Micropara Finals Reviewer

Araullo University - PHINMA
College of Allied Health Sciences

Microbiology AND Parasitology (HES007)
FINAL EXAM
NAME: __________________________________SECTION: ________________________

DATE AND TIME OF EXAMINATION: __________________________________________
DIRECTIONS: Choose the best answer for each question.

MODULE 15: DIAGNOSING INFECTIOUS DISEASES
1. Assuming that a clean-catch, midstream urine was processed in the CML, which of the
following colony counts is (are) indicative of a urinary tract infection?
a. 10,000 CFU/mL
b. 100,000 CFU/mL
c. 150,000 CFU/mL
d. both b and c
2. Which of the following statements about blood is false?
a. As it circulates throughout the human body, blood is usually sterile.
b. Following centrifugation, the layer of leukocytes and platelets is referred to as
the buffy coat.
c. Bacteremia and septicemia are synonyms.
d. Plasma constitutes about 55% of whole blood
3. Which of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimens is false?
a. They are collected only by clinicians.
b. They are treated as STAT (emergency) specimens in the laboratory.
c. They should always be refrigerated.
d. They should be rushed to the laboratory after collection.
4. All clinical specimens submitted to the CML must be:
a. properly and carefully collected.
b. properly labeled.
c. properly transported to the laboratory.
d. all of the above
5. Which of the following is not one of the three parts of a urine culture?
a. isolation and identification of the pathogen
b. performing a colony count
c. performing a microscopic observation of the urine specimen
d. performing antimicrobial susceptibility testing
6. The primary responsibility of this section of the CML is to assist clinicians in the
diagnosis of tuberculosis:
a. Virology Section
FINAL EXAM
b. Mycology Section
c. Mycobacteriology Section
d. Bacteriology Section
7. Who is primarily responsible for the quality of specimens submitted to the CML?
a. microbiologist who is in charge of the CML
b. pathologist who is in charge of “the lab”
c. person who collects the specimen
d. person who transports the specimen to the CML
8. Which of the following is not one of the four major day-to-day responsibilities of the
CML?
a. identify (speciate) pathogens
b. isolate pathogens from clinical specimens
c. perform antimicrobial susceptibility testing when appropriate
d. process environmental samples
9. Which of the following sections is the overall responsible in assisting the clinicians in the
diagnosis of viral diseases.
a. Bacteriology Section
b. Mycology Section
c. Parasitology Section
d. Virology Section
10. The overall responsibility of this section of the CML is to assist clinicians in the diagnosis
of fungal infections.
b. Mycology Section
c. Parasitology Section
d. Virology Section
11. Which of the following pathology department perform autopsies in the morgue and
examine diseased organs, stained tissue sections, and cytology specimens?
a. Anatomical Pathology
b. Clinical Pathology
c. Immunology Laboratory
d. Pathology Laboratory
12. Which of the following sections assist clinicians in the diagnosis of parasitic diseases?
a. Parasitology Section
b. Bacteriology Section
c. Virology Section
d. Mycology Section
13. _______________ of the CML is to assist clinicians in the diagnosis of tuberculosis.
FINAL EXAM
b. Virology Section
c. Mycology Section
d. Mycobacteriology Section
MODULE 16: PATHOGENESIS INFECTIOUS DISEASES
14. Which of the following virulence factors enable(s) bacteria to attach to tissues?
a. capsules
b. endotoxin
c. flagella
d. pili
15. Neurotoxins are produced by:
a. Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani.
b. Clostridium difficile and Clostridium perfringens.
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
d. Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
16. Which of the following pathogens produce enterotoxins?
a. Bacillus cereus and certain serotypes of Escherichia coli
b. C. difficile and C. perfringens
c. Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.
d. all of the above
17. A bloodstream infection with __________ could result in the release of endotoxin into
the bloodstream.
a. C. difficile or C. perfringens
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae or E. coli
c. S. aureus or M. tuberculosis
d. S. aureus or S. pyogenes
18. Communicable diseases are most easily transmitted during the:
a. incubation period.
b. period of convalescence.
c. period of illness.
d. prodromal period.
19. Enterotoxins affect cells in the:
a. central nervous system.
b. gastrointestinal tract.
c. genitourinary tract.
d. respiratory tract.
20. Which of the following bacteria is least likely to be the cause of septic shock?
a. E. coli
b. Haemophilus influenzae
FINAL EXAM
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Neisseria meningitidis
21. Which of the following produces both a cytotoxin and an enterotoxin?
a. C. botulinum
b. C. difficile
c. C. tetani
d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
22. Which of the following virulence factors enable(s) bacteria to avoid phagocytosis by
white blood cells?
a. capsule
b. cell membrane
c. cell wall
d. pili
23. An exoenzyme that causes destruction of host cell membranes.
a. coagulase
b. kinase
c. hemolysins
d. lecithinase
24. Some pathogens periodically change their surface antigens, a phenomenon known as
_______________.
a. Camouflage and Molecular Mimicry
b. Antigenic Variation
c. Destruction of Antibodies
d. Diphtheria toxin
25. __________________ is a pathogen that cover their surface antigens with host proteins,
so the pathogens will not be recognized as being foreign.
a. Antigenic Variation
b. Mycoplasma pneumonia
c. Diphtheria toxin
d. Erythrogenic toxin
26. This is a mechanism in which pathogens are capable of destroying some of the
antibodies that the host’s immune system has produced in an attempt to destroy them.
a. Camouflage and Molecular Mimicry
b. Destruction of Antibodies
c. Antigenic Variation
d. Diphtheria toxin
MODULE 17: NON – SPECIFIC HOST DEFENSE MECHANISMS
FINAL EXAM
27. Host defense mechanisms—ways in which the body protects itself from pathogens—can
be thought of as an army consisting of how many lines of defense?
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
28. Which of the following is not part of the body’s first line of defense?
a. Fever
b. intact skin
c. mucus
d. pH of the stomach contents
29. Each of the following is considered a part of the body’s second line of defense except:
a. fever.
b. inflammation.
c. interferons.
d. lysozyme.
30. Which of the following is not a consequence of activation of the complement system?
a. attraction and activation of leukocytes
b. increased phagocytosis by phagocytic cells (opsonization)
c. lysis of bacteria and other foreign cells
d. repair of damaged tissue
31. Each of the following is a primary purpose of the inflammatory response except:
a. to localize the infection.
b. to neutralize any toxins being produced at the site.
c. to prevent the spread of microbial invaders.
d. to stimulate the production of opsonins.
32. Which of the following cells is a granulocyte?
a. eosinophil
b. lymphocyte
c. macrophage
d. monocyte
33. All the following would be considered an aspect of microbial antagonism except:
a. competition for nutrients.
b. competition for space.
c. production of bacteriocins.
d. production of lysozyme.
34. Steps in phagocytosis in which the object is broken down and dissolved by digestive
enzymes and other mechanisms?
a. Chemotaxis
FINAL EXAM
b. Attachment
c. Ingestion
d. Digestion
35. Which of the following statements about interferons is false?
a. Interferons are virus-specific.
b. Interferons have been used to treat hepatitis C and certain types of cancer.
c. Interferons produced by a virus-infected cell will not save that cell from
destruction.
d. Interferons produced by virus-infected rabbit cells cannot be used to treat viral
diseases in humans.
36. Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal signs or symptoms of
inflammation?
a. edema
b. heat
c. loss of function
d. redness
37. The four steps in phagocytosis are:
a. Chemotaxis, Attachment, Ingestion, and Digestion
b. Phagocytosis, Cytosis, Mycosis, and Neutrophils
c. redness, heat, swelling (edema), and pain
d. Opsonization, Inflammation, Cytokines, and eosinophilia
38. _________ is a process by which phagocytosis is facilitated by the deposition of
opsonins onto the surface of particles or cells.
a. Cytokines
b. Inflammation
c. Opsonization
d. Eosinophilia
39. ______________ remain within tissues and organs.
a. Wandering macrophages
b. Neutrophils
c. Phagocytosis
d. Fixed macrophages
MODULE 18: SPECIFIC HOST DEFENSE MECHANISMS: AN INTRODUCTION TO IMMUNOLOGY
40. These are molecules that stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies
a. antigen
b. antibodies
c. vaccines
d. immunoglobulin
FINAL EXAM
41. These are proteins produced by the immune system in response to antigens.
a. antigen
b. antibodies
c. vaccines
d. immunoglobulin
42. The primary function of these cells are to secrete of cytokines.
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. helper T cells
d. cytotoxic T cells
43. The primary function of these cells is to destroy virally infected host cells, foreign cells,
and tumor cells.
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. helper T cells
d. cytotoxic T cells
44. These vaccines can be injected safely to stimulate the production of antibodies that are
capable of neutralizing the exotoxins of pathogens
a. conjugate vaccine
b. Inactivated vaccine
c. attenuated vaccine
d. toxoid vaccine
45. A 15-year-old healthy girl with no major medical problems notes blotchy areas of
erythema that are pruritic over the skin of her arms, legs, and trunk within an hour
every time she eats seafood, followed by diarrhea. These problems abate within 3
hours, and then physical examination reveals no abnormal findings. Which of the
following immunologic abnormalities is she most likely to have?
a. Localized anaphylaxis
b. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
c. Complement activation
d. Immune complex deposition
46. Twelve hours after going on a hike through dense foliage, a 40-year-old man notices a
slightly raised and tender irregular reddish rash on one forearm that was not covered by
clothing. This rash gradually increases in intensity for 2 days and then fades away after
two weeks. Which of the following forms of immunologic hypersensitivity is most likely
demonstrated in this patient?
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
FINAL EXAM
d. Type IV hypersensitivity
47. Which of the following could be an effect of type III hypersensitivity?
a. glomerulonephritis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. SLE
d. all of the above
48. A 9-year-old boy has a sore throat. A throat culture grows group A hemolytic
Streptococcus. He receives antibiotic therapy. However, 17 days later he develops dark-
colored urine. Laboratory studies show 3+ blood on urinalysis. A renal biopsy is
performed. On immunofluorescence staining the biopsy shows granular deposition of
IgG and complement around glomerular capillary loops. Which of the following immune
hypersensitivity mechanisms is most likely responsible for this pattern of findings?
49. A positive tuberculin skin test, with a firm 15 mm diameter dark red firm area of
induration on the forearm, appears 60 hours following injection of the purified protein
derivative (PPD). This finding is most likely to be a consequence of which of the
following types of hypersensitivity reaction?
50. These chemicals can cause skin reactions similar to those caused by poison ivy.
a. Irritant contact dermatitis
b. Latex allergy
c. Allergic contact dermatitis
d. Systemic anaphylaxis
51. ___________________ occur from within a few minutes to 24 hours after contact with a
particular antigen.
a. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
b. Immediate-type hypersensitivity reactions
c. Localized reactions
d. Systemic anaphylaxis
52. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a. The person has active tuberculosis (in which case, a chest radiograph will show
the disease, the person will probably be coughing, and the person’s sputum will
contain acid-fast bacilli).
FINAL EXAM
b. The person had tuberculosis at some time in the past and recovered (in this case,
the person should remember having had tuberculosis or the person’s medical
records will contain this information).
c. The person was infected with M. tuberculosis at some time in the past, but the
organisms were killed by that person’s host defense mechanisms (even though
this person currently harbors no live M. tuberculosis cells, he or she will receive a
6-month course of isoniazid, because there is no way to differentiate possibility 3
from possibility 4).
d. All choices are correct.
MODULE 19: OVERVIEW OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES PART 1
53. Otitis media is an inflammation or infection of the:
a. ear.
b. eye.
c. brain.
d. urinary bladder.
54. Keratitis is an inflammation or infection of the:
a. conjunctiva.
b. cornea.
c. kidney.
d. skin.
55. Which of the following is/are the most common cause of pharyngitis?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Viruses
56. Which of the following is the most common cause of tooth decay?
a. S. aureus
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus mutans
d. S.pyogenes
57. An abnormally frequent discharge of semisolid or fluid fecal matter.
a. diarrhea
b. dysentery
c. colitis
d. gastritis
58. Which of the following is not one of the three most common causes of bacterial
meningitis?
a. E. coli
FINAL EXAM
c. Neisseria meningitidis
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
59. Which of the following is not one of the three most common causes of bacterial
meningitis?
a. E. coli
c. Neisseria meningitidis
60. A bacterial lower respiratory infection that can cause meningitis and occurs in
immunocompetent individuals but is more common and more severe in
immunosuppressed individuals.
a. Mycobacterium avium complex
b. Pneumocystis pneumonia
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Tuberculosis
61. What are the major causes of bacterial meningitis in neonates?
a. Streptococcus agalactiae
b. E. coli
c. Listeria monocytogenes.
d. both A and C
e. All of the above
62. 10. What is the most common cause of nephritis and pyelonephritis?
a. H. pylori
b. E. coli
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Staphylococcus aureus
63. ________ is a parasitic infection that occurs in immunocompetent individuals but _is
more common and more severe in immunosuppressed individuals.
a. Aspergillosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Malaria
d. Toxoplasmosis
64. _________ is the protozoal infection of the eyes and brain.
a. Aspergillosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Malaria
d. Toxoplasmosis
FINAL EXAM
65. __________________ is a yeast infection of the mouth (thrush), throat, or vagina; can
become a systemic infection in immunosuppressed individuals.
a. Aspergillosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Malaria
d. Toxoplasmosis
MODULE 20: VIRAL INFECTIONS
66. What is the most virulent strain of avian influenza? A
a. H1N1
b. H3N1
c. H5N1
d. H7
67. Which of the following are considered to be oncogenic?
a. Epstein-Barr virus and HPVs
b. HIV and Ebola virus
c. rubella and rubeola viruses
d. variola and varicella viruses
68. Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection is usually made by which of the following?
a. electron microscopy
b. Growth of HIV in cell culture
c. growth of HIV in embryonated chicken eggs
d. immunodiagnostic procedures for the detection of antigen and antibodies
69. Which of the following is also known as infectious hepatitis?
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HDV
70. Mosquitoes serve as vectors in all of the following viral diseases, except:
a. dengue fever.
b. hepatitis.
c. West Nile virus disease.
d. yellow fever.
71. Which of the following viruses is/are not transmitted sexually?
a. hantavirus
b. HSVs
c. HIV
d. Papillomaviruses
72. Which of the following is a DNA virus? A
FINAL EXAM
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HDV
73. Which of the following is a type of herpes virus?
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. measles virus
c. mumps virus
d. rabies virus
74. Measles is caused by what type of virus?
a. rubeola
b. rubella
c. varicella
d. varicella-zoster
75. The disease known as severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a type of:
a. coronavirus.
b. herpes virus.
c. papillomavirus.
d. picornavirus.
76. EEE virus is an RNA virus in the family of ______________.
a. Togaviridae
b. Bunyaviridae
c. Flaviviridae
d. Coquilletidia mosquitoes
77. St. Louis virus encephalitis virus is an RNA virus in the family of ________________.
a. Togaviridae
b. Bunyaviridae
c. Flaviviridae
d. Aedes mosquito
78. Which of the following are reservoirs of California encephalitis virus?
a. Bats, birds
b. Rodents, rabbits
c. Horses
d. Chipmunks
MODULE 21: BACTERIAL INFECTIONS PART 1
79. Nurse Sandra is handling a child with pertussis. During the assessment, the nurse will
observe on which of the following characteristic of the child’s cough?
a. A sour cough
FINAL EXAM
b. A chesty cough
c. A hacking cough that ends with a whooping sound
d. A barking, painful cough
80. A clinical instructor is providing teachings among nursing students about the stages of
pertussis. Which of the following is the final phase of a pertussis infection?
a. Paroxysmal phase
b. Recovery phase
c. Catarrhal phase
d. Convalescent phase
81. Leprosy is also called:
a. Hartmann's disease
b. Hansen's disease
c. Humprey's disease
d. Harry's disease
82. 4. _______________ is the most common cause of pneumonia in the world.
a. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
b. Legionella pneumophila
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
83. Gas gangrene is always caused by:
a. Bacillus anthracis.
b. Clostridium spp.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Streptococcus pyogenes.
84. Untreated strep throat can lead to the following complications. EXCEPT?
a. Scarlet fever
b. infective endocarditis
c. acute glomerulonephritis
d. rheumatic fever
85. What do you call an influenza-like, less severe form of legionellosis, is not associated
with pneumonia or death?
a. Scarlet fever
b. Parrot fever
c. Rheumatic fever
d. Pontiac fever
86. It is a highly contagious, acute, or chronic conjunctival inflammation, resulting in
scarring of cornea and conjunctiva
a. Gonococcal Conjunctivitis
b. Chlamydia Keratoconjunctivitis
FINAL EXAM
c. Inclusion Conjunctivitis
d. Paratrachoma
87. This is characterized by numerous nodules in skin and possible involvement of the nasal
mucosa and eyes.
a. lepromatous leprosy
b. tuberculoid leprosy
c. leprosy
d. Hansen’s disease
88. This is referred to as “swimmer’s ear” because it often results from swimming in water
contaminated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
a. tinnitus
b. otitis externa
c. otitis media
d. otitis interna
89. ____________________ is also called Vincent’s angina and trench mouth.
a. Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis
b. Tonsilitis
c. Periodontal disease
d. Thrush
90. The coughing fits produce a clear, tenacious mucus and vomiting. They may be so severe
as to cause lung rupture, bleeding in the eyes and brain, broken ribs, rectal prolapse, or
hernia. These are symptoms of _________________.
a. Tuberculosis
b. Whooping Cough
c. Mycoplasmal Pneumonia
d. Legionellosis
91. ___________________ is an acute bacterial infection of the throat with soreness, chills,
fever, headache, a beefy red throat, white patches of pus on pharyngeal epithelium,
enlarged tonsils, and enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes.
a. Diphtheria
b. Pneumonia
c. Streptococcal Pharyngitis
d. Whooping cough
MODULE 22: BACTERIAL INFECTIONS PART 2
92. What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

a. Rickettsia helvetica
b. Borrelia burgdorferi
FINAL EXAM
c. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
d. Rickettsia rickettsia
93. Which of the following organisms causes fever, headache, fatigue, myalgia, and buboes?
a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Bacillus anthracis
94. Which of the following describes the classification of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
a. Gram negative diplococcus
b. Gram positive diplococcus
c. Gram positive rod
d. Gram negative rod
95. Which of the following is the most common arthropod-borne disease?
a. Lyme disease
b. plague
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Tularemia
96. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a spirochete?
a. Lyme disease
b. Plague
c. relapsing fever
d. syphilis
97. Which of the following associations is incorrect?
a. Lyme disease . . . tick
b. plague . . . rat flea
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever . . . tick
d. typhoid fever . . . mosquito
98. Tetanus is an acute neuromuscular disease induced by a bacterial exotoxin called?
a. tetanospasmin
b. neurotoxin
c. cytotoxin
d. endotoxin
99. What is the etiologic agent of typhoid fever?
a. typhoid bacillus
b. Rickettsia prowazekii
c. Rickettsia typhi
d. salmonella typhi
100. What is the etiologic agent of endemic typhus?
a. typhoid bacillus
FINAL EXAM
c. Rickettsia typhi
d. Vibrio typhi
101. What is the etiologic agent of epidemic typhus?
a. typhoid bacillus
c. Rickettsia typhi
d. Vibrio typhi
102. Which of the following statement is TRUE about syphilis?
a. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that occurs in four stages.
b. Syphilis transmission occurs via direct mucous membrane-to-mucous membrane
contact, usually sexual contact; adult-to-child (may indicate sexual abuse); and
motherto-neonate during birth.
c. Syphilis is an acute, often severe zoonosis.
d. The etiologic agent of syphilis is Yersinia pestis, a nonmotile, bipolar-staining,
Gram-negative coccobacillus, sometimes referred to as the plague bacillus.
103. __________________ is a disease consist of a hemorrhagic, watery diarrhea with
abdominal cramping.
a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
b. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
c. Shigellosis
d. Cholera
104. __________________ is an acute bacterial infection of the lining of the small and
large intestine, producing diarrhea (as many as 20 bowel movements a day) with blood,
mucus, and pus.
a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
b. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
c. Cholera
d. Shigellosis
MODULE 23: FUNGAL AND PARASITIC INFECTIONS
105. Which of the following diseases is caused by an encapsulated yeast?
a. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Cryptococcosis
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Pneumocystis pneumonia
106. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a dimorphic fungus?
a. Coccidioidomycosis
b. Cryptococcosis
FINAL EXAM
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Sporotrichosis
107. Which of the following diseases is a synonym for ringworm infection of the nails?
a. tinea barbae
b. tinea cruris
c. tinea nigra
d. tinea unguium
108. What do you call an acute-to-subacute pulmonary disease found in
malnourished, chronically ill children; premature infants; and immunosuppressed
patients, such as those with AIDS?
a. Cryptococcosis
b. Coccidioidomycosis
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Pneumocystis pneumonia
109. A fungal infection characterized with white, creamy patches occur on the
tongue, mucous membranes, and the corners of the mouth?
a. Cryptococcal meningitis
b. thrush
c. tinea pedis
d. yeast vaginitis
110. You are visiting a friend whose parents raise pigs. Which of the following
diseases are you most likely to acquire by drinking well water at their farm?
a. amebiasis
b. balantidiasis
c. cryptosporidiosis
d. giardiasis
111. You are working on a cattle ranch. Which of the following diseases are you most
apt to acquire as you perform your duties at the ranch?
a. amebiasis
b. balantidiasis
c. cryptosporidiosis
d. giardiasis
112. Which of the following protozoal diseases are you most likely to acquire by
eating a rare hamburger?
a. amebiasis
b. balantidiasis
c. giardiasis
d. toxoplasmosis
113. Which of the following associations is incorrect?
FINAL EXAM
a. African trypanosomiasis . . . tsetse fly
b. amebiasis . . . fecally contaminated water
c. Chagas’ disease . . . mosquito
d. toxoplasmosis . . . cats
114. Which of the following is caused by an ameboflagellate named N. fowleri?
a. African trypanosomiasis
b. giardiasis
c. malaria
d. PAM
115. ____________________ are fungal infections of the outermost areas of the
human body, including the outer surfaces of hair shafts and the outermost, nonliving
layer of the skin (the epidermis).
a. Superficial mycoses
b. Black Piedra
c. Subcutaneous mycoses
d. Systemic mycoses
116. ____________________ is a systemic mycosis of varying severity, ranging from
asymptomatic to acute to chronic. The primary lesion is usually in the lungs.
a. Dermatophytoses
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia
d. Pneumonia
117. ____________________ starts as a lung infection, but spreads via the
bloodstream to the brain.
a. Yeast Vaginitis
b. Thrush
c. Cryptococcosis
d. Leishmaniasis
118. ____________________ conjunctivitis and keratoconjunctivitis are amebic
infections causing inflammation of the conjunctiva, corneal ulcers, pus formation, and
severe pain.
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Amebic Eye Infections
c. Amebiasis
d. Cyclosporiasis
119. ____________________ is a coccidial gastrointestinal infection, causing watery
diarrhea (6 or more stools per day), nausea, anorexia, abdominal cramping, fatigue, and
weight loss.
a. Cyclosporiasis
FINAL EXAM
b. Amebiasis
c. Giardiasis
d. Trichomoniasis
120. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE.
a. Malaria is a systemic disease caused by flagellated protozoa in the
bloodstream, known as hemoflagellates.
b. Human malaria is caused by four species in the genus Plasmodium: Plasmodium
vivax (the most common species), P. falciparum (the deadliest), Plasmodium
malariae, and Plasmodium ovale.
c. Falciparum malaria may be accompanied by cough, diarrhea, respiratory distress,
shock, renal and liver failure, pulmonary and cerebral edema, coma, and death.
d. Infection with P. vivax and P. ovale results in chills and fever every 48 hours and
is referred to as tertian malaria. P. malariae infection causes chills and fever
every 72 hours and is referred to as quartan malaria. P. falciparum periodicity
varies from 36–48 hours.

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Araullo University - PHINMA

College of Allied Health Sciences

NAME: __________SECTION:

DIRECTIONS: Choose the best answer for each question.

92. What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

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