha
A. Interpellation A. 15
B. Interpretation B. 30
C. Interception C. 25
D. none of above D. none of the above
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3.11 Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 252
16. In which city of India is the Parliament sit- 22. These ministers are the in-charge of small
uated? ministries?
A. New Delhi A. Ministers of State with independent
charge
B. Mumbai
B. Ministers of State
C. Kolkata
C. Prime minister
D. none of above
D. cabinet minister
NARAYAN CHANGDER
17. What is the maximum strength of mem- 23. who is the nominal head of the country?
bers in a lok Sabha
A. president
A. 500
B. prime minister
B. 525 C. finance minister
C. 550 D. home minister
D. 552 24. Inorder to become a member of Rajya
18. Rajya Sabha is a body Sabha a candidate must not be less than
years of age.
A. temporary
A. 25
B. permanent B. 30
C. both a & b C. 35
D. none of these D. 22
19. The first Speaker of Lok Sabha was 25. Rajya Sabha can delay any bill passed by
Lok Sabha by how many days?
A. G.V MAVALANKAR
A. 14 days
B. C.V PATNAIK
B. 30 days
C. N.G RAMACHANDRAN
C. 6 months
D. P.V SHEKHAR D. 1 year
20. who is ex-officio chairperson of Rajya 26. Who nominates the Member of Rajya
sabha? Sabha?
A. president A. Vice-President
B. vice-president B. Prime Minister
C. prime minister C. Governor
D. council of minister D. President
27. Who has the supreme power of gover-
21. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is
nance in a democratic country.
A. President A. People
B. Speaker B. The Parliament
C. Vice President C. The President
D. all of these D. none of above
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3.11 Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 253
28. Union List, concurrent list and residuary 34. Lok Sabha is also called the
list are the division of power between A. upper house
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A. the centre and state B. lower house
B. the centre and international C. both a & b
C. the state and state D. none of these
D. none of the above
35. Who is the chief commander of all armed
29. The is also known as the Lower forces of India?
House. A. President
A. parliament B. Prime Minister
B. Lok Sabha C. Ambassador
C. Rajya Sabha D. Vice President
D. State government
36. The Maximum strength of members of Ra-
30. How many members are nominated in the jya Sabha is
Rajya Sabha? A. 280
A. 13 B. 275
B. 15 C. 250
C. 12 D. 260
D. 10
37. How many members retire from the Rajya
31. What is the term for the president of in- Sabha every 2 years
dia? A. 1/2 of the total number
A. 2 years B. 1/5th of the total number
B. 5 years C. 1/3rd of the total number
C. 4 years D. 1/4th of the total number
D. 10 years
38. The gap between the budget should be of
32. There are members in the Rajya Sabha A. 3 months
A. 150 B. 4 months
B. 12 C. 6 months
C. 245 D. none of above
D. 250
39. The maximum age required for the qualifi-
33. The Lok Sabha can have a maximum of cation of president is
A. 12 members A. 25 years
B. 552 members B. 30 years
C. 238 members C. 35 years
D. 250 members D. 40 years
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3.11 Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 254
40. is the most important symbol of Indian C. of four years
democracy. D. None of the above
A. Parliament
44. Which ministers are called the inner ring of
B. Lok Sabha
Council of Ministers?
C. Rajya Sabha
A. Cabinet Minister
D. none of above
B. Ministers of State with Independent
41. The Speaker is chosen from the party Charge
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Ruling C. Ministers of State
B. Declining D. Council of Ministers
C. Reclining
45. The members of Lok Sabha are elected for
D. Signing a term of years
42. which house is also called the house of peo- A. four
ple?
B. six
A. Rajya sabha
C. three
B. Lok sabha
D. five
C. vidhan sabha
D. vidhan parishad 46. How many members are there in Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha respectively.
43. The members of the Rajya Sabha are
A. 545, 245
elected for a term
B. 245, 545
A. of six years
B. determined by the state legislative as- C. 233, 243
sembly of a state D. 243, 233
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IV
IV
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4 State Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 256
4.1 Governor . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 256
4.2 State Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 257
4.3 Chief Minister . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 274
4.4 State Legislature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 280
4.5 Tribunals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 282
4.6 Indian High Court . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 285
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4. State Government
NARAYAN CHANGDER
4.1 Governor
1. What is the name of our governor? 5. How many states and Union Territories In-
A. Brian Kemp dia have?
B. Jason Weems A. 29 states 7 UT
C. Donald Trump B. 28 States 9 UT
D. J.D. Stallings C. 28 states 8 UT
D. 29 states 3 UT
2. Minimum strength of state legislature
should not be less than 6. The legislature having two houses is
A. 60 called
B. 50 A. Unicameral
C. 40 B. Bicameral
D. 30 C. Integeral
3. The CM of the state is appointed by D. Lateral
A. President 7. State Legislature is called
B. Governor A. Vidhan Sabha
C. Speaker B. Parliament
D. Chairman C. Lok Sabha
4. The governor serves the D. Rajya Sabha
A. nation 8. The branch of the govt. which make laws
B. state is called
C. city A. Legislature
D. none of above B. Executive
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4.2 State Government 257
C. Judiciary A. 30 yrs.
D. All of these B. 25 yrs .
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9. The minimum age for legislative assembly C. 35 yrs.
is D. 18 yrs.
4.2 State Government
1. The presiding officer in Vidhan Sabha is 6. Who is the head of the state government?
A. Deputy speaker A. Governer
B. MLA B. Chief minister
C. Speaker C. Prime minister
D. Governor D. President
7. The branch of the government responsible
2. What are the two houses of bicameral Leg-
for making laws is called
islature
A. Legislature
A. Vikas Sabha and Vikas Parishad
B. Executive
B. Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
C. Judiciary
C. Vigyan Sabha and Vigyan Parishad
D. Supreme Court
D. Vidhansabha and Vigyan Parishad
8. Every State is divided into different areas
3. What were the key issues at Patalpuram known as
A. Proper Roads and Electricity A. Provinces
B. Proper Roads and Sanitation B. Constituencies
C. Clean Drinking Water and Sanitation C. Sarkar
D. Proper Houses and Electricity D. Village
4. is the Present President of India. 9. Who is the executive head of state in In-
dia?
A. Narendra Modi.
A. Cheif Minister ( c.m)
B. Surjith Singh Barnala
B. governor
C. Ram Nath Kovind
C. BJP
D. Banwarilal Purohit
D. none of above
5. Chief Minister is appointed by the of 10. Who make state laws and fulfill other gov-
the state. erning responsibilities?
A. President A. upper house
B. Prime Minister B. lower house
C. Governor C. White House
D. Speaker D. upper house and a larger lower house
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4.2 State Government 258
11. There are levels of government in In- 17. The minimum age to be a member of the
dia Legislative Council is
A. 2 A. 22 years
B. 4 B. 27 years
C. 5 C. 30 years
D. 3 D. 25 years
NARAYAN CHANGDER
12. The Executive includes- 18. The Legislative Council has an nature.
A. The Governor A. Advisory
B. The Chief Minister B. Implementative
C. The Council of Ministers C. Executive
D. All of the above D. none of above
13. The full form of MLA is- 19. The administration in the state is actu-
ally carried on by the Council of Ministers
A. Member of Legal Administration
headed by the
B. Member of Lawyer’s Association
A. Cheif minister
C. Member of Legislative Assembly
B. Governor
D. none of above
C. Cheif commissioner
14. First woman cheif minister of india D. Lieutenant governor
A. Sucheta kriplalani 20. Who is an MLA?
B. Sarojini Naidu A. He is the head of a state
C. Pratibha patil B. He is part of the people who works in
D. None of the above big companies
C. A Member of the Legislative Assembly
15. Who appoints the Governor of a state?
is a representative elected by the voters
A. State government of an electoral district to the legislature
of State government in the Indian system
B. Central Government.
of government
C. MLA
D. none of above
D. None
21. Legislative assembly is also known as the
16. Who allocates portfolios to the ministers
A. Cheif minister A. upper house
B. Cheif commissioner B. lower house
C. Governer C. neutral house
D. None of the above D. none of above
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4.2 State Government 259
22. The ruling party may not be a single party 28. Th e clearly defines the power of the
but a group of parties working together. state government
This is called a
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A. Parliament
A. Political Party
B. Vidhan Sabha
B. Coalition government
C. president
C. Minority Party
D. constitution
D. Majority government
29. MLA’s are elected by which of the follow-
23. Legislative Assemblies such as Goa and ing
Sikkim have less than members.
A. The Constituencies
A. 40
B. The Constitution
B. 50
C. Selected Representatives
C. 60
D. 70 D. The People
24. How many votes can each citizen cast 30. Who becomes the Chief Minister?
A. 4 A. Leader of winning party
B. 8 B. Leader of losing party
C. 1 C. Prime Minister of the country
D. 2 D. President of the country
25. The Governor, and the Council of Min- 31. The Government branch which implements
isters are an integral part of state legisla- or executes the laws is-
ture.
A. Legislative
A. Prime Minister
B. Executive
B. President
C. Judiciary
C. Home Minister
D. none of above
D. chief minister
32. For elections, each state is divided into
26. The Governor chooses the court
judges. A. Tehsils
A. Supreme court B. constituencies
B. High court C. Legislative Council
C. Subordinate/District court D. districts
D. none of above 33. How are the Members of the Legislative
27. Rajasthan is a legislature. Assembly elected?
A. Unicameral A. Indirect election
B. Bicameral B. Direct election
C. Both C. Nomination
D. None D. none of above
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4.2 State Government 260
34. Discretionary powers are enjoyed by the D. none of above
40. The proposal to make a law is called a
A. Cheif minister
A. Ordinances
B. Governor
B. Law proposal
C. Council of ministers
C. Request order
D. Nobody
D. Bill
35. To be an MLA, one should be of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
41. The age of the governor must not be less
A. 25 years
than
B. 18 years
A. 45
C. 30 years
B. 25
D. 40 years
C. 35
36. Who appoints the council of ministers D. 30
A. The chief minister
42. All the States have the
B. Governor
A. Legislative assembly
C. Elected
B. Legislative council
D. Speaker
C. Lok Sabha
37. Why do people in a democratic setup or- D. none of above
ganise meetings?
A. to fight for their rights 43. Every state is divided into parts called:
B. In a democracy, people organise meet- A. Panchayats
ings to voice their opinions and protest B. States
against the government.
C. Constituency
C. to bring justice to their families
D. Constitution
D. none of above
44. What are the Three branches of State
38. is that organ of the government which Government. Horizontal distribution of
enforces laws. power.
A. The Legislature A. The legislature, executive and judi-
B. The Executive ciary.
C. The Judiciary B. The legislature, High Court, Governor
D. The Cabinet C. The Judiciary, Legislative assembly,
Chief Minister
39. For an ordinary bill to become a law, it
must be passed by D. None of These
A. The Speaker 45. The Governor of a state is appointed by
B. Both Houses of the legislature the
C. The Vidhan Parishad, Vidhan Sabha A. Chief Minister
and the Governor B. President of India
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4.2 State Government 261
C. Vice president of India 52. is the nominal head of a state
D. Prime Minister A. president
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46. The head of the state is and he/ she B. chief minister
is appointed by C. Governor
A. Chief minister, Prime Minister D. none of above
B. Prime Minister, President 53. Who appoints Chief Minister and other
C. Governor, Central Government Ministers of the State
D. Chief Minister, Central Government A. Prime Minister
47. What is the meaning of “Legislature” B. Governor of the State
A. Member of the Parliament C. Supreme Court Judge
B. Member of the opposition D. People
C. A Law Making Body 54. Every state in India has a Legislative As-
D. Member of Ruling Party sembly Each state is divided into
A. Parliament
48. is the Present Prime Minister of India.
B. District
A. Ram Nath Kovind
C. Nagar
B. Om Birla
D. Constituencies
C. Narendra Modi
D. Sonia Gandhi 55. The opinions and the comments about the
working of the government are also ex-
49. India is the largest in the world. pressed through media like
A. republic A. Radio
B. anarchy B. TV
C. democracy C. Newspaper
D. monarchy D. All of these
50. The is consulted by the President in the 56. Who is the leader/head of the Legislative
appointment of judges to the High Court of Assembly
the State. A. MLA’s
A. Chief Minister B. Chief Minister
B. Governor C. Governor
C. Prime Minister D. President
D. none of above
57. are the orders issued by the governors
51. Vidhan Parishad is also called under special circumstances.
A. Legislative Assembly A. Special orders
B. Legislative council B. Imposition of presidents rule
C. Lok Sabha C. Bill
D. Rajya Sabha D. Ordinances
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4.2 State Government 262
58. The Governor of a state is appointed for 63. The meetings of the legislative council are
presided over by the and
A. 5years A. governor
B. 7years B. chairman and deputy chairman
C. 6years C. chief minister
D. speaker and deputy speaker
D. 8years
64. The Governor of a state should not be less
NARAYAN CHANGDER
59. How many MLA’s are required to form the than years of age.
government in a state?
A. 25
A. All the MLA’s B. 35
B. Less than 50% C. 18
C. More than 50% D. 20
D. Opposition 65. selects his ministers, allocates portfo-
lios and coordinates the function of various
60. The coordinates the session in the vid- departments for the state
han parishad
A. prime minister
A. Speaker
B. chief minister
B. Chairman
C. home minister
C. Chief minister D. none of above
D. none of above
66. The Governor can nominate one represen-
61. MLAs who have dual responsibilities of be- tative from the community.
ing a minister and also an MLA belong to A. Tribal
the party B. Backward
A. Opposition party C. Anglo-Indian
B. Allied parties D. none of above
C. Ruling Party 67. The process of choosing a person by vot-
D. none of the above ing
A. Selection.
62. Which of the following is not a qualifica- B. Election.
tion to be a member of the Legislative As-
sembly? C. Law Making.
D. Billing.
A. He should be a citizen of India
B. He should not hold any office of profit, 68. Who is the chief presiding officer of the
under the Central or the State Govern- legislative Council?
ment A. Chairman
C. He must be a registered voter in any of B. Speaker
the constituencies C. Governor
D. He should be well educated D. None of the above
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4.2 State Government 263
69. The first women Governor of Uttar 75. Which document describes how the United
Pradesh is Statesgovernment is organized?
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A. Sarojini Naidu A. The Executive
B. Sucheta kripalani B. The Legislative
C. Sharda mukherjee C. The Constitution
D. Padmaja naidu D. none of above
70. The Legislative Assembly was a pio-
76. Who runs the government at the central?
neer in initiating the use of technology for
its work. A. President
A. Madhya Pradesh B. Prime Minister
B. Uttar Pradesh C. Chief Minister
C. Andhra Pradesh D. Home Minister
D. Arunachal Pradesh
77. is the upper house of the State Legis-
71. The union Territories are directly adminis- lature.
tered by the A. Rajya Sabha
A. Union Government B. Vidhan Sabha
B. Governor
C. Lok Sabha
C. State Government
D. Vidhan Parishad
D. Chief Minister
78. Ministers incharge of various departments
72. The number of states in India are of the government are chosen from the
A. 26 party
B. 27 A. Ruling
C. 28 B. opposition
D. 29 C. coalition
73. Which one of the following is not a Union D. independent
Territory?
79. What are the states having Bicameral?
A. Chandigarh
A. Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka,
B. Puducherry
Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar
C. Delhi Pradesh
D. Goa B. Tamil Nadu, Gujrat, Jammu and Kash-
mir
74. The chief Minister of Chhattisgarh is
A. Raman Singh C. West Bengal, Kerela, Odisha, Manipur,
Punjab,
B. Ajit Prem Kumar Jogi
D. Karnataka, Andra Pradesh, Uttar
C. Narendra Modi Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Maharash-
D. Bhupesh Baghel tra, Kerela
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4.2 State Government 264
80. Vidhan perished is a permanent house be- 86. In a democracy, a government is formed
cause by
A. Its members are elected for six years A. public
B. It’s two third members retire after ev- B. collectors
ery two years
C. ministers
C. It is an upper house
D. people’s representatives
D. It cannot be dissolved
NARAYAN CHANGDER
87. Legislative Council is also known as-
81. The is a form of a money bill.
A. Bill A. Vidhan Sabha
B. State Budget B. Vidhan Parishad
C. State list C. Lok Sabha
D. none of above D. Rajya Sabha
82. Name the place where all MLAs sit to- 88. When signs the bill, It becomes a law.
gether to discuss various things or issues.
A. MLA
A. Ministry
B. MLC
B. Parliment
C. Governor
C. legislature
D. Chief Minister
D. none of above
83. A gathering of journalists from the media 89. is the miniature of Central Govern-
who are invited to hear about and ask ment.
questions on a particular issue A. Union Government
A. Chief Ministers B. State Government
B. Secret Ministers C. Local Government
C. Press Conference D. none of above
D. Public Conference
90. Who is the real head of the state?
84. The Chief Minister is appointed by the
A. Governor
A. President
B. chief minister
B. Prime Minister
C. president
C. Finance Minister
D. none of above
D. Governor
85. Who is responsible for medical services? 91. Wallpaper project involves
A. Transport Minister A. Stories
B. Police Inspector B. Poems
C. Education Minister C. Case Studies
D. Health Minister D. All of these
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4.2 State Government 265
92. What is the abbreviation of MLA A. Governor
A. Member of Law Authority B. President
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B. Member of Law Abiding Autonomy C. Council of Ministers
C. Member of Legislative Assembly D. none of above
D. None of These
98. What is the full form of MLA?
93. The group of citizens who assist the judge
A. members of lejeslative Assembly
are called
A. people B. Member of legislative assembly
B. jury C. Members of Legislative Assembly
C. congress D. none of above
D. taxpayers 99. What is the legislative assembly known
94. Constitution says the number of members as?
in a state legislative assembly cannot ex- A. Vidhan Sabha
ceed more than
B. Vidhan Parishad
A. 100
C. Parliament
B. 600
D. none of above
C. 500
D. 800 100. Vidyasiri is a welfare programme aimed
at the
95. The members of Vidhan Parishad are
called A. minorities
A. MLA B. rich
B. MLC C. privileged
C. MP D. none of these
D. PM 101. What is the tenure of an MLA?
96. Who all are called oppositions? A. 5 years
A. what? that doesn’t even exist ! B. 10 years
B. all the members of other political party C. 1 year
who does not belong to ruling party are
called opposition D. 15 years
C. all the members of other political party 102. What are the smaller areas into which
who does not belong to the other party are states are divided during elections called?
called opposition
A. homes
D. none of above
B. constituencies
97. The is the team of ministers who as-
C. blocks
sist Chief Minister in discharging the gov-
ernment’s duties . D. none of above
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4.2 State Government 266
103. who comes up with the law in the state? 109. How many levels of government are
A. Governer there in India?
B. Chief minister A. four
C. MLAs B. two
D. Executives C. three
104. Officers of the Legislative assembly are- D. no levels
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Chairman and Deputy Chairman 110. What branch of state government is in
B. Speaker and Deputy Speaker charge of creating laws?
C. All of the above A. legislative
D. none of above B. executive
105. All elected MLAs meet to discuss their C. judicial
policies and decisions on various issues in D. no one is in charge of this
the
A. Parliament 111. The legislative Council is also known as
B. Legislative Assembly A. Vidhaan Parishad
C. The Chief Minister’s house B. Vidhaan Sabha
D. none of above C. Rajya Sabha
106. The act of making laws on certain issues D. None of the above
is done in the of each state.
112. What is the role of Judiciary?
A. Police
A. It executes the law.
B. Legislative assembly
B. It makes the law.
C. United Nations
C. It checks that the law is being followed.
D. None of the Above
107. In the 9th Century, the Gujar-Pratiharas, D. None of these.
Palas and Rashtrakutas fought for the
kingdom of 113. How does Diarrhoea spread?
A. Magadh A. Contaminated Soil
B. Kanauj B. Contaminated Water
C. Delhi C. Contaminated Air
D. none of above
D. Contaminated Sunlight
108. Head of the ruling party of a state is also
known as the 114. what is minimum age to vote?
A. Prime Minister A. 15
B. Home minister B. 16
C. Governor C. 18
D. Chief Minister D. 17
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4.2 State Government 267
115. rank ministers, along with the Chief 121. The Legislative Council is a House
Minister, make major policies. A. Temporary
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A. Cabinet B. Lower
B. Council C. permanent
C. Main D. none of above
D. None of the above 122. Which branch of the Government refers
116. The executive head of a state is the to the courts and legal system?
A. Cheif minister A. Legislature
B. Executive
B. Ministers
C. Supreme Court
C. Governor
D. Judiciary
D. Executive minister
123. MLAs are elected by
117. A state can make laws on
A. the people
A. Subject of state list only
B. Members of Parliament
B. Subject of concurrent list only
C. Selected Representatives
C. Subject on state list and concurrent list
D. All of these
D. None of the above 124. A proposal to pass a new law or change
an existing one is called
118. What is the other name for the Legisla- A. Act
tive Assembly?
B. Bill
A. Rajya Sabha
C. None of the above
B. Vidhan Sabha
D. Both
C. Parliament
125. Some immovable bills need prior permis-
D. High Court sion from the to be presented before
119. Large Numbers of people from different the Assembly.
newspapers were present in the A. Governor
A. Parliament B. High court judge
B. High Court C. President
C. Press Conference D. Chief minister
D. Public Meeting 126. Who Appoints The Chief Minister Of A
State?
120. The governor is appointed by
A. The MLAs
A. President
B. The governor
B. Prime Minister
C. The president of india
C. Elected D. the Chief Justice of the concerned high
D. Chief minister court
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4.2 State Government 268
127. Who becomes a chief minister? C. Townships
A. Leader of winning party D. Wards
B. Leader of losing party 133. Which group of people were allowed to
C. Prime Minister of the country become rulers and kings in Medieval In-
D. Governor of the country dia?
A. Kayasthas
128. A political party whose MLAs have won
B. Brahmans
NARAYAN CHANGDER
more than half the number of constituen-
cies in a state can be said to be in a C. Kshatriyas
A. Majority D. Traders/merchants
B. Minority
134. What are the people representatives in
C. Opposition the state legislature called?
D. All of These A. speaker
129. The executive power of the state is for- B. Legislators
mally vested in the C. Collectors
A. Chief Minister D. MLAs
B. President
135. The party having won more than half of
C. Governor the MLAs is said to be in
D. none of above A. Ruling
130. The term of each member of the Legisla- B. Majority
tive Council is C. Opposition
A. Six years D. Major opposition
B. Five years
136. Every state in India has a
C. Two years
A. Legislative Council
D. Four years
B. Legislative Assembly
131. Which of these refers to government de- C. Lok sabha
partments and various ministers who head
them to implement the laws. D. Parliament
A. Legislature 137. The government of India functions at
B. Judiciary three levels-
C. Executive A. The central, the state and the local lev-
els.
D. Supreme court
B. The Union, the block and the city levels.
132. During state elections, each state is di-
vided into C. The district, the village and the na-
A. Districts tional levels.
B. Electoral constituencies D. none of above
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4.2 State Government 269
138. The procedure of making and passing 144. A is a place where all the MLAs, from
laws is called the ruling party as well as the opposition,
meet to discuss various things.
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. constitution
B. bicameral A. Parliament
C. legislation B. Legislative Council
C. Legislative Assembly
D. none of above
D. None
139. Who appoints the minister of a state?
145. Which one of the following states has
A. Governor
two houses?
B. Chief minister
A. Madhya Pradesh
C. All the elected MLAs
B. Odisha
D. Chief Justice of the high court C. Himachal Pradesh
140. Who becomes the chief minister of the D. Maharashtra
state?
146. Who is the head of the state
A. Leader of the majority party
A. Governer
B. Leader of the minority party
B. Chief minister
C. Appointed by president
C. Prime minister
D. Leader of the national party
D. President
141. The State legislative assembly is also
147. who is elected by the central govern-
called the and its term is for
ment?
years.
A. Chief minister
A. Vidhan sabha or lower house, 5
B. Governer
B. Vidhan parishad or upper house, 6
C. MLA
C. Vidhan parishad or under house, 5
D. Executive
D. Vidhan sabha of lower house, 3
148. To make decisions for resource allocation,
142. Government works at levels. the NITI Aayog must consult with
A. 2 A. the state government
B. 4 B. the president
C. 3 C. officials
D. 5 D. the Chief Minister
143. The maximum strength of a state Legisla- 149. Which of the following state do not have
tive Assembly can be bicameral legislature
A. 300 A. Andhra Pradesh
B. 400 B. Tamil Nadu
C. 500 C. Bihar
D. 600 D. Karnataka
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4.2 State Government 270
150. The has a term of five years . 156. Governor is appointed for a period of
years which can be extended or reduced
A. Vidhan Parishad
by the president
B. Legislative Council
A. 5
C. Vidhan Sabha B. 6
D. none of above C. 4
151. The Chief Minister of UP is D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Manish Sisodia 157. A person who gets elected from a con-
stituency during State Elections is called
B. Yogi Adityanath
C. Narendra Modi A. Member of Parliament (MP)
D. Amit shah B. Chief Minister
C. Member of Legislative Assembly
152. Who is the head of a state?
D. Collector
A. Governor
B. Chairman 158. The Governor of a state in India is ap-
pointed by
C. Speaker
A. President
D. Prime minister
B. Prime Minister
153. Legislative assembly is also known as C. Council of Ministers
A. Vidhaan Sabha D. Attorney General
B. Vidhaan Parishad 159. A particular area from which all the vot-
ers living there choose their representa-
C. Rajya sabha
tives.
D. None of the above A. Constituency
154. Which of the following are responsible B. Political Party
for medical services? C. Government
A. Transport Minister D. Political area
B. Health Minister 160. Who is the head of a Legislative Assem-
C. Education MInister bly?
D. None of These A. Minister
B. MLA
155. MLAs are elected by the
C. Chief Minister
A. Only rich people D. All of these
B. People of India
161. What does coalition government mean?
C. Only women population
A. when two parties colide / merge to-
D. All of these hether during elections .
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4.2 State Government 271
B. At times, the ruling party may not be a 167. How many branches does the state gov-
single party but a group of parties working ernment have?
together. This is called a coalition.
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A. one
C. when one party wins and the other
B. two
loses .
C. three
D. none of above
D. four
162. How many states in india
A. 28 168. Money bill can be introduced only in
B. 22 A. Vidhan Parishad
C. 26 B. Vidhan Sabha
D. 27 C. Both
163. Who appoints the Chief Minister and D. none of above
other Minister.
169. The number of subjects in the state list is
A. Prime Minister
B. MLA A. 97
C. Governor B. 47
D. none of above C. 20
164. What is constituency? D. 66
A. Every state in India has a Legislatives
170. What are the three levels of government
and each state is divided into different ar-
in India
eas or constituencies.
B. Every state in India has a Legislative A. Central, Urban & State
Assembly and each state is divided into B. Central, Rural & State
different areas or constituencies. C. Central, Local & State
C. different areas divided in a state .
D. Central, Urban & Local
D. none of above
171. What were organized by the assembly to
165. Who is the chief presiding officer of the discuss about Government Work?
legislative Assembly?
A. Live Session
A. Speaker
B. Press Conference
B. Chairman
C. Janta Polls
C. Governor
D. None of These
D. None of the above
166. What is the term of Vidhan Parishad? 172. An MLA can be disqualified if s/he is-
A. 5 years A. Not a citizen of India
B. 6 years B. Chargesheeted
C. It can not be dissolved C. Having an office of profit
D. 4 years D. All of the above
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4.2 State Government 272
173. Which of the following is true about the C. Ruling Party
Legislative Council? D. Opposition Party
A. It is a permanent body
179. India has
B. Every member has a tenure of six
A. 28 states and 9 union territories
years
B. 9 states and 28 union territories
C. all of the above
C. No states
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 27 states and 7union territories
174. The laws are published in a book called
the 180. The functions of State legislature is
A. Law and order
A. state government book
B. Public health
B. the law book
C. Land revenue
C. Gazette
D. All the above
D. none of above
181. A is a place where all the MLAs,
175. Which of the following is not a level of whether from the ruling party or from the
government? opposition meet to discuss various things.
A. National A. Supreme Court
B. State B. High court
C. Local C. Legislative Assembly
D. Social D. President House
176. Who appoints Chief Minister and other 182. The party with most votes is called the-
ministers A. Ruling party
A. Prime Minister B. Majority
B. The Friend of the Chief Minister C. Opposition
C. Governor D. Coconut party
D. Member of Rajya Sabha
183. An MLA is elected by the
177. When people come out on the streets to A. doctors
support or protest a decision made by the B. public
government it is called a
C. collectors
A. press conference
D. Chief Medical Officer
B. public meeting
184. The has the power to summon and
C. elections
prorogue (postpone) the sessions of the
D. wallpaper project State Legislature.
178. The political party that has the majority A. Cheif commissioner
is called the B. Lieutenant governor
A. Main party C. CM
B. Major party D. Governor
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4.2 State Government 273
185. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are C. 10 years
the presiding officers in the D. 3 years
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A. Vidhan sabha
191. The state executive consists of and
B. Vidhan parishad
the headed by the
C. State legislative council
A. Governer, council of minister, presi-
D. None of the above dent
186. To be the member of Legislative Council, B. Cheif minister, council of ministers,
the person should be at least of governors
A. 25 years of age C. Governer, council of ministers, cheif
B. 30 years of age minister
C. 35 years of age D. CM, governor, council of ministers
D. none of above 192. What are the organs/branches of gov-
ernment?
187. Former President, Pratibha Patil was the
Governor of from 2004-2007. A. Judicial, Executive, Federal
A. Jaisalmer B. Legislative, Executive, Judicial, Tribal
B. Rajastan C. Legislative, Executive, Judicial
C. Uttar Pradesh D. Tribal, Judicial, Executive
D. Kerala 193. The full form of NITI Aayog is
188. Two houses of state legislature in India A. National Institute for Travel in India
are B. National Innovation for Technology
A. Legislature Lok and Legislative Rajya inIndia
B. Legislature Lok and Legislative assem- C. National Institute for Transforming In-
bly dia
C. Legislature council and Legislative Ra- D. none of these
jya
194. A situation when more than half the num-
D. Legislature council and Legislative as-
ber in a group supports a decision or an
sembly
idea
189. What is the name given to the elected A. Minority
representatives who are not members of
the ruling party? B. Majority
A. Minority C. Coalition
B. Losers D. None of the above
C. Opposition 195. Why are press conferences organised?
D. Governor A. to bring laws
190. Legislative members are elected for- B. to discuss current issues
A. 6 years C. to do debate
B. 5 years D. to bring laws
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4.3 Chief Minister 274
4.3 Chief Minister
1. DISPUR IS THE CAPITAL OF WHICH IN- 7. CHIEF MINISTER HOLDS OFFICE FOR A PE-
DIAN STATE RIOD OF?
A. TRIPURA A. 4 YEARS
B. MIZORAM B. 6 YEARS
C. SIKKIM C. 5 YEARS
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. ASSAM D. 3 YEARS
2. E Pallaniswami is chief minister of which 8. WHO IS THE CM OF TAMIL NADU
state? A. PINARAYI VIJAYAN
A. Odisha B. EDAPPADI K PALANISAMY
B. Andhra Pradesh C. YS JAGGAN MOHAN REDDY
C. Telangana D. BS YEDIYURRAPPA
D. Tamilnadu
9. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE THIRD-
3. Chief minister of madhya pradesh LARGEST STATE OF INDIA?
A. Biren singh A. MAHARASHTRA
B. Uddhav Thackeray B. MADHYA PRADESH
C. Kamal Nath C. UTTAR PRADESH
D. Vijayan D. KARNATAKA
4. Chief minister of Haryana 10. WHAT IS THE PACKAGE OF ALLOWANCES
A. Amar singh OF CHIEF MINISTER?
B. Naveen patnaik A. 250000
C. Sangma B. 180000
D. Monohar lal khattar C. 230000
D. 150000
5. Chief minister of mizoram
A. Naveen patnaik 11. Chief minister of Karnataka
B. Pu zoramthanga A. Vijayan
C. Amar B. B.S . Yediyurappa
D. Kamala raj C. Kamala
D. Uddhav
6. CHANDIGARH IS THE CAPITAL OF WHICH
TWO STATE 12. Who is chief minister of Telangana?
A. PANJAB AND RAJASTHAN A. Jaganmohan Raddy
B. PANJAB AND HARYANA B. K Chandrasekhar Rao
C. RAJASTHAN AND HARYANA C. Chandra babu Naidu
D. DELHI AND HARYANA D. Kiran Kumar Reddy
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4.3 Chief Minister 275
13. WHO IS THE CHIEF MINISTER OF UTTAR 19. The Advocate General of the State is re-
PRADESH sponsible to whom?
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A. AMIT SHAH A. Governor
B. DHARMENDRA PRADHAN B. Chief Minister
C. YOGI ADITYA NATH C. Speaker of the Assembly
D. MULAYAM SINGH D. None of these
20. Who is chief minister of Himachal
14. The State Council is responsible to whom?
Pradesh?
A. To the Governor A. Jairam Thakur
B. To the Legislative Assembly B. Virbhadra Singh
C. To the Legislative Council C. Prem Kumar Dhumal
D. To the State Legislature D. Trivender Singh Rawat
15. Chief minister of Arunachal pradesh 21. Who is chief minister of Sikkim?
A. Sonowal A. Pawan Kumar Chamling
B. Bhupesh bhagel B. Prem Singh Tamang
C. Pema khandu C. Sarbanada Sonowal
D. Kcr D. Neiphiu Rio
22. MUMBAI IS THE CAPITAL OF ?
16. Who is the chief minister of Kerala
A. JHARKHAND
A. Pinarayi Vijayan
B. PANJAB
B. V Shivan kutti
C. MAHARASHTRA
C. Kodiyeri Bala Krishnan
D. RAJASTHAN
D. Umman chandi
23. Chief minister of Assam
17. Chief minister of Telangana A. Nitish kumar
A. K.chandra shekar rao B. Sarbananda sonowal
B. Naveen patnaik C. Hemant soren
C. Mamata banerjee D. Jairam thakur
D. Jagan mohan reddy 24. RECENTLY WHICH STATES DEVIDED IN TO
TWO UNION TERRITORIES LEADING TO
18. Chief minister of uttar pradesh 09 UNION TERRITORIES IN TOTAL
A. Palaniswami A. ANDHRA PRADESH
B. Amarinder singh B. ASSAM
C. Yogi aditya nath C. JAMMU KASHMIR
D. Narayanasamy D. RAJASTHAN
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4.3 Chief Minister 276
25. WHO IS THE ONLY PRESENT FEMALE B. Article 154 states that the Governor
CHIEF MINISTER OF ANY STATE will appoint the Chief Minister.
A. MAMATA BANERJEE C. The Governor is free to appoint any
person as Chief Minister.
B. SONIA GANDHI
D. There is no such system in the Consti-
C. PRIYANKA GANDHI
tution that the Chief Minister should prove
D. APARAJITA SADANGI a majority before his appointment
NARAYAN CHANGDER
26. Who is chief minister of Uttarakhand? 31. Mamta Banerjee is chief minister of which
A. Harish Rawat state?
B. Trivender Singh Rawat A. Chatisgarh
C. Ramesh Pokhriyal B. West Bengal
C. Bihar
D. Jai Ram Thakur
D. Assam
27. Which of the following post is hold by the
Chief Minister? 32. Who provides oath to other ministers of
the state other than the Chief Minister?
A. Chairman of the State Planning Board
A. Chief Minister
B. Member of National Development
Council B. Speaker of the assembly
C. Chief Spokesperson of the State Gov- C. Chief Justice of the High Court
ernment D. Governor
D. All of the above 33. WHO IS THE CHIEF MINISTER OF MADHYA
PRADESH
28. Who is the president of India?
A. ASHOK GEHLOT
A. Ram Nath Govind
B. BHUPESH BAGHEL
B. Virbhadra Singh
C. SHIVRAJ SINGH CHOUHAN
C. Prem Kumar Dhumal
D. B. S. YEDIYURAPPA
D. Trivender Singh Rawat
34. Who is chief minister of Nagaland?
29. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH THE OFFICE
OF CHIEF MINISTER? A. Neiphiu Rio
A. 85 B. Congrad Sangma
C. T R Zeliang
B. 32
D. S C Jamir
C. 163
D. 122 35. WHO IS THE CURRENT C.M OF MAHA-
RASHTRA?
30. Which of the following statement is false A. DEVENDRA FADNAVIS
about the Chief Minister?
B. UDDAV THACKRAY
A. There is no special provision for the ap-
pointment and election of the Chief Minis- C. SHARAD PAWAR
ter in the constitution. D. P.K SAWANT
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4.3 Chief Minister 277
36. Chief minister of Manipur C. Chief Minister can ask the governor to
A. Neiphiu rio disassociate the Legislative assembly.
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B. Naveen patnaik D. Chief Minister appoints judges of the
state’s high court.
C. N.Biren singh
D. Amarinder singh 42. PANAJI IS THE CAPITAL CITY OF WHICH
STATE
37. chief minister of delhi A. KARNATAKA
A. shivraj singh chauhan B. GOA
B. Arvind kejriwal C. KERELA
C. yogi aadityanath D. SIKKIM
D. Uddhav thakre
43. WHICH IS THE CAPITAL OF JHARKHAND
38. TIRUVANANTAPURAM IS THE CAPITAL STATE
CITY OF WHICH SOUTH INDIAN STATE OF A. JAMSHEDPUR
INDIA
B. DHANBAD
A. ANDHRA PRADESH
C. RANCHI
B. KERELA
D. BOKARO
C. KARNATAKA
D. TELENGANA 44. Who is chief minister of Kerala?
A. Vijay Rupani
39. CHIEF MINISTER ACTS AS THE LEADER
WHILE DEALING IN MATTER WITH? B. Hemant Soren
A. PRIME MINISTER C. Pinarayi Vijayen
B. PRESIDENT D. E Pallanswami
C. UNION GOVERNMENT AND STATES 45. Chief minister of Andhrapradesh
D. GOVERNOR A. Ys jagan mohan reddy
40. CHIEF MINISTER IS APPOINTED BY B. Sonowal
WHOM? C. Nitish kumar
A. PRIME MINISTER D. Bhupesh
B. PRESIDENT 46. Chief minister of Gujarat
C. VICE PRESIDENT A. Vijay ramniklal rupani
D. GOVERNOR B. Jai ram thakur
41. Which of the following power is not en- C. Hemant soren
joyed by the Chief Minister? D. Chandra shekar rao
A. The Governor appoints ministers only
to those people who are recommended by 47. THE CHIEF MINISTER IS APPOINTED BY
the Chief Minister. GOVERNOR AS PER WHICH ARTICLE
B. Chief Minister shifts all the ministers’ A. 88
departments. B. 189
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4.3 Chief Minister 278
C. 164 54. WHAT IS THE CAPITAL OF MEGHALAYA?
D. 199 A. SHIMLA
48. Chief minister of goa B. UTTAR PRADESH
A. Uddhav thackeray C. KOHIMA
B. Biren singh D. SHILLONG
C. Pramod sawant
55. Who is chief minister of Rajasthan?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Kamal nath
A. Sachin Pilot
49. Chief minister of meghalaya B. Ashok Gehlot
A. Konrad Kongal Sangama
C. Vasundhra Raje
B. Naveen patnaik
D. Vijay Rupani
C. Jagan mohan reddy
D. Chandra year 56. AMARABATI IS CAPITAL OF WHICH STATE
A. ANDHRAPRADESH
50. Who is chief minister of Goa?
B. KARNATAKA
A. Pramod Sawant
B. Manohar Parrikar C. TELENGANA
C. Laxmikant Parsekar D. CHENNAI
D. Udhav Thakerey 57. Chief minister of maharashtra
51. CHIEF MINISTER IS THE CHIEF ADVISOR A. Biden singh
OF?
B. Sangma
A. COUNCIL OF MINISTER
C. Kcr
B. LEGISLATURE
D. Uddhav thackeray
C. GOVERNOR
D. COLLECTORS 58. CHIEF MINISTER AND OTHER MINISTERS
RENDER ADVICE TO WHOM IN EXERCISE
52. Chief minister of tripura OF HIS FUNCTIONS
A. Yogi aditya nath A. PRESIDENT
B. Gehlot B. SPEAKER OF LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY
C. K Chandra Chandra shekar rao C. GOVERNOR
D. Biplab Kumar deb
D. DEPUTY CHIEF MINISTER
53. THE STATE GOVERNMENT IS TO BE CAR-
RIED ON ACCORDING TO? 59. Chief minister of Rajasthan
A. PRIME MINISTER ‘S RULE A. Ashoka gehlot
B. WILL OF THE PEOPLE B. Rawat
C. COUNCIL OF MINISTERS C. Narayanasamy
D. CONSTITUTION D. Biplab
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4.3 Chief Minister 279
60. Chief minister of chattisgarh 66. Chief minister of Himachal pradesh
A. Bhupesh baghel A. Jai ram thakur
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B. Vijay rupani B. Kamal nath
C. Hemant soren C. Vijay rupani
D. Jai ram D. Sibu soren
61. WHO IS LEADER OF THE PARTY IN 67. Who determines the salary and al-
POWER? lowances of the Chief Minister?
A. DEPUTY CHIEF MINISTER A. Governor
B. GOVERNOR B. State Legislature
C. CHIEF MINISTER C. President
D. PRESIDENT D. Parliament
62. Who is chief minister of Karnataka? 68. Who is chief minister of Madhya
Pradesh?
A. B S Yediyurappa
A. Kamalnath
B. D V Sadananda Gowda
B. Jyotiraditya Sindhia
C. Siddaramaiah
C. Shivraj Singh Chauhan
D. H D Kumarswamy
D. Sachin Pilot
63. THE CHIEF MINISTER EXERCISES POWERS
69. CHIEF MINISTER GIVES ADVICE TO
DURING THE PLEASURE OF?
WHOM FOR APPOINTMENT AND RE-
A. PRIME MINISTER MOVAL OF COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
B. GOVERNOR A. PRESIDENT
C. PRESIDENT B. GOVERNOR
D. VICE PRESIDENT C. VICE PRESIDENT
64. WHAT IS THE CAPITAL OF ARUNACHAL D. STATE LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY
PRADESH? 70. Chief minister of Nagaland
A. PANAJI A. Neiphiu rio
B. CHENNAI B. Yediyurappa
C. RAIPUR C. Biren
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE D. Jaya lalita
65. M. K. Stalin is chief minister of which 71. What is the minimum age to be appointed
state? as the Chief Minister of a state?
A. Odisha A. 25 years
B. Andhra Pradesh B. 27 years
C. Telangana C. 30 years
D. Tamilnadu D. 35 years
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4.4 State Legislature 280
72. CLICK THE CORRECT STAES AND UNION C. Pawan Kalyan
TERRITORIES OF INDIA D. none of above
A. 27/7
77. CHIEF MINISTER ADVISES WHOM TO AP-
B. 28/8 POINT VARIOUS COMMISSIONS AT THE
C. 28/9 STATE LEVEL?
D. 29/9 A. COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
B. GOVERNOR
NARAYAN CHANGDER
73. SELECT THE RIGHT OPTION FOR CAPITAL
CITY OF MADHYA PRADESH C. MAJORITY IN STATE LEGISLATIVE AS-
SEMBLY
A. BHOPAL
D. MEMBERS OF STATE LEGISLATURE
B. INDORE
C. JABALPUR 78. NAME THE CAPITAL OF HIMACHAL
PRADESH
D. GWALIOR
A. ITANAGAR
74. Chief minister of sikkim B. SHIMLA
A. Biplab C. DEHRADUN
B. Soren D. GUWAHATI
C. Rawat
79. Chief minister of kerala
D. Prem singh tamang
A. Biden singh
75. Who is chief minister of Assam? B. Pinarayi vijayan
A. Mamta Banerjee C. Kamal nath
B. Sarbanada Sonowal D. Amarinder singh
C. Naveen Pattnaik
80. NAME THE ONLY UNION TERRITORIES
D. Raman Singh WHO HAVE THEIR CHIEF MINISTER
76. Who is the Current Chief Minister of A. DAMAN AND DIU
Andhra Pradesh B. DELHI AND CHANDIGARH
A. Chandra Babu Naidu C. PONDICHERRY AND LADAKH
B. Jagan Mohan Reddy D. DELHI AND PONDICHERRY
4.4 State Legislature
1. One third members of the Rajya Sabha re- 2. what is the minimum age for a candi-
tire every years date who wants to be a member of rajya
A. 5 years sabha?
B. 3 years A. 20 years
C. 2 years B. 30 years
D. none of above C. Above 45 years
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4.4 State Legislature 281
D. none of above 9. how many members of the rajya sabha
does the president nominate?
3. The Lok Sabha is not called as
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A. 15
A. House of the people
B. 17
B. Lower people
C. 12
C. Upper house
D. none of above
D. none of above
10. Subjects on which laws can be made only
4. represents the states at the central
by the State Legislative Assemblies are
level
called
A. Lok Sabha
A. The union list
B. Rajya Sabha
B. The state list
C. President
C. The concurrent list
D. none of above
D. none of above
5. was the 1st woman speaker of Lok
Saba 11. When both Parliament and State Legisla-
tive Assembly make laws on a particular
A. Sanya Mirza subject which contradict each other,
B. Meira Kumar A. The law made by the State Legislative
C. Aisha Kumar Assembly takes precedence over the law
D. none of above made by the Parliament.
B. The public elects which law is better
6. Laws that apply to the whole country are for them through secret ballots.
based on
C. The law made by the Parliament takes
A. The union list precedence over the law made by the
B. The state list State Legislative Assembly.
C. The concurrent list D. none of above
D. none of above
12. What is the strength of Jharkhand Vidhan
7. Members of the Lok Saba are elected for Sabha?
a period of years A. 92
A. 4 years B. 243
B. 6 years C. 60
C. 5 years D. 81
D. 10 years
13. is the ex officio chairman of the Rajya
8. The union legislature is also known as Sabha
A. Parliament A. President
B. Executive B. Prime minister
C. Judiciary C. Vice president
D. none of above D. none of above
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4.5 Tribunals 282
4.5 Tribunals
1. Which among the following authorities de- of persons appointed in the public ser-
cides, how far the fundamental rights can vices in connection with the officers of the
apply to the members of the armed forces Union or of any State or of any local or
in India? other Authority within the territory of In-
A. President of India dia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Parliament of India D. None of the above
C. Arms Forces themselves 6. According to the constitution of India, the
D. Arms Forces Tribunal term ’District Judge’ shall not include
A. Tribunal Judge
2. Which is the highest and final judicial tri-
bunal in respect of the Constitution of In- B. Chief Justice of a small Cause Court
dia C. Chief Presidency Megistrate
A. President D. Sessions Judge
B. Union Cabinet
7. Of the following statements, which one is
C. Supreme Court not correct? [BPSC 2011]
D. Parliament A. Supreme Court was constituted in
1950
3. Under which part of the Constitution, Tri-
bunals have been defined B. Supreme Court is the highest court of
appeal in the country
A. Part Four
C. Supreme Court can hear from any
B. Part Seven
High Court/Tribunals except from Court-
C. Part Fifteen martial
D. Part Ten D. Supreme Court can hear from any High
Court/ Tribunals as well as from Court-
4. Which Constitutional article defines the
martial
work of Administrative Tribunal
A. Article 323A 8. Which is the highest and final judicial tri-
bunal in respect of the Constitution of In-
B. Article 233B
dia? [SBI PO 1991]
C. Article 223B
A. Parliament
D. None of the above
B. President
5. What are the subjects for adjudication or C. Supreme Court
trial by Administrative Tribunal
D. Union Cabinet
A. Private sector employee recruitment
disputes 9. Which of the following is not a power of
B. Decide on recruitment in Public sector the High Court?
A. Supervision over all courts under its ju-
C. Dispute and complaints with respect risdiction
to recruitment and condition of service B. Jurisdiction over revenue matters
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4.5 Tribunals 283
C. Supervision over tribunals constituted 14. Which Constitutional Amendment intro-
by law relating to the armed forces duced the subject Tribunal in the Indian
Constitution
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
D. Issue writs for enforcement of funda-
mental rights or for any other purpose A. Forty-second Amendement Act
B. Sixty-ninth Amendment Act
10. The High Court enjoys the power:
C. Seventeenth Amendment Act
I) to issue writs for the enforcement
of Fundamental Rights. D. Seventy-one Amendment Act
II) to exercise superintendence over
15. Who has the power to decide an election
the working of courts and tribunals
petition?
under its jurisdiction.
III) to make general rules and prescribe I) District Court
forms regulating the practices and II) Supreme Court
proceeding of courts under its juris- III) High Courts
diction. IV) Tribunals
A. I and II A. I, II and III
B. II and III B. IV only
C. I and III C. II and IV
D. I, II and III D. II and III
11. Article 323-A deals with 16. Income Tax Appellate Tribunal Celebrated
its 75th Year of glorious existence in
A. Parliamentary committees
A. 2018
B. Administrative Tribunals
B. 2016
C. Taxation tribunals
C. 2016
D. Group tribunals
D. 2017
12. National Green Tribunal was established 17. The dispute regarding the election of Prime
under the National Green Tribunal Act Minister and President of India can be de-
2010 as a statutory body in cided by
A. 2013 A. High Court
B. 2014 B. Election Tribunal
C. 2010 C. Chief Election Commissioner
D. 2000 D. None of the above
13. An aggrieved public servant of the Union 18. Jurisdiction of the Administrative Tribunal
can challenge the decisions of the Adminis- is not supplementary but is a complete sub-
trative Tribunal: stitute for whom
A. before the Supreme Court A. High Court
B. before the High Court B. Civil Courts
C. both A and B. C. A & B
D. before no court of law D. None of the above
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4.5 Tribunals 284
19. Any violation of Fundamental Rights can A. 24th Amendment
be presented to B. 59th Amendment
A. Supreme Court only C. 42nd Amendment
B. High Courts only D. 44th Amendment
C. Both Supreme Court and High Courts
25. On which Administrative Tribunal have no
D. Tribunal appointed by Government right to adjudicate disputes
20. Under which Constitutional Article, the A. Members of the Defence Forces
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Election Commission is a Tribunal B. Officers and Servants of the Supreme
A. Article 136 Court or of any High Court
B. Article 136(3) C. Members of the Secretariat Staff of
C. Article 136 (2) Parliament or of any legislature of any
State or Union Territory
D. Article 136(1)
D. All of the above
21. Under which constitutional article, jurisdic-
tion of the Supreme Court has been re- 26. Central Administrative Tribunal
tained over the Administrative Tribunals A. 13 regular benches
A. Article 356 B. 15 regular benches
B. Article 136 C. 17 regular benches
C. Article 132 D. 23 regular benches
D. Article 134
27. Administrative Tribunals entertain those
22. Administrative Tribunal is meant for employees who are under employment
whom with whom?
A. Union A. Union or State Government
B. Each State B. A Local or other authority within the
C. Two or more States territory of India
D. All the above C. A Corporation owned or controlled by
the Government
23. Which of the following is / are incorrect- D. All of the above
A. when a judge has been transferred,
he shall be entitled to compensatory al- 28. Which of the following conveys the mean-
lowance in addition to his salary. ing of ‘Judicial review’ in best possible
way?
B. A permanent judge of high court af-
ter retirement, can practice in judicial tri- A. It is the constitutional right of higher
bunals. judiciary to compulsorily review the deci-
sions passed by lower judiciary.
C. the salaries and allowances of the
judges canot be changed except during fi- B. Judicial Review is scrutiny of work of
nancial emergency. tribunals to check the constitutionality.
D. All of the above C. Judicial Review means the power of
the Supreme Court (or High Courts) to ex-
24. Which constitutional amendment provided amine the constitutionality of any law.
for the setting up of Administrative Tri- D. None of the above
bunals inIndia?
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4.6 Indian High Court 285
4.6 Indian High Court
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
1. Chief Justice of High courts are appointed 6. The power of the high Court to judge the
by? constitutionality of a state law was with-
A. Central Government drawn during the emergency by
B. Parliament A. 43rd amendment act 1975
C. State Government B. 42nd amendment act 1976
D. President
C. 41st amendment act 1974
2. The strength of the high court depends
upon D. None of the above.
A. Decided by the constitution
7. NO. OF JUDGES IN HIGH COURT IS DE-
B. Fixed by the CM CIDED ACCORDING TO
C. President depending upon the work
A. POPULATION OF STATE
load
D. Decided by the state legislative assem- B. POPULATION OF COUNTRY
bly
C. NO . OF CITIES
3. How is the number of judges in the High
D. NO . OF SCHOOL
Court decided?
A. According to the size of the population. 8. Who appoints the Judges?
B. According to the size of the state. A. Chief Justice of India
C. According to the number of judges. B. President in consultation with the
D. According to the number of High Chief Justice of India, The Governor of
Courts that state and the Chief Justice of the High
Court of that state.
4. CHIEF JUSTICE OF A HIGH COURT DRAWS
A SALARY OF C. Chief Justice of the High Court of that
state.
A. 2.5 $
B. 2.5 CRORES D. The Governor of that state
C. 2.5 RUPPES
9. Who appoints the Chief Justice of the High
D. 2 LAKH 50 THOUSAND Court?
5. The independence of high courts is ensured A. The President of India in consultation
by? with the Chief Justice of India and the Gov-
A. Full control over its procedure of work ernor of the state.
and establishment.
B. The President with the consultation of
B. Prohibition on practice after retire- the Governor of the state.
ment for judges.
C. All of the above C. The Governor
D. None D. The Prime Minister
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4.6 Indian High Court 286
10. Which of the is are incorrect 15. Which of the following is are correct?
A. The high court can punish a person for A. For transferring any high court judge,
contempt of the court if its authority is low- the chief justice of India’s recommenda-
ered tion is made in consultation with three se-
nior most judges of the supreme court.
B. The state legislature can not discuss
on the conducts of high court judges. B. The appointment, posting and promo-
tion of district judges is made by the gov-
C. The high court of Kerala is located in ernor in consultation with the chief justice
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Kochi. of that state.
D. None of the above C. The high court and the state public ser-
vice commission are consulted by the gov-
11. What is the correct age of retirement of
ernor in appointing persons to the judicial
Judge of Supreme Court?
service to the state.
A. 58 years D. all of the above
B. 60 years
16. Under which Jurisdiction does the SC tries
C. 62 years appeals from Lower Courts?
D. 65 years A. Advisory
B. Original
12. The judge of the High Court can serve till?
C. Appellate
A. 60
D. Writs
B. 61
17. Who can establish a common high court for
C. 62
two or more states?
D. 63 A. Prime Minister
13. TILL WHAT AGE A HIGH HIGH COURT B. President
JUDGE CAN SERVE C. Parliament
A. 50 YEARS D. All of the above
B. 65 YEARS 18. Which of the following has its own judicial
C. 62 YEARS commissioner
D. 63 YEARS A. Dadra and Nagar haveli.
B. Andaman and Nicobar islands
14. Which power is known as the power of ju-
C. Daman and Diu
dicial review-
D. Chandigarh
A. The power of high court to interpret
the constitution. 19. ‘A group of girl is harassed by a group of
B. The power of high court to review a boys’ is comes under:-
case which has been decided by a subor- A. Civil Law
dinate court B. Social law
C. Both A and B C. Economical law
D. None of the above D. Criminal law
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4.6 Indian High Court 287
20. A revisory jurisdiction of high court is ap- 25. What are the two main jurisdictions of the
plicable in which of the following cases High Court?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. violation of the principles of the natu- A. State Law and Original (interpret the
ral justice. Constitution)
B. arbitary authority leading to wrong B. Appellate and Original (interpret the
judgements. Constitution)
C. all of the above C. Appellate and State Law
D. none of the above D. none of above
21. Choose the answer that best completes 26. What does the word ‘jurisdiction’ mean?
this sentence.The Supreme Court can A. Judges
change other courts’ decisions, other
courts cannot change the Supreme Court’s B. The ability to choose who can sit in par-
decisions liament
A. but C. The official power to make legal deci-
sions and pass judgement
B. because
D. none of above
C. so
D. none of above 27. NAME THE HIGH COURT WHICH IS
SHARED BY KERALA AND LAKSHADWEEP
22. Civil law include:- .
A. Disputes related to sale of land A. UTTAR PRADESH HIGH COURT
B. Disputes related to purchase of good B. ASSAM HIGH COURT
C. Both (a) & (b) C. LAKSHADWEEP HIGH COURT
D. None of these D. KERALA HIGH COURT
23. What is the supreme court? 28. The has the power to establish a com-
A. a court that is led by the president of mon High Court for two or more states.
the U.S. A. Governor
B. the most powerful court in the U.S. gov- B. President
ernment C. Parliament
C. the part of the U.S. government that D. Prime Minister
writes laws
D. none of above 29. The qualification “he should have been a
distinguished jurist”, was added by the
24. Appellate Jurisdiction means , and was omitted by the
A. appeals against the judgements A. 41th amendment act 1975, 43th
passed by supreme court amendment act 1978
B. appeals against the judgements B. 42th amendment act 1976, 44th
passed by subordinates courts such as amendment act 1978
the district courts C. 43th amendment act 1974, 46th
C. appeals against the parliament amendment 1978
D. appeals against the Prime Minister D. None of the above
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4.6 Indian High Court 288
30. Each state has an who is appointed by C. Judicial Review
the of that state. D. Impeachment
A. Chief Justice of the High Court of that
state and President with the consultation 34. Election petitions regarding elections to
of the Governor. the parliament and State legislatures can
be filled before
B. Judge and President
A. Supreme court
C. Advocate General and Governor
B. Election comission
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Chief Justice of India and Prime Minis-
ter C. High court
D. President
31. What is a constitution?
A. A book of written laws a country must 35. The Structure of the Judiciary is .
follow A. Circular
B. A list of rules that people can choose B. Rectangular
to follow
C. Pyramidal
C. A pamphlet made by politicians to dis-
D. Opaque
cuss what laws they should have
D. none of above 36. The article starts by describing the three
branches of the American government.
32. What does the term ‘appellate jurisdiction’ Which branch is the U.S. Supreme Court
mean? part of?
A. The power to overturn parliamentary A. judicial
law
B. executive
B. The power to read minds
C. legislative
C. The power to interpret the constitution
D. none of above
D. The power to hear appeals from lower 37. The high courts can advise
courts A. only to the govt of that particular state.
33. What is the procedure to remove judges
called? B. to govt of any state
A. Jurisdiction C. to legislature
B. Writ D. option a and c
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V
V
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5 Local Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 290
5.1 Panchayati Raj . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 290
5.2 Local Government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 320
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5. Local Government
NARAYAN CHANGDER
5.1 Panchayati Raj
1. The Gram Sabha or village assembly is 4. Percentage of seats reserved in the Pan-
formed in villages that have a population chayati raj for women is
of people. A. 50 %
A. 200
B. 40%
B. 500
C. 33%
C. 300
D. 43%
D. 150
5. Sarpanch is elected for how many years?
2. Which are the three-tiers of the Pan-
chayati Raj in the correct order with A. 5 years
names of organs.(a) Village level-Gram B. 6 years
Panchayat, Block level-Panchayath samiti,
District level-Zilla parishad, or District C. 1year
panchayath.(b) Village level-Gram Sabha. D. Life Time
Block level-Village panchayath, District
level-Nyaya panchayath. 6. What does the word “ Panchayat “
means?
A. a only.
B. b only. A. assembly of five elders
C. both a & b B. assembly of four elders
D. none of above C. assembly of three elders
3. t Panchayati Raj System D. assembly of two
A. TWO TIER 7. Which of the following is not the rural local
B. FOUR TIER self government?
C. FIVE TEIR A. Gram Panchayat
D. THREE TEIR B. Muncipality
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 291
C. Panchayat Samiti 14. WHAT DOES BPL STAND FOR?
D. Zilla Parishad A. BEHIND THE POWER LINE
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8. Which chapter deals with ward majlis and B. BELOW THE POVERTY LINE
halqa majlis? C. BELOW THE POWER LINE
A. 3A D. BEHIND THE POVERTY LINE
B. 1A
15. THE GRAM PANCHAYAT IS ELECTED FOR
C. 1
D. none of above A. 4 YEARS
B. 5 YEARS
9. What is the apex of panchayati raj system
C. 6 YEARS
A. Gram Panchayat
D. 7 YEARS
B. Block Samiti
C. Zila Parishad 16. Name the local body at the Block level?
D. Gram Sabha A. Gram Panchayat
10. THE WORK OF GRAM PANCHAYAT HAS TO B. Panchayat Samiti
BE APPROVED BY WHOM? C. District Panchayat
A. NAGAR PANCHAYAT D. None of these
B. GOVERNMENT
17. For how many years the Ward members
C. SECRETARY OF GRAM PANCHAYAT
and Sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat are
D. GRAM SABHA elected
11. Which one is wrongly matched? A. 5 years
A. village level-gram Panchayat B. 6 years
B. Block level-Panchayat Samitis C. 4 years
C. District level-Zila Parishad D. up to the age 60 year
D. Village level-Zila Parishad
18. The head of the Panchayat is called a
12. Who is the member of Gram Sabha?
A. MLA
A. 6+ people
B. SARPANCH
B. 18+ people
C. CHIEF MINISTER
C. 32+ people
D. COLLECTOR
D. 21+ people
13. WHO CALLS THE MEETING OF THE GRAM 19. The executive authority of Zilla Parishad
SABHA AND GRAM PANCHAYAT? is
A. CHIEF MINISTER A. The President
B. THE SECRETARY B. The Panch
C. PRIME MINISTER C. The People
D. SARPANCH D. The MLA
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 292
20. hear land disputes C. Look after the health and education
A. Tahsildar and records death and birth in the pan-
chayat.
B. Patwari
D. Construction of personal building of a
C. District Collector
rich person
D. Kanungo
26. The is a key factor in making the gram
21. works as an essential link between Panchayat play its role and be responsible
Gram Panchayat & Zila panchayat.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Gram Sabha
A. block samiti
B. Ward
B. gram panchayat
C. zila parishad C. Persons
D. none of the above D. Sarpanch
22. The three levels of government (from 27. The Nyaya Panchayat solves
largest to smallest) are , , and A. petty cases
A. Central, State, Local
B. small cases
B. Local, State, Central
C. Big criminal cases
C. State, Local, Central
D. All of the above
D. Village, Block, District
23. From where do the village women have to 28. Members of which of he following are per-
get water? manent?
A. Yamuna river A. Gram Panchayat
B. Ganga river B. Panchayat Samiti
C. Gomati river C. Zilla Parishad
D. Suru river D. Gram Sabha
24. Which of the following works at Block 29. works at district level.
Level
A. Block samiti
A. Panchayat Samitis
B. Zila Parishad
B. Janpad Samitis
C. Gram
C. Zila Parishad
D. Gram Panchayat D. Village
25. Which of the following is not a function of 30. How many committees does the Zilla
Gram Panchayat? Parishad have?
A. The construction and maintenance of A. 5
water sources, roads, drainage, school
B. 2
buildings and other common property re-
sources. C. 10
B. Levying and collecting local taxes. D. 7
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 293
31. Constitution of District planning and devel- 37. A Gram Sabha begins with
opment board comes under which section A. Panch
of this Act?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. Village People
A. 45
C. Panchayat President
B. 46
D. A question
C. 47
D. none of above 38. Which body off Panchayat Raj Mein devel-
opment plans at district level?
32. The secretary of gram panchayat is also
the secretary of the A. Zila Parishad
A. sarpanch B. Panchayat Samiti
B. government C. Gram Sabha
C. gram sabha D. Gram panchayat
D. none of above 39. The Gram Panchayat is elected for how
33. Which of the following body of local gov- many years?
ernment function at district level? A. 5 years
A. Gram Sabha B. 10 years
B. Panchayat Samiti C. 6 years
C. Janpad Saba D. 3 years
D. Zila Parishad
40. The Panch and the Gram Panchayat are an-
34. In rural areas, is the the first tier or swerable to the
level of democratic government
A. President
A. Panchayat Samiti
B. Prime Minister
B. Gram Panchayat
C. Police
C. Zilla Parishad
D. Gram Sabha
D. none of above
41. The panchaytathi raj system consists of
35. Janpad is also known as-
A. Panchayat Samiti
A. BDO
B. Panchayati Raj
B. Four institutes.
C. Zilla Parishad
C. Three-tier system.
D. Gram Sabha
D. None of the above.
36. Panchayati Raj looks after the of peo-
ple. 42. Block level is also known as
A. Welfare A. gram sabha
B. Hospitality B. gram panchayat
C. Care need C. janpad panchayat
D. Education D. none of above
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 294
43. The Gram Panchayat is elected for 49. One must be at least years-old to con-
years. test election for a seat in the Gram Pan-
A. 10 chayat.
B. 5 A. 18
C. 2 B. 21
D. 7 C. 25
D. 30
44. A block consists of to villages in a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
state 50. Gram panchayat is divided into ?
A. 20-60 villages A. Blocks
B. 70-80 villages B. Zilas
C. 90-110 villages C. Ward
D. 20-30 villages D. Samitis
45. FOR HOW LONG GRAM PANCHAYAT IS 51. The appoints the Panchayat Secretary.
ELECTED FOR? Fill in the blank.
A. 3.5 YEARS A. Sarpanch
B. 5 MONTHS B. Village citizens
C. 3.5 MONTHS C. Government
D. 5 YEARS D. Memebers of the gram panchayat
46. Functions of sarpanch and main sarpanch 52. THE SARPANCH IS ELECTED BY THE MEM-
comes under which section? BERS OF
A. 20 A. GRAM PANCHAYAT
B. 21 B. LOKHA SABHA
C. 25 C. RAJYA SABHA
D. none of above D. LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY
47. Give one word for “head of gram pan- 53. No. Of schedules in j & k panchayati raj
chayat, whose tenure is for 5 years” Act 1989:
A. Head Villager A. 5
B. Sarpanch B. 6
C. Head Gaurd C. 4
D. Judge D. none of above
48. In which year the government amanded 54. NAME THE OLDEST SARPANCH OF INDIA
Panchayati Raj System? AND HER AGE.
A. 1992 A. GANGUBAI NAVRUTTI, 94 YEARS OLD
B. 1994 B. VIDYA DEVI, 97 YEARS OLD
C. 1998 C. RADHA DEVI, 98 YEARS OLD
D. 1999 D. AHILYA BAI, 100 YEARS OLD
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 295
55. WHERE ARE ALL THE PLANS FOR THE C. SARPANCH
WORK OF THE PANCHAYAT ARE PLACED
D. WATER DEVELOPMENT
BEFORE THE PEOPLE?
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A. GRAM SEBHA 61. Panchayati Raj is tier local governence
B. GRAM SABHA in rural area
C. ZILA PARISHAD A. Two
D. ZILLA PARISHAD B. Three
56. The best example of direct democracy in C. Four
India D. None of these
A. Block Samiti
62. Which Panchayat works for the block
B. Gram Sabha level?
C. Gram Panchayat
A. Zila Parishad
D. Zilla Panchayat
B. Panchayat Samiti
57. He is responsible for the development of C. Gram Panchayat
the whole block. Who is he?
D. Nyaya Panchayat
A. judge
B. sarpanch 63. In which year Maharaja Hari singh promul-
C. block development officer gated the j & k panchayati Regulation Act
no. 1?
D. none of the above
A. 1934
58. panchayat president is also called
B. 1935
A. panch
C. 1989
B. sarpanch
D. none of above
C. None of the above
D. none of above 64. Link between zila parishad and Gram pan-
chayat is
59. Who is Sarpanch
A. Janpad panchyat
A. Member of panchayat
B. Gram sabha
B. Head of the village
C. Zila parishad
C. Villagers
D. Members of gram sabha D. Sarpanch
60. ONE DAY ZAYED WENT TO BATH AND HE 65. What is Zilla parishad?
SAW THAT HE’S PIPE IS NOT SUPPLYING A. District level
WATER AND HAD TO VISIT WHOM TO
SUPPLY HIM WATER B. block panchayat
A. NYAYA PANCHAYAT C. Gram panchayat
B. GRAM PANCHAYAT D. None of these
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 296
66. WHO IS THE PRESIDENT OF PANCHAYAT? 72. WHO ELECTS THE SARPANCH?
A. VILLAGERS A. ALL THE MEMBERS OF GRAM SABHA
B. SECRETARY B. SECRETARY
C. SARPANCH C. PRIME MINISTER
D. BLOCK DEVELOPMENT OFFICER. D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
67. members Of panchayat is called? 73. HOW MUCH PERCENT OF SEATS ARE RE-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Secretary SERVED FOR WOMEN?
B. Panch A. 100%
C. Members B. 60%
D. none of the above C. 50%
D. 20%
68. What was the main objective behind in-
troducing the Panchayati Raj system in In- 74. who is the head of zila parishad?
dia?
A. mayor
A. To Prevent corruption
B. chairperson
B. To decentralised political power
C. district collector
C. To decrease criminal rates
D. district minister
D. To reduce election expenses
75. An important link between the Gram Pan-
69. Who is the president of the Gram pan-
chayat and Zila Parishad is the
chayat?
A. Gram Sabha
A. Panch
B. Sarpanch B. Lok Sabha
C. Secretary C. Nyaya Panchayat
D. Ward member D. Block Samiti
70. Usually the GRAM PANCHAYAT consists of 76. FULL FORM OF BPL
members A. BELOW PARENTS LIST
A. 50 B. BELOW THE POVERTY LINE
B. 124 C. BEST POVERTY LION
C. 5 D. none of above
D. 76
77. Which among the following is the lowest
71. Panch means- level of local government?
A. People A. Janpad Panchayat
B. 5 B. Gram Panchayat
C. 4 C. Zila Parishad
D. Gram Panchayat D. None of the above
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 297
78. The members of gram panchayat are di- C. Zila parishad
rectly elected by
D. Sarpanch
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A. People in town
B. People in cities 84. What does Gram Sabha
C. People in grama shaba A. “Meeting of the village”
D. People in other country B. “Meeting of 5 people”
79. The book which contains all the rules and C. “Meeting of the entire city”
regulations people have to follow in India D. “Meeting of 10 people”
A. Constitution
B. Rule book 85. Which of the following institution conducts
the Panchayat elections?
C. Book of India
A. State Election Commission
D. Rule book of India
B. Central Government
80. The local self-government that functions in
rural areas is C. Judiciary
A. Panchayati Raj D. State Government
B. municipality
86. What is three-tier system?
C. government
A. a system of gram panchayat
D. state government
B. a system of panchayati raj
81. Which are the rural local self-governing
C. a system of regulating bodies
bodies?
A. Zila parishads D. a system of 3 levels
B. Block Samitis 87. The and the form the Gram Pan-
C. Panchayats chayat.
D. All the above A. Sarpanch, Secretary
82. Which body deals with local problems and B. Panchayat President, Panchayat
looks after the basic needs of the local peo- Samiti
ple? C. Ward Panchs, Sarpanch
A. State Government
D. Gram Sabha, Ward Panchs
B. Central Government
C. Local Self-Government 88. The Panchayatl Raj System is the
D. None of the above A. First level of democratic government
83. Which level comes in between zila B. second level of democratic govern-
parishad and Gram panchayat? ment
A. Janpad panchyat C. third level of democratic government
B. Gram sabha D. fourth level of democratic government
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 298
89. What is Gram panchayat B. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
A. A gram panchayat or village panchayat C. Kerala and Goa
is the only grassroots-level of panchayati D. Delhi and Goa
raj formalised local self-governance sys-
tem in India 95. The panchayati Raj is a tier system.
B. None A. three-tier
C. It’s A Farm B. two-tier
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. It’s a place where the elections hap- C. four-tier
pen.
D. none of above
90. Who is the head of a Gram Panchayat?
96. The Panchayati System in the village has
A. Chairman usually has three parts
B. Ward Member A. Nyaya Panchayat
C. Secretary B. Gram Sabha
D. Sarpanch C. Gram Panchayat
91. The members of panchayat are also called D. All the above
A. Member of parliament 97. Women representation has steadily in-
B. Panch creased to %
C. Prime minister A. 95%
D. Home minister B. 49%
92. The people of Hardas village are facing the C. 42%
problem of D. 33%
A. Electricity
98. For the purpose of election the village is
B. Unemployment divided into
C. Water scarcity A. CLASS
D. None of the above B. SECTIONS
93. The members of gram panchayat is elected C. WARDS
for D. SECTORS
A. 6 day
99. Whose name among the following should
B. 5 months be included in BPL ( Below poverty line)
C. Five years list?
D. Five weeks A. A person whose family income is less
than what is decided by the government?
94. In and empowerment of women
through the Panchayats has led to their
networking into federations of elected B. People who belong to middle class
women representatives C. Government officials
A. Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra D. People with very high income
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 299
100. WHO IS THE HEAD OF THE PANCHAYATH 106. WHO PREVENTS THE PANCHAYAT FROM
A. PRESIDENT DOING WRONG THINGS AND KEEP AN
EYE ON THE ELECTED REPRESENTATIVES?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. GOVERNER
A. SARPANCH
C. SARPANCH
B. SECRETARY
D. NYAYA PANCHAYAT
C. GRAM SABHA
101. Who is the head of panchayat samiti? D. ALL THE ABOVE
A. Sarpanch
107. ., supervised the work of patwari
B. Ward member
A. DC
C. Chairman B. Revenue officers
D. Secretary C. Sarpanch
102. Which is the highest body of Panchayati D. Gram sabha
Raj System?
108. who elects the Panchs of the Gram Pan-
A. gram sabha chayat?
B. nyaya panchayat A. members of zilla Parishad
C. zila parishad B. members of Gram sabha
D. none of the above C. Themselves
103. The Panchayatl Raj System is the D. none of above
A. First level of democratic government 109. WHO SOLVES PITTY CASES IN A GRAM
B. Second level of democratic govern- PANCHAYAT
ment A. NYAYA PANCHAYAT
C. Third level of democratic government B. SARPANCH
D. Fourth level of democratic government C. GOVERNER
104. Who keeps control on gram panchayat? D. PRESIDENT
A. Prime minister 110. Who is called the Sarpanch?
B. Sarpanch A. Member of Panchayat
C. president of India B. Villagers
D. none of above C. Panchayat Head
D. All of these
105. The Gram Panchayat’s main task is to im-
plement programmes for all villages 111. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SYSTEMS IS
that come under it. BASED ON DIRECT ELECTIONS?
A. Electricity A. BOTH 2 AND 3
B. Water saving B. ZILA PARISHAD
C. Development C. BLOCK COMMITEE
D. None of the above D. GRAM PANCHAYAT
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 300
112. WHICH PART OF PANCHAYATI RAJ SYS- 118. Name the person who keeps record of the
TEM REGULATES MONEY DISTRIBUTION proceedings of Gram Panchayat?
AMONG ALL THE GRAM PANCHAYATS. A. Gram Secretary
A. ANCHALIK PANCHAYAT B. Panch
B. ZILA PARISHAD C. Sarpanch
C. MUNICIPAL CORPORATION D. None of these
D. SUB-DIVISIONAL MAJISTRATE(SDM) 119. The Panchayathi raj system has lev-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
113. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COMMITEE els.
IS RECOMMENDED FOR PANCHAYATI RAJ A. 7
SYSTEM IN INDIA? B. 5
A. PANCHHI SAMITI C. 3
B. SINGHVI COMMITEE D. 6
C. BALWANTRAO MEHTA COMMITEE 120. Which of the following is not a local self
D. NONE OF THESE Government?
A. Gram Panchayat
114. WHOSE NAMES SHOULD BE INCLUDED
IN BPL LIST? B. Zilla parishad
A. HIGH INCOME GROUP PEOPLE C. NAC (Notified Area Counsil)
B. VERY POOR PEOPLE D. Government of Odisha
C. MIDDLE INCOME GROUP PEOPLE 121. The science of breeding and caring for
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE farm animals is called
A. grants
115. Sarpanch is known as
B. animal care
A. Panchayat President
C. animal husbandary
B. Panchayat Secretary D. veterinary
C. Panchayat Head
122. The highest government is called at
D. Panchayat Member the district level
116. The Nyaya Panchayat can only impose A. Zila parishad
A. Fines B. Panchayat Samiti
B. Punishment C. Gram Panchayat
C. Justice D. Panchayati Raj
D. None of these 123. All the adults who is above the age of
or have the right to vote are the members
117. works at the block level . of Gram Sabha.
A. Block samiti A. 18 years
B. Zila Parishad B. 20 years
C. Gram Panchayati C. 14 years
D. none of above D. 16 years
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 301
124. Zila parishad makes plan for? 130. In India all those who are years and
A. whole district above have the right to Vote
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. All blocks A. 21
C. All villages B. 18
D. none of above C. 19
125. WHO MAKES DEVELOPEMENT PLANS AT D. 25
THE DISTRICT LEVEL?
131. Zilla Parishad makes developmental
A. ZILA PARISHAD plans at the level
B. GRAM SABHA A. state
C. PANCHAYAT SAMITI B. district
D. GRAM PANCHAYAT
C. village
126. Usually the Gram Panchayat consists of D. none of above
members
A. 50 132. The Panchayati Raj consists of a
B. 25 A. BDO
C. 70 B. Three tier system
D. 5 C. 4 institutes
127. After how many years does the members D. None of the above
choose a new president in Zilla Parishad?
133. Who was the earlier Zamindar?
A. 1 Year
A. Sukhi Bhai
B. 2 1/2 Years
B. Amir Chand
C. 5 Years
C. Birju
D. 2 Years
D. Anwar
128. The panchayati raj institution was
granted legal status through the . 134. Watershed development is a method of
A. 73rd amendment act, 1994 A. conserving water and recharging it
B. 72nd amendment act 1993 B. deepening hand pumps
C. 1992, 73 rd amendment act C. digging and cleaning wells
D. 1992, 74th amendment act
D. none of above
129. Where do people directly participate and
seek answers from their elected represen- 135. Whose names should be included, in BPL
tatives? families?
A. Gram Panchayat A. Very poor person
B. Parliament House B. Middle family person
C. Both (a) and (b) C. High income group
D. None of these D. All of these
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 302
136. The work of gram panchayat has to be B. It will only be helpful for a Short Time
approved by period.
A. zila parishad C. It will spoil the land and make it harder
B. gram sabha for agriculture to thrive
C. sarpanch D. It will take a lot of work to maintain
D. none of above the tank and pipes and the villages did
not have people or money to do that often
NARAYAN CHANGDER
137. The three organs of government at the leading to improper use and repaire.
village level are , , and
142. This person is not an elected person but
A. Gram Panchayat, Gram Sabha, Nyaya
is appointed by the government
Panchayat
B. District, Block, Village A. The ward member
C. Central, State, Local B. Secretary of the gram sabha
D. Executive, Judiciary, Legislature C. Panch
138. According to the three level of Panchayat, D. none of above
the second tier/ block level consists of
143. The sources of fund for the Panchayat
A. Zila Parishad are
B. Zila Panchayat
A. Collection of Taxes on houses
C. Gram Panchayat
B. Government funds
D. Janpad Panchayat
C. Donations
139. The member of Panchayat is also called
D. All the three
A. Member of Parliament
B. Panch 144. Who is the elected head of a Panchayat?
C. Prime Minister A. prime minister
D. None of these B. president
140. Out of the total number of seats this per- C. block pramukh
centage is reserved for women in the Pan-
D. sarpanch
chayati Raj.
A. Two-Third 145. IN WHICH STATE IN INDIA WAS THE
B. Half PANCHAYATI RAJ SYSTEM ESTABLISHED
WHEREAFTER ANDHRA PRADESH ALSO
C. Three-Fourth
ADOPTED IT AND BECAME 2ND STATE TO
D. One-Third ADOPT IT.WHAT IS THE FIRST STATE.
141. Why was the idea of Piping water from A. PUNJAB
Suru and making an overhead tank was re- B. UTTAR PRADESH
jected?
C. RAJASTHAN
A. It was too Expensive and the village
could not afford to lose much money. D. MADHYA PRADESH
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 303
146. AFTER HOW MANY YEARS OLD CAN A 152. Local government in rural area from
BOY JOIN IN GRAM PANCHAYAT grassroot level to highest level is (please
arrange in acending order)
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. 12
B. 13 A. Zila Parishad, panchayat samiti, Gram
panchayat
C. 18
B. Panchayat samiti, Gram panchayat,
D. 19
Zila Parishad
147. In which month the central government C. Gram panchayat, Janpad Panchayat,
amanded Panchayati Raj System Zila parishad
A. April
D. none of above
B. May
C. August 153. The is a meeting of all adults who live
in the area covered by a Panchayat.
D. June
A. Gram Sabha
148. At which level does Zila Parishad actually
B. Panchayat Samiti
make development plans?
A. District level C. Zila Parishad
B. Panchayat Samiti D. none of above
C. Block level 154. The main function of the Gram Panchayat
D. Government level is to implement
149. Who regulates the money distribution A. Irrigation and water work
among all the Gram Panchayats? B. Development programmes for all vil-
A. Gram Sabha lages that come under it.
B. District Panchayat C. construction of tanks
C. Secretary D. none of above
D. Sarpanch
155. Which of the following is a permanent
150. People who elect the people of Gram Pan- body in the village?
chayat are known as A. Sarpanch
A. Gram Panch
B. Ward member
B. Zila Parishad
C. Gram Sabha
C. Block Samiti
D. Panchayat secretary
D. Gram Sabha
151. Who is responsible for calling the meet- 156. The Gram Sabha is a key factor in making
ing of Gram Sabha? the play its role and be responsible
A. Panchs of Gram Panchayat A. BLOCK SAMITI
B. Secretary of Gram Sabha B. GRAM PANCHAYAT
C. President of Gram Sabha C. ZILA PARISHAD
D. None of these D. PANCHAYAT SAMITI
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 304
157. ‘RIGHT TO VOTE’-RELATED TO ANYONE D. Government scheme funds received
WHO IS through various departments of the gov-
A. BELOW 18 YEARS ernmentthrough the Janpad and Zila Pan-
chayats
B. ABOVE 18 YEARS
C. 18 YEARS 163. What are the functions of Gram Pan-
chayat?
D. NONE OF THESE
A. Sanitation and Drainage
NARAYAN CHANGDER
158. The MLA’s are a member of the B. Provide safe drinking water
A. Vidhan Parishad C. Cleanliness of village
B. Vidhan Sabha D. All of these
C. Lokhsabha
164. Students can get their caste certificate
D. Rajyasabha from the office of
159. Which body of local government makes A. Patwari
decisions at Tehsil or Block level? B. Tahsildar
A. Zila Parishad C. Sarpanch
B. Panchayat Samiti D. DC
C. Gram Panchayat
165. Who is the Sarpanch?
D. Gram Sabha
A. President
160. Identify which one is correctly matched B. Many people
A. Gram Sabha-Block level C. Gram Sabha
B. Panchayati Samiti-village level D. none of above
C. Zila Parishad-District level
166. The member of panchayat is also called
D. Gram Sabha-elected body ?
161. the gram panchayat is elected in every A. Panch
years B. Member of parliament
A. 5 C. Member of Assembly
B. 4 D. Secretary
C. 8 167. Village panchayat is divided into
D. None of the above A. District
162. Which one is not the source of funds for B. Blocks
the Panchayat? C. Wards
A. Collection of taxes on houses, market D. States
places etc.
B. Donations for community works etc. 168. Who hears minor criminal cases?
C. Donations contributed by the villagers A. sarpanch
for village welfare works B. gram head
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 305
C. panchayati officer C. Both (a) and (b)
D. journalist D. None of these
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169. Between which of the following Local 174. WHICH IS THE SECOND TIER OF A DEMO-
Bodies does the District Panchayat act as CRATIC GOVERNMENT?
a link
A. JANPAD PANCHAYAT
A. Between Zilla Parishad and the Local
B. GRAM PANCHAYAT
Bodies
B. Between the Block samiti and the C. DISTRICT PANCHAYAT
Gram Panchayat D. GRAM SABHA
C. Between Zilla Parishad and the Gov- 175. Who elects panchayat head?
ernment
A. Villagers
D. Between the Local Bodies and the Gov-
ernment B. All members of gram sabha
C. Secretary
170. Zilla parishad is a local self Government
at level D. everyone
A. State Level 176. What problem did the villagers in Hardas
B. Block level village face?
C. Panchayat level A. Forest fire happens in the near by jun-
D. District level gle
B. shortage of trees lead to no wood for
171. IN INDIA ALL THOSE WHO ARE fire
YEARS ABOVE HAS RIGHT TO VOTE
C. The villagers in Hardas village faced
A. 19
the problem of acute water shortage.
B. 18
D. none of above
C. 50
177. Anwar tells the villagers that he had seen
D. 21
being implemented in his cousins vil-
172. Village Panchayats are important be- lage
cause A. IRRIGATION
A. They provide the first lesson in democ- B. REVERSE OSMOSIS
racy.
C. WATERSHED DEVELOPMENT
B. They teach villagers to be self depen-
dent. D. OVERHEAD TANKS
C. They help to establish democracy atth 178. Who prevents the Panchayat from doing
grassroot level. wrong things and misusing money?
D. All three are correct. A. Sarpanch
173. What is the full form of BPL here? B. Zila Parishad
A. Bharat Petroleum Ltd C. Janpad Panchayat
B. Below Poverty Line D. Gram Sabha
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 306
179. Which perdon called the main in Gram C. 3 YEARS
Panchayat D. 5 YEARS
A. Sarpanch
185. Mohalla is are small small area of , .,
B. Panch
C. Minister A. Panchayat war
D. Prime Minister B. Ward
NARAYAN CHANGDER
180. All the members of Gram Sabha elect a C. Mohalla
Sarpanch who is also know as D. Panchayat ward
A. panchayat secretary
186. What was the main objective of bringing
B. panchayat president Panchayati Raj system in India?
C. panchayati raj A. To prevent corruption
D. none of above B. To decentralize political power
181. approved the work of Gram pan- C. To prevent criminal rates
chayat D. To reduce election expenses
A. Panchayat samiti
187. The prevents the gram panchayat
B. Zila parishad from misusing funds.
C. Block samiti A. gram sabha
D. Gram sabha B. secretary
182. Which state tells Block Samiti as Kshetra C. zila parishad
Samiti? D. none of above
A. West Bengal 188. The function of Panchayat Samiti is to
B. Karnataka ?
C. Uttar Pradesh A. Deal with rular industrialisation
D. Tamil Nadu B. Deal with district courts
C. Handle conflicts in the gram panchayat
183. Panchayat Raj system is at which level
of democratic government?
D. Implement government schemes and
A. First
community development
B. Second
189. Why was the first day special for the vil-
C. Third
lage people?
D. Fourth
A. Gram Panchayat was holding its first
184. FILL IN THE BLANKS:THE SAR PANCH IS meeting after election
THE HEAD OF THE GRAM PANCHAYAT FOR B. There was a wedding ceremony
YEARS? C. There was annual function of the
A. 6 YEARS school
B. 4 YEARS D. None of these
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 307
190. The head of the Gram Panchayat is called 195. Who is known as the ‘Panchayat presi-
the dent
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A. BDO A. Sarpanch
B. Sarpanch B. panch
C. UP-pradhan C. president
D. none of above D. village president
191. Slogan of democratic country is 196. Which of the following is a function of the
panchayat?
A. Government of the people, by the peo-
ple, for the people A. Construction of wells
B. station of the people, by the people, for B. Repair of street lights
the people C. Ensuring supply of clean drinking wa-
C. Government of the people, for the peo- ter
ple, by the people D. All of the above
D. Government of the people, by the peo-
197. The construction and maintenance of wa-
ple
ter resources the road, drainage, School
buildings and other common property re-
192. ‘’Give freedom to villagers! Ask them
sources are the work of
to take their own decisions.”Which leader
said the above quote? A. Zilla Parishad
A. Dr. B R Ambedkar B. Panchayat samiti
B. MK GANDHI C. Gram Panchayat
C. Jawaharlal Nehru D. none of above
D. Vallabhbhai Patel 198. What did villagers of Hardas do to solve
the Problem
193. How many tiers are there in the Pan-
chayat Raj system of India? A. They made sprinkler so that the can
spray water to the plant
A. 2
B. They came to a conclusion that they
B. 3 should find ways to conserve water.
C. 4 C. They planted more trees for more fire
D. 5 wood
D. none of above
194. what is the link between a gram Sabha
and gram panchayat? 199. The village panchayat is elected for
A. village A. 5 years
B. government B. 6 years
C. secretary C. 4 years
D. none of above D. 5.6 years
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 308
200. One must be at least years old to 206. Quorum of meeting of ward majlis shall
vote in India. not be less than:
A. 15 A. 1/20
B. 18 B. 1/10
C. 20 C. 1/3rd
D. 25 D. none of above
201. First step by police station when any in-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
207. Panchayati Raj System is how many tired
cident happens system
A. Investigation A. 3
B. Submission of investigation report B. 5
C. Register a complain C. 2
D. None of these D. 4
202. The work of the Gram Panchayat has to 208. What is Zila Parishad?
be approved by the
A. Block Panchayat
A. Members of the Gram Sabha
B. District Panchayat
B. Zila Parishad
C. Gram Sabha
C. Ward Member
D. None of these
D. Gram Sabha
209. Anyone who is years old or more and
203. The is a meeting of all adults who live
who has right to vote is a member of the
in a village
Gram Sabha.
A. PANCHAYAT
A. 15
B. GRAM SABHA
B. 18
C. SOCIETY
C. 21
D. ZILA PARISHAD
D. none of above
204. Each ward Elects a representative who is
known as 210. What are the works of Gram Pan-
chayat?
A. Sarpanch
A. Maintain roads of villages
B. Ward member (Panch)
B. School buildings in villages
C. Group Representative
C. None of these
D. none of above
D. All of theses
205. Which one of them works for District
Level? 211. Ward member is also called as
A. Panchayat Samiti A. Sarpanch
B. Gram Panchayat B. Panchayati member
C. Zila Parishad C. Panch
D. None of These D. Panchimi
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 309
212. Zila Parishad is tier local governence C. MEENA BEHEN
in rural area
D. ATRAM PADMA BAI
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A. Two
B. Three 218. The local level of government is called
in India.
C. Four
A. Panchayati Raj
D. None of these
B. Gram Sabha
213. The functions of Panchayat Samiti is to:
C. Gram Panchayat
A. Deal with rural industrialization
D. Nyaya Panchayat
B. Deal with district courts
C. Handle conflicts in the Gram Panchay- 219. WHO IS A MEMBER OF THE GRAM
ati SABHA?
D. Implement government schemes and A. EVERY CITIZEN
community development
B. VILLAGERS
214. What role is performed by the Secretary C. EVERY VILLAGER WHO HAS THE
of the Gram Sabha? RIGHT TO VOTE
A. maintains a record of the proceedings D. PRESIDENT OF INDIA
and the decision taken in the meetings
B. misuse money 220. In the Gram Panchayat, of the total
C. Both of the above number of seats is reserved for women.
D. None of the above A. One-Third
B. One-Fourth
215. Which one of the following is not the func-
tion of Gram Panchayat? C. One-fifth
A. To finalise BPL list D. One-sixth
B. To provide water supply
221. What is the full form of BPL?
C. To promote government schemes
A. Big Poverty Line
D. To defend the territory
B. Below Poverty Line
216. The Gram Panchayat is headed by
C. Being Poor Line
A. Panchayati Raj
D. none of above
B. Pradhan
C. Women 222. A government must provide a self-
rule to the lowest level.
D. Gram Sabha
A. Republican
217. WHO IS THE 1ST WOMAN SARPANCH OF
INDIA? B. Democratic
A. CHHAVI RAJAWAT C. Monarchy
B. SUSHMA BHADU D. Dictorship
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 310
223. Who is Panchayat President? 229. Who elects the sarpanch?
A. Panch A. Secretary
B. Prime Minister B. Villagers
C. Member of Gram Sabha
C. Sarpanch
D. State government
D. Cheif Minister
230. Is there is seat for women in zila
224. WHAT DOES SAR MEAN parishad
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. EAR A. yes
B. HEAD B. no
C. PANCHAYAT C. some times
D. no answer
D. NOSE
231. The 3 categories of panchayats are Pan-
225. What is panchayat chayats at village level, Panchayats at
A. Council of 5 memebers block level and
B. Council of 4 members A. Panchayats at high level.
B. Panchayats at court level.
C. Council of 3 members
C. Panchayats at supreme level.
D. Council of 6 memebrs
D. Panchayats at district level.
226. Who is the President of village? 232. The is the village court, whose pur-
A. Zamindar pose is to settle minor rows and provide
speedy justice.
B. Sarpanch
A. Naya panchayat
C. Mayer
B. Gram panchayat
D. None of these
C. Nyaya panchayat
227. BDO is state government official who D. Grama sabha
looks after
233. At what age do people have voting
A. village rights?
B. Block A. 12
C. District B. 18
D. None C. 21
D. 20
228. Which body of Panchayat Raj makes de-
velopment plans at district level? 234. In Rural Areas, the is the first tier of
level of democratic government
A. Zila Parishad
A. Gram Panchayat
B. Panchayat Samiti B. Block level
C. Gram Sabha C. Zila Parishad
D. Gram Panchayat D. none of above
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 311
235. THERE ARE HOW MANY PANCHAYATI 241. Full form of BPL is
RAJ INSTITUTIONS IN INDIA? A. Below Poverty Line
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A. 234, 078 B. Basic People of Line
B. 100, 987 C. None of these
C. 345, 890 D. none of above
D. 234178
242. Which of the following committee recom-
236. Which of the following body is not mended for Panchayati Raj System in In-
elected? dia?
A. Gram Panchayat A. Punchhi Samiti
B. Zila Parishad B. Singhvi Committee
C. Panchayat Samiti C. Balwantrai Mehta Committee
D. Gram Sabha D. None of the following
237. When did the Panchayati Raj come to im- 243. A is not an elected person but is ap-
portance? pointed by the government
A. 74 amendment act, 1997 A. Secretary
B. 73 amendment act, 1992 B. Panch
C. BPL list
C. 72 amendment act, 1992
D. Panchayat Samiti
D. none of above
244. Anyone who is years old or more and
238. regulates the money distribution
who has the right to vote is a member of
among panchayats.
the Gram Sabha. Fill in the blank.
A. secretary
A. 21
B. gram sabha B. 15
C. zila parishad C. 10
D. none of above D. 18
239. who appoints the secretary of gram 245. BPL means
sabha?
A. Better planning limited
A. Government
B. Below poverty line
B. Panch
C. Below processing line
C. Sarpanch
D. Best plan limited
D. Villagers
246. Which among the following is not the
240. Panchayati Raj was formed by part of Panchayat Raj system?
A. 72 Amendment Act 1990 A. Gram Sabha
B. 73 Amendment Act 1992 B. Gram Panchayat
C. 70 Amendment Act 1991 C. Sarpanch
D. 61 Amendment Act 1959 D. Village cooperative society
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 312
247. Functions of ward majlis comes under C. Collection of Money from all members
which section? of Gram Panchayat
A. 3 D. Donations for community works etc.
B. 3B
253. How many levels are there in the Pan-
C. 1A chayati Raj system?
D. 3D A. Two
NARAYAN CHANGDER
248. Justice council B. Four
A. fights for justice C. Three
B. settles disputes among villagers D. Seven
C. helps poverty 254. What is gram sabha?
D. arrests criminals
A. A secret plan
249. Who is the secretary of halqa pan- B. A meeting for prime minister
chayat?
C. A Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults
A. Panch who live in the area covered by a Pan-
B. BDO chayat.
C. VLW D. none of above
D. none of above 255. Which section deals with the Constitution
of block development council?
250. The word Rural refers to the
A. Cities A. 26
B. Towns B. 30
C. Villages C. 27
D. Metro D. none of above
251. Which section deals with functions of 256. The word ‘panchayat’ comes from the the
halqa majlis? word panch from,
A. 3D A. Arabic
B. 3A B. Sanskrit
C. 3B C. Frence
D. none of above D. Latin
252. Which of the following is not a sources of 257. IN WHICH YEAR, THE 1ST PANCHAYATI
funds for the Gram Panchayat? RAJ SYSTEM WAS ESTABLISHED?
A. Collection of taxes on houses, market A. 26 JANUARY 1950
places etc.
B. 2 OCTOBER, 1948
B. Government scheme funds received
through various departments of the gov- C. 15 AUGUST, 1965
ernment D. 2 OCTOBER, 1959
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 313
258. Above the Panchayat Samiti is the 264. A member of Panchayat should not be
less than?
A. ZILA PARISHAD
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A. 18
B. AREA PARISHAD
B. 20
C. GRAM PARISHAD
C. 22
D. NYAY PARISHAD
D. 21
259. Who elects the head of the zila 265. It plays an important role in keeping an
parishad? eye on the elected representatives and in
A. block pramukh making them responsible to the persons
who elected them
B. people of district
A. Ward member
C. sarpanch
B. Sarpanch
D. state government
C. gram sabha
260. What is the full form of ‘BPL’ list D. Panchs
A. Below Power Line 266. Body of local government make decision
B. Below Poverty Line at tehsil or block level?
A. Zila Parishad
C. Below Poverty Labourer
B. Panchayat Samiti
D. Below Power Line
C. Gram Panchayat
261. Ward majlis shall meet once in every: D. Gram Sabha
A. 6months
267. The block panchayat samiti is the local
B. Year self-governing body at the
C. 3months A. District level
D. none of above B. Block level
C. Village level
262. National Panchayati Raj day is on
D. Town level
A. 25th June
268. Which of the following Article is related
B. 24th April to Panchayati Raj?
C. 10th March A. Article 243
D. 15th August B. Article 324
C. Article 124
263. WHAT IS TERM OF SARPANCH
D. none of above
A. 8
269. The representatives of Block Samitis and
B. 9
other members who work at the district
C. 5 level make up the
D. 6 A. Panchayati Raj
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 314
B. Zila Parishad 275. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT ONE
OF THE THREE-TIER SYSTEM?
C. Gram Panchayat
A. ZILLA PARSHID
D. State
B. PARLIAMENT OF AMERICA
270. The management has transformed C. GRAM PANCHAYAT
this barren slope to a green meadow in
just 2 years D. PANCHAYATI SAMITI
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Watershed 276. Name the officer at the block level.
B. Panchayati Raj A. Block Manager
C. Gram Sabha B. Block Improvement Officer
D. The BPL list C. Block Development Officer
D. none of above
271. Panchayat president is also called
A. Panchs 277. Gram Panchayat has how many people
working?
B. Ward members
A. 4
C. Sarpanch
B. 2
D. Secretary
C. 5
272. Which section deals with the property of D. none of above
halqa panchayat?
278. The members of the Gram Sabha must be
A. 13
adults. It means they must be of
B. 15 A. 18 years or more
C. 16 B. 20 years or more
D. none of above C. 22 years or more
273. Age required to be a member of Gram D. 25 years
Sabha?
279. is a key Factor in making the Gram
A. 18 or above Panchayat.
B. 25 or above A. Panch [ Ward member]
C. 14 or above B. Zila Parishad
D. none of above C. Gram Sabha
D. BPL list
274. The member of the gram panchayat is
generally elected for a term of 280. Every village Panchayat is divided into
A. 5 years A. Groups
B. 1 years B. Wards
C. 2 years C. Sections
D. 10 years D. sets
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 315
281. Disqualification of members of halqa pan- 287. List out the role of a secretary:-
chayat comes under which section? A. The panchayat secretary is a salaried
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A. 6 officer appointed by the government, who
B. 5 is also the secretary of the gram Sabha.
C. 7 B. The main task of the secretary in gram
panchayat is to record and register the
D. 9 work done by the panchayat and to pre-
pare budget
282. The sources of income of the village pan-
chayat are C. The secretary in the gram panchayat
advises the villagers in matters of health,
A. Taxes on houses and shops
farming, village development, and educa-
B. Government grants tion.
C. Taxes on fairs and markets D. All of the above.
D. All are correct.
288. calls the meeting of gram sabha and
283. The Panchayati Raj System in a local self- gram panchayat and keeps a record of
government in which areas? that.
A. Rural Areas A. panch
B. Urban Areas B. secretary
C. Central Areas C. people
D. International Areas D. none of above
289. Who started Panchayati Raj in India?
284. The is the highest level of the Pan-
chayati Raj System. A. Dheli
A. Zila Parishad B. Rajasthan
B. District Panchayat C. Maharashtra
C. Both options D. none of above
D. none of above 290. The Panchayati Raj is the tier or level
of democratic government
285. Who elects the Panchayat Head?
A. Sixth
A. All members of Gram Sabha
B. First
B. Villagers
C. Fifth
C. Secretary
D. Second
D. All of these
291. The people of Hardas village suggested
286. What are the different panchayats? development programme for theper-
A. Panchayati raj, panchayat samiti, Zilla manent solution of their problem.
parishad A. Irrigation
B. Panchayati raj, Hardas, Panchayat B. Dam
C. Secretary, Janpad, landlord C. Handpumps
D. God D. Watershed
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 316
292. Panchayati Raj System is 297. Tears of Panchayati Raj
A. the system under which rural local-self A. Zilla Parishad, Gram Panchayat, Pan-
government at the village function levels. chayat Samiti
B. Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, Gram
B. the system under which local-self gov- Panchayat
ernment at the village function levels. C. Panchayat Samiti, Gram Panchayat,
C. the system under which government Zilla Parishad
NARAYAN CHANGDER
works at the village function levels. D. none of above
D. the system under which the village 298. How many seats have been reserved for
function levels. womer
293. The gram panchayat makes the villagers A. one-third
more and self-sufficient. B. one-fourth
A. participative C. half
B. communicative D. one-fifth
C. responsible 299. Who people elect the Sarpanch
D. friendly A. Members of the parliament
B. BPL below powerty line
294. What is mean by Rural?
C. Gram Sabha
A. Village
D. Panchayats
B. city
300. SECRETARY IS APPOINTED BY WHO
C. town
A. SARPANCH
D. district
B. PRIME MINISTER
295. How many levels are there in the pan- C. GOVERNMENT
chayati raj? D. none of above
A. 5
301. The term “panchayat” means
B. 3
A. a group of 5 people
C. 4
B. a group of 6 people
D. none of above C. a group of 7 people
296. Who is the administrative head of the D. a group of 8 people
District Panchayat?
302. Functions of gram panchayat ( choose cor-
A. An IAS Officer rect . answer )
B. An IPS Officer A. Construction and destruction
C. An IFS Officer B. Maintainace and construction
D. The head keeps on changing, i mean C. Trading
people cannot live forever D. Fishing and farming
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 317
303. Which village is mentioned in the chap- 309. What is a Gram Sabha?
ter? A. A meeting of all toddlers
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A. Punsari B. A meeting of all teenagers
B. Poovar C. A meeting of all youngsters
C. Hardas D. A meeting of all adults
D. none of above 310. A group of people living together in a
304. The gram panchayat elected for place is called
A. 5 years A. school
B. community
B. 3 years
C. neighbourhood
C. 6 years
D. room-mates
D. None of these
311. What is Panchayati Raj
305. WHERE DO PEOPLE DIRECTLY PARTIC-
IPATE AND SEEK ANSWERS BY THE A. The Panchayati Raj System is a pro-
ELECTED REPRESENTATIVES? cess through which people participate in
their own government.
A. PARLIAMENT HOUSE
B. It is a election for prime ministers
B. GRAM SABHA
C. Its a way to rule the world
C. LOK SABHA
D. none of above
D. RAJYA SABHA
312. How many tiers are in the Panchayati Raj
306. The people are facing the problem of system of India?
A. Water A. One-tier
B. Fire B. Two-tier
C. Electricity C. Three-tier
D. None of the above D. Four-tier
307. A IS A METTING OF ALL ADULTS WHO 313. Who elects the members of the Gram Pan-
LIVE IN A VILLAGE. chayat?
A. The State government
A. Society
B. The Zila parishad
B. Gram Sabha
C. The Gram Sabha
C. Panchayat
D. (They are not elected, they are ap-
D. zila parishad pointed)
308. The Gram Panchayat is headed by the 314. Panchayati raj system is supervised by?
A. Gram Sabha A. state government
B. Pradhan B. mayor
C. Panchayati Raj C. Zila parishad
D. Women D. block samiti
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 318
315. What is Gram sabha? C. Government
A. a meeting of all adults D. Election Commissioner
B. This could be in a few villages
321. Which provides grants for the Panchayati
C. Above 18 or 18 has the right to vote Raj?
D. All of these
A. Zila Parishad
316. Local government in rural area from B. Block Samiti
NARAYAN CHANGDER
grassroot level to highest level is
C. Central Government
A. Zila Parishad, panchayat samiti, Gram
panchayat D. State Government
B. Panchayat samiti, Gram panchayat, 322. WHAT IS THE MEANING OF PANCHAYATI
Zila Parishad RAJ?
C. Gram panchayat, panchayat samiti,
A. COUNCIL OF 2 MEMBERS
Zila parishad
B. COUNCIL OF 5 MEMBERS
D. Gram panchayat, Zila parishad, pan-
chayat y C. COUNCIL OF 100 MEMBERS
317. In some states Gram sabha form commit- D. COUNCIL OF 1, 200 MEMBERS
tees like
323. Does zila parishad advices state govern-
A. construction committee ment?
B. development committee
A. yes
C. all of above
B. no
D. none of above
C. another answer
318. WHAT DOES ‘PANCH’ MEAN?
D. none of above
A. TWO
B. THREE 324. Each WARD elects a representative who
is known as a
C. FOUR
A. PANCH
D. FIVE
B. MONITOR
319. Who is the head of Zila Parishad?
C. LEGISLATOR
A. Vice President
D. MINISTER
B. Secretary
C. Sarpanch 325. WHO APPOINTS THE SECRETARY OF
GRAM SABHA?
D. District collector
A. GRAM SABHA
320. Who appoints Secretary of Gram Pan-
chayat? B. DISTRICT PANCHAYAT
A. Ordinary person C. GOVERNMENT
B. Landlord of village D. ZILA PRISHAD
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5.1 Panchayati Raj 319
326. Who is appointed by Government? 332. NAME THE AWARD GIVEN TO VILLAGE
A. Panch PANCHS FOR THE EXCELLENT WORK IN
THE PANCHAYAT?
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B. sarpanch
A. NAVYA GRAMPURUSKAR
C. secretary
B. NIRMAL GRAM PURUSKAR
D. ward member
C. NOOTAN GRAM PURUSKAR
327. Quorum of panchayati adalat consist of D. NITYA GRAM PURUSKAR
how many members?
333. Minimum age to become a member of
A. 5 panchayat adalat:
B. 3 A. 25years
C. 6 B. 30years
D. none of above C. 21 years
328. What are the sources of income to zila D. none of above
parishad 334. Women have to go to Suru river which is
A. Raid on houses Km away to get water
B. Income from taxes A. 5 km
C. From lok sabha B. 4 km
D. none of above C. 3 km
D. 2 km
329. What is the full form form ‘BPL’
335. The Panchayat elections are held after ev-
A. Below poverty line
ery year.
B. Below poor line
A. 4
C. Below presidential line
B. 6
D. None of these C. 5
330. makes development plans at the dis- D. none of above
trict level.
336. Which body of Gram sabha is like a local
A. Zila Parishad court?
B. Gram Sabha A. Nyaya Panchayat
C. Panchayat Samiti B. Gram Sabha
D. none of above C. Gram Phanchayat
331. THE MINIMUM PEOPLE NEEDED IN A VIL- D. none of above
LAGE 337. A number of villages form the
A. 500 A. DISTRICT
B. 700 B. BLOCK
C. 400 C. SECTOR
D. 600 D. COMMUNITY
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5.2 Local Government 320
338. How many posts are reserved for women C. Nyaya panchayat
at all levels in Panchayati raj system. D. Gram sabha
A. 1/3
343. who connects Zila parishad and gram pan-
B. 1/2 chayat?
C. 2/3 A. chairman
D. 1/4 B. block samiti
NARAYAN CHANGDER
339. Hindu Succession amendment act came in C. pradhan
the year D. block pramukh
A. 2006
344. Which of the following works at block
B. 2005
level?
C. 2004
A. Panchayat Samiti
D. 2003
B. Janpad Samitis
340. when was two panchs in maharashtra C. Zila Parishad
awarded the nirmal gram puraskar?
D. Gram Panchayat
A. 2010
345. The election for electing the Panchayat of
B. 2004
a village is held after years
C. 2005
A. 6
D. none of above
B. 4
341. List the tiers of the Panchayati Raj in C. 3
the correct order (from most local/lowest
D. 5
level to state/highest level).
A. Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, Gram 346. what called janpad
Panchayat A. village level
B. Block Panchayat, Zilla Parishad, Gram B. block level
Panchayat,
C. district level
C. Panchayat Samiti, Gram Panchayat,
Zilla Parishad D. none of above
D. Gram Panchayat, Block Panchayat, 347. The “PANCH” or Five elders are elected
Zilla Parishad for a Term of how many years?
342. Which Panchayat settles minor disputes A. 5
and provide easy justice to people? B. 6
A. Gram panchayat C. 4
B. Zila panchayat D. none of above
5.2 Local Government
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5.2 Local Government 321
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested C. some States are exempted from estab-
that the structure of Panchayati Raj should lishing three-tier system
consist of: [CDS 1992]
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D. it is optional for the States
A. the village, the block and the district
levels 6. The source of maximum income to Pan-
chayati Raj institution is: [CDS 1993]
B. the mandal and the district levels
A. local taxes
C. the village, the district and the State
levels B. regional funds
D. the village, the mandal, the district and C. government grants
the State levels D. share in Union Govt. revenue
2. Which of the following is incorrect in re- 7. A person to be qualified for standing in a
spect of Local Government in India? [IAS panchayat election must have attained the
1995] age of:
A. According to the Indian Constitution lo- A. 21 years
cal government is not an independent tier
B. 18 years
in the federal system
C. 25 years
B. 30% of the seats in local bodies are re-
served for women D. 30 years
C. Local government finances are to be 8. Who is the executive head of a Municipal
provided by a Commission Corporation?
D. Elections to local bodies are to be de- A. Mayor
termined by a Commission
B. Secretary
3. In which of the following States was the C. Commissioner
Panchayati Raj first introduced?
D. Deputy Mayor
A. Rajasthan
B. Gujarat 9. The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Na-
garpalika shall be for:
C. U.P.
A. three years
D. Bihar
B. four years
4. Which is not the concern of the local gov- C. five years, unless dissolved earlier
ernment? [SSC Grad 2011]
D. co-extensive with the term of Legisla-
A. Public Health tive Assembly
B. Sanitation
10. Which is at the apex of the three tier sys-
C. Law and Order tem of Panchayati Raj?
D. Public Utility Services A. Gram Sabha
5. It is obligatory for all States to have: B. Gram Panchayat
A. three-tier system C. Zila Parishad
B. two-tier system D. Panchayat Samiti
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5.2 Local Government 322
11. The Mayor to the Municipal Corporation is C. Article 40
elected by: D. Article 246
A. all the elected representatives of the
16. The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to:
Corporation
[RRB 1991]
B. the elected representatives together
A. deal with administration of justice at
with Elder-men who are elected by these
the Panchayat level
representatives
B. implement community development
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the voters of all the constituencies in
project schemes
the city directly
C. deal with financial matters of the Pan-
D. elected representatives of the Corpo- chayat
ration and the elected members of State
Legislative Assemblies D. deal with rural industrialization
17. Which of the following is not a recommen-
12. The Panchayati Raj System was adopted
dation of the Ashok Mehta Committee on
to: [I. Tax 1991]
Panchayati Raj? [CDS 2009]
A. make people aware of politics
A. Open participation of political parties
B. decentralise the power of democracy in Panchayati Raj Affairs
C. educate the peasants B. Creation of a three-tier system
D. None of the above C. Reservation of seats for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes
13. Every Village Panchayat is headed by a
D. Compulsory powers of taxation of Pan-
Sarpancha who is elected by:
chayati Raj Institution
A. Gram Sabha
18. Which one of the following Amendments
B. members of Village Panchayat from of the Constitution of India deals with the
among citizens of the village issue of strengthening of the Panchayati
C. members of Village Panchayat from Raj? [NDA 2008]
among themselves A. 42nd
D. not elected but nominated by Collector B. 44th
14. Where was the first Municipal Corporation C. 73rd
in India set up? [CDS 2005] D. 86th
A. Mumbai 19. Which of the following is not true regard-
B. Kolkata ing a Gram Panchayat?
C. Delhi A. It is constituted in every village with a
population over 500
D. Chennai
B. It consists of all the adult citizens of
15. Which one of the following Articles of the the village
Constitution of India makes a specific men-
C. Its decisions are taken by a majority
tion of Village Panchayats? [NDA 2008]
vote
A. Article 19 D. Its decision in petty criminal cases can-
B. Article 21 not be appealed in any court of Law
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5.2 Local Government 323
20. The electorate for a Panchayat is: 25. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amend-
ment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting
A. the Taluka board
the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the coun-
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B. all adults of 21 years of above in a vil- try, provides for which of the following?
lage
1. Constitution of District Planning
C. the village and selected Members of Committees.
Parliament and State Legislature 2. State Election Commissions to con-
D. the Gram Sabha duct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Com-
21. The list of items which may be entrusted missions.
to the Panchayats is given in the: Select the correct answer using the codes
A. Eleventh Schedule given below: [CSAT 2011]
B. Twelfth Schedule A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. Seventh Schedule
C. 2 and 3 only
D. State List
D. 1, 2 and 3
22. Gram Sabha consists of:
26. The local self-governing institution for a
A. 5 to 10 elected Ward Panchas of the town with a population of twelve thou-
Village Panchayats sand and above is known as:
B. All the voters of the Village Panchayat A. Municipal Corporation
C. All the Chairmen of Village Panchayats B. National Area Committee
of the Block
C. Municipal Committee
D. All the Chairmen of Block level institu- D. Zila Parishad
tions of the district
27. Which of the following functions are oblig-
23. Who among the following is not a member atory in all municipalities?
of the Panchayat Samiti?
I) Registration of births and deaths.
A. Sarpanchas of all the Panchayats II) Supply of potable water.
B. Elected members of the State Legisla- III) Planting and maintenance of road
ture belonging to that area side trees.
IV) Provision of transport facilities
C. Members of the Union Parliament be- within the municipality.
longing to that area
A. I and II
D. All of the above
B. II and III
24. Which of the following is a source of in- C. III and IV
come of the Gram Panchayats? D. I, II, III and IV
A. Income Tax
28. What is the intermediate tier of the Pan-
B. Sales Tax chayati Raj System called? [NDA 2005]
C. Professional Tax A. Zlla Parishad
D. Levy Duties B. Taluka Panchayat
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5.2 Local Government 324
C. Panchayat Samiti 34. Which of the following is not true about
D. Gram Sabha the Village Panchayats?
A. It consists of members elected by the
29. Mayor of a Municipal Corporation holds Gram Sabha from amongst themselves
the office for a period of: B. If a member of the Scheduled Caste
A. 1 year and a woman member are not elected to
it, the Government itself nominates them
B. 3 years
C. For election to the Village Panchayat,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 5 years
a candidate need not be a resident of the
D. 4 years same village but his name should be. In
the voter’s list
30. A Municipal Corporation is set up in a city
D. For election to the Village Panchayat, a
with a population of not less than:
candidate must be 25 years of age
A. 1 lakh
35. Panchayati Raj was started in the country
B. 12 lakh in:
C. 10 lakh A. 1957
D. 5 lakh B. 1959
31. Which of the following States has no Pan- C. 1952
chayati Raj Institution at all? D. 1951
A. Asom 36. Panchayati Raj has received constitutional
B. Kerala status with the Amendment Act:
C. Tripura A. 72nd
B. 73rd
D. Nagaland
C. 74th
32. Father of local self-government in India D. 75th
is:
37. Who is to conduct the elections to the Pan-
A. Lord Mayo
chayats and Municipalities?
B. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
A. State Government
C. Lord Ripon B. Central Government
D. Mahatma Gandhi C. State Election Commission
33. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for D. Central Election Commission
five years from the date of [CDS 2011] 38. The elections to Panchayats are to be
A. its first meeting held:
B. issue of notification for the conduct of A. every four years
elections to the Panchayat B. every five years
C. declaration of the election results C. when the State Government decides to
D. taking oath of office by the elected do so
Members D. at the Centres directive
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5.2 Local Government 325
39. The Gram Panchayats are elected by Gram 43. The three-tier system of Panchayats:
Sabhas consisting of: A. is uniformly applicable to all States
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A. every citizen living in a village
B. is applicable only to States with popu-
B. entire male and female population of lation above 50 lakh
the village
C. need not be strictly followed in States
C. every adult male living in a village with population below 20 lakh
D. every farmer of the village D. has been replaced with a four-tier one
40. Mandal Panchayats were recommended 44. The Panchayats are authorised:
by:
A. to levy taxes, duties, levy and appropri-
A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
ate the same
B. Narasimhan Committee
B. the Panchayats have no power to levy
C. Ashok Mehta Committee taxes
D. Vengal Rao Committee C. the Panchayats are entitled to only
41. Which of the following are a source of in- grants from the Government
come to the urban local bodies? D. to levy, collect and appropriate such
I) Octroi duty on goods brought into taxes, duties tolls and fees as they are au-
and taken out of the city. thorised by the Governments
II) Taxes on vehicles. 45. Which of the following is not a source of
III) Income from water and electricity revenue to the Village Panchayats? [RRB
supply. 1991]
IV) Financial grants from the State Gov-
ernments. A. Property-Tax
A. I, II and III B. House Tax
B. II, III and IV C. Land Tax
C. I, III and IV D. Vehicles Tax
D. I, II, III and IV 46. The levying of which one of the following
42. Special representation in Panchayati Raj taxes is outside the jurisdiction of Munici-
Institutions is given to: [IFS 1990] pal Corporation?
A. women A. Property Tax
B. co-operative societies B. Income Tax
C. backward classes C. Profession Tax
D. All of the above D. Education Tax
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VI
VI
NARAYAN CHANGDER
6 Union Territories & special areas 327
6.1 Union Territories . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 327
6.2 Scheduled and Tribal Areas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 333
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6. Union Territories & special areas
6.1 Union Territories
1. capital of Nagaland 5. What is the Capital of Goa
A. Bhopal A. Panjim
B. Kohima B. Mysuru
C. Jaipur C. Rameswaram
D. It goes away D. Pondicherry
2. capital of arunachal pradesh 6. How many states are there in India?
(2020)
A. Itanagar
A. 28
B. Amaravati
B. 29
C. patna
C. 23
D. Thiruvananthapuram
D. 27
3. Capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands
7. Little Andaman in the south is separated
A. Kavaratti from the Nicobar Islands by the ?
B. Diglipur A. Artic Ocean
C. Amaravati B. Ten Degree Channel
D. Port Blair C. Southern Ocean
D. Five Degree Channel
4. Which is the capital of Andaman and Nico-
bar Island? 8. Capital of Gujarat:
A. Daman A. Gandhi Nagar
B. Port Blair B. Mumbai
C. Delhi C. Shimla
D. Kavaratti D. Raipur
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6.1 Union Territories 328
9. In 2004 the Andamanand Nicobar Islands 14. how many union territories of India
drew global attention when they were A. 8
severely damaged by a large tsunami that
had been triggered by an earthquake in B. 9
? C. 10
A. Pacific Ocean D. 6
B. Arabian Sea 15. By whom are the members of the Lok
C. Bay Of Bengal Sabha elected?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Indian Ocean A. By the people of India
10. is the largest country in terms of pop- B. By the elected members of State Leg-
ulation. islative Assemblies
A. China C. By the members of the Union Territo-
ries
B. USA
D. By the President
C. Brazil
D. Australia 16. THE CAPITAL OF TELANGANA
A. Hyderabad
11. The capital of Lakshadweep?
B. Bangalore
A. Kavaratti
C. Mumbai
B. Kochi
D. none of above
C. Patna
D. Goa 17. Number of union territories in our coun-
try?
12. A landmass surrounded by water on three A. 7
sides is called a
B. 9
A. Island
C. 8
B. Plateau
D. 10
C. Peninsula
D. None of these 18. Who has the right to set up a High Court
in any Union Territory?
13. Choose the correct option for Stages in the A. President
life of a Bill.
B. Supreme Court
A. 1.Discussion2. President’s Signature3.
Other house4. Introduction5. Voting6. C. c) Parliament
Act D. (d) None of the following
B. 1. Introduction2. Other house3. Vot- 19. how many states and union territories are
ing4. Act5. Discussion6. President’s Sig- there?
nature
A. 26 states and 7 union territories
C. 1. Introduction2. Discussion3. Vot-
ing4. Other house5. President’s Signa- B. 28 states and 9 union territories
ture6. Act C. 34 states and and 5 union territories
D. none of above D. none of above
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6.1 Union Territories 329
20. The only active volcano in India is , 26. Capital of Goa
which is present in Andaman Islands. A. Bangalore
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A. Narcondam B. Panaji
B. Baratang C. Mumbai
C. Barren Island D. Lucknow
D. Deccan Traps
27. Which of the following union territory’s
21. What is the capital of sikkim MLAs do not participate in the election of
the President of India?
A. Gangtok
A. Lakshadweep
B. JAIPUR
B. Chandigarh
C. BHOPAL
C. Puducherry
D. none of above D. both a and b
22. Which is the largest union territory(in In- 28. Capital of Daman and Diu and Nagar
dia)? Haveli
A. Jammu And Kashmir A. Daman
B. Lakshadweep B. Silvassa
C. Chandigarh C. Diu
D. Puducherry D. Nagar Haveli
23. Who heads the Union Territory of Delhi 29. WHAT IS THE CAPITAL OF GOA
A. President A. Panaji
B. Deputy Governor B. Itanagar
C. Home Minister C. Shimla
D. a and b both D. none of above
24. Capital of U.P. is 30. Which constitutional amendment envis-
aged delhi the status of special state
A. Patna
A. 91st
B. Delhi
B. 69th
C. Lucknow C. 54th
D. none of above D. none of above
25. capital of meghalya 31. Capital of Manipur
A. Shillong A. Aizwal
B. Imphal B. Imphal
C. aizawl C. Agartala
D. kohima D. Shillong
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6.1 Union Territories 330
32. There are states and Union territories 38. Capital of Telangana
in India
A. Ranchi
A. 28 and 8
B. Gangtok
B. 29 and 9
C. Amaravati
C. 24 and 4
D. Hyderabad
D. 30 and 40
39. Capital of Uttarakhand
NARAYAN CHANGDER
33. Of which state Patna is the capital
A. Shimla
A. Haryana
B. Dehradun
B. Panjab
C. Kohima
C. Bihar
D. Srinagar
D. Uttar Pradesh
40. The largest state in India is:
34. what is the capital of Karnataka?
A. Rajasthan
A. hydrabad
B. Madhya Pradesh
B. Dispur
C. Uttar Pradesh
C. bengaluru
D. Andhra Pradesh
D. kolkata
41. What is the total area of India landmass?
35. Capital of India:
A. 3.28 million sq km
A. New Delhi
B. Hyderabad B. 3.20 million sq km
C. Bhubaneshwar C. 3.40 million sq km
D. Mumbai D. All of these
36. capital of Arunachal Pradesh 42. What is the capital of Meghalaya
A. Itanagar A. Lakshadweep
B. Port Blair B. Pune
C. Kolkata C. Rishikesh
D. Jaipur D. Shillong
37. In which of the following union territory a 43. The number of members elected to the Ra-
Council of Ministers is elected? jya Sabha are
A. Delhi A. 238
B. Chandigarh B. 250
C. Andaman and Nicobar Islands C. 12
D. Daman and Diu D. 530
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6.1 Union Territories 331
44. Capital of Nagaland: 50. Capital of Arunachal Pradesh:
A. Puducherry A. Itanagar
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B. Dispur B. Imphal
C. Kohima C. Bhopal
D. Chennai D. Aizawl
45. Capital of Sikkim is 51. the six larger countries from India are
A. Patna A. russia, Canada, China, USA, Brazil and
B. Agartala Australia
C. Gangtok B. Canada, China, USA, Brazil, Australia
and Russia
D. Port Blair
C. China, USA, Brazil, Australia, Russia,
46. Which of these statement is incorrect Canada
A. Gujarat-Itanagar D. USA, Brazil, Australia Russia Canada
and China
B. Madhya Pradesh-Bhopal
C. West Bengal-Kolkatta 52. The list which includes matters of impor-
tance to the states such as public order and
D. Goa-Pudducherry
police, water supplies and irrigation, pub-
47. Capital of Uttar Pradesh: lic health, agriculture and so on.
A. Kavaratti A. Union list
B. Lucknow B. State list
C. Bhopal C. Concurrent List
D. Jaipur D. none of above
48. Who governs the union territory “Daman 53. Q 10.The widely spoken language in An-
and Diu”? daman And Nicobar is ?
A. Deputy Governor A. Hindi
B. Administrator B. Andamanese
C. Chief Minister C. Bengali
D. Gujarat High Court D. Nicobarese
49. There are how many union territories(in In- 54. India is the largest country in terms of
dia)? Area
A. 4 A. 7
B. 9 B. 5
C. 8 C. 9
D. 7 D. 2
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6.1 Union Territories 332
55. No of states in India 61. Who appoints the Chief Minister of Delhi
A. 26 A. president of India
B. 27 B. Home Minister
C. 28 C. Deputy Governor
D. 29 D. None of the following
56. North, Middle, and South Andaman, 62. The names ‘Andaman’ and ‘Nicobar’ are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
known collectively as ? taken from the Language.
A. Interview Island A. Sanskrit
B. Great Nicobar B. Hindi
C. Little Andaman C. Pali
D. Great Andaman D. Malay
57. What is the capital of Dadra and Nagar 63. India lies in which hemisphere?
Haveli?
A. Northern Hemisphere
A. Tokarkhada
B. Southern Hemisphere
B. Patna
C. Western Hemisphere
C. Silvassa
D. None of these
D. Naroli
64. The largest sea turtle rests in ?
58. There are mainly how many landforms?
A. Ladakh
A. 3
B. 4 B. Puducherry
C. 6 C. Lakshadweep
D. 5 D. Andaman And Nicobar
59. how many states are in India 65. The neighbouring countries of India in the
south
A. 28
A. Sri lanka and Maldives
B. 29
B. Bangladesh and Myanmar
C. 27
C. China, Nepal and Bhutan
D. 25
D. Afghanistan and Pakistan
60. The Chief Minister of Delhi will give his res-
ignation to 66. What is the capital of Kerala?
A. The President of India A. Ranchi
B. The state’s governor B. Kochi
C. The Deputy Chief Minister of Delhi C. Thiruvanthapuram
D. Delhi Vidhan Sabha Speaker D. Mumbai
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6.2 Scheduled and Tribal Areas 333
67. Capital of Kerela 71. Which is the largest state in India?
A. Bhuvneshwar A. Maharashtra
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B. Chennai B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Thiruvananthapuram C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Panaji D. Rajasthan
68. What is the Capital of West Bengal 72. What is the capital of Maharashtra
A. Bangalore A. Mumbai
B. Kolkata B. Nagapur
C. Mumbai C. Nashik
D. Riyadh
D. none of above
73. Name the group islands lying in the Ara-
69. What is the north-south extend of India?
bian Sea.
A. 3241 km A. Andaman Nicobar
B. 2933 km B. Lakshadweep
C. 3214 km C. Port blair
D. 3213 km D. All of these
70. Which States of India are largest and 74. Which of the following Union Territories
smallest according to the area? can make laws on concurrent list
A. Rajasthan & Madhya Pradesh A. Chandigarh
B. Madhya Pradesh & Sikkim B. Jammu and Kashmir
C. Goa & Rajasthan C. Puducherry
D. Rajasthan & Goa D. Lakshadweep
6.2 Scheduled and Tribal Areas
1. during the formation of whom the Mar- B. God of Hari
avars were brought in as socially outcast C. People of Hari
tribes or traditionally as lowest entrants
into the shudra category. D. Children of God
A. Tamilaham 3. what is gondi tribes main work
B. gondis A. cleaning homes
C. maravars B. painting
D. gokhars C. nail art
2. What is the best befitting meaning of the D. agriculture
word “Harijan”? 4. There are over Scheduled Tribes in In-
A. Children of Hari dia according to The National Commission
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6.2 Scheduled and Tribal Areas 334
for Scheduled Tribes 9. of the Constitution also contains pro-
visions for the administration of Tribal Ar-
A. 699
eas, but in the states of Assam, Megha-
B. 771 laya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
C. 700 A. The Fifth Schedule
D. 701 B. The Sixteenth Schedule
C. The Sixth Schedule
5. Which act was implemented to address
NARAYAN CHANGDER
crimes and atrocities against Scheduled D. The Seventh Schedule
Castes and Scheduled Tribes? 10. Which state has the largest population of
A. SC/ ST Prevention of Atrocities Act Scheduled Tribes
1989 A. Mahrashta
B. The Scheduled Castes and Tribes Act, B. Kerala
1989 C. Punjab
C. The Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Pre- D. Rajsthan
vention of Atrocities) Act, 1995
11. what is the branch of maravans
D. None of these
A. Mukkulathor confederacy.
6. gives the President the power to no- B. municipal counsell
tify those communities in specific regions C. legislative
that fall under the classification of Sched-
D. judical
uled Tribes.
A. Article 342 12. Who was the founder of the Adivasi Ma-
hasabha, formed in 1938, which later be-
B. Article 340 came the Jharkhnd Party?
C. Article 341 A. Nirmal Munda
D. Article 343 B. Jaipal Singh
C. BR Ambedkar
7. Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu were two tribal
leaders who rose againist the British. D. none of above
Which tribe did they belong to? 13. Who are the tribal people in UAE
A. Bhil A. Emiratis
B. Gond B. Indians
C. Santhal C. Afgans
D. none of above D. All the people in the Country
14. who is known as the god of gonds wor-
8. Scheduled caste are also referred to as
ship
A. Savarna A. jesus
B. Navarna B. Baradeo
C. Avarna C. krishna
D. Kvarna D. none of above
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6.2 Scheduled and Tribal Areas 335
15. Who among these is a prominent Dalit C. Article 338A
writer from Maharashtra? D. Article 332
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A. Munshi Premchand
21. The Bhil Community is a predominant Tribe
B. Girish Karnad of which of the following state
C. Baburao Bagul A. Odisha
D. none of above B. Rajasthan
16. PVTG Stands for C. Chhattisgarh
A. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups D. West Bengal
B. Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Group 22. what are the Gonds that share their clos-
C. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group est genetic similarity with the Austroasi-
atic population called
D. Primate Vulnerable Tribal Group
A. gondi markers
17. who is the most distinctive feature of B. analyasist
Gond religion.
C. autosomal markers
A. Pamela G, Price
D. none of above
B. Persa Pen
C. zamindars 23. Khasi tribe is mainly found in which state
of India?
D. none of above
A. Meghalaya
18. what are Austroasiatic population called B. Mizoram
A. mundas C. Arunachal Pradesh
B. gondis D. Manipur
C. maravans
24. Tribal Population of India?
D. none of above
A. 104 Million
19. Which activist and scholar first used the B. 64 Million
word Dalit for Scheduled Castes of India?
C. 33 Billion
A. BR Ambedkar
D. 300
B. Mahatma Gandhi
25. what is maravar also known as
C. Jyotirao Phule
A. thevar
D. none of above
B. meram
20. directs the state to create a National C. marava or maravans
Commission for Scheduled Tribes, to over-
see the implementation of the provisions D. ramnad
and safeguards of the rights of Scheduled 26. The Gond tribes are mostly found in Cen-
Tribes in India tral India in which district of Madhya
A. Article 243D Pradesh?
B. Article 243T A. Pimpri
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6.2 Scheduled and Tribal Areas 336
B. Bastar C. KR Narayanan
C. Udupi D. none of above
D. Chhindwara 30. ST face oppressions due to the Hindu Caste
system?
27. Who among these was a tribal leader who
played a prominent role in India’s fight for A. True
freedom? B. False
A. Tantia Tope
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Can’t Say
B. Birsa Munda D. none of above
C. Nanasaheb
31. The Boa Tribe belong to which of the fol-
D. none of above lowing?
28. what is the name of the horrific title of A. Lakshadweep
maravar community B. Port Blair
A. srinikesh C. Andamans
B. zamindars D. Sri Lanka
C. maram
32. During the British colonial era, the Mar-
D. thevar avars were sometimes recorded as
29. Who was the first Dalit President of In- A. vaishiyas
dia? B. shudras
A. APJ Abdul Kalam C. Kshatriyas
B. Zail Singh D. brahmanas
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VII
VII
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7 Constitutional bodies . . . . . . . . . . . . 338
7.1 Election Commission . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 338
7.2 Public Service Commission . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 340
7.3 Finance Commission india . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 355
7.4 GST council . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 358
7.5 NITI Aayog . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 391
7.6 RTI Act . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 394
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7. Constitutional bodies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
7.1 Election Commission
1. The list of those people who are eligible to C. Misuse of Official Machinery
vote is officially called
D. Universal Adult Franchise(UAE)
A. Voter’s List
B. Electoral Roll 5. Who is the head of the election commission
of India?
C. Elector’s List
A. President
D. Constituency List
B. Chief Election commissioner
2. Who appoints the Chief Election Commis-
sioner? C. Government
A. Parliament D. none of above
B. President of India
6. Which of the following is not the part of
C. Prime Minister election procedure?
D. Law Minister A. Voting
3. Name of the body which conducts the elec- B. Nomination of candidates
tion in India
C. Rigging
A. Supreme Court
D. Campaign
B. Parliament
C. Cabinet 7. A ballot paper is a sheet of paper which
contains the names of the:
D. Election Commission
A. Voters
4. Following is a weakness (challenge to) In-
dian election system: B. Party workers
A. Secret Ballot C. Polling Officials
B. Use of Electronic Voting Machines D. Contesting Candidates
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7.1 Election Commission 339
8. When was the slogan Garibi Hatao was 14. How many Lok Sabha constituencies are
given by Congress? there in India?
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A. Lok Sabha Elections of 1785. A. 263
B. State assembly elections of 1783. B. 548
C. Lok Sabha Elections of 1971. C. 316
D. Lok Sabha Elections of 2015. D. 543
9. The slogan Save Democracy was given by 15. For making election more transparent, the
which party? Election Commission has recently intro-
A. Congress duced:
B. Telugu Desam Party A. Indelible ink
C. Lok Dal B. Electronic voting machine
D. Janta Party C. Polling booths
10. The Election Commission is answerable to: D. Voters List
A. Rajya sabha 16. Who allots symbols to political parties
B. President A. President
C. Loksabha B. Prime Minister
D. Constitution C. Chief Minister
11. Who implements the Code of Conduct? D. Election Commission
A. The Election Commission
17. Which statement about the Election Com-
B. General Public mission is not correct?
C. Prime Minister A. It is a permanent and independent
D. Supreme Court body
B. It is responsible for getting conduct
12. How many chief election commissioner are the elections of President, Vice President
there and Municipal Corporations
A. 1
C. Article 324 of the Constitution envis-
B. 2 ages the provisions relating to the Elec-
C. 3 tion Commission
D. 4 D. This is an all-India institution
13. Turnout figures mean: 18. How many election commissioner are
there in EIC
A. Percentage of eligible voters who cast
their votes A. 1
B. Number of candidates B. 3
C. The Council of Ministers C. 2
D. The winning candidates D. 0
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7.2 Public Service Commission 340
19. Who appointments the Chief Election Com- D. All of the above
missioner of India?
22. In India to be able to vote one must be
A. The President of India
years old or above
B. The Prime Minister of India
A. 17
C. The Council of Ministers
B. 16
D. The Governor
C. 18
20. When was ECI formed
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
A. 1951
B. 1950 23. What do you mean when we say that a
constituency is reserved for the schedule
C. 1949 castes(SC)?
D. 1953 A. Any candidate can fight the election
21. In Democracy Elections are important be- but only the SC candidate will be declared
cause winner.
A. The formation of government becomes B. Any candidate can fight the election
easy but only SC women candidate will be de-
clared winner.
B. They help in the formation of opposi-
tion party C. Only SC candidate can fight the elec-
C. They are a check on the working of the tion.
government D. None of the above.
7.2 Public Service Commission
1. Who is responsible for the registration of 3. The State Election Commission can be re-
voters? moved from office:
A. Government A. only by the Governor
B. Voters B. in the same manner and on the same
grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
C. Political parties
D. Election Commission C. only by the President on the advice of
2. Who can cast their votes by postal ballot? the Chief Justice of the concerned State
D. in the same manner as the Vice-
I) Members of the Armed Forces.
President of India
II) Officials on election duty.
III) Foreign Service personal when 4. When was Bureau of Indian police Re-
posted abroad. search and development came into force?
A. I and III A. 1970 august 20
B. II and III B. 1970 august 28
C. III only C. 1963 november 21
D. I, II and III D. 1988 march 3
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7.2 Public Service Commission 341
5. In the discharge of his functions, the Attor- 10. A person is eligible to vote in the general
ney General is assisted by: elections if he or she:
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A. a Solicitor General I) is a citizen of India.
B. two Solicitors-General and four Addi- II) is not less than 21 years of age.
tional Solicitors-General III) does not hold any office of profit un-
C. a Solicitor General and two Additional der the Government.
Solicitors General IV) is not disqualified on grounds of un-
sound mind.
D. None of the above
A. I, II and III
6. Who among the following is known as fa-
ther of civil services? B. I and IV
A. Lord Bentick
C. I and II
B. Lord Dalhousie
D. I, II and IV
C. Lord Curson
D. Lord Conwallis
11. Consider the following statements with re-
7. What is the full form of UPSC spect to Attorney General of India:
A. Union Public Service Commission 1. He is appointed by the President.
B. United Public Service Commission 2. He must have the same qualifica-
C. United public Service Corporation tions as are required by a Judge of
High Court.
D. Union penal Service Commission 3. In the performance of his duties he
8. The Chairman and members of State Public shall have the right of audience in all
Service Commission are appointed by the: courts of India.
A. President Which of the statements given above
B. Prime Minister is/are correct? [CDS 2009]
C. Governor A. 1 only
D. Chairman, UPSC
B. 1 and 3
9. The Chief Election Commissioner, accord-
ing to a recent judgement of the Supreme C. 2 and 3
Court is: [CDS 1994] D. 1, 2 and 3
A. the final authority in matters to be de-
cided by the Election Commission 12. What is the age limit for general category
B. to share his authority with members of candidates for appearing Civil ServiceEx-
the Election Commission ams?
C. to go by majority opinion prevailing A. 30
among the .members of the Election Com-
mission B. 32
D. not bound by the Representation of the C. 35
People Act which is amendable by Parlia-
ment D. 33
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7.2 Public Service Commission 342
13. The declaration which outlines the future C. five years
programme and policy of a political party
D. four years
issued on the eve of a general election is
called: 19. Which of the following is not true regard-
A. white paper ing the Attorney General of India?
B. manifesto A. He represents Government in any ref-
C. yellow paper erence made by the President under Arti-
cle 143
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. mandate
B. His consent is necessary for initiating
14. In which year was the rule that ‘No Indian proceedings for contempt in certain cases
would be eligible for posts carrying £500
and above as salary’ made
C. His consent is necessary for finaliza-
A. 1799 tion of appointment of Judges to State
B. 1793 High Courts
C. 1773 D. He appears in courts of law on be-
D. 1784 half of the Houses of Parliament or the
Speaker
15. The composition of the UPSC is:
20. Which of the following is an extra Consti-
A. laid down in the Constitution
tutional and non-statutory body?
B. determined by Parliament
A. Election Commission
C. determined by the President
B. Finance Commission
D. determined by the Chairman of the
UPSC C. Planning Commission
D. Union Public Service Commission
16. When did Sardar Vallabhai Patel National
Police Academy started functioning? 21. Finance Commission consists of:
A. 1948 sep 15
A. five members
B. 1952 nov 3
B. four whole time members
C. 1966 nov 3
C. Chairman and four members
D. 1948 sep 23
D. a Chairman and three other members
17. First Indian Civil Servant
A. Abareenthra Natha Tagore 22. The main purpose of Zonal Councils is to:
B. Sathyendranath Tagore A. settle disputes between States in a
Zone
C. Pradeep Singh Kanjan
B. advise on matters of common interest
D. Chaudari Bhattacharya
to States in a Zone
18. Finance Commission is constituted by the C. ensure that laws passed by various
President every: States do not conflict with each other
A. two years D. devise best ways of utilising available
B. three years resources of States
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7.2 Public Service Commission 343
23. The Election Commission does not conduct D. Union and State Governments and
the elections to the: companies substantially financed by both
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A. Lok Sabha
28. The Congress lost its monopoly of power
B. Rajya Sabha in the States for the first time after the
C. Local bodies elections of:
D. President’s elections A. 1967
24. What is the correct sequence of steps in B. 1971
electoral procedure? C. 1977
I) Filing of nominations. D. 1955
II) Presidential notification.
III) Scrutiny of nomination papers. 29. Full form of “IFS”
IV) Withdrawal of candidature. A. Indian forest services
V) Allotment of symbols.
B. Indian forgive services
A. I, III, IV, V, II
C. Indian foreign services
B. II, I, IV, V, III
C. I, III, V, IV, II D. Indian firing services
D. II, I, III, IV, V 30. The Attorney General of India has the right
to audience in:
25. The powers of the Election Commission are
given in which of the following Articles of A. any High Court
the Constitution? B. Supreme Court
A. 286 C. any Sessions Court
B. 356
D. any Court of law within the territory of
C. 324 India
D. 382
31. What is the age limit of OBC category can-
26. Who appoints the Chief Election Commis- didate for appearing civil Service Examina-
sioner of India? [CRPF 1990] tion?
A. President A. 35
B. Prime Minister B. 33
C. Parliament C. 30
D. Chief Justice of India D. 37
27. The functions of the Comptroller and Au- 32. UPSC submits its annual report on its work
ditor General of India include auditing and to:
reporting on the receipts and expenditure
of: A. the Parliament
A. Union Government only B. the Union Home Minister
B. State Government only C. the President
C. Union and State Governments D. the Chief Justice of India
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7.2 Public Service Commission 344
33. An Indian jurist, economist, Politician, who Assembly and see whether expendi-
drafted Constitution was ture has been in accordance with the
A. B.R. Ambedkar law.
A. I, II, III and IV
B. Mahatma Gandhi
B. I, III and IV
C. Rajendra Prasad
C. II and III
D. Lala Lajpat Roy
D. III and IV
NARAYAN CHANGDER
34. Members of the Union Public Service Com-
mission can function as members up to the 38. Who is the Father of All India services?
age of: [I. Tax 1989] A. Jawaharlal Nehru
A. 60 years B. Mahathma Gandhi
B. 58 years C. Lord Moundbatten
C. 62 years D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
D. 65 years 39. The Chairman of the Finance Commission
must be:
35. Only people nominated by the of the
A. qualified to be a High Court Judge
company could enter the Civil services.
B. a person having special knowledge of
A. Directors economics
B. General C. a person having experience in public
C. Governor-general affairs
D. East India Company D. All of the above
36. National Development Council is: 40. With which of the following is the com-
ment, ‘no vakil, no appeal, no dalil’ asso-
A. political body
ciated and also known as ‘Black William’
B. non-political body A. Rowlatt Act, 1919
C. statutory body B. Rowlatt Act, 1930
D. None of the above C. Rowlatt Act, 1920
37. Which of the following are true regarding D. Rowlatt Act, 1918
the Comptroller and Auditor General of In- 41. The control of the preparation of electoral
dia? rolls for Parliament and legislatures vests
I) The office of the CAG has been cre- with the: [CBI 1993]
ated by the Constitution. A. Cabinet
II) He holds office for a term of five
years or till the age of 60 years, B. Prime Minister
whichever is earlier. C. President
III) He can be removed from office only D. Election Commission
by impeachment.
IV) He has to audit and report on all 42. Which of the following political parties
expenditure from the Consolidated came into being before independence?
Fund of India and of each State and I) Communist Party of India (Marxist)
Union Territory having a Legislative II) Communist Party of India
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7.2 Public Service Commission 345
III) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam C. I, II and III
IV) Bharatiya Janata Party D. I, II, III and IV
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. I and II
46. The members of the Inter-State Council
B. II only
are:
C. I, II and III
I) Six cabinet ministers nominated to
D. II and IV it
II) Chief Ministers of all States
43. The duties envisaged by the Constitution
III) Secretaries of Union Ministries
for the Inter-State Council are to:
IV) Governors of all States
I) inquire into and advise on disputes
A. I and II
between States
II) investigate matters of common in- B. I, II and III
terest for two or more States C. II only
III) make recommendation for coordina-
tion of policy and action relating to D. II and IV
any subject
47. Pondichery Civil Service Comes Under?
IV) enforce provisions relating to the
freedom of trade and commerce A. All India Service
A. I, II and IV B. Group A Service
B. I, II and III C. Group B service
C. II and IV D. None Of the above
D. II, III and IV
48. Who is the first lady IAS officer In India?
44. Full form of “IPS” A. R Nishanthini
A. Indian political services B. R sreelekha
B. Indian police services C. Anna Rajam Malhothra
C. Indian penny services D. Kanjan Choudary Bhattacharya
D. Indian pollution services
49. Full form of “IRS”
45. Which of the following activities indulged
A. Indian rainwater services
in by a candidate during an election cam-
paign constitute corrupt practices? B. Indian revenue services
I) Giving gifts to voters to induce them C. Indian rooster services
to vote. D. Indian rarely services
II) Appealing for votes on the grounds
of caste or religion. 50. Who was the first woman director of Sar-
III) False character assassination of dar Vallabhai Patel Police Academy?
other candidates.
A. Kiran Bedi K .
IV) Propagation and glorification of
Sati. B. Prithika Yashni
A. I and II C. Aruna M Bahuguna
B. II and III D. Preethi Malik
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7.2 Public Service Commission 346
51. Who was the first Indian to raise National D. is presented to the President
Flag on foreign soil?
A. Madam Cama 57. Kerala’s first Director General of police
B. Sardar Patel A. T Anantha Sankara Iyyer
C. Annie Besant B. N Chandrasekaran Nair
D. Mahatma Gandhi C. Oliver H Bensley
52. How many days-time is given for the can- D. George Gunther
NARAYAN CHANGDER
didates to file their nominations from the
date of notification of the election? 58. The members of UPSC hold the office:
A. 2 days A. during the pleasure of President
B. 4 days B. as long as they enjoy confidence in Par-
C. 6 days liament
D. 8 Clays C. for life or till they attain the age of 70
years
53. Who is the highest Law Officer of a
State? D. for the term of six years or till they at-
A. Attorney General tain the age of 65 years
B. Advocate General 59. Consider the following statements:
C. Solicitor General
1. The Chairman and the Members of
D. Secretary General Law Department the UPSC are appointed by the Pres-
ident.
54. Who was proclaimed as the emperor of In-
2. The Chairman and the Members of
dia during great Indian Mutiny (1857)?
the UPSC are eligible for further em-
A. Bahadur Shah II ployment under the Government.
B. Rani Laxmi Bhai Which of the statements given above
C. Tantiya Tope is/are correct? [CDS 2008]
D. Nana Saheb A. 1 only
55. When did Civil Service started in India? B. 2 only
A. 1864 C. Both 1 and 2
B. 1990 D. Neither 1 nor 2
C. 1869
D. 1858 60. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Minis-
ters, Chief Ministers and Council of Minis-
56. There port of the UPSC: ters are all members of:
A. is to be accepted by the Government in A. Planning Commission
to
B. National Development Council
B. may be ignored without explanation
C. Zonal Council
C. has to be discussed in Parliament be-
fore being accepted D. Regional Council
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7.2 Public Service Commission 347
61. The jurisdiction of the Finance Commission A. President
does not extend to:
B. Parliament
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. recommendation of the distribution be-
C. Government
tween the Union and the States of the net
proceeds of taxes D. Planning Commission
B. recommendation of the allocation to 65. Who is the current Vigilance director?
the States of the respective shares of such
tax proceeds A. Loknath Behra
C. recommendation of the allocation of B. R Nishanthini
funds among the various heads of expen- C. Athul Karwal
diture in the Union and State budgets
D. S AnanthaKrishnan
D. recommendation of the principles
which govern the Grants-in-aid of the rev- 66. The Centre-State financial distribution
enue of the States out of the . Consoli- takes place on the recommendation by
dated Fund of India the:
62. Who among the following cannot be re- A. Finance Minister
moved from office except in the manner B. Planning Commission
prescribed in the Constitution of India?
C. Finance Commission
[NDA 2005]
A. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Com- D. Sarkaria Commission
mission
67. Current kerala Excise Director
B. The Governor of a State
A. S Ananthakrishnan
C. The Chief Election Commissioner
B. Bipin Rawath
D. The Chairman, Finance Commission
C. B C Roy
63. Which one of the following is not a func- D. Y B Chavan
tion of UPSC?
A. It conducts examinations for the ap- 68. The name of Independent India between
pointment to the services of the Union 15th August 1947 to 26th January 1950
B. It shall be consulted on all matters re- A. Domination of Bharath
lating to methods of recruitment to civil B. Republic of Bharath
services and posts
C. Dominion of India
C. It shall be consulted on-all disciplinary
matters affecting a person serving the D. State of Dominion of India
Government of India
69. The first general elections in India were
D. It shall be consulted as regards the held in:
reservation of posts for backward classes,
A. 1949
scheduled castes and tribes
B. 1950
64. An Inter-State Council was set up in 1990
C. 1951
under Article 263 of the Constitution by
the: D. 1947
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7.2 Public Service Commission 348
70. Which of the following does not come un- 75. With reference to India, consider the fol-
der the purview of the Election Commis- lowing electoral systems: [CDS 2004]
sion?
I) System of direct election on the ba-
A. To conduct the election of PM of India sis of adult suffrage.
B. To conduct the election of President of II) System of proportional representa-
India tion by means of single transferable
vote.
C. To give recognition to the political par- III) List system of proportional repre-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ties sentation.
D. To assign election symbols to the polit- IV) Cumulative system of indirect repre-
ical parties sentation.
71. Which of the following was started first Which of these have been adopted for var-
by Mahatma Gandhi? ious elections in India?
A. Champaran A. 1 and 2
B. Quit India movement B. 2 and 3
C. Non-cooperation C. 1, 3 and 4
D. Civil disobedience D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
72. Which of the service is one of the highest
76. Who is the youngest IAS officer from ker-
post of civil services
ala?
A. Indian revenue services
A. Muhammad Ali Shihab
B. Indian zoology services
B. Lipin Raj
C. Indian chemistry services
C. S Susree
D. Indian commission services
D. Aruna sundararajan
73. When was first civil service exam con-
ducted? 77. The National Leader who opposed ill-
A. 1855 treatment of untouchables in South-Africa
and the person to initiate attacks on Salt
B. 1868 Tax in Indian Legislature was
C. 1863
A. Mahatma Gandhi
D. 1867
B. Pherozeshah Mehta
74. The Chief Election Commissioner can be re- C. Dadabhai Naoroji
moved:
D. G.K. Gokhale
A. by each House of Parliament by a spe-
cial majority and on the ground of proven 78. Full form of “UPSC”
misbehaviour or incapacity
A. Union palace seventh corner
B. by the President of India
B. Union public service commission
C. by the Supreme Court
C. universe poly semester of chemistry
D. on charges of corruption if proved in
the Supreme Court D. upper poly semester of chemistry
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7.2 Public Service Commission 349
79. Who had given the slogan of ‘Do or Die’ 1. It has been defined in the Constitu-
during All India Congress Committee in tion after the 61st amendment.
Bombay and ratified the ‘Quit India’ res- 2. It includes the seizure of a polling
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
olution? booth to prevent the orderly conduct
A. Subash Chandra Bose of elections.
3. It is also committed when any elec-
B. Mahatma Gandhi tor is threatened and prevented
C. Jawaharlal Nehru from going to the polling station to
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak cast his vote.
4. It has been declared a cognizable of-
80. The Ex-officio Chairman of a Zonal Council fence punishable by imprisonment.
is: A. 2, 3, and 4
A. one of the Union Ministers B. 1, 2 and 3
B. the Governor of the State where the C. 2 and 3
Zonal Council meets
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. the Chief Minister of the State where
the Council meets 84. Consider the following statements:
D. elected by the member-State Chief 1. The Attorney General of India can
minister be a member of any Parliamentary
Committee.
81. The Electorate means: 2. The Attorney General of India can
A. those people who do not have the right take part in the proceedings of ei-
to elect their representatives ther House of Parliament.
B. all the citizens who possess the right 3. To be appointed as the Attorney
to vote and elect their representatives in General of India, a person must be
an election qualified to be appointed as a judge
of the Supreme Court of India.
C. those people who have the right to be
elected Which of the statements given above are
correct? [NDA 2005]
D. those people who have the right to live
in a country A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
82. Which of the following is not true about
the Lok Pal Bill? C. 1 and 3
A. The Lok Pal is institutionalised set-up D. 1, 2 and 3
to put curbs on erring Ministers 85. Which of the following is/are correct with
B. Once appointed, the Lok Pal can hold regard to the office of Attorney General of
office for a maximum period of five years India?
C. Complaints to the Lok Pal can be made I) He is a member of the Cabinet.
by any citizen other than a public servant II) He can speak in either House of Par-
D. The Lok Pal is appointed by the Chief liament and vote on any issue.
Justice of Supreme Court III) He must be qualified to become a
Judge of the Supreme Court.
83. Which of the following is correct regarding IV) His remuneration is fixed by Parlia-
booth capturing? ment.
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7.2 Public Service Commission 350
A. II and IV 90. The conditions of service and tenure of the
B. I, II and IV Election Commissioner is prescribed by:
C. III only A. the Constitution
D. III and IV B. Parliament
C. the President
86. Which of the following is not true about
the electoral functions of the Parliament? D. Government
[SBI PO 1991]
NARAYAN CHANGDER
91. In case of which of the following, the
A. It helps the Prime Minister in forming method of removal from office is the
the Central Cabinet same?
B. It participates in the election of the I) Judge of the Supreme Court.
President II) Chief Election Commissioner.
C. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of III) President of India.
the Lok Sabha are elected by the Members A. I and II
of the Parliament B. II and III
D. Members of the Parliament vote for C. I and III
the election of the Vice-President
D. I, II and III
87. The Attorney General of India holds office
during the pleasure of the: 92. Which of the following are true regarding
the Attorney General of India?
A. President
I) He is the first Law Officer of the
B. Prime Minister Government of India.
C. Parliament II) He has the right of audience in all
D. Chief Justice Courts in India.
III) He has the right to speak and vote
88. Where have been training of civil services in the Houses of Parliament or any
are given Parliamentary Committee.
A. Delhi IV) He must have the same qualifica-
tions as are required to be a judge
B. Kolkatta of the High Court.
C. Amritsar A. I and II
D. Bihar B. I, II and III
89. The members of UPSC can be removed C. II, III and IV
from the office before the expiry of the D. I, II, III and IV
term by the:
A. Prime Minister 93. Which is the highest post in Civil Ser-
vices?
B. Chairman of UPSC
A. Cabinet secretary
C. President on recommendation of
Supreme Court B. Additional secretary
D. Prime Minister on recommendation of C. Under secretary
Supreme Court D. Joint secretary
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7.2 Public Service Commission 351
94. The Comptroller and Auditor General can D. The term of office of an Election Com-
be removed from office: missioner is six years from the date he as-
sumes office or till the day he attains the
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. in the same way as the President can
age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
be removed
B. in the same manner as that prescribed 98. Which among the following is Nirbhaya
for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge toll free Number?
A. 18004251400
C. by the President on a report by the B. 1064
Supreme Court C. 155300
D. in none of the above ways D. 1515
95. Gumnami was an untold story based on 99. Recognition to a political party is accorded
which of the following commissions as- by: [CDS 1992]
signed to reveal death mystery of S.C A. the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in the
Bose. case of national parties and the Speaker
A. Mukherjee commission of Legislative Assemblies in the case of re-
gional parties
B. Khosla commission
B. the Election Commission
C. Shah Nawaz commission
C. the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
D. Figgess commission
D. a Committee of Whips
96. Who started UPSC in India 100. British Government appointed an Indian
A. Lord mornington Statutory Commission to review the Gov-
ernment of India Act, 1919 this commis-
B. Sir Ross Barker sion is also known as
C. Lord Munroe A. Elbert commission
D. Sir Ciril Radcliffe B. Hunter commission
C. Simon commission
97. Which one of the following statements is
not correct? [CDS 2004] D. Cripps commission
A. The Election Commissioner scan not be 101. What section 18 of kerala police act
removed from their office except on rec- 2011 impart?
ommendations by the Chief Election Com-
A. State police chief
missioner
B. Functions of police
B. In case of difference of opinion
amongst the Chief Election Commissioner C. Duty of a police officer
and other ’Election Commissioners, the D. DGP
matter is decided by the Law Commission
102. Term of Comptroller and Auditor General
of India is: [CRPF 1990]
C. The Chief Election Commissioner and’
other Election Commissioners enjoy equal A. 6 years
powers B. 65 years of age
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7.2 Public Service Commission 352
C. 6 years or 65 years of age whichever 108. Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev
is earlier along with Jaigopal were involved in
D. None of the above which among the following conspiracy
case?
103. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Launched
A. Kanpur conspiracy case
‘August Kranthi’ on which of the following
day B. Lahore conspiracy case
A. 9 th August, 1942 C. Bhagalapur conspiracy case
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 8 th August, 1942 D. Alipore Bomb case
C. 15 th August, 1942
109. Graduates constitute a separate con-
D. 18th August, 1942
stituency for the election of specified num-
104. Who is the founder of Civil service in In- ber of members to the: [Railway Appren-
dia? tices 1993]
A. Lord Wellesley A. Nyaya Panchayat
B. Lord Cornwallis B. State Legislative Council
C. Sir Thomas Roe C. Rajya Sabha
D. Mahatma Gandhi
D. State Legislative Assembly
105. According to the National Human Rights
Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the 110. How many posts are there in Civil Ser-
following can be its Chairman? [IAS vice?
2004] A. 20
A. Any serving Judge of the Supreme B. 21
Court
C. 22
B. Any serving Judge of the High Court
C. Only a retired Chief Justice of India D. 24
D. Only a retired Chief Justice of a High 111. State funding of elections takes place in:
Court [IAS 1997]
106. Vande Mataram was an adopted slogan A. USA and Canada
for which of the following movement
B. Britain and Switzerland
A. Quit India movement in 1942
C. France and Italy
B. Non co-operation movement in 1920
D. Germany and Austria
C. Partition of Bengal in 1905
D. Revolt in 1857 112. Navajyothi India Foundation was formed
by ?
107. Who is the first Blind IAS officer?
A. V K Krishnamenon
A. Pranjal Patil
B. Pradeep Singh B. Kiran Bedi
C. Roman Saini C. R Sreelekha
D. S Susree D. Alice stebbin wells
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7.2 Public Service Commission 353
113. The Area of Lok Sabha Constituency for notification for election is issued by the
the purpose of general election is deter- President and Governors of the States
mined by the: concerned
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Delimitation Commission D. Both the exercises of making a recom-
B. Election Commission mendation for election and that of issuing
a notification in respect of it are done by
C. Census Commission the Election Commission
D. President
118. Election of Rajya Sabha is held after:
114. Who is the current vigilance director of [RRB 1991]
Kerala? A. 1 year
A. Sudhesh Kumar IPS B. 2 years
B. S Ananthakrishnan IPS C. 6 years
C. Rishiraj Singh D. 5 years
D. R Swaminathan IPS
119. Where is LBSNAA Situated?
115. Zonal Council are provided: A. Sikkim
A. by the Constitution B. Mussoorie
B. by Parliamentary Act C. Itanagar
C. under the 42nd Amendment Act D. Deradune
D. by Presidential ordinance 120. The members of All-India Services are ap-
116. The first Law Officer of the Government pointed under the signature of:
of India is: A. President
A. Chief Justice of India B. Home Minister
B. Law Minister C. Vice-President
C. Attorney General D. Chairman of UPSC
D. Auditor General 121. A political party is recognised by the Elec-
117. Which one of the following is correct in tion Commission only if:
respect of the commencement of the elec- I) it has been engaged in political ac-
tion process in India? [IAS 1995] tivity for a continuous period of five
A. The recommendation for election is years.
made by the government and the notifica- II) has returned at least one member of
tion for election is issued by the Election the Lok Sabha for every 2Smembers
Commission of that House or any fraction of that
number elected from that State.
B. The recommendation for election is III) has polled not less than six percent
made by the Election Commission and the of the total number of valid votes
notification for election is issued by the polled by all contesting candidates
Home Ministry at the Centre and Home De- at the general elections.
partments in the States IV) has contested election in four or
C. The recommendation for election is more States in three consecutive
made by the Election Commission and the general elections.
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7.2 Public Service Commission 354
A. I and II 126. The resignation letter of a State Public
Service Commission member is addressed
B. I, III and IV
to the
C. I, II and III A. President
D. I, II, III and IV B. Governor
122. Electioneering has to stop in a con- C. Chief Justice of India
stituency: D. Chief Minister
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. one day before the election 127. Who is a Returning Officer? [Teachers’
B. 48 hours before election starts Exam 1993]
C. 36 hours before a poll commences A. An officer who returns the unaccepted
applications for allotment of land
D. 48 hours before the closing hour of
B. An officer who is sent back to his par-
polling
ent department
123. The Chief Election Commissioner of India C. An officer who is head of the State As-
holds office for a period of [CDS 2011] sembly Secretariat
A. six years D. An officer who is responsible for con-
duct of election in a constituency and de-
B. during the pleasure of the President clares results
C. for six years or till the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier 128. The UPSC conducts examinations for:
I) Central Services.
D. for five years or till the age of 60 years,
II) All India Services.
whichever is earlier
III) State Services.
IV) State Services for two or more
124. The Election Commission holds election
States jointly.
for: [NDA 1994]
A. I, II and III
A. the Parliament
B. II and IV
B. the Parliament and State Legislative
Assemblies C. I only
D. I and II
C. the Parliament, State Legislative As-
semblies and State Legislative Councils 129. Which of the following is not correct?
D. the Parliament, State Legislatures and A. The Election Commission consists of
the posts of the President and the Vice- the Chief Election Commissioner and such
President number of other Election Commissioners
as President may fix
125. What is full form of “IAS”
B. The Election Commission conducts the
A. Indian abnormal services elections to the Parliament, the State Leg-
B. Indian administration services islatures, the offices of the President and
Vice-President and all local bodies
C. Indian accomplishes services
C. The Chief Election Commissioner is the
D. Indian administrative services Chairman of the Election Commission
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7.3 Finance Commission india 355
D. The conditions of service of the Chief Election Commission of India?
Election Commissioner shall not be varied A. 1, 2 and 3
to his disadvantage
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B. 2, 3 and 4
130. Consider the following tasks: [IAS 2004] C. 1 and 3
1. Superintendence, direction and con- D. 1, 2 and 4
duct of free and fair elections.
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all 131. The members of a State Commission can
elections to the Parliament, State- be removed by the:
Legislatures and the Office of the A. Governor on a report by the Supreme
President and the Vice-President. Court
3. Giving recognition to political par-
ties, allotting election symbols to B. Governor on a resolution passed by
political parties and individuals con- Parliament
testing the election. C. President on a report by the Supreme
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the Court
case of election disputes. D. President on a resolution passed by
Which of the above are the functions of the Parliament
7.3 Finance Commission india
1. Under the Article of the Constitution of A. $18, 750
India has made provision for the appoint- B. $46, 915
ment of a Finance Commission.
C. $4, 691.50
A. 240
D. $387.72
B. 270
C. 280 4. As per the 15th Finance Commission, in
context to the performance based indica-
D. 281
tors and grants to states, which of the fol-
2. As per the recommendations of the 15th lowing is true?
Commission, Horizontal devolution refers A. grants revolve around social sectors
to the like education
A. allocation between the states B. performance based incentives for the
B. devolution of Taxes of the Union to power sector (not grants, but additional
States borrowing window)
C. GST tax collections from individual C. governance and administrative re-
states forms under which it has recommended
D. Allocation of import duties grants for judiciary, statistics and aspira-
tional districts and blocks.
3. Wilson Green sells home security systems. D. all of the above
He earns an 11 percent commission on ev-
ery system he sells. Wilson’s sales for this 5. Robert earns 3% commission on the sale
month totaled $4265. What is Wilson’s of a $512, 800 home. What is his commis-
commission? sion?
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7.3 Finance Commission india 356
A. $15, 384 10. Total 15th Finance Commission transfers
B. $1, 538, 400 (devolution + grants) constitutes about
of estimated Gross Revenue Receipts
C. $153, 840 to the Union, leaving adequate fiscal space
D. 170, 933.33 to meet its resource requirements and
spending obligations on national develop-
6. For horizontal devolution, the 15th Com- ment priorities.
mission suggested weightage to demo-
graphic performance, to income, A. 30%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
each to population and area, 10% to for-
B. 34%
est and ecology and to tax and fiscal
efforts. C. 15%
A. 45%; 12.5%; 15%; 2.5% D. 50%
B. 45%; 15%; 12%; 2.5
C. 12.5%; 45%; 15%; 2.5% 11. Randy gets fixed salary of $2000 per
month and a commission of 2% on sales.
D. 25%; 34%; 15%; 2.4% If his total sales are $30, 000 for the
7. Danielle sells beauty supplies and earns a month, find his total salary for the month.
base salary of $450 per week plus a 9% A. $2, 600
commission on sales. During one particu-
lar week, she sells $895 worth of beauty B. $2, 000
supplies. How much money does she earn C. $32, 000
that week?
D. $2, 040
A. $530.55
B. $1, 345 12. Derek sells appliances. He is paid a 6.5
C. $80.55 percent commission on every appliance he
sells. Derek sold $9, 732.00 worth of ap-
D. $40.50
pliances this week. What is Derek’s com-
8. So far Finance Commissions have been mission?
constituted.
A. $632.58
A. 11
B. $63.258
B. 10
C. $6, 325.80
C. 14
D. 15 D. $143.38
9. Robert earns a weekly salary of $350 plus 13. The 15th Finance Commission was consti-
a 7% commission on sales. Last week, his tuted in November 2017 under the chair-
sales totaled $3200. What was his TOTAL manship of .
pay? commission + salary = total pay
A. N.K. Singh
A. $24.50
B. Bibek Debroy
B. $224
C. $574 C. PM Narendra Modi
D. $248.50 D. Manmohan Singh
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7.3 Finance Commission india 357
14. Emma earns 8% commission on all cloth- A. soil quality; drinking water supply, san-
ing she sells. Last month she earned $192 itation and solid waste management
in commission. How much merchandise did
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. air quality; drinking water supply, san-
she have to sell in total? itation and solid waste management
A. $2, 400 C. air quality; police stations, courts and
B. $15.36 rehabilitation centres
C. $19 D. shopping malls; drinking water supply,
sanitation and solid waste management
D. $176.64
19. Which one of the following is the function
15. Felipe earns 5% commission on his sales
of Finance Commission?
at Best Buy. One week his sales totaled
$9, 650. What was his commission for A. Impose penalties on local govern-
the week? ments for not sharing the revenue with
the centre on
A. $9, 167.50
B. recommend the distribution of net tax
B. $482.50 proceeds and allocation of shares of such
C. $965 proceeds between the Union and the
D. $487.50 States.
C. devolve bonuses to the state govern-
16. Jay makes $9 an hour plus a 12.5% com- ment employees
mission selling jewelry. How much does
D. to review the performance of the ex-
she earn on an 8 hour shift in which she
ports by supplementing export oriented in-
sells $380 worth of jewelry?
dustries
A. $119.50
20. Ms. DeMedici earns a weekly salary of
B. $389
$290 plus a 5.5% commission on sales
C. $380 at a gift shop. How much would she
D. $47.50 make in a week (TOTAL PAY) if she sold
$5700 worth of merchandise? commis-
17. Pierre, an art dealer, earns 25% commis- sion + salary = total pay
sion of the dollar value of the art pieces A. $603.50
that he sells at the Bizzell Gallery. Pierre
earns $10, 800 this month. What is the B. $313.50
total dollar value of the art that he sells? C. $15.95
A. $43, 200 D. $329.45
B. $2, 700 21. *A little more challenging* A salesperson
C. $270, 000 made $890.50 selling $6850 worth of
electronic equipment. Find the commission
D. $10, 800
rate.
18. As per the 15th FC, Million-Plus City Chal- A. 13%
lenge Fund (MCF) amount is linked to the B. 75%
performance of these cities in improving
their and meeting the service level C. 8.905%
benchmarks for urban , and . D. 6.850%
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7.4 GST council 358
22. It has recommended post-devolution rev- A. 3 Trillion
enue deficit grants amounting to about B. 5 Trillion
Rs. over the five-year period ending
FY26. C. 10 Trillion
D. 11 Trillion
7.4 GST council
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. What kind of tax is GST? A. 1980
A. Direct Tax B. 1990
B. Indirect Tax C. 2000
C. Depends on the type of goods and ser- D. 1900
vices
6. What do you mean by Cascading Effect?
D. None of the above
A. Tax on Tax
2. GST (tax) credits is classified as; B. Multiple Tax
A. current asset C. Goods and Services Tax
B. current liability D. Input Tax Credit
C. non-current asset
7. Who is the present RBI governer?
D. non-current liability
A. Manmohan Singh
3. The maximum rate applicable for B. Raghuram Rajan
SGST/UTGST is?
C. Urjit Patel
A. 28
D. Shaktikanta Das
B. 14
C. 20 8. My business is registered in Mumbai and
am flying from Mumbai to Bengaluru. Af-
D. 30 ter crossing Maharashtra Borders as I en-
4. Mr. Ajay buys a chair marked at Rs. 10, ter Karnataka state, I will be charged
000 at a discount of 15% on the marked on Meals. And can I claim its ITC?
price, the rate of tax being 18%. Calcu- A. IGST, No
late the tax Mr. Ajay has to pay for this B. IGST, Yes
purchase.
C. CGST and SGST, Yes
A. Rs. 810
D. CGST and SGST, No
B. Rs. 1530
C. Rs. 900 9. WHO UNFURLS OUR INDIAN FLAG ON
73rd, 74th independence DAY?
D. Rs. 1800
A. RAM NATH KOVIND
5. The MRP of a book is 2000. The shop- B. MANMOHAN SINGH
keeper gave a discount of 10% & GST rate
was 10% . Calculate the total amount on C. NARANDRA MODI
the bill. D. NONE OF THESE..
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7.4 GST council 359
10. GST Stands for:- 15. The tax invoice of a telecom service in
A. Good and Supply Tax Meerut shows cost of services provided by
it as Rs. 750. If the GST rate is 18%, find
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. Government Sale Tax the amount of the bill.
C. Goods and Services Tax A. 925
D. General Sales Tax B. 1005
11. Determine the time of supply of goods C. 885
A. Date of issue of Invoice by supplier- D. 638.50
21st July
16. Goods sold from Solapur to Surat is the
B. Date of dispatch of goods by the example of
supplier-22nd July
A. GST
C. Date of receipt of payment in bank
B. CGST
account-15th June
C. SGST
D. Date of record of payment in books of
account-17th June D. IGST
12. Assessable Value of a machine is Rs.15, 17. Entries are not getting including if we In-
000 and effective rate of GST is 12%. clude it from GSTR-1 and GSTR-3B?
GST shall be- A. Entries once excluded cannot be in-
A. Rs.1931 cluded.
B. Rs.1800 B. Need to identify that whether the entry
is been exluded from GSTR-1 or GSTR-3B
C. Rs.2250
C. Entries should be Re passsed.
D. Rs.2304
D. Entries should be Re Accepted
13. What is date of receipt of payment?
18. What is IGST?
A. Date of entry in the books
A. Integrated Goods and Service Tax
B. Date of payment credited into bank ac-
B. Indian Goods and Service Tax
count
C. Initial Goods and Service Tax
C. Earlier of (a) and (b)
D. None
D. Date of filing of return
19. GST payables is classified as;
14. In GSTR-3B we are not getting URD pur-
chases under ‘Reverse charge liability and A. current asset
Input credit to be Booked’? B. current liability
A. Make sure that the Option “Enable C. non-current asset
Tax liability on Reverse charge” (URD Pur- D. non-current liability
chases) from F11>F3.
20. What is the full form of HSN in GST?
B. URD purchases will be shown in GSTR-
2 A. Harmonized System Nomenclature
C. URD Purchases are waived by the de- B. Humanity System Numbers
partment as of now C. High Services Tax Numbers
D. All of the above D. None of these
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7.4 GST council 360
21. Is the SEZ developer or SEZ unit receiving 26. As per section 12(2) of CGST Act, 2017,
zero rated supply eligible to claim refund where the supplier is liable to pay tax un-
on IGST paid by the registered taxable per- der forward charge, the time of supply will
son on such supply be
A. Yes A. Date of issue of invoice or the last date
on which the supplier is required to issue
B. No
invoice
C. Partially yes
B. Date on which supplier receives the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above payment with respect to the supplies.
22. When India became free from British C. Earlier of A and B
rule? D. Later of A and B
A. 15 august 1950
27. A registered person can claim refund of
B. 26 jan 1947 any unutilised input tax credit on zero
rated supplies without payment of tax or
C. 15 august 1947
the credit accumulated on account of in-
D. 26 jan 1930 verted tax rate structure
23. Place of supply in case of installation of A. before the expiry of tax period
elevator is B. before thr expiry of 3 years from the
A. Where the movement of elevator com- relevant date
mences from the suppliers place C. at the end of tax period, but before the
B. Where th delivery of elevator is taken expiry of 2 years from the relevant date
C. Where the installation of elevator is D. before thr expiry of 18 months from
made the relevant date
D. Where address of recipient is men- 28. Which year onwards Gandhi Jayanthi is
tioned in the invoice celebrated as international non-violence
day?
24. Taxes that are levied on any Intra-State
A. 2007
purchase are?
B. 2004
A. IGST
C. 2008
B. SGST
D. 2006
C. SGST/CGST
D. UTGST 29. The government has recently launched GST
regime, effective from july 1, 2017.what
25. What does G stands for in GST? is GST
A. General A. Gross sales tax
B. Global B. Goods and state tax
C. Goods C. Goods and services tax
D. Great D. none of above
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7.4 GST council 361
30. What is time of supply of goods, in case of C. 3 months from the date of issue
supplier opting for composition levy under
D. Earlier of A and C
Section 10 of the CGST Act, 2017?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Date of issue of invoice 35. IGST credit shall first be utilised towards
B. Date of receipt of consideration by the payment of
supplier A. CGST
C. Latter of (a) & (b) B. SGST
D. Earlier of (a) & (b) C. IGST
31. tax is imposed on Intra-state supply D. UTGST
of goods and services collected by State
Government. 36. Amount that can be claimed as Refund can
A. GST be calculated as
B. CGST A. (Turnover of zero rated supply of
goods and turnover of zero rated supply
C. SGST of services) * Net ITC /Total Turnover
D. IGST
B. (Turnover of supply of goods and
32. Mr. C sold goods worth Rs. 30000 turnover of supply of services) * Net ITC
to Mr. Dr on 5.8.2017, which were /Total Turnover
sent on 6.8.2017, the invoice date being C. (Turnover of supply of goods and
15.8.2017 and the goods were received turnover of supply of services) * Net ITC
by Mr. D on 5.9.2017. Time of supply is /Adjusted Total Turnover
D. (Turnover of zero rated supply of
A. 5.8.2017 goods and turnover of zero rated supply
B. 6.8.2017 of services) * Net ITC /Adjusted Total
Turnover
C. 15.8.2017
D. 5.9.2017 37. Decrease $1400 by 10% and then de-
crease the result by 10%
33. The central board of Excise and Customs
(CBEC) has recently announced that A. $1386
will be observed as GST Day? B. $1400
A. 14th June C. $1134
B. 1st July
D. $1120
C. 11TH June
D. none of above 38. Luxury Tax and Entry Tax have been sub-
sumed under
34. If the supply is identifiable at the point at A. CGST
which voucher is issued, the time of supply
shall be B. SGST
A. Date of issue of voucher C. IGST
B. date of redemption D. Cess
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7.4 GST council 362
39. The incidence of tax on tax is called 45. Every year which of the following days
A. Tax Pyramiding will be observed as GST day by Central
Board of Excise and Customs?
B. Indirect tax
A. 1st July
C. Tax evasion
B. 31st December
D. Tax Cascading
C. 1st April
40. GST got effective in India from:- D. 1st june
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 1st July 2017
46. What does the term PERSON includes?
B. 1st Aug 2017
A. Individual
C. 1st July 2018
B. HUF
D. 1st July 2019
C. Partnership firm & Company
41. In Tally for deleting any ledger, group or D. All
voucher key combinations used.
A. CTRL+ D 47. In Case of Composition Scheme generally
applicable rate is:
B. ALT + D
A. 2%
C. ALT +S
B. 3%
D. CTRL +S
C. 1%
42. Maximum rate of GST is:- D. 5%
A. 5%
48. When did PM Narendra Modi introduce de-
B. 12% monetisation?
C. 28% A. 8th November 2016
D. 18% B. 4th November 2016
43. One tooth paste and tooth brush and a toi- C. 8th November 2017
let soap sold in a packet for Rs. 50, is a D. 1st December 2017
type of
A. . Mixed supply 49. GST-Goods and Service Tax Act is estab-
lished under which of the following Amend-
B. Composite supply ments of the Constitution of india?
C. Joint Supply A. 101st Amendments of Constitution
D. Not supply B. 196th Amendments of Constitution
44. Jack bought a bike for $550 and then sold C. 132nd Amendments of Constitution
it for $680. What was his percentage D. 77th Amendments of Constitution
profit?
A. 130 50. A dealer in Delhi buys some goods worth
Rs. 16, 000. If the rate of GST is
B. 23.6 12%, find how much will the dealer pay
C. 19.1 as CGST.
D. 25.2 A. Rs. 960
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7.4 GST council 363
B. Rs. 1920 what percentage, would such provisional
C. Rs. 17, 920 refunds be granted?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
D. Rs. 16, 960 A. 90%
B. 80%
51. Exports under GST are?
C. 70%
A. Zero rated
D. 65%
B. 5%
C. 10% 57. Mr. A took Health Insurance Policy for his
family and paid Rs. 900 as SGST. Find the
D. 7.5%
total annual premium paid by him for this
52. Refund of GST is not applicable in case of policy, rate of GST being 18%.
A. Notified multilateral Financial Institu- A. 18000
ition B. 10000
B. Embassy of foreign countries C. 9000
C. Imports D. 2100
D. Zero rated supplies
58. If the person makes export supplies or sup-
53. The voucher type is used for recording plies to SEZ, will he be eligible to avail the
rectifying entries or adjustment entries. ITC?
A. Journal A. Yes, if he supplies under Bond / LUT
B. sales B. Yes, if he doesn’t supply under Bond /
C. purchase LUT
D. contra C. Yes, he can avail ITC in any situation
D. None of the above
54. Is GST applicable to Jammu and Kashmir
A. Yes 59. The turnover limit for registered person
B. No for GST Audit
C. Maybe A. 2cr
D. To some part B. 1.5Cr
C. 1Cr
55. ITC of can be adjusted with Output
IGST, CGST and SGST D. 0.5 Cr
A. CGST 60. Where a supply is made from a place other
B. SGST than the place of business for which regis-
tration has been obtained
C. IGST
A. Principal place of business entity
D. Cess
B. Such place of business
56. Refunds would be allowed on a provi-
sional basis in case of refund claimsin case C. Any place of business of such entity
of zero rated supply of goods and ser- D. The location of such fixed establish-
vices made by a registered persons. At ment
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7.4 GST council 364
61. If I go to Bhopal in MP, and buy a Lap- 66. of 60
top for Company and provide my Mumbai A. 150
GSTIN to Seller, he will charge me
B. 15
A. CGST
C. 1.5
B. SGST
D. 2.5
C. IGST
D. CGST and SGST 67. What is the time of supply of service for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the supply of taxable services up to ‘1000
62. Whether the GSTR-3B is filed monthly or in excess of the amount indicated in the
quarterly? taxable invoice?
A. Monthly A. At the option of the supplier-Invoice
date or Date of receipt of consideration
B. Quarterly
B. Date of issue of invoice
C. Monthly and Quarterly
C. Date of receipt of consideration.
D. Yearly
D. Date of entry in books of account
63. GST is calculated on
68. Input tax credit is available only when the
A. transaction value purchase made is used in
B. taxable value A. The course or furtherance of business
C. tax payable after deducting input
credit B. other than business expenses
D. net duty payable C. Both (a) and (b)
64. Maximum Rate of CGST is D. None of the above
A. 40% 69. Gst full form
B. 20% A. Goods and service tax
C. 10% B. Goods and goods
D. 5% C. Goods and kids
D. Goods
65. Who is the present Chairperson of GST
Council instituted for making recommenda- 70. Mr.Ram supplied goods to Mr.Laxman.
tions to Government of India on important The invoice is dated 30.07.2018. Pay-
issues related to GST? ment was received for supply on
A. Minister of finance and Corporate 30.10.2018. The goods were dispatched
Affairs-Arun Jaitley<br /><br /> on 05.08.2018. What is the time of sup-
ply under CGST Act?
B. Rajiv kumar, Vice Chairman Niti Aayog
A. 05.08.2018
C. Ministry of commerce and Industry- B. 30.07.2018
Suresh Prabhu C. 30.10.2018
D. PM Narender Modi D. None of the above
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7.4 GST council 365
71. For the following transaction within Delhi, 76. When was VAT introduced in UAE?
find the value of the following:CGST =? A. 1st January 2017
, SGST=? , IGST=? Given that, MRP =
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
Rs.12000, Discount%= 30%, GST= 18% B. 1st January 2018
A. Rs 0, Rs 0, Rs 1512 C. 31st December 2018
B. Rs 1512, Rs 1512, Rs 0 D. 31st December 2017
C. Rs 0, Rs 0, Rs 756 77. In which release latest GSTR-3B offline
D. Rs 756, Rs 756, Rs 0 tool version 4.3 supported?
A. Tally.ERP 9 Release 6.6.1
72. What was the original cost of a bed frame
that has a GST-included price of $1900? B. Tally.ERP 9 Release 6.0.3
The rate of GST is 10%. Answer correct C. Tally.ERP 9 Release 6.2
to the nearest cent.
D. Tally.ERP 9 Release 6.3
A. $1727.27
B. $2090 78. Type of rate of GST in India are-
C. $17.27 A. 2
D. $1710 B. 5
C. 7
73. Complete GSTR 2A can be download from
GSTN Portal every month from the date D. many
of
79. GST is a dual model of
A. 1st of every month
A. UK
B. 10th of every month
B. Canada
C. 15th of Every month
C. USA
D. 12th of Every month
D. France
74. GST is a Tax.
80. A Bill of Supply can be issued in case of
A. Direct Inter-State and Intra-State?
B. Indirect
A. Exempted Supplies
C. both
B. Supplies by Composition scheme
D. none of above
C. Supplies to unregistered person
75. If I go to Bhopal in MP, stay in Hotel D. None of these
Fern for Company meetings and provide
my Mumbai GSTIN to Hotel, he will charge 81. On which day independence day of India
me was celebrated before the indepndence?
A. CGST A. 26 jan
B. SGST B. 15 august
C. IGST C. 8 august
D. CGST and SGST D. 20 jan
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7.4 GST council 366
82. which of the following tax is not subsumed B. 20
under GST Tax C. 21
A. Sales Tax D. 200
B. Service Tax
88. gst full form
C. Income Tax
A. goods and service
D. Excise Duty
B. hjskdmd bd
NARAYAN CHANGDER
83. In GSTR-3B we are getting Purchase tax- C. vskskxnxvvz
able under Outward supplies, why? D. gskklsls
A. If the Purchases are passed by Nega-
tive Values. 89. Which is an Incorrect GSTIN? Its tricky
B. If there is a Purchase return in the A. 27 I am harvesting 1 z 4
same month. B. 27AACFF9468K1ZU
C. Need to check the GST Configuration in C. 27Azbkha43Z0
the ledger whether in the Tax rate history D. 97 ASO 1598 A1 BD
he has initially configured any ‘Purchase’
Nature of transaction. 90. The main cause of demonetisation
D. None of the above A. Fake currency
B. Black money
84. Another name for GST collected is:
C. Corruption
A. GST payables
D. All of these
B. GST tax credits
C. GST credits 91. Which of the following taxes will be levied
on Import of goods and services?
D. GST outlay
A. CGST
85. Excise and Service Tax got subsumed in B. SGST
C. IGST
A. CGST
D. Exempt
B. SGST
92. WHAT WAS THE SLOGAN GIVEN MA-
C. IGST HATAMA GANDHI
D. Cess A. DO or DIE
86. Another name for GST payables is: B. TRUTH and NON VIOLENCE
A. GST collected C. QUIT INDIA
B. GST tax credits D. ALL OF THE ABOVE..
C. GST credits 93. What is GSTR 1?
D. GST outlay A. Details of Inward Supply
87. You purchase a phone for $220 inclusive B. Details of Outward Supply
of GST. How much GST are you paying? C. Sales Register
A. 22 D. Purchase Register
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7.4 GST council 367
94. Threshold limit for composition levy 100. GST Rate based on Product Rate is seen
scheme in Industry
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. 1 crore A. Construction Industry
B. 1.5 crore B. Apparel Industry
C. both C. Food Industry
D. none of above D. Entertainment Industry
95. When was the Non-Cooperation move- 101. What is the year of first war of indepen-
ment suspended? dence?
A. 1922 A. 1875
B. 1932 B. 1857
C. 1945 C. 1947
D. 1950 D. 1922
96. What is the due date for filing GSTR-3B? 102. Maximum rate prescribed under UT-
GST/SGST?
A. 20th of subsequent month
A. 14
B. 12th of subsequent month
B. 20
C. End of the Same month
C. 28
D. 15th of subsequent month
D. 30
97. Which GST is applicable when a good is
103. Which is the first country in the world to
sold in a different state?
implement GST?
A. CGST
A. France 1954
B. UGST
B. UK 1950
C. IGST C. India 2017
D. SGST D. Japan 1967
98. India’s GST is based on which country’s 104. Who was called the Iron Man of India?
model?
A. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
A. Canada
B. Surrendranath Banerjee
B. UK
C. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Italy
D. Bipin Chandra Pal
D. Japan
105. Mr.Pawan, an architect in New Delhi, en-
99. Standard Rate of GST in India is/are ters into a contract with Mr.Rohan of New
A. 12 York to provide professional services in re-
spect of immovable property of Mr.Rohan
B. 18 located in Pune and New York. What is
C. 12 and 18 the place of supply?
D. None A. New Delhi
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7.4 GST council 368
B. New York B. 3
C. Pune C. 4
D. None of the above D. 5
106. Lala Lajpat Rai died as a result of injuries 111. Which is the first state to pass GST in In-
during the protest against dia?
A. King George V A. Assam
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Simon Commission B. Kolkata
C. Cripps Mission C. Tamilnadu
D. Queen Victoria D. Delhi
107. The error as “Could not Find an applica- 112. Date on which the supplier received the
tion to Open the File” while printing GSTR- payment as per section 12 of the CGST Act
3B, wt is the reason? shall be
A. Need to check whether MS word is in- A. Date entered in the books of account
stalled and as Tally.ERP 9 was not support-
ing pre installed applications like MS ex- B. Date of credit in the bank account
cel and word, hence the same has been C. Date entered into the books of ac-
resolved in 6.5.5 count or date of credit in bank account
B. Need to check with the capsules up- whichever is earlier.
date. D. Date on which receipt voucher is is-
C. Need to check whether the Tally folder sued by the supplier
is added in Trusted Location.
113. What does “I” stands for in IGST?
D. We cannot print GSTR-3B from
A. International
Tally.ERP9
B. Internal
108. What is the standard rate of VAT in UAE?
C. Integrated
A. 25%
D. INTRA
B. 10%
C. 12% 114. is a statement showing assets and
liabilities of the business concern.
D. 5%
A. trial balance
109. In India, the GST is based on the dual
B. day book
model GST adopted in
C. balance sheet
A. UK
D. profit & loss account
B. Canada
C. US 115. What is the full from of EPCG
D. Japan A. Export Promotion Capital Goods
110. How many types of taxes will be in In- B. Export Performance Capital Goods
dian GST? C. Export Promotion credit Goods
A. 2 D. Export Promotion Custom Goods
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7.4 GST council 369
116. Full Form of HSN code 122. On 6th May a conventional hall was
A. Harmony System Nomenclature booked for Rs.15000 and advance pay-
ment of Rs.3000 was made, on 15th
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. Harmonised Sequence Nomenclature September function was held, Invoice was
C. Homonised system number issued in 27th October and on 3rd Septem-
ber the balance payment of Rs.12000 was
D. Harmonised System Nomenclature
made. What is the time of supply to the
117. In which year ‘Sepoy Movement’ or ‘The extend of balance Rs.12000?
first war of independence’ took place in A. 27th October
which year?
B. 6th May
A. 1857 C. 3rd September
B. 1858 D. 15th September
C. 1862
123. The GSTIN is digit PAN based regis-
D. 1901 tration number.
118. Payment of Tax to the Government under A. 15
GST is compulsory at the time of B. 14
A. Submmission of GSTR 3B monthly C. 16
B. Submission of GSTR 3B quartely D. 17
C. Submission of GSTR 1 quartely 124. The first country to implement GST
D. Submission of GSTR 2 quartely A. France
119. Indian GST model has rate structure. B. India
A. 3 C. China
B. 4 D. Mexico
C. 5 125. Which of the following is subsumed under
D. 6 State GST?
A. VAT
120. Invoice price of a TV including GST 12%
is Rs.23, 520. Taxable value shall be- B. Service tax
A. Rs.17900 C. Additional exise duty
B. Rs.21000 D. All of these
C. Rs.22950 126. Abhi hires a works contractor for repair-
ing his factory building on a lump sum pay-
D. Rs.20425
ment of 11, 80, 000. She debits half of
121. The maximum rate for SGST/UTGST is? the expenditure in the profit and loss ac-
count and the remaining half in the building
A. 28
account. Assuming the rate of GST to be
B. 14 18%, Abhi can take input tax credit of:
C. 20 A. Rs.90, 000
D. 30 B. Rs.1, 06, 200
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7.4 GST council 370
C. Rs.2, 12, 400 133. A book’s cost price is $45. If 10% GST
D. Nil is to be added, what is the selling price?
A. $55
127. In India GST became effective from
A. 1st April, 2017 B. $54
B. 1st January, 2017 C. $49.50
C. 1st July, 2017 D. $48.50
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 1st March, 2017
134. Which of the following are covered in the
128. The maximum rate for CGST is? definition of input tax? i. Tax paid under
A. 28 RCM ii. IGST on importsiii. Taxes on com-
B. 12 position levy iv. CGSTMark the correct op-
tion:
C. 18
A. (i) & (ii)
D. 20
B. (i), (ii) & (iv)
129. The tax which was not merged into GST
A. Countervailing Duty C. (i), (ii) & (iii)
B. Excise duty D. All of the above
C. Basic Customs Duty
135. Not included in transaction value-
D. Purchase tax
A. packing cost
130. When a GST dealer in Kerala sells a prod-
uct o a GST dealer or customer in Tamil- B. design expenses
nadu, the tax collected is C. after sales service charges
A. SGST
D. unloading charges paid by recipient
B. CGST
C. Integrated GST 136. A situation where rate of tax on input is
more than rate of tax on output is
D. UTGST
A. Inverted duty structure
131. Which GST Return we are not filing as of
Now? B. Excess input tax credit
A. GSTR1 C. Compensation cess
B. GSTR2 D. Refund
C. GSTR3B
D. GSTR9 137. How will the goods and services be clas-
sified under GST regime?
132. All input IGST will be first set of against
A. SAC/HSN code
A. Output CGST
B. HSN code
B. Output IGST
C. Out SGST C. SAC code
D. All of the above D. GST code
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7.4 GST council 371
138. Which of the following is the first country C. GST Code
in the world to implement GST in 1954? D. SAC Code
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. France
144. Calculate the GST owed to the ATO:GST
B. Russia credits $150, GST payables $200
C. South Africa A. $50
D. Germany B. $150
C. $200
139. What Is the latest version of utility tool
of GSTR-3B report supporting in Tally D. $350
ERP9? 145. Diesel & Petrol are taxable under GST@
A. GSTR3B Excel Utility V4.3
B. GSTR3B Excel Utility V4.2 A. 12% & 18%
C. GSTR3B Excel Utility V4.31 B. 5% & 12%
C. 18% & 28%
D. GSTR3B Excel Utility V4.13 D. GST is not applicable
140. Bill of Supply Issued by 146. Which country is the First to Implement
GST?
A. Composition dealer
A. India
B. Unregistered dealer
B. France
C. Supplier of exempted goods
C. America
D. All
D. none of above
141. IGST IS
147. The chair of GST Council
A. INDIAN GST
A. Nominated by the Govt
B. INTERNATIONAL GST B. Nominated by the GST Council
C. INTEGRATED GST C. Union Finance Minister
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE D. Elected by the GST council
142. At which session of the Indian National 148. is issued when there is reduction in
Congress was Vande Mataram sung for the price given by supplier.
the first time? A. Credit note
A. 1845 session B. Debit note
B. 1896 session C. Contra Note
C. 1850 session D. Receipt
D. 1895 session 149. ITC stands for
143. Which code is used to classify goods and A. Indirect Tax collection
services under GST? B. Input tax credit
A. HSN Code C. Input tax claim
B. SAC/HSN Code D. Income and tax credit
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7.4 GST council 372
150. What is the time of supply of services 155. The tourist can claim refund of
where services are received from an asso-
A. CGST and SGST/UTGST on supply of
ciated enterprise located outside India
Goods and services
A. Date of entry of services in the books
B. IGST on supply of goods taken out of
of account of recipient of service
India
B. Date of payment
C. Tax paid on the supply of scotch to be
C. Earlier of A and B taken out of India
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Date of entry of services in the books D. None of the above
of the supplier of service
156. CGST IS
151. What are all the changes done in the Lat-
est GSTR-3B excel utility in 4.3 version? A. CENTRAL GST
A. No changes has been done in version B. CUBIC GST
4.3 C. CUBOID GST
B. Changes in the Version Number<br D. CENSUS GST
/>Place of Supply-Ladakh has been intro-
duced in the drop down 157. Mr. Jay trades in certain items which
C. Only name has been changed as ver- are exempt and supplies certain items to
sion 4.3 SEZ which are zero rated. He wants to un-
derstand which of the following will be in-
D. None of the above
cluded in computation of taxable supplies
152. What is the location of supply in case of for purpose of availing input tax credit?
importation of goods? A. Zero-rated supplies
A. Customs port where the goods are B. Exempt supplies
cleared
C. Both i.e., Zero-rated and exempt sup-
B. Place where the goods are delivered
plies
after clearance from the customs port
D. None of the above
C. Location of importer
D. Owner of the goods 158. GSTIN code for Maharashtra is
153. Indian GST modal is based on A. 22
A. Canada B. 23
B. US C. 25
C. Europe D. 27
D. America 159. Liability to pay tax by the recipient of
154. GSTN comes under which Act? supply of goods or services is called
A. Banking Regulation Act 1949 A. Output tax
B. RBI Act 1934 B. Input tax
C. Indian Partnership Act, 1932 C. Both of these
D. Companies Act, 2013 D. Reverse charge
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7.4 GST council 373
160. If I am Composite Dealer, I file 166. On Import of Goods & Services Which
A. GSTR1 GST is applicable:
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. SGST
B. GSTR2
B. CGST
C. GSTR4
C. IGST
D. GSTR5A
D. UTGST
161. A book is advertised as 20% off. If it
cost $70 at the register, how much was it 167. When the goods and services are sold for
originally? Rs. 15000 under intra-state transaction
from station A to a station B and the rate
A. $90 of GST is 12%, then C.P. at station B will
B. $84 be Rs.
C. $87.50 A. Rs. 15000
D. $50 B. Rs. 16800
C. Rs. 13200
162. GST will be levied on ?
D. Rs. 14000
A. Allof the above
B. Retailers 168. Can we see Percentage wise sales and
purchase in GSTR-3B report?
C. Consumers
A. Yes
D. Manufacturers
B. No
163. In India GST was first proposed in C.
A. 1996 D. none of above
B. 2000 169. A special purpose vehicle has been
C. 2004 launched to cater the needs of GST.
D. 2007 A. GSTC
B. GSTN
164. GST is imposed by which Govt.?
C. GSTM
A. State Govt.
D. GSTR
B. Central Govt.
C. Local Govt. 170. Debit note is issued:
D. State & Central Both A. GST & /Or Value less charged
B. Purchase Return
165. In Accounting software classify to
C. all
their nature.
D. none of above
A. Group
B. Ledgers 171. Due to the present situation of Covid-
19 the filling of GSTR-1 and GSTR-3B for
C. Vouchers February, March and April 2020 is ex-
D. entries tended to
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7.4 GST council 374
A. Last week of June 2020 175. In which year GST was imposed in India?
B. Last week of May 2020 A. July 2016
C. Last Week of July 2020 B. July 2017
D. No relaxation announced C. July 2018
172. After exporting GSTR-3B in excel utility D. July 2019
some value are appearing as “#Value”,
176. Indian GST Model has how many rate
why?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
structures
A. Need to check whether the Tally folder
A. 2
is added in Trusted Location.
B. 3
B. The value will not appear if there are
decimal places. C. 4
C. Need to check whether the Excel util- D. 5
ity is corrupted and download the utility
freshly. 177. Kamal has supplied goods to Mr.X on
24.12.2017. The invoice had already been
D. Need to check and select the Keyboard raised on 22.12.2017. Mr.X had paid
language as “English India” from the Con- the due amount on 29.12.2017. The re-
trol Panel» Region and Language. ceipt was entered into in the books of ac-
173. What is the time of supply of service in count by Kamal on 30.12.2017. But the
case of reverse charge mechanism? same was credited in his bank account on
02.01.2018. In this case, the time of sup-
A. Date on which payment is order to sup- ply shall be?
plier
A. 22.12.2017
B. Date immediately following 60 days
from the date of issue of invoice. B. 30.12.2017
C. Date of invoice C. 02.01.2018
D. Earlier of A and B D. 25.12.2017
174. ABC Ltd of Mumbai supplied goods to 178. Goods bought by ABC Ltd. Banguluru
XYZ Ltd of Delhi under a contract for the from XYZ Ltd. of Haryana. which GST will
goods to be delivered at the factory of be imposed on the above transaction?
the buyers. Goods removed from the A. CGST
factory of ABC Ltd on 19.08.2018 and
B. SGST
were delivered in the factory of XYZ Ltd.
Of Delhi on 26.08.2018. Invoice for C. IGST
the supplies were raised by ABC Ltd on D. All
18.08.2018. Payment of the bill was re-
ceived on 20.09.2018. The time of supply 179. Which Deduction is allowed from transac-
in this case under GST should be taken as? tion value?
A. 19.08.2018 A. Trade Discount
B. 16.08.2018 B. Cash Discount
C. 18.08.2018 C. Both discounts:Trade & Cash
D. 20.09.2018 D. none of above
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7.4 GST council 375
180. FINANCE MINISTRY IS HEADED BY 185. What is highest rate of GST?
A. NIRMALA SITARAMAN A. 12%
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. AMIT SHAH B. 28%
C. PRANAV MUKHERJEE C. 32%
D. NARENDRA MODI D. 36%
181. Goods & Services Tax is tax on:
186. When was the Goods and Services Tax
A. Supply of Goods GST levied in India?
B. Supply of Services A. 1st July 2017
C. Supply of Goods & /or Services B. 1st April 2017
D. Production of Goods C. 1st August 2016
182. Can GSTR-3B returns revised after sub- D. 31st July 2017
mitting the return?
187. What is the time of supply of service if
A. GST returns cannot be revised. The
the invoice is not issued within 30 days
mistake made in a return can be rectified
from the date of provision of service
in the subsequent return.
A. Date of issue of invoice
B. Yes, GSTR-B can be revised after sub-
mitting from before. B. Date on which the supplier receives
C. It is not possible to revise GSTR-3B payment
once filed. But Government has now al- C. Date of provision of service
lowed to ‘Reset GSTR 3B’ through which
D. Earlier of B and C
the status of ‘Submitted’ will be changed
to ‘Yet to be Filed’, and all the details filled 188. GST Full Form
in the return will be available for editing.
A. Goods and Services Tax
D. No, once filed Cannot be Modified
Ever. B. Good Sales Tax
C. Goods and Service Tax
183. Goods sold from Mumbai to Pune is the
example of D. Good Simple Tax
A. GST
189. The marked price of an article = Rs. 20,
B. CGST 000 and rate of GST on it = 28%. A shop-
C. IGST keeper buys this article at a reduced price
and sells it at its marked price. If the
D. None shopkeeper paid Rs. 308 as CGST to the
184. GSTIN is a digit PAN based registra- government, find the amount (inclusive of
tion number. GST) paid by the shopkeeper.
A. 25 A. Rs. 25, 600
B. 10 B. Rs. 20, 616
C. 15 C. Rs. 17, 800
D. 5 D. Rs. 22, 784
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7.4 GST council 376
190. GST is applicable in: 196. Mr.X ( New Delhi ) boards the new delhi
A. Whole India kota train at New Delhi. He sells the
goods taken on board by him (at New
B. Except Jammu & Kashmir Delhi), in the train at Jaipur during the jour-
C. Union Territories ney. What is the place of supply?
D. Whole World A. Jaipur
B. New Delhi
191. The IGST is charged by?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. None of the above
A. Central Government of India
D. none of above
B. State government of India
C. Corporation 197. SGST is based on
A. State level
D. none of above
B. District level
192. Which of the following is not one of the
C. Central level
category of Indirect tax rates under GST?
D. None of these
A. 0.2
B. 0.12 198. A TV cost $2699 with GST included. How
much is it before GST?
C. 0
A. 2968.90
D. 0.05
B. 2453.63
193. Can the taxable person under Composi- C. 245
tion Scheme claim input tax credit
D. 2500
A. Yes
B. No 199. While uploading GSTR3B getting Error as
‘Json Structure Invalid’?
C. Only in some cases
A. If the sum of GST amount Is in neg-
D. Cant say ative under Inward or Outward supply.
Need to mention the Value manually in
194. In India GST model has chosen model
Vice versa field, from where its negative.
of dual-GST.
B. If there is any debit or credit note
A. USA passed.
B. UK C. Need to remove the negactive amount
C. Canada and file the returns.
D. China D. Need to file it manually.
195. GST is also called 200. When an unregistered dealer supplied
goods to a registered dealer, the time of
A. Consumption tax
supply under reverse charge shall be earli-
B. Income tax est of
C. Wealth tax A. Date of receipt of goods
D. Customs duty B. Date of supply of goods
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7.4 GST council 377
C. Date of loading of goods In transport B. intra state
D. Date of intimation of supply of goods C. international
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
201. In India GST came effective from July 1st, D. none of the above
2017. India has chosen model of dual-
206. Two or more individual supplies of goods
GST.
or services, or any combination thereof,
A. UDSA made in conjunction with each other
B. UK A. Mixed supply
C. CANADIAN B. Composite supply
D. JAPANIES C. common supply
202. GST Stands for D. none
A. Goods and Supply Tax 207. Section 12 prescribes that the time of
B. Government Sales Tax supply to the extent it relates to an ad-
dition In the value of supply by way of in-
C. Goods and Services Tax
terest, late fee or penalty for the delayed
D. General Sales Tax payment of any consideration shall be the
date on which
203. If my turnover is less than , I can
avoid GST Registeration. A. The supplier receives such addition in
value
A. 40, 000
B. The supplier becomes entitled to such
B. 40, 00, 000
addition in value
C. 50, 000
C. Earlier of A and B
D. 50, 00, 000
D. None of the above
204. Darshan Pvt. Ltd. hired a Law firm and
got a bill for Rs. 1, 00, 000 with a Note 208. The headquarters of GST council is
saying, ‘18% GST applicable as RCM’ A. MUMBAI
A. Now, company’s accountant will pay B. NEW DELHI
Rs. 1L to Law firm and 18K to Income Tax C. AHMEDABAD
Department as GST
D. BENGLORE
B. Now, company’s accountant will pay
Rs. 1L to Law firm and 18K to GST Depart- 209. Which section governs the provisions re-
ment as GST garding refund in GST
C. Now, company’s accountant will pay A. Section 53
Rs. 1L to Law firm after deducting 18K as
B. Section 54
GST
C. Section 52
D. The Accountant will Case the Law Firm
for Illegal Bill making D. Section 45
205. Supply within the same state is called is 210. Who gave the slogan Give me blood and
called I promise you freedom?
A. inter state A. Subhash Chandra Bose
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7.4 GST council 378
B. Mahatma Gandhi B. false
C. Narendra Modi C. None of the above
D. Amit Shah D. none of above
211. Which of the following goods is not cov- 216. The tax IGST charged by Govern-
ered under GST? ment.
A. Readymade Garments A. CENTRAL
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Petrol B. STATE
C. Packged Edible Oil
C. CONCERNED DEPARTMENT
D. Electronics Items
D. BOTH 1 & 2
212. contra voucher is used for
217. GST Rate is charged on High Speed
A. Master entry Petrol
B. Withdrawal of cash from bank A. 28%
C. Reports B. 57%
D. Credit Purchase C. 204%
213. When was the GST introduced in Aus- D. None GST Rate
tralia?
218. The following is not the Tax Rate Struc-
A. 1 June 2000
ture or Tax Slab in India
B. 1 July 2000
A. 7%
C. 1 September 2000
B. 28%
D. 1 July 1999
C. 12%
214. A registered taxable person is eligible to
D. 5%
claim refund inrespect of export of goods
and services in the following cases: 219. What type of GST applies for:basic
A. Under bond, without payment of IGST food?
and claim refund of unutilised input tax A. taxable supply
credit
B. GST-free supply
B. On payment of IGST and claim refund
of IGST paid on such goods and services C. input taxed supply
C. None of the above D. none of above
D. Both (a) and (b) 220. What kind of tax is VAT?
215. Pune Refineries (Mumbai, Maharashtra) A. Depends upon the types of goods and
gives contract to PQ Ltd(Ranchi, Jhark- services
hand) to assemble a power plant in its
B. Direct tax
Kutch, Gujarat refinery. The place of sup-
ply is Jharkhand. Comment C. Indirect tax
A. true D. None of the above
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7.4 GST council 379
221. In the GST council meetings, the vote 226. GST paid for supplies exported from the
of the Central Government shall have a country is
weightage of
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Refunded only if exported from SEZ
A. 1/3 of votes cast
B. Refunded to the exporter
B. 1/2 of votes cast
C. Not Refunded
C. 2/3 of votes cast
D. Refunded to the state from which ex-
D. None of these port happens
222. Mr. X a resident from Pune conducts
227. Application form for claiming refund in
training for employees of P Ltd. being a
general cases is and in case of refund
registered person under GST based out in
of IGST paid on goods exported out of In-
Chennai at a resort in Darjeeling. The place
dia is
of supply in this case is:
A. Form GST RFD-01, Shipping Bill
A. Darjeeling
B. Shipping Bill, Form GST RFD-01
B. Pune
C. Chennai C. None of the above
D. None of the above D. none of above
223. GSTR-3B utilty does not exist while ex- 228. The following is not a types of GST
porting GSTR-3B in excel? A. CGST
A. Make sure that the GSTR-3B excel util- B. SGST
ity is downloaded and placed in the proper
export location. C. Individuals GST
B. Need to export GSTR-3B by pressing D. Integrated GST
Alt E (Export)
229. Rate of Health and Education cess regard-
C. Need to add Tally folder in Trusted lo-
ing GST is-
cation.
A. 1%
D. None of the above
B. 2%
224. Goods and service tax is-
C. zero
A. supply based
D. 3%
B. consumption based
C. both 230. Where supply is made from a place of
business for which registration has been
D. none
obtained, location of supplier is
225. Who is liable for payment of GST? A. Principal place of business entity
A. Registered Dealer B. Such place of business
B. Unregistered Dealer C. Any place of business of such entity
C. Industrialist D. The location of such fixed establish-
D. Business Owner ment
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7.4 GST council 380
231. India’s GST structure are based on how 237. Aasim purchased a computer for
many structures? Rs.37760 which includes GST of 18%.
Find the marked price of the computer.
A. 6
A. Rs. 42000
B. 4
B. Rs. 32000
C. 3
C. Rs. 35000
D. 5
D. Rs. 35750
NARAYAN CHANGDER
232. india prime minister 238. Business report GST to the ATO by using
A. Narendra Modi which statement
A. Business Activity Statement
B. vsksmxnxnbdbd
B. Business Asset Statement
C. ganjkllsmsn s
C. Buying Activity Statement
D. fhsnnsndbd s
D. Building Asset Statement
233. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF GST? 239. Tourist means a person
A. GOODS AND SERVICE TAX A. Not normally resident in India
B. GOODS AND SERVICES TAX B. Stays for not more than 6 months in In-
C. GOOD AND SERVICE TAX dia
C. Stays for legitimate and Non-
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
Immigrant purpose
234. How many countries have adopted GST? D. All of the above
A. 160 240. What is SGST?
B. 170 A. State goods and service tax
C. 150 B. Statutory goods and service tax
D. 161 C. Service goods and service tax
D. none of above
235. What does “I” in IGST stands stand for?
241. Where is the headquarters of GST coun-
A. Internal cil?
B. Intregrated A. New Delhi
C. Internal B. Mumbai
D. Intra C. Assam
D. Kolkata
236. GST is
242. In GSTR 2A We get all the details of
A. Direct tax
A. All outward supply
B. Indirect tax
B. All outward and all Inward Supply
C. Tax
C. All Inward Supply irrespective of sup-
D. Not a tax plier upload it or not
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7.4 GST council 381
D. All Inward Supply uploaded by Sup- 248. voucher type is used for recording
plier transfer of funds from one bank to another
bank.
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
243. Refund order is required to be issued A. purchase
within from the date of
B. contra
A. 60 days, Acknowledgement of applica-
C. sales
tion
D. receipt
B. 45 days, start of processing of refund
249. Mr.Y of Tamil Nadu sends a courier to his
C. 15 days, Acknowledgement of applica-
brother who lives in Punjab.Which of the
tion
following option is correct?
D. 60 days, filing claim of refund
A. Place of supply is Tamil Nadu if the re-
cipient is registered
244. Integrated GST is applicable on goods or
services B. Place of supply is Punjab if the recipi-
ent is registered
A. Imports
C. Place of supply is Tamil Nadu if the re-
B. Interstate Sale cipient is unregistered
C. Imports and interstate sales D. Both B & C
D. Exported from India 250. Mr.A purchases redeemable vouchers
worth Rs.7000 on 1st January. The vouch-
245. What are the taxes levied on an Intra- ers are redeemable against purchase of
State supply? any goods. The vouchers are valid till 30th
A. CGST and SGST June. What is the time of supply?
B. CGST A. 1st January
C. SGST B. 30th June
C. The date of redemption of vouchers
D. IGST
D. None of the above
246. To register for GST a business needs to
251. Which of the following is NOT subsumed
earn $ in annual sales
in GST?
A. $25, 000 A. VAT
B. $50, 000 B. Stamp duty
C. $75, 000 C. Entry tax
D. $100, 000 D. Entertainment Tax
252. GST rates applicable on goods and ser-
247. GST stands for
vices are:
A. Goods and supply tax
A. 0% 5% 12% 18% 26%
B. Government sales tax B. 0% 6% 12% 18% 28%
C. Goods & Service tax C. 0% 5% 12% 18% 28%
D. General sales tax D. 0% 5% 12% 16% 28%
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7.4 GST council 382
253. GST was implemented on 259. GST is a type of tax
A. 1st june 2017 A. Direct
B. 1st july 2017 B. indirect
C. 1st april 2016 C. progressive
D. 1st june 2014 D. none of above
254. Who is the chairman of GST council? 260. Mr. Anuj an architect, agrees to design
and construct a building for Ms. Ashi for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. PRESIDENT OF INDIA
a sum of Rs. 5 Crores. The construction
B. PRIME MINISTER completed and the amount received by Mr.
C. FINANCE MINISTER Anuj. This is supply of
D. RBI GOVERNER A. Goods
B. Services
255. What are all the modes of filing GSTR-3B
return from Tally? C. Both goods and services
A. Json D. None
B. Json and excel 261. Maximum GST rate on supply is:
C. Excel A. 15%
D. None of the above B. 22%
C. 28%
256. When was GST implemented in India
D. 38%
A. 2018
B. 2017 262. Which Form Is to be used for Registra-
tion?
C. 2019
A. Form GST REG-01
D. 2016
B. Form GST REG
257. Under GST, Insurance is taxed per- C. Form GSTR-2
cent.
D. Form GSTR 1A-B
A. 0
B. 12 263. Input Cess can be adjusted against output
Cess.
C. 18
A. Yes
D. 28
B. No
258. For the following transaction within C. God Knows
Delhi, fill in the blanks to find the amount
D. 50-50
of bill:MRP = Rs. 25, 000, Discount % =
20%, GST = 18%Amount of Bill = 264. Receipt Voucher is issued on
A. Rs. 26, 800 A. Payment Received
B. Rs. 23, 200 B. Goods Returned
C. Rs. 23, 600 C. Advanced Payment Received
D. Rs. 25, 900 D. All
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7.4 GST council 383
265. You purchase a new laptop for $500 ex- 270. Which of the following Input Tax credit
cluding GST. What is the price including (ITC) is not available to the tax payer:-
GST?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. ITC on Goods purchased for resale
A. 505
B. ITC on Goods used for providing tax-
B. 525 able services
C. 50 C. ITC on Goods used in making supplies
D. 550 out of India
266. If dealer A in maharashtra is selling his D. ITC on purchase of Motor vehicle for
good to dealer B in Kerala, the SP= 1000 use by director
& GST rate = 10% .In the following case
271. Mode of calculation of refund in case of
calculate the GST payable by dealer B to
inverted duty structure
dealer A.
A. Refund Amount = {[(Turnover of in-
A. CGST=100, SGST=100
verted rated supply of goods and services)
B. IGST=100 * Net ITC ]/Adjusted Total Turnover}-tax
C. SGST=50, CGST=50 payable on such inverted rated supply of
goods and services
D. IGST=50
B. Refund Amount = {[(Turnover of in-
267. What type of tax is GST? verted rated supply of goods and services)
A. Indirect Tax * Net ITC ]/Gross Total Turnover}-tax
payable on such inverted rated supply of
B. Direct Tax
goods and services
C. Both
C. Refund Amount = {[(Turnover of in-
D. None of these verted rated supply of goods and services)
* Net ITC ]/Adjusted Total Turnover}-tax
268. Mr.Ahaan ( supplier registered in Uttar
payable on such supply of goods and ser-
Pradesh having principal place of business
vices
in Noida) asks Mr.Agarwal of Ahmedabad,
Gujarat to deliver 50 Air Conditioner to D. Refund Amount = {[(Turnover of in-
his buyer Mr.Raunak at Jaipur, Rajasthan. verted rated supply of goods and services)
What is the place of supply? * Net ITC ]/Net Turnover}-tax payable on
A. Location of delivery of goods (Jaipur) such inverted rated supply of goods and
services
B. Principal place of business of third per-
son (Noida) 272. Real estate agent in Delhi charges broker-
C. None of the above age fee to Company A located in Chandi-
garh for assistance in getting a commercial
D. none of above property in Kolkata. Which is the place of
269. GST implemented in India supply in this case?
A. 2017 A. Delhi
B. 2018 B. Chandigarh
C. 2019 C. Kolkata
D. 2020 D. None of the above
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7.4 GST council 384
273. Positive impact of demonetisation 279. GST CAME IN FORCE FROM
A. Dent in GDP growth A. 1.7.2020
B. Slump in real estate B. 1.7.2015
C. Check on food inflation C. 1.7.2016
D. Large scale lay off in Informal sector D. 1.7.2017
280. GST was introduced in India on
274. Deduction allowed against transaction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
value- A. 1st August 2017
A. trade discount B. 31st June 2017
B. special discount for advance payment C. 1st November 2017
D. 1st July 2017
C. in guarantee period after sales service
charges 281. What type of GST applies for:restaurant
D. all of above food?
A. taxable supply
275. GST rate applicable on Gold and Silver is-
B. GST-free supply
A. 0.25%
C. input taxed supply
B. 1% D. none of above
C. 3%
282. GST is charged on:
D. 5%
A. Goods Supplied
276. GST number based on ? B. Services Supplied
A. PAN CARD C. Goods & /or Services Supplied
B. AADDHAR CARD D. none of above
C. VOTER ID 283. Input tax credit shall not be available in
D. CREDIT/DEBIT CARD respect of:
A. Goods used for personal consumption
277. When was the first GST proposal intro-
duced in India?
B. Membership of a club
A. 2000
C. Travel benefits extended to employees
B. 2005 on vacation such as leave or home travel
C. 2005 concession
D. All of the Above
D. 1999
284. Credit note is issued on:
278. Increase $90 by 12%
A. Value & /or GST overcharged in In-
A. $10.80 voice
B. $102 B. Sale Return
C. $100.80 C. All
D. $90.12 D. none of above
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7.4 GST council 385
285. HSN code stands for 291. I = P r n Is the formula for:
A. House shopping network A. GST
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. Harmonised system of Nomenclature B. Simple Interest
C. Harmonised system network C. Compound interest
D. Home state number D. Percentage increase
286. GST is added on in Australia at a rate of 292. All financial entries are made using or
what percentage? account heads.
A. 5% A. Ledger
B. 7.5% B. Group
C. 10% C. Voucher
D. 12.5% D. Sales
287. GST is defined in 293. Composition scheme is available only for
A. CGST ACT A. Inter state supplies
B. IGST ACT B. B2B supplies
C. Intra-state supplies
C. SGST ACT
D. E-commerce operators
D. UTGST
294. Presently which currency notes have
288. The report prints a summary of the
curbed due to demonetisation?
GST received and paid by you.
A. 500, 1000
A. sales
B. 500, 2000
B. GST
C. 1000, 2000, 500, 100
C. payment
D. None of these
D. Receipt
295. What is the maximum rate prescribed un-
289. The GSTIN consists of der CGST?
A. 13 digits A. 12
B. 14 digits B. 20
C. 15 digits C. 28
D. 16 digits D. 18
290. What is the standard rate of GST in In- 296. GST was introduced in India with effect
dia? from
A. 18% A. 1.1.2017
B. 10% B. 1.4.2017
C. 12% C. 1.7.2017
D. 5% D. 1.1.2018
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7.4 GST council 386
297. Retail Price of a T.V. including GST C. NONE..
@12% is 22400/-taxable value shall
D. none of above
be:
A. 25000 303. Who was the first Indian to use the word
B. 22500 ‘Swarajya’?
C. 20000 A. Raja Rammohan Rai
D. none of above B. Mahatma Gandhi
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
298. A dealer in a city buys goods worth Rs
6000 from the same city. If the rate of D. Swami Vivekananda
GST is 18%, find how much will the dealer
pay for the goods bought 304. GSTR-3B is the summary of?
A. 5250 A. GSTR-3B is a summary of all taxable
purchases and sales.
B. 6030
B. GSTR-3B is a summary of all exempt
C. 7500
and Nill rated purchase and sales.
D. 7080
C. GSTR-3B is a summary of all Inwards
299. What is the full form of SAC in GST? and outwards supplies under GST.
A. Services Accounting Code D. GSTR-3B is a summary of reverse
B. Supple Accounting Code charges transactions.
C. State Accounting Code 305. The lowest tax rate under GST is
D. None of these A. .25%
300. The number of structures in India’s GST B. 1%
model is? C. 2%
A. 6
D. .50%
B. 4
C. 3 306. Decrease 500 by 30%
D. 5 A. 470
B. 350
301. Full form of GST
C. 499.70
A. Goods and Service Tax
D. 150
B. Goods or service Tax
C. Gold and Silver Tang 307. Can a person apply for GST registration
D. None of the above without PAN Card?
A. No
302. WHICH MOMENT IS CALLED AUGUST
KRANTI B. Yes
A. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT C. Wrong Question
B. NON COOPRATION MOVEMENT D. None of these
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7.4 GST council 387
308. In GST, HSN Stands for 313. Constitution Amendment Act, 2016 for
GST was
A. Haldi Shakar Namak
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A. 1.1.2017
B. Harmonized System of Nomenclature
B. 1.4.2017
C. Harmonized System Number
C. 1.1.2018
D. Harmonized System of Numbers
D. 1.7.2017
309. Mr.A (New Delhi) has leased his machine
314. The ‘I’ in IGST stands for
cost Rs.8, 00, 000 to Mr.B Noida (Ut-
tar Pradesh) for production of goods on A. Intellectual
a monthly rent of Rs.40, 000. After 13 B. Integrated
months Mr.B requested Mr.A to sell the
machine to him for Rs.4, 00, 000, which C. Intra
is agreed to by Mr.A. What is the place of D. Internal
supply?
315. What is the Full Form of LUT in Export
A. Noida Sales with LUT/Bond?
B. New Delhi A. Letter of Undertaking
C. None of the above B. Letter of Exemption
D. none of above C. Letter of Understanding
D. Letter of Export Sales
310. What is the full form GST?
A. Goods and supply Tax 316. Constitution Amendment Act, 2016 for
GST was
B. Government supply Tax
A. 80th
C. Goods and Service Tax
B. 101th
D. General Sales Tax
C. 122th
311. Computerised Accounting System is D. 6th
based on the concept of
317. Tax Invoice must be issued by ?
A. Database
A. Registered perons not paying tax un-
B. Software dar composition scheme
C. Hardware B. Every Suppliers
D. Design C. Every Taxable persons
D. All of the above
312. Which of the following tax rate is not ap-
plicable under the GST? 318. mot full form
A. 25 A. management optimisation techniques
B. 18 B. bsnms MN x xx
C. 12 C. gsbdnns d dk
D. 5 D. vskkelsldn
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7.4 GST council 388
319. Which of the following country is the first 325. RATE OF GST ON BUTTERMILK
one to implement GST?
A. 5 %
A. USA
B. 6%
B. FRANCE
C. CHINA C. 7%
D. SWITZERLAND D. NIL
320. VAT is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
326. First announcement to introduce GST by
A. Value Added Tax 2010 is made in year
B. Volume Added Tax A. 2000
C. Value addition Time B. 2004
D. None of these
C. 2006
321. Input tax credit shall be allowed only if
D. 2008
it is separately written in:
A. Delivery note 327. Diesel and petrol are taxable under GST
B. Payment slip
A. 13% and 23%
C. Credit note
B. 23% and 27%
D. Tax invoice
C. 28.75 and 23%
322. Tax rate on goods under GST are deter-
mined by D. GST not applicable
A. Union budget
328. A registered person making zero rated
B. State budget supply shall be
C. Central Govt in consultation with state A. Eligible to claim refund
Govt.
B. Not eligible for refund
D. GST council
C. Subject to reverse charge
323. What is the total number of marks in GST
registration? D. None of these
A. 15
329. While uploading GSTR3B getting Error as
B. 14
‘Could not upload download latest offline
C. 16 utility tool’?
D. 17 A. Need to check whether the returns
324. GST is a destination based Tax? are generated from the latest release of
Tally.ERP9.
A. True
B. Need to check whether there is any
B. False
negative sum of amount in the returns.
C. False.Depend on the person collecting
it C. Need to file manually.
D. True.Only if it is a Tourist Destination D. Need to file it through the excel utility.
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7.4 GST council 389
330. (a)A travel agent registered in New Delhi 334. What is the time of supply of vouch-
books a tour of famous Indian cities for a ers when the supply with respect to the
Dubai resident. (b)Mr.D an unregistered voucher is not identifiable
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
person based in New Delhi hires a yacht
A. Date of issue of voucher
from the company based in London, UK for
20 days. Determine the place of supply in B. Date of redemption of voucher
both the cases. C. Date of entry into books of account
A. Dubai (b)London D. Earlier of A or B or C
B. New Delhi (b) London
335. India capital
C. New Delhi (b)New Delhi
A. New india
D. Dubai (b)New Delhi
B. New Delhi
331. GST is constitutional Amendment Act, C. New america
2016 D. New africa
A. 100
336. Refund Voucher is issued:
B. 101
A. Refund of Tax
C. 102
B. Sales Return
D. 103
C. Refund of Advance
332. Sales or Purchase values are not getting D. None of these
matched with GSTR-1 and GSTR-3B?
337. What is GSTR 2?
A. Sales and Purchase Values will not
match in GSTR-3B A. Details of Outward Supply
B. Sales and Purchase Values will match B. Details of Inward Supply
if there are only Taxable items. C. Purchase Register
C. 1.Check Any Incomplete/Mismatch D. Sales Register
in information (to be resolved<br
/>2.Check if any Not relevant for returns 338. GST is:
. Check those transactions and include
A. Central Tax
them if relevant.
B. State Tax
D. Sales and Purchase Values will match
if there are only Exempt items. C. Federal Tax (Central & State both)
D. Local Tax
333. Which of the following item is under
5%slab of GST 339. What is the full form of GST?
A. Coffee A. Goods and Services Tax
B. Sugar B. Good and Serve Tax
C. Kerosene C. Goods and State Tax
D. All of these D. Goods and Supply Tax
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7.4 GST council 390
340. Supply of goods in the course of import A. Yes
into the territory of India is B. No
A. Intrastate supply C. Maybe
B. Export D. Company’s discretion
C. Inter-State supply
346. The Central Board of Excise and Customs
D. Neither Export nor Import (CBEC) announced that every year will
be considered as GST Day.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
341. The interest shall be payable @ for
withholding the refund amount A. MARCH 1
A. 5% p.a B. APRIL 1
B. 6%p.a C. JUNE 1
C. 7%p.a D. JULY 1
D. 9%p.a 347. GST stands for
A. goods and services tax
342. The concept of demonetisation was
launched for the first time in India in B. goods and services toll
A. 1954 C. goods and services terms
B. 1946 D. goods and subsidy tax
C. 1948 348. Reverse charge entries are not display-
D. 1955 ing in ‘View Summary” under GSTR-3B,
why?
343. The marked price of a smartphone is Rs. A. Reverse charge entries will not display
24, 500. If the rate of GST is 28%, find under View summary
the selling price of the smartphone.
B. When both RCM Purchase and Stat ad-
A. Rs. 32, 360 justment transactions are made in the
B. Rs. 31, 250 same period, then in GSTR-3B report stat
C. Rs. 30, 250 adjustment transactions count will be con-
sidered under participating in returns and
D. Rs. 31, 360 Purchase transaction under “No direct im-
plication in returns” bucket due to which
344. ITC is eligible only when it is
purchase transaction will not display in
A. Credited to the electronic cash ledger view summary and it is a noted issue.
B. Credited to the electronic credit ledger C. No view Summary is prvided under
GSTR-3B
C. Booked in the books of account D. None of the above
D. All of the above
349. CGST is based on
345. Jagadale Pvt. Ltd. is engaged in making A. Central
Chocolates. The company on Diwali, dis- B. State
tributed the same chocolates to its employ-
ees. Can the company claim ITC in respect C. Regional
to the inputs used in making such gifts? D. Local
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7.5 NITI Aayog 391
350. Article framed GST council A. Rs. 1 crore
A. 279 B. Rs. 20 lakh
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B. 279A C. Rs.1.5 cr
C. 278 D. Rs.10 cr
D. 277
354. Direct tax are borne by the person
351. is the first state to ratify GST bill.
A. Liable to pay tax
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. ASSAM B. By the consumer
C. ARUNACHAL PRADESH C. Individual only
D. SIKKIM D. Company only
352. In 2016, total amount of currency with- 355. Supply of goods to SEZ unit is treated as
drawn during demonetisation was in the hands of supplier
A. 56% A. Exempt supply-Reveral of credit
B. 45% B. Deemed taxable supply-No reversal of
C. 86% credit
D. 25% C. Zero rated supply
353. Composite tax is applicable for dealer D. Non-taxable supply-Outside the scope
with turnover upto of GST
7.5 NITI Aayog
1. Which of the following is not matched cor- following commission?
rectly about NITI Aayog? A. Public Service Commission
A. NITI Aayog head office:Delhi
B. Civil Service Commission
B. Prime Minister:Chairman
C. The Election Commission
C. Parent Agency:Government of India
D. The Planning Commission
D. NITI Aayog replaced:National Devel-
opment Council 4. When was the National Development
Council established?
2. National Development Council meeting
should be held at least in a year? A. 1951
A. 1 time B. 1952
B. 2 times C. 1948
C. 3 times D. 1950
D. 5 times 5. Full form of NITI Aayog is
3. NITI Aayog or the National Institution for A. National Institute for Transforming In-
Transforming India replaced which of the dia
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7.5 NITI Aayog 392
B. National Institution for Transforming 10. NITI Aayog is planning a new framework
India for
C. National Institute for Transmitting In- A. Five-Year Plans
dia
B. Finance Commission
D. None of the above
C. Budget
6. Which of the following statement is/are
correct about the NITI Aayog? I. The aim D. All of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of NITI Aayog is to achieve Sustainable De-
11. Who is the chairman of NITI Aayog?
velopment Goals and to enhance coopera-
tive federalism in the country.II. The Prime A. Prime Minister
Minister of India is the ex officio Chairper-
B. Home Minister
son of the NITI AayogIII. There are 8 full
time members in the NITI Aayog C. President Of India
A. Only II & III D. Finance Minister
B. Only II
12. Which of the following is not the function
C. Only I of the NITI Aayog?
D. Only I & II
A. To evolve a shared vision of national
7. Which of the following are functions of development priorities sectors and strate-
NITI Aayog? 1)To formulate credible gies
plans at the village level2) Partnerships B. To foster cooperative federalism
with National and International Think
Tanks3)To focus on technology upgrada- C. To give final approval to the Five Year
tion and capacity building for implementa- Plans of India
tion of programmes and initiatives D. To create a knowledge, innovation and
A. 1, 3 entrepreneurial support system
B. 1, 2
13. Which of the following district topped the
C. 2, 3 rank of Aspirational district for the period
D. All of the above of June 1, 2018, and October 31, 2018.
8. Who is the current CEO of the NITI A. Virudhunagar (Tamil Nadu)
Aayog? B. Mewat (Haryana)
A. Rajeev Kumar
C. Pakur (Jharkhand
B. Arvind Subramanyam
D. Hailakandi (Assam)
C. Amitabh Kant
D. Narendra Modi 14. Who appoints the Vice-Chairperson of NITI
Aayog?
9. NITI AAYOG was established on
A. The Prime Minister
A. 15th August 2015
B. 26th January 2015 B. The President
C. 2nd October 2015 C. The Chief Executive Officer
D. 1st January 2015 D. The Union Minister
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7.5 NITI Aayog 393
15. Which of the following are functions of D. The NITI Aayog is a policy think tank of
NITI Aayog? 1) To formulate credible the Government of India
plans at the village level2) Partnerships
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with National and International Think 20. Which of the following is true about
Tanks3) To focus on technology upgrada- the Aspirational district initiative of NITI
tion and capacity building for implementa- Aayog
tion of programmes and initiatives A. Aspirational ranking of districts is
A. 1, 3 based on 10 parameters
B. 1, 2 B. The first delta ranking for aspirational
districts was released in June 2018.
C. 2, 3
C. The aspirational district programme
D. All of the above
was launched by Prime Minister Narendra
16. When was NITI Aayog established? Modi on January 5, 2016.
A. 1 January 2015 D. All of the above statements are true
B. 25 January 2016 21. Who of the following is the part of Gov-
C. 14 May 2014 erning Council of NITI Aayog?
D. 1 July 2015 A. All Chief Ministers of the states
17. Which of the following statements is cor- B. Chief Ministers of Delhi and
rect about the National Development Coun- Puducherry
cil (NDC)? C. Lieutenant Governor of Andaman &
A. It is a constitutional body Nicobar Island
B. It is a statutory body D. All of the above
C. Its Chairman is the Finance Minister 22. The Planning Commission was established
D. Chief Ministers of all the States are its in the year
member A. 1947
18. Which was the last Five Year plan in In- B. 1948
dian? C. 1950
A. 11th D. 1965
B. 12th
23. Number of part-time members in NITI
C. 14th Aayog is
D. 13th A. 5
19. Which of the following statement is cor- B. 10
rect about the NITI Aayog? C. Not exceeding 2
A. NITI Aayog was Formed 25 January D. 2
2016
B. NITI Aayog comes under the Ministry 24. In which year India’s first five year plan
of Commerce and Industry launched?
C. The full form of NITI Aayog is National A. 1951
institute for Transforming India B. 1947
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7.6 RTI Act 394
C. 1940 A. 1947
D. 1950 B. 1950
25. When was planning commission estab- C. 1995
lished? D. 1951
7.6 RTI Act
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. The salary and other allowances of the C. Chief Justice of the High Court in the
Chief Information Commission are same as case of High Court
A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court of In- D. All of the above
dia
5. The RTI Act gives right to seek information
B. Attorney General of India from the following
C. Comptroller and Auditor General of In- A. private companies
dia
B. MNCs
D. Chief Election Commissioner C. public authorities
2. What is the time limit to get the informa- D. associations
tion under RTI Act 2005?
6. The Right to Information Act, 2005 applies
A. 15 days to the
B. 45 days A. Whole of India
C. 60 days B. Whole of India except the Union Terri-
D. 30 days tories
C. Whole of India except the State of
3. Consider the following statement about Jammu and Kashmir
the RTI Act, 2005 select which one is not
D. Whole of India except the State of
correct:
Sikkim
A. It is applicabe to Ladakh
7. . First appeal to the first appellate author-
B. It is applicable in the State of Andaman ity can be preferred by the applicant within
& Nicobar. days from the expiry of the prescribed
C. All the provisions of this Act came into time limit or from the receipt of the deci-
force at once of its enactment sion from the PIO
D. A Public Information Officer has to of- A. 30 days
fer reasonable assistance to an applicant B. 40 days
to reduce an oral application into writing.
C. 60 days
4. “Competent Authority” in section 2 of the D. 90 days
RTI Act, 2005 means-
8. If the interests of a third party are in-
A. Speaker in the house of the people volved in information sought for, the max-
B. Chairman in the case of Council of imum time limit to get the information will
States be
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7.6 RTI Act 395
A. 30 DAYS C. Committee under the leadership of
B. 40 DAYS Prime Minister
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C. 45 DAYS D. Home Minister of the country
D. 60 DAYS 14. What is the tenure of Chief Information
Commissioner
9. Application for seeking information not
more than A. 5 years
A. 250 words B. 3 years
B. 300 words C. 6 years
C. 500 words D. Not fixed
D. 1, 000 words 15. As per section 2 of the RTI Act, 2005,
10. Central Information Commission means the term Competent Authority does not di-
the Central Information Commission consti- rectly mention of-
tuted under of the RTI Act, 2005 A. The President
A. Sub-section (2) of section 12 B. The Prime Minister
B. Sub-section (1) of section 12 C. The Chief Justice of India
C. Sub-section (3) of section 12 D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. Sub-section (4) of section 12
16. The long title of the RTI Act seeks to pro-
11. Central Chief Information Commissioner mote the following qualities in the work-
(CIC) is appointed by ing of every public authority
A. Prime minister A. Punctuality
B. President B. Efficiency
C. Vice President C. Reputation
D. Home minister D. Transparency
12. Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) shall 17. What is the time limit to get the informa-
be appointed for a term of years from tion concerning the life and liberty of a per-
date on which he enters upon his office son?
or till he attains the age of years, A. 48 HOURS
whichever is earlier
B. 24 HOURS
A. 6 years / 66 years
C. 5 DAYS
B. 5 years/ 70 years
D. 10 DAYS
C. 5 years / 60 years
D. 5 years / 65 years 18. When did RTI Act come into force in India?
A. 12th October, 2005
13. Who appoints the members and chairman
of the Central Information Commission B. 12th November, 2005
A. President alone can appoint C. . 15th June, 2005
B. Chief Justice of Supreme of India D. 15th March, 2005
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7.6 RTI Act 396
19. The officer designated by the public author- A. The Speaker
ities in all administrative units or offices
B. The leader of the Opposition
under it to provide information to the citi-
zens requesting for information under the C. The Chief Minister
Act is know as D. None of the above
A. Appellate Authority
24. What can be the maximum strength of the
B. Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
Information Commissioners
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 5
C. Public Information Officer (PIO)
B. 10
D. Assistant Public Information Officer
C. 8
20. RTI Act 2005 came into force on
D. 15
A. 12 October 2005
B. 15 August 2005 25. Who of the following is not the part of the
committee to select Chief Election Commis-
C. 15 June 2005
sioner and other information commission-
D. 1 November 2005 ers
21. An applicant making request for informa- A. Prime Minister of India
tion B. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
A. shall be given the reason why the infor- C. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
mation sought for
D. A Union Cabinet Minister appointed by
B. shall be given the personal details of
the Prime Minister
the applicant
C. shall not be given any reason for re- 26. .What is the fee for getting information un-
questing the information or any other per- der RTI Act
sonal details except those that may be A. Rs 20
necessary for contacting him
B. Rs 30
D. None of these
C. Rs 50
22. How could a Public Information Officer re-
D. Rs 10
ceive applications
A. Those submitted by a requester in 27. For RTI Act, the term “Appropriate Gov-
hand ernment” means in relation to a pub-
B. Those sent by an applicant by E-Mail lic authority which is established, consti-
tuted, owned, controlled or substantially
C. Transferred by another Public Author- financed by funds provided directly or indi-
ity rectly
D. All of them
A. By the Central Government
23. Under section 2(e) of the Right to Infor- B. By the Union Territory administration
mation Act, 2005, the “Competent author-
C. By the state government
ity” in the case of Legislative assembly of
a State means- D. All of the above
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7.6 RTI Act 397
28. Which of the following is not a competent 32. A Public Information Officer will be liable
authority as per section 2(e) of the RTI Act, to be imposed a monetary penalty for
2005:
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. refusal to receive an information appli-
A. Speaker in the case of the house of cation.
people
B. not providing information within speci-
B. Chief Justice of India of the Supreme fied time limits
Court
C. destroying information.
C. The administrator appointed under Ar-
ticle 239 of the Constitution D. All of them
D. Chief Information Commissioner in the 33. Under RTI Act, the language of an applica-
case of Central Information Commission tion may be in
29. .First Appeal shall be disposed of by the A. English
first appellate authority within days B. hindi
from the date of its receipt
C. Regional language
A. 60 days
D. All the above
B. 50 days
C. 30 days 34. “How much time does an APIO, at the
most, have to forward an RTI applica-
D. 45 days
tion/appeal to the Public Information Of-
30. The RTI act, 2005 is not applicable to ficer/First Appellate Authority
A. All non-government organization sub- A. 30 days
stantially financed by political parties. B. 5 days
B. a. All body owned, controlled or sub- C. 35 days
stantially financed by the appropriate gov-
ernment. D. 48 hours
C. a. All non-government organization 35. The Act extends to the whole of India ex-
substantially financed by the appropriate cept the State of
government.
A. Sikkim
D. a. All the above.
B. Jammu and Kashmir
31. The First Appellate Authority should decide
C. North Eastern area
on first appeals
D. Andaman & Nicobar island
A. Within 30 days from the receipt of the
first appeals 36. The Central Information Commission falls
B. In less number of days that the PIO under which ministry
concerned took to take a decision on the
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
application
B. Ministry of Personnel
C. Within 45 days from the date of receipt
of the appeal, if the reasons are recorded C. Ministry of Human Resource Develop-
ment
D. Both a and c D. None of the above
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7.6 RTI Act 398
37. Maximum penalty can be impossed Commission/ the State Information Com-
A. 20, 000 mission can be preferred by the applicant
within days
B. 25, 000
A. 30 days
C. 30, 000
B. 45 days
D. 50, 000
C. 60 days
38. Second appeal to the Central Information D. 90 days
NARAYAN CHANGDER
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VIII
VIII
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
8 Non-constitutional bodies . . . . . . . 400
8.1 Vigilant . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 400
8.2 Lokpal and Lokayuktas . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 415
8.3 Disaster Management Act . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 417
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8. Non-constitutional bodies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
8.1 Vigilant
1. In which year the Central Vigilance Com- A. 10%
mission (CVC) was given statutory sta- B. 5%
tus?
C. 15%
A. 2001
D. 20%
B. 2003
C. 2006 5. What is the theme of Vigilance Awareness
Week 2020?
D. 2008
A. Vigilant India, Prosperous India
2. THIS YEAR THE VIGILANCE AWARENESS
B. Eradicate Corruption-build a new india
WEEK IS OBSERVED FROM THE DATE:
A. October 25 to November 1
C. Integrity-A way of Life
B. October 27 to November 1
D. none
C. October 26 to November 1
6. THE PRACTICE OF VIGILANCE AWARENESS
D. none of above
WEEK WAS STARTED IN THE YEAR:
3. Who is the Chief Vigilance Officer in our A. 1998
Bank?
B. 1999
A. Surendra Kumar Dixit
C. 1996
B. K N Nayak
D. 2000
C. Shiv Narain Kaushik
D. B Uma Sankar 7. Vigilance awareness week 2022 is being
observed from
4. What percentage of Re assaying to A. 30 October to 5 November
be carried out on pledged Gold Orna-
ments/Jewellery/coin in the Gold Loan ac- B. 31 October to 6 November
counts sanctioned during last quarter? C. 29 October to 4 November
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8.1 Vigilant 401
D. 28 October to 3 November 13. When was RTI act passed by the Parlia-
ment?
8. Name the first state in India to introduce
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. 2010
Lokayuktha?
B. 2009
A. Madhya Pradesh
C. 2005
B. Kerala
D. 2004
C. Gujarat
D. Maharashtra 14. The week which begins the birth anniver-
sary of late is observed as Vigilance
9. In which year the present CVC Act came Awareness Week.
into force? A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
A. 2006 B. Mahatma Ghandhi
B. 2005 C. Rajiv Ghandhi
C. 2004 D. Lal Bahadur Shastri
D. 2003
15. Whom should a particular RTI application
10. Name of the First State in India to intro- covering the relevant department be ad-
duce “Lokayukta” dressed to
A. Chief Executive Director
A. Kerala
B. The Chairman
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Public Relation officer
C. Maharashtra
D. Public Information Officer
D. Gujarat
16. What percentage to be Re-appraised of
11. Vigilance Awareness Week is observed Gold Ornaments/Jewellery/coin in the
in last week of October to coincide with Gold Loan by the Internal Audit of the
birthday of which eminent freedom fighter Branch by ZIAD?
which falls on 31 st October?
A. 10%
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. 5%
B. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
C. 15%
C. Subhash Chandra Bose
D. 20%
D. Bhagat Singh
17. Deposit can be made in SSA Account till the
12. CVC was established on recommendations completion of years from date of ac-
of which commission? count opening
A. gorewala Committee A. 10 years
B. Santhanam Committee B. 12 years
C. Chaliya Committee C. 14 years
D. None of Above D. 15 years
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8.1 Vigilant 402
18. Every year Vigilance Awareness Week is C. September, 1964
observed during last week of October. D. February, 2003
Whose Birthday falls during that week?
24. who is current central vigilance commis-
A. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
sioner of India?
B. Sardar VallabhBhai Patel
A. pradeep kumar
C. Dr Rajendra Prasad
B. alok verma
D. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad C. sanjay kothari
NARAYAN CHANGDER
19. How many Zero Tolerance areas are there D. rajeev maharshi
A. 10 25. Where is the Headquarter of CVC?
B. 12 A. Mumbai
C. 15 B. Kolkata
D. 20 C. New Delhi
20. Where is the headquarters of CVC lo- D. Bengaluru
cated? 26. Who of the following is not the part of
A. Mumbai committee to select the CVC
B. Kolkatta A. Home Minister
C. New Delhi B. Leader of opposion in Lok Sabha
D. Bengaluru C. Prime Minister of India
D. Leader of opposion in Rajya Sabha
21. Which of the following is not a type of Vig-
ilance? 27. Who is the first CVC of India?
A. Preventive A. Nittor Srinivasa Rau
B. Punitive B. Vinod vibhor
C. Participative C. Kalyanan
D. Corrective D. Milan Samdev
22. What is this year’s (2022) theme of vigi- 28. WHO IS THE CURRENT CHIEF VIGILANCE
lance awareness week? COMMISSIONER OF INDIA?
A. Vigilant India, Prosperous India A. NITTOOR SRINIVASA RAU
B. Independent India @75:Self Reliance B. SURESH N PATEL
with Integrity C. SANJAY KOTHARI
C. Corruption free India for a developed D. none of above
Nation
29. The time frame for reporting of fraud to
D. Eradicate Corruption-Build a New In- RBI is
dia
A. 3 weeks from detection
23. The CVC Act came in to effect from B. 1 month from detection
A. February, 1964 C. 1 week from detection
B. August, 1998 D. 3 months from detection
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8.1 Vigilant 403
30. Central Vigilance Commission recently di- C. Prime Minister
rected the Banks to it any suspected fraud D. Home Minister
cases of rupees and above
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A. One Crore 36. Which state government has established
special courts to facilitate time bound dis-
B. 50 Lakhs
posal of corruption cases and attachment
C. 3 cores of assets?
D. 5 cores A. Tamilnadu
31. IS AN APEX INDIAN GOVERNMENT B. Andhra Pradesh
BODY TO ADDRESS THE GOVERNMENTAL C. Maharastra
CORRUOPTION.
D. Karnataka
A. Central Vigilance Commission
B. Central Vigilance Cooperation 37. WE CAN SEND COMPLAINTS IN WRITING
TO THE:
C. Central Vigilance Conference
A. COMMISSIONER
D. none of above
B. SECRETARY
32. Who is the current Central Vigilance Com-
C. OFFICER
missioner of India?
D. none of above
A. Sanjay Kothari
B. K. V. Chowdary 38. Which of the following states are excluded
C. Pradeep Kumar from RTI
D. Rajeev Maharishi A. Karnataka
B. Jammu and Kashmir
33. AUGUST 2022, WILL BE CELEBRATED AS
THE TH INDEPENDENCE DAY. C. Assam
A. 76 D. Nagaland
B. 77 39. Name of quarterly newsletter published
C. 75 by CVC?
D. none of above A. Vigilance Matters
34. The current Chairperson of Lokpal is- B. Vigeye Vani
A. Justice B.N. Sharma C. Maitri
B. Dr. Ram Kumar D. Sparsh
C. Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose 40. Who among the following is not the part
D. Justice Pradip Kumar Mohanty of the committee to select the CVC?
A. Home Minister
35. The Central Vigilance Commission presents
its annual report to the: B. Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha
A. Parliament C. Prime Minister of India
B. President D. Leader of opposition in Rajya Sabha
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8.1 Vigilant 404
41. Where is headquarter of CVC? 47. Who was the first central vigilance com-
A. Mumbai missioner of India?
B. Kolkata A. Sharad Kumar
C. New Delhi B. Nittoor Srinivasa Rau
C. T.U.Vijayasekharan
D. Bengaluru
D. B.K.Acharya
42. Howmany Vigilance Commissioner (mem-
48. Where is Head Quarters of CVC?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
bers) are there in CVC?
A. 1 A. Bombay
B. 2 B. Kolkata
C. 3 C. New Delhi
D. 4 D. Bangalore
43. International anti-corruption is celebrated 49. The prevention of corruption act 1988 was
on which day? first brought by which government?
A. 9 jan A. BJP
B. 9 march B. UPA
C. Congress
C. 9 june
D. SSP
D. 9 dec
50. As per the integrity pledge for Citizens it
44. Howmany members are there in Central
stats that to perform all tasks in an
Vigilance Commission?
and transparent manner
A. 2
A. Prudent
B. 3 B. Honest
C. 4 C. Integrity
D. 6 D. Courage
45. Number of Core values in our bank- 51. Software used by Currency Administration
A. 4 cell is
B. 6 A. Kuber
C. 8 B. Bheeshma
D. 5 C. Sabyasachi
D. CBS
46. What is the Theme of Vigilance Awareness
Week for the year 2021? 52. The CVC was set up by GOI on the recom-
A. Atmanirbhar Bharat mendation of committee headed by
B. Swatantra Bharat@75:satyanishtha A. A Subramanian
se aatmnirbharta B. Bimal Jalan
C. Jagruk Bharat C. K Santhanam
D. Savdhan India, Progressing India D. N S Vishwanathan
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8.1 Vigilant 405
53. What is the maximum term of Central Vig- B. 1988
ilance Commissioner and other vigilance C. 1965
commissioners?
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D. 184
A. 2
B. 3 59. OCTOBER 31ST IS CELEBRATED AS THE
BIRTHDAY OF
C. 4
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
D. 5
B. MAHATMA GANDHI
54. A Branch Head in Scale IV is au- C. SARDAR VALLA BHAI PATEL
thorized to incur expenditure on addi-
tion/replacement of furniture and fittings D. none of above
upto Rs lacs 60. If the SARFAESI Auction is postponed / de-
A. 1200000 ferred
B. 750000 A. A fresh notice is not required
C. 600000 B. The fresh 60 days notice is
must/compulsory
D. 225000
C. The fresh 30 days notice is
55. A COMPLAINT OF CORRUPTION CAN BE must/compulsory
LODGED UNDER:
D. The fresh 15 days notice is
A. PIDPS must/compulsory
B. PIDPA
61. How many vigilance commissioners are
C. PIDPI there to assist the Central vigilance Com-
D. none of above missioner
A. 3
56. who of the following is NOT the part of
the committee which selects CVC commis- B. 5
sioner? C. 2
A. Lok sabha opposition leader D. 4
B. home minister
62. Which committee recommended to estab-
C. Rajya Sabha opposition Leader lish CVC in India?
D. Prime Minister A. Santhanam Committee
57. which ministry commands CVC? B. Goiporia Committee
A. home ministry C. T.K. Viswanatham committee.
B. law ministry D. none of above
C. ministry of personnel and Training 63. Which of the following statement is NOT
D. None correct about the central vigilance commis-
sion of India?
58. The prevention of corruption act intro- A. the central vigilance commissioner is
duced in to be appointed by the president of India .
A. 1989
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8.1 Vigilant 406
B. Tenure of central vigilance commis- 68. Who is the Chief Vigilance Officer (CVO)
sioner is 5 years. of our Bank
C. central vigilance commissioner can be A. Rajeev Maharshi
removed or suspended from the office by
B. Sharad Kumar
the president on the ground of misbehav-
ior but only after the supreme court has C. Nayak Narsimha K
held an inquiry into his case and recom-
D. Pradeep Kumar
mended action against him.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The central vigilance commission is 69. Which committee recommends to establish
mainly an advisory body and has no adju- the Chief Vigilance Commission in India?
dicatory functions.
A. Santhanam committee
64. If a life or liberty is involved a PIO is B. Goipariya committee
expected to reply for an RTI application
C. Raj Mananar committee
within
A. 24 HRS D. None of the above
B. 48 HRS 70. In our bank, for Complaints under Whistle
C. ONE WEEK Blower policy who is the designated au-
thority?
D. TWO WEEK
A. General Manager, HRM
65. Minimum what % of the Gold Loan ac-
counts of the branch should be reappraised B. General Manager, Compliance
during Internal Audit C. Concerned Zonal Head
A. 5% D. Chief Risk Officer
B. 10%
71. provides an opportunity to the bank
C. 15% to analyse the financial viability even in
D. 20% adverse situations
66. The Central Vigilance Commission was set A. Break even analysis
up by GOVERNMENT OF INDIA in the year B. Sensitivity Analysis
A. 1953 C. Du Pont analysis
B. 1964 D. RAROC calculation
C. 1947
72. In the first stage, extension of service of
D. 1948
officers in SBI are granted on completion
67. which state was first to introduce of
“Lokayukta” A. 30 years of service
A. gujrat B. 55 years of age
B. haryana C. 58 years of age
C. maharashtra D. 30 years of service or 55 years of age,
D. Tamilnadu whichever is earlier
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8.1 Vigilant 407
73. when was central vigilance commission 78. Fraud to RBI must be filed within from
was set up? the date of reporting
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A. 1954 A. 10 days
B. 1995 B. 30 days
C. 60 days
C. 1964
D. 180 days
D. 1985
79. Birthday of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel ()
74. AN APEX INDIAN GOVERNMENT BODY falls.
TO ADDRESS THE GOVERNMENTAL COR-
A. 30th November
RUPTION.
B. 31st October
A. Central Vigilance Commission
C. 2nd November
B. Central Vigilance Cooperation
D. 25th October
C. Central Vigilance Conference
80. The reporting of fraud cases in the bank is
D. none of above undertaken by
75. What is full form of PIDPI? A. Banking Operation Department
B. Fraud Monitoring Department
A. Police Investigation Department and
Protection of Informer C. Vigilance Department
B. Public Interest Disclosure and Protec- D. CEO’s Office
tion of Informer 81. Parliament passed prevention of corrup-
C. People Interest Disclosure and Protec- tion amendment bill 2018 on
tion of Informer A. 23 july
D. Police Investigation Drive and Protec- B. 24 july
tion of Informer C. 25 july
76. Right to Information Act, 2005 came into D. 26 july
force on which of the following date? 82. The application under IBC Code should be
A. 12-10-2005 admitted with in days by NCLT
B. 15-06-2005 A. 14
C. 15-08-2005 B. 30
C. 45
D. 12-07-2005
D. 9
77. Which was the first state to enact RTI in
83. Who was the first Chief Vigilance Comis-
India?
sioner (CVC) of India
A. Maharashtra
A. N S Rau
B. Tamil Nadu B. S. Dutt
C. Kerala C. B K Acharya
D. UP D. R P Khanna
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8.1 Vigilant 408
84. Minimum age required for Loan Against Se- 90. The fee for filing the RTI application is
curity is A. 10
A. 18 years
B. 15
B. 21 years
C. 20
C. 25 years
D. 25
D. 28 years
91. Who can file an RTI?
85. How many Zero tolerance areas are there
NARAYAN CHANGDER
in our Bank? A. Only Indian Nationals
A. 10 B. Only Foreign nationals
B. 12 C. Both a & b
C. 15 D. None of the above
D. 20 92. Complaint with CBI should be filed within
86. central vigilance commission was setup on from the date of reporting of fraud to
RBI
A. 1955
A. 10 days
B. 1965
B. 15 days
C. 1964
C. 30 days
D. 1966
D. 45 days
87. Who is the Chief Information Commis-
sioner (CIC) of India? 93. SARDAR VALLA BHAI PATEL IS KNOWN
A. Sudhir Bhargava AS OF INDIA
B. Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha A. PRIDE
C. Bimal Julka B. IRON MAN
D. Radha Krishna Mathur C. FATHER
88. Minimum & Maximum limit for SCSS de- D. none of above
posit is 94. VIGEYE (Vigilance Eye) is related to
A. Rs. 10, 000 & Rs. 100000
A. CVC
B. Rs. 10, 000 & Rs. 1000000
B. SBI
C. Rs. 5000 & Rs. 1500000
C. RBI
D. Rs. 10, 000 & Rs. 1500000
D. Central Govt
89. Vigilance Awareness Week observing on
last week of October 31st every year on 95. The prevention of corruption act was
who‘sbirthday? enancted in
A. Sardhar Vallabhai Patel A. 1978
B. Mahatma Gandhi B. 1988
C. Jawaharlal Nehru C. 1998
D. Indira gandhi D. 2008
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8.1 Vigilant 409
96. The office of Central Vigilance Commis- A. to advice the Central government and
sioner falls under the Ministry. all its authorities on such matters re-
ferred to it by them.
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Ministry of Personnel and Training
B. Home Ministry B. to exercise power over the functions of
Delhi Police Establishments
C. Law Ministry
C. it is mainly an advisory body and it has
D. Its an independent body no adjudicatory functions
97. Who is the present current chairman of a D. all of the Above
Central Vigilance Commission?
102. What is the full form of PIDPI?
A. Sri. K.V. Chowdary
A. Public Interest Disclosure & Protec-
B. Sri. Rajiv
tion of Informer
C. Sri. Sharad Kumar
B. Property in Dispute & Property Inves-
D. NOTA tigations
98. The term Lokpal was coined in 1963 by C. Public Integrity Dedication prevention
& Insightfullness
A. Anaa Hajare
D. None of the above
B. Laxmi Mall Singhvi
C. Vinobha Bhave 103. first CVC Commissioner was
D. D. Baba Amte A. T U Vijayshekharan
B. N S Rau
99. CVC formed on
C. B K Acharya
A. 11 feb 1964
B. 17 march 1964 D. Sharad Kumar
C. 13 feb 1966 104. The office of Central Vigilance Commis-
D. 14 march 1966 sioner falls under which Ministry?
A. Ministry of Personal and training
100. The 2020 Vigilance Awareness Week is
being observed from B. Home ministry
A. 30th October, 2020 to 4th November, C. Law ministry
2020 D. None of the above
B. 9th October, 2020 to 3rd November,
2020 105. If an amount of less than Rs.10, 000/-is
involved in the fraud, which agency to be
C. 27th October, 2020 to 2nd November, filed the complaint?
2020
A. State Police
D. 28th October, 2020 to 1st November,
2020 B. CID of State
C. CVO
101. which one of the following is the function
of CVC? D. NOTA
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8.1 Vigilant 410
106. Name of the Quarterly Newsletter pub- 111. Which of the state is excluded from RTI?
lished by CVC A. NAGALAND
A. Vigilance B. ASSAM
B. Sparsh C. JAMMU KASHMIR
C. Vigeye Vani D. TAMILNADU
D. Maitri 112. Which of these is a role of vigilance com-
mission in India?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
107. What is this year’s (2020) theme on vig-
ilance awareness A. To address socio economic issues
A. Vigilant India, Prosperous India B. To address governmental corruption
C. To protect and promote the interest of
B. Integrity-a way of life
farmers
C. Public Participation in promoting In-
D. None of the above
tegrity and Eradicating Corruption
D. Eradicate Corruption-Build a New In- 113. The Indian aiforce celebrated its golden
dia jubilee in
A. 1982
108. The resolution process should be com- B. 1962
pleted within days from insolvency
commencement date or may be extended C. 1972
by another days D. 1992
A. 90, 90 114. Who was the first Central Vigilance Com-
B. 180, 90 missioner of India?
C. 120, 90 A. Sharad Kumar
D. 90, 180 B. Nittoor Srinivasa Rau
C. T. U. Vijayashekharan
109. Who was the first Chief Vigilance Com- D. B. K. Acharya
missioner of India?
115. As per Our Bank’s guidelines, surprise
A. Sharad Kumar
cash verification by another officer to be
B. B. K. Acharya done times in a month?
C. Nittoor Srinivasa Rau A. 1
D. T. U. Vijayasekharan B. 2
C. 3
110. A person who exposed misconduct, al-
leged dishonest or illegal activity occurring D. 4
in an organisation in which he himself is a 116. OCTOBER 31ST IS CELEBRATED AS THE
part of is called BIRTHDAY OF
A. Bigmouth A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Blabberer B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Whistleblower C. Sardar Valla Bhai Patel
D. gossiper D. none of above
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8.1 Vigilant 411
117. CVC recently directed the banks to report C. To take out auditors report of the com-
to it any suspected fraud cases of ru- pany
pees and above.
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D. All the above
A. 1 lakh
122. In case of Award staff, when the re-
B. 2 crores
peated acts of Minor misconduct will be-
C. 1 crores come Gross misconduct?
D. 5 crores A. A minor misconduct will remain minor
misconduct.
118. Which of the following is not permitted
mode of transport for remittance of cash B. More than one
within limits prescribed by bank?
C. More than two
A. Bank’s Motorcycle
D. More than three
B. Bus
C. On Foot 123. The two secretatiat of CVC are
D. All are valid modes A. CTE and CBI
B. CTE AND CDI
119. The Theme for 2022 Vigilance Awareness
Week is- C. CBI AND CDI
A. “Corruption-free India for a developed D. none
nation”
124. Who administers the oath of office to the
B. Integrity-A way of Life Chif Vigilance Commissioner?
C. Eradicate Corruption-Build A New In-
A. Prime Minister
dia
B. Chief Justice of India
D. My Vision-Corruption Free India
C. The President
120. Which anti-corruption crusader started
hunger strike from 5 th April, 2011 at Jan- D. Home Minister
tar Mantar, Delhi?
125. Where is the head quarter of CVC
A. Megha Patkar
A. Kolkata
B. Arvind Kejriwal
B. Mumbai
C. Anna Hazare
C. New Delhi
D. Baba Amte
D. Bengaluru
121. As a preventive measure, a Credit Officer
is expected to visit the ICAI website while 126. The Vigilance Awareness Week-2022 is
processing a Credit Proposal of a Company. being observed from
What could be the motto
A. 31st October to 6th November
A. To see the financials of the company
B. 28th October to 3rd November
B. To check the validity of the auditor of
C. 30th October to 5th November
the company with his membership number
D. 25th October to st 31stOctober
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8.1 Vigilant 412
127. The office of the central vigilance commis- 132. which one of the following is FALSE about
sioner falls under the Ministry . CVC India
A. Ministry of Personnel and Training A. CVC Commissioner is appointed by the
B. Home Ministry President of India.
C. Law Ministry B. CVC Commissioner tenure is 5 years
D. None of the above C. the commissioner can be removed by
the president on the ground of misbe-
128. In which year was the first vigilance
NARAYAN CHANGDER
haviour but only after the Supreme court
awareness week observed in India has held enquiry into his case and recom-
A. 2003 mended action against her/him.
B. 2000 D. the CVC is mainly an advisory body . it
C. 2005 doesn’t have adjudicatory functions.
D. 2006 133. Central Vigilance Commission directed
the Banks to report to if any suspected
129. Gifts may be accepted from near rela-
fraud cases of Crores & above to file
tives on occasions such as weddings, an-
with CBI?
niversaries, funerals or religious functions.
Which statement is correct? A. Rs 1.00 crore & above
A. Up to Scale III-Rs.15000 B. Rs 2.00 crore & above
B. Up to Scale IV-Rs.15000 C. Rs 3.00 crore & above
C. Up to Scale V-Rs.15000 D. Above Rs. 5 crores
D. Up to Rs.15000 for all officers.
134. What is the Theme for current year Vigi-
130. D E Ratio indicates lance Awareness Week?
A. Relationship between external borrow- A. My Vision-Corruption Free India
ings and own fund of concern B. Eradicate Corruption-Build a New In-
B. Relationship between external borrow- dia
ings and Fixed Asset of the concern C. Preventive Vigilance as a tool of Good
C. Relationship between Current Asset Governance
and Own fund of the concern
D. Integrity-A way of Life
D. Relationship between Current liability
and own fund of the concern 135. What is check digit?
131. WHAT IS THE THEME FOR THE VIGI- A. First digit of a cheque number
LANCE AWARENESS WEEK 2021? B. First right in account number
A. Independent India@75 Self Reliance C. Last digit in account number
with Integrity
D. Middle digit in account number
B. Independent India@85 Self Reliance
with Integrity 136. RBI has classified the frauds on the pro-
visions of
C. Independent India@65 Self Reliance
with Integrity A. Banking Regulation Act
D. none of above B. Negotiable Instrument Act
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8.1 Vigilant 413
C. Indian Panel Code 142. When was Central Vigilance Commission
set up?
D. Company Act
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. 1954
137. What is the Commission earned per Trans- B. 1995
action for pension payment is Rs
C. 1964
A. 60
D. 1985
B. 65
143. What is India’s rank in Corruption Percep-
C. 70 tion Index in 2019 as provided by Trans-
D. 75 parency International
A. 78
138. Within how many days after receiving a B. 79
reply on the First Appeal, a Second Appeal
can be filed? C. 80
A. 30 D. 81
B. 45 144. Cases involving Rs 25 crore and above
are to be filed with
C. 60
A. CBI (Anti Corruption Branch)
D. 90
B. CBI (EOW branch)
139. headquarter of CVC is in C. BS & FC unit of CBI
A. ahamedabad D. State Police
B. kolkata 145. All cheques(cash) with amount &
above to be screened under UV machine?
C. mumbai
A. 5, 000
D. new delhi
B. 10, 000
140. Maximum Installments can be de- C. 25, 000
posited in PPF Per FY D. 50, 00
A. 12
146. THE CENTRAL VIGILANCE COMMISSION
B. 15 WAS STARTED IN THE YEAR:
C. Unlimited A. 1964
D. None of the above B. 1965
C. 1967
141. The Central Vigilance Commission is ap-
D. none of above
pointed by
A. The Leader of Opposition 147. According to Jan Lok Pal Bill Investigation
on Cases against Corrupt people need to be
B. The LokSabha Speaker completed with in
C. The President A. 2 yrs
D. The Prime Minister B. 6 months
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8.1 Vigilant 414
C. 1 year 153. Award staff shall not accept any gift from
D. no time limit relatives on the occasion of weddings/ fu-
nerals/ anniversary/ any religious func-
148. The central vigilance commission (CVC) tion without the sanction of the competent
can consist of maximum how many mem- authority, if the value of the gift exceeds
bers inculding the chairman?
A. 4 A. Rs. 15000
B. 5 B. Rs. 1500
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 2
C. Rs. 7500
D. 3
D. Rs. 750
149. As per Bank guidelines, Gold Loans ex-
ceeding sanction amount of Rs should 154. Account opened in the name of customer
be Re-assayed by another assayer of the domiciled in Russia will be categorized as
same Branch or assayer of another Branch
within 15 days of sanction A. High risk
A. Rs. 1.00Lac & above B. Medium Risk
B. Rs. 2.00Lacs & above
C. Low risk
C. Rs.3.00 lacs & above
D. None
D. Above Rs.5.00Lacs
155. Which of the following is not the function
150. Who is present Chief Vigilance Commis-
of the CVC?
sioner
A. Nayak Narsimha A. The Commission is mainly an advisory
body and has no adjudicatory functions.
B. Sharad Kumar
B. To exercise superintendence over the
C. Pradeep Kumar
functions of Delhi special police establish-
D. Rajeev Maharshi ment
151. Who is the present Director of CBI? C. To tender advice to the central govern-
A. Subodh Kumar Jaiswal ment and all its authorities on such mat-
ters referred to it by them.
B. Prem Shankar Tiwari
D. All of the above
C. Ranjeet Kumar Sinha
D. Ashok Mehta 156. Which Core Value of our bank is related
to theme of Vigilance Awareness Week for
152. Who appoints the Central Vigilance Com-
this Year?
missioner?
A. President A. Courage
B. Parliament B. Honesty
C. Supreme Court C. Integrity
D. Lok Sabha Speaker D. Innovation
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8.2 Lokpal and Lokayuktas 415
8.2 Lokpal and Lokayuktas
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
1. who coined the word ‘Lokpal’ 6. Which one of the following committees rec-
ommended the establishment of the insti-
A. Shanti Bhushan
tutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta?
B. PN Bhagwati
A. Gorwala Committee
C. LM Singhvi B. Appleby committee
D. Justice krishna Iyer C. Administrative reforms committee
2. Regarding Lokayukta, Every State shall D. Ashok mehta committee
establish a body to be known as the
7. The salary and emoluments of the LOKPAL
Lokayukta for the State, within com-
shall be equivalent to and of members
mencement of the Act
would be equivalent to ?
A. 1 year
A. CJ high Court, High court judge
B. 2 year
B. CJI, Supreme Court judge
C. 6 months C. CJI, High court judge
D. 3 years D. President, Supreme court judge
3. The source of salary for Lokpal and Mem- 8. The Act states that not less than 50% of
bers is the members of the Lokpal should be from
A. Consolidated fund of India among persons belonging to the ?
B. Consolidated fund of State A. SCs and STs
B. SC, ST and minorities
C. Contingency fund of India
C. SC, ST, OBC
D. Contingency fund of State
D. SC, ST, OBC, women and minorities
4. The first lokpal of India is?
9. The term of the office of the LOKPAL and
A. Retd. Justice Pinari Chandra Dey the members is?
B. Retd. Justice Pinaki Chandra Das A. 70 years or 5 years
C. Retd. Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghosh B. 65 years or 5 years
D. Retd. Justice Pinaki Chandra Bose C. 60 years or 6 years
D. 70 years or 6 years
5. Indian lokpal is synonymous to the institu-
tion of Ombudsman existing the coun- 10. the institution of Lokpal and Lokayukta is
tries? a
A. Common law A. Constitutional body
B. Civil law B. legal body
C. Scandinavian C. Statutory body
D. Benelux D. Executive body
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8.2 Lokpal and Lokayuktas 416
11. The minimum age to become LOKPAL is C. Bombay
A. 40 years D. Bhopal
B. 48 years 17. Which of the following are major features
C. 45 years of the institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta
as recommended by the Administrative Re-
D. no age bar
forms Commission? 1. They should be
12. Which is the oldest known system de- demonstrably independent and impartial.
2. They should compare with the high-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
signed for the redressal of citizen’s
grievance? est judicial functionary in the country. 3.
They should be directly accountable to Par-
A. Ombudsman System liament. 4. Their appointments should as
B. lokpal far as possible be non-political.
C. lokayukta A. 1 and 4
D. none B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
13. Who appoints the Lokayukta and
Upalokayukta? D. 2 and 3
A. Governor 18. Assertion (A):Lokayuktas have been ap-
B. Chief Minister pointed in all the States of India.Reason
(R):An independent institution is required
C. Prime Minister to redress the grievances of the people
D. Judge of High Court against the actions of civil servants.
A. Both A and R are individually true and
14. The lokpal is member body
R is the correct explanation of A.
A. one chairman plus 7 members
B. Both A and R are individually true but
B. one chairman plus 8 members R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. one chairman, vice chairman and 8 C. A is true but R is false.
members D. A is false but R is true.
D. one chairman, vice chairman and 9
19. When did The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act,
members
2013 came into force?
15. A person “Who is or has been a , is or A. January 2013
has been a is eligible to become LOK-
B. May 2013
PAL
C. December 2013
A. CJI, HC judge
D. february 2013
B. CJI, SC judge
C. Judicial officer, public servant 20. Which was the first Indian state to estab-
lish the institution of Lokayukta?
D. CJ, Judicial officer
A. Bihar
16. The seat of the Lokpal shall be? B. UP
A. New Delhi C. Andhra Pradesh
B. Calcutta D. Maharashtra
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 417
21. The following would not come under the B. CAG
lokpal C. Supreme court judges
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. prime Minister D. Armed forces personnel
8.3 Disaster Management Act
1. The molten rocks that comes out on the D. National Drainage Management Au-
earth surface are called thority.
A. Magma or Lava
6. Present Home Secretary of India
B. Ash
A. Nirmala Sitaraman
C. Molten Ash
B. Ajay Kumar Bhalla
D. Molten Minerals
C. Prakash Javadekar
2. What is erosion? D. Nitin Gadkari
A. piles of dirt and rocks
7. The term disaster is derived from
B. cracks in the Earth
A. Latin word
C. wearing away of rock and soil caused
by water, wind or ice. B. French word
D. none of above C. Japanese word
D. Greek word
3. Gas tragedy of Union Carbide happened in
which city. 8. The twin tower of world trade centre in
A. Mumbai USA was destroyed by terror attack in the
B. Banglore year
C. Chennai A. 2000
D. Bhopal B. 2001
C. 2008
4. The worst industrial disaster took place
in: D. None of the above
A. Korba chimney collapse, 2009 9. It is a road map on how the DRRMP
B. Bombay docks explosion, 1944 shall contribute to gender-responsive and
rights-based sustainable development.
C. Bhopal gas tragedy, 1984
A. The Philippine National Disaster Risk
D. Chasnala mining disaster, 1975
Reduction and Management Plan
5. What is the full form of NDMA B. The Philippine Nation Disaster Risk Re-
A. National Disaster Management Area duction and Management Plan
B. Natural Disasters Manmade Authority C. The Philippine National Disaster Risk
Reduce and Manage Plan
C. National Disaster Management Au- D. The Philippine Nation Disaster Risk Re-
thority. duce and Manage Plan
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 418
10. A place where an earthquake originates is C. Honolalu
called the
D. Pondicherry
A. Epicenter
B. Fault line 16. Where is National Institute of Disaster
Management located?
C. Focus
A. Bengaluru
D. Dip
B. Mumbai
NARAYAN CHANGDER
11. Which of the following is NOT considered
a natural phenomena C. New Delhi
A. Earthquake D. Kanpur
B. Landslide 17. Which of the following is NOT occur as a
C. Oil Spill consequence of earthquake
D. Tornado A. Tsunami
12. The Chairman of the National Disaster B. Fire
management Authority is? C. Damage to buildings
A. Home Minister D. Drought
B. Vice President
C. Minister, Human Resource Develop- 18. As the magnitude of natural disaster in-
ment creases, their frequency of occcurrence
D. Prime Minister A. decreases
B. increases
13. Who released the first Disaster Manage-
ment Plan of India? C. remain same
A. Sh H. D. Deve gowda D. none
B. Sh Atal Bihari Vajpayee
19. Where is a safe place to be during an earth-
C. Sh Manmohan Singh quake?
D. Sh Narendra Modi A. Outside
14. How climate change leads to conflicts in B. On the roof of your house
vulnerable regions?
C. In a bathtub
A. By shortage of human resources
D. In a doorway
B. By shortage of food and water
C. By shortage of land 20. A natural hazard occurs when natural
physical processes become
D. By shortage of chemical manures
A. dormant and inactive.
15. International Tsunami Information Centre
is in? B. extreme and unpredictable.
A. Goa C. scary!
B. Jakartha D. faster than usual.
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 419
21. Full form of PRI 27. Which are the major controlling systems
A. Panchayat Raj Institutions for reduction of volcanic disaster?
A. Prediction for early warning of erup-
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. Premiere Revenue Institutions
tion
C. Poor Relief Institute
B. Timely evolution and relief work
D. Power Regional Information C. Both a and b
22. High vulnerability and high hazard are as- D. None of the above
sociated with
28. Richter scale is a
A. Low disaster risk A. logarithmic scale
B. Medium disaster risk B. calculus scale
C. High disaster risk C. volumetric scale
D. None of these D. area to vibration ratio scale
23. Which man-made disaster is unintentional 29. In which month in India, floods are likely
to occur?
A. Riots
A. April-June
B. traffic accidents
B. May-October
C. Terrorist attack.
C. June-September
D. Bio weapon
D. Jully-December
24. International Tsunami information Center 30. What will u do when some one is drowning
is located in and u also don’t know to swim
A. Honolulu A. Throw a floating object
B. Goa B. Scream
C. Jakarta C. Take a video
D. Puducherry D. Jump into the water
25. Vulnerability analysis comes in which part 31. Which one of these is not considered as a
of the Disaster Management Cycle biological weapon?
A. Mitigation A. Plague
B. Preparedness B. Munitions
C. Response C. Ricin
D. anthrax
D. Recovery
32. Which natural hazard has caused the great-
26. The susceptibility to damage or harm est number of deaths in a single event?
caused by a hazard
A. Earthquakes
A. Risk
B. Floods
B. Vulnerability
C. Volcanic eruptions and related disas-
C. Capacity ters
D. Resilience D. Hurricanes
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 420
33. When the outbreak of any disease spread C. Environmental measures
from one country to the other, it is called D. Post disaster measures
A. Epidemic
39. Mechanisms established under Disaster
B. Endemic Management Act, 2005 include?
C. Pandemic A. National Disaster Management Au-
D. Hypodermic thority
34. Under which Ministry National Disaster B. State Disaster Management Authority
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Management Authority comes? C. District Disaster Management Author-
A. Ministry of Environment ity
B. Ministry of Home Affairs D. All of the above
C. Ministry of Pollution 40. Disaster management is aimed at
D. Ministry of Foreign Affairs A. Resettling people in the closest unaf-
fected urban area
35. What is called for the manuals that iden-
tify the role of each officer in State for B. Collection of valuable data for future
managing the natural disasters? management objectives
A. State Relief Manuals C. Strengthening sewage and drinking
water treatment facilities to resist the im-
B. State Environmental Protection Manu- pact of a future disaster
als
D. Restoring a communitys services, facil-
C. State Disaster Manuals ities and residences to pre-disaster levels
D. State Protection Manuals
41. Which of the following is NOT a social im-
36. Which one is not a Natural disaster pact of drought
A. Cyclone A. Malnutrition
B. Bomb explosion B. Stress and tension
C. Tsunami C. Rise in inflation rate
D. Volcanic eruption D. loss of soil moisture
37. Who shall be the first responders in disas- 42. Which of the following is NOT a epidemic
ter management situation? disease
A. Central Government A. Malaria
B. Community B. Cancer
C. Local Government C. Cholera
D. State Government D. Dengue
38. Structural and Non-structural measures 43. Full form of DDMA is
are elements of high category of Risk Re- A. District Disaster Management Agency
duction measures
A. Socio-economic measures B. District Disaster Management Author-
B. Physical measures ity
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 421
C. Double Disaster Management Agency B. Kazakhstan
D. District Disaster Mitigation Agency C. India
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44. What should not be done in case of fire? D. Philippines
A. Stay low and crawl on your elbows 50. What is risk management?
B. turn on the electric switch A. Looking both ways before crossing a 2
C. raise the alarm lane highway.
D. test doors before opening them B. Auto Insurance
C. The forecasting and evaluation of fi-
45. Which material melts ice the fastest? nancial risks together with the identifica-
A. sugar tion of procedures to avoid or minimize
their impact.
B. air
D. The ability to plan for the future.
C. salt
D. water 51. The Disaster Management Act was made
in?
46. Which storm can cause flooding?
A. 2006
A. hurricanes
B. 2003
B. blizzards
C. 2005
C. tsunamis
D. 2009
D. all of the above
52. Volcanoes are generally found where
47. DSO is required for efficient stock of essen-
A. Intraplates pull apart or are coming to-
tials and its role is identified during prepar-
gether
ing DDMP for a district. DSO means
B. Tectonic plates pull apart or are com-
A. District Supply Officer
ing together
B. Direct Shop Owner
C. Earth’s crust pull apart or are coming
C. District Sales Officer together
D. Durable Stock Organizer D. None of these pull apart or are coming
together
48. What are giant ocean-going waves that
are caused by an underwater earthquake 53. The point within Earth’s interior where the
or volcanic eruptions called? crust breaks by stress (faulting) is called
A. Tsunamis A. Epicentre
B. Earthquake B. Hypocentre
C. Tornadoes C. Geo-centre
D. Hurricanes D. None of these
49. RANDOM:What country did the section 54. What are the important measures to be
Rizal represent during United nations. taken in community level of disaster pre-
[Grade 7] paredness
A. Uzbekistan A. Increased awareness
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 422
B. Provision of early and timely warning C. The National Institute of Sustainable
C. Landuse planning Development (NISD)
D. The National Institute of Renewable
D. All of the above
Energy Sources.(NIRES)
55. Name the cyclone that hit West Bengal in
60. What is the Richter Scale?
May 2020
A. A system of measuring the wind
A. Amphan
B. A system of measuring the depth of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. T-Sunami ocean
C. Vayu C. A system of measuring the height of
D. Fani volcanoes
D. A system of measuring the strength of
56. Suppose there is an electric fire what will
earthquakes
u do
A. Throw water 61. What is the main reason for melting of ice
sheets?
B. Throw oil
A. Increase in the oxygen content
C. Cut the electric supply
B. Global warming
D. Take out valuable stuff and run
C. Decrease in carbon dioxide content
57. United Nations disaster management team D. Noise pollution
are responsible for solving problems re-
sulting from disaster in 62. hazards by accident, faulty equipment, or
some other mishap are examples for
A. Asia
A. terrorism
B. Africa
B. technological hazard
C. Australia
C. natural hazard
D. All continents
D. hydrological hazard
58. When the outbreak of any disease was re-
stricted to one country, it is called 63. Which of the following is not a man-made
hazard?
A. Epidemic
A. Leakage of Toxic waste
B. Endemic
B. Wars and Civil Strife
C. Pandemic
C. Drought
D. Hypodemic
D. Environmental pollution
59. The National Centre for Disaster Manage- 64. An earthquake measuring 7.8 on the
ment (NCDM), established in 1995 on the Richter scale is called
call of the UN, later on was renamed as:
A. minor
A. The National Institute of Engineering
(NIE) B. moderate
B. The National Institute of Disaster Man- C. strong
agement (NIDM). D. massive
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 423
65. Full form of DDMA- C. Simple Operating Procedure
A. District Disease Manage Authority D. Standard Operating Procedure
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B. District Dam Manage Authority 71. What is the full form of UNFCC with re-
C. District Duck Management Authority spect to global warming convention?
D. District Disaster Management Author- A. United Nations Framework Convention
ity on Climate Change
66. Under sea earthquake leads to B. United Nations Federation Convention
on Climate Change
A. Cyclone
C. United Nations Framework Center on
B. Heavy rain Climate Change
C. Tsunami D. United Nations Federation Center on
D. Flood Climate Change
67. Under which LIST of the Schedule VII of the 72. When do we celebrate as International
Constitution of India is subject “Disaster” Day for Natural Disaster Reduction?
listed?
A. March 1
A. Union list
B. April 15
B. State list
C. September 12
C. Concurrent list
D. October 13
D. None of the above.
73. During a Disaster who is the guardian of
68. Which Aviation Accident did not happen in the district
2020
A. District collector
A. Air India Express flight IX 1344 in
B. Doctor
Kozikhode
C. Police
B. Flight PK-8303 in Karachi
D. Nurse
C. Malaysia Airlines Flight MH370
D. Ukraine International Airlines (UIA) 74. Name the chemical that was leaked in the
Flight PS752 in Iran Bhopal gas tragedy
A. Methyl carbide
69. Sometimes there are some indications that
would indicate that perhaps an earthquake B. Methyl isocynate
would occur. Such indications are called C. Potassium cyanide
A. Indicators D. Potassium isocynate
B. Precursors
75. What is the first step in case of an earth-
C. Signal quake?
D. Anticipations A. run towards the open space
70. SOP stands for B. Drop Cover Hold
A. Standard Office Protocol C. start crawling on your elbows
B. Standard Operating Protocol D. shut all the doors and windows
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 424
76. When was the Disaster Management Act C. Development, Proof, Recovery, Relief
passed?
D. None of the above
A. 23 December 2005
B. 25 December 2005 82. Long, high sea wave caused by an earth-
quake in the ocean; causes massive flood-
C. 15 August 2005
ing, a change in landscape, and a decrease
D. 2 Octiber 2005 in population
77. Example for sudden onset disaster is A. Tsunami
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. cyclone B. Earthquake
B. drought C. Volcanic Eruption
C. epidemic D. none of above
D. civil strife
83. First phase in disaster management cycle
78. National Institute of Disaster Manage-
ment is at A. Recovery
A. Dehradun B. Preparedness
B. Bangalore C. Mitigation
C. Chennai D. Response
D. New Delhi
84. Where most of the Earthquake occurs
79. Write down the probable impacts of
A. Circum-Pacific belt
drought
A. Reduce energy production B. Alpine-Himalayan seismic belt
B. Reduction in ground water level C. Mid-Oceanic ridges
C. Drying up of rivers, lakes and ponds D. None of these
D. All of these
85. Which decade has been declared as the
80. NDMA means Decade of Natural Disaster Reduction by
A. National Disaster Management Act the United Nations?
B. National Disaster Management Au- A. The 1970s
thority B. The 1980s
C. Native Disaster Management Author- C. The 1990s
ity
D. The 2000s.
D. National Disaster Maintenance Act
81. What are the four phases of Emergency 86. There is an earthquake what will u do
Management in Disaster management cy- A. Go to a open ground
cle?
B. Stay at home
A. Mitigation, Preparation, Response, Re-
covery C. Relax at office
B. Mitigation, Prosperity, Relief, Recent D. Sip a coffee
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 425
87. What are the major types oriented to mit- B. Checkoslovakia
igation measures of hazards and disas- C. Belarus
ters?
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D. USSR
A. Public mitigation measures
B. Community mitigation measures 93. The National Policy on Disaster Manage-
ment was approved by the Union Cabinet
C. Both a and b
in?
D. None of the above
A. 2008
88. Who is known as the father of modern B. 2009
seismology
C. 2007
A. Charles Richter
D. 2010
B. R.D. Oldham
94. The chairman of the National Disaster
C. W.M. Davis
Management Authority
D. None of the above
A. Minister of Human Resource Develop-
89. How much percentage of the landmass is ment
prone to earthquakes in India? B. Home minister
A. Around 58% C. Prime Minister
B. Around 60% D. President
C. Around 63%
95. A geophysicist who studies earthquakes
D. Around 65% and the mechanical characteristics of the
90. What is the device called that uses spe- Earth is called
cial weights and magnetic fields to mea- A. Seismologist
sure the movement of the ground? B. Geologist
A. Barometer C. Geographer
B. Speedometer D. Archaeologist
C. Seismograph
96. Where do hurricanes develop?
D. Telegraph
A. Land
91. Name the place where nuclear chemical ex-
B. Ocean
plosion had took place in the year 1986
C. Rivers
A. Oppau explosion, Germany
D. none of above
B. Chernobyl nuclear power plant,
Ukraine 97. Who is the head of State Executive Com-
C. Tianjin, China explosion mittee on disaster management?
D. Halifax explosion, Canada. A. Prime Minister
92. Where Chernobyl Nuclear Gas reactor ex- B. Chief Minister
ploded C. Governor
A. Sri lanka D. Chief Secretary
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 426
98. Who is the Head of National Disaster Man- C. Chief Minister
agement Authority? D. Cabinet Minister
A. President
104. Expansion of NDRF
B. Prime Minister A. National Disaster Reserve Force
C. Chief Minister B. National Disaster Relief Force
D. Cabinet Minister C. National Disaster Response Force
D. National Disaster Relief Fund
NARAYAN CHANGDER
99. Which natural disaster is most frequent
during the past 20 years 105. A rapidly rotating storm system char-
A. Drought acterized by low pressure centre, strong
B. Flood winds, spiral arrangement of thunder
storms is often called
C. Volcanic eruption
A. Tsunami
D. Strom
B. Tropical Cyclone
100. How can you avoid running out of money C. Trade winds
during your retirement years? D. Thunderstorms
A. Cash flow from real estate invest-
106. NDMA through BMTPC has prepared Up-
ments..
graded Earthquake Hazard Maps and At-
B. Employment Pension plans and IRA. lases for India for better planning and poli-
C. Social Security monthly payments cies. What is the full form of BMTPC?
D. All of the above. A. Building Management & Technical Pro-
cedure for Construction
101. What is a natural disaster? B. Building Materials & Technology Pro-
A. A red letter day motion Council
B. A bad thing caused by a bad person C. Build Materials Technical Property
Center
C. An event that causes suffering brought
on by nature D. Build Materials True for Practical Con-
struction
D. An event that causes suffering brought
on by an enemy 107. National Institute of Disaster Manage-
ment is located at:
102. NDRF comprises battalions. A. Dehradun
A. 10 B. Kolkatta
B. 12 C. Chennai
C. 11 D. New Delhi
D. 15 108. If there is a snake bite what will u do
103. Who is the Head of national disaster man- A. Heal yourself by tantra
agement authority? B. Go to sleep
A. President C. Go to a municipal hospital
B. Prime Minister D. Self surgery
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 427
109. Which country is prominent in resisting 114. Latur earthquake occurred in
earthquake impact A. 1990
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A. Nepal B. 1991
B. India C. 1992
C. Somalia D. 1993
D. Japan
115. What does the acronym ISDR stand for?
110. How many Chapters does National Disas- A. International Significant Disaster Re-
ter Management Act 2005 have? sources
A. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 B. International Sustainable Develop-
has 14 chapters and 14 sections. ment Report
B. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 C. Intergovernmental Strategy for Devel-
has 11 chapters and 79 sections. oping Recreation
C. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 D. International Strategy for Disaster Re-
has 79 chapters and 11 sections. duction
D. The Disaster Management Act, 2005 116. Which of the following is NOT the natural
has 11 chapters and 11 sections. cause of flood
111. Dislodging of rock fall from a steep slope A. River bank erosion
or cliff B. Poor natural drainage
A. Rockfall C. Heavy rain
B. Rockslide D. Deforestation
C. Slump 117. What is the full form of W.H.O
D. Creep A. Women Health Organization
112. Its a major factor influencing the decision B. World Health Organization
of choosing the destination and tourism C. World Health Occupation
services:
D. Web Health Order
A. Long-term damage
118. IPCC means
B. Direct impacts on tourism
A. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
C. Indirect impacts on tourism Change
D. Travel risk perception B. Intergovernmental Panel on Climatic
Condition
113. Which of the following agencies are the
National Disaster Risk Reduction stake- C. Intergovernmental Programme on Cli-
holders? mate Change
A. Central Government D. International Panel on Climate Change
B. National Disaster Offices 119. Which one is not a water related disaster
C. Private Sector A. Tsunami
D. All of the above B. Flood
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 428
C. Tidal waves 125. Who is not the head of District disaster
D. Volcanic eruptions management authority
A. District Collector
120. National Disaster Management Act was
B. District Magistrate
passed in
C. Deputy Commissioner
A. 2001
D. Councillor
B. 2003
126. What medium will u never use when
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 2005
there is a fire
D. 2009
A. Staircase
121. In the wake of corona government of In- B. Lift
dia has come up with how Many zones
C. Window
A. Red
D. Door
B. Orange
127. What is Ring of Fire?
C. Green
A. Belt of volcanoes in the Circum Pacific
D. All of the above
region
122. The port accident which occured in B. Belt of volcanoes in the mid-
Lebanon was due to continental region
A. Unplanned weapons stored for de- C. Belt of volcanoes in the mid-atlantic re-
fence purpose gion
B. 2, 700 tonnes of ammonium nitrate D. none of above
stored for six years in a warehouse in the
city’s port. 128. Which state has maximum corona cases
in India
C. Planned terrorist attack
A. Maharashtra
D. triggered by a natural hazard
B. Delhi
123. What are the components of Geospatial C. Andhra Pradesh
Technology?
D. West Bengal
A. GIS
129. Which word is not connected with disas-
B. GPS ter relief activity?
C. Remote Sensing A. Rehabilitation
D. All the above B. Relief
124. A hazard is a situation where there is C. Reconstruction
A. Threat of natural calamity D. Reference
B. Threat to property and lives from 130. Which method cannot be used to reduce
calamities the effects of a fire hazard
C. Threat for consequences of disaster A. Water
D. All of the above B. Fire extinguisher
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 429
C. Fire blankets 136. Who heads the National Crisis Manage-
D. Sun screen ment Committee?
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A. Prime Minister
131. The point of the earth’s surface directly
B. President
above the point where an earthquake oc-
curs is called the: C. Cabinet Secretary
A. Focus D. Ministry of Environment
B. Epicenter 137. What is name of the manuals that iden-
C. Fracture tify the role of each officer in State for
managing natural disasters?
D. Fault
A. State Relief Manuals
132. How do you protect from a hurricane? B. State Environmental Protection Manu-
A. evacuate the area and put all outside als
belongings indoors C. State Disaster Manuals
B. go to your basement D. State Protection Manuals
C. call 911
138. The wind of hurricanes spins the clouds
D. get materials for warmth and hide in into what shape?
your house
A. squares
133. What causes Tsunami? B. circles
A. Sudden vertical movement of the Earth C. triangles
D. none of above
B. Convergence of destructive plates in
the ocean floor 139. Which is a man made disaster
A. Weapons
C. Explosive volcanic eruptions in the
seas/oceans. B. Flood
D. All of the above C. Cyclone
D. Volcana
134. What is the rank of India in the world for
natural disasters as per UNISDR? 140. What is a flood?
A. third A. a large amount of water that over-
B. second flowed from a lake or river
C. seventh B. a large amount of water from the
ocean
D. eighth
C. a deep lake
135. Smallest unit of preparedness analysis D. a deep river
A. Family
141. Hazards and Disasters are mainly classi-
B. Individual fied as
C. Society A. Physical and chemical
D. Government B. Nature and Human Induced
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 430
C. Physical and Human 147. Under which Ministry Of Government Of
D. Social and cultural India does National Disaster Management
Authority function?
142. Name the instrument used for measuring A. Ministry of Environment
the magnitude of earthquake
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
A. Seismograph
C. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Thermometer
D. Ministry of Foreign Affairs
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Barometer
148. Who is the head of State disaster man-
D. Ergograph
agement authority?
143. Who is not the head of District Disaster A. Prime Minister
Management Authority-DDMA B. Chief Minister
A. District Collector C. Governor
B. District Magistrate D. Member of Legislative assembly
C. Deputy Commissioner
149. Which one among the following is a bio-
D. Councillor logical hazard?
144. A clear concise document which outlines A. Earthquake
preventive and preparatory measures in B. Storm
the event of a disaster to minimize its ef-
C. Flood
fect is
D. Covid-19
A. Disaster Management manual
B. Disaster Management guide 150. What is the full form of SDMA?
C. Disaster Management plan A. State Development Management Au-
thority
D. Disaster Management Record
B. State Disaster Management Authority.
145. Who has the authority to select the Vice-
Chair person of SDMA? C. Shared Drainage Merger Area
A. Governor of the state D. State Desert Management Area
B. Chief Minister
151. Which techniques are used for prediction
C. State Legislature. of early warning of eruption?
D. Parliament A. Electric Distance Measures
146. Tropical cyclones are called in the At- B. Tilt Meters
lantic Ocean, in the western Pacific C. GPS and Satellite Inferring Rader
Ocean and in the Indian Ocean
D. All of the above
A. hurricanes, typhoons, cyclones
152. Which of the following group of people
B. cyclones, typhoons, hurricanes are more vulnerable in the event of a dis-
C. cyclones, hurricanes, typhoons aster
D. None of the above A. Men, boys, old people
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8.3 Disaster Management Act 431
B. Men, Women, boys D. the arrangement of features over
C. Women, children, Old people time.
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D. None of these 158. which of the following is not part of geo-
logical disaster?
153. Who is the present Chairman of Kerala
State Disaster Management Authority? A. Volcanoes
A. Pinarayi Vijayan B. Earthquakes
B. Tom Jose C. Tsunami
C. E Chandrasekharan D. Sea Surge
D. Shylaja 159. What are the three phases of disaster
154. Which one of the following cause global management planning?
warming? A. Evacuating, Rebuilding and Re-
A. Carbon dioxide branding
B. Oxygen B. Preparation, Planning and Perception
C. Nitrogen C. Planning, Evacuating and Recovery
D. Hydrogen D. Preparation, Response and Recovery
155. Where did the 2020 train tragedy where 160. What is the full form of SARS
more than a dozen of laborers die on a rail- A. Social and racial struggle
way track during lockdown
B. Soil and river sewage
A. Aurangabad jalna
C. Severely affected river sides
B. Mumbai
D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
C. Ratnagiri
D. Bhusawal 161. What is a flash flood?
156. What are the three P’s of earthquake A. A sophisticated flood
management? B. Power lines fallen in flood waters
A. Predict, Procrastinate, Prevent C. A deep flood
B. Predict, Prepare, Prevent D. A flood that happens fast with little
C. Predict, Postulate, Prevent warning
D. Predict, Prepare, Paralyse 162. The level of risk of a disaster depends on
157. Spatial distribution refers to A. Nature of the hazard
A. how features or objects are arranged B. Vulnerability of the elements which are
on the earth’s surface. affected
B. how two features are linked in a simi- C. Economic value of the elements which
lar pattern on the earth’s surface. are affected
C. how planets are arranged. D. All of the above
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IX
IX
NARAYAN CHANGDER
9 Other constitutional dimension . 433
9.1 Official Language . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 433
9.2 Political Parties . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 434
9.3 Constituent Assembly . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 436
9.4 Electoral Politics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 441
9.5 The State Executive . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 462
9.6 Union Executive . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 470
9.7 Indian budget . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 494
9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) . . . . . . . . . . . . 522
9.9 Foreign policy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 533
9.10 Government Initiatives . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 539
9.11 Unification of India . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 542
9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy . . . . . . . . . . . . . 547
9.13 The Government of India . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 559
9.14 Reservation is an egalitarian policy . . . . . . . . . 565
9.15 Keshavananda Bharati case . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 569
9.16 Indian Constitution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 570
9.17 Union Legislature . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 641
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9. Other constitutional dimension
9.1 Official Language
1. The official language of India is 5. The main language of Goa is
A. English A. English
B. Punjabi B. Marathi
C. Hindi C. Konkani
D. Arabic D. Hindi
2. People of Gujarat speaks:- 6. The language of Nagaland is
A. Konkani A. Naga
B. Assamese B. Hindi
C. Gujarati C. Assamese
D. Gujarati
D. none of above
7. People of Punjab speaks:-
3. Dogri language is spoken in which state?
A. Punjabi
A. Punjab
B. Oriya
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Bengali
C. Jammu and Kashmir
D. MArathi
D. Uttar Pradesh
8. Marathi language is mostly spoken by peo-
4. The main language of Bihar is ple living in
A. Hindi A. Rajasthan
B. Sanskrit B. Sikkim
C. Urdu C. Jammu and Kashmir
D. Bhojpuri D. Maharashtra
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9.2 Political Parties 434
9. language is spoken by many people 10. Which language is used in Punjab in speak-
across the world. ing?
A. English A. English
B. Chinese B. Kashmiri
C. Arabic C. Punjabi
D. Spanish D. Sindhi
NARAYAN CHANGDER
9.2 Political Parties
1. Which of these is the main component of C. The Election Commission
political party? D. The government of India
A. Leaders
6. Every party in India has to register itself
B. The followers with
C. Active members A. Parliament
D. All of these B. President
2. The political party which believes in C. Election Commission
Marxism-Leninism is: D. Section office
A. Bahujan Samaj Party
7. The term ‘partisan’ means
B. Communist Party of India
A. The ruling party which runs the govern-
C. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) ment.
D. Nationalist Congress Party B. A person who is strongly committed to
3. Party which fails to secure majority is a party.
known as C. Affair of the state or the science of gov-
A. Ruling party ernance.
B. Opposition D. A group of people who come together
to promote common beliefs.
C. Independent
D. Coalition 8. Identify the challenges faced by political
parties in India?
4. What is an alliance? A. Use of money and muscle power
A. Several parties join hands for contest- B. Lack of internal democracy in the party
ing elections
B. Two parties contest elections C. Dynastic succession
C. One party contests elections D. All the above
D. None of these
9. When was the Indian National Congress
5. Political parties are allotted symbols by was formed?
A. The party leaders A. 1885
B. The constitution of India B. 1977
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9.2 Political Parties 435
C. 1980 15. What is an ‘Alliance’?
D. 1989 A. Two parties together form the govern-
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ment.
10. A recognised political party is one that
B. Leftist and Rightist together form the
A. is registered with the Election Commis- government.
sion of India.
C. When state and national parties to-
B. is given a unique Election symbol gether form the government.
C. gets some other facilities recognised
D. When several parties in a multiparty
by the Election Commission
system join for the purpose of contesting
D. All of these elections and winning power.
11. On what ideologies does the Indian Na- 16. A person who is strongly committed to a
tional Congress rest? party, group or faction is known as:
A. Communalism A. Partisan
B. Socialism B. Leader
C. Federalism C. Law
D. Secularism D. Policy
12. What are ‘National parties’? 17. Which one of the following is not a re-
A. Parties which have units in various gional party?
states A. The Akali Dal
B. Parties which have no units B. The Telugu Desam Party
C. Parties which have units in two states C. The Indian National Congress
D. The Shiv Sena
D. Parties which have units in all states
18. Consider the following statements on par-
13. Any party with 6% of total votes in Lok
ties.A. Political parties do not enjoy much
Sabha or Assembly elections in four states
trust among the people.B. Parties are of-
and wins at least 4 seats in Lok Sabha is
ten rocked by scandals involving top party
recognized as
leaders.C. Parties are not necessary to run
A. National Party governments.
B. Regional Party A. A, B and C
C. State Party B. A and B
D. Factional Party C. B and C
14. The party that loses the elections and does D. A and C
not form the government is called
19. Which one of the following is not a func-
A. Ruling party tion of political parties?
B. Interest group A. Parties contest elections
C. Opposition party B. Parties put forward different policies
D. Factional group and programs
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9.3 Constituent Assembly 436
C. Parties do not shape public opinion A. India
D. Parties play a decisive role in making B. Sri Lanka
laws for the country C. United Kingdom
20. When people come together and partici- D. Nepal
pate in electoral process, to acquire polit-
ical power, such organisations are called 23. Which of these countries have Bi-party
system?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Government A. India
B. Society B. England
C. Political Parties C. France
D. Social Organisations D. Pakistan
21. How many parties are registered with the 24. is a signed document submitted to an
Election Commission of India? officer where in a person makes a sworn
statement regarding his/her personal in-
A. 750 formation.
B. 500 A. Affidavit
C. 700 B. Machinery
D. 650 C. Assembly
22. Which country has a two-party system? D. Defection
9.3 Constituent Assembly
1. What is the total membership of the con- A. 6 April 1910
stituent assembly after partition of In- B. 18 October 1920
dia?
C. 26 January 1950
A. 199
D. 23 March 1950
B. 289
4. The president of the constituent assembly
C. 299
was,
D. 399
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. When did Jawaharlal Nehru pass the “Ob- B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
jective Resolution” in the assembly? C. Dr. BR Ambedkar
A. Dec 20, 1946 D. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Dec 13, 1946
5. How many amendments were considered
C. Nov 20, 1946 before adopting the Constitution?
D. Jan 13, 1947 A. Around 500
3. The constitution of India came into force on B. Around 2000
C. Around 1550
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9.3 Constituent Assembly 437
D. Around 1550 B. 22 July 1947
6. When was the first meeting of the assem- C. 29 August 1947
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bly conducted? D. 26 November 1949
A. Nov 9, 1946
12. The Constitution was adopted on
B. Nov 9, 1947
A. 26 November 1950
C. Dec 9, 1947
D. Dec 9, 1946 B. 26 November 1948
C. 26 November 1949
7. how many members are there in Con-
stituent Assembly? D. 26 January 1950
A. 298 13. The constitution of India was passed by
B. 289 the constituent assembly on
C. 299 A. 26 November 1949
D. 297 B. 21 October 1949
8. Which of the following statements was C. 1 March 2020
NOT posed by the critics?
D. In the early 17’s
A. Dominated by Muslims
B. Time-consuming 14. January is celebrated as
C. Dominated by Congress A. Holi
D. Not a representative body B. Republic day
9. Which of the following is NOT a minor com- C. Martyr’s day
mittee? D. Diwali
A. Urdu Translation Committee
15. The constitution of India was framed by a
B. Press Gallery Committee
C. Commission on Linguistic Provinces A. Socialist
D. Provincial Constitution Committee
B. Constituent assembly
10. Who was elected as the vice president of C. Secular state
the assembly in 1946?
D. Democratic republic
A. B N Rau
B. H C Mukherjee 16. When there was a change in the position
of the assembly the legislative body was
C. Dr Sachchidanand Sinha
chaired by
D. Dr Rajendra Prasad
A. G V Mavlankar
11. The national anthem was adopted by the
B. Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
constituent assembly on which of the fol-
lowing day? C. B Pattabhi Sitaramayya
A. 24 January 1947 D. S Varadachariar
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9.3 Constituent Assembly 438
17. Which of these features were accepted by C. 16
all the Indian leaders much before they sat D. 17
down to make the Constitution?
A. Universal adult franchise 23. The all-important drafting committee had
2 distinguished jurist and lawyers along
B. Right to freedom with the chairman Dr B R Ambedkar. They
C. Protection of the rights of minorities were?
D. All the above A. B N Rau and Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
18. Purna Swaraj was celebrated in the year
B. B N Rau and S N Mukherjee
A. 1903
C. Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer and K M
B. 1913 Munshi
C. 1931 D. K M Munshi and S N Mukherjee
D. 1930
24. The first meeting of the constituent assem-
19. How many sessions of the Indian Con- bly was held on
stituent Assembly were conducted for the
A. 9 december 1950
formulation of Indian constitution?
B. 7 december 2020
A. 7
C. 3 october 1820
B. 11
D. 9 december 1946
C. 12
D. 15 25. Who was called the FATHER of the Indian
constitution?
20. The Princely States and the Chief Commis-
A. Dr B R Ambedkar
sioner’s Provinces contributed and
members of the Constituent Assembly B. Jawaharlal Nehru
A. 89 and 5 C. Mahatma Gandhi
B. 94 and 6 D. Dr Rajendra Prasad
C. 89 and 4 26. Where was the 1931 session of Indian Na-
D. 93 and 4 tional Congress held?
A. Nagpur
21. The Constituent Assembly had Commit-
tees. B. Karachi
A. 7 C. Calcutta
B. 9 D. Delhi
C. 6 27. Mention the minimum seats allotted to
D. 8 Princely states?
22. How many minor committees were ap- A. 91
pointed by the assembly? B. 92
A. 14 C. 94
B. 15 D. 93
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9.3 Constituent Assembly 439
28. On 9 December , the Constituent As- 33. What is the total number of membership in
sembly sat for the first time. the constituent assembly before partition
of India?
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A. 1945
A. 289
B. 1946
B. 389
C. 1947
C. 489
D. 1948
D. 589
29. How many major committees were ap-
pointed by the constituent assembly? 34. Which of the following days is celebrated
to mark the enforcement of the constitu-
A. 5 tion?
B. 6 A. Republic Day
C. 7 B. Independence Day
D. 8 C. Gandhi Jayanti
30. Who was elected the TEMPORARY pres- D. Constitution Enforcement Day
ident of the constituent assembly in
35. Constituent Assembly had 11 sessions and
1946?
sat for a total of days.
A. Dr Rajendra Prasad
A. 144
B. Dr Sachchidanand Sinha
B. 294
C. Dr B R Ambedkar
C. 166
D. Dr KM Munshi D. 189
31. When was the objective resolution 36. % of seats in the Assembly were be-
adopted? longed to Congress.
A. Nov 22, 1947 A. 80
B. Jan 22, 1947 B. 81
C. Dec 22, 1947 C. 82
D. April 22, 1947 D. 84
32. Which of the following MAJOR commit- 37. How many members were appointed to
tees was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru? the drafting committee of the constitu-
A. Steering committee, drafting commit- tion?
tee and states committee A. 8
B. Union powers committee, union consti- B. 7
tution committee and states committee C. 9
C. Steering committee, drafting commit- D. 10
tee and Union powers committee
D. Union constitution committee, provin- 38. Who was a member of the drafting com-
cial constitution committee and rules of mittee?
procedure committee A. Dr K M Munshi
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9.3 Constituent Assembly 440
B. G V Mavlankar 44. The Constituent Assembly had mem-
C. Jawaharlal Nehru bers from SC
D. S Varadachariar A. 28
B. 27
39. Constituent Assembly In the span of
C. 26
years and months, it completed its
task of framing the Indian Constitution. D. 29
A. 2 year and 5 months
NARAYAN CHANGDER
45. The Chairman of the constituent assembly
B. 2 years and 11 months was,
C. 3 years and 5 months A. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. 3 years and 11 months B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Dr. BR Ambedkar
40. When was the final draft of the constitu-
tion drafted? D. Mahatma Gandhiji
A. Nov 4, 1948 46. Name the body which framed the Constitu-
B. Dec 4, 1948 tion of India.
C. Jan 4, 1948 A. General Assembly
D. Feb 4, 1948 B. Constituent Assembly
C. Constitutional Assembly
41. set up the constituent assembly of In-
dia. D. People’s Assembly
A. Cabinet planning committee 47. The Constituent Assembly met for how
B. The Indian assembly plan many days?
C. The Drafting committee A. 118
B. 218
D. The cabinet mission plan
C. 114
42. The constituent assembly included all im-
D. 411
portant personalities, except
A. M A Jinnah 48. The President of the Constituent Assembly
was
B. Jawaharlal Nehru and B R Ambedkar
A. Rajendra Prasad
C. M A Jinnah and Mahatma Gandhi
B. B.R.Ambedkar
D. The assembly did not include impor-
tant personalities C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
43. Which of the following articles did NOT
come into force on 6 Nov 1949? 49. The constitution contained a preamble of
A. 324 A. 399 articles and 6 schedules
B. 5 B. 425 articles and 7 schedules
C. 60 C. 395 articles and 8 schedules
D. 72 D. 288 articles and 5 schedules
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9.4 Electoral Politics 441
50. H C Mukherjee and V T Krishnamachari B. 2 years
were elected in the assembly as the C. 3 years
of the assembly.
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D. 4 years
A. Temporary presidents
B. Presidents 53. The constituent assembly of India was
step up under the framework of?
C. Temporary vice-presidents
A. Cripps mission (1942)
D. Vice-presidents
B. Cabinet mission (1946)
51. The Constitution begins with a short state-
ment of its basic values. What is it C. Simon Commission (1927)
called? D. None of theses
A. Preface
54. Constituent Assembly adopted the Consti-
B. Preamble tution of India which came into force on
C. Article
D. Introduction A. 26 December 1949
52. The constitution took around years to B. 26 November 1949
complete it’s task C. 26 January 1950
A. 7 years D. 26 January 1949
9.4 Electoral Politics
1. Code of Conduct for the election is imple- D. Abhay Chautala
mented by
4. How many seats are reserved for the SCs
A. Election commission in the Lok Sabha?
B. Political parties A. 81
C. Central Government of India B. 83
D. none of above C. 84
2. In India each constituency has roughly D. 90
the:
5. How many seats were won by Lok
A. Same area Dal alone in Haryana assembly elections,
B. Same income tax revenue 1987?
C. Same agricultural production A. 90 seats
D. Same population B. 76 seats
3. In 1987 who led a movement called C. 50 seats
“Nyaya YUDH” in Haryana? D. 60 seats
A. Bansi Lal 6. Every Constituency has the following num-
B. Devi Lal ber/ numbers of representatives
C. Om Prakash Chautnala A. 1
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9.4 Electoral Politics 442
B. 2 12. The full form of EPIC is
C. 3 A. Election Photo identify card
D. 4 B. Electronic Photo identity card
7. for voting, the voter has to show which of C. Electors photo identify card
these as identity proof? D. Electoral Photo identity card
A. Ration card 13. In India, Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha elec-
B. Driving license tions are held regularly after how many
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Election Photo Identity Card years?
D. None of these A. 6
B. 5
8. What is meant by the term ‘con-
stituency’? C. 4
A. Place where the copy of constitution is D. 5 and 1/2
kept
14. Which political party got the second high-
B. A particular area from where voters est votes in the 2021 WBLA elections
elect a representative to the Lok Sabha /
A. Bharatiya Janata Party
Vidhan Sabha
B. Indian Secular Front
C. A body of voters
C. Indian National Congress
D. None of the above
D. All India Trinamool Congress
9. If a tie occurs in the Electoral College, this
part of Congress elects the President. 15. Which year was west Bengal’s current CM
born?
A. Senate
A. 5th Jan 1955
B. House of Representatives
B. 15th Jan 1955
C. Pentagon
C. 5th Jan 1950
D. Ohio
D. 25th Jan 1965
10. What is the full form of EVM
16. ‘Garibi Hatao’ slogan was given by which
A. Electronic voting machine
party?
B. Electric voting machine
A. Rajya sabha
C. Electric voting mechanism
B. Lok Sabha
D. none of above
C. Bhartiya Janta Party
11. What is universal adult franchise? D. Congress Party
A. People who are below 18 can vote.
17. How many representatives are elected
B. People who are going to be 18 in one from a constituency?
year can vote .
A. 1
C. People who are not 18 above can vote
. B. 2
D. People who are 18 and above 18 can C. 3
vote. D. 4
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9.4 Electoral Politics 443
18. The number of Lok Sabha constituencies in D. Elections should be conducted in a free
Uttar Pradesh is and fair manner
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A. 80 23. Name the body that conducts elections in
B. 85 India
C. 84 A. Supreme court
D. 90 B. Parliament
C. Cabinet
19. Chaudhary Devi Lal was appointed as
of Haryana after he won the elections. D. Election commission
A. Member of Parliament 24. Preamble is
B. Chief Minister A. An Introductory
C. Council of Minister B. The Constitution
D. Civil Servant C. Laws
20. Which of the following is not a demerit of D. Conclusion
political competition? 25. How many Constituencies are general?
A. It creates a sense of disunity and ‘fac- A. 413
tionalism’ in every locality.
B. 415
B. Parties and candidate often use dirty
C. 412
tricks to win elections.
D. 418
C. Electoral fights does not allow sensi-
ble long-term policies to be formulated. 26. Each state is divided into a specific number
D. Political leaders are rewarded for of
serving the people and punished for not A. Block Constituencies
doing so. B. District Constituencies
21. What state elections were discussed at the C. Assembly Constituencies
start of the lesson the electoral politics D. Ward Constituencies
A. Haryana elections of 1987
27. Elections improve the knowledge and char-
B. Telangana elections of 2013 acter of political leaders.
C. Punjab elections of 1985 A. True
D. Haryana elections 1986 B. False
22. Which of the following statements is C. May Be
against the democratic process of elec- D. none of above
tions?
28. The 26th Amendment allowed to vote
A. Parties and candidates should be free
for the first time in all elections.
to contest elections
A. African-Americans
B. Elections must be held regularly imme-
diately after the term is over B. Women
C. The right to vote should be given to the C. 18-year-olds
selected people only D. Immigrants
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9.4 Electoral Politics 444
29. The right of the people to give their verdict 35. Which Political Party has been the longest
on a law passed by a Legislature is called in Bengal?
A. Initiative A. All India Trinamool Congress
B. Recall B. Bharatiya Janata Party
C. Referendum C. Indian National Congress
D. Plebiscite D. Communist Party of India (Marxist)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
30. Which of the following Union Territories
36. Which one of the following provisions fails
has the largest number of Lok Sabha
to ensure fair and equal chance to compete
seats?
to candidates and political parties?
A. Chandigarh
A. No party or candidate can bribe or
B. Delhi threaten voters
C. Lakshdweep B. No party or candidate is bound by the
D. Puducherry model code of conduct
31. How many reserved Lok Sabha constituen- C. No party or candidate can use govern-
cies are there in India? ment resources for election campaign
A. SC-69, ST-51 D. Nobody can appeal to the voters in the
name of caste or religion
B. SC-89, ST-31
C. SC-84, ST-47 37. The tenure of Vidhan sabha election is
D. None of the above A. 4
32. The Election Commission is: B. 5
A. An elected body C. 6
B. An appointed body D. None of the above
C. An independent body 38. ‘Garibi Hatao’slogan was given by
D. None Congress Party in which year?
33. Challenge before free and fair elections is: A. 1971
A. allotment of Symbols B. 1972
B. casteism and Communalism C. 1970
C. withdrawal of Nominations D. 1969
D. None of these
39. in Lok Sabha elections are held regularly
34. What are Elections all about? after how many years
A. Politics A. 6 years
B. Political parties B. 8 years
C. Political competition C. 3 years
D. Political power D. 5 years
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9.4 Electoral Politics 445
40. What is the meaning of Criminalization of 45. Which of the following dishes is not a part
politics? of Bengali cuisine?
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A. Ruling parties try to use official ma- A. Daab Chingri
chineiy during election campaign B. Shukto
B. Candidates and political parties use lot C. Dalma
of money in the election
D. Shorshe Ilish
C. People with criminal background and
tendencies are entering politics 46. Who is responsible for free and fair elec-
tions in India?
D. None of these
A. Prime Minister
41. By-elections are the election which is held
B. President
A. directly
C. Election Commissioner
B. to fill up a vacancy in the legislature D. Council of Ministers
C. when a legislature is dissolved before
the expiry of its normal term 47. What is the details the candidates have to
give in the legal declaration before contest-
D. indirectly ing the elections?
42. how many seats are reserved for SC and A. Serious criminal cases pending
ST against them
A. 84 for SC and 47 for ST B. Details of assets and liabilities of the
candidate and his or her family
B. 85 for SC and 49 for ST
C. Educational qualification of the candi-
C. 78 for SC and 86 for ST
date
D. 81 for SC and 55 for ST D. All the above
43. One way individuals can influence public 48. In India who votes in larger proportion
policy is by
A. Rich and privileged
A. participating in politics
B. Poor and illetrate
B. expressing opinions
C. Educated people
C. joining interest groups
D. Women
D. all of these
49. How many years did CPM rule in West
44. In a democracy elections are important be- Bengal
cause
A. 30 years
A. They help in the formation of opposite
B. 35 years
part
C. 15 years
B. The formation of government becomes
easy D. 50 years
C. They are a check on the working of the 50. Fraud and malpractices indulged by a party
government or candidate to increase its votes is:
D. all of the above A. Rigging
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9.4 Electoral Politics 446
B. Coalition 56. how many seats are been reserved for
woman
C. Impersonation
A. 1/3
D. Booth capturing
B. 2/5
51. People’s participation in election is usually C. 1/5
measured by voter figures.
D. 2/4
A. physical
NARAYAN CHANGDER
57. Which one of them is not a condition of
B. education
democratic election?
C. turnout
A. Everyone should be able to choose.
D. economic B. There should be something to choose
from.
52. Name the new party formed by Chaudhary
Devi Lal. C. The choice should be offered at regu-
lar intervals.
A. Lok Dal
D. None of them
B. Yaya Yudh
58. How many assembly seats are there in
C. Akali Dal
Haryana Vidhan Sabha/ (Assembly)?
D. Bahujan Samaj Party
A. 90
53. Election Day is usually held in which month B. 70
of the year? C. 100
A. September D. 80
B. October
59. The number of seats reserved for Sched-
C. November uled Castes in the Lok Sabha is:
D. December A. 89
B. 84
54. What does PAC stand for?
C. 79
A. Politics Authorizing Committee
D. 80
B. Politics and Commutators
60. The number of seats reserved for sched-
C. Political Action Committee
uled caste in Lok Sabha is:
D. Political Artifact College
A. 59
55. If a voter cannot be present on Election B. 79
Day, they can apply for a (an) in ad- C. 89
vance and mail them before election day.
D. 99
A. Deferment
61. What are the two branches of West Ben-
B. Abstention
gal’s Government?
C. Absentee Ballot
A. The West Bengal Legislative assembly
D. Veto and the Judiciary
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9.4 Electoral Politics 447
B. The West Bengal executive and the Ju- A. general election
diciary B. by-election
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C. The West Bengal executive and the C. mid term election
The West Bengal Legislative assembly
D. all of these
D. The West Bengal Legislative assembly
and the Calcutta High Court 67. Practice of drawing lines within a vot-
ing district that favor a particular political
62. Regional political party of India partici- party, politicians or group of people
pates in
A. censure
A. Lok Sabha
B. gerrymandering
B. Rajya sabha
C. Congress
C. Vidhan sabha
D. apportioned
D. All the above
68. Which is the new reform introduced in the
63. Which of the following state has the electroal process by the Election Commis-
largest number of Lok Sabha Seats? sion?
A. Maharashtra A. Voting through Internet
B. Andhra Pradesh B. Electronic voting machine
C. Bihar C. Voting from home
D. Uttar Pradesh D. None of the Above
64. The percentage of eligible voters who cast 69. What is the tenure of Lok Sabha and Vid-
thier votes in an election is han Sabha in India?
A. Rigging A. Four years
B. voter list B. Five years
C. Turnout C. Six years
D. Code of conduct D. None of these
65. Which one of the following is not a factor 70. In the presidential election you are actually
that makes an election democratic? voting for
A. There should be something to choose A. President
from.
B. Vice President
B. Parties and candidates should be free
to contest elections. C. Electors
C. The choice should not be offered at D. Senators
regular intervals. 71. Importance of Election Symbols is:
D. The candidate preferred by the people A. illiterate voters can identify party and
should get elected. candidate through these symbols
66. if election are held in all constituencies at B. in a constituency if there are more
national level for lok sabha, they will be than one candidate with same name, then
called symbol can be used the differentiate
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9.4 Electoral Politics 448
C. both 77. Which of the options below is the demerits
D. None of these of the electoral competition?
A. Creates a sense of factionalism
72. The election that is held to elect Chief Min-
B. Parties use dirty tricks to win elections
ister is
A. Lok Sabha
C. Parties respect each other
B. Rajya Sabha
D. both 1 and 2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Vidhan Sabha
78. What does the term ‘incumbent’ mean?
D. General Election
A. The current holder of a political office
73. Which political party ruled in Haryana be- B. The candidate contesting the election
tween 1982-87?
C. The outgoing candidate of the dis-
A. The Congress Party solved House
B. Lok Dal D. None of the above
C. Janta Dal
79. The ruling parties routinely loose elections
D. BJP at
74. which of the following statements are A. State Level
wrong about elections B. National Level
A. candidate preferred by the people C. Panchayat Level
should get elected
D. All of the above
B. candidates are free to contest in elec-
tions 80. What is BY-Election?
C. elections are held at irregular inter- A. Sometimes election is held to fill the
vals parliament seats.
D. universal adult franchise B. Sometimes election is held only for
one constituency to fill the vacancy
75. What is West Bengal’s position amongst caused by death or resignation of a mem-
India’s states in terms of area? ber.
A. 10th C. Sometimes kid can also elected in the
B. 11th election.
D. Sometimes war is held only for one
C. 13th
constituency to fill the vacancy caused by
D. 9th death or resignation of a member.
76. Jurisdiction means 81. What was the total strength of Haryana
A. The power to make laws State Assembly in 1987?
B. The power to make decisions A. 60
C. The official power to make legal deci- B. 90
sion C. 76
D. All the abovr D. 80
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9.4 Electoral Politics 449
82. How many seats were won by the Lok Dal C. The Supreme Court
and its allies in the state assembly elec-
D. The People
tions of 1987?
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A. 76 out of 90 88. In a democracy the representative are cho-
B. 74 out of 85 sen on the basis of:
C. 60 out of 90 A. Age
D. 75 out of 90 B. Education
83. Most States hold elections for State office C. Experience
every even-numbered year, on the fol- D. Election
lowing the first Monday.
A. Tuesday 89. Which one is the example of indirect elec-
tion?
B. Wednesday
A. Lok sabha election
C. Thursday
B. Bidhan sabha election
D. Friday
C. Prime minister election
84. . In which year did AITC come into power
in West Bengal? D. President Election
A. 2011 90. The world Franchise means:
B. 2016
A. Right to contest elections
C. 2006
B. Right to hold public office
D. 2012
C. Right to vote
85. Constituencies called ‘wards’ are made for
D. Right to criticise the government
the election to
A. Parliament 91. From the following which is new reform
B. State Legislative Assembly introduced in the electoral process by the
Election Commission
C. State Legislative Council
A. Voting List
D. Panchayats and Municipal bodies
B. Chief Election Commissioner
86. Unlimited amounts of money for general
campaign purposes? C. Electronic Voting Machine
A. Soft Money D. Voter ballet
B. Dark Money 92. Members of Election Commission are ap-
C. Hard Money pointed by
D. Loans A. President of India
87. The ultimate rulers of our democracy: B. Prime Minister of India
A. The President C. Elected by the people
B. The Congress D. Chief Justice of India
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9.4 Electoral Politics 450
93. Which of these is not a feature of Indian 98. The list of those people who are eligible
democracy? to vote is officially called the Electoral Roll
A. India has the largest number of voters and is commonly known as
in the world A. Voters list
B. India’s Election Commission is very B. Voters turnout
powerful
C. Election list
C. In India, everyone above the age of 18
D. MLA list
has a right to vote
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. In India, the losing parties refuse to 99. Why do we need elections?
accept the electoral verdict A. They can choose the party whose poli-
cies will guide the government and law
94. Elections held after the term of 5 years of
making
Lok Sabha are called
A. Mid-term elections B. They can choose who will make laws
for them
B. General elections
C. They can choose who will form the gov-
C. By-elections ernment and take major decisions
D. Special elections D. All of the above
95. In our country, elections are conducted by
100. When the elections are held for all the
an independent and powerful body which
seats, at the same time, on the same date
is known as
or within few days, this is called
A. Election Commission
A. General Elections
B. Parliament
B. Mid-term elections
C. Judiciary
C. By-elections
D. Lok Sabha
D. none of above
96. Which one of the following is a demerit of
electoral politics? 101. How many seats were won by Lok Dal
(excluding its partners) in the 1987 State
A. It helps to improve knowledge and Assembly Elections in Haryana?
character of the leaders.
A. 76
B. It provides incentives to the political
parties and leaders. B. 5
C. Parties and leaders often use dirty C. 56
tricks to win the elections. D. 60
D. none of above
102. A set of norms and guidelines to be fol-
97. For Lok Sabha elections, the country is di- lowed by political parties and candidates
vided into how many constituencies? during elections is called:
A. 543 A. Constituency
B. 462 B. Rigging
C. 572 C. Code of conduct
D. 421 D. Turnout
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9.4 Electoral Politics 451
103. Who is the leader of Bharatiya Janata C. 50
Party?
D. 60
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A. J.P Nadda
B. Amit Shah 109. What is full form of ‘OBC’s?
C. Ram Nath Kovind A. Other Backward Classes
D. Narendra Modi B. Other Back Classes
104. Devoted to or biased in support of a C. Other Black Classes
party, group, or cause? D. Other Backward Claps
A. Apathy
110. What proportion of seats are reserved
B. Cooperative in rural and urban local bodies for women
C. Partisan candidates?
D. Election A. One-third of the total seats
105. When on election duty, under whose con- B. two-third of the total seats
trol does the government officers work? C. Half of the total seats
A. Central Government D. One fourth of the total seats
B. Election Commission
C. District Magistrate 111. “Save Democracy” slogan was given by
which of the following political party in
D. District Court 1977 Lok Sabha elections?
106. Political Parties nominate candidates to A. Lok Dal
run in the general election primarily
B. Janata Party
through which method?
A. Bed Sheet Ballot C. Left Front
B. Runoff D. Left Front
C. Direct Primary 112. Who was first known independent king
D. Caucus of Bengal?
107. Which state has the largest number of A. Siraj-Ud-Daulah
Lok Sabha Seats? B. Shashank
A. Maharashtra C. Alivardi Khan
B. Andhra Pradesh D. Murshid Quli Khan
C. Bihar
113. Constitution was implemented on
D. Uttar Pradesh
A. 26th Nov 1949
108. How many seats were won by Lok Dal
alone? B. 26th Jan 1949
A. 56 C. 26th Nov 1950
B. 55 D. 26th Jan 1950
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9.4 Electoral Politics 452
114. Who appoints member of the Election 119. Reserved Constituencies ensures:
Commission?
A. Equality of Opportunity
A. Prime Minister
B. Educational Rights
B. President
C. Proper representation to the weaker
C. Vice-President sections of society
D. None of these D. None of the Above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
115. Is it good to have Political Competition?
120. What is the purpose of the Electoral Col-
Which of the following statement justify
lege?
this?
A. Elect school board members.
A. It creates a sense of disunity and fac-
tionalism B. Provide opportunities for kids to at-
tend school.
B. Political Competition helps to force po-
litical parties and leaders to serve people C. Elect the President of the United
States.
C. It keeps certain people away from pol- D. Select a baseball team to play in the
itics who want to serve the country. College World Series.
D. Political Competitions causes some de-
121. What do you understanding by election
cisions and ugliness
manifesto?
116. constituencies are also counted in the A. statement by political parties
name of
B. facilities by political parties
A. MLAs
C. gifts by political parties
B. seats
D. none of above
C. MPs
D. No of votes 122. How does the National Government de-
termine how many electoral college votes
117. Which of the following is a Bengali each state gets?
Sweet?
A. number of senators it has
A. Gulab Jamun
B. number of representatives it has
B. Motichur Laddoo
C. by population
C. Kaju Kathli
D. number of representatives and sena-
D. Sandesh
tors it has
118. What are the only 2 states to decide elec-
toral college votes based upon congres- 123. What month of the year are Presidential
sional districts and majority voting? elections (by the people) held in?
A. California & Texas A. January
B. Missouri & Kansas B. December
C. New York & Arizona C. November
D. Nebraska & Maine D. March
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9.4 Electoral Politics 453
124. The states of Washington and hold all 130. The slogan Land to the tiller was given
its elections by mail. by which party and when?
A. Congress in 1971
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A. Maine
B. Virginia B. The Left Front in 1977
C. California C. Janta Party in 1987
D. Oregon D. Telugu Desam Party in 1983.
125. is all the types of communication that 131. The minimum age of exercising right to
can reach a large number of people. vote in India is
A. Newspapers A. 18
B. News Channels B. 23
C. Mass Media C. 20
D. The Internet D. 25
126. What is an Election held to fill the va- 132. Our country is divided into
cancy caused due to death or resignation A. 500 constituencies
of a member called? B. 543 constituencies
A. By-election C. 550 constituencies
B. Mid-term election D. 552 constituencies
C. General election 133. In 8 States the primary winner must re-
D. Special elections ceive a majority of the votes. If no one
does this, then is held between the top
127. Voter’s List is also known as:
two vote getters
A. Election Number
A. Lottery
B. Voter Identity Card B. Run-Off
C. Electoral Roll C. Deferment
D. None of these D. Wrestling Match
128. Which party was formed by Chaudhary 134. How many seats are reserved in the Lok
Devi Lal? Sabha for the Scheduled Castes and Sched-
A. Lok dal uled Tribes?
B. Samajwadi party A. 84
C. Haryana maha sabha B. 47
D. Janta party C. 60
D. 100
129. Which state in India sends the maximum
number of MPs in Lok Sabha? 135. Voter’s list is also known as the:
A. Rajasthan A. Election Number
B. Maharashtra B. Electoral Roll
C. Uttar Pradesh C. Voter Identity Card
D. Bihar D. All of these
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9.4 Electoral Politics 454
136. In India, which of the following sections B. The elected representatives is called
vote(s) in larger proportion as compared the member of legislative representative
to the rich and privileged sections? is called the member of legislative assem-
A. Poor bly.
B. Illiterate C. Our constitution requires that each
constituency should not have a roughly
C. Underprivileged equal population living with it.
D. All of the above D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
137. Non Voters tend to be- 142. Indian Political system is
A. Young and unmarried A. Single Party System
B. Married and wealthy B. Bi Party System
C. Female and in school C. Multi Party System
D. Urban and well educated D. None
138. What is the age of a person who can con-
143. What is the full form of E.P.I.C.?
test the election for the Lok Sabha in In-
dia? A. Electronics Photo Identifying Camera
A. 54 B. Election Photo Identity Card
B. 25 C. Electric Power International Corpora-
tion
C. 77
D. None of the above.
D. 21
144. How many seats are reserved for the SCs
139. How much money was spent in conduct-
and STs?
ing 2014 Lok Sabha elections?
A. 74 for SCs and 86 for STs.
A. About Rs. 3, 500 crores
B. 56 for SCs and 62 for STs.
B. About Rs. 1, 100 crores
C. 89 for SCs and 78 for STs.
C. About Rs. 1, 200 crores
D. 84 for SCs and 47 for STs.
D. About Rs. 1, 300 crores
145. Money is given to state and local
140. ‘Save Democracy’ slogan was given by
party organizations for voting related ac-
Janata party under leadership of which
tivities.
leader?
A. Hard
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Subash Chandra Bose B. Soft
C. Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma C. Easy
D. Jayaprakash Narayan D. Quick
141. What is false among the following state- 146. The minimum age required for being a
ments voter is:
A. Each state is divided into a specific A. 25 years
number of assembly constituencies. B. 21 years
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9.4 Electoral Politics 455
C. 18 years C. ParmeshwarBanerjee
D. 15 years D. Narendranath Banerjee
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147. Who issues the manifesto? 153. The number of Lok Sabha constituencies
in Delhi is
A. EC
A. 2
B. President
B. 4
C. Political party
C. 6
D. Prime Minister
D. 7
148. Which body can dissolve Lock Sabha and
154. Chief Minister is
Rajya Sabha?
A. Head of the government of India
A. Prime Minister
B. Head of the government of particular
B. Minister
region
C. President C. Head of all the ministers
D. Citizens D. None of the above
149. Which of the following is an example of 155. At present what is the number of Elec-
indirect election? tion commissioners in Election commission
A. Lok sabha election of India?
B. Vidhan sabha election A. One
C. Prime minister election B. Two
D. President Election C. Three
D. Four
150. Which of the following does not include
election procedure? 156. Who gave the slogan of Garibi Hatao (Re-
A. Voting move poverty) in the Lok Sabha elections
of 1971?
B. Nomination of Candidate
A. Raji Gandhi
C. Booth capturing
B. Soniya Gandhi
D. Canvassing
C. Indira Gandhi’s
151. Who decides this reward and punishment D. Mahatma Gandhi
for the leaders?
157. Reserved Constituencies:Reserved con-
A. Prime minister stituencies are constituencies reserved for
B. President people who belong to the Scheduled Castes
C. People [SC] and Scheduled Tribes [ST]. In a SC re-
served constituency only those candidates
D. Parliament who belong to the Scheduled Castes are
152. What is the name of Mamata Banerjee’s allowed to contest elections. In the same
Father? way from a constituency reserved for ST
only those candidates who come from the
A. Promileshwar Banerjee Scheduled Tribes community can contest
B. Rahul Banerjee election. The reserved seats for SC and
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9.4 Electoral Politics 456
ST do not take away the legitimate share C. 100
of any other social group because the num- D. 80
bers of reserved constituencies in India are
proportion to their share in the total pop- 159. Elections in India for Parliament and
ulation. As present there are 84 seats are State Legislatures are conducted by
reserved for the Scheduled Castes and 47 A. President
for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha.
Need for reserved constituencies:The Con- B. Prime Minister
stitution makers had following worries:In
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Governor
an open electoral competition, it may be D. Election Commission of India
possible that some weaker sections not
allowed a good chance to get elected to 160. Who issues Election Manifesto?
the Lok Sabha and the state Legislative
A. President
Assemblies. They may lack resources, ed-
ucation and contacts to contest and win B. Prime Minister
elections against others. Influential and C. Political Parties
resourceful candidates may prevent them
D. None of these
from winning elections. In that cam, our
parliament and assemblies would not have 161. Who won the recently held elections in
representation of a significant section of West Bengal? (2021)
our population. If this happens India
A. Indian National Congress
would not be fully democratic and repre-
sentative.According to the passage what B. All India Trinamool Congress
is a reserved constituency? C. Bharatiya Janata Party
A. The area which has most of the Sched- D. Communist Party of India (Marxist)
uled Caste population of the country.
162. Which of the following is not included
B. The 543 constituencies of India for the in the Model Code of Conduct for election
Lok Sabha elections. campaigns?
C. Areas from where economically A. No use of any place of worship for elec-
weaker section of the society who do not tion propaganda
have the required resources, education
B. No use of govt vehicles, aircraft for
and contacts to contest and win elections
elections
against others.
C. No laying of the foundation stone of
D. A constituency is commonly used to re-
any project
fer to an electoral district, especially in
British English, but it can also refer to the D. To make promises of providing public
body of eligible voters or all the residents facilities
of the represented area or only those who
163. The number of Lok Sabha Constituencies
voted for a certain candidate.
in India at present is:
158. How many seats are there in Delhi As- A. 541
sembly/(Vidhan Sabha)? B. 546
A. 90 C. 543
B. 70 D. 540
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9.4 Electoral Politics 457
164. Who appoints the election commis- A. Securities and Exchange Commission
sioner? (SEC)
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. judiciary B. Federal Communication Commission
(FCC)
B. prime minister
C. Federal Elections Commission (FEC)
C. Cabinet ministers
D. Federal Depositors Insurance Corp.
D. President
(FDIC)
165. Which of the following documents, a can-
170. Who elects the President of India?
didate needs to file after the nominations
are done. A. Citizen of India
A. Details of parents B. Politician
B. Details of Visits to different places C. Both the houses of parliament, all
MLAs
C. Details of criminal record and court
cases, if any D. Chief justice
D. Details of relatives 171. Which of the following countries did not
have a colony in Bengal?
166. How many seats were won by Congress
A. Great Britain
party in assembly elections of 1987?
B. France
A. 10 seats
C. Germany
B. 5 seats
D. The Netherlands
C. 7 seats
D. 15 seats 172. What is ‘EPIC’?
A. Election Photo Identity Card
167. What is against the election law?
B. Election Person Identity Card
A. Bribe or threaten voters
C. Election Photo Idea Card
B. Appeal to them in the name of caste or
religion D. Election Photo Identity Care
C. Use government resources for elec- 173. For purposes of elections our country is
tion campaign divided into different areas known as
D. All of the above A. Panchayats
B. Wards
168. Election Commission is appointed by
C. Blocks
A. President of India
D. Constituencies
B. Prime Minister
C. Lok Sabha 174. The other term for Lok Sabha election is
D. none of above A. Panchayat
B. Assembly Election
169. Independent agency of the executive
branch that is responsible for enforcing C. Legislature
election laws? D. General Election
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9.4 Electoral Politics 458
175. Who led Nyaya Yudh? C. Vidhan Parishad
A. Ajit Singh D. Only Lok Sabha
B. Chaudhary Charan Singh 181. Which of the following terms is used
C. Chaudhary Devi Lal when election is held only for one con-
D. Shyam Lal stituency to fill the vacancy caused by
death or resignation of a member?
176. Which of these is not a part of the district A. Constituency election
and local level bodies?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. General election
A. Panchayats
C. By-election
B. Municipalities
D. Assembly election
C. Corporations
D. Lok Sabha 182. The tenure of lok sabha election in India
is
177. Who has given the slogan ‘Garibi A. 4
Hatao’? Who has given the slogan ‘Garibi
Hatao’? B. 5
A. Indra Ganghi C. 6
B. Papu Yadav D. None of the above
C. Narandra Modi 183. Which one among the following systems
D. Mulayam Singh is used in the Election of the Indian Presi-
dent?
178. The voter’s list is also known as: A. Territorial Representative
A. Election B. Functional Representative
B. Voter Identity Card C. Proportional Representative
C. Electoral Roll D. Minority Representative
D. None of these
184. What promises did Chaudhary Devi Lal
179. What was the promise Devi Lal made to put forward in the election campaign of
the farmers and small businessmen? 1987?
A. Government would provide free elec- A. Give land to the small farmers and
tricity to them. landless labourers.
B. Government would provide free water B. Waive the loans of farmers and small
to them. businesses.
C. Government would waive the loans of C. Provide employment opportunities to
them. the youth of rural areas.
D. None of the Above. D. Non of the these
180. In India, elections for which of these bod- 185. In United states, who vote in less num-
ies are held after every five years? ber
A. Rajya Sabha A. African americans
B. Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha B. Hispanics
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9.4 Electoral Politics 459
C. Poor people 191. Which political party ruled the state of
Haryana from 1982 to 1987?
D. All of the above
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A. Bhartiya Janta party
186. How many seats did Lok Dal and it’s part- B. Congress party
ners won?
C. Haryana sangharsh samiti
A. 63
D. Lok dal
B. 76
192. Which of the following has the largest
C. 90 Lok Sabha constituency in India?
D. 60 A. Maharashtra
B. Uttar Pradesh
187. In India, Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
elections are held regularly after every C. Himachal Pradesh
years D. Bihar
A. 4 years 193. Election commission consist of Mem-
B. 5 years bers
C. 6 years A. 3
D. 7 years B. 7
C. 5
188. Our country is divided into how many con- D. none of above
stituencies?
A. 500 194. How many seats are reserved for STs in
Lok Sabha?
B. 543
A. 90
C. 550 B. 47
D. 580 C. 84
189. Free and fair elections are ensured by the D. 41
. 195. Who has given the slogan ‘Garibi
A. judiciary Hatao’?
B. election commission A. Indira Gandhi
B. Rajiv Gandhi
C. police
C. Sonia Gandhi
D. government
D. Pt. Nehru
190. How is the Chief Election Commissioner
196. Who is in charge of creating most election
(CEC) chosen?
laws?
A. Appointed by the President A. Local Government
B. Elected by the people B. The Federal Government
C. Elected by the MPs C. The State
D. Elected by MPs and MLAs D. None of the Above
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9.4 Electoral Politics 460
197. What is the minimum age to contest the B. Political Action Committee
elections in India? C. Primary Audit Council
A. 18 D. People’s Action Council
B. 22
203. Which of the following is a function of a
C. 25 political party?
D. 29 A. Supports candidates with money
B. influence the laws
NARAYAN CHANGDER
198. When we say that Lok Dal won 60 seats
in Haryana, it means that C. watchdog over the other political party
A. Candidates didnt win 60 seats in as-
sembly constituencies D. all the baove
B. Candidates of the Lok Dal won in 60 as- 204. What was West Bengal’s per capita in-
sembly constituencies in the state. come .
C. Candidates won the elections of MLA’s A. 67, 000
B. 67, 300
D. none of above
C. 67, 700
199. The single greatest influence on an indi- D. 67, 200
vidual’s first party identification is
205. How many electoral votes does is take to
A. Income win the presidency?
B. Parents A. 272
C. Gender B. 538
D. Age C. 232
200. Since 1982 to 1987, Haryana was ruled D. 270
by which political party?
206. Which of the following is not allowed
A. Haryana Sangharsh Samiti while carrying out an election campaign?
B. Bhartiya Janata Party A. Giving money to voters to cast vote for
C. Congress Party particular candidate
D. Communist Party of India B. Using television channels.
C. Door-to-door canvassing.
201. Which institution conducts elections in In-
dia? D. Contacting voters on phone.
A. Parliament 207. What is an election held for only one con-
stituency to fill the vacancy caused due
B. Supreme Court
to the death or resignation of a member
C. Election Commission called?
D. None of these A. By-election
202. In the US Election process, the acronym B. Mid-term election
PAC stands for- C. General election
A. Primary Accountability Council D. None of these
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9.4 Electoral Politics 461
208. At the LOCAL level, most candidates are 212. Which of these is the best definition of
nominated through Reserved Constituency?
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A. Caucus A. When a constituency is reserved for
B. Petition citizens
C. Open Primary B. When a constituency is reserved for
President
D. Closed Primary
C. When a constituency is reserved for
209. What the total strength of haryana state SC’s & ST’s
assembly in 1987?
D. All of these
A. 90
B. 60 213. Who decides election dates in India?
C. 80 A. Government
D. 76 B. President
C. Lok Sabha or Vidhan Sabha
210. How many electoral college votes is
needed in order to win the Presidency? D. Election commission
A. 100
214. According to election law in India. What
B. 270 is the current limit of election expenses by
C. 435 a candidate or party in a constituency for
a Lok Sabha election?
D. 538
A. Rs. 35 lakhs
211. It was elections in Serbatpur. There were
B. Rs. 30 lakhs
ten candidates in the elections. Three
candidates were from the political par- C. Rs. 25 lakhs
ties which have influence on national level D. Rs. 20 lakhs
politics. Two candidates were also from
the political parties but outside the state 215. In 1987 Haryana State Assembly Elec-
no one knows their parties. A candidate tions, how many seats were won by Lok
is industrialist One among the candidates Dal alone?
has criminal background. The industrial-
ist used the money and persuaded four A. 60
candidates to take back their nominations. B. 76
Candidate who have criminal background
C. 90
threaten all the candidates for life if they
do participate in the election. Two candi- D. 45
dates fearing took back nomination. Anal-
yse the information given above, consider- 216. For Lok Sabha elections, the country is di-
ing one of the following correct option: vided into constituencies.
A. Unfair Election campaign A. 553
B. Violation of Model Code of Conduct B. 563
C. Violation of Election law C. 533
D. Default candidate nomination D. 543
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9.5 The State Executive 462
217. what is the turnout in the 2004 elections 222. In India, who vote in a larger proportion
A. 3/5 of the population in the election?
B. 1/2 of the population A. Women
C. more than 1/3 voters took part B. Rich
D. more than 2/5 voters took part C. Poor and illiterate
D. Rich and poor
218. Who led the ‘Nyaya Yudh’?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Chaudhary Charan Singh 223. Which of these is not a good reason to
B. Chaudhary Devi Lal say that Indian elections are democratic?
C. Ajit Singh A. India has the largest number of voters
D. Mishra Lal
B. India’s Election Commission is very
219. What does EVM stand for? powerful
A. Electronic Vending Machine C. In India, everyone above the age of 18
B. Electronic Voting Machine has a right to vote
C. Electoral Voting Machine D. In India, the losing parties accept the
electoral verdict
D. Electoral Volunteer Mechanism
224. Into how many constituencies is the coun-
220. Elections held after the term of 5years of
try divided for Lok Sabha elections?
Lok Sabha are called-
A. Mid-term elections A. 544
B. General elections B. 543
C. By-elections C. 560
D. Special elections D. 535
221. What is full form of SCs and STs? 225. ‘Turnout’ in election refers to
A. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled A. Number of candidates contested in the
Tribes election
B. Scheduleded Castes and Scheduleded B. Number of voters in the list
Tribes C. Number of people participated in elec-
C. Standard Castes and Standard Tribes tion
D. Social Tribes and Social Tribes D. none of above
9.5 The State Executive
1. If in an election to a State Legislative B. the election was for a multi- member
Assembly the candidate who is declared constituency
elected loses his deposit, it means that:
C. the elected candidate’s victory over
[IAS 1995]
his nearest rival was very marginal
A. the polling was very poor D. a very large number of candidates con-
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9.5 The State Executive 463
tested the election of the following courses would be most ap-
propriate for the Governor as an agent of
2. Which of the following are true about Leg- the Centre?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
islative Council of a State?
A. give assent to the Bill
I) Its total number of members does
B. refer the Bill to the President
not exceed two-thirds of total num-
ber of members in the Legislative As- C. keep the Bill pending
sembly of that State but is not less D. exercise veto over the Bill
than 40.
II) One-third of its members are elected 6. A: The position of the legislative Council is
by the Legislative Assembly, one- inferior to that of the legislative Assem-
third by local bodies, one-twelfth by bly.
teachers, one-twelfth by university R1— The very existence of the Council de-
graduates and one-sixth nominated pends on the will of the Assembly.
by the Governor. R2— A Bill originating in the Council can
III) It cannot be dissolved. be forthwith put to an end by the
IV) One-third of its members retire ev- Assembly rejecting it.
ery year. R3— One-sixth of the Council’s members
A. I, II and III are nominated by the Governor.
A. A and R1, R2 and R3 are correct and
B. II and III
R1, R2 and R3 explain A
C. II, III and IV
B. A, R1 and R3 are correct and R1 and
D. I, II, III and IV R3 explain A
3. Membership of the legislative Assembly C. A, R1, R2and R3are correct but only R1
can vary between 60 and 500, but the ex- and R2 explain A
ception to this rule is/are found in: D. A and R2 are wrong; R1 and R3 are cor-
I) Puducherry rect
II) Mizoram 7. Money Bills can be introduced in the State
III) Goa legislature with the prior consent of the:
A. I and II A. President
B. II and III B. Governor
C. II only C. Speaker
D. I, II and III D. Chief Minister
4. The members of the State Legislative As- 8. With respect to Article 371A of the Con-
sembly are elected for what period? stitution of India, the Governor of which
one of the following States has special re-
A. 2 years
sponsibility with respect to law and order
B. 6 years of the State? [CDS 2008]
C. 4 years A. Asom
D. 5 years B. Manipur
5. When the Governor receives a Bill passed C. Nagaland
by the State Legislative Assembly, which D. Andhra Pradesh
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9.5 The State Executive 464
9. The State legislative Assembly partici- 12. What is the maximum number of elected
pates in the election of: members in a State Assembly? [UDC
I) President 1993]
II) Vice-President A. 250
III) Rajya Sabha members B. 300
IV) Members of legislative Council of
the State C. 600
A. I, II and III D. 500
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. I, III and IV 13. A minister in a State is individually respon-
C. I and III sible to the:
D. I, II, III and IV A. Legislature
10. Consider the given statements and choose B. Governor
the correct response on them. C. Chief Minister
I) A person can be appointed as Gover- D. President
nor of more than one State.
II) A Governor’s salary is charged on 14. Grants-in-aid given to States are meant:
the Consolidated Fund of India in A. to show favour to backward States
case of I.
B. for use in centrally-sponsored
III) In case of I, the Governor’s salary is
schemes
shared by the concerned States.
IV) In case of I, the Governor’s salary C. to cover gaps on revenue account so
is paid by the State named by the that States can undertake beneficial activ-
President. ities
A. I and II are correct D. for funding the State plan
B. I and IV are correct 15. Which of the following are true? [IFS
C. I and III are correct 1990]
D. I is wrong; each State must have one I) Only some States in India have Leg-
Governor islative Councils.
II) Some members of Legislative Coun-
11. The Chief Minister of a State: cils are nominated.
I) is elected by the Legislative Assem- III) Some members of Legislative Coun-
bly. cils are directly elected by the peo-
II) appoints the members of the Council ple.
of Ministers.
A. I and II
III) determines the strength of the Coun-
cil of Ministers. B. I and III
IV) determines the salaries of Council of C. II and III
Ministers.
D. I, II and III
A. II, III and IV
B. I, III and IV 16. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? Under the provisions of Article
C. III only 200 of the Constitution of India the Gov-
D. l and II ernor of a state may
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9.5 The State Executive 465
1. withhold his assent to a Bill passed B. Chief Minister
by the state legislature. C. Governor
2. reserve the Bill passed by the state
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legislature for consideration of the D. Council of Ministers
President. 21. Consider the following statements: The
3. return the Bill, other than a money Constitution of India provides that:
Bill for reconsideration-of the legis-
lature. 1. the Legislative Assembly of each
State shall consist of not more than
Select the correct answer using the code 450 members chosen by direct elec-
given below: [CDS 2011] tion from territorial constituencies in
A. 1 only the State.
B. 1 and 2 only 2. a person shall not be qualified to be
chosen to fill a seat in the Legisla-
C. 2 and 3 only tive Assembly of a State if he/she
D. 1, 2 and 3 is less than 25 years of age.
17. There is no reservation for the Scheduled Which of the statements given above
Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of: is/are correct? [IAS 2008]
A. Punjab, Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh A. 1 only
B. 2 only
B. Punjab, Asom and Nagaland C. Both 1and 2
C. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Orissa D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Asom, Nagaland and Meghalaya 22. The Governor of which State has been
18. What do you understand by the dual role vested with special powers regarding
of the Governor? scheduled tribal areas?
A. Constitutional and real Executive A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Head of a State and head of govern- B. Asom
ment under certain circumstances C. Maharashtra
C. Belonging to Central as well as State D. West Bengal
Executive
23. The first woman Governor of a State in
D. Constitutional ruler and an agent of free India was
the Centre
A. Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
19. Ministers in a determined by: B. Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
A. the Constitution C. Mrs Indira Gandhi
B. Parliament D. Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
C. State Legislature
24. Grants-in-aid are provided every year to
D. the Governor such States as are in need of assistanceas
20. The Contingency Fund of the State is oper- determined by the:
ated by the: A. President
A. President B. Parliament
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9.5 The State Executive 466
C. Finance Commission 29. The State of Jammu and Kashmir was ac-
D. None of the above corded special status under:
A. Article 356 of the Constitution
25. The Governor does not appoint:
B. Article 370 of the Constitution
A. Judges of the High Court
C. Articles 356 and 370 of the Constitu-
B. Chief Minister tion
C. Chairman of the State Public Service
D. None of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Commission
D. Advocate General of the State 30. Who among the following is a legal advi-
sor of the State Government as provided
26. If the Governor of a State is appointed ad- by the Constitution?
ministrator of an adjoining Union Territory,
A. Public Prosecutor
he exercises his functions:
B. Solicitor General
A. on advice of his Council of Ministers
C. Advocate General
B. independently of his Council of Minis-
ters D. Attorney General
C. according to Parliament’s directions 31. Which of these States previously had Leg-
D. according to the directions of the State islative Councils?
legislature 1. Andhra Pradesh
27. To be a member of a State Council of Min- 2. Gujarat
isters, a person: 3. Kerala
4. Manipur
A. must belong to the Legislative Assem- 5. West Bengal
bly 6. Tamil Nadu
B. must acquire membership of the State A. 1 and 3
legislature within six months of such ap-
pointment if he is not one already B. 3 and 5
C. cannot be less than 35 years old C. 5 and 6
D. will have to be an expert in some field D. only 6
if he is not a member of the legislature
32. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister
28. Which of the following is/are among the in India?
discretionary powers of the Governor? A. Bhajan Lal
I) Selecting a Chief Minister if no sin- B. Hiteshwar Saikia
gle party has clear majority in the
C. Chimanbhai Patel
State Assembly.
II) Dismissing a ministry at any time. D. Jyoti Basu
III) Reserving a Bill for the President.
33. Regarding the enactment of an ordinary
A. I and III law, the State Legislative Council:
B. I and II A. has to agree to the Bill
C. III only B. may delay it for a maximum period of
D. I, II and III four months
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9.5 The State Executive 467
C. may disagree to its provisions, in 37. The Central Government can assign any
which case a joint sitting is called function to the States:
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D. has nothing to do A. on the directive of the President
B. on the recommendation of Parliament
34. The number of seats in Vidhan Sabha is:
C. any time it wishes to do so
A. to be not more than five hundred and
not less than 60 D. with the consent of the State Govern-
ment
B. to be not more than 500 and not less
than 60 but an exception is recognished 38. The limitations on the authority of the
in the case of one State which has only 32 State Legislature do not include:
seats A. Parliament’s authority to make laws on
C. to be not more than.600 and not less subjects in the State List during an Emer-
than 500 gency
D. varies from Vidhan Sabha to Vidhan B. Parliament’s authority to make Laws
Sabha on State subjects if Rajya Sabha passes a
resolution as required by the Constitution
35. On which of the following matters can a
Governor of a State exercise his discre- C. the Governor’s discretionary power to
tionary powers? dissolve the legislature
I) Selection of Chief Minister if no polit- D. the Governor’s power to reserve cer-
ical party gets a clear-cut majority. tain bills for the consideration of the Pres-
II) Dismissal of a Ministry if he is con- ident
vinced that it has lost majority sup-
port. 39. The ordinances issued by the Governor are
III) Salaries and allowances of minis- subject to approval by:
ters. A. Parliament
IV) Submission of report to President re-
B. State legislature
garding failure of constitutional ma-
chinery in the State. C. President
A. I, II and III D. No one
B. II, III and IV 40. The Legislative Council in a State can be
C. I, II and IV created or disbanded by the: [Railways
1994]
D. I, II, III and IV
A. State Legislative Assembly alone
36. The Vidhan Sabha is: B. Parliament alone
A. the permanent house’ of State Legisla- C. Parliament on recommendation of the
ture State Legislature
B. indirectly elected D. President on recommendation of the
Governor
C. subject to dissolution
D. has little importance in the State Gov- 41. The Chairman of the legislative Council is:
ernment A. appointed by the Governor
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9.5 The State Executive 468
B. the Governor (ex-officio) 46. The special status of Jammu and Kashmir
C. elected by the members of the legisla- implies the State has:
tive Council from among themselves A. a separate Defence Force
D. appointed by the Speaker of the As-
B. a separate Constitution
sembly
C. a separature Judiciary
42. While appointing a Governor, the Presi-
dent generally consults the Chief Minister D. All of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of the State. This is:
47. Mark the most correct response:
A. constitutionally imperative
B. a matter of convention A. No court has power to compel the Gov-
ernor to exercise or not to exercise any
C. because Parliament has legislated to
power or to perform or not to perform any
the effect
duty
D. a duty of the President
B. The Governor cannot be prosecuted in
43. The membership of a State Legislative a civil and criminal court for any act of
Council: omission or commission during the period
A. shall not be more than membership of he holds office
the Assembly C. Both above statements are correct
B. shall not be less than 40
D. statement A is correct while B is not
C. shall not be less than 2/3rd of total
membership of Lok Sabha 48. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and
D. Both A and B are true Kashmir?
44. Which of the following is not an essential A. Chief Minister of the State
qualification for appointment as a Gover- B. Chief Justice of the High Court
nor?
A. He should be a citizen of India C. President
B. He should be a domicile of the State to D. Prime Minister
which he is being appointed
49. Which of these States has the Bicameral
C. He must have completed the age of 35
Legislature?
years
D. He must not be a member of either 1. Bihar
House of Parliament 2. Gujarat
3. Karnataka
45. When a State Governor dies or resigns, 4. Jammu & Kashmir
who normally exercises his functions un- 5. Maharashtra
til a new Governor is appointed? [Asstt 6. U.P.
Grade 1992]
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
A. Secretary General of the Governor
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. A person designated by State Cabinet
C. Chief Justice of the High Court C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
D. Advocate General of the State D. All of these
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9.5 The State Executive 469
50. The President can directly disallow a State 55. The members of the Legislative Council are
Legislation: appointed through:
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A. in case of any bill I) Direct elections
B. in case of money bills II) indirect elections
C. in case of bills reserved by the Gover- III) Nomination
nor for President’s assent A. I and II
D. Both B and C above
B. II and III
51. The Legislative Council of a State:
C. I, II and III
I) is not subject to dissolution.
II) can be abolished by the State Leg- D. I and III
islative Assembly.
III) can be abolished by the President on 56. Consider the following statements:
the Governor’s recommendation.
1. In India, only the President, but not
A. I only the Governors of the States, has the
B. II only power to pardon, commute or sus-
C. I and II pend the sentence of any person con-
victed of any offence.
D. III only 2. In India, though the Governor of a
52. The Governor is appointed by the: State is its constitutional head dur-
ing normal times, he acts as the
A. Prime Minister agent of the Centre during periods
B. President of Emergency in the State.
C. Chief Minister Which of the statements given above
D. Chief Justice is/are correct? [NDA 2005]
53. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to: A. 1 only
A. Governor B. 2 only
B. Legislative Assembly C. Both 1 and 2
C. Prime Minister
D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Rajya Sabha
54. 1/12th of the members of the Vidhan 57. The question of disqualification of a mem-
Parishad are to be elected: ber of the State Legislature shall be de-
cided by:
A. from a graduate constituency
B. amongst the graduate universities of A. the Governor in consultation with the
the State President
C. from the graduates of any university in B. the Governor in consultation with the
any State of India, who have been residing Election Commission
in the State and who have been graduate
of at least three years standing C. State Legislative Council
D. None of the above D. State Legislative Assembly
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9.6 Union Executive 470
58. The maximum permissible period between D. Both A and B in equal proportion
two sessions of a State Legislative Assem-
bly is: 62. Chief Ministers of all the States are ex-
officio members of the:
A. a year
A. Finance Commission
B. six months
B. Planning Commission
C. three months
C. National Development Council
D. indefinite
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Inter State Council
59. One feature distinguishing the Rajya
Sabha from the Vidhan Parlshad is: 63. The States in India can borrow from the
A. power of impeachment market:
B. nomination of members A. at their discretion
C. tenure of membership B. only through the Centre
D. indirect election C. only with the consent of the Centre
D. under no circumstance
60. Who acts as the Chancellor of State Uni-
versities? 64. Point out the powers enjoyed by the Pres-
A. Governor ident of India but not available to the Gov-
ernor.
B. Chief Minister
I) Diplomatic Powers.
C. Chief Justice of High Court
II) Pardoning death sentence.
D. President III) Veto power over State legislature.
IV) Military powers.
61. The salary and allowances of the Governor
are charged to: A. I and IV
A. Consolidated Fund of the State B. II and III
B. Consolidated Fund of India C. I, II and III
C. Contingency Fund of India D. I, II and IV
9.6 Union Executive
1. Which of the following powers is not en- Lok Sabha, to allow expenditure from the
joyed by the President of India in the Consolidated Fund of India pending sanc-
event of emergency proclaimed under Arti- tion of the Parliament
cle 352 of the Constitution? [Asstt Grade
D. He is authorised to dissolve the Rajya
1991]
Sabha and Lok Sabha
A. He can suspend the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights 2. The President of India is:
B. He is authorised to direct any State to A. Commander-in-Chief of Defence
exercise its Executive power in a particu- Forces
lar manner B. Supreme Commander of Armed Forces
C. He is authorised, during the recess of
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9.6 Union Executive 471
C. Head of the Government C. Morarji Desai
D. Supreme Commander of Defence D. Charan Singh
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
Forces of the Union and Executive Head
of the Union 8. There are two type of executives &
3. Minimum age required to contest for Pres-
identship is: [Rallways 1992] A. Ministers, IAS
A. 30 years B. Prime ministers, Ministers
B. 35 years C. Permanent, Temporary
C. 23 years D. none of above
D. 21 years
9. Name the first Non Congress Prime Minis-
4. If the President wants to resign from of- ter of India
fice, he may do so by writing to the: A. Deve Gowda
A. Vice-President B. Morarji Desai
B. Chief Justice of India
C. V P Singh
C. Prime Minister
D. I K Gujral
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
10. Ministers may be chosen from:
5. In a parliamentary democracy the:
I) Lok Sabha
A. Executive controls the Legislature
II) Rajya Sabha
B. Executive and Legislature are strictly III) Outside the Legislature
separate
A. I only
C. Judiciary controls both Legislature
and Executive B. II only
D. Legislature controls the Executive C. I and II
D. I, II and III
6. The Constitution:
A. is silent on the President’s re-election 11. What is the term of Rajya sabha?
to the office
A. 3 years
B. allows re-election of a person to the
B. 7 years
President’s post
C. restricts a person to remain President C. 6 years
for only two terms D. 5 years
D. has been amended to allow a person
only one term as President 12. What is the other name of the Prime min-
ister?
7. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha A. Head of Government
when first appointed as the Prime Minister
of India? B. Head of State
A. Lal Bahadur Shastri C. Head of Parliament
B. Indira Gandhi D. none of above
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9.6 Union Executive 472
13. Who is the chief spokesperson of the na- A. Cabinet Committee on political affairs
tion?
B. President
A. President
C. Prime Minister
B. Prime minister
D. Defence Minister
C. Vice President
D. none of above 19. Lok Sabha is also known as
NARAYAN CHANGDER
14. Selection of the Civil Servants in done by A. House of People
an in dependent body called the
B. House of Judges
A. UPC
C. House of Parliament
B. IPSC
D. House of the President
C. IAS
D. UPSC 20. The rank of the different Ministers in the
Union Council of Ministers is determined
15. The President shall continue to hold office,
by the:
notwithstanding the expiry of his/her
term, until his successor takes charge. A. President
A. True B. Prime Minister
B. False C. Cabinet Secretary
C. Not sure
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. none of above
21. Which Among the following is the Head of
16. In Parliamentary Government, Ministers
The Govt.?
remain in office so long as they enjoy:
A. confidence of the upper house of the A. The PM
legislature B. The president of India
B. support of the armed forces C. The Vice-President of India
C. confidence of the popular chamber of
D. The Chief Justice
legislature
D. popular support 22. For election of the President, the weigh-
tage of a member’s vote depends on:
17. The salary and perquisites of the Prime
Minister of India are decided by the: I) the strength of his political party in
A. Constitution Parliament.
II) the State to which he belongs.
B. Cabinet III) population represented.
C. Parliament
A. I, II and III
D. President
B. I and II
18. Who among the following is directly re-
C. II and III
sponsible to Parliament for all matters con-
cerning the Defence Services of India? D. III only
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9.6 Union Executive 473
23. Which one of the following statements is 28. Who was the first Vice President of In-
most appropriate? dia?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. The President shall be bound by the ad- A. Vinobha Bhave
vice of the Prime Minister
B. Dr S Radhakrishnan
B. The President shall be bound by the ad-
vice given by the Council of Ministers C. Dr V V Giri
C. The President shall act on the advice of D. none of above
the Prime Minister who shall tender such
advice in consultation with his cabinet 29. Who introduces the budget every year?
D. The President shall act in accordance A. Finance minister
with the advice of the Council of Ministers
and he may return such advice for recon- B. Prevalent government
sideration C. President
24. Term period for president of India D. Home minister
A. 5
B. 6 30. Which of the following Emergencies can be
declared by the President on his own?
C. 2
I) Emergency on account of armed re-
D. None of the above
bellion.
25. The council of ministers consists of the II) Financial Emergency.
III) President’s Rule in a State.
A. cabinet ministers
B. ministers of state A. I only
C. deputy ministers B. III only
D. none of above C. I, II and III
26. The President is elected by the D. None of these
A. Prime Minister
31. How are the members of Rajya sabha
B. Electoral College
elected?
C. Lok Sabha
A. Direct elections
D. Council of Ministers
B. Indirect elections
27. If a bill needs to be made as an act, it needs
to pass through stages. What are those in C. By elections
order? ? ? D. none of above
A. Second Reading, Third Reading, Presi-
dent’s Assent, First Reading 32. The President is selected by the
B. First Reading, Second Reading, Third A. People
Reading, President’s Assent
B. Lok Sabha
C. First Reading, President’s Assent,
Third Reading C. Electoral College
D. President’s Assent D. Executives
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9.6 Union Executive 474
33. The civil servants are selected through 2. The President can call all information
which examination? relating to proposals for legislation.
A. UPRT 3. The President has the right to ad-
dress and send messages to either
B. UPSC House of the Parliament.
C. SRTE 4. All decisions of the Council of Min-
D. none of above isters relating to the administration
fo the Union must be communicated
NARAYAN CHANGDER
34. The legislative powers of the President in- to the President.
clude all the following but:
Which of the statements given above are
A. the power-to summon or prorogue the correct? [CDS 2011]
Houses of Parliament
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. the power to summon a joint sitting of
the Houses to resolve a deadlock B. 1 and 3 only
C. the power of nominating 12 members C. 2 and 4 only
to the Lok Sabha D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. the right to address either House at
any time and it requires the attendance of 38. The value of a vote of a Member of Par-
members for this purpose liament for the election of the President is
determined by dividing the:
35. A vote of No-Confidence against one min-
ister is not a vote against the whole Min- A. nation’s population as per the latest
istry. census by the number of Lok Sabha mem-
bers
A. True
B. nation’s population as per the latest
B. False
census by the total strength of the two
C. Not sure Houses of Paliament
D. none of above C. the total value of votes of members
36. How long an parliament approved ordi- of all the State Legislative Assemblies by
nance propagated by the President re- the elected Members of the two Houses
mains operational of Parliament
A. Four weeks from the date the Parlia- D. particular State’s population as per the
ment re-assembles latest census by the number of Members
of Parliament elected from that State
B. Six weeks from the date the Parlia-
ment re-assembles 39. What is the position of a ’Minister of
C. Four months State’ in the Central Government? [Teach-
D. none of above ers’ Exam 1993]
A. He is the nominee of the State Gover-
37. Consider the following statements about
nor
the powers of the President of India:
B. He is the nominee of the State Cabi-
1. The President can direct that any
nets
matter on which decision has been
taken by a Minister should be placed C. He looks after the interests of the
before the Council of Ministers. State Cabinet
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9.6 Union Executive 475
D. He is a Minister of Central Government C. 14 days
but not a member of the Cabinet
D. none of above
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
40. Consider the following statements:
44. The President selects as Prime Minister:
I) In India, the power to promulgate
Ordinances lies with the President I) the leader of the party in majority in
only. Lok Sabha.
II) The power to declare emergency in a II) anyone he wishes to.
State in India lies with the President III) the person who is in a position to
only. win the confidence of the majority
in Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above
IV) the leader of the party having a ma-
is/are correct? [CDS 2005]
jority of seats in either Lok Sabha or
A. I only Rajya Sabha.
B. II only A. I only
C. Both I and II B. III or IV
D. Neither I nor II
C. I or III
41. Acts of State done in the name of the Pres- D. I, III or IV
ident of India are required to be counter-
signed by way of authentication by: 45. How can the president ne removed?
A. a Minister A. Vote of no confidence
B. the Prime Minister
B. Impeachment
C. the Speaker
C. Amendment
D. a Secretary to the Government
D. Dissolution
42. The Chief Minister of a State in India is not
eligible to vote in the Presidential election 46. President is also known as the of a
if: [IAS 1993] country
A. he himself is a candidate A. 1st Man
B. he is yet to prove his majority on the B. 1st Citizen
floor of the Lower House of the State Leg-
islature C. 1st Power
C. he is a member of the Upper House of D. 1st Member
the State Legislature
47. The resolution for removing the Vice-
D. he is a caretaker Chief Minister
President of India can be moved in the:
43. How many days’ notice a member of Lok [IAS 2004]
Sabha needs to give to the lower house A. Lok Sabha alone
before presenting a resolution of impeach-
ment B. either House of Parliament
A. 10 Days C. Joint Sitting of Parliament
B. 15 days D. Rajya Sabha alone
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9.6 Union Executive 476
48. Which one among the following features C. 25
of the Constitution of India is indicative of D. 30
the fact that the real executive power is
vested in the Council of Ministers headed 53. The President of India earns per
by the Prime Minister? [NDA 2011] month.
A. Federalism A. Rs. 1000
B. Representative Legislature B. Rs. 5, 00, 000
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Universal Adult Franchise C. Rs. 5, 00, 00, 00, 000
D. Parliamentary Democracy D. Rs. 50, 00, 000
49. Which of the following is an example for 54. Why do we call PM the Leader of the Na-
a national political party in India? ? tion?
A. Telugu Desam Party
A. Because the PM defends the govern-
B. Bhartiya Janata Party ment in the parliament
C. Akali Dal B. Because the Prime minister is the
D. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam head of the Cabinet.
C. The PM decides what kind of relations
50. An election to fill a vacancy in the office of
India would have with other countries
Vice-President occurring by reason of his
death, resignation or removal, has to be D. none of above
held:
55. First president of India
A. within six months of the occurence of
the vacancy A. Vallabhbhai Patel
B. within a year of the occurrence of the B. Pratibha Patil
vacancy C. Rajendra Prasad
C. as soon as possible after the occur- D. Jalal River
rence of the vacancy
56. The President of India can be removed
D. after the expiration of the term if
from office by:
the remaining period is less than three
months A. The Lok Sabha by passing a resolution
51. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings
against the President of India? B. The Parliament through impeachment
A. Only Lok Sabha C. The Chief Justice of India
B. Rajya Sabha D. The Prime Minister
C. Any Vidhan Sabha 57. The hold the highest rank and take all
D. Either House of Parliament important decisions.
A. council of ministers
52. To become the President an individual has
to be atleast years old B. Cabinet ministers
A. 45 C. State Ministers
B. 35 D. none of above
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9.6 Union Executive 477
58. Which of the following regarding the elec- B. At least two-thirds of the members
tion of the President is correct? who are present that day
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. A candidate securing the majority of C. At least two-thirds of the total mem-
votes is not automatically elected bers
B. The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction D. none of above
in any doubt or dispute arising in connec-
63. The Chief Minister of Union Territory
tion with the election of the President
where such a set up exists, is appointed
C. The Presidential election cannot take by the:
place when one or more State Assemblies
A. President
stand dissolved because all the State As-
semblies form part of the Electoral Col- B. Prime Minister
lege C. Lt. Governor
D. The total value of the votes allotted to D. Majority party in Legislature
both Houses of Parliament is much more
64. Who elects the Vice-President?
than the total value of the votes of all the
States taken together A. The same electoral college which
elects the President
59. The Civil Servants are the of the Ad-
B. Members of the Rajya Sabha
ministration.
C. An electoral college consisting of mem-
A. Backbone bers of Parliament
B. Ribs D. Members of Parliament at a joint Meet-
C. Support ing
D. Assistant 65. The President can never dismiss ministers
without the permission of the Prime Min-
60. The resident of President is called
ister
A. Vidhan Sabha
A. True
B. Rashtriyapati Bhavan
B. False
C. Pradhan Bhavan C. Not sure
D. none of above D. none of above
61. Under the Constitution of India the Presi- 66. Which among the following is not a discre-
dent of India enjoys emergency powers of tionary power of the President?
A. 2 TYPES A. Withhold assent to a bill other than
B. 3 TYPES Money bill
C. 4 TYPES B. Summon and Prorogue the parliament
D. 5 TYPES
C. appointing a Prime Minister when no
62. How many votes are needed from the leader or party enjoys a majority in the Lok
house who investigates the charge against Sabha.
the President to remove the President D. Explore possibility of forming an al-
A. At least one-fourth of the total mem- ternate government when Prime Minister
bers looses the confidence of the House.
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9.6 Union Executive 478
67. In the election of the President, each Mem- A. a majority of all the then members of
ber of the electoral college has: Lok Sabha
A. one vote B. a majority of the then members of both
B. as many votes as there are candidates Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
C. two-thirds majority of the total mem-
C. one vote with value attached to it bers of the Lok Sabha
D. one vote with value attached to it and D. two-thirds majority of the Lok Sabha
NARAYAN CHANGDER
he can give as many preferences as there members present and voting
are candidates
73. How many members are there in Rajya
68. The Union Executive consists of sabha?
A. president A. 239
B. Prime minister
B. 250
C. Council of minsters
C. 238
D. All of the above
D. 552
69. Who among the following has the power
to form a new State within the Union of 74. Who acts as the President of India
India? when neither the President nor the Vice-
President is available? [Asstt Grade
A. President
1992]
B. Prime Minister
A. Speakerof Lok Sabha
C. Supreme Court
B. Chief Justice of India
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Auditor General of India
70. The President is only a
D. Senior most Governor of a State
A. Constitutional head
B. Minimum head 75. Rashtrapati Bhawan is the official resi-
dence of the
C. De facto head
D. none of above A. Prime minister
B. Vice President
71. How many members are nominated by the
President? C. President
A. 13 D. none of above
B. 20
76. Indian Administrative Service is also
C. 12 known as
D. 2 A. IADS
72. Which one of the following statements B. IASS
is correct? [CDS 2005] The Speaker of
C. IAS
Lok Sabha can be removed by a resolution
passed by: D. IPS
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9.6 Union Executive 479
77. The candidate for Vice-Presidential elec- within three months of the occurence
tion must possess the qualifications pre- of the vacancy.
scribed for the Presidential candidate ex- IV) The Indian Constitution is silent on
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
cept that ne must be: the number of times a person can be
A. a citizen of India re-elected President.
B. over 35 years of age A. I, II, III and IV
C. holding no office of profit under the B. I, II and III
Government C. III and IV
D. qualified to be a member of the Rajya D. I and IV
Sabha
81. The President may appoint all the follow-
78. Which of the following is true in context ing except:
of the President?
A. Prime Minister
A. He addresses the first session of the
B. Governor
Parliament after each general election of
the Lok Sabha and at the commencement C. High Court judges
of the first session of each year D. Rajya Sabha Chairman
B. He addresses the first session of Par-
liament at the beginning of each year as 82. Who appoints the chief of Army, Navy,
well as the last session held at the end of and Air Force?
each year A. Prime Minister
C. He addresses the Parliament daily B. President
D. None of these C. Defense Minister
79. The minimum age required for becoming D. Foreign Minister
the Prime Minister of India is:
83. The formulates the policies and frames
A. 25 years the guidelines.
B. 30 years A. Cabinet
C. 40 years B. President
D. 35 years C. Vice President
80. Which of the following statements are D. none of above
true?
84. The President of India is vested with or-
I) Presidential election is held before dinance making power by Article 126, He
the expiration of the term of the out- exercises this power:
going President.
II) The term of the President’s office A. when Lok Sabha is not in session and
can be extended if general elections circumstances .exist which render it nec-
for any Assembly are not held due essary for the President to take immedi-
to an emergency. ate action
III) If the term of any President is cut B. when Council of States is not in ses-
short by reason of his death, res- sion and the President is satisfied that cir-
ignation or removal, then the elec- cumstances exist which render it neces-
tion of next President should be held sary for him to take immediate action
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9.6 Union Executive 480
C. when both Houses of Parliament are III) The Chief Justice and the Judges of
not in session and President is satisfied the Supreme Court.
that circumstances exist which made it IV) The Vice-President.
necessary for him to take the immediate A. I and II
action
B. I, II and III
D. in all the above circumstances
C. II, III and IV
85. Who is the highest ranking Civil Servant in D. I, III and IV
NARAYAN CHANGDER
India? ? ?
A. Vice President 90. What happens if someone who is not a
member of the parliament becomes a min-
B. Cabinet Secretary ister
C. Cabinet Minister A. That person needs to elected or nom-
D. Cabinet Prime Minister inated to the parliament within 6 months
from the date of his/her appointment
86. A money bill can be introduced in
B. That person needs to be nominated by
A. In both the Houses the president within 6 months from the
B. Only Rajya Sabha date of his/her appointment
C. The President’s House C. That person needs to elected or nom-
inated to the parliament within 3 months
D. Only in Lok Sabha
from the date of his/her appointment
87. Who are not eligible to be included in D. none of above
the Electoral college composed to elect the
President 91. Who is the head of the council of minis-
ters?
A. Elected members of Rajya sabha
A. Prime minister
B. Nominated members of Lok Sabha
B. President
C. Elected members of the State Legisla-
tive Assemblies C. Vice President
D. none of above D. none of above
88. When the Vice-President acts as President 92. Appointment of the members of the Coun-
he gets the emoluments of the: cil of Ministers is made by the President:
A. President A. on the advice of the Prime Minister
B. Vice-President B. in his own discretion
C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha C. on the advice of the Vice- President
D. President in addition to what he gets D. on the basis of election results
as Chairman of Rajya Sabha 93. In the election of the President, the value
89. Who among the following are appointed of the vote of the Lok Sabha members:
by the President of India? [NDA 1995] [Railways 1991]
I) Governors of States. A. is same
II) The Chief Justice and Judges of High B. differs according to the geographical
Courts. size of the respective State
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9.6 Union Executive 481
C. differs according to the number of C. 250
votes a member represents
D. 500
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D. None of the above
99. Which one of the following does not con-
94. What function is specifically prescribed by
stitute the electoral college for electing the
the Constitution for the Vice-President of
President of India? [Bank PO 1992]
India?
A. Vice-Chancellorship of Universities A. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha B. Elected members of Lok Sabha
C. To assist the President in times of C. Elected members of the Legislative As-
Emergency sembly of each State
D. None of the above is correct D. Elected members of the Legislative
Council
95. The President takes an oath before assum-
ing office in the presence of the Chief Jus- 100. The Cabinet Minister is responsible for
tice of India. If the Chief Justice is not what? ? ?
available, he takes the oath in the pres-
ence of: A. Defence
A. the Vice-President B. Food
B. the senior-most Judge of the Supreme C. Finance
Court
D. Civil Service
C. the Attorney-General
D. Election Commissioner 101. of the houses must bring charges to
impeach the president.
96. What is the minimum age for the eligibility
to be a Presidential candidate? A. One
A. 30 B. Both
B. 45 C. None
C. 21 D. No need of impeachment
D. 35
102. Which is .true regarding the President of
97. who was the first President of indepen- India?
dent India?
I) He is the Chief Executive.
A. Zail Singh II) He is the Supreme Commander of
B. Zakir Hussain the armed forces.
C. Rajendra Prasad III) He is the titular head of the State.
IV) He is part of the Union Legislature.
D. Fakruddin Ali Ahmed
A. I and III
98. Total members in Rajya Sabha must not ex-
ceed B. I and II
A. 360 C. II, III and IV
B. 252 D. I, II, III and IV
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9.6 Union Executive 482
103. To elect the President of India, which 108. Who acts as a link between the President
one of the following election procedures is and the Council of Ministers
used? [IAS 1992]
A. Lok Sabha
A. System of proportional representation
B. Prime Minister
by means of the single transferable vote
B. Proportional representation through C. Cabinet
list system D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Collective voting system
109. Each member of Parliament who partic-
D. Secondary voting system ipates in the Presidential election is enti-
tled to cast as many votes as are obtained
104. In front of whom, the President takes
by dividing the total number of votes of
his/her oath
the Legislative Assemblies of all the States
A. The Prime Minister by the total number of elected members
B. The council of Ministers of the two Houses of Parliament. This en-
sures:
C. The Chief Justice of India
D. none of above A. parity between the voting strengths of
the States and the Parliament
105. When can a President use his discretion B. parity among the States
in appointing the Prime Minister?
C. uniformity of representation of the dif-
A. In all circumstances
ferent States
B. In no circumstances
D. All the above
C. Only when the Lok Sabha has been dis-
solved 110. Name the bill which can only be produced
D. When no political party enjoys a clear in lok sabha?
majority in the Lok Sabha A. Money bill
106. During President’s rule the control of the B. Ordinary bill
Union Government over States is com- C. Constitution amendment bill
plete.
D. none of above
A. True
B. False 111. Which of the following is not true regard-
C. Not sure ing the payment of the emoluments to the
President?
D. none of above
A. They do not require any parliamentary
107. Which one of the following resigned as sanction
Vice-President to contest for the office of
B. They can be reduced during a Financial
the President?
Emergency
A. Dr. S.Radhakrishnan
C. They are shown separately in the bud-
B. V.V. Giri get
C. Fakhruddin AIi Ahmed D. They are charged on the Contingency
D. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy Fund of India
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9.6 Union Executive 483
112. If a resolution impeaching the President 117. If the President dies in office or can no
is passed, the President is considered to longer hold office, who become President
have been removed:
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. from the date on which the resolution A. Vice president
is passed B. The President brother
B. once the Chief Justice of India takes C. The hold another election
out an order to the effect
D. none of above
C. as soon as the Gazette of India notifies
it 118. The President can be removed by the way
of impeachment which can be made only:
D. once the new incumbent is elected
A. by the Supreme Court
113. Which of the following is not a qualifica- B. by the Rajya Sabha
tion to be the President of India?
C. by the Members of Lok Sabha and Ra-
A. Citizen of India jya Sabha through impeachment
B. has completed 25 years of age D. cannot be impeached
C. Should not hold an office of Profit 119. What is term of the Rajya Sabha? ? ?
D. qualified to be a member of the Lok A. 0 Years
Sabha
B. 2Years
114. The eligible age for the post of the Presi- C. 1 Year
dent is
D. 6 Years
A. 30 yrs and above
120. In case a President dies while in office,
B. 36yrs and above the Vice-President can act as President for
C. 35 yrs and above a maximum period of:
D. none of above A. 2 years
B. 1 year
115. Who is regarded as the head of the Indian
state? C. 3 months
A. Prime Minister D. 6 months
B. President 121. The Council of Ministers are collectively
responsible to who among the following
C. Chief justice of India
A. Prime Minister
D. none of the above
B. Lok Sabha
116. The Parliament enjoys types of pow- C. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
ers.
D. President
A. 2
122. The executive power is vested in the
B. 3
President but it is actually used by him on
C. 4 the advice of:
D. 5 A. the Prime Minister
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9.6 Union Executive 484
B. the Council of Ministers B. may withhold assent to any bill re-
C. Parliament served for his consideration except money
bills
D. None of the above
C. withhold his assent to any bill reserved
123. PM is the real head of the nation. If a for his consideration
PM tries to assume dictatorial tendencies D. directly disallow any bill which he con-
what will happen to him siders anti national
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. President can remove him 128. Put in chronological order the following
B. Vote of no-confidence can be arranged. names of Presidents of India.
If he lose in this vote then he has to resign. I) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
II) V.V.Giri
C. People will wait for the next general III) Dr. Zakir Hussain
election to remove him from power IV) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
D. none of above A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, III, II, IV
124. Collective responsibility of the Cabinet
C. II, I, III, IV
was introduced in India by the:
D. I, III, IV, II
A. Government of India Act, 1935
B. Minto-Morley Reforms 129. Though the President is not a Member
of Parliament, he performs certain func-
C. Independence Act, 1947 tions as an integral part of the Parliament.
D. Constitution of India Which are these?
I) He can dissolve the Lok Sabha.
125. Disputes regarding the election of the
II) He accords assent to the bills passed
President and Vice-President are settled:
by Parliament.
A. in the Supreme Court III) He summons both Houses of Parlia-
B. by the Election Commission ment.
IV) He orders elections to the Parlia-
C. by a Parliamentary Committee ment when its term is over.
D. in the Supreme Court of High Courts A. I, II, III and IV
126. The Union Council of Ministers consists B. I, II and III
of: C. I and II
A. Prime Minister D. II, III and IV
B. Cabinet Minister 130. Which article of Indian constitution deals
C. Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers with the National or General Emergency
of the States A. 356
D. Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State B. 360
and Deputy Ministers C. 352
127. In the matter of State legislation the D. none of above
President may: 131. The Prime Minister, at the time of the ap-
A. exercise only suspensive veto power pointment:
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9.6 Union Executive 485
I) need not necessarily be a member of II) Disputes related to vacancy in the
one of the Houses of Parliament but electoral college are settled by the
must become a member of one of the Election Commission.
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
Houses within six months. III) In case the election of a President is
II) need not necessarily be a member of declared void by the Supreme Court,
one of the. Houses of Parliament the acts performed by a President
but must become a member of the before the data of such decision of
Lok Sabha within six months. the court get invalidated.
III) must be either a nominated or A. I, II and III
elected member of one of the
Houses of Parliament. B. I and III
IV) must be an elected member of only C. I only
Lok Sabha. D. III only
A. I only
135. When charge against the President is pre-
B. I and III ferred by either’ House of Parliament and
C. II only is being investigated by other House:
D. IV only A. the President has a right to appear and
to be represented at such investigation
132. The Prime Minister is said to hold office
during the pleasure of the President but in B. the President has no right to appear
reality he stays in office as long as he en- and to be represented at such investiga-
joys the confidence of: tion
A. the electorate C. the President has a right of represen-
tation but he does not have a right of per-
B. the Lok Sabha sonal hearing
C. the party to which he belongs D. the President has a right to appear
D. Parliament and to be represented either personally or
through a legal practitioner
133. If the President returns a Bill sent to
him for his assent and the Parliament once 136. The term of a President is 5 years but
again passes the Bill in Its original form, he/she can be before the term is over
then the President: A. Sued
A. can once again return the Bill for fur- B. Removed
ther reconsideration
C. Impeached
B. can ask for a referendum on the Bill
D. none of above
C. has to give assent to the Bill
D. can seek the opinion of the Supreme 137. The portfolios are allocated to the minis-
Court on the bill ters by:
A. the President
134. Which of the following statements is/are
True? B. the Prime Minister
I) Disputes related to election of C. collective decision of the Council of
a President are decided by the Ministers
Supreme Court. D. individual choice
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9.6 Union Executive 486
138. Who among the following enjoys the C. not less than one-fourth of the total
rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian number of members of the House
Union? D. at least 100 members of Lok Sabha and
A. Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha 50 members of Rajya Sabha
B. Deputy Chairman of the Planning Com-
143. The Constitution guarantees the follow-
mission
ing privileges to the President of India:
C. Secretary to the Government of India
A. No criminal proceedings shall be insti-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. None of the above tuted against the President in any court
during his term of office
139. Which one among the following” is the
basis of difference between the Parliamen- B. No process for the arrest or impeach-
tary and Presidential system of govern- ment of the President shall be issued from
ment? [Asstt Commt 2010] any court during his term of office
A. Power of Judicial review C. The President shall not be answerable
to any court for the exercise and perfor-
B. Method of election of President/Head
mance of the powers and duties of his of-
of the State
fice or for any act done or purporting to
C. Legislative supremacy in law making be done by him in exercise of those pow-
D. Relation between the legislature and ers and duties
the executive D. No civil proceedings whatsoever shall
be instituted against the President in any
140. Who conveys the decisions of the Cabinet court during the term of his office
to the President?
A. Home Minister 144. Which one of the following powers can
be exercised by both the President and the
B. Prime Minister
Governor?
C. Cabinet secretary
A. Power to pardon a sentence by court
D. Minister of Parliamentary affairs martial
141. The decision of the Cabinet are binding on B. Power to remit a sentence in an of-
all the ministers fence relating to a matter on the State List
A. True
C. Power to commute a sentence of death
B. False in certain circumstances
C. Not sure
D. Power to remit a sentence by court
D. none of above martial
142. A resolution for impeaching the President 145. The executive authority of the Union is
can be moved after at least fourteen days’ vested by the Constitution in the:
notice signed by:
A. Prime Minister
A. not less than 50 members of the House
B. President
B. not less than one-third of the total num- C. Cabinet
ber of members of the House D. Union Legislature
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9.6 Union Executive 487
146. The position of the Vice-President of In- C. members of the Legislative assem-
dia resembles, to a great extent, the posi- blies and legislative councils of the states
tion of the Vice-President of: and UT’s
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A. USA D. none of above
B. Russia 151. The Vice President is a
C. Italy A. Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D. New Zealand B. Cabinet Minister
147. Executive powers are as fol- C. Members of the Parliament
lows:President, Vice-President, Prime D. none of above
Minister and
A. Council of Ministers 152. President of India is eligible for re-
election.
B. Chief Ministers
A. Yes
C. IAS officers
B. No
D. none of above
C. Not sure
148. Under which Power does the following
D. none of above
statement takes place-All the judges of the
Supreme court and the High court including 153. The authorization for the withdrawal of
their Chief Justices are appointed by the funds from the Consolidated Fund of India
President. must come from [CSAT 2011]
A. Executive Powers A. The President of India
B. Judicial Powers B. The Parliament of India
C. Financial Powers C. The Prime Minister of India
D. none of above D. The Union Finance Minister
149. An ordinance promulagated by the Presi- 154. In which of the following situations does
dent: the President act in his own discretion?
A. will lapse automatically after 2months [Asstt Grade 1994]
A. In appointing the Prime Minister
B. will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks B. In returning a proposal to the Council
from the meeting of the Parliament of Ministers for reconsideration
C. will automatically become a law after C. Both of the above
6 months
D. None of the above
D. will continue to be in force till it is su-
perseded by an Act of the Parliament 155. President can be removed by-
150. Electoral college consists of A. Impeachment
A. members of both the houses of parlia- B. Resignation
ment C. Death
B. Supreme court judges D. All of the above
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9.6 Union Executive 488
156. Who among the following Indian Prime 161. Which of the following statements is/are
Ministers could not vote for himself dur- correct? [CDS 2010]
ing the ’Vote of Confidence’ that he was
I) A registered voter in India can con-
seeking from the Lok Sabha? [CDS 2009]
test an election to Lok Sabha from
A. VP Singh any constituency in India.
B. PV Narasimha Rao II) As per the Representation of the
People Act 1951, if a person is con-
C. Chandra Shekhar
victed of any offence and sentenced
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Manmohan Singh to an imprisonment of 2 years or
157. Which of the following Chief Justices of more, this will be disqualification to
India has acted as President of India? contest election.
A. M. Hidayatullah A. I only
B. P.B. Gajendra Gadkar B. II only
C. P.N. Bhagwati C. Both I and II
D. All of the above D. Neither I nor II
158. To Whom does the President write in or-
162. What does Indian constitution say about
der to resign from office?
the appointment of different ministers
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
A. Nothing
B. Vice President
B. President decides this kind of matter
C. Prime Minister
D. Chief Justice of India C. According to constitution, by means of
the single transferable vote the ministers
159. If a Minister of a State wants to resign, will be appointed in different portfolios.
to whom he should address the letter of
D. none of above
resignation?
A. Chief Minister 163. Electoral college consists of
B. Speaker of Vidhan Sabha A. members of both the houses of parlia-
C. Governor of the State ment
D. Leader of his political party B. members of the Legislative assem-
blies and legislative councils of the states
160. The pardoning power given to the Presi-
and UT’s
dent of India under Article 72 can be exer-
cised: C. Supreme court judges
A. only after the trial and on the sentence D. none of above
of conviction
B. during or after trial but never before 164. The Executive the laws
trial A. Formulates
C. at any time before, during or after the B. Interprets
trial
C. Implements
D. either before or after the trial but
never during the trial of the case D. none of above
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9.6 Union Executive 489
165. Mark the correct response: B. a newly elected Chairman
A. The President has power to remove C. the Deputy Chairman
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
the Prime Minister but not any of his min- D. a member of Rajya Sabha deputed by
isters unless so advised by the Prime Min- the Chairman
ister
B. The President has power neither to re- 169. Consider the following statements re-
move the Prime Minister nor any of his garding the Vice-President of India:
ministers unless the Prime Minister loses I) The Vice-President is elected by an
the support of majority in Lok Sabha and electoral college consisting of all the
tenders his resignation members of the both Houses of Par-
liament.
C. The President can remove Prime Min-
II) The Constitution is silent about a
ister the moment he loses his majority in
person who is to discharge the du-
the Lok Sabha
ties of the Vice- President during the
D. The President has a power to remove period of vacancy.
any of the ministers at his pleasure
Which of these statements is/are correct?
166. Consider the following Vice-President of [CDS 2004]
India: A. I only
1. V.V. Giri B. II only
2. M. Hidayatullah
C. Both I and II
3. B.D. Jatti
4. G.S. Pathak D. Neither I nor II
Which one of the following is the correct 170. With reference to the Presidential elec-
chronology of their tenures? [CDS 2009] tion in India, consider the following state-
A. 1-4-3-2 ments:
B. 2-1-3-4 1. The nomination paper of a candidate
for the Presidential election should
C. 3-2-1-4 be signed by at least 50 electors as
D. 4-1-3-2 proposers and another 50 as secon-
ders.
167. If a Minister loses a no-confidence mo- 2. The prescribed security deposit in
tion, then: the Presidential election is Rs.25,
A. the Minister resigns 000
B. the whole Council of Ministers resigns Which of these statements is/are correct?
[CDS 2004]
C. Lok Sabha is dissolved A. 1 only
D. only Prime Minister and that Minister B. 2 only
resign C. Both 1 and 2
168. When the Chairman of Rajya Sabha acts D. Neither 1 nor 2
as President, the duties of the Chairman 171. The only instance when the President of
are performed by: India exercised his power of veto related
A. himself to the: [IAS 1993]
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9.6 Union Executive 490
A. Hindu Code Bill 176. An individual who is not a member of ei-
B. PEPSU Appropriation Bill ther House of Parliament can be appointed
a member of the Council of Ministers, but
C. Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill) he has to become a member of either
D. Dowry Prohibition Bill House within a period of: [RRB 1991]
172. With reference to the Constitution of In- A. 1 month
dia, consider the following statements: B. 2 months
NARAYAN CHANGDER
I) The Council of Ministers of the Union C. 3 months
are responsible to both the Houses
of Parliament. D. 6 months
II) The President of India cannot ap-
177. The Ministers are individually responsi-
point anyone as Union Minister not
ble to:
recommended by Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above A. the President
is/are correct? [CDS 2005] B. the House of the people
A. I only C. the Prime Minister
B. II only D. the House of which they are members
C. Both I and II
178. The Prime Minister:
D. Neither I nor II
A. is head of government
173. In practice the policy of the Government
B. is the leader of Lok Sabha
is shaped by:
A. all the ministers C. may change the portfolios of the Min-
isters at will
B. the Prime Minister
D. may do all the above
C. the Cabinet
D. special committees 179. Who administers the oath of office to the
President?
174. Because we have a parliamentary form
of government the power of our President A. Chief Justice of India
becomes B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
A. Temporary C. Prime Minister
B. Unacknowledged D. Vice-President
C. Nominal
180. A bill cannot become an act of parliament,
D. none of above unless and until ?
175. The civil servants are the A. it is passed by Lok Sabha
A. Political leaders B. it gets assent from President
B. government servants C. it is passed by Rajya Sabha
C. public servants D. it is passed by both Rajya and Lok
D. none of above Sabha
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9.6 Union Executive 491
181. Total members in Lok Sabha must not ex- 186. Who has the authority to remove the
ceed Vice-President from his office before the
expiry of his term?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. 530
A. Rajya Sabha
B. 590
B. Parliament
C. 550
C. Lok Sabha
D. 500
D. Supreme Court
182. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the
187. What is the work of the union execu-
President on matters on which his advice
tive?
is sought?
A. to make laws
A. Yes
B. to implement laws
B. No
C. to settle disputes
C. It is discretionary
D. none of above
D. If the Council of Ministers so desires
188. The PM and the Council of Ministers are
183. An ’office of profit’ which disqualifies a directly responsible to the
person from being a member of the Union A. People
or State Legislature does not include office
held under: B. President
A. the Government of India C. Lok Sabha
D. none of above
B. a State Government
C. a local authority 189. How many members of Rajya sabha re-
tire after every two years?
D. All of the above
A. 1/3
184. The only President of India who was B. 1/2
elected unopposed is: [CDS 1992]
C. 1/5
A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
D. 1/4
B. Dr. Zakir Hussain
190. Who among the following have held the
C. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy office of the Vice-President of India? [IAS
D. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 2008]
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
185. The Council of Ministers consists of 2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
what? ? ? 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
A. President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha 4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
B. Prime Minister A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. Cabinet Ministers, State Minister, B. 1 and 4
Deputy Ministers. C. 2 and 3
D. None of them. D. 3 and 4
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9.6 Union Executive 492
191. The five year term of the President is cal- number of elected members of the Parlia-
culated from the: ment
A. first day of the month he assumes D. The voting power of an elected mem-
charge ber of State Legislative Assembly is deter-
mined by dividing the total population of
B. first day of the month following the
the State by the total number of members
month he assumes charge
of Vidhan Sabha and further dividing the
C. day he assumes charge quotient obtained by 1000
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. date of his election result
195. Which of the following groups
192. Who among the following’ are appointed take/takes part in the election of the Pres-
by the President of India? [IAS 1994] ident of India?
I) All Members of Parliament.
I) Chairman, Finance Commission
II) All Members of State Legislative As-
II) Deputy Chairman, Planning Commis-
semblies.
sion
III) Elected members of State Legisla-
III) Chief Minister of a Union Territory
tive Assemblies.
A. I only IV) Elected members of State Legisla-
B. I and II tive Councils.
C. I and III A. I and III
D. II and III B. I and II
C. I only
193. Who participates in the Presidential elec-
D. III only
tion?
A. Elected members of both Houses of 196. How many emergency powers are with
Parliament president of India
B. Elected and nominated members of A. 5
the State Legislative Assembly B. 7
C. Members of all Union Territories C. 2
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE D. 3
194. Which of the following is not true regard- 197. Under RTI act, any citizen can ask for in-
ing the election of the President? formation from a public authority and this
information has to be given within how
A. The voting power of an MLA is made
many days?
proportionate to the population he repre-
sents A. 30
B. Voting power of the elected members B. 33
of the Parliament is made equal to the vot- C. 34
ing power of all elected members of the D. 32
Legislative Assemblies
C. Voting power of the elected members 198. The executive actions of the government
of Parliament is determined by dividing are carried out under whose name?
the total voting power of the State by the A. Prime Minister
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9.6 Union Executive 493
B. President 203. The election of the President do not fol-
C. Cabinet low the system of proportional represen-
tation.
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D. Both A and B
A. True
199. Which of the statements given above B. False
is/are correct? [Asstt Comm 2008]
C. Not sure
I) When Vice-President acts as Presi-
D. none of above
dent of India, he ceases to perform
the function of the Chairman of Ra- 204. The power to grant pardons, reprieve or
jya Sabha. remissions of punishment under Article 72
II) The President of India can promul- is exercised by the President of India:
gate Ordinances at any time except A. on the advice of the Prime Minister
when both Houses of Parliament are
in session. B. on his own as Head of the Union
A. I only C. on the advice of Council of Ministers
D. in consultation with the Prime Minister
B. II only
who tenders his opinion on the advice of
C. Both I and II his cabinet
D. Neither I nor II
205. The Vice-President’s letter of resignation
200. What is the official term of the Presi- is to be addressed to the:
dent’s office? A. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
A. 5 years B. Chief Justice of India
B. 10 years C. President
C. 3 years D. Speaker
D. 4 years 206. Who has the power to reject the budget
completely?
201. In the event of the resignation or death
of the Prime Minister: A. Rajya sabha
A. the Ministry is dissolved B. Legislative assembly
B. fresh general elections must take C. Lok sabha
place D. Legislative council
C. the Cabinet may choose another 207. Which of the following statements re-
leader garding the pardoning powers of the Pres-
D. the President decides what to do ident is/are not correct?
I) He has the pardoning power in re-
202. The Prime Minister is:
spect of sentence by court martial.
A. elected by Lok Sabha II) He can grant reprieve and respite in
B. elected by the Parliament case of punishment for an offence
against any law of the land, Union
C. appointed by the President or State.
D. nominated by the party enjoying major- III) He alone can pardon a sentence of
ity in Lok Sabha death.
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9.7 Indian budget 494
IV) His exercise of the power of pardon 208. The basic qualification for a candidate to
is open to judicial review. be the president
A. I and III A. He must be a citizen of India
B. II and III B. He must be at least 35 years
C. I and IV C. All of the above
D. II and IV D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
9.7 Indian budget
1. Which of the following belongs to Micro C. Trust
economics . D. Integrity
A. National investment
5. When was GST implemented?
B. National Income
A. 2015
C. Personal income
D. Economic development B. 2017
C. 2018
2. Consider the following statement (s)
is/are true about budget, budgeting & D. 2014
budgetary control.I. Budgetary control is
6. What was the shape of the recovery of In-
a wider concept whereas Budget and bud-
dia’s economy during the last year?
geting are narrower conceptsII. Budget
is the process of preparing business esti- A. U-shape
mates.Which of the following statements B. W-shape
is/are correct?
C. V-shape
A. Only I
D. None of the above
B. Only II
C. Both I and II 7. A tax, the burden of which can be shifted
on to others, is called
D. Neither I nor II
A. Indirect tax
3. What does P in the LPG policy of 1991
B. Direct tax
stands for?
A. Publications C. Wealth tax
B. Privatisation D. None of these
C. Programming 8. The receipts which neither create any lia-
D. Property bility nor lead to any reduction in assets
are called
4. Building World Class attitudes among your
A. revenue receipts
people to plan & achieve challenging
Goals: B. capital receipts
A. Excellence C. both (a) and (b)
B. Entrepreneurship D. none of these
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9.7 Indian budget 495
9. What was the main focus of India’s first 13. Cess newly imposed on petrol and diesel
five year plan in 1950. is
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A. Agriculture and irrigation A. AIDC
B. Infrastructure B. KKC
C. Education C. Education cess
D. Health care D. none of above
10. Select the incorrect phase of budget pro- 14. Spilt-run advertising is popular in me-
cess in India. dia
A. Budget formulation:the preparation of A. digital
estimates of expenditure and receipts for B. print
the ensuing financial year;
C. outdoor
B. Budget enactment:approval of the pro-
D. none of above
posed Budget by the Legislature through
the enactment of Finance Bill and Appro- 15. If LRR is .25, what will be money multi-
priation Bill plier
C. Budget execution:enforcement of the A. 4
provisions in the Finance Act and Appro-
priation Act by the government-collection B. 1
of receipts and making disbursements for C. 5
various services as approved by the Leg-
D. 2
islature
D. Judicial review of budget implementa- 16. Which of the following is a direct tax?
tion:audits of government’s financial oper- A. Corporation tax
ations on behalf of the Legislature
B. Custom duty
11. Retailers are known to use advertis- C. Exercise Duty
ing
D. Service Tax
A. cooperative
17. Advertising is
B. competitive
A. unique
C. creative
B. one dimensional
D. none of above
C. multi dimensional
12. How much rent will now be exempted D. rigid
from the TDS as per the Interim Budget
2019? 18. Subsidies on fertilizers is a
A. Rs 2.4 lakh A. capital receipt
B. Rs 6.4 lakh B. revenue receipt
C. Rs 3 lakh C. capital expenditure
D. a) Rs 5.4 lakh D. revenue expenditure
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9.7 Indian budget 496
19. Ambush advertising are business prac- B. Tiger
tices
C. Rhino
A. competitive
D. Goat
B. ethical
C. unethical 25. Web based marketing is an example of
advertising
D. none of above
A. consumer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
20. What is the biggest source of Income for
B. digital
the Central Government in the Union Bud-
get 2020-21? C. industrial
A. Goods and Services Tax D. puffery
B. Corporation Tax
26. Which of the following is a tax revenue
C. Income Tax receipts of government?
D. Borrowings and other liabilities A. Excise duty
21. Tax, the impact of whitch lies on the per- B. Escheat
son on whom it is legally imposed, is
C. Special assessment
known as:
D. Fees and fines
A. Indirect tax
B. Direct tax 27. Which article of the Constitution envisages
C. Value added tax Budget?
D. None of these A. Article 280
B. Article 110
22. Checklist is like master
C. Article 360
A. card
B. route D. Article 112
C. inventory 28. When was country’s first Union Budget
D. none of above presented in the Parliament .
A. 26th November 1947
23. Our people are our most important assets.
We actively encourage their development B. 26th January 1950
and support them in pursing their goals:
C. 15th August 1947
A. Excellence
D. 14th July 1948
B. Entrepreneurship
C. Integrity 29. The rate which the income tax is imposed
in India is called
D. Care
A. Digressive rate
24. The government has decided to set up
B. Progressive rate
Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog for the wel-
fare of which animal? C. Regressive rate
A. Cow D. Proportionate rate
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9.7 Indian budget 497
30. An expenditure that provides benefit for actions to maintain the highest standards
less than one financial period is known as: of professionalism.
A. Care
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A. Ordinary expenditure
B. Regular expenditure B. Entrepreneurship
C. Revenue expenditure C. Integrity
D. Integrity
D. Nominal expenditure
36. Which of the following is not a non tax re-
31. Repayment of loans is an example of: ceipt?
A. Capital Expenditure A. Fees
B. Non-planned expenditure B. Fines
C. Revenue expenditure C. Gift tax
D. Planned expenditure D. Grands and donations
32. Which one of them is an Indirect tax 37. We consistently deliver projects ahead of
time at industry-leading costs of construc-
A. Special Assessment Tax tion and within budget. We are constantly
B. Excise Duty focused on achieving a top decile cost of
production in each of our businesses.
C. Fees
A. Excellence
D. Corporation Tax
B. Entrepreneurship
33. Which of the following documents are pre- C. Integrity
sented to the legislature along with the
D. Trust
budget? I. An explanatory memorandum
on the budget II. A summary of demands 38. India belongs to which type of economy?
for grants III. An Appropriation Bill IV. A A. Capitalist
Finance Bill V. The economic survey Code:
B. Federal
A. I, III and V
C. Mixed
B. I, II and III
D. Socialist
C. II, III and V
39. An example for Indirect tax is
D. I, II, III and IV
A. Corporate tax
34. the component of budget that creates an B. GST
asset of the government is C. Personal income tax
A. revenue receipt D. Stamp duty
B. revenue expenditure
40. Zero primary deficit means
C. capital receipt A. no liabilities with government
D. capital expenditure B. the government has to resort to bor-
rowing only to meet interest payments
35. We place utmost importance to engaging
ethically and transparently with all our C. no interest payments
stakeholders, taking accountability of our D. no borrowing
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9.7 Indian budget 498
41. Money multiplier is equal to 47. Pension payment is an example of:
A. LRR A. Plan expenditure
B. CRR B. Revenue expenditure
C. 1/LRR C. Capital expenditure
D. None of these D. Non-plan expenditure
42. The receipts which either create a liability 48. If exports are to be increased then the cur-
rency of a country should be
NARAYAN CHANGDER
or cause a reduction in the assets of the
government is called A. Appreciated
A. Revenue expenditure B. No change
B. Capital Revenue C. Depreciated
C. Revenue Receipts D. Appreciated or depreciated
D. Capital expenditure 49. Assertion (A):Income tax is a great
source of revenue to the govern-
43. Which of the following are capital receipts ment.Reason(R):It is a direct tax as its
of the Government? burden can’t be shifted.
A. Recovery of loan A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are
B. Borrowings true and Reason (R ) is the correct expla-
nation of the Assertion (A)
C. Disinvestment
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are
D. all of these true and Reason (R ) is not the correct ex-
44. following is non tax receipt? planation of the Assertion (A)
C. Assertion (A) is true but the Reason (R
A. Gift tax
) is false
B. Sales tax
D. Assertion (A) is false but the Reason (R
C. Donations ) is true
D. Excise duty 50. Under Ayushman Bharat, which was
45. advertising and internet go hand in launched to provide medical treatment to
hand nearly 50 crore people, how many sick
people till now have got treatment?
A. Viral
A. 15 lakh
B. Transit
B. 12 lakh
C. Digital
C. 10 lakh
D. none of above D. 5 lakh
46. Which one of them is direct tax? 51. For how long is each budget prepared
A. Income tax A. 5 years
B. GST B. 2 years
C. Escheat C. 4 years
D. Special Assessment D. 1 year
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9.7 Indian budget 499
52. The government has set a target of build- C. Other deposits
ing how many digital villages in the next
D. All of these
5 years?
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A. 50 thousand 58. are most popular in rural marketing to
B. 2 lakh sell FMCG
C. 1 lakh A. Gifts
D. 3 lakh B. Sachets
53. Primary deficit= interest payment. C. Illustration
A. Fiscal deficit D. none of above
B. Primary deficit
59. The government budget is an
C. Budget deficit
A. Half yearly statement
D. Revenue deficit
B. Weekly statement
54. We lay consistent emphasis on human
rights; respect the principle of free, prior, C. Five yearly statement
informed consent, while our engagements D. Annual statement
with stakeholders give local communities
the opportunity to voice their opinions and 60. Who is known as the architect of Indian
concerns. Planning?
A. Excellence A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Entrepreneurship B. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
C. Respect
C. PC Mahalanobis
D. Trust
D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
55. Interim budget is also known as
A. Mini budget 61. Primary deficit in a government budget is
B. Vote on Account
A. Revenue expenditure-Revenue re-
C. Both of the above ceipts
D. None of the above
B. total expenditure-total receipts
56. Who presented the first budget in India C. revenue deficit-interest payment
1860? ? ?
D. fiscal deficit-interest payment
A. Indira Gandhi
B. James Wilson 62. Budgetary policies are implemented by
C. Albert Einstein the.
D. none of above A. Foreign sector
57. Money supply is B. Finance ministry
A. Currency with public C. Government
B. Demand deposits D. Private sector
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9.7 Indian budget 500
63. The authorization for the withdrawal of 69. Which out of the following is a non-
funds from the consolidated Fund of India developmental expenditure?
must come from:
A. Scientific research
A. The President of India
B. Social Welfare
B. The Parliament of India
C. Administration
C. The Prime Minister of India
D. None of them
D. The Union Finance Minister
NARAYAN CHANGDER
64. Who introduced income tax in India? ? ? 70. Fiscal deficit =
A. Pete Phyrr A. Total expenditure-total receipts other
B. Jame Wilson than borrowing
C. Palwankar baloo B. revenue expenditure-revenue receipts
D. none of above
C. capital expenditure-capital receipts
65. it neither creates an asset nor reduces lia-
bility D. fiscal deficit-interest payment
A. revenue expenditure 71. What is is the deliberate attempt by RBI
B. capital expenditure to keep foreign exchange rate in a desired
C. revenue receipt limit is called
D. capital receipt A. Depreciation of currency
66. media has the second highest reach in B. Appreciation of currency
urban India C. Adjustable peg
A. Film D. Managed float
B. Print
72. How many types of budget are there? ?
C. Tv
?
D. Radio
A. Two types
67. The preparation of the budget is usually
B. Four types
started in which month
A. September C. Three types
B. March D. none of above
C. January
73. Identify the revenue receipts from the fol-
D. October lowing
68. In India GST is introduced with effect from A. receipt from sale of shares of a public
sector undertaking
A. 1st Jan 2017
B. 1st July 2018 B. borrowing from public
C. 1st July 2017 C. loans from the world bank
D. 1st Jan 2018 D. interest received on loans
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9.7 Indian budget 501
74. An annual statement of the estimated re- B. Anti Camera
ceipts and expenditure of the government
C. Anti Piracy
over the fiscal year is known as
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D. Anti-cam cord
A. Budget
B. Income estimates 80. escheats are
C. Account A. revenue receipts
D. Expenditure B. capital receipts
75. In India, fiscal year is the year which be- C. revenue expenditure
gins on and ends on of the follow-
ing year. D. capital expenditure
A. April 1st, March 31st 81. Which of following is a direct tax?
B. 1st January, 31st December A. Income tax
C. 1st October, 31st September B. Excise duty
D. None of these
C. Custom duty
76. The finance minister puts the disinvest- D. Sale tax
ments receipts at
A. 2.25 lakh crore 82. Government budget shows a primary
deficit of Rs. 6900 crore. The revenue ex-
B. 1.75 lakh crore
penditure on interest am and is Rs. 400
C. 1.5 lakh crore crore. How much is the fiscal deficit?
D. none of above A. Rs. 7300 crore
77. Who was the first female finance minister B. Rs. 5300 crore
of India? ? ?
C. Rs. 6700 crore
A. Nirmala Sitharaman
D. Rs. 5500 crore
B. Indira Gandhi
C. Prativa Rao Patil 83. FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF DIRECT
TAX
D. none of above
A. GOODS AND SERVICE TAX
78. costs money
B. VALUE ADDED TAX
A. Publicity
C. INCOME TAX
B. Public relations
C. Advertising D. EXCISE DUTY
D. Salesmanship 84. Union Budget is the budget of
79. In order to prevent piracy and contact theft A. Central Government
of Bollywood films which regulation will
B. Local Government
be introduced in the Indian Cinematograph
Act? C. State Government
A. Anti theft D. Election Commission
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9.7 Indian budget 502
85. The fiscal deficit for 2019-20 is estimated 90. What is the biggest item of government
to be per cent of the gross domestic expenditure in budget 2019-20?
product (GDP). A. Loan repayment
A. 3.9% B. Defense expenditure
B. 3.4% C. Expenditure on Central Plans
C. 2.8% D. Share of the states in taxes and fees
D. 3.2%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
91. A direct tax is a tax which is imposed on.
86. Progressive taxation of government A. Corporations only
doesn’t include
B. None of these
A. Higher rate of tax on high-income
group. C. Individuals only
B. The poor are exempted from income D. Individuals and corporations
tax.
92. expenditure on the vaccination of people
C. Higher rate of tax on luxury goods. for Covid 19 is
D. Equal rate of tax on both rich and poor A. revenue expenditure
87. . What was the theme of the Union B. capital expenditure
Budget 2020-21? (a)Har Nagrik Jeetega C. both 1 and 2
(b)Ease of Living(c)Ude Desh ka Aam Na- D. none
grik(d)Sabka Sath, Sabka Vikas aur Sabka
Vishwas 93. Who was the first finance minister of In-
A. A dia? ? ?
B. B A. Nirmala Sitharaman
C. C B. R. K. Shanmukham Chetty
D. D C. Amit Shah
D. none of above
88. A good indicator of growth is steady in-
crease in the: 94. Identify which doesn’t belongs to group
A. Gross Domestic Product A. Personal Income tax
B. Net Domestic Product B. Corporate tax
C. Population C. Wealth tax
D. National Income D. Import-export taxes
89. In which of the following ways, can deficit 95. Which is the highest Finance Authority of
in budget be financed? India.
A. Borrowings from RBI A. RBI
B. Borrowing from public B. SEBI
C. Borrowing from IMF C. FERE
D. all of the above D. FEMA
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9.7 Indian budget 503
96. The rate of GST on Luxury items like 102. What is the next step after the prepara-
Fridge, Motar car etc is. tion of the budget
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A. 18% A. Celebration
B. 12% B. Enactment
C. 28% C. Execution
D. 20% D. none of above
97. Simulated sales test are found in its 103. Primary Deficit is a part of
results
A. Revenue deficit
A. consistent
B. Fiscal Deficit
B. inconsistent
C. Borrowings
C. regular
D. none of above D. Interest payments
98. The 22nd All India Institute of Medical Sci- 104. Capital receipts refers to
ences (AIIMS) will be set up in which state, A. Inflow of cash
as per the Interim Budget 2019-20?
B. Outflow of cash
A. Haryana
C. Investment
B. Punjab
D. NOTA
C. Telangana
D. Rajasthan 105. refer to taxes levied on imported
goods.
99. The Planning Commission was set up in:
A. Quotas
A. 1948
B. Tariffs
B. 1950
C. Lagaan
C. 1951
D. None of these
D. 1956
106. Construction of school building is:
100. Disinvestment is an example of
A. Capital expenditure
A. Capital expenditure
B. Revenue receipts
B. Capital receipts
C. Revenue receipts C. Revenue expenditure
D. NOTA D. Capital receipts
101. Under the Ujjwala scheme how many free 107. The 22nd All India Institute of Medical
LPG connections to rural households have Sciences (AIIMS) will be established in
been provided so far? which state?
A. 10 crore A. Bihar
B. 12 crore B. Punjab
C. 6 crore C. Haryana
D. 15 crore D. Gujarat
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9.7 Indian budget 504
108. We aim on achieving excellence in health, This scheme will be in effect from 1st Jan-
safety and environment standards and uary, 2019.
practices: D. The amount allocated for the defense
A. Excellence sector has exceeded 3 lac cr for the first
time.
B. Entrepreneurship
C. Integrity 113. Who is the current home minister of In-
dia? ? ?
D. Care
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Narendra Modi
109. The amount collected by the government B. Amit Shah
in the form of interest, fees, and dividends
is known as C. Shanmukham Chetty
A. Tax-revenue receipts D. none of above
B. Capital receipts 114. When incidence and burden of tax falls
on different persons that type of tax is
C. Non-tax revenue receipts
called:
D. None of these
A. Direct tax
110. advertising is a well planned effort B. Indirect tax
to corner competitors C. Regressive tax
A. Institutional D. None of these
B. Ambush
115. Gift tax is a paper tax because
C. Surrogate
A. It is an indirect tax
D. Reminder
B. It is a direct tax
111. Borrowing in government budget is: C. It does not have significant revenue
A. Revenue Deficit yield
B. Fiscal deficit D. Both B and C
C. Primary Deficit 116. A balance budget is a balanced one when
D. Deficit in taxes
A. Total expenditure = Total receipts
112. Which statement is not correct about bud-
B. Total expenditure < Total receipts
get 2019-20?
C. Total expenditure > Total receipts
A. The number of new income-tax filers
increased in 2017-18, taking the total in- D. None of these
come tax returns filed to 6.84 crore, up 117. Capital expenditure is the expenditure
26% from previous year. on
B. Payment of gratuity has been in- A. Research and development
creased from Rs. 10 lakh to Rs. 20 lakhs.
B. Machinery
C. Government has introduced the Prime C. Equipment
Minister ‘Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana’. D. All of the above
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9.7 Indian budget 505
118. Direct tax is called direct because it is col- 123. GST received by the government is a
lected directly from: A. revenue receipt
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A. The producers on goods produced B. capital receipt
B. the sellers on goods sold C. an indirect tax
C. The buyers of goods D. both 1 and 3
D. The income earners 124. The revenue generated by the govern-
ment through tax and non-tax source is
119. India remains Lower-Middle Income Na- A. Revenue expenditure
tion for a year 2020-21.In this re-
B. Tax Revenue
gard, consider the following statement .
1.World Bank assign World economies to C. Non Tax revenue
various income groups. 2.Grouping is done D. Revenue Reciepts
on the basis of Gross National Income per
capita 125. Which bank has sole right of issuing
notes
A. 1 only
A. ADB
B. 2 only B. SBI
C. both 1 and 2 C. RBI
D. none of above D. UBI
120. FINANCIAL YEAR IN INDIA IS 126. The government budget has a revenue
deficit. This gets financed by:A. Borrow-
A. APRIL 1 TO MARCH 31 ings B. Disinvestment C. Tax revenue D. In-
B. JANUARY 1 TO DECEMBER 31 direct Tax
C. OCTOBER 1 TO SEPTEMBER 30 A. A and D
B. C and D
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
C. A and B
121. Tax that is imposed on value added at the D. C and D
various stages of production is known as:
127. What is the biggest item of income of the
A. Corporate profit tax central government in 2019-20 budget?
B. Direct personal tax A. Goods and Service Tax
C. Value added tax B. Corporation tax
D. None of these C. Borrowings and other liabilities
D. a and b both are equal
122. Who is the current finance minister of In-
dia . 128. Which of the following regulates the
working of share Market in India.
A. Narendra Modi
A. FERA
B. Manmohan Singh B. SEBI
C. Arun jaitley C. NIFTY
D. Nirmala Sitharaman D. FEMA
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9.7 Indian budget 506
129. As per the Interim Budget 2019-20, Indi- map recently with the clearance of the Hol-
vidual tax payers with taxable income of longi airport?
up to what amount will get full tax rebate
A. Meghalaya
from now on?
B. Sikkim
A. Rs 3 lakh
B. Rs 5 lakh C. Manipur
C. Rs 7 lakh D. Arunachal Pradesh
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Rs 9 lakh 135. Assertion (A):Fiscal position shows a
better position of the government ex-
130. In method respondent has to judge
penditure in comparison to the budget
two advertisements at a time
deficit.Reason(R):Fiscal deficit means bor-
A. Percentage of sales rowings to the govt.
B. Limit of sales A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are
C. Task true and Reason (R ) is the correct expla-
nation of the Assertion (A)
D. Paired comparison
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are
131. The advertising sets a limit on the ad- true and Reason (R ) is not the correct ex-
vertising expenditure planation of the Assertion (A)
A. budget C. Assertion (A) is true but the Reason (R
B. cost ) is false
C. plan D. Assertion (A) is false but the Reason (R
D. none of above ) is true
132. Meaning of the word Economics is drived 136. As we continue to grow, we are com-
from which of the Greek word. mitted to the triple bottom line of People,
Planet and Prosperity to create a sustain-
A. Oikomonia
able future in a zero harm environment for
B. Oikonomia our communities.
C. Oikonomist A. Care
D. Oikonomini B. Respect
133. Which statement(s) is/are correct re- C. Entrepreneurship
garding capital receipts?
D. Excellence
A. they create assets
B. they create liability 137. Deficit budget refers to that situation
in which governments budget expenditure
C. they reduce assets is-
D. they reduce assets and (or) create lia- A. less than its budget receipts
bility
B. more than its budget receipts
134. In the interim Budget 2019 speech given
C. equal its budget receipts
by interim Finance Minister Piyush Goyal,
which north-eastern state came to the air D. none of these
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9.7 Indian budget 507
138. We embrace a conducive environment for A. Exports
encouraging innovation that leads to a B. Investment by foreign countries
Zero harm environment and exemplifying
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optimal utilization of natural resources, im- C. Imports
proved efficiencies and recoveries of by- D. Remittances from abroad
products.
143. Which statement(s) is/are correct re-
A. Trust garding revenue expenditure?
B. Innovation A. they do not create assets
C. Entrepreneurship B. they create liability
D. Care C. they reduce liability
139. How much amount has been allocated in D. they create assets
union budget of 2019-20 for development 144. Loans given by govt. to states and PSUs
of roads in rural and backward area un- is an example of
der Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(PMGSY) to pushing rural infrastructure in A. Capital expenditure
the new financial year? B. Capital receipts
A. 45, 000 crore C. Revenue receipts
B. 19, 000 crore D. NOTA
C. 20, 000 crore 145. Loans to state governments and union
D. 30, 000 crore territories are a part of
A. Revenue Receipts
140. Which one of the following is true about
direct tax B. Capital Receipts
A. It is Paid by an individual on whom it is C. Capital Expenditure
levied. D. Revenue Expenditure
B. Burden of tax is transferable to others. 146. Recovery of loans is a capital receipt be-
cause
C. These are imposed on goods and ser- A. Its reduction in assets
vices
B. Its reduce liability
D. GST and VAT are examples of direct
tax. C. Its increase assets
D. None of these
141. Which of the following is an indirect
tax? 147. Land ceiling refers to:
A. Corporation tax A. Fix rural landholdings at the existing
level
B. Value Added tax
B. Fix land area for irrigation purposes
C. Income tax
C. Fix urban landholdings at the existing
D. Wealth tax level
142. Which of the following is not the source D. Fix quantum of land held by an individ-
of supply of foreign exchange ual
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9.7 Indian budget 508
148. Percentage of sales method is not A. Interest receipts on loans given by the
A. acceptable government to other parties
B. scientific B. Dividends and profits from public sec-
tor undertakings
C. practical
C. Borrowing of the government from
D. workable public
149. How much cess is imposed currently by D. Income tax receipts
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the Central Government?
154. Copy testing finds out customer response,
A. 3.5%
feedback and
B. 3%
A. review
C. 4%
B. behaviour
D. 4.5%
C. assessment
150. How long is the Budget speech India? ? D. none of above
?
A. 90 to 100 minutes 155. The Finance Minister has announced that
for the first time the country’s Defence
B. 90 to 110 minutes Budget will be of over lakh crore.
C. 90 to 120 minutes A. Rs 3 lakh crore
D. none of above B. Rs 15 lakh crore
151. Which of the following statement is C. Rs 6 lakh crore
true?
D. Rs 20 lakh crore
A. Loan from IMF is a Revenue Receipt
156. The correct group of direct tax is
B. Higher revenue deficit necessarily
leads to higher fiscal deficit A. Personal income tax, corporate tax,
C. Borrowing by a government repre- wealth tax and stamp duty.
sents a situation of fiscal deficit. B. Corporate tax, wealth tax, personal in-
D. Revenue deficit is the excess of capital come tax and export import tax.
receipts over the revenue receipts C. Export import tax, GST, corporate tax
and VAT
152. Deficit budget refers to that situation in
which government’s budget expenditure is D. Corporate tax, export-import tax, GST
and wealth Tax.
A. Less than its budget receipts 157. The first five year plan was launched for
B. More than its budget receipts a period from
C. Equal to its budget receipts A. 1948-1953
D. None of these B. 1959-1954
C. 1951-1956
153. Which one of the following is a capital
receipt in government budget? D. 1955-1960
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9.7 Indian budget 509
158. Interim budget is also known as 163. Who introduced the farmers Empower-
ment and Protection Bill 2020 and Farmers
A. Mini budget
produce Trade and Commerce Bill 2020 in
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B. Vote on Account the Indian Parliament.
C. Both a and b A. Amit Shah
D. None of these B. Kailash Chaudary
C. Narendra Singh Tomar
159. When budget receipts are greater than
budget expenditure such type of budget is D. Smriti irani
called: 164. As per the Interim Budget 2019-20, how
A. Balanced budget much amount has been allocated for the
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employ-
B. Deficit budget
ment Gurantee Act (MGNREGA)?
C. Surplus budget
A. Rs 19000 crore
D. None of these B. Rs 24000 crore
160. For how long was the budget presented C. Rs 48000 crore
in two parts D. Rs 60000 crore
A. 92 years 165. Who is the woman minister of India? ?
B. 76 years ?
C. 54 years A. Indira Gandhi
D. 32 years B. Smriti Irani
C. Gowry Amma
161. Which one of the following is wrong
D. none of above
about central budjet in India?
A. Budget for next financial year is pre- 166. What is the disinvestment target for
pared during the current year itself 2020-21? (a)Rs 1, 73, 000 crore(b)Rs
2, 10, 000 crore(c)Rs 65, 000 crore(d) Rs
B. Parliament approves the central bud- 1, 05, 000 core
get
A. A
C. Prime minister presents the Budget in
B. B
Loksabha
C. C
D. Government should get the approval of
parliament to the Budget before 31st of D. D
March 167. Interim Finance Minister Piyush Goyal
has allocated crore for a key scheme
162. The difference between fiscal deficit and
aimed at the rural poor MGNREGA for fis-
interest payment is called:
cal year 2018-19.
A. Revenue deficit A. Rs 70, 000 crore
B. Primary deficit B. Rs 60, 000 crore
C. Budget deficit C. Rs 30, 000 crore
D. Capital deficit D. Rs 55, 000 crore
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9.7 Indian budget 510
168. Disinvestment by government means 174. testing is related to big ideas
A. selling of fixed capital assets A. Pre
B. selling of shares of public enterprises B. Post
held by it C. Copy
C. selling of its building D. Concept
D. all of the above
175. As per the Union Budget, 2020-21, what
NARAYAN CHANGDER
169. Difference between fiscal deficit and in- is the highest rate of Direct Tax in India?
trest payment is called- (a)20%(b)35%(c) 30%(d) 40%
A. revenue deficit A. A
B. fiscal deficit B. B
C. primary deficit C. C
D. none of the above D. D
170. Post testing finds out coverage 176. Where is the Budget introduced in India
A. readership every year?
B. exposure A. Rajya Sabha
C. presentation B. Lok Sabha
D. none of above C. Joint session
D. Rashtrapati Bhawan
171. Fiscal deficit= budget expenditure
A. Budget receipts other than borrow- 177. Identify capital receipt from the follow-
ings. ing
B. Disinvestment A. post office deposits
C. Sales tax B. recovery of loans
D. Custom duty C. disinvestment
D. all of the above
172. Capital Budget is divided into
A. 2 parts 178. Dividend from PSUs is a part of
B. 3 parts A. Non-tax Revenue
C. 4 parts B. Revenue receipts
D. None of the above C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b)
173. The government aspires to make India a
Ten Trillion Dollar Economy in how many 179. advertising has recorded unprece-
years? dented progress
A. 13 years A. Television
B. 5 years B. Mobile
C. 8 years C. Global
D. 10 years D. Persuasive
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9.7 Indian budget 511
180. A Govt. Budget is prepared for a fiscal 185. In India the petiod of financial year is
year running from: A. 1st March-31st April of subsequent
year
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A. 1st January to 31st December
B. 1st April to 31st December B. 1st January-31st December of subse-
quent year
C. 1st April to 31st March
C. 1st April-31st March of subsequent
D. 1st January to 30th April year
181. The Union Government is planning to in- D. June 1St-December 31st.
troduce container cargo movement to the 186. Which of the following is not a part of
North East through which river? capital budget
A. Ganga A. Capital Expenditure
B. Brahmaputra B. Capital Receipts
C. Yamuna C. Capital revenue
D. Godavari D. NOTA
187. Which one of the following is not a type
182. Borrowings are equivalent to: of deficit finance?
A. Revenue deficit A. Revenue deficit
B. Primary deficit B. Budget defecit
C. Fiscal deficit C. Capital defecit
D. None of these D. Primary deficit
183. .Which of the following statement is/are 188. Who is the father of zero based budget?
correct about the Union Budget 2020- ??
21.(a)Budget estimates for defence sector A. Pete Phyrr
is Rs 3, 23, 053 cr(b)Budget estimates B. Albert Einstein
for Fertilizer subsidy is Rs115570 cr(c)
C. Shanmukham Chetty
100 more airports would be developed by
2024(d) National Recruitment Agency will D. none of above
be set up as an independent agency 189. Payment of interest is treated as a
A. A A. Revenue expenditure
B. B B. Revenue receipt
C. C C. Capital expenditure
D. D D. none of above
190. What is the main theme of Economic Sur-
184. Disinvestment is a-
vey 2020-2021?
A. Capital expenditure A. Innovation
B. Revenue expenditure B. Infrastructure
C. Capital receipts C. Policy reforms
D. Revenue receipts D. COVID-19 warriors
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9.7 Indian budget 512
191. Vivad se Vishwas scheme is related to A. 6 Cr
(a)Indirect Tax (b)Direct Tax(c)Both Di- B. 8 Cr
rect and Indirect(d)Neither Direct nor Indi-
rect C. 10 Cr
A. A D. 5 Cr
B. B 197. Non tax revenue of central government
doesn’t include
C. C
A. Profit earned by RBI
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. D
B. Profit earned by Indian Railway
192. Primary deficit=fiscal deficit
C. Revenue generated by public sector in-
A. Loan dustries.
B. Interest payments D. Revenue generated by corporate sec-
C. Borrowings tor
D. None of these 198. What is the disinvestment target for
2020-21? ? ?
193. Who is the father of budget in India? ?
? A. Rs. 173000 crores
B. Rs. 210000 crores
A. P. C. Mahalamobis
C. Rs. 105000 crores
B. James Wilson
D. none of above
C. K. R. Gowry Amma
D. none of above 199. Which is a component of Budget Receipts
A. Revenue receipts
194. The current account deficit is likely to be
only percent of the GDP this year? B. Capital receipts
A. 2.5 % C. Both (a) and (b)
B. 3.4 % D. None of the above
C. 3.6 % 200. Who is the first woman to present bud-
D. 3 % get in India.
A. Nirmala Sitharaman
195. According to the Union Government, how
B. Sarojini Naidu
many crore LPG connections have already
been distributed under PM Ujjwala Yo- C. Indria Gandhi
jana? D. Suchita Kripaloni
A. 8 crore
201. refers to utilisation of country’s re-
B. 5 crore sources in order to promote economic
C. 3 crore growth.
D. 6 crore A. Self-reliance
B. Sankhya
196. In budget 2019-20, the government set
the target to distribute LPG connec- C. Land ceiling
tions under the Ujjawala Yojna. D. Market surplus
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9.7 Indian budget 513
202. Capital receipts is that receipts of the 207. When revenue expenditure is greater
Government- than revenue receipts it is called
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A. creats a liability A. Fiscal deficit
B. reduce the assets B. Primary deficit
C. Both (1) and (2) C. Revenue deficit
D. none D. None of these
203. Which of the following is a part of the 208. Which of the following statements is/are
revenue expenditure in the indian govern- correct with reference to the Union Budget
ment budget? 2021-22?
A. Intreast payment A. A customary Halwa ceremony is per-
formed every year before the “lock-in”
B. Defence Purchase process of Budget preparation begins.
C. Wage bill of the Government B. In an unprecedented initiative, Union
D. All of these Budget 2021-22 will be delivered in paper-
less form for the first time.
204. Which scheme will set up to improve
C. Both the of the above
sustainable genetic upgrading of cow re-
sources, and to enhance production and D. none of above
productivity of cows?
209. Which of the following is not true for fis-
A. Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog cal deficit? A fiscal deficit:
B. Gaay Aayog A. represents the borrowings of the gov-
C. Gouseva Aayog ernment
B. is the difference between total expen-
D. Rashtriya Gaay Aayog
diture and total receipts of the govern-
205. Arrange the following stages in the enact- ment
ment of budget in proper order:I. General C. is the difference between total expen-
discussionII. Appropriation Bill III. Finance diture and total receipts other than bor-
Bill IV. Voting of the demands for grant V. rowings
Presentation to legislature
D. increase future liability of the govern-
A. I, II, III, IV, V ment
B. V, I, II, III 210. Which of the following is/are included in
C. V, I, IV, III, II the capital budget of the Government of
D. V, I, III, IV, II India? 1. Expenditure on acquisition of
fighter aircraft2. Financial assistance re-
206. Capital receipts is that receipts of the ceived from the World Bank3. Loans made
Government which: to foreign governments4. Grants given to
states and union territories every yearS-
A. creats a liability
elect the correct answer using the codes
B. reduce the assets given below:
C. Both (1) and (2) A. 1 and 2 only
D. none B. 2 and 3 only
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9.7 Indian budget 514
C. 1, 3, and 4 216. Which of the following is not the rate of
D. 1, 2, and 3 tax slab in the Union Budget 2020-21? (a)
10%(b) 15%(c) 25%(d) 40%
211. repayment of loan to the US government A. A
is
B. B
A. revenue receipt
C. C
B. capital receipt
D. D
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. revenue expenditure
217. In developing countries which type budjet
D. capital expenditure
that the government prepares?
212. What is the period of a fiscal year? A. Deficit
A. 1 April to 31 March B. Balanced
B. 1 January to 31 December C. Surplus
C. 1 March to 28 February D. Development
D. None of these 218. The expenditure which do not create as-
sets for the government is called
213. According to Article of the Indian Con-
stitution, the Union Budget of a year, also A. Revenue expenditure
referred to as the annual financial state- B. Capital expenditure
ment, is a statement of the estimated re-
C. Both (a) and (b)
ceipts and expenditure of the government
for that particular year. D. None of the above
A. 115 219. Ptrogressive tax is a tax whch is-
B. 170 A. Charged at decreasing rate when in-
C. 112 come of individual increase
D. 270 B. Charged at increaing rate when in-
come of individual increase
214. Who presents the Budget in the Parlia- C. A fixed percentage of an individual in-
ment? come
A. Home Minister D. none of these.
B. Prime Minister
220. Interest payment are subtracted from
C. Finance Minister which deficit to arrive at Primary Deficit:
D. President of India A. Revenue Deficit
215. Which of the following is a non tax B. Capital deficit
eceipts? C. Fiscal Deficit
A. Gift tax D. None of these
B. sale tax 221. How much amount has allocated for Rail-
C. Donations ways in union budget 2019-20?
D. Excise duty A. Rs 17, 645 crore
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9.7 Indian budget 515
B. Rs 64, 587 crore 227. Fill in the blankFiscal deficit-Primary
C. Rs 10, 247 crore deficit =
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D. Rs 18, 549 crore A. revenue deficit
B. borrowings requirements of the gov-
222. advertising looks at consumers as a ernment
heterogeneous group
C. capital expenditure
A. Lifestyle
D. interest payments
B. Rural
C. Ambush 228. pick the odd one out
D. none of above A. income tax
B. profit tax
223. We actively foster a culture of mutual
trust in our interactions with our stake C. import duty
holders and encourage an open dialogue D. gift tax
which ensures mutual respect:
229. is the expenditure which is related to
A. Entrepreneurship some specified plan for the year.
B. Care A. Plan expenditure
C. Trust B. Unplanned events
D. Integrity C. Capital expenditure
224. Which of the fololowing are the objective D. Revenue receipt
of government budget?
230. Revenue expenditure
A. Distrtibution of Income nd wealth
A. does not create any asset for the gov-
B. Economic stability ernment
C. GDP growth B. reduces liability of the government
D. all of these C. is non-recurring expenditure
225. test is based on the memory of the D. increases productive capacity of the
respondent economy
A. Reading 231. The number of operational airports has
B. Recall crossed 100 with the commissioning of the
C. Inquiry latest airport in which state?
D. Check list A. Manipur
B. Sikkim
226. In method of percentage of the price
per unit of items sold is allocated to adver- C. Mizoram
tising D. Nagaland
A. percentage of sales 232. Which statement(s) is/are correct re-
B. unit of sales garding revenue receipts?
C. task objective A. they reduce assets
D. none of above B. they create assets
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9.7 Indian budget 516
C. they reduce liability 237. A compulsory payment by citizens to the
government without expecting any direct
D. they do not create liability
benefit is called
233. What is the biggest source of Income A. Tax Revenue
for the Central Government in the Union B. Non Tax Revenue
Budget 2020-21? (a)Goods and Services
Tax(b)Corporation Tax(c)Income Tax (d) C. Direct Tax
Borrowings and other liabilities D. Indirect Tax
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. A 238. Fiscal deficit is equal to
B. B A. Direct tax
C. C B. Interest
D. D C. Borrowings
234. Which factor led to the breaking up of the D. All of these
stagnation of agriculture? 239. Who is the father of tax? ? ?
A. Land reforms A. Raja Jesudoss Chellian
B. Green revolution B. Jame Wilson
C. Buffer stock C. Babu Chipkey
D. Land ceiling D. none of above
235. Who approves the budget once its pre- 240. According to RBI, Since Independence
pared in 1947, India has faced four recession,
which of the following were the reasons
A. President of recession in India. 1.Balance payment
B. Prime MInister 2.Energy Crises 3.Drought 4.Oil shock
C. Parliament A. 1 only
D. none of above B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
236. Identify which of the following statement
is true? D. all of the above
A. Fiscal deficit is difference between 241. Which one of the following is not an ob-
planned revenue expenditure and planned jective of government budget?
revenue receipts. A. Reallocation of resources
B. Fiscal deficit is difference between to- B. Economic stability
tal planned expenditure and total planned
C. Increasing regional disparities
receipts
D. Economic growth
C. Primary deficit is the difference be-
tween total planned receipt and interest 242. Income tax refunds will be processed
payment within hours and released immedi-
D. Fiscal deficit is the sum of primary ately?
deficit and interest payment A. 12 hours
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9.7 Indian budget 517
B. 14 hours D. neither the input of resources nor the
C. 24 hours output of services
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D. 36 hours 248. Which country first introduced Budget? ?
?
243. The government borrows money from
RBI or directs to print additional currency A. China
to cover up
B. India
A. Public debt
C. England
B. Budget defecit
D. none of above
C. Deficit finance
D. Public finance 249. Escheats is an example of:
244. Recovery of loan is: A. Capital Receipts
A. Revenue receipt B. Revenue Receipts
B. Capital receipt C. Capital Expenditure
C. Revenue expenditure D. Revenue Expenditure
D. Capital expenditure
250. Under the Union Government’s new
245. Following is the feature of direct taxes scheme for the farmers, how much di-
rect income support will be provided in a
A. direct taxes are imposed on goods and
year?
services
B. their burden can be shifted to others A. Rs 8000
C. their impact and ultimate burden lie on B. Rs 5000
the same person C. c) Rs 6000
D. they tend to raise the price of goods D. d) Rs 9000
246. Previously one dollar was equal to 69 ru-
251. What is the target (in terms of GDP) of
pees, now the value of one dollar is equal
Fiscal Deficit for FY 2019-20?
to 85 rupees. What happens to value of
rupee A. 3.1%
A. Depreciated B. 3.5%
B. Appreciated C. 3.4%
C. Remained same D. 4.4%
D. None of the above
252. Our primary focus is delivering value of
247. A performance budget is one that reflects the highest standard to our stake holders:
for each unit of an organization.
A. Entrepreneurship
A. the input of resources
B. Excellence
B. both the input of resources and the out-
put of services C. Respect
C. the output of services D. Integrity
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9.7 Indian budget 518
253. Assertion:Highway and roads are an- 257. An expenditure the benefit of which is en-
nounced in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and West joyed for more than one financial year is
Bengal in Budget, 2021.Reason:Such an- known as:
nouncements will increase the revenue ex- A. Revenue expenditure
penditure of the Government.
B. Long term expenditure
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are
true and Reason (R ) is the correct expla- C. Extra ordinary expenditure
nation of the Assertion (A) D. Capital expenditure
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are 258. Revenue earned by government from the
true and Reason (R ) is not the correct ex- property without any legal heir is called;
planation of the Assertion (A)
A. Donation
C. Assertion (A) is true but the Reason (R
B. Escheat
) is false
C. Special assessment
D. Assertion (A) is false but the Reason (R
) is true D. Both bnc
254. when any commercial bank is unable 259. What does M in M Banking stands for.
to meet financial obligation then it ap- A. Monetary
proaches Central Bank for financial accom-
B. Money
modation this function of Central Bank is
called C. Modern
A. Banker of bank D. Mobile
B. Lander of last resort 260. Measuring advertising effectiveness is
C. Bank of Government the process of ad campaigns
A. Controlling
D. Controller of credit
B. evaluating
255. Progressive tax is a tex which is
C. monitoring
A. Charge at decreasing rate when in-
D. regulating
come of individual increase
B. Charge at increasing rate when in- 261. Which of the following are objectives of
come of individual increase budget?
C. A fixed percentage of an individual in- A. Reallocation of resources
come B. Redistribution of income
D. None of these C. Economic stability
D. All of these
256. Which of the following is a capital receipt
A. Income Tax 262. Tax collected is
B. Interest Income A. Revenue receipt
C. Sale of shares of a public sector under- B. Revenue expenditure
taking to Reliance Industries C. Capital expenditure
D. Dividends from a PSU D. NOTA
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9.7 Indian budget 519
263. The Union Budget 2020-21 aims:-I. To 268. Which of the following is not non tax rev-
achieve seamless delivery through digi- enue receipts of government?
tal governanceII. To improve the physical
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A. Excise duty
quality of life through national infrastruc-
ture pipeline(a) Only I(b)Only I, II(c) Only B. Escheat
II(d)Neither I or II C. Special assessment
A. A D. Fees and fines
B. B 269. The government has increased the Gratu-
C. C ity limit from Rs 10 lakh to Rs lakh?
D. D A. 22 Lakh
264. Union Budget keeps the account of the B. 25 Lakh
government’s finances for the fiscal year C. 30 Lakh
that runs from D. 40 Lakh‘
A. 31st April to 1st March of next year
270. is paid for
B. 1st April to 31st March of next year
A. Direct marketing
C. 1st March to 31st April of next year
B. Publicity
D. 1st January to 31st December of same
year C. Public relations
D. Advertorial
265. Who presented India’s first-ever Bud-
get? 271. Fiscal deficit is calculated as
A. James Wilson A. Revenue receipts-Revenue expendi-
B. C Rajgopalachari ture
C. Jawaharlal Nehru B. Total Revenue-Total expenditure
D. Lord Mountbatten C. (Revenue receipts+ Non-debt capital
receipts)-Total expenditure
266. According to Economics Survey of 2016- D. Primary deficit-interest payment.
17, which state had the highest growth of
Gross State Domestic Product(GSDP) 272. How was the Budget 20-21 presented
A. Kerala this time:
B. Maharashtra A. Ipad made in India
C. Gujarat B. Briefcase
D. Madhya pradesh C. Bahi khata
D. none of above
267. India is the fastest highway developer in
the whole world, how many km of high- 273. In which type of Budget expenditure is
ways are getting built each day? more than income .
A. 22 km A. Balanced
B. 25 km B. Deficit
C. 27 km C. Surplus
D. 12 km D. Imbalnced
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9.7 Indian budget 520
274. When money value is equal to commodity C. 1660
value it is called D. none of above
A. Fiat money
280. The non-tax revenue in the following is:
B. Credit money
A. Income Tax
C. Fiduciary money
B. Corporate Tax
D. Full bodied money C. Dividends
275. Which one of the following is a part of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Borrowings
capital expenditure?
281. Who is regarded as the father of eco-
A. Salary paid to government employees nomics?
B. Expenditure on construction of roads A. Adam smith
C. Pension paid to retired government B. John Maynard Keynes
employees
C. Karl Marx
D. Interest paid on national debt
D. Kautilya
276. When was green revolution started in in- 282. Till when the government wants to elim-
dia. inate the ‘Tuberculosis’? (a) 2030(b)
A. 1960s 2027(c) 2025(d) 2022
B. 1950s A. A
C. 1970s B. B
D. 2010s C. C
D. D
277. Which of the following are objectives of
government budget? 283. Capital receipts are shown on which side
A. Distribution of income and wealth of balance sheet
B. Economic stability A. Assets
C. GDP growth B. Liabilities
C. Both sides
D. All of these
D. none of above
278. ” Public finance is concerned with the in-
come and expenditure of public authorities 284. Who regulates finance market in India?
with the adjestment of one to another”. A. Ministry of Finance
was said by B. Reserve Bank of India
A. Dalton C. Ministry of trade and commerce
B. Collin Clark D. SEBI
C. Amarthyasen
285. Payment of loan is:
D. Maier and Baldwin
A. Revenue expenditure
279. When was budgeting invented? ? ? B. Capital expenditure
A. 1760 C. Revenue receipts
B. 1860 D. Capital receipts
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9.7 Indian budget 521
286. While financing a deficit, under which 291. The common goals of five year plans are:
measure government can print more cur- A. Modernisation
rency:
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B. Growth
A. Deficit financing
B. Disinvestment C. Self-reliance
C. By issuing bonds D. All of the above
D. none of them 292. What is the largest item of expen-
287. Surplus budget is that budget wherein diture(in terms of percentage) in the
Union Budget 2020-21? (a)Interest pay-
ments(b)State’s share of taxes and du-
A. Estimated revenue of the govern- ties(c) Defence Expenditure (d)None of the
ment< estimated expenditure of the gov- above
ernment
A. A
B. Estimated revenue of the government
> estimate expenditure of the govern- B. B
ment C. C
C. Estimated revenue of the government D. D
= estimated expenditure of the govern-
ment 293. Which of the following is not the objec-
D. None of these tive of Indian Budget? I. To managed and
proper distribution of resources II. To re-
288. In which year India adopted High Yielding duce inequalities in income and wealth III.
Varieties programme for the first time? To achieve social stability Code:
A. 1977 A. Only I
B. 1966
B. Only II
C. 1986
C. Only III
D. 1956
D. Neither I nor II
289. Which Kisan yojana was launched re-
cently by the Union Government in the pre- 294. Subsidies are an example of:
sentation of Budget 2019? A. Revenue expenditure
A. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
B. Capital expenditure
B. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Yojana
C. Plan expenditure
C. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Yojana
D. None of them
D. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sichai Yojana
295. Viral marketing is a form of advertis-
290. The government withdraws its invest-
ing
ment from its own industries is called
A. Investment A. television
B. Disinvestment B. outdoor
C. Privatisation of industries C. print
D. Closure of industries D. digital
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 522
9.8 Development Authority (IRDA)
1. Which of the following is not an element C. Falling off a horse
of the life insurance business D. Surgery
A. Asset
6. Providing social security is the obligation
B. Risk of
C. Principle of Mutuality A. State
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Subsidy B. Insurance companies
2. Government of India transacts life insur- C. Private companies
ancebusiness in India through which of the D. Individuals
following
7. When is it essential for Insurable Interest
A. LIC of India to be present in case of life Insurance
B. GIC of India A. At the time of taking out Insurance
C. Postal Life Insurance B. At the time of Claim
D. All the above. C. Insurable Interest is not required in
case of Life Insurance
3. Life Insurance covers the risk of-
D. Either at the time of policy purchase or
A. Dying too early at the time of Claim
B. Living too longer
8. Considering insuring an ordinary ball pen
C. Both are correct is anexample of-
D. Both are wrong A. Don’t risk more than you can afford to
lose
4. THE TERM WHICH IS USED IN CASE OF LIFE
INSURANCE COMPANIES( WHEN A POLI- B. Don’t risk a lot for a little
CYHOLDER IS NOT IN A POSITION TO PAY C. Both are correct
THE FUTURE PREMIUMS ON HIS POLICY D. Both are wrong
)?
9. Cost of the risk would with the proba-
A. REINSURANCE
bility andamount of loss
B. ANNUITIES
A. Increase
C. SURRENDER B. Decrease
D. BONUS C. Vary
5. Find out proximate cause of death in the D. None of the above
following scenario. Ajay falls off a horse
10. Which is not a capacity to enter into con-
and breaks his back.He lies there in a pool
tract?
of water and contacts Pneumonia.He is
admitted to hospital and dies because of A. Minor
Pneumonia B. Major
A. Pneumonia C. Sound mind
B. Broken Back D. Not disqualified under law
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 523
11. Lease Hold ground rents are shown in D. Only when Insured has incurred some
A. Revenue a/c loss
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B. P & L a/c 16. Who controls the capital market of India?
C. Schedule 8 Investments A. SEBI
D. Schedule 9 loans B. RBI
12. For the year 2008, 2009, 2010 if the C. IRDA
rate of gross profit were 15%, 20%, and D. NABARD
18%respectively, then the rate of Aver-
age gross profit for the year 2011 will 17. Number of Schedules to be prepared by In-
be: surance companies for their Financial state-
ment are:
A. 15%
A. 26 Schedules
B. 18.75%
B. 10 Schedules
C. 17.67%
C. 12 Schedules
D. 53%
D. 15 Schedules
13. involves pressure applied through
criminal means 18. Which of the following reasons is not re-
sponsible for the ups and downs in the Sen-
A. Fraud sex?
B. Undue Influence A. Rain
C. Coercion B. Monetary Policy
D. Mistake C. Political instability
14. Who among the following is best advised D. None of the above
to purchase a term plan
19. The losses of a few are shared among
A. An individual who needs money at the many throughthe mechanism of-
end of Insurance term
A. Nuclear family
B. An individual who needs insurance and
has a high budget B. Insurance
C. An individual who needs insurance and C. Government
has a low budget D. All the above
D. An individual who needs an insurance 20. Claims paid by LIC is shown in:
product that gives high returns
A. Schedule 1
15. In Life Insurance, the policy amount is B. Schedule 2
payable
C. Schedule 3
A. After the death of the Insured
D. Schedule 4
B. After the expiry of policy period
C. On the death of the Insured or an ex- 21. WHO REGULATES INSURANCE SECTOR IN
piry of policy period whichever is earlier INDIA?
A. RBI
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 524
B. SEBI A. Deflation
C. IRDA B. Inflation
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE C. Stagflation
22. In commercial contracts, the principle to be D. Hyperinflation
observedis- 27. means every party to an insurance
A. Caveat Emptor contractmust disclose all material informa-
tion.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Indemnity
A. Insurable Interest
C. Proximity
B. Indemnity
D. Uberrima Fides
C. Proximity
23. Which of the below is the advantage of
D. Uberrima Fides
cash value contracts
A. Returns subject to corroding effect of 28. As per HLV concept, the amount of insur-
inflation ance onecan buy could be times of
one’s annual income
B. Low accumulation in earlier years
A. 5 to 10 times
C. Lower Yields
B. 10 to 15 times
D. Secure Investment
C. 25 to 50 times
24. Which of the following is correct? State- D. 50 to 100 times
ment A-Insurance reduces burdensState-
ment B-Insurance is a system of mutu- 29. rserve is a reserve to be created to
alsupport.Statement C-Insurance the only meet any loss due to Natural Calamities,
method tomanage risks A. General Reserve
A. A is correct B. Capital Reserve
B. B is correct C. Revenue Reserve
C. A, B & C correct D. Catastrophe Reserve
D. A & B correct
30. Life insurance policy, in general, is a mix-
25. Which of the following is correct? State- ture of-
ment A. The system of insurance bene- A. Protection and security
fitsindividual, family and the societyState-
B. Insurance and Assurance
ment B. Insurance companies could invest
inspeculative ventures. C. Protection and Savings
A. A is correct D. Protection and Tax relief
B. B is correct 31. Material facts are those that would help
C. Both A and B correc the insurer todecide:
D. A & B wrong A. The acceptability of risk
B. The rate of premium to be charged
26. is a rise in the general level of prices
of goods and services in an economy over C. Both A and B correct
a period of time D. None are correct
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 525
32. Human Life Value can be arrived at by di- 38. HLV concept helps to determine the lim-
viding by itbeyond which life insurance could be spec-
ulative.
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Gross earnings, Rate of interest
B. Net earnings, Gross earnings A. Upper
C. Gross earnings, Net earnings B. Lower
D. Net earnings, Rate of interest C. Middle
33. Insurance business in india is now regu- D. All the above
lated by the provisions of:
39. A fire insurance policy is taken out to in-
A. The Insurance Act 1938
demnify/ recover:
B. The IRDA act 1999
A. Capital losses and revenue losses of
C. The Banking Regulation Act 1949 tangible assets
D. The Indian Companies Act 1956
B. Revenue losses of tangible assets
34. The balance found in the revenue account C. Capital losses of intangible assets
of LIC is considered as
D. None of the above
A. Net Profit / Net Loss
B. Surplus / Deficit 40. INSURANCE BUSINESS IS CONTROLLED
C. Life Assurance Fund BY?
D. Gross Profit / Gross Loss A. INSURANCE ACT 1938
35. What does inter temporal allocation of re- B. INSURANCE RULES 1939
sources mean? C. IRDA REGULATION 2002
A. Allocation of resources over time D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
B. Postponing allocation of resources un-
til time is right 41. life insurance pays off a policy hold-
ers mortgage in the event of the persons
C. Temporary allocation of resources
death
D. Diversification of resource allocation
A. Term
36. Who devised the concept of HLV
B. Mortgage
A. Dr.Martin Luther King
C. Whole
B. Warren Buffet
D. Endowment
C. Prof Hubener
D. George Soros 42. means that insurer would assess and
compensateonly the exact amount of loss.
37. A valuation Balance sheet is prepared by
A. Certainty
A. Joint stock company
B. Banking Company B. Uncertainty
C. Life Insurance Company C. Probability
D. General Insurance Company D. Indemnity
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 526
43. Risk Retention means- B. Greater the Investment horizon, larger
A. Insuring with an insurance company the returns
B. Insuring with another individual C. Greater the Investment horizon,
smaller the returns
C. Insuring with the owner of the com-
pany D. Greater the Investment horizon, more
D. Self-insurance tax on the returns
NARAYAN CHANGDER
44. Which is not an element of a valid con- 49. The difference between standard turnover
tract? and actual turnover during the indemnity
A. Offer and Acceptance period is:
B. Capacity to pay premiums A. None of the below
C. Consideration B. Short Sales
D. Capacity of the parties
C. Actual Sales
45. Secondary burden of risk consists of D. Total Sales
and one has to bear if exposed to loss
situation
50. Which is the ‘consideration’ from the in-
A. Trials, tribulations sured in aninsurance contract?
B. Costs, Strains A. Premium
C. Situations, Safeguards
B. Proposal
D. Circumstances, Conflicts
C. Understanding
46. With increase in premium with age,
healthy peopletended to withdraw leav- D. Acceptance
ing unhealthy people. Thislead to devel-
opment of- 51. What is not prohibited in the latest Insur-
ance Amendments
A. Gross premiums
B. Single premiums A. Rebates
C. Advance premiums B. Multi Level Marketing
D. Level premiums C. Sharing of Commission
47. In decreasing term insurance, the premi- D. Commission
ums paid over time
A. Increase 52. refers to the amount payable by the
insurer to the insured when the policy be-
B. Decrease
come due for payment.
C. Remain Constant
A. Premium
D. Are Returned
B. Claim
48. What is the relation between Investment
horizon and returns C. Commission
A. Both are not related at all D. Expenses
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 527
53. Which of the following is incorrect? Mu- 58. is an annual guaranteed and paid by
tuality means funds from variousindividu- the Insurance company as long as the in-
als are combinedB. Diversification means sured is alive .
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spreading out funds tovarious destina- A. Annuity
tions.
B. Premium
A. A is correct
C. Bonus
B. B is correct
D. Commission
C. Both
59. Which element of a valid contract deals
D. None with premium
54. Appropriations like interim dividend, pro- A. Offer and Acceptance
posed final dividend in GIC business are B. Consideration
shown in
C. Free Consent
A. P & L Appropriation A/c
D. Capacity of parties to Contract
B. Revenue A/C
60. Which among the following is a method of
C. Profit & Loss A/c risk transfer?
D. Trading A/c A. Bank FD
55. Consent is not said to be free when it is B. Insurance
caused by C. Equity shares
A. Coercion D. Real estate
B. Fraud 61. Which among the following is a secondary
C. Misrepresentation burden of risk?
D. All the above A. Business interruption cost
B. Goods damaged cost
56. Which of the following is the regulator of
insurance sector in India? C. Setting aside reserves as a provision
for meeting potential losses in the future
A. SEBI
D. Hospitalization costs as a result of
B. IRDA heart attack
C. RBI
62. Out of 400 houses, each valued at Rs. 20,
D. AMFI 000, on an average 4 houses get burnt ev-
ery year resulting in a combined loss of
57. Which is not an example of social security Rs. 80, 000. What should be the annual
schemesof the Government? contribution of each house owner to make
A. Rajeev Gandhi Equity Scheme good this loss?
B. Janata Personal Accident A. Rs.100/-
C. Jan Arogya Scheme B. Rs.200/-
D. Employees State Insurance Corpora- C. Rs.80/-
tion D. Rs.400/-
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 528
63. Which among the following is the tradi- B. This is the date on which the contract
tional method that can help determine the between the person and insurance com-
Insurance needed by an individual pany will come to an end
A. Human Economic Value C. This is the date on which the policy
B. Life Term Proposition holder will have to submit his/her claim
seeking the amount of the policy. Other-
C. Human Life Value
wise the company will not make any pay-
D. Future Life Value ment to him/her
NARAYAN CHANGDER
64. Fire Insurance is a classification under D. None of these
insurance
69. SCHEDULE NO. 3 CONSISTS OF?
A. Life
B. General A. PREMIUM
C. Both of the above B. COMMISSION
D. None of the above C. OPERATING EXPENSES
65. This principle means flow of resources D. CLAIMS INCURRED
from many to one.
70. Cost of the risk is product of which of the
A. Mutuality or Pooling following 2factors:
B. Mutuality or co-operation
A. Insurance and Assurance
C. Pooling or funding
B. Happenings and result
D. Resourcing or pooling
C. Cause and effect
66. Which of the following types of compa-
nies/organisations issue ULIP? D. Probability and impact
A. Insurance companies 71. Considering insuring an oil refinery is ex-
B. Banks ample of
C. NABARD A. Don’t risk more than you can afford to
D. RBI lose
B. Don’t risk a lot for a little
67. RESERVES FOR UNEXPIRED RISK FOR
BUSINESS IS? C. Both are correct
A. 25% D. Both are wrong
B. 50%
72. An individual with Aggressive Risk profile
C. 75%
is likely to follow wealth investment
D. 100% style
68. In Insurance policies we always find a date A. Consolidation
which is “Date of Maturity”. What does B. Gifting
it mean?
C. Accumulation
A. This is the date on which the policy was
sold to the customer/person insured D. Spending
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 529
73. In General Insurance the policy amount is 78. Which component is not a part of capital
payable: market?
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A. After the death of the Insured A. Debt Market
B. After the expiry of the policy period B. Equity Market
C. Only when the loss occurs or the liabil- C. Insurance Market
ity arises D. Derivative Market
D. Only when insured has attained cer- 79. The bonus which is to be paid on matu-
tain Age rity of policy along with policy amount is
known as
74. Which of the following TERM does not be-
long to the stock exchange? A. Reversionary Bonus
A. NAV B. Annual Bonus
B. KPO C. Interim Bonus
C. IPO D. Eventual Bonus
D. NSE 80. The proposal form contains
A. Personal details
75. An Insurance contract has to fulfill the re-
quirements of B. physical condition
A. Insurance Act 1938 C. habits and pastimes
B. IRDA Act, 1999 D. all of the above
C. LIC Act, 1956 81. Which of the following entity is exempt
from thepurview of the IRDA?
D. Indian Contract Act, 1872
A. LIC of India
76. Which is evidence of contract? B. GIC of India
A. Proposal C. Postal Life Insurance
B. First Premium Receipt D. None.
C. Deposit amount
82. Fire insurance provides cover for:
D. Policy bond A. Intangible assets
77. Which of the following is untrue? A. Insur- B. Fictitious assets
ance promotes efficient use of existingre- C. Tangible assets
sourcesB. Insurance contributes to healthy
economy andnational productivityC. Insur- D. Business employees
ance policy can be used as a collateralsecu- 83. Which of the following can easily be com-
rity pensatedthro’ insurance?
A. A is true A. Primary burden of risk
B. B is true B. Secondary burden of risk
C. A and B true C. Both
D. None D. None
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 530
84. The emergence of which of the following B. Benefits paid
necessitatesinsurance as a form of secu-
C. Claims
rity?
D. Operating Expenses
A. Joint family system
B. Nuclear family system 90. Risk Financing includes-
C. Both the above A. Risk Retention
D. None of the above B. Risk Transfer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
85. Risk Transfer means- C. A & B correct
A. Insuring with an insurance company D. Both A & B wrong
B. Insuring with another individual
91. Which is not a contract of indemnity?
C. Insuring with the owner of the com-
pany A. Personal Accident
D. Risk retention B. Fire
C. Marine
86. Agents balances (Dr) is shown in the bal-
ance sheet of LIC are D. Motor
A. Current Liabilities 92. Origins of modern insurance business can
B. Other Assets be traced to
C. Fixed Assets A. Bottomry
D. Borrowing B. Lloyds
87. Preliminary expenses incurred by life in- C. Rhodes
surance companies is treated as D. Malhotra Committee
A. Miscelleneous Expenditure
93. Which among the following is the regula-
B. A deduction from paid up share capital
tor for the insurance industry in India?
C. a Fixed Assets A. Insurance Authority of India
D. an operating expenses B. Insurance Regulatory and Develop-
ment Authority of India
88. The type of market in which securities with
C. Life Insurance Corporation of India
less than one-year maturity is traded, is
classified as: D. General Insurance Corporation of In-
dia
A. Money Market
B. Capital Market 94. When is the best time to start financial
C. Transaction Market planning?
D. Global Market A. Post Retirement
B. As soon as one gets his first salary
89. In LIC Revenue account, Schedule 4 is
named as C. After Marriage
A. Premium D. Only after one gets rich
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 531
95. consists of collecting premiums from A. 30, 000
numerousindividuals to compensate the B. 12, 000
few who may sufferlosses
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C. 42, 000
A. Pooling
D. Insufficient information
B. Contract
C. Guarantee 101. Insurance refers to protection against an
event that happen whereas Assurance
D. IRDA
refers to protectionagainst an event that
96. The commission received from the re- happen.
insurer is called A. may, may not
A. Commission on reinsurance accepted B. might, will
B. Commission on reinsurance ceded C. must, need not
C. Commission on Direct Business D. will, will not
D. None of the above
102. The policy period in General Insurance is
97. Which of the below cannot be categorized
under risks? A. 1 year
A. Dying too young B. 10-15 years
B. Dying too early
C. 5-10 years
C. Natural wear and Tear
D. 1-5 years
D. Living with disability
103. The average clause in a loss of profit pol-
98. The money market where debt and stocks icy protects the
are traded and maturity period is more
A. Insurance company
than a year is classified as:
A. Shorter term markets B. Insuree
B. Capital Markets C. Insurer
C. Counter markets D. Insurance agent
D. Long-term markets 104. Which are the methods to manage risks?
99. How many companies are included in the A. Risk Avoidance
SENSEX of India? B. Risk Retention
A. 30 C. Risk Reduction
B. 50 D. All the above
C. 111
105. How life insurance is possible?
D. 25
A. Timing of death is certain
100. If the indemnity period is six months, Pre- B. Timing of death is uncertain
vious year sale during indemnity is 20,
000, Annual sales is 50, 000, sales dur- C. Death is certain but its timing is uncer-
ing indemnity period (Current year) is 8, tain
000, then short sales amount will be: D. None of the above
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9.8 Development Authority (IRDA) 532
106. Human Life Value concept measures the C. Stock prices may fall drastically
value of ahuman life on the basis of his- D. A house may lose value due to natural
A. Gross earnings wear and tear
B. Net earnings 112. Which of the following is correct? Life
C. Total earnings insurance is a long term contractGeneral
D. Expenses insurance is a short term contract
A. A is correct
and refer to measures to reduce
NARAYAN CHANGDER
107.
chance ofoccurrence and measures to re- B. B is correct
duce degree of losses. C. Both A and B correct
A. Loss Prevention, Loss damage D. None
B. Loss Control, Loss management 113. The person who makes the offer is called
C. Loss advantage, Loss prevention the and the person who accepts the
D. Loss Prevention, Loss Reduction offer in an insurancecontract is called the
108. If any condition is put by the Insurer then A. Offerer, Acceptor
it is-
B. Insurer, Insured
A. Acceptance
C. Proposer, Insured
B. Offer
D. Proposer, Insurer
C. Counter offer
D. Conditional acceptance 114. In which type of contract, the happen-
ing of event iscertain but its timing is not
109. RESERVES FOR UNEXPIRED RISK FOR known
MARINE BUSINESS IS? A. Life Insurance
A. 25% B. General Insurance
B. 50% C. Both
C. 75% D. None
D. 100%
115. Risk reduction and control involves steps
110. Which was the first Act to regulate life like-
insuranceindustry in India? A. Education and training
A. Insurance Act, 1938 B. Making environmental changes
B. Life Insurance Companies Act, 1912 C. Spreading out items to various loca-
C. IRDA Act, 1999 tions
D. LIC Act, 1956 D. All the above
111. Which among the following scenarios 116. Which of the following is Incorrect
warrants insurance? A. An Agent is expected to inform the In-
A. The sole bread winner of a family surer all relevant facts about the prospect
might die untimely
B. A person may lose his wallet B. Advice the prospect on nomination
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9.9 Foreign policy 533
C. Offer rates different than those of- A. Money
fered by Insurer
B. Property
D. Render assistance in Claim settlement
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C. Bribe
117. Which of the following is not a valid con-
sideration for a contract D. Jewelry
9.9 Foreign policy
1. was India’s policy in the face of the 6. Jawaharlal Nehru outlined foreign policy
bipolar order of the cold war. of India. Expressed it on radio speech on
A. Alignment A. Sept 7, 1950
B. Agreement B. Sept 7, 1951
C. Non alignment C. Sept 7, 1946
D. None of the above D. Sept 7, 1947
2. The countries which have not signed in the 7. is the instrument for implementing for-
Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty eign policy of a state.
and Non-Proliferation Treaty are
A. Harmony
A. India and Israel
B. Diplomacy
B. India and Pakistan
C. Belief
C. India and Iran
D. Co operator
D. India and China
8. The 20 years friendship treaty between In-
3. Apartheid is
dia and Russia was signed in
A. An international association
A. 1970
B. Energy diplomacy
B. 1971
C. A policy of racial discrimination
C. 1972
D. None of these
D. 1962
4. Which of the article of Indian constitution
advocates for a foreign policy? 9. India conducted its first nuclear test at
A. Article 21 A. Delhi
B. Article 370 B. Hyderabad
C. Article 15 C. Pokhran
D. Article 51 D. Chennai
5. This is not a part of South Asia 10. The idea of 5 year plan was taken from
A. Sri lanka A. United States
B. Maldives B. Soviet Union
C. Indonesia C. China
D. Zimbabwe D. Israel
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9.9 Foreign policy 534
11. The principle which is followed by India in 17. India’s diplomatic relationship with Israel
the time of Cold War is known as. formally developed
A. Non Allied Policy A. after they gained independence from
B. panchasheela policy British Government
C. colonialism policy B. after the opening of Israeli embassy in
India in 1992
D. Apartheid policy
C. after the formation of the NDA govern-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
12. The cold War was started between the ment in 1996
Groups of.
D. after the exchange of the visits of two
A. USA AND CHINA leader in 1017 & 2018
B. USSR AND USA
18. The is a set of five principles to guide
C. USA AND UK the conduct of foreign relations with In-
D. UK AND USSR dia’s immediate neighbours.
A. Panchsheel
13. India adopted the following ideas from
USSR B. The Gujral Doctrine
A. Socialism C. Look East Policy
B. Capitalism D. None of the above
C. Communism 19. An intention of ruling another country for
D. Democracy personal gain is called
14. The democratic countries were leaded by. A. Communism
A. UK B. Colonialism
B. USA C. Imperialism
C. India D. Communalism
D. USSR 20. This is what Indian Prime Minister Nehru
and Chinese Prime Minister Chou En Loi
15. Who outlined the foreign policy of India for
called the principles adopted in 1954 for
the first time to general public?
world peace and development of interna-
A. Mahatma Gandhiji. tional relations.
B. Jawaharlal Nehru A. A)Principles of democracy
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad B. b) Socialist principles
D. None of these C. c) Panchasila principles
16. India opposes Apartheid policy because D. d)None of the above
A. It is against World 21. The country which is not under any other
B. It leads to War country’s control either for internal or ex-
C. It leads to communalism ternal is Known as.
D. Apartheid is a affront to human rights, A. Wealthy County
world peace B. Country Under Control
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9.9 Foreign policy 535
C. Sovereign Country 27. Arrange the following events in the correct
D. Non Sovereignty County chronological sequence from the earlier to
the latest:(a) First nuclear test conducted
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22. Why was the Nuclear Non-Proliferation by India.(b) Twenty year treaty of peace
Treaty signed? and relationship between India and Soviet
Union.(c) The Tashkent Agreement.(d) The
A. To disarm countries with nuclear Panchsheel declaration.
weapons
A. a c d b
B. To prevent the spread of nuclear
weapons B. c d b a
C. To regulate the use of nuclear power C. d c b a
for energy D. d c a b
D. To make nuclear technology accessi- 28. The Dharavi slum in is one of the
ble to all nations largest slums in the world
23. The process of elimination of specific arms A. Bombay
step by step is called B. Calcutta
A. Disarmament C. Delhi
B. Armament D. Chennai
C. Arm race
29. When did the United Nations form?
D. Race
A. 1945
24. Indian Foreign policy is also Known as. B. 1947
A. Indira Gandhi foreign policy C. 1949
B. Gandhi foreign policy D. 1948
C. Nehru foreign policy
30. Which is not related to India’s foreign pol-
D. Non alliance Gandhi foreign policy icy
A. World co operation
25. India US relationship was not good during
B. World peace
A. During Cold War period
C. Racial equality
B. Post Cold War period
D. Colonialism
C. Before WWII
D. none of above 31. African National Congress founded by
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
26. Discrimination of race on the basis of skin
colour is called B. MK Gandhi
A. Apartheid policy C. Nelson Mandela
B. Communalism D. Dr BR Ambedkar
C. Social stratification 32. Non-Alliance means
D. Racism A. Being neutral
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9.9 Foreign policy 536
B. Freedom to decide on issues indepen- 38. Find the odd one
dently A. Social welfare
C. Demilitarisation B. Healthcare
D. None of the above C. Diplomacy
33. Leaders of Asia, Africa and of nations part D. Domestic office
of the Non-Aligned movement met at
in 1955 39. The wars held in 1965 and 1971 with Pak-
istan were guided by policy.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Belgrade, Yugoslovia
A. Anti imperialism.
B. Bandung, Indonesia
B. Anti apartheid policy.
C. Accra, Ghana
C. Non aligned movement policy.
D. Giza, Egypt
D. Disarmament policy
34. The panchsheel treaty was signed be-
tween 40. Which is not related to our foreign policy
A. India and Nepal A. World co operation
B. Indian and Pakistan B. World peace
C. India and China C. Racial equality
D. India and Sri Lanka D. Colonialism
35. The process of elimination of specific arms 41. The agreement signed by India and China
step by step is know as, in 1954 related to
A. Non aligned movement A. Trade and commerce
B. Imperialism. B. Restoration of normal relations
C. Disarmament C. Cultural exchange programs
D. Anti apartheid policy. D. The five principles of Co-existence
36. Which country declared, “ No corner of 42. elections occured (till now) since India
world shall have imperialism “ in Asian got independenceHint:Ans = Elections held
countries conference? till 2007 + Elections held between 2007
and 2019 and the number of representa-
A. Pakistan tives who died during their time in the of-
B. America fice (which is 4)
C. India A. 13
D. China B. 12
37. The strategy of maintaining relationship C. 16
with other country D. 17
A. National interest 43. Article 12 to 35 of Indian Constitution ad-
B. Foreign relations vocates.
C. Foreign policy A. Fundamental duties
D. Core values B. Fundamental Rights
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9.9 Foreign policy 537
C. Right to Property C. 1950’s
D. Opposing Armed race D. 1960’s
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44. The article deals with foreign policy of In- 50. The communist countries were leaded by.
dia is. A. UK
A. article 51 B. USA
B. article 55 C. India
C. article 52 D. USSR
D. article 17
51. Panchasheel principles accepted by India
45. Which minister plays a vital role in the and china in
molding foreign policy of our country? A. 1954
A. Defence Minister B. 1950
B. Prime Minister C. 1956
C. External Affairs Minister D. 1960
D. Home Minister 52. Non-military shoes offer
46. “Eye for an eye” policy followed by in A. Energy security
India’s foreign policy B. Water security
A. Jawaharlal Nehru and Vajapeye C. Pandemics
B. Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira Gandhi D. All the above
C. Vajapeye and Shastri
53. Bolshviks were led by
D. Indira Gandhi and Shastri
A. Vladamir Putin
47. Which of the following country is not a B. Vladamir Lenin
founder of NAM?
C. Mikhail Gorbachev
A. Yugoslavia
D. Tsar Nicholas II
B. Indonesia
54. India and China accepted the Panchasheela
C. Egypt
principles in,
D. Pakistan
A. 1998
48. The US supported India in B. 1897
A. 1971 war C. 1954
B. 1962 war D. 1960
C. 1975 war 55. American war of independence is an exam-
D. none of above ple to fight for.
49. By , Most of the countries sign up for A. Fundamental duties
the non-alignment movement B. Opposing apartheid policy
A. 1970’s C. Against Arms race
B. 1980’s D. Human rights
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9.9 Foreign policy 538
56. India is opposite of Imperialism.Because 62. At present our foreign policy acts as
A. It gained its independence from an Im- a means to generate for domestic
perial country growth and development
B. Indian people suffered a lot A. Outward investment
C. British exploited Indians B. Inward investment
D. It’s against human rights C. Selling
57. led the Indian delegation to the United
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Buying
Nation
A. Krishna Menon 63. Who tried to make allies with the US and
B. Jawaharlal Nehru tried to stop the cold war?
C. TS Tirumurti A. Ronald Reagen
D. Natarajan Krishnan B. Joseph Stalin
58. Who fought against the practice of anti C. Mikhail Gorbachev
apartheid policy in South Africa?
D. Josip Broz Tito
A. Dr.B.R. Ambedkar.
B. Jawaharlal Nehru 64. The Personalities who signed the Pan-
chasheela Principles were.
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Nelson Mandela. A. Nehru and Gandhiji
59. Our tradition and national ethos is to prac- B. Gandhi and Chou-Enloi
tice C. Nehru and Mao-tse-tung
A. Fighting
D. Nehru and Chou-Enloi
B. Nuclear weapons
C. Disarmament 65. The formed the bedrock of this foreign
policy.
D. Armed forces
A. Non-Alignment movement
60. Who initiated the non alignment move-
ment? B. Quit India movement
A. Jawaharlal Nehru C. People’s Movement Against Nuclear
B. Josip Broz Tito Energy
C. Gamal Abdel Nasser D. Non violence movement
D. Kwame Nkrumah
66. While framing the foreign policy Is
61. The Father of the Indian nuclear pro- kept in mind
gramme is
A. Country’s might
A. APJ Abdul kalam
B. Country’s courage
B. JC bose
C. Homi J bhabha C. Country’s wealth
D. CNR Rao D. National interest
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9.10 Government Initiatives 539
67. The Non-Alliance movement urged con- D. Article 53
tries
71. Indian Foreign policy is also Known as
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A. to join either of the two major alliance
Nehru Foreign policy because.
A. Nehru is prime minister
B. to remain isolated from the world and
all of its ongoing problems B. Nehru formulated the foreign policy.
C. to remain nuetral and have good ties C. Gandhi openion to call like
with both the major alliances D. Nehru is the first Prime minister
D. to play an active role in mediating be-
tween the alliances 72. Which Former Prime Minister declared In-
dia as a ‘nuclear state’?
68. When was the first nuclear test conducted A. PV Narasimha Rao
by India?
B. VP Singh
A. April 1975
C. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
B. May 1974
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. January 1965
D. December 1968 73. Which place is referred to as a historical
buffer between India and China
69. What was the assigned code name for the
1st nuclear tests conducted by India? A. Tibet
A. Operation Shakti B. Nepal
B. Smiling Buddha C. Nathu-LA
C. Operation Pokhran D. none of above
D. Nuclear Ops 74. The panchsheel treaty has been signed be-
tween
70. Which article of Indian constitution directs
to adopt foreign policy? A. India and Nepal
A. Article 50 B. Indian and Pakistan
B. Article 51 C. India and China
C. Article 52 D. India and Sri Lanka
9.10 Government Initiatives
1. Has to determine the source of finance India will provide 0.5 % incentive on
for funding the venture transaction amount for retailers, who ac-
A. Intrapreneur cept digital payments based on biometric
authentication. What is the name of the
B. Manager scheme?
C. Enterpreneur
A. BHIM-Cashback Scheme for mer-
D. Promoter chants
2. A promotional scheme of Government of B. BHIM-Referral Bonus Scheme for mer-
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9.10 Government Initiatives 540
chants 7. What is the professed role of Digital India
Programme?
C. BHIM-Aadhaar Promotional Scheme
A. Faceless, Cashless & Paperless
D. All of the above
B. Hassel free, Cashless & Paperless
3. What is the Vision of Digital India Pro- C. Faceless, Cashless & Digital
gramme?
D. None of the above
A. To provide the citizens of India seam-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
less digital payments 8. RBI has revised the criteria for categori-
B. To provide the citizens of India seam- sation of merchants for charging different
less mobile payments MDRs. What is the basis of categorisa-
tion?
C. To provide the citizens of India seam-
less online payments A. Annual Turnover
D. All of the above B. Annual Profit
C. Annual Number of Transactions
4. Digital Jagriti programme of Government
D. Both Second and Third options are cor-
of India, is conducted by Common Service
rect
Centre. What is the purpose of Digital
Jagriti? 9. Make in India initiative was launched in
A. Increasing Digital Transactions A. April 2014
B. Creating Awareness for Digital Finan- B. September 2014
cial Inclusion and Access
C. May 2014
C. Creating Awareness about various
forms of electronic payments D. None of these
D. Developing Apps for Digital Transac- 10. RBI has relaxed norms on Additional
tions Factor Authentication for certain digital
payments upto Rs.2000 per transaction.
5. Entrepreneur has to include the mechanism What is the effect of this?
for managing the venture in the
A. It will be applicable to Card Present
A. Project report Cases
B. Statutory license B. It will be applicable to only Contactless
Cards
C. Both a and b
C. Both first and the second options are
D. None of these
correct
6. has to include the mechanism for man- D. Neither the First nor the Second option
aging venture in the project report is correct.
A. Banker 11. A promotional scheme of Government of
B. Government India will provide 0.5 % incentive on
transaction amount for retailers, who ac-
C. Lending institution
cept digital payments based on biomet-
D. Entrepreneur ric authentication. What is the maximum
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9.10 Government Initiatives 541
amount of each transaction to be eligible A. 8% on cash Turnover
for incentive? B. 6% on digital Turnover
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A. Rs, 1, 000/- C. Both First and Second Options are cor-
B. Rs.2, 000/- rect
C. Rs.3, 000/- D. Neither of First or Second option is cor-
D. Rs.5, 000/- rect.
12. To encourage digital payments, all the 16. Has to choose suitable plot of accom-
government departments have to make e- modating his venture
payments to suppliers for bills above for A. Entrepreneur
Rs.5, 000/-. Which Ministry has been B. Intrapreneur
made responsible to monitor progress in
this field? C. Manager
A. Ministry of Finance (MoF) D. Promoter
B. Ministry of Electronics and Informa- 17. Stand up India was launched in
tion Technology (MeitY) A. 2015
C. Reserve Bank of India, (RBI) B. 2016
D. None of the above C. 2017
13. If a retail merchant generates minimum 50 D. 2018
transactions through BHIM app, he will be
getting incentive of maximum Rs.1000/- 18. National skill development mission was
per calendar month. What is the name of unveiled in
the scheme? A. March 2014
A. BHIM-Cashback Scheme for mer- B. September 2014
chants C. March 2015
B. BHIM-Referral Bonus Scheme for mer- D. July 2015
chants
C. BHIM-Aadhaar Promotional Scheme 19. is a foremost challenge facing India.
D. All of the above A. New programmes
B. Innovation
14. Oil Marketing companies are offering in-
centives for those who are using various C. Job creation
digital payment systems. Who are the D. None of these
beneficiaries?
20. Digital Payment system which was the vi-
A. The consumers & Merchants sion of Digital India, shall have the follow-
B. Consumers ing qualities.
C. Consumers and the Acquirers A. Convenient, easy and affordable
D. None of the above B. Quick and secured
15. What is the Income Tax assessment rules C. Both first and second option
on turnover basis upto Rs.2 crores? D. Either first or second option
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9.11 Unification of India 542
21. Entrepreneurs has to obtain From the C. Creating Awareness about various
authority concerned forms of electronic payments
A. Municipal license D. Developing Apps for Digital Transac-
B. Project report tions
C. Provisional registration certificate 26. Enterpreneur has to apply for
D. None of these A. Statutory license
22. The Initiative was launched to modern- B. Project report
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ize the Indian economy to make all govern- C. Provisional registration certificate
ments services available electronically.
D. Permanent registration certificate
A. Stand-up India
B. Startup India 27. Is designed to transform India to a
global design and manufacturing hub
C. Digital India
A. Digital India
D. Makein India
B. Makein India
23. Is the government of India’s endeav-
our to promote culture of innovation and C. Startup India
entrepreneurship. D. Design India
A. AIM
28. Should cover aspects like sources of
B. STEP finance, technical know how, sources of
C. SEED labour and raw material, market potential
and profitability.
D. AIC
A. Technical report
24. Entrepreneurs requires types of fi-
B. Project report
nance
A. 2 C. Finance report
B. 3 D. Progress report
C. 4 29. Which Ministry of Government of India
D. 6 is entrusted with the responsibility of
promoting the financial transactions digi-
25. DigiShala-free educational channel in En- tally?
glish, Hindi and other regional languages
A. Ministry of Finance (MoF)
is conducted through Doordarshan an ini-
tiative of Government of India. What is B. Ministry of Banking (MoB)
the purpose of DigiShala? C. Ministry of Information Technology
A. Increasing Digital Transactions (MoIT)
B. Creating Awareness for Digital Finan- D. Ministry of Electronics & Information
cial Inclusion and Access Technology (MeitY)
9.11 Unification of India
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9.11 Unification of India 543
1. How did Ashoka manage to keep India A. amounts of money wasted on conquer-
united? ing and uniting kingdoms.
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A. By keeping peace in his empire B. people who had been killed or en-
slaved because of his family.
B. By becoming a general for his army
C. lack of unity his family’s conquests had
C. By keeping his family in power
achieved for their land.
D. By conquering the whole continent D. all of the above
2. In what important way did Ashoka spread 6. Chandragupta Maurya was able to con-
Buddhist teachings? quer the northern kingdoms of India with
A. He required conquered people to con- his army because they
vert to Buddhism. A. desired to have a ruler who could unite
B. He had edicts carved into pillars and them all.
walls. B. were occupied by poor peasants who
C. He taught people to read and to write. couldn’t fight.
C. were very weak from fighting among
themselves.
D. He made speeches from around the
empire. D. lacked the natural sources they
needed to survive.
3. In what way did Chandragupta’s rule dif-
fer from Ashoka’s? 7. King Ashoka expanded the Mauryan Em-
pire to the south and east byA.B. C. D.
A. Chandragupta used force to be sure no
one threatened his power A. spreading Buddhist ideas.
B. forming several alliances.
B. Chandragupta used Buddhism to be
sure his people were happy C. fighting a series of wars.
C. The empire was larger under Chandr- D. purchasing lots of land.
gupta than it was under Ashoka
8. Why was Chandragupta poor in his later
D. The empire was fairer under Chan- years?
dragupta A. He fought too many battles.
4. How did Chandragupta Maurya begin B. He gave up worldly pleasures as an
building his empire? acetic.
A. He sent ships to far away lands. C. He lost all of his land.
B. He conquered weaker kingdoms D. He refused to trade with neighbors.
nearby. 9. Ruler of the Mauryan Empire from about
C. He convinced other rulers to join his 269 to 232 B.C.E., whose edicts reflected
squad. Buddhist values.
D. He begged and pleaded for more land. A. Siddhartha
B. Ashoka
5. King Ashoka changed his mind about how
to keep India united when he thought C. Buddha
about the D. Chandragupta
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9.11 Unification of India 544
10. Which Buddhist value did these actions by 15. Chamber of Princes that acted as a third
Ashoka reflect? -He gave up hunting and block represented
became a vegetarian. A. All the Princes of Indian princely
A. Respect for all living things. states
B. Tolerance of other religions. B. Majority of Princes of India
C. Awareness that everything changes. C. Whoever Congress approved
D. Honesty and respect in words and ac- D. Those who were siding with the British
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tions.
16. King Ashoka urged his people to
11. One of Ashoka’s edicts announced that A. refuse to serve in the army.
people would be put in jail only if there B. follow the Buddhist path.
were a good reason to do so. Which of his
goals is this an example of? C. not punish minor criminals.
A. Promoting Buddhist values D. reject non-Buddhist religions.
B. Promoting general welfare 17. Which of the following is true of the Mau-
C. Maintaining justice ryan Empire under King Ashoka’s rule?
A. The Mauryan Empire reached its
D. Maintaining security
height during his reign.
12. Which of Ashoka’s behaviors expressed B. The Mauryan Empire collapsed due to
his Buddhist values best? his laws and edicts.
A. Keeping a strong army C. The Mauryan Empire shrank due to him
giving back land.
B. Putting criminals to death
D. The Mauryan Empire lost financial
C. Building a royal road
power under his rule.
D. Having servants treated well
18. A command that is obeyed like a law.
13. King Ashoka was Chandragupta Maurya’s A. Rule
B. Edict
A. father
C. Code
B. enemy
D. Commandment
C. grandson
19. How was Chandragupta Maurya able to
D. brother maintain his empire’s strength?
14. Ashoka’s edicts that encouraged general A. He promoted prayer during conflict.
welfare were supposed to promote B. He tried to have a peaceful kingdom.
A. a reliable military. C. He worked towards equality for all.
B. people’s wellbeing. D. He used force whenever necessary.
C. a good economy.
20. Which of the following was a success of
D. Buddhist teachings. Chandragupta Maurya’s rule?
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9.11 Unification of India 545
A. He created a strong central govern- 25. Ashoka’s edicts that said people should be
ment. loving, respectful, and moral promoted his
goal of
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B. He built a road over a thousand miles
long. A. Buddhist values.
C. He made sure farmers had water for B. general welfare.
crops. C. laws and court.
D. all of the above D. Mauryan enemies.
26. You just found out your village is on the
21. President of All-India States People’s con-
border of Ashoka’s empire. Which of the
ference
following would you most likely say?
A. Sardar Patel
A. “We should be safe because Ashoka is
B. VP Menon a man of peace.”
C. JN Nehru B. “We’d better guard our borders to pre-
vent an attack.”
D. none of above
C. “We’d better attack the empire before
22. Ashoka’s purpose behind his four main they attack us.”
goals was to D. “We should be happy to become
Ashoka’s subjects.”
A. give his empire a strong foundation.
B. force his people to follow Buddhism. 27. When King Ashoka decided to reject vio-
lence, he also chose to support
C. expand his empire to new territories.
A. Christian laws.
D. show his authority over his people.
B. Jewish faith.
23. One of Ashoka’s edicts announced that C. Hindu beliefs.
along the roads trees had been planted for D. Buddhist values.
the enjoyment of animals and men, and
wells and ponds had been dug everywhere. 28. King Ashoka expanded the Mauryan Em-
Which goal did this promote most? pire before
A. Justice A. Giving up violence
B. Moving to China
B. Security
C. Surrendering to Chandragupta
C. Buddhist Values
D. Learning to read
D. General Welfare
29. What is significant about the Maurya fam-
24. How did the Maurya family build their em- ily?
pire? A. They were the first to unite the king-
A. They fixed conflicts peacefully. doms of India.
B. They had advanced technology. B. They split up India into several sepa-
rate kingdoms.
C. They paid kingdoms to unite.
C. They tried to get rid of the unequal so-
D. They fought wars of conquest. cial classes.
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9.11 Unification of India 546
D. They eliminated the use of slavery and 35. The edicts on security usually focused on
servants. issues of
30. An empire lasting from about 322 to 187 A. peace and conquest.
B.C.E., during which the Mauryan family B. laws and policies.
unified India for the first time. C. religion and faith.
A. Hinduism Empire D. trade and economics.
B. Mauryan Empire
NARAYAN CHANGDER
36. When King Ashoka saw the consequences
C. Ashokan Empire of his family’s quest for land, he promised
D. none of above to
31. Ashoka expanded the Mauryan Empire un- A. stop using violence as a tool to achieve
til he unity.
A. moved to China. B. focus on making alliances with other
countries.
B. gave up violence.
C. give the entire empire to a new leader
C. reached the mountains. or family.
D. surrendered to other rulers. D. put more effort into improving India’s
32. Who began to build the Mauryan Empire? economy.
A. King Ashoka Maurya 37. What was one thing Chandragupta DID
B. Chandragupta Maurya NOT use to rule his people?
C. Prince Ceylon Maurya A. A strong central government.
D. Mahinda Chakra Maurya B. Torture and spies.
C. A powerful army.
33. Traditions says Chandragupta Maurya
gave up power over the Mauryan Empire D. Edicts posted around the land.
because he 38. One of Ashoka’s edicts announced that
A. became an ascetic. people would only be jailed for a good rea-
B. grew extremely ill. son. Which of his goals did this promote
most?
C. lost his entire army.
A. Justice
D. lacked much support.
B. Security
34. One of Ashoka’s edicts stated that uncon- C. General Welfare
quered people on the border of the king-
dom should trust him and have happiness D. Buddhist Values
in their dealings with him. Which of his 39. To promote four main goals for his king-
goals did this promote most? dom, Ashoka carved edicts into rocks,
A. Justice walls, and pillars. An edict is
B. Security A. something that encourages growth.
C. General Welfare B. a map guiding people to holy places.
D. Buddhist Values C. a command that is obeyed like a law.
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 547
D. writing that describes religious be- C. the way people should be treated in
liefs. the empire’s courts and jails
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40. What did Ashoka do with the territories D. the necessary limitations and expecta-
he had conquered? tions for an excellent leader
A. Gave them to other emperors to gov- 44. Which experience led to a major change in
ern Ashoka’s values?
B. Gave them to wealthy merchants as A. He watched Stranger Things.
gifts
B. He married a Buddhist.
C. Kept them as sources for new slaves
D. Kept them as part of his empire C. He saw a very brutal and bloody battle.
41. When Ashoka became a Buddhist, he saw D. He discovered old age and illness.
himself as a leader who was most like a
A. Brother 45. Which of the following is an example of
B. Father how King Ashoka’s actions did not reflect
Buddhist values?
C. Priest
A. He continued to maintain a strong
D. Friend army.
42. What was the main achievement of the B. He kept the previously conquered
Maurya family? Hint:think of the title of lands.
this quiz.
C. He permitted the execution of crimi-
A. to unify India nals.
B. to make everyone Buddhist D. all of the above
C. to build temples and pyramids
D. to improve the lives of rulers 46. was responsible for influence of UDHR
in the fundamental rights provisions of In-
43. What did Ashoka’s edicts on justice de- dian Constitution
scribe? A. Hansa Mehta,
A. the government’s expected actions
B. Vijayalakshmi Pandit
during rioting or protesting
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. the punishmens for people who did not
fully support Buddhism D. none of above
9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy
1. To promote equal service prospects, there 2. One of the more common forms of inequal-
is provision that grants ity in India is the
A. equality in rights A. Caste system
B. equality in opportunity B. Sati system
C. equality in freedom C. Dowry system
D. All of the above D. none of above
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 548
3. What is not an element of Equality? 9. Untouchability is prohibited, What type of
A. Health equality does it ensure?
B. Wealth A. Civil Equality
C. Justice B. Social Equality
D. Religion C. Equality Of Opportunity
D. Political Equality
4. Apartheid and nelson mandela had long
struggle to end the discrimination in 10. The sarva shiksha abhiyan seeks educa-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion accessible for the children who are of
A. South America
years
B. North america
A. 8-14
C. South Africa
B. 6-12
D. North Africa
C. 8-12
5. Which of the following are linked to gen- D. 6-14
der discrimination?
11. Who is Rosa Parks?
A. Women and men paid equally
A. The mother of the freedom movement.
B. Women are paid less and men are paid
more amount than women
B. An African-American/ coloured person
C. There is no gender discrimination
D. none of this C. An American Activist
6. What did Headmaster ask Omprakash D. All of the above
Valmiki to do?
12. The constitution also forbids (segrega-
A. To Bring Glass of Water tion) & its practice in any form
B. To sweep the School ground A. OPPORTUNITY
C. To teach the students B. DISCRIMNATION
D. All of these C. UNTOUCHAIITY
7. of resources is the main reason for the D. none of above
existence of inequality in a society. 13. Who drafted the Indian Constitution?
A. Caste A. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Religious inequality B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Disability C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
D. Unequal distribution D. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
8. The government has to work upon and 14. when people are treated unequally, their
equality for their citizens is violated
A. economic, political A. equality
B. social, economic B. rights
C. social, political C. dingnity
D. political, economic D. dignity
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 549
15. All people are be it the president or B. democracy
any ordinary citizen C. monarchy
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A. equal in the eyes of law, D. none of above
B. Equal in the hands of law
21. Lady who changes the course of American
C. Equal in the hands of right History with one defiant act was
D. none of the above A. Hillary Clinten
16. What can actually bring about a change to B. Rosa Parks
remove inequality in society? C. Michel Obama
A. Changing attitudes of people D. None of these
B. Fire work 22. In which state was the first Mid Day Meal
C. None of these Scheme launched in India?
D. Fight A. Rajasthan
B. Tamil Nadu
17. The First State to Introduce Mid-Day Meal
Scheme? C. Bihar
A. Andhra Pradesh D. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra 23. Which one of the following was Dr.
C. Kerala Ambedkar’s view on untouchability?
D. Tamil Nadu A. Untouchability must Continue
B. Untouchability must not continue and
18. What does the word equality mean? that justice can only be achieved when
A. the separation of people of different people are treated equally
races C. Untouchability must be for poor upper
B. a believe that one group of people is caste people
the best D. Untouchability should be given eco-
C. having the same rights as all other cit- nomic assistance
izens
24. which is the most common form of inequal-
D. treating people unfairly because of ity in our society?
their race A. gender-based inequality
19. The term Scheduled caste is used to refer B. caste inequality
people of Caste C. disability inequality
A. Lower D. none of above
B. Higher
25. In which year civil Rights act was en-
C. Middle forced?
D. None of these A. 1968
20. ’It is a form of government where people B. 1972
elect their ruler C. 1961
A. constitutional monarchy D. 1964
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 550
26. Civil Right Movement of U.S.A was about 31. Omprakash Valmiki is a famous
writer.
A. Afro-Americans A. Dalit
B. Indo-Americans B. Tamil
C. Both of these C. Muslim
D. None of these D. French
32. which of these word is the correct meaning
NARAYAN CHANGDER
27. Choose the coorect statement regarding
of discrimination
recognition of equality in consitution
A. fairness
A. laws are different for different per-
sons according to status. B. impartiality
C. a and b
B. Every person cannot have access to
public places. D. none of above
C. Untouchability has been abolished. 33. The Ansaris Dignity was also hurt when:
D. discrimination on the basis of caste, re- A. People refused to lease their Apart-
ligion, rece and gender should be prac- ments
ticed. B. Government refused to lease their
Apartments
28. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of
the Mid-day meal scheme C. Teachers refused to lease their Apart-
ments
A. It provides employment to Dalits
D. People easily lease their apartments
B. Attendance has increased
34. Is the most popular of the government
C. Food is not wasted
A. Monarchy
D. Children don’t need too go back to
home for lunch B. Democracy
C. Dictatorship
29. is the most important element of demo- D. none of above
cratic setup
35. distribution of resources is the main
A. Dignity
reason for inequality in a society
B. Tolerance
A. equal
C. Love B. unequal
D. Equality C. even
30. what is the law for the people who have D. proper
disablities? 36. There is EQUALITY in India, as per the
A. government ensured equal treatment Constitution
and free education A. economic
B. government passed an act in 1995 B. political
C. both options C. social
D. none of above D. professional
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 551
37. is the most common form of inequal- 43. Which of the following is correct about Uni-
ity. versal Adult Franchise?
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A. Gender A. all adult citizen have the right to cast
B. Caste system their vote
C. discrimination on disability B. based on the principle of ‘one person
one vote’
D. Race
C. all of the above
38. Which was first state in India to introduce D. none of above
the Midday Meal Scheme in 2001?
A. West Bengal 44. who written Joothan
B. Tamil Nadu A. dr. br ambedkar
C. Maharashtra B. omprakash valmiki
D. Uttar Pradesh C. deewar
D. Mr. ansari
39. Caste system are more common in
A. City 45. Which is the most popular form of govern-
ment in the world?
B. Town
A. Democracy
C. Rural area
B. Dictatorship
D. None of the above
C. Monarchy
40. Which act banned segregation in busses? D. Oligarchy
A. Equal Persons Act of 1964
46. The Constitution grants all adult citizens
B. Anti-Separation Act of 1956 the Right to Vote, without any discrimina-
C. Civil Rights Act of 1956 tion of caste, colour, creed, language, reli-
D. Civil Rights Act of 1964 gion or region. This Right is known as:
A. Universal Adult Franchise
41. is the most popular form of govern-
ment in the world B. Right to Equality
A. Democracy C. Right to Freedom
B. Monarchy D. Right to Information
C. Dictatorship 47. As per Article which of the Indian Consti-
D. none of above tution, ECI has the supervisory and direc-
tional control of the complete process elec-
42. To include people with disabilities in the tion to Parliament and Legislature of every
main stream the government enacted laws State and to the office of the President and
in year the Vice-President of India?
A. 1955 A. Article 234
B. 2003 B. Article 432
C. 2000 C. Article 568
D. 1971 D. Article 324
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 552
48. The Idea of is based on the idea of 54. The most successful scheme of the govern-
equality. ment which has increased enrollment of
A. Universal adult franchise children in schools is-
B. Jootan A. Reservation of seats
C. society B. Scholarships and financial help
D. religion C. Right to Education
D. Mid-day meal scheme
49. Which country is the fourth largest man-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ufacturer and a leading exporter of 55. described democracy as government of
medicines in the world? the people by the people and for the peo-
A. Costa Rica ple
B. Pakistan A. Nelson Mandela
C. Australia B. Mahatma Gandhi
D. India C. Abraham Lincoln
50. what is the name of your online sst D. Martin Luther King JR
teacher? 56. Who is responsible for the well-being of
A. simi mam the people in a democracy?
B. sajeetha mam A. People
C. geetha mam B. Police
D. jenitha mam C. Government
51. The conflict related to Cauvery river was D. Hospitals
between and
57. what is the central feature of Democracy?
A. Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
A. Inequality
B. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
B. Discrimination
C. Tamil Nadu and Kerala
C. Equality
D. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
D. none of above
52. is the main reason for the existence of
inequality in the society 58. In which article is the right to equality?
A. Unequal distribution of resources A. Articles 14-18
B. lack of money B. Articles 1-5
C. gender C. Articles 5-11
D. disability D. None of above
53. Is the most popular for of government 59. Civil rights acts passed in the year
A. Monarchy A. 1964
B. Democracy B. 1946
C. Dictatorship C. 1965
D. Equality D. 1956
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 553
60. Glorious Revolution took place in C. Tamil Nadu
A. 1686 D. none of above
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B. 1687 66. Who should sign the bill, so that the bill
C. 1688 becomes a law?
D. 1788 A. President
61. The mid-day meal plan is concerned with B. Lok Sabha
the following- C. People
A. Hospital D. Rajya Sabha
B. Public park
67. ‘Dalit’ means
C. Cinema halls
A. Broken
D. School
B. joined
62. Which year the Supreme Court asked all C. Upgraded
the states to begin introduce mid day meal
D. downgraded
scheme?
A. 2008 68. What is political equality?
B. 1992 A. Political equality is the concept or idea
of fairness in economic
C. 2004
B. Political equality is a state of affairs in
D. 2001
which all people within a specific socity
63. In a democracy all adult citizens, regard- C. Political equality refers to the equality
less of their caste, gender or class, enjoy of each citizen individual rights and liberty
the right to vote. This is called
A. Equality D. none of above
B. Universal Adult Franchise
69. What is direct democracy?
C. Democracy
A. People make laws and policies by
D. Inequality which they are governed
64. Name of famous ruler in German {Dictator- B. Which elected representative run the
ship} government
A. Hitler C. All of these
B. Narendra Modi D. none of above
C. Ivan 70. Which form of government is governed by
D. Nicholas a King or Queen?
65. was the first state to introduce the A. Anarchy
Mid day Meal scheme B. Oligarchy
A. Delhi C. Democracy
B. Maharashtra D. Monarchy
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 554
71. what is Indian constitution 77. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employ-
ment Guarantee act-since which year
A. set of fundamental principle
A. 2008
B. set of basic law
B. 2009
C. set of rules and regulations
C. 2001
D. all of the above
D. 2010
72. Father of the Indian Constitution 78. In which state was the first Mid Day Meal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Mahatama Gandhi Scheme launched in India?
B. Jawaharlal Nehru A. Rajasthan
C. Dr. BR Ambedakr B. Tamil Nadu
C. Bihar
D. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
D. Gujarat
73. EQUALITY FIGHTER
79. What is consensus?
A. Gandhiji
A. Nothing it means
B. SUBASH CHANDRA BOSS B. An opinion that all members of a group
C. MARTINE LUTHER KING JR. agree with.
D. ASHOKA C. A system
D. none of these
74. Who was the leader of civil right act
1964? 80. One of the most common inequality in In-
dia is the
A. Rosa parks
A. State System
B. Valmiki g
B. Dowry System
C. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Caste System
D. Ravindra Nath Tagore D. Poverty
75. All people are in the eyes of he law 81. appoints the Chief minister and other
A. Equal ministers
B. Inequal A. President
B. Prime minister
C. Partial
C. Governor
D. Cruel
D. none of above
76. What is the Central Feature of DEMOC-
82. Who is the South African anti apartheid
RACY?
revolutionary, political leader?
A. Inequality A. Martin Luther King
B. Discrimination B. Rosa parks
C. Equality C. Nelson Mandela
D. Restrictions D. Mahatma Gandhi
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 555
83. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan also seeks to C. One Vote
make eduaction possible to the maximum D. None of these
number of girls in the age group of to
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89. Who explained democracy as government
of the people for the people by the people
A. 7-14
A. George Washington
B. 3-10
B. Isaac newton
C. 6-14
C. Abraham Lincoln
D. 13-20
D. Mahatma Gandhi
84. Federal form of Government exists in
90. What are type of democracy?
A. Japan
A. Direct and representative
B. Kuwait
B. Economic and political
C. Australia
C. Monarchy and federal monarchy
D. Iraq
D. none of above
85. No person can be discriminated against on 91. Which was the first state to introduce the
the basis of their? Midday meal scheme in 2001
A. Religion A. Andhra pradesh
B. Race B. Karnataka
C. Caste C. Tamil Nadu
D. All of the above. D. Kerala
86. Which of the following is true about 92. How many people die from Tuberculosis
democracy? every year?
A. equal status to every citizen A. 1 million people
B. active participation by the government B. 5 million people
C. 10 million
C. no freedom to express one’s opinion D. none of above
D. none of above
93. What is the age of franchise in India?
87. When was the Government of India What is the age of franchise in India?
passed the disabilities act? A. 21
A. 1990 B. 18
B. 1995 C. 14
C. 1999 D. 25
D. 1992 94. The Indian Constitution recognizes
88. According to the Universal Adult Franchise A. All people are equal
(U.A.F) every adult has . B. All people are unequal
A. No Vote C. All people are Economically Down
B. Multiple Vote D. None of these
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 556
95. Whose Autobiography is ‘Joothan’? 101. Equality does not mean
A. Atal Bihari Vajpayee A. Ramps have to be installed in busses
B. Mahatma Gandhi B. All Adults can vote
C. Omprakash Valmiki C. Everyone must have the same amount
D. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru of money
D. People can’t be hired only on the basis
96. which of the following are the inequalities of place of birth
present in our society even today?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. unequal distribution of resources 102. Omprakash Valmiki was a famous
B. caste inequality A. Writer
C. both options B. Actor
D. none of above C. Doctor
D. Minister
97. CIVIL RIGHTS PASSED IN
A. 1864 103. What are type of equality?
B. 1946 A. Nature and political equality
C. 1964 B. Natural and policies equlity
D. 1899 C. Natural and political equality
D. none of above
98. What is Dictatorial form of Government?
A. A single unit of Government has juris- 104. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE
diction over the entire territory ABOUT DEMOCRACY?
B. Power divided between the center and A. active participation by the government
states.
C. Power is concentrated in one person B. no freedom to express one’s opinion
or a group of persons. C. most popular form of government
D. none of above D. none of above
99. Name the type of equality 105. Omprakash Valmiki Vasa Famous-
A. Nature equality, policy equality A. Writer
B. Democracy, natural equality B. Actor
C. Monarchy, political equality C. Doctor
D. Natural equality, political equality D. Minister
100. which means that all adult citizens 106. What is democracy?
have right to vote and choose their rep- A. A state governed under a system of
resentative democracy.
A. Universal Adult Franchise B. It’s Just A Word
B. Equality C. unfriendly or aggressive feelings or
C. Inequality behavior
D. Democracy D. None of this
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 557
107. Who represent our problems in the par- A. latin
liament house? B. greek
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A. Ourselves C. malayalam
B. M.L.A’s D. hindi
C. M.P’s
112. All adults or aboveirrespective of
D. SHO their religion, education, caste, rich or poor
are allowed to vote.
108. Which state was the first to start the
Midday Scheme? A. aged 11 years
A. Tamil Nadu B. aged 16 years
B. Andhra Pradesh C. aged 21 years
C. U.P D. aged 18 years
D. Maharashtra 113. Which of the following were the condi-
tions of untouchables?
109. Which is correct about Universal Adult
Franchise? A. They were denied education.
A. All adult citizen have the right to caste B. They were denied chance to offer
their vote prayers
B. Based on the principle of one person C. They were denied transport or medical
one vote facilities
C. Both D. All of the above
D. none of above 114. and did a long struggle to end the
discrimination in south africa.
110. what is a Government
A. Nelson Mandela and Aparthied
A. Political system based upon the undi-
vided sovereignity or rule of a single per- B. Rosa Parks and Martin luther king
son C. gandhiji and Abraham lincoln
B. Government by divine guidance or by D. Nelson Mandela and Gandhiji
officials who are regarded as divinely
guided 115. the civil act was in
C. The group of people with the authority A. 1947
to govern a country or state; a particular B. 1955
ministry in office C. 1964
D. Government in which the supreme D. 1972
power is vested in the people and ex-
ercised by them directly or indirectly 116. NRHM which is supposed to be provide
through a system of representation usu-
ally involving periodically held free elec- A. (a)better medical facilities to people in
tions. villages
111. Democracy is a word which means B. (b)to generate employment opportuni-
ruled by simple people ties for the youth
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9.12 Equality In Indian Democracy 558
C. (c)to generate employment opportuni- 122. Which of the following inequality is
ties for the youth present in our society even today?
D. Both a and b A. Unequal distribution of resources
117. Which of the following are the ways B. Caste inequality
in which people express their views and C. Both
make governments understand what ac-
D. none of above
tions they should take?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Dharnas 123. In which article is the right to equality?
B. Strikes A. Articles 15
C. Signature Campaigns B. Articles 5
D. All of the above C. Articles 4
118. is the most important element of D. None of above
democracy
124. Economic Equality can be insured in-
A. equality
A. Only Capitalism
B. consultation
B. Only Communism
C. justice
C. Only Socialism
D. none of above
D. None of the above
119. When people are treated unequally what
is violated? 125. How many types are there in inequality?
A. Dignity A. 1
B. Religion B. 3
C. Caste C. 4
D. Practice D. 10
120. Saddam Hussein’s Iraq is example of 126. When did the government enacted a Law
which Government? A. 1955
A. Presidential Form B. 1980
B. Unitary Form C. 2000
C. Federal Form D. none of above
D. Dictatorial Form
127. What are the key elements of a Demo-
121. What is the age of franchise in India? cratic Government?
A. 21 A. a) Inequality
B. 18 B. b) Equality
C. 14 C. c) Justice
D. 25 D. Both b and c
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9.13 The Government of India 559
128. Every Person has access to all public B. Dignity
places except: C. Economic status
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A. Markets D. Caste
B. Parliament
130. Mahatma Gandhi national rural employ-
C. Hotels ment guarantee act aims to
D. Play Ground A. Generate employment opportunities
129. When the person is treated unequally, it B. Provide better medical facilities
violates his/her C. Make education accessible
A. Freedom D. All of the above
9.13 The Government of India
1. Citizen above the age of has the right 5. who was the first PRIME MINISTER OF IN-
to vote. DIA?
A. 10 A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. 15 B. Narendra Modi
C. 18 C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. 25 D. none of above
2. Fill in the blanks:-The is the head of
6. A law in draft form is known as a
the state
A. minister A. BILL
B. prime minister B. GAZETTE
C. Governor C. Reading
D. president D. none of above
3. All citizens above years have got the 7. elections for lok sabha are called
right to vote.
A. legislative assembly
A. 18
B. general elections
B. 16
C. elections
C. 15
D. parliament
D. 14
4. The events of current times that are impor- 8. Who is the commander of the armed
tant are known as forces?
A. News A. Prime Minister
B. Current news B. President
C. Current Affairs C. Chief Minister
D. General Knowledge D. Speaker
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9.13 The Government of India 560
9. Which state has the largest number of con- 15. The highest court in India
stituencies? A. High court
A. Maharashtra B. District court
B. West Bengal
C. Supreme court
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Local court
D. Uttar Pradesh
16. People do not answer to any leader or
NARAYAN CHANGDER
10. The State Legislative Assembly is also govenment.
known as the
A. Oligarchy
A. Lok Sabha
B. Anarchy
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Tyranny
C. Vidhan Sabha
D. Monarchy
D. Parliament
17. The supreme commander of the armed
11. The judges of the Supreme Court are ap- forces in India
pointed by the
A. Prime Minister
A. President
B. President
B. Speaker
C. Chief Minister
C. Governor
D. Chief Justice
D. Prime Minister
18. The highest judicial body in a state is the
12. The Legislature in India is known as the
A. Rajya Sabha
A. High Court
B. Lok Sabha.
B. Supreme Court
C. Bicameral Legislature.
C. District court
D. Parliament.
D. none of above
13. The first woman judge to the supreme
court of India 19. The decision to alter the online school tim-
ings for Karnataka schools
A. Indira Gandhi
A. central
B. Nirmala Sitharaman
B. state
C. Fathima Beevi
C. local
D. Sarojini Naidu
D. none of above
14. The chairman of drafting committee of In-
dian Constitution 20. The two main parties in the U.S. are
A. Mahatma Gandhiji A. Democrat and Representative
B. B.R.Ambedkar B. Republican and Common
C. Jawaharlal Nehru C. Republican and Democrat
D. Narendra Modi D. none of above
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9.13 The Government of India 561
21. A town is governed by 27. The law-making body of the government
A. Gram Sabha A. Union Legislature
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B. Municipal Council B. Executive wing
C. Municipal Corporation C. judiciary
D. Parliament D. corporation
22. The is responsible for making the laws 28. Supreme Court is located in
in India. A. Ahmedabad
A. Executive B. New Delhi
B. Judiciary C. Jamnagar
C. Legislative D. Mumbai
D. none of above 29. What is government at the centre called
23. Which freedom/rights allows you to fol- A. central government
low any religion you wish? B. state government
A. Freedom to express yourself C. parliament
B. Freedom to worship as you wish D. lok sabha
C. Right to vote
30. Who is known as the ‘Father of Indian Con-
D. Freedom to pursue “life, liberty and stitution’?
the pursuit of happiness
A. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
24. The chairman of the Rajya Sabha B. Dr B R Ambedkar
A. Prime Minister C. Vijayalakshmi Pandit
B. President D. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Vice President 31. The Union Cabinet headed by the runs
D. Chief minister the government.
25. What are the organs of a government A. Governor
A. Legislature B. Vice President
C. Prime Minister
B. Executive
D. President
C. Judiciary
D. All of these 32. Members of Executive consist of
A. President, Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
26. Which is an important part of the central
Government? B. President, . Vice President, Prime Min-
ister, Council of Ministers, Bureaucracy
A. Courts
C. Supreme Court, High Courts, District
B. Public schools Courts, Sub Courts, Munsif Courts, Mag-
C. Parliament istrate Courts
D. none of above D. none of above
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9.13 The Government of India 562
33. A government where a God or divine ones 38. The decision of Government of Karnataka
are given the status of supreme ruler? (Ex- on whether to have Board exams in class
amples:The Vatican, Egyptians, etc..) 8 for all government schools
A. Democracy A. central
B. Dictatorship B. state
C. Monarchy C. local
D. none of above
D. Theocracy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
39. A town is governed by the
34. The place where all the elected represen-
tatives of the people take important de- A. Panchayat
cisions of the country is called as in B. Municipal Council
Delhi. C. Municipal corporation
A. Supreme court D. Legislative Assembly
B. Parliament
40. How many constituencies are there in Ma-
C. High court harashtra?
D. Constitutional assembly A. 40
B. 38
35. The has the power to stop a law being
passed by Parliament if they think that the C. 48
law is illegal and contradicts (opposes) the D. 50
Constitution of India.
41. The leader of Majority party in the Lok
A. Parliament Sabha
B. Supreme Court A. President
C. India Gate B. Prime Minister
D. none of above C. Chief Minister
D. Chief Justice
36. Which forms defines the Rule of people by
the people? 42. Rajya Sabha is also known as
A. Preamble A. upper house
B. b. Democracy B. lower house
C. c. Constitution C. legislative assembly
D. d. None of these D. rajya sabha
43. The government is responsible for law
37. Who is the real head of the country?
and order within a state.
A. Prime minister A. State
B. President B. Central
C. Governor C. Local self
D. Vice President D. none of above
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9.13 The Government of India 563
44. The highest court in India is the 50. what type of government in served in In-
A. High Court dia
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A. autocracy
B. Supreme Court
B. dictatorship
C. District court
C. democracy
D. none of above
D. none of above
45. when many parties come together and
form a government what is this called 51. how many high courts are there
A. legislative assembly A. 24
B. coalition assmebly B. 23
C. vidhan sabha C. 28
D. state government D. 29
46. The residence of the President is known as 52. What do Governments do for the people?
A. build roads and schools
A. Raj Bhavan B. take action on social issues
B. Parliament C. supply the electricity
C. Rashtrapathi Bhavan D. all of these
D. Secretariat 53. Which type of Government is chosen by
the people?
47. Indian government is based on
A. Democratic
A. Selection of leaders
B. dictatorship
B. Leader’s choice
C. monarchy
C. Universal Adult franchise
D. none of above
D. none of above
54. The Lok Sabha have a maximum of
48. Introduction of new 100 rupee note members
A. State A. 550
B. Central B. 552
C. Local C. 500
D. none of above D. 551
49. Citizen of and above the age of has the 55. Introduction of new train between Maha-
right to vote rashtra and Karnataka
A. 20 A. State
B. 15 B. Local
C. 14 C. central
D. 18 D. none of above
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9.13 The Government of India 564
56. The President of India in elected for 62. Which of the following words describes-
A. Two years ‘Government of the people, for the people
and by the people’?
B. eleven years
A. Preamble
C. five years
B. b. Democracy
D. three years
C. c. Constitution
57. A book which contains rules and laws on D. d. None of these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
how the country is to be governed is called
63. Decision to create a big park in Bangalore
A. Dictionary A. state
B. Constitution B. Local
C. Parliament C. central
D. none of above D. none of above
58. Equality of all religions 64. Rashtrapati Bhavan is the residence of
A. socialism A. President
B. secularism B. Prime Minister
C. republic
C. Vice President
D. democracy
D. Chief Judge
59. Who comes under the Legislative Body of
65. Which one of the following is not an organ
the Government?
of the Central Government?
A. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
A. The Legislative
B. Council of Minister and PM
B. The Constitution
C. President
C. The executive
D. none of above
D. The judiciary
60. Who runs the government at the Cen-
tre/Union? 66. Our constitution was adopted on
A. President A. 26 January 1947
B. Prime Minister B. 15 August 1947
C. Chief Minister C. 15 August 1950
D. Home Minister D. 26 January 1950
61. What is parliament 67. The head of the Gram Panchayat
A. law making body A. Councillor
B. elections B. Member
C. court C. Sarpanch
D. rajya sabha D. Governor
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9.14 Reservation is an egalitarian policy 565
68. If India is a monarchy, what are the disad- C. state legislative assembly
vantages D. gram sabha
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A. It depends on what type of monarchy
is and how kind is the king 73. the king has power all over the kingdom
B. there will be no Narendra Modi A. absolute
C. there will only be kings B. absolute monarchy
D. none of above C. democratic
69. Lok Sabha is Known as D. India
A. Lower House 74. The 2020 Democratic Vice Presidential
B. House of the people Candidate is
C. Both the above A. Kamala Harris
D. None of them B. Susan Rice
70. The is responsible for passing and im- C. Condoleezza Rice
plementing the laws in India. D. Michael Pence
A. Executive
75. Which of the following is NOT a levels of
B. Legislative Government of India
C. Judiciary A. Union Government
D. none of above B. Local Government
71. Rule by a King or Queen is known as C. International Government
A. Democracy D. State Government
B. Aristocracy
76. Participation is a
C. Monarchy
A. key element of a government
D. Dictatoship
B. key element of a monarchy govern-
72. The members of the Rajya Sabha are ment
elected by the members of C. key element of a democratic govern-
A. Parliament ment
B. Panchayat D. none of above
9.14 Reservation is an egalitarian policy
1. Which Commission was established to ac- D. All of these
cess the situation of socially and education-
ally backward classes. 2. Major recommendations for Mandal Com-
mission are
A. Mudaliar Commission
A. 27% of posts in public services should
B. Mandal Commission be reserved for OBC
C. Kothari Commission B. Vocational training should be started
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9.14 Reservation is an egalitarian policy 566
for OBCs. B. Pakistan
C. Both A and b C. Nepal
D. Only A D. none of above
3. What is the main focus of reservation in 8. Total Constituitional reservation percent-
education? age for SC/St and OBC is
A. a.Equality A. 70%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. b.Equity B. 48%
C. only a C. 49.5%
D. both a & b D. 60%
4. which article empowers the state to make 9. The Women’s Reservation Bill was passed
any provision for the reservation of ap- on
pointments for posts in favour of any back-
A. March 2009
ward class of citizens which in the opinion
of the state is not adequately represented B. March 2010
in service under the state C. March 2011
A. Article 25 D. March 2013
B. Article 46
10. In which part of the Indian Constitution,
C. Article 330 special provisions have been made for
D. Article 16(4) National Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes, Other Backward Classes and Anglo
5. The idea of caste based reservation was Indians?
envisioned by William hunter and Ma-
hatma Jyotiba Phule in A. Part XVI
A. 1882 B. Part XI
B. 1885 C. Part XXI
C. 1950 D. Part XIII
D. 1949 11. Which of the following is the constitutional
body?
6. Under which constitutional amendment act
gave the way for reservation for OBCs, A. National Child Rights Protection Com-
SCs and STs in private educational institu- mission
tion B. National Backward Classes Commis-
A. 74 sion
B. 75 C. National Minorities Commission
C. 47 D. National Commission for Scheduled
Castes
D. 93
7. Whose society is one of the four or five 12. When did Kelkar committee established?
oldest societies of the world. A. 1953
A. India B. 1959
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9.14 Reservation is an egalitarian policy 567
C. 1979 C. Government of India act 1935
D. 1969 D. Government of India act 1934
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13. Mandal commission was established in 19. What percentage of reservation was rec-
ommended by the Ranganath commission
A. 1949
in government jobs for Muslims
B. 1950
A. 8%
C. 1979
B. 10%
D. 1987
C. 12%
14. The President of India appointed Mandal D. 7%
Commission under the charimanship of B.P.
Mandal in 20. Who has the right to decide that who will
be included in the list of Scheduled Caste
A. 1975
and Scheduled Tribes?
B. 1976
A. Parliament
C. 1977
B. President
D. 1978
C. Supreme Court
15. Which is not a type of reservation? D. Governor of the state
A. Cast based 21. Which article envisages the establishment
B. Gender based of the National Commission for Scheduled
C. Language based Castes?
D. All correct A. Article 338
B. Article 250
16. Who is the chairmen of reservation egali-
tarian policy? C. Article 180
D. Article 142
A. Dr. Ambedkar
B. Bagat singh 22. Which committee recommended the 27%
reservation of the OBCs in the government
C. Rajiv gandhi
jobs in 1991?
D. Indra gandhi
A. D.P. Mandal committee
17. In this caste system provided the terms. B. B.P. Mandal committee
A. Socially cultural C. V.P. Mandal committee
B. Economically and politically D. U.N. Debar committee
C. Only 1st
23. Kelkar committee recommendations was
D. Both 1st and 2nd concerning to
18. Provisions for reservation for extended in A. SCs
the B. STs
A. Government of India act 1919 C. Both
B. Morley Minto reforms D. OBCs
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9.14 Reservation is an egalitarian policy 568
24. what is the main focus of reservation pol- 30. As per the directive of supreme court of
icy in the field of education. India what is the maximum Cap for reser-
A. 1. Equality vation.
B. 2. Equity A. 49.5%
C. 3 Both 1 & 2 B. 50%
D. None C. 51%
25. Article 350 is Reservation of seats for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 49%
A. SC in the house of the People
B. ST in the House of the People 31. Employement Reservation in Constitu-
tional provisions are in Article
C. Both a and b
A. Article 16(4) and Article 16(4B)
D. Neither a and b
B. Article 335 and Article 320(4)
26. which article empowers the state to make
any special provisions for the advance- C. Both A and B
ment of any socially and educationally
D. only B
backward class of citizens for scheduled
castes and scheduled Tribes
32. Promotion of scheduled castes(SCs)and
A. Article 15(4) scheduled Tribes (STs)was through which
B. Article 16(4) constitutional amendment act
C. Article 46 A. 79
D. Article 330 B. 91
27. Education depends on C. 77
A. Capability
D. 84
B. Knowledge
C. Skill 33. Caste associates are defined as instru-
ments of
D. All of these
A. organization records
28. SC/ST students are entitled to relaxation
in respect of the upper age limit is B. organization, articulation
A. 3 years C. mobilization
B. 4 years D. Both b and c
C. 5 years
D. All of these 34. which is not a correct match towards reser-
vation?
29. Seats will be reserved for the .
A. SC-7.5%
A. St/Sc
B. ST-12%
B. Only ist
C. Backward castes C. OBC-27%
D. Non of these D. All correct
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9.15 Keshavananda Bharati case 569
35. Seats shall be reserved in the house of peo- 39. Which date held the constitution assem-
ple. bly?
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A. Sc A. 25 November 1949
B. St B. 27December1949
C. Both C. 22 October 1950
D. Non D. none of above
36. Which commission introduced the new cat- 40. Equality of opportunity in matters of public
egory of other backward classes (OBCs). employment is come under Article
A. Mandal commission A. 14
B. Kothari commission B. 15
C. Ranganath commission C. 16
D. Kelkar committee
D. 18
37. What is bases for reservations?
41. According to NPE 1986 the percentage of
A. Caste, religion, seat reserve for OBC and Minorities
B. Only 1st A. 27%
C. Domicile, gender B. 25%
D. 1st and 3third C. 24%
38. Which is related to Article 330-342 ofInd- D. 26%
ian Constitution?
42. Which Article of Indian Constitution placed
A. Reservation in All India Services
under the heading of “Right to Equality”
B. Reservation in Educational Institution
A. Article 14
C. Reservation in Village Panchayats
B. Article 15
D. Reservation and representation of
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes in Lok C. Article 16
Sabha D. Article 15(3)
9.15 Keshavananda Bharati case
1. Which of the Chief Justice wanted to re- B. 5:8
open the Keshavananda case?
C. 4:9
A. Chief Justice A. N. Ray
D. 3:10
B. Chief Justice Gogoi
C. Chief Justice Bobde 3. The Punjab security and land tenure act
was launched in-
D. none of above
A. 1943
2. What was the ratio of majority of the Ke-
savananda Bharati case? B. 1953
A. 7:6 C. 1974
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9.16 Indian Constitution 570
D. 1954 8. Which one of the Fundamental Rights were
denied to the Golaknath brothers?
4. Which of the following is not an element A. Right to Education
of the basic structure of the constitution?
B. Right to Freedom of Religion
A. Supremacy of the Constitution
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
B. Rule of Law
D. Right to property
C. Tyranny of majority over the minority
NARAYAN CHANGDER
9. Which amendment(s) were removed after
D. Principle of Equality the judgement of the case
A. Amendment 25 and 24
5. Who did the Golaknath brothers fight
against? B. Amendments 39 and 41
A. The State of Kerala C. Amendment 42
B. The State of Punjab D. None Of The Above
C. The Union of India 10. How many Judges were involved in this
case?
D. None of the above
A. 9
6. What will happen if there was no basic B. 11
structure and the government could change C. 12
the constitution according to what they
feel should be changed? D. 13
A. The constitution would collapse 11. Kesavananda was born in-
B. There might be a misuse of authority A. 7 December 1941
C. There can be injustice and inequality in B. 1 December 1954
the country C. 9 December 1940
D. All of them D. 6 September 1935
12. The Kesavananda Bharati case had one of
7. Is it important for the constitution to be
the largest benchmarks in the history of
supreme?
India. What was the benchmark?
A. No
A. 23
B. At Times B. 13
C. Yes C. 11
D. none of above D. 17
9.16 Indian Constitution
1. Indian Independence Act, 1947 received B. August 14, 1947
the Royal assent on
A. July 18, 1947 C. January 1, 1947
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9.16 Indian Constitution 571
D. August 1, 1947 7. Punjab was split up into Punjab and
Haryana on
2. Pranab Mukherjee won the Presidential
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A. November 1, 1966
election against
B. January 1, 1967
A. PA Sangma
C. August 15, 1967
B. Pratibha Patil
D. August 15, 1966
C. HamidAnsari
8. Which among the following countries does
D. APJ Abdul Kalam
not possess a Constitution in the formal
3. Hindi was declared the Official Language sense of the term?
of India under Article A. United Kingdom
A. 334 B. USA
B. 333 C. Canada
C. 343 D. Switzerland
D. 345 9. The Third Schedule of the Constitution de-
tails
4. The modern State is a/an
A. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
A. police state
B. The list of languages
B. welfare state C. Forms of oaths or affirmations
C. laissez faire state D. The States and the Union Territories of
D. aristocratic state India
5. The President of India has immunity from 10. Which among the following languages is
not recognised in the Indian Constitution?
A. civil proceedings during his term of of-
fice A. Sanskrit
B. criminal proceedings during his life B. Sindhi
time after retirement C. Urdu
C. criminal proceedings during his term D. Pali
of office
11. constituted the largest single profes-
D. all processes, civil or criminal, sional group among the members of the
throughout his incumbency as President Constituent Assembly of India.
and thereafter
A. Professors
6. The President of Indian enjoys the same B. Politicians
Constitutional authority as the C. Lawyers
A. British Monarch D. Doctors
B. President of the USA
12. Under the Constitution the ’Residuary
C. President of Myanmar Powers’ belong to the
D. British Prime Minister A. President of India
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9.16 Indian Constitution 572
B. Supreme Court of India C. The original Eighth Schedule did not in-
C. Union Government clude these languages
D. Both A and B above
D. State Governments
18. When the Supreme Court was inaugurated
13. The minimum age to qualify for member-
in 1950, how many judges were there in
ship of the Rajya Sabha is
the Court (including the Chief Justice)?
A. 21 years A. 7
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 25 years B. 8
C. 30 years C. 9
D. 35 years D. 10
14. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the 19. The Constitution has not laid down a com-
does not vacate his office until immedi- prehensive law relating to citizenship of
ately before the first meeting of the House India. The power to enact such law is left
after the dissolution. to the
A. Prime Minister A. President
B. Speaker B. Union Parliament
C. Finance Minister C. Law Ministry
D. Defence Minister D. Rajya Sabha
15. The Supreme Court of India is vested with 20. India was not a State before15th August
1947, because it had no
A. Original Powers
A. Sovereignty
B. Advisory Powers
B. Constitution
C. Appellate Powers
C. Elected Government
D. Original, advisory and appellate pow-
D. Parliament
ers
21. Every judge of the High Court is appointed
16. A Constitutional Emergency declared by
by the President of India, after consulta-
the President has to be approved by Union
tion with the
Parliament within
A. Chief Justice of India
A. 1 month
B. Governor of the State
B. 2 months
C. Chief Justice of the High Court con-
C. 6 months cerned
D. 1 year D. All the above three institutions
17. What is common to Marathi and Konkani? 22. Who acted as the Prime Minister of India
A. Both are principal languages of the immediately on the death of Jawaharlal
State of Goa Nehru?
B. Both now find a place in the Eighth A. TT Krishnamachari
Schedule B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
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9.16 Indian Constitution 573
C. Mrs Indira Gandhi 27. Normally, no person can be held under
D. Gulzari Lal Nanda preventive detention for more than
months.
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23. The summoning of Parliament for a session A. two
within six months from the date of last sit-
ting of each House is B. three
A. optional C. six
B. mandatory D. twelve
C. left to the discretion of the President
28. Is there any provision in the Constitution
D. left to the discretion of the Speaker of authorising the President to appropriate
the Lok Sabha and Chairman of the Rajya funds without parliamentary sanction?
Sabha
A. Yes
24. The difference between an Additional B. No
Judge and an Acting Judge of a High Court
is C. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
A. there is practically no difference D. Yes, during an emergency under Arti-
cle 352
B. the former is appointed in a casual va-
cancy whereas the latter is appointed to 29. The Planning Commission is a/an
cope with the workload
A. autonomous corporation
C. the former is appointed to cope with
the workload whereas the latter is ap- B. department of the Government of In-
pointed in a casual vacancy dia
D. the former is appointed by the Presi- C. advisory body
dent whereas the latter is appointed by D. executive body
the Chief Justice of the concerned High
Court 30. Who among the following has the exclu-
sive power to grant pardon in case of
25. The members of the Vidhan Sabha in Indian death sentences?
States are
A. Prime Minister of India
A. directly elected
B. Chief Justice of India
B. indirectly elected
C. President of India
C. appointed by the Governor
D. A Special Bench of the Supreme Court
D. nominated by the President
26. The Constitution makes India a secular 31. The Fundamental Rights as contains in our
State. This means Constitution are grouped under cate-
gories.
A. India shall be a theocratic State
A. 5
B. India shall be a State without religion
B. 6
C. The State is completely detached from
religious affiliations C. 7
D. None of these D. 10
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9.16 Indian Constitution 574
32. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 and D. All the three above
the Government of India Act 1935 with
all amendments were repealed by Article 37. A joint sitting of both the Houses of Par-
of the Constitution. liament is presided over by the
A. 393 A. President
B. 394 B. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
C. 395 C. Speaker
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 390 D. Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
33. The Head of the British Commonwealth of 38. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected for
Nations is the a term of five years, but the term can be
A. British Prime Minister extended by year(s) by Parliament in a Na-
tional Emergency.
B. British Sovereign
A. One
C. British Foreign Secretary
B. Two
D. Secretary General of the Common-
wealth C. Three
D. Four
34. The US Constitution is rigid because
A. its interpretation by the Supreme 39. The Union Territories get representation
Court has made it difficult for the A. in the Lok Sabha but not in the Rajya
Congress to amend it Sabha
B. a special procedure distinct from the B. in the Rajya Sabha but not in the Lok
ordinary legislative procedure is required Sabha
to amend it
C. neither in the Lok Sabha nor in the Ra-
C. the Constitution has not given the jya Sabha
Congress the power to amend it
D. in both the Houses
D. the States have the power to amend it
40. The maximum permitted strength of any-
35. The partition of British India into Pakistan one State in the Rajya Sabha is
and India was incorporated in the
A. 32
A. Government of India Act, 1935
B. 35
B. Constitution of India
C. 39
C. Indian Independence Act, 1947
D. 48
D. Proposals of the Cabinet Mission 1946
41. Who among the following was elected
36. Union Parliament is
as permanent President of constituent As-
A. the supreme law making body in India sembly?
A. Jaya Prakash Narayan
B. the House of the representatives of
the people B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. the forum where democracy is seen in C. Dr Rajendra Prasad
action D. K M Munshi
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9.16 Indian Constitution 575
42. If a member of the Lok Sabha absents him- B. not laid down in the Constitution
self for a period of days from the C. governed by healthy conventions
meeting of the House, without the permis-
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sion of the House, he will be disqualified. D. governed by an Instrument of Instruc-
tions
A. 30
48. Supreme court judges hold office until they
B. 45
complete the age of
C. 60
A. 60
D. 90
B. 62
43. Elections to elect are not controlled by C. 58
the Election Commission. D. 65
A. Members of Parliament
49. India is a federal state because or
B. Members of State Legislature
A. her written Constitution
C. President of India
B. the independence of the Judiciary
D. Members of Local Bodies
C. the sharing of power between the Cen-
44. The decision of the Speaker as to whether tre and the States
a Bill is a Money Bill or not shall be D. dual citizenship
A. subject to appeal to a Committee 50. Who among the following has the right to
B. final address both the Houses of Parliament?
C. subject to arbitration A. Chief Justice of India
D. subject to adjudication B. Comptroller and Auditor General of In-
dia
45. A State Governor enjoys
C. Attorney General for India
A. No discretionary powers
D. Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
B. extensive discretionary powers
51. Which of the following Acts ensures that
C. discretionary powers in certain mat-
every child gets school education?
ters
A. RTI Act
D. discretionary powers during an Emer-
gency B. Govt. Grants Act
C. Apprentice Act
46. Administrators of Union Territories are re-
sponsible to the D. RTE Act
A. Union Home Minister 52. A Judge of the Supreme Court
B. Lok Sabha A. can be removed .by the President
C. President B. cannot be removed by the President
D. Union Parliament C. can be removed by the President only
upon a joint address by both Houses of
47. The grounds under which the President Parliament
may remove a Governor from office are D. can be removed by the Chief Justice of
A. laid down in the Constitution India
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9.16 Indian Constitution 576
53. The monthly salary of a State Governor is C. women
Rs. D. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
A. 110000 Tribes
B. 120000 58. The Vice-President of India is elected by
C. 100000 an electoral college comprising the
D. 90000 A. elected members of the Rajya Sabha
B. elected members of Parliament and
54. If the same person is elected to both a Par-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the elected members of the Legislative As-
liamentary seat and a seat in a State Leg-
semblies of the States
islature and if he does not resign his seat
in the State Legislature before a specified C. elected members of both Houses of
period Parliament
A. his seat in the State Legislature will be- D. members of both Houses of Parlia-
come vacant ment
B. his seat in Parliament will become va- 59. The President of India is the of the
cant State.
C. both the seats will become vacant A. Real Head
D. he may be debarred from contesting B. Titular Head
elections in the future C. Constitutional Head
55. Right to Education became a Fundamental D. Civilian Head
Right on
60. The Governor holds office for years
A. March 15, 2010 from the date of assumption of office.
B. April 1, 2010 A. five
C. July 17, 2010 B. four
D. October 10, 2010 C. six
56. The Governor may nominate one or more D. three
members of a certain community, as mem-
61. Which among the following countries has
bers of the State Legislative Assembly. If
a Unitary System of Government?
no member of that community seeks elec-
tion to the Assembly. Name the commu- A. USA
nity. B. Pakistan
A. Parsis C. Switzerland
B. Jains D. United Kingdom
C. Angle-Indians
62. The lower age limit for election as Presi-
D. Buddhists dent of India is
57. Reserved seats exist in a State Assembly A. thirty
for B. thirty-five
A. minorities C. forty
B. backward classes D. fifty
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9.16 Indian Constitution 577
63. The Indian Army General who had earned be spent without authorisation by Parlia-
the sobriquet ’Sparrow’ was ment?
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A. KM Cariappa A. Debt charges for which the Govern-
B. Sam J Manekshaw ment of India is liable
C. Rajinder Singh B. Salaries, allwoances and pensions of
the Judges of the Supreme Court
D. KS Thimmayya
C. Salary and allowances of the President
64. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in
the Indian Constitution in the year D. All the above
A. 1975
69. As per the decision taken by the Orissa
B. 1976 cabinet, the new name of the state would
C. 1977 be written as
D. 1979 A. Odisha
B. Orissha
65. A judge of the Supreme Court can be re-
moved from his position only on grounds C. Aurissa
of D. None of these
A. proved misbehaviour or incapacity
70. To which State in India goes the credit
B. gross inefficiency of having been ruled by the world’s first
C. senility democratically elected Communist Govern-
ment?
D. imbecile conduct
A. West Bengal
66. Which day of the year is observed as the B. Kerala
Commonwealth Day?
C. Jammu and Kashmir
A. January 1
D. Goa
B. May 24
C. June 2 71. Which of the following is/are a political
sovereign in democratic country?
D. October 21
A. Ruling Party
67. Nowadays the Election Commission of In- B. Opposition Party
dia Uses ’EVM’ during the general election
in the country. What Is the full form of C. Parliament
EVM? D. People
A. Election Validation Machine
72. When an army officer seizes power
B. Electronic Voting Machine through a coup d’ etat, he becomes
C. Electronic Validation Management A. a de jure sovereign
D. Early Voting Movement B. a de facto sovereign
68. Which one of the following is charged to C. a popular sovereign
the Consolidated Fund of India and can D. a titular sovereign
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9.16 Indian Constitution 578
73. What is common to Sanskrit, Kashmiri and D. The bill keeps alive despite dissolution
Sindhi? of Parliament and takes its normal course
A. Though listed in the Eighth Schedule
77. ’Franchise’ means the
these three languages are unique in that
they are not the official languages of any A. right to vote
state B. right to vote granted to men only
B. These three are the oldest languages C. vote
of the world
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. right to vote granted to women only
C. Special provision has been made in the
Constitution for the development of these 78. Which one of the following Committees ex-
languages amines the report of the Comptroller and
D. They did not find a place in the Eighth Auditor General of India?
Schedule of the original constitution but A. Committee of Estimates
were subsequently included
B. Committee on Public Accounts
74. Who among the following is not appointed
C. Joint Select Committee
by the President of India?
D. Rules Committee
A. Comptroller and Auditor General of In-
dia 79. During a Financial Emergency, all Money
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha Bills passed by State Legislatures require
C. Attorney General for India the consent of the
D. Chief Election Commissioner A. Prime Minister
B. President
75. The authority empowered to fix the salary
and allowances of the Speaker is the C. Lok Sabha
A. President D. Union Finance Minister
B. Union Cabinet 80. The Election Commission enjoys
C. Vice-President A. a constitutional basis
D. Union Parliament
B. a statutoty basis
76. A Constitution Amendment BW after be- C. an extra-constitutional basis
ing passed by the Rajya Sabha is pend-
D. no constitutional or statutory basis
ing before a Select Committee of the Lok
Sabha. Meanwhile the Parliament is dis- 81. Parliament can legislate on matters in the
solved. What happens to the bill? State List
A. The bill lapses on the dissolution of
A. by written orders of the President
Parliament
B. by consulting the State Legislatures
B. The bill goes before a new Select Com-
concerned
mittee constituted by the new Lok Sabha
C. by the Rajya Sabha passing a two-
thirds majority resolution
C. The bill is referred to the Attorney Gen-
eral by the new Lok Sabha D. under any circumstances
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9.16 Indian Constitution 579
82. Members of the Rajya Sabha are 87. To abide by the Constitution and respect
Its Ideals and Institutions the National
A. nominated by the President
Flag and the National Anthem is a/an
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B. elected by members of the State Leg-
A. Fundamental Right
islative Assemblies
B. Fundamental Duty
C. elected by members of the Lok Sabha
C. Ordinary Right
D. elected by members of the State Leg-
islative Councils D. Directive Principles of State Policy
83. The Cabinet is jointly responsible to the 88. Under the Indian Constitution right to free-
lower chamber of Parliament in the United dom of speech and expression is denied to
Kingdom. The name of the lower chamber A. the civil servants
is B. judges of the Supreme Court and High
A. House of Representatives Courts
B. House of Commons C. members of the armed forces
C. National Assembly D. All the above categories
D. The Senate 89. Article 32 makes/gives the Supreme
Court of India
84. Article of the Constitution deals with
the procedure for amendment of the Indian A. the protector and guarantor of Funda-
Constitution? mental Rights
B. an advisory role in respect of Constitu-
A. 360
tional matters
B. 363
C. original jurisdiction in respect of dis-
C. 368 putes between the Union and the State
D. 369 D. appellate jurisdiction
85. In which year was the first no-confidence 90. If the Rajya Sabha rejects a Money Bill,
motion moved in the Lok Sabha? then which of the following statements is
correct?
A. 1960
A. The Bill is sent back to the Lok Sabha
B. 1962 for further consideration
C. 1963 B. President summons a Joint Session for
D. 1973 passing the Bill
C. Lok Sabha may or may not accept its
86. Who was the third President of the Indian recommendations
Republic?
D. The Attorney General’s opinion is
A. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy sought
B. Dr Zakir Husain
91. The Directive Principles of State Policy are
C. VV Giri non- justiciable which means that
D. Fakruddin Ali Ahmed A. they are sacrosanct
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9.16 Indian Constitution 580
B. in case they are violated, the matter B. Vice-President
cannot be taken to courts C. Speaker
C. courts are debarred from considera-
D. Law Minister
tion of these Principles
D. the law of the land does not recognise 97. Universal Adult Franchise implies a right to
their existence vote to all
92. Who among the former RBI Governors A. residents of the State
NARAYAN CHANGDER
was a Presidential candidate in 1969? B. adult residents of the State
A. PC Bhattacharya C. adult citizens of the State
B. HVR Iengar D. adult male citizens of the State
C. Dr IG Patel
98. The President has so far declared financial
D. Dr CD Deshmukh emergency
93. In case of breakdown of Constitutional ma- A. once
chinery in the State of Jammu and Kashmir
B. twice
rule will be imposed in the State.
C. thrice
A. President’s
D. never
B. Governor’s
C. Army 99. State Legislatures have role in the
D. Sadar-i-Riyasat’s election of the Vice- President of India.
A. a specific
94. The Prime Minister of India who did not
face the Union Parliament was B. no
A. Morarji Desai C. an indirect
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri D. A conclusive
C. Charan Singh 100. How many Parliamentary Constituen-
D. Rajiv Gandhi cies are there in the Union Territory of
Puducherry?
95. Which one of the following is not correct
with regard to the powers of the President A. One
of India? B. Two
A. He is the Supreme Commander of the C. Three
armed forces
D. Four
B. He can declare war or peace
C. He presents the annual Defence Bud- 101. When were the first General Elections
get before Parliament held in the country?
D. He has the power to issue Ordinances A. 1950-51
B. 1949-50
96. A joint sitting of both the Houses or Par-
liament is summoned by the C. 1951-52
A. President D. 1952-53
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9.16 Indian Constitution 581
102. The executive of a State Government 107. Ambassadors and High Commissioners of
comprises the foreign countries present their credentials
to the
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A. President, the Governor and the Chief
Minister A. Prime Minister
B. Governor and the Chief Minister B. President
C. Governor and the Council of Ministers C. Foreign Minister
D. Foreign Secretary
D. Chief Minister and his Council of Minis- 108. Which one of the following is not true
ters about the functions of the Attorney Gen-
eral for India?
103. According to the Supreme Court, the goal
of Indian Socialism is a ’blend of and A. He will have the right to speak in the
leaning heavily towards Gandhian So- Houses of Parliament
cialism. B. He will have the right to vote in Parlia-
A. Marxism and Leninsism ment
B. Leninism and Gandhism C. He will have a right of audience in all
courts in India
C. Marxism and Gandhism
D. He is the first Law Officer of the Gov-
D. Nehruism and Gandhism ernment of India
104. The main thrust of the Directive Principles 109. The protector of the Fundamental Rights
of State Policy is guaranteed under the Constitution is the
A. creation of an egalitarian society A. Parliament
B. achieving the goal of a ’welfare state’ B. Prime Minister
C. ensuring national integration C. President
D. striking a balance between equality D. Supreme Court
and liberty
110. The Indian Administrative Service and the
105. No taxes can be levied on expenditure in- Indian Police Service have been created by
curred without the approval of the the
A. Union Parliament A. Home Ministry
B. Unoin Public Service Commission
B. Union Council of Ministers
C. Parliament
C. President
D. Supreme Court of India
D. Prime Minister
111. Which language was added to the list
106. The salary and perquisites enjoyed by the of regional languages by the 21st Amend-
President of India are determined by the ment?
A. Prime Minister A. Assamese
B. Parliament B. Oriya
C. Supreme Court C. Kashmiri
D. Rajya Sabha D. Sindhi
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9.16 Indian Constitution 582
112. According to the Constitution, there shall C. State Legislative Assembly
be a Council of Ministers with the Prime D. People of the State
Minister at the head to
A. guide the President 118. The Chairman of the Union Public Service
Commission is appointed by the
B. aid and advise the President
C. seek advice from the President A. Prime Minister
D. exercise a check on the President B. President
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Parliament
113. During the temporary absence of a Gov-
ernor the is appointed to officiate as D. Home Minister
Governor.
119. The Parliamentary form of Government
A. Chief Sectetary first evolved in
B. Speaker of the State Assembly
A. Britain
C. Chairman of the State Legislative
B. Greece
Council
C. France
D. Chief Justice of the State High Court
D. Switzerland
114. The Headquarters of the International
Court of Justice is 120. Who defeated Mrs Gandhi in the 1977
A. Rome Lok Sabha elections?
B. Venice A. Morarji Desai
C. The Hague B. Raj Narain
D. Washington C. Charan Singh
115. The first linguistic State, born in 1953, D. JP Narayan
was
121. Who among the following draws the
A. Andhra maximum salary?
B. Saurashtra A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
C. Gujarat B. Chief Justice of a High Court
D. Maharashtra
C. Prime Minister of India
116. The Union Parliament consists of D. President of India
A. The President of India
122. The casting vote on any issue is given to
B. The Council of States (Rajya Sabha) the Speaker only
C. The House of the People
A. to throw his weight with the ruling
D. All of the above party
117. The Chief Minister remains in power as B. to solve a deadlock arising in the
along as he enjoys the confidence of the House
A. Prime Minister C. during a national emergency
B. Governor D. during a financial emergency
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9.16 Indian Constitution 583
123. The concept of nomination of members to 128. The original Constitution provided for
the Rajya Sabha by the President has been Judges besides the Chief Justice for
borrowed from the Constitution of the Supreme Court of India.
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A. USA A. 6
B. United Kingdom B. 7
C. Ireland C. 8
D. Australia D. 9
129. In a Parliamentary form of Government
124. Can the President be removed from office
the
otherwise that by impeachment?
A. Legislature is responsible to the Judi-
A. Yes, by a resolution of Parliament
ciary
B. No B. Legislature is responsible to the Exec-
C. Yes, by a resolution of the Union Cabi- utive
net C. Executive is responsible to the Legisla-
D. Yes, by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha, ture
passed by a majority and endorsed by the D. Judiciary is responsible to the Legisla-
Lok Sabha ture
125. The ultimate interpreter and guardian of 130. By convention the Governor of a State
the Indian Constitution is the generally belongs to
A. President of India A. the same State
B. Lok Sabha B. some other State
C. Rajya Sabha C. the IAS Cadre
D. Supreme Court D. the same zone
131. An ordinance issued by the President has
126. Who among the following can preside
the same force and effect as an Act of Par-
over a joint sitting of the two Houses of
liament
the Indian Parliament?
A. True
A. President of India
B. False
B. Prime Minister
C. True, only during a National Emer-
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha gency
D. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha D. True, only during a Financial Emer-
gency
127. The first Governor ever to be dismissed
by the President was 132. The English equivalents of Lok Sabha and
Vidhan Parishad are
A. Prabhudas Patwari
A. House of the People and Legislative
B. Md. Yoonus Saleem
Council
C. Dr. MM Thomas
B. Upper House and Legislative Assembly
D. Ram Lal
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9.16 Indian Constitution 584
C. Council of States and Legislative Coun- 138. The functional head of the Government is
cil the
D. Upper House and Legislative Council A. Chief Justice of India
133. The final authority to make a Procla- B. President
mation of Emergency rests with the C. Prime Minister
A. Prime Minister D. Cabinet Secretary
B. President 139. Which among the Coli owing countries
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Union Parliament is known as the ”Home of Direct Democ-
D. Union Council of Ministers racy”?
A. UK
134. The Special Officer for the Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes shall be ap- B. USA
pointed by the C. Switzerland
A. Prime Minister D. France
B. Home Minister 140. The three-tier Panchayati Raj system in
C. Law Minister India was proposed by the
D. President A. Balwarrt Rai Mehta Committee
135. The Sarkaria Commission was set up to B. Ashok Mehta committee
examine C. Royal commission
A. Centre-State relations D. None of these
B. Inter-State relations 141. Business in Parliament can be transacted
C. The working of Public Sector Undertak- A. Only in Hindi
ings
B. Only in English
D. The dispute relating to sharing of Cau-
very waters C. In Hindi or in English
D. In any regional language
136. The provision for organising village Pan-
chayats exists in 142. A retired judge of the Supreme Court of
A. The Preamble to the Constitution India can resume practice in the
B. Chapter on Fundamental Rights A. Supreme Court
C. Chapter on Directive Principles of B. High Court of his choice
State Policy C. District Courts
D. An Act of Parliament passed in 1950 D. No Court in the territory of the Union
137. The US President is elected for a period 143. The Governor of a State enjoys
of A. no discretionary powers at all
A. four years B. extensive discretionary powers
B. five years C. discretionary powers in certain mat-
C. six years ters
D. three years D. discretionary powers in legal matters
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9.16 Indian Constitution 585
144. The Cabinet System of Government orig- 149. The monthly salary of the President of
inated in India is now
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A. Britain A. Rs 500000
B. USA B. Rs 180000
C. France C. Rs 150000
D. Rs 200000
D. Sweden
150. A Finance Bill is one which
145. Which of the following is not a duty of
the Election Commission? A. authorises expenditure on the Contin-
gency Fund of India
A. To give recognition to political parties
B. is introduced every year to give effect
B. To lay down general rules and guide- to the financial proposals of the Union
lines for elections Government for the succeeding financial
C. To determine constituencies and to year
prepare the electoral rolls C. authorises expenditure out of the Con-
solidated Fund of India
D. To provide adequate campaign funds
for the candidates D. outlines the state of economy of the na-
tion presented to Parliament by the Union
146. A few members of the Legislative Council Finance Minister on the eve of presenta-
are nominated by the tion of the annual Budget
A. Chief Minister 151. The most literate State in India is
B. Governor of the State A. West Bengal
C. Chairman of the Council B. Goa
D. Speaker of the State Assembly C. Kerala
D. Tamil Nadu
147. The Prime Minister is generally a
A. Member of the Lok Sabha 152. Usually the head of the State dissolves
the Parliament before its term expires, on
B. Member of the Rajya Sabha the advice of the
C. Member of the Lok Sabha and the Ra- A. Prime Minister
jya Sabha as well B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. Nominated Member of Parliament C. Law Minister
148. The power to declare an Act passed by D. Parliamentary Affairs Minister
a State Legislature as unconstitutional lies
153. The Union Food Minister who had earned
with the
the sobriquet ”Famine Minister” was
A. President A. KM Munshi
B. State High Court B. Rafi Abmed Kidwai
C. Supreme Court and State High Court C. NG Ayyangar
D. State Governor D. Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
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9.16 Indian Constitution 586
154. At present (2009), only six States have 159. The procedure for resolving a disagree-
Legislative Councils. Find the odd one ment between the Lok Sabha and Rajya
out? Sabha is
A. Bihar A. A joint session of the two houses on a
directive from the President
B. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha
C. Kerala
C. Setting up of a Joint Select Committee
D. Karnataka
NARAYAN CHANGDER
155. A minister who is not a member of the D. Setting up of an Adjudication Commit-
State Legislative Assembly is required to tee
secure the people’s verdict in his favour in 160. When Mrs. Gandhi became Prime Minis-
a by-election within ter in 1965 she was a member of
A. two months A. Lok Sabha
B. three months B. Rajya Sabha
C. six months C. Neither
D. one year D. Both
156. The Central Provinces and Berar are now 161. The Cabinet System of Government first
known as evolved in
A. Uttar Pradesh A. Greece
B. Britain
B. Bihar
C. Canada
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. USA
D. Odisha
162. The Central Audit Machinery is headed by
157. On which among the following subjects the
is the Union Parliament not competent to A. Union Finance Minister
make laws for Jammu and Kashmir?
B. Union Finance Secretary
A. Defence
C. Comptroller and Auditor General of In-
B. Finance dia
C. Foreign Affairs D. Accountant General, Central Revenues
D. Communications 163. A foreigner residing in India does not
have the right to
158. Which of the following is not a salient
feature of the Indian Constitution? A. seek justice in a court of law
A. A Parliamentary form of Government B. approach the police for protection or
security
B. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
C. vote at the time of elections to the Lok
C. Directive Principles of State Policy Sabha
D. A federal polity akin to the American D. express an opinion critical of Govern-
model ment policy
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9.16 Indian Constitution 587
164. The number of representatives from Na- 169. Until the year , a no-confidence mo-
galand to the Rajya Sabha is tion was never moved in the Lok Sabha.
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A. 1 A. 1962
B. 2 B. 1964
C. 3 C. 1965
D. 1963
D. 4
170. Who appoints Secretary General of the
165. After the report of the Comptroller and Lok Sabha?
Auditor General is laid before Parliament
it is examined by the A. Deputy Speaker
B. Speaker
A. Estimates Committee
C. President
B. Public Accounts Committee
D. Leader of Ruling Party
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
171. How many Union Territories come un-
D. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
der the jurisdiction of different State High
Courts?
166. Which among the following subjects is in-
cluded in the Concurrent List? A. 7
A. Agriculture B. 6
B. Education C. 5
D. 4
C. Forests
D. Police 172. In the event of receiving the resignation
of the President, the Vice-President shall
167. The Prime Ministership is generally of- forthwith communicate the fact to the
fered to the A. Prime Minister of India
A. Leader of the majority party in the Pop- B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
ular House C. Chief of the Army Staff
B. Leader of the majority party in the Up- D. Chief Justice of India
per House
173. State Governors are Instruments of con-
C. Person who is unanimously elected as
trol of the Centre over the States.
the Leader of the House
A. True
D. Protem Speaker of the Lower House
B. False
168. The first ever meeting of the Union Cabi- C. Only during a National Emergency
net outside New Delhi was held in
D. Only during a Financial Emergency
A. Alwar
174. Which among the following is not a Fun-
B. Ajmer damental Right?
C. Jaipur A. Right of strike
D. Sariska B. Right to equality
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9.16 Indian Constitution 588
C. Right to freedom of religion C. he has a Constitutional right to engage
D. Right to constitutional remedies a counsel of his choice
D. he can engage his own counsel but his
175. The maximum strength of the Select Com- counsel must be approved by the court
mittee of the Lok Sabha is
180. As per the news which appeared in some
A. 10 members
newspapers/magazines, the police with
B. 5 members the help of some NGOs rescued some chil-
dren who had been forced in child labour
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 15 members
illegally. Such children are protected under
D. Not fixed and varies from Committee
which of the following acts in India?
to Committee
I) Juvenile Justice Act
176. is the official language of Nagaland. II) Child Labour Act
A. Ao III) Immoral Trafficking Act
B. Sema A. Only I
B. Only II
C. English
C. Only I and II
D. Angami
D. All I, II and III
177. Before 15th August, 1947 India was not
a State because it had/was 181. The first official act of the Constituent As-
sembly of the Jammu and Kashmir State
A. no sovereignty
was to
B. no elected government A. put an end to the hereditary princely
C. no Constitution rule of the Maharaja
D. economically backward and financially B. install Dr Karan Singh as the ruler of
poor the State
178. The Chief Justice and other judges of the C. change the name of Sadar-i-Riyasat to
Supreme Court of India hold office until that of Governor
they attain the age of D. declare the State of Jammu and Kash-
mir as an integral part of the Union of In-
A. 58 years
dia
B. 60 years
182. The office of the Prime Minister of India
C. 65 years
has a basis.
D. 70 years
A. constitutional
179. A person accused of an offence wants to B. statutory
engage a counsel of his choice for his de- C. conventional
fence. According to the provisions of the
Indian Constitution D. historical
A. he is not entitled as of right to engage 183. ’In this country the sovereign reigns but
a counsel of his choice does not govern’. These were the words
B. he can engage only a counsel ap- of
proved by the court A. Clement Attlee
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9.16 Indian Constitution 589
B. Winston Churchill 189. Who among the following decides the na-
C. Anthony Eden ture of a bill
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D. Harold McMillan A. Attorney General for India
184. The UN Secretary-General is elected ev- B. Prime Minister
ery C. Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
A. 2 years D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. 3 years
C. 4 years 190. The French Settlement of Pondicherry
(now, Puducherry) was ceded to India by
D. 5 years the French Government in
185. Which among the following subjects is A. 1950
contained in the Concurrent List?
B. 1954
A. Education
C. 1952
B. Fisheries
C. Agriculture D. 1955
D. Police 191. In the Indian Penal Code a crime is consid-
186. The Indian National Congress lost power ered ’cognizable’ when
at the Centre in the general elections held A. the crime is unintentional
in
B. children below 16 are the criminals
A. 1967
C. it is punishable by less than 3 years of
B. 1971 imprisonment
C. 1977
D. when a court can take notice of the
D. 1980 crime without a formal complaint
187. According to the Table of Precedence
192. Who among the following has the power
published by the Union Government the
to adjourn the Council of States?
Attorney-General for India occupies the
place. A. President of India
A. tenth B. Prime Minister of India
B. eleventh C. Chairman of the Council of States
C. sixth D. Union Minister for Parliamentary Af-
D. ninth fairs
188. The strength of the Council of Ministers 193. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha will ad-
in the State dress his letter of resignation to the
A. is determined by the State Governor
A. President
B. is determined by the State Assembly
B. Prime Minister
C. is determined by the State Chief Minis-
ter C. Deputy Speaker
D. has been laid down in the Constitution D. Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
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9.16 Indian Constitution 590
194. Who among the following propounded A. Certain provisions may be amended by
the ”theory of natural rights”? a majority ruling of the Supreme Court
A. Aristotle B. Certain provisions may be amended by
B. Hobbes a simple majority in Parliament
C. Locke C. Certain others may be amended by a
two-thirds majority
D. Socrates
D. Certain others need ratification by one-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
195. President’s rule can be imposed in a half of the States
State
200. In which one of the following countries,
A. during an Internal Emergency the members of the Upper House of Fed-
B. during an External Emergency eral Legislature are nominated for life?
C. when there is a failure of the constitu- A. USA
tional machinery in the State B. Canada
D. At no time C. Negeria
196. The pledge for the independence of the D. Australia
country was taken all over India for the
first time on 201. The salaries and allowances of members
of Parliament will be determined by the
A. January 26, 1927
A. President
B. January 26, 1930
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. November 26, 1920
C. Parliament
D. August 15, 1930
D. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
197. The Principal organ of the United Nations
is the 202. Article 19 of the Constitution gives Indian
citizens the freedom to reside and settle in
A. Security Council any part of India. This freedom is subject
B. General Assembly to various restrictions in the State of
C. Secretariat A. Assam
D. Trusteeship Council B. Himachal Pradesh
198. There is party system in the USA. C. Jammu and Kashmir
A. one D. Goa
B. two 203. The President has the right to address
C. three A. the two Houses of Parliament assem-
D. multi bled at the first session convened after ev-
ery general election
199. The Constitution provides for three meth- B. the two Houses at the commencement
ods for amending the different categories of the first session every year
of provisions of the Constitutions. Which
among the following four is not an appro- C. the Lok Sabha only every year
priate method? D. Both A and B above
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9.16 Indian Constitution 591
204. is/are not covered by any Zonal 209. Nagaland is bounded on the east by
Council. A. Bangladesh
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A. Chandigarh B. Myanmar
B. Andaman and Nicobar Islands C. China
C. Lakshadweep D. Tibet
D. Pondicherry 210. The upper age limit for remaining a Pres-
ident ill India is
205. The President may nominate to the Lok
Sabha members of the Anglo-Indian A. 60 years
community If he is of the opinion that the B. 65 years
community is not adequately represented C. 70 years
In the House.
D. There is no upper age limit
A. Two
211. The highest position in the country an IAS
B. Three
officer can aspire for is
C. Four A. Governor RBI
D. Five B. Cabinet Secretary
206. The founders of the Indian National C. Home Secretary
Congress were D. Foreign Secretary
A. AO Hume, Gokhale, Gandhiji 212. Does the Constitution provide for a
B. AO Hume, Wedderburn, Dadabhai Deputy Prime Minister?
Naoroji A. Yes
C. AO Hume, Ansari, C Rajagopalachari B. No
D. Tilak, AO Hume, WC Banerjee C. Yes, during an Emergency
D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
207. The sole interpreter of the Constitution in
a State is the 213. A Presidential Ordinance remains in force
A. Advocate General for
A. three months
B. High Court
B. two months
C. Governor of the State
C. an indefinite period
D. Subordinate Courts
D. six months
208. The Indian Constitution came into force
214. An Advocate General of a State is enti-
on
tled to appear before
A. January 26, 1950 A. any court of law within the country
B. January 26, 1949 B. any court of law within the State
C. November 26, 1949 C. the Supreme Court of India
D. January 1, 1950 D. District and Sessions Courts
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9.16 Indian Constitution 592
215. The gestation period of the Indian Consti- B. Maharaja Sir Hari Singh
tution was C. Yuvaraj Karan Singh
A. 3 years 3 months 3 days D. Dr Farooq Abdullah
B. 2 years 11 months 18 days
221. The First Amendment made in 1951
C. cl 1 year 11 months 28 days added a new Schedule to the Constitution.
D. Exactly 3 years It was the Schedule.
A. Seventh
NARAYAN CHANGDER
216. The Portuguese enclaves of Dadra and
Nagar Haveli were integrated with India B. Eighth
after the Judgement (in India’s Cavour) of C. Ninth
the D. Tenth
A. Supreme Court of India
222. Which one of the following courts is re-
B. Privy Council sponsible for the enforcement of Funda-
C. International Court of Justice mental Rights?
D. Bombay High Court A. High Courts
B. Supreme Court of India
217. The House of Lords is the upper chamber
of Parliament in C. District and Sessions Court
A. the USA D. All categories of courts
B. the United Kingdom 223. Who among the following had the longest
C. Canada tenure as President or India?
D. Japan A. VV Giri
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
218. The exclusive forum for adjudicating dis-
C. FA Ahmed
putes relating to the election of the Presi-
dent of India is the D. N Sanjeeva Reddy
A. Lok Sabha 224. In the matter of representation of States
B. Rajya Sabha in the Rajya Sabha Uttar Pradesh tops the
list. Next comes
C. Supreme Court
A. Andhra Pradesh
D. Delhi High Court
B. Bihar
219. Under the original Constitution the States C. Maharashtra
were classified into categories.
D. West Bengal
A. two
225. Which among the following does not fall
B. three
within the jurisdiction of the Indian Parlia-
C. four ment?
D. five A. Foreign pilgrimage
220. The first Prime Minister of Jammu and B. Consideration of Money Bills
Kashmir was C. Consideration of Ordinary Bills
A. Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah D. Fundamental Rights and Duties
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9.16 Indian Constitution 593
226. Who among the following is/are not ap- B. Universal Adult Suffrage
pointed by a State Governor? C. Separate Electorate for Women
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A. Chief Minister D. Separate Electorate for Muslims
B. Members of the State Public Service
231. Which state enjoys the distinction of be-
Commission
ing the first linguistic State of India?
C. High Court Judges
A. Haryana
D. Advocate General
B. Gujarat
227. Some of the members of the Union Cabi- C. Andhra
net are members of the Council of States.
D. Tamil Nadu
Their collective responsibility is to the
A. Council of States 232. Impeachment of President is conducted in
the
B. House of the People
A. Supreme Court of India
C. Both the Houses
B. Parliament
D. Neither
C. Rashtrapati Bhavan
228. Does the President of India enjoy veto D. Delhi High Court
power?
233. Both the Houses of Parliament as well as
A. Yes
of a State Legislature have privileges
B. No under our Constitution.
C. Only in respect of Money Bills A. similar
D. The Constitution is silent on this point B. dissimilar
229. Which of the following is/are true about C. divergent
the “Gram Nyayalayas”? D. peculiar
I) These courts will be mobile courts 234. Who among the following can be rightly
and will function at Panchayat level. called the guardian of the Public Purse in
II) The Magistrates of these courts will India?
go to the villages in their area of
coverage and will dispose off cases A. Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
of the villages there itself.
III) Only civil suits related to the prop- B. Chairman of the State Bank of India
erty of Rs. 5, 00, 000 and above C. President of India
will be disposed off in this Way.
D. Comptroller and Auditor General of In-
A. Only I dia
B. Only II
235. Which is the official language of the State
C. Only III of Jammu and Kashmir?
D. Only I and II A. Kashmiri
230. Which one of the following was intro- B. Urdu
duced by the Constitution of India? C. Hindi
A. Uniform Civil Code D. English
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9.16 Indian Constitution 594
236. A proclamation of emergency under Arti- C. President
cle 352 should be laid before each House D. State legislature/s concerned
of Parliament within month(s) for for-
mal approval. 242. Can a citizen approach a court for the en-
forcement of a Directive Principle?
A. one
A. Yes
B. two
B. No
C. three
C. Yes, on the fulfilment of certain condi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. six tions
237. The highest court of appeal in India is the D. The Government can move the courts
A. Union Parliament but the citizen cannot
B. Supreme Court 243. The Chief Justice or other Judges of the
C. President Supreme Court, after retirement or re-
moval, are not permitted to plead or act
D. Rajya Sabha in any court
238. In the case or a dispute in the Presidential A. other than the Supreme Court
election, the issue is referred to the B. or before any authority within the ter-
A. Chief Election Commissioner ritory of India
B. Parliament C. inside or outside India
C. Supreme Court D. other than the State High Courts
D. Prime Minister 244. The letter of resignation of the President
should be addressed to the
239. may by law constitute a High Court
for a Union Territory or declare any court A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
in any such Territory to be a High Court. B. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
A. The President C. Vice President
B. The Supreme Court D. Prime Minister
C. Union Parliament 245. In which year was the Supreme Court of
D. The Ministry of Law India established?
A. 1949
240. Schedule of the Constitution gives a
list of the States and Union Territories. B. 1950
A. Second C. 1951
D. 1947
B. Third
C. First 246. If the Preamble of the Indian Constitution
is violated,
D. Fourth
A. the Supreme Court alone can help
241. The power to extend and/or restrict the B. there is no remedy legally or other-
jurisdiction of a High Court rests with the wise
A. Union Parliament C. the Supreme Court and State High
B. Supreme Court of India Courts can help
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9.16 Indian Constitution 595
D. the Attorney General of India can C. United Kingdom and New Zealand
move the Supreme Court for issue of a D. India and United Kingdom
suitable writ
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252. The members of the Rajya Sabha are
247. What is a Panchayati Raj? elected for
A. It is a community development pro- A. four years
gramme
B. six years
B. It is a cooperative movement.
C. five years
C. It is a scheme of self-governance
D. three years
D. It is an exercise in decentralisation of
administrative authority. 253. Promotion of international peace and se-
curity is dealt with in Article of the
248. The President of India can be removed Constitution.
from office by impeachment for
A. 48
A. violation of the Constitution of India
B. 49
B. failure to follow the advice given by the
Supreme Court C. 50
C. failure to pay income-tax D. 51
D. contempt of court 254. The British Panel that visited India to
study the Partition Plan (of India and Pak-
249. All lands, minerals and other things of istan) was headed by
value underlying the ocean within the ter-
ritorial waters of India shall vest only in A. Radcliffe
the B. Cripps
A. States lying adjacent to the ocean C. Mountbatten
B. Union of India D. Simmon
C. Both of them 255. In the division of the power under the
D. None of them Constitution who has been given more
powers?
250. Rajya Sabha is considered to be a perma-
nent House because A. The Centre
A. its members never retire B. The States
B. the House is never dissolved C. Both the States and the Centre enjoy
equal powers
C. one-third of its members retire after
every 2 years D. Cannot be determined
D. one-fourth of its members retire after 256. Article 14 prevents discriminatory prac-
every 3 years tices by
251. Among modern Constitutions two are A. the State
flexible. They are those of B. individuals
A. United Kingdom and Switzerland C. both
B. USA and Japan D. Neither
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9.16 Indian Constitution 596
257. Which State is covered by Article 370 of 263. Dual Citizenship is an important feature
the Constitution? in which form of Government?
A. Arunachal Pradesh A. Parliamentary
B. Mizoram B. Federal
C. Jammu and Kashmir C. Unitary
D. Haryana D. Authoritarian
258. The Constitution of India was adopted on
NARAYAN CHANGDER
264. The Swatantra Party was formed by
A. November 26, 1949
A. Morarji Desai
B. August 16, 1949
B. Piloo Mody
C. August 14, 1948
C. Minoo Masani
D. January 25, 1950
D. C Rajagopalachari
259. Who among the following is/are not ap-
pointed by the President? 265. When the Prime Minister tenders his res-
ignation the Union Cabinet
A. Attorney General for India
A. remains automatically dissolved
B. Judges of the Supreme Court
C. Judges of High Courts B. will function under an acting/a retaker
Prime Minister
D. Advocate General
C. will function directly under the Presi-
260. The Constitution of India mandates that dent
the elections of the Panchayati Raj should
D. will meet under the Chairmanship of
be held regularly after a gap of
the President
A. 2 years
266. Before assuming his office the President
B. 3 years
has to take an oath in the presence of the
C. 4 years Chief Justice of India or in his absence the
D. 5 years A. Vice-President of India
261. Which of the following is a Union Terri- B. Seniormost Judge of the Supreme
tory of India? Court
A. Uttarakhand C. Home Secreatary
B. Chandigarh D. Prime Minister
C. Himachal Pradesh
267. To ensure their impartiality, a retired
D. West Bengal Chief Justice of India or other Judges of
262. Which among the following countries has the Supreme Court are debarred from prac-
a Presidential form of Government? ticing in any
A. India A. court other than the apex court
B. The USA B. court in India
C. United Kingdom C. court other than State High Courts
D. Switzerland D. criminal court
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9.16 Indian Constitution 597
268. What is common to Britain, Israel and 273. The Indian National Congress accepted
New Zealand? the Cabinet Mission’s proposal for
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A. All the three countries are monarchies A. a Constitution-making body
B. interim Government
B. All the three are island nations C. formation of a Union of India
C. They have no written Constitution D. formation of Provincial Governments
D. The three States have jointly signed a 274. The Rajya Sabha was first constituted on
special trade treaty with Hong Kong
A. 3.4. 1952
269. The Panchayati Raj institutions depend B. 13. 5.1952
for funds mainly on
C. 1.1. 1953
A. local taxes D. 2.4. 1954
B. government finances
275. The seven Union Territories occupy
C. property taxes roughly per cent of the total area
D. special taxes of the country.
A. 12
270. In the election of the President of India
B. 0.33
the Constitution has attempted to
C. 6
A. maintain parity between the Union and
the States D. 3
B. afford more weightage to the Union 276. The Preamble of the Constitution was
C. afford more weightage to the States amended for the first time by the
A. 24th amendment
D. afford more weightage to the Union
Territories B. 38th amendment
C. 42nd amendment
271. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and
in every High Court will be in D. 44th amendment
A. Hindi 277. Joint meetings of two or more zonal
councils can be held. Such meetings are
B. English
presided over by the
C. Hindi and English A. Prime Minister
D. Hindi or English B. Union Home Minister
272. The post of Registrar of a State High C. Vice Chairman of the Planning Commis-
Court can be ruled up only by the sion
A. Chief Justice of the High Court D. Vice Chairman of the National Develop-
ment Council
B. State Public Service Commission
278. The Constituent Assembly of India which
C. State Governor
drafted the Indian Constitution was set up
D. Supreme Court of India under
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9.16 Indian Constitution 598
A. the Cripps Mission Plan 284. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in In-
B. the Cabinet Mission Plan dia in October, 1959 in
C. the Indian Independence Act A. Rajasthan
D. Lord Mountabatten’s notification B. Tamil Nadu
dated 12th August 1946 C. Kerala
279. The question whether an Indian citizen D. Karnataka
had acquired the citizenship of a foreign
NARAYAN CHANGDER
country is determined by 285. Money can be advanced out of the Con-
tingency Fund of India to meet unforeseen
A. Central Government
expenditures, by the
B. Supreme Court of India
A. Parliament
C. Attorney General for India
B. President
D. President of India
C. Finance Minister
280. The President of India possesses the
same Constitutional authority as the D. Prime Minister
A. British Monarch 286. The Constitutional duty to make recom-
B. President of the USA mendations with regard to the distribution
of’ financial resources between the Union
C. President of Bangladesh
and the States is vested with the
D. President of Pakistan
A. Reserve Bank of India
281. The position of the Vice-President of In- B. Planning Commission
dia is analogous to the position of the Vice-
President of C. Finance Commission
A. Myanmar D. Inter-State Council
B. Philippines 287. A person is entitled to Indian Citizenship,
C. USA if he is/if he fulfills
D. Switzerland A. domiciled in India
282. The Rajya Sabha is dissolved B. born in India
A. during an Emergency C. a refugee who has migrated to India
B. every five years from Pakistan
C. never D. All the above conditions
D. At the discretion of the President 288. What are the powers or the Rajya Sabha
283. When the Governor or a State dies in of- regarding Money Bills? The House
fice, who takes over as acting Governor? A. can amend them
A. Chief Minister of the State B. can reject them
B. Chief Justice of the State High Court C. can withhold them for 14 days to make
C. Anyone designated by the President recommendations
D. Governor of a neighbouring State D. has no power over Money Bills
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9.16 Indian Constitution 599
289. If a Cabinet Minister disagrees with the C. CV Narahari Rao
Prime Minister the latter can D. Dr John Matthai
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A. stop payment of salary to the Minister
294. The first Chairman of the Planning Com-
mission was
B. get the Minister removed by Parlia-
A. TT Krishnamachari
ment
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. ask the Minister to resign his minister-
ship C. Dr VKRV Rao
D. ask the Minister to resign from Parlia- D. Dr John Matthai
ment
295. In which case did the Supreme Court
290. Freedom of religion is guaranteed by strike down certain provisions of the 42nd
Amendment and restored primacy of fun-
A. the Preamble
damental rights over the Directive Princi-
B. Convention ples?
C. Fundamental Rights A. AK Gopalan Case
D. Directive Principles B. Golaknath Case
291. The late Mrs Vijayalakshami Pandit was C. Kesavananda Bharati Case
the first D. Minerva Mills Case
A. Indian to become President of the UN 296. The Uttar Pradesh Government has ac-
General Assembly corded the second official language status
B. Woman Cabinet Minister of a State in to in the State.
free India A. English
C. Woman Ambassador of free India to a B. Sanskrit
foreign country
C. Maithili
D. To adorn all the three above assign-
D. Urdu
ments
297. Which of the following qualifications is
292. The President of India has the power to
not essential for election as President of
take over the administration of a State if
India?
its Government cannot be carried on, ac-
cording to the provisions of A. A citizen of India
A. Article 320 B. Not less than 35 years of age
B. Article 350 C. Qualified for election as member of the
Lok Sabha
C. Article 356
D. A member of the Lok Sabha
D. Article 365
298. The framers or the Constitution decided
293. The First Indian to become the to live importance to Panchayati Raj and
Comptroller and Auditor General of India directed the State to take steps to orga-
was nize village panchayats as units or self-
A. CD Deshmukh government under Article
B. A Bakshi A. 39
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9.16 Indian Constitution 600
B. 40 304. The Contingency Fund of India has been
C. 38 placed at the disposal of the
A. Prime Minister
D. 41
B. President
299. Which is the only Indian State which has
C. Comptroller and Auditor General
the unique distinction of having its own
Constitution? D. Home Ministry
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Goa 305. When an US President dies in office the
B. Sikkim Vice-President assumes the President’s of-
fice and continues In that capacity for
C. Jammu and Kashmir
A. six months
D. Nagaland
B. one year
300. The first proclamation of Emergency un- C. two months
der Article 352 was made by the President
on D. the full length of the unexpired term of
office
A. October 12, 1960
306. The letter of resignation of a Judge of the
B. October 26, 1962
High Court should be addressed to the
C. November 1, 1961
A. Chief Justice of the High Court
D. November 1, 1962
B. President of India
301. The Indian Constitution provides for C. Governor of the State
A. Single Citizenship D. Union Law Minister
B. Dual Citizenship 307. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Com-
C. Both of them mittee of Parliament is appointed by the
D. Neither A. Prime Minister
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
302. The Vice-President is elected by an elec-
toral college consisting of the members of C. President
A. the Rajya Sabha D. Union Finance Minister
B. the Lok Sabha 308. A State Governor has
C. the State Legislative Assemblies A. diplomatic powers
D. both Houses of Parliament B. military powers
C. emergency powers
303. The competent authority to amend the
Fundamental Rights is the D. No diplomatic or military or emergency
powers
A. Union Parliament
B. President of India 309. In which one of the following States, it
is constitutionally obligatory for the State
C. Lok Sabha to have a separate minister for tribal wel-
D. Supreme Court of India fare?
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9.16 Indian Constitution 601
A. Jharkhand B. Ireland
B. Odisha C. South Africa
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C. Madhya Pradesh D. Bangladesh
D. All of them 315. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme
310. A plan for the division of India into two Court of India are specified in the
Independent States was presented in June, Schedule.
1947 by A. Second
A. the Muslim League B. Third
B. the Indian National Congress C. Sixth
C. Lord Wavell D. Seventh
D. Lord Mountbatten 316. All Constitutional questions should be
311. Who among the following is elected by heard and decided by a Supreme Court
an electoral college comprising the elected bench of not less than judges.
members of both the Houses of Parlia- A. 4
ment and the Legislative Assemblies of the B. 5
States?
C. 6
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. 7
B. President of India
C. Vice-President of India 317. Provisions for disqualification on ground
of defection are listed in Schedule .
D. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
A. 9
312. The term ’equality before the law’ has B. 10
been borrowed from
C. 11
A. Great Britain
D. 12
B. Government of India Act, 1935
C. USA 318. The French Settlement of Pondicherry
was ceded to India by the French Govern-
D. Ireland ment in
313. Which among the following statements is A. 1950
not true? Under the Constitution of India, B. 1954
A. the Vice-President is liable for im- C. 1952
peachment
D. 1955
B. the President does not preside
C. he Speaker does not speak 319. Civil proceedings may be brought against
the President in respect of his personal
D. the Governor does not govern acts but only If months’ notice in writ-
314. The first country to include a set of Direc- ing has been delivered to him.
tive Principles in its Constitution was A. six
A. India B. two
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9.16 Indian Constitution 602
C. Karnataka 324. Who amongst the following addresses
the nation on the Independence Day from
D. three
the ramparts of the Red Fort, Delhi?
320. Who retains the power of declaring war A. President of India
or peace? B. UPA Chairperson
A. Prime Minister C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. President D. Prime Minister of India
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Chief of Army Staff 325. For the Union Territories which have no
D. Defence Minister legislatures of their own laws are enacted
by the
321. Justice means that A. President
A. there cannot be any discrimination B. Union Law Ministry
whatever C. Union Parliament
B. there can be discrimination on just D. Supreme Court of India
grounds
326. A hopeless tribal woman of Assam sends
C. discrimination can be made in accor-
a telegram to the Supreme Court that the
dance with majority view
police have confined her to unlawful cus-
D. discrimination can be made according tody. Which of the following writs shall
to the wishes to the King/ President be issuable by the Supreme Court to pro-
vide a suitable remedy to her?
322. The President nominates persons to the
A. Certiorari
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in that order
B. Habeas Corpus
A. 4 and 10
C. Quo Warranto
B. 2 and 14
D. Mandamus
C. 2 and 10
327. The Constitution of India provides for a
D. 2 and 12 federal system with
323. The Sarkaria Commission has laid down A. a weak centre
certain guidelines for appointment of Gov- B. an omnipotent centre
ernors. Find the ’odd man’ out. C. a strong centre
A. The appointee should be eminent in D. a centre which enjoys co-equal powers
some walk of life with the states
B. He should have travelled extensively in 328. Which one of the following statements
and out of India is not correct with regard to the Directive
C. He should not be too closely connected Principles of State Policy incorporated in
with the politics of the State where he is the Constitution of India?
to be posted A. It is the duty of the State to apply these
D. A politician from the ruling party at the principles while making laws
Centre should not be appointed to a State B. They are enforceable by the High
run by some other party Courts and Supreme Court of India
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9.16 Indian Constitution 603
C. In case of conflict between these prin- B. Japan
ciples and the Fundamental Rights the lat- C. the USA
ter will prevail
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D. Switzerland
D. The attempt to confer primacy upon
the Principles as against the Fundamen- 334. The Governor is the of the Universi-
tal Rights has been foiled by the Supreme ties in the State.
Court of India in the Minerva Mills Case A. Chancellor
329. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution states: B. Pro-Chancellor
India, that is Bharat, shall be a C. Vice-Chancellor
A. Dominion D. Chief Executive
B. Federation
335. The State Constitution of Jammu and
C. Conglomeration Kashmir declares the State to be of
D. Union of States the Union of India.
A. a natural part
330. A Constitution is said to be flexible if
B. a full- fledged territory
A. it can be amended by ordinary law and
procedure C. an integral part
B. it can be amended by a difficult pro- D. popular entity
cess
336. The present membership of the Rajya
C. it can be amended by a court of law Sabha is of these represent the States
D. there is no amendment procedure and Union Territories.
A. 275, 225
331. Who among the following hold/s the of-
fice during the pleasure of the President? B. 250, 235
A. State Governors C. 245, 233
B. Supreme Court Judges D. 240, 225
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha 337. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can
D. Chief Election Commissioner vote in the House
A. during a Financial Emergency
332. Who performs the duties of the office of
the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha when B. during a National Emergency
the Vice-President is acting for the Pres- C. in case of a tie
ident?
D. if so advised by the Attorney General
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha for India
B. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha 338. Fundamental Duties are duties of
C. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha A. the Government towards society
D. Attorney General of India B. the State towards citizens
333. The concept of Constitution first origi- C. citizens towards society and fellow cit-
nated in izens
A. Britain D. citizens and the State
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9.16 Indian Constitution 604
339. You have the body 344. Which House of Parliament is sometimes
called the ”House of Elders”?
A. a Law Degree conferred by the
Leningrad University A. Rajya Sabha
B. the ancient name of a Greek City B. Lok Sabha
C. Both
C. the site of the first Olympiad
D. None of the above
D. a writ which facilitates a prisoner to
appear in a court for speedy trial or re- 345. The Capital of India was shifted from Cal-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lease on bail cutta to Delhi in
A. 1908
340. The has the final power to maintain
B. 1909
order within the House of the People.
C. 1910
A. Marshal of the House
D. 1911
B. Prime Minister
346. The term ’Fourth Estate’ refers to the
C. Speaker
A. Union Parliament
D. Chief of the Security Staff
B. Union Cabinet
341. The President can remove the Chief Elec- C. Press
tion Commissioner from office on D. Judiciary
A. his own suo moto 347. The Preamble to the Constitution defines
B. the advice of the Prime Minister the four objectives or the Indian Republic.
Find the odd one out.
C. the advice of Parliament
A. Equality
D. the advice of the Supreme Court
B. Fraternity
342. When both the offices of the Speaker and C. Harmony
Deputy Speaker are vacant, the duties of D. Liberty
the Speaker shall be performed by a mem-
ber of the Lok Sabha appointed by the 348. The constitution of India recognizes
A. Only religious minorities
A. Prime Minister
B. Only linguistic minorities
B. President
C. Religious and linguistic minorities
C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D. Religious, linguistic and ethnic minori-
D. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha ties
343. The Vice-President of India is eligible for 349. The British Parliament passed the Indian
re-election by a Independence Act, based on the Mount-
batten Plan, on
A. Constitutional provision
A. March 24, 1947
B. Convention B. August 14, 1947
C. Consensus C. February 20, 1947
D. Supreme Court Judgment D. July 18, 1947
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9.16 Indian Constitution 605
350. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in C. President
A. Andhra Pradesh D. Official Language Commission
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B. Bihar 356. In making laws Parliament has come to
C. Rajasthan accept the leadership of the
D. Gujarat A. Prime Minister
B. Law Minister
351. Which among the following has not been
Included in the list of languages under the C. President
8th Schedule of the Constitution of India? D. Attorney General
A. Sanskrit 357. The Supreme Court functions from New
B. Sindhi Delhi, but it can sit elsewhere
C. Urdu A. if a majority of the Judges of the Court
so decide
D. English
B. with the approval of the President
352. During the period of emergency the six C. with the approval of the Parliament
freedoms guaranteed by Article are
automatically suspended. D. at the specific request of a State High
Court
A. 19
358. The financial powers enjoyed by the Pres-
B. 18
ident of India are/is
C. 20
A. He can authorise advance of moneys
D. 17 out of the Contingency Fund
353. The model for Fundamental Rights in In- B. He can recommend introduction of cer-
dia has been taken from the tain money bills in Parliament
A. Constitution of the USA C. He can appoint a Finance Commission
to study and recommend distribution of
B. British Constitution tax resources between States
C. Constitution of the Fifth French Repub- D. All the three above
lic
359. State Governors are responsible for their
D. Irish Constitution
actions to the
354. The Supreme Commander of India’s De- A. Lok Sabha
fence Forces is
B. State Legislature
A. Chief of Staff of the Indian Army C. President
B. President of India D. Prime Minister
C. Prime Minister of India
360. The real executive powers under Parlia-
D. Defence Minister mentary Government rests with the
355. The Official Language Commission is re- A. Prime Minister
sponsible to the B. Head of the State
A. Prime Minister C. Parliament
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha D. Council of Ministers
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9.16 Indian Constitution 606
361. The right to decide on the Fundamental C. Malayalam
Rights that are not available to members D. Kannada
of the armed forces rests with the
A. President 367. The main purpose behind the inclusion of
the Directive Principles of State Policy in
B. Parliament the Indian Constitution is to
C. Defence Ministry A. establish a welfare state
D. Defence Minister B. establish a secular state
NARAYAN CHANGDER
362. Can the Supreme Court sit outside Delhi? C. check the arbitrary actions of the Gov-
ernment
A. Yes
D. provide the best opportunities for de-
B. No
velopment of the citizen
C. Yes, during an Emergency
368. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by
D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
A. all the members of Parliament
363. All proceedings of the Supreme Court
B. the people directly
shall be in the
C. all the members of Lok Sabha
A. Hindi Language
D. the members of the majority party in
B. Urdu Language the Lok Sabha
C. English Language
369. Which of the following is not connected
D. Regional Language of the State con- with the British political system?
cerned
A. Queen
364. A former judge of the High Court B. Chancellor of the Exchequer
A. cannot practise within the jurisdiction C. Cabinet
of the High Court
D. President
B. can practise in the Supreme Court and
other High Courts 370. Judges of High Courts are appointed by
C. cannot practise in any court A. the Chief Justices of the respective
High Courts
D. Both A and B above
B. Governor
365. In a Constitutional Monarchy the real
C. the President
power is enjoyed by the
D. the Chief Minister
A. King
B. Council of Ministers 371. A political party will be treated as recog-
nised in a State only if it has been engaged
C. Majority Party
in Political activity Cora continuous period
D. Electorate of years.
366. The principal language of Lakshadweep A. three
is B. four
A. Tamil C. five
B. Telugu D. six
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9.16 Indian Constitution 607
372. An additional Judge of a High Court holds 377. The proclamation of emergency on the
office Cora period of ground of external aggression issued on
3.12.1971 was revoked on
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A. 2 years
B. 3 years A. January 1, 1977
C. 1 years B. March 27, 1977
D. 4 years C. April 18, 1977
373. The Constitution of India provides that D. December 31, 1976
the three constituents of the Indian Parlia-
378. If Parliament appoints a Committee for a
ment are the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha
specific purpose, it is known as
and the
A. Ad hoc Committee
A. Prime Minister
B. Joint Committee
B. Vice-President
C. President C. Permanent Committee
D. Council of Ministers D. Standing Committee
374. The President can remove a Judge of the 379. Under the Cabinet Government the right
Supreme Court or the Chief Election Com- to reshuffle the cabinet rests with the
missioner A. Head of the State
A. on his own B. Prime Minister
B. only on the advice of Parliament
C. Speaker
C. only on the advice of the Prime Minis-
D. Cabinet sub-Committee
ter
D. only on the advice of the Attorney Gen- 380. India, according to the Preamble to the
eral for India Constitution, is a
375. The Head of the State of Jammu and A. Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Repub-
Kashmir was redesignated Governor in lic
1965. Earlier, he was known as B. Sovereign, Democratic Republic
A. Maharaja C. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Demo-
B. Prime Minister cratic Republic
C. Sadar-i-Riyasat D. Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democ-
racy
D. Rajpramukh
376. Who among the following was not a 381. The Constituent Assembly of the State of
member of the Drafting Committee of the Jammu and Kashmir came into existence
Constituent Assembly of India? on
A. TT Krishnamachari A. October 31, 1951
B. Dr BR Ambedkar B. November 1, 1951
C. Jawaharlal Nehru C. January 1, 1952
D. KM Munshi D. January 26, 1950
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9.16 Indian Constitution 608
382. Who among the following draws the low- 387. The Mandal Commission Report pertains
est salary? to reservation of jobs for
A. State Governors A. anglo-Indians
B. Comptroller and Auditor General of In- B. backward classes
dia C. scheduled castes
C. Chief Justice of India D. scheduled tribes
D. Judges of State High Courts
NARAYAN CHANGDER
388. The President of India appoints the Chief
383. The phrase ”justice, social, economic and Election Commissioner, but he cannot be
political” occurs in the removed from office except by a special
procedure laid down in the Constitution.
A. Preamble This procedure is the same as the one pre-
B. Preamble and Fundamental Duties scribed for the removal of the
C. Fundamental Rights A. Vice-President
D. Preamble and Directive Principles of B. Judges of the Supreme Court
State Policy C. Members of the State Public Service
Commissions
384. As Supreme Commnader of the Armed
Forces can the Indian President declare a D. Members and Chairman of the UPSC
war on his own?
389. When the Union Council of Ministers ten-
A. Yes ders an advice to the President, he
B. No A. can refer it to the Supreme Court
C. Yes, during an Emergence B. can ignore it
D. Yes, in exceptional circumstances C. will be bound by it
385. The House of the People shall consist of D. can reject it outright
not more than members to represent Union 390. The High Court of Uttar Pradesh is lo-
Territories. cated in
A. 20 A. Lucknow
B. 25 B. Kanpur
C. 30 C. Allahabad
D. 35 D. Meerut
386. The theory of ”basic structure” of 391. Equality, Fraternity and Liberty were
the Constitution was propounded by the ideas that emanated from the revolution
Supreme Court in the of
A. Golaknath Case A. UK
B. Kesavananda Bharati Case B. USA
C. AK Gopalan Case C. France
D. Minerva Mills Case D. USSR (now defunct)
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9.16 Indian Constitution 609
392. Which one of the following determines B. 1789
that the Indian Constitution is federal?
C. 1860
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A. A written and rigid Constitution
D. 1865
B. An independent judiciary
C. Vesting of residuary powers with the 398. The President of India
Centre A. cannot be removed from his office af-
D. Distribution of powers between the ter his election
Centre and the States
B. can be removed from his office by a
393. Whose signature is found on a Rs One resolution of the Union Council of Minis-
currency note? ters
A. President of India C. can be removed from office only by a
B. Union Finance Secretary special procedure
C. Governor, Reserve Bank of India D. can be removed from office through a
motion of no-confidence passed by the Lok
D. Union Finance Minister
Sabha
394. The Indian States have been reorganised
on the basis of 399. The main factor which has inhibited the
Government in the implementation of Di-
A. economic conditions rective Principles or State policy has been
B. language of the people
A. fear of agitations and protests
C. administrative convenience
B. fear of strictures from the judiciary
D. religion
C. fear of opposition
395. The President of India presides over all
the meetings of the Union Council of Min- D. resources crunch
isters.
400. Who acted as Prime Minister of India
A. True for 12 days on the death of Jawaharlal
B. False Nehru?
C. During a National Emergency A. Morarji Desai
D. During a Financial Emergency B. Mrs Indira Gandhi
396. The Speaker Protem of the Lok Sabha is C. Gulzari Lal Nanda
appointed by the
D. Lal Bahadur Shastri
A. President
B. Prime Minister 401. Can there be a common High Court for
two or more states?
C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
A. Yes
D. Outgoing Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. No
397. The American Constitution came into ef-
fect in C. Yes, during a financial emergency
A. 1781 D. Yes, during a national emergency
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9.16 Indian Constitution 610
402. Scope for ’judicial review’ is not avail- C. 9 months
able under the unitary system because D. 1 year
A. all powers are concentrated in the Cen-
tral Government 407. The Rajasthan High Court is located at
B. there is no judiciary under this system A. Pilani
B. Jaipur
C. the powers are well defined leaving no C. Jodhpur
NARAYAN CHANGDER
scope for dispute
D. Udaipur
D. the judiciary has been stripped of all
powers 408. The oath of office to the President is ad-
ministered by the
403. The emoluments of the Chairman and
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Deputy Chairman of a State Legislative
Council are fixed by the B. Prime Minister
A. State Governor C. Vice-President
B. State Public Service Commission D. Chief Justice of India
C. State Legislature 409. The two nominated Anglo-Indians in the
D. Union Parliament House of the People represent a popula-
tion of about
404. Which among the following functions un-
A. 1 lakh
der the principle of collective responsibil-
ity? B. 140000
A. Union Parliament C. 2 lakhs
B. Lok Sabha D. 3 lakhs
C. Supreme Court of India 410. The first Union Council of Ministers of
D. Union Council of Ministers free India comprised Cabinet Minis-
ters besides Prime Minister Jawaharlal
405. Who among the following had the dis- Nehru.
tinction of having the longest tenure as a
Union Cabinet Minister? A. 12
A. HR Khanna B. 13
B. Jagjivan Ram C. 14
C. C Rajagopalachari D. 15
D. Morarji Desai 411. Is there a provision in the Indian Consti-
tution conferring a right to recall a legisla-
406. Not more than shall elapse between tor?
the date on which a House is prorogued
and the commencement of its next ses- A. Yes
sion. B. No
A. 3 months C. Yes, during an Emergency
B. 6 months D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
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9.16 Indian Constitution 611
412. The Indian Constitution has vested the au- 417. The Appellate Jurisdiction of a State High
thority to extend the jurisdiction of High Court is
Courts with the
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A. Civil
A. Chief Justice of India B. Criminal
B. President of India C. Both civil and criminal
C. Union Parliament D. Neither
D. State Legislature 418. The control of Government expenditure is
entirely vested in the
413. The President issues ordinances on the
advice of the A. Finance Minister
B. Union Parliament
A. Union Council of Ministers
C. President
B. Union Law Minister
D. Prime Minister
C. Supreme Court of India
D. Attorney General for India 419. The provisions relating to the suspension
of fundamental rights by the President dur-
414. How long can one under our Constitution ing emergencies were borrowed from the
remain a Prime Minister, even without be- A. Constitution of Canada
ing a member of either House of Parlia- B. Constitution of Britain
ment?
C. Constitution of USA
A. three months
D. Weimar Constitution of Germany
B. six months
420. Who among the following are not al-
C. nine months lowed to exercise their right to franchise
D. one year in India?
A. Women
415. The time table of the Union Parliament is
controlled by the B. Priests/Clergymen
A. Prime Minister C. Lunatics
D. Quasi-Government Servants
B. Speaker
C. Union Cabinet 421. Which among the following States re-
turns the maximum number or representa-
D. President tives to the Lok Sabha?
416. The two former Governors of the Re- A. Madhya Pradesh
serve Bank of India who later became B. Maharashtra
Union Finance Ministers were
C. Bihar
A. YB Chavan and TT Krishnamachari D. Uttar Pradesh
B. CD Deshmukh and Manmohan Singh
422. The Press can be an important opinion
C. RK Shanmukham Chetty and LK Jha builder if it is
D. John Matthai and PC Bhattacharyya A. owned by government
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9.16 Indian Constitution 612
B. subject to censorship regulations C. Signature of the Union Law Minister
C. subject to control by political parties D. Signature of the President
D. free from interference by government
and big business houses 428. The term of the President of India is reck-
oned from the
423. Which, among the following countries, A. Republic Day
has the oldest written Constitution?
B. Date of his election
A. Japan
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Date on which he assumes office
B. India
C. USA D. Independence Day
D. UK 429. The absolute minimum number of times
that Union Parliament must meet every
424. led the nation’s first non-Congress year is
Government.
A. 4
A. Chandrasekhar
B. 2
B. Morarji Desai
C. Charan Singh C. 3
D. VP Singh D. 1
425. A member of the Constituent Assembly of 430. Can the Prime Minister Induct Into his
India, India’s first Ambassador to Moscow Cabinet one who is not a member of Par-
and Emeritus Professor of Eastern Reli- liament?
gions at Oxford. This description emi- A. Yes
nently fits
B. No
A. Dr Zakir Husain
C. Yes during an Emergency
B. Dr S Radhakrishnan
C. Dr BR Ambedkar D. Yes if so advised by the President
D. Sir M Visvesvarayya 431. Before 1956, the present Kerala State
was known as
426. Which one of the following writs is con-
sidered a bulwark of Individual freedom? A. Travancore
A. Certiorari B. Cochin
B. Quo Warranto C. Travancore-Cochin
C. Habeas Corpus D. Malabar
D. Mandamus
432. The first Speaker of the Lok Sabha was
427. What is the final formality without which A. GS Dhillon
no Central Bill can become a law in our
country? B. MA Ayyangar
A. Signature of the Prime Minister C. GV Mavlankar
B. Signature of the Speaker, Lok Sabha D. Hukum Singh
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9.16 Indian Constitution 613
433. National Judicial Council is headed by C. Attorney General for India
whom amongst the following? D. Union Parliament
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A. Chief Justice of India
439. The number of members nominated by
B. President of India
the President to the Rajya Sabha is con-
C. Vice-President of India stitutionally limited to
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha A. 12
434. State Assembly elections are conducted B. 15
by the C. 10
A. Chief Secretary of the State concerned D. 20
B. Chief Election Commissioner 440. Under the RTI Act, the time for disposal
of request for information in cases concern-
C. Governor of the State concerned ing life and liberty is
D. Chief Minister of the State concerned
A. 30 days
435. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court B. 15 days
draws a monthly salary of
C. 10 days
A. Rs 100000
D. 48 hours
B. Rs 90000
C. Rs 120000 441. For moving a resolution to remove the
Speaker from his office, a prior notice of
D. Rs 150000 at least days has to be given.
436. There are High Courts in India, out of A. seven
which Guwahati High Court has territorial B. fourteen
jurisdiction over States.
C. thirty
A. 21, 7
D. sixty
B. 18, 7
C. 25, 7 442. The Fundamental Rights have the sanc-
tion of
D. 20, 5
A. the Supreme Court
437. The Quorum of a Legislative Council is
B. the Constitution
A. 25
C. Majority opinion of the States
B. one tenth of its membership or ten
whichever is greater D. the Union Parliament
C. one fourth of its membership 443. Which General Election in India was
D. one fourth of its membership or ten spread over a period of 100 days?
A. First
438. Under the country’s judicial system the
State High Courts come directly under the B. Second
A. Supreme Court of India C. Fourth
B. President of India D. Third
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9.16 Indian Constitution 614
444. Which among the following statements 449. After the Comptroller and Auditor Gen-
defining a Republic is not correct? eral (CAG) has ceased to hold office he will
A. There is a place for a monarch in a Re- not be eligible for further office under the
public Government of
B. The Indian Republic is governed in A. any State
terms of the Constitution adopted by the B. India or Government of any State
Constituent Assembly on November 26,
C. India
1949
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. any Union Territory
C. Republic implies that the highest ex-
ecutive authority ill India is vested in the 450. According to Article 300A, no person
President shall be deprived of his save by au-
D. India is a Democratic Republic with a thority of law.
Parliamentary System of Government A. property
445. The Lok Sabha alone is entitled to vote in B. life
the case of C. living
A. demand for grants
D. citizenship
B. merger of States
451. Which one of the following is part of
C. creation of a new State
the electoral college for the election of the
D. a private member’s bill President of India but does not form part
of the forum for his impeachment?
446. The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme
Court are drawn from A. Lok Sabha
A. Home Ministry Grants B. Rajya Sabha
B. Consolidated Fund of India C. State Legislative Council
C. Parliamentary Grants D. State Legislative Assemblies
D. Contingency Fund of India
452. The President before entering upon his of-
447. The emoluments and allowances of a fice shall make and subscribe in the pres-
State Governor shall not be during his ence of the an oath or affirmation spelt out
term of office. in Article 60.
A. increased A. Prime Minister of India
B. diminished B. Chief Justice of India
C. amended C. Vice-President of India
D. altered D. Service Chiefs
448. The Returning Officers for the State As- 453. If the Lok Sabha is not in session, expen-
sembly Elections are appointed by the diture from the Consolidated Fund of the
A. President State may be authorised by the
B. Governor A. Prime Minister
C. Election Commission B. Finance Minister
D. Chief Electoral Officer C. President
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9.16 Indian Constitution 615
D. Comptroller and Auditor-General of In- 459. The role of the Finance Commission in
dia Centre-State fiscal relations has been un-
dermined by the
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454. Who among the following former Presi-
A. State Governments
dents of India was Trade Union Leader?
B. Zonal Councils
A. Dr S Radhakrishnan
C. Planning Commission
B. VV Giri
D. Election Commission
C. Dr Zakir Husain
D. FA Ahmed 460. Fundamental Duties are
A. proclaimed during an emergency by
455. The provision for organising village pan-
the President
chayats finds a place in the
B. enshrined in the Constitution 42nd
A. Preamble
Amendment (1976)
B. Chapter on Fundamental Rights
C. not provided for in the Indian Constitu-
C. Chapter on Directive Principles tion
D. Chapter on Fundamental Duties D. provided for by an Act of Parliament
456. Besides Punjab which other State has 461. The First Amendment introduced in 1951
been under President’s rule nine times af- added a new Schedule to the Constitution.
ter its formation? It is the Schedule.
A. Kerala A. Seventh
B. Tamil Nadu B. Eighth
C. Bihar C. Ninth
D. Rajasthan D. Tenth
457. was responsible for the unification 462. What is the extent of claim that can be
of India after Independence. entertained by a Lok Adalat?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru A. Upto Rs. 5 lakhs
B. GB Pant B. Upto Rs. 10 lakhs
C. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel C. Upto Rs. 20 lakhs
D. C Rajagopalachari D. Upto Rs. 50 lakhs
458. The first Chief Election Commissioner of 463. The head of the criminal courts within the
India was district is the
A. KVK Sundaram A. Chief Judicial Magistrate
B. SP Sen Verma B. Additional District Judge
C. Sukumar Sen C. Registrar of the State High Court
D. Dr Nagendra Singh D. Chief Justice of the State High Court
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9.16 Indian Constitution 616
464. Which among the following statements is 469. A new State can be created by a/an
not true?
A. Act of Parliament
A. A No-Confidence Motion in the Council
of Ministers can be moved in either House B. Amendment to the Constitution of In-
of Parliament. dia under Article 368
B. Money Bills can be introduced only in C. Resolution passed by both the Houses
the House of the People. of Union Parliament
C. Demands for grants can be voted only
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Ordinance issued by the President of
by the House of the People. India
D. The Council of States is not subject to
dissolution. 470. Ordinances issued by a State Governor
465. Which one of the following can be abol- are subject to the approval of the
ished by an Act of Parliament but not des- A. President of India
solved?
B. Chief Minister of the State
A. Rajya Sabha
B. Legislative Councils C. Union Parliament
C. Municipal Councils D. State Legislature concerned
D. Legislatures of Union Territories
471. The Union Government has brought the
466. Democracy is a system of government in land reform laws in the Schedule of
which the final power rests with the the Constitution.
A. politicians
A. 7th
B. civil servants
B. 8th
C. people
D. army C. 9th
467. When the office of Chief Justice of a High D. 10th
Court Calls vacant his duties will be per-
formed by one of the other Judges of the 472. In the Republic of India
Court as may be appointed for the purpose A. the President is supreme as he is the
by the Head of the State, the Supreme Comm-
A. Governor nader of the Armed Forces and all the Ex-
B. Chief Minister ecutive Power is vested in him
C. President B. Parliament is supreme as it can even
D. Supreme Court amend the Constitution
468. Citizenship by the is citizen of India. C. the Supreme Court is supreme as it
has the ultimate say in interpreting what
A. acquiring property the Constitution is
B. birth
D. the Constitution is supreme as it con-
C. descent trols all the three wings, viz. the execu-
D. naturalization tive, the legislature and the judiciary
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9.16 Indian Constitution 617
473. As per reports, some state governments C. India
in India have put a ban on the sale of Am- D. Nigeria
monium Nitrate or its other combinations
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in the open market as the same is being 478. The on the advice of the Comptroller
used by some people as an explosive. The and Auditor General prescribes the form in
ban on open sale of such chemicals can be which the accounts of the Union and of the
put under which of the following Acts? State are to be kept.
A. Explosive Substance Act A. Union Finance Minister
B. Narcotics Act B. Prime Minister
C. Trade & Merchandise Act C. Cabinet Secretary
D. Dangerous Drugs Act D. President
474. Which Article of the Constitution had the 479. The powers of a State Governor are anal-
unique distinction of having been adopted ogous to those of the President with a few
by the Constituent Assembly with cries of exceptions. Which among the following is
”Mahatma Gandhi ki Jai”? an exception to this analogy in respect of
Governor’s powers?
A. 17
A. He can appoint any person who com-
B. 18 mands a majority in the Assembly as the
C. 19 Chief Minister.
D. 20 B. He can declare a state of emergency in
the State, if he is satisfied that an abnor-
475. The Vice-President is a member of mal situation has arisen
A. the Rajya Sabha C. He can withhold his assent to an ordi-
B. the Lok Sabha nary bill and return it to the Legislature
C. neither House with a message to reconsider it
D. Both D. He can summon or prorogue the State
Assembly
476. Which of the following does not consti-
tute a basic feature of the Indian Constitu- 480. The Legislative Assembly of Jammu and
tion? Kashmir consists of members chosen
by direct election and women mem-
A. Federal Government bers nominated by the Governor.
B. Independence of Judiciary A. 100, 2
C. Presidential form of Government B. 60, 3
D. Parliamentary Government C. 120, 2
477. In which one of the following countries D. 90, 3
the Supreme Court cannot declare a law
481. The USA is a federation of States.
passed by the Federal Legislature as un-
constitutional, even if it violates the coun- A. 48
try’s Constitution? B. 49
A. Cananda C. 50
B. USA D. 51
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9.16 Indian Constitution 618
482. The tenure of office of the Indian Presi- 487. Which among the following subjects is in-
dent cluded in the Concurrent List of the Consti-
A. is fixed by the Constitution tution?
B. can be changed by the wishes of the A. Police
State Legislatures B. Posts and Telegraphs
C. can be changed by the political party in
C. Public Health
power at the Centre
D. Newspapers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. can be changed at the option of the in-
cumbent President
488. In the name Mizoram, the land of the Mi-
483. A Unitary State is one in which zos, the term ’Mizo’ means a
A. all authority vests with the Union Gov- A. highlander
ernment
B. rebel
B. all authority vests with the State Gov-
ernments C. patriot
C. all authority vests with the Army D. skilled archer
D. the authority is equally shared by the 489. Who amongst the following appoints the
Union and State Governments by agree- Chairperson of the National Human Rights
ment Commission, India?
484. Which of the two words among the fol- A. The President of India
lowing were added to the Preamble to the
Constitution of India by the Constitution B. The Prime Minister of India
(Forty- Second Amendment) Act, 1976? C. The Chief Justice of India
A. Sovereign and Socialist D. The Lok Sabha
B. Socialist and Democratic
490. The question of disqualification of a mem-
C. Socialist and Secular
ber of a State Legislature shall be decided
D. Secular and Democratic by the Governor after consultation with
the
485. The Union Territory having five official
languages is A. Chief Minister
A. Chandigarh B. Election Commission
B. Delhi C. Supreme Court
C. Puducherry
D. Public Service Commission
D. Lakshadweep
491. Which among the following does not form
486. The right to prorogue the two Houses of
part of the Preamble?
Parliament rests with the
A. Sovereignty
A. President
B. Prime Minister B. Socialism
C. Union Council of Ministers C. Secularism
D. Minister for Parliamentary Affairs D. Federalism
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9.16 Indian Constitution 619
492. It is the prerogative of the to ef- 497. There is no age limit for appointment as
fect changes in the salaries of State Gov- Attorney General for India.
ernors. A. True
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A. Union Parliament B. False
B. President C. Parity True
C. Prime Minister D. True, during an Emergency under Arti-
D. Comptroller and Auditor General cle 352
493. The fundamental right which permits In- 498. In which year was the first Constitution
dian citizens free discussion and exchange Amendment Act passed?
of views including the freedom of the A. 1951
Press is the right to B. 1952
A. form associations and unions C. 1953
B. assemble peacefully and without arms D. 1950
499. The authority to dissolve a State Legisla-
C. freedom of speech and expression tive Assembly is vested in the
D. worship A. Chief Minister of the State
494. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian B. Speaker of the State Assembly
Constitution afford to every citizen protec- C. President of India
tion from D. Governor of the State
A. danger to the country
500. International legal problems in the United
B. exploitation by the trading community Nations are settled by the
C. summary or arbitrary rule of the State A. General Assembly
against him
B. Security Council
D. indignity
C. International Court of Justice
495. Finance Commission is appointed by the D. Trusteeship Council
President of India after every
501. The legal adviser to a State Government
A. 10 years is known as the
B. 5 years A. Advocate General
C. 6 years B. Attorney General
D. 4 years C. Solicitor General
496. Special rights as regards have been D. Public Prosecutor
conferred on ’permanent residents’ of the 502. The minimum age prescribed for appoint-
State of Jammu and Kashmir. ment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is
A. acquisition of property A. 50
B. employment B. 55
C. settlement C. 45
D. All the three above D. No minimum age
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9.16 Indian Constitution 620
503. The Legislative Council has a tenure of 509. A maximum interval of can elapse
A. 6 years between two sessions of a State Legisla-
tive Assembly.
B. 5 years
A. one year
C. 4 years
B. six months
D. A permanent nature
C. three months
504. The Jammu and Kashmir High Court is lo- D. nine months
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cated in
A. Jammu 510. Which Article of the Constitution confers
on the citizen protection of life and per-
B. Srinagar sonal liberty?
C. Udhampur A. 19
D. Both A and B. B. 20
505. Who among the following is competent C. 21
to dissolve the State Assembly under the D. 22
Jammu and Kashmir Constitution?
A. Governor of Jammu and Kashmir 511. How will the newly passed Gram Nyay-
alaya Act help the judicial system in the
B. President of India country?
C. Union Parliament I) It promises to put many more courts
D. Chief Minister of the State at block and tehsil levels.
II) It would make justice quick, partic-
506. The power to abolish or create Legisla- ularly in case of small disputes and
tive Councils in the States rests with the petty crimes.
A. President III) This will reduce the burden on High
Courts and Supreme Court.
B. Union Parliament
A. Only I
C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
B. Only II
D. State Governors
C. Only III
507. The State of Israel came into being in D. Only I and II
A. 1948
512. The Special officer for Linguistic Minori-
B. 1938 ties (Art 350 B) is appointed by the
C. 1928 A. Home Minister
D. 1958 B. President
508. In India, sovereignty resides in the C. Prime Minister
A. President D. Law Minister
B. Union Parliament 513. The fundamental rights of Indian citizens
C. Prime Minister can be suspended by the
D. Constitution of India A. Supreme Court of India
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9.16 Indian Constitution 621
B. Union Parliament 519. A Constitution can be developed through
C. President of India A. amendments
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D. President, in consultation with the At- B. customs and usages
torney General for India C. Judicial interpretations
514. Who among the following had the short- D. All the three
est tenure as Prime Minister of India?
520. The expression ’Justice’ in the Preamble
A. Morarji Desai to the Indian Constitution is used
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri A. to indicate economic and political jus-
C. Charan Singh tice
D. Rajiv Gandhi B. to indicate social, economic and politi-
cal justice
515. Silvassa is the capital of C. to indicate equality of status and op-
A. Lakshadweep portunity
B. Tripura D. in the sense of absolute justice
C. Dadra and Nagar Haveli 521. The Prime Minister in a Parliamentary ex-
D. Mizoram ecutive
A. enjoys no independent power of his
516. The power of the Supreme Court of India own
to decide disputes between the Centre and
B. can act as a dictator by himself
the States fail under its
C. acts as a link between the Council of
A. Original Jurisdiction
Ministers and the President
B. Advisory Jurisdiction D. does not lead the party in power in an
C. Appellate Jurisdiction Emergency
D. Constitutional Jurisdiction 522. The Union or India consists of States
and Union Territories.
517. Impeachment of President is a
A. 22: 8
A. quasi-judicial procedure
B. 24: 7
B. judicial procedure
C. 28: 7
C. parliamentary procedure
D. 21: 8
D. military procedure
523. How many languages have so far been
518. Of the following Prime Ministers who did included in the Eighth Schedule of our Con-
not face the Union Parliament even once? stitution?
A. Lal Bahadur Shastri A. 14
B. Charan Singh B. 22
C. Morarji Desai C. 18
D. VP Singh D. 17
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9.16 Indian Constitution 622
524. The Special Officer for Scheduled Castes 529. Equal pay for equal work for both men
and Scheduled Tribes is appointed by the and women has been laid down In the In-
A. Prime Minister dian Constitution as one of the
A. Fundamental Rights
B. President
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Law Minister
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Vice-President
D. Guidelines in the Preamble
NARAYAN CHANGDER
525. A Bill presented in Parliament becomes an
Act after 530. Which of the following has the power to
inquire into the proceedings of any House
A. it is passed by both the Houses and as- or a State Legislature?
sented to by the President
A. The High Court
B. it is passed by both the Houses and as-
sented to by the Prime Minister B. The Supreme Court
C. Parliament
C. the Speaker assents to the Bill
D. None
D. the Prime Minister and the Speaker
have signed the Bill 531. The idea of Lokpal is taken from
526. The right to vote in an election in India is A. Britain
A. Constitutional B. America
B. Natural C. Scandinavian Countries
C. Statutory D. France
D. Moral 532. The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
enumerates the
527. Ministers of State
A. Fundamental Rights
A. can attend Cabinet meetings in their
B. Official Languages of India
own right
C. Laws placed beyond the jurisdiction of
B. can attend Cabinet meetings only if in- courts
vited to attend any particular meeting
D. Fundamental Duties
C. can attend Cabinet meetings if they
choose 533. The executive power of the State is
D. cannot attend Cabinet meetings under vested in the
any circumstances A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
528. The Constituent Assembly of India was
converted into the Provisional Parliament C. Neither
of India on D. Both
A. 1.1. 1950
534. Mr led the first minority government
B. 15. 8.1947 of the country.
C. 26.1. 1950 A. Morarji Desai
D. 2.10. 1950 B. Charan Singh
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9.16 Indian Constitution 623
C. VP Singh 540. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be re-
D. Chandrashekhar moved from office before the expiry of his
term by the
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535. The first sitting of Union Parliament after A. President on the recommendation of
the First General Election held in 1951-52 the UPSC
was on
B. President on the recommendation of
A. 13.5.1952 the Supreme Court
B. 26.1. 1952 C. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
C. 1.1. 1992 D. Lok Sabha through a resolution passed
D. 1. 7.1952 by a majority of all the members
536. The Theory of Laissez Faire was invented 541. Article is an in-built instrument in
by the Constitution for its amendment.
A. Marques A. 365
B. Adam Smith B. 366
C. Marshall C. 360
D. Laski D. 368
537. Voting in local bodies elections is compul- 542. A High Court Cora Union Territory may be
sory in which one of the following states? constituted by
A. Delhi A. President
B. Maharashtra
B. Union Parliament
C. Kerala
C. Supreme Court of India
D. Gujarat
D. Union Law Ministry
538. Benazir Bhutto was the world’s
543. Which of the following houses is presided
A. first woman Prime Minister over by a nonmember?
B. first woman Prime Minister of a Mus- A. Lok Sabha
lim Nation
B. Rajya Sabha
C. only woman Prime Minister
C. Vidhan Sabha
D. second woman Prime Minister
D. Vidhan Parishad
539. A person who otherwise qualifies for ap-
pointment as a High Court Judge must 544. The inclusion of Fundamental Duties in
have been an Advocate of a High Court for the Constitution was welcomed by
not less than A. the Union Cabinet only
A. 5 years B. the ruling party only
B. 10 years C. the opposition parties only
C. 12 years D. both the Houses of Parliament unani-
D. 15 years mously
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9.16 Indian Constitution 624
545. A Governor is liable to be transferred 551. Who among the following dignitaries can-
from one state to another not be impeached?
A. True A. President
B. False B. Vice-President
C. True, during a National Emergency
C. Judges of the Supreme Court
D. True, during a Financial Emergency
D. Comptroller and Auditor General of In-
546. Grants-in-aid are provided to such states dia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
as are in need of assistance by the
552. During the. period of 15th August 1947
A. Union Parliament
to the 26th January 1950, the political
B. President status of India was that of a
C. Finance Commission A. Sovereign Republic
D. RBI
B. Dominion in the British Commonwealth
547. The National Integration Council is of Nations
chaired by the C. Sovereign Republic and a member of
A. President of India the Commonwealth
B. Vice-President of India D. Sovereign State
C. Chief Justice of India
553. The term ’Equal Protection of Law’ in the
D. Prime Minister of India Indian Constitution is borrowed from the
548. Who among the following can remove a Constitution of the
Chief Minister from his office? A. USA
A. State Legislative Assembly B. Japan
B. Governor
C. United Kingdom
C. President
D. Australia
D. Supreme Court of India
549. Which of the following systems is also 554. The concept of Welfare State finds elabo-
known as the Hare System? ration in the
A. Single transferable vote system A. Preamble
B. List system B. Fundamental Rights
C. Limited vote system C. Fundamental Duties
D. Single non-transferable vote system D. Directive Principles of State Policy
550. Universal Adult Franchise means the right
555. The Indian Parliament is a creature of the
to vote granted to all
A. Constitution
A. University graduates
B. Adult citizen B. President
C. Men in the village C. Prime Minister
D. Tax-paying citizen D. British Government
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9.16 Indian Constitution 625
556. Which of the following taxes is/are 561. Of the two Houses of the Union Parlia-
levied by the Union and collected and ap- ment
propriated by the States?
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A. Lok Sabha is more powerful
A. Stamp Duties
B. Rajya Sabha is more powerful
B. Passenger and Goods Tax
C. Both are equally powerful
C. Estate Duty
D. Cannot be said
D. Taxes on Newspapers
562. On which one of the following lists of sub-
557. Labour legislations in India have an im- jects is the Union Parliament competent to
portant dimension of protection of women legislate?
from exploitation. Some special provi-
sions are made for women in the work- A. Concurrent list
place. Which of the following is NOT one B. Residuary subjects
such special provision?
C. Union list
A. Maternity protection
D. On all these
B. Creche facility at the work place for in-
fants 563. Which one of the following is not one of
C. No night shifts the qualifications for appointment of the
judges of the Supreme Court of India?
D. Cooked meals during day shifts to be
provided by the employer A. The person must be a citizen of India
B. The person should have attained the
558. Dr. Ambedkar had said the ”Article
age of 45 years
should normally remain a ’dead letter’ and
would be used only in the ’last resort’. C. The person must be a distinguished ju-
rist or must have been a High Court Judge
A. 352
for at least five years or an advocate of a
B. 355 High Court for at least 10 years
C. 356 D. The person should not have attained
D. 357 the age of 65 years
559. Which one of the following has not been 564. How many languages have been origi-
created by the Constitution of India? nally listed in the Eighth Schedule of the
A. Union Public Service Commission Constitution of India?
B. Election Commission of India A. 18
C. Finance Commission B. 14
D. Planning Commission C. 25
560. The type of Government adopted in the D. 15
Indian Constitution is
565. Who among the following articulated his
A. Aristocracy demand in 1938, for a Constituent Assem-
B. Oligarchy bly on the basis of adult franchise?
C. Parliamentary A. C Rajagopalachari
D. Presidential B. Purushottam Das Tandon
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9.16 Indian Constitution 626
C. cl Jawaharlal Nahru C. take part in the proceedings of Par-
D. JB Kripalani liamentary Committees by expressing his
views
566. Untouchability is an offence D. vote in Parliament
A. according to the Constitution and is
571. The Legislature of the USA is known as
punishable in accordance with law
the
B. on humanitarian grounds, but is not
A. Commons
NARAYAN CHANGDER
punishable under any law
B. Congress
C. only according to Mahatma Gandhi
C. Parliament
D. Only according to Mahatma Gandhi
and Acharya Vinoba Bhave D. Senate
567. Under the 44th Amendment Act the Presi- 572. In the original Constitution there were
dent was deprived of the power to declare States placed under three categories,
a in Parts A, B and C of the First Schedule.
A. Financial Emergency A. 25
B. Constitutional Emergency B. 26
C. National Emergency on ground of ”In- C. 27
ternal Disturbance” D. 28
D. War against our neighbours
573. The Comptroller and Auditor General
568. The Representation of the Peoples Act (CAG) does not audit the receipts and ex-
was passed by Parliament in penditure of
A. 1950 A. Municipal Undertakings
B. 1952 B. State Governments
C. 1953 C. Government Companies
D. 1951 D. Union Government
569. Appointment of District Judges in a State 574. A joint sitting of the two Houses of Par-
shall be made by the liament is held
A. Governor of the State A. When a bill passed by one House is re-
jected by the other
B. Governor of the State in consultation
with the High Court of the State B. When there is some disagreement
over any provision of or amendment to a
C. State Public Service Commission bill
D. State Chief Secretary C. When a period of six months elapses
from the date of receipt of a bill passed by
570. The Attorney General for India does not
one House without it is being passed by
have the right to
the other
A. attend Parliament sessions D. Under all the three circumstances
B. attend Parliamentary Committees stated above
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9.16 Indian Constitution 627
575. The State shall take steps to separate the D. Subordinate of the Attorney General of
judiciary from the executive, in terms of India
Article
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581. The first Governor-General of free India
A. 48
was
B. 49
A. Lord Mountbatten
C. 50
B. C Rajagopalaehari
D. 51
C. Dr Rajendra Prasad
576. The USA has a form of Government.
D. Lord Wavell
A. Dictatorial
B. Monarchical 582. The State of Mysore was renamed as
Karnataka in the year
C. Presidential
A. 1972
D. Parliamentary
B. 1973
577. The name of any Indian State can be al-
tered by C. 1974
A. The Governor of the State D. 1975
B. the State Legislature concerned
583. The number of members nominated by
C. Union Parliament the President to the Lok Sabha is
D. the President of India A. 12
578. The Comptroller and Auditor General of B. 2
India submits his report relating to the ac- C. 6
counts of the Union to the
D. 9
A. Prime Minister
B. Finance Minister 584. In the USA there is/are official lan-
C. President guage/s
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha A. One
B. Two
579. Which among the following is now a full-
fledged State? C. Three
A. Pondicherry D. Four
B. Chandigarh
585. The President of India had referred the
C. Sikkim Ayodhya issue to the Supreme Court of In-
D. Lakshadweep dia under Article of the Constitution.
580. An Advocate General is a/an A. 131
A. State Government official B. 136
B. Union Government official C. 138
C. Extra-Constitutional authority D. 143
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9.16 Indian Constitution 628
586. To whom among the following groups is 591. The President can remove an individual
the Right against Exploitation guaranteed Minister from the Council of Ministers
by the Indian Constitution? A. on his own suo moto
A. Children B. only on the advice of the Prime Minis-
B. Dalits ter
C. Tribals C. only on the advice of the Lok Sabha
D. Women D. only on the advice of the Speaker
NARAYAN CHANGDER
587. According to Article 24, no child below 592. The Vice-President, In the event of re-
the age of years shall be employed ceiving the resignation of the President,
to work in any factory or mines. shall forthwith communicate this to the
A. 12 A. Prime Minister of India
B. 13 B. Chief Justice of India
C. 14 C. Speaker of the House of the People
D. 15 D. Attorney General for India
588. The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 593. A Member of Parliament who voluntarily
reduced the number of States in the coun- acquires the citizenship of another country
try from 27 to or is under any acknowledgement of alle-
A. 14 giance to a foreign country will
B. 15 A. be disqualified from membership of
C. 18 Parliament
D. 19 B. continue to be a member of Parliament
589. In case of a difference of opinion between C. have the choice of renouncing either
a Chief Minister and the Governor regard-
ing the inclusion of a particular person in D. face penal action from the apex court
the Council of Ministers the final say rests
594. The Speaker can ask a member of the
with the
House to stop speaking and let another
A. Governor member speak. This is known as
B. Chief Minister A. Decorum
C. High Court B. Crossing the floor
D. Supreme Court C. Inerpreting
590. ”This Constitution may be called the Con- D. Yielding the Floor
stitution of India”. This short title is con-
tained in Article of the Constitution. 595. The salary and conditions of service of
the Comptroller and Auditor General of In-
A. 1 dia shall be
B. 2 A. statutory (i.e. as laid down by Parlia-
C. 393 ment by law)
D. 394 B. fixed by the President of India
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9.16 Indian Constitution 629
C. finalised by the Finance Minister 601. Writs are issued by
D. fixed by the Governor, Reserve Bank of A. Supreme Court
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India B. High Courts
596. The President of India is elected by C. The President
A. the People of India directly D. Supreme Court and High Courts
B. the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha at 602. The British Government announced their
a joint sitting decision to grant independence to India on
C. the Union Cabinet 15th August 1947, on
A. 1st January, 1947
D. indirect election, by an electoral col-
lege B. 3rd June, 1947
C. 31st March, 1947
597. The term of office of the Chief Election
Commissioner is years. D. 15th August, 1946
A. four 603. Which of the following acts is in vogue
B. five in India is against the thinking of raising
school fee as per demand of the market
C. six forces?
D. three A. Prevention of Corruption Act
598. High Courts in India started functioning B. Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation)
first at Act
A. Bombay, Calcutta and Madras C. Sharda Act
D. Right to Education Act
B. Allahabad, Bombay and Delhi
C. Bombay and Calcutta 604. State Governors are
D. Madras and Bombay A. instruments of control of the Centre
over the States
599. There shall be a Vice-President of India B. nominees of the Chief Ministers
according to Article
C. elected by the State Legislatures
A. 63
D. elected by Union Parliament
B. 64
605. Constitutions are classified as rigid and
C. 54
flexible on the basis of
D. 57 A. their length and volume
600. The maximum membership of the Rajya B. the procedure for amendment
Sabha is limited to C. their written (or unwritten) character
A. 240 D. the manner of their enactment
B. 245
606. The first woman to become the Speaker
C. 250 of a State Assembly in India was
D. 260 A. Vijayalakshami Pandit
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9.16 Indian Constitution 630
B. Sucheta Kripalani 612. The residuary powers (i.e. the pow-
C. Shanno Devi ers not listed) under the Constitution vest
with the
D. Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
A. President
607. The total number of members in the Leg-
islative Council of a State shall in no case B. Prime Minister
be less than C. Union Parliament
A. thirty
D. State Assemblies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. fifty
C. sixty 613. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be re-
moved from his office by the/a
D. forty
A. President
608. The net proceeds of taxes are distributed
between the Centre and the States on the B. Prime Minister
recommendations of the C. Vote of no-confidence passed by both
A. Finance Commission the Houses of Parliament
B. CAG D. Vote of no-confidence passed by the
C. Union Finance Ministry Lok Sabha
D. Planning Commission
614. The right to dissolve the Rajya Sabha
609. The separation of the judiciary from the rests with the
executive is envisaged in the
A. Prime Minister
A. Preamble
B. President
B. Directive Principles
C. Supreme Court of India
C. Objectives Resolution
D. Fundamental Rights D. None of them
610. The lengthiest amendment (dubbed as a 615. How many Schedules did the original Con-
’mini-Constitution’ by some political pun- stitution of India contain?
dits) to the Constitution tUl date is the
A. 7
A. 24th Amendment
B. 8
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment C. 9
D. 59th Amendment D. 6
611. Who among the following held office as 616. The most powerful Upper House among
President of India, for two consecutive the following is the
terms?
A. Rajya Sabha in India
A. Dr S Radhakrishanan
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad B. Senate in the USA
C. VV Giri C. House of Lords in the United Kingdom
D. Both A and B. D. Council of States in Switzerland
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9.16 Indian Constitution 631
617. The foundations for the federal system in C. 9 months
the Indian Constitution were laid in the D. 1 year
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A. Indian Councils Act of 1892
622. The Constitution of India describes India
B. Indian Councils Act of 1909 as a Union of States which means that the
C. Government of India Act, 1919 A. States have no right to secede from
D. Government of India Act, 1935 the federation
618. Before assuming office as the President B. States have a right to secede from the
of the Republic, Dr Rajendra Prasad was federation
the C. States have been given more powers
A. President of the Constituent Assembly D. Centre cannot alter the independent
of India existence of the States
B. Vice-President of India 623. The total number of members in the Leg-
C. Interim Prime Minister islative Council of a State shall not exceed
D. Chairman of the Drafting Committee of of the total number of members in the
the Constituent Assembly State Legislative Assembly.
A. One fourth
619. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution
has been amended B. One half
A. twice C. One third
B. thrice D. One fifth
C. once 624. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of
D. Four times India is three fold viz
A. Civil, criminal and appellate
620. Which one of the following is not true
about the functions of the Attorney Gen- B. Original, appellate and advisory
eral? C. Appellate, advisory and miscellaneous
A. He will have the right to speak in the
House of Parliament D. Civil, criminal or otherwise
B. He will have the right to vote in Parlia- 625. Under the unitary system of government
ment the ultimate authority rests with
C. He will have a right of audience in all A. the administrative units
courts in India
B. the Constitution
D. He is the first Law Officer of the Gov-
ernment of India C. the Central Government
D. both the Central Government and the
621. A person, who is not a Member of Parlia- administrative units
ment, if appointed a minister, shall become
a Member of either House of Parliament 626. The first Home Minister and Deputy
within Prime Minster of free India was
A. 6 months A. GB Pant
B. 2 months B. Monuji Desai
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9.16 Indian Constitution 632
C. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel C. Jagjivan Ram
D. NG Ayyangar D. Shriman Narayan
627. The maximum number of Judges (exclud- 632. Panchayati Raj was introduced in the
ing the Chief Justice) that can be appointed country in
in the Supreme Court of India is A. 1957
A. 24 B. 1952
B. 25 C. 1951
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 20 D. 1959
D. 30 633. The Constitution provides for a legal ad-
viser to the State Government. He is
628. B R Ambedkar was elected to the con-
known as the
stituent Assembly from
A. Public Prosecutor
A. West Bengal
B. Solicitor General
B. The then Bombay Presidency
C. Advocate General
C. The then Madhya Bharat
D. Government Pleader
D. Punjab
634. The members of the Union Public Service
629. Which among the following can be intro- Commission are
duced in the Union Parliament without the
A. elected by the people
previous sanction of the Union President?
B. elected by Union Parliament
A. A Bill to alter the name of a State
C. appointed by the President
B. A Money Bill
D. appointed by the Home Ministry
C. A Bill which would involve expenditure
from the Consolidated Fund of India 635. The Union Parliament has the power to
rename or define the boundary of a State
D. A Bill that seeks to amend the Consti-
by
tution of India in terms of Article 368
A. an amendment of the Constitution
630. In the discharge of his functions, the At-
B. securing the consent of the Prime Min-
torney General is assisted by a Solicitor
ister
General and Additional Solicitors Gen-
eral. C. securing the consent of the Chief Min-
ister of the State concerned
A. 2
D. securing the consent of the concerned
B. 3 State Legislature and Parliament’s ap-
C. 4 proval
D. 5 636. The Indian Constitution vests in the
power to impeach the President.
631. The Committee, on whose recommenda-
tions Panchayatl Raj was introduced in the A. Supreme Court of India
country was headed by B. Union Parliament
A. Balwant Rai Mehta C. Union Cabinet
B. Jivraj Mehta D. Attorney General for India
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9.16 Indian Constitution 633
637. Who among the following was elected as C. Presidential
the President of India unopposed? D. Parliamentary
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A. Dr S Radhakrishnan
642. The Prime Minister is the leader of the
B. VV Giri
A. Majority Party in Parliament
C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddi
B. Majority Party in the Lok Sabha
D. Giani Zail Singh C. Majority Party in the Rajya Sabha
638. Does the Indian Constitution envisage D. None of these
double citizenship?
643. The mandatory provision of dissolution
A. Yes of the Lok Sabha (i.e. five years from the
B. No date of its first meeting) may be extended
by during an emergency.
C. Yes, in exceptional cases with Parlia-
ment’s consent A. Six months
D. Yes, in the case of all foreigners B. One year
C. Eighteen months
639. A joint sitting of both the Houses of Par-
liament is held D. Two years
A. when a bill passed by one House is re- 644. Which among the following statements
jected by the other about State Governors is true?
B. when there is some disagreement A. They are elected by members of Parlia-
over any provision of or amendment to a ment
bill B. They are elected by members of the
C. when a period of six months elapses State Legislatures
from the date of receipt of a bill passed by C. They are nominated by the Chief Minis-
one House without it is being passed by ters of States
the other D. They are instruments of control of the
D. All the above Centre over the States
640. In a federal system of government pow- 645. The first Independence Day (August 15,
ers are divided between the Centre and 1947) fell on a
the States by A. Wednesday
A. the Constitution B. Thursday
B. a mutual agreement between the Cen- C. Friday
tre and the States D. Saturday
C. Parliament
646. Who administers the oath of office to the
D. Supreme Court Vice- President of India
641. The type of government adopted by the A. Chief Justice of India
Indian Constitution is B. President of India
A. Aristocracy C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. Oligarchy D. Attorney General for India
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9.16 Indian Constitution 634
647. The territorial jurisdiction of the Guwa- 652. International legal disputes are settled
hati High Court extends over the States by the
of A. UN General Assembly
A. Assam, Nagaland and Mizoram B. Security Council
B. Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Naga- C. International Court of Justice
land, Tripura, Arunachal
D. Secretary General
C. Pradesh and Mizoram
NARAYAN CHANGDER
653. Who among the following has the power
D. Assam, Nagaland and Arunachal to summon or prorogue both the Houses of
Pradesh Parliament?
648. The first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha A. President of India
was B. Prime Minister of India
A. Dr Zakir Husain C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. Dr S Radhakrishnan D. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
C. VV Giri 654. The Governor of a State receives a Bill
D. N Sanjeeva Reddy passed by the Legislative Assembly of the
State for resettlement of citizens in that
649. For how many years does the Vice- State affecting the general laws of citi-
President hold office? zenship of India. Which of the following
courses would be the most appropriate for
A. 3 the Governor to take as an agent of the
B. 4 Centre?
C. 5 A. give assent to the bill
D. 6 B. refer the bill to the President
C. keep the bill pending
650. The Janata Party was formed in 1977 by D. exercise his veto power over the bill
the merger of
A. Congress (O) and Jana Sangh 655. The Estimates Committee consists of
A. 30 members from Lok Sabha
B. Bharatiya Lok Dal and Socialist Party
B. 30 members from Rajya Sabha
C. A and B above
C. 30 members from both the Sabhas
D. Congress (O), Jana Sangh and BLD
D. 20 members from Lok Sabha
651. When the office of the President and Vice-
656. A person appointed as an Additional or
President fall vacant simultaneously who
Acting Judge of a High Court shall not hold
acts as President?
office after attaining the age of
A. Prime Minister A. 60
B. Chief Justice of India B. 62
C. Speaker of the Lok Sabha C. 63
D. Chief of Army Staff D. 65
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9.16 Indian Constitution 635
657. Under the Presidential system of govern- 662. Which one of the following has been
ment the advice of the cabinet is wrongly listed as a qualification for the
election of the President of India?
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A. never sought
A. Must be a citizen of India
B. binding on the head of the State
B. Must have completed 35 years of age
C. not binding on the head of the State
C. Must be qualified for election to the Ra-
D. binding, if the advice is tendered unan- jya Sabha
imously in the form of a Cabinet resolution
D. Must not hold any office of profit under
658. The Parliament of Japan is called the the Government of India or of a State
A. Congress 663. In which part of the Constitution Is the
State enjoined to establish Panchayati Raj
B. Presidium
institutions?
C. Majlis A. Directive Principles
D. Diet B. Fundamental Rights
659. Which is the oldest of all the federal Con- C. Preamble
stitutions in the world? D. Seventh Schedule
A. Ireland 664. Union Parliament can make laws in re-
B. Canada spect of subjects mentioned in the State
List
C. USA
A. when the State Assembly is not in ses-
D. Australia sion
660. June 25, 1975 was significant date in the B. during an Emergency under Presi-
history of the nation because dent’s rule
A. Emergency was declared on this date C. on a specific request from the Gover-
nor
B. It was the date of death of Prime Min-
D. when the Chief Minister concurs
ister Jawaharlal Nehru
C. The Indian Rupee was devalued on 665. According to Article 1 of the Constitution
that day of India,
D. The famous Tashkent agreement was A. India that is Bharat, shall be a Federa-
signed on that day tion of States
B. India shall be a Federal Republic
661. Which one of the following schedules of
C. India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union
the constitution of India contains provi-
of State
sions regarding Anti Defection Act?
D. India, that is Bharat, shall be a Unitary
A. Second Schedule State
B. Fifth Schedule
666. The fundamental right which was sub-
C. Eighth Schedule jected to several amendments is the right
D. Tenth Schedule A. to freedom
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9.16 Indian Constitution 636
B. to equality 672. A Cabinet Minister who for a period of
C. to property six consecutive months, is not a member
of either House of Parliament shall on the
D. against exploitation expiry of that period
667. Right to Education Bill envisages to pro- A. continue to be a Minister by a special
vide free education to the children of the resolution of the Cabinet
age group of
B. cease to be a Minister
A. Up to 2.5 years
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. be reverted as a Deputy Minister
B. Up to 3 years
D. be reverted as a Minister of State
C. Up to 5 years
D. 6-14 years 673. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
is concerned with the
668. The President of India is the A. abolition of titles
A. Head of State B. abolition of untouchability
B. Head of the Government
C. formulation of Uniform Civil Code
C. Head of State as well as Government
D. nationalisation of important undertak-
D. Uncrowned Monarch of the Republic ings
669. A device to obtain the opinion of the peo- 674. The normal life of the House of the Peo-
ple on an important public issue, when that ple is five years but it may be dissolved
issue has not been passed by the Legisla- earlier by the
ture of the State, is known as
A. Speaker
A. Plebiscite
B. Prime Minister
B. Referendum
C. President
C. Self-determination
D. Vice-President
D. Mandate
675. The first woman Governor of a State
670. The salary and allowances of the Presi-
was
dent can be diminished during his term of
office. A. Mrs Vijayalakshmi Pandit
A. Yes B. Mrs Sarojini Naidu
B. No C. Miss Padmaja Naidu
C. Yes, during an Emergency D. Mrs Sucheta Kripalani
D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
676. Of the following ex-Presidents who had
671. The Comptroller and Auditor General of served as Indian Ambassador to the erst-
India is appointed by the while Soviet Union?
A. Prime Minister A. Dr Rajendra Prasad
B. President B. Dr S Radhakrishnan
C. Parliament C. Dr Zakir Husain
D. Vice-President D. Giani Zail Singh
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9.16 Indian Constitution 637
677. The first Backward Classes Commission C. Head of the Government
was headed by
D. Union Parliament
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A. Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
B. Jogendra Nath Mandal 682. The Punjab and Haryana High Court has
territorial jurisdiction over the States of
C. Kakasaheb Kalelkar
Punjab and Haryana and
D. M H Beg
A. Delhi
678. In the Indian political system, supremacy
B. Union Territory of Chandigarh
lies with the
A. Armed Forces C. Himachal Pradesh
B. Constitution D. Rajasthan
C. Parliament
683. The Fundamental Rights can be sus-
D. Supreme Court pended
679. It is the responsibility of the to A. if Parliament passes a law by a two-
decide the disputes arising between two thirds majority
States or between the Centre and a State.
B. if the Supreme Court decrees it
A. Supreme Court
C. if the President orders it at the time of
B. President a National Emergency
C. Parliament
D. Under no circumstances
D. Prime Minister
680. Certain Articles of the Indian Constitution 684. Which Indian State remained an Asso-
can be amended by a simple majority In ciate State for a short period before it was
Parliament like an ordinary law. Which recognised as a full-fledged State of the
one of the following cannot be amended Union?
by this method? A. Goa
A. Articles dealing with the creation of B. Sikkim
new States
C. Nagaland
B. Provisions dealing with the quorum in
Parliament D. Kerala
C. Articles dealing with the official lan-
guages of the Union and the States 685. As we all know, child labour is to-
tally banned in India. As per the
D. Doubts and disputes relating to the Child Labour Prohibition III Regulation Act,
election of President or Vice President ’Child’ means a person who has not com-
681. The growing power of the bureaucracy pleted
does not pose any serious challenge to the A. 18 years of his/her age
democratic polity in India because the final
authority still rests with the B. 16 years of his/her age
A. Judiciary C. 14 years of his/her age
B. Head of the State D. 20 years of his/her age
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9.16 Indian Constitution 638
686. Which among the following became the C. Chief of the Army Staff
25th State of India? D. Chief Justice of India
A. Mizoram
691. A person can be a member of both Houses
B. Goa
of Parliament
C. Arunachal Pradesh
A. Yes
D. Sikkim
B. No
687. Disputes arising out of the election of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Yes, during a National Emergency
Vice- President shall be decided by the
D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
A. President
B. Election Commission 692. In a Presidential type of Government the
ministers are answerable only to the
C. Supreme Court
A. Legislature
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B. Judiciary
688. When was National Emergency declared
C. President
for the first time in India?
D. Vice-President
A. October 1962
B. February 1962 693. Who enjoys the right to impose rea-
C. December 1962 sonable restrictions on the Fundamental
Rights of citizens?
D. January 1963
A. The President
689. The basic difference between the Indian B. Union Parliament
President and the British Monarch is
C. The Prime Minister
A. A British Monarch can be questioned
by the House of Lords, whereas the Indian D. The Supreme Court
President is not answerable to any court
694. The Chief Minister of the National
B. The British Monarch IS forbidden from Capital Territory of Delhi shall be ap-
foreign travel whereas the Parliament is pointed/elected by the
in session no such restriction ever applies
to the Indian President A. President
C. There is no age bar to the Indian B. Lieutenant Governor
President for holding the office whereas C. Delhi Assembly
the British Monarch .automatically steps D. Chief Administrator
down on his attaining the age of 75 in-
stalling the Crown Prince as Monarch 695. Do the State Legislatures have any au-
D. The Indian President is elected every thority to propose amendments to the Con-
five years whereas the British Crown is stitution?
hereditary and not elective. Whereas A. Yes
690. The first citizen of India is the B. No
A. Prime Minister of India C. Yes, during an Emergency
B. President of India D. Yes, during a Financial Emergency
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9.16 Indian Constitution 639
696. The first National Emergency declared in 701. For a successful and effective functioning
October 1962 lasted till of the Parliamentary system, it is neces-
sary to have
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A. 1965
A. a strong opposition party
B. 1966
B. a Presidential form of government
C. 1967
C. a multi-party system
D. 1968
D. a no-party system
697. Who among the following has been em-
702. The Prime Minister of India now receives
powered by the Constitution of India to
a monthly salary of
seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on
questions of law or fact of public impor- A. Rs 100000
tance? B. Rs 90000
A. President of India C. Rs 120000
B. Union Law Minister D. a Member of Parliament
C. Prime Minister of India 703. The Advocate General will hold office dur-
D. Speaker of the Lok Sabha ing the pleasure of the
A. Governor
698. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can
B. Chief Minister
A. adjourn the House
C. President
B. dissolve the House
D. Chief Justice of the State High Court
C. summon the House
704. The term of office of the Comptroller and
D. prorogue the House
Auditor General of India is
699. If the President dies or resigns or is oth- A. 4 years
erwise incapacitated and as a result, the B. 5 years
Presidential office becomes vacant, the
Vice- President will act as President only C. 6 years
for a maximum period of D. 7 years
A. three months 705. Who among the following can attend
B. six months meetings of the Union Cabinet?
C. nine months A. Cabinet Ministers
D. one year B. Ministers of State
C. Deputy Ministers
700. The Chief Minister retains his post as long
as he enjoys the confidence of the D. President
A. Prime Minister 706. Which Article guarantees to the individ-
ual citizen the right to move the Supreme
B. Governor
Court direct in case of violation of a Fun-
C. State Legislative Assembly damental Right?
D. People of the State A. Article 30
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9.16 Indian Constitution 640
B. Article 31 C. Governor
C. Article 32 D. Chief Minister
D. Article 33 712. The salary and perquisites of the Presi-
dent of India are determined by the
707. The decided in May 1949 that India
should become a Republic. A. Prime Minister
A. House of Commons B. Supreme Court
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Union Parliament C. Central Cabinet
C. Constituent Assembly of India D. Union Parliament
D. Prime Minister of India 713. The Chief Election Commissioner and
members of the Election Commission can
708. Burma (now Myanmar) was separated
be removed from office by the
from India in
A. Prime Minister
A. 1919
B. President
B. 1929
C. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of
C. 1935 India
D. 1947 D. Same procedure as laid down for re-
709. The Constitution of India provides for moval of Judges of the Supreme Court
A. Bi-cameral Legislatures in all the 714. Which political party, among the follow-
States ing, had approached the electorate with
B. Unicameral Legislatures in all the the slogan: ’Vote for the Government that
States works’ in the 1980 general elections?
A. BJP
C. Unicameral Legislatures in some
States and Bi-cameral Legislatures in oth- B. Congress
ers C. Janta Party
D. A Committee of Members of Parlia- D. Lok Dal
ment to decide the issue of Bicameralism
715. What is the maximum strength pre-
710. The Constitution of India describes India scribed for the State Legislative Assem-
as a bly?
A. Federation of Independent States A. 350
B. Union of States B. 600
C. Quasi-Federation C. 500
D. Dominion of Free States D. 750
711. The remuneration payable to the Advo- 716. Which among the following qualifications
cate General of a State is determined by is not essential for a person to become the
the Vice-President of India?
A. Chief Justice of the State High Court A. He must be a graduate
B. Registrar of the State High Court B. He must be an Indian Citizen
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9.17 Union Legislature 641
C. He must be over 35 years of age sory Board whose chairman shall be a
judge of a/the
D. He must be qualified to be a member
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of the Rajya Sabha A. High Court
B. Supreme Court
717. Which one or the following States does
not have a Legislative Council so far even C. District Court
though the Constitution provides for it? D. Subordinate Court
A. Bihar
719. Ms Sujatha Vaaant Manohar was the
B. Karnataka woman judge of the Supreme Court
C. Madhya Pradesh of India.
D. Maharashtra A. first
B. second
718. Preventive Detention for a period of
more than three months can be ordered C. third
only on the recommendation of an Advi- D. fourth
9.17 Union Legislature
1. An Appropriation Bill: A. Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5
I) is necessary to draw money from years
the Consolidated Fund of India. B. Lok Sabha can be extended only upto 6
II) cannot be amended to vary the years
amount of any charged expenditure. C. Lok Sabha is never dissolved’ before 5
III) Includes only the expenditure years
charged on the Consoliated Fund of
India. D. All members of Lok Sabha are elected
IV) is required to withdraw money from Representatives
the Contingency Fund of India.
4. Who, according to the Anti-Defection Act,
A. I and III is the final authority to decide whether a
B. I, II and III member of Lok Sabha has incurred disqual-
ification due to defection?
C. I and II
A. Speaker
D. I, II, III and IV
B. President
2. The Union government list does not in- C. Election Commission
clude:
D. High Court
A. Marriage / Education
B. Defence 5. Which of the following is not a function of
Parliament in India?
C. Banking
A. Providing the Cabinet and holding
D. Police them responsible
3. Which of the following is correct? B. Criticising government policy
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9.17 Union Legislature 642
C. Formulating policy for national devel- 10. THE IS THE PRESIDING OFFICER OF
opment THE LOK SABHA
D. Securing relevant information on gov- A. ANNOUNCER
ernment action B. SPEAKER
6. The Strength of the Lok Sabha is C. ORATOR
A. 530 Members D. SPOKES PERSON
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 560 members 11. The representation to States in the Rajya
C. 540 Members Sabha is given on the basis of:
D. none of above A. an equal number of seats to each State
7. Identify the statement which is not the cri-
B. in proportion to their population
teria to be a member of the Lok sabha
C. in proportion to their size
A. A person should be the citizen of India
D. in accordance with their resources
B. A person has to be 25 years old 12. A team of men selected by the party in
C. A person should come from an affluent opposition to take over the different port-
family folios in case the party is able to wrest
power is known as:
D. A person should not hold any office of
profit under the government of India. A. inner Cabinet
B. shadow Cabinet
8. Identify the correct sequence of passing a
Budget in the Parliament [CDS 2009] C. causus
A. Vote on Account-Finance Bill- D. prorogation
Appropriation Bill-Discussion on Budget
13. The people in eachconstituency elect
candidate of theirchoice through the sys-
B. Finance Bill- Appropriation. Bill Discus- tem of secret ballot.
sion on Budget-Vote on Accounts
A. three
C. Discussion on Budget-Vote on Account-
Finance Bill-Appropriation Bill B. two
D. Discussion on Budget-Appropriation C. one
Bill-Finance Bill-Vote on Account D. four
9. Which of the following is concerned with 14. What is the minimum percentage of seats
the regularity and economy of expenditure a party should get to be recognised as the
of government? opposition party in the legislature?
A. Public Accounts Committee A. 20%
B. Estimates Committee B. 15%
C. Business Advisory Committee C. 10%
D. Committee on Offices on Profit D. No such limit
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9.17 Union Legislature 643
15. Meaning of act A. Proroguing Parliament
A. A law made by the union or the state B. Convening a joint sitting if requested
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legislature. C. Dissolving the Rajya Sabha
B. A law made by the prime minister and D. Causing the Budget to be laid before
a group of ministers. Parliament
C. To officially undo a law
20. The Interpellation means
D. A rough plan of document
A. the procedure of suspension of the
16. The quorum required to hold meetings of members
the legislative chambers is what fraction B. a procedure in some legislative bodies
of the total membership of the House? of asking a government official to explain
[CBI 1993] an act or policy.
A. 1/3 C. the procedure to discuss the crisis of
B. 1/4 the country
C. 1/6 D. None of the above
D. 1/10 21. Which house qualification is this:A per-
son should be above the age of 25 years,
17. What is a federal system of government?
should be an Indian citizen.
A. government at different levels
A. Lok Sabha
B. government at three levels
B. Rajya Sabha
C. government at two levels
C. Both A & B
D. none from above
D. None of the above
18. Consider the following statements:
22. The Lok Sabha is called in session for at
1. The Chairman of the Committee on least how many times in a year?
Public Accounts is appointed by the
A. Twice
Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts B. Once
comprises Members of Lok Sabha, C. Thrice
Members of Rajya Sabha and a few
eminent persons of industry and D. Four times
trade. 23. What is the maximum membership of the
Which of the statements given above Lok Sabha?
is/are correct? [IAS 2007] A. 550
A. 1 only B. 250
B. 2 only C. 552
C. Both 1 and 2 D. none of above
D. Neither 1 nor 2
24. who is the Supreme commander of the De-
19. Which of the following actions are not per- fence forces in the Indian government to-
formed by the President? day
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9.17 Union Legislature 644
A. Narendra Modi C. Balirarn Bhagat
B. Ram Nath Kovind D. Hukarn Singh
C. Smriti Irani 30. Who conducts the meetings of the Lok Sab-
D. none of above haMaintains disciplineSupervises the work
of the House?
25. The distribution of seats of the Parliament
A. announcer.
are based on which of the following cen-
sus? B. speaker
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 1951 C. elocutionis
B. 1961 D. lecturer.
C. 1971 31. The maximum number of representatives
D. 1981 of the States in Lok Sabha is:
A. 525
26. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the
direct supervision of: B. 530
A. Ministry of Human Affairs C. 545
D. 550
B. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha 32. During which hour of Parliament, members
can submit questions or issues to be raised
D. President
to the Speaker?
27. Who is the highest law-making body A. Question hour
which makes laws for the entire country?
B. Zero hour
A. Government
C. Adjournment motion
B. Houses D. No confidence motion
C. Union parliament
33. Whose signature is needed to pass the
D. Parliament bill?
28. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is: [As- A. The speaker
stt Grade 1992] B. The Parliament
A. elected by the members of Rajya C. The president
Sabha
D. Financial control
B. nominated by the President
34. The Estimates Committee:
C. elected by members of both Houses of
Parliament A. consists of 30 members appointed by
the Speaker
D. elected by Parliament and State Legis-
latures jointly B. consists of 15 members each from Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha
29. Who among the following was never the C. has its members elected according to
Lok Sabha Speaker? [IAS 2004] the system of proportional representation
A. K.V.K. Sundaram
B. G.S. Dhillon D. has a Union Minister as its Chairman
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9.17 Union Legislature 645
35. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. It- D. All of the above
cannot be dissolved by the .
40. How many people are represented from
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A. Executive Union Territories in Lok Sabha?
B. Prime Minister A. 10
C. President. B. 30
D. Council of Ministers C. 20
36. The Public Accounts Committee submits its D. 15
report to [BPSC 2011]
41. India has a form ofgovernment, both
A. the Comptroller and Auditor- General at the center as well as inthe states.
B. the Speaker of the Lok Sabha A. Presidential
C. the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs B. Parliamentary
D. the President of India C. Democratic
37. The functions of the government are di- D. Executive
vided intothree branches, namely the , 42. With reference to Indian Public Finance,
, and the consider the following statements: [IAS
A. President, Prime Minister Council of 2004]
members 1. Disbursements from Public Accounts
B. Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha, Council of of India are subject to the Vote of
Ministers Parliament.
C. the legislature, the executiveand the 2. The Indian Constitution provides for
judiciary. the establishment of a Consolidated
Fund, a Public Account and a Contin-
D. the executive, legislature, representa- gency Fund for each State.
tives. 3. Appropriations and disbursements
38. In the case of a deadlock between the two under the Railway Budget are sub-
Houses of the Parliament, the joint sitting ject to the same form of parliamen-
is presided over by the: [NDA 1994] tary control as other appropriations
and disbursements.
A. President
Which of the statements given above are
B. Vice-President correct?
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha A. 1 and 2
D. Member of the Lok Sabha specifically B. 2 and 3
elected for the purpose
C. 1 and 3
39. Rajya Sabha has the exclusive authority D. 1, 2 and 3
to:
43. The President nominate members
A. impeach the Vice-President
A. 22
B. intimate impeachment proceedings
against the Chief Election Commissioner B. 13
C. recommend the creation of new All In- C. 12
dia Services D. 4
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9.17 Union Legislature 646
44. In Federal System of Government 48. What is the term of Lok Ssbha?
A. State Government has more power A. 5 years
than Central Government B. 4years
B. Central Government plays supreme C. 7 years
role D. 6 years
C. State Government has no power
49. Which list includes the matter of both list?
D. Power is distributed between Central
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Union list
and State Government
B. State list
45. Which of the following features restrict C. Concurrent list
the authority of Parliament in India?
D. None of the above
I) A written Constitution clearly pre-
scribes its scope of operation. 50. Who has the power to remove the Presi-
II) The Supreme Court can strike down dent and vice President of India from the
a law passed by Parliament if it con- offices
travenes any of the Constitutional A. Control over executive
provisions.
B. Financial control
III) Parliament is limited by the incorpor-
tation of the Fundamental Rights in C. Judicial functions
the Constitution. D. Constituent functions
A. I, II and III 51. THE PRESIDENT NOMINATES TWO MEM-
B. I and III BERS OF THE COMMUNITY TO THE RA-
JYA SABHA .
C. II only
A. EUROPEAN
D. None as Parliament is sovereign in In-
B. BRITISH
dia
C. DALITS
46. All money received by or on behalf of the D. ANGLO INDIAN
Government of India are credited to:
52. The privileges enjoyed by the members of
A. the Consolidated Fund of India
Parliament individually include:
B. the Public Account of India’ A. freedom of arrest in all cases
C. the Contingency Fund of India B. freedom of attendance as witness
D. Either A or B while Parliament is in session
C. unlimited freedom of speech
47. Name the Bill which is related to emer-
D. All of the above
gency fund of INDIA
A. Money Bill 53. The Constitution of India does not mention
the post of: [CDS 1994]
B. Constitution Amendment Bill
A. the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya
C. State List Sabha
D. Ordinary Bill B. the Deputy Prime Minister
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9.17 Union Legislature 647
C. the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha B. Vyjayanthimala
D. the Deputy Speaker of the State Leg- C. Hema Malini
islative Assemblies
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D. Jayalalitha
54. Who holds the supreme power in a parlia-
59. Consider the following and answer the ap-
mentary system?
propriate answer:*It is known as the Coun-
A. The President cil of States*1/3rd of its members retire
B. The Prime minister every 2 years*The candidate must be at
least 30 years*The Vice President is the
C. The Parliament Ex-officio chairperson or the Presiding of-
D. none of above ficer
55. At present only States have a bicam- A. Lok Sabha
eral legislature B. Rajya Sabha
A. Eight C. Legislative Assembly
B. Seven D. All of the above
C. Five
60. Which of the following States has the
D. Nine largest percentage of reserved parliamen-
tary seats? [Teachers’ Exam 1993]
56. The Parliament can the President if he
or she violates the Constitution A. Orissa
A. Impeach B. Bihar
B. Resign C. Uttar Pradesh
C. Let go D. Madhya Pradesh
D. fire 61. The Union Parliament has two Houses-the
57. A member of Parliament has immunity and the
from arrest, means: A. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
A. a member of Parliament cannot be ar- B. Lok Sabha and Council of Members
rested and put in prison in, a civil action C. Judiciary and Rajya Sabha
within a period of 40 days before the com-
mencement of the session and 40 days af- D. Executive and Legislature
ter the termination of the session
62. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha-
B. a member of Parliament cannot be can be members.
prosecuted in criminal proceedings
A. 532
C. an MP cannot be detained preventively
B. 535
C. 552
D. an MP cannot be arrested for the con-
tempt of court D. 556
58. The first woman film star nominated/ 63. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok
elected to the Rajya Sabha was: Sabha?
A. Nargis Dutt A. Deputy Speaker
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9.17 Union Legislature 648
B. Speaker A. it does not participate in the passing of
C. None of the above money bill
B. No Money Bill can be introduced in Ra-
D. none of above
jya Sabha
64. When a resolution for his removal is under C. Both of the above
consideration, the Speaker:
D. None of the above
I) does not take part in the proceed-
68. Consider the following statements:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ings of the House.
II) has no right to vote. 1. A Bill pending in the Legislature of
III) has a right to speak in the House 3 State shall not lapse by reason
even though he shall not preside. of the prorogation of the House or
A. I only Houses thereof.
2. A Bill pending in the Legislative
B. I and II
Council of a State which has not
C. II only been’ ’passed by the Legislative As-
D. III only sembly shall not lapse on dissolution
of the Assembly.
65. WHO WAS THE FIRST WOMAN SPEAKER Which of the statements given above
OF INDIA? is/are correct? [NDA 2008]
A. MEIRA KUMAR A. 1 only
B. SUMITRA MAHAJAN B. 2 only
C. PRATIBHA PATIL C. Both 1 and 2
D. INDIRA GANDHI D. Neither 1 nor 2
66. Consider the following statements on Fi- 69. Under how many lists are the legislative
nancial Bill and say which is/are correct? subjects distributed between the centre
I) It is the sameasa Money Bill. and states in India?
II) It can be introduced only in the Lok A. three
Sabha. B. two
III) It can be amended in the Rajya
Sabha. C. one
IV) It cannot be introduced except on D. none of above
the recommendation of the Presi-
dent. 70. The Parliament can impeach or remove
thePresident, the Vice-President and
A. I only
judges ofthe Supreme Court and High
B. II and IV Courts if any ofthem violate the Consti-
C. II, III and IV tution or misuse theirauthority.
D. III and IV A. Judicial Functions
B. Elective Functions
67. Rajya Sabha is less powerful than Lok
Sabha in terms of its financial powers be- C. Legislative function
cause: D. executive function
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9.17 Union Legislature 649
71. In a Rajya sabha how many members are B. Draft
there?
C. Insolvent
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A. 250 members
D. Amend
B. 238 members
C. 240 members 76. The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum
strength of: [NDA 1992]
D. 235 members
A. 200
72. What type of government does India
have? B. 210
A. Parliamentary form of government C. 250
B. Presidential form of government D. 260
C. Other
77. Which of the following non-members of
D. none of above Parliament has the right to address it?
73. How many members does the following A. Solicitor-General of India
House consist of? a) Lok Sabha-b) Rajya B. Chief Justice of India
Sabha-
C. Attorney General of India
A. 556, b) 600
B. 350, b) 255 D. Chief Election Commissioner
C. 250, b) 550 78. Which organ /branch of government en-
D. 552, b) 250 forces law?
74. With reference to Indian Parliament, A. Judiciary
which one of the following is not correct? B. Executive
[IAS 2004]
C. Legislature
A. The Appropriation Bill must be passed
by both the Houses of Parliament before D. Union list
it can be enacted into law
79. Under Article 87:
B. No money shall be withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India except under I) The President may address either
the appropriation made by the Appropria- House of Parliament and require the
tion Act attendance of members for that pur-
pose.
C. Finance Bill is required for proposing II) The President shall address both
new taxes but no another Bill/Act is re- Houses of Parliament assembled to-
quired for making changes in the rates of gether at the commencement of the
taxes which are already under operation first session after each general elec-
D. No Money Bill can be introduced ex- tion to the Lok Sabha.
cept on the recommendation of the Presi- III) Provision is to be made by rules
dent regulating the procedure of either
House for allotment of time for dis-
75. To change or modify for the better cussion of the matters referred to in
A. Repeal the President’s address.
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9.17 Union Legislature 650
A. I and II 85. Parliament and State government can
B. II and III make laws listed in
C. I and III A. Union List
D. I, II and III B. Concurrent List
80. The budget in normal circumstances, is pre- C. Residuary List
sented to the Parliament on: D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The last day of February
86. Which of the following lists contains ‘wa-
B. 15th March
ter supplies’ as a subject?
C. The last day of March
A. Union list
D. 1st April
B. Concurrent list
81. What is the minimum required age to par-
ticipate in the electoral process? C. State list
A. 19 D. none of above
B. 21
87. Which of the following statements regard-
C. 18 ing the Esstimates Committee are correct?
D. 35 I) No member of the Rajya Sabha is as-
sociated with it.
82. NAME THE BILL WHICH IS RELATED TO
II) It has twenty members.
EMERGENCY FUND OF INDIA.
III) Its members are elected in accor-
A. ORDINARY BILL dance with the system of propor-
B. MONEY BILL tional representation for a period of
one year.
C. CONSTITUTION AMENDMENT BILL
IV) The Speaker nominates one of its
D. STATE LIST members to be its Chairman.
83. Which of the following organs of the gov- A. I, II and III
ernment enforces laws?
B. I, III and IV
A. Judiciary
C. I, II and IV
B. Executive
D. II, III and IV
C. Legislature
D. none of above 88. Which of the following Parliamentary
Committees in India acts as ’watch-dog’
84. The Rajya Sabha Powers include; on departmental expenditure and irregu-
A. The Rajya Sabha passes the money bill. larities?
A. Estimates Committee
B. The Rajya Sabha along with Lok Sabha
discuss and pass the ordinary bill. B. Committee on Public Undertakings
C. Only A C. Public Accounts Committee
D. Both A and B D. Committee of Public Assurances
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9.17 Union Legislature 651
89. Who is authorised to decide over a dispute C. A Money Bill deals with the money of
regarding disqualification of a member of the Consolidated Fund
Parliament? D. A Money Bill is one which provides for
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A. Election Commissioner the imposition of fines or fees
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha 94. Which one of the following is responsi-
C. President ble for the preparation and presentation
D. A Committee set up by the Parliament of Union Budget to the Parliament? [IAS
2010]
90. In a lok sabha, the members are elected A. Department of Revenue
for a term of Years?
B. Department of Economic Affairs
A. 4
C. Department of Financial Services
B. 6
D. Department of Expenditure
C. 5
95. Which parliamentary committee In India is
D. 3
normally chaired by a prominent member
91. With regard to the powers of the Rajya of the Opposition?
Sabha, which one among the following A. Committee Assurances
statements is not correct? [CDS 2012] B. Estimates Committee
A. A money Bill cannot be introduced in C. Privileges Committee
the Rajya Sabha
D. Public Accounts Committee
B. The Rajya Sabha has no power either
to reject or amend a Money Bill 96. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by:
C. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the A. Lok Sabha
Annual Financial Statement B. Constitutional amendment
D. The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote C. President
on the Demands for Grants
D. None of the above
92. After a no confidence motion is admitted
97. The EVMs were used thought out the coun-
to the Lok Sabha, who decides a date for
try for the first time in the general election
the debate?
held in
A. President
A. 1962
B. Vice-President
B. 1977
C. Lok Sabha Speaker
C. 1999
D. Prime Minister D. 2004
93. State which of the following statements is 98. Which of the following statements are not
incorrect: true?
A. A Money Bill deals .with imposition, re- I) The Rajya Sabha has no power to re-
mission, alteration or regulation of tax ject or amend a Money Bill.
B. A Money Bill deals with regulation bor- II) The Speaker of Lok Sabha has sole
rowing money or giving of any guarantee and final power of deciding whether
by the Government a Bill is a Money Bill.
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9.17 Union Legislature 652
III) In the creation of All-India Services D. Give his assent to the bills passed by
the Lok Sabha has more powers the House
than the Rajya Sabha.
IV) In 1976 the Money Bill was intro- 103. who does nominate the two members in
duced in the Rajya Sabha. Lok sabha?
A. II and III A. The Speaker
B. I and IV B. The President
C. I and II C. The Vice President
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. III and IV D. The Deputy Minister
99. The members of the Rajya Sabha are: 104. The Parliament legislates on a State sub-
ject if:
A. elected indirectly
I) the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
B. mostly nominated
by two-thirds majority that to do so
C. elected directly as well as indirectly is in the national inter
D. elected by the members of the Legisla- II) during times of gency.
tive Assemblies and Legislative Councils III) when the legislatives of two or
of States more States resolve that it is law-
ful for Parliament to do so.
100. The power to govern the country is actu- IV) a treaty or international agreement
allyin the hands of the has to be implemented.
A. Prime minister A. I, II and III
B. President B. I, III and IV
C. Council of Ministers C. II and III
D. Legislature D. I, II, III and IV
101. Which community members are nomi- 105. Which of the following are Financial Com-
nated in Lok Sabha? mittees of Parliament in India? [IAS
A. Anglo-Indian 1992]
B. Muslim I) Public Accounts Committee.
C. Irish II) Estimates Committee.
III) Committee on Public Undertakings.
D. Sikh
A. I and III
102. Which one among the following is a func- B. I and 11
tion of the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok
Sabha? [COS 2011] C. II and III
A. Conduct of the proceedings of: the D. I, II and III
House in the absence of the Speaker 106. On what grounds can a person be disqual-
B. To check if the election certificates of ified as a voter?
the members of the House are in order I) Unsoundness of mind
C. Swear in the members of the House II) Corrupt or illegal practice
and hold the charge till a regular Speaker III) Crime
is elected IV) Non-residence
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9.17 Union Legislature 653
A. I, III and IV 112. THE FUNCTIONS OF THE GOVERNMENT
B. I, II and III ARE DIVIDED INTO THREE BRANCHES
NAMELY THE , AND
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
C. II, III and IV
A. PRESIDENT, PRIME MINISTER, COUN-
D. I, II, III and IV CIL OF MINISTERS
107. Functions of a President are carried, on B. RAJYA SABHA, LOK SABHA, COUNCIL
the adviceof the OF MINISTERS
A. Members of Rajya Sabha C. THE LEGISLATURE, THE EXECUTIVE,
B. Representative members THE JUDICIARY
C. Members of Lok Sabha D. THE EXECUTIVE, LEGISLATURE, REP-
RESENTATIVES
D. Prime Minister and his/her Councilof
Ministers. 113. Consider the following statements:
108. It is a move in the Lok Sabhato express 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the
a lack of confidence in the Council ofMin- power to declare that it would be in
isters. If such a motion is passed, then national interest for the Parliament
theCouncil of Ministers has to resign. to legislate with respect to a matter
in the State List.
A. secret ballot 2. Resolution approving the Proclama-
B. Quorum tion of Emergency are passed only
by the Lok Sabha.
C. Vote of confidence
Which of the statements given above
D. Vote of no-confidence
is/are correct? [IAS 2006]
109. The is the presiding officer of the A. 1 only
LokSabha.
B. 2 only
A. speaker
C. Both 1 and 2
B. announcer
D. Neither 1 nor 2
C. orator
D. spokes person 114. The Rajya Sabha has a life of: [Railways
1991]
110. Who appoints the leader for the party? A. 2 years
A. Local Minister B. 6 years
B. Speaker C. 7 years
C. Vice-President D. Permanency
D. The President
115. Funds belonging to the. Government of
111. is an indirectly elected body India are kept in:
A. Lok Sabha A. Consolidated Fund of India
B. Supreme Court B. Public Accounts Fund of India
C. Rajya Sabha C. Contingency Fund of India
D. High Court D. All of the above
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9.17 Union Legislature 654
116. The term of is 5 years. 121. Union Legislature is also known as
A. Lagislature A. Executive
B. Executive B. Union List
C. Lok Sabha C. Legislature
D. Rajya Sabha D. Parliament
122. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the
117. How many times can the President of In-
Speaker continues in office till a new:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dia return a Non-money Bill, passed by
Parliament? A. Lok Sabha is formed
A. Twice B. Speaker is appointed by the President
B. Once
C. Speaker is elected when the new
C. Thrice House meets
D. Never D. Government is formed
118. Which of the following are true about the 123. Which one of the following is the largest
Lower house of the Parliament? Committee of the Parliament? [CDS
2009]
A. It is known as the House of the People
A. The Public Accounts Committee
B. The candidate must be at least 25 B. The Estimates Committee
years C. The Committee on Public Undertakings
C. The Speaker is the Presiding officer
D. The Committee on Petitions
D. All of the above
124. One-third of the members of the Rajya
119. Through which people cast their vote? Sabha retire after every:
And that means that no one knows whom
the voter has voted for. A. One year
B. Second year
A. Secret ballot
C. Third year
B. Ex-officio
D. Fifth year
C. Bill
125. Basic Qualifications of the Membersof
D. Impeachment
the Lok Sabha
120. All revenues received by the Union Gov- A. Should be citizens of India Should be at
ernment by way of taxes and other re- least 30 years of age Should be registered
ceipts for the conduct of Government busi- voters
ness are credited to the [CSAT 2011] B. Should be citizens of India Should be at
A. Contingency Fund of India least 32 years of age Should be registered
voters
B. Public Account
C. Should be citizens of India Should be at
C. Consolidated Fund of India
least 35 years of age Should be registered
D. Deposits and Advances Fund voters
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9.17 Union Legislature 655
D. Should be a citizen of India Should be 131. Which of the following best defines the
at least 25 years of age Should be a regis- Parliamentary term ’Crossing the Floor’?
tered voter [SBI PO 1991]
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
126. If a Money bill passed by the Lok Sabha A. Leaving the opposition to join the party
is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within in power or vice-versa by a Parliamentar-
fourteen days, then: [CDS 2004] ian
A. Lok Sabha will reconsider it B. An attempt to occupy the seat of some
other Parliamentarian
B. Money Bill will be rejected
C. Leaving a House by a minister in be-
C. President will summon a joint meeting tween in order to attend the other House
of both the Houses to discuss it
D. The Bill will be sent to the President for D. Walk out by some Parliamentarians in
his signature and consent order to boycott the proceedings of the
127. A law is first introduced in the form of House
A. Law 132. The is an integral part ofthe Parlia-
B. Act ment.
C. List A. Council of ministers
D. Bill B. Representative
C. President
128. What is the minimum age for being the
member of the Parliament? [NABARD D. Prime Minister
1991]
133. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Par-
A. 21 years liament are held to: [Railways 1994]
B. 25 years A. elect the President of India
C. 30 years B. elect the Vice-President of India
D. 35 years C. adopt a Constitution amending Bill
129. the President can nominate how many D. consider and pass a Bill on which two
Anglo Indians in the Lok Sabha Houses disagree
A. 3 134. In case of emergency the term of the Lok
B. 4 Sabha can be increased to
C. 5 A. 6 months
D. 2 B. 1 year
130. In India, the Lok sabha members are C. 3 months
elected D. 7 months
A. Directly by the Vidhan Sabha members 135. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha
has to be passed/returned by Rajya Sabha
B. Directly by the people within:
C. Indirectly by the MPs A. 14 days
D. Indirectly by the President of India B. 21 days
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9.17 Union Legislature 656
C. 1 month B. Legislature
D. 3 months C. Judiciary
136. Who is responsible and answerable to D. none of above
the Lok Sabha for its decisions, policies
and actions? 140. After the House is dissolved, the
A. Rajya Sabha Speaker:
B. Speaker A. is removed from the office immediately
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The CEO
D. The Council of Ministers B. remains as Speaker until the first
meeting of the House of People after the
137. The assent of the results in the enact- dissolution
ment of a bill into a law
C. has to submit his resignation to the
A. Speaker
President of India within 24 hours
B. Prime Minister
D. can continue as Speaker for the period
C. President
of 30 days only
D. Chief Justice of India
141. According to the Parliamentary procedure
138. Which of the following are not privileges
there are three sessions in a year in the
enjoyed by members of Parliament individ-
Parliament of India. These are:
ually?
I) Freedom from being arrested in civil A. Summer, Monsoon and Winter session
cases during and 40 days before and
after the continuance of a meeting of B. Summer, spring and Winter session
the House of Committee of which he
is a member. C. Budget, Monsoon and Winter session
II) Freedom from being summoned
D. Summer, Monsoon and Autumn Ses-
without the leave of the House, to
sion
give evidence as a witness while
Parliament is in session.
142. Which of the following committees exist
III) Unlimited freedom of speech provid-
only in the Lok Sabha?
ing immunity from court action for
anything said in the House. I) Business Advisory Committee.
IV) Freedom to publish debates and pro- II) Committee on Private Members Bill
ceedings of the House. and Resolutions.
A. I and III III) Committee on Petitions.
IV) Committee on Assurances.
B. II and IV
V) Estimates Committee.
C. III and IV
A. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
B. III and IV
139. Prime Minister and Council of Ministers
are part of, when they implement laws. C. II and V
A. Executive D. II, IV and V
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9.17 Union Legislature 657
143. If the Speaker of the Lower House of a C. The citizens
State wants to resign, his letter of resig- D. Prime minister
nation is to be addressed to the:
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Chief Minister 148. Representatives of union Territories in
Lok Sabha are chosen by:
B. Deputy Speaker
A. direct elections
C. Governor
B. indirect elections
D. President
C. nomination
144. The lokh sabha is presided over by the D. All the above means
A. Vice president of India 149. Rajya Sabha has nominated mem-
B. Speaker bers
C. Prime minister A. Eight
D. Finance minister B. Eleven
C. Ten
145. This list includes matters that are impor-
tant to both the union and the states such D. Twelve
as economy . 150. Prorogation of the House means:
A. State list A. a House has been brought in session
B. Union list B. the session of the House has been ter-
C. Legislature minated
D. Concurrent list C. the House itself stands terminated
D. None of the above
146. Which one of the following statements
regarding the office of the Speaker is cor- 151. In How many parts constitution has di-
rect? vided the government?
A. He holds office during the pleasure of A. 4
the President B. 3
B. He needs not be a member of the C. 2
House at the time of his election but has
to become a member of the House within D. 1
6 months from the date of his election 152. Which of the following is correct? [IAS
C. He loses his office if the House is dis- 1994]
solved before the expiry of its term A. All the members of the Rajya Sabha
D. If he intends to resign, the letter of are elected by State Legislative Assem-
his resignation is to be addressed to the blies
Deputy Speaker B. Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can
contest for the office of the Vice-President
147. Who elects the presiding officer or the
speaker?
C. While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can
A. The members of lok sabha contest from any State in India, a candi-
B. The members of rajya sabha date to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily
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9.17 Union Legislature 658
be a resident of the State from where he D. Bill seeking Amendment to the Consti-
is contesting tution
D. The Constitution explicitly prohibits 158. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian
the appointment of a nominated member Parliament is [CDS 2009]
of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a Minis-
ter A. One-twelfth of the .total number of
members of the House
153. The Rajya Sabha held its first sitting on
B. One-sixth of the total number of mem-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 13 MAY 1947 bers of the House
B. 13 APRIL 1952 C. One-tenth of the’ total number of mem-
C. 13 MAY 1952 bers of the House
D. 13 MAY 1951 D. Two-third of the total number of mem-
bers of the House
154. Through , the Legislature controls the
Policy of the Government 159. Whose function is it to see that no money
A. Executive Control is spent out of the Consolidated Fund of a
State without the authority of the legisla-
B. Administrative Control ture?
C. Financial Control A. Public Accounts Committee
D. Judicial Control B. Comptroller and Auditor-General of In-
155. The largest committee of Parliament of dia
India is: C. Finance Commission
A. Public Accounts Committee D. None of the above
B. Estimates Committee
160. Elections are generally held every
C. Committee on Public Undertakings years in lok sabha
D. Joint Parliamentary Committee A. 5 years
156. A LAW IS FIRST INTRODUCED IN THE B. 3 years
FORM OF C. 4 years
A. LAW D. 6years
B. LIST
161. People cast their vote through
C. BILL
A. Polling booth
D. ACT
B. Secret Ballot
157. To which of the following Bills the Pres-
C. none of above
ident must accord his sanction without
sending it back for fresh consideration? [I. D. none of above
Tax 1992]
162. Which of the following is true?
A. Ordinary Bills
I) A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which
B. Finance Bills has not been passed by Lok Sabha
C. Bills passed by both the Houses of the lapses on the dissolution ofLok
Parliament Sabha.
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9.17 Union Legislature 659
II) If the President has notified about by both the houses of the Parliament.iii. It
his intention to summon a joint sit- undergoes four readings in each House of
ting on a Bill, the Bill does not lapse Parliament.
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved A. Only i
after the notification.
B. i & ii
A. I only
C. i & iii
B. II only
D. only iii
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II 168. Which of the following is NOT a session
of the Lok Sabha.
163. How many members are nominated in the A. The Budget Session
Rajya Sabha by the President of India
B. The Winter Session
A. 13
C. The Summer Session
B. 15
D. The Monsoon Session
C. 12
D. 10 169. Lok Sabha consists of how many mem-
bers?
164. The term of the Lok Sabha is? A. 552
A. 9 years B. 250
B. 5 years C. 550
C. 7 years D. 350
D. 8 years
170. Consider the following statements:
165. What are the three legislative list? 1. Salary and allowances of the
A. Legislature, Executive, Judiciary Speaker for Lok Sabha are charged
on the Consolidated Fund of India.
B. Financial control, judicial functions,
2. In the Warrant’ of Precedence, the
money bills
Speaker of Lok Sabha ranks higher
C. Union list, Concurrent list, State list than all the Union Cabinet Ministers
D. None of the above other than Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above
166. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok is/are correct? [NDA 2008]
Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
A. 1 only
A. The speaker, The Vice-President
B. 2 only
B. The minister, The speaker
C. Both 1 and 2
C. The speaker, Chairperson
D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. The president, Chairperson
171. Which House is better placed with regard
167. Which of the following is/are correct to control over the executive?
statement(s) regarding a bill? i. A bill can
become an act only after the approval of A. Lok Sabha
the President.ii. A bill has to be approved B. Rajya Sabha
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9.17 Union Legislature 660
C. Both are equally placed 177. The legislature also ensures that the gov-
D. It depends from which House the ernment does not misspend or overspend
Prime Minister comes through the
A. Taxes
172. Rajya Sabha held its first session on
B. Budget
A. 29 may 1950
C. Panel Discussion
B. 3 October 1940 D. Niti Aayog
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 12 May 1952
178. A joint sitting may be called:
D. 13 May 1952
I) only in case of national emergency.
173. Who among the following fixes the II) to enable a Constitutional Amend-
salaries and the allowances of the Speaker ment to be passed in a hurry.
of Lok Sabha? III) when taxes approved by one House
are rejected by the other.
A. President
A. I and III
B. Council of Ministers
B. II and III
C. Cabinet
C. I, II and III
D. Parliament
D. None of these
174. The is the presiding officerof the Ra-
179. Article 75 includes among its provisions:
jya Sabha.
1. Prime Minister is to be appointed by
A. President the President.
B. Vice-President 2. The Council of Ministers shall be col-
C. Prime Minister lectively responsible the Lok Sabha.
3. The President may appoint a non-
D. legislature member as Prime Minister who
175. Which of the following committees does must become a member of Parlia-
not consist of any member from the Rajya ment before the expiration of six
Sabha? months.
4. The Ministers shall hold office during
A. Estimates Committee the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
B. Public Accounts Committee A. 1 and 2
C. Public Grievances Committee B. 3 and 4
D. Committee on Public Undertakings C. 2 and 3
176. While a proclamation of Emerqency is in D. 1 and 4
operation, the duration of the Lok Sabha 180. What is the minimum age for elec-
can be extended by not exceeding [Asstt tion/appointment as member of the Rajya
Commdt 2011] Sabha? [RRB 1994]
A. three months A. 35 years
B. nine months B. 30 years
C. one year at a time C. 25 years
D. two years at a time D. 40 years
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9.17 Union Legislature 661
181. What is ’zero hour’? B. Supreme Court Judges
A. When the proposals of the opposition C. Chairman of UPSC
are considered
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D. High Court Judges
B. When matters of utmost importance
are raised 186. What is the minimum age requirement for
C. Interval between the morning- and af- contesting the election to the Lok Sabha?
ternoon sessions A. 30 years
D. When a Money Bill is introduced in the B. 20 years
Lok Sabha
C. 25 years
182. Parliament or a State Legislature can de-
D. none of above
clare a seat vacant if a member absents
himself without permission from the ses- 187. The time gap between two sessions of
sions for: [IAS 1990] the Parliament should not exceed:
A. 30 days
A. 3 months
B. 60 days
B. 6 months
C. 90 days
C. 9 months
D. 120 days
D. 1 year
183. The Rajya Sabha meetings are presided
by 188. The rajya sabha is also known as
A. The Prime Minister A. Council of states
B. The Speaker B. Lower house
C. The Vice-President C. An act
D. Both Speaker and the Vice President D. Council of villages
184. In which areas is concurrent action of Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha required? 189. The term of the Lok Sabha:
I) Removal of Comptroller and Auditor- A. cannot be extended
General. B. can be extended for another full term
II) Approval of emergency proclama- of 5 years
tion.
C. can be extended for an unlimited pe-
III) No-confidence motion.
riod
IV) Constitutional amendment.
A. I and II D. can be extended by 1year at a time
B. II, III and IV 190. Consider the following statements: [IAS
C. I, II and IV 2004]
D. I, III and IV 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the
power to adjourn the House sine
185. Parliament is empowered to get all the die but, on prorogation, it is only
following removed except: the President who can summon the
A. Comptroller and Auditor General House.
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9.17 Union Legislature 662
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is C. Both 1 and 2
an extension of the term, there is D. Neither 1 nor 2
an automatic dissolution of the Lok
Sabha by efflux of time, at the end 193. What is the maximum strength of the Lok
of the period of five years, even if Sabha as laid down in the constitution?
no formal order of dissolution is is- A. 545
sued by the President. B. 552
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha contin-
ues in office even after the dissolu- C. 590
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion of the House and until ’Imme- D. 624
diately before the first meeting of
194. Which of the following States sends the
the Hous’. Which of the statements
maximum number of members to the Ra-
given above are correct?
jya Sabha?
A. 1 and 2
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. 2 and 3 B. Bihar
C. 1 and 3 C. West Bengal
D. 1, 2 and 3 D. All equal
191. Which authority recommends the princi- 195. When can the Speaker exercise his right
ples governing the grants-in-aid of the rev- to vote in the House?
enues of the States out of the Consolidated A. Whenever he desires
Fund of India? [Asstt Grade 1994]
B. Whenever the House desires
A. Public Accounts Committee
C. Only in the event of equality of votes
B. Union Ministry of Finance
D. Whenever his party directs
C. Finance Commission
196. In normal times, the Union Parliament:
D. Inter State Council
A. can legislate on any item in the State
192. What is the difference between ”vote- List if the President so desires
on-account” and ”interim budget”? B. can legislate on any item in the State
1. The provision ofa ”vote-on-account” List if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution
is used by a regular Government, to that effect by 2/3rd majority
while an ”interim budget” is a pro- C. can legislate on any item in the State
vision used by a caretaker Govern- List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
ment. to that effect by 2/3rd majority
2. A ”vote-on-account” only deals D. cannot legislate on any item in the
with the expenditure in Govern- State List
ment’s budget, while an ”interim
budget” includes both expenditure 197. WHO WAS THE FIRST SPEAKER OF THE
and receipts. LOK SABHA?
Which of the statements given above A. OM BIRLA
is/are correct? [CSAT 2011] B. VENKAIAH NAIDU
A. 1 only C. APJ ABDUL KALAM
B. 2 only D. GANESH V MAVALANKAR
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9.17 Union Legislature 663
198. Which of the following is incorrect in re- C. 25 years of age
spect of parliamentary control over the D. 30 years of age
Budget? [IAS 1993]
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A. Parliament has no say in the prepara- 203. WHO ELECTS THE SPEAKER OF THE PAR-
tion of the Budget LIAMENT
B. Parliament has the power to increase A. THE MEMBER OF RAJYA SABHA
expenditure charged on the Consolidated B. THE MEMBER OF LOK SABHA
Fund
C. THE PRESIDENT
C. Parliament has no power to impose a
tax without the President’s recommenda- D. THE PRIME MINISTER
tion
204. Which of the following can be abolished,
D. Parliament cannot increase a tax with- but not dissolved? [IAS 1991]
out the President’s recommendation
A. Rajya Sabha
199. By ‘charged’ expenditure is meant:
B. Municipal Bodies
A. expenditure from the Consolidated
C. State Legislative Council
Fund of India which is non-votable
B. expenditure incurred for which pay- D. None of the above
ment is pending
205. Which is a permanent body that cannot
C. expenditure that the President can in- be dissolved
cur without Parliament’s approval
A. The parliament
D. the sum required to meet all expendi-
ture proposed to be made from the Con- B. The speaker
solidated Fund of India C. The Lok Sabha
200. What fraction of Rajya Sabha Members D. The Rajya Sabha
get retired after 2 years?
206. Current strength of Lok Sabha (17th ses-
A. 1/2 sion) is
B. 1/3 A. 543
C. 1/4 B. 545
D. 2/3
C. 547
201. Who is considered the guardian of the D. 548
Public Purse?
A. Parliament 207. If the Rajya Sabha rejects a Money Bill,
then which of the following is correct?
B. Comptroller and Auditor General
A. Lok Sabha may or may not accept its
C. Public Accounts Committee
recommendation
D. The President
B. Lok Sabha may not consider it at all
202. Age of voting in India C. President calls a joint session for pass-
A. Above 18 years ing of the Bill
B. 18 years of age and above D. Bill is sent for further consideration
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9.17 Union Legislature 664
208. When the annual Union Budget is not 213. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
passed by the Lok Sabha? [CSAT2011] can be removed by a resolution:
A. the Budget is modified and presented A. passed by 2/3rd majority of its total
again members present
B. the Budget is referred to the Rajya B. passed by a simple majority of its total
Sabha for suggestions members present
C. the Union Finance Minister is asked to C. moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
resign Lok Sabha
D. the Prime Minister submits. The resig- D. None of the above
nation of Council of Ministers
214. who is the presiding officer of Lok sabha
209. The council of Minister does not include A. The President
A. The Cabinet Ministers B. The Vice President
B. The President C. The speaker
C. The State Ministers D. The Prime Minister
D. The Deputy Ministers
215. Money Bill is introduced in ;
210. According to the Constitution of India the A. Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
maximum number of members represent-
B. Rajya Sabha Only
ing the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha
cannot exceed: [CDS 1992] C. Lok Sabha Only
A. 10 D. None of the above
B. 15 216. In case of emergency the term of Lok
C. 20 Sabha can be extended by
D. 25 A. 2 years
B. 6 months
211. When a non-minister proposes a bill, it is
called Bill C. 1 year
A. Private Member D. none of above
B. Government 217. The Speaker may be removed:
C. Fundamental A. by a resolution of a House passed by
D. Public the majority of total membership of the
House
212. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sab- B. by a resolution of the House passed by
hacan be members. 2/3rd majority of members present and
A. 250 voting
B. 252 C. by a resolution of the House moved af-
ter 14 days clear notice and passed by ma-
C. 254
jority of all the then members of the House
D. 256
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9.17 Union Legislature 665
D. by a resolution moved after 14 days no- B. A member chosen by Council of Minis-
tice and passed by majority of the mem- ters
bers present
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C. The senior most member of the Rajya
218. The Council of Ministers has ranks. Sabha
A. 3 D. The senior most member of the Lok
Sabha
B. 2
C. 4 223. The supreme law making institution is the
D. 5
A. Lokh sabha
219. At a joint sitting of Parliament a bill has
to be passed B. Rajya sabha
A. by a simple majority of the total num- C. Parliament
ber of members of both Houses D. Judiciary
B. by a two-thirds majority of the total
number of members of both Houses 224. There are over Parliament commit-
tees
C. by a simple majority of the total num-
ber of members of both Houses present A. 24
and voting B. 25
D. by a two-thirds majority of the to- C. 22
tal number of members of both Houses
present and voting D. 20
220. At present the Rajya Sabha consists of 225. What is the correct sequence of the given
members. stages that a Bill passes through before
becoming an Act?
A. 250
I) Getting published in the official
B. 245
gazette.
C. 238 II) Admitting amendments.
D. 240 III) Reference to a joint committee.
IV) Presidential assent.
221. The maximum strength of the nominated
members in both the Houses of Parliament A. II, III, IV, I
can be: B. I, III, II, IV
A. 10 C. I, II, III, IV
B. 12 D. IV, III, II, I
C. 14
226. The Union Territories get representation
D. 20 in: [Asstt Grade 1991]
222. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if nei- A. Lok Sabha
ther the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker
B. Rajya Sabha
is available? [Asstt Grade 1992]
A. A member of the House of People ap- C. both Houses of Parliament
pointed by the President D. None of the above
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9.17 Union Legislature 666
227. Who is the link between the President II) responsibility of the Council of Min-
and the council of ministers? isters
A. Cabinet III) amendment procedure
IV) election of President
B. Prime minister
A. III and IV
C. Governor
B. II, III and IV
D. Chief minister
C. I, II and III
NARAYAN CHANGDER
228. If a member of Parliament voluntarily ac-
D. I and II
quires the citizenship of a foreign country:
A. he will be penalized 233. What matters does union list includes?
B. he will continue to be a member of Par- A. It includes matters of national impor-
liament tance such as defence, banking, etc.
C. he will be disqualified from member- B. It includes matters that are important
ship to both the union and the states .
D. he will have a choice of renouncing ei- C. It includes matters of importance to
ther the states such as public order .
229. The Lok Sabha is elected for years. D. None of the above
A. 5
234. Who among the following has the final
B. 6 power to maintain order within the House
C. 4 of People?
D. 1 A. Marshal of the House
B. Prime Minister
230. What is the structure of the Union gov-
ernment? C. Speaker
A. Judiciary, 2) Executive, 3) Legislature D. Chief of Security Staff
B. Executive, 2) Legislature, 3) Judiciary
235. Who was the first speaker of the Lok
C. Legislature, 2) Executive, 3) Judiciary Sabha?
D. Judiciary, 2) Legislature, 3) Executive A. Malgaonkar
231. Which one of the following is the largest B. P. Upendra
(area wise) Lok Sabha constituency? [IAS C. Anantha Sayanam Ayyanagar
2008]
D. Hukam Singh
A. Kangra
B. Kachchh 236. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched? Parliamentary Stand-
C. Ladakh
ing Committee Chaired by
D. Bhilwara
A. Public Accounts Committee - Member
232. The two Houses of Parliament enjoy co- of Opposition
equal power in all spheres except: B. Committee on Public Undertakings -
I) financial matters Lok Sabha member
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9.17 Union Legislature 667
C. Committee on Private Member’s Bill 242. The quorum of the Lok Sabha required ;
and Resolutions - Deputy Speaker of Lok A. 1/9th
Sabha
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B. 1/10th
D. Business Advisory Committee - Fi-
nance Minister C. 1/11th
D. 1/12th
237. “I” show the income and the expenditure
of the government. Who am I? 243. With reference to the conduct of govern-
A. Budget ment business in the Parliament of India,
the term ’closure’ refers to [CDS 2011]
B. Majority
A. suspension of debate at the termina-
C. Executive tion of a day’s sitting of the Parliament
D. Money Bill B. a rule of legislative procedure under
238. who calls for the joint sitting of the Par- which further debate on a motion can be
liament when deadlock arise; halted
A. Prime Minister C. the termination of a parliamentary ses-
sion
B. Speaker
D. refusal on the part of the government
C. President to have the opposition look at important
D. Vice President document.
239. The Indian parliamentary system is dif- 244. THE UNION PARLIAMENT HAS TWO-
ferent from the British parliamentary sys- HOUSES:
tem in that India has: [IAS 1998] A. JUDICIARY AND RAJYA SABHA
A. both a real and a nominal executive B. RAJYA SABHA AND COUNCIL OF MIN-
B. a system of collective responsibility ISTERS
C. bicameral legislature C. EXECUTIVE AND LEGISLATURE
D. the system of judicial review D. LOK SABHA AND RAJYA SABHA
240. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected 245. Consider the following statements:
according to: [Delhi Police 1994] 1. The expenditure to be incurred by
A. Cumulative Vote System the Government and the revenue to
B. Single Non-transferable Vote System be collected by way of taxes must
be approved by both the Lok Sabha
C. Single Transferable Vote System and the Rajya Sabha.
D. None of the above 2. The charge of impeachment against
the President of India can be
241. Meaning of impeachment brought about by only Lok Sabha
A. To remove from office especially for and not Rajya Sabha.
misconduct Which of the statements given above
B. By virtue of one’s position or status is/are correct? [CDS 2005]
C. To officially undo a law A. 1 only
D. none of above B. 2 only
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9.17 Union Legislature 668
C. Both 1 and 2 251. In India, the system of proportional rep-
D. Neither 1 nor 2 resentation is used for:
I) election to the office of the Presi-
246. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya dent.
Sabha? II) election to the office of Vice-
A. President President.
III) election of the members of the Rajya
B. Vice-President
Sabha.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs IV) by elections
D. Leader of Opposition A. I, II and III
247. The composition of Parliament include ; B. I and 11
A. President, Prime Minister and Lok C. III and IV
Sabha D. I, II, III and IV
B. Rajya Sabha-Lok Sabha and vice- 252. Who is the Constitutional head of the
president Government of India?
C. Rajya Sabha-Lok Sabha-President A. Prime Minister
D. Prime Minister-Union parliament and B. President
State Legislature Assembly
C. Vice-President
248. For the purpose of elections, the coun- D. Council of Minister
try is divided into several constituencies
on the basis of- 253. Who is the Head of the state or Chief Ex-
ecutive in the government?
A. Population
A. The Prime Minister
B. State
B. The President
C. Caste
C. The Speaker
D. Age
D. The Council of Ministers
249. For a session or meeting to take place, at 254. SUBJECTS FOR LEGISLATION ARE DI-
least of the total membership has to be VIDED INTO THREE LISTS-THE LIST,
present. THE LIST, AND THE LIST.
A. 20% A. LEGISLATURE, UNION AND STATE
B. 15% B. LEGISLATIVE, JUDICIARY AND EXECU-
C. 10% TIVE
D. 5% C. UNION, STATE AND CONCURRENT
D. LOK SABHA, RAJYA SABHA AND COUN-
250. Maximum strength of Rajya Sabha
CIL OF MINISTERS
should be
A. 100 255. Which Union Territories are represented
in Rajya Sabha at present?
B. 300
I) Delhi
C. 150 II) Puducherry
D. 250 III) Lakshadweep
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9.17 Union Legislature 669
IV) Chandigarh 259. Under which of the following conditions
A. I, II and IV security deposits of a candidate contest-
ing for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to
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B. II and III him/her?
C. I, II, III and IV I) The nomination made by the candi-
D. I and II date if found to be invalid.
II) The candidate has withdrawn
256. Which of the following is not a part of his/her nomination even through
the Union Parliament? it is found valid.
A. Rajya Sabha III) The candidate lost the polls but se-
B. Vidhan Sabha cured 1/6th of the total number of
valid votes polled in that election.
C. Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code
D. none of above given below [CDS 2009]
257. A Bill for alteration of boundaries of A. I and II
States shall not be introduced in the Par-
B. I, II and III
liament. without the recommendation of:
[Central Excise 1993] C. II and III
A. the presiding officers of both Houses D. I only
of Parliament
260. Who is the vital link between the Council
B. the legislatures of the States con- of Ministers and the President of India
cerned
A. The Cabinet ministers
C. Supreme Court
B. The Prime Minister
D. President
C. The Communications minister
258. Which of the following matters are not D. The Speaker
affected in case of dissolution of the Lok
Sabha? 261. Who among the following have the right
I) A bill originating and pending in the to vote in the elections to both the Lok
Rajya Sabha. Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? [IAS 1995]
II) Pending notices, motions and resolu- A. Elected members to the Lower House
tions in the Lok Sabha. of Parliament
III) A joint sitting of Parliament if noti-
B. Elected members of the. Upper House
fication of such a sitting has been
of Parliament
given before the dissolution.
IV) Bills passed by both Houses and C. Elected members of the Upper House
sent to the President for his assent. of State Legislature
V) Bills returned by President for recon- D. Elected members of the Lower House
sideration. of State Legislature
A. I, II and III
262. The President nominates 12 members of
B. I, III, IV and V the Rajya Sabha according to:
C. II, III and IV A. their performance as office bearers of
D. I, IV and V cultural societies
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9.17 Union Legislature 670
B. their role played in political set up of 268. The Chairman of the Public. Accounts
the country Committee of the Parliament is appointed
C. the recommendations made by the by:
Vice-President A. Prime Minister
D. their distinction in the field of science, B. President
art, literature and social service C. Finance Minister
263. THE MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF RAJYA D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
NARAYAN CHANGDER
SABHA AND LOK SABHA IS:
269. Lok sabha has members
A. 252, 552
A. 550
B. 252, 550
B. 552
C. 250, 552
C. 545
D. 222, 552
D. None of the above
264. What is The Union Legislature also
called? 270. What type of elections are held after the
completion of the term of Lok Sabha?
A. The Lok Sabha
A. By elections
B. The Parliament
B. Mid term elections
C. Legislative council
C. Emergency elections
D. Legislative assembly
D. General elections
265. The money bill can be introduced by which
house? 271. In the general elections of 2014, the elec-
tion Commission of India set up a polling
A. Rajya Sabha
booth in the Gir forest for only one person
B. Government
A. Guru Bharatdas Darshndas
C. Lok Sabha
B. Guru ram Darshndas
D. State List
C. None of the above
266. The total number of members in a Leg- D. none of above
islative Council should not exceed that of
a Legislative Assembly by: 272. The Centre and State can frame laws
from this list
A. 1/3
B. 2/3 A. State List
C. 1/2 B. Concurrent List
D. 1/4 C. Union List
D. Residuary Powers
267. As a result of prorogation which of the
following is not affected? 273. Who is head of the “ Legislature”?
A. Resolutions A. President
B. Bills B. Prime Minister
C. Motions C. Speaker
D. Notices D. none of above
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9.17 Union Legislature 671
274. Who among the following decides I) If he voluntarily gives up his mem-
whether a particular bill is a Money Bill bership of a political party.
or not? [Asstt Grade 1994] II) If he votes or abstains from voting
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A. President contrary to any direction issued by
his political party without prior per-
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha mission of the political party.
C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha III) If he speaks against the political
party.
D. Finance Minister
IV) If he joins a political party other
275. Amongst the following, for whose re- than the party on whose ticket he
moval Parliament’s resolution is not contested and got elected.
needed? A. I, II and III
A. Chief Election Commissioner
B. I, III and IV
B. Governor of a State
C. I, II and IV
C. Judge of Supreme Court
D. II, III and IV
D. Comptroller and Auditor General
276. Anti-Defection Amendment was made in 280. The may dissolve the Lok sabha be-
fore the expiry of its term if the party in-
power loses the support of the majority.
A. 1985
A. President
B. 1979
B. Prime Minister
C. 1982
D. 1999 C. Executive
D. Legislature
277. The Qualifications for the a candidate to
be a President are
281. How many members of the Rajya Sabha
A. 35 years of age are nominated by the President of India?
B. 24 years of age A. 10
C. Not an Indian citizen B. 11
D. none of above
C. 12
278. The Chairman of Public Accounts Commit- D. 13
tee is: [CDS 1992]
A. elected by Union Cabinet 282. The Parliament is the supreme authority
in the government because it has the final
B. appointed by Speaker
authority to accept or reject the decisions
C. appointed by President of the
D. elected by members of PAC A. Judiciary
279. Under which of the following circum- B. Legislature
stances an elected member of Parliament
C. Executive
may be disqualified on the ground of de-
fection? [IAS 1992] D. Lok Sabha
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9.17 Union Legislature 672
283. If a person elected to both the Union Par- B. Bhola Paswan
liament and a State Legislature does not C. Kamlapati Tripathi
vacate his seat in the State Legislature
within the stipulated period then: D. CM. Stephen
A. his seat in the State Legislature auto- 288. Which of the following is true regarding
matically becomes vacant the ’No Confidence Motion’ in the Parlia-
B. his seat in the Parliament will become ment?
vacant 1. There is no mention of it in the Con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. both the seats will become vacant stitution.
2. A period of 6, months must lapse
D. he may be debarred from contesting between the introduction of one No
elections in the future Confidence ’Motion and another.
284. Which of the following is not true? 3. At least 100 persons must support
such motion before it is introduced
A. A person can be a member of both in the House.
Houses of Parliament 4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha
B. There is no bar to a person contesting only.
to as many seats and as many legislatures A. 2 and 4
as he likes
B. 1, 2, 3, and 4
C. A member of Lok Sabha cannot hold an
C. 1, 2, and 3
office of profit under the Government
D. 1 and 4
D. The population of a State is not the
sole consideration for allotment of seats 289. Which of the following is true? [CDS
in the Rajya Sabha 1992]
285. By what process legislature can remove A. The Chairman and Deputy Chairman,
the president? both are not members of Rajya Sabha
A. No-Confidence motion B. In the election of President, nominated
members of State Legislative Assembly.
B. Impeachment
do not take part while in the election of
C. Zero Hour Vice-President they take part
D. None of the above C. In the 1992 election of President of In-
dia, the members of Union Territories par-
286. The Annual Financial Statement is caused
ticipated for the first time
to be laid before both Houses of Parlia-
ment by the: D. India follows the British convention
that the Finance Minister should be a
A. President member of Lower House
B. Speaker
290. Subjects for legislation are divided into
C. Vice-President three lists-the List, the List and
D. Finance Minister the List.
287. Who was the first leader of the Opposi- A. Legislature, Union and state
tion in the Rajya Sabha? B. Union, state and concurrent
A. Y.B. Chavan C. Legislative, Executive and judiciary
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9.17 Union Legislature 673
D. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Council of B. 26 and above
Ministers
C. 30 and above
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291. Which of the following statements are D. 35 and above
true;a. The Lok Sabha along with Rajya
Sabha discuss and pass the money Bill.b. 296. The is an estimate of the annual-
The Rajya Sabha members are elected by income and expenditure of the govern-
the members of the both House of the Par- mentof India.
liament.c. The Rajya Sabha is the Perma-
nent body .d. The Rajya Sabha along with A. accounts
Lok Sabha impeach the President. B. budget
A. Only A C. statement
B. Both A and B
D. forecast
C. B, C and D
D. Only C and D 297. Composition of Lok Sabha
A. A maximum of 530 members can be-
292. Parliament’s expenditure is controlled
elected directly by the people of Indiafrom
by:
different territorial constituencies.
A. President
B. A maximum of 20 members can be
B. Finance Commission electedfrom the union territories.
C. National Development Council C. The President can nominate 2 mem-
D. Comptroller and Auditor General bersfrom the Anglo-Indian commu-
nity.The 17th Lok Sabha consists of 545
293. How many members of the Lok Sabha members.
must support a motion of ’no confidence’
in the government, before it can be admit- D. All
ted by the Speaker?
298. The first no confidence motion moved in
A. 20
the Lok Sabha after independence was in
B. 25 the year:
C. 35 A. 1954
D. 50 B. 1960
294. One of the Administrative function of the C. 1963
speaker;
D. 1975
A. presides meetings.
B. admits the press and media 299. Maximum number of members elected
from the Indian States in the Lok Sabha
C. suspend the member
D. None of the above A. 525
B. 545
295. What is the age required to be the mem-
ber of Lok Sabha? C. 530
A. 25 and above D. 552
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9.17 Union Legislature 674
300. Which of the following correctly reflects 304. The Term of the Cabinet of ministers is:
the position of the Upper House of the A. Until they enjoy the mahority in the Lok
State Legislature as compared to the po- Sabha
sition of the Upper House of the Parlia-
ment? B. Until they retire
A. 1/3rd members of Rajya Sabha re- C. for life
tire every second year while 1/4th mem- D. for 5 years
bers of Legislative Council retire every 18
NARAYAN CHANGDER
months 305. A dissolution does not affect:
B. There is no provision for a joint sitting A. a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha
of the Legislative Assembly and the Leg- and sent to Lok Sabha
islative Council in the States for resolving B. a bill that originated in the Lok Sabha
deadlocks While there is such a provision but has been sent to Rajya Sabha
in the case of the two House of Parliament
C. a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha
but has not yet been sent to the Lok Sabha
C. While no Bill other than a Money Bill
can originate in the State Legislative Coun-
cil, no Bill can originate in the Rajya Sabha D. Any of the above
306. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected
D. While Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated by:
members, the State Legislative Council
has none A. all the members of Parliament
B. the people directly
301. What type of Party system has been
evolved in India? C. all the members of Lok Sabha
A. Single Party D. the members of the majority party in
the Lok Sabha
B. Bi-Party
C. Multi-Party 307. Who among the following may belong to
D. Party less the Rajya Sabha but can speak in both the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? [CDS
302. What is the term of Lok Sabha 1993]
A. 4 years A. Ministers who are members of the Ra-
B. 7 years jya Sabha
C. 5 years B. Nominated members of the Rajya
D. 6 years Sabha who may be experts in different
fields of knowledge
303. The Parliament plays an important role C. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya
inthe election of the President and the Sabha
Vice-President.
D. Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha
A. Elective function
B. Executive function 308. Committees are also referred to as
C. Judicial function A. Main Legislatures
D. Legislative function B. Miniature Parliament
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9.17 Union Legislature 675
C. JPC B. Prime minister
D. Miniature Legislatures C. President
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309. Who is the nominal head of State in a par- D. Members of the house
liamentary democracy? 314. If an unqualified or disqualified person
A. The President sits and votes in Parliament:
B. The Prime Minister A. he is liable to be prosecuted and jailed
C. The Chief Minister
D. The Speaker B. he may be fined Rs.500 per day of his
so sitting
310. Name the presiding officer of the Lok C. he may be imprisoned by the House
Sabha.
D. nothing can be done
A. Prime Minister
B. Vice-President 315. A Member of Parliament can claim immu-
nity:
C. Speaker
A. both from civil as well as criminal
D. Member of Parliament cases
311. “I” SHOW THE INCOME AND EXPENDI- B. from civil cases only
TURE OF THE GOVERNMENT. WHO AM I? C. from criminal cases only
A. EXECUTIVE D. cannot claim immunity either from civil
B. MONEY BILL or from criminal cases
C. BUDGET 316. Who maintains the decorum in Lok
D. MAJORITY Sabha?
312. Which of the following is the correct se- A. Cabinet
quence of the grades of officers in the Cen- B. Vice President
tral Secretariat? C. Council of ministers
1. Secretary D. Speaker
2. Additional Secretary
3. Joint Secretary 317. Consider the following statements on
4. Deputy Secretary Parliamentary Committees: [CDS 2008]
5. Under Secretary 1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not
6. Director associated with the Committees on
A. 1, 2, 3, 6, 4, 5 Public Accounts and Public Undertak-
B. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4, 6 ings.
2. Members of the Committee on Esti-
C. 6, 4, 3, 5, 2, 1 mates are drawn from both the Lok
D. 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 3 Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
313. The of India, who is theHead of State Which of the statements given above
or Chief Executive, is only anominal (in is/are correct?
name only) head. A. 1 only
A. Council of Ministers B. 2 only
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9.17 Union Legislature 676
C. Both land 2 B. Absence of 1/5th of the total member-
D. Neither 1 nor 2 ship of each house in parliament.
C. Absence of 1/10th of the total mem-
318. Which of the following committees is not bership of each house in parliament.
created by the Speaker’s nomination of
members? D. Presence of 1/5th of the total member-
ship of each house in parliament.
A. Committee on Privileges
B. Committee on Petitions 323. Number retire every second year and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
are replaced by new members
C. Business Advisory Committee
A. One fourth
D. Committee on Public Undertakings
B. One third
319. Which of the statements given above
C. Two-third
is/are correct? [Asstt Comm 2008]
D. None of the above
1. No Money Bill can be introduced in
the Parliament without the recom- 324. The term life can be extended for 1
mendation of the President of India. year at a time in case of a national emer-
2. The Prime Minister appoints Finance gency.
Commission for distribution of taxes
A. executive
between the Union and the States.
B. legislature
A. 1 only
C. Rajya sabha
B. 2 only
D. Lok sabha
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 325. In which of the Parliamentary Financial
Committees is the Rajya Sabha not repre-
320. It refers to the minimum number of mem- sented? [SSC (10+2) 2010]
bersrequired to be present to conduct a
A. Public Accounts Committee
meeting.
B. Estimates Committee
A. Bill
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
B. Quorum
D. Expenditure Committee
C. Budget
D. Secret ballot 326. Who nominates 2 members from the
Anglo-Indian community to the Lok
321. The members of parliament can question Sabha?
ministers during:
A. The Council of ministers
A. Zero Hour
B. The President
B. Adjournment motion
C. The Prime minister
C. None of the above
D. none of above
D. none of above
327. Which of the following conditions must be
322. What is Quorum? fulfilled before a Bill for altering the area
A. Presence of 1/10th of the total mem- of the States is introduced in the Parlia-
bership of each house in parliament. ment?
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9.17 Union Legislature 677
I) The Bill must be recommended by of the Vice-Chairman
the President. C. One has to be a member of either
II) The President should have referred
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House ’of Parliament for election to the
it to the concerned State Legislature post of the Vice-Chairman
before recommending it.
III) The State Legislature must have D. There is an established convention
given its consent on the Bill. that the Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
belongs to the main opposition party in the
A. I and II Rajya Sabha
B. II and III
329. According to the constitution, what are
C. I and III the powers and functions? How many
D. I, II and III branches are they divided into?
328. Which of the following is true regard- A. 3 branches ; legislature, executiev, ju-
ing the Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? diciary
[Railway Apprentices 1993] B. 2 branches ; state and central govern-
A. One has to be a member of the Rajya ment
Sabha for election to die post of the Vice- C. 3 branches ; union, concurrent and
Chairman state
B. One need not necessarily be a member D. 3 branches ; legislature, executive, ju-
of the Rajya Sabha for election to the post diciary
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X
X
NARAYAN CHANGDER
10 Miscellenous Competitive examina-
tions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 679
10.1 IAS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 679
10.2 Miscellenous . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 698
10.3 CDS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 769
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10. Miscellenous Competitive
examinations
10.1 IAS
1. What is land ceiling? 4. The appointment of the Judges of Supreme
Court is done by
A. To fix a land area for irrigation pur-
poses A. The Prime Minister on the advice of the
Union Cabinet
B. To fix rural land holdings at the exist-
ing level B. The President in consultation with the
Chief Justice of India
C. To fix urban land holdings at the exist-
ing level C. The Prime Minister in consultation
with the Chief Justice
D. To fix the quantum of land held by a
family D. The President in consultation with the
Law Commission of India
2. If President wants to resign, he should ad-
dress his resignation letter to the 5. Council of Ministers of the Union of India
is responsible to the
A. Parliament
A. Parliament
B. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Chief Justice of India
C. Prime Minister
D. Vice-President D. Chief Justice
3. The members of Constituent Assembly 6. Which of the following Asian languages
were are UN official languages?
A. Elected by the provincial assemblies A. Chinese and Japanese
B. Elected directly by the people B. Chinese and Arabic
C. Nominated by the government C. Japanese and Arabic
D. Only representatives of princely states D. Chinese and Hindi
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10.1 IAS 680
7. 44th Amendment of the Constitution deemed literate if he or she can read and
speaks of write with understanding in any of the 15
A. Right to property as no longer a Funda- languages mentioned in the Eighth Sched-
mental Right ule of the Constitution 4. The fact that a
district has attained hundred per cent liter-
B. Suspension of individual liberty during acy does not mean that the entire popula-
emergency tion in the district is literate
C. Barring the courts from interfering in A. 1, 3 and 4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the disputes regarding the election of
Prime Minister B. 2, 3 and 4
D. Giving more importance to Directive C. 1, 2 and 3
Principles over Fundamental Rights. D. 1, 2 and 4
8. Which one of the following statements re- 11. Yuan is the currency of
garding Exit Poll is correct?
A. China
A. Exit Poll is a term used to denote a
postelection survey of voters regarding B. Japan
the candidate in whose favour they had ex- C. Indonesia
ercised their franchise
D. Burma
B. Exit Poll and Opinion Poll are one and
the same 12. In a parliamentary system the executive is
C. Exit Poll is a device through which re- responsible
sults of voting can be most exactly pre- A. Directly to the people
dicted
B. To legislature
D. Exit Poll is an administrative device
C. To judiciary
made recently by the Chief Election Com-
missioner to prevent impersonation D. None of the above
9. Panchayati Raj is mainly aimed at 13. Which one of the following is in the Con-
A. Rural employment current List in the Constitution of India?
B. Agricultural and rural industries devel- A. Population control and family planning
opment
C. Political awareness among village peo- B. Public health and sanitation
ple C. Capitation taxes
D. Giving training to villagers for fighting D. Treasure trove
elections
14. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in
10. Which of the following statements regard- the States of Rajasthan and
ing literacy in India are correct? 1. per-
son who can only read but cannot write is A. Andhra Pradesh
not defined literate 2. Children below 5 B. Bihar
years of age are not taken into considera-
C. Gujarat
tion even if they are able to read and write
3. For the purpose of census, a person is D. Orissa
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10.1 IAS 681
15. If there is any disagreement between the 20. Which one of the following statements re-
Senate and the House of Representatives garding the election of the President of
in USA, it is resolved by India-is correct?
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A. The President A. candidate securing the majority of
votes is not automatically elected
B. The Vice-President
B. The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction
C. The Speaker in any doubt or dispute arising in connec-
D. Conference committee consisting of 3 tion with the election of the President
to 9 members from each House C. The Presidential election cannot take
place when one or more State Assemblies
16. The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act stand dissolved because all the State As-
came into force in semblies form part of the electoral college
A. 1954
B. 1955 D. The total value of the votes allotted to
both Houses of Parliament is much more
C. 1964
than the total value of the votes of all the
D. 1976 States taken together
17. Whichamong the following is not a part of 21. In India political parties are given recogni-
electoral reforms? tion by
A. Registration of political parties A. President
B. Disqualifying the offenders B. Law Commission
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Installation of electronic voting ma-
chines D. Election Commission
D. Appointment of the Election Commis- 22. Sarkaria Commission has been set up to
sioner study
A. Centre-State relations
18. Constitution does not recognise the caste
system because B. Inter-State relations
A. India is secular C. Financial aid to States
D. Splitting of LIC
B. It leads to inequality which is against
the Constitution 23. Who among the following has the right to
C. It leads to untouchability speak and otherwise take part in thepro-
ceedings of either House of the Parliament
D. All of the above and to be a member of anyParliamentary
Committee in India but is not entitled to
19. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity, this inspi-
vote?
ration was derived from
A. The Chief Election Commissioner
A. American Revolution
B. The Comptroller and Auditor-General
B. French Revolution
C. The Chairman of the Finance Commis-
C. Russian Revolution sion
D. None of the above D. The Attorney-General
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10.1 IAS 682
24. The Speaker of the lower house of a State 29. The National Anthem was written by
can step down by submitting his resigna-
A. Rabindranath Tagore
tion to the
A. Chief Minister B. Bankim Chandra Chatterji
B. Governor C. Mohammed Iqbal
C. Deputy Speaker of the House D. None of the above
D. President
30. Which of the following are Financial Com-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
25. Parliamentary bill passed by the Lok mittees of Parliament in India? 1. Public
Sabha is sent to the President for assent. Accounts Committee 2. Estimates Commit-
The President sends it back to Lok Sabha tee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings
for reconsideration. If the Lok Sabha again A. 1 and 3
sends it back to the President without
making any changes, the President B. 1 and 3
A. Must give his assent to it C. 2 and 3
B. Can again send the bill for reconsider- D. 1, 2 and 3
ation
C. Can take help of the Supreme Court 31. TheConstitution of India provides for
the nomination of two members to the
D. Can arrange referendum LokSabha by the President to represent
26. Which one of the following is used by the A. Men of eminence in arts, letters, sci-
International Court of Justice in disputes ence, etc.
concerning riparian rights?
B. Parsis
A. Geneva Agreement
C. The business community
B. Helsinki Agreement
C. Paris Agreement D. The Anglo-Indian community
D. Reykjavik Agreement 32. Who selects persons for appointment to
the Central Civil Services in India?
27. Panchayati Raj as introduced in 1959 op-
erates at A. President
A. Samiti and block levels B. Prime Minister
B. Block and district levels C. Planning Commission
C. Samiti and district levels
D. UPSC
D. Village, block and district levels
33. Which one of the following can be pro-
28. Centre-State financial relations are looked
rogued but cannot be dissolved?
after by the
A. Rajya Sabha
A. Finance Commission
B. Sarkaria Commission B. State Council
C. Ministry of Finance C. Municipal Corporation
D. Planning Commission D. Governing Council in a Union Territory
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10.1 IAS 683
34. What is the maximum period during which 39. Dietis the name of the Parliament in
Parliament may not meet? A. U.K.
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A. Six months B. U.S. .
B. One year C. India
C. Two years D. Japan
D. Three years
40. Panchayati Raj System was introduced in
35. Match: List I List II Measuring instruments the year
Which measure . Anemometer 1. Mo- A. 1948
tor power . Tachometer 2. Wind speed .
B. 1959
Dynamometer 3. Revolutions per minute
. Barometer 4. Atmospheric pressure 5. C. 1951
Current from a dynamo D. 1952
A. 1 3 5 4
41. In which case a joint session of the Lok
B. 2 1 3 4 Sabha and Rajya Sabha is convened by the
C. 2 3 1 4 President?
D. 1 3 5 2 A. When a Finance Bill is to be passed by
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha with
36. Which of the following is not included in 2/3rd majority
Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of B. To impeach the President
India?
C. If after a bill has been passed by one
A. Right to property House and transmitted to the other House
B. Right to freedom of religion and the bill is rejected by the other House
C. Right to vote in all elections
D. All of the above
D. Right to freedom of speech and expres-
sion 42. The Employment Guarantee Scheme, a ru-
ral work programme, was first started in
37. candidate to become a member of Lok
Sabha should not be less than A. West Bengal
A. 21 years B. Punjab
B. 25 years C. Kerala
C. 30 years D. Maharashtra
D. 35 years 43. Parliament consists of
A. Prime Minister and other Ministers
38. TheInterest Rate Policy is a component of
B. President, Prime Minister and other
A. Fiscal Policy
Ministers
B. Monetary Policy
C. President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
C. Trade Policy
D. Direct Control D. President, Chief Justice and Lok Sabha
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10.1 IAS 684
44. Direct taxation was introduced by the 49. Which are the two States next to U.P.
committee having maximum representation in Lok
A. Wanchoo Sabha?
A. Bihar and Maharashtra
B. Chetty
B. Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
C. Kaldor
C. Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
D. Raja Chelliah
D. Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
NARAYAN CHANGDER
45. The Vice-President of India is elected by
50. Who among the following have a right to
A. The people directly vote in the VicePresidential election butnot
B. The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya in the Presidential election?
Sabha A. Ministers who are not members of ei-
C. The members of Rajya Sabha only ther House of theParliament
D. The members of Lok Sabha, Rajya B. Elected members of the Upper Houses
Sabha and State Legislatures of the States
C. Nominated members of the Parliament
46. The Directive Principles of State Policy
have been given precedence over Funda-
mental Rights in the Constitutional D. Members of the Parliament who ab-
Amendment stain from all meetings of the House for
aperiod of sixty days without permission
A. 41st
of the House
B. 42nd
51. Whichof the following committees was ap-
C. 43rd
pointed for investigating into the Delhiri-
D. 45th ots in November 1984?
47. The 45th Amendment to the Indian Consti- A. Sarkaria Commission
tution relates to B. Ranganath Mishra Commission
A. Minorities Commission C. Thakkar-Natarajan Commission
B. Commission for Scheduled Castes and D. Santhanam Commission
Scheduled Tribes
52. First non-Congress government to come in
C. Extension of reservation of seats for power in any Indian State is
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
A. DMK in Tamil Nadu
D. None of the above
B. Communist Party of India in Kerala
48. The Constitution of India borrowed the C. CPI (M) in West Bengal
scheme of Indian Federation from the Con-
D. None of the above
stitution of
A. USA 53. Democracy exists in India. Government is
run by the elected representatives of the
B. Canada
people. For proper functioning of this sys-
C. Ireland tem
D. UK A. One should cast vote in elections
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10.1 IAS 685
B. One must be prompt in paying taxes 58. Seasonalmigration of men and animals
C. One must be good to himself and to the from lower to higher altitudes during the
summeris known as
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society
D. None of these A. Nomadism
54. Mandal Commission report pertains to B. Migration
other
C. Transhumance
A. Backward Classes
D. Pastoralism
B. Minorities
C. Scheduled Castes 59. Finance Commission is appointed after ev-
D. Scheduled Tribes ery
55. Assertion (A): In India, the political par- A. 2 years
ties which formed the governments rep-
B. 5 years
resented the majority of seats secured in
the elections to the House of the People C. 7 years
at the Centre and the Legislative Assem-
blies in the States but not the majority of D. 10 years
votes. Reason (R): The elections based on
the majority vote system decide the result 60. Which of the following has not declared it-
on the basis of relative majority of votes self as an Islamic Republic?
secured. In the context of the above state- A. Pakistan
ments, which one of the following is cor-
rect? B. Iran
A. Both and R are true, and R is the cor- C. Algeria
rect explanation of
D. Saudi Arabia
B. Both and R are true, but R is not a cor-
rect explanation of
61. When a money bill is passed by the Parlia-
C. is true, but R is false ment, the President has the power to
D. is false, but R is true
A. Amend it
56. What is the minimum percentage of the
B. Reject it
strength of opposition required in a State
legislature for the appointment of an op- C. Kept it with him
position leader?
D. Return it for reconsideration
A. 20
57. Next to Hindi, the language spoken by the 62. Who was the second President of the In-
largest number of people in the Indian sub- dian Republic?
continent is
A. Dr. Zakir Hussain
A. Urdu
B. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
B. Telugu
C. Bengali C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D. Tamil D. None of the above
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10.1 IAS 686
63. India is opposed to the Nuclear Non- C. is true but R is false
proliferation Treaty (NPT) because D. is false but R is true
A. It is discriminatory against the non-
nuclear powers 67. The most irritating factor in the Gentre-
State relationship is the
B. It forbids India to use nuclear energy
for peaceful purposes A. River water dispute
B. Interference of the Centre in the func-
C. It aims at making South Asia a nuclear
tions allotted to them by the Constitution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
free zone
D. It allows Pakistan to develop its own
C. Allocation of finances
nuclear capability
D. None of the above
64. The abolition of the I.A.S. and the I.P.S. has
been recommended by the 68. Which of the following is correct about the
Chief Election Commissioner? He holds the
A. Dhebar Commission
office till he attains the age of
B. Kalekar Commission A. 62 years
C. Kher Commission B. 65 years
D. Rajamannar Commission C. 62 years or completes 3 years of ser-
vice, whichever is earlier
65. The basic structure theory of the Constitu-
tion of India implies that D. 65 years of age or completes 5 years
of service, whichever is earlier
A. certain features of the Constitution
are so essential to it that they cannot be 69. Being a non-member who among the fol-
abrogated lowing can participate in the proceedings
B. fundamental rights cannot be abridged of either House of Parliament without hav-
or taken away ing the voting right?
C. the Constitution cannot be amended A. Vice-President
except in accordance with the procedure B. Chief Justice of India
prescribed in Art, 368
C. Comptroller & Auditor-General
D. the Preamble of the Constitution can-
D. Attorney General
not be amended for it is not a part of the
Constitution and at the same time repre- 70. Who among the following are appointed
sents its real spirit by the President of India? I. The Chairman,
Finance Commission . II. The Deputy Chair-
66. Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj institutions man, Planning Commission III. The Chief
were set upto decentralise planning to vil- Minister of a Union Territory. Choose the
lage level. Reason (R): Village panchayats correct answer from the codes given be-
are in a betterposition to have a proper ap- low. Codes:
preciation of their developmental needs.
A. I only
A. Both and R are true and R is thecorrect
explanation of B. I and II only
B. Both and R are true but R is nota cor- C. I and III only
rect explanation of D. II and III only
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10.1 IAS 687
71. Whichof the following is the most industri- A. 38th
alised country? B. 40th
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A. Bangladesh C. 42nd
B. Malaysia D. 44th
C. Nepal
77. Which of the following is contained in the
D. Singapore Concurrent List?
72. Cognizableoffence refers to an offence A. Forests
where B. Education
A. Arrests can be made without warrant. C. Police
D. Agriculture
B. Arrests can be made with warrant.
C. It is under the jurisdiction of a court. 78. Match the following: ( ) Chief Election
Commissioner 1. Elected by members of
D. Police can register a case without for- Rajya Sabha ( ) Speaker of Lok Sabha
mal complaint. 2. Appointed by the President ( ) Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha 3. Elected by
73. How many judges are there in the Interna-
members of Lok Sabha
tional Court of Justice?
A. 1, 2, 3
A. 10
B. 2, 3, 1
B. 12
C. 3, 2, 1
C. 15
D. None of these
D. 20
79. The word secular denotes
74. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill
or not? A. Keeping away from all religions
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha B. Freedom of religion and worship to all
citizens
B. President
C. Belief in God
C. Prime Minister
D. Practising different religions
D. Vice-President
80. Which one of the following statements re-
75. Governor of which State has been en-
garding the veto power in the Security
trusted with the special powers for the ad-
Council is correct according to the United
ministration of tribal areas?
Nations Charter?
A. Bihar
A. The decisions of the Security Coun-
B. Madhya Pradesh cil on all nonprocedural matters must be
C. Assam made by an affirmative vote of nine mem-
bers, including the concurring, votes of
D. Arunachal Pradesh the permanent members of the Council
76. By which Amendment to the Constitution, B. Every permanent member of the Secu-
the Fundamental Duties of the citizens rity Council can prevent any decision from
were specified? being accepted, by vetoing it
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10.1 IAS 688
C. The term veto was used in Article 27 of C. Make necessary investigations and
the United Nations Charter to enable any suggestions regarding the problem of
permanent member of the Security Coun- Punjab
cil to prevent any resolution from being
D. Investigate about the assassination of
passed by the majority
Mrs. Indira Gandhi
D. Any member of the Security Council
can prevent any resolution from being 85. Considerthe following activities indulged
passed by voting against it in by a candidate during an election cam-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
81. To elect the President of India which one of paign: 1. Giving gifts to voters to in-
the following election procedures is used? ducethem to vote 2. Appealing for votes
on the groundsof caste or religion 3. False
A. System of proportional representation character assassination ofother candidates
by means of a single transferable vote 4. Propagation and glorification ofsati
B. Proportional representation through Which of these constitute the corruptprac-
list system tices?
C. Collective voting system A. 1 and 2
D. Secondary voting system
B. 2 and 3
82. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Consti- C. 1, 2 and 3
tution contains
A. States and Union Territories D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. Salaries of the President, Governors of 86. Judges of a High Court are appointed by
States, Judges of Supreme Court, etc. the President with the consent of the
C. Union List, State List and Concurrent
List A. Governor
D. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha B. Governor, the Chief justice of India
and the Chief Justice of the High Court
83. let’s go on concerned
A. writ issued by a superior court com- C. Governor and the preceding Chief
mand that a specified thing be done.
B. legal term for a prisoners right to ap- D. Justice of the High court
pear in person and be tried in court.
87. Considerthe following pairs: Constitu-
C. written public declaration of the inten-
tional Subject Amendment 1. 52nd Anti-
tions, opinions or motives of a sovereign
Defection Law 2. 56th Statehood for
or of a leader, party or body.
Goa 3. 59th Emergency in Punjab 4.
D. The principle of hybridisation, discov- 62nd Reservation for Scheduled Castes
ered by Gregor Mendel which led to the and Tribes in services
improved breeds of plant and animal life.
A. 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
84. Sarkaria Commission was set up to
B. 3 and 4 are correctly matched
A. Investigate about the riots that took
place in Delhi in 1984 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctlymatched.
B. Maintain Centre-State relationship D. 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched.
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10.1 IAS 689
88. The President of India is elected indirectly C. President of Egypt
by the electoral college consisting of the D. President of U.S.S.R.
elected members of the
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A. Lok Sabha only 93. Which of the following statements re-
garding judiciary in India are correct? 1.
B. Rajya Sabha only
Supreme Court of India is free from the
C. Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only control and influence of legislature and ex-
D. Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the ecutive 2. Subordinate courts are at the
Legislative Assemblies of the States head of the judicial hierarchy of the state.
3. The Chief Justice and other judges of
89. Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution the High Court are appointed by the Gov-
closely follows the Britishparliamentary ernor in consultation with the Chief Justice
model. Reason (R): In India the Upper of India 4. High Court can withdraw a case
House of the Parliament has judicialpow- from a subordinate court and can deal with
ers. the case itself if it is satisfied that the
A. Both and R are true and R is the cor- case involves a substantial point of con-
rect explanationof stitutional law Choose the correct answer
from the codes given below:
B. Both and R are true but R is NOT a cor-
rect explanationof A. 1 & 2
C. is true but R is false B. 1 & 3
D. is false but R is true C. 1 & 4
90. President of India is elected by D. 2, 3 & 4
A. Lok Sabha 94. Which of the following electoral systems
B. Rajya Sabha have been adopted for various elections in
India? I. System of direct elections on the
C. Elected representatives of Lok Sabha,
basis of adult suffrage. II. System of pro-
Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assem-
portional representation by means of the
blies
single transferable vote. III. List system
D. People directly of proportional representation. IV. Cumu-
lative system of indirect elections. Select
91. If suitable Scheduled Caste/Tribe candi-
the correct answer from the codes given
dates are not available, the posts
below. Codes:
A. May for the time being be filled by
other candidates A. I and II
B. Are left vacant B. I and III
C. Are filled by Other Backward Classes C. I, II and III
candidates D. II, III and Lv
D. None of the above
95. Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill
92. The President of Union of India has the passed by the Lok Sabha for a period not
same constitutional authority as the exceeding
A. British Monarch A. 9 days
B. President of U.S. . B. 14 days
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10.1 IAS 690
C. 15 days C. Secularism
D. 30 days D. To abide by the Constitution and re-
spect its ideals
96. The Constitution 44th Amendment (renum-
bered as 43rd Amendment) 100. Directive Principles of State Policy are in-
A. Ensures the right to property cluded in which part of the Indian Consti-
B. Ensures the press freedom tution?
A. Part IV
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Limits the powers of the Government
to proclaim internal emergency B. Part III
D. Restores to the High Courts and to the C. Part II
Supreme Court their jurisdiction to con-
sider the validity of any Central or State D. Part I
law.
101. Of the following, with which does Arti-
97. If the Speaker of the State Legislative As- cle 78 of the Constitution deal with? (1)
sembly decides to resign, he shouldsubmit Emergency powers of the President (2)
his resignation to the The Prime Ministers duty regarding keep-
A. Chief Minister ing the President informed about the gov-
ernments decisions, policies and actions
B. Governor
(3) The Presidents power to send advisory
C. Judge of the High Court messages to the Parliament (4) The Pres-
D. President idents power to get information from the
Council of Ministers
98. Match List I with List II and select the cor-
A. 1 and 4
rect answer by using the codes given be-
low the lists: List I List II (Features of B. 2 and 3
the Indian Constitution) (Borrowed from) I.
C. 2 and 4
Fundamental Rights ( ) U.K. II. Parliamen-
tary system of Government ( ) U.S. . III. D. 2 only
Emergency provisons ( ) Ireland IV. Direc-
tive Principles of State Policy ( ) German 102. Which one of the following is part of
Reich (E) Canada Codes: Preamble of the Constitution of India?
A. I-, II-, III-E, IV- A. We, the people of India, having
B. I-E, II-, III-, IV- solemnly resolved to constitute India into
a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
C. I-, II-, III-, IV- Republic do hereby Adopt, Enact and
D. I-, II-, III-, IV- Give to ourselves this Constitution
99. Which of the following is not included in B. We, the members of the Parliament,
the list of Fundamental Duties in the Con- do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to our-
stitution? selves this Constitution
A. To safeguard public property and to ab- C. We, the people of Constituent Assem-
jure violence bly, do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to
ourselves this Constitution
B. To uphold and protect the sovereignty,
unity and integrity of India D. None of the above
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10.1 IAS 691
103. Which of the following territories is not 108. Matchthe following: ( ) person with max-
absolutely independent? imum number of votes gets elected (i) List
system ( ) person votes for the party not
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A. Hong Kong
for the candidate (ii) Limited vote plan ( )
B. Singapore 1 candidate = 1 vote (iii) Single transfer-
C. Switzerland able vote ( ) 1 elector = many votes (iv)
Relative majority
D. Mozambique
A. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
104. AllIndia Services can be created by the B. (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
A. President C. (v) (iv) (ii) (i)
B. U.P.S. . D. (ii) (v) (i) (iii)
C. Prime Minister 109. The case of dispute in the presidential
D. Parliament election is referred to
A. Chief Election Commissioner
105. The Swaran Singh Committee considered
B. Supreme Court
the Q of
C. Parliament
A. more autonomy to Punjab on the model
of Jammu & Kashmir. D. None of these
B. the suitability of the Presidential form 110. Which of the following languages are in-
of government for India. cluded in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
C. the precedence of the Directive Princi-
ples over Fundamental Rights. A. Sindhi and English
D. administrative reforms B. English and Kashmiri
C. Kashmiri and Konkani
106. In a Parliamentary System of Govern-
ment D. Sindhi and Kashmiri
A. The parliament is responsible to the ex- 111. The two highest gallantry awards in In-
ecutive dia are
B. The parliament is responsible to the ju- A. Param Vir Chakra and Maha Vir Chakra
diciary
C. The executive is responsible to the par- B. Param Vir Chakra and Vir Chakra
liament C. Ashok Chakra and Maha Vir Chakra
D. The judiciary is responsible to the par- D. Param Vir Chakra and Ashok Chakra
liament
112. Which of the following statements re-
107. After retirement, a High Court Judge garding the Constituent Assembly are
true? I. It was not based on adult fran-
A. Can plead in the same High Court chise. II. It resulted from direct elections.
B. Cannot plead in the same High Court III. It was a multi-party body. IV. It
worked through several committees. Se-
C. Can plead in the Supreme Court
lect the correct answer from the codes
D. Can plead in any of the High Courts given below. Codes:
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10.1 IAS 692
A. I and II 117. In which respect have the CentreState re-
lations been specifically termed as munici-
B. II and III
pal relations?
C. I and IV
A. Centres control of the State in the leg-
D. I, II, III and IV islative sphere
B. Centres control of the State in financial
113. Which of the Following is a cognizable of- matters
fence?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Centres control of the State in the ad-
A. First offence committed by any person ministrative sector
D. Centres control of the State in the plan-
B. Offence committed by a minor ning process
C. Offence other than murder
118. Thefirst Leader of the opposition to get
D. Offence which can be dealt with by the recognition in the Indian Parliament was
court A. Y. . Chavan
114. All responsibilities regarding elections in B. Ram Subhag Singh
India are entrusted to C. . K. Gopalan
A. President D. . M. Stephen
B. Prime Minister 119. China has which type of Parliamentary
C. Chief Justice System?
D. Chief Election Commissioner A. One party
B. Two-party
115. What does secularism mean?
C. Multi-party
A. State patronising all religions
D. None of these
B. State having its own religion
120. Whose signatures are found on a hundred
C. State having no official religion and citi- rupee note?
zens are free to follow any religion or faith
A. President of India
B. Governor of Reserve Bank of India
D. State having one official religion and
showing respect to all other religions C. Prime Minister
D. Finance Minister
116. The only instance when the President of
India exercised his power of veto related 121. Assertion (A): Finance Commission aims
to to safeguard the fiscal autonomy ofthe
A. the Hindu Code Bill States. Reason (R): Finance Commission
is constituted every fifth year.
B. the PEPSU Appropriation Bill
A. Both and R are true and R is the cor-
C. the Indian Post Office (Amendments) rect explanationof
Bill
B. Both and R are true but R is not the
D. the Dowry Prohibition Bill correctexplanation of
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10.1 IAS 693
C. is true but R is false 127. Which of the following statements re-
D. is false but R is true garding the advisory jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court are correct? I. It is binding
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122. The concept of welfare state is included on the Supreme Court to give its opinion
in the Constitution of India in on any matter referred to it by the Pres-
ident. II. The full bench of the Supreme
A. Preamble Court hears any reference made to it under
B. Fundamental Rights its power of advisory jurisdiction. III. The
opinion given by the Supreme Court on a
C. Fourth Schedule
reference under advisory jurisdiction is not
D. Directive Principles of State Policy binding on the government. IV. Not more
than one reference at a time can be made
123. Parliamentor a State Legislature can de- to the Supreme Court under its power of
clare a seat vacant if a member abstains advisory jurisdiction. Select the answer
himselfwithout permission from the ses- from the codes given below: Codes:
sions for atleast
A. I and II
A. 30 days
B. I and III
B. 60 days
C. II and III
C. 90 days
D. II and IV
D. 120 days
128. Apolitical party is recognised as a na-
124. Panchayati Raj system was adopted to tional party
A. Make people aware of politics A. When it contests elections in all the
B. Decentralise the power of democracy States of thecountry.
C. Educate the peasants B. When it secures at least five per cent
of the totalvotes cast in a national election.
D. To introduce a form of local self-
government at the village, block and dis-
C. If it captures power at least in three
trict levels
States.
125. Holdingof elections for the Panchayats is D. If it is recognised as a political party in
decided by four or more States
A. The District Magistrate
129. To uphold and protect the sovereignty,
B. Constitutional mandate unity and integrity of India, a provision
C. The State Government has been made in the
D. The Election Commission A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Preamble to the Constitution
126. The principal language of Nagaland is
C. Fundamental Duties
A. English
D. Fundamental Rights
B. Naga
130. Which one of the following is a feature
C. Assamese common to both the Indian Federation and
D. Khasi the American Federation?
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10.1 IAS 694
A. single citizenship D. European currencies exchanged for
B. Three lists in the Constitution the U.S. dollar in U.S
C. Dual judiciary 134. The42nd Amendment to the Indian Con-
D. federal Supreme Court to interpret the stitution is notable because it gives
constitution A. Primacy to Fundamental Rights over
Directive Principles
131. The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted
B. Primacy to Directive Principles over
by the U.N. has
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Fundamental Rights
A. enhanced the powers of the General
C. Special treatment to Jammu & Kash-
Assembly in a comprehensive way
mir
B. reduced the powers of the General As-
D. Special treatment to Sikkim
sembly
C. made no difference to the powers of 135. The maximum gap between two sessions
the General Assembly of the Parliament can be of
D. empowered the General Assembly to A. Six months
act in specific situations in matters of B. Three months
peace and security
C. Nine months
132. Consider the following statements re- D. Twelve months
garding booth capturing in an election: 1.
It has been defined in theConstitution of 136. Which language has been added recently
India after the 61st Amendment. 2. It in- to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
cludes the seizure of andtaking possession of India?
of a polling booth to prevent the orderly A. Urdu
conduct ofelections. 3. It is also commit-
ted when anyelector is threatened and pre- B. Sanskrit
vented from going to the polling station to C. Sindhi
casthis vote. 4. It has been declared a
D. Assamese
cognisableoffence punishable by imprison-
ment. Of these statements 137. Panchayati Raj administration is primar-
A. 2, 3 and 4 are correct ily aimed
B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct A. To increase agricultural production
C. 2 and 3 are correct B. To ensure rural development
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct C. To work for the upliftment of Harijans
D. To arouse in the people of each area
133. Eurodollars are intensive and continuous interest in the
A. a currency issued by European Mone- community development programme
tary Union
138. Which of the following are the circum-
B. special currency issued by federal gov- stances under which an elected member
ernment of U.S. . to be used only in Europe of Parliament may be disqualified on the
ground of defection? 1. If he voluntar-
C. U.S. dollars circulating In Europe ily gives up his membership of a political
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10.1 IAS 695
party 2. If he votes or abstains from vot- 142. Assertion (A): Minimum wages in India
ing contrary to any direction issued by his are fixed in accordance with the levels
political party without prior permission of of living and the labour participation ra-
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
the political party 3. If he speaks against tios. Reason (R): All workers covered by
the political party 4. If he joins a politi- the Minimum Wages Acts are above the
cal party other than the party on whose poverty line. Of these statements
ticket he contested and got elected Select
A. Both and R are true and R is the cor-
the correct answer from the codes given
rect explanation of
below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. Both and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 C. is correct while R is wrong
D. 2, 3 and 4 D. is wrong while R is correct
139. Which one of the following statements is 143. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as
true? early as 1979 in
A. Union Territories are not represented
in the Rajya Sabha A. Kerala
B. Jurisdiction regarding election dis- B. Jammu and Kashmir
putes rests with the Chief Election Com- C. West Bengal
missioner
D. Tamil Nadu
C. Jnaneshwar BengaliThe Speaker con-
tinues in his post even after the state
council is dissolved till a new speaker is 144. The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitu-
elected by the succeeding state council tion contains
D. According to the Indian Constitution A. Fundamental Rights
Parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Ra- B. Directive Principles
jya Sabha only
C. list of 1 8 languages recognised by the
140. The year of Great Divide, in Indian de- Constitution
mography, is
D. Number of States and Union Territo-
A. 1905
ries
B. 1921
C. 1947 145. India has Parliamentary democracy sys-
D. 1965 tem because
141. Nomoney bill can be introduced in the leg- A. Members of the Lok Sabha are elected
islative assembly without therecommen- by the public
dations of the B. Council of Ministers is responsible to
A. Speaker the Legislature
B. Governor C. Of distribution of power between the
C. Chief Minister Centre and the States
D. Finance Minister D. Of a single constitutional framework
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10.1 IAS 696
146. Which of the following States has Urdu B. most favour to all countries
as its official language? C. no favour to any country
A. Bihar D. no favour to some countries
B. Jammu & Kashmir
151. U.S.S.R. stands for
C. Madhya Pradesh
A. Union of Secular Socialist Republics
D. Rajasthan
B. Union of Sovereign Socialist Republics
NARAYAN CHANGDER
147. Death penalty for drug smuggling is given
in C. Union of Soviet Secular Republics
A. Thailand D. Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
B. Singapore
152. The most controversial provision in the
C. Malaysia 42nd Constitution Amendment is
D. Bangladesh A. Supremacy of Parliament
148. What is the power of Rajya Sabha re- B. Enumeration of ten Fundamental Du-
garding Money Bill? ties
A. It can amend it C. Term of Lok Sabha and Legislative As-
semblies
B. It can reject it
D. Primacy to the Directive Principles
C. It can withhold the bill for 14 days to
over the Fundamental Rights
make recommendations
D. It has no power regarding Money Bill 153. Which of the following is/are among the
functions of the Election Commission of In-
149. Considerthe following statements re- dia? I. Conduct of election for the posts
garding a No-confidence Motion in the Par- of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker,
liament. 1. There is no mention of aNo- Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman, Ra-
confidence Motion in the Constitution of jya Sabha. II. Conduct of election to the
India. 2. period of six months must Corporations and Municipalities. III. Decid-
elapsebetween the introduction of one No- ing on all doubts and disputes arising out
confidence Motion and the other. 3. At of the elections. Select the correct answer
least 100 members must support aMotion from the codes given below. Codes:
of No-confidence before it is introduced in
A. I and II
the House. 4. motion of No-confidence
can beintroduced in the Lok Sabha only. Of B. I and III
these statements C. II and III
A. 2 and 4 are correct D. None of these
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct 154. Acts and Regulations validated by Article
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct 31 are specified in of the Constitution
D. 1 and 4 are correct. A. Concurrent List
150. Most-Favoured-Nations (MFN) clause un- B. State List
der GATT implies C. Union List
A. most favour to some countries D. Ninth Schedule
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10.1 IAS 697
155. Which famous judgement restricted the C. The total value of votes of themembers
authority of the Parliament to amend the of all the State Legislative Assemblies by
Constitution so as to damage or destroy the elected members of thetwo Houses of
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
its basic or essential features or its basic the Parliament
structure?
D. Particular States population as per the
A. Golaknath case latest census by the number of member-
B. Balananda Saraswati case sof Parliament elected from that State
C. Minerva Mills Ltd. and others case 160. Representation of any State in Rajya
D. Keshvanand Bharti case Sabha, is according to
A. Population of the State
156. Rajya Sabha is dissolved once in
B. Area of the State
A. 2 years
C. Fixed number of candidates for each
B. 3 years
State
C. 6 years
D. Number of representation in Lok
D. It is never dissolved Sabha from that State
157. The term Fourth Estate refers to 161. China attacked Vietnam because
A. very backward State
A. Of armed provocations and encroach-
B. Judiciary ment against Chinese territory
C. Parliament B. Of Vietnams alliance with U.S.S.R.
D. Press C. Of Vietnams involvement in Kam-
puchea
158. The right to Freedom of Speech in India
may be restricted, if the freedom is used D. Of Paracel Islands dispute
to
162. The Institute of Ombudsman was first es-
A. Incite people to violence tablished in
B. Propagate nationalisation of the pri- A. Norway
vate sector
B. Sweden
C. Level charges of corruption against
those in power C. Finland
D. Spread superstition D. Denmark
159. Thevalue of a vote of a member of the 163. Inthe estimation of expenditure charged
Parliament for the election of the Presi- on the Consolidated Fund of India, thePar-
dentof India is determined by dividing the liament has
A. Nations population as per thelatest A. No power to discuss.
census by the number of Lok Sabha mem-
B. Full power to discuss.
bers.
C. Full power to discuss during financial
B. Population as per the latest censusby
emergency.
the total strength of the two Houses of the
Parliament. D. None of the above
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10.2 Miscellenous 698
164. According to the newly adopted Constitu- D. Parliament has no power to increase a
tion of Russia, the Prime Minister is ap- tax without the Presidents recommenda-
pointed by tion
A. the State Duma, the Lower Chamber of 167. Ina political party of 36 members, the
the Federal Assembly minimum number of members needed to
B. the President, with the consent of the splitfor disqualifying the original political
State Duma party as per Anti-Defection Law shouldbe
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the President, with the consent of the A. 12
Federal Council B. 18
D. the Federal Council C. 24
165. Whichone of the following countries has D. none of above
tricameral legislature with one House fore- 168. Directive Principles of State Policy are
thnic group? contained in
A. South Africa A. Part I of the Constitution
B. Sri Lanka B. Part II of the Constitution
C. Fiji C. Part III of the Constitution
D. Malaysia D. Part IV of the Constitution
166. Which one of the following is INCORRECT 169. Assertion (A): Equality before the law
in respect of Parliamentary Control over is notapplicable to the President of In-
the Budget? dia. Reason (R): The President of India
enjoys specialpowers and privileges under
A. Parliament has no say In the prepara-
the Constitution.
tion of the budget
A. Both and R are true and R is thecorrect
B. Parliament has the power to increase explanation of .
expenditure charged on the Consolidated
Fund B. Both and R are true but R is nota cor-
rect explanation of .
C. Parliament has no power to impose a
tax without the Presidents recommenda- C. is true but R is false.
tion D. is false but R is true.
10.2 Miscellenous
1. who among the following was the Chair- 2. Under which Supreme Court Judgment, ac-
man of the State Committee of the Con- tion of the President to summon, pro-
stituent Assembly? rogue and dissolve either of the Houses of
the Parliament shall be unconstitutional if
A. B R.Ambedkar
acted without advice of Council of Minis-
B. B N. Rao ters
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
A. Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain A.I.R.
D. Jawaharlal Nehru 1975 S.C. 2299
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10.2 Miscellenous 699
B. Rao vs. Indira Gandhi A.I.R. 1971 S.C. C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
1002
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
C. Anandan vs. Chief Secretary, A.I.R.
1966 S.C 657 8. The concept of ’procedure established by
D. None of the above law’ was taken from the constitution of
3. The method of amendment of Indian Con- A. Soviet Union
stitution has been incorporated in Article B. Britain
A. 368 C. Germany
B. 299
D. France
C. 378
D. 301 9. The Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme-
Court dose not involve
4. What is the meaning of Indian State in the
A. Criminal Cases
Constitution
A. Any territory recognised by President B. Disputes arising out of pre-
of India Constitution treaties and agreements
B. Any territory before commencement of C. Civil Cases
Indian Constitution by the British ruler D. Cases involving interpretation of the
C. Any territory which government of the Constitution
Dominion of India recognised
D. B & C 10. Which of the following are associated
with? Planning? in India? 1. The Finance
5. Which Indian President was the Speaker Commission 2. The National Development
of the Fourth Lok Sabha Council 3.The Union Ministry of Rural De-
velopment 4.The Union Ministry of Urban
A. S. D. Sharma
Development 5. The Parliament Select the
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad correct answer using the code given be-
C. N. Sanjiva Reddy low.
D. Dr. S Radhakrishanan A. 1, 2 and 5 only
6. When did India become a fully Sovereign B. 1, 3 and 4 only
Democratic Republic C. 2 and 5 only
A. 26th Nov. 1949
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 26th Nov. 1930
C. 26th Jan. 1949 11. The Right to equality guaranteed by the
Indian Constitution does not include
D. 26th Nov. 1951
A. Equality of status
7. Who submitted the Objective Resolution in
the Constutuent Assembly? B. Economic equality
A. B R.Ambedkar C. Equality of opportunity
B. B N. Rao D. Equality before law
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10.2 Miscellenous 700
12. Who can be Vice President can be removed B. Article 141
by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed C. Article 143
by an effective majority (more than 50%
of effective membership(total membership D. Article 144
- Vacant seats)) and agreed to by a simple
17. As per the procedure, the election of Vice
majority (50% of present and voting mem-
President is conducted at first at
bers) of the Lok Sabha
A. President A. Lok Sabha
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Chief Justice of Supreme Court B. Rajya Sabha
C. Vice President C. Joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha
D. Prime Minister
D. None of the above
13. The council of Ministers in a Parliamentary
type of Government can remain in office 18. How many readings were held on the Con-
till it enjoys the support of the stitution in the Constituent Assembly
A. Minority of members of the Upper A. First Reading
House of Parliament B. Third Reading
B. Majority of the members of the Upper C. Second Reading
House of Parliament
D. None of the above
C. Minority of members of the Lower
House 19. Which Bill President can neither return nor
D. Majority of the members of the Lower withhold his assent
House of Parliament A. Defence Bill
14. The Preamble of Indian Constitution has B. Money Bill
been amended so far C. Law Bill
A. Twice D. Financial Account Committee Bill
B. Once
20. At which case, the Supreme Court specifi-
C. Never
cally opined that Preamble is not a part of
D. More than three times the Constitution
15. Two words added into Preamble by the A. Berubari Union case (1960)
42nd Amendment are B. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
A. Socialist, Democratic C. Both A & B
B. Sovereign, Socialist D. None of the above
C. Sovereign, Secular
21. Who appoints the Attorney General?
D. Socialist, Secular
A. the Prime minister
16. Which Constitutional Article defines law
B. the President
declared by Supreme Court to be binding
on all courts C. the Parliament
A. Article 142 D. the Governor
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10.2 Miscellenous 701
22. Which of the following transferred power B. Through a resolution of the provisional
from the English East India Company to the government
British Crown?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
C. Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
A. The Better Government Act of 1858 D. Under the Indian Independence Act,
B. Government of India Act 1919 1947
C. Indian Council Act 1861 27. No person shall be eligible for election as
D. Government of India Act 1935 Vice-President unless he
23. With reference to the Union Government, A. is a citizen of India
consider the following statements: 1. The B. has completed the age of thirty-five
Department of Revenue is responsible for years
the preparation of Union Budget that is C. is qualified for election as a member
presented to the Parliament. 2. No of the Council of States
amount can be withdrawn from the Con-
solidated Fund of India without the autho- D. All the above
rization from the Parliament of India. 3.
28. In the Parliament of India Upper House in
All the disbursements made from Public Ac-
known as
count also need the authorization from the
Parliament of India. Which of the state- A. Lok Sabha
ments given above is / are correct? B. Rajya Sabha
A. 1 and 2 only C. Council of States
B. 2 and 3 only D. None of the above
C. 2 only
29. The concept of federal structure of govern-
D. 1, 2 and 3 ment was taken from the constitution of
24. Which part of the Constitution deals with A. USA
the Fundamental Duties? B. Canada
A. IV A C. Soviet Union
B. IX A D. Japan
C. XIV A
30. In the Constituent Assembly, what was
D. X the number of population fixed for one
Representative
25. From which area, more members were rep-
resented in the Provisional Parliament A. 7, 500
A. Rural area B. 7, 50, 000
B. Urban area C. 50, 000
C. Municipalities D. 78, 500
D. Panchayats 31. At the time of V. P. Singh, how many times
26. The Constituent of India was enacted by a President’s Rule was imposed
Constituent Assembly set up A. 2
A. By the Indian National Congress B. 6
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10.2 Miscellenous 702
C. 7 37. During what period, Constituent Assembly
D. 8 of India worked
A. 1948-1950
32. A federal structure of India was first put
forward by the B. 1949-1951
A. Act of 1909 C. 1947-1949
B. Act of 1919 D. 1951-1952
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Act of 1935 38. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals
D. Act of 1947 with the
A. freedom of conscience
33. Who was the first President of Indian Na-
tional Congress B. right to propagate religion
A. A O Hume C. rights of minorities to establish and
B. W C Banerjee manage educational institutions
C. Dadabai Navoraji D. cultural and educational right of the
majority community
D. Annie Besant
39. Which emergency has an initial life of one
34. Under Constitutional Article 243, what is month?
the meaning of Panchayat
A. under article 352
A. Self Gram Panchayat Raj
B. under article 356
B. Government of Village
C. under article 360
C. Self Government
D. none of the above
D. None of the above
35. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in in- 40. Who among the following conducted the
stitutions of higher education in India at CNN-IBN - The Hindu 2013 Election
present (2015) is about Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies
in 18 States?
A. 8 percent
A. The Centre for the Study of Developing
B. 12 percent Societies (CSDS)
C. 19 percent B. The Association for Democratic Re-
D. 23 percent forms (ADR)
36. Which of the following is ’TRUE’ about C. CNN and IBN
Preamble D. CNN, IBN and The Hindu
A. It is a source of power to legislature
41. When were the election to the Constituent
and a source of prohibition upon the pow-
Assembly held
ers of legislature
A. July 1946
B. It is Justiciable
B. Aug. 1946
C. Its provisions are enforceable in
courts of law C. Sep. 1946
D. None of the above D. Oct. 1946
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10.2 Miscellenous 703
42. The Preamble of Indian Constitution is A. Election Commission
based on B. the Chief justice of India
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A. Philosophy of India C. the Parliament
B. Objective Resolution D. President after consultation with the
C. Indian Culture Election commission
D. Religious Concept 48. The beginning word WE in the Preamble
43. Most of the Universities in India refers to the
A. conduct teaching and research only A. Citizens of India
B. affiliate colleges and conduct examina- B. People of India
tions C. All adult people in India
C. conduct teaching/research and exam- D. All people above 25 years
inations
49. The session of the parliament is summoned
D. promote research only by
44. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the A. The President
House while a Resolution for Removal B. The Prime Minister
from his office is under consideration
C. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
A. Speaker
D. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the
B. Deputy Speaker Chairman of the Rajya Sabh
C. A & B
50. Lawmaking procedure was taken from the
D. None of the above constitution of
45. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, which sub- A. Britain
jects are included in the concurrent list B. Soviet Union
A. Criminal Law & Procedure, Civil Proce- C. South Africa
dure
D. Ireland
B. Marriage
C. Divorce, Arbitration 51. Who proposed Preamble before the Draft-
ing Committee of the Constitution?
D. All the above
A. B.R Ambedkar
46. The Constitution of India contains ..... ar- B. Jawaharlal Nehru
ticles
C. K. M Munshi
A. 448
D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
B. 395
C. 410 52. Who declares financial emergency?
D. 380 A. President
B. Parliament
47. Decision on question as to disqualifications
of membership of either House of Parlia- C. Finance Minister
ment rests with the D. Finance Commission
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10.2 Miscellenous 704
53. There is no appeal except on a point of law 58. Which of the following declares India to be
against the decisions of the a federal state?
A. Sub Judges A. Golak Nath Case
B. Small causes courts B. Bommai Case
C. Court of Munsifs
C. Shankari Prasad Case
D. High Court
D. Minerva Mill Case
54. What members of the Parliament cannot
NARAYAN CHANGDER
represent 59. Which Supreme Court judgement described
A. Members of Lok Sabha the basic structure of the Constitution of
India for the first time
B. Members of Rajya Sabha
C. Members of Legislative Assembly A. Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
D. Members of both Houses of Parlia- B. Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
ment C. Indira Gandhi vs. Union of India
55. Under which Constitutional Amendment, D. Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
provision for minimum age as 18 years for
the Indian citizen was made to become el- 60. In the Provisional Parliament of India, how
igible to vote many members were there
A. 60th Amendment Act 1988 A. 296
B. 61st Amendment Act 1989
B. 313
C. 62nd Amendment Act 1989
C. 318
D. None of the above
D. 316
56. Which Constitutional article defines exer-
cise of Legislative power after proclama- 61. How many Articles and Schedules were in
tion is issued under article 356 the First Draft Constitution presented by
A. Article 358 the Drafting Committee to the Constituent
B. Article 357 Assembly
C. Article 360 A. 318 Articles and 7 Schedules
D. Article 358 B. 319 Articles ad 10 Schedules
57. Which of the following bodies does not/do C. 315 Articles and 8 Schedules
not find mention in the Constitution? 1. D. 399 Articles and 5 Schedules
National Development Council 2. Planning
Commission 3. Zonal Councils Select the 62. Which of the following Acts had introduced
correct answer using the codes given be- communal electorate system in India
low.
A. Indian council Act 1909
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only B. Government of India Act 1919
C. 1 and 3 only C. Indian Council Act 1861
D. 1, 2 and 3 D. Indian Council Act 1862
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10.2 Miscellenous 705
63. Which Constitutional Article mentions 1. Copy right is a legal right given to
Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services creators of literacy, dramatic, musi-
and post cal and artistic works and produces
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
of Cinematograph films and sound
A. Article 336
recordings.
B. Article 335 2. Copy right protects only the expres-
C. Article 338 sions and not the ideas. There is no
copy right in an idea.
D. Article 339
Which of the statements given above
64. Morely-Minto reform is associated with is/are correct?
which Act A. 1 Only
A. Indian Council Act 1856 B. 2 Only
B. Indian Council Act 1909 C. Both 1 and 2
C. Indian Council Act 1908 D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Indian Council Act 1912 69. According to which article of the Indian
Constitution, Hindi in devnagari script is
65. Pitt Inida Act was passed the official language of the Union?
A. 1784 A. Article 243
B. 1757 B. Article 343
C. 1857 C. Article 223
D. Article 123
D. 1758
70. The Supreme Court has the power to issue
66. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio writs under
Chairman of
A. Article 25
A. Rajya Sabha
B. Article 34
B. Lok Sabha
C. Article 44
C. UPSC D. Article 32
D. UG
71. What was the expenditure made by the
67. The maximum age prescribed for election Constituent Assembly while framing the
as president is Constitution of India
A. Rs. 63, 96, 729
A. No such Limit
B. Rs. 64, 98, 725
B. 62 years
C. Rs. 69, 92, 769
C. 58 years
D. Rs. 65, 92, 926
D. 60 years
72. Who appoints each member of either of
68. Consider the following statements in re- the Houses of the Parliament after noti-
spect of protection of Copy Rights in India: fication is received from the Election Com-
[CDSE 2009] mission
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10.2 Miscellenous 706
A. President 77. In the Constituent Assembly who was the
Head of the Union Constitution Committee
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. Sardar Patel
D. Prime Minister
C. Subhash Buse
73. In Rajeev Gandhi time, how many times D. None of the above
President Rule was imposed
78. The Fundamental Rights, which cannot be
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 15 suspended even during the emergency are
B. 20 A. Articles 20 and 22
C. 5 B. Articles 20 and 21
D. 6 C. Articles 19 and 32
D. Articles 17 and 20
74. Who fixes salaries and allowances for the
Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Ra- 79. Which session of the year, President ad-
jya Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy dresses both the Houses of Parliament
Speaker of the Lok Sabha A. First session (Budget)
A. Lok Sabha B. Second session (Monsoon)
B. Rajya Sabha C. Third session (Winter)
C. Members of the Parliament D. None of the above
D. Parliament by Law 80. Who took interest in the Public Interest Lit-
igation cases?
75. Who stated, As to the execution that the
A. Bhagawati and Krishna Iyer
Draft Constitution has produced a good
part of the provisions of the Government B. Kania and Sastri
of India Act 1935, make no apologies. C. Ray and Beg
There is nothing to be ashamed of in Bor-
D. Shah and Sikri
rowing.
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 81. Consider the following statements 1. An
amendment to the Constitution of India can
B. Jawhar Lal Nehru be initiated by an introduction of a bill in
C. Gandhiji the Lok Sabha only. 2. If such an amend-
ment seeks to make changes in the federal
D. Dr. Ambedkar character of the Constitution, the amend-
ment also requires to be ratified by the
76. Which Constitutional Article defines the
legislature of all the States of India. Which
Provision in case of failure of Constitu-
of the statements given above is/are cor-
tional Authority in the state
rect?
A. Article 356 A. 1 only
B. Article 357 B. 2 only
C. Article 353 C. Both 1 and 2
D. Article 351 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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10.2 Miscellenous 707
82. Name of the Chairman of the Commit- C. The ministry of parliament Affairs
tee, on whose recommendations Panchay- D. The speaker of the Lok Sabha in the
ati Raj system with two tiers was intro-
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
case of national Parties and the Speaker
duced in India: of Legislative assemblies in the case of re-
A. Balwant Rai Mehta gional parties
B. Ashok Mehta 88. Considerthe following statements regard-
C. G.V. K. Rao ing a No-confidence Motion in the Parlia-
D. Dr. L. M. Singhvi ment.
1. There is no mention of aNo-
83. In the Indian Constitution, the power to is- confidence Motion in the Constitu-
sue a writ of Hebeas Corpus is vested tion of India.
A. the Supreme Court 2. period of six months must elapse-
B. the High Courts between the introduction of one No-
confidence Motion and the other.
C. the Subordinate courts 3. At least 100 members must support
D. the Supreme Corts and the High Courts aMotion of No-confidence before it
is introduced in the House.
84. Who is called as the father of Indian un- 4. motion of No-confidence can beintro-
rest duced in the Lok Sabha only.
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
Of these statements
B. Bibin Chandra Pal
A. 2 and 4 are correct
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
85. Fundamental Rights are not applicable to D. 1 and 4 are correct.
A. Armed Forces
89. Under Constitutional Article 243D, in Pan-
B. Foreign Citizens chayat who gets reservation
C. Government Civilian Employees A. Scheduled Caste
D. None of the above B. Scheduled Tribes
86. For which Election, one General Electoral C. A & B
Roll for every territorial Constituency shall D. None of the above
exist
A. Lok Sabha 90. Consider the following statements: The
Parliamentary Committee on Public Ac-
B. Rajya Sabha counts (PAC) 1. consists of not more than
C. Legislature 25 Members of the Lok Sabha 2. scruti-
D. All the above nizes appropriation and finance accounts
of Government 3. Examines the report of
87. Recognition to a political party is accorded CAG. Which of the statements given above
by is / are correct? ‘
A. The Election Commission A. 1 only
B. A Committee of Whips B. 2 and 3 only
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10.2 Miscellenous 708
C. 3 only 96. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by
D. 1, 2 and 3 which members
91. Britishers called the first war of Indian In- A. Lok Sabha
dependence as B. Legislative Assembly
A. Sipoy mutiony
C. Council of State
B. Indian Revolution
D. Legislative Council
C. terrorism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. First world war 97. Battle of Plassey was in the year
92. The concept of ’Amendment of Constitu- A. 1856
tion’ was taken from the constitution of
B. 1757
A. South Africa
B. Britain C. 1857
C. France D. 1758
D. Ireland
98. How many nominated members are in Ra-
93. How many members are fixed for Lok jya Sabha?
Sabha
A. 5
A. 501
B. 7
B. 551
C. 530 C. 11
D. 506 D. 13
94. Which organ does not have the right to
99. Which constitutional article defines protec-
question and justify as null and void the
tion against publication of proceedings of
law which violates Fundamental Rights ar-
Parliament and Legislature
ticle?
A. Executive A. Article 361D
B. Judiciary B. Article 361A
C. Legislative C. Article 364
D. None of the above
D. Article 365
95. January 26th was selected as the date
for the inauguration of the Constitution be- 100. The Poona Pact (1932) upheld
cause
A. joint electorate
A. Quit India Movement announced
B. separate electorate
B. Congress had observed it as the Inde-
pendence Day in 1930 C. joint electorate with reserved seats
C. Constituent Assembly was established for the scheduled castes
for framing the Constitution? D. joint electorate with reserved seats
D. None of the above for the caste Hindus
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10.2 Miscellenous 709
101. According to the Constitution of India, 106. Which two houses, can have a joint sit-
which of the following are fundamental for ting
the governance of the country? A. Legislative Assembly and Parliament
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Fundamental Rights B. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
B. Fundamental Duties C. Council of State and Legislative Coun-
C. Directive Principles of State Policy cil
D. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental D. None of the above
Duties
107. Who appoint the Chief Election Commis-
102. The President of India is elected by an sioner of India?
Electoral College comprising of A. Chief Justice of India
A. Elected members of Lok Sabha and B. President
State Legislative Assemblies. C. Prime Minister
B. Elected member of both Houses of Par- D. Parliament
liament and State Legislative Assembly
C. Elected members of both Houses of 108. Under which Article, House of the People
Parliament. can have the Speaker and Deputy Speaker
D. Elected member of State Legislative A. 95
Assemblies B. 93
C. 98
103. Right to vote and to be elected in India is
a D. 96
A. Fundamental Right 109. The term of Member of the Rajya Sabha
B. Constitutional Right is:
C. Natural Right A. 5 years
D. legal Right B. 6 years
C. Same as that of the Lok Sabha
104. Who decides disputes relating with the
allotment of symbols to Political Parties D. Two years
A. Representation Act 1952 110. When did the origin and evolution of the
B. Representation Act 1953 office of Speaker start in India
C. Representation of the People Act 1951 A. In Hindu period
B. In British Period
D. Election Commission C. In Mughal period
D. None of the above
105. The control of the preparation of electoral
rolls for parliament and legislature vests 111. Within which period the President has to
with the summon session of the Parliament
A. President A. Six Months
B. Election Commision B. Five Months
C. Cabinet C. Four Months
D. Prime Minister D. Three Months
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10.2 Miscellenous 710
112. Which colours are included in the National 117. Which of the following rights was consid-
Flag ered the? Heart and Soul? of the Indian
Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
A. Deep Saffron
A. Freedom of Speech
B. White
B. Right to Equality
C. Dark Green
C. Right to Freedom of Religion
D. All the above
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
NARAYAN CHANGDER
113. Which of the following is the basis for the 118. When a financial emergency is pro-
President s impeachment? claimed
A. lose of confidence in the lok Sabha A. Union budget will not be presented
B. proven misbehavior B. Salaries and allowances of any class of
C. proven incapacity employees may be reduced
D. violation of the constitution C. Repayment of government debts will
stop
114. In which Article of the Constitution of In- D. Payment of salaries to public servants
dia, duration of House of Parliament has will be postponed
been mentioned
119. Which of the following powers, the Presi-
A. 83 dent has in relation to Lok Sabha? 1. Sum-
B. 84 moning 2 Adjournment- sine die 3. Pro-
rogation 4. Dissolution Select the correct
C. 85
answer from the codes given below:
D. 88 A. 1 and 4
115. Who has ample powers under Article B. 1, 2 and 3
324(1) to make appropriate orders as to C. 1, 3 and 4
the conduct of Elections, e.g., cancellation
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
of poll and ordering to poll according to ex-
igencies in particular areas, introduction of 120. Under which article of the constitution,
electronic voting machines, postponing of the executive power of the Union is vested
election, etc. in the President?
A. Regional Election Commissioner A. Article 25
B. Election Committee of Government B. Article 53
C. Electoral Officer C. Article 54
D. Election Commission D. Article 55
121. The Constituent Assembly was set up to
116. Right to education incorporated in
under the
A. Art. 17 A. Mountbatten Plan 1947
B. Art. 32 B. Cripps Mission Plan 1942
C. Art.19 C. Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946
D. Art. 21A D. Government of India Act 1935
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10.2 Miscellenous 711
122. The Constitution of India contains —— C. Austria
—- Appendices D. USA
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. 12
128. India is known as Parliamentary Democ-
B. 7
racy because
C. 8
A. Executive is responsible to the Parlia-
D. 5 ment
123. Who nominates 12 members in the Coun- B. Head of the States is elected for a fixed
cil of State period
A. Chairman of Rajya Sabha C. Independent judiciary
B. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha D. None of the above
C. President of India 129. The concept of freedom of trade and com-
D. Prime Minister of India merce within the country and between the
states was taken from the constitution of
124. Judges of the High Court are appointed
by the A. Soviet Union
A. Chief Justice of the High Court B. Australia
B. President C. Canada
C. Governor D. USA
D. Chief Justice of India 130. Who called the word for Preamble as Po-
litical Horoscope of India?
125. Which was considered as the basis of In-
dian Independence Act of 1947? A. K.M. Munshi
A. Mount batten Plan B. B.R Ambedkar
B. Cripps proposal C. Sardar K.M Panikikar
C. Simon commission report D. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Nehru report. 131. Vice President of India draws salary in
126. Who is authorized to initiate a Bill for the designation of
Constitutional Amendment? A. Vice President of India
A. Rajya Sabha B. President of India
B. Lok Sabha C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
C. Either A or B D. None of the above
D. President
132. Which one of the following statements
127. The concept of ’a Constitutionally man- is not correct about the University Grants
dated Planning Commission to oversee the Commission (UGC)?
development of the economy’ was taken A. It was established in 1956 by an Act of
from the constitution of Parliament.
A. Germany B. It is tasked with promoting and coordi-
B. Soviet union nating higher education.
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10.2 Miscellenous 712
C. It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds 138. In the Constitution of India, the term Fed-
from the Central Government. eral
D. It receives funds from State Govern- A. figures in the Preamble
ments in respect of State Universities.
B. figures in part III of the Constitution
133. Which Schedule details the boundaries of
the States and the Union Territories? C. figures in Article 368
A. 1st D. does not figure anywhere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 2nd
139. Which law officer shall have the right to
C. 3rd
speak in both the Houses of Parliament
D. 4th
A. Solicitor General
134. Which article of Indian Constitution pro-
vides the Oath of Affirmation for the Of- B. Advocate General
fice of Vice President C. Attorney General
A. Article 68
D. Legal Advisor
B. Article 69
C. Article 70 140. The idea of Rule of Law has been taken
D. Article 67 by the Indian Constitution from
A. USA
135. The important test to identify the basic
features of the Indian Constitution is B. France
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. South Africa
B. Preamble
D. Britain
C. Fundamental rights
D. Fundamental duties 141. In the First Lok Sabha, how many seats
were
136. Who was the President of India when
emergency was declared in 1975? A. 500
A. V V Giri B. 499
B. B D Jatti
C. 544
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D. 521
D. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmmed
137. In the Constituent Assembly who pro- 142. When was the last Twelfth session of the
posed the name of Dr. Rajendra Prasad Constituent Assembly held
as President of India
A. 24th Jan. 1950
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. 24th Feb. 1950
B. Sardar Patel
C. A & B C. 24th April 1950
D. None of the above D. 24th Dec. 1950
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10.2 Miscellenous 713
143. In the context of India, which of the A. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
following principles is/are implied institu-
B. a-4, b- 1, c- 2, d- 3
tionally in the parliamentary government?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members C. a-2, b- 4, c- 1, d- 3
of the Parliament. 2. Ministers hold the
office till they enjoy confidence in the Par- D. a-2, b- 3, c- 4, d- 1
liament. 3. Cabinet is headed by the Head
of the State. Select the correct answer us- 148. The term of office of the Advocate Gen-
ing the codes given below. eral of a State is:
A. 1 and 2 only A. 4 years
B. 3 only B. 5 years
C. 2 and 3 only
C. 6 years or 65 years of age whichever
D. 1, 2 and 3 is earlier
144. Which Article of the Constitution of India D. not fixed
mentioned the posts of the Chairman and
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha 149. What activities does the President per-
A. 90 form in respect of both the Houses of the
B. 89 Parliament
C. 93 A. Time to time to summon each of Parlia-
D. 94 ment
145. Which article of the Indian Constitu- B. Prorogue either of the House of the
tion mentioned the posts of Speaker and Parliament
Deputy Speaker of the House of People C. Dissolve the Lok Sabha
A. Article 95
D. All the above
B. Article 93
C. Article 91 150. Whom the Rajya Sabha has the power for
D. Article 96 removal
146. Which Party supported formation of a A. Speaker
Constituent Assembly B. Deputy Speaker
A. Congress
C. Council of President
B. Muslim League
D. Deputy Chairman
C. Unionist Muslim
D. Unionist Scheduled Castes 151. Who was the Deputy Speaker of the First
147. Match the columns: Lok Sabha
Set - I Set - II A. M. A. Ayyangar
a.English 1. Israel B. Sardar Hukam Singh
b. Amharic 2. Namibia
c .Swahili 3. Ethiopia C. M. Thambidurai
d. Hebrew 4. Kenya D. None of the above
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10.2 Miscellenous 714
152. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the 21 are enforceable during the operation of
Indian Constitution emergency
A. President A. 44th Amendment Act
B. Governor B. 46th Amendment Act
C. A & B C. 45th Amendment Act
D. None of the above D. 48th Amendment Act
158. Which one of the following would be con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
153. Which is our National anthem
strued as a reasonable restriction of the
A. Jana Gana Mana “Right to Freedom”? [CDSE 2009]
B. Vande Matram A. When the state disallows a candidate
C. A & B from securing votes in the name of reli-
gion.
D. None of the above
B. When the state disallows citizens from
154. Indian Federalism is described as forming a club out of state funds that de-
nies access to women.
A. a federal structure with centralising
features C. When the Government of Nagaland dis-
allows temporary residents to buy immov-
B. a unitary structure with federal fea- able property in Nagaland.
tures
D. All of the above
C. more federal and less unitory
159. Appointment of officers and servants of
D. a federation of states
a High Court are made by the
155. Which constitutional article provides per- A. None of these
sonal immunity to the head of the states B. Chief Justice of the High Court
for his official act from legal action, includ-
ing proceedings for contempt of Court? C. President
D. Governor
A. Article 361
B. Article 362 160. Under whose advice the President of
India declares Emergency under Article
C. Article 368 352?
D. Article 369 A. Chief Ministers of all states
156. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, who B. Prime Minister
had the power to proclaim emergency C. Cabinet
A. Governor General D. Council of Ministers
B. General of India 161. Preamble has been amended by which
C. Governor of the State amendment act
D. None of the above A. 27 th
B. 44 th
157. Through which constitutional amendment
in article 359, it has been laid down that C. 42 nd
Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and D. 40 th
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10.2 Miscellenous 715
162. Consider the statement which Is followed C. Article 247
by two arguments (i) and (ii). Statement: D. Article 245
India should have a very strong and pow-
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
erful Lokpal. Arguments: (i) Yes, it will 167. Under which Constitutional Amendment
go a long in eliminating corruption in bu- of Article 334, reservation of seats for
reaucracy. (ii) No; it will discourage hon- Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in
est officers from making quick decisions. the Lok Sabha and State Legislative As-
Codes: sembly has been laid down
A. Only argument (i) is strong. A. 31st Amendment Act 1959
B. Only argument (ii) is strong. B. 23rd Amendment Act
C. Both the arguments are strong. C. 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd
Amendment Act 1989
D. Neither of the arguments is strong.
D. All the above
163. In the National Flag, what does saffron
colour represent 168. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are
A. Spirit of Renunciation A. Business Advisory Committee & Com-
mittee of Privileges
B. Spirit of colours
B. Committee on Absence of Members
C. Spirit of Human nature from the sitting of the House & Committee
D. None of the above on Estimates
C. Committee on Government assur-
164. Right to property according to Constitu-
ances and Committee on papers laid on
tion of India is a
the Table
A. Fundamental Rights
D. All the above
B. Directive Principle
169. Who was the first Speaker of free India’s
C. Legal Right
first Legislature (Constituent Assembly)
D. Social Right A. G. V. Mavalankar
165. Which of the following cases cannot be B. K. M. Munshi
filed directly in the Supreme Court? C. Frank Anthony
A. Cases against encroachment on Fun- D. Smt. Sarojini Naidu
damental Rights
170. Who said, Swaraj is my birth right?
B. If one’s property is forcefully occupied
by the other A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
C. Both A and B above. B. Bibin Chandra Pal
D. Disputes between two or more States C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
D. Lala Lajpat Rai
166. Which Constitutional Article defines the
subject Officers and servants and ex- 171. In the National Flag, whom does the
penses of the Supreme Court. wheel represent
A. Article 296 A. Prithivi Raj Chauhan
B. Article 147 B. Raja Man Singh
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10.2 Miscellenous 716
C. Ashoka 2. Children below 5 years of age are
not taken into consideration even if
D. None of the above
they are able to read and write
172. Who was the first Prime Minister of India 3. For the purpose of census, a per-
at the time of Provisional Parliament son is deemed literate if he or she
can read and write with understand-
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru ing in any of the 15 languages men-
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri tioned in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Indira Gandhi
4. The fact that a district has attained
D. Rajiv Gandhi hundred per cent literacy does not
mean that the entire population in
173. Which statement is not correct about the? the district is literate
National Education Day? of India?
A. 1, 3 and 4
A. It is celebrated on 5th September ev-
B. 2, 3 and 4
ery year.
C. 1, 2 and 3
B. It is celebrated on 11th November ev-
ery year. D. 1, 2 and 4
C. It is celebrated in the memory of In- 177. As per Article 262 of Indian Constitution,
dia? s first Union Minister of Education, disputes relating to waters shall be solved
Dr. Abul Kalam Azad. by
D. It is being celebrated since 2008 A. President
174. Which article describes the persons vol- B. Supreme Court
untarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign C. Prime Minister
State not to be an Indian Citizen? D. Parliament
A. Article 5
178. Consider the following statements re-
B. Article 9 garding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
C. Article 10 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence
Motion in the Constitution of India. 2. A
D. Article 8
Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced
175. Who among the following introduced lo- in the Lok Sabha only. Which of the state-
cal self-government in India? ments given above is / are correct?
A. 1 only
A. Lord Mountbatten
B. 2 only
B. Lord Rippon
C. Both 1 and 2
C. Lord Cunning
D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Lord Macaulay
179. A constitution is
176. Which of the following statements re-
garding literacy in India are correct? A. A set of ordinary laws
1. person who can only read but cannot B. A set of financial laws.
write is not defined literate C. A set of official laws
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10.2 Miscellenous 717
D. The basic structure defining the pow- C. 6 weeks from the date of issue of ordi-
ers of the state and the rights and duties nance.
of the citizens.
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D. 3 months from the date of issue of the
180. For the enforcement of Fundamental ordinance.
Rights, the Supreme Court may issue
a/an 185. Judicial Review signifies that the
Supreme Court
A. Notification
A. Can impeach the President
B. Writ
C. Decree B. Can declare a state law as unconstitu-
tional
D. Ordinance
C. Can review cases decided by the High
181. The High Court has the power to issue Courts.
writs under
D. Has final authority over all cases
A. 224
B. 226 186. Which authority in the Parliament has the
right to adjourn the House
C. 225
A. Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of
D. 227
Rajya Sabha
182. The High Courts at Calcutta, Madras and B. President
Bombay, were established under the In-
dian High Courts Act of C. Parliamentary Affairs Minister
A. 1909 D. Prime Minister
B. 1911
187. At a time, President’s rule can be im-
C. 1861 posed on a state for a maximum period
D. 1865 of
A. 1 year
183. Freedom of Expression deals with
A. Art. 17 B. 5 years
B. Art. 32 C. 2 years
C. Art.19 D. 4 years
D. Art. 18
188. Gandhiji wrote which article in the Har-
184. When Parliament is not in session, the ijan of 19th November 1939 to support
President can promulgate an ordinance the formation of Constituent Assembly for
which is to be ratified by the Parliament making the Constitution of India
within A. The need of Constitution
A. 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parlia- B. Formation of Constituent Assembly
ment
C. The only way
B. 6 months from the reassembly of the
Parliament D. The way
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10.2 Miscellenous 718
189. Which Constitutional Article empowers 194. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes
the State Legislature to adopt Hindi or any 40 years for reservation of seats for SC
state language as the official language of and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative
that state Assembly.
A. Article 345 A. 55th Amendment Act 1986
B. Article 346 B. 56th Amendment Act 1987
C. Article 348 C. 52nd Amendment Act 1985
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Article 349 D. 45th Amendment Act 1980
190. The Chief - Minister of a Union Terri-
195. The authority to declare war or peace un-
tory whenever such a set up exists, is ap-
der the Indian Constitution
pointed by
A. the Prime Minister
A. The Lt. Governor
B. the President
B. The majority party in the legislature
C. The President C. the Parliament
D. The Prime Minister D. the Defense Minister
191. In which months and year, the Presi- 196. Indian Republic is not the product of
dent notified that besides the Chief Elec- A. Political Revolution
tion Commisioner the Commission should
have two other members called as Election B. Discussion
Commissioner C. Made by a body of eminent represen-
A. Nov. 1989 tatives of the people
B. Feb. 1989 D. All the above
C. Oct. 1989 197. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights rep-
D. Dec. 1989 resents which subject
192. Which article says that ’the Vice Presi- A. Equality of opportunity in matters of
dent to be ex-officio Chairman of the Coun- public employment
cil of States’ B. Protection in respect of Conviction of
A. Article 63 Offence
B. Article 64 C. Protection of life and personal liberty
C. Article 61 D. None of the above
D. Article 62 198. Original constitution classified Fundamen-
193. which amendment incorporated Right to tal Rights into seven categories but now
Education to the Constitution? there are
A. 86th A. Six
B. 42nd B. Five
C. 44th C. Ten
D. 74th D. Eight
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10.2 Miscellenous 719
199. Constitutionally, who has the power to 204. Which constitutional article defines the
make a law on the subject mentionable in Bar to interference by Courts in disputes
the Union List arising out of certain treaties, agreements,
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Lok Sabha etc.
B. Parliament A. Article 363
C. Rajya Sabha B. Article 370
D. Legislative Council C. Article 371
200. Under which Article Salaries and al- D. Article 372
lowances of the Chairman and Deputy
205. The maximum duration for which the Vice
Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and
President may officiate as the President,
Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are men-
is
tioned
A. 1 year
A. 97
B. 6 months
B. 96
C. 95 C. 4 months
D. 94 D. 9 months
201. After independence, who decided to de- 206. Which Constitutional Article was very
termine the Future Constitution of India much affected in the Supreme Court Judge-
ment of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
Kerala
B. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
A. Article 352
C. Constituent Assembly
B. Article 368
D. None of the above
C. Article 351
202. The President can proclaim a state of
D. Article 342
emergency in case of
A. Failure of Constitutional machinery in 207. Who was the first Deputy Chairman of
a particular state. Rajya Sabha?
B. Threat to financial stability of the coun- A. Violet Alva
try.
B. S.V.Krishnamoorthy Rao
C. External aggression or internal distur-
C. B. D. Khobragade
bances threatening the security of the
country. D. Godey Murahari
D. All of the above 208. The Vice-President shall hold office for a
203. The final interpreter to Indian Constitu- term of ——— years from the date on
tion is which he enters upon his office
A. President A. 6
B. Supreme Court B. 4
C. Parliament C. 3
D. Supreme Courts D. 5
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10.2 Miscellenous 720
209. Quit India movement was in the year, 214. On whose recommendation was the Con-
A. 1945 stituent Assembly formed?
B. 1942 A. Cabinet Mission Plan
C. 1941 B. Govt. of India Act, 1935
D. 1946. C. Mountbatten Plan
210. In which case Supreme Court declared D. Cripp’s Mission
NARAYAN CHANGDER
that the Preamble is the integral part of
the Constitution? 215. A common High Court for two or more
states and Union Territory may be estab-
A. Kesavananda Bhrati case
lished by
B. Nenaka Gandhi case
A. Parliament by Law
C. A K .Gopalan case
B. Chief Justice of India
D. Kerala Education Bill case
C. President
211. Which of the following qualification is not
essential for a person to become the Vice- D. Governer of the state
President?
216. Election of members of Rajya sabha was
A. He must be an Indian. taken from the constitution of which coun-
B. He must be qualified to be a member try
of the Rajya Sabha.
A. Canada
C. He must not be less than 35 years.
B. Ireland
D. He must be a graduate.
C. South Africa
212. The sequence in which the given terms
are mentioned in the preamble to the Con- D. Britain
stitution of India is
217. Indian Constitution ensure ’Justice’ in
A. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Demo- which of the following
cratic, Republics
A. Social
B. Socialist, Secular, Sovereign, Demo-
cratic, Republic B. Economic
C. Secular, Socialist, Sovereign, Demo- C. Political
cratic, Republics
D. All of the above
D. Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Sec-
ular, Republics 218. How many Princely States existed at the
time when the Constituent Assembly was
213. Which Constitutional Article defines Elec-
making the Constitution
tion to Municipalities
A. 600
A. Article 243A
B. Article 243ZA B. 800
C. Article 243ZB C. 900
D. Article 243P D. 950
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10.2 Miscellenous 721
219. Through which Supreme Court Judge- A. Any other court except the same court
ment, it has been pronounced that Chief
Election Commissioner should have two
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. Wherever he intends to practice.
other members called Election Commis-
sioner with Coordinate power C. The same court
A. Durga Shankar vs. Raghuraj A.I.R. D. Lower courts only
1954 S.C. 520 224. Which of the following are the fundamen-
B. Mohinder vs. Election Commission tal duties?
A.I.R. 1978 S.C. 851 a) To respect the National Flag.
C. Inderjeet vs. Election Commission b) To protect and improve the natural
A.I.R. 1984 S.C 1911 environment.
c) For a parent to provide opportuni-
D. Dhanoa vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1991 ties for education to his/her child.
S. C. 1745 d) To protect monuments and places of
national importance.
220. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of
both the Houses of the Parliament, it has Select the correct answer from the codes
to be passed by given: Codes:
A. a simple majority of members present A. (a), (b) and (c)
and voting B. (a), (b) and (d)
B. three-fourths majority of members C. (a), (c) and (d)
present and voting
D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
C. two-thirds majority of the Houses
225. Under which Constitutional Amendment
D. absolute majority of the Houses Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was
amended for the first time
221. Which Constitutional Article defines In-
terpretation’ of Constitutional right of A. 25th Amendment Act
Supreme Court B. 26th Amendment Act
A. Article 163 C. 24th Amendment Act
B. Article 162 D. 27th Amendment Act
C. Article 147 226. In which of the following situations does
D. Article 161 the President act in his own discretion?
A. In returning a proposal to the Council
222. What is the maximum strength of Rajya
of Ministers for reconsideration
Sabha?
B. None of the Above
A. 245
C. In appointing the Prime Minister
B. 260
D. Both of these
C. 250
227. Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha
D. 235
was taken from the constitution of which
223. After retirement, a Judge of a High Court country
can undertake practice in A. South Africa
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10.2 Miscellenous 722
B. Britain 233. The power of the Supreme Court to re-
C. France view any judgement pronounced or order
made by it previously is provided in Arti-
D. Ireland cle?
228. India borrowed the idea of incorporat- A. 126
ing Fundamental Rights in the Constitution
B. 139
from
A. Soviet Union C. 138
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Canada D. 137
C. USA 234. India is a Sovereign Socialist Secular
D. Australia Democratic Republic. In the Indian Consti-
tution, this expression occurs in
229. Under which Article Conduct of Business
of Parliament is mentioned A. Preamble
A. Article 99 B. Union & its Territory
B. Article 93 C. Fundamental Rights
C. Article 76 D. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Article 92
235. Which Constitution is in the written form
230. Who has the Authority to approve Presi- for the first time by an elected body during
dent Rule in the state the Modern period
A. Parliament A. India
B. Lok Sabha B. America
C. State Legislature
C. Britain
D. Council of State
D. France
231. Under Article 324, Election Commission
has vast functions which are as given in 236. India is called a Republic because
what area A. Executive is answerable to legislature
A. Administrative power
B. Marginally Judicative power B. Judiciary is separate from legislature
C. Legislative power C. The Head of the State is an elected
D. All of the above head for a fixed period
232. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are D. None of the above
A. Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc. 237. Abolition of Untouchability deals with
A. Art. 17
B. Committee in the conduct of certain
members during the President Address B. Art. 32
C. Select or Joint Committee on Bills C. Art.14
D. All the above D. Art. 18
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10.2 Miscellenous 723
238. Who said As President, I have no eyes 244. Which article says that ’there shall be a
but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you Vice-President of India’
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad A. Article 63
B. Dr. Radhakrishnan B. Article 62
C. Abraham Lincoln
C. Article 61
D. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Article 64
239. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘con-
stitution of Municipalities’ 245. After the death of Shri G. V. Mavrlankar,
A. Article 243M who became the Speaker of the first Lok
Sabha
B. Article 243I
C. Article 243L A. M. A. Ayyangar
D. Article 243Q B. K.S. Hegde
240. How many Schedules are incorporated in C. N. Sanjiva Reddy
the Constitution of India D. None of the above
A. Eleventh Schedule
246. Which Constitutional Article defines dis-
B. Tenth Schedule
qualification for the members of Pan-
C. Ninth Schedule chayat
D. Twelfth Schedule A. Article 243F
241. The Cabinet Mission Plan envisaged for B. Article 243G
India
C. Article 243I
A. Federation
D. None of the above
B. Confederation
C. Quasi-Federation 247. Which of the following writs is issued
D. Union of State by an appropriate judicial body in order to
free a person who has been illegally de-
242. How many types of Emergency have been tained?
visualised in the Constitution of India?
A. Heabeas Corpus
A. Four
B. Three B. Prohibition
C. One C. Quo- Warranto
D. Two D. Certiorari
243. Which is the most decorative award 248. The Indian Constitution Consists of
given by govt. of India
A. Articles 298
A. Padmasree
B. Padma Bhusion B. Articles 399
C. Bhrath Ratna C. Articles 388
D. Padma Vibushion D. Articles 395
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10.2 Miscellenous 724
249. The Directive Principles of State Policy C. Single Judiciary
seek to establish D. Residue Power to Central Government
A. political democracy
255. Who was the head of the committee,
B. cultural democracy
known as Nehru Committee?
C. social and economic democracy
A. B K Nehru
D. political and cultural democracy
B. Arun Nehru
NARAYAN CHANGDER
250. Which act introduced dyarchy in the C. Motilal Nehru
provinces?
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
A. Indian Councils Act 1909
B. Government of India Act1919 256. Who was the Speaker of the second Lok
Sabha
C. Government of India Act1935
A. K. S. Hegde
D. Indian Independence act 1947.
B. M. A. Ayyangar
251. In the Constitution of India, promotion of C. Salman Khurshid
international peace and security is included
in the D. Rabi Roy
A. Preamble to the Constitution 257. What was the ’privy purse’ in the con-
B. Directive Principles of State Policy text of the history of Modern India?
C. Fundamental Duties A. A purse given privately by one organi-
zation to another
D. Ninth Schedule
B. A purse given by the government of In-
252. In the last session of the Constituent As- dia to dignitaries for service rendered
sembly which song was sung
C. A grant given by the Government of In-
A. Jan Gana Mana dia to the erstwhile Princes of India
B. Vande Matram D. A gift given by an erstwhile Prince of
C. A & B India to the Government of India
D. None of the above 258. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution
is borrowed from the
253. Which of the following is not included in
Right to Freedom? A. Objective Resolution passed by the
Constituent Assembly
A. Equality before law
B. Freedom of speech and expression B. Sacred text of various religions
C. acquire, hold or dispose property C. Indian Philosophy
D. Right to freedom of religion D. None of the above
254. Indian Constitution is called Quasi- 259. Consider the following statements: At-
Federal because it has torney General of India can 1. take part
in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha 2. be
A. Union of states a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
B. Single Citizenship 3. speak in the Lok Sabha 4. vote in the
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10.2 Miscellenous 725
Lok Sabha Which of the statements given C. Speaker
above is/are correct?
D. President
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A. 1 only
B. 2 and 4 265. Which article says about term of office of
Vice President
C. 1, 2 and 3
A. Article 66
D. 1 and 3 only
B. Article 67
260. In India, when does the financial year
commence C. Article 65
A. First April D. Article 69
B. Second April
266. According to Article 164 (1) of the Consti-
C. First March tution of India, in three states there shall
D. Fifteenth March be a minister in charge of tribal affairs
who may in addition be in charge of the
261. In the National Flag, what shall be the welfare of the scheduled castes and back-
Ratio of the width to the length ward classes. Which one of the following
A. 2: 3 states is not covered by the Article? [CDSE
2009]
B. 2: 4
C. 2: 5 A. Jharkhand
D. 2: 6 B. Punjab
C. Madhya Pradesh
262. In the Federation established by the Act
1935, residuary powers were given to D. Orissa
the
A. Federal Legislature 267. Which constitution is the longest written
constitution of any independent country in
B. Provincial Legislature the world
C. Governor General
A. Constitution of USA
D. Provincial Governors
B. Constitution of India
263. Who elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the C. Constitution of Britain
First President of India
D. Constitution of Canada
A. Constituent Assembly
B. Legislative Assembly 268. What are the name of list of subjects enu-
C. Council of State merated in Schedule- VII of Indian Consti-
tution
D. Lok Sabha
A. Union list
264. Who is the Head to transact the business
of the Lok Sabha B. State list
A. Prime Minister C. Concurrent list
B. Members of Lok Sabha D. All the above
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10.2 Miscellenous 726
269. Who said, If the people who are elected 274. Which Constitutional Article deals with
are capable and men of character and in- ‘Representation of the Anglo-Indian Com-
tegrity, they would be able to make the munity’ with House of the People
best even of a defective Constitution. If A. Article 334
they are lacking in these, the Constitution
B. Article 331
cannot help the country
C. Article 332
A. Sardar Hukam Singh
D. Article 333
B. K. M. Munshi
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 275. Bengal was partioned in the year
D. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel A. 1905
B. 1911
270. Which Constitutional Article lays down
qualifications for the Indian citizens for C. 1857
election to Parliament D. 1947
A. Article 81 276. How many members retire from Rajya
B. Article 80 Sabha every second year.
C. Article 83 A. 1/3
D. Article 84 B. 1/5
C. 1/2
271. The Chairman of the Planning Commission
in India is the D. 2/3
A. President 277. The President’s Rule in a state means
B. Prime Minister that the state is ruled by
C. Minister of Planning A. A caretaker government
D. Finance Minister B. The Chief Minister nominated by the
President
272. Bicameralism (a system of government C. The Governor of the State
in which legislative power is vested in
two chambers - upper house and a lower D. The President directly
house) in Indian constitution was taken 278. The Council of Ministers in a State is col-
from the constitution of which country lectively responsible to
A. Britain A. Chief Minister
B. US B. Lok Sabha
C. France C. State Legislative Assembly
D. Australia D. Governor
273. The Preamble states that the Constitu- 279. During the time of P. V. Narsihmha Rao,
tion derives its authority from what was the number of President’s Rule
A. Indian Culture A. 90
B. Government of India B. 100
C. The People of India C. 7
D. Princely States D. 11
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10.2 Miscellenous 727
280. Who presented the Objective Resolution B. 333
in the Constituent Assembly C. 365
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A. Jawaharlal Nehru D. 395
B. Motilal Nehru
286. The Ninth Schedule was added to the Con-
C. Sardar Ballabah Bhai Patel stitution by the
D. None of the above A. 1st Amendment
281. In which amendment the right to property B. 9th Amendment
was deleted from Fundamental Rights? C. 11th Amendment
A. 42nd D. 2nd Amendment
B. 44th
287. At which case, the Supreme Court re-
C. 73rd jected the earlier opinion and held that
D. 48th Preamble is an integral part of the Consti-
tution
282. At which part of constitution declared
A. Berubari Union case (1960)
that India is a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SEC-
ULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC B. Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
A. Fundamental Right C. Both A & B
B. Directive Principles of State Policy D. None of the above
C. Preamble 288. When did the Constituent Assembly
D. Fundamental Duties adopt National Anthem
A. 25th Jan. 1950
283. Which Government pioneered 44th con-
stitutional amendment? B. 26th Jan. 1950
A. Nehru Govt. C. 24th Jan. 1950
B. Morarji Desai Govt. D. 29th Jan. 1950
C. V P.Singh Govt. 289. Which of the following institutions are
D. P V. Rao Govt. empowered to confer or grant degrees un-
der the UGC Act, 1956?
284. Through which offer, the British Gov- 1. A university established by an Act of
ernment authoritatively supported a Con- Parliament.
stituent Assembly for making the Indian 2. A university established by an Act of
Constitution Legislature.
A. August offer 3. A university / institution estab-
B. Viceroy offer lished by a linguistic minority.
4. An institution which is a deemed to
C. Sir Strafford Cripps offer be university.
D. None of the above Select the correct answers from the codes
285. The Constitution has the following num- given below:
ber of articles A. 1 and 2
A. 315 B. 1, 2 and 3
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10.2 Miscellenous 728
C. 1, 2 and 4 295. Which one of the following is the largest
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Committee of the Parliament?
A. The Committee on Public Accounts
290. Montagu-Chelmsford report is associated
B. The Committee on Estimates
with which Govt of India Act
C. The Committee on Public Undertakings
A. Govt. of India Act 1918
B. Govt. of India Act 1920 D. The Committee on Petitions.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Govt. of India Act 1930
296. Under which Constitutional Article repeal
D. Govt. of India Act 1919 of special provision as to disposal of ques-
tions relating to constitutional validity of
291. On the subject of budget, demands for
law is mentioned
grant are arranged in which way
A. Article 144A
A. Prime Minister
B. Article 345
B. Finance Minister
C. Article 248
C. Ministry wise
D. Article 249
D. All the above
297. In which State a separate district has
292. The Right to Constitutional Remedies are been reserved for Scheduled Tribes
A. Fundamental Duties A. Assam
B. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Legal Rights C. Karnataka
D. Fundamental Rights D. Kerala
293. Which of the following Acts gave repre- 298. Consider the following Statements:
sentation to the Indians for the first time [NDA 2008]
in legislation? 1. A Bill pending in the legislature of
A. Indian Councils Act, 1919 three States shall not lapse by the
reason of the Prorogation of the
B. Govt. of India Act, 1935
House or Houses thereof.
C. Indian Councils Act, 1909 2. A bill pending in the legislative coun-
D. Govt of India Act, 1919 cil of a state which has not been
passed by the legislative assembly
294. Under what article of the Constitution of shall not lapse on the dissolution of
India can the President take over the ad- the assembly.
ministration of a state in case its constitu- Which of the statements given above
tional machinery breaks down? is/are correct?
A. Article 352 A. 1 Only
B. Article 343 B. 2 Only
C. Article 356 C. Both 1 and 2
D. Article 83 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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10.2 Miscellenous 729
299. The ideals of ’Liberty, Equality and Fra- 304. In how many parts, the Budget is pre-
ternity’ was taken from the constitution sented in Lok Sabha
of
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. One
A. Soviet Union B. Two
B. Germany C. Three
C. France D. Four
D. Japan
305. Proclamation of emergency by the Pres-
300. Who has said that basic features of the ident of India can be made on the writ-
Indian Constitution do not amount to a ten provision of the Cabinet only. This has
change been added
A. Prime Minister A. After 44th constitutional amendment
B. Parliament B. after 42nd amendment
C. Supreme Court of India C. by the Constituent assembly
D. Government D. the Supreme Court of India in 1975
306. Under the British Rule, who was the First
301. Which article provides protection against
Deputy President of Central Legislative As-
arrest and detention
sembly
A. Art. 22
A. Shri Sachchidananda Sinha
B. Art. 32
B. Shri Abdul Matia Chaudhary
C. Art.19
C. Sir Muhammad Yakub
D. Art. 21A D. Shri R. R. Shamnukhaym Chetty
302. For how many years, months and days, 307. Who appoints the Governor of aState?
did the Constituent Assembly work on the
Constitution of India A. the Prime Minister
A. 2 Years, 11 months and 19 Days B. the President
B. 3 Years, 12 months and 16 Days C. the Parliament
D. the Chief Justice of India
C. 4 Years, 18 months and 6 Days
D. None of the above 308. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution
represent emergency provisions
303. The concept of power of the national leg-
A. Article 348-354
islature to make laws for implementing
treaties, even on matters outside normal B. Article 352-360
Federal jurisdiction was taken from the C. Article 359-361
constitution of
D. Article 368-380
A. Australia
309. How many Committees were set up by
B. Canada
the Constituent Assembly for framing the
C. Japan Constitution?
D. USA A. 13
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10.2 Miscellenous 730
B. 15 B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. 12 C. Fundamental Rights
D. 8 D. Fundamental Duties
310. Who declares the financial emergency 315. Who performs the duties of the office of
A. President the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha when the
Vice-President is acting as the President of
B. Prime Minister
India?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Finance Minister
A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D. None of the above
B. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
311. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is lo- C. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
cated at
D. The post of Chairman remains vacant
A. Dharmshala
B. Shimla 316. Vice-President may be removed from his
office by
C. Solan
A. a resolution of the Council of States
D. Chandigarh (Rajya Sabha) passed by a majority of
312. Under which Government of India Act, all the then members of the Council and
Federation and Provincial Autonomy were agreed to by the House of the People (Lok
introduced in India Sabha)
A. Govt. of India Act 1935 B. Supreme Court
B. Govt. of India Act 1930 C. President
C. Govt. of India Act 1940 D. Union cabinet
D. Govt. of India Act 1936 317. Right to education relates to
313. In which Supreme Court Judgement it has A. Article 19
been pronounced that the Union Govern- B. Article 20
ment cannot dismiss a duly elected State
Government on the sole ground that the C. Article 21
ruling party in the state suffered an over- D. Article 21A
whelming defeat in the election of the Lok
Sabha 318. Article 17deals with
A. S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. A. Abolition of Titiles
1994 S.C. 1916 B. Abolition Untouchability
B. State of Rajasthan vs. Union of India C. Equality of Participation
A.I.R. 1977 S.C. 1361
D. Equality of Expression
C. A & B
D. None of the above 319. Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was
made by the Central Govt. in consultation
314. Which one of the following declares India with which commission
as a Secular State? A. Parliamentary Members Inquiry Com-
A. Preamble of the Constitution mission
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10.2 Miscellenous 731
B. Regional Election Commissioners C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
C. Election Commission D. R. Venkataraman
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D. None of the above
325. The President may for violation of the
320. In the event of dissolution of Lok Sabha, Constitution be removed from the office
who need not resign or get dismissed im- by
mediately A. The Prime Minister
A. Prime Minister B. The Electoral College consisting of
B. Home Minister members of Parliament and the State Leg-
islatures.
C. Union Council of Ministers
C. Impeachment
D. None of the above
D. no- confidence vote
321. Which one of the following is not a Con-
stitutional Body? 326. Under Constitutional Article 243U, what
is the maximum duration of Municipalities
A. Election Commission
A. 4 years
B. Finance Commission
B. 6 years
C. Union Public Service Commission
C. 5 years
D. Planning Commission
D. 3 years
322. Which Article empowers the president to
appoint two Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha? 327. The concept of ’Parliamentary form of
A. under article 330 government’ was taken from the constitu-
tion of
B. under article 331
A. Britain
C. under article 332
B. USA
D. under article 333
C. Soviet Union
323. Which one of the following Councils has D. Canada
been disbanded in 2013?
A. Distance Education Council (DEC) 328. The Constitution of India contains ——
— Schedules
B. National Council for Teacher Education
(NCTE) A. 12
C. National Council of Educational Re- B. 24
search and Training (NCERT) C. 18
D. National Assessment and Accredita- D. 10
tion Council (NAAC)
329. What is the period of Lok Sabha
324. Who among the following did not serve
A. Four years
as the Vice president before becoming
president of India? B. Six years
A. Dr. S Radhakrishnan C. Five years
B. Dr. Zakir Hussain D. Three years
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10.2 Miscellenous 732
330. The concept of Single Citizenship is bor- D. All the above
rowed from the Constitution of
335. In Article 394A which language is the au-
A. Soviet Union
thoritative text of the constitution of In-
B. Germany dia
C. Canada A. Punjabi
D. Britain B. Manipuri
331. In the election of Vice-President ——–
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Hindi
method of voting system is used
D. Urdu
A. Proportional representation method
B. Semi proportional method 336. Where wards Committees are found
C. Majoritarian method A. Gram Sabha
D. Cumulative voting method B. Gram Panchayat
332. Consider the following statements on C. Municipalities
parliamentary committees: [CDSE 2008] D. None of the above
1. Members of Rajya Sabha are not
337. The term of the Governor is
associated with the committees on
Public accounts and Public Undertak- A. 5 years
ings.
B. 6 years
2. Members of the committee on Esti-
mates are drawn from both the Ra- C. 7 years
jya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. D. 10 years
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 338. In the Parliament, what is the meaning
of the Government Bill
A. 1 Only
A. Bill presented by Ruling Party member
B. 2 Only
C. Both 1 and 2
B. Bill approved by the Government
D. Neither 1 nor 2
C. Only the Prime Minister presents the
333. In the National Flag, what does green Bill
colour represent
D. A Bill introduced by any Minister in ei-
A. Animals ther of the Houses of the Parliament
B. Soil
339. The reduced number of the Constituent
C. Human Nature Assembly members after the partition
D. Spiritual Philosophy was
334. The Constitution provides A. 299
A. Powers B. 333
B. Responsibilities C. 365
C. Limitations D. 305
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10.2 Miscellenous 733
340. Article I of the Constitution says that In- C. Britain
dia, ie, Bharath shall be a————–
D. France
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A. union of states
B. Federation 345. Match List I with List II and select the cor-
rect answer using the codes given below:
C. Confederation [CDSE 2009]
D. Union of federal units
Provision of the Source
341. What is the nature of the Indian Consti- Constitution of
tution India
A. Rigid Constitution A) Amendment of 1 Constitution of
the Constitution Germany
B. Flexible Constitution
B) Directive Princi- 2 Constitution of
C. A & B ples Canada
D. None of the above C) Emergency 3 Constitution of
Power of the Presi- South Africa
342. Consider the following statements: dent
[CDSE 2008] D) The Union State 4 Irish Constitution
1. The Chairman and the members of Relationship
the UPSC are appointed by the Pres-
ident.
2. The Chairman and the members of A. A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3
the UPSC are eligible for further em- B. A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
ployment under the Government.
C. A -1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? D. A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2
A. 1 Only 346. Who has the power to accord his assent
B. 2 Only or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by
the parliament
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 A. President
B. Member of the House
343. The concept of terminology for the Pream-
ble was taken from the constitution of C. Minister
A. Soviet Union D. None of the above
B. Britain 347. For Election of Members to Lok Sabha and
C. Canada Legislative Assembly, electoral constituen-
D. Australia cies comprise wholly or partly of which
area
344. The concept of ’Directive principles of A. A Transitional Area
state policy’ was taken from the constitu-
tion of B. Municipal Area
A. Canada C. Legislative Council
B. Ireland D. None of the above
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10.2 Miscellenous 734
348. Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in C. 89
A. the creation and abolition of states D. 90
B. in amending the Constitution 354. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is elected
C. in the removal of the Government by
D. autorising Parliament to legislate on a A. elected members of Rajya Sabha
subject in the State List B. members of Rajya Sabha
NARAYAN CHANGDER
349. Indian National Congress began to work C. the elected members of Rajya Sabha
as a political party since
D. all the members of the Parliament
A. 1946
355. Who shall not give vote in the first in-
B. 1885
stance in either of the Houses of Parlia-
C. 1907 ment
D. 1920 A. Speaker
350. India has the highest number of students B. Chairman
in colleges after C. A & B
A. the U.K. D. None of the above
B. the U.S.A.
356. Under Article 326, what was the Consti-
C. Australia tutional requirment for the Indian citizen
D. Canada not to become eligible as a voter
A. Non Resident
351. What is the actual strength of Rajya
Sabha? B. Unsoundness of Mind
A. 250 C. Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
B. 235 D. All the above
C. 240 357. Under which Constitutional Article, Union
D. 245 Government has the power to give direc-
tion to the State Govt. regarding any of
352. Which of the following is not a writ is- the provisions of the Constitution
sued by a superior court to an inferior
court? A. Article 368
A. Mandamus B. Article 362
B. Certiorari C. Article 365
C. Quo Warranto D. Article 367
D. Prohibition 358. Which of the following statements re-
garding judiciary in India are correct?
353. Under which Constitutional Article, Pres-
ident has the right for Special Address to 1. Supreme Court of India is free from
the Parliament the control and influence of legisla-
ture and executive
A. 87 2. Subordinate courts are at the head
B. 88 of the judicial hierarchy of the state.
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10.2 Miscellenous 735
3. The Chief Justice and other judges of 362. The concept of the Judicial review has
the High Court are appointed by the been borrowed from the Constitution of
Governor in consultation with the
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. U.K.
Chief Justice of India
4. High Court can withdraw a case B. Switzerland
from a subordinate court and can C. U.S.A
deal with the case itself if it is sat-
D. U.S.S.R.
isfied that the case involves a sub-
stantial point of constitutional law 363. Which Prime Minister of India imposed
Choose the correct answer from the codes President Rule for more number of times
given below: A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
A. 1 & 2 B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
B. 1 & 3 C. N. D. Deva Gowda
C. 1 & 4 D. Indira Gandhi
D. 2, 3 & 4
364. Who was the first Indian to be the Presi-
359. Consider the statement which is followed dent of Central Legislative Assembly
by two arguments (I) and (II): Statement: A. M. A. Ayyanger
Should persons with criminal background
be banned from contesting elections? Ar- B. B. R. Bhagat
guments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalize pol- C. Dr. Balarm Jakhar
itics. (II) No, it will encourage the ruling
D. Vithalbhai J. Patel
party to file frivolous cases against their
political opponents. 365. The original copies of the Constitution of
A. Only argument (I) is strong. India are kept in special helium-filled cases
in
B. Only argument (II) is strong.
A. the personal custody of President of
C. Both the arguments are strong.
India
D. Neither of the arguments is strong.
B. the Library of Supreme Court of India
360. Article 15 (4) confers a special provisions C. the Library of the Parliament of India
for the advancement of
D. None of the above
A. Linguistic Minorities
366. During the British rule, which community
B. SCs and STs
got separate representation from which
C. Women and Children Act
D. Mentally retarded people A. Christian Community & Indian Council
Act 1909
361. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are
B. Buddhist Community & Indian Council
A. Committee on Estimates Act 1907
B. Public Accounts Committee C. Muslim Community & Indian Council
C. Public Undertaking Committee Act 1909
D. All the above D. All the above
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10.2 Miscellenous 736
367. Who among the following constitute the B. 245
National Development Council? 1. The
C. 250
Prime Minister 2. The Chairman, Finance
Commission 3. Ministers of the Union Cab- D. 240
inet 4. Chief Ministers of the States Select
the correct answer using the codes given 372. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on
below: A. 21st April
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 24th April
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 21st June
C. 2 and 4 only D. 7th July
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
373. Who /Which of the following is the cus-
368. On whose recommendation, Election Com- todian of the Constitution of India?
missioner or Regional Election Commis-
sioner shall be removed from the office A. The President of India
A. Chief Judicial Magistrate B. The Prime Minister of India
B. President C. The Lok Sabha Secretariat
C. Election Commission D. The Supreme court of India
D. None of the above 374. An Inter -State Council may be estab-
369. Which one of the following statement is lished by
true about election of Vice President A. Prime Minister
A. Both elected and nominated members B. President
of the both Houses of Parliament can vote
C. Parliament
B. Only elected members of the both D. the national Development Council
Houses of Parliament can vote
375. Who determines the salaries and al-
C. All members of the state legislative as- lowances of the ministers in state?
semblies as well of UT Legislative Assem-
blies can vote A. President
D. All of the above are false B. Lok Sabha
C. State Legislature
370. The Indian Constituent Assembly, after
the partition, had the following number D. Rajya Sabha
A. 298 376. For the first time, British Parliament en-
B. 299 acted which laws for the British Govern-
C. 300 ment to govern in India
D. 301 A. Govt. of India Act 1857
B. Govt. of India Act 1858
371. How many elected members are in Rajya
Sabha? C. Govt. of India Act 1891
A. 233 D. Govt. of India Act 1888
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10.2 Miscellenous 737
377. Who was the chairman of the Rajya B. give affiliation to any institute of higher
Sabha at the time of fist Lok Sabha education.
A. N.C. Chatterjee C. open off-campus and off-shore cam-
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan pus anywhere in the country and overseas
respectively without the permission of the
C. A. K. Gopalan UGC.
D. Mahavir Tyagi D. offer distance education programmes
378. Which article was known as seven free- without the approval of the Distance Edu-
doms in our constitution cation Council
A. Art. 17 383. Indian councils act 1909 is also called as
B. Art. 32 A. Minto- morely reforms
C. Art.19 B. Montague- Chemsgord reforms
D. Art. 18 C. Cripps proposal
D. Mount batten plan
379. Who was the Prime Minister at the time
of Second Lok Sabha 384. How many judges of the Supreme Court
A. Lal Bahadur Shastri were in the Bench to describe the ba-
sic structure of the Constitution for the
B. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
first time in the landmark Judgement Ke-
C. Narsimha Rao savananda vs. State of Kerala
D. I. K. Gujral A. Article 13
380. The Council of Ministers is responsible to B. Article 12
A. President C. Article 14
B. Parliament D. Article 15
C. Lok Sabha 385. Which of the following amendments took
D. Rajya Sabha away the right to property from the list of
the fundamental rights?
381. Before which Constitutional Amendment, A. 42nd
20 years were fixed for reservation of
seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled B. 44th
Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature C. 45th
A. 23rd Amendment Act 1969 D. 43rd
B. 8th Amendment Act 1959 386. What was the important landmark judge-
C. 44th Amendment Act 1978 ment regarding amendment of the Consti-
D. 45th Amendment Act 1980 tution (Article 368)
A. Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
382. Deemed Universities declared by UGC un-
der Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not B. Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
permitted to C. Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Min-
A. Offer programmes in higher education erva Mill vs. Union of India
and issue degrees. D. All the above
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10.2 Miscellenous 738
387. Which one of the following statement D. Prime Minister
is/are correct? [CDSE 2009]
391. Did the Constituent Assembly exist at the
1. The committee on status of women time of Indian Independence
in India (NSWI) recommended the
setting up of a National Commission A. No
for Women. B. Only idea emerged
2. The first chairperson of the National C. Yes
Commission for Women was Mrs.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Jayanti Patnaik. D. Uncertainty regarding formation of
3. The main task of the commission is said Assembly
to study and monitor all matters re-
392. If any State Government fails to com-
lating to the constitutional and legal
ply with or to give effect to any direc-
safeguards provided for women.
tion given by the Union Government, who
Select the correct answer using the code can come to conclusion that a situation has
given below: arisen in which the State cannot carry out
A. 1, 2 and 3 governance in accordance with the provi-
sion in the Constituion
B. 2 only
A. President
C. 1 and 2
B. Prime Minister
D. 1 and 3
C. Home Minister
388. The South Asia University is situated in
D. Supreme Court
the city of
A. Colombo 393. Which of the following is described as the
Soul of the Constitution?
B. Dhaka
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. New Delhi
B. Fundamental Rights
D. Kathmandu
C. Fundamental Duties
389. In which of the following categories the
D. Preamble
enrolment of students in higher education
in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of 394. Which House shall not be a subject for
seats reserved? dissolution
A. OBC students A. Lok Sabha
B. SC students B. House of People
C. ST students C. Council of State
D. Women students D. State Legislature
390. Who administers the oath of office to the 395. For the philosophy underlying our Consti-
President of India before he enters upon tution, the historic Objectives Resolution
the office? was moved in the Constituent Assembly on
A. Chief Justice 22nd January, 1947 by
B. Speaker A. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. Vice President B. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
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10.2 Miscellenous 739
C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Union Territory has a High Court. (4) One
D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes
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396. What is the Quorum laid down to consti- given below
tute a meeting of either of the Houses of
A. 1 and 3 only
Parliament
B. 2 and 4 only
A. one-tenth of the total number of mem-
bers of that House C. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. one-fourth of the total number of mem- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
bers of that House
401. What is the term of a member of Rajya
C. one-fifth of the total number of mem-
Sabha?
bers of that House
D. one-half of the total number of mem- A. 2 Years
bers of that House B. 6 Years
397. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament C. 5 Years
and the President, what is the status of D. 4 Years
the name
A. Law 402. The President can proclaim emergency on
the written advice of the
B. Bill approved
A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Bill exercised for administration
D. Government procedure B. Prime Minister
C. Chief Justice of India
398. Who is empowered to admit a new State
to the Union of India? D. Union Cabinet
A. Parliament 403. When was the draft Constitution of India
B. State Legislative prepared by the Drafting Committee sub-
C. Supreme Court mitted to the President of the Constituent
Assembly
D. Governor of State
A. 28th Feb. 1948
399. How can member of Parliament resign
from his seat B. 26th Feb. 1948
A. By speaking in the House C. 21st Feb. 1948
B. By an announcement in the Press D. 25th Feb. 1948
C. By writing under his signature ad- 404. Which article is described in the Constitu-
dressed to the Chairman or the Speaker tional delberations as the soul and heart
of the constitution?
D. All the above A. Art. 26
400. Which of the following statements are B. Art. 32
correct? (1) There are seven Union Ter-
C. Art.19
ritories in India. (2) Two Union Territo-
ries have Legislative Assemblies (3) One D. Art. 21A
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10.2 Miscellenous 740
405. The lowest court of revenue is that of a C. Britain
A. Naib Tehsildar D. Canada
B. Sub-judge
411. The power to increase the number of
C. Third class magistrate judges in the Supreme Court of India is
D. Munsif vested in
406. The concept of Charter of Fundamental A. the President of India
Rights was taken from the constitution of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. the Parliament
A. Soviet Union C. the Chief Justice of India
B. Canada
D. the Law Commission
C. USA
D. Britain 412. What is the nature of India’s political sys-
tem
407. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, who was A. Presidential System
authorised to make a law on the Provincial
subject B. Parliamentary System
A. Governor C. A & B
B. Governor General D. None of the above
C. Federal Legislature
413. In the Govt. of India Act 1835, Federal
D. None of the above List contained which kind of subjects
408. Which of the following powers is exclu- A. External Affairs
sively vested in the Rajya Sabha?
B. Currency and Coinage
A. creation of new all India Services.
C. Naval, Military and Force, Census
B. initiation of impeachment proceedings
against the President. D. All the above
C. legislation on subjects from the Union 414. Who is the ex- officio Chairman of the
List Council of States?
D. rejection of Money Bills. A. Vice- President
409. Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right B. Leader of the opposition
is implied in
C. President
A. Right to Freedom
D. Speaker
B. Right to Life and Personal Liberty
C. Right to Equality 415. Who was the first Speaker of the First
Lok Sabha
D. Right against Exploitation
A. G.V. Mavalankar
410. The concept of ’Equal Protection under
law’ was taken from the constitution of B. C. D. Deshmukh
A. USA C. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
B. Japan D. Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
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10.2 Miscellenous 741
416. India has been described as 421. Equal opportunity in matters of public em-
ployment is guaranteed under
A. Union of States
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A. Article 16
B. Federation of States
B. Article 15
C. Confederation of states
C. Article 17
D. Centralisation of State
D. Article 18
417. Who describes the Indian federation as ’a 422. Article 16 deals with
co-operative federation’?
A. Equality before law
A. Granville Austin
B. Equality of Opportunity
B. Sir Ivor Jennuings C. Equality of Participation
C. k C Where D. Equality of Expression
D. Alexandrowicz
423. Which of the following is/are instance(s)
of violation of Human Rights? [NDA
418. Who is the head of a state in India?
2010]
A. Prime Minister
1. A person was detained by the secu-
B. President rity forces while going for casting
vote in a Parliamentary election.
C. Governor
2. A civilian was killed by the Army
D. British Monarch while undertaking combing opera-
tion.
419. Consider the following statements re-
A. 1 Only
garding the Directive Principles of State
Policy: 1. The Principles spell out the B. 2 Only
socio-economic democracy in the country. C. Both 1 and 2
2. The provisions contained in these Prin-
D. Neither 1 nor 2
ciples are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is / 424. The small causes court can hear cases in-
are correct? volving a maximum amount of
A. 1 only A. Rs 5000
B. 2 only B. Rs 2000
C. Both 1 and 2 C. Rs 1000
D. Neither 1 nor 2 D. Rs 500
425. The Vice President discharges the duties
420. Which Constitutional Article defines,
of the President during his / her illness for
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
a maximum period of
A. Article 148 A. 6 months
B. Article 149 B. 3 months
C. Article 150 C. 1 year
D. Article 151 D. Indefinitely
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10.2 Miscellenous 742
426. Which occupation was represented more A. Sikkim
in the Provisional Parliament
B. Goa
A. Agriculturists
C. Assam
B. Businessmen
D. Nagaland
C. Teachers/Academicians
D. Lawyers 432. Which one of the following statements
reflects the republic character of Indian
NARAYAN CHANGDER
427. Who was the Minister of Home Affairs in democracy?
the first Lok Sabha
A. Written Constitution
A. Jagjivan Ram
B. No State religion
B. C. D. Deshmukh
C. Devolution of power to local Govern-
C. Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant ment institutions
D. Abdul Kalam Azad D. Elected President and directly or indi-
428. The Right to private property was rectly elected Parliament
dropped from the list of fundamental
433. How the election to either House of Par-
rights by the
liament or to either House of the Legisla-
A. 44th Amendment ture of the State shall be called in question
B. 42nd Amendment in the courts whose manner of presenta-
tion may be provided made by law by ap-
C. 61st Amendment
propriate Legislature
D. 75th Amendment
A. PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
429. 44th amendment was passed in the year B. SLP (Special Leave Petition)
A. 1975 C. Action under Article 32
B. 1976 D. Election Petition
C. 1977
434. Which Indian social reformer lived in 18th
D. 1978
century fought against social evils in Hin-
430. In which case did the Supreme Court of duism
India determine that the Parliament has A. Swami Dayanand Saraswathi
power to make amendment in fundamen-
tal rights, but it cannot make any change B. Sree Ramakrishna Parama Hamsa
in the basic structure of the Constitution? C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
A. Golak Nath case D. Swami Vivekananda
B. Keshavanand Bharati case
435. MOOC stands for
C. Both A and B
A. Media Online Open Course
D. Neither A nor B
B. Massachusetts Open Online Course
431. Apart from the Jammu & Kashmir, which
C. Massive Open Online Course
other State has been provided special pro-
tection in certain matters? D. Myrind Open Online Course
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10.2 Miscellenous 743
436. On whose satisfaction period of emer- C. the Finance Minister
gency shall be extended for operation in D. the Defense Minister
case security of India or any part of the
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
Indian territory is threatened 440. Which part of the Constitution refers to
the responsibility of the state towers in-
A. Prime Minister
ternational peace and security?
B. Home Minister
A. fundamental rights
C. President of India
B. directive principles of state policy
D. Vice-President of India C. emergency provisions
437. The Union Council of Ministers is collec- D. preamble of the constitution
tively responsible to
441. Who was the great disciple of Ramakr-
A. Rajya Sabha ishna Parama Hamsan
B. President A. Swami Dayanand
C. House of the People B. Sree Narayana Guru
D. Prime Minister C. Rajaram Mohan Roy
438. Which of the following are the circum- D. Swami Vivekananda
stances under which an elected member 442. What is the period laid down by the Con-
of Parliament may be disqualified on the stitution before the proposal for removal
ground of defection? of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok
1. If he voluntarily gives up his mem- Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in
bership of a political party the Lok Sabha
2. If he votes or abstains from voting A. 15 Days
contrary to any direction issued by
B. 18 Days
his political party without prior per-
mission of the political party C. 16 Days
3. If he speaks against the political D. 14 Days
party
4. If he joins a political party other 443. The University Grants Commission was
than the party on whose ticket he established with which of the following
contested and got elected aims
Select the correct answer from the codes a) Promotion of research and develop-
given below: ment in higher education
b) Identifying and sustaining institu-
A. 1, 2 and 3 tions of potential learning
B. 1, 2 and 4 c) Capacity building of teachers
d) Providing autonomy to each and ev-
C. 1, 3 and 4
ery higher educational institution in
D. 2, 3 and 4 India
439. The budget is presented in the House of A. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
people by B. (a), (b) and (c)
A. the Prime Minister C. (b), (c) and (d)
B. the President D. (a), (b) and (d)
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10.2 Miscellenous 744
444. In the Union List, how many subjects are 449. The Constituent Assembly of India held
incorporated its first meeting on
A. 95 A. 23.01.1947
B. 92 B. 06.12.1946
C. 97 C. 11.12.1946
D. 99 D. 09.12.1946
450. In the Constituent Assembly how many
NARAYAN CHANGDER
445. Which constitutional article defines the
effect of failure to comply with or to give seats were got by the Congress
effect to direction given by the Union A. 204
A. Article 356 B. 205
B. Article 367 C. 203
C. Article 368 D. 208
D. Article 365 451. The First Class Magistrates are compe-
tent to award sentence of imprisonment
446. In the Constituent Assembly which words
upto
were associated with the Parliament
A. 4 years
A. Parliament of the Legislature
B. 2 years
B. Parliament of the Union
C. 1 year
C. Parliament of the Federation
D. 3 years
D. All the above
452. With reference to National Legal Services
447. Which Constitutional Article defines the Authority, consider the following state-
SC ments: 1. Its objective is to provide
A. Article 345 free and competent legal services to the
weaker sections of the society on the basis
B. Article 346 of equal opportunity. 2. It issues guide-
C. Article 341 lines for the State Legal Services Authori-
D. Article 342 ties to implement the legal programs and
schemes throughout the country. Which of
448. What will follow if a Money Bill is sub- the statements given above is / are cor-
stantially amended by the Rajya Sabha? rect?
A. The Lok Sabha may still proceed with A. 1 only
the Bill, accepting or not accepting the rec- B. 2 only
ommendations of the Rajya Sabha
C. Both 1 and 2
B. The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill
D. Neither 1 nor 2
further
C. The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the 453. Who boicotted the Indian Constituent As-
Rajya Sabha for reconsideration sembly
D. The President may call a joint sitting A. Unionist Muslim
for passing the Bill B. Muslim League
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10.2 Miscellenous 745
C. Unionist Scheduled Caste C. 26.01.1948
D. Krishak Poja D. 06.12.1946
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454. How many members represented Union 459. Directive Principles of State Policy incor-
territories in Lok Sabha porated in which part of the Constitution?
A. 20 A. Part III
B. 21 B. Part II
C. 22 C. Part IV
D. 23 D. Part IX
460. In the National Flag, which colour is used
455. Who prepared the first draft Constitution
in the wheel
of India
A. Blue
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. Navy Blue
B. Gandhiji
C. Red Green
C. Advisory Branch of the Constituent As-
sembly D. Green-White
D. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel 461. What shall be the composition of Na-
tional Commission for SC and ST
456. Under the British rule, how many acts
A. Chairperson
came into operation
B. Vice-Chairperson
A. Govt. of India Act 1858, Indian Council
Act 1861 C. Five other members
B. Indian Council Act 1892, Indian Coun- D. All the above
cil Act 1809 462. The authority competent to suspend the
C. Govt. of India Act 1919, Govt. of India operation of Fundamental Rights guaran-
Act 1935, Indian Independence Act 1947 teed under the Constitution of India is
D. All the above A. Supreme Court
B. Prime Minister
457. The concept of residual powers retained
by the central government was taken from C. Parliament
the constitution of D. President
A. Britain 463. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian cit-
B. Australia izen
C. South Africa A. can be suspended by the Supreme
Courts during national emergency
D. Canada
B. can be suspended by the Parliament
458. Objective Resolution was moved on during national emergency
the Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal
C. can be suspended by the President
Nehru on
during national emergency
A. 13.12.1946 D. can be suspended by the President in
B. 22.01.1947 any time
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10.2 Miscellenous 746
464. Which act was accepted as the provi- C. Britain
sional constitution of India, after Indepen-
D. Canada
dence?
A. Indian Councils Act 1909 468. Which of the following groups of sched-
B. Government of India act1919 ule deal with the division of powers be-
tween Union and the States?
C. Government of India Act1935
D. Indian Independence act 1947. A. IVth
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. VI th
465. Who said, I feel, however, good a Con-
stitution may be, it is sure to turn out bad C. VII th
because those who are called to work it,
D. IX th
taken to be a bad lot. However bad a
Constitution may be, it may turn out to
469. Considerthe following statements re-
be good if those who are called to work
garding booth capturing in an election:
it, happens to be a good lot. The working
of a Constitution does not depend wholly 1. It has been defined in theConstitu-
upon the nature of the Constitution tion of India after the 61st Amend-
A. Dr. Ambedkar ment.
2. It includes the seizure of andtaking
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
possession of a polling booth to pre-
C. Dr. Subhash Kashyap vent the orderly conduct ofelections.
D. None of the above 3. It is also committed when anyelec-
tor is threatened and prevented
466. Which option is not correct? from going to the polling station to
A. Most of the educational institutions of casthis vote.
National repute in scientific and technical 4. It has been declared a cognisableof-
sphere fall Under 64th entry of Union list. fence punishable by imprisonment.
Of these statements
B. Education, in general, is the subject of
A. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act 1976. B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C. Central Advisory Board on Education C. 2 and 3 are correct
(CABE) was first established in 1920.
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D. India had implemented the right to
Free and Compulsory Primary Educa- 470. Whose satisfaction is required under Con-
tion in 2002 through 86th Constitutional stitutional Article 347 regarding special
Amendment. provision for creating language spoken by
467. The concept of quasi-federal form of gov- a section of the population of a state
ernment (a federal system with a strong A. Parliament
central government) was taken from the
constitution of B. Judiciary
A. Soviet Union C. President
B. USA D. Prime Minister
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10.2 Miscellenous 747
471. The Supreme Court originally consisted of 477. Right to Freedom can be restricted in the
how many other judges besides the Chief interest of
Justice?
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A. Public order
A. 6
B. Security of the State
B. 12
C. Friendly relations with foreign States
C. 14
D. All the above
D. 7
478. Through which Constitutional Amend-
472. The Indian President is
ment, Municipalities continued to be in
A. None of these force in the state which existed before
B. Titular executive commencement of the Indian constitution
C. Real executive A. Seventy-fourth Amendment Act 1992
D. Real/Titular executive B. Forty-fourth Amendment Act 1978
473. Minimum age required to contest for C. Forty-fifth Amendment Act 1989
Presidentship is D. Forty-seventh Amendment Act 1984
A. 23 years
479. In case President Rule in the state is
B. 21 years not approved by the Parliament, For how
C. 35 years many months the same promulgation shall
last .
D. 30 years
A. Four Months
474. .Who saluted Gandhi as Mahatma?
B. Two Months
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
C. Three Months
B. Raveendra Nath Tagore
D. Six Months
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
D. Lala Lajpat Rai 480. Who was the Speaker of the Constituent
Assembly
475. Who has the authority to call a joint sit-
ting of the two Houses of Parliament A. Sir Abdul Rahim
A. Prime Minister B. G. V. Mavalankar
B. President C. M. A. Ayyangar
C. Member of Lok Sabha D. Sir Ibrahim Rahim Toola
D. Member of Rajya Sabha 481. The concept of President as supreme com-
476. The Constitution of India, was drafted mander of armed forces was taken from
and enacted in which language the constitution of
A. Hindi A. USA
B. English B. Britain
C. Tamil C. Canada
D. Telugu D. Soviet Union
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10.2 Miscellenous 748
482. When was the Council of States named 487. Which one of the following provisions of
as Rajya Sabha in Hindi the Constitution came into force soon after
its adoption on 26.11.1949?
A. 1 September 1957
A. Provisional Parliament
B. 2 October 1960
B. Provisions relating to Citizenship
C. 23 August 1954
C. Provisions relating to Elections
D. 15 August 1950
D. All the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
483. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of
488. The office of Governor General of India
Judiciary through Amendment of the Con-
was created by
stitution
A. Government of India Act, 1935
A. State Legislature
B. Charter Act, 1833
B. Parliament
C. Charter Act, 1813
C. Council of State
D. Governor of India Act, 1858
D. Legislative Council
489. When did the first Lok Sabha function
484. Normally, what kind of session does the
A. 1952-1956
Parliament hold
B. 1953-1957
A. Budget session
C. 1952-1957
B. Monsoon session
D. None of the above
C. Winter session
490. The demand for a Constitution made by
D. All the above
the people of India without outside inter-
485. Which Constitutional Article states that ference was officially asserted by the Na-
Hindi is the official language tional Congress in
A. Article 343 A. 1939
B. 1942
B. Article 346
C. 1935
C. Article 345
D. 1929
D. Article 347
491. During the time of Morarji Desai and Cha-
486. Which of the following are Central Uni- ran Singh, what was the number of times
versities? 1. Pondicherry University 2. President Rule imposed
Vishwa Bharati 3. H.N.B. Garhwal Uni-
versity 4. Kurukshetra University Select A. 16
the correct answer from the code given be- B. 4
low: C. 5
A. 1, 2 and 3 D. 10
B. 1, 3 and 4
492. Education as a subject of legislation fig-
C. 2, 3 and 4 ures in the
D. 1, 2 and 4 A. Union List
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10.2 Miscellenous 749
B. State List 498. Article 78 of the Constitution deals with
C. Concurrent List A. President’s power to get information
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
D. Residuary Powers from the Council of Ministers.
493. Through which Constitutional Amend- B. Prime Minister’s duty regarding keep-
ment, 30 years were fixed for reservation ing the President informed about the gov-
of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and ernment’s decisions and policies.
State Assembly C. Emergency powers of the President
A. 45th Amendment Act 1980 D. President’s power to send advisory
B. 50th Amendment Act 1984 messages to the Parliament.
C. 23rd Amendment Act 1969
499. Which Constitutional Article defines that
D. 51st Amendment Act 1984 only the union has the power to protect
494. Which article says about election of Vice- states against external aggression and in-
President ternal disturbance
A. Article 66 A. Article 359
B. Article 65 B. Article 360
C. Article 67 C. Article 355
D. Article 64 D. Article 361
495. In the Constituent Assembly, which com-
mittee recommended that Indian Constitu- 500. The concept of ’due procedure of law’
tion adopt Parliamentary Form of Execu- was taken from the constitution of
tive A. Britain
A. Drafting Committee B. Canada
B. Constitutional Committee C. Japan
C. Union Constitution Committee
D. USA
D. All the above
501. The aim of value education to inculcate in
496. Right to property is a legal right under
students is
the
A. Article 22 A. the moral values
B. Article 200 A B. the social values
C. Article 24 C. the political values
D. Article 300 A D. the economic values
497. Who decides allotment of symbols to Po- 502. Who appoints the Finance Commission?
litical Parties
A. the Prime Minister
A. Political Party leader
B. Political Party Governing Committees B. the President
C. Election Committee of Political Party C. the Parliament
D. Election Commission D. the Governor
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10.2 Miscellenous 750
503. Which constitutional article provides per- or which group within a particular party,
sonal immunity for President and Gover- constitutes that party for been allotted of
nors for official act Election symbol to that party
A. Article 362 A. Under Article 32
B. Article 363 B. Under Article 229
C. Article 368 C. Special leave petition
D. Article 361 D. Public Interest Litigation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
504. First woman judge to be appointed to 508. In which Supreme Court Judgement. it
Supreme Court was: has been pronounced that ‘Article 356 can-
A. Rani Jethmalani not be invoked unless it can be held that
government of the state cannot be run in
B. Anna George Malhotra accordance with the provision of the Con-
C. M. Fathima Beevi stitution’
D. Leila Seth A. Arun vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1992 Al-
lahabad S.C. 1918
505. Which Constitutional Article defines func-
tions of Comptroller and Auditor General B. S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R.
of India. 1990 Kant 95
A. Article 148-150 C. A & B
B. Article 149-150 D. None of the above
C. Article 148-155 509. The idea of ’single citizenship’ was taken
D. Article 148-151 from the constitution of
A. Canada
506. Which of the following statements are
correct about the National Assessment and B. Britain
Accreditation Council? 1. It is an au- C. USA
tonomous institution. 2. It is tasked with
D. South Africa
the responsibility of assessing and accred-
iting institutions of higher education. 3. It 510. How may Standing Committees are there
is located in Delhi. 4. It has regional of- in Lok Sabha
fices. Select the correct answer from the
A. 14
codes given below: Codes:
B. 15
A. 1 and 3
C. 15
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 18
D. 2, 3 and 4 511. Which Constitutional Article lays down
the reservation of seats for Scheduled
507. Through which procedure, a writ can be Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok
filed in the Supreme Court against deci- Sabha
sion of the Election Commission on recog-
nising or de-recognising a political party A. Article 330
for the purpose of an electoral symbol, B. Article 332
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10.2 Miscellenous 751
C. Article 333 C. Germany
D. Article 334 D. Britain
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512. Which Constitutional Article lays down 517. The concept of Judicial review was taken
distribution of work through the Union from the constitution of
List, State List, and Concurrent List be- A. Soviet Union
tween the Union and State
B. USA
A. 246
C. Canada
B. 247
D. Britain
C. 248
D. 249 518. Under which article of our constitution,
the Governor can reserve the bill for the
513. In which Case did Supreme Court hold consideration of the president?
that Preamble was not a part of the Con-
A. 199
stitution?
B. 200
A. Golaknath case
C. 201
B. Maneka Ghandhi case
D. 202
C. Keshavananda Bharti Case
D. Berubari Case 519. Election to the house of the people and
the Legislative Assemblies of States in In-
514. Which Constitutional Article defines offi- dia are conducted on the basis of
cial language for communication between
A. Single Transferable vote
the state and another state and the Union
B. Proportional Representation
A. Article 349
C. Limited suffrage
B. Article 346
D. Adult Franchise
C. Article 243
D. Article 305 520. Indicate the number of Regional Offices
of National Council of Teacher Education.
515. Who has the power to accept adjourn-
A. 04
ment in the House
B. 05
A. Prime Minister
C. 06
B. Home Minister
D. 08
C. Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chair-
man in the Rajya Sabha 521. In Financial Emergency, salaries and al-
D. All the above lowances of which groups get reduction
516. The concept of ’institution of Speaker and A. Central Government Employees
his role’ was taken from the constitution B. Judges of the Supreme Court and High
of Courts
A. Canada C. A & B
B. France D. None of the above
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10.2 Miscellenous 752
522. When was the First Lok Sabha dissolved 527. In which year were the first general elec-
A. 4th April 1957 tion held in India?
B. 3rd April 1957 A. 1950-51
C. 6th April 1957 B. 1948-49
D. 8th April 1957 C. 1951-52
D. 1947-48
523. During the British period, under which Act
NARAYAN CHANGDER
election was introduced in India 528. What is the meaning of Foreign State as
A. Indian Council Act 1913 given in our Indian Constitution
B. Indian Council Act 1909 A. Federal State
C. Indian Council Act 1906 B. Commonwealth State
D. Indian Council Act 1907 C. Nation
D. Any State other than India
524. Which Amendment Act conferred on the
Supreme Court the jurisdiction to tranfer 529. What is the maximum strength of the
cases from one High Court to another? Legislative Assembly?
A. 43rd A. 400
B. 45th B. 500
C. 42nd C. 425
D. 39th D. 545
525. Which is not an eligibility criterion for ap- 530. The Ordinance refers to
pointment as a Judge of the High Court? A. the executive orders passed by the
A. Must have been an advocate of a High Parliament
Court for not less than 10 years B. the executive order issued by the Pres-
B. Must be, in the opinion of the Presi- ident
dent, a distinguished jurist. C. the decision made by the Supreme
C. Must have attained the age of 55 years Court
D. the ruling given by the Speaker of Lok
D. Must have been a High Court Judge for Sabha
at least 5 years
531. When Speaker and Chairman shall give
526. Which article of the Constitution empow- their votes on the Parliament.
ers the Parliament to enact the provisions A. When Prime Minister asks them to give
for acquisition and termination of Citizen- vote on the Bill
ship?
B. When the House passes such a resolu-
A. Article 6 tion
B. Article 11 C. In the case of a tie between Yes and
C. Article 13 No
D. Article 10 D. All the above
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10.2 Miscellenous 753
532. Who rules a State in the event of decla- C. Both A and B
ration of emergency under article 356? D. None of the above
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A. the Prime minister
537. Who was the founder of Indian National
B. the President Congress?
C. the Parliament A. A O. Hume
D. the Governor B. W C. Banerjee
533. Where does a money bill originate in In- C. Dadabhai Naoroji
dian Parliament? D. Motilal Nehru
A. Lok Sabha 538. According to the Constitution of India, a
B. Rajya Sabha new All India Services can be instituted
with the intiative taken by
C. Both the House
A. more than two third of the states
D. none of the above
B. the interstate council
534. Which of the following is a qualification C. the Rajya Sabha
to acquire Citizenship by Naturalization?
D. President
A. A person is ordinarily resident in India
for 12 months 539. The Vice-President of India can be re-
moved from the office
B. A person is in service of Government
of India from 12 months A. by a resolution in the Council of states
approved by Lok sabha
C. A person is in service of Government
of India from 24 months B. by a resolution of Lok Sabha agreed to
by the council of states
D. Both a) and b)
C. by a resolution adopted by the two
535. The Supreme Court or High Court com- House meeting in a joint session
manding a person or a body to do that D. following the normal process of im-
which is his or its duty to do is peachment
A. mandamus 540. Under the term ”Double Jeoparady” im-
B. Habeas Corpus plied in Clause 2 of Article 20 of the Con-
C. prohibition stitution of India, a person
A. convicted by a court of law cannot
D. certiorari
be punished under departmental proceed-
536. When the Vice president acts as Pres- ings for the same offence
ident or discharges the functions of the B. punished departmentally cannotbe
President under Article 65 procecuted in a court of law for the same-
A. He shall not perform the duties of the offence
office of the Chairman of the Council of C. shallnot be prosecuted and punished
States for the same offence more than once
B. He shall not be entitled to any salary or D. cannot be subjected proceedings in
allowance payable to the Chairman of the civil courts for disobedence of an injunc-
Council of States tion along with criminal proceedings
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10.2 Miscellenous 754
541. Judicial Review function of the Supreme 546. Who acts as the President of India when
Court means the power to neither the President nor the Vice Presi-
dent is available?
A. Review the functioning of judiciary in
the country A. Seniormost Governor of a State
B. Undertake periodic review of the Con- B. Chief Justice of India
stitution. C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Examine the constitutional validity of D. Auditor General of India
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the laws
547. Up to which year Chief Election Commis-
D. Review its own judgement
sioner functioned as one-man Commission
542. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends A. 1988
to vacate his office before the expiry of B. 1989
his term, he sends his resignation to the:
C. 1987
A. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
D. 1986
B. Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
548. Which of the following can be done un-
C. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha der conditions of financial emergency? 1.
D. President of India State Legislative Assemblies can be abol-
ished. 2. Central Government can acquire
543. The Cabinet Mission to India was headed control over the budget and expenditure
by of States. 3. Salaries of the Judges of
A. Stafford Cripps the High Courts and the Supreme Court can
be reduced. 4. Right to Constitutional
B. Hugh Gaitskell Remedies can be suspended. Select the
C. A.V. Alexander correct answer from the codes given be-
low: Codes:
D. Lord Pethick Lawrence
A. 1, 2 and 3
544. Which one of the following States has a B. 2, 3 and 4
separate Constitution?
C. 1 and 2
A. Sikkim
D. 2 and 3
B. Arunachal Pradesh
549. A bill in the imperial Legislative Council
C. Jammu & Kashmir
for compulsory and free primary education
D. Maharashtra was introduced by
A. Mohammad Shafi
545. Which of the following organizations
deals with? capacity building programe? B. Feroz Shah Mehta
on Educational Planning? C. G.K. Gokhale
A. NCERT D. Shankaran Nair
B. UGC
550. Which Article empowers the Parliament
C. NAAC to amend the Indian Constitution?
D. NUEPA A. Article 370
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10.2 Miscellenous 755
B. Article 360 555. Who was the last British Governor Gen-
C. Article 368 eral who addressed the Constituent As-
sembly?
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D. Article 366
A. Lord Attlee
551. The first Open University in India was set
B. Lord Mount Batten
up in the State of
A. Andhra Pradesh C. Lord Bentick
B. Delhi D. None of the above
C. Himachal Pradesh 556. The idea of the ’Rule of law’ was taken
D. Tamil Nadu from the constitution of
552. The first war of Indian Independence was A. USA
in B. Germany
A. 1856 C. Britain
B. 1757 D. Soviet Union
C. 1857
557. The Indian Constitution was enforced on
D. 1758
A. 15th Aug, 1947
553. Which of the following statements are
correct about a Central University? 1. B. 26th Nov, 1949
Central University is established under an C. 26th Jan, 1950
Act of Parliament. 2. The President of In- D. 30th Jan, 1950
dia acts as the visitor of the University. 3.
President has the power to nominate some 558. Under which Article of the Constitution of
members to the Executive Committee or India, qualification for membership of Par-
the Board of Management of the Univer- liament has been mentioned
sity. 4. The President occasionally pre-
A. 88
sides over the meetings of the Executive
Committee or Court. Select the correct an- B. 84
swer from the code given below: Codes: C. 89
A. 1, 2 and 4 D. 91
B. 1, 3 and 4
559. What is not true about a Money Bill?
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 A. It can be introduced in any of the
House.
554. Which writ is issued by a High Court or
B. The Speaker has the final power to de-
the Supreme Court to compel an authority
cide its character.
to perform a function that it was not per-
forming? C. The President or Governor, as the case
may be, has limited powers in case of a
A. Writ of Certiorari
Money Bill.
B. Writ of Habeas Corpus
D. It shall not be introduced or moved ex-
C. Writ of Mandamus cept on the recommendation of the Presi-
D. Writ of Quo Warranto dent or Governor, as the case may be.
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10.2 Miscellenous 756
560. Under Article 365 what are the duties 565. Considerthe following activities indulged
of the Union Government with respect to in by a candidate during an election cam-
State Governments paign:
A. Ensure that every State Minister 1. Giving gifts to voters to inducethem
should act in accordance with the advice to vote
of Chief Minister 2. Appealing for votes on the ground-
B. Ensure that Governor acts under ad- sof caste or religion
vice of the Chief Minister 3. False character assassination
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ofother candidates
C. Ensure that Governance in the State is 4. Propagation and glorification ofsati
in accordance with the Constitution Which of these constitute the cor-
D. All of the above ruptpractices?
A. 1 and 2
561. What is meant by a Court of Record?
B. 2 and 3
A. The court that maintains records of all
lower courts. C. 1, 2 and 3
B. The court that is competent to give di- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
rections and issue writs.
566. The idea of Fundamental Duties has been
C. The court that can punish for its con- taken from
tempt.
A. USSR
D. The court that preserves all its
B. USA
records.
C. Germany
562. A Municipal Council is situated in which
D. France
area
A. Larger Urban area 567. What is contained in the Tenth Schedule
of the Indian Constitution?
B. Urban area
A. Powers, authorities and responsibili-
C. Smaller Urban area
ties of Panchayaths
D. None of the above
B. List of Recognized languages
563. The trio Lal- Bal- Pal, Lal represents C. Allocation of Seats in Council of States
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
B. Bibin Chandra Pal D. Provisions regarding disqualification
on grounds of defection
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
D. Lala Lajpat Rai 568. Which constitutional article defines the
provision in respect of financial emer-
564. Article 18deals with gency
A. Abolition of Titiles A. Article 348
B. Abolition Untouchability B. Article 351
C. Equality of Participation C. Article 360
D. Equality of Expression D. Article 362
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10.2 Miscellenous 757
569. Who said in his judgement that no part of C. Hearing revenue cases of appeal
our Constitution is unamendable D. Hearing criminal cases of appeal
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A. Allahabad High Court
575. During the time of Indira Gandhi, what
B. Calcutta High Court was the number of President’s Rule im-
C. Madras High Court posed
D. Supreme Court of India A. 16
B. 48
570. Article 14- 18 of the Constitution deal
with C. 4
A. Right to equality D. 6
B. Right to Assembly 576. What power the President may exercise
C. Right to Property from time to time in respect of Parliament
D. Right to Expression A. Prorogue either of the House of Parlia-
ment
571. Who was the Deputy Speaker of the Con- B. Dissolve House of the People
stituent Assembly (Legislative)
C. A & B
A. Shivaraj Patil
D. None of the above
B. G. Laxman
C. S.V. Krishnamurthy Rao 577. In the Constituent Assembly, it was said
that Parliament of the Federation shall con-
D. M. A. Ayyangar sist of the President and what else
572. Kashmiri is the Official Language of A. National Legislature
A. Jammu & Kashmir B. National Assembly
B. Himacha Pradesh C. House of People
C. Uttarakhand D. Council of State
D. No State in the Indian Union 578. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328,
which subject shall not be called to be ques-
573. The Indian Federal system is modeled on
tioned in any Court
the Federal system of
A. Delimitation of Constituencies
A. Unites States of America
B. The allotment of seats to such Con-
B. Soviet Union
stituency
C. Australia C. A & B
D. Canada D. None of the above
574. Which of the following is an extensive 579. India is a
original jurisdiction given by the Constitu-
tion of India to the Supreme Court? A. Federal, Presidential, Republic
A. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights B. Republic, Parliamentary, Unitary
B. Advising the Chief Executive in legal C. Unitary, Presidential, Republics
matters D. Federal, Parliamentary, Republics
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10.2 Miscellenous 758
580. Which of the following is enforceable in C. Right to life and liberty
a court of law? D. Right to freedom of religion
A. Fundamental Rights
586. India has been described under Article 1
B. Fundamental Duties
of the Constitution as a
C. Directive Principles
A. Group of States
D. Preamble
B. Federation of States
581. In the Indian Constitution, which type of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cluster of States
the Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat
Raj D. Union of States
A. District Sabha 587. A citizen can directly move the Supreme
B. Gram Sabha Court for any violation of Fundamental
C. Nagar Panchayat Sabha Rights under
D. Zila Sabha A. Article 31
B. Article 226
582. The Concurrent list in the Constitution of
India was adopted from C. Article 34
A. United Kingdom D. Article 32
B. Australia
588. Which High Court has jurisdiction over
C. Canada the state of Arunachal Pradesh?
D. United States of America A. Guwahati
583. Which song was sang in the Constituent B. Chandigarh
Assembly before its Adjournment sine die C. Bombay
A. Jana Gana Man
D. Calcutta
B. Vande Matram
589. The impeachment proceedings against the
C. A & B
Vice- President can be initiated
D. None of the above
A. Only in Lok Sabha
584. Under which Constitutional Article en- B. In neither Hosue of Parliament
largement of the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court is mentioned C. In either House of Parliament
A. Article 145 D. Only in Rajya Sabha
B. Article 148 590. In the absence of the Speaker who per-
C. Article 138 forms the duties of transacting the busi-
D. Article 143 ness in Lok Sabha
A. Deputy Speaker
585. Which of the following Fundamental
rights is guaranteed only to the citizens B. Prime Minister
A. Equality before law C. Members of Parliament
B. Freedom of speech and expression D. Parliamentary Affairs Minister
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10.2 Miscellenous 759
591. Minority rights are given in 596. According to the Constitution (52nd
Amendment) Act 1985 as amended in
A. Article 25 -28
2003, a legislator attracts disqualification
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B. Article 29 and 30 under the 10th Schedule if: [CDSE 2009]
C. Article 31 1. he voluntarily gives up the member-
ship of the party on whose ticket he
D. Article 32
was elected.
592. The Constitution of India was adopted by 2. he votes or abstains from voting
the contrary to any direction issued by
his political party.
A. Parliament of India 3. as a result of split, less than 1/3rd
B. Constituent Assembly of the members formed a new group
or party in the house.
C. Governor General 4. a member who has been elected as
D. British Parliament an independent member joins any
political party.
593. There is a Parliamentary System of Gov- Select the correct answer according to the
ernment in India because the codes given below:
A. Lok Sabha is elected directly by the A. 2 and 3
people
B. 1, 2 and 4
B. Parliament can amend the Constitution
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
D. Council of Ministers is responsible to 597. Within what period, the Parliament has
the Lok Sabha to approve Financial emergency declared
by the President
594. Which article in the Constitution of In- A. Six Months
dia defines effect of proclamation of Emer-
gency B. Two Months
A. Article 356 C. Three Months
D. Four Months
B. Article 353
C. Article 354 598. All doubts and disputes arising out of
or in connection with the election of Vice-
D. Article 257
President shall be inquired into and de-
cided by
595. Under which act, the Bicameral Central
Legislature was established during the A. Lok Sabha
British period for the first time B. Rajya Sabha
A. Govt. of India Act 1938 C. Supreme Court
B. The Indian Council Act 1861 D. President
C. Govt. of India Act 1919
599. In which two Lok Sabhas Women Repre-
D. Govt. of India Act 1935 sentation was equal
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10.2 Miscellenous 760
A. First and Sixth Lok Sabha 605. Which of the following is correct regard-
B. First and Eighth Lok Sabha ing the Governor of a State?
C. First and Fifth Lok Sabha A. He can recommend to the President to
impose President’s Rule in the State.
D. First and Ninth Lok Sabha
B. No money bill can be introduced in the
600. Which Chief Election Commissioner ap- State Legislature without his prior permis-
pealed the Supreme Court that under Ar- sion.
ticle 324, Election Commission as a multi
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. He has the power of issuing ordi-
member Election Commission is not valid
nances when the legislature is not in ses-
A. K. B. Sundram sion.
B. T. Swaminathan D. All of the above
C. H. S. Shakdhar
606. Which Constitutional Article elaborated
D. T. N. Seshan
power of Parliament to make provision
601. The first Lok Adalat was held in the year with respect to election to legislatures
A. 1985 A. Article 329
B. 1986 B. Article 327
C. 1987 C. Article 328
D. 1988 D. Article 330
602. When does the President assent the Bill 607. Under which Article of the Constitution
A. Lok Sabha passes the Bill is the President’s rule promulgated on any
state in India?
B. Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
C. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both A. 326
passed the Bill B. 370
D. None of the above C. 380
603. The details of salaries, allowances, etc. D. 356
of the President, Vice President, Speaker,
608. The Constitution of India provides
Judges of Supreme Court, etc. are pro-
vided in Schedule A. Single citizenship
A. II B. Double citizenship
B. III C. Both A & B
C. IV D. Neither A nor B
D. VII 609. Who was the last President of the In-
604. Who was be Deputy Prime Minister of In- dian Central Legislative Assembly during
dia at the time of Provisional Parliament the British time
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru A. G. V. Mavalankar
B. Sardar Ballabh Bahi Patel B. Abdul Rahim
C. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad C. Sir R. K. Shanumukham Chetty
D. Gulzarilal Nanda D. None of the above
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10.2 Miscellenous 761
610. In which House, Janta Government failed A. prohibition of traffic in human beings
to secure two-third majority for new and forced Labour
clause under Article 368 for introducing
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
B. Abolition of untouchability
referendum for effecting changes in certain
logic features of the Constitution C. protection of the interests of the mi-
norities
A. Legislative Council
D. prohibition of free movement
B. State Legislature
C. State Assembly 615. The order of following words seen
in Preamble is DEMOCRATIC SOCIALIST
D. Rajya Sabha
SOVEREIGN SECULAR REPUBLIC
611. The quorum requirement in the Rajya A. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
Sabha
B. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
A. 25
C. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
B. 50
D. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
C. 100
D. 126 616. Who was the de facto Prime Minister at
the time of evolution of the Indian Con-
612. Constitutionally the registration and stituent Assembly
recognition of political parties is the func- A. Moti Lal Nehru
tion performed by
B. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patal
A. The State Election Commission of re-
spective States C. Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. The Law Ministry of Government of In- D. H. N. Kunzru
dia
617. Consider the following statements 1. The
C. The Election Commission of India Executive Power of the Union of India is
D. Election Department of the State Gov- vested in the Prime Minister. 2. The Prime
ernments Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the
Civil Services Board. Which of the state-
613. The Chief Election Commissioner can be ments given above is / are correct?
removed from his office:
A. 1 only
A. By the Chief Justice of the Supreme
Court B. 2 only
B. By the President C. Both 1 and 2
C. On the basis of a resolution of the Cab- D. Neither 1 nor 2
inet
618. Currently how many members are elected
D. On the basis of proved misbehaviour from Union territories?
by 2/3rd majority of both Houses of Par-
A. 1
liament
B. 2
614. Which of the following are envisaged by
the Right against exploitation in the Con- C. 4
stitution of india? D. 3
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10.2 Miscellenous 762
619. The concept of Concurrent List was taken 1. Salary and allowances for the
from the constitution of Speaker of the Lok Sabha are
A. Ireland charged on the consolidated fund of
India.
B. Australia 2. In the warrant of precedence, the
C. Britain Speaker of the Lok Sabha ranks
higher than all the Union Cabinet
D. Canada
Ministers other than Prime Minister.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
620. The process for removing Vice President Which of the statements given above
from his office may be initiated from is/are correct?
A. Rajya Sabha
A. 1 Only
B. Lok Sabha
B. 2 Only
C. Supreme Court
C. Both 1 and 2
D. President
D. Neither 1 nor 2
621. In which of the following years did Right
to Information Act came in to Force? 625. The Supreme Court has the exclusive ju-
[CDSE 2008] risdiction in regard to
A. 2003 A. constitutional validity of state laws
B. 2004 B. constitutional validity of concurrent
C. 2005 laws
D. 2006 C. constitutional validity of central laws
622. When was the Constitution of India D. none of the above
adopted by the Constituent Assembly
626. Which is the highest court of appeal in In-
A. 25th Nov. 1949 dia?
B. 29th Nov. 1949 A. Supreme Court
C. 26th Nov. 1949
B. President
D. 27th Nov. 1949
C. High Court
623. The Parliament can make any law for D. Privy Council
whole or any part of India for implement-
ing international treaties 627. In which Schedule of the Constitution
A. with the consent of all the States salaries and allowances for the Chairman
and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and
B. with the consent of the majority of
Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok
States
Sabha are specified
C. with the consent of the States con-
cerned A. First
D. without the consent of any State B. Second
C. Third
624. Consider the following Statements:
[NDA 2008] D. Fourth
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10.2 Miscellenous 763
628. In what way our Indian Parliament is not C. 361B
Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the
D. 361C
Constitution
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A. In the Preamble, Constitution of India 633. Who decides disputes regarding the elec-
defines people of India as Sovereign tion of the Vice President?
B. Written Constitution of India A. President
C. Separation of Power and Checks and B. Supreme Court
Blanees between the three constitutional
organ C. Election Commission
D. All the above D. Parliament
629. Vice President may resign from his office 634. Through which Constituional Article, the
anytime by submitting his resignation to subject of Bar to interference by courts in
A. Prime Minister electoral matters have been elaborated
B. Supreme Court Chief Justice A. Article 327
C. Deputy Speaker of Rajya Sabha B. Article 229
D. President C. Article 329
630. Who was the first woman judge of the D. None of the above
Supreme Court of India?
A. Fatima Beevi 635. The term ’We’ in preamble means
B. Sujitha Manohar A. Indian Government
C. Ruma Paul B. Supreme Court
D. None of the above C. Indian Parliament
631. Which Constitutional Institution conducts D. The People of India
elections of Parliament and State Legisla-
tures and to the offices of President and 636. The Constitution of India came into force
Vice-President on:
A. State Election Commission A. 26 January 1950
B. Provisional Election Commission B. 26 November 1949
C. Election Commission C. 15 August 1947
D. None of the above
D. 01 January 1950
632. Under which constitutional articles,
newspapers do not have the right to pub- 637. Where did M.K.Gandhi experiment
lish report of the proceedings of a secret sathyagraha in India first?
session of either of the Houses of Parlia- A. Chambaran
ment or Legislative Assembly & Legisla-
tive Council B. Jallian vala bagh
A. 361 C. Bombay
B. 361A D. Porbandher
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10.2 Miscellenous 764
638. The joint session of the two Houses of B. Article
Parliament is chaired by C. Article 44
A. Vice-President of India D. Article 51
B. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
644. In the Constituent Assembly, which par-
C. Prime Minister ties were members
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha A. Congress, Muslim League, Unionist
Muslim
NARAYAN CHANGDER
639. Under which Chief Election Commissioner,
Election Commission was made a body of B. Unionist Scheduled Caste, Krishak
multimember Election Commission Poja, Scheduled Castes Federation, Sikh
A. T. N. Seshan (Non Congress)
C. Communists, Independents
B. H. K. Sen
D. All the above
C. S. P. Sen Verma
D. M. S. Gill 645. Constitutionally, who notifies the phe-
nomenal area of
640. Which Fundamental Right deleted by
A. Parliament
44th constitutional amendment?
B. Governor
A. Right to equality
C. Chief Minister
B. Right to Assembly
D. State Government
C. Right to Property
D. Right to Expression 646. Which Act provided India to become an
Independent state
641. How many number of sessions were held
A. Indian Independence Act 1949
in the Constituent Assembly
B. Indian Independence Act 1946
A. Twenty sessions
C. Indian Independence Act 1947
B. Twelve sessions
D. None of the above
C. Twenty-five sessions
D. Twenty-eight sessions 647. Fundamental Rights are incorporated in
which part of the Constitution?
642. In the Constituent Assembly how many A. Part III
total number of Amendments were pro-
posed in the Draft Constitution B. Part II
A. Approx. 7935 C. Part IV
B. Approx. 7892 D. Part IX
C. Approx. 7365 648. Who scolded Gandhi as a half-naked
D. Approx. 2473 fakkir?
A. Winston Churchil.
643. Which of the following articles incorpo-
rated with international peace and secu- B. Clement Attlee.
rity? C. Mount Batten
A. Article 25 D. Gopalakrishna Gokhale.
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10.2 Miscellenous 765
649. The three words - liberty, equality and deemed to be a citizen of India by
fraternity- mentioned in our Preamble birth.
have been taken from Which of the statements given above
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A. Russian revolution is/are correct?
B. American Civil War A. I only
C. French Revolution B. II only
D. None of the above C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
650. Most of the Universities in India are
funded by 654. The members of Gram Sabha are
A. the Central Government A. Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected
B. the State Governments Panchas
C. the University Grants Commission B. Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village
level worker
D. Private bodies and Individuals
C. Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected
651. Who decides de-recognition of the Politi- Panchas
cal Party solely on the basis of its perfor-
D. Registered voters of Village Panchayat
mance at the election, e.g., bycotting of
the election 655. The Judges of the District Court are ap-
A. Supreme Court of India pointed by
B. Election Commission A. President of India
C. High Court B. Chief Justice of India
D. District Court C. Prime Minister
D. Governor of the State
652. Under which Constitutional Amendment
Privy Purses were abolished 656. Consider the following statements: A
A. 36th Amendment Act 1975 Constitutional Government is one which 1.
places effective restrictions on individual
B. 26th Amendment Act 1971 liberty in the interest of State Authority 2.
C. 16th Amendment Act 1963 places effective restrictions on the Author-
D. 17th Amendment Act 1964 ity of the State in the interest of individ-
ual liberty Which of the statements given
653. Consider the following statements: above is / are correct?
[CDSE 2009] A. 1 only
I. A person who was born in 26 Jan- B. 2 only.
uary, 1951 in Rangoon, whose fa-
ther was a citizen of India by birth C. Both 1 and 2
at the time of his birth is deemed to D. Neither 1 nor 2
be the citizen of India by Descent.
II. A person who was born on 1st July, 657. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, the
1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is Indian Federation worked through which
citizen of India at the time of his kind of list
birth but the father was not, is A. Federal List
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10.2 Miscellenous 766
B. Provincial List 663. Which was described by Dr. B. R. Ambed-
C. Concurrent List kar as the Heart and Soul of the Constitu-
tion?
D. All the above
A. Preamble
658. Who restored the Judicial Review power B. Directive Principles of State Policy
of Judiciary under Indian Constitution
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
A. Supreme Court of India
D. Right to freedom
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. High Court
C. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate 664. Which Supreme Court Judgement pro-
nounced that Fundamental Rights cannot
D. District Court be abridged
659. Who has the power to present adjourn- A. Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R.
ment motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya 1967 S.C. 1643
Sabha B. Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala
A. Minister A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
B. Deputy Speaker C. Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R.
C. Prime Minister 1975 S.C. 2299
D. Member of the said House D. None of the above
660. Who among the following was a moder- 665. In the election of Vice-President ..... type
ate leader of Indian National Congress? of ballots are used
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak A. Semi Secret Ballot
B. Sarojini Naidu B. Open Ballot
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale C. Secret Ballot
D. Subash Chandra Bose D. None of the above
661. What was the name of India’s First Leg- 666. Under whose advice, the President shall
islature have the power of summoning, proroga-
tion and dissolution
A. Parliament
A. Home Minister
B. Union Parliament
B. Prime Minister
C. Constituent Assembly
C. Council of Ministers
D. National Assembly.
D. Parliamentary Affairs Ministers
662. Under the Indian Constitution, what does
‘Adult Suffrage’ signify 667. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Par-
liament
A. Children
A. Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. Persons
C. Any Indian citizen who is of the age of B. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
18 years and above C. A & B
D. None of the above D. None of the above
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10.2 Miscellenous 767
668. Under Article 331, how many members 673. By which fundamental right other funda-
of the Anglo-Indian Community can be mental rights is protected?
nominated in Lok Sabha by the President
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A. Right to Constitutional Remedies
A. 3 B. Right to live
B. 4 C. Right to freedom
C. 2 D. Right to equality
D. 1
674. Which of the following shall not be con-
669. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok sidered an adequate ground for the issue
Sabha of a proclamation of national emergency?
A. in the matters of creating a new All In- A. war
dia Service B. external aggression
B. in amending the Constitution C. armed rebellion
C. in the removal of the Government D. internal disturbance
D. in making cut motions
675. Who makes law with respect to Elections
670. Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parlia- for State Legislature
ment was taken from the constitution of A. Parliament
which country
B. Judiciary
A. Irelabd
C. Government
B. Australia
D. Election Commission
C. Britain
D. Canada 676. Who is the Protector and Guarantor of
the Fundamental Rights?
671. Who among the following appointed by A. Supreme Court
the Governor can be removed by only the
President of India? B. President
A. Chief Minister of a State C. Parliament
B. A member of the State Public Service D. Prime Minister
Commission
677. Which of the following prefix President
C. Advocate-General Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discon-
D. Vice-Chancellor of a State University tinued while interacting with Indian digni-
taries as well as in official notings? 1. His
672. When was the Second Reading of the Con- Excellency 2. Mahamahim 3. Hon? ble 4.
stitution completed in the Constituent As- Shri/Smt. Select the correct answer from
sembly the codes given below: Codes:
A. 18 Nov. 1949 A. 1 and 3
B. 17 Nov. 1949 B. 2 and 3
C. 15 Nov. 1949 C. 1 and 2
D. 16 Nov. 1949 D. 1, 2 and 3
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10.2 Miscellenous 768
678. The President of India takes oath 3. B. D. Jatti
A. to uphold the sovereignty and integrity 4. G. S. Pathak
of India. Which one of the following is the correct
B. to bear true faith and allegiance to the chronology of their tenures?
Constitution of India. A. 1 - 4 - 3 - 2
C. to uphold the Constitution and Laws of B. 2 - 1 - 3 - 4
the country.
C. 3 - 2 - 1 - 4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. to preserve, protect and defend the
D. 4 - 1 - 3 - 2
Constitution and the law of the country.
679. Who is the legal advisor of the Govern- 683. Consider the following statements:
ment of a State? [CDSE 2008]
A. The Attorney General 1. The Ministries/departments of the
Union Government are created by
B. Advocate General Prime Minister.
C. The Solicitor General 2. The cabinet secretary is the ex - of-
D. The Comptroller-Auditor ficio chairman of the Civil Services
Board.
680. Consider the following statements: 1. Which of the statements given above
The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall is/are correct?
be collectively responsible to the Parlia-
ment. 2. The Union Ministers shall hold A. 1 only
the office during the pleasure of the Presi- B. 2 only
dent of India. 3. The Prime Minister shall
C. both 1 and 2
communicate to the President about the
proposals for Legislation. D. neither 1 nor 2
A. only 1 684. In the Second Reading, what kind of pro-
B. only 2 and 3 cess is adopted to approve the Bill
C. only 1 and 3 A. A general discussion on the Bill
D. 1, 2 and 3 B. Clause by clause consideration of the
Bill
681. Governor issues a notification for which
areas on the subject of constitution of Mu- C. A & B
nicipal area D. None of the above
A. A Transitional Area
685. After declaration of financial emergency
B. A Smaller Urban Area by the President, what is the period of
C. A Larger Urban Area operation without approval by the Parlia-
ment
D. All the above
A. Three Months
682. Consider the following Vice president of
B. Four Months
India: [CDSE 2009]
1. V. V. Giri C. Two Months
2. M. Hidayatullah D. One Month
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10.3 CDS 769
686. Which Constitutional Article defines qual- 687. Which of the following political parties
ifications for the Indian citizen for election was first de-recognized and later on again
to a State Legislature recognized as a National Party by Election
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
Commission of India?
A. Article 173
A. Communist Party of India
B. Article 175
B. Communist Party of India-Marxist
C. Article 177 C. Samajwadi Party
D. Article 178 D. Republican Party of India
10.3 CDS
1. Under which Constitutional Article review C. 1941
of judgement or orders lies with the D. 1946.
Supreme Court
A. Article 139 5. Righty to Property is now a
B. Article 137 A. Legal Right
B. Fundamental Right
C. Article 140
C. Executive Law
D. Article 141
D. Directive Principle
2. Who among the following recommends to
the Parliament for the abolition of a leg- 6. The Preamble was amended by the
islative Council in a state? [CDSE 2009] A. 43rd Amedment 1978
A. The President of India B. 44th Amendment 1978
B. The Governor of the concerned state. C. 42nd Amendment 1976
C. The legislative council of the con- D. 41st Amendment 1976
cerned state.
7. Who had given the idea of a Constitution
D. The Legislative assembly of the Con- for India of all?
cerned State.
A. Mahatma Gandhi
3. The 25th Indian state to achieve statehood B. M. N. Roy
is
C. B. R. Ambedkar
A. Sikkim
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Goa
8. 42nd amendment of Indian Constitution
C. Arunachal Pradesh
(1976) added which of the terms to
D. Mizoram Preamble
4. Elections to the Constitutent Assembly A. Socialist
was held in the year, B. Secular
A. 1945 C. Sovereign
B. 1942 D. Both 1 & 2
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10.3 CDS 770
9. Which of the following dignitaries who 15. The Council of States can keep a money bill
became Vice Presidents after having held for a maximum period of
diplomatic positions? A. 15 days
A. S. Radhakrishnan
B. 14 days
B. G. S. Pathak
C. 13 days
C. K R Narayanan
D. 17 days
D. All the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
16. Which one of the following Vice Presi-
10. Which Constitutional Article lays down dent(s) resigned from his Office to contest
qualification for becoming a voter for the Office of the President?
A. Article 328
A. VV Giri
B. Article 339
B. G. S. Pathak
C. Article 326
C. S. Radhakrishnan
D. Article 295
D. B D Jatti
11. Who appoints the Advocate General?
17. Before which Constitutional Amendment,
A. the Prime Minister
Prince, Chief or other person were recog-
B. the President nised by the President of India as the Ruler
C. the Parliament of the Indian State
D. the Governor A. 26th Amendment Act 1971
12. Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Con- B. 24th Amendment Act 1971
stitution can be suspended C. 16th Amendment Act 1963
A. Proclamation of national emergency D. 17th Amendment Act 1964
B. an Act passed by the Parliament
18. The President can make laws through ordi-
C. an amendment of the Constitution nances
D. judicial decision of the Supreme Court A. Only on subjects contained in the con-
13. The concept of Electoral College was taken current list
from the constitution of B. Under no circumstances
A. Soviet Union C. On certain subjects even when Parlia-
B. Britain ment is in session.
C. USA D. During the recess of the Parliament
D. Germany 19. How many copies of the Constitution were
14. Which of the Act Introduced Dyarchy in the printed after the Constituent Assembly
provinces? framed the same
A. Government of India Act 1909 A. Two
B. Government of India Act 1919 B. One
C. Indian Council Act 1861 C. Three
D. Indian Council Act 1862 D. Four
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10.3 CDS 771
20. In the Parliament, Lower House is called 2. The Prime Ministers duty regard-
as ing keeping the President informed
about the governments decisions,
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A. Legislative Assembly
policies and actions
B. Legislative Council 3. The Presidents power to send advi-
C. Rajya Sabha sory messages to the Parliament
4. The Presidents power to get infor-
D. Lok Sabha (House of People) mation from the Council of Ministers
21. Which Constitutional Article lays down the A. 1 and 4
provision for a National Commission for SC B. 2 and 3
and ST
C. 2 and 4
A. Article 337
D. 2 only
B. Article 334
26. Which of the following statements regard-
C. Article 338
ing the Constituent Assembly are true?
D. Article 339
I) It was not based on adult franchise.
22. At the time of H. D. Deva Gowda, what II) It resulted from direct elections.
was the number of President’s Rule III) It was a multi-party body.
IV) It worked through several commit-
A. 2 tees.
B. 5 Select the correct answer from the codes
C. 13 given below. Codes:
D. 16 A. I and II
B. II and III
23. Which Indian leader participated in all the
three round-table conferences? C. I and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
B. M.K.Gandhi 27. Which Act provided separate representa-
tive system for Muslim community?
C. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
A. Indian councils act 1909
D. Jawaharlal Nehru.
B. Government of India act1919
24. Who among the following was a extremist C. Government of India act1935
leader of Indian National Congress?
D. Indian Independence Act 1947.
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
B. Sarojini Naidu 28. which of the following was the basis on
which the Government of India Act 1919
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale was made?
D. M K Gandhi A. The Council Act of 1909
25. Of the following, with which does Article B. Montague s Declaration 1917
78 of the Constitution deal with? C. The victory of England in World War I
1. Emergency powers of the President D. None of the above
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10.3 CDS 772
29. With reference to Indian History, the Mem- A. Vice President
bers of the Constituent Assembly from the
B. Supreme Court Chief Justice
Provinces were
C. Prime Minister
A. directly elected by the people of those
Provinces D. Lok Sabha Speaker
B. nominated by the Indian National
Congress and the Muslim League 34. Who has the power to declare that citizen
has no right to move any court for the en-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. elected by the Provincial Legislative forcement of the rights conferred by Part
Assemblies 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course
D. selected by the Government for their of emergency
expertise in constitutional matters A. Executive
30. During the time of Jawahar Lal Nehru, how B. President
many Times Presidents Rule was repro-
duced C. Governor
A. Seven D. Prime Minister
B. Two 35. Through which Constitutional Article du-
C. Zero ties and powers of ‘Comptroller and Au-
ditor General’ is detailed
D. Four
A. Article 153
31. At the time of commencement of the In-
dian Community how many years were B. Article 149
laid down for appointment to the post C. Article 199
in the Railways, Customs, Postal & Tele-
graph services for the Anglo-Indian com- D. Article 168
munity
36. Jurisdiction of the High Courts under Ar-
A. 2 years ticle 226 over service matters has been
B. 5 years taken over by which judicial institution
C. 4 years A. District Court
D. 6 years B. Administrative Court
32. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, which C. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
communities were provided separate rep- D. High Court
resentation in the Electorate system
A. Sikh, Europeans 37. Which party said that Indian Constituent
Assembly does not have a fully represen-
B. Indian Christians
tative character
C. Anglo-Indians
A. Congress
D. All the above
B. Muslim League
33. the President wants to tender the resig-
C. Unionist Muslim
nation before expiry of normal term, he /
she has to address the same to —- D. Unionist Scheduled Castes
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10.3 CDS 773
38. The interval between two sessions of par- 44. The President of India can be removed
liament must not exceed from his office by the
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A. 3 months A. Parliament
B. 6 months
B. Chief Justice of India
C. 4 months
C. Prime Minister
D. 100 days
D. Lok Sabha
39. How are the parts of the Budget known
as 45. By which Constitutional amendment, the
A. General Budget appellation Rajpramukh was omitted
B. Railway Budget A. 7th Amendment Act 1956
C. A & B B. 4th Amendment Act 1955
D. None of the above
C. 6th Amendment Act 1956
40. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what
D. 10th Amendment Act 1961
was the age of Indian citizen eligible to
vote in the Election
46. Who supported the views of the Con-
A. 23 stituent Assembly for making the Indian
B. 24 Constitution
C. 21 A. Sardar Patel
D. 22 B. Gandhiji
41. Right to education is a C. Jinnah
A. fundamental right
D. None of the above
B. legal right
C. natural right 47. Who was the last Deputy President of
Central Legislative Assembly during the
D. neither fundamental nor legal right
British Period
42. When was the Objective Resolution
A. Sir Muhammad Yamin Khan
adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
A. 13.12.1946 B. Shri Abdul Matia Chaudhary
B. 22.01.1947 C. Sir Muhammad Yakub
C. 26.01.1948 D. Shri R. R. Shamnukham Chetty
D. 15.08.1945
48. Till 1920, who presided over the Legisla-
43. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the tive Council of India
supervision of the
A. Speaker
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Deputy Speaker
B. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
C. Prime Minister s office C. Governor
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha D. Governor General
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10.3 CDS 774
49. Which of the following presides over the 54. Who was the Speaker of the Sixth Lok
sitting of the House of the people? Sabha
A. Vice-President of India A. N. Sanjiva Reddy
B. Chief Justice of India B. K. S. Hegde
C. A and B
C. Prime Minister
D. None of the above
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
55. The Election commission holds election for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
50. After which Constitutional Amendment, A. The Parliament, State Legislature and
even though decision of the Election Com- the posts of the president and the Vice-
mission is issued from New Delhi, the or- President
der of the commission can be challenged by
B. The parliament, State legislative As-
the aggrieved party in another state in the
semblies and the State Council
High Court of that State under Article 226
C. The Parliament
A. 15th Amendment Act
D. The parliament and the State Legisla-
B. 10th Amendment Act tive Assemblies
C. 11th Amendment Act 56. Under which of the following conditions
D. 12th Amendment Act the security deposit of a candidate contest-
ing for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to
51. In the Indian National Flag, what does him/her? [CDSE 2009]
Ashoka’s wheel represent I. The nomination made by the candi-
A. Wheel of the Truth date is found to be invalid.
II. The candidate has withdrawn
B. Wheel of the Moral his/her nomination even though it
C. Wheel of the Dharm is found valid.
III. The candidate lost the polls but se-
D. Wheel of the Law cured 1/6th of the total number of
valid votes polled in that election.
52. Which Fundamental Rights article is en-
forceable during the period of emergency Select the correct answers using the codes
given below:
A. 20
A. I and II
B. 21 B. I, II and III
C. A & B C. II and III
D. None of the above D. I only
53. How many visitors came to witness the 57. Under which Constitutional Article, Pres-
proceedings of the Constituent Assembly ident has the power to consult Supreme
Court
A. 52, 500
A. Article 145
B. 53, 000 B. Article 146
C. 54, 000 C. Article 143
D. 54, 500 D. Article 144
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10.3 CDS 775
58. Which schedule gives details regarding the C. 2 and 3 only
subjects included in the three lists Central, D. 1, 2 and 3
State and Concurrent Lists?
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63. Members of the Constituent Assembly
A. Schedule VIII
were
B. Schedule VII A. directly elected by the people
C. Schedule V B. nomonated by the Governor General
D. Schedule VI C. elected by the legislature of the vari-
ous provinces
59. Which one of the following acted as the
Provisional President of the Constituent D. nominated by Congress and the Mus-
Assembly? lim Legue
A. Rajendra Prasad 64. The British Secretary of the State gov-
erned India through which Institution
B. B. R. Ambedkar
A. Executive Council
C. Sachidananda Sinha
B. Parliament
D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
C. Governor assisted by an Executive
60. Vice President of India can be removed Council
from Office before expiry of his / her term D. Governor General appointed by an Ex-
by ecutive Council
A. President 65. The Lok Sabha is more powerful than the
B. Supreme Court Rajya Sabha in
C. Two Houses of Parliament A. electoral powers
D. None of the above B. emergency powers
C. amending powers
61. Right to equality before law is guaranteed
under D. financial powers
A. Article 15 66. The concept of independence of the judi-
ciary and separation of powers among the
B. Article 13
three branches of the government was
C. Article 16 taken from the constitution of
D. Article 14 A. USA
B. Soviet Union
62. Consider the following statements: 1. The
Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject C. Japan
or to amend a Money Bill. 2. The Ra- D. Ireland
jya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for
Grants. 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss 67. Which Fundamental Rights Article is not in
the Annual Financial Statement. Which of operation during the emergency
the statements given above is / are cor- A. Article 22
rect? B. Article 19
A. 1 only C. Article 23
B. 1 and 2 only D. Article 24
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10.3 CDS 776
68. Which community gets special provision D. South Africa
for Central Services in Article 336
73. Which of the following State has a sepa-
A. Sikh Community
rate constitution of its own?
B. Muslim Community
A. AndhraPradesh
C. Hindu Community
B. Karnataka
D. Anglo-Indian Community
C. Tamil Nadu
69. MISA means
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Jammu and Kashmir
A. Maintenance of Internal Security Act
B. Maintenance of International Security 74. Which Constitutional Article specifies offi-
Act cial language of the Union
C. Making of Internal Security Act A. Article 343
D. Maintenance of Internal Surety Act B. Article 344
70. Which of the following are the tools of C. Article 345
good governance?
D. Article 346
1. Social Audit
2. Separation of Powers 75. Which of the following writs may be is-
3. Citizen’s Charter sued to enforce a Fundamental Right
4. Right to Information
A. Certiorari
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below: B. Habeas Corpus
A. 1, 3 and 4 C. Mandamus
B. 2, 3 and 4 D. Prohibition
C. 1 and 4
76. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Minis-
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ter, Chief Minister and Council of Ministers
are all members of
71. Under which article of the Indian Constitu-
tion proclamation of emergency has been A. National Development Council
defined B. Regional Council
A. Article 352
C. Planning Commission
B. Article 353
D. Zonal Council
C. Article 354
D. Article 358 77. Under which Constitutional Article, Spe-
cial leave to appeal lies with the Supreme
72. The concept of ’Emergency Provisions’ un- Court
der article 356 was taken from the consti-
tution of A. Article 136
A. Soviet Union B. Article 137
B. USA C. Article 138
C. Germany (Weimar Constitution) D. Article 139
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10.3 CDS 777
78. Which Article mentions disqualification of C. Article 343
members in the Parliament D. Article 358
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A. Article 101 to Article 104
84. During the period of Chandra Shekhar,
B. Article 101 to Articles 105 how many times President’s Rule was im-
C. Article 102 to Article 106 posed
D. Article 106 to Article 110 A. 9
79. The report of Public Account committee is B. 4
presented to C. 3
A. President of India D. 11
B. Chief Justice of India 85. Who among the following was the finance
C. Prime Minister minister of India in the interim government
during 1946 - 47? [CDSE 2008]
D. Lok Sabha
A. RK Shanmukham Chetty
80. Who appoints the members of the State
B. John Mathai
Election Commission?
C. Liaquat Ali Khan
A. the Prime minister
D. Chintaman Rao Deshmukh
B. the President
C. the Parliament 86. The President’s Rule in a State can be con-
tinued for a maximum period of
D. the Governor
A. 2 years
81. Which constitutional article defines the
B. 1 year
various definitions of constitutional sub-
ject C. 6 months
A. Article 366 D. 2 12 years
B. Article 369 87. Which of the following are Financial Com-
C. Article 375 mittees of Parliament in India?
D. Article 378 1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
82. The philosophical society is associated 3. Committee on Public Undertakings
with
A. 1 and 3
A. Swami Dayanand
B. 1 and 3
B. Sree Narayana Guru C. 2 and 3
C. Rajaram Mohan Roy D. 1, 2 and 3
D. Annie Besant
88. Under which Constitutional Article, Civil
83. Which article defines suspession of the pro- and Judicial authorities are to act in aid of
visions of Article 18 during emergency the Supreme Court
A. Article 344 A. Article 245
B. Article 345 B. Article 248
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10.3 CDS 778
C. Article 146 C. 1 and 3 only
D. Article 144 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
89. Who was the First Lok Sabha Speaker 93. What was the reasonfor the rejection of
unanimously elected the Cripps Plan by the Congress?
A. Hukam Singh A. It granted domain status to the Indian
Union
B. Dr. G.S. Dhillon
B. It granted domain status to the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. M.A. Ayyangar provinces
D. B.R. Bhagat C. It indirectly conceded the demand for
90. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and partition
State Legislature shall be conducted D. It was aimed at continuing British rule
A. Adult Suffrage evenafter the war
B. Indirect Election 94. When did the Constituent Assembly
passed a resolution for translation of the
C. Direct Election
Constitution of India into Hindi and other
D. None of the above many languages of India
91. Which of the following statements about A. 17th Sep. 1949
the Indian political system is/are correct? B. 17th Oct. 1949
a) The president is both Head of the C. 17th Nov. 1949
State and Head of the Government. D. 17th Dec. 1949
b) Parliament is Supreme.
c) The Supreme Court is the guardian 95. In India who amended the Constitution
of the Constitution. through the first Amendment Bill 1951
d) The Directive Principles of State Pol- A. Lok Sabha
icy are justiciable.
B. Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer from the codes
C. Provisional Parliament
given below:
D. Parliament
A. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
B. (b), (c) and (d) 96. Who was the father of the Lok Sabha
C. (b) and (c) A. Hukam Singh
D. (c) only B. N. Sanjiva Readdy
C. G. S. Dhillon
92. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj
D. G. V. Mavalankar
system is to ensure which among the fol-
lowing? 1. People’s participation in de- 97. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the
velopment 2. Political accountability 3. concept behind the protection of President
Democratic decentralization 4. Financial and Governors
mobilization Select the correct answer us- A. President & Governors are above the
ing the code given below. law
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. President & Governors make any law
B. 2 and 4 only for the Constitution
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10.3 CDS 779
C. President and Governors are answer- Select the correct answers using codes
able to Prime Minister given below:
A. 1 Only
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D. President and Governors shall not be
answerable to any court to the exercise B. 2 Only
and performance of the powers and du-
C. Both 1 and 2
ties of their office
D. Neither 1 nor 2
98. Through which Constitutional Amendment,
102. The power to decide an election petition
Article 329A relating with the subject of
is vested in the
Election was inserted
A. High Court
A. 25th Amendment Act 1971
B. Election Commission
B. 27th Amendment Act 1971
C. Parliament
C. 28th Amendment Act 1972
D. Supreme Court
D. 39th Amendment Act 1975
103. Who acts as the Chairman of the Election
99. Considerthe following pairs: Constitu- Commission after appointment as Election
tional Subject Amendment Commissioner
1. 52nd Anti-Defection Law A. Prime Minister
2. 56th Statehood for Goa B. Home Minister
3. 59th Emergency in Punjab
C. Chief Appointment Officer
4. 62nd Reservation for Scheduled
Castes and Tribes in services D. Chief Election Commissioner
A. 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched. 104. The Council of States is a
B. 3 and 4 are correctly matched A. house elected every six years
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctlymatched. B. house elected every five years
D. 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched. C. House which is permanent
D. House which can be dissolved
100. Which Constitutional Article relating with
the subject of election was omitted 105. Which Constitutional Article states This
through 44th Amendment Act 1975 Constitution may be called the Constitution
of India
A. 329A
A. Article 397
B. 329B
B. Article 396
C. 329C
C. Article 395
D. 329
D. Article 394
101. Which among the following is/are the 106. Which women presented National Flag in
feature(s) of a Federal State? [NDA the Constituent Assembly
2008]
A. Smt. Sarojini Naidu
1. The powers of the central and
B. Smt. Hansa Mehta
the state (Constituent Unit) govern-
ments are clearly laid down. C. Smt. Indira Gandhi
2. It has an unwritten constitution. D. None of the above
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10.3 CDS 780
107. The concept of distribution of powers be- A. Protection of life & liberty
tween the central government and state B. Equality before Law
governments was taken from the constitu-
tion of C. Freedom of expression and speech
D. Right to constitutional remedies
A. USA
B. Canada 113. In the First Lok Sabha Election, what was
the expenditure incurred
C. Ireland
A. Rs. 10. 45 crore
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. South Africa
B. Rs. 5.90 crore
108. Chief Election Commissioner cannot be re- C. Rs. 7.81 crore
moved except by which process
D. Rs. 13.43 crore
A. Resignation
114. Which Constitutional Amendment lays
B. Presidential Order down 50 years for reservation of seats for
C. Impeachment SC and ST in the House of People and State
D. Judicial Decision Legislative Assembly
A. 62nd Amendment Act 1989
109. Under whose advice, President of India
B. 44th Amendment Act 1928
appoints Regional Election Commissioner
C. 45th Amendment Act 1980
A. Prime Minister
D. None of the above
B. Chief Justice of High Court
C. Governor 115. In the Constituent Assembly, when was
the ad-hoc Committee appointed for the
D. Chief Election Commissioner National Flag
110. Which of the plan provided for the Con- A. 23rd June 1947
stitutional Assembly of India? B. 23rd July 1947
A. Cripps Plan C. 23rd Jan. 1947
B. August Offer D. 23rd Feb. 1947
C. Wavell Plan 116. Which constitutional article defines pro-
D. Cabinet Mission Plan tection of President and Governors
A. Article 362
111. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched: STATE or UT —– Seat B. Article 363
of High Court C. Article 368
A. Uttarakhand – Nainital D. Article 301
B. Daman and Diu – Ahmedabad 117. Which of the following universities has
C. Arunachal Pradesh - Guwahati adopted the meta university concept?
D. Chhattisgarh - Bilaspur A. Assam University
B. Delhi University
112. Which one of the following right con-
ferred by the Constitution is not available C. Hyderabad University
to non-citizens? D. Pondicherry University
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10.3 CDS 781
118. The accountability or responsibility of the C. President
Prime Minister and Cabinet to the Lok D. Prime Minister
Sabha is
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A. intermittent 123. Cripps Mission visited India in
B. indirect A. 1927
C. at the time of election B. 1946
D. direct, continuous, and collective C. 1942
D. 1939
119. Any Court including Supreme Court does
not have constitutional right under Article 124. Which Constitutional Article defines
143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dis- ‘Form of Accounts of the Union and the
pute arising out of any provision of which State.’
agreements that were in operation before
commencement of the Constitution A. Article 151
A. Treaty, Agrrement B. Article 152
B. Covenant, Engagement C. Article 150
C. Sanad D. Article 153
D. All of the above 125. How many seats were obtained by the
Muslim League in the Constituent Assem-
120. A person can lose citizenship through bly
A. Deprivation A. 74
B. Termination B. 75
C. Renunciation
C. 73
D. All the above
D. 76
121. Read the following statements and find
126. Which one is considered as the founda-
the wrong one.
tion of British Empire in India?
A. Advocate General of a State is ap-
A. Battle of Plassey
pointed by President of India upon recom-
mendation of Governor B. Thirty years war
B. Person with non-law background can? C. India- Pak war
t be appointed as Advocate General. D. India China war
C. During pleasure of Governor, Advo-
cate General can hold his office. 127. What is the meaning of the adjournment
motion under Parliamentary procedure
D. Advocate General can take part in the
proceedings of Legislative Assembly. A. Member draws attention regarding im-
portant subject-matter
122. Who is authorized to lay down qualifica- B. Member wants the House to discuss
tions to acquire the Citizenship? his subject-matter
A. Parliament C. Member wants to raise complicated is-
B. Supreme Court sue
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10.3 CDS 782
D. Member wants to draw the attention B. a joint sitting of both House of Parlia-
of the House to way recent matter of ment
urgent public importance having serious C. the Lok Sabha alone
consequences.
D. the Rajya Sabha alone
128. Spell out the condition under Article 361A
132. Which Union Territory has a High Court
by which any person or newspaper can-
of its own?
not be sued for legal proceeding if any
report of proceedings of Parliament and A. Pondicherry
NARAYAN CHANGDER
State Legislature is published B. Delhi
A. The report must be a report of the ‘pro- C. Chandigarh
cedings’ of a House of the Union or a State
D. Lakshadeep
Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant
to a motion or other business before the 133. Which Constitutional Article deals with
House, and must not have been expunged representation of the Anglo-Indian Com-
munity in the Legislative Assembly
B. It must be a report as distinguished A. Article 334
from one article or ‘Comment’. B. Article 335
C. Such report must be substantially true. C. Article 336
Hence, an extract or a garbed or per-
verted report would not be protected. The D. Article 333
reporting must not be actuated by malice 134. Indicate the number of Regional Offices
D. All of the above of University Grants Commission of India.
A. 10
129. After Indian Independence who repre-
sented Provisional Parliament B. 07
A. Lok Sabha C. 08
D. 09
B. Parliament
C. Rajya Sabha 135. ”To uphold and protect the Sovereignty,
Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision
D. Constituent Assembly made in the
130. One-rupee currency note in India bears A. Preamble of the Constitution
the signature of B. Directive Principles of State Policy
A. The President of India C. Fundamental Rights
B. Finance Minister of India D. Fundamental Duties
C. Governor, Reserve Bank of India 136. The second mass movement launched by
D. Finance Secretary of Government of Gandhi in India was
India A. Non-co-perative movement
131. The impeachment of the President of In- B. Civil disobedient movement
dia can be initiated in C. Quit- India movement
A. either house of Parliament D. Khilafat movement.
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10.3 CDS 783
137. Arya Samaj, a social reform movement A. Gram Panchayat at the village level
was founded by and the Panchayat Samiti at the block level
only.
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A. Swami Dayanand
B. Sree Ramakrishna Parama Hamsa B. Panchayat Samiti at the block level and
Zilla Parishad at the district level only.
C. Rajaram Mohan Roy
C. Gram Panchayat at the village level
D. Swami Vivekananda and the Panchayat Samiti at the block level
and the Zilla Parishad at the district level.
138. The office of Vice President was adopted
from the constitution of which country
D. Gram Panchayat at the village level
A. Britain
and the Zilla Parishad at the district level
B. Canada only.
C. United States
143. Which one of the following nationalist
D. Australia leaders has been described as being rad-
ical in politics but conservative on social
139. A Judge of a Supreme court may resign
issues?
his office by writing under his hand ad-
dressed to the A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
A. Chief Justice of India B. Madan Mohan Malaviya
B. Senior most judge of the supreme C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale
court D. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Prime Minister
144. Which section of the society has to be rep-
D. President resented in the Lok Sabha, nominated by
the President?
140. Which of the following organizations
looks after the quality of Technical and A. Scheduled caste
Management education in India? B. Scheduled tribe
A. NCTE C. Anglo Indians
B. MCI D. Christians
C. AICTE
145. How many women members were in the
D. CSIR Constituent Assembly
141. In the National Flag, how many colours A. 12
are there B. 10
A. Four C. 15
B. Three D. 18
C. Two 146. The Vice President is elected by an Elec-
D. Five toral College consisting of members of
142. The Balwant Rai Mehta committee recom- A. Both Houses of Parliament and state
mended which one of the following Pan- legislative
chayati Raj Structures? [CDSE 2008] B. Both Houses of Parliament
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10.3 CDS 784
C. Lok Sabha B. British constitution
D. Rajya Sabha C. US constitution
147. In the election of the President, the value D. Japan constitution
of the vote of the Lok Sabha members 152. The Governor of a State is appointed by
A. Differs according to the geographical the President on the advice of the
size of the respective state. A. Prime Minister
B. None of these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Vice- President
C. Differs according to the number of
C. Chief Minister
votes a member represents.
D. Chief Justice
D. is same
153. Which Independent State merged into In-
148. Electoral college for electing the Vice-
dian Union with the consent of the peo-
President shall consist of
ple?
A. Elected members of both the Houses
A. Jammu & Kashmir
of Parliament
B. Sikkim
B. Nominated members of both the
Houses of Parliament C. Goa
C. All members of the state legislative as- D. Hyderabad
semblies as well of UT Legislative Assem-
154. The Indian State is regarded as federal
blies
because the Indian Constitution provides
D. Both 1 & 2 for
149. Which constitutional article abolished the A. Strong Central Government
Privy Purses B. Sharing of power between Center and
A. Article 374 States
B. Article 392 C. Residue Powers provide to Central
Government
C. Article 363A
D. Head of the State is elected for a fixed
D. Article 364
period
150. Who made a law for conduction of ser-
155. Which Constitutional Article define ‘Mu-
vices and tenure of the office of Election
nicipalities’
Commissioners and Regional Election Com-
missioner A. Article 243P
A. Chief Election Commissioner B. Article 243Q
B. President C. Article 243T
C. Parliament D. Article 343U
D. State Legislature 156. The system of Public Interest Litigation
151. The Directive Principles of state policy is has been introduced in India
taken from A. through constitutional amendment
A. Irish constitution B. by judicial initiatives
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10.3 CDS 785
C. by political parties A. the Lok Sabha must implement the
D. by parliamentary Act amendments.
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B. a joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajy
157. Who among the following created the of- Sabha is called.
fice of the District Collector in India?
C. the Lok Sabha may proceed with or
A. Lord Cornwallis without the amendments.
B. Warren Hastings D. the Lok Sabha has to return the bill to
C. The Royal Commission on Decentrali- Rajaya Sabha within fourteen days for re-
sation consideration.
D. Sir Charles Metcalfe 162. The concept of ’Fundamental Duties’ was
taken from the constitution of
158. The administrative and operational con-
A. USA
trol of the Armed Forces is exercised by
the B. Canada
A. Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs C. Australia
with Prime Minister as the Chairman D. Soviet Union
B. Ministry of Defence
163. Who was the first deputy Prime Minister
C. Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air of India?
Force Staff
A. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
D. President
B. Nehru
159. The High Court of West Bengal (Calcutta) C. B R Ambedkar
has got the additional jurisdiction to hear D. Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
cases from
A. Arunachal Pradesh 164. During Lal Bahadur Shastri time, how
many times President Rule was imposed
B. Mizoram
A. Four
C. Tripura
B. Ten
D. Andaman and Nicobar islands
C. Two
160. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is D. Fifteen
appointed by the President
165. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects
A. In consulation with the Judges of the
have been included
supreme court and the High Court
A. 42
B. Alone
B. 43
C. In consulation with the Governor
C. 45
D. In consulation with the Judges of the
supreme court alone D. 47
161. What happens when Rajya Sabha rec- 166. The Financial emergency is declared by
ommends some amendments to a Money the President on which ground?
Bill? A. war
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10.3 CDS 786
B. threat of war C. Art.19
C. breakdown of constitutional machin- D. Art. 21A
ery
172. The Statutory Status was given to the
D. credit Goodwill is under threat erstwhile Minorities Commission in the
year:
167. After 44th Constitutional Amendment
provisions relating with election in Part A. 1994
XV of the Constitution of India have been B. 1978
NARAYAN CHANGDER
retained in how many Articles C. 1993
A. 324-329A D. 1990
B. 324-329
173. Under which Article of the Constitution of
C. 324-327 India, Constitution of Parliament has been
D. 224-228 defined
A. 80
168. Which one of the following recommended
B. 79
a change in the pattern of Dyarchy intro-
duced under the Act of 1919? C. 82
A. Simon Commission D. 81
B. Sapru Commission 174. is the most fundamental of Fun-
C. Butler Commission dametal Rights
A. Personal Liberty
D. Muddiman Commission
B. Right to equality
169. The ideal of Welfare State’ in the Indian
C. Minority rights
Constitution is enshrined in its
D. Religious rights
A. Preamble
175. Right to Information is
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
A. Fundamental Rights
C. Fundamental Rights
B. Constitutional Rights
D. Seventh Schedule
C. Natural Rights
170. Who among the following was not a D. legal Rights
member of the Constituent Assembly es-
tablished in July 1946? 176. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, provincial
list included which kind of subjects
A. K.M. Munshi
A. Police
B. J.B. Kripalani
B. Provincial Public Service
C. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Education
D. Vallabhbhai Patel
D. All the above
171. Which article guarantees freedom to man-
177. Which of the following powers, the Pres-
age religious affairs?
ident has in relation to Lok Sabha?
A. Art. 26 1. Summoning
B. Art. 32 2. Adjournment- sine die
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10.3 CDS 787
3. Prorogation B. Sir C.H. Seetalbad
4. Dissolution C. Sardar Patel
Select the correct answer from the codes
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D. Sir Mohammad Yakub
given below:
A. 1 and 4 182. The President is bound by the
B. 1, 2 and 3 A. Article 74(1)
C. 1, 3 and 4 B. Article 74(2)
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. Article 74(3)
D. Article 74(4)
178. After which report, President promul-
gates President Rule in the State 183. Who of the following held the Office of
A. Prime Minister the Vice President of India for two full
terms?
B. Union Home Minister
A. K R Narayanan
C. Chief Minister
B. S. Radhakrishnan
D. Governor
C. Shankar Dayal Sharma
179. The total number of central universities D. Krishna Kant
in India in April 2015 was
A. 8 184. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights
deals with which subject
B. 14
A. Protection of certain rights regarding
C. 27 freedom of speech,
D. 43 B. Protection in respect of conviction of
180. Which of the following statement(s) offence
is/are correct about a Judge of the C. Protection against arrest and deten-
Supreme Court of India? 1) A Judge of the tion in certain cases
Supreme Court is appointed by the Pres- D. Protection of life and personal liberty
ident of India. 2) He holds office during
the pleasure of the President. 3) He can 185. The Judges of the Supreme Court can be
be suspended, pending an inquiry. 4) He removed from office by the
can be removed for proven misbehaviors A. President on request of Parliament
or incapacity. Select the correct answer
from the codes given below: Codes: B. Chief Justice of India
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. President
B. 1, 3 and 4 D. Prime Minister
C. 1 and 3 186. In the Constituent Assembly, how many
D. 1 and 4 seats were fixed for House of People
A. 500
181. Who was the first President of Central
Legislative Assembly before India was In- B. 400
dependent C. 300
A. Sir Frederick Whyte D. 250
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10.3 CDS 788
187. In which Supreme Court Judgement, it 192. Which constitutional organ has the power
has been pronounced that Parliament can- to amend Constitution of India
not enlarge its own powers by making it-
A. Judiciary
self new Constitution
B. Executive
A. Sasanka vs. Union of India
B. Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala C. Legislative
C. Minerva Mills vs. Union of India D. Parliament
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
193. Consider the following statements with
188. Which part is described by Dr.Ambedkar respect to The Attorney General of India:
most criticised part of the Constitution? [CDSE 2009]
A. Part III 1. He is appointed by the President.
B. Part II 2. He must have the same qualifica-
tions as required by a judge of High
C. Part IV Court.
D. Part IX 3. In the performance of his duties he
shall have the right of audience in all
189. The first woman president of Indian Na- courts of India.
tional Congress
Which of the statements given above
A. Sonia Gandhi
is/are correct?
B. Sarojini Naidu
A. 1 Only
C. Indira Gandhi
B. 1and 3
D. Annie Besant
C. 2 and 3
190. Under which Chief Justice of India, the
Constitution Bench described the basic D. 1, 2 and 3
structure of the Constitution for the first
time 194. Whose prior permission is required be-
fore the money bill is introduced in the Lok
A. Mr. Justice J. M. Shelat Sabha?
B. Mr. Justice J. S. Verma
A. President of India
C. Mr. Justice C. J. Sikri
B. Chief Justice of India
D. Mr. Justice K. V. Chandrachud
C. Prime Minister
191. Consider the following statements: Iden-
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
tify the statement which implies natural
justice.
195. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Elec-
A. The principle of natural justice is fol- tion Commissioner, who was the other
lowed by the Courts. Commissioner in the Election Commission
B. Justice delayed is justice denied. A. M. S. Gill
C. Natural justice is an inalienable right
B. G. V. Krishnamurthy
of a citizen
C. A & B
D. A reasonable opportunity of being
heard must be given. D. None of the above
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10.3 CDS 789
196. When was the First Draft of the Consti- 201. Which act separated Burma and Aden
tution of India proposed from India?
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
A. Oct. 1945 A. Indian Councils Act 1909
B. Oct. 1947
B. Government of India Act1919
C. Oct. 1946
C. Government of India Act1935
D. Oct. 1948
D. Indian Independence act 1947.
197. In the State List, how many subjects are
included
202. For Election to the lok sabha, a nomina-
A. 65 tion paper can be field by
B. 66
A. Any citizen of India
C. 64
B. Any citizen of India whose name ap-
D. 63
pears in the electoral roll of a Con-
198. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Tra- stituency
ditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
C. Anyone residing in India
Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the
authority to initiate the process for deter- D. A resident of the Constituency from
mining the nature and extent of individual which the election to be contested
or community forest rights or both?
A. State Forest Department 203. The Union Council of Ministers is ap-
pointed by the
B. District Collector/Deputy Commis-
sioner A. President of India according to his dis-
C. Tahsildar /Block Development Officer cretion
/ Mandai Revenue Officer
B. President of India on the advice of the
D. Gram Sabha Prime Minister
199. Under which Article of the Constitution, C. Prime Minister of India
the Council of State (Rajya Sabha) has a
Chairman and Deputy Chairman D. Parliament
A. Article 109
204. Which of the following is / are the func-
B. Article 108 tion/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
C. Article 89 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet
Meetings 2. Secretarial assistance to Cab-
D. Article 91
inet Committees 3. Allocation of financial
200. Which one of the following Schedules of resources to the Ministries Select the cor-
the Constitution of India contains provi- rect answer using the code given below.
sions regarding anti-defection?
A. 1 only
A. Second Schedule
B. 2 and 3 only
B. Fifth Schedule
C. Eighth Schedule C. 1 and 2 only
D. Tenth Schedule D. 1, 2 and 3
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10.3 CDS 790
205. A person who is not a member of Parlia- B. 1 and 3 only.
ment can be appointed as a Minister by the
C. 2, 3 and 4 only.
President for a maximum period of
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. 9 months
B. 3 months 210. The President gives his resignation to
C. 12 months the
D. 6 months A. Chief Justice
NARAYAN CHANGDER
206. The term of the Indian President is B. Parliament
A. 5 years C. Vice President
B. 6 years D. Prime Minister
C. 7 years
211. The Constitutional remedies under the Ar-
D. 10 years ticle 32 can be suspended by the
207. In whom are the powers of Judicial Re- A. Parliament
view vested in India B. President
A. All the courts
C. Supreme Courts
B. Supreme Court and all the High Courts
D. Central cabinet
C. President 212. Prohibiton and certiorari are writs issued
D. Parliament against
A. Individuals
208. National Commission for SC and ST shall
be made by which constitutional institu- B. Courts
tion
C. Government
A. Parliament
D. Legislature
B. Executive
C. Judiciary 213. Who appoints the Chairman of UPSC?
D. State Legislature A. the Prime Minister
209. Which of the following are the discre- B. the President
tionary powers given to the Governor of C. the Parliament
a State? 1. Sending a report to the Pres-
ident of India for imposing the President? D. the Chief Justice of India
s rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Re-
214. Delhi was declared as the capital of India
serving certain bills passed by the State
in the Following year
Legislature for consideration of the Presi-
dent of India 4. Making the rules to con- A. 1909
duct the business of the State Government
B. 1911
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. C. 1913
A. 1 nd 2 only D. 1915
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10.3 CDS 791
215. Under Article 333, how many members more convenient transaction of the busi-
from the Anglo-Indian Community can be ness of the Government of India, and for
nominated by the Governor in the Legisla- the allocation among Ministers of the said
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
tive Assembly business. 2. All executive actions of the
A. 8 Government of India shall be expressed to
be taken in the name of the Prime Minis-
B. 1 ter. Which of the statements given above
C. 4 is / are correct?
D. 3 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
216. Consider the following statements: I. Na-
tional Development Council is an organ of C. Both 1 and 2
the Planning Commission. II. The Economic D. Neither 1 nor 2
and Social Planning is kept in the Concur-
rent List in the Constitution of India. III. 220. Which Constitutional Article mentions
The Constitution of India prescribes that transfer of certain cases for Supreme
Panchayats should be assigned the task of Court
preparation of plans for economic develop- A. Article 139A
ment and social justice. Which of the state-
B. Article 139B
ments given above is/are correct?
C. Article 139C
A. 1 only
D. Article 138
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only 221. Which of the following has ceased to be
a fundamental right in the Indian Constitu-
D. 1, 2 and 3
tion?
217. Under which Constitutional Article, Pres- A. Right to live
ident has the right to address and send B. Right to Constitutional remedies
message to the Parliament
C. Right to Property
A. 84
D. Right to education for the children upto
B. 83 14 years
C. 85
222. In which session of Parliament, Railway
D. 86 and General Budgets are presented
218. Chairman of Constitution Drafting Com- A. Monsoon session
mittee at the time of independence was B. First session
A. Sardar Patel C. Winter session
B. B.R. Ambedkar D. None of the above
C. S. Radhakrishnan
223. How many total members were elected
D. J.L. Nehru in the Constituent Assembly
219. Consider the following statements: 1. A. 296
The President shall make rules for the B. 293
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10.3 CDS 792
C. 291 229. Consider the following statements: 1.
D. 292 The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman
of the Rajya Sabha are not the members
224. Who was the first Chairman of Rajya of that House. 2. While the nominated
Sabha? members of the two Houses of the Parlia-
ment have no voting right in the presiden-
A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
tial election, they have the right to vote in
B. Zakir Husain the election of the Vice President. Which
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. S.V.Krishnamoorthy Rao of the statements given above is/are cor-
rect?
D. None of the above
A. 1 only
225. The Constituent Assembly was created
B. 2 only
by
C. Both 1 and 2
A. Simla Confrence, 1945
D. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Cripps Mission
C. Cabinet Mission Plan 230. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass
through which stages of Reading before it
D. Indian Independence Act
becomes act
226. Which constitutional article emopowers A. First Reading
amendment in the Constitution of India
B. Second Reading
A. Article 368
C. Third Reading
B. Article 356
D. All the above
C. Article 357
D. Article 359 231. The Constitution confers a special author-
ity for the enforcement of Fundamental
227. Who among the following holds office Rights on the
during the pleasure of the President of In- A. Parliament
dia?
B. Supreme Court
A. Chief Election Commissioner
C. President
B. Comptroller and Auditor General of In-
dia D. Election Commission
C. Chairman of the Union Public Service 232. On which date the objective resolution
Commission was moved in the Constituent assembly?
D. Governor of a State A. December 13, 1946.
228. India’s first Defence University is in the B. December 09, 1946
State of C. December 16, 1946
A. Haryana D. December 19, 1946
B. Andhra Pradesh
233. With reference to the presidential elec-
C. Uttar Pradesh tion in India, consider the following state-
D. Punjab ments: [CDSE 2004]
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10.3 CDS 793
1. The nomination paper of a candidate 237. What is the special Constitutional posi-
for the presidential election should tion of Jammu and Kashmir?
be signed by at least 50 electors as
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A. Indian laws are not applicable.
proposers and another 50 as secon-
ders. B. It is above Indian Constitution.
2. The prescribed security deposit in C. It is not of the integral parts of Indian
the presidential election is Rupees Union.
25, 000 D. It has its own Constitution
Which of these statements is are correct? 238. The Right to Information Act, 2005
A. 1 Only makes the provision of
B. 2 Only A. Dissemination of all types of informa-
tion by all Public authorities to any person.
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 B. Establishment of Central, State and
District Level Information Commissions
234. The Chief Minister of a state in India is as an appellate body.
not eligible to vote in the Presidential elec-
C. Transparency and accountability in
tion if
Public authorities.
A. He is a member of the Upper House of D. All of the above
the State Legislature
239. Article 15 (3) confers a special provisions
B. He is a caretaker Chief Minister
to
C. He himself is a candidate A. Women and Children
D. He is yet to prove his majority on the B. SCs and STs
floor of the Lower House of the state Leg-
C. Linguistic Minorities
islature
D. Tribal People
235. As per preamble date of adoption of the
240. British educational policy was introduced
Constitution was
in India by
A. 26 January 1950 A. Robert Clive
B. 26 November 1949 B. Charles Metcalfe
C. 11 December 1946 C. George Cornewalewis
D. None of the above D. Lord Macaulay
236. The power of the Supreme Court of India 241. The Governor of a State nominates the
to decide disputes between two or more Chairman of Legislative Council of that par-
States falls under its ticular State. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct?
A. Advisory Jurisdiction
A. 1 only
B. Appellate Jurisdiction B. 2 only
C. Original Jurisdiction C. Both 1 and 2
D. Writ Jurisdiction D. Neither 1 nor 2
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10.3 CDS 794
242. After how many years, one-third of the 247. Which of the following statements re-
members of the Rajya Sabha retire garding the advisory jurisdiction of the
A. 6 years Supreme Court are correct?
I) It is binding on the Supreme Court
B. 3 years
to give its opinion on any matter re-
C. 5 years ferred to it by the President.
D. 2 years II) The full bench of the Supreme Court
hears any reference made to it under
NARAYAN CHANGDER
243. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen in- its power of advisory jurisdiction.
clude (1) Respect for the Constitution, the III) The opinion given by the Supreme
National Flag and the National Anthem (2) Court on a reference under advisory
To develop the scientific temper. (3) Re- jurisdiction is not binding on the gov-
spect for the Government. (4) To protect ernment.
Wildlife. Choose the correct answer from IV) Not more than one reference at a
the codes given below: Codes: time can be made to the Supreme
A. 1, 2 and 3 Court under its power of advisory
jurisdiction.
B. 1, 2 and 4
Select the answer from the codes given be-
C. 2, 3 and 4 low: Codes:
D. 1, 3, 4 and 2 A. I and II
244. Who had said that the preamble is the B. I and III
keynote to the Costitution C. II and III
A. K M. Munshi D. II and IV
B. Earnest Barker 248. Under the British Rule when Dyarchy
C. D.D.Basu Governing System was introduced for the
first time
D. B R. Ambedker
A. Govt. of India Act 1919
245. Who among the following was the Chair-
B. Govt. of India Act 1929
man of the Drafting Committee of the In-
dian Constitution C. Govt. of India Act 1925
A. Rajendra Prasad D. Govt. of India Act 1935
B. C. Rajagopalachari 249. In the First Lok Sabha, what was the Rep-
C. Tej Bahadur Sapru resentation of Women
D. B.R. Ambedkar A. 27
B. 34
246. After Indian Independence, what was not
C. 22
Provisional Parliament provided
D. 39
A. Directly Elected Body
B. Indirectly Elected Body 250. If in a country there happens to be the
office of monarchy as well as a Parliamen-
C. Sovereign Body tary form of government this monarch will
D. None of the above be called
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10.3 CDS 795
A. Head of the State 255. Representative of Union territories in the
B. Head of the Cabinet Council of State shall be choosen in such a
manner as decided by
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C. Head of the government
A. As prescribed by law in the Assembly
D. Both Head of the government and
B. As prescribed by law by State
State
C. As prescribed by law by the Union
251. Which Article of the Constitution empow- D. As prescribed by law in the Parliament
ers the President to appoint a Commission
to investigate the condition of backward 256. The Federal features of the Indian Gov-
classes in general and suggest ameliora- ernment was taken from
tive measures?
A. Government of India Act, 1919
A. Art 342 B. Indian Independence Act, 1947
B. Art 344 C. Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
C. Art 340 D. Government of India Act, 1935
D. Art 339
257. Who was the first elected chairman of the
252. Consider the statement which is followed Constituent Assembly?
by two arguments (I) and (II): Statement: A. B R.Ambedkar
Should India switch over to a two party
B. B N. Rao
system? Arguments: (I) Yes, it will lead
to stability of Government. (II) No, it will C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
limit the choice of voters. D. Jawaharlal Nehru
A. Only argument (I) is strong.
258. Which one of the following is one of the
B. Only argument (II) is strong. the objects of the Indian National Congress
C. Both the arguments are strong. in 1885?
D. Neither of the arguments is strong. A. Promotion of friendship
B. Eradication of Poverty
253. The Vice President of India discharges the
C. Demand for Swaraj
duties of President in the event of
D. Independence
A. His death
B. His resignation 259. Who has the constitutional power not to
approve ‘President Rule’ in the state un-
C. His absence due to illness der Article 356
D. All the above A. Prime Minister
254. Which Article mentions the conduct of B. Parliament
business of the Houses of Parliament C. Union Council of Ministers
A. 99 D. State Government
B. 100
260. What was the last session of the Con-
C. A & B stituent Assembly
D. None of the above A. Eleventh session
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10.3 CDS 796
B. Twelfth session 265. Where in the Indian Constitution, Eco-
C. Sixteenth session nomic Justice has been provided as one of
the objectives?
D. Seventh session
A. Preamble
261. Fundamental rights guaranteed in the In-
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
dian Constitution can be suspended only
by C. Fundamental Rights
A. a proclamation of an emergency D. Both a) and b)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. an Act passed by the Parliament
266. Which Constitutional Article defines the
C. an amendment of the Constitution duration of the Panchayat
D. the judicial decision of the Supreme A. Article 243N
Court
B. Article 243O
262. Who is popularly known as Lokmanya C. Article 243E
A. Bala Gangadar Tilak
D. Article 243B
B. Bibin Chandra Pal
C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale 267. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which
matter
D. Lala Lajpat Rai
A. Railway Budget
263. Writs can be issued for the enforcement B. Defence Budget
of Fundamental Rights by the
C. Foreign affairs
A. Supreme Court
D. Financial Bill
B. High Courts
C. Parliament 268. The power of Parliament to amend the
D. Both a) & b) Constitution includes power to amend by
way of
264. Which of the following statements are
A. Addition
correct about the Central Information Com-
mission? (1) The Central Information Com- B. Variation
mission is a statutory body. (2) The chief C. Repeal
Information Commissioner and other Infor-
mation Commissioners are appointed by D. All the above
the president of India. (3) The Commission
can impose a penalty upto a maximum of 269. In the final form of the Constitution
Rs 25, 000 (4) It can punish an errant of- adopted by the Constituent Assembly,
ficer. Select the correct answer from the how many Articles and Schedules were
codes given below: Codes: there
A. 1 and 2 only A. 397 Articles and 9 Schedules
B. 1, 2 and 4 B. 395 Articles and 4 Schedules
C. 1, 2 and 3 C. 396 Articles and 7 Schedules
D. 2, 3 and 4 D. 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
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10.3 CDS 797
270. The original copy of the Constitution of C. Mahatma Gandhi
India was
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
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A. Typeset
B. Printed 275. In the warrant of precedence, the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only
C. Handwritten to
D. None of the above A. The President
271. Which Constitutional Article defines the B. The Vice-President
Panchayat Raj
C. The Prime Minister
A. 243O
D. The Cabinet Ministers
B. 243A
C. 243 276. Which act introduced dyarchy in the cen-
tre?
D. 243I
A. Indian Councils Act 1909
272. Indian National Congress was estab-
lished in the year B. Government of India act1919
A. 1885 C. Government of India act1935
B. 1886 D. Indian Independence Act 1947.
C. 1857
277. Who elected the Chairman of the Drafting
D. 1887 Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
273. Who among the following are appointed A. B. R. Ambedkar
by the President of India? B. Jawaharlal Nehru
I) The Chairman, Finance Commission . C. Rajendra Prasad
II) The Deputy Chairman, Planning Com-
mission D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
III) The Chief Minister of a Union Terri-
tory. 278. Constitutionally, how a law can be made
out of the subject in the Concurrent List
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below. Codes: A. Union
A. I only B. State
B. I and II only C. Council of State
C. I and III only D. A & B
D. II and III only
279. Which constitutional organ has wider
274. In 1938, who among the following def- powers when emergency is in operation
initely formulated his demand for a Con- A. Executive
stituent Assembly elected on the basis of
adult franchise? B. Legislative
A. C.R. Das C. Judiciary
B. Subhash Chandra Bose D. A & B
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10.3 CDS 798
280. Who was the Prime Minister of India in B. 15
the first Lok Sabha C. 17
A. Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant D. 18
B. Jawahar Lal Nehru
286. When was the Constituent Assembly es-
C. Abdul Kalam Azad tablished to form the Constitution?
D. C. D. Deshmukh A. 06.12.1946
NARAYAN CHANGDER
281. Can de-recognition of the Political Party B. 13.12.1946
by the Election Commission on the basis of C. 22.01.1947
its performance at the last Election be sub-
jected to scrutiny D. 01.12.1946
A. Judicial Review 287. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are not correct about the Attorney Gen-
B. Judicial Order
eral of India? (1) The President appoints
C. Judicial Scrutiny a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of
D. None of the above a High Court, to be the Attorney General
of India. (2) He has the right of audience
282. The Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir in all the Courts of the country. (3) He
came into force on has the right to take part in the proceed-
A. 15.08.1947 ings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(4) He has a fixed tenure. Select the cor-
B. 26.01.1957
rect answer from the codes given below:
C. 01.11.1956 Codes:
D. 26.01.1950 A. 1 and 4
283. The objective resolution was moved in B. 2, 3 and 4
the Constituent Assembly on C. 3 and 4
A. December 13, 1946 D. 3 only
B. January 26, 1950
288. The first mass movement launched by
C. November 26, 1946 Gandhi in India was
D. November 26, 1950 A. Non-co-perative movement
284. Which Constitutional article defines the B. Civil disobedient movement
provisions in case of failure of constitu- C. Quit- India movement
tional machinary in States D. Khilafat movement.
A. Article 356
289. In which language script, Constitution of
B. Article 358 India was signed by the members of the
C. Article 359 Constitutent Assembly on 21st Jan. 1950
D. Article 369 A. English
285. How many seats were acquired by the B. Hindi
other parties in the Constituent Assembly C. A & B
A. 14 D. None of the above
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10.3 CDS 799
290. How much time did the Constituent As- 294. Which Constitutional Article mentions
sembly take to prepare the Constitution of conformation the Supreme Court of pow-
India? ers to issue certain writs
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A. 2 yera 12 months 5 days A. Article 145
B. 2 year 11 month 18 days B. Article 168
C. 2 year 11 month 15 days C. Article 169
D. 2 year 10 month 18 days D. Article 139
291. The accreditation process by National 295. Under Article 356 Governor shall not be
Assessment and Accreditation Council bound by whose advice
(NAAC) differs from that of National
Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of A. Chief Minister Council of Ministers
A. Disciplines covered by both being the B. President
same, there is duplication of efforts. C. Prime Minister
B. One has institutional grading approach D. None of the above
and the other has programme grading ap-
proach. 296. Before Indian Independence, how was
C. Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the Post of Deputy Speaker in the Central
the institution is free from renewal of Legislative Assembly called
grading, which is not a progressive deci- A. Vice President
sion.
B. Vice Chairman
D. This accreditation amounts to ap-
proval of minimum standards in the qual- C. Deputy President
ity of education in the institution con- D. None of the above
cerned.
297. The idea of a constituent assembly for In-
292. Which article of the Constitution empow-
dia was proposed by
ers the Parliament to legislature on any
matter of the State List? A. Motilal Nehru
A. 115 B. Mahatma Gandhi
B. 183 C. C R Das
C. 221 D. Manabendra Nath Roy
D. 249
298. The maximum number of fake institutions
293. Under Constitutional Article 343D, a / universities as identified by the UGC in
metropolitan area represent how many the year 2014 are in the State / Union
number of population territory of
A. Ten Lakhs or more A. Bihar
B. Fifteen Lakhs or more B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Less than Ten Lakhs C. Tamil Nadu
D. Less than Five Lakhs D. Delhi
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10.3 CDS 800
299. Under which Constitutional subject in op- 304. Under which article of the Indian Constitu-
eration, life of Lok Sabha can be extended tion, Citizenship of a person can be deter-
by one year mined at the commencement of the Consti-
A. Proclamation of Emergency tution?
B. Proclamation of President Rule in the A. Article 5
State B. Article 4
C. Proclamation of Amendment to the C. Article 6
Constitution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Article 9
D. None of the above
300. Who is responsible for protecting and de- 305. When was the title Speaker assumed in
fending the Constitution? India
A. President A. 1947
B. Chief Justice of India B. 1948
C. Prime Minister C. 1949
D. Supreme Court of India D. 1946
301. If the office of the President of India falls 306. The charge of impeachment against the
vacant, within what time should the next President of India for his removal can be
President be elected? preferred by
A. Within 2 months A. Both Houses of Parliament
B. Within 1 year
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of
C. Within 6 months Rajya Sabha
D. Immediately C. Rajya Sabha
302. Under the panchayati Raj system Gram D. Lok Sabha
sabha consist of?
A. Elected executives of a village 307. When was the Indian National Congress
established
B. Persons who is registered in the elec-
toral rolls relating to a village A. 1888
C. Elected executives of a village and of- B. 1885
ficials nominated by him/Her C. 1889
D. The village surpanch ad the persons D. 1890
nominated by him/Her.
308. Under which Schedule of the Constitution
303. The President of India referred the Ayo-
every member of Parliament takes oath or
dhya issue to the Supreme Court of India
affirmation
under which Article?
A. 143 A. First
B. 132 B. Third
C. 138 C. Fifth
D. 136 D. Sixth
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10.3 CDS 801
309. When did Constituent Assembly adopt a A. Bombay High Court
national Flag
B. None of these
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A. 22nd Aug. 1947
C. Calcutta High Court
B. 22nd July 1947
C. 22nd Jan. 1947 D. Allahabad High Court
D. 22nd Oct. 1947
315. Which of the following Statements
310. Who of the following acted as the Consti- is/are correct: Article 26 of the Constitu-
tutional Adviser to the Constituent Assem- tion of India states that subject to public
bly? order, morality and health, any religious
domination or any section there of shall
A. M. N. Roy have the right [CDSE 2008]
B. B. N. Rau
1. to establish and maintain the insti-
C. B. R. Ambedkar tutions for religious and charitable
D. Sachidananda Sinha purposes
2. to manage its own affairs in matters
311. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the of religion
High Court are appointed by the 3. to own and acquire movable and im-
A. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court movable property
B. Chief Minister of the concerned state A. 1 Only
C. Governor of the concerned state B. 2 and 3
D. President
C. 1 and 3
312. The ideal of justice - social, economic and D. 1, 2 and 3
political- mentioned in the preamble has
been taken from
316. For a Election to Lok Sabha, each State
A. French Revolution shall be divided into
B. Russian Revolution A. Constituencies
C. American Civil War
B. Territorial Constituencies
D. None of the above
C. Union Constituencies
313. Which among the following States has
the highest number of seats in the Lok D. State Constituencies
Sabha?
317. The impeachment of the President can be
A. Maharashtra
initiated by
B. Rajasthan
A. Either House of the Parliament
C. Tamil Nadu
B. a joint sitting of both house of the Par-
D. West Bengal
liament
314. Which High Court in India, has held that
C. the Lok Sabha
the pronouncement of Talaq thrice in one
go is illegal? D. the Rajya Sabha
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10.3 CDS 802
318. On which subject, Parliament has the 323. Who among the following is the defacto
power to amend the Constitution and the executive head of the planning Commis-
same also need ratification by the State sion?
Legislature
A. Chairman
A. Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or
B. Deputy Chairman
Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI
or Chapter I of Part XI C. Minister of State of Planning
B. Any of the Lists in the Seventh Sched- D. Member Secretary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ules of the representation of State on Par-
liament 324. The Constituent Assembly elected ......
on 11.12.1946 as its Permanent Chair-
C. The Provisions of Article 368
man
D. All the above
A. Sachidananda Sinha
319. By which procedure the Indian President
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
and American President are elected as laid
down by their country’s constitution C. B. R. Ambedkar
A. Elected through Member of Legisla- D. Rajendra Prasad
ture
325. Whom the Indian Constituent Assembly
B. Elected by the People
represented
C. Elected by State Legislatures
A. Fully representative of the Hindus
D. Elected by an Electoral College
B. Fully representative of the State in In-
320. Who appoints the Chairman of State dia
PSC?
C. Fully representative of the Provinces
A. the Prime minister in India
B. the President D. Fully representative of the States and
C. the Parliament Provinces in India
D. the Governor
326. The original copy of the Constitution of In-
321. Under the British Rule in India, Governor dia was handwritten and calligraphed in
General was responsible to A. Sanskrit
A. Secretary of India
B. English
B. Secretary of Britain
C. Hindi
C. Secretary of State
D. Both English and Hindi
D. None of the above
327. Public Order as an item in the Constitu-
322. Rajya Sabha has exclusive power
tion figures in
A. in the matter of creating new All India
Services A. the Union List
B. in amending the Constitution B. the State List
C. in the removel of the Government C. the Concurrent List
D. in making cut motions D. the Residuary Powers
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10.3 CDS 803
328. Who of the following became President 330. What are the Union territories having
of India without serving as Vice Presi- representation in Rajya Sabha
dent?
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A. Delhi and Lakshadweep
A. Zakir Husain
B. Puducherry and Lakshadweep
B. V V Giri
C. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy C. Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
D. K R Narayanan
D. Delhi and Puducherry
329. The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged
that after the Second World War, 331. The first country who adopted Preamble
A. India should be granted complete inde- for its written constitution
pendence A. USA
B. India should be partitioned into two be-
fore granting independence B. India
C. India should be made a republic C. Britain
D. India should be given dominion status D. Canada
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XI
XI
NARAYAN CHANGDER
11 One liner . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 805
11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution . 805
11.2 Fundamental rights . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 815
11.3 Directive principles of state policy . . . . . . . . . . 821
11.4 Fundamental duties . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 824
11.5 Union / central government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 826
11.6 State government . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 848
11.7 Constitutional provisions for SC’s and St’s, women,
children and OBC’s . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 853
11.8 Emergency provisions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 854
11.9 Electoral process . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 856
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11. One liner
11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution
1. The name of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar is as- supreme in India? ⇒Constitution
sociated with which of the following? 11. Who was the first Muslim Invader of In-
⇒Chairman-Drafting Committee dia? ⇒Mohammed Bin Kasim
2. When did the British Crown assume 12. Kashmiri is the Official Language of
sovereignty over India from East India ⇒No State in the Indian Union
Company?⇒1858 13. Who coined the term ‘Non-Alignment’?
3. The Indian Constitution is recognized as ⇒Krishna Menon
⇒Federal in form and Unitary in spirit 14. Which proposal was referred as ‘Post
4. Who has given the following statement: Dated Cheque’? ⇒The Cripps Proposal
“Democracy means a Government of the 15. The East India Company was estab-
people, by the people and for the peo- lished in the year ⇒1600
ple”? ⇒Abraham Lincoln 16. Who among the following repealed the
5. Every Amendment of Indian Consti- Vernacular Press Act? ⇒Lord Ripon
tution has to be approved by the 17. ‘Sovereignty’ in a democracy rests with
⇒Parliament the ⇒People
6. Which Schedule details the boundaries 18. From which Constitution was a concept
of the States and the Union Territories? of a 5-year plan borrowed into our Con-
⇒I stitution? ⇒USSR
7. The present Five-year Plan (2002- 19. Which British Official was sent to La-
2007) is ⇒11th hore to negotiate the Treaty of Amritsar
8. The Constituent Assembly of India with Ranjit Singh? ⇒Charles T. Met-
was created as per the proposal of calfe
⇒Cabinet Mission 20. Indian Constitution is ⇒Wholly written
9. How much time did the Constituent As- 21. Many Provisions in our Constitution
sembly take to prepare the Constitution have been borrowed from the Govern-
of India? ⇒⇒02Y, 11M, 18D ment of India Act ⇒1919
10. In Britain, Parliament is supreme; ac- 22. Who among the following was the
cordingly which among the following is Chairman of the Union Constitution Com-
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11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution 806
mittee of the Constituent Assembly? was framed by ⇒A special Constituent
⇒Jawaharlal Nehru Assembly set up by the State
23. The famous Lucknow Pact between the 40. ‘Fraternity’ means ⇒spirit of brother-
Congress and the Muslim League was hood
concluded in ⇒1916 41. The historic 1929 Lahore Session of In-
24. A person can lose citizenship through dian National Congress was presided
⇒Deprivation, Termination, and Re- over by ⇒Jawaharlal Nehru
nunciation 42. The Constituent Assembly of India held
NARAYAN CHANGDER
25. The Preamble secures Justice, Liberty, its first meeting on ⇒09.12.1946
Equality and Fraternity to ⇒All citizens 43. Which famous Movement did Mahatma
26. 26th November, 1949 is a significant Gandhi launch in August 1942? ⇒Quit
day in our constitutional history be- India Movement
cause ⇒The Constitution was adopted 44. Who among the following was not a
on this day member of the Royal Commission on the
27. Which Act for the first time gave an op- Public Services in India, 1912?⇒Bal
portunity for Indians to enter into the Gangadhar Tilak
sphere of Legislature? ⇒Indian Coun- 45. The Final Draft of the Constitution was
cils Act, 1861 prepared by ⇒S. N. Mukherjee
28. The Ninth Schedule ⇒was added to the 46. The Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir
Constitution by the 1st Amendment came into force on ⇒26.01.1957
29. Which one of the following exercised 47. Who among the following was mem-
the most profound influence on the In- ber of the Drafting Committee?
dian Constitution?⇒The GoI Act, 1935 ⇒Ambedkar, Gopalachari Ayyangar, Al-
30. What is meant by saying that India is ladi Krishnaswami
a ‘Secular State’? ⇒Complete detach- 48. Indian Constitution is called ‘Quasi-
ment from the affairs of the religion Federal’ because it has ⇒Single Judi-
31. The Office of the Governor General of ciary
India was for the first time created un- 49. Which of the following is also known
der ⇒Regulating Act, 1773 as the Act of 1919? ⇒Montague-
32. In which year was Untouchability abol- Chelmsford Reform Act
ished in India? ⇒1950 50. In the Indian Constitution ⇒There are
33. The Indian Federal system is modeled on three lists: The Union list, the State list
the Federal system of ⇒Canada and the Concurrent list
34. Which famous leader raised the slogan, 51. During Medieval India, which kings first
“Tell the Slave, He is a Slave and He will established ‘Local Self Government’?
Revolt”? ⇒Dr. B. R. Ambedkar ⇒Cholas
35. Modern States are generally considered 52. The feature common of both Indian
as ⇒Welfare States and American Federation is ⇒Supreme
36. Financial allocation for education was Court to interpret Constitution
made for the first time by the Charter 53. Who was assigned the task of partition-
Act of ⇒1813 ing India in 1947? ⇒Sir Cyril Redcliffe
37. Who gave the first draft of the Consti- 54. The most effective measure against
tution to the Drafting Committee to con- injustice adopted by Gandhiji was
sider and improve ⇒B. N. Rau ⇒Fasting
38. Our Constitution prohibits Untouchability 55. Name the only Indian ruler who has died
39. The Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir fighting the British? ⇒Tippu Sultan
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11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution 807
56. By what name was the woman’s reg- India? ⇒Resolution of 1835, Regulat-
iment of the Indian National Army ing Act, Charter Act, 1813
known? ⇒Rani Jhansi Regiment 70. is the chief force of political power
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57. In which Case did Supreme Court hold in India. ⇒The People
that the Preamble was a part of the 71. Which of the following statements is
Constitution? ⇒Keshavananda Bharti correct? ⇒Rule of Law is a basic fea-
Case ture of the Constitution which cannot be
58. Who proposed Preamble before the amended under Article 368 of the Con-
Drafting Committee of the Constitution? stitution
⇒Jawaharlal Nehru 72. The Constitution of India was adopted
59. Which Charter empowered the British on ⇒26.11.1949
Governors of Presidencies to make Bye- 73. During the Indian Freedom Struggle,
Laws, Rules, Regulations in conformity who among the following proposed that
with the British laws? ⇒Charter of Swaraj should be defined has complete
1726 independence free from all foreign con-
60. Our Constitution has laid emphasis on trols? ⇒Abul Kalam Azad
securing social, economic and political 74. Indian National Congress started ‘Quit
justice to all the citizens of the country. India Movement’ after the failure of
These objectives are aimed at securing ⇒Cripps Mission
a ⇒Welfare State 75. Who had given the idea of a Constitu-
61. The idea of the Constitution of India was tion for India of all? ⇒M. N. Roy
flashed for the first time by ⇒M. N. Roy 76. India has been described under Article
62. In which year did the Cripps Mission 1 of the Constitution as a ⇒Union of
come to India? ⇒1942 States
63. The Muslim League declared its goal of 77. India is a Secular State because ⇒It is
forming Pakistan in which city in 1940? described so in the preamble of the Con-
⇒Karachi stitution
64. The ideals of liberty, equality and fra- 78. First Law Commission was appointed in
ternity enshrined in the Preamble of the India for codification of laws under the
Constitution were adopted under inspi- Chairmanship of ⇒Lord Macaulay
ration from ⇒The French Revolution 79. The Indian National Army was founded
65. Who is the person fondly known as the by ⇒Subhash Chandra Bose
Chief Architect of the Indian Constitu- 80. Which year is considered to be a memo-
tion? ⇒Dr. B. R. Ambedkar rable landmark in the history of India’s
66. Which national leader of India, preached Struggle for Freedom? ⇒1921
through his paper ‘Kesari’, his new ide- 81. Universal Adult Franchise shows that In-
als of self-help and national revival dia is a country. ⇒Democratic
among the masses?⇒Bal Gangadhar 82. The idea of social, economic and political
Tilak justice has been taken from Revo-
67. Who is authorized to initiate a Bill for lution. - ⇒French
Constitutional Amendment? ⇒Either 83. The plan of setting up of a Constituent
House of Parliament Assembly to draw up the future Con-
68. The Constitution of India describes India stitution for India was given by ⇒The
as ⇒Union of States Cabinet Mission Plan
69. Which one of the following is related to 84. The States were reorganized on linguis-
the development of education in Modern tic basis in ⇒1956
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11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution 808
85. Who made the Constitution of India? 98. Mahatma Gandhiji was the editor of
⇒The Constituent Assembly ⇒Young India
86. An Amendment of the Constitution of In- 99. The Preamble of Indian Constitution has
dia for the purpose of creating a new been amended so far ⇒Once
State in India must be passed by ⇒A 100. Under the Parliamentary system of the
simple majority in the Parliament Government, ⇒the Cabinet as a whole
87. In which year and place did Subhash is responsible to the Legislature
Chandra Bose re-organized the Azad 101. The special status of Jammu & Kash-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Hind Fauz (also known as Indian Na- mir implies that the State has separate
tional Army-INA)? ⇒1943, Singapore ⇒Constitution
88. The State of Bombay, a Part A State in 102. Who is the first Governor General of
the original Constitution, was split into Bengal? ⇒Warren Hastings
two States, Gujarat and Maharashtra, 103. Which Article empowers the Parlia-
in ⇒1960 ment to amend the Indian Constitution?
89. The first visible effect of Constitu- ⇒368
tion was ⇒Disappearance of Princely 104. The aims and objectives of the Consti-
States tution have been enshrined in ⇒The
90. Which State enjoys the distinction of be- Preamble
ing the first linguistic State of India? 105. The Constitution declared India as a Re-
⇒Andhra Pradesh public on ⇒26.01.1950
91. Which Englishman’s role was control 106. Our Preamble mentions the kinds
to the founding of the Indian National of Justice. ⇒Social, Economic and Po-
Congress? (OR) Which British was el- litical
emental in the formation of the Indian 107. The Constitution provides ⇒Powers,
National Congress? ⇒Allen Octavian Responsibilities, Limitations
Hume 108. The Constitution of India came into force
92. ‘Vande Mataram’ was first sung at the on ⇒26.01.1950
session of the Indian National Congress 109. ‘Amend’ means ⇒remove the difficul-
in ⇒1896 ties
93. Which one of the following declares In- 110. Consider the following statement: On
dia as a Secular State? ⇒Preamble of eve of launch of Quit India Movement,
the Constitution Mahatma Gandhi ⇒
94. Which is the first written document 111. Who was not a member of the
in the Constitutional History of India? Constituent Assembly? ⇒Mahatma
⇒The Regulating Act, 1773 Gandhi
95. Which of the following events made 112. In how many provinces did the Indian
Gandhiji to launch, for the first National Congress form Governments
time, Civil Disobedience Movement after the elections to the Assemblies
⇒Promulgation of Rowlatt Act of 1919 held under the Government of India Act
96. The INA, organized by Subhash Chandra of 1935? ⇒7
Bose, surrendered to the British after 113. In case of Jammu & Kashmir, an Amend-
the collapse of ⇒Japan ment to the Constitution become appli-
97. The first attempt by Indians to write cable ⇒only after the President issued
a Constitution to India was done by the necessary orders under the Article
a Committee headed by Motilal Nehru, 370
which is known as ⇒Nehru Report 114. Who of the following acted as the Con-
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11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution 809
stitutional Advisor to the Constituent ⇒Government of India Act, 1935
Assembly? ⇒B. N. Rau 131. Which Act created for the first time in In-
115. The Constitution of India provides dia ‘Government of India’? ⇒Charter
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system of Government. ⇒Cabinet Act of 1833
116. A Flexible Constitution ⇒can be 132. Which Act made the beginning of Elec-
amended easily toral System in India? ⇒Government
117. Which of the following persons became of India Act, 1858
Vice President after serving as acting 133. Which present day country was a
President of India for a short duration? part of British India from 1886-1937?
⇒Mohammed Hidyathullah ⇒Myanmar
118. Morley-Minto Reforms were imple- 134. Which party was founded by Subhash
mented by the Indian Councils Act Chandra Bose in the year 1939 after he
⇒1909 broke away from the Congress? (OR)
119. The First War of Independence took Which political party was founded by
place in the year (OR) In which year did Subhash Chandra Bose? ⇒Forward
the Sepoy Mutiny, India’s first Freedom Bloc
Struggle, takes place? ⇒1857 135. Which one of the following States has
120. In our Constitution, what justice is not a separate Constitution? ⇒Jammu &
given to the citizens? ⇒Technical Kashmir
121. India opted for a Federal form of gov- 136. The Preamble to the Constitution de-
ernment because of ⇒Linguistic and Re- clares India as ⇒Sovereign Socialist
gional Diversity Secular Democratic Republic
122. The Government of India Act 1919 in- 137. It is not the objective enshrined in
troduced a system of diarchy in the the Preamble. ⇒Secure shelter and
provinces. ‘Diarchy’ means a system of proper livelihood to all
⇒Double government 138. Which of the following word was added
123. The procedure of Amendment to the Con- into the Preamble of the Constitution
stitution is borrowed from the Constitu- by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
tion Of ⇒South Africa ⇒Socialist
124. Which of the following is described 139. ‘Poornaswarajya’ was declared as the
as the ‘Soul of the Constitution’? goal of the Congress on December 1929
⇒Preamble in the ⇒Lahore Session
125. Which Act made the beginning of a Par- 140. Who among the following drafted the
liamentary System in India? ⇒Charter resolution on Fundamental Rights for
Act of 1853 the Karachi Session of Congress in
126. The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha 1931? ⇒Jawaharlal Nehru
(1928) was ⇒Vallabhbhai Patel 141. The ‘Quit India Movement’ started at
127. A Constituent Assembly is convened to and when ⇒Bombay, 08.08.1942
⇒Frame the Constitution of the coun- 142. How our Constitution was criticized?
try ⇒
128. The Constitution of India provides 143. The Indian Constitution is ⇒Lengthy,
⇒Single citizenship Written
129. ‘Go Back to the Vedas’ was the motto 144. Who said, “Those who attack Congress
of ⇒Swami Dayananda Saraswati and spare Nehru are fools. They do not
130. The Federal features of the Indian know the ABCs of the politics .?” ⇒Dr.
Government was introduced by the B. R. Ambedkar
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11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution 810
145. The Government of India Act 1935 pro- was borrowed by the framers of the
vided for ⇒Establishment of Federal Constitution from the US Constitution?
Court, Diarchy at Center, Provincial au- ⇒Removal of Judges of the Supreme
tonomy Court, Judicial Review, Fundamental
146. The Constitution is a ⇒Dynamic Law Rights
147. January 26th was selected as the date 159. Unity between the Congress and Mus-
for the inauguration of the Constitution lim League (Lucknow Pact) and between
because ⇒Congress had observed it as the Moderates and Extremists took
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the Independence Day in 1930 place in ⇒1916
148. The Constitution describes the Indian 160. The Constituent Assembly was set up
Union as ⇒India i.e. Bharat to under the ⇒Cabinet Mission Plan of
149. Which one of the following principle 1946
with regard to ‘Panchsheel’? ⇒Mutual 161. Who called the word for Preamble as
Non- interference in each other’s in- ‘Political Horoscope of India’? ⇒K.M.
ternal matters, Mutual Non-aggression, Munshi
Mutual respect for each others territo- 162. Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 were deleted
rial integrity and sovereignty and Article 300-A was inserted by the
150. The Constituent Assembly elected on following Constitution Amendment Act -
11.12.1946 as its Permanent Chairman 44th
⇒Rajendra Prasad 163. Which one of the following is not
151. Under which of the following Act was treated as part of the Constitution?
Provincial Autonomy introduced in In- ⇒Fundamental Duties
dia? ⇒Government of India Act, 1935 164. The reference to Hindus in Article 25
152. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution does not include
to prepare a Draft Constitution of India ⇒Parsees
was ⇒B. R. Ambedkar 165. The Constitution of India is ⇒Partly
153. Under whose Presidency was the La- rigid and partly flexible
hore Session of the Indian National 166. Which feature was borrowed by the In-
Congress held in the year 1929 wherein dian Constitution from the British Con-
a resolution was adopted to gain com- stitution? ⇒Law making procedure,
plete independence from the British? - Parliamentary System of Government,
⇒Jawaharlal Nehru Rule of law
154. The final interpreter to Indian Constitu- 167. India is called a ‘Republic’ because
tion is ⇒Supreme Court ⇒The Head of the State in India (Pres-
155. The mind and ideals of the framers of ident) is an elected head for a fixed pe-
the Constitution are reflected in the riod
⇒Preamble 168. What is contained in the Tenth
156. The Preamble says that the State in In- Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
dia will assure the dignity of the individ- ⇒Provisions regarding disqualification
ual. The Constitution seeks to achieve on grounds of defection
this object by guaranteeing ⇒Equal 169. What is the name given to the Ambed-
FRs to each citizen kar’s house built for himself, his fam-
157. Who was the first woman Pres- ily and books at Dadar, in Bombay?
ident of UN General Assembly? ⇒Rajagriha
⇒Vijayalakshmi Pandit 170. Who framed the Constitution of India?
158. Which one of the following features ⇒Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
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11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution 811
171. The Indian State is regarded as fed- administration? ⇒Indian Councils Act,
eral because the Indian Constitution pro- 1909
vides for ⇒Sharing of power between 187. The Act of 1935 abolished ⇒Diarchy in
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Center and States the Provinces
172. Home Rule League was founded by 188. By which of the following a new State is
⇒Annie Beasant formed? ⇒Constitutional Amendment
173. The Parliamentary system of Govern- 189. Under which of the following Act, the
ment in India is based on the pattern of Crown of England took the affairs of
⇒Great Britain the Government of India into its own
174. According to the Act of 1858, the terri- hands? ⇒Government of India Act,
tory was divided into ⇒Provinces 1858
175. In which Case did Supreme Court hold 190. The fundamental organs of the State are
that Preamble was not a part of the Con- established by ⇒Constitution
stitution? - ⇒Berubari Case 191. A State which does not promote or inter-
176. The expression ‘Tryst with Destiny’ fere in the affairs of religion is referred
was used by Jawaharlal Nehru on the to as ⇒Secular
occasion of ⇒August Declaration 192. The State of Jammu & Kashmir was ac-
177. Which among the following is an corded special status under ⇒Article
aid to the Statutory Interpretation? 370
⇒Preamble 193. The Cabinet Mission to India was
178. Which Act created for the first ‘The headed by ⇒Lord Pethick-Lawrence
Supreme Court’? ⇒The Regulating Act, 194. Which of the following Act made the
1773 Indian Legislature Bi-cameral for the
179. If the Head of the State is an elected first time? ⇒Government of India Act,
functionary for a fixed term, it is known 1919
as State. ⇒Republic 195. Article 356 of the Constitution of In-
180. Which of the following Article of the dia deals with ⇒Proclamation of Pres-
Constitution cannot be amended by a ident’s Rule in a State
simple majority in both the Houses of 196. The ‘Homespun Movement’ and the Salt
Parliament? ⇒15 March promoted by Mahatma Gandhiji
181. Detailed provisions regarding acquisi- in India are examples of his policy of
tion and termination of Indian citizen- ⇒Non-violent protest
ship are contained in ⇒Act passed by 197. In India, the liability of the State for
the Parliament in 1955 wrongs committed by its servants -
182. The Constitution supports ⇒Rule of ⇒Is the same as what that of the East
Law India Company prior to the year 1858
183. Which party was not associated with (According to Case Kasturi Lal Raliaram
the Constituent Assembly of India? Jain V/s State of Uttar Pradesh)
⇒The Communist Party 198. Partition of British India into two inde-
184. The beginning word ‘WE’ in the Pream- pendent nations India and Pakistan was
ble refers to the ⇒Citizens of India done according to ⇒Mountbatten Plan
185. Which Section of the Limitation Act de- 199. The Preamble was amended by the
fines Tort? ⇒Section 2 (m) ⇒42nd Amendment, 1976
186. Which of the following Acts of British 200. Mahatma Gandhiji was first referred
Parliament envisaged for the first time to as the ‘Father of the Nation’ by
a close association of Indians with the ⇒Subhash Chandra Bose
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11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution 812
201. The Preamble of our Constitution reads and bulky document
⇒We, the people of India in our Con- 218. The purpose of the Ilbert Bill was ⇒To
stituent Assembly adopt, enact and give remove an anomaly in the Criminal
to Procedure Code of 1873, according to
202. Which one of the following provisions which no magistrate or sessions judge
of the Constitution came into force could try a European or British subject
soon after its adoption on 26.11.1949? unless he was himself of European birth
⇒Provisional Parliament, Provisions 219. The Members of the Constituent Assem-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
relating to Citizenship, Elections bly were ⇒Elected by Provincial As-
203. ‘Enact’ means ⇒pass a law semblies
204. To whom does the People of India gave 220. Who set up the first school of untouch-
the Constitution to ⇒Themselves ables in India? ⇒Jyothiba Phule, 1948,
205. Gandhiji started Satyagraha in 1919 to Pune
protest against the ⇒Rowlatt Act 221. India is known as Parliamentary Democ-
206. When was the Constituent Assembly racy because ⇒Executive is responsi-
established to form the Constitution? ble to the Parliament
⇒06.12.1946 222. India is a Sovereign Socialist Secular
207. The Judiciary acts as an guardian of the Democratic Republic. In the Indian
Constitution in a ⇒Federal government Constitution, this expression occurs in
208. Which leader dominated the Lucknow ⇒Preamble
Pact in December, 1916?⇒Bal Gangad- 223. The Constituent Assembly set up under
har Tilak the Cabinet Mission Plan had a strength
209. ‘Panchsheel’ was signed between of ⇒389
⇒Jawaharlal Nehru and Chou-En-Lai 224. The Indian Constitution came into force
210. Which one of the following acted as the on 26.01.1950, hence this day is cele-
Provisional President of the Constituent brated as ⇒Republic Day
Assembly? ⇒Sachidananda Sinha 225. Who succeeded Lord Mountbatten as
211. Which of the key to open the minds the first Indian Governor General of the
of the makers of the Constitution? Indian dominion till 26th January 1950
⇒Preamble when India became a Republic? ⇒C. Ra-
212. The strength of the Constituent Assem- jagopalachari
bly, after the withdrawal of the Muslim 226. On which of the following did the Ma-
League, was reduced to ⇒299 halonobis Model laid greater emphasis
213. In which year were the Indian States re- for planned development in India after
organized on a linguistic basis? ⇒1956 Independence? ⇒Heavy Industries De-
214. Objective Resolution was silent as to velopment
the concept of which was inserted 227. The design of the National Flag of India
into the Preamble by the Constituent As- was adopted by the Constituent Assem-
sembly ⇒Democratic bly On ⇒22.08.1947
215. The important test to identify the ba- 228. The words ‘Socialist Secular’ were
sic features of the Indian Constitution is ⇒Added by the 42nd Amendment
⇒Preamble 229. ‘Jai Hind’, the nationalist slogan of In-
216. The idea of a Constituent Assembly to dia was coined by ⇒Subhash Chandra
frame a Constitution for India was first Bose
mooted by ⇒Swaraj Party in 1928 230. Who treated as ‘Sovereign’ in Constitu-
217. The Constitution of India is ⇒written tion of India? ⇒People
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11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution 813
231. Gandhiji gave a call to all Indians ‘Do 246. Where did Mahatma Gandhiji first try
or Die’, which is popularly known as the weapon of ‘Satyagraha’? ⇒South
⇒Quit India Movement Africa
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232. The Governor General of India was also 247. Ninth Schedule to the Constitution is
the representative of British Crown to added by way of Constitutional
Princely States in India and hence was Amendment. ⇒1st
known as the ⇒Viceroy of India 248. At which Congress Session was the
233. India enacted an important event of Working Committee authorized to
Indian National Movement celebrating launch a programme of Civil Disobedi-
the 75th anniversary. Which was it? ence? ⇒Lahore
⇒Civil Obedience Movement 249. The Constitution framed by a Committee
234. The two persons who played a vital consisting of the people representatives
role in the integration of Princely States is called as ⇒Written Constitution
were ⇒Sardar Patel and V. P. Menon 250. Which of the following is not a condition
235. Which of the following is not a Demo- for becoming an Indian citizen? [Citizen-
cratic Institution of the Rig Vedic era? ship by] ⇒Acquiring property
⇒Grama 251. The Constitution which can be amended
236. The Constitution of India describes India by simple act of the legislature is known
as ⇒A Union of States as ⇒Flexible Constitution
237. What has been described as the ‘Indian 252. The famous Dandi March laid by Gand-
Political Horoscope’?⇒Preamble hiji was against ⇒Salt Tax
238. Shimla Agreement between India and 253. The Preamble to the Constitution
Pakistan was signed during ⇒1972 contain ⇒Fraternity, Democratic,
239. Which country is the best example for Sovereignty
the Federal and Unitary Governments? 254. The details of salaries, allowances,
⇒America and Britain etc. of the President, Vice President,
240. The Preamble of the Constitution indi- Speaker, Judges of Supreme Court, etc.
cates ⇒The source of the Indian Con- are provided in Schedule ⇒II
stitution 255. Democracy of India rests on the fact
241. Who made the comment on the Consti- that ⇒People have the right to choose
tution should not be so rigid that it can- and change the government
not be adapted to the changing needs 256. When did the British Parliament
of national development and strength? pass the Indian Independence Bill?
⇒Rajiv Gandhi ⇒01.07.1947
242. The members of the Constituent Assem- 257. Constitution which provides for a se-
bly were ⇒Elected by Provincial As- ries of semi-autonomous states joined
semblies together as a nation is ⇒Federal Con-
243. The Constitution of India contains (Arti- stitution
cles, Parts, Schedules) ⇒444, 24, 12 258. ‘Liberty’ in our Preamble does not in-
244. Who started with presentation of the clude Freedom of ⇒Action
‘Objective Resolution’ on 22.01.1947? 259. First attempt in world to constitute a
⇒Jawaharlal Nehru Constituent Assembly to frame a Consti-
245. The power of Parliament to amend tution was made by ⇒America
the Constitution ⇒includes power to 260. The Agreement between India and
amend by way of addition, variation or China, by which both accepted
repeal ‘Panchsheel’ as the basis of their re-
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11.1 Preamble and evolution of Indian constitution 814
lations, was signed in ⇒1954 274. Demand for a Constitution, framed by
261. The concept of equality and fraternity a Constituent Assembly was made by
has been taken from Revolution. ⇒Gandhiji
⇒Russian 275. As per Article 262 of Indian Constitu-
262. The word ‘Democracy’ is derived from tion, disputes relating to waters shall
the Greek words ⇒Demos and Kratos be solved By ⇒⇒Parliament
263. Which newspaper was started by Loka- 276. The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ in-
manya Tilak to serve as a mouthpiece scribed in Devanagiri script below the
for the Indians in the Freedom Struggle? abacus of the State Emblem of India are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
⇒Kesari taken from ⇒Mundaka Upanishad
264. How many Committees were set up by 277. The Lal in Lal, Bal, Pal was ⇒Lala Laj-
the Constituent Assembly for framing pat Rai
the Constitution? ⇒13 278. The Republic of India established by the
265. The Constitution of India was en- Constitution is ⇒Sovereign, Socialist,
acted by a Constituent Assembly set Secular
up ⇒Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 279. Who advocated ‘Grama Swarajya’ for
1946 the growth of the villages? ⇒Gandhiji
266. In 1921, a Session of the Indian Na- 280. Which Plan rejected the demand for the
tional Congress was held when its Pres- independent Pakistan? ⇒Cabinet Mis-
ident was in prison and with some other sion Plan
leader acting as its President. Who was 281. The seeds of the doctrine of Basic Struc-
the Congress President in prison? ⇒C. ture can be traced to the following:
R. Das ⇒The majority judgment of Chief Jus-
267. Apart from the Jammu & Kashmir, tice Subba Rao in Golak Nath V/s State
which other State has been provided of Punjab
special protection in certain matters? 282. When was the famous Gandhi-Irwin
⇒Nagaland Pact signed? ⇒1931
268. Which of the following Acts gave rep- 283. Who elected the Chairman of the Draft-
resentation to the Indians for the first ing Committee of the Constituent As-
time in legislation? ⇒Indian Councils sembly? ⇒B. R. Ambedkar
Act, 1909 284. Subhash Chandra Bose renamed what
269. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution as “Shaheed and Swaraj”? ⇒The An-
is borrowed from the ⇒Objective Res- daman and Nicobar Islands
olution 285. Where in the Indian Constitution, ‘Eco-
270. What is the chief (ultimate) source nomic Justice’ has been provided as one
of political power (authority) in of the objectives? ⇒Preamble and
India?⇒People DPSP
271. Centralization of power is an important 286. Which Schedule gives details regarding
feature in ⇒Federal Constitution the subjects included in the three lists
272. Who was the Governor General of India - Central, State and Concurrent Lists?
during the Sepoy Mutiny? ⇒Lord Can- ⇒VII
ning 287. In which one of the following provinces
273. Who started Dual Government in Ben- was a Congress ministry not formed un-
gal? ⇒Robert Clive der Act of 1935? ⇒Punjab
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11.2 Fundamental rights 815
11.2 Fundamental rights
⇒34
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1. Which one of the following Courts is re- Article
sponsible for the enforcement of FRs? 18. Minority may be ⇒linguistic or reli-
⇒Supreme Court gious
2. Clause (1) of Article 13 is applicable 19. Article 14 guarantees equality before
only to ⇒Pre-constitutional Laws the law to ⇒All persons
3. This is not the ground to impose restric- 20. The Constitutional remedies under the
tion on the right of freedom of speech Article 32 can be suspended by the
and expression. ⇒Law and order ⇒Parliament
4. Who is authorized to impose restrictions 21. In which case did the Supreme Court
on FRs?⇒Legislature restrict the authority of Parliament to
5. The main objective of the FRs is to amend FRs and declared these rights
⇒ensure individual liberty to be absolute, permanent and unalter-
6. The Right to equality guaranteed by able? ⇒Golak Nath Case
the Indian Constitution does not include 22. Constitution grants Right against ex-
⇒Economic Equality ploitation to “Children / Women / Trib-
7. A person arrested has to be produced be- als / Dalits” ⇒C and W
fore the Magistrate within ⇒24 hours 23. Under which Article of the Indian Con-
8. The writ of Quo Warranto is an order stitution, Citizenship of a person can be
from a superior court ⇒whereby it can determined at the commencement of the
call upon a person to show under what Constitution? ⇒5
authority he is holding the office 24. Article 25 guarantees freedom of reli-
9. Which Article of the Constitution em- gion, but it is subject to ⇒Public order,
powers the Parliament to enact the pro- Morality & Health
visions for acquisition and termination 25. The Right to private property was
of Citizenship? ⇒11 dropped from the list of FRs by the (OR)
10. Under the Indian Constitution, a citizen Right to property took the shape of le-
⇒can be deprived of life and liberty gal right by way of ⇒44th Amendment
only in accordance with the procedure 26. The protection guaranteed under Article
established by the law 21 is available even to convicts in jails.
11. Right against exploitation prohibits The convicts are not by mere reasons of
⇒Traffic in Human being their conviction deprived of the entire
12. Writs are ⇒Orders issued by courts to FRs which they otherwise possess. This
enforce obedience to laws is the principle laid down in ⇒Sunil Ba-
13. Right to Equality is guaranteed under tra V/s Delhi Administration Case
the Article ⇒14 27. Child labor is prohibited under the Arti-
14. What is the minimum permissible age in cle ⇒24
years of employment in any factory or 28. The writ of Certiorari is issued by a su-
mine? ⇒14 perior court ⇒to an inferior court to
15. Who quoted ‘Freedom is my Birth transfer the record of proceedings in a
Right’? ⇒Sardar case for review
16. Minimum percentage of reservation in a 29. Legal equality under the Indian Consti-
educational institution is ⇒50 tution implies that ⇒there should be
17. A citizen can directly move the Supreme equality amongst equals and inequality
Court for any violation of FR under the among unequals
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11.2 Fundamental rights 816
30. The forced labour does not include ser- aging or destroying the basic features
vice rendered under ⇒compulsion of of the Constitution? ⇒Parliament
economic circumstances 48. The number of Fundamental Freedoms
31. The FRs of the Indian Citizen were are guaranteed by our Constitution are
⇒Enshrined in Original Constitution ⇒Six
32. ‘Ultra vires’ means ⇒Without author- 49. ‘Rule of Law which permeates the en-
ity tire fabric of the Indian Constitution
33. Right to Education is a part of ⇒Right excludes arbitrariness’. This principle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
to life is laid down in ⇒Maneka Gandhi V/s
34. Which one of the following statements Union Government Case
is correct? ⇒FRs are superior to the 50. The FRs of a citizen can be suspended
DPSP by the ⇒President during a National
35. The Right to Constitutional Remedies Emergency
are ⇒Fundamental Rights 51. Right to Property is a legal right under
36. Which one of the following is considered the Article ⇒300A
as Bulwark of Democracy? (Right to) 52. The Right to establish educational insti-
⇒Speech tutional under Article 30 is applicable to
37. Which among the following is not a FR? ⇒Linguistic Minority
[Right to] ⇒Strike 53. Which Article and Amendment changes
38. Which one of the FRs was described by the right to vote from 21 to 18 years?
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the ‘Heart and ⇒326 and 61st
Soul of the Constitution’? [Right to] 54. Which one of the following is not a FR?
⇒Constitutional Remedies (Right to) ⇒Property
39. Right to Freedom guaranteed under Ar- 55. Freedom of press is included in Right to
ticle 19 during emergency. ⇒can ⇒freedom of speech and expression
be suspended 56. Generally, the census is conducted for
40. Article 15 (4) confers a special provi- year(s). ⇒10
sions for the advancement of ⇒SCs and 57. For the enforcement of the FRs, the
STs courts can issue ⇒A Writ
41. By which FR other FRs is protected? 58. Which one of the following right con-
⇒Right to Constitutional Remedies ferred by the Constitution is also avail-
42. The FRs of the Indian citizen ⇒can be able to non- citizens? ⇒Right to consti-
suspended by the President during na- tutional remedies
tional emergency 59. Article 19(2) under the Indian Consti-
43. Which FR has been a subject of maxi- tution speaks about ⇒Reasonable re-
mum controversy and litigation? [Right strictions
to] ⇒Property 60. Every person who has been arrested
44. A citizen of India may be debarred from has the right to be produced before the
the Right to vote on the ground of ⇒Magistrate
⇒unsoundness of mind, crime or cor- 61. To prevent persons coming to India from
rupt or illegal practice & non-resident Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and African coun-
45. The prohibition imposed by the Article tries to become Indian citizens a Citi-
20 is applicable to ⇒Criminal cases zenship (Amendment) Act was passed in
46. Sexual harassment of working women the year ⇒1986
is violation of ⇒FRs 62. The Supreme Court of India has held that
47. Who can abridge any FR without dam- sexual harassment of working women
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11.2 Fundamental rights 817
amounts to violation of rights of gender 78. Earlier to 86th Amendment, Article 21A
equality and right to life and personal is in the form of ⇒DPSP
liberty. The Case in which the Apex 79. Who enjoys the right to impose rea-
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Court held this was ⇒Vishaka and Oth- sonable restrictions on the FRs of In-
ers V/s State of Rajasthan dian citizen? (OR) Who has the power
63. Which important Human Right is pro- to empower the Courts other than the
tected in the Article 21 of Constitution Supreme and High Courts to issue writs
of India? (Right to) ⇒Life and Liberty and order for the forcement of the FRs?
64. Which of the following is the guardian ⇒Parliament
of the FRs of the citizens? (OR) Who is 80. FRs are not applicable to⇒Armed
the Protector and Guarantor of the FRs? Forces
⇒Supreme Court 81. Freedom of Speech under the Indian Con-
65. How many types of writs are there? stitution is subject to reasonable re-
⇒5 strictions on the grounds of protection
66. Any violation of FRs can be presented of ⇒Sovereignty and integrity of the
to ⇒Both Supreme and High Courts country
67. ‘Right to Equality’ means ⇒permits the 82. The writ issued by the superior court
State to make special provisions for directing any constitutional, statutory
women, children and backward classes or nonstatutory agency from not con-
68. At present, the Right to property is a tinuing their proceedings is known as
⇒Human Right ⇒Prohibition
69. Conflict of interest may be ⇒potential 83. Who of the following can amend
70. Which among the following Article guar- the FRs granted by the Constitution?
antees the Right of minorities to estab- ⇒Parliament
lish and administer the educational insti- 84. By the Citizenship Act of 1955, when
tutions? ⇒30 he / she will be loosing the Citizen-
71. Our Constitution grants to the citizens ship? ⇒Renunciation, Deprivation &
FRs. ⇒Six Termination
72. No person who is arrested shall be 85. FRs can be suspended during
detained in custody without being in- ⇒Emergency
formed ⇒On the grounds for such ar- 86. Right to Decent environment includes
rest ⇒Right to life
73. India is referred as under the Indian 87. This is one of the grounds for classifica-
Constitution.⇒Bharat tion ⇒Annual income
74. The Freedom of speech and expression 88. Which one of the following FRs is re-
does not include ⇒calling for ‘Bundh’ strained by the Preventive Detention
75. The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued Act? [Right to] ⇒- Freedom
⇒in the form of an order calling upon 89. This is not the ground to impose restric-
a person who has detained another per- tion on Right of freedom of speech and
son to bring that person before court expression - ⇒Public nuisance
and show authority for such detention 90. Writ can be directly filed in the
76. The provisions enshrined under the Arti- ⇒Supreme Court
cle 22 are ⇒Mandatory 91. The Constitution does not protect the
77. Right to property was eliminated form Right of the minority with regard to
the list of FRs during the tenure of ⇒Cult
⇒Morarji Desai 92. FRs are ⇒Those basic conditions of so-
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11.2 Fundamental rights 818
cial life without which a Citizen cannot inequality. ⇒Social
be at his/her best self 106. The FRs are ⇒Limitation upon the State
93. ‘Traffic in Human beings’ means power
⇒selling or purchasing men and 107. Which of the following has ceased to be
women a FR in the Indian Constitution? [Right
94. The rule of Equality before law is not to] ⇒Property
applicable to ⇒Governor of State 108. Mandal Commission deals with
95. Which one of the following pairs is not ⇒Reservation for backward class peo-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
correctly matched? ⇒Freedom of Con- ple
science - Include the Right to worship 109. Article 15 (3) confers a special provi-
at the temple at all hours of the day sions to ⇒Women and Children
96. Which one of the following courts is re- 110. Article 19 of our Constitution forms the
sponsible for the enforcement of FRs? core of the Chapter on FRs. The number
⇒Supreme Court of categories of Freedoms that an Indian
97. Article 21A was inserted under our Con- citizen shall have is ⇒6
stitution by way of Constitutional 111. The FRs ensure the protection of
Amendment. ⇒86th ⇒Citizens against arbitrary rule
98. Which Article describes the persons vol- 112. Which among the following FRs abol-
untarily acquiring Citizenship of a for- ishes discrimination? ⇒Equality
eign State not to be an Indian Citizen? 113. Who is authorized to lay down qual-
⇒9 ifications to acquire the Citizenship?
99. The main objective of the cultural and ed- ⇒President
ucational rights granted to the citizens 114. Equal opportunity in matters of public
is to ⇒Help the minorities to conserve employment is guaranteed under the Ar-
their culture ticle ⇒16
100. The Supreme Court held that the nui- 115. Which one of the following FRs has been
sance caused by the pollution of the subject of maximum litigation since
river Ganga is a public nuisance which the inauguration of the Constitution?
is wide spread and affecting the lives of (Right to) ⇒Property
large number of persons and therefore 116. The concept of Single Citizenship is
any particular person can take proceed- borrowed from the Constitution of
ings to stop it. This PIL is ⇒M.C. Mehta ⇒Britain
V/s Union of India (1988) 117. A Preventive Detention Act restraints
101. The writ in the form of order which re- the Right to ⇒Freedom of Movement
moves a suit from an inferior court to 118. This is one of the basis for classification
superior court to prevent an excess of ⇒geographical
jurisdiction is known as ⇒Certiorari 119. The popular name for a nine-Judge
102. India has recognized ⇒No religion as Bench of the Supreme Court has in ‘In-
National Religion dra Sawhney V/s Union of India Case’
103. ‘Right to Freedom’ can be restricted in is ⇒Mandal Commission Case
the interest of ⇒Public order, Security 120. Freedom of religion guaranteed under
of the State & Friendly relations with the Article 25 is applicable to ⇒Citizens
foreign States only, Persons residing within India &
104. ‘Creamy Layer’ means ⇒Persons hav- Persons of Indian Origin
ing higher incomes 121. Right to Life includes Right to ⇒get ed-
105. Untouchability is associated with ucation
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11.2 Fundamental rights 819
122. Which of the following confers upon the remedy
citizens the right to approach a court of 136. Which one of the following is a bulwark
law for the protection and restoration of personal freedom? ⇒Habeas Cor-
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of FRs? (Right) ⇒Constitutional Reme- pus
dies 137. The right to establish an educational in-
123. The Sikhs in India are permitted to carry stitution and imparting education is not
Kirpans. Under which FR are they per- a commercial activity. This principle is
mitted to do so? ⇒Right to freedom of laid down in ⇒Unnikrishnan V/s State
religion of Andhra Pradesh Case
124. Gender Equality includes protection 138. Freedom of press is protected under the
from sexual harassment and right to Article ⇒19(1)(d)
work with dignity, which is universally 139. The Constitution confers a special au-
recognized as basic Human Right. This thority for the enforcement of FRs on
principle is laid down in ⇒Vishaka V/s the ⇒Supreme Court
State of Rajasthan Case 140. Right to life and personal liberty guaran-
125. Which one is not a FR? ⇒The Right to teed under Article 21 implies ⇒right of
Strike every human being to live with dignity
126. One of the restrictions of freedom of 141. This is not a Writ. ⇒Writ of Prevention
speech and expression is ⇒Contempt 142. Who is empowered to admit a
of Court new State to the Union of India?
127. Writ of Certiorari is issued when a ⇒Parliament
⇒judicial authority acts in excess of ju- 143. Who are not entitled to form Union?
risdiction ⇒Police
128. Under Article 368, Parliament has no 144. FRs are ⇒Positive and Negative
power to repeal FRs because they are 145. Which of the following is not a FR?
⇒Basic Structure of Constitution [Right to] ⇒Property
129. Which FR granted by the Constitu- 146. When a person is detained under a Spe-
tion prohibits traffic in human beings? cial Law ⇒An Advisory Board must be
⇒Right against exploitation constituted within three months
130. Which one of the following pairs is cor- 147. In the famous Keshavananda Bharti V/s
rectly matched? ⇒Writ of Mandamus - State of Kerala Case, the Supreme Court
Issued to the public servants asserts the power of the parliament
131. India’s desire for civil liberties started to amend the Constitution under Article
from the struggle for independence 368 subject to ⇒Certain implied and
against the ⇒British Rule inherent limitation of not amending the
132. The principle of Judicial review of Pres- Basic Structure of the Constitution
ident’s Rule in State under the Article 148. Right to Property was excluded form
356 is laid down in ⇒S.R. Bommai V/s the FRs during the tenure of the Gov-
Union of India ernment headed by ⇒Morarji Desai
133. The concept of Dual Citizenship in the 149. Writ of Prohibition ⇒Prohibits lower
Union of India was recommended by court exceeding its jurisdiction
⇒L. M. Singhvi Committee. 150. Education has became the joint respon-
134. The 44th Amendment of Constitution of sibility of the Center and State Govern-
India withdrew the FR is to ⇒Property ments through a Constitutional Amend-
135. A citizen’s FRs are protected ⇒when ment in ⇒1976
the citizen approaches the court for 151. What is the age in years for casting their
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11.2 Fundamental rights 820
vote? ⇒18 years shall be employed to work in any
152. The writ of Mandamus is issued by a su- factory or mine or engaged in any other
perior court to ⇒to command a person hazardous employment?” ⇒24
or public authority to do something in 167. Which one is a newly added FR? (Right
the nature of the public duty to) ⇒Education of Children
153. Any law depriving personal liberty guar- 168. Which one of the following writs liter-
anteed under the Article 21 had to con- ally means ‘you may have the body’?
firm with ⇒- Article 20 & Article 22 ⇒Habeas Corpus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
154. Which of the following writ is issued by 169. The principle “No person shall be pros-
the Supreme Court if it sends an order ecuted and punished for same offence
to restrain a person from acting in an more than once” is ⇒Double jeopardy
office to which he / she is not entitled? 170. ‘Contempt of Court’ places restriction
⇒Quo Warranto on which of the following FR? (Right)
155. Seats in Educational Institutions can be ⇒Freedom
reserved for ⇒Socially and Education- 171. ‘Ex-post facto law’ means ⇒passing
ally backward class people criminal law with retrospective effect
156. Who quoted ‘Child of today is the 172. Which of the Provision authorizes Par-
Citizen of tomorrow’? ⇒Jawaharlal liament to discriminate in favor of
Nehru women against men? ⇒Article 15 (3)
157. Right to practice and propagate any re- 173. India borrowed the idea of incorporat-
ligion is the subject to ⇒public order ing FRs in the Constitution from ⇒USA
158. The Writs for the enforcement of FRs 174. The secular provisions under the In-
are issued by the ⇒Supreme Court dian Constitution are guaranteed under
159. Which of the following has been in- Article ⇒- 22
cluded in the list of FRs to Indian citizen? 175. Writ of Habeas Corpus means
⇒Education to all children between 6- ⇒produce the body before the court
14 years of age 176. The Right to Property was removed
160. Which important Human Right is pro- from the list of FRs enlisted in the Con-
tected in Article 21 of our Constitution? stitution of India through which one of
⇒Right to Life and Liberty the following Amendments? ⇒44th
161. ‘Equal Protection of Law’ meanst ⇒he 177. The right of the accused to be in-
same law shall apply to all who are sim- formed about his ground of arrest
ilarly situated is⇒Mandatory
162. A laborer is entitled to get at least min- 178. Writ of Mandamus can be issued on the
imum wages, otherwise Article is ground of ⇒Non-performance of public
violated.⇒23 duties
163. The FRs, which cannot be suspended 179. Exploitation of any sort is prohibited un-
even during the emergency, are Articles der the Article ⇒23
⇒20 and 21 180. Consider the following statements:⇒
164. ‘Backward Class (BC)’ can be classified 181. ‘Right to Privacy’ includes Right to
into ⇒Most Backward Class ⇒personal liberty
165. Original Constitution classified FRs into 182. The right to strike is⇒
seven categories but now there are 183. Writs can be issued for the enforcement
⇒Six of FRs by the ⇒Supreme Court
166. Which Article of the Constitution of In- 184. Who among the following has voting
dia says, “No child below the age of 14 rights? ⇒An adult resident citizen of
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11.3 Directive principles of state policy 821
a State pressed the concept of equality before
185. Writ of Quo Warranto can be issued on the law? ⇒Swaraj Bill
the ground of ⇒Unlawful occupation of 197. ‘Equality before the Law’ implies
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public office ⇒absence of any privilege in favor of
186. Freedoms guaranteed under the Article any person
19 are suspended during emergency on 198. Any law laid down by the Parliament to
the ground of ⇒War or external ag- deprive the personal liberty should be
gression ⇒Fair, Reasonable & Just
187. If an Act is not an offence on the date 199. Which of the following is a qualifica-
of its commission, a law enacted in fu- tion to acquire Citizenship by Natural-
ture cannot make it so, is the principle ization? ⇒A person is in service of
of ⇒Ex-post facto law Government of India from 12 months
188. A person is detained under Preventive 200. The writ of Prohibition is issued by a
Detention Law when ⇒he is likely to superior court ⇒to prevent an inferior
cause harm to the public court or tribunal from exceeding its ju-
189. An arrested person should be allowed risdiction or acting contrary to the rules
⇒to consult his Lawyer of natural justice
190. FRs can be claimed against the ⇒State 201. “Equality and arbitrariness are sworn
191. According to the Constitution guaran- enemies”. This was said in the follow-
tees FRs to ⇒All citizens of India ing Case: ⇒Royappa V/s Tamil Nadu
192. The FRs of the Indian Citizen in our Con- State
stitution are contained in (OR) FRs are 202. A Writ issued by the Supreme Court com-
guaranteed under of the Indian Con- pelling a quasi-judicial / public author-
stitution. ⇒Part III ity to perform its mandatory duty is
193. Right to education guaranteed under the ⇒Mandamus
Article 21A shall be between the age 203. Freedom from arbitrary arrest is pro-
group of ⇒6 to 14 vided under ⇒Right to Personal Liberty
194. Charging capitation fees for admission 204. The FRs provided to the citizens are
to educational institutions is illegal and ⇒Subject to reasonable restrictions
amounted to denial of citizen’s right to 205. What is the object of Article 21A of the
education. This principle is laid down Constitution? ⇒Primary Education
in ⇒Mohin Jain V/s State of Karnataka 206. A person is detained under the Special
Case Law when ⇒there is likelihood of com-
195. Right to Primary Education guaranteed mitting offence against public
under the Article 21A was inserted into 207. A person can move to Supreme Court di-
the Constitution by Constitutional rectly in vent of violation of FRs under
Amendment. ⇒86th Article⇒32
196. Which Resolution for the first time ex-
11.3 Directive principles of state policy
1. Which one of the following is a DPSP? Constitution of (OR) The idea of DPSP
⇒The State shall endeavor to protect is borrowed from the Constitution of
and improve the environment ⇒Ireland
2. The framers of our Constitution bor- 3. According to the interpretation of the
rowed the concept of DPSP from the Supreme Court, the word ‘Material Re-
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11.3 Directive principles of state policy 822
sources’ means ⇒Both Movable and ment and safeguarding of forest and
Immovable property wildlife under Article 48A is inserted
4. The aim of the DPSP is to establish into the Constitution by the Amend-
⇒Welfare State in the country ment. ⇒42nd
5. Which Article recognizes International 18. ‘Common (Uniform) Civil Code’ means
Law under the Constitution? ⇒51 ⇒Common Civil law applicable to all
6. The Indian Constitution is silent as to 19. The Constitution assures economic jus-
which of the following DPSP? ⇒Adult tice to the Indian citizens through
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Education ⇒DPSP
7. Planning in India derives its objectives 20. Who said in the Constituent Assembly
from the ⇒DPSP that the DPSP are like a ‘Cheque on a
8. Which one of the following DPSP re- bank payable at the convenience of the
flects Socialist Ideology? ⇒to ensure a bank’? ⇒K. T. Shah
decent standard of living and leisure for 21. DPSP are ⇒positive instructions to
all workers, to provide adequate means government to work for the attainment
of livelihood to all & to prevent concen- of set objectives
tration of wealth and means of produc- 22. Article 51 mandates India’s Foreign Pol-
tion and to ensure equitable distribu- icy to ⇒Promote International Peace
tion of wealth and material resources and Security, Encourage settlement of
9. Which Amendment of the Constitution international disputes by arbitration &
accorded precedence to all the DPSP Maintain just and good relations be-
over FRs? ⇒42nd tween nations
10. It is the obligation of the State to pro- 23. Which of the following factors has been
tect every monument or place or ob- responsible for the slow implementa-
ject of artistic or historic interest and tion of the DPSP? ⇒Vastness of the
of national importance under the Article country, Lack of resources with the gov-
⇒49 ernment & Lack of political will
11. This Act was not passed to implement 24. The DPSP are ⇒Social Rights
DPSP ⇒Arms Act 25. The phrase ‘Economic Justice’ is found
12. Who described the DPSP as the ‘Novel in ⇒Preamble and FRs
Feature of the Indian Constitution’? 26. Which one of following reasons has
⇒Ambedkar been wrongly listed for the slow imple-
13. In the event of non-enforcement of mentation of DPSP? ⇒opposition from
DPSP by the Government, a citizen of the society
India can move the⇒ 27. The purpose of the inclusion of DPSP in
14. Which of the following statements re- the Indian Constitution is to establish
gard to the DPSPs is correct? ⇒The ⇒Social and Economic democracy
courts can compel the State to imple- 28. The DPSP are included in our Constitu-
ment some of the important directives tion from Articles ⇒36 to 51
15. Which one of the following wanted the 29. The DPSP ⇒cannot be enforced in any
DPSP to be the basis for all future leg- court
islation? ⇒B. R. Ambedkar 30. By whom the DPSP be amended?
16. Which Article provides for the separa- ⇒Parliament, supported by more than
tion of Judiciary from the Executive? 50
⇒50 31. Under DPSP, the State is expected to
17. Protection and Improvement of environ- provide free and compulsory education
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11.3 Directive principles of state policy 823
to all children up to the age (in years) of 43. This is not a DPSP. ⇒Secure just and
⇒14 efficient judiciary
32. Slow implementation of DPSPs in due to 44. The State is obligated to protect and im-
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⇒Lack of political will prove the environment and safeguard-
33. The enforcement of the DPSP depends ing of forest and wildlife of the country
on ⇒Resources available with the Gov- under the Article ⇒48A
ernment 45. Which characteristic of the DPSP pro-
34. Provisions for a welfare State in India vided in the Indian Constitution is incor-
are found in ⇒DPSP rect? ⇒No law can be passed by leg-
35. “Distribution of material resources of islature which is not in conformity with
the community as to sub-serve the com- these principles
mon good” guaranteed under the Article 46. Which one of the following has been
39B aim at the principle of State. wrongly listed as a DPSP based on lib-
⇒Secular eral principles? ⇒
36. Free legal aid (Article 39A) is inserted 47. Village Panchayats (Article 40) are the
under Indian Constitution by way of best examples for India’s form of
Amendment. ⇒42nd government. ⇒Democratic
37. Which among the following DPSP that 48. In which part of the Constitution does
has not been implemented so far the concept of welfare finds elabora-
⇒Uniform Civil Code tion? ⇒DPSP
38. Which one of the following DPSP is a so- 49. Certain socio-economic provisions are
cialistic principle? ⇒Prevention of con- guaranteed under the ⇒DPSP
centration of wealth and the means of 50. DPSP are contained in (OR) Welfare
production, Protection of the health of provisions under Indian Constitution are
workers & Equal pay for equal work to guaranteed under ⇒Part IV
all 51. Article 45 mandates the State to pro-
39. This is not one of the DPSP ⇒take strin- vide for ⇒early childhood care and ed-
gent measures to eliminate corruption ucation for all children until they com-
40. Consider the following statements re- plete the age of 6 years
garding the DPSP. ⇒The DPSP aim 52. Which one of the following DPSP
at realizing the ideals of justice, lib- is based on Gandhian Ideology?
erty, equality and fraternity enshrined ⇒Organization of Village Panchayats,
in the Preamble to the Constitution & Prohibition on the use of intoxicating
The DPSP have to be kept in mind by the drinks except for medicinal purposes &
government while formulating policies To work for the development of weaker
and framing laws or backward sections of the society
41. DPSP are in the nature of ⇒Guidelines 53. Just and humane conditions of work and
to State maximum living wages for workers is
42. Which amendment of the Constitution provided respectively under the Articles
sought to enhance the importance of the ⇒42 and 43
DPSP by providing that no law passed 54. Which one of the following DPSP did not
to give effect to DPSP contained in Ar- form part of the original Constitution
ticles 39 (b) and (c) shall be deemed to and was added subsequently through
be void on the ground that it abridges constitutional amendments? ⇒to min-
the rights conferred by the Articles 14 imize inequality in income, status, facil-
and 19? ⇒- 25th ities and opportunities amongst individ-
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11.4 Fundamental duties 824
uals and groups, right of the workers 63. The Right to adequate means of liveli-
to participate in the management of in- hood is to be provided by the State un-
dustries & to protect and improve the der the Article - ⇒39
environment and to safeguard forests 64. In Gandhian Socialism, ⇒State is re-
and wildlife quired
55. All of the following Articles deals with 65. The State imposing tax on capital and
DPSP except ⇒50 wealth according to taxation laws is
56. Under which Article has the State been protected under Article ⇒39
NARAYAN CHANGDER
directed to secure for the citizens a Uni- 66. ‘Uniform Civil Code’ means ⇒A codified
form Civil Code throughout the territory law applicable to all persons of India ir-
of India? ⇒44 respective of their religion
57. The DPSP aim at ⇒providing a so- 67. The DPSP are ⇒Non-justiceable
cial and economic base for a genuine 68. Which among the following articles
democracy in the country guides the State to promote the welfare
58. If India has to provide socio-economic of the State? ⇒38
welfare to its citizens, it should give en- 69. Which part of the Constitution aims at
forceability to ⇒DPSP establishing a Welfare State in the coun-
59. In which case did the Supreme Court try? ⇒DPSP
strike down the Provisions of the Con- 70. The DPSP seek ⇒To make the Constitu-
stitution that accorded primacy to DPSP tion an instrument of social change
over FRs? ⇒Minerva Mills 71. Which one of the following is a DPSP?
60. The DPSP may be classified into ⇒Raising the standards of living of the
⇒Socialist, Gandhians and Liberals people
61. The DPSP to be followed by the State 72. The 42nd Amendment made additions to
for securing economic justice doe not in- DPSP with regard to the following three
clude ⇒to secure Uniform Civil Code matters. - ⇒Participation of workers
62. DPSPs are the conscience of the Con- in the management of industry, Protec-
stitution, which embody the social phi- tion of the environment & Free legal aid
losophy of the Constitution. The above to the poor
statement was stated by: ⇒Granville 73. Which one of the following is not a
Austin DPSP? ⇒
11.4 Fundamental duties
1. This is not a FD. ⇒Not to indulge in cor- Amendment (11.12.1976)
rupt practice 6. FD under Article 51A (k) was inserted
2. Respecting our National Flag is a ⇒FD to the Constitution by Amendment
3. The original text of the Constitution Act, 2002. ⇒86th
doesn’t contain FDs, however it is in- 7. The National Flag of India is a hori-
serted by way of Amendment. zontal tri-color of deep Saffron (Kesari-
⇒42nd representing courage and sacrifice) at
4. The FDs cannot be enforced by writs, the top, White (peace and truth) in
they can be promoted by method. the middle and deep Green (faith and
⇒Constitutional chivalry) at the bottom in equal pro-
5. The FDs of the Indian citizens were portion and in the center Wheel (rep-
⇒Added to the Constitution by 42nd resenting progression) was adopted by
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11.4 Fundamental duties 825
the Constituent Assembly of India on Indian citizen? ⇒To develop scientific
⇒22.07.1947 temper
8. FDs are applicable to all ⇒Citizens 23. The ratio between the length and
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9. What is the remedy available for the breadth of the Indian National Flag is
breach of FDs under the Constitution? ⇒3:2
⇒Filing writ petition 24. Which one of the following is / are
10. Which FD has been wrongly listed as a FDs? ⇒To uphold and protect the
duty of Indian citizen as outlined in Arti- sovereignty of India, To safeguard the
cle 51A? ⇒To practice family planning public property & To protect and im-
and control population prove environment
11. By what Amendment and with Year 25. It is the duty of every citizen if India to
‘Child education is compulsory between promote harmony and the spirit of com-
ages of 06-14 years’? ⇒86th and mon brotherhood amongst all people of
2002 India under Article ⇒51A (e)
12. The purpose of FD is to ⇒Develop sci- 26. FDs were incorporated in the Constitu-
entific temper tion to ⇒curb subversive and unconsti-
13. Consider the following statements - The tutional activities
FDs provided in Constitution are (As 27. Which Committee recommended for the
per Article 51A) ⇒(i) To protect the inclusion of FDs into the Constitution?
sovereignty, unity and integrity of In- ⇒Sardar Swaran Singh
dia & (ii) To protect and improve the 28. FD demands to ⇒Abide by the Constitu-
natural environment including forests, tion
lakes, rivers and wild life 29. The FDs of Indian citizens were incorpo-
14. Which one of the following is being in- rated in the Constitution in ⇒1976
cluded in the Part IV-A of the Constitu- 30. Obligation of the parents / guardian to
tion? ⇒FDs provide opportunities for the education
15. The 42nd Amendment introduced ⇒FDs to their children between 6 to 14 years
16. Under which Article the FDs are en- of age is ⇒FDs
shrined under the Indian Constitution? 31. What is the main sanction behind the
⇒51A FDs? ⇒Legal
17. FDs refers to ⇒(i) Ideals of the national 32. The concept of FDs are borrowed from
struggle & (ii) Defend the country and the Constitution of ⇒Russia
render national service 33. FDs are enshrined under Part of the
18. The FDs under the Indian Constitution Constitution. ⇒IV-A
are provided by ⇒An Amendment to 34. The FDs of citizens ⇒are contained in
the Constitution Part IV-A of the Constitution
19. For the breach of FD, an action ⇒cannot 35. India’s National Anthem ‘Jana gana
be initiated in any Court mana’ was adopted by the Constituent
20. The duty to protect and improve the en- Assembly as the National Anthem of In-
vironment is enshrined under the Article dia on 24th January 1950 and was first
⇒51A (g) sung on ⇒27th December, 1911
21. The protection and improvement of en- 36. To respect the National Flag and Na-
vironment including forest and wildlife tional Anthem is ⇒FDs of every citizen
of the country is enshrined in ⇒FDs & 37. National Song ‘Bande Matharam’ was
DPSP written in 1875 by Bankimchandra
22. Which of the following is a FD of an Chatterjee in his novel ⇒Anand Math
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11.5 Union / central government 826
11.5 Union / central government
1. How many seats have been reserved ⇒Prime Minister
for the Union Territories in the Lok 16. Which Article empowers the President
Sabha? ⇒20 to grant pardon? ⇒72
2. The Standing Committee, apart from 17. Under the Advisory Jurisdiction, the
examining the grant of all Min- Supreme Court gives it’s opinion to the
istries and Departments, are able to ⇒President
NARAYAN CHANGDER
examine⇒Long-term policies, Bills of 18. With reference to the Indian Polity,
technical nature & Annual reports of which one of the following statements
Ministries and Departments is correct? ⇒President can make the
3. Which one of the following is presided ordinance only when either of the two
over by a Non-member? ⇒Rajya Houses of Parliament is not in session
Sabha 19. The Prime Minister acts as a channel of
4. The Vice President has ⇒Right to pre- communication between ⇒Ministry and
side over Rajya Sabha President
5. When did Delhi became Union Territory? 20. Which of the following statements is not
⇒1956 correct? ⇒In the event of the dissolu-
6. The Council of Ministers is collectively tion of the Lok Sabha, any Bill pending
responsible to ⇒Parliament in the Rajya Sabha, but not passed by
7. The vote of ‘No confidence’ is passed the Lok Sabha, lapses
against a Minister ⇒The whole Council 21. Railways is a subject under
of Ministers has to resign ⇒Union List
8. At the time of accession to the Domin- 22. If the Attorney General of India wishes
ion, the States acceded only three sub- to tender his resignation before the ex-
jects: ⇒Defence, Foreign Affairs and piry of his term, he has to address his
Communication resignation to the ⇒President
9. Immediate control of the members of All 23. Lal Krishnan Advani is the Deputy
India Services lies with the ⇒State Gov- Prime Minister. ⇒7th
ernment 24. President declares emergencies ⇒On
10. The concept of ‘Judicial Activism’ gained the advice of the Council of Ministers
currency in India in ⇒1990s 25. Till now, any President has been re-
11. If Finance Minister fails to get Annual moved under the Motion of Impeach-
Budget passed in the Lok Sabha, the ment? ⇒No
Prime Minister can ⇒submit resigna- 26. A Resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha
tion of his Cabinet empowering the Parliament to legislate
12. The full status of ‘State’ was conferred under State List shall remain in force for
upon the Union Territories of Manipur a maximum period of ⇒One year
and Tripura in ⇒1972 27. The Judges of the Supreme Court are ap-
13. Which one of the Constitutional posts is pointed by the ⇒President in consulta-
enjoyed for a fixed term? ⇒President tion with the Chief Justice of India
14. The day-to-day administration of the 28. If a new State of Indian Union is to be
Union Territory is looked after by the created, which Schedule of Constitution
⇒President must be amended? ⇒First
15. Who enforces collective responsibility 29. The procedure for amendment of the In-
amongst the Council of Ministers? dian Constitution is ⇒partly rigid and
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11.5 Union / central government 827
flexible sentatives to the Lok Sabha? ⇒Uttar
30. The Constitution of India vests the exec- Pradesh
utive powers of the Union Government 44. Who is legally competent to declare war
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in ⇒President or conclude peace? ⇒President
31. Who is authorized to appoint the Chief 45. ‘Legislate’ means ⇒make law
Minister of Delhi? ⇒Lieutenant Gover- 46. Planning Commission was composed in
nor the year ⇒1950
32. Which of the following has been 47. On which List does the Union Govern-
wrongly listed as a Standing Joint Com- ment enjoy exclusive powers? ⇒Union
mittee of the two Houses of the Par- List
liament? ⇒Committee on Government 48. In which Case did the Supreme Court
Assurances restore the primacy of Fundamental
33. The salary and allowances of the Rights over Directive Principles of State
Comptroller and Auditor General are Policy? ⇒Minerva Mills Case
paid out of the ⇒Consolidated Fund of 49. The Supreme Court of India was set up
India ⇒By the Constitution
34. Who has the power to enlarge the Ju- 50. Before 1956, the present day Union Ter-
risdiction of Supreme Court with respect ritory were characterized as ⇒Part C
to any matter contained under the Union States
List? ⇒Parliament 51. How many seats are reserved for the
35. To be eligible (age in years) for appoint- members of the Scheduled Tribes in the
ment as President, a candidate must be Lok Sabha? ⇒30
⇒over 35 52. What is the maximum gap in months
36. Indian Constitution was inaugurated on permissible between two sessions of
⇒26.01.1950 Parliament? ⇒Six
37. Under which Article of the Indian Consti- 53. When two Houses of Parliament differ
tution can the President be impeached? regarding a Bill, then the deadlock is re-
⇒61 solved by ⇒A Joint Sitting of the two
38. The President can promulgate an ordi- Houses
nance only when ⇒the Parliament is 54. The President will decide the question
not in session as to disqualification of the MPs in con-
39. The Central Government can issue direc- sultation with the ⇒Election Commis-
tions to the State with regard to the sioner
subjects in ⇒All these Lists 55. Chairman and Members of UPSC / WBP-
40. PIL can be resorted to in case of injury SCC may resign their Office by submit-
due to ⇒Violation of a constitutional ting their resignation to the (OR) Chair-
provision, Breach of any public duty & man and Members of UPSC / WBPSCC
Violation of the law can be removed on ground of proved
41. The ‘Rule of Law’ means ⇒That no per- misbehavior by the ⇒President / Gov-
son can be punished unless his guilt is ernor
established by a fair trial 56. Which one of the following officials is
42. Under which Ministry of the Govern- not appointed by the President? (OR)
ment of India does the Food and Nutri- In the appointment of which one of the
tion Board work? ⇒Ministry of Human following officials has the President no
Resource Development say? ⇒District and Sessions Judges
43. Which State sends the maximum repre- 57. The framers of Constitution adopted the
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11.5 Union / central government 828
doctrine of Judicial Review ⇒to ensure ber of Judges of the Supreme Court?
proper working of the federal system of ⇒Parliament
the government 72. The Supreme Court of India was created
58. The Principles of Natural Justice do not by ⇒The Constitution
require ⇒follow instructions strictly by 73. For criminal misconduct, the Judge of
superior officer the Supreme Court ⇒can be prose-
59. Usually, General Budget is presented to cuted
the Parliament on ⇒Last day of Febru- 74. Who heads the National Integration
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ary Council? ⇒PM
60. ‘Special leave’ means ⇒permission 75. The final decision whether a MP of Lok
granted by the Supreme Court to appeal Sabha has incurred disqualification un-
61. A tax shall not be levied or collected ex- der the Defection Law rests with the
cept by the authority of the ⇒Law ⇒Speaker
62. UPSC / WBPSCC has to submit an An- 76. The continuation of National Emergency
nual Report to the ⇒Parliament / Gov- beyond a period of six months is
ernor possible only with the approval of
63. Chairman and Members of UPSC / WBP- ⇒Parliament by special majority
SCC shall hold Office for a term of 77. The President of India is removed from
years and tenure of years. ⇒6/6 Office by ⇒Impeachment
and 65/62 78. When an advance grant is made by Par-
64. Ad hoc Judges can be appointed in the liament pending regular passage of the
Supreme Court by the ⇒Chief Justice Budget, it is called ⇒Vote of Account
of India with the prior consent of the 79. The President, the Head of the State un-
President der the Parliamentary system prevail-
65. On which of the following subjects does ing in India, enjoys ⇒only nominal pow-
the power to legislate vest both in ers
the Union as well as the State legisla- 80. Who will elect the Vice President of
tures? ⇒Acquisition and requisition- India? ⇒MP (Rajya Sabha and Lok
ing of property Sabha)
66. The gap (period) between two ses- 81. The Attorney General of India holds Of-
sions of the Lok Sabha is termed as fice ⇒during the pleasure of the Presi-
⇒Prorogation dent
67. The Prime Minister holds Office ⇒As 82. Which State of India has contributed the
long as he enjoys confidence of Parlia- maximum Prime Ministers? ⇒Uttar
ment Pradesh
68. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved be- 83. The Constitution of India has created
fore expiry of its term by the ⇒ ⇒very strong center
69. Legislative Assembly of Delhi shall have 84. Which Article of the Constitution autho-
power to make laws for the whole of rizes the Parliament to create All India
National Capital Territory with respect Services? - ⇒312
to the matter contained in ⇒Both List 85. Which Part of the Constitution incorpo-
II and III rates Special provisions to the State of
70. Parliament has exclusive power to Jammu & Kashmir? ⇒XXI
make laws with respect to any matter 86. The first session of the Parliament after
enumerated In ⇒List I the General Election is ⇒Mandatory
71. Who has the power to increase the num- 87. Who can be removed for violation of
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11.5 Union / central government 829
Constitution by a process called as Im- ⇒2 and 12
peachment Motion? ⇒President 104. Who among the following was the Head
88. Who will appoint the Attorney General of the Investment Commission which
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of India? ⇒President submitted its Report to the Government
89. Ad hoc Judges can be appointed to the of India recently (2007)? ⇒Ratan Tata
Supreme Court ⇒if requisite number 105. ‘Judicial Activism’ refers to
of Judges are not available to hold the ⇒Expansion of jurisdiction of courts
meeting of the Court 106. No taxes can be levied or expenditure
90. Lotteries organized by the State Gov- incurred without the approval of the
ernment come under List. ⇒State ⇒Parliament
91. The Finance Commission has a term of 107. Who is the first woman film star
years. ⇒5 nominated or elected to Rajya Sabha?
92. Salaries and Pension of the Chairman ⇒Nargis Dutt
and Members of UPSC shall be charged 108. Who finally approves the draft of Five
from the ⇒Consolidated Fund Year Plans? ⇒National Development
93. Which one of the following are the Council
Financial Committees of Parliament of 109. Which one of the following statements
India?⇒1. Public Accounts Committee, is not correct? ⇒The proposal for
2. Estimate Committee & 3. Committee amending the Constitution can only be
on Public Undertakings initiated in Lok Sabha
94. Survey of India is under the Ministry of 110. The Supreme Court propounded ‘The
⇒Science and Technology Theory of Basic Structure of the Consti-
95. The Judges of the Supreme Court ⇒can tution’ in⇒Keshavananda Bharti case
be removed by the President on the rec- 111. Which of the following is not a function
ommendation of the Parliament of judiciary? ⇒Catching criminals and
96. The President holds Office for a term of punishing them
five years ⇒from the date on which he 112. A person can be member of the Council
/ she enters upon the Office of Ministers without being a MP for a
97. The Custody of Contingency Fund of In- maximum period of months. ⇒six
dia is with the ⇒President 113. Which among the following is described
98. Who of the following held the Office of as ‘Knowledge House’? ⇒Rajya Sabha
the Vice President of India for two full 114. Composition and function of Rajya
terms? ⇒- Radhakrishnan Sabha points towards Character.
99. The Office of the Prime Minister ⇒has ⇒Federal
been created by the Constitution 115. Who will determine the rank of different
100. Generally the Prime Minister is Ministers in Union and State Council of
⇒Member of Lok Sabha Ministers? ⇒Prime Minister and Chief
101. Which Commission was set up in pur- Minister
suance of a definite provision under 116. Consider the following statements: (i)
the Article of the Indian Constitution? The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to
⇒Election declare that it would be in national inter-
102. The House of People (Lok Sabha) can be est for the Parliament to legislate with
adjourned sine-die by the ⇒Speaker respect to a matter in the State List.
103. How many Anglo-Indian and other 117. The Consultative Committee of the
Members can be nominated by the Presi- Members of Parliament for Railway
dent to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha? Zones is constituted by ⇒Ministry of
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11.5 Union / central government 830
Parliamentary Affairs 133. Which one of the following was a Union
118. In which system, the government can be Territory before it was accorded the sta-
removed by way of ‘No Confidence Mo- tus of a full-fledged State?⇒
tion’? ⇒Parliamentary 134. Who of the following acts as the Chief
119. A Bill for which the President is bound to Legal Advisor to the Government of In-
give his assent without sending it back dia? ⇒Attorney General
for fresh consideration is ⇒Money Bill 135. Subjects of Local Importance were enu-
120. Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme merated under ⇒List II
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Court in appeal from High Court in re- 136. Which of the following Constitutional
gard to civil matters pertaining only to post(s) is / are enjoyed for a fixed
⇒Substantial question of law term? ⇒President
121. Which one of the following is not among 137. The 24th Amendment became necessary
the sources of revenue for the Union? as a result of the Supreme Court judg-
⇒Land revenue ment in ⇒- Golak Nath Case
122. Which one of the following is not a Cen- 138. States will be reorganized by the Parlia-
tral tax? ⇒Sales Tax ment under the Article 3 of the Consti-
123. The Supreme Court of India tenders ad- tution on the - ⇒Linguistic basis
vice to the President of India on the mat- 139. The law made by the Parliament
ter of law or fact ⇒Only if he seeks ⇒Cannot be declared as extra-
such advice territorial
124. The term ‘Law’ used in the expression 140. Distribution of subjects between the
‘Rule of Law’ refers to ⇒Positive Law Center and the States is enumerated un-
125. All the Executive powers and the De- der Schedule. ⇒7th
fence forces of the Union shall be vested 141. This is not the function of Lok Sabha.
in the ⇒President ⇒Judicial
126. Vice President of India can be removed 142. Who was the President of India at
from Office before expiry of his / her Proclamation of Emergency in the year
term by ⇒Two Houses of Parliament 1976? ⇒Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
127. The subjects of National Importance 143. If the Rajya Sabha rejects a Money Bill,
were enumerated under ⇒Union List but follows ⇒The Lok Sabha can sent
128. Which of the following Schedules in the the same for Presidential assent
Constitution divides the legislative pow- 144. The Presidential Address is prepared by
ers between the Union and the States? ⇒The Prime Minister and his / her Cab-
⇒VII inet
129. The President of India may from time to 145. The name of Laccadive, Minicoy and
time ⇒dissolve the Lok Sabha Amindivi Islands was changed to Lak-
130. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is shadweep by an Act of Parliament in
⇒Elected by the two Houses of Par- ⇒1973
liament 146. An Ordinance can be promulgated on the
131. A Fund which is utilized to meet the subject mentioned in ⇒List I and List
unforeseen expenditure is entitled as III
⇒Contingency Fund 147. The Council of Ministers is ⇒Larger
132. Anti-Defection Act relating to disqual- than Cabinet
ification of Members of Parliament 148. ‘Respite’ means ⇒awarding lesser
and State Legislatures does not covers punishment
⇒Chairman of Rajya Sabha 149. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if
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11.5 Union / central government 831
neither Speaker nor Deputy Speaker is ernment
available? ⇒- a member of the panel 163. The Report of Finance Commission shall
of Chairmen announced by Speaker be laid before the ⇒President
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150. The other names for Rajya Sabha (Per- 164. How many judges sat on the Bench
manent Body) are ⇒Upper House / to hear the landmark case of Kesha-
House of States vananda Bharti V/s State of Kerala in
151. Which of the following Committees are 1973? ⇒13
sometimes described as ‘Twin Sisters’? 165. In the removal of which of the follow-
⇒Public Account and Estimate Commit- ing officials does the Parliament play no
tees role? ⇒Chairman of the Union Public
152. Parliament has delegated some legisla- Service Commission
tive powers in relation to the Union Ter- 166. Which one of the following Official dis-
ritory to ⇒Union Government charges the duties of the President, if
153. In which of the following cases is a joint both the President and Vice President
session of the two Houses of Parliament are not available? ⇒Chief Justice of
not necessary? ⇒A Bill to amend the India
Constitution 167. Who occupied the President’s Office
154. India is known as a Parliamentary twice (two consecutive terms) in our
Democracy because the ⇒Executive is country? ⇒Rajendra Prasad
responsible to the Parliament 168. Sarkaria Commission was appointed by
155. What are the timings followed for the the Government to report on ⇒Center-
Zero Hour in the Parliament House? State Relations
⇒12 to 1 169. What is the term of the Parliamen-
156. The President of India is the ⇒Head of tary Committees appointed by the Pres-
State ident? ⇒One year
157. A Select or Joint Committee of the two 170. Who was the Defence Minister of In-
Houses of a Parliament is formed by dia during the Indo-China War of 1962?
⇒Speaker of the Lok Sabha ⇒V. K. Krishna Menon
158. Which subject is under the Union List in 171. The Finance Commission is normally ex-
the 7th Schedule of the Constitution of pected to be constituted after every
India? ⇒Regulation of labor years. ⇒Five
159. Which Act has been enacted by the 172. An ordinance promulgated by the Presi-
Parliament by exercising its power un- dent usually remains in force for ⇒six
der the Article 3 of the Constitution? weeks after the commencement of the
⇒States Reorganization Act next session of the Parliament
160. The Speaker can ask a member of the 173. Which of the following cases was con-
House to stop speaking and let another nected with the Supreme Court’s judg-
member speak. This phenomenon is ment in 1980 that the Amendments
known as ⇒Yielding the floor made to Articles 31 (c) and 368 are in-
161. The President can make laws through valid? ⇒Keshavananda Bharti Case
ordinances ⇒during the recess of the 174. Which one of the following was
Parliament elected President of India unopposed?
162. It became imperative for the framers ⇒Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
of the Indian Constitution to adopt the 175. How many Judges of the Supreme Court
doctrine of Judicial Review because of have been removed from their Office
⇒Adoption of Federal system of Gov- before the expiry of their normal term
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11.5 Union / central government 832
through Impeachment? ⇒none 189. Which one of the following is the cor-
176. The President can dismiss a member rect sequence of Union Territories of
of the Council of Ministers on the India in the increasing order of their
⇒recommendation of the Prime Minis- area? ⇒Lakshadweep - Chandigarh -
ter Pondicherry - Andaman and Nicobar Is-
177. One of the qualifications to become the lands
Judge of the Supreme Court is ⇒In the 190. Which one of the following Amendments
opinion of the President, he must be a to the Constitution clearly has laid down
NARAYAN CHANGDER
distinguished Jurist that the President of India is bound to
178. The Parliament of India consists of accept the advice given by the Council of
⇒President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Ministers? ⇒42nd
Sabha 191. In a Federation, the source of power for
179. The Vice President discharges the duties the States is the ⇒Constitution
of the President during his / her illness 192. Who enjoys the Rank of a Cabinet Min-
for a maximum period of ⇒Indefinitely ister of Indian Union? ⇒Deputy Chair-
180. The Parliament works through numer- man of Planning Commission
ous committees, whose members are 193. The Supreme Court holds its meetings at
⇒Either appointed by the Speaker or New Delhi, but it can meet elsewhere
elected by the House ⇒With the approval of the President
181. The Prime Minister is ⇒appointed by 194. Which conditions does not contribute
the President to the independence of the Indian Judi-
182. The Comptroller and Auditor General is ciary? ⇒Once appointed, the Judges
intimately connected with the following cannot be removed from their Office be-
Committee of the Parliament? ⇒Public fore the date of retirement
Accounts Committee 195. Who presides over the meetings of the
183. The Finance Commission consists of Council of Ministers? ⇒Prime Minister
number of Members. ⇒5 196. Which is the first State in India formed
184. Which one of the following is the correct on Linguistic grounds? ⇒Andhra
definition of the term ‘Whip’?⇒State Pradesh
in which all the members of the political 197. The members of Rajya Sabha shall be
party are required to be present in the elected by ⇒MLAs
Parliament and vote according to the in- 198. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if
structions of the party neither the Speaker nor the Deputy
185. ‘Natural Justice’ means ⇒just, fair and Speaker is available? ⇒A Member ap-
reasonable action pointed by President
186. The power to establish new states in In- 199. Which State sends the maximum num-
dia rests with the ⇒Parliament ber of representatives to the Rajya
187. Who decides disputes regarding the elec- Sabha? ⇒Uttar Pradesh
tion of the Vice President? ⇒Supreme 200. The practice of President addressing
Court Parliament has been adopted from Con-
188. After a Bill is passed by the Parliament stitution of ⇒- UK
it is sent to the President for his assent, 201. In India, the power of Judicial Review is
who can return it for reconsideration to enjoyed by the ⇒Supreme Court only
Lok Sabha. But if the Bill is re-passed 202. Which is true for the Finance Commis-
and sent to the President for his assent, sion? ⇒It is constituted under the Ar-
he ⇒has to sign it ticle 280 of the Constitution
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11.5 Union / central government 833
203. This is not the legislative power of the Minister
President ⇒to grant pardon 217. Law made by the Parliament on any
204. All cases involving an interpretation subject is ⇒Uniformly applicable to all
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of the Constitution fall within the States
⇒Original jurisdiction of the Supreme 218. Who has the power to pardon in case of
Court capital punishment? ⇒President
205. The Supreme Court of India consists of 219. Which system of Government, in which
a Chief Justice and Judges. ⇒30 the ‘Real Executive’ is absolutely de-
206. Which one of the following political lead- pendent upon the wishes of the Legis-
ers successfully held the Office of the latures? ⇒Parliamentary
Chief Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha 220. Every Union Territory shall be adminis-
and President of India? ⇒Neelam San- tered by the ⇒President
jeeva Reddy 221. The Attorney General of India is the
207. Which of the following is presided over ⇒Highest Legal Officer of Union Gov-
by a non-member? ⇒Lok Sabha ernment
208. The Council of Ministers of Delhi shall 222. Which one of the following Commission
hold Office during the pleasure of has not been provided in the Constitu-
⇒Prime Minister tion? ⇒Planning
209. The Archaeological Survey of India is 223. Which of the body which recruits per-
an attached office of the Department / sons to All India Services? ⇒Union
Ministry of - ⇒Culture Public Service Commission
210. In India, Mandamus will lie against 224. The President of India is an integral part
⇒Both Officers and Government of the ⇒Parliament
211. As per Article 100 (3), the quorum to 225. To contest for the election of Lok Sabha,
constitute a meeting of either House of the person ⇒should be citizen of India
Parliament is ⇒One-tenth of the total 226. In India, present trend of rapid urban-
number of members of that House ization is due to ⇒Lack of employment
212. Who interprets the Indian Constitution? opportunities in rural areas
⇒Supreme Court 227. The quorum or minimum number of mem-
213. Recognition of States was done in the bers required to hold the meeting of
year 1956 on the ground of basis. either House of Parliament is ⇒one-
⇒Linguistic tenth
214. The main advantage of the Standing 228. Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme
Committee is the ⇒Parliament is able Court of India relates to ⇒Disputes be-
to examine the grants of all ministries tween Union and States
and departments in detail 229. A political party is accorded status of an
215. In the Presidential Election in India, ev- Opposition Party in Lok Sabha if it cap-
ery elected member of the Legislative tures at least ⇒10
Assembly of a State shall have as many 230. Which of the following is not a writ is-
votes as there multiples of one in sued only by a superior court to an infe-
the quotient obtained by dividing the rior court? ⇒- Certiorari
population of the state by the total num- 231. Which of the following has been
ber of elected members of the assembly. wrongly listed as criteria for appoint-
⇒Thousand ment as a Judge of the Supreme Court?
216. Who announces the Government policies ⇒
on the floor of the House? ⇒Prime 232. The Vice President of India discharges
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11.5 Union / central government 834
the duties of President in the event ⇒(i) 247. ‘Closure’ in Parliamentary terminology
His death, (ii) His resignation & (iii) His means ⇒A rule of legislative procedure
absence due to illness under which further debate on a motion
233. The President can return a Bill for re- can be stopped
consideration by the Parliament for 248. How many States and Union Territories
time(s). ⇒One are there in our country? ⇒28 and 7
234. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Ra- 249. If there is a disagreement between the
jendra Prasad in Interim Government two Houses of the Parliament on any
NARAYAN CHANGDER
formed in the year 1946? ⇒Food and particular Bill ⇒A Joint sitting of the
Agriculture two Houses of Parliament is convened
235. Who acts as the President when neither 250. The procedure for the election of the
the President nor the Vice President is President of India can be modified
available? ⇒Chief Justice of India through an Amendment in the Constitu-
236. If the President wants to tender the res- tion which must be passed by ⇒two-
ignation before expiry of normal term, thirds majority by both Lok Sabha and
he / she has to address the same to Rajya Sabha and be ratified by the Leg-
⇒Vice President islatures of at least half of the states
237. ‘Special majority’ means more than 251. Which of the following statements cor-
⇒two-third rectly describes a ‘Hung Parliament’?
238. The concept of Judicial Review has ⇒A Parliament in which no party has
been borrowed from the Constitution of a clear majority
⇒Switzerland 252. The Office of the Comptroller and Au-
239. The Judges of the Supreme Court hold ditor General of India was created
Office till they attain the age (in years) ⇒under the Constitution
of ⇒65 253. The representation to the States in the
240. While imparting justice, the Supreme Rajya Sabha is given by ⇒in proportion
Court relies on the principle of to the State population
⇒Procedure established by law 254. Which one of the following statements
241. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha, is correct? ⇒President is not a part of
who is the Chief of the Lok Sabha Secre- Council of Ministers and hence not per-
tariat, is appointed by ⇒Speaker mitted to attend its meetings
242. The election of the Office of the Pres- 255. ‘Appeal by Special Leave’ means
ident is conducted by ⇒Election Com- ⇒Supreme Court, granting in its dis-
mission cretion special permission to appeal
243. Impeachment proceedings against the from any judgment passed by any Court
President of India can be initiated ⇒in 256. Seats are allocated to the various
either of the Parliament States in the Lok Sabha on the basis of
244. Which one of the following is not a Par- ⇒their population
liamentary Committee? ⇒Demands 257. Which Article empowers the Supreme
for Grants Committee Court to review its own judgment?
245. For Union Territories without legisla- ⇒137
tive assemblies on their own, laws are 258. For those Union Territories without Leg-
passed by the - ⇒Parliament islative Councils of their own, laws are
246. During the discussions in Parliament, passed by the ⇒Parliament
‘Guillotine’ applies to ⇒Demands for 259. The powers to legislate with respect to
Grants any matter not enumerated in any of
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11.5 Union / central government 835
the three Lists are mentioned as Resid- 273. Which one of the following is the
uary Powers. Which of the following 28th State of the Indian Union?
is empowered to determine finally as to ⇒Jharkhand
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whether or not a particular matters falls 274. Who represents the Nation but does not
in this category? ⇒Judiciary only rule the Nation? ⇒President
260. Parliament under the Article 312 gets 275. Which one of the following is not a Cen-
the power to create All India Services tral Government Tax? ⇒Land Tax
when ⇒Rajya Sabha passes a Resolu- 276. The usual expenditure of the Gov-
tion with two-thirds majority ernment of India is charged from
261. Who has the power to increase the ⇒Consolidated Fund
salary and allowances of the President 277. Representatives of the Union Territories
of India? ⇒Parliament in the Rajya Sabha shall be chosen by
262. The President can nominate two mem- the ⇒Parliament
bers of the Lok Sabha to give represen- 278. What is the minimum age in years for
tation to ⇒Anglo-Indians becoming the MP at Lok Sabha and Ra-
263. The main purpose to impose taxes is to jya Sabha? - ⇒25 and 30
⇒Run the machinery of State 279. The Concept of Public Interest Litigation,
264. Which is the highest Court of Justice of which has become more popular in India
India? ⇒Supreme Court in recent years, originated in ⇒UK
265. Which Article of the Constitution gives 280. The Parliament may confer by law any
the protection to the President and Gov- functions on the authorities concerned
ernors? ⇒- 361 except the ⇒- President
266. Generally, the Prime Minister is 281. The President of India is not bound by
⇒Leader of the majority party in the the aid and advice of the Council of Min-
Lok Sabha isters in the matter of appointment of
267. In 1996, the Supreme Court upheld the ⇒Union Ministers
validity of the Civilians Awards, but rec- 282. In case the Vice President is not avail-
ommended that the total awards to be able to discharge the duties of the Office
given each year in all categories should of President, which official discharges
be restricted to ⇒50 these duties? ⇒Chief Justice of India
268. Which is the constitutional authority 283. What financial power is enjoyed by the
that has been made responsible for con- President? ⇒(i) Certain Money Bills
stituting the Finance Commission period- can originate in Parliament only on the
ically? ⇒President of India recommendation of the President, (ii)
269. What is the eligibility age and tenure of Only on the recommendation of the Gov-
Office of President and Vice President? ernor & (iii) He can appoint Finance
(in years) - ⇒35 and 5 Commission to recommend the distribu-
270. Who declares war and concludes peace? tion of taxes between Union and State
⇒President, in the advice of the Cabi- Governments
net 284. The maximum duration of the Zero Hour
271. Which of the following became the (in minutes) in Lok Sabha can be ⇒60
28th State of the Indian Union? mint
⇒Jharkhand 285. The speech made by a MP on the floor
272. A High Court for two or more States and of House⇒cannot be questioned in any
or Union Territory may be established Court of Law
by ⇒Law by Parliament 286. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya
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11.5 Union / central government 836
Sabha? ⇒The Vice President ⇒Fazal Ali
287. In the Indian Constitution, the Budget 302. Which Article provides that laws laid
is referred as ⇒Annual Financial State- down by Supreme Court is binding on all
ment courts in India? ⇒141
288. On which List do the States enjoy exclu- 303. The President of India is ⇒Elected
sive jurisdiction? ⇒State List 304. Which of the following duties / func-
289. Who became the Prime Minister of India tions has been assigned to the Attorney
without becoming a Union Cabinet Min- General of India? ⇒to render legal ad-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ister? ⇒H. D. Deve Gowda vice to Central Government
290. The name of the candidate for the Of- 305. Impeachment proceedings against the
fice of the President of India has to be President shall be initiated in ⇒Either
proposed by ⇒any 50 members of the of the Houses
Electoral College 306. In the Rajya Sabha, the States have
291. The President can grant pardon in ⇒(i) been provided ⇒Representation on the
All cases of punishment by court mar- basis of population
tial, (ii) All cases involving death sen- 307. The Supreme Court has Original Jurisdic-
tence & (iii) All offences against laws tion in ⇒All Inter-State disputes
in the union and concurrent lists 308. India opted for a Federal form of gov-
292. The advice of the Supreme Court is ernment on the ground of ⇒Linguistic
⇒not binding on the President and Regional diversity
293. When the Office of the President falls 309. Zero Hour is ⇒The period immediately
vacant, the same must be filled within following the Question Hour when the
⇒six Members voice their concerns on vari-
294. The organ of the State which makes law ous matters of public importance
is ⇒Legislature 310. Members of All India Services hold
295. The pardoning power shall be exercised office during the pleasure of the
by the President on the advice of the ⇒President
⇒Home Minister 311. Which of the following Committees of
296. ‘Violate’ means ⇒commit breach of the Parliament has the largest member-
law ship? ⇒Estimate Committee
297. Which Article authorizes the President 312. Which Article empowers the President
to seek an advice from the Supreme to appoint Prime Minister of India?
Court? ⇒143 ⇒74
298. Which one of the following duty is not 313. Which Article of the Constitution pro-
performed by the Comptroller and Au- vides for the composition of Public Ser-
ditor General of India? ⇒To control vice Commission? ⇒315
the receipt and issue of public money, 314. Before entering upon Office, the Presi-
and to ensure that the public revenue dent has to take an oath or an affirma-
is lodged in the exchequer tion, which is administered by ⇒Chief
299. How many times the President can seek Justice of India
re-election to his post? ⇒Infinite times 315. Who has power to create Legislature
300. Who is the first Chief Justice to be ap- or Council of Ministers or both for
pointed as acting President of India? certain Union Territory (Pondicherry)?
⇒Hidayatullah ⇒Parliament
301. Which is the Committee recommended 316. Maximum number of ‘No Confidence
for the Reorganization of States? Motion’ were admitted and discussed
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11.5 Union / central government 837
during the Prime Ministership of ⇒P. V. Center to the ⇒President
Narasimha Rao 330. The Comptroller and Auditor General
317. A Bill for the purpose of reorganization performs ⇒only audit functions
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of states shall be introduced in either of 331. The President of India is elected by
House of the Parliament with the prior Ele⇒cted MLAs and MPs
approval of the ⇒President 332. Who is the Chairman of the Planning
318. Who is the keystone of the Indian Con- Commission and National Development
stitution? ⇒Prime Minister Council? ⇒P M
319. The term of Lok Sabha can be extended 333. Who will preside over the Joint Session
beyond its normal term of five years by of both the Houses of the Parliament?
the ⇒President during National Emer- ⇒Speaker
gency only 334. The President of India is ⇒Elected
320. The Attorney General of India is ap- through Electoral college
pointed by the ⇒President 335. The salary / emoluments of which of
321. A member of Council of Ministers can the following is exempted from Income
be dismissed by the President ⇒on the Tax? ⇒President
recommendation of the Prime Minister 336. The aid and advice rendered by the Coun-
322. Under which Article of the Constitution cil of Ministers to the Administrator of
does the Central Government gives Plan the Union Territory is ⇒Discretionary
assistance to the State Government? 337. Who is the Commander-in-Chief of all
⇒275 the Armed Forces? ⇒The President
323. Parliament Standing Committee for 338. What is Value Added Tax? ⇒A simple,
scrutiny of grants of various ministries transparent, easy to pay tax imposed
comprises of ⇒30 members of Lok on the consumers
Sabha and 15 members of Rajya Sabha 339. Who is the President of the Council
324. Who decides disputes regarding the dis- of Scientific and Industrial Research?
qualification of MPs? ⇒The President ⇒Prime Minister
in consultation with Election Commis- 340. The disciplinary actions against the
sion members of All India Services lies with
325. When the Vice President discharges du- ⇒Central Government
ties of Office of President, he is entitled 341. Who is the first Speaker of the Lok
to ⇒Salary and allowances attached to Sabha who died in Office? ⇒G.M.C.
the President’s Office Balayogi
326. Lok Sabha is superior to the Rajya 342. When does the President uses his discre-
Sabha because ⇒(i) it can oust the tion in appointing the Prime Minister?
Council of Ministers through a vote of ⇒When no political party enjoys major-
no-confidence, (ii) it is directly elected ity in Lok Sabha
& (iii) it alone controls the purse 343. Which of the following is considered as
327. The President of India is not having the Fourth Estate? ⇒Press
⇒Power to control Judiciary 344. The Comptroller and Auditor General is
328. One of the main advantage of the Stand- appointed by ⇒President
ing Committee is ⇒MPs of Rajya Sabha 345. The Indian President can be impeached
are able to exercise indirect control by the Parliament if ⇒He is charged
over financial matters with the violation of the Constitution
329. The Comptroller and Auditor General 346. Identify the correct order in which the
submits his annual report regarding the following acted as Vice President of In-
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11.5 Union / central government 838
dia: ⇒ ⇒President
347. A Resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha 360. Which one of the following is the most
empowering the Parliament to legislate important item of expenditure of the
under List II on National interest should Government of India on the revenue ac-
be supported by ⇒Two-third members count? ⇒Interest payments
present and voting 361. No criminal proceedings shall be insti-
348. The number of Ministers in the Cen- tuted during his term of Office against
tral Government is fixed by the the ⇒Vice President
NARAYAN CHANGDER
⇒Parliament 362. Which of the following shall not be in-
349. The President of India is elected on the troduced in the Rajya Sabha? ⇒Money
basis of ⇒Proportional representation Bill
by single-transferable vote 363. The system of Impeachment of the Pres-
350. Among the four pairs given below, ident is borrowed from the Constitution
which one consists of correct combina- of ⇒Britain
tion of dignitaries who became Vice 364. Who appoints the Finance Commission?
Presidents after having held diplomatic ⇒President
positions? ⇒S. Radhakrishnan and G. 365. Who was the Chief Justice of India
S. Pathak when Public Interest Litigation was in-
351. The Residuary Powers (i.e. those relat- troduced to the Indian Judicial system?
ing to subjects not mentioned in any of ⇒P. N. Bhagwati
the three lists included in the VII Sched- 366. Golden Jubilee of Indian Parliament was
ule) are, according to our Constitution, celebrated on ⇒13.05.2002
vested in the ⇒Union Parliament 367. To whom does the Public Accounts Com-
352. Which one of the following has been mittee submits its report? ⇒Speaker
wrongly listed as a Union territory?⇒ of Lok Sabha
353. Which one of the following statements 368. Ordinance is promulgated by the
is not correct? ⇒North-East India ac- ⇒President
counts for a little over half of the coun- 369. Who has the right to participate in pro-
try’s tribal population ceedings of the Parliament even though
354. Who presides over the meetings of the he is not a MP? ⇒Attorney General of
Council of Ministers? ⇒Prime Minister India
355. Under which Articles, the Supreme 370. The Council of Ministers of Delhi shall be
Court has been given the powers to re- collectively responsible to ⇒Legislative
view any judgment pronounced or order Assembly of Delhi
made it previously? ⇒137 371. Who of the following is considered
356. Which Assembly is presided over by a the Custodian of the Parliament?
non-member? ⇒Rajya Sabha ⇒Speaker
357. The Administrator appointed under the 372. The office of the Lokpal and Lokayuktha
Article 239 to the Union Territory of in India is based on one of the follow-
Delhi is called ⇒Lieutenant Governor ing? ⇒Ombudsman in Scandinavia
358. Which is the highest Court of appeal in 373. The first session of the year commences
India? ⇒Supreme Court with the address by the in the Par-
359. A Bill for the purpose of altering the liament. ⇒President
boundaries of any State shall be intro- 374. The Parliamentary Subject Committees
duced in either of the House of the Par- (Number of Committees: 17) were in-
liament with the recommendation of the troduced in 1993 on the recommenda-
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11.5 Union / central government 839
tion of the ⇒Rules Committee of the 389. Vice President of India draws salary in
House the designation of ⇒Chairman of Rajya
375. Judicial Activism has led to increase in Sabha
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the powers of ⇒Judiciary 390. How the Constitution of India has dis-
376. Which statement is not correct? ⇒The tributed the powers to different levels?
Supreme Court of India has to look into ⇒Concurrent List, Central List & State
all disputes with regard to the election List
of Vice President of India 391. All of the following statements in re-
377. The Comptroller and Auditor General gard to Money Bills are incorrect, ex-
holds Office ⇒for a term of six years cept ⇒A Money Bill can only be intro-
378. In India, National Income is estimated duced in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha has
by ⇒Central Statistical Organization no power to make a change in it against
379. The Comptroller and Auditor General the will of Lok Sabha
can be removed from his Office be- 392. The Emergency provision for National
fore the expiry of his term by the Capital Territory of Delhi is enshrined
⇒President on the recommendation of under the Article ⇒239A
the Parliament 393. Under which Article of the Indian Con-
380. A MP enjoys immunity from prosecution stitution did the President give his as-
for having said anything ⇒in the Parlia- sent to the ordinance on electoral re-
ment and its Committees forms when it was sent back to him by
381. State Legislature has exclusive power the Union Cabinet without making any
to make laws with respect to any mat- changes (in the year 2002)? ⇒123
ter enumerated in ⇒List II 394. ‘Interpret’ means ⇒ascertaining the
382. The first session of the Parliament is meaning of a word
called as Session. ⇒Budget 395. The Central, State and Concurrent Lists
383. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of indicates division of ⇒Legislative pow-
the Supreme Court of India with respect ers
to any matter included in the Union 396. Economic Planning is a subject in the
List of Legislative Powers rests with ⇒Concurrent List
⇒Parliament 397. The sovereign power under the In-
384. The three types of Civil Services envis- dian Constitution rests with the
aged under the Constitution are ⇒All ⇒Parliament
India Services, Central Services and 398. Who enjoys distinction of having been
State Services the Prime Minister of India for longest
385. A member, after being elected as duration? ⇒Indira Gandhi
Speaker of Lok Sabha, generally ⇒cuts- 399. Which of the following enjoys the dis-
off his connection with his party tinction of being the first recognized
386. Veto is the power of the to with- Leader of the Opposition in the Lok
hold or refuse assent to Legislation. Sabha? ⇒Y. B. Chavan
⇒Executive 400. The term ‘closure’ in Parliamentary ter-
387. President can be impeached from Office minology ⇒stoppage of debate on a
on grounds of violating the Constitution motion
by ⇒Two Houses of Parliament 401. Joint Session of Parliament was held
388. Which of the following is not a constitu- in ⇒(i) Prevention of Terrorism Ordi-
tionally mandatory body? (Commission nance, 2002, (ii) Dowry Prohibition Bill,
for) ⇒Center-State Relations 1961 & (iii) Banking Service Commis-
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11.5 Union / central government 840
sion Bill, 1978 412. Which of the following Union Terri-
402. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha tory shall have Legislative Assembly?
can be delayed by the Rajya Sabha for ⇒Delhi
a maximum period of ⇒14 days 413. Which of the following statement
403. If any matter is not enumerated either refers to ‘Epistolary Jurisdiction’ of the
under the Concurrent List or under State Supreme Court? ⇒Taking cognizance
List then who has the power to legislate of the concerned matter through letter
on such matters? ⇒Parliament only addressed to the Court
NARAYAN CHANGDER
404. The differences between the two 414. Who has the power to create All India
Houses of Parliament are resolved Services? ⇒Parliament
through (OR) Disagreement between 415. In the event of non-availability of Chief
the two Houses of the Indian Parlia- Justice of India, an Acting Chief Justice
ment is finally resolved by which of the can be appointed by the ⇒President
following processes? ⇒a joint session 416. The Chief Justice and other Judges of
of the two Houses the High Court are appointed by the
405. Which of the following All India Services ⇒President
contain in the Constitution? ⇒(i) All 417. In which year, Delhi got the status of a
India Judicial Services, (ii) Indian For- State? ⇒1993
est Services & (iii) Indian Administra- 418. The President of India is similar to
tive Services ⇒Queen of England
406. The Constitution secures the indepen- 419. In India, power of Judicial Review
dence of the Comptroller and Auditor is restricted because ⇒Constitution is
General by ⇒(i) making the removal of supreme
CAG very difficult, (ii) providing that his 420. The VAT adopted by 21 States replaced
salary and service conditions shall not which of the following taxes? ⇒State
be changed to his disadvantage & (iii) Sales Tax
by giving the CAG complete control over 421. Which one of the following Lok Sabha
his administrative staff enjoyed a term of more than five years?
407. Which one of the following Bills must be ⇒5th
passed by each House of the Indian Par- 422. The Office of the Deputy Prime Minister
liament separately, by special majority? ⇒is an extra-constitutional growth
⇒Constitution Amendment Bill 423. Which Amendment affirmed the right of
408. Salary of which one of the Officials is the Lok Sabha to amend any part of the
not charged on the Consolidated Fund of Constitution? ⇒24th
India? ⇒Prime Minister 424. The framers of Constitution borrowed
409. The Supreme Court of India is a court of the idea of Judicial Review from Consti-
record which implies that ⇒(i) All its de- tution of ⇒- USA
cisions have evidentiary value and can- 425. Parliament has power to legislate under
not be questioned in any court & (ii) It the State List on the ground of National
has power to punish for its contempt Interest if ⇒Rajya Sabha passes a Res-
410. Power of the Supreme Court to decide olution to that effect
disputes between the Center and States 426. Water disputes between the States
fall under its ⇒Original Jurisdiction shall be decided by⇒A Body appointed
411. Who describes the Prime Minister of In- by Parliament
dia as ‘Primus Inter Pares’ (first among 427. The Planning Commission is a
equals)? ⇒Lord Morely ⇒Executive Body
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11.5 Union / central government 841
428. The Appellate Jurisdiction of the 442. The Vice President of India is the ex-
Supreme Court does not involve officio Chairman of the ⇒Rajya Sabha
in ⇒Disputes arising out of pre- 443. In the Union Budget in India, which
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constitution treaties and agreements Expenditure is the largest in amount?
429. The Secretary-General of Lok Sabha, ⇒Non-Plan
who is the Chief of its Secretariat, is 444. The phrase under the Article 74 “There
⇒Appointed by the Speaker shall be Council of Ministers with
430. Full form of PIL is ⇒Public Interest Lit- the Prime Minister is its Head” is
igation ⇒Mandatory
431. Election to the Lok Sabha could not be 445. Which of the following States sends the
held in Punjab in December 1984 due largest number of MPs to Lok Sabha af-
to ⇒Uncertainties created by growing ter Uttar Pradesh? ⇒Maharashtra
terrorist activities 446. Who was the first Chairman of the Plan-
432. Which of the following Committees of ning Commission? ⇒Jawaharlal Nehru
Parliament is concerned with the reg- 447. Cabinet Ministers has to tender its resig-
ularity and economy of expenditure? nation if a no-confidence vote is passed
⇒Public Accounts Committee against it by ⇒Lok Sabha
433. Both the Union and the States derive 448. In case of conflict between the Central
their authority from the Constitution of and State laws on a subject in Concur-
India which divides, as between them, rent List ⇒Law of the Center prevails
all of the following powers, except 449. Which is correct under the hierarchy
⇒Judicial of Courts? ⇒Supreme Court, High
434. The resolution for removing the Vice Courts, Other Courts
President of India can be moved in the 450. Who is the competent to prescribe con-
⇒Rajya Sabha alone ditions for acquisition of citizenship?
435. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha ⇒Parliament
is the Chief of its Secretariat and is 451. Indian Constitution is silent on the con-
⇒Appointed by the Speaker cept of ⇒Deputy Prime Minister
436. Which was the lengthiest Amendment to 452. The President of India made use of
the Constitution? ⇒42nd his / her veto power only once in the
437. In Parliamentary form of Government, ⇒Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill
the Council of Ministers are responsible 453. Which one of the following Motion
to the ⇒Parliament can be moved by the Government?
438. Who is authorized to transfer the judge ⇒Confidence Motion
of one High Court to another High 454. The Chief Minister of Delhi shall be ap-
Court? ⇒President pointed by the ⇒Lieutenant Governor
439. The Ordinance making power of the 455. Any Act violating Article 13(2) of the
President is subjected to the control of Constitution shall be declared as Uncon-
the ⇒Parliament stitutional by ⇒Supreme Court
440. How many subjects are there in the Cen- 456. Though the Council of Ministers is col-
tral, State and Concurrent Lists? ⇒97, lectively responsible to the Parliament,
66 and 47 the individual Ministers are responsible
441. The Comptroller and Auditor General to ⇒President
has to submit the Audit Report of the 457. Indian Constitution has distributed the
Central and State Governments before powers between the Center and
the ⇒President and Governor ⇒States
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11.5 Union / central government 842
458. Which of the taxes is exclusively as- practice before⇒
signed to Central Government by the 474. The 42nd Amendment raised the term of
Constitution? ⇒Corporation Tax the Lok Sabha to years. ⇒six
459. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by 475. The Council of Ministers in India remains
⇒Cannot be dissolved in their Office till it enjoys the support
460. Which of the following is not done by of ⇒Majority of the Members of Lok
the Parliament? ⇒Adjournment of the Sabha
Houses of the Parliament 476. Which one of the following is not
NARAYAN CHANGDER
461. A Bill presented in the Parliament be- a constitutionally mandated body?
comes an Act after ⇒The President has ⇒Center-State relations
given his assent 477. The immediate hour after the Question
462. Parliament is an instrument of Jus- Hour in Lok Sabha is called as ⇒Zero
tice. ⇒Legal Hour
463. The Supreme Court tenders advice to the 478. Proclamation of President’s Rule in a
President on a matter of law or fact state can be made ⇒if the President,
⇒only if he seeks such advice on receipt of a report from the Gover-
464. What is the maximum age (in years) for nor of a State or otherwise is satisfied
election to the Office of the President? that a situation has arisen in which the
⇒No age limit government of the State cannot be car-
465. The Seat of Supreme Court is ⇒New ried on in accordance with the provi-
Delhi sions of the Constitution
466. In India, a tax on agricultural incomes 479. Public Interest Litigation means
can be levied by ⇒Only the State Gov- ⇒Petitions by any conscious person or
ernments organization on behalf of an aggrieved
467. Who allocates portfolios among the person or group for reasons of interest
Council of Ministers? ⇒President on of the public
the recommendation of Prime Minister 480. The Public Accounts Committee submits
468. Who elects the President of India? its report to the ⇒Speaker
⇒By Electoral College 481. Which one of the following takes part in
469. Grants-in-aid of revenue to the state the election of the President but has no
is recommended by ⇒Finance Commis- role in his impeachment? ⇒State Leg-
sion islative Assemblies
470. When can the President refer a mat- 482. A Law passed by the State Legislature
ter to the Supreme Court for its opin- on a Concurrent list gets precedence
ion? ⇒When a matter is of public im- over the Central Law if ⇒It was ap-
portance proved for the President
471. Who among the following enjoy the 483. Lok Sabha Secretariat works under the
rank of a Cabinet Minister? ⇒(i) direct supervision of the ⇒Speaker
Deputy Chairman of Planning Commis- 484. Which among the following subject is
sion, (ii) Leader of Opposition in Lok transferred from State List to Concur-
Sabha & (iii) Speaker of Lok Sabha rent List by 42nd Constitutional Amend-
472. The other names for Lok Sabha (Tempo- ment? ⇒Education
rary Body) are ⇒Lower House / House 485. Which one of the following statement
of People is correct? The Prime Minister of In-
473. The Judges of Supreme Court, after re- dia ⇒has full discretion in the choice of
tirement, are not permitted to carry on persons who are to serve as Ministers
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11.5 Union / central government 843
in his Cabinet dent(s) resigned from his Office to con-
486. Which of the following is the Indian Con- test for the Office of the President?
stitution to Parliamentary procedures? ⇒VV Giri
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⇒Adjournment Motion 500. Which among the following is identified
487. The Constitution of India vests the as the ‘Democratic Chamber’? ⇒Lok
Residuary powers in ⇒Union Govern- Sabha
ment 501. Under the Indian Constitution, the sub-
488. Main Standing Committee of Lok Sabha jects of administration have been di-
is / are ⇒Public Accounts, Public Un- vided into ⇒Three lists
derstanding, Estimate 502. Who acts as the channel of communica-
489. The Members of Indian Administrative tion between the President and Council
Services will be under the control of of Ministers? ⇒PM
⇒Ministry of Human Resources Devel- 503. Which Budget will be proposed first in
opment the Parliament House? ⇒Railway
490. Which of the following sets of Bills is 504. The concept of Concurrent List is
presented to the Parliament along with borrowed from the Constitution of
Budget? ⇒- Finance Bill and Appropri- ⇒Australia
ation Bill 505. The Provisions regarding division of
491. The members of Council of Ministers are taxes between Union and State can
appointed by the ⇒President on the ad- be suspended ⇒During National Emer-
vice of the Prime Minister gency
492. A Minister must be a Member of 506. Under which Article of the Indian Con-
⇒Parliament stitution did the President make a refer-
493. If the law made by the Parliament ence to the Supreme Court to seek the
is inconsistent with the law made by Court’s opinion on the Constitutional va-
the State Legislature under the List III, lidity of the Election Commission’s deci-
which law has the effect? ⇒Law made sion on deferring the Gujarat Assembly
by the Parliament elections (in the year 2002)? ⇒143
494. Who is having the power to summon 507. The Provisions with regard to the Union
and dissolve the House of Parliament Territories are incorporated under the
(LS)? ⇒President Constitution by way of Constitu-
495. The Prime Minister is ⇒Head of Gov- tion Amendment Act. ⇒7th
ernment 508. Who among the following may belong to
496. The seat of a MP may be declared va- Rajya Sabha but can speak in both the
cant, if he / she is, without the permis- Houses? - ⇒Ministers who are MPs of
sion of the House absent from the meet- Rajya Sabha
ing of that House for a period of 509. Article 254 of the Constitution deals
days. ⇒60 with ⇒dominance of Union laws over
497. ‘No Confidence’ motion against Council State laws in case of any conflict be-
of Ministers can be introduced in the tween the two
⇒Lok Sabha 510. The Parliament of India exercises con-
498. Under the Constitution, which of the fol- trol over administration ⇒through Par-
lowing functionaries can be suspended? liamentary Committees
⇒Members of Public Service Commis- 511. Which Amendment curtailed the
sion Supreme Court/High Court’s power of
499. Which one of the following Vice Presi- Judicial Review? ⇒42nd
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11.5 Union / central government 844
512. In the event of death or resignation of ject in the state list ⇒in all these cases
the President, the Vice President dis- 526. Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme
charges the duties of the office of Pres- Court does not include ⇒appeals
ident ⇒For a maximum period of six against writs
months 527. Which Article provides for the composi-
513. Where are disputes regarding election tion of Finance Commission? ⇒280
of President and Vice President filed 528. Which of the following is not one of
and settled? ⇒Supreme Court the three organs of the Union / State?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
514. Who is the following enjoys the distinc- ⇒Press
tion of being the first Muslim President 529. Which one of the following is not a
of India? ⇒Zakir Hussain Department in Ministry of Human Re-
515. What is the minimum duration in (years) sources Development? ⇒Technical Ed-
of stay essential before a person can ap- ucation and Literacy
plyfor Indian citizenship? ⇒5 530. In which of the following situations
516. To which of the following Bills the Pres- can the President promulgate the Ordi-
ident must accord his sanction without nance? ⇒Parliament is not in session
sending it back for fresh consideration? 531. Who was the first President of the In-
⇒Money Bill dian Republic? ⇒Rajendra Prasad
517. ‘Collective Responsibility of the Cabi- 532. The Contingency Fund of India rests at
net’ means all Ministers are collectively the disposal of the ⇒President
responsible to (OR) The Union Council 533. Which of the following powers is exclu-
of Ministers are responsible to ⇒Lok sively vested in the Rajya Sabha? ⇒To
Sabha recommend the creation of new All In-
518. Who is the integral part of the Indian dia Services
Parliament? ⇒President 534. Who among the following are appointed
519. Who has the power to constitute a by the President of India? ⇒1. State
High Court to the Union Territory? Governors, 2. Chief Justice and Judges
⇒Parliament of High Courts, 3. Chief Justice and
520. Which of the following statement is cor- Judges of Supreme Court
rect? ⇒the term of the Lok Sabha can 535. The President of Indian Union has the
be extended by one year at a time similar Constitutional authority as the
521. The Members of Indian Forest Services ⇒British Monarch
will be under the control of ⇒Ministry 536. The Comptroller and Auditor General
of Environment and Forest acts as the ⇒Guardian of public fi-
522. How many Members can be elected for nances
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha? ⇒552 & 537. Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha before
238 the expiry of its normal term of five
523. The following factor does not help years? ⇒President on the recommen-
to maintain independence of judiciary dation of the Prime Minister
⇒highly attractive retirement benefits 538. The Union Territory does not have
524. The Judges of the Supreme Court can be ⇒Recognized Official language
removed on the ground of proved mis- 539. Who has the power to make laws on
behavior by the if the Parliament the subjects enumerated under List III of
passes a resolution with two-third ma- 7th Schedule? ⇒Both Parliament and
jority present and voting. ⇒President State Legislature
525. The Parliament can legislate on any sub- 540. Which Article provides that there shall
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11.5 Union / central government 845
be the Prime Minister of India? ⇒74 ident and Chief Justice of India falls va-
541. The word ‘Parliament’ is derived from cant simultaneously, who succeeds to
the French word ‘Parler’ which means the Office of the President? ⇒Next
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⇒To talk Senior-most Judge of the Supreme
542. The President and Governors are im- Court
mune from during their term of Of- 555. 14 days notice is necessary for moving
fice. ⇒Civil liability a ⇒Resolution of impeaching the Pres-
543. The work of General Purpose Commit- ident
tee is to advice the ⇒Speaker 556. Which of the following is not a pre-
544. In 1954, Government of India in- scribed qualification to become Presi-
troduced decorations (in form of the dent of India? ⇒Should be a Graduate
medals) Bharat Ratna, Padma Vib- 557. Which one of the financial powers is en-
hushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Sri joyed by the President? ⇒(i) Money
Awards under the Article ⇒18 Bills can be introduced in the Parlia-
545. Which of the following Offices has ment, (ii) The President appoints a Fi-
not been provided in the Constitution? nance Commission to recommend the
⇒Deputy Prime Minister distribution of taxes between Union and
546. The Comptroller and Auditor General State Governments & (iii) The President
presents a detailed review of Union Ac- can advance money out of the Contin-
counts to the Union Finance Minister ev- gency Fund of India
ery ⇒twelve months 558. Which is not a characteristic of eco-
547. The President can make laws through or- nomically under developed countries?
dinances ⇒During the recess of Parlia- ⇒High proportion of labor in sec-
ment ondary activity
548. The Parliament of India cannot be re- 559. In a particular case, the advice tendered
garded as a sovereign body because by the Council of Ministers is sent back
⇒(i) of the presence of certain funda- by the President for reconsideration. If
mental rights of the citizens, (ii) its au- the Council of Ministers adhere to their
thority is confined to jurisdiction ear- earlier advice, the President ⇒Has no
marked by the Constitution & (iii) laws option but to accept such advice
passed by Parliament can be declared 560. The Parliament or State Legislature can
unconstitutional by the Supreme Court declare a seat vacant if a member ab-
549. The concept of Judicial Review is bor- sents himself without permission from
rowed from the Constitution of ⇒USA the sessions for days. ⇒60
550. The maximum number of representa- 561. The first Prime Minister of India was ap-
tives are sent to the Rajya Sabha by pointed by the ⇒Governor General
⇒Uttar Pradesh 562. Joint Sittings of the two Houses of Par-
551. Who is the first Chief Justice of India? liament are hold for ⇒Resolution of
⇒Harlal J. Kania deadlock between the two Houses on a
552. The constituents of Indian Parliament, non-money Bill
as mentioned in the Constitution are 563. To amend the Constitution to change
the ⇒President, Lok Sabha and Rajya the procedure of election of the Presi-
Sabha dent of India, the Bill has to be passed
553. A Money Bill can originate ⇒Only in the by ⇒Special majority, ratified by more
Lok Sabha than half of the States
554. If the Office of the President, Vice Pres- 564. Members of the Lok Sabha are
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11.5 Union / central government 846
⇒Directly elected by the people 579. All Money Bills can be introduced ⇒in
565. The President can extend the life of the Lok Sabha only
Lok Sabha during a National Emergency 580. Which Article of the Indian Constitution
in the first instance for a period of deals with the amendment procedure?
months. ⇒one ⇒368
566. The salary and allowances of the 581. How many times the President can
Comptroller and Auditor General ⇒are return a Non-Money Bill, passed by
determined by the Parliament the Parliament for its consideration?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
567. Which of the following appointments is ⇒Once
not made by the President of the Indian 582. Who reserves the right to convene joint
Republic? ⇒Speaker of Lok Sabha sessions of the Lok Sabha and Rajya
568. Subjects like Defence and External Af- Sabha? ⇒President
fairs are enumerated under ⇒List I 583. Under the new Committee system
569. Who is considered as the Chief launched in April 1993, out of the 17
Spokesperson (Spokesman) of the Standing Committees ⇒6 are consti-
Union Government? ⇒Prime Minister tuted by the Chairman of the Rajya
570. The first hour of every sitting in both Sabha and 11 by the Speaker of the Lok
the Houses of Parliament is devoted to Sabha
⇒Question Hour 584. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha makes
571. Who among the following was the use of his / her casting vote only ⇒in
Chairman of the Committee on Pricing case of tie i.e. when votes are equally
and Taxation of Petroleum products? divided
⇒Dr. C. Rangarajan 585. Under Indian Constitution, the Union
572. Who among following got Bharat Ratna Territory of Delhi is referred as
Award before becoming the President of ⇒National Capital Territory
India? ⇒Radhakrishnan 586. A half an hour discussion can be raised
573. The 11th Five-Year Plan has been in the House after giving notice to the
named as ⇒Towards Infrastructural ⇒Secretary General of the House
and Agricultural Growth 587. An Ordinance promulgated by the Pres-
574. The organ of the State implement and ident when one House is in session is
execute laws is known as ⇒Executive ⇒Valid
575. Which one of the following Articles of 588. The Comptroller and Auditor General
the Constitution of India says that the acts as friend, philosopher and guide of
executive power of every State shall be ⇒Public Accounts Committee
so exercised as not to impeded or preju- 589. Which one of the following Chief Justice
dice the exercise of the executive power of India enjoys the distinction of having
of the Union? ⇒257 acted as President of India? ⇒Justice
576. Who among the following can initiate an M. Hidayatullah
amendment to the Indian Constitution? 590. Who is the real Executive under the In-
⇒Either House of Parliament dian Constitution? ⇒Prime Minister
577. What is the method of electing members 591. Which one of the following motions is
of Rajya Sabha from Union Territories? related with the Union Budget? ⇒Cut
⇒as law laid down by the Parliament Motion
578. The draft of the Indian Penal Code was 592. Which of the following is not a tool of
prepared by Indian Law Commis- legislative control over administration
sion. ⇒- First in India? ⇒Dissolution of House
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11.5 Union / central government 847
593. The function of the Pro-Temp Speaker the precedent of the Constitution.
is to ⇒swear-in members and hold ⇒Canadian
charge till a regular Speaker is elected 608. The President is empowered to estab-
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594. Who enjoys the distinction of being the lish an Inter-State Council if at any time
first Deputy Prime Minister of India? it appears to him that the public inter-
⇒Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel ests would be served thereby. Which
595. When the election of the President is de- of the following has not so been set up?
clared void, all acts done by the Pres- ⇒Inter-State Commerce Council
ident in the performance of the duties 609. The President can call a joint session of
of his Office before the date of decision the two Houses of Parliament. ⇒(i) If
become ⇒valid the House does not take any decision
596. The Speaker is elected by the Members for six months on a Bill remitted by the
of ⇒Lok Sabha other, (ii) If a Bill passed by one House
597. The Rajya Sabha is a Permanent House is rejected by the other & (iii) If the
but ⇒One-third of its members retire Amendment proposed to a Bill by one
two years House is not acceptable to the other
598. Planning in India derives its objectives 610. Which one of the following does not
from ⇒DPSP take part in the election of the Presi-
599. One-third of the members of the Rajya dent? ⇒Members-Legislative Councils
Sabha retire every year(s). ⇒two 611. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money
600. What are the timings followed for the Bill or not? (OR) If any question arises
Question Hour in the Parliament House? whether a Bill is Money Bill or not, the
⇒11 to 12 decision of the is final. ⇒Speaker
601. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha has 612. The ground for the Impeachment of Pres-
⇒a vote only in case of tie ident is ⇒violation of the Constitution
602. Which one of the following statements 613. Impeachments proceedings can be initi-
regarding the Office of the Speaker is ated against the President in either of
correct? ⇒- if he intends to resign, House of Parliament only if a resolution
the letter of his resignation is to be ad- signed by members of the House is
dressed to the Deputy Speaker moved. ⇒25
603. The Constitution prohibits to enact retro- 614. The concept of Public Interest Litigation
spectively ⇒Laws relating to the elec- has strengthened ⇒Rule of Law
tion of the President 615. Under the Indian Parliamentary prac-
604. In criminal matters, the highest court of tices, normally how many sessions take
appeal in a district is the ⇒Court of Sec- place? ⇒3
ond Class Magistrate 616. Which one of the following is not a type
605. Lok Sabha passes vote on account to of relationship specified by the Con-
⇒meet the expenditure during the pe- stitution of India between Center and
riod between the introduction of budget States? ⇒Judicial
and its passage 617. The Comptroller and Auditor Gen-
606. Under the Constitution, Residuary Pow- eral does not audit the accounts of
ers vested with the ⇒Union Govern- ⇒Municipal Bodies
ment 618. Can a retired judge be asked to sit in the
607. The vesting of Residuary Powers un- Supreme Court? ⇒Yes
der our Constitution in the Union, in- 619. Which one of the following statements
stead of the State Legislatures, follows is correct? ⇒There is no constitutional
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11.6 State government 848
bar for a nominated member to be ap- 629. Parliament of India is composed of
pointed as a Union Minister ⇒Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Presi-
620. Which one of the following statements dent
is not correct? ⇒Among all the States 630. The Vice President of India is ⇒Elected
of India, Maharashtra publishes the by MPs (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) at
largest number of newspapers a joint sitting
621. Who recommends for the dissolution of 631. The Amendment procedure of the Con-
Lok Sabha? ⇒Prime Minister stitution of India has been modeled on
NARAYAN CHANGDER
622. In the Presidential Election (Electoral the Constitutional pattern of ⇒South
College) ⇒Parity between the Center Africa
and the States has been maintained 632. Which of the following statements re-
623. The Members of Indian Police Services garding Supreme Court of India is not
will be under the control of ⇒Home correct? ⇒Acts as the protector of the
Minister Directive Principles of State Policy
624. The final authority to make a Procla- 633. After a Bill has been passed by Parlia-
mation of Emergency rests with ment and sent to the President for his
⇒President consideration - ⇒He can sent it back
625. Which one of the following States / for reconsideration
Union Territories of the country has 634. How many MPs of Lok Sabha shall sup-
more than 50 port a motion of ‘No Confidence’ in the
626. Which Article empowers the President government, before it can be admitted
to give his assent to Bills? ⇒111 by the Speaker? ⇒50
627. Who presides over the joint sessions of 635. Who of the following became President
Parliament? ⇒Speaker of India without serving as Vice Presi-
628. Which of the following Bills can be in- dent? ⇒Sanjeeva Reddy
troduced in the Parliament only with 636. Which Article of the Constitution pro-
the prior approval of the President? vides protection to the Civil Servants?
⇒Money Bills ⇒311
11.6 State government
1. ‘Bicameral’ means⇒Presence of two 6. Who is having power to remove the
Houses in the State Governor before expiry of the tenure?
2. The salary and allowances of the Gover- ⇒President
nor are charged to ⇒The Consolidated 7. Find out the correct response: ‘Af-
Fund of the State ter the State Legislature is dissolved
3. What was the scheme to reduce interest the Speaker of Legislative Assembly’?
burden of the State Government in India ⇒Remains as Speaker until the 1st
through gradual conversion of high cost Meeting of the Legislative Assembly af-
debt into low cost debt? ⇒Debt-write ter the dissolution
off Scheme 8. 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amend-
4. Membership of Legislative Assembly ments is pertaining to ⇒Local Self Gov-
can vary between ⇒60 - 500 ernment
5. Who has power to establish common 9. What is the eligibility age and tenure of
High Court for two or more States and Office of the Governor? (in years) ⇒35
Union Territories? ⇒Parliament and 5
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11.6 State government 849
10. A Legislative Bill which did not receive passing a resolution ⇒after 14 days
the Governor’s immediate assent was clear notice passed by majority of all
⇒Jammu & Kashmir citizenship the Members of the House
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11. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu & 24. Who decides the number of Judges in the
Kashmir? ⇒President High Court? ⇒President
12. Which one of the following legislative 25. Which tax is levied by the Union and col-
powers is enjoyed by the Governor? lected and appropriated by the States?
⇒(i) can nominate certain members of ⇒Stamp duties
Anglo-Indian community to the Legisla- 26. What is the retirement age in years for
tive Assembly, (ii) can summon or pro- Chief Justice and other Judges of High
rogue the State Legislative, (iii) can ap- Court? ⇒62
point one-sixth the members of the Leg- 27. Who appoints the Vice Chancellors of
islative Council the Universities? ⇒Governor
13. There is no provision for the impeach- 28. The Speaker of Legislative Assembly
ment of the ⇒Governor can vacate his Office by addressing his
14. The Guwahati High Court has territorial resignation to the ⇒Deputy Speaker of
jurisdiction over number of States. Legislative Assembly
⇒4 29. The Governor does not appoint
15. The Governor of the State shall be ap- ⇒Judges of High Court
pointed by the ⇒President 30. As a matter of convention, while ap-
16. How many States in India have Legisla- pointing the Governor of a State, the
tive Councils? ⇒5 President consults ⇒State Chief Minis-
17. The Legislative Council in a State ter
can be created or disbanded by the 31. ‘Unicameral’ means ⇒Presence of one
⇒Parliament on the recommendation House in the State
of the State Legislative Assembly 32. Who is the Channel of Communication
18. The member of State Public Service Com- between the Governor and the State
mission can be removed on the ground Council of Ministers? ⇒Chief Minister
of misbehavior only after an enquiry 33. Can one person act as Governor of more
has been conducted by the ⇒High Court than one State? ⇒Yes
of the State 34. Which State(s) is / are having Unicam-
19. The Chief Minister of a State cannot eral system?⇒
take part in the election of President 35. High Courts in India were first started
if he is ⇒A member of the Legislative (1862) at ⇒Bombay, Calcutta and
Council of the State Madras
20. The total members in the Legislative 36. Full Statehood was conferred to
Council should not be less than (Article Arunachal Pradesh by the Amend-
171). ⇒40 ment of the Constitution. ⇒55th
21. The major part of following central rev- 37. Which category of professional people
enues goes to various State Govern- are entitled to elect their representa-
ments in India ⇒Excise Duty tives to the State Legislative Coun-
22. A temporary Judge of High Court can cil? ⇒Teachers of not lower than sec-
hold Office for a maximum period of ondary school level in the State
⇒Two years 38. What is the chronological order in which
23. The Speaker of the Legislative Assem- the following States of Indian Union
bly shall be removed by the House by were created or granted full statehood?
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11.6 State government 850
⇒Andhra Pradesh > Maharashtra > tive Assembly and Legislative Council
Nagaland > Haryana are⇒
39. What is the effect of the resignation or 53. What is the retirement age in years of
death of the Chief Minister of the State? a High Court Judge? ⇒62
⇒Dissolves the Legislative Assembly 54. A Governor ⇒may be transferred from
40. Who appoints the Chief Minister and one State to another State
Council of Ministers in the State? 55. Without certificate of High Court, an ap-
⇒Governor peal can made to Supreme Court ⇒with
NARAYAN CHANGDER
41. The District Judges and Magistrate of the special leave of Supreme Court
the Civil Courts shall be appointed by 56. The Governor holds Office ⇒during the
the ⇒Governor pleasure of the President
42. Chief Minister of all the States are the 57. The State Government does not enjoy
Members of ⇒National Development any control over local bodies with re-
Council gard to ⇒Personal matters
43. There is no provision in the Constitution 58. The High Court of Karnataka estab-
for the impeachment of ⇒Governor lished in the year ⇒1884
44. Which one of the following is correct 59. Writ Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
regarding the Governor of a State? under Article 32 is not wider than that
⇒(i) No Money Bill can be introduced of the Writ Jurisdiction of the High
in State Legislature without prior per- Court under Article 226 because the
mission of Governor, (ii) He can recom- High Court may exercise this power in
mend to the President to impose Pres- relation to ⇒Violation of Fundamental
ident’s Rule in the State, (iii) He has and Legal Rights
the power to issue ordinances when the 60. The President can make a Proclamation
legislature is not in session of Emergency in Jammu & Kashmir with
45. High Courts exercise ⇒Writ Jurisdic- the ⇒Concurrence of the State Legisla-
tion ture
46. The Governor can recommend imposi- 61. Goa got the status of Statehood by the
tion of President’s Rule in the State way of Constitutional Amendment.
⇒At his discretion ⇒56th
47. The High Courts at Bombay, Calcutta 62. When a person acts as Governor of
and Madras were established under the more than one State, his / her salary
⇒Indian High Courts Act, is ⇒shared by the concerned States
48. As per Indian Protocol, who among the 63. Generally, the Governor belongs to
following ranks highest in the order of ⇒some other State
precedence? ⇒State Governor 64. Which of the following States are in-
49. Power to extend or restrict the Ju- volved in disputes over sharing of river
risdiction of High Court vest with waters?⇒(i) Madhya Pradesh and Gu-
⇒Parliament jarat , (ii) Andhra Pradesh and Kar-
50. The Governor has power to dissolve nataka, (iii) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
⇒Legislative Assembly 65. Legislative Council is ⇒not dissolved
51. What shall be the qualification of a per- 66. Which of the following taxes is
son to be appointed as the Advocate levied by the State Government only?
General for the State? ⇒Qualified to ⇒Entertainment Tax
be appointed as Judge of High Court 67. If a member of Lok Sabha is appointed
52. In WB, the number of seats in Legisla- as the Chief Minister of a State ⇒He
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11.6 State government 851
must become a member of the State Legislature
Legislature within six months 82. State Emergency (President’s Rule) can
68. Law with regard to Anti-defection is in- be declared ⇒When the Government
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serted by way of Constitutional of the State cannot be carried in accor-
Amendment. ⇒52nd dance with the Provision of the Consti-
69. Which one of the following High Courts tution
has the territorial jurisdiction over An- 83. Sikkim was admitted as a full-fledged
daman and Nicobar Islands? ⇒Calcutta State of Indian Union in the year
70. The Governor is the part and parcel of ⇒1975
the ⇒State Legislature 84. Salaries and other emoluments of the
71. The State Council of Ministers has to High Court Judges shall be determined
tender their resignation if vote of no- by the ⇒Parliament
confidence is passed against it by the 85. Which State Government has decided to
⇒Legislative Assembly provide health insurance to people liv-
72. The number of States under the Jurisdic- ing below the poverty line with effec-
tion of a High Court shall be decided on tive from January 2007? ⇒Karnataka
the basis of ⇒Area and Population 86. Parliament or State Legislature can de-
73. The Governor is accountable for his / clare a seat vacant if the member is ab-
her actions to the ⇒President sent from the session for a period of
74. The Graduates constitute a separate days without permission. ⇒60
constituency for the election of the speci- 87. Which one of the following Union Ter-
fied number of members to ⇒State Leg- ritories has a High Court of its own?
islative Council ⇒Delhi
75. Which Article gives Special Provisions to 88. Who has the power to create and abol-
the State of Jammu & Kashmir? ⇒370 ish Legislative Council if the Legislative
76. Among the following Amendments, Assembly of State passes a resolution
which is considered as Mini- to that effect? ⇒Parliament
Constitution? ⇒42nd 89. What is the minimum age in years
77. Which among the following can be trans- for becoming the MLC and MLA in the
ferred by the President which related to State? ⇒30 and 25
High Court? ⇒(i) Chief Justice, (ii) Per- 90. What is meant by ‘Court of Records’?
manent Judge ⇒The court that preserves all the
78. Unless approved by the State Legisla- records
ture, the ordinance issued by the Gov- 91. Which are the two States having com-
ernor remains in force for a maximum mon Capital? ⇒Punjab and Haryana
period of ⇒six months 92. Which among the following Article of
79. Who can recommend abolition or cre- the Constitution empowers the High
ation of the Legislative Council in a Court to issue writs of various kinds?
State? ⇒Legislative Assembly of the ⇒226
State 93. When there is no majority party in
80. Governor will act under the following the State Legislative Assembly, the
circumstance with advice of Ministers main consideration governing the ap-
while returning ⇒Appointing the Advo- pointment of a Chief Minister by Gov-
cate General ernor is the ⇒ability of the person who
81. The ordinances issued by the Governor is most likely to command a stable ma-
are subject to approval by the ⇒State jority
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11.6 State government 852
94. What is the minimum gap permissible in India? ⇒Sales Tax
between the two sessions of the Leg- 109. The emoluments of the Ministers in the
islature? ⇒Six months State Government are determined by
95. The salaries and allowances of the ⇒Legislative Assembly
Speaker of Legislative Assembly and 110. Which among the following House
Chairman of Legislative Council shall be cannot be dissolved but can be
determined by the ⇒State Legislature abolished?⇒Legislative Council
96. If the Governor of a State wishes to re- 111. The Legislative Council is a permanent
NARAYAN CHANGDER
linquish Office before the expiry of his House, however, number of mem-
/ her term, he / she has to address res- bers retire after every years.
ignation ⇒President ⇒One-third and 2
97. The Residuary power with respect to 112. The Governor can issue ordinances
the Jammu & Kashmir rest with the ⇒only during the recess of the State
⇒State Government of Jammu & Kash- Legislature
mir 113. Which of the following bodies can be
98. Who discharges the duties of the Of- abolished but not dissolved? ⇒State
fice of Governor if it falls vacant due to Legislative Council
death or resignation? ⇒Chief Justice 114. The Speaker of the Legislative Assem-
of High Court bly shall be elected by the ⇒Members
99. An Advocate General shall hold Office of Legislative Assembly
during the pleasure of the ⇒Governor 115. Where were the High Courts in India
100. If there is a dispute between two States first set up? ⇒Bombay, Madras and
⇒only Supreme Court has jurisdiction Calcutta
to decide that case 116. Article 227 of the Indian Constitution
101. The Additional and Acting Judges of deals with the ⇒High Court’s power of
the High Court are appointed by the superintendence over all Courts and Tri-
⇒President bunals within its Jurisdiction
102. The Governor of a State is administered 117. Who is the neutral in the affairs of the
the oath of Office by (OR) The Governor party politics? ⇒Speaker of Legisla-
before entering upon his Office has to tive Assembly
administer his oath before the ⇒Chief 118. Which High Court has four Principal
Justice of High Court Benches? ⇒
103. The Contingency Fund of the State is op- 119. Who appoints the Chief Justice and
erated by the ⇒Governor other Judges of the High Court?
104. The Speaker of Legislative Assembly en- ⇒President
joys ⇒Right to vote only in case of tie 120. Who appoints and administers the oath
105. The Governor plays a dual role as for the Chief Minister and Council of
an agent of the President and as the Ministers? ⇒Governor
⇒Constitutional Head of the State 121. Who appoints the Governor of the
106. In which area does the State Govern- State? ⇒The President
ment not have control over its Local Bod- 122. The Governor may resign his / her Of-
ies? ⇒Personnel matters fice by writing to the ⇒President
107. What is the tenure in years of Office of 123. The emoluments, allowances and priv-
MLA and MLC in the State? ⇒5 and 6 ileges of the Governor shall be deter-
108. Which of the following is the most im- mined by the ⇒- Parliament
portant source of revenue of the states 124. Which Constitutional Amendment is as-
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11.7 Constitutional provisions for SC’s and St’s, women, children and OBC’s 853
sociated with the linguistic reorganiza- sembly? ⇒Speaker
tion of a State? ⇒3rd 136. The authority to allot the agenda
125. This is not the power of the Chief Minis- of the State Legislative Assembly is
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ter. ⇒Control over State Judiciary ⇒Speaker of Legislative Assembly
126. Find out the correct response to the Or- 137. The Council of Ministers in the State re-
dinance promulgated by the Governor? mains in power for ⇒as long as it re-
⇒has the same force as the law made tains the confidence of Legislative As-
by the State Legislature sembly
127. The Members of the State Legislature 138. The Legislative Council shall not be sub-
can claim immunity from Proceed- jected to dissolution however one-third
ings. ⇒Civil of its members shall retire after every
128. Who Superintendents all subordinate years. ⇒2
courts in a State? ⇒High Court 139. The High Court for the territory of An-
129. Which State(s) is / are having Bi- daman and Nicobar is the High Court of
cameral system?⇒Uttar Pradesh, Kar- ⇒West Bengal
nataka , Maharashtra, 140. The Executive powers of the State Gov-
130. Who is the Executive (Constitutional) ernment shall be exercised in the name
Head of the State Government? of ⇒Governor
⇒Governor 141. The Governor of a State should ⇒not
131. The Governor of a State acts as hold any other office of profit
⇒Agent of President 142. The term of Legislative Assembly can be
132. The salaries and allowances of the extended for a period of during the
Judges of the High Court are charges to time of Emergency. ⇒One year
the ⇒Consolidated Fund of the State 143. High Courts enjoy ⇒(i) Original Juris-
133. A Cabinet Minister of a State Govern- diction, (ii) Administrative powers, (iii)
ment can be removed by the ⇒Chief Appellate Jurisdiction
Minister 144. The State Legislature unless dissolved
134. Constitution empowers State Gov- earlier shall continue for a period of
ernments to make special law for years. ⇒5
⇒Women and Children 145. What is the system of Legislature in the
135. Who among the following is described State of Karnataka? ⇒Bicameral
as the Custodian of State Legislative As-
11.7 Constitutional provisions for SC’s and St’s, women,
children and OBC’s
1. ‘Self-incrimination’ means Compelling a ⇒17
person to ⇒be a witness against him- 4. The Constitution seeks to protect the in-
self terests of the SCs and STs by reserving
2. Certain seats shall be reserved for the seats for them in ⇒public services, in
SCs and STs in Lok Sabha on the basis legislatures
of their ⇒Population 5. Who are considered to be the vulnerable
3. Under the Provisions of which Article group? ⇒Women and Children
of the Constitution, the Government 6. The National Commission for SCs and
abolished the practice of untouchability? STs has to submit an Annual report to
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11.8 Emergency provisions 854
the ⇒President 20. The following act does not amount to
7. In which one of the following States is it practicing untouchability ⇒denying ac-
constitutionally obligatory for the State cess to a home
to have a separate Minister for Tribal 21. Who is empowered to nominate Anglo-
Welfare? ⇒ Indian Community to Lok Sabha / Leg-
8. The Special Officer who looks into the islative Assembly? ⇒President / Gov-
working of the safeguards for SCs and ernor
STs is called as ⇒Commissioner for SCs 22. The year was declared as the year
of women empowerment to the pro-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and STs
9. In which one of the following States motion of the development of women.
there is no reservation for the SCs for ⇒2001
Lok Sabha? ⇒Jammu & Kashmir 23. Jobs are reserved for SC and ST people
10. Which Article of the Indian Constitu- ⇒both at the time of appointment and
tion empowers the President to appoint promotion
a Commission to investigate the condi- 24. Seats for SCs and STs are not reserved
tions of backward classes in general and in ⇒Rajya Sabha
suggest ameliorative measures? ⇒342 25. According to Marriage Act of 1954, the
11. Special provisions relating to the Minori- age is fixed at years for men and
ties are guaranteed under the Part for women. ⇒21 and 18
⇒XVI 26. Reservation for the SCs and STs in the
12. The Mandal Commission for backward Parliament and State Assemblies was
classes was set up in ⇒1978 extended up to 2010 by the Amend-
13. The reservation for members of SCs and ment ⇒79th
STs has been extended up to ⇒2010 27. How many members will be nominated
14. Which Article under the Constitution pro- by President / Governor from Anglo-
vides for the reservation of SCs and STs Indian Community? ⇒2 / 1
in the Lok Sabha? ⇒300 28. Which of the following Prime Minister
15. Concept of ‘creamy layer’, propounded was in favour of implementation of the
by Supreme Court with regard to recommendation of the Mandal Commis-
reservations, refers to ⇒economically sion? ⇒V. P. Singh
better-off people 29. Indian Constitution guarantees reserva-
16. Extension of reservation to SCs and STs tion to SCs and STs in ⇒Lok Sabha and
for another 10 years is provided by Legislative Assembly
way of Constitutional Amendment. 30. Minority Groups are recognized on the
⇒45th basis of their ⇒Population
17. In which year was ‘untouchability’ abol- 31. Which is the Commission appointed by
ished in India? ⇒1950 the Government of India to investigate
18. The Tamil Nadu Reservation Act, which the conditions of socially and education-
provides for 69 ally backward classes of the society?
19. What is the maximum percentage of ⇒Mandal
jobs that can be reserved by a State 32. Which Article provides for the National
for backward class people in the govern- Commission of SCs / STs? ⇒338 /
ment jobs? ⇒50 338A
11.8 Emergency provisions
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11.8 Emergency provisions 855
1. When the State Emergency is in opera- bellion
tion, the President can’t interfere in the 16. The President can declare National Emer-
matters of ⇒State Judiciary gency ⇒Due to threat arising on ac-
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2. When the Financial Emergency is under count of foreign attack or armed rebel-
operation, the Union is empowered to lion
⇒Reduce the salaries of its employees 17. When the Proclamation of Emergency is
3. This is not a ground to declare State in operation, the Parliament has special
Emergency ⇒No clear majority powers to legislate under ⇒State List
4. Emergency Provisions under Indian Con- 18. To declare National Emergency, a deci-
stitution describes the nature of Indian sion must be taken by the ⇒Cabinet
Polity as ⇒Unitary 19. The President can declare Financial
5. How many types of emergencies are en- Emergency ⇒If there is a threat to the
visaged by the Constitution?⇒3 financial stability or credit of India
6. President’s Rule can be imposed on the 20. While Proclamation of Emergency is in
States ⇒on failure of the constitutional operation, the President cannot suspend
machinery in a State certain Fundamental Rights. They are
7. When the Proclamation of Emergency is ⇒20 and 21
in operation, Parliament has power to 21. Proclamation of National Emergency
make laws for the whole or any part of ceases to operate unless approved by
the territory of India under ⇒List II the Parliament within (OR) Once the
8. President can proclaim emergency on National Emergency is proclaimed, it
the recommendation of the Union Cab- should be approved by the Parliament
inet. Such recommendation shall be within (OR) Proclamation issued under
⇒Written recommendation Article 352 shall be laid before the Par-
9. Which one of the following types of liament within ⇒one month
emergency has not yet declared, till 22. Which Article under the Constitution au-
now? ⇒Financial Emergency thorizes the President to proclaim an
10. For first time, the President make a emergency? ⇒352
Proclamation of Emergency under the 23. Financial Emergency can be proclaimed
Article 352 in ⇒1962 under the Article ⇒360
11. President can proclaim an Emergency 24. The President can declare National Emer-
with the recommendation of the gency ⇒On the recommendation of the
⇒Union Cabinet Council of Ministers
12. The Indian Constitution is designed to 25. The President can declare Constitutional
work as a Unitary Government during Emergency in a State ⇒If he is satis-
the time of ⇒- Emergency fied that a situation has arisen in which
13. President’s Rule at the Center is possi- the State Government cannot be car-
ble ⇒during National Emergency ried out on in accordance with the Con-
14. A National Emergency can remain in op- stitution
eration with the approval of Parliament 26. When a State Emergency is declared,
for a ⇒Indefinite period all or any of the functions of the
15. Which one of the following emergencies State Government are assumed by the
can be declared by the President only on ⇒President
the receipt in writing of the decision of 27. President made a Proclamation of Emer-
the Union Cabinet ⇒Emergency due to gency on grounds of internal distur-
war, external aggression or armed re- bances for first time in ⇒1975
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11.9 Electoral process 856
28. When a Financial Emergency is pro- Emergency. ⇒serious internal distur-
claimed ⇒Salaries and allowances of bance
any class of employees may be reduced 36. Who is empowered to proclaim the Fi-
29. During a Financial Emergency, the Pres- nancial Emergency? ⇒President
ident ⇒(i) Order the reduction of 37. When the National Emergency is de-
salaries of Supreme Court and High clared, the following Article is sus-
Court Judges, (ii) Order the reduction pended? ⇒14
of salaries and allowances of all Cen- 38. Financial Emergency can be proclaimed
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tral and State Civil Servants, (iii) Ask all on the ground of ⇒Any part of the In-
States to reserve all the Money or Fi- dian Territory is threatened, Financial
nancial Bills passed by the State Legis- stability, Credit of India
lature for his consideration 39. Emergency Provisions are enshrined
30. How many times has a National Emer- under Part of the Constitution.
gency been declared so far by the Pres- ⇒XVIII
ident? ⇒Thrice 40. Proclamation issued has been approved
31. Emergency Provisions were borrowed by the Parliament will be in force for a
from the Constitution of ⇒Germany period of ⇒6 months
32. The three types of Proclamation of 41. Who has the duty to protect States
Emergency made by the President have against external aggression and inter-
to be placed before each House of Par- nal disturbance? ⇒Union Government
liament for its approval within ⇒One 42. Which type of emergency has been de-
month in case of National Emergency clared the maximum number of times?
and within two months due to break- ⇒Constitutional Emergency
down of constitutional machinery and 43. Breakdown of Constitutional Machin-
Financial Emergency ery in a State is popularly known as
33. If State fails to comply with the di- ⇒President’s Rule
rectives of the Central Government, 44. According to the Article 355, it is the
the President can ⇒declare breakdown duty of the Union to protect States
of the constitutional machinery in the against ⇒External Aggression, Con-
State and assume responsibility for its stitutional Breakdown, Internal Distur-
governance bance
34. President can proclaim an emergency on 45. The final authority to make a Proclama-
the ground of ⇒External Aggression, tion of Emergency rests with (OR)
War , Armed Rebellion is empowered to declare an Emergency.
35. This is not a ground to declare National ⇒President
11.9 Electoral process
1. Chief Election Commissioner can be re- 3. In India, the citizens have been given
moved from Office before the expiry of the right to vote on the basis of ⇒age
the term by the ⇒President on the rec- 4. The Election Commission is responsible
ommendation of the Parliament for the conduct of elections to ⇒(i) Par-
2. For election to Lok Sabha, nomination liament, (ii) Offices of President and
papers can be filed by ⇒Any citizen Vice President & (iii) State Legislatures
whose name appears in the electoral 5. Who of the following has voting rights?
roll ⇒Adult resident citizen of a State
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11.9 Electoral process 857
6. The Electoral System of India is largely Representation
based on the pattern of ⇒Britain 21. The Election Commission of India enjoys
7. The Chief Election Commissioner holds ⇒Constitutional basis
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Office ⇒for a fixed term of five years 22. The Election Commission generally con-
8. Who has the power to make necessary sists of the Chief Election Commis-
provisions with respect to elections? sioner and such other Commissioners
⇒Parliament as ⇒determined by the President from
9. Election disputes shall be decided by the time to time
⇒Election Commission 23. The Chief Election Commissioner
10. Chief Minister of a State is not eligible ⇒Appointed by the President
to vote in the Presidential Election if he 24. Elections to Lok Sabha and Legislative
is ⇒- Member of the Legislative Coun- Assembly in India are conducted on the
cil of the State Legislature basis of ⇒Adult Franchise
11. The Parliamentary elections of 1999, 25. In terms of Election laws in India, elec-
which have been described as the tioneering ceases in a constituency at
longest elections of India, were spread least hours before the commence-
over weeks. ⇒four ment of the polling. ⇒48
12. Other Election Commissioner or Re- 26. Regional Election Commissioners may
gional Election Commissioners shall be be appointed by the ⇒President
removed on the recommendation of the 27. Chief Election Commissioner shall be re-
⇒Chief Election Commissioner moved by the ⇒Parliament
13. Voting age of citizens is changed from 28. Which of the following provisions kept
21 to 18 years by Constitutional democracy alive in India? ⇒Electoral
Amendment Act. ⇒61st provisions
14. Which one of the following statements 29. Which of the following is not the
about the Election Commission is cor- function of the Election Commission?
rect? ⇒The Members of the Election ⇒Selecting candidates for contesting
Commission have equal powers with elections
the Chief Election Commissioner 30. Which one of the following is a feature
15. Who accords recognition to various po- of the party system in India? ⇒There
litical parties as national or regional par- is a close resemblance in the policies
ties? ⇒Election Commission and programmes of various political
16. Which Article under the Constitution 31. Elections to Lok Sabha shall be held af-
gives power to Election Commission to ter every ⇒Five years
conduct elections? ⇒324 32. Who is responsible for keeping the
17. The control and preparation of electoral voters’ list up-to-date at all times?
rolls for Parliament and State Legisla- ⇒Election Commission
ture vest with the ⇒Election Commis- 33. Main consideration which prompted
sion government to convert Election Com-
18. The term ‘Fourth Estate’ refers to mission into a multi-member body was
⇒Press ⇒To check the unbridled powers of the
19. The details regarding the Electoral Sys- Chief Election Commissioner
tem of India ⇒were provided by the 34. Who has been made responsible for
Parliament through a number of laws free and fair elections in the country?
20. What is the system used to elect the ⇒Chief Election Commissioner
President of India? ⇒Proportional 35. This is not the function of the Election
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11.9 Electoral process 858
Commission. ⇒Ascertain the suitabil- 50. Which body gives recognition to political
ity of candidates parties? ⇒Election Commission
36. Citizen of India have the right to cast 51. 61st Constitutional Amendment reduced
his vote after attaining the age of the voting age from ⇒21 to 18
years. ⇒- 18 52. The Election Commission has no power
37. Who is competent to declare the elec- to conduct election to the ⇒Speaker of
tions to the Lok Sabha? ⇒President Lok Sabha
38. Which categories of persons are not en- 53. In India, the system of proportional rep-
titled to exercise vote through postal resentation by means of single transfer-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ballot? ⇒Indian nationals settled able vote is used in the election of the
abroad ⇒President
39. Elections in India are held on the basis 54. The chief merit of proportional repre-
of ⇒Single-member constituencies sentation is ⇒representation to all par-
40. Which one of the following regional ties in the legislature according to their
party emerged as the largest opposition strength
party in the Lok Sabha elections held 55. The number of Members in Election Com-
in December, 1984? ⇒Telugu Desam mission including the Chairman is ⇒3
Party 56. What is the outstanding feature(s) of
41. Election Commission does not conduct the Electoral System of India? ⇒(i) Po-
election to ⇒Speaker of Lok Sabha litical parties are an indispensable part
42. What is the ground on which the Chief of the process, (ii) Based on Universal
Election Commissioner of India can be re- Adult Franchise, & (iii) Provides a single
moved from his Office? ⇒Incapacity electoral body
43. Which of the following features of the 57. The Election Commission does not con-
Electoral System of India ? ⇒(i) It is duct election to the ⇒Post of Prime
based on Universal Adult Franchise, (ii) Minister
Political parties are an indispensable 58. Elections to the Lok Sabha and Legisla-
part of the electoral process & (iii) It tives Assemblies in India are held on the
provides a single electoral body basis of ⇒Adult Franchise
44. Which of the following Lok Sabha was 59. The first general elections were held in
dissolved before the expiry of its nomi- India in (OR) When did first General
nal term and fresh elections held before Elections was held? ⇒1951-52
the due date? ⇒Fourth 60. Which of the following General Elections
45. The party system in India can be de- of India was spread over for 100 days?
scribed as ⇒Multi-party ⇒First
46. Who will conduct the elections to 61. Consider the following tasks: (i) Super-
posts of President and Vice President? vision, direction and conduction of elec-
⇒Election Commission tions, (ii) Preparation of electoral rolls,
47. Election to Local Self Government shall (iii) Proclaiming final verdict in the case
be conducted by ⇒State Election Com- of electoral irregularities
mission 62. Who is authorized to determine the ter-
48. Regional Election Commissioners may ritorial constituencies after each Cen-
be appointed by the President with the sus? ⇒Parliament
consultation of ⇒Election Commission 63. To be recognized as a regional party, a
49. To be recognized as a national party, a party must secure at least ⇒4
party must secure at least ⇒4