QCM Energy Exams

Q1. What are the values of A, B, C, D parameters of a short transmission line?
a. Z, 0, 1, 1
b. 0, 1, 1, 1
c. 1, Z, 0, 1
d. 1, 1, Z, 0
View Answer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: c. 1, Z, 0, 1
Q2. The ABCD constants of a 3 phase transposed transmission line with linear and passive elements
________________
a. Are always equal.

b. Never equal.
c. Only A and D are equal.
d. Only B and C are equal.
ANSWER: c. Only A and D are equal.
Q3. For a transmission line which among the following relation is true?
a. –AB + CD = 1
b. AD + BC = 1
c. AB – CD = -1
d. –AD + BC = 1
ANSWER: d. –AD + BC = 1
Q1. Which type of insulator is used on 132 kV transmission lines?
a. Pin type.
b. Disc type.
c. Shackle type.
d. Pin and shackle type.
ANSWER: b. Disc type.
Q2. Where is the strain type insulators used?
a. At dead ends.
b. At any intermediate anchor tower.
c. On straight runs.
d. Either (a) or (b).
View Aswer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: d. Either (a) or (b).
Q3. Porcelain is produced by firing at high temperature of which all mixtures?
a. Kaolin
b. Feldspar
c. Quartz
d. All of these.
ANSWER: d. All of these.
Q4. What is the dielectric strength of porcelain?
a. 55 kV/cm.
b. 60 kV/cm.
c. 75 kV/cm.
d. 80 kV/cm.
ANSWER: b. 60 kV/cm.
Q5. Why is the wavy structure of pin insulators used?
a. Increases mechanical strength.

b. Increases puncture strength.
c. Increases flash over voltage.
d. Increases thermal strength.
ANSWER: c. Increases flash over voltage.
Q6. The number of discs in a string of insulators for 400 kV ac over head transmission line lies in the
range of
a. 32 – 33
b. 22 – 23
c. 15 – 16
d. 9 – 10
ANSWER: b. 22 – 23
Q1. Where the radial systems are generally employed?
a. Where power is generated at low voltage.

b. Where power is generated at high voltage.
c. Where power is generated at low voltage and substation is located at the centre of the load.
d. Where power is generated at high voltage and substation is located at the centre of the load.
ANSWER: c. Where power is generated at low voltage and substation is located at the centre of the
load.
Q2. What is the main advantage of ring main system over radial system?
i. Voltage drop in the feeder is less.

ii. Power factor is higher.
iii. Supply is more reliable.
Which among the above statements are correct?
a. i and ii only.
b. ii and iii only.
c. i and iii only.
d. i, ii and iii.
ANSWER: c. i and iii only.
Q3. Where the null point of a uniformly loaded distributor feed at equal voltage at both ends lies at?
a. Mid point
b. Either end
c. Two third distance from one end
d. One fourth distance from one end
ANSWER: a. Mid point
Q4. In a distribution system, which of the following items shares the major cost?
a. Conductors
b. Earthing systems
c. Distribution transformer
d. Insulators
ANSWER: c. Distribution transformer
Q5. Which type of distribution is preferred in residential areas?
a. Single phase, two wire.

b. Three phase, three wire
c. Three phase, four wire
d. Two phase, four wire
ANSWER: c. Three phase, four wire
Q6. In a dc 3 wire distributor using having unequal loads on the two sides
a. Both balancers operate as generators.

b. Both balancers operate as motors.
c. Balancers connected to the lightly loaded sides operate as a generator.
d. Balancers connected to the heavily loaded sides operate as a generator.
ANSWER: d. Balancers connected to the heavily loaded sides operate as a generator.

Q7. Why are the balancers fields cross connected in a three wire distribution system?
a. Equalise voltage on positive and negative outer

b. Boost the generated voltage.
c. Make both machines operate as unloaded motors.
d. All of these.
ANSWER: a. Equalise voltage on positive and negative outer
Q8. Which distribution system is energised by two or more generating stations or substations?
a. Radial systems.
b. Interconnected systems.
c. Ring main systems.
d. All of these.
ANSWER: b. Interconnected systems.
Q9. A three wire dc distribution makes available how many voltages?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Both (a) and (b)
ANSWER: c. Three
Q10. If the voltage of the system is about 230 V, then what would be the highest and the lowest
permissible voltage?
a. 242 and 214 V

b. 240 and 210 V
c. 244 and 216 V
d. 244 and 212 V
ANSWER: c. 244 and 216 V
Q1. For purely domestic loads which type of distribution is employed?
a. Single phase two wire.

b. 3 phase 3 wire
c. 3 phase 4 wire
d. None of these
ANSWER: a. Single phase two wire.

Q2. Which type of loads use 3 phase 4 wire ac system of distribution?
a. Balanced
b. Unbalanced
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. Unbalanced
Q3. In a balanced 3 phase, 4 wire ac system the phase sequence is RYB. If the voltage of R phase = 230 ∠
0° volts, then what will be the B phase?
a. 230 ∠ - 120°
b. 230 ∠ - 90°
c. 230 ∠ - 90°
d. 230 ∠ - 120°
ANSWER: d. 230∠ - 120°
Q4. What are ground detectors?
a. Used for detecting earth faults for all cables.

b. Used for detecting ground faults for underground cables.
c. Used for detecting all types of fault in a underground cables.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. Used for detecting ground faults for underground cables.
Q5. A single phase AC distributor supplies two single phase loads as shown. What is the voltage drop
from A to C?
a. 4.5 V
b. 30 V
c. 31.5 V
d. 20 V
ANSWER: c. 31.5 V
Q6. An industrial consumer has a load pattern of 2000 kW, 0.8 lag for 12 hours and 1000 kW UPF for 12
hours. What is its load factor?
a. 10.5
b. 0.75
c. 0.6
d. 2.0
ANSWER: b. 0.75
Q1. On what factors does the skin effect depend upon?
a. Cross section of the conductors.

b. Supply frequency.
c. Permeability of the conductor.
d. All of these.
ANSWER:d. All of these.
Q2. What are the line constants in a transmission line?
a. Resistance and series conductance only.

b. Series and shunt conductance.
c. Resistance, inductance and capacitance.
d. Resistance, inductance, capacitance and shunt conductance.
ANSWER: d. Resistance, inductance, capacitance and shunt conductance.
Q3. What is the cause of skin effect?
a. Supply frequency.
b. Self inductance of conductor.
c. High sensitive material in the centre.
d. Both (a) and (b)
ANSWER: d. Both (a) and (b)
Q4. The conductor carries more current on the surface in comparison to its core. What is this
phenomenon called?
a. Corona
b. Ferranti effect.
c. Skin effect.
d. Proximity effect.
ANSWER: c. Skin effect.

Q5. By using which conductor is the skin effect reduced?
a. Bundled conductors.
b. Stranded conductors.
c. Hollow conductors.
d. Solid conductors.
ANSWER: b. Stranded conductors.
Q6. In which of the transmission systems is the skin effect observed?
a. Cable carrying dc current.

b. DC transmission line only.
c. AC transmission line only.
d. DC as well as AC transmission lines.
ANSWER: c. AC transmission line only.
Q7. Skin effect in a conductor is proportional to

1/2
a. (Diameter of conductor)
b. Diameter of conductor.
2
c. (Diameter of conductor)
4
d. (Diameter of conductor)
ANSWER: c. (Diameter of conductor)2
Q8. Skin effect is negligible for what supply frequency and for what diameter?
a. < 50 Hz and < 1 cm.

b. < 50 Hz and > 1 cm.
c. > 50 Hz and < 1 cm.
d. > 50 Hz and > 1 cm.
ANSWER: a. < 50 Hz and < 1 cm.
Q1. What does capacitance grading of cables mean?
a. Use of dielectrics in different concentrations.

b. Introduction of capacitance at various lengths of cable to counter the effect of inductance.
c. Use of dielectrics of different permittivities.
d. Grading according to capacitance per km length of the cable.
ANSWER: c. Use of dielectrics of different permittivities.
Q2. In a 3 core cable, the capacitance between two conductors is 3 μF. What will be the capacitance per
phase?
a. 1.5 μ F
b. 3 μ F
c. 6 μ F
d. 12 μ F
ANSWER: c. 6 μ F
Q3. For the fig shown, what will be the capacitance between A and B
a. CC + (CS / 2)
b. Cs + (Cc / 2)
c. (CS + 3 Cc) / 2
d. 3CC + 2CS
ANSWER: c. (CS + 3 Cc) / 2
Q4. What is the source of heat generation in cables?
a. Copper loss in conductor

b. Dielectric losses in cable insulation
c. Losses in metallic sheathings and armouring.
d. All of these.
Q5. The capacitances of a 3 phase belted cable are 12.6 μ F between the three cores bunched together
and the lead sheath and 7.4 μ F between one core and the other two connected to sheath. What will be the
charging current drawn by the cable when connected to a 66 kV supply?
a. 100 A
b. 99.3648 A
c. 105.236 A
d. 107.74 A
ANSWER: d. 107.74 A
Q6. What is the safe working temperature for a conductor in case of armoured cables?
a. 50° C
b. 75° C
c. 65° C
d. 40° C
ANSWER: c. 65° C
Q7. Which tests are conducted to locate the fault location in the cables?
a. Murray loop test.

b. Varley loop test.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of these.
ANSWER: c. Both (a) and (b).
Q8. In a test by Murray loop for ground fault on 500 m of cable having a resistance of 1.6 Ω / km, the faulty
cable is looped with the sound cable of some length and area of cross section. If the ratio of the other two
arms of the testing network at balance is 3:1, what is the distance of fault from the testing end of cables?
a. 100 m
b. 200 m
c. 250 m
d. 300 m
ANSWER: c. 250 m
Q1. Why is the transmission lines transposed?
a. Reduce corona loss.

b. Reduce skin effect.
c. Prevent interference with the neighbouring telephone lines.
d. Prevent short circuit between any two lines.
ANSWER: c. Prevent interference with the neighbouring telephone lines.
Q2. A three phase, 50Hz transmission line consists of three equal conductors of radii ‘r’ placed in a
horizontal plane with a spacing of 6m between middle and outer conductor. If the radius of each
conductor is 12.5 mm, then inductance per phase per km of the transposed line will be
a. 1.33 mH/km
b. 1.65 mH/km
c. 0.38 mH/km
d. 2.145 mH/km
ANSWER: a. 1.33 mH/km
Q3. A three phase transmission line has its conductors at the corners of an equilateral triangle with sides
3m. The diameter of each conductor is 1.63 cm. What is the inductance of the line per phase?
a. 1.232 mH
b. 1.184 mH
c. 2.236 mH
d. 2.68 mH
View Anser / Hide Answer
ANSWER: a. 1.232 mH
Q4. What will be the inductance of each conductor in a three phase, 3 wire system when they are
arranged in a horizontal plane with spacing such that D31= 4m, D12 = D23 = 2m. The conductors are
transposed and have a diameter of 2.5 cm.
a. 2.22 mH
b. 1.11 mH
c. 3.33 mH
d. 4.44 mH
ANSWER: b. 1.11 mH
Q5. What is the inductance per phase per km of a double circuit 3 phase line as shown in the fig. The
conductors are transposed and are of radius 0.75 cm each.
a. 0.725 mH
b. 0.835 mH
c. 0.623 mH
d. 0.231 mH
ANSWER: c. 0.623 mH
Q6. Why is high voltage transmission lines transposed?
a. Corona losses can be minimised.

b. Computation of inductance becomes easier.
c. Voltage drops in the lines can be minimised.
d. Phase voltage imbalances can be minimised.
ANSWER: d. Phase voltage imbalances can be minimised.
Q7. The three phase line consists of three conductors each of diameter 21 mm. The spacing is shown in
fig. Find the inductance per phase/ km.
-4
a. 8.2 * 10 H / km
-4
b. 12.22 * 10 H / km
-4
c. 5.6 * 10 H / km
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. 12.22 * 10-4 H / km
Q8. When is the transposition of conductors in a transmission line done?
a. When the conductors are not equally spaced.

b. When the conductors are spaced equilaterally.
c. When a telephone line runs parallel to the power line.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: a. When the conductors are not equally spaced.
Q9. Assertion (A): Transposition of conductors in a transmission line is necessary.

Reason (R): Corona losses are reduced by transposition of conductors.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true and R is not the explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.
ANSWER: c. A is true but R is false
Q10. Assertion (A): the concept of GMD is applicable for the calculation of inductance of transmission
lines.
Reason (R): The radius of the conductor of transmission lines, in the expression for inductance is not the
self GMD of the conductor.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true and R is not the explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.
ANSWER: b. Both A and R are true and R is not the explanation of A
Q11. In case of stranded conductors, what is the ratio of the GMR to the actual radius?
a. Equal to 1
b. More than 1
c. Equal to 0.7788
d. Less than 0.7788
ANSWER: d. Less than 0.7788
Q12. Ds is the GMR of each subconductor of a four subconductor bundled conductor and d is the bundle
spacing. What is the GMR of the equivalent single conductor?
3
a. 1.09 √ (Ds * d )
3 3
b. 1.09 √ (Ds * d )
3 3 1/4
c. 1.09 (√ (Ds * d ))
3 1/4
d. 1.09 (√(Ds * d ))
ANSWER: d. 1.09 (√(Ds * d3))1/4
Q1. What will be the pd at point B if a pd of 300 V is maintained at a point A, for a 2 wire dc distributor
cable AB if 2 km long and supplies loads of 100A, 150A, 200A, and 50A suited at 500m, 1000m, 1600m,
and 2000m from the feeding point A. Each conductor has a resistance of 0.01 Ω per 1000 m.
a. 288 V
b. 287.6 V
c. 295.36 V
d. 291.2 V
ANSWER: b. 287.6 V
Q2. What is the loss factor in a distribution system?

2
a. 0.3 * load factor + 0.7 (load factor)
b. 0.5 * (load factor)
c. Load factor
2
d. 0.7 * load factor + 0.3 (load factor)
ANSWER: a. 0.3 * load factor + 0.7 (load factor)2
Q3. A 2 wire dc street mains AB, 600 m long is fed from both ends at 220 V. Loads of 20 A, 40 A, 50 A and
30 A are tapped at distances 100m, 250m, 400m and 500m from the end A. If the area of cross section of
2 -6
distributor is 1 cm , what will be the minimum consumer voltage? If ? = 1.7 * 10 Ω cm.
a. 220 V
b. 215.69 V
c. 218.36 V
d. 222.58 V
ANSWER: b. 215.69 V
Q4. A distribution system is shown in figure with load currents as marked. The two ends of the feeder are
fed by voltage sources such that Vp = Vq = 3 V, the value of the voltage Vp for a minimum voltage of 220 V
at any point along the feeder is
a. 225.89 V
b. 222.89 V
c. 220.0 V
d. 228.58 V
ANSWER: a. 225.89 V
Q5. A uniformly loaded dc distributor is fed at both ends with equal voltages. In comparison to a similar
distributor fed at one end only, what will be the maximum voltage drop?
a. One fourth
b. Half
c. One third
d. One sixth
ANSWER: a. One fourth
Q6. A uniformly loaded dc distributor is fed at both ends with equal voltages. In comparison to a similar
distributor fed at one end only, what will be the drop at the midpoint be?
a. One fourth
b. Half
c. One third
d. One sixth
ANSWER: c. One third
Q7. Installation of capacitors at suitable locations and of optimum size in a distribution system results in
i. Improved voltage regulation.

ii. Reduction in distribution power losses.
iii. Reduction of kVA rating of distribution transformers.
Which among the following is/are the correct codes?
a. i only
b. i and ii only
c. all of these
d. iii only
ANSWER: c. all of these
Q1. What is the main type of distribution system in India?
a. Radial
b. Parallel
c. Network
d. Both (b) and (c)
ANSWER: a. Radial
Q2. Which component connects the substation to the area where power is to be distributed?
a. Distributors
b. Service mains
c. Feeders
d. All of these
ANSWER: c. Feeders
Q3. The cost of material used in a distribution circuit per kVA of the distributed power varies as
a. Square of linear dimensions of supply area.

2
b. Directly according to (supply area)
c. Cube of linear dimensions of supply area.
d. None of these
ANSWER: b. Directly according to (supply area)2
Q4. Name the cable which connects the distributor to the consumer terminals.
a. Distributors
b. Service mains
c. Feeders
d. All of these
ANSWER: b. Service mains
Q5. What is the permissible limit of voltage variations allowed in the distribution systems?
a. ± 2 %
b. ± 5 %
c. ± 10 %
d. ± 6 %
ANSWER: d. ± 6 %
Q1. What is the maximum stress in the insulation for a 33 kV single core cable with a diameter of 1 cm
and a sheath of inside diameter 4 cm?
a. 50.61 kV / cm rms
b. 45.231 kV / cm rms
c. 47.61 kV / cm rms
d. 49.231 kV /cm rms
ANSWER: c. 47.61 kV / cm rms

Q2. What will be the insulation thickness for a conductor of diameter 2 cm, with maximum and minimum
stress 40 kV / cm rms and 10 kV / cm rms respectively?
a. 5 cm
b. 3 cm
c. 2 cm
d. 4 cm
ANSWER: b. 3 cm
Q3. What will be the most economical value of diameter of a single core cable to be used on 50 kV, single
phase system, when the maximum permissible stress is not exceeding 50 kV / cm?
a. 2.52 cm
b. 2.828 cm
c. 3.52 cm
d. 3.82 cm
ANSWER b. 2.828 cm
Q4. To get a minimum value of stress (gmax) what should be the ratio of core diameter to sheath diameter?
a. 1 / 2.718
b. 2.178
c. 1 / 3.78
d. 3.78
ANSWER: a. 1 / 2.718
Q1. A single core cable has a conductor diameter of 1 cm and the insulation thickness of 0.4 cm. If the
14
specific resistance of insulation is 5.5 * 10 Ω -cm, what will be the insulation resistance for a length of 3
km?
9
a. 0.234 * 10 Ω
9
b. 0.257 * 10 Ω
9
c. 0.352 * 10 Ω
9
d. 0.211 * 10 Ω
ANSWER: b. 0.257 * 109 Ω
Q2. A single core cable 5 km long has an insulation resistance of 0.35 M Ω. The core diameter is 20 mm
and the diameter of the cable over the insulation is 50mm. What will be the resistivity of the insulating
material?
9
a. 13 * 10 Ω m
9
b. 12 * 10 Ω m
9
c. 13.5 * 10 Ω m
9
d. 12.85 * 10 Ω m
ANSWER: b. 12 * 109 Ω m
Q3. On which factor does the capacitance of the cable depend upon?
a. Length of cable.
b. Relative permittivity of dielectric used in cable.
c. Ratio of sheath diameter and core diameter.
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: d. All of the above.
Q4. The charging current drawn by the cable _____________.
a. Lags behind the voltage by 90°.

b. Leads the voltage by 90°.
c. Are in phase with each other.
d. Leads the voltage by 60°.
ANSWER: Leads the voltage by 90°.
Q5. A single core cable has a conductor diameter of 1 cm and the internal sheath diameter of 1.8 cm. If
impregnated paper of relative permittivity 4 is used as the insulation, calculate the capacitance for 1 km
length of cable?
a. 0.378 μ F
b. 0.264 μ F
c. 0.549 μ F
d. 0.78 μ F
ANSWER: a. 0.378 µ F
Q6. What is the total charging current per phase for a 33 kV, 50 Hz, 3 phase underground cable of 4 km
length using 3 single core cables? Each conductor has a diameter of 2.5 cm and the radial thickness of
insulation is 0.5 cm
a. 15.28 A
b. 11.87 A
c. 13.85 A
d. 8.25 A
ANSWER: b. 11.87 A
Q1. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor in the cable depends on which among the
following factor?
a. Operating voltage.
b. Current to be carried.
c. Power factor.
d. Both (a) and (b).

ANSWER: a. Operating voltage.
Q2. The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10 km is 1M Ω . For a length of 100 km of the same
cable, what will be the insulation resistance?
a. 1 M Ω
b. 10 M Ω
c. 0.1 M Ω
d. 0.01 M Ω
ANSWER: c. 0.1 M Ω
Q3. What is the main drawback of using paper as the insulating material?
a. Is hygroscopic
b. Has poor dielectric strength.
c. Has a very low insulation resistivity.
d. Has high capacitance.
ANSWER: a. Is hygroscopic
Q4. What is the limit of the conductor cross section when paper insulation is used?
2
a. 50 mm
2
b. 250 mm
2
c. 600 mm
2
d. 1200 mm
ANSWER: c. 600 mm2
Q5. What is the dielectric strength of impregnated paper?
a. 30 kV/mm
b. 20 kV/mm
c. 15 kV/mm
d. 5 kV/mm
ANSWER: a. 30 kV/mm
Q6. What is empire tape?
a. Impregnated paper
b. Vulcanised rubber
c. Enamel insulation
d. Varnished cambric

ANSWER: d. Varnished cambric
Q7. What is the percentage of added materials like sulphur, zinc lead etc in vulcanised rubber?
a. 5 – 10 %
b. 3 – 5 %
c. 4 – 8 %
d. 10 – 12 %
ANSWER: b. 3 – 5 %
Q1. The transmission lines above what length is termed as the long lines?
a. More than 100 km

b. 150 km and above
c. 250 km and above
d. Less than 100 km
ANSWER: b. 150 km and above
Q2. What happens in a long transmission lines under no load?
a. The receiving end voltage is less than the sending end voltage.
b. The sending end voltage is less then receiving end voltage.
c. The sending end voltage is equal to receiving end voltage.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. The sending end voltage is less then receiving end voltage.
Q3. What is the normal range of angle for the parameter A?
a. 90 °
b. 70 ° - 40 °
c. 40 ° - 10 °
d. 0 - 10 °
ANSWER: d. 0 - 10°
Q4. The ABCD parameter of a 3 phase transmission line is given as follows
A = D = 0.8 ∠ 1 °, B = 170 ∠ 85 ° Ω , and C = 0.002 ∠ 90.4 ° ℧ the sending end voltage is 400 kV. What is the
receiving end voltage under no load condition?
a. 400 kV
b. 500 kV
c. 320 kV
d. 417 kV
ANSWER: b. 500 kV
Q5. The ABCD parameter of a 3 phase transmission line is given as follows
-3
A = D = 0.9 ∠ 0 °, B = 200 ∠ 90 ° Ω , and C = 0.95 *10 ∠ 90 ° ℧ . At no load condition a shunt inductive
reactor is connected at the receiving end of the line to limit the receiving end voltage to be equal to the
sending end voltage. What is the ohmic value of the reactor?
a. Infinity.
b. 2000 Ω
c. 105.26 Ω
d. 1052.6 Ω
ANSWER: b. 2000 Ω
Q6. The value of A parameter of a transmission line
a. Increases with increase in length of line.

b. Decreases with increase in line length.
c. Is independent of line length.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: a. Increases with increase in length of line.
Q7. Transmission efficiency of a transmission line increases with the
a. Decrease in power factor and voltage.

b. Increase in power factor and voltage.
c. Increase in power factor but decrease in voltage.
d. Increase in voltage and decrease in power factor.
ANSWER: b. Increase in power factor and voltage.
Q1. A line of what length can be classified as a medium transmission line?
a. 90 – 100 km
b. 50 – 150 km
c. 150 – 200 km
d. Above 200 km
ANSWER: b. 50 – 150 km
Q2. Which among the following methods are used for the calculation of solution of a medium
transmission line?
a. End condenser method

b. Only T method
c. Only p method.
d. All of these.

Q3. What are the A and D parameters in case of medium transmission line (nominal T method)?
a. A = D = 1 + (YZ / 2)
b. A = D = 1 + (YZ / 2) * Z
c. A = D = (YZ / 2)
d. A = D = (YZ / 2) * Y
ANSWER: a. A = D = 1 + (YZ / 2)
Q4. In the nominal p method which among these are divided into two halves?
a. Series impedance
b. Shunt capacitance
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. Shunt capacitance
Q5. What is the value of B parameter in case of nominal p method?
a. Y
b. Z
c. Y * (1 + YZ / 4)
d. Z * (1 + YZ / 4)
ANSWER: b. Z
Q6. What is the value of the C parameter by using a nominal T method for a 3 phase balanced
load of 30 MW which is supplied by a 132 kV, 50 Hz and 0.85 pf lagging. The series impedance
-
of a single conductor is (20 + j52) Ω and the total phase to neutral admittance is 315 * 10
6
siemen.
a. 0.000315 ∠ 90
b. 0.000251 ∠ 90
c. 0.004125 ∠ 90
d. 0.000289 ∠ 90
ANSWER: a. 0.000315 ∠ 90
Q1. On what concept is electrically short, medium and long lines based on?
a. Nominal voltage of the line.

b. Physical length of the line.
c. Wavelength of the line.
d. Power transmitted over the line.
ANSWER: b. Physical length of the line.

Q2. The capacitance effect can be neglected in which among the transmission lines?
a. Short transmission lines.

b. Medium transmission lines.
c. Long transmission lines.
d. All of these.
ANSWER: a. Short transmission lines.
Q3. In the modelling of short length overhead transmission line, why is the line capacitance to ground not
considered?
a. Equal to zero.
b. Finite but very small.
c. Finite but very large.
d. Infinite.
ANSWER: b. Finite but very small.
Q4. In a short transmission line, voltage regulation is zero when the power factor angle of the load at the
receiving end side is equal to ____________.
-1
a. tan (X/R)
-1
b. tan (R/X)
-1
c. tan (X/Z)
-1
d. tan (R/Z)
ANSWER: b. tan-1 (R/X)
Q5. What is the power factor angle of the load for maximum voltage regulation?
-1
a. tan (X/R)
-1
b. cos (X/R)
-1
c. tan (R/X)
-1
d. cos (R/X)
View Aswer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: a. tan-1 (X/R)
Q6. A single phase transmission line of impedance j0.8 ohm supplies a resistive load of 500 A at 300 V.
The sending end power factor is
a. Unity
b. 0.8 lagging
c. 0.8 leading
d. 0.6 lagging
ANSWER: d. 0.6 lagging
Q7. For a short line if the receiving end voltage is equal to sending end voltage under loaded conditions
a. The sending end power factor is unity.

b. The receiving end power factor is unity.
c. The sending end power factor is leading.
d. The receiving end power factor is leading.
ANSWER: d. The receiving end power factor is leading.
Q8. What is the line length if a load of 15000 kW at a power factor 0.8 lagging can be delivered by a 3
phase transmission line having conductors each of resistance 1 Ω per kilometre? The voltage at the
receiving end is to be 132kV and the loss is about 5%.
a. 40.13km
b. 37.18km
c. 42.38km
d. 35.87km
ANSWER: b. 37.18km
Q1. What happens if the separation between the three phases of the transmission line is increased?
a. The inductance will increase and capacitance will remain unchanged.

b. Both inductance and capacitance will decrease.
c. Inductance will increase and capacitance will decrease.
d. Inductance will decrease and capacitance will increase.
ANSWER: c. Inductance will increase and capacitance will decrease.
Q2. What will be the capacitance of a 100 km long, 3 phase, 50Hz overhead transmission line consisting
of 3 conductors, each of 2 cm and spaced 2.5 m at the corners of an equilateral triangle?
a. 1.007 μ F/phase
b. 2.0075 μ F/phase
c. 2.5 μ F/phase
d. 1.45 μ F/phase
ANSWER: a. 1.007 μ F/phase
Q3. If the double circuit 3 phase line has conductors of diameter 2 cm and distance of separation 2m in
hexagonal spacing. What is the phase to neutral capacitance for 150km of line?
a. 2.4939 μ F
b. 3.7408 μ F
c. 1.8245 μ F
d. 3.2548 μ F
Vie Answer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: b. 3.7408 μ F
Q4. What is the charging current per km for the transmission line shown in the figure. Operating at 132
kV, the conductor diameter is 0.8 cm.
a. 0.314 A/km
b. 0.21 A/km
c. 0.45 A/km
d. 0.11 A/km
ANSWER: b. 0.21 A/km
Q1. Capacitance between the two conductors of a single phase two wire line is 0.5 μ F/km. What is the
value of capacitance of each conductor to neutral?
a. 0.5 μ F / km.
b. 1 μ F / km.
c. 0.25 μ F / km.
d. 2.0 μ F / km.
ANSWER: b. 1 μ F / km.
Q2. What happens in case of capacitance of line to ground, if the effect of earth is taken into account?
a. Capacitance of line to ground decreases.

b. Capacitance of line to ground increases.
c. The capacitance remains unaltered.
d. The capacitance becomes infinite.
ANSWER: b. Capacitance of line to ground increases.
Q3. What is the value of capacitance to neutral for the two wire line?
a. Twice the line to line capacitance.
b. Equal to line to line capacitance.
c. Thrice the line to line capacitance.
d. Half of line to line capacitance.
ANSWER: a. Twice the line to line capacitance.
Q4. A two conductor single phase line operates at 50Hz. Diameter of each conductor is 20mm and the
spacing between the conductors is 3m. The height of the conductors above the ground is 6m. What is the
capacitance of the line to neutral?
a. 9.7 pF/m.
b. 10.8 pF/m.
c. 3.57 pF/m.
d. 2.415 pF/m.
ANSWER: a. 9.7 pF/m.
Q1. What is the total resistance in a single phase or 2 – wire dc line?
a. Equal to the resistance of either conductor.

b. Double the resistance of either conductor.
c. Half of the resistance of either conductor.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. Double the resistance of either conductor.
Q2. The inductance of a single phase two wire power transmission line per km gets doubled when
a. Distance between the wires is doubled.

b. Distance between the wires increased fourfold.
c. Distance between the wires is increased as the square of the original distance.
d. Radius of the wire is doubled.
ANSWER: c. Distance between the wires is increased as the square of the original distance.
Q3. The inductance of a power transmission line increases with
a. Decrease in line length.

b. Increase in diameter of conductor.
c. Increasing in spacing between the phase conductors.
d. Increase in load current carried by the conductors.
ANSWER: c. Increasing in spacing between the phase conductors.
Q4. Inductance of a single phase two parallel wire transmission line having conductor radius r and
spacing D between conductors is equal to
-7
a. 2 π * 10 ln D / r
-7
b. 4 * 10 ln D / r
-7
c. 4 π * 10 ln D / r
-7
d. 2 * 10 ln D / r
ANSWER: b. 4 * 10-7 ln D / r
Q5. For a single phase overhead line having solid copper conductors of diameter 1 cm spaced 90 cm
between the centres, the inductance in mH/km is
a. 0.05 + 0.2 ln 90
b. 0.2 ln 90
c. 0.05 + 0.2 ln (90/0.5)
d. 0.2 ln (90/0.5)
ANSWeR: c. 0.05 + 0.2 ln (90/0.5)
Q6. The conductor of a 15 km long, single phase two wire line are separated by a distance of 1.5 m. The
diameter of each conductor is 1 cm. If the conductors are of copper, the inductance of the circuit is
a. 23.81 mH
b. 35.72 mH
c. 32.81 mH
d. 53.72 mH
ANSWER: b. 35.72 mH
Q7. The inductance of a transmission line is minimum when_____________
a. GMD is high.
b. GMR is high.
c. Both GMD and GMR are high.
d. GMD is low and GMR is high.
ANSWER: d. GMD is low and GMR is high.
Q8. A single phase line has two parallel conductors 2 metre apart. The diameter of each conductor is 1.2
cm. What is the loop inductance per km of the line?
a. 2.423 mH
b. 1.234 mH
c. 3.267 mH
d. 8.632 mH
ANSWER: a. 2.423 mH
Q1. Higher the frequency, _____________.

a. Lower the corona loss.
b. Higher is the corona loss.
c. Does not effect.
d. Depends on the physical conditions.
ANSWER: b. Higher is the corona loss.
Q2. Which harmonics are generated during the corona, which leads to the increase in corona losses?
a. Third harmonics.
b. Fifth harmonics.
c. Seventh harmonics.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: a. Third harmonics.
Q3. What is the use of bundled conductors?
a. Reduces surface electric stress of conductor.

b. Increases the line reactance.
c. Decreases the line capacitance.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: a. Reduces surface electric stress of conductor.
Q4. On which factor is the corona loss dependent on?
a. Material of the conductor.

b. Diameter of the conductor.
c. Height of the conductor.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. Diameter of the conductor.
Q5. In which climate does the chances of occurrence of corona is maximum
a. Dry
b. Hot summer.
c. Winter.
d. Humid.
ANSWER d. Humid.
Q6. Corona loss can be reduced by using

1. Solid conductor.
2. Hollow conductor.
3. Bundle conductor.
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only.
c. 1, 2 and 3 only.
d. 2 and 3 only.
ANSWER: d. 2 and 3 only.
Q7. What is the effect on corona, if the spacing between the conductors is increased?
a. Corona increases.
b. Corona is absent.
c. Corona decreases.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. Corona is absent.
Q8. Why are the hollow conductors used?
a. Reduce the weight of copper.

b. Improve stability.
c. Reduce corona
d. Increase power transmission capacity.
ANSWER: c. Reduce corona
Q9. Which of these given statements is wrong in consideration with bundled conductors?
a. Control of voltage gradient.

b. Reduction in corona loss.
c. Reduction in the radio interference.
d. Increase in interference with communication lines.
ANSWER: d. Increase in interference with communication lines.
Q10. Why are bundled conductors employed?
a. Appearance of the transmission line is improved.

b. Mechanical stability of the line is improved.
c. Improves current carrying capacity.
d. Improves the corona performance of the line.
ANSWER: d. Improves the corona performance of the line.

Q11. The effect of dirt on the surface of the conductor is to _____________ irregularity and thereby
________________ the break down voltage.
a. Decreases, reduces.
b. Increases, increases.
c. Increases, reduces.
d. Decreases, increases.
ANSWER: c. Increases, reduces.
Q13. Find the spacing between the conductors a 132 kV 3 phase line with 1.956 cm diameter conductors
is built so that corona takes place, if the line voltage exceeds 210 kV (rms). With go = 30 kV/cm.
a. 1.213 m
b. 2.315 m.
c. 3.451 m.
d. 4.256 m.
ANSWER: c. 3.451 m.
Q1. What is corona?
a. Partial breakdown of air.

b. Complete breakdown of air.
c. Sparking between the lines.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. Complete breakdown of air.
Q2. In case of dc voltage, which colour beads are formed near the negative conductor?
a. Reddish.
b. Bluish.
c. Greenish.
d. Violet.
ANSWER: a. Reddish.
Q3. In case of dc voltage, smoother _____________ uniform glow near the positive conductor.
a. Yellow.
b. Bluish white.
c. Reddish white.
d. Greenish yellow.
ANSWER: b. Bluish white.
Q4. Which of the following statements are true related to corona?

1. It causes radio interference.
2. It attenuates lightning surges.
3. It causes power loss.
4. It amplifies switching surges.
The codes are:
a. 1,2,4
b. 1,4
c. 1,2,3
d. 2,3
ANSWER: c. 1,2,3
Q5. Which gas is formed near to the conductors by producing a hissing noise?
a. Oxygen.
b. Ozone.
c. Hydrogen.
d. Nitrogen.
ANSWER: b. Ozone.
Q6. Corona is observed on
a. AC transmissions only.
b. DC transmissions only.
c. AC and DC transmissions.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: c. AC and DC transmissions.
Q1. The insulators fail due to
a. Flash over.
b. Short circuits.
c. Deposition of dust.
d. All of these.
Q2. The number of discs required for 220 kV ac over head transmission line in clear atmosphere is
a. 10 – 12.
b. 21 – 22.
c. 12 – 14.
d. 5 – 6.
ANSWER: c. 12 – 14.
Q3. At what angle is the water sprayed on the insulator in 50 cycle wet test?
a. 35 °C
b. 40 °C
c. 45 °C
d. 50 °C
ANSWER: c. 45 °C
Q4. What is the value of the wave front and the wave tail of the standard lightning impulse wave used in
the impulse voltage withstand test?
a. 50 μ sec and 1.2 μ sec.

b. 1.2 μ sec and 50 μ sec.
c. 50 μ sec and 2.1 μ sec.
d. 2.1 μ sec and 50 μ sec.
ANSWER: b. 1.2 μ sec and 50 μ sec.
Q1. What is the maximum voltage level upto which the pin type insulators can be used?
a. 22 kV
b. 33 kV
c. 66 kV
d. 132 kV
ANSWER: b. 33 kV
Q2. What is the safety factor of an insulator?
a. Puncture strength * Flash over voltage.

b. Puncture strength / Flash over voltage.
c. Flash over voltage / Puncture strength.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. Puncture strength / Flash over voltage.
Q3. What is the desirable safety factor prescribed for the pin type of insulators?
a. 5
b. 13
c. 10
d. 2
ANSWER: c. 10
Q4. Why is the voltage rating of a multiple shell pin type insulator cannot be increased beyond
a limiting value?
a. The internal voltage distribution between shells becomes unequal.

b. The leakage path resistance starts reducing.
c. The disruptive critical voltage for the material of the insulator is reached.
d. The puncture voltage of the material of the insulator is reached.

ANSWER: a. The internal voltage distribution between shells becomes unequal.
Q1. The flue gases are released to the atmosphere through _____________.
a. Air- Preheater
b. Forced draught
c. Induced draught
d. Electrostatic precipitator
ANSWER: d. Electrostatic precipitator
Q2. In a superheater _____________.
a. Pressure rises and temperature drops.

b. Temperature rises and pressure drops.
c. Temperature rises and pressure remains unchanged.
d. Pressure rises and temperature remains the same.
ANSWER: c. Temperature rises and pressure remains unchanged.
Q3. Equipment installed in the steam plants to reduce the rate of air pollution
is________________.
a. De super heater
b. Air filter
c. Air electrostatic precipitator
d. Stock
ANSWER: c. Air electrostatic precipitator

Q1. The boiler commonly used in a thermal plant are__________________.
a. Water tube type

b. Fire tube
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these
ANSWER: c. Both (a) & (b).
Q2. Water to the boiler is at________________.
a. Atmospheric pressure
b. Slightly more than atmospheric pressure.
c. More than steam pressure in the boiler.
d. Any pressure.
ANSWER: c. More than steam pressure in the boiler.
Q3. What is the main advantage of the usage of high pressure boilers in a thermal
plant?
a. Lower price
b. Increase in efficiency
c. Low grade fuel can be burnt.
d. Both (b) and (c)
ANSWER: d. Both (b) and (c)
Q4. What is the normal range of pH of water to be maintained in the steam rising in the
thermal power station?
a. 3.5
b. 7.02
c. 8.5
d. 9.87
ANSWER: c. 8.5
Q5. Heat balance in a boiler furnace is improved by sending air to the furnace
a. At low temperature.
b. At high temperature.
c. Mixed with CO2.
d. Both (b) & (c).
ANSWER: b. At high temperature.
Q6. Coal is carried from storage to the boiler by means of?
a. Trolleys
b. V – belts
c. Buckets
d. Manually
ANSWER: b. Buckets
Q1. The best coal suitable for the production of energy is_________________.
a. Lignite
b. Bituminous
c. Anthracite
d. Peat
ANSWER: c. Anthracite
Q2. Name the system that is mainly employed for the disposal of fly ash.
a. Pneumatic
b. Hydraulic
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. Steam jet system.
ANSWER: a. Pneumatic
Q3. What is the superior quality of coal called?
a. Anthracite
b. Coke
c. Bituminous
d. Peat
ANSWER: c. Bituminous
Q4. The coal with highest ash content is?
a. Lignite
b. Steam coal
c. Coking coal
d. Bituminous coal
ANSWER: a. Lignite
Q5. The major content of coal in India is ________________.
a. Dust
b. Ash
c. Fly ash
d. Cinder
ANSWER: b. Ash
Q6. On which factor does the calorific value of coal depend on?
a. Ash content.
b. Size of coal particles
c. Moisture content.
d. Volatile material.
ANSWER: a. Ash content.
Q7. The elements that are combustible in the fuel are
a. Carbon and hydrogen.

b. Carbon, hydrogen and ash.
c. Carbon, hydrogen and sulphur.
d. Carbon, nitrogen and ash.
ANSWER: c. Carbon, hydrogen and sulphur.
Q8. What is the percentage of ash content in Indian coal?
a. 5 %
b. 10 %
c. 20 %
d. 30 %
ANSWER: c. 20 %
Q9. Which of the following is the essential element for the combustion of fuel?
a. Oxygen
b. Correct fuel air ratio.
c. Proper ignition temperature.
d. All of these.
Q10. What is pulverised coal?
a. Non smoking coal.

b. Coal free from ash.
c. Coal broken into fine particles.
d. Coal which burns for long time.
ANSWER: c. Coal broken into fine particles.
Q11. Why is pulverised coal used?
a. Better burning.
b. Increased calorific value of coal.
c. Medium size units.
d. Less radiation loss.
ANSWER: a. Better burning.
Q12. What is the important factor in fuel selection?
a. Cost of fuel.
b. Calorific value
c. Both (a) & (b).
d. None of these.
ANSWER: c. Both (a) & (b).
Q13. Ash handling system is mainly divided into________________ systems.

a. Mechanical handling
b. Pneumatic
c. Hydraulic
d. All of these
ANSWER: d. All of these
Q1. What percent of installed capacity of gas turbines contribute to the total installed
capacity of the power plants in India.
a. 5 %
b. 8 %
c. 11 %
d. 15 %
ANSWER: c. 11 %
Q2. Which state in India among these doesn’t have a gas turbine plant?
a. Jammu Kashmir.
b. Tripura
c. Tamil Nadu.
d. Bihar.
ANSWER: c. Tamil Nadu.
Q3. A gas turbine works on which cycle?
a. Carnot.
b. Brayton.
c. Dual cycle.
d. Rankine cycle.
ANSWER: b. Brayton.
Q4. The gas turbines are mainly used in?
a. Locomotives.
b. Aircrafts.
c. Automobiles.
d. Pumping stations.
ANSWER: c. Automobiles.
Q5. Gas turbine plants are not used -
a. As peak load plants.

b. As base load plants.
c. As standby power plants.
d. In combination with the steam power plants.
ANSWER: As base load plants.
Q6. Combined cycle power plants are suitable for?
a. Base loads.
b. Peak loads.
c. Intermediate loads.
d. Both base and peak loads.
ANSWER: d. Both base and peak loads.
Q7. Name the turbine developed on the basis of aircraft engine technology.
a. Brayton
b. Aerodynamic
c. Aero derivative.
d. Rankine
ANSWER: c. Aero derivative.

Q1. Modern steam plants works on which of the following cycles?
a. Carnot cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle
d. Bell- Coleman cycle
ANSWER: b. Rankine cycle
Q2. What would be the most important factor under consideration for the site selection
of a thermal plant?
a. Availability of fuel.
b. Availability of water.
c. Distance from the populated area.
d. Cost and the type of land
ANSWER: b. Availability of water.
Q1. Pugga valley in Ladakh is suitable for which among the following power
generation
a. Solar
b. Geo thermal
c. Wind
d. None of these
ANSWER: b. Geo thermal
Q2. Presence of non – condensable gasses in a geo - pressured water causes
a. Pollution problem
b. Corrosion problem
c. Flow problem
Q3. Direct conversion of heat energy into electrical energy is possible through
a. MHD generators
b. Fuel or solar cells
c. Thermionic converters.
d. Both (a) and (c)
e. None of the above
ANSWER: d. Both (a) or (c)

Q4. In geo thermal power plants waste water is
a. Discharged back to earth.

b. Discharged into the sea.
c. Recirculated after cooling in cooling towers.
d. Evaporated in ponds.
ANSWER: a. Discharged back to earth.
Q1. The installed capacity of wind energy in India is about
a. 8000 MW
b. 1500 MW
c. 6000 MW
d. 4000 MW
ANSWER: a. 8000 MW
Q2. Tidal energy utilizes
a. Kinetic energy of water

b. Potential energy of water.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these.
ANWER: b. Potential energy of water.
Q3. In a fuel cell, electrical energy is produced by
a. Reaction of hydrogen with oxygen

b. Thermionic action
c. Combustion of fuel in the absence of oxygen.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: a. Reaction of hydrogen with oxygen

Q4. Thermal gradient in a geo thermal plant is given by
a. Heat flux * thermal conductivity

b. Heat flux / thermal conductivity
c. Thermal conductivity / heat flux
d. None of these
ANSWER: c. Thermal conductivity / heat flux
Q5. Tidal energy development needs
a. Huge capacity and long construction time.

b. Huge capacity and low construction time.
c. Low capacity and long construction time.
d. Low capacity and low construction time.
ANSWER: a. Huge capacity and long construction time.
Q6. The potential of developing tidal power in India is in
a. Kutch
b. Ran
c. San joe
d. Severn
ANSWER: a. Kutch
Q1. Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?
a. Condenser
b. Compressor.
c. Boiler
d. Both (b) & (c).
ANSWER: b. Compressor.
Q2. Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?
a. Reciprocating compressor.
b. Screw compressor.
c. Multistage axial flow compressor.
d. Either (a) & (b)
ANSWER: c. Multistage axial flow compressor.
Q3. What part or % of power developed is utilised for driving the compressor?
a. 65 %
b. 70 %
c. 55 %
d. 80 %
ANSWER: a. 65 %
Q4. The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following fuels?
a. Coal and Peat.

b. Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil.
c. Gas oil.
d. Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel.
ANSWER: d. Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel.
Q5. The heating value of gaseous fuels is about
a. 500 kJ/litre
b. 30 kJ/litre
c. 100 kJ/litre
d. 10 kJ/litre
ANSWER: b. 30 kJ/litre
Q6. The compressor has to be started
a. Before starting the gas turbine.

b. After starting the gas turbine.
c. Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine.
d. At any time during the operation.
ANSWER: a. Before starting the gas turbine.

Q1. What happens in a load shedding?
a. System voltage is reduced.

b. System frequency is reduced.
c. System loads are switched off.
d. System power factor is changed.
ANSWER: c. System loads are switched off.
Q2. Why is load shedding done?
a. Reducing peak demand on the system.

b. Repairing of machines.
c. Power factor improvement.
d. Efficient operation of equipment.
ANSWER: a. Reducing peak demand on the system.
Q3. Generators for the base loads plants are usually designed for maximum efficiency
around
a. 20% overload.
b. Full load
c. 75% full load.
d. None of these.
ANSWER: b. Full load

Q1. Interconnected systems have the advantage of
a. Reduced reserve plant capacity, capital cost per kW and economy in operation.
b. Improved load factor, diversity factor and operation efficiency and increased reliability of
supply.
c. All of the above.
ANSWER: c. All of the above.
Q2. Major share of power generated in India is through which means?
a. Hydroelectric power plants.

b. Nuclear power plants.
c. Thermal power plants.
d. Gas turbine power plants.
ANSWER: c. Thermal power plants.
Q3. What is the modern trend in electric power generation?
a. To have a large number of small size thermal plants located at different places.
b. To have large size thermal plants near load centre.
c. To have large size thermal plants located near coal fields.

ANSWER: c. To have large size thermal plants located near coal fields.
Q4. Which among the following plants have the least operating cost?
a. Steam plants
b. Hydro plants
c. Nuclear plants
d. Diesel plants.
ANSWER: b. Hydro plants
Q5. What are the essential requirements for power plants to be operated as peak load
plants?
a. Capability of quick start, synchronisation and taking up of system load.

b. Quick response to load variations.
c. Low capital cost.
d. All of these.
Q6. In a steam power station, electric power is generated at what power?
a. 440 V
b. 1.1 kV
c. 11 kV
d. 33 kV
ANSWER: c. 11 kV
Q7. Annual operating cost of a generating plant consists of
a. Fixed charges.
b. Semi fixed charges.
c. Operating or running charges.
d. All of these.
Q8. For a nuclear plant, what is its useful life?
a. 10 years.
b. 30 years
c. 100 years
d. 60 years
ANSWER: b. 30 years
Q1. What is the plant capacity factor?
a. A ratio of kWh generated to the product of plant capacity and the number of hours for
which the plant is in operation.
b. The ratio of sum of individual maximum demands to the maximum demand on power
stations.
c. The ratio of actual energy produced to the maximum possible energy.
d. The ratio of maximum demand on the power station to the connected load.
ANSWER: c. The ratio of actual energy produced to the maximum possible energy.
Q2. Capacity factor will be very low when the power plant
a. Is operated as base load plant.

b. Is operated for supplying base load as well as the peak loads.
c. Is operated in emergency only.
d. Is under maintainance.
ANSWER: c. Is operated in emergency only.
Q3. A thermal generating station has a installed capacity of 15 MW and supplies a

daily load of 10 Mw for 12 hours and 5 MW for remaining 12 hours. The plant capacity
factor for this station is
a. 1
b. 0.75
c. 0.67
d. 0.5
ANSWER: d. 0.5
Q4. In a power station, the cost of generation of power reduces most effectively when
a. Diversity factor alone increases.

b. Both diversity factor and load factor increases.
c. Only load factor increases.
d. Both diversity factor and load factor decreases.
ANSWER: b. Both diversity factor and load factor increases.
Q1. A pyrometer is used for the measurements of
a. Diffuse radiations only.

b. Direct radiations only.
c. Both direct and diffused radiations.
ANSWER: c. Both direct and diffused radiations.
Q2. Reflector mirrors used for exploiting the solar energy are called
a. Mantle.
b. Heliostats.
c. Diffusers.
d. Ponds.
ANSWER: b. Heliostats.
Q3. The function of a solar collector is of converting solar energy into
a. Radiations
b. Electrical energy directions.
c. Thermal energy.
d. All of these.
ANSWER: c. Thermal energy.
Q4. What are pyrheliometers?
a. Instruments measures beam radiations

b. Diffuse radiations.
c. Direct radiations only.
ANSWER: a. Instruments measures beam radiations
Q5. Temperature attained by cylindrical parabolic collector is of the order of
a. 50 – 100 °C
b. 100 – 150 °C
c. 150 – 200 °C
d. 200 – 300 °C
ANSWER: d. 200 – 300 °C
Q6. In a solar collector, why is the transparent cover provide for?
a. Protect the collector from dust.

b. Reduce the heat losses from collector beneath to atmosphere.
c. Transmit solar radiation only

Q1. A module in a solar panel refers to
a. Series arrangement of solar cells.

b. Parallel arrangement of solar cells.
c. Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.
ANSWER: c. Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells.

Q2. The efficiency of the solar cell is about
a. 25 %
b. 15 %
c. 40 %
d. 60 %
ANSWER: b. 15 %
Q3. For satellites the source of energy is
a. Solar cell
b. Fuel cells
c. Edison cells
d. Cryogenic storage
ANSWER: a. Solar cell
Q4. The output of the solar cell is of the order
a. 0.5 W
b. 1.0 W
c. 5.0 W
d. 10.25 W
ANSWER: b. 1.0 W
Q5. In a fuel cell cathode is of
a. Oxygen
b. Ammonia
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon monoxide
ANSWER: c. Hydrogen
Q6. What is the maximum possible output of a solar array?
a. 300 W/m2
b. 100 W/m2
c. 250 W/m2
d. 500 W/m2
ANSWER: c. 250 W/m2
Q7. The current density of a photo voltaic cell ranges from
a. 10 – 20 mA/cm2
b. 40 – 50 mA/cm2
c. 20 – 40 mA/cm2
d. 60 – 100 mA/cm2
ANSWER: b. 40 – 50 mA/cm2
Q1. In a 2 stroke engine, the operation cycle are completed in how many strokes and
revolution?
a. 4 strokes and 2 revolutions.

b. 2 stroke and 2 revolutions.
c. 2 strokes and 1 revolution.
d. 4 stroke and 4 revolutions.

ANSWER: c. 2 strokes and 1 revolution.
Q2. The speed of the diesel engine may vary from
a. 0 – 100 rpm.
b. 200 – 1000 rpm.
c. 500 -5000 rpm.
d. 1000 – 3000 rpm.
ANSWER: d. 1000 – 3000 rpm.
Q3. The diesel plants are mainly used ________
a. As peak load plants.

b. As base load plants.
c. As standby power plants.
d. Both peak and stand by plants.
ANSWER: d. Both peak and stand by plants.
Q4. What is the ranging capacity of the diesel plant?
a. 50 – 750 kW
b. 100 – 1175 kW
c. 75 – 3750 kW
d. 150 – 4575 kW
ANSWER: c. 75 – 3750 kW
Q5. It is very much necessary to treat the makeup water to remove the scale forming
the impurities. Which treatment is used?
a. Zeolite softener.
b. Lime or lime soda treatment
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. None of the following
ANSWER: c. Both (a) and (b).
Q6. Which among the following instruments are provided on the exhaust line to
reduce the pressure?
1. Ducts.
2. Muffler
3. Strainers.
4. Purifiers.
ANSWER: 2. Muffler
Q7. Which type of cylinder configuration is commonly used?
1. Vertical – in line.
2. V – type.
3. Horizontal type.
4. All of these.
ANSWER: 1. Vertical – in line.

Q1. What would be the temperature of the gas in the combustion chamber?
a. 500 °
b. 1600 °
c. 1200 °
d. 650 °
ANSWER: b. 1600 °
Q2. The efficiency of the open cycle gas plant is quite low. Why?
a. Gas gets cooled before reaching the turbine wheels.

b. A lot of mechanical energy is used up by the compressor.
c. Due to the presence of regenerator and absence of air pre heater.
d. Both (a) and (b).
ANSWER: d. Both (a) and (b).
Q3. To improve the efficiency of the gas turbines, which among these are used?
a. Regenerator.
b. Inter cooling.
c. Reheating.
d. All of these.
Q4. What is regeneration?
a. Removal of heat from compressed air between stages of compression.

b. Transfer of heat energy from exhaust gases to the compressed air flowing between
compressor and the combustion chamber.
c. To increase the temperature of partially expanded gases by burning more fuel.

d. Both (b) & (c).
ANSWER: b. Transfer of heat energy from exhaust gases to the compressed air
flowing between compressor and the combustion chamber.
Q5. What is meant by inter cooling?
a. Removal of heat from compressed air between stages of compression.
b. Transfer of heat energy from exhaust gases to the compressed air flowing between
compressor and the combustion chamber.
c. To increase the temperature of partially expanded gases by burning more fuel.
ANSWER: a. Removal of heat from compressed air between stages of

compression.
Q6. Which material is used for the manufacture of the turbine blades?
a. Stainless steel.
b. Carbon steel.
c. High nickel alloy.
d. High alloy steel.
ANSWER: c. High nickel alloy.
Q7. Which among these plants are most efficient?

a. Open cycle.
b. Combined cycle.
c. Closed cycle.
d. Either (a) or (c)
ANSWER: b. Combined cycle.

Q1. The thermal efficiency of a steam plant is defined as?
a. The ratio of heat equivalent of electrical output to the heat of combustion of coal.
b. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of electrical output.
c. The ratio of heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the turbine shaft to the
heat of combustion of coal.
d. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of mechanical energy
transmitted to the turbine shaft.
ANSWER: c. The ratio of heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the

turbine shaft to the heat of combustion of coal.
Q2. What is the overall efficiency of the thermal plant?
a. The ratio of heat equivalent of electrical output to the heat of combustion of coal.
b. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of electrical output.
c. The ratio of heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the turbine shaft to the
heat of combustion of coal.
d. The ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of mechanical energy
transmitted to the turbine shaft.

ANSWER: a. The ratio of heat equivalent of electrical output to the heat of
combustion of coal.
Q3. A 100 MW steam station uses coal of calorific value of 5780 kcal/kg. The thermal
efficiency is about 30% and the electrical efficiency is 93%. What would be the coal
consumption per hour, when the station is delivering its full rated output?
a. 48672 kg
b. 53330 kg
c. 71876 kg
d. 31826 kg
ANSWER: b. 53330 kg
Q1. A condenser condenses the steam coming out from___________.
a. Boiler
b. Turbine
c. Economiser
d. Super heater.
ANSWER: b. Turbine
Q2. Water used in the steam plant is used for cooling in_______________.
a. Condenser
b. Turbine only
c. Boiler tube
d. Boiler tubes and turbines
ANSWER: a. Condenser
Q3. What is use of the air pumps in the condenser?
a. Remove water
b. Air leaking in the condenser and to maintain the vacuum.
c. Maintain atmospheric pressure and the condenser.
d. Both (a) & (b).
ANSWER: b. Air leaking in the condenser and to maintain the vacuum.
Q4. Spray ponds are used to cool the warm water coming from the condenser in
________
a. Large power plants

b. Small power plants
c. Medium power plants
d. Both medium and large power plants.
ANSWER: b. Small power plants
Q5. Evaporative type of condenser has
a. Water in pipes surrounded by steam outside.

b. Steam and cooling water mixed to give the condensate.
c. Steam in pipes surrounded by water.
ANSWER: Steam in pipes surrounded by water.

Q1. The use of air preheater increase the temp of the air by about______________.
a. 50°
b. 20°
c. 5°
d. 30°
ANSWER: b. 20°
Q2. Air- preheater in a steam power plant_____________.
a. Recovers the heat from the flue gases leaving the economiser.
b. Improves combustion rate.
c. Raises the temperature of the furnace gases.
d. All of these.
Q3. The definition of the draught system is
a. A device used to pull in air.
b. The difference between absolute gas pressure at any point in a gas flow and the ambient
atmospheric pressure.
c. The sum of the absolute gas pressure at any point in a gas flow and the ambient
atmospheric pressure.
d. A device used to pull out air.
ANSWER: b. The difference between absolute gas pressure at any point in a gas
flow and the ambient atmospheric pressure.
Q4. The draught produced by the chimney is________________.
a. Forced draught
b. Natural draught
c. Induced draught
d. Balanced draught.
ANSWER: b. Natural draught

Q1. Turbo alternators run at speeds
a. Constant speed of 3000 rpm.

b. Constant speed of 1000 rpm.
c. A variable speed of above 1000 rpm.
d. None of the following.
ANSWER: c. A variable speed of above 1000 rpm.
Q2. A steam turbine with no nozzle is ________________.
a. Reaction turbine
b. Impulse turbine
c. Both of these
d. None of these
ANSWER: a. Reaction turbine
Q3. The pipes carrying the steam are made of__________________.
a. Steel
b. Cast iron.
c. Aluminium
d. Cobalt.

ANSWER: a. Steel
Q4. The governing principle of steam turbines are________________.
a. Nozzle control governing

b. Throttle governing
c. Bypass governing
d. All of these
ANSWER: d. All of these
Q5. The reheat factor in a steam turbine depends on
a. Stage efficiency.
b. Initial pressure and temperature.
c. Exit pressure.

Q1. The major use of the Economiser is ___________.
a. Heat up the incoming water with exhaust steam.

b. Heat up the pulverised fuel by exhaust.
c. Heat up the incoming air by exhaust gases.
d. Heat up the incoming water by exhaust gases.
ANSWER: d. Heat up the incoming water by exhaust gases.
Q2. The feed water entering into a Economiser in a thermal plant gets heated up
by____________.
a. H.P cycle
b. Flue gases
c. L.P cycle
d. Direct heat from the furnace
ANSWER: b. Flue gases

Q1. The location of surge tank is close to ____________.
a. Tailrace
b. Dam
c. Turbine gate
d. Spillway
ANSWER: c. Turbine gate
Explanation: The load on the generator keeps on fluctuating, when the governor
opens the turbine gates suddenly to intake more water there is a tendency to
create a vacuum in penstock. Its main function is to absorb these sudden changes
in water requirements so as to prevent water hammer and vacuum. So it is desired
to be placed near the power house i.e. turbine gates.
Q2. The limit of water head for the Francis turbines is_____________.
a. 200 m – 500 m
b. 30 m – 200 m
c. Less than 30 m
d. More than 500 m
ANSWER: b. 30 m – 200 m
Q3. The specific speed of a water turbine is_________.

a. Maximum speed i.e ((120*f) / P)
b. Minimum metric H.P
c. Unit H.P at all heads
d. Unit H.P under a unit head
ANSWER: d. Unit H.P under a unit head
Explanation: specific speed of a turbine is the speed of a scale model of turbine

which develops a metric H.P under a head of one metre. The specific speed is
given by, Ns = (N √Pt ) / H1.25 , where N is the speed of turbine in rpm, Pt is the
power output in metric H.P, and H is the effective head in m.
Q4. The maximum limited head for a Kaplan turbine is___________.
a. 30 m
b. 50 m
c. 100 m
d. 75 m
ANSWER: a. 30 m
Explanation: Propeller turbines are reaction turbine which is suitable for low head
and large quantity of water. It is mainly suitable for heads below 30m.
Q5. The bulb turbines are mainly_________.
a. High speed turbines

b. High head and axial flow turbines
c. Low head and axial flow turbines
d. High pressure turbine

ANSWER: c. Low head and axial flow turbines
Explanation: The bulb turbine is an axial flow turbine; it is so called because water
flows through the machine coaxial with the turbine shaft. It is specially designed
for the low heads. These turbines are mainly suitable for the tidal plants. These
turbines also have many advantages like it can be used for both very low and
widely varying heads with a high efficiency due to the axial flow. They are easy
and cheaper in construction.
Q6. Water hammer occurs in ______________.
a. Spillway
b. Penstock
c. Turbine casing
d. Surge tank
ANSWER: b. Penstock
Explanation: sudden closure of turbine gates creates an increased pressure,

which is called the water hammer occurring in the penstock. The water intake is
limited with the help of water governor, which closes the turbine gate when the
load is reduced. The surge tank helps in stabilising the velocity and the pressure
in the penstock and reduces the water hammer and vacuum. The high pressure
turbines are made from thick steel pipes.
Q7. The pumped storage power plant in India _________.
a. Does not exist

b. Bhakra Nangal (Punjab, Himachal Pradesh)
c. Kadamparai (Tamilnadu)
d. Koyna (Maharashtra)

ANSWER: c. Kadamparai (Tamilnadu)
Explanation: This type of plants have been introduced recently. There are only five
plants with this scheme. The dams with this facility are :
1. Nagarjunasagar (AP) on Krishna river

2. Paithon (Maharashtra) on Godavari river
3. Kadamparai (Tamilnadu) on kadamparai river
4. Panchet hill on Damodar river
5. Kadana (Gujarat) on mahi river
Q8. The hydroelectric power plants are__________.
a. Operating cost is high and initial cost is high

b. Operating cost is low and initial cost is high
c. Operating cost is low and initial cost is low
d. Operating cost is high and initial cost is low
ANSWER: b. Operating cost is low and initial cost is high
Explanation: The fuel cost involved in the hydro plants is zero as water is free of
cost. The cost involved in the construction and the setup is high, which is only
one time investment. A large amount of forest land and villages are submerged in
the catchment area. The cost involved in the production of electricity is very low
as there are no fuel charges.
Q1. The electrical power developed by a hydroelectric plant is given by
______________.
a. P = (735.5 / 75) Q H η kW
b. P = (75/735.5) Q H η kW
c. P = (75 * 735.5) Q H η kW
d. P = 7 / (75 * 735.5) Q H η kW

ANSWER: a. P = (735.5 / 75) Q H η kW
Explanation: When water drops through a height, its energy is able to rotate the
turbine wheels which are coupled to the alternators. The power developed is P =
(735.5 / 75) Q H η kW.
Where, Q = water discharge m3/sec, H = water head in Metres η = overall efficiency

of the turbine alternator
Q2. In a hydro plant, if the discharge is 200 m3/s and the head of the water is 100 m. If
the efficiency of the turbine alternator is set to 0.85, find the power developed
a. 66.67 MW
b. 166.7 MW
c. 667.8 MW
d. 176.52 MW
ANSWER: b. 166.7 MW
Explanation: P = (735.5 / 75) Q H η kW
Q = 200 m3/s,
H = 100 m, and η = 0.85
P = (735.5/75) * 200 *100 *0.85
= 166.713 *103 kW
= 166.713 MW

QCM Energy Exams

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

QCM Energy Exams

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

QCM Energy Exams

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Q1. What are the values of A, B, C, D parameters of a short transmission line?

View Answer / Hide Answer

a. Are always equal.

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: c. Only A and D are equal.

View Answer / Hide Answer

Q1. Which type of insulator is used on 132 kV transmission lines?

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: b. Disc type.

Q2. Where is the strain type insulators used?

View Aswer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: d. Either (a) or (b).

Q3. Porcelain is produced by firing at high temperature of which all mixtures?

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: d. All of these.

Q4. What is the dielectric strength of porcelain?

View Answer / Hide Answer

Q5. Why is the wavy structure of pin insulators used?

a. Increases mechanical strength.

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: c. Increases flash over voltage.

View Answer / Hide Answer

Q1. Where the radial systems are generally employed?

a. Where power is generated at low voltage.

View Answer / Hide Answer

i. Voltage drop in the feeder is less.

Which among the above statements are correct?

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: c. i and iii only.

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: a. Mid point

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: c. Distribution transformer

Q5. Which type of distribution is preferred in residential areas?

a. Single phase, two wire.

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: c. Three phase, four wire

a. Both balancers operate as generators.

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: d. Balancers connected to the heavily loaded sides operate as a generator.

a. Equalise voltage on positive and negative outer

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: a. Equalise voltage on positive and negative outer

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: b. Interconnected systems.

Q9. A three wire dc distribution makes available how many voltages?

View Answer / Hide Answer

a. 242 and 214 V

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: c. 244 and 216 V

Q1. For purely domestic loads which type of distribution is employed?

a. Single phase two wire.

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: a. Single phase two wire.

View Answer / Hide Answer

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: d. 230∠ - 120°

Q4. What are ground detectors?

a. Used for detecting earth faults for all cables.