Select only one answer for each MCQ (1 degree for each question):

1- Estimated blood volume for an adult male weighing 100 kg is:

a- 10000 ml
b- 7000 ml
c- 5000 ml
d- 4000ml

2- All the following are indications for blood transfusion except:

a- To increase the oxygen capacity of blood
b- To restore the blood volume
c- To decrease urine output
d- To replace platelets, coagulation factors

3- The following precautions for blood transfusion are recommended except:

a- Proper monitoring of the blood loss.
b- Thoroughly check name and blood group with that of the patient.
c- Warm blood to room temperature.
d- Narrow bore venous cannula

4- To replace moderate blood loss by crystalloid, we give:

a- Crystalloids 3:1 ratio of blood loss.
b- Crystalloids 3:3 ratio of blood loss.
c- Crystalloids 1:1 ratio of blood loss.
d- Crystalloids 1:3 ratio of blood loss.

5- We get cryoprecipitate from:

a- Packed RBCs
b- Fresh frozen plasma
c- Platelets
d- Crystalloids.

6- The followings are drugs given through trachea except:

a- Adrenaline.
b- Atropine.
c- Lidocaine.
d- Atracurium.
7- Regarding levels of sedation, cardiovascular function may be impaired
during
a- Minimal sedation
b- Moderate sedation
c- Deep sedation
d- General anesthesia

8- Intravenous anesthetics include the following except:

a- Thiopental
b- Ketamine
c- Propofol
d- Halothane

9- The following is used as inhalational induction agent in pediatric patient:

a- Sevoflurane
b- Isoflurane
c- Ketamine
d- Air

10-The following intravenous anesthetic is used for maintenance of anesthesia:

a- Propofol
b- Atracurium
c- Morphine
d- Halothane

11- Standard monitoring include the following except:

a- ECG
b- Blood pressure measurement
c- Pulse oximeter
d- Arterial blood gases

12- Capnography is important to detect:

a- Muscle tone
b- Proper endotracheal intubation.
c- Conscious level
d- Pain level
13- The narcotic analgesics include:
a- Paracetamol
b- Aspirin
c- Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
d- Fentanyl

14- The following are the uses of narcotic analgesics except:

a- Premedication.
b- Intraoperative adjuvant for general anesthesia.
c- Postoperative pain relief.
d- Muscle relaxation.

15- The following muscle relaxant has the fastest onset of action:
a- Atracurium
b- Succinylcholine
c- Vecuronium
d- Pancuronium

16- The reverse of action of non-depolarizing muscle relaxant is:

a- Neostigmine + atropine
b- Morphine + atropine
c- Adrenaline
d- Fentanyl + atropine.

17- The anaesthetized supine patient is liable to aspirate secretion or

vomitus because:
a- Anesthesia stimulate the protective airway reflexes.
b- Anesthesia inhibits the protective airway reflexes
c- The patient is fasting for 8 hours before anesthesia
d- Empty stomach.

18- To open the airway, we do:

a- Head tilt, chin reduction and /or jaw thrust maneuvers.
b- Head flexion ,chin reduction and /or jaw thrust maneuvers
c- Head tilt, chin lift and /or jaw thrust maneuvers
d- None of the above.
19- To provide oxygen for anesthetized unconscious patient with oral mass,
we insert:
a- Oral endotracheal tube.
b- Laryngeal mask
c- Nasal airway
d- Oral airway

20- To assess pain, the following scales are used except:

a- Numerical scale
b- Visual scale
c- Verbal scale
d- Glasgow coma scale

21- Complications of general anesthesia vary according to:

a- The patient medical conditions.
b- The surgical procedure, anesthetist and surgeon skills.
c- The available facilities
d- All of the above.

22- Complications during maintenance of general anesthesia include the

following except:
a- Hypoxia.
b- Nerve injury.
c- Corneal ulcers due to exposure.
d- Complete loss of consciousness.

23- To diagnose cardiac arrest, check breathing by:

a- Look for chest motions.
b- Listen to breath sounds.
c- Feel expired air on your cheek.
d- All of the above.

24- When you are doing 30 chest compressions, you must do the following
except:
a- Turn the patient on his back on a firm flat surface.
b- Put the heel of one hand in the center of the chest and other hand on top
of the first hand.
 c- Lean vertically above the patient's chest and keep your elbows straight.
d- Use one hand for adults and two hands for infants.

25- Effective chest compression includes the following except:

a- Do not apply pressure over ribs, lower end of the sternum or upper
abdomen.
b- Press down on the sternum 3 - 4 cm for adult.
c- When possible, change CPR operator every 2 minutes.
d- Press down on the sternum 2.5-4 cm for children.

26- Heart rhythms associated with cardiac arrest are divided into:
a- Shockable rhythm: Ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular
tachycardia (VT).
b- Non-shockable rhythm: Asystole and pulseless electrical activity.
c- ( a + b)
d- None of the above.

27- Safety measures during defibrillation includes:

a- BLS, venous access, and airway control should not delay defibrillation.
b- Chest compressions should not be interrupted for more than 5-10
seconds.
c- Never touch any part of the electrode surface.
d- All of the above.

28- Safety measures during defibrillation includes the following except:

a- Paddles should not be placed over the breast tissue in females.
b- Paddles could be placed over implanted pacemakers.
c- You cannot touch any part of the patient.
d- O2 mask should be removed away during actual defibrillation.

29- The manifestation of early local anesthetic toxicity include the

following except:
a- Circumoral numbness
b- Visual and auditory hallucinations.
c- Cardiovascular collapse, convulsion, and coma.
d- Slurred speech and tinnitus.
30- To treat local anesthetic toxicity, you should:
a- At first sign of toxicity, stop injection of local anesthetic.
b- Give; O2, maintain airway, assist respiration, and iv fluids.
c- Ephedrine for hypotension, atropine for bradycardia, and midazolam or
thiopentone to control convulsions.
d- All of the above.

31- The most common cause of airway obstraction in unconsciousness is:

a- Foreign body inhalation
b- Burn
c- The Tongue backward displacement
d- Laryngeal edema

32- The line joins the top of the iliac crests is at:
a- L5
b- L4 to L4-5 interspace.
c- L3
d- S1

33- Early Complications of spinal anesthesia include the following except;

a- Bradycardia.
b- Hypotension,
c- Respiratory embarrassment.
d- Post dural puncture headache
34- Airway assessment for possible difficult intubation include the
following except:
a- Neck mobility.
b- Mallampati classification.
c- Age, body weight, mouth opening and thyromental distance.
d- None of the above.

35- The most common preoperative investigations include:

a- Pulmonary function tests.
b- Complete Blood Picture (CBC), coagulation profile, fasting blood sugar,
renal and liver functions.
c- Chest X-ray and ECG.
 d- Echocardiography.

36- During medical history taking from a female patient ask about last
menstrual period as:
a- Anesthetic agents may be teratogenic or could induce abortion.
b- In late pregnancy there is an increased risk of aspiration of gastric
contents and premature labor.
c- Oral contraceptive bills increase the risk of DVT.
d- All of the above.

37-All the following conditions are true regarding postponing of the

elective surgical operation except:
a- Associated medical problems are not under optimal control.
b- Acute upper respiratory tract infection.
c- Recent food intake.
d- Sign the informed written consent.

38-Mild pain can be treated with

a- Non - steroidal anti-inflammatory
b- Morphine
c- Fentanyl
d-Fentanil + morphine.

39- Regarding levels of sedation, airway intervention is required for

adequate oxygenation/ventilation in.
a- Minimal sedation.
b- Good analgesia
c- Moderate sedation
d- General anesthesia

40- High Quality CPR means the following except:

a- Rate at least 100/min.

b- Compression depth 2 inches or 5-6cm.
c- Allow complete chest recoil and minimize interruption of compression.
d- Hyperventilation.
41- Complications during maintenance of general anesthesia include the
following except:
a- Hypoxia due to adequate ventilation.
b- Nerve injury.
c- Corneal ulcers due to exposure.
d- Awareness.
43- Spinal cord in adults ends at:
a- L1 to L1-2 interspace
b- L2
c- L3
d- L4
44- The line joins the top of the iliac crests is at:
a- L5
b- L4 to L4-5.
c- L3
d- S1
45- Absolute contraindications to central nerve block include:
a- Patient refusal or Uncooperative patient.
b- Coagulation disorders or Infection at puncture site.
c- Increased intracranial tension or Low fixed cardiac output or hypovolemia.
d- All of the above.

46- American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status

classification system for assessing fitness for surgery include the
following except:
a- Class I: Fit normal patient
b- Class II: Patient with mild to moderate systemic disease NOT limiting
normal activity.
c- Class III: A brain stem dead patient candidate for organ donation.
d- Class IV: Patient with Severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to
life as acute myocardial infarction.

47- Postpone an elective operation when:

a- Co-morbid conditions not under optimal control.
b- Acute upper respiratory tract infection, recent food intake.
 c- Refusal to sign the informed written consent.
d- All of the above.

48- Healthy infant undergoing elective procedure should fast at least--------

after breast milk:
a- 2 hours.
b- 4 hours.
c- 6 hours.
d- 8 hours.

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