3

SSLC SCIENCE
2022 - 2023

Text book
Evaluation Questions
for practice
==============================

Prepared by

P.Kalaiselvan.
M.Sc, M.Ed, M.Phil.
Thiruvalluvar Hr. Sec. School,
Gudiyattam. Vellore DT.
==============================
 Unit 1 LAWS OF MOTION
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Inertia of a body depends on
a) weight of the object b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
c) mass of the object d) Both a & b
2. Impulse is equals to
a) rate of change of momentum b) rate of force and time
c) change of momentum d) rate of change of mass
3. Newton’s III law is applicable
a) for a body is at rest b) for a body in motion
c) both a & b d) only for bodies with equal masses
4. Plotting a graph for momentum on the Y-axis and time on X-axis. slope of momentum-time graph gives
a) Impulsive force b) Acceleration c) Force d) Rate of force
5. In which of the following sport the turning of effect of force used
a) swimming b) tennis c) cycling d) hockey
6. The unit of ‘g’ is m s . It can be also expressed as
-2

a) cm s-1 b) N kg-1 c) N m2 kg-1 d) cm2 s-2

7. One kilogram force equals to
a) 9.8 dyne b) 9.8 × 104 N c) 98 × 104 dyne d) 980 dyne
8. The mass of a body is measured on planet Earth as M kg. When it is taken to a planet of radius half that of the Earth
then its value will be___________kg
a) 4 M b) 2 M c) M/4 d) M
9. If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass remaining the same, the weight of a body on the Earth will
a) decrease by 50% b) increase by 50% c) decrease by 25% d) increase by 300%
10. To project the rockets which of the following principle(s) is / (are) required?
a) Newton’s third law of motion b) Newton’s law of gravitation
c) law of conservation of linear momentum d) both a and c

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. To produce a displacement ________________ is required.
2. Passengers lean forward when sudden brake is applied in a moving vehicle. This can be explained by __________
3. By convention, the clockwise moments are taken as ________ and the anticlockwise moments are taken as ______
4. ________ is used to change the speed of car.
5. A man of mass 100 kg has a weight of _______ at the surface of the Earth.
III. State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the statement if it is false :
1. The linear momentum of a system of particles is always conserved.
2. Apparent weight of a person is always equal to his actual weight.
3. Weight of a body is greater at the equator and less at the polar region
4. Turning a nut with a spanner having a short handle is so easy than one with a long handle
5. There is no gravity in the orbiting space station around the Earth. So the astronauts feel weightlessness.
IV. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. Newton’s I law propulsion of a rocket
b. Newton’s II law Stable equilibrium of a body
c. Newton’s III law Law of force
d. Law of conservation of Linear momentum Flying nature of bird
V. Assertion & Reasoning
Mark the correct choice as
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(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: The sum of the clockwise moments is equal to the sum of the anticlockwise moments.
Reason: The principle of conservation of momentum is valid if the external force on the system is zero.
2. Assertion: The value of ‘g’ decreases as height and depth increases from the surface of the Earth.
Reason: ‘g’ depends on the mass of the object and the Earth.

VI. Answer briefly

1. Define inertia. Give its classification.
2. Classify the types of force based on their application.
3. If a 5 N and a 15 N forces are acting opposite to one another. Find the resultant force and the direction of action of the
resultant force.
4. Differentiate mass and weight.
5. Define moment of a couple.
6. State the principle of moments.
7. State Newton’s second law.
8. Why a spanner with a long handle is preferred to tighten screws in heavy vehicles?
9. While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards. Why?
10. How does an astronaut float in a space shuttle?
VII. Solve the given problems
1. Two bodies have a mass ratio of 3:4 The force applied on the bigger mass produces an acceleration of 12 ms-2. What
could be the acceleration of the other body, if the same force acts on it.
2. A ball of mass 1 kg moving with a speed of 10 ms-1 rebounds after a perfect elastic collision with the floor. Calculate
the change in linear momentum of the ball.
3. A mechanic unscrew a nut by applying a force of 140 N with a spanner of length 40 cm. What should be the length of
the spanner if a force of 40 N is applied to unscrew the same nut?
4. The ratio of masses of two planets is 2:3 and the ratio of their radii is 4:7. Find the ratio of their accelerations due to
gravity.
VIII. Answer in detail
1. What are the types of inertia? Give an example for each type.
2. State Newton’s laws of motion?
3. Deduce the equation of a force using Newton’s second law of motion.
4. State and prove the law of conservation of linear momentum.
5. Describe rocket propulsion.
6. State the universal law of gravitation and derive its mathematical expression
7. Give the applications of gravitation.
IX. HOT Questions

1. Two blocks of masses 8 kg and 2 kg respectively lie on a smooth horizontal surface in contact with one other. They
are pushed by a horizontally applied force of 15 N. Calculate the force exerted on the 2 kg mass.
2. A heavy truck and bike are moving with the same kinetic energy. If the mass of the truck is four times that of the
bike, then calculate the ratio of their momenta. (Ratio of momenta = 2:1)
3. “Wearing helmet and fastening the seat belt is highly recommended for safe journey” Justify your answer using
Newton’s Laws of motion.
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Unit 2 OPTICS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is
maximum in
a) A b) B c) C d) D
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2. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size is obtained by a convex lens
a) f b) 2f c) infinity d) between f and 2f
3. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce
a) a convergent beam of light b) a divergent beam of light
c) a parallel beam of light d) a coloured beam of light
4. Magnification of a convex lens is
a) Positive b) negative c) either positive or negative d) zero
5. A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the position of the object is at
a) focus b) infinity c) at 2f d) between f and 2f
6. Power of a lens is – 4D, then its focal length is
a) 4m b) – 40m c) – 0.25 m d) – 2.5 m
7. In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed
a) behind the retina b) on the retina c) in front of the retina d) on the blind spot
8. The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by
a) convex lens b) concave lens c) convex mirror d) Bi focal lenses
9. Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
10. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following
statement gives the correct relation?
a) VB = VG = VR b) VB > VG >VR c) VB < VG < VR d) VB < VG > VR
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The path of the light is called as ________
2. The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than ________
3. If the energy of incident beam and the scattered beam are same, then the scattering of light is called as ________
scattering.
4. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power
of its ____________
5. Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by ___________
III. True or False. If False correct it :
1. Velocity of light is greater in denser medium than in rarer medium.
2. The power of lens depends on the focal length of the lens.
3. Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘hypermetropia’.
4. The convex lens always gives small virtual image.
IV. Match the following
Column I Column II
1 Retina a Path way of light
2 Pupil b Far point comes closer
3 Ciliary muscles c near point moves away
4 Myopia d Screen of the eye
5 Hypermetropia f Power of accommodation

V. Assertion & Reasoning

Mark the correct choice as
a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false. d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
1. Assertion: If the refractive index of the medium is high (denser medium) the velocity of the light in that medium will
be small.
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 Reason: Refractive index of the medium is inversely proportional to the velocity of the light
2. Assertion: Myopia is due to the increase in the converging power of eye lens.
Reason: Myopia can be corrected with the help of concave lens.

VI. Answer briefly

1. What is refractive index?
2. State Snell’s law.
3. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.
4. Define dispersion of light
5. State Rayleigh’s law of scattering
6. Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
7. What is power of accommodation of eye?
8. What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
9. Why does the sky appear in blue colour?
10. Why are traffic signals red in colour?

VII. Give the answer in detail

1. List any five properties of light
2. Explain the rules for obtaining images formed by a convex lens with the help of ray diagram.
3. Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermetropia
4. Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’.
VIII. Numerical Problems
1. An object is placed at a distance 20cm from a convex lens of focal length 10cm. Find the image distance and nature
of the image.
2. An object of height 3cm is placed at 10cm from a concave lens of focal length 15cm. Find the size of the image.
IX. HOT Questions
1. While doing an experiment for the determination of focal length of a convex lens, Raja Suddenly dropped the lens. It
got broken into two halves along the axis. If he continues his experiment with the same lens,
(a) can he get the image? (b) Is there any change in the focal length?
2. The eyes of the nocturnal birds like owl are having a large cornea and a large pupil. How does it help them?
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Unit 3 THERMAL PHYSICS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. The value of universal gas constant
a) 3.81 mol–1 K–1 b) 8.03 mol–1 K–1 c) 1.38 mol–1 K–1 d) 8.31 J mol–1 K–1
2. If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) none of the above
3. If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of
a) X or –X b) Y or –Y c) both (a) and (b) d) (a) or (b)
4. Temperature is the average ___________ of the molecules of a substance
a) difference in K.E and P.E b) sum of P.E and K.E
c) difference in T.E and P.E d) difference in K.E and T.E
5. In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is

Answer : a) AB, AC, BC

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The value of Avogadro number _______________
2. The temperature and heat are _____________ quantities
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3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of ____________ of water through _____
4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal of volume is __________
III. State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the statement if it is false :
1. For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of real expansion.
2. Thermal energy always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at lower temperature.
3. According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is inversely proportional to volume.
IV. Match the following

Column I Column II
1. Linear expansion (a) change in volume
2. Superficial expansion (b) hot body to cold body
3. Cubical expansion (c) 1.381 x 10-23 JK-1
4. Heat transformation (d) change in length
5. Boltzmann constant (e) change in area
V. Assertion & Reasoning
a. Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b. Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c. The assertion is true but the reason is false.
d. The assertion is false but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: There is no effect on other end when one end of the rod is only heated.
Reason: Heat always flows from a region of lower temperature to higher temperature of the rod.
2. Assertion: Gas is highly compressible than solid and liquid
Reason: Interatomic or intermolecular distance in the gas is comparably high.
VI. Answer briefly
1. Define one calorie.
2. Distinguish between linear, arial and superficial expansion.
3. What is co-efficient of cubical expansion?
4. State Boyle’s law
5. State-the law of volume
6. Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
7. What is co-efficient of real expansion?
8. What is co-efficient of apparent expansion?
VII. Numerical Problems
1. Find the final temperature of a copper rod. Whose area of cross section changes from 10 m2 to 11 m2 due to heating.
The copper rod is initially kept at 90 K. (Coefficient of superficial expansion is 0.0021 /K)
Area of copper rod, A0 = 10 m2, Area of copper rod after expansion, A 1 = 11 m2 , αA = 0.0021 /K
2. Calculate the coefficient of cubical expansion of a zinc bar. Whose volume is increased 0.25 m3 from 0.3 m3 due to
the change in its temperature of 50 K.
volume of zinc bar, V0 = 0.3 m3, change in volume of zinc bar after expansion, ∆V = 0.25 m3

VIII. Answer in detail

1. Derive the ideal gas equation.
2. Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid with a neat diagram.

IX. HOT Questions

If you keep ice at 0° C and water at 0°C in either of your hands, in which hand you will feel more chillness? Why?
===========================================================================

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 Unit 4 ELECTRICITY
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Which of the following is correct?
a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power b) Rate of change of charge is current.
c) Rate of change of energy is current d) Rate of change of current is charge.
2. SI unit of resistance is
a) mho b) joule c) ohm d) ohm meter
3. In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
a) The switch produces electricity b) Closing the switch completes the circuit
c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit d) The bulb is getting charged.
4. Kilowatt hour is the unit of
a) resistivity b) conductivity c) electrical energy d) electrical power
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. When a circuit is open, ____________ cannot pass through it
2. The ratio of the potential difference to the current is known as ___________
3. The wiring in a house consists of ____________ circuits
4. The power of an electric device is a product of ____________ and ___________
5. LED stands for ________________
III. State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the statement if it is false :
1. Ohm’s law states the relationship between power and voltage
2. MCB is used to protect house hold electrical appliances.
3. The SI unit for electric current is the coulomb.
4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt hour.
5. The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is lesser than the lowest of individual resistances.
IV. Match the following
Column I Column II
(i) electric current (a) volt
(ii) potential difference (b) ohm meter
(iii) specific resistance (c) watt
(iv) electrical power (d) joule
(v) electrical energy (e) ampere
V. Assertion & Reasoning
Mark the correct choice as
a) if both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) if both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) if the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
d) if the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: Electric appliances with a metallic body have three wire connections.
Reason: Three pin connections reduce heating of the connecting wires
2. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit the point of highest potential is the positive terminal of the battery.
Reason: The current flows towards the point of the highest potential
3. Assertion: LED bulbs are far better than incandescent bulbs.
Reason: LED bulbs consume less power than incandescent bulbs.
VI. Very short answer questions
1. Define the unit of current.
2. What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?
3. Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not in fuse wires?
4. Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of the electric current.

VII. Short answer questions

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1. Define electric potential and potential difference.
2. What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
3. State Ohm’s law.
4. Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor
5. What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?

VIII. Long answer questions

1. With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected :
a) in series and b) in parallel
2. a) What is meant by electric current? b) Name and define its unit.
c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be connected in a circuit?
3. a) State Joule’s law of heating. b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances?
4. Explain about domestic electric circuits. (circuit diagram not required)
5. a) What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV? b) List the merits of LED bulb
IX. Numerical Problems
1. An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of 420 W when heating is at the maximum rate and 180 W when heating
is at the minimum rate. The applied voltage is 220 V. What is the current in each case?
2. A 100 watt electric bulb is used for 5 hours daily and four 60 watt bulbs are used for 5 hours daily. Calculate the
energy consumed (in kWh) in the month of January.
3. A torch bulb is rated at 3 V and 600 mA. Calculate it’s a) power b) resistance c) energy consumed if it is used for 4 hour
4. A piece of wire having a resistance R is cut into five equal parts.
a) How will the resistance of each part of the wire change compared with the original resistance?
b) If the five parts of the wire are placed in parallel, how will the resistance of the combination change?
c) What will be ratio of the effective resistance in series connection to that of the parallel connection?
IX. HOT Questions
1. Two resistors when connected in parallel give the resultant resistance of 2 ohm; but when connected in series the
effective resistance becomes 9 ohm. Calculate the value of each resistance.
2. How many electrons are passing per second in a circuit in which there is a current of 5 A?
3. A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length.
Calculate the new resistance.
============================================================================
Unit 5 ACOUSTICS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles
a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion d) do not vibrate
2. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 m s–1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change
in the temperature, the velocity of sound in the gas is
a) 330 m s–1 b) 660 m s–1 c) 156 m s–1 d) 990 m s–1
3. The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is
a) 50 kHz b) 20 kHz c) 15000 kHz d) 10000 kHz
4. The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 m s –1. What will be its value when temperature is
doubled and the pressure is halved?
a) 330 m s–1 b) 165 m s–1 c) 330 × √2 m s–1 d) 320 / √ 2 m s–1
5. If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 10 Hz at 344 m s–1, the wavelength will be
4

a) 27.52 m b) 275.2 m c) 0.02752 m d) 2.752 m

6. The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were incident. Which of the
following changes?
a) speed b) frequency c) wavelength d) none of these
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7. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 m s–1. The minimum distance between the sources of sound
and the obstacle to hear the echo, should be
a) 17 m b) 20 m c) 25 m d) 50 m
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called __________
2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travel from south to north, the particles of the medium would be vibrating in
________________
3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 m s–1. The
frequency heard by the observer is (speed of sound = 330 m s–1) _____________
4. A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound of frequency 2000 Hz.
If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the apparent frequency heard by the observer is ____________
III. True or false. If false give the reason :
1. Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum.
2. Waves created by Earth Quake are Infrasonic.
3. The velocity of sound is independent of temperature.
4. The Velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids.
IV. Match the following

1. Infrasonic (a) Compressions

2. Echo (b) 22 kHz
3. Ultrasonic (c) 10 Hz
4. High pressure region (d) Ultrasonography

V. Assertion & Reason questions

Mark the correct choice as
a. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b. If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c. If the assertion is true, but the reason is false. d. If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1) Assertion: The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.
Reason: The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to the square of the pressure.
2) Assertion: Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.
Reason: Solid posses a greater density than that of gases.
VI. Answer very briefly
1. What is a longitudinal wave?
2. What is the audible range of frequency?
3. What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
4. What will be the frequency sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength, when it travels with a speed of 331 m s–1?
5. Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
VII. Answer briefly
1. Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
2. Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
3. Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature?
(V0 = 331 m s–1)
4. Explain why, the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
5. Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
VIII. Problem Corner
1. A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a speed of 400 m s –1 in a medium. Find the wavelength of the sound
wave.
2. The thunder of cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 m s–1,
what will be the height of the cloud?
3. A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m from a source of sound is listening to a sound of 600 Hz. Find the
time period between successive compressions from the source?
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4. An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the
transmission and reception of the wave is 1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the
seawater is 1400 m s–1?
5. A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after
0.9 seconds and 1.1 second respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Time of first echo (t1) = 0.9 s , Time of second echo (t2) = 1.1 s and distance (d) = 680 m
6. Two observers are stationed in two boats 4.5 km apart. A sound signal sent by one, under water, reaches the other
after 3 seconds. What is the speed of sound in the water?
7. A strong sound signal is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is received back after 1s.What is the
depth of sea given that the speed of sound in water 1450 m s–1?
IX. Answer in Detail
1. What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
2. What is mean by reflection of sound?
Explain : a) reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium b) reflection at the boundary of a denser medium
c) Reflection at curved surfaces
3. a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations. c) Name three animals which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
4. What is an echo?
a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo. b) What are the medical applications of echo?
c) How can you calculate the speed of sound using echo?
IX. Hots question
1. Suppose that a sound wave and a light wave have the same frequency, then which one has a longer wavelength?
a) Sound b) Light c) both a and b d) data not sufficient
2. When sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface
and the source of sound remain the same. Do you hear an echo sound on a hotter day? Justify your answer
========================================================================================
Unit 6 NUCLEAR PHYSICS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Man-made radioactivity is also known as _____________
a. Induced radioactivity b. Spontaneous radioactivity c. Artificial radioactivity d. a & c
2. Unit of radioactivity is _____________
a. roentgen b. curie c. Becquerel d. all the above
3. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by
a. Bequerel b. Irene Curie c. Roentgen d. Neils Bohr
4. In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place
i) α decay ii) β decay iii) γ decay iv) neutron decay
a. (i) is correct b. (ii) and (iii) are correct c. (i) & ( iv) are correct d. (ii) & (iv) are correct
5. ____________ isotope is used for the treatment of cancer
a. Radio Iodine b. Radio Cobalt c. Radio Carbon d. Radio Nickel
6. Gamma radiations are dangerous because
a. it affects eyes & bones b. it affects tissues
c. it produces genetic disorder d. it produces enormous amount of heat
7. _____________ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations
a. Lead oxide b. Iron c. Lead d. Aluminium
8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
i. α particles are photons ii. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low
iii. Ionization power is maximum for α rays iv. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
a. (i) & (ii) are correct b. (ii) & (iii) are correct c. (iv) only correct d. (iii) & (iv) are correct
9. Proton - Proton chain reaction is an example of ___________
a. Nuclear fission b. α – decay c. Nuclear fusion d. β - decay
10. In the nuclear reaction 6X12 α decay ZYA, the value of A & Z
a. 8, 6 b. 8, 4 c. 4, 8 d. cannot be determined with the given data
11. Kamini reactor is located at __________
a. Kalpakkam b. Koodankulam c. Mumbai d. Rajasthan
12. Which of the following is/are correct?
i. Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.
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 ii. The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled
iii. The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled
iv. No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb
a. (i) only correct b. (i) & (ii) are correct c. (iv) only correct d. (iii) & (iv) are correct
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. One roentgen is equal to _____________ disintegrations per second.
2. Positron is an __________________
3. Anemia can be cured by ____________ isotope.
4. Abbreviation of ICRP ______________________
5. _____________ is used to measure exposure rate of radiation in humans.
6. _____________ has the greatest penetration power.
7. ZYA → Z+1YA + X ; Then, X is ________________
8. ZXA → ZYA This reaction is possible in _______________ decay.
9. The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about ____________
10. Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of __________
11. The radio isotope of _____________ helps to increase the productivity of crops.
12. If the radiation exposure is 100 R, it may cause ____________
III. State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the statement if it is false :
1. Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material.
2. Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.
3. Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission.
4. Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor.
5. If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave as an atom bomb
6. During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced.
7. Einstein’s theory of mass energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion.
IV. Match the following
MATCH - I
a. BARC Kalpakkam
b. India’s first atomic power station Apsara
c. IGCAR Mumbai
d. First nuclear reactor in India Tarapur
MATCH – II
a. Fuel Lead
b. Moderator heavy water
c. Coolant Cadmium rods
d. Shield Uranium
MATCH – III
a. Soddy Fajan Natural radioactivity
b. Irene Curie Displacement law
c. Henry Bequerel Mass energy equivalence
d. Albert Einstein Artificial Radioactivity
MATCH – IV
a. Uncontrolled fission reaction Hydrogen Bomb
b. Fertile material Nuclear Reactor
c. Controlled fission reaction Breeder reactor
d. Fusion reaction Atom bomb

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 MATCH – V
a. Co - 60 Age of fossil
b. I - 131 Function of Heart
c. Na -11 Leukemia
d. C - 14 Thyroid disease

V. Arrange the following in the correct sequence :

1. Arrange in descending order, on the basis of their penetration power
Alpha rays, beta rays, gamma rays, cosmic rays
2. Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery
Nuclear reactor, radioactivity, artificial radioactivity, discovery of radium
VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blank
1. Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, Induced process : _________________
2. Nuclear Fusion : Extreme temperature, Nuclear Fission : __________________
3. Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, Effective functioning of heart : _____________
4. Deflected by electric field : α ray, Null Deflection : __________

VII. Numerical problems:

1. 88Ra226 experiences three α - decay. Find the number of neutrons in the daughter element.
2. A cobalt specimen emits induced radiation of 75.6 millicurie per second. Convert this disintegration into Becquerel.
(one curie = 3.7 × 1010 Bq)
VIII. Assertion and reason type questions:
Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.
1. Assertion: A neutron impinging on U 235, splits it to produce Barium and Krypton.
Reason: U - 235 is a fissile material.
2. Assertion: In a β - decay, the neutron number decreases by one.
Reason: In β - decay atomic number increases by one.
3. Assertion: Extreme temperature is necessary to execute nuclear fusion.
Reason: In a nuclear fusion, the nuclei of the reactants combine releasing high energy.
4. Assertion: Control rods are known as 'neutron seeking rods'
Reason: Control rods are used to perform sustained nuclear fission reaction
IX. Answer in one or two word (VSA):
1. Who discovered natural radioactivity?
2. Which radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende?
3. Write any two elements which are used for inducing radioactivity?
4. Write the name of the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during a natural radioactivity.
5. If A is a radioactive element which emits an α - particle and produces 104Rf 259. Write the atomic number and mass
number of the element A.
6. What is the average energy released from a single fission process?
7. Which hazardous radiation is the cause for the genetic disease?
8. What is the amount of radiation that may cause death of a person when exposed to it?
9. When and where was the first nuclear reactor built?
10. Give the SI unit of radioactivity.
11. Which material protects us from radiation?
X. Answer the following questions in few sentences.
1. Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
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2. Define critical mass.
3. Define one roentgen.
4. State Soddy and Fajan’s displacement law.
5. Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
6. In Japan, some of the new born children are having congenital diseases. Why?
7. Mr. Ramu is working as an X - ray technician in a hospital. But he does not wear the lead aprons. What suggestion
will you give to Mr. Ramu?
8. What is stellar energy?
9. Give any two uses of radio isotopes in the field of agriculture?

XI. Answer the following questions in detail.

1. Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
2. Compare the properties of alpha, beta and gamma radiations.
3. What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their functions.

XII. HOT Questions :

1. Mass number of a radioactive element is 232 and its atomic number is 90. When this element undergoes certain
nuclear reactions, it transforms into an isotope of lead with a mass number 208 and an atomic number 82. Determine
the number of alpha and beta decay that can occur.
2. 'X – rays should not be taken often'. Give the reason.
3. Cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area – why?
=====================================================================================

Unit 7 ATOMS AND MOLECULES

I. Choose the correct answer
1. Which of the following has the smallest mass?
a. 6.023 × 1023 atoms of He b. 1 atom of He c. 2 g of He d. 1 mole atoms of He
2. Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
a. Glucose b. Helium c. Carbon dioxide d. Hydrogen
3. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO2 at S.T.P
a. 22.4 litre b. 2.24 litre c. 0.24 litre d. 0.1 litre
4. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is
a. 28 amu b. 14 amu c. 28 g d. 14 g
5. Which of the following represents 1 amu?
a. Mass of a C–12 atom b. Mass of a hydrogen atom
c. 1/12th of the mass of a C–12 atom d. Mass of O–16 atom
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. 12 gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
b. One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s number of molecules.
c. One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
d. One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 1023 electrons.
7. The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is
a. 11.2 litre b. 5.6 litre c. 22.4 litre d. 44.8 litre
8. In the nucleus of 20Ca40, there are
a. 20 protons and 40 neutrons b. 20 protons and 20 neutrons
c. 20 protons and 40 electrons d. 40 protons and 20 electrons
9. The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is
a. 16 g b. 18 g c. 32 g d. 17 g
10. 1 mole of any substance contains ___________ molecules.
a. 6.023 × 1023 b. 6.023 × 10-23 c. 3.0115 × 1023 d. 12.046 × 1023
II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Atoms of different elements having ________ mass number, but ________ atomic numbers are called isobars.
2. Atoms of different elements having same number of ____________ are called isotones.
3. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other element by ____________
4. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons of an atom is called its ____________
5. Relative atomic mass is otherwise known as ____________

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6. The average atomic mass of hydrogen is ____________amu.
7. If a molecule is made of similar kind of atoms, then it is called ____________ atomic molecule.
8. The number of atoms present in a molecule is called its ____________
9. One mole of any gas occupies ____________ml at S.T.P
10 Atomicity of phosphorous is ________
III. Match the following
1. 8 g of O2 4 moles
2. 4 g of H2 0.25 moles
3. 52 g of He 2 moles
4. 112 g of N2 0.5 moles
5. 35.5 g of Cl2 13 moles

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. Two elements sometimes can form more than one compound.
2. Noble gases are Diatomic.
3. The gram atomic mass of an element has no unit.
4. 1 mole of Gold and Silver contain same number of atoms.
5. Molar mass of CO2 is 42g.
V. Assertion and Reason:
Answer the following questions using the data given below:
i) A and R are correct, R explains the A. ii) A is correct, R is wrong.
iii) A is wrong, R is correct. iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.
1. Assertion: Atomic mass of aluminium is 27
Reason: An atom of aluminium is 27 times heavier than 1/12th of the mass of the C – 12 atom.
2. Assertion: The Relative Molecular Mass of Chlorine is 35.5 amu.
Reason: The natural abundance of Chlorine isotopes are not equal.
VI. Short answer questions :
1. Define : Relative atomic mass.
2. Write the different types of isotopes of oxygen and its percentage abundance.
3. Define : Atomicity
4. Give any two examples for heterodiatomic molecules.
5. What is Molar volume of a gas?
6. Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia.

VII. Long answer questions :

1. Calculate the number of water molecule present in one drop of water which weighs 0.18 g.
2. N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3 (The atomic mass of nitrogen is 14, and that of hydrogen is 1)
3. Calculate the number of moles in
i) 27g of Al ii) 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH4Cl
4. Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”.
5. Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density.
VIII. HOT question :
1. Calcium carbonate is decomposed on heating in the following reaction CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
i. How many moles of Calcium carbonate are involved in this reaction?
iii. How many moles of CO2 are there in this equation?
IX. Solve the following problems :
1. How many grams are there in the following?
i. 2 moles of hydrogen molecule, H2 ii. 3 moles of chlorine molecule, Cl2
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 iii. 5 moles of sulphur molecule, S8 iv. 4 moles of phosphorous molecule, P4
2. Calculate the % of each element in calcium carbonate. (Atomic mass: C-12, O-16, Ca-40)
3. Calculate the % of oxygen in Al2(SO4)3. (Atomic mass: Al-12, O-16, S -32)
4. Calculate the % relative abundance of B -10 and B -11, if its average atomic mass is 10.804 amu.

============================================================================
Unit 8 PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. The number of periods and groups in the periodic table are______.
a) 6,16 b) 7,17 c) 8,18 d) 7,18
2. The basis of modern periodic law is______.
a) atomic number b) atomic mass c) isotopic mass d) number of neutrons
3. __________ group contains the member of halogen family.
a) 17th b) 15th c) 18th d) 16th
4. __________ is a relative periodic property
a) atomic radii b) ionic radii c) electron affinity d) electronegativity
5. Chemical formula of rust is ________.
a) FeO.xH2O b) FeO4.xH2O c) Fe2O3.xH2O d) FeO
6. In the alumino thermic process the role of Al is _____.
a) oxidizing agent b) reducing agent c) hydrogenating agent d) sulphurising agent
7. The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin layer of zinc is called______.
a) painting b) thinning c) galvanization d) electroplating
8. Which of the following inert gases have 2 electrons in the outermost shell.
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
9. Neon shows zero electron affinity due to _____.
a) stable arrangement of neutrons b) stable configuration of electrons
c) reduced size d) increased density
10. ______ is an important metal to form amalgam.
a) Ag b) Hg c) Mg d) Al
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. If the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms in a molecule is greater than 1.7, the nature of bonding
is ____________
2. ____________is the longest period in the periodical table.
3. ____________ forms the basis of modern periodic table.
4. If the distance between two Cl atoms in Cl2 molecule is 1.98Å, then the radius of Cl atom is ____________
5. Among the given species A–, A+, and A, the smallest one in size is ________
6. The scientist who propounded the modern periodic law is ____________
7. Across the period, ionic radii _________
8. ____________ and ____________ are called inner transition elements.
9. The chief ore of Aluminium is ____________
10. The chemical name of rust is ____________

III. Match the following

1. Galvanisation Noble gas elements
2. Calcination Coating with Zn
3. Redox reaction Silver-tin amalgam
4. Dental filling Alumino thermic process
5. Group 18 elements Heating in the absence of air
IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)
1. Moseley’s periodic table is based on atomic mass.
2. Ionic radius increases across the period from left to right.
3. All ores are minerals; but all minerals cannot be called as ores.
4. Al wires are used as electric cables due to their silvery white colour.
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5. An alloy is a heterogenous mixture of metals.
V. Assertion and Reason :
Answer the following questions using the data given below :
i) A and R are correct, R explains the A. ii) A is correct, R is wrong.
iii) A is wrong, R is correct. iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.
1. Assertion : The nature of bond in HF molecule is ionic
Reason : The electronegativity difference between H and F is 1.9
2. Assertion : Magnesium is used to protect steel from rusting
Reason : Magnesium is more reactive than iron
3. Assertion : An uncleaned copper vessel is covered with greenish layer.
Reason : copper is not attacked by alkali
VI. Short answer questions :
1. A is a reddish brown metal, which combines with O2 at < 1370 K gives B, a black coloured compound. At a
temperature > 1370 K, A gives C which is red in colour. Find A,B and C with reaction.
2. A is a silvery white metal. A combines with O2 to form B at 800oC, the alloy of A is used in making the aircraft.
Find A and B.
3. What is rust? Give the7 equation for formation of rust.
4. State two conditions necessary for rusting of iron.
VII. Long answer questions :
1. a) State the reason for addition of caustic alkali to bauxite ore during purification of bauxite.
b) Along with cryolite and alumina, another substance is added to the electrolyte mixture. Name the substance and
give one reason for the addition.
2. The electronic configuration of metal A is 2,8,18,1. The metal A when exposed to air and moisture forms B a green
layered compound. A with con. H2SO4 forms C and D along with water. D is a gaseous compound. Find A,B,C and D.
3. Explain smelting process.
VIII. HOT questions :
1. Metal A belongs to period 3 and group 13. A in red hot condition reacts with steam to form B. A with strong alkali
forms C. Find A,B and C with reactions.
2. Name the acid that renders aluminium passive. Why?
3. a) Identify the bond between H and F in HF molecule.
b) What property forms the basis of identification?
c) How does the property vary in periods and in groups?
=============================================================================

Unit 9 SOLUTIONS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. A solution is a __________ mixture.
a. homogeneous b. heterogeneous c. homogeneous and heterogeneous d. non homogeneous
2. The number of components in a binary solution is __________
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
3. Which of the following is the universal solvent?
a. Acetone b. Benzene c. Water d. Alcohol
4. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a given temperature is called__
a. Saturated solution b. Un saturated solution c. Super saturated solution d. Dilute solution
5. Identify the non aqueous solution.
a. sodium chloride in water b. glucose in water c. copper sulphate in water d. sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide
6. When pressure is increased at constant temperature the solubility of gases in liquid ___________.
a. No change b. increases c. decreases d. no reaction

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7. Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If 25 g of salt is dissolved in 100 ml of water how much more salt is
required for saturation _____________.
a. 12g b. 11g c. 16g d. 20g
8. A 25% alcohol solution means
a. 25 ml alcohol in 100 ml of water b. 25 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
c. 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of water d. 75 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
9. Deliquescence is due to __________
a. Strong affinity to water b. Less affinity to water c. Strong hatred to water d. Inertness to water
10. Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?
a. ferric chloride b. copper sulphate penta hydrate c. silica gel d. none of the above
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The component present in lesser amount, in a solution is called ________
2. Example for liquid in solid type solution is ________
3. Solubility is the amount of solute dissolved in ________ g of solvent.
4. Polar compounds are soluble in ________ solvents.
5. Volume persentage decreases with increases in temperature because ________
III. Match the following
1. Blue vitriol CaSO4.2H2O
2. Gypsum CaO
3. Deliquescence CuSO4.5H2O
4. Hygroscopic NaOH
IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)
1. Solutions which contain three components are called binary solution.
2. In a solution the component which is present in lesser amount is called solvent.
3. Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms a non-aqueous solution.
4. The molecular formula of green vitriol is MgSO4.7H2O
5. When Silica gel is kept open, it absorbs moisture from the air, because it is hygroscopic in nature
V. Short answer
1. Define the term: Solution
2. What is mean by binary solution
3. Give an example each i) gas in liquid ii) solid in liquid iii) solid in solid iv) gas in gas
4. What is aqueous and non-aqueous solution? Give an example.
5. Define Volume percentage
6. The aquatic animals live more in cold region Why?
7. Define Hydrated salt.
8. A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it cools. Why?
9. Classify the following substances into deliquescent, hygroscopic.
Conc. Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate penta hydrate, Silica gel, Calcium chloride, and Gypsum salt.

VI. Long answer :

1. Write notes on i) saturated solution ii) unsaturated solution
2. Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.
3. a) What happens when MgSO4.7H2O is heated? Write the appropriate equation.
b) Define solubility
4. In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.
5. A solution is prepared by dissolving 45 g of sugar in 180 g of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
6. 3.5 litres of ethanol is present in 15 litres of aqueous solution of ethanol. Calculate volume percent of ethanol solution.
VII. HOT :

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1. Vinu dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water, Sarath dissolves 50 g of same sugar in 250 ml of cold water.
Who will get faster dissolution of sugar? and Why?
2. 'A' is a blue coloured crystaline salt. On heating it loses blue colour and to give 'B'. When water is added, 'B' gives
back to 'A'. Identify A and B, write the equation.
3. Will the cool drinks give more fizz at top of the hills or at the foot? Explain
===========================================================================

Unit 10 TYPES OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS

I. Choose the correct answer
1. H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2 HCl(g) is a
a. Decomposition Reaction b. Combination Reaction
c. Single Displacement Reaction d. Double Displacement Reaction
2. Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ___________
a. heat b. electricity c. light d. mechanical energy
3. The reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + Heat.
In which of the type(s), the above reaction can be classified?
(i) Combination Reaction (ii) Combustion Reaction
(iii) Decomposition Reaction (iv) Irreversible Reaction
a. i and ii b. i and iv c. i, ii and iii d. i, ii and iv
4. The chemical equation Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s)↓ + 2NaCl(aq)
represents which of the following types of reaction?
a. Neutralisation b. Combustion c. Precipitation d. Single displacement
5. Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical equilibrium?
(i) It is dynamic in nature
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at equilibrium
(iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium
(iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different
a. i, ii and iii b. i, ii and iv c. ii, iii and iv d. i, iii and iv
6. A single displacement reaction is represented by X(s) + 2HCl(aq) → XCl2(aq) + H2(g).
Which of the following(s) could be X. Choose the best pair.
(i) Zn (ii) Ag (iii) Cu (iv) Mg.
a. i and ii b. ii and iii c. iii and iv d. i and iv
7. Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound” type reaction?
a. C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) b. 2K(s) + Br2(l) → 2 KBr(s)
c. 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2 CO2(g) d. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2 Fe2O3(s)
8. Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
a. A(s) + B(s) → C(s) + D(s)
b. A(s) + B(aq) → C(aq) + D(l)
c. A(aq) + B(aq) → C(s) + D(aq)
d. A(aq) + B(s) → C(aq) + D(l)
9. The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH–] concentration is
a. 1 × 10–3 M b. 3 M c. 1 × 10–11 M d. 11 M
10. Powdered CaCO3 reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO3 because of ___________.
a. large surface area b. high pressure c. high concentration d. high temperature
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. A reaction between an acid and a base is called ________
2. When zinc metal is placed in hydrochloric acid, ________as is evolved.
3. The equilibrium attained during the melting of ice is known as ________
4. The pH of a fruit juice is 5.6. If you add slaked lime to this juice, its pH ________
5. The value of ionic product of water at 25 0 C is ________

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6. The normal pH of human blood is ________
7. Electrolysis is type of ________ reaction.
8. The number of products formed in synthesis reaction is ________
9. Chemical volcano is an example for ________ type of reaction.
10. The ion formed by dissolution of H+ in water is called ________
III. Match the following
Identify the types of reaction
REACTION TYPE
NH4OH(aq) + CH3COOH(aq) → CH3COONH4(aq) + H2O(l) Single Displacement
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) Combustion
ZnCO3(s) + Heat → ZnO(s) + CO2(g) Neutralisation
C2H4(g) + 4O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + Heat Thermal decomposition

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

1. Silver metal can replace hydrogen gas from nitric acid.
2. The pH of rain water containing dissolved gases like SO 3, CO2, NO2 will be less than 7.
3. At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, the concentration of the reactants and the products will be equal.
4. Periodical removal of one of the products of a reversible reaction increases the yield.
5. On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is basic.
V. Answer in detail :
1. When an aqueous solution of potassium chloride is added to an aqueous solution of silver nitrate, a white precipitate
is formed. Give the chemical equation of this reaction.
2. Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature?
3. Define combination reaction. Give one example for an exothermic combination reaction.
4. Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions
VI. Short answer questions :
1. What are called thermolysis reactions?
2. Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
3. Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction
4. How does pH play an important role in everyday life?
5. What is a chemical equilibrium? What are its characteristics?
VII. HOT questions :
1. A solid compound ‘A’ decomposes on heating into ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’. On passing the gas ‘C’ through water, it
becomes acidic. Identify A, B and C.
2. Can a nickel spatula be used to stir copper sulphate solution? Justify your answer.
VIII. Solve the following problems :
1. Lemon juice has a pH 2, what is the concentration of H+ ions?
2. Calculate the pH of 1.0 ×10–4 molar solution of HNO3.
3. What is the pH of 1.0 × 10–5 molar solution of KOH?
4. The hydroxide ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10 –11M. What is the pH of the solution?
=============================================================================
Unit 11 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. The molecular formula of an open chain organic compound is C3H6. The class of the compound is
a. alkane b. alkene c. alkyne d. alcohol
2. The IUPAC name of an organic compound is 3-Methyl butan-1-ol. What type compound it is?
a. Aldehyde b. Carboxylic acid c. Ketone d. Alcohol
3. The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature of an aldehyde is ____
a. - ol b. – oic acid c. - al d. - one
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4. Which of the following pairs can be the successive members of a homologous series?
a. C3H8 and C4H10 b. C2H2 and C2H4 c. CH4 and C3H6 d. C2H5OH and C4H8OH
5. C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O is a
a. Reduction of ethanol b. Combustion of ethanol
c. Oxidation of ethanoic acid d. Oxidation of ethanal
6. Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which contains about _______ of ethanol
a. 95.5 % b. 75.5 % c. 55.5 % d. 45.5 %
7. Which of the following are used as anaesthetics?
a. Carboxylic acids b. Ethers c. Esters d. Aldehydes
8. TFM in soaps represents ___________ content in soap
a. mineral b. vitamin c. fatty acid d. carbohydrate
9. Which of the following statements is wrong about detergents?
a. It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acids b. It is sodium salts of sulphonic acids
c. The ionic part in a detergent is – SO–3Na+ d. It is effective even in hard water.

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. An atom or a group of atoms which is responsible for chemical characteristics of an organic compound is called ___
2. The general molecular formula of alkynes is ________
3. In IUPAC name, the carbon skeleton of a compound is represented by ________ (root word / prefix / suffix)
4. ________ compounds decolourize bromine water. (Saturated / Unsaturated)
5. Dehydration of ethanol by conc. Sulphuric acid forms ________ (ethene/ ethane)
6. 100 % pure ethanol is called ________
7. Ethanoic acid turns ________ litmus to ________
8. The alkaline hydrolysis of fatty acids is termed as ________
9. Biodegradable detergents are made of ________ chain hydrocarbons. (branched / straight)
III. Match the following
Functional group –OH Benzene
Heterocyclic Potassium stearate
Unsaturated Alcohol
Soap Furan
Carbocyclic Ethene
IV. Assertion and Reason :
Answer the following questions using the data given below:
i) A and R are correct, R explains the A.
ii) A is correct, R is wrong.
iii) A is wrong, R is correct.
iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explains A.
1. Assertion: Detergents are more effective cleansing agents than soaps in hard water.
Reason: Calcium and magnesium salts of detergents are water soluble.
2. Assertion: Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons.
Reason: Hydrocarbons consist of covalent bonds.
V. Short answer questions :
1. Name the simplest ketone and give its structural formula.
2. Classify the following compounds based on the pattern of carbon chain and give their structural formula :
(i) Propane (ii) Benzene (iii) Cyclobutane (iv) Furan
3. How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation.
4. How do detergents cause water pollution? Suggest remedial measures to prevent this pollution?
5. Differentiate soaps and detergents.

VI. Long answer questions :

1. What is called homologous series? Give any three of its characteristics?
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2. Arrive at, systematically, the IUPAC name of the compound : CH3–CH2–CH2–OH.
3. How is ethanol manufactured from sugarcane?
4. Give the balanced chemical equation of the following reactions :
(i) Neutralization of NaOH with ethanoic acid.
(ii) Evolution of carbon dioxide by the action of ethanoic acid with NaHCO 3.
(iii) Oxidation of ethanol by acidified potassium dichromate.
(iv) Combustion of ethanol.
5. Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
VII. Hot questions :
1. The molecular formula of an alcohol is C4H10O. The locant number of its –OH group is 2.
(i) Draw its structural formula. (ii) Give its IUPAC name. (iii) Is it saturated or unsaturated?
2. An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative and has the molecular formula C 2H4O2. This compound
reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling compound ‘B’.
(i) Identify the compound ‘A’.
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound ‘B’.
(iii) Name the process.
=====================================================================================
Unit 12 PLANT ANATOMY AND PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Casparian strips are present in the _____________ of the root.
a) cortex b) pith c) pericycle d) endodermis
2. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of
a) root b) stem c) leaves d) flower
3. The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called _________
a) radial b) amphivasal c) conjoint d) None of these
4. Which is formed during anaerobic respiration
a) Carbohydrate b) Ethyl alcohol b) Acetyl CoA d) Pyruvate
5. Kreb’s cycle takes place in
a) chloroplast b) mitochondrial matrix c) stomata d) inner mitochondrial membrane
6. Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis ?
a) when ATP is converted to ADP b) when CO2 is fixed c) when H2O is splitted d) All of these
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The innermost layer of cortex in root is called _________
2. Xylem and phloem are arranged in an alternate radii constitute a vascular bundle called _________
3. Glycolysis takes place in __________
4. The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis is __________
5. __________ is ATP factory of the cells.
III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.
1. Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in plant.
2. The waxy protective covering of a plant is called as cuticle.
3. In monocot stem cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.
4. Palisade parenchyma cells occur below upper epidermis in dicot root.
5. Mesophyll contains chlorophyll.
6. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.

IV. Match the following

1. Amphicribal Dracaena
2. Cambium Translocation of food
3. Amphivasal Fern
4. Xylem Secondary growth
5. Phloem Conduction of water
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V. Answer in a sentence :
1. What is collateral vascular bundle?
2. Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
3. What is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic pathway?
4. Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
VI. Short answer questions :
1. Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
2. Write a short note on mesophyll.
3. Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.
4. Name the three basic tissues system in flowering plants.
5. What is photosynthesis and where in a cell does it occur?
6. What is respiratory quotient?
7. Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction?
8. Write the reaction for photosynthesis?
VII. Long answer questions :
1. Differentiate the following :
a) Monocot root and Dicot root b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration
2. Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
3. How does the light dependent reaction differ from the light independent reaction?
What are the end product and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur within the chloroplast?
VIII. Hots :
1. The reactions of photosynthesis make up a biochemical pathway.
A) What are the reactants and products for both light and dark reactions.
B) Explain how the biochemical pathway of photosynthesis recycles many of its own reactions and identify the
recycled reactants.
2. Where do the light dependent reaction and the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast.
=====================================================================================

Unit 13 STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION OF ANIMALS

I. Choose the correct answer
1. In leech locomotion is performed by
a) Anterior sucker b) Parapodia c) Setae d) Contraction and relaxation of muscles
2. The segments of leech are known as
a) Metameres (somites) b) Proglottids c) Strobila d) All the above
3. Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of
a) Excretory system b) Nervous system c) Reproductive system d) Respiratory system
4. The brain of leech lies above the
a) Mouth b) Buccal Cavity c) Pharynx d) Crop
5. The body of leech has
a) 23 segments b) 33 segments c) 38 segments d) 30 segments
6. Mammals are ______________ animals.
a) Cold blooded b) Warm blooded c) Poikilothermic d) All the above
7. The animals which give birth to young ones are
a) Oviparous b) Viviparous c) Ovoviviparous d) All the above
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of the __________ segments.
2. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called __________ dentition.
3. The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called __________
4. The blood sucking habit of leech is known as __________
5. __________separate nitrogenous waste from the blood in rabbit.
6. __________spinal nerves are present in rabbit.

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III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.
1. An anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is called heparin.
2. The vas deferens serves to transport the ovum.
3. Diastema is a gap between premolar and molar teeth in rabbit.
4. The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue called corpora quadrigemina.
IV. Match the following
Organs Membranous Covering Location
Brain Pleura Abdominal cavity
Kidney Capsule Mediastinum
Heart Meninges enclosed in thoracic cavity
Lungs Pericardium cranial cavity

V. Answer in a sentence :
1. Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
2. How does leech respire?
3. Write the dental formula of rabbit.
4. How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
5. How is diastema formed in rabbit?
6. What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
7. Which organ acts as suction pump in leech?
8. What does CNS stand for?
9. Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
10. How does leech suck blood from the host?

VI. Short answer questions :

1. Why are the rings of cartilages found in trachea of rabbit?
2. List out the parasitic adaptations in leech.
VII. Long answer questions :
1. How is the circulatory system designed in leech to compensate the heart structure ?
2. How does locomotion take place in leech?
3. Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit with a labelled diagram.
VIII. HOTS :
1. Arjun is studying in tenth standard. He was down with fever and went to meet the doctor. As he went to the clinic he
saw a patient undergoing treatment for severe leech bite. Being curious, Arjun asked the doctor why leech bite was
not felt as soon as it attaches to the skin ? What would have been the reply given by the doctor?
2. Shylesh has some pet animals at his home. He has few rabbits too, one day while feeding them he observed something
different with the teeth. He asked his grandfather, why is it so? What would have been the explanation of his grandfather?
==========================================================================

Unit 14 TRANSPORTATION IN PLANTS AND CIRCULATION IN ANIMALS

I. Choose the correct answer
1. Active transport involves
a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration b) expenditure of energy
c) it is an uphill task d) all of the above
2. Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through
a) cortex b) epidermis c) phloem d) xylem
3. During transpiration there is loss of
a) carbon dioxide b) oxygen c) water d) none of the above
4. Root hairs are
a) cortical cell b) projection of epidermal cell c) unicellular d) both b and c
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5. Which of the following process requires energy?
a) active transport b) diffusion c) osmosis d) all of them
6. The wall of human heart is made of
a) Endocardium b) Epicardium c) Myocardium d) All of the above
7. Which is the sequence of correct blood flow
a) ventricle - atrium - vein – arteries b) atrium - ventricle - veins - arteries
c) atrium - ventricle - arteries – vein d) ventricles - vein - atrium - arteries
8. A patient with blood group O was injured in an accident and has blood loss. Which blood group the doctor should
effectively use for transfusion in this condition?
a) O group b) AB group c) A or B group d) all blood group
9. ‘Heart of heart’ is called
a) SA node b) AV node c) Purkinje fibres d) Bundle of His
10. Which one of the following regarding blood composition is correct
a) Plasma - Blood + Lymphocyte
b) Serum - Blood + Fibrinogen
c) Lymph - Plasma + RBC + WBC
d) Blood - Plasma + RBC+ WBC +Platelets
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. __________ involves evaporative loss of water from aerial parts.
2. Water enters the root cell through a __________ plasma membrane.
3. Structures in roots that help to absorb water are __________
4. Normal blood pressure is __________
5. The normal human heartbeat rate is about __________ time per minute.
III. Match the following

1. Symplastic pathway Leaf

2. Transpiration Plasmodesmata
3. Osmosis Pressure in xylem
4. Root Pressure Pressure gradient

1. Leukemia Thrombocytes
2. Platelets Phagocyte
3. Monocytes Decrease in leucocytes
4. Leucopenia Blood Cancer
5. AB blood group Allergic condition
6. O blood group Inflammation
7. Eosinophil Absence of antigen
8. Neutrophils Absence of antibody

IV. State whether True or False. If false write the correct statement :
1. The phloem is responsible for the translocation of food.
2. Plants lose water by the process of transpiration.
3. The form of sugar transported through the phloem is glucose.
4. In apoplastic movement the water travels through the cell membrane and enter the cell.
5. When guard cells lose water the stoma opens.
6. Initiation and stimulation of heart beat take place by nerves
7. All veins carry deoxygenated blood.
8. WBC defend the body from bacterial and viral infections.
9. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of the ventricular systole produces the first sound ‘LUBB’

V. Answer in a word or sentence :

1. Name two layered protective covering of human heart.
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2. What is the shape of RBC in human blood?
3. Why is the colour of the blood red?
4. Which kind of cells are found in the lymph?
5. Name the heart valve associated with the major arteries leaving the ventricles.
6. Mention the artery which supplies blood to the heart muscle.

VI. Short answer questions :

1. What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
2. What is cohesion?
3. Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters a plant root to the time it escapes into the
atmosphere from a leaf.
4. What would happen to the leaves of a plant that transpires more water than its absorption in the roots?
5. Describe the structure and working of the human heart.
6. Why is the circulation in man referred to as double circulation?
7. What are heart sounds? How are they produced?
8. What is the importance of valves in the heart?
9. Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it named so?
10. How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another?
11 Why is the Sinoatrial node called the pacemaker of heart?
12. Differentiate between systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation.
13. The complete events of cardiac cycle last for 0.8 sec. What is the timing for each event?

VII. Give reasons for the following statements :

1. Minerals cannot be passively absorbed by the roots.

2. Guard cells are responsible for opening and closing of stomata.
3. The movement of substances in the phloem can be in any direction.
4. Minerals in the plants are not lost when the leaf falls.
5. The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than the right auricles.
6. Mature RBC in mammals do not have cell organelles?

VIII. Long answer questions :

1. How do plants absorb water? Explain.
2. What is Transpiration? Give the importance of transpiration.
3. Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name each cell and mention its functions.
4. Differentiate between systole and diastole. Explain the conduction of heart beat.
5. Enumerate the functions of blood.

IX. Assertion and Reasoning :

Direction : In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of
reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
a. If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. Both A and R are false
1. Assertion: RBC plays an important role in the transport of respiratory gases.
Reason: RBC do not have cell organelles and nucleus.
2. Assertion: Persons with AB blood group are called an universal recipients, because they can receive blood from all groups.
Reason: Antibodies are absent in persons with AB blood group.
IX. HOTS :
1. When any dry plant material is kept in water, they swell up. Name and define the phenomenon involved in this change.
2. Why are the walls of the left ventricle thicker than the other chambers of the heart?
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3. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound of the heart. Why?
4. How does the pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein differ in their function when compared to a normal artery and vein?
5. Transpiration is a necessary evil in plants. Explain.
=============================================================================
Unit 15 NERVOUS SYSTEM
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Bipolar neurons are found in
(a) retina of eye (b) cerebral cortex (c) embryo (d) respiratory epithelium
2. Site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence and thought is
(a) kidney (b) ear (c) brain (d) lungs
3. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle (b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
(c) muscle, receptor, brain (d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
4. Dendrites transmit impulse cell body and axon transmit impulse cell body.
(a) away from, away from (b) towards, away from
(c) towards,towards (d) away from, towards
5. The outer most of the three cranial meninges is
(a) arachnoid membrane (b) piamater (c) duramater (d) myelin sheath
6. There are pairs of cranial nerves and pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, 31 (b) 31, 12 (c) 12, 13 (d) 12, 21
7. The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre.
(a) afferent neurons (b) association neuron (c) efferent neuron (d) unipolar neuron
8. Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus (b) hypothalamus (c) corpus callosum (d) pons
9. Node of Ranvier is found in
(a) muscles (b) axons (c) dendrites (d) cyton
10. Vomiting centre is located in
(a) medulla oblongata (b) stomach (c) cerebrum (d) hypothalamus
11. Nerve cells do not possess
(a) neurilemma (b) sarcolemma (c) axon (d) dendrites
12. A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger. Which of the
following part of brain is supposed to be damaged?
(a) Medulla oblongata (b) cerebrum (c) pons (d) hypothalamus
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. __________ is the longest cell in our body.
2. Impulses travels rapidly in __________ neurons.
3. A change in the environment that causes an animal to react is called __________
4. __________ carries the impulse towards the cell body.
5. The two antagonistic components of autonomic nervous system are __________ and __________
6. A neuron contains all cell organelles except __________
7. __________ maintains the constant pressure inside the cranium.
8. __________ and __________ increases the surface area of cerebrum.
9. The part of human brain which acts as relay center is __________
III. State whether True or False. If false write the correct statement :
1. Dendrons are the longest fibers that conducts impulses away from the cell body.
2. Sympathetic nervous system is a part of central nervous system.
3. Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of human body.
4. Cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
5. In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the white matter.
6. All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges.

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7. Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain.
8. Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus.
9. Pons helps in regulating respiration.
IV. Match the following
Column I Column II
A. Nissil’s granules Forebrain
B. Hypothalamus Peripheral Nervous system
C. Cerebellum Cyton
D. Schwann cell Hindbrain
V. Understand the assertion statement. Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice :
(a) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.
1. Assertion: Cerebrospinal fluid is present throughout the central nervous system
Reason: Cerebrospinal fluid has no such functions
2. Assertion: Corpus callosum is present in space between the duramater and pia mater
Reason: It serves to maintain the constant intracranial pressure.
VI. Short answer question :
1. Define stimulus.
2. Name the parts of the hind brain.
3. What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
4. Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
5. Which acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine system?
6. Define reflex arc.
VII. Differentiate between :
1. Voluntary and involuntary actions.
2. Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre

VIII. Long answer question :

1. With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.

2. Illustrate the structure and functions of brain.
3. What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the pathway of response with a neat labeled
diagram.
4. Describe the structure of spinal cord.
5. How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
6. Classify neurons based on its structure.
IX. HOTS :
1. ‘A’ is a cylindrical structure that begins from the lower end of medulla and extend downwards. It is enclosed in bony
cage ‘B’ and covered by membranes ‘C’. As many as ‘D’ pairs of nerves arise from the structure ‘A’.
(i) What is A? (ii) Name (a) bony cage ‘B’ and (b) membranes ‘C’ (iii) How much is D?
2. Our body contains a large number of cells ‘L’ which are the longest cells in the body. L has long and short branch
called as ‘M’ and ‘N’ respectively. There is a gap ‘O’ between two ‘L’ cells, through which nerve impulse transfer
by release of chemical substance ‘P’.
(i) Name the cells L (ii) What are M and N? (iii) What is the gap O? (iv) Name the chemical substance P
====================================================================================
Unit 16 PLANT AND ANIMAL HORMONES
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Gibberellins cause :
a) Shortening of genetically tall plants b) Elongation of dwarf plants
c) Promotion of rooting d) Yellowing of young leaves
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2. The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:
a) Cytokinin b) Auxin c) Gibberellin d) Ethylene
3. Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants:
a) 2, 4 - D b) GA3 c) Gibberellin d) IAA
4. Avena coleoptile test was conducted by
a) Darwin b) N. Smit c) Paal d) F.W. Went
5. To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes they are sprayed with _______
a) Auxin b) Cytokinin c) Gibberellins d) Ethylene
6. LH is secreted by
a) Adrenal gland b) Thyroid gland c) Anterior pituitary d) Hypothalamus.
7. Identify the exocrine gland
a) Pituitary gland b) Adrenal gland c) Salivary gland d) Thyroid gland
8. Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland
a) Pancreas b) Kidney c) Liver d) Lungs
9. Which one is referred as “Master Gland”?
a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary gland c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. __________ causes cell elongation, apical dominance and prevents abscission.
2. __________ is a gaseous hormone involved in abscission of organs and acceleration of fruit ripening.
3. __________causes stomatal closure.
4. Gibberellins induce stem elongation in __________ plants.
5. The hormone which has negative effect on apical dominance is __________
6. Calcium metabolism of the body is controlled by __________
7. In the islets of Langerhans, beta cells secrete __________
8. The growth and functions of thyroid gland is controlled by __________
9. Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones in the children leads to __________
III. a) Match Column I with Columns II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

Auxin Gibberella fujikuroi Abscission
Ethylene Coconut milk Internodal elongation
Abscisic acid Coleoptile tip Apical dominance
Cytokinin Chloroplast Ripening
Gibberellins Fruits Cell division

III. b) Match the following hormones with their deficiency states.

Hormones Disorders
a) Thyroxine Acromegaly
b) Insulin Tetany
c) Parathormone Simple goitre
d) Growth hormone Diabetes insipidus
e) ADH Diabetes mellitus
IV. State whether True or False. If false write the correct statement :
1. A plant hormone concerned with stimulation of cell division,promotion of nutrient mobilization is cytokinin.
2. Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy in tomato.
3. Ethylene retards senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.
4. Exopthalmic goiter is due to the over secretion of thyroxine.
5. Pituitary gland is divided into four lobes.
6. Estrogen is secreted by corpus luteum.
V. Assertion and Reasoning :
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Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of
reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as.
a. If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. both A and R are false
1. Assertion: Application of cytokinin to marketed vegetables can keep them fresh for several days.
Reason: Cytokinins delay senescence of leaves and other organs by mobilisation of nutrients.
2. Assertion (A): Pituitary gland is referred as “Master gland”.
Reason (R): It controls the functioning of other endocrine glands.
3. Assertion (A): Diabetes mellitus increases the blood sugar levels.
Reason (R): Insulin decreases the blood sugar levels.
VI. Answer in a word or sentence :
1. Which hormone promotes the production of male flowers in Cucurbits?
2. Write the name of a synthetic auxin.
3. Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes?
4. What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in female after child birth?
5. Name the hormones which regulates water and mineral metabolism in man.
6. Which hormone is secreted during emergency situation in man?
7. Which gland secretes digestive enzymes and hormones?
8. Name the endocrine glands associated with kidneys.
VII. Short answer questions :
1. What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
2. What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
3. Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid
4. What will you do to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants? Support your answer with reason.
5. What are chemical messengers?
6. Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
7. What is the role of parathormone?
8. What are the hormones secreted by posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention the tissues on which they exert
their effect.
9. Why are thyroid hormones refered as personality hormone?
10. Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if intake of iodine in our diet is low?

VIII. Long answer questions :

1. (a) Name the gaseous plant hormone. Describe its three different actions in plants.
(b) Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
2. Describe an experiment which demonstrates that growth stimulating hormone is produced at the tip of coleoptile.
3. Write the physiological effects of gibberellins.
4. Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the human body?
5. What are the conditions which occur due to lack of ADH and insulin? How are the conditions different from one another?
IX. HOTS :
1. What would be expected to happen if
a. Gibberellin is applied to rice seedlings.
b. A rotten fruit gets mixed with unripe fruits.
c. When cytokinin is not added to culture medium.
2. A plant hormone was first discovered in Japan when rice plants were suffering from Bakanae disease caused by
Gibberella fujikoroi. Based on this information answer the following questions :
a. Identify the hormone involved in this process. b. Which property of this hormone causes the disease?
c. Give two functions of this hormone.

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3. Senthil has high blood pressure, protruded eyeball and an increased body temperature. Name the endocrine gland
involved and hormone secretion responsible for this condition.
4. Sanjay is sitting in the exam hall. Before the start of the exam, he sweats a lot, with increased rate of heart beat. Why
does this condition occur?
5. Susan’s father feels very tired and frequently urinates. After clinical diagnosis he was advised to take an injection
daily to maintain his blood glucose level. What would be the possible cause for this? Suggest preventive measures.
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Unit 17 REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS AND ANIMALS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is ___________ .
a) Onion b) Neem c) Ginger d) Bryophyllum
2. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ___________ .
a) Amoeba b) Yeast c) Plasmodium d) Bacteria
3. Syngamy results in the formation of _________ .
a) Zoospores b) Conidia c) Zygote d) Chlamydospores
4. The essential parts of a flower are ___________ .
a) Calyx and Corolla b) Calyx and Androecium
c) Corolla and Gynoecium d) Androecium and Gynoecium
5. Anemophilous flowers have __________ .
a) Sessile stigma b) Small smooth stigma c) Colored flower d) Large feathery stigma
6. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of ___________ .
a) Generative cell b) Vegetative cell c) Microspore mother cell d) Microspore
7. What is true of gametes?
a) They are diploid b) They give rise to gonads
c) They produce hormones e) They are formed from gonads
8. A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated and mature is known as
a) Epididymis b) Vasa efferentia c) Vas deferens d) Seminiferous tubules
9. The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are
a) Primary germ cells b) Sertoli cells c) Leydig cells d) Spermatogonia
10. Estrogen is secreted by
a) Anterior pituitary b) Primary follicle c) Graffian follicle d) Corpus luteum
11. Which one of the following is an IUCD?
a) Copper – T b) Oral pills c) Diaphragm d) Tubectomy
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The embryo sac in a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is __________
2. After fertilization the ovary develops into __________
3. Planaria reproduces asexually by __________
4. Fertilization is __________ in humans.
5. The implantation of the embryo occurs at about __________day of fertilization
6. __________ is the first secretion from the mammary gland after child birth
7. Prolactin is a hormone produced by __________
III. (a) Match the following.

Column 1 Column 2
Fission Spirogyra
Budding Amoeba
Fragmentation Yeast

III. (b) Match the following terms with their respective meanings.

a) Parturition 1) Duration between pregnancy and birth

b) Gestation 2) Attachment of zygote to endometrium
c) Ovulation 3) Delivery of baby from uterus
d) Implantation 4) Release of egg from Graafian follicle

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IV. State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the false statement.
1. Stalk of the ovule is called pedicle.
2. Seeds are the product of asexual reproduction.
3. Yeast reproduces asexually by means of multiple fission.
4. The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the pollen is called as style.
5. Insect pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen.
6. Sex organs produce gametes which are diploid.
7. LH is secreted by the posterior pituitary.
8. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy.
9. Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
10. The increased level of estrogen and progesterone is responsible for menstruation.
V. Answer in a word or sentence.
1. If one pollen grain produces two male gametes, how many pollen grains are needed to fertilize 10 ovules?
2. In which part of the flower germination of pollen grains takes place?
3. Name two organisms which reproduces through budding.
4. Mention the function of endosperm.
5. Name the hormone responsible for the vigorous contractions of the uterine muscles.
6. What is the enzyme present in acrosome of sperm?
7. When is World Menstrual Hygiene Day observed?
8. What is the need for contraception ?
9. Name the part of the human female reproductive system where the following occurs. a. Fertilization b. Implantation
VI. Short answer questions.
1. What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
2. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some type of plants?
3. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
4. Define triple fusion.
5. Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers.
6. Name the secondary sex organs in male
7. What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?
8. How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
9. How does developing embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother's body?
10. Identify the parts A, B, C and D
11. Write the events involved in the sexual reproduction of a flowering plant.
a. Discuss the first event and write the types.
b. Mention the advantages and the disadvantages of that event.
12. Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in which they are present .
13. Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is also called the secretory phase. Give reason.
14. Why are family planning methods not adopted by all the people of our country?
VII. Longhort answer questions.
1. With a neat labelled diagram describe the parts of a typical angiospermic ovule.
2. What are the phases of menstrual cycle? Indicate the changes in the ovary and uterus.
VIII. HOTS.
1. In angiosperms the pollen germinates to produce pollen tube that carries two gametes. What is the purpose of
carrying two gametes when single gamete can fertilize the egg?
2. Why menstrual cycle does not take place before puberty and during pregnancy?
3. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Rahini and her parents were watching a television
program. An advertisement flashed on the screen which was promoting use of sanitary napkins. Rahini’s parents
suddenly changed the channel, but she objected to her parents and explained the need and importance of such
advertisement. a) What is first menstruation called? When does it occur? b) List out the napkin hygiene measures taken
during menstruation ? c) Do you think that Rahini’s objection towards her parents was correct? If so, why?
===========================================================================
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 Unit 18 HEREDITY
I. Choose the correct answer
1. According to Mendel alleles have the following character
a) Pair of genes b) Responsible for character c) Production of gametes d) Recessive factors
2. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to
a) Segregation b) Crossing over c) Independent assortment d) Recessiveness
3. The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached during cell division
a) Chromomere b) Centrosome c) Centromere d) Chromonema
4. The centromere is found at the centre of the ________________ chromosome.
a) Telocentric b) Metacentric c) Sub-metacentric d) Acrocentric
5. The _____________ units form the backbone of the DNA.
a) 5 carbon sugar b) Phosphate c) Nitrogenous bases d) Sugar phosphate
6. Okasaki fragments are joined together by ______________.
a) Helicase b) DNA polymerase c) RNA primer d) DNA ligase
7. The number of chromosomes found in human beings are ______________.
a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome
c) 46 autosomes d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
8. The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called ___________.
a) Tetraploidy b) Aneuploidy c) Euploidy d) polyploidy
II. Fill in the blanks.
1. The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of Mendel are called ________
2. Physical expression of a gene is called ________
3. The thin thread like structures found in the nucleus of each cell are called ________
4. DNA consists of two ________ chains.
5. An inheritable change in the amount or the structure of a gene or a chromosome is called ________
III. State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the false statement.
1. A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F2 generation is 3:1
2. A recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor.
3. Each gamete has only one allele of a gene.
4. Hybrid is an offspring from a cross between genetically different parent.
5. Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendages known as telomere.
6. New nucleotides are added and new complementary strand of DNA is formed with the help of enzyme DNA
polymerase
7. Down’s syndrome is the genetic condition with 45 chromosomes.
IV. Match the following.
Column 1 Column 2
1. Autosomes Trisomy 21
2. Diploid condition 9:3:3:1
3. Allosome 22 pair of chromosome
4. Down’s syndrome 2n
5. Dihybrid ratio 23rd pair of chromosome

V. Answer in a sentence.
1. What is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters are studied?
2. Name the conditions when both the alleles are identical?
3. A garden pea plant produces axial white flowers. Another of the same species produced terminal violet flowers.
Identify the dominant trait?
4. What is the name given to the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance of a particular character?
5. Name the bond which binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
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VI. Short answers questions.
1. Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
2. What do you understand by the term phenotype and genotype?
3. What are allosomes?
4. What are Okazaki fragments?
5. Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
6. A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), what would be the F1 and F2 generations? Explain.
7. Explain the structure of a chromosome.
VII. Long answers questions.
1. Explain with an example the inheritance of dihybrid cross. How is it different from monohybrid cross?
2. How is the structure of DNA organised? What is the biological significance of DNA?
3. The sex of the new born child is a matter of chance and neither of the parents may be considered responsible for it.
What would be the possible fusion of gametes to determine the sex of the child?
VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) :
1. Flowers of the garden pea are bisexual and self-pollinated. Therefore, it is difficult to perform hybridization
experiment by crossing a particular pistil with the specific pollen grains. How Mendel made it possible in his
monohybrid and dihybrid crosses?
2. Pure-bred tall pea plants are first crossed with pure-bred dwarf pea plants. The pea plants obtained in F1 generation
are then cross-bred to produce F2 generation of pea plants.
a. What do the plants of F1 generation look like?
b. What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation?
c. Which type of plants were missing in F1 generation but reappeared in F2 generation?
3. Kavitha gave birth to a female baby. Her family members say that she can give birth to only female babies because of
her family history. Is the statement given by her family members true. Justify your answer
=============================================================================
Unit 19 ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Biogenetic law states that ______________
a. Ontogeny and phylogeny go together b. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
c. Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny d. There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
2. The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by ______________.
a. Charles Darwin b. Ernst Haeckel c. Jean Baptiste Lamarck d. Gregor Mendel
3. Paleontologists deal with
a. Embryological evidences b. Fossil evidences c. Vestigial organ evidences d. All the above
4. The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by
a. Radio-carbon method b. Uranium lead method c. Potassium-argon method d. Both (a) and (c)
5. The term Ethnobotany was coined by
a. Khorana b. J.W. Harsbberger c. Ronald Ross d. Hugo de Vries

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental changes are called __
2. The degenerated and non-functional organs found in an organism are called __________
3. The forelimb of bat and human are examples of __________ organs.
4. The theory of natural selection for evolution was proposed by __________

III. State true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Charles Darwin.
2. The homologous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental
pattern.
3. Birds have evolved from reptiles.

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IV. Match the following.
Column 1 Column 2
a) Atavism caudal vertebrae and vermiform appendix
b) Vestigial organs a forelimb of a cat and a bat’s wing
c) Analogous organs rudimentary tail and thick hair on the body
d) Homologous organs a wing of a bat and a wing of an insect
e) Wood park radiocarbon dating
f) W.F. Libby Thiruvakkarai
V. Answer in a word or sentence.
1. A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a front flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing look dissimilar and adapted for
different functions. What is the name given to these organs?
2. Which organism is considered to be the fossil bird?
3. What is the study of fossils called?
VI. Short answers questions.
1. The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why is it an acquired character?
2. Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
3. Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
4. How can you determine the age of the fossils?
VII. Long answers questions.
1. Natural selection is a driving force for evolution-How?
2. How do you differentiate homologous organs from analogous organs?
3. How does fossilization occur in plants?
VII. HOTS.
1. Arun was playing in the garden. Suddenly he saw a dragon fly sitting on a plant. He observed the wings of it. He
thought it looked similar to a wing of a crow. Is he correct? Give reason for your answer.
2. Imprints of fossils tell us about evolution-How?
3. Octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes. Can we group these animals together to establish a common evolutionary
origin. Justify your answer.
=============================================================================
Unit 20 BREEDING AND BIOTECHNOLOGY
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Which method of crop improvement can be practiced by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
a. clonal selection b. mass selection c. pureline selection d. hybridisation
2. Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of _________.
a. sugarcane b. rice c. cow pea d. maize
3. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of ______.
a. chilli b. maize c. sugarcane d. wheat
4. The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is _______
a. IR 8 b. IR 24 c. Atomita 2 d. Ponni
5. Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
a. enzyme from organism b. live organism c. vitamins d. both (a) and (b)
6. We can cut the DNA with the help of
a. scissors b. restriction endonucleases c. knife d. RNAase
7. rDNA is a
a. vector DNA b. circular DNA c. recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA d. satellite DNA
8. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying _________ sequences of DNA
a. single stranded b. mutated c. polymorphic d. repititive
9. Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as
(a) transgenic organisms (b) genetically modified (c) mutated (d) both a and b
10. In a hexaploid wheat ( 2n = 6 x = 42 ) the haploid (n) and the basic(x) number of chromosomes are
a. n = 7 and x = 21 b. n = 21 and x = 21 c. n = 7 and x = 7 d. n = 21 and x = 7
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II. Fill in the blanks.
1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by _________
2. A protein rich wheat variety is _________
3. _________ is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
4. The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients are called _________
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but _________ is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that
grows well in saline soil.
6. _________ technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as _________ (palindromic
sequence)
8. Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for _________
9. _________ cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
10. In gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in a _________ (plasmid)

III. State true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. Raphanobrassica is a tetraploid man-made genus produced by colchicine treatment.
2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called mutation.
3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative, asexual reproduction are called a pureline
4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. Golden rice is a hybrid.
6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects
7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilization done inside the body
8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey
9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases.

IV. Match the following.

Column 1 Column 2
1. Sonalika Phaseolus mungo
2. IR 8 Sugarcane
3. Saccharum Semi-dwarf wheat
4. Mung No. 1 Ground nut
5. TMU – 2 Semi-dwarf Rice
6. Insulin Bacillus thuringienesis
7. Bt toxin Beta carotene
8. Golden rice first hormone produced using rDNA technique

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice.
a. Assertion is correct and reason is wrong b. Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
c. Both assertion and reason is correct d. Both assertion and reason is wrong.
1. Assertion: Hybrid is superior than either of its parents.
Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
2. Assertion: Colchicine reduces the chromosome number.
Reason: It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
3. Assertion: rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques.
Reason: Desired genes are inserted without introducing the undesirable genes in target organisms.
VI. Answer in a sentence.
1. Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
2. Semi-dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of dwarfing gene in rice. Name
this dwarfing gene.
3. Define genetic engineering.
4. Name the types of stem cells.

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5. What are transgenic organisms?
6. State the importance of biofertiliser.
VII. Short answers questions.
1. Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
2. Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
3. Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine
4. Distinguish between a. somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy
b. undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells
5. State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
6. How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
7. Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
VIII. Long answers questions.
1. What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals.
2. Describe mutation breeding with an example.
3. Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
4. With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
5. Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
IX. HOTS.
1. A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list of characters he will incorporate
2. Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons
3. Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.
4. ‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically
modified plant ‘R’. i. What is P, Q and R? ii. State the importance of ‘R’ in India.
=============================================================================

Unit 21 HEALTH AND DISEASES

I. Choose the correct answer
1. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline. The component causing this could be
a) Nicotine b) Tannic acid c) Curcumin d) heptin
2. World 'No Tobacco Day' is observed on
a) May 31 b) June 6 c) April 22 d) October 2
3. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are
a) Different in structure b) Non dividing
c) Starved mutation d) Undergoing rapid division
4. Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen?
a) Carcinoma b) Sarcoma c) Leukemia d) Lymphoma
5. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to
a) Loss of memory b) Cirrhosis of liver c) State of hallucination d) Supression of brain
6. Coronary heart disease is due to
a) Streptococci bacteria b) Inflammation of pericardium
c) Weakening of heart valves d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
7. Cancer of the epithelial cells is called
a) Leukemia b) Sarcoma c) Carcinoma d) Lipoma
8. Metastasis is associated with
a) Malignant tumour b) Benign tumour c) Both (a) and (b) d) Crown gall tumour
9. Polyphagia is a condition seen in
a) Obesity b) Diabetes mellitus c) Diabetes insipidus d) AIDS
10. Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
a) eyes b) auditory region c) liver d) central nervous system
II. State whether True or False, if false write the correct statement.
1. AIDS is an epidemic disease.
2. Cancer causing genes are called Oncogenes.
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3. Obesity is characterized by tumor formation.
4. In leukemia both WBC’s and RBC’s increase in number.
5. Study of cause of disease is called etiology.
6. AIDS is not transmitted by contact with a patient’s clothes.
7. Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency.
8. Carcinogens are cancer causing agents.
9. Nicotine is narcotic drug.
10. Cirrhosis is associated with brain disorder.
III. Expand the following abbreviations.
1. IDDM 2. HIV 3. BMI 4. AIDS 5. CHD 6. NIDDM
IV. Match the following.
1. Sarcoma Stomach cancer
2. Carcinoma Excessive thirst
3. Polydipsia Excessive hunger
4. Polyphagia Lack of blood flow to heart muscle
5. Myocardial Infarction Connective tissue cancer

V. Fill in the blanks.

1. Cirrhosis is caused in liver due to excessive use of _________
2. A highly poisonous chemicals derived from tobacco is _________
3. Blood cancer is called _________
4. Less response of a drug to a specific dose with repeated use is called _________
5. Insulin resistance is a condition in _________ diabetes mellitus
VI. Analogy type questions. Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank.
a. Communicable : AIDS : Non communicable : _________
b. Chemotherapy : Chemicals : Radiation therapy : _________
c. Hypertension : Hypercholesterolomia : Glycosuria : _________

VII. Answer in a sentence.

1. What are psychotropic drugs ?
2. Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
3. What are the contributing factors for Obesity?
4. What is adult-onset diabetes?
5. What is metastasis?
6. How does insulin deficiency occur?

VIII. Short answer questions.

1. What are the various routes by which transmission of human immuno deficiency virus takes place ?
2. How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell ?
3. Differentiate between Type-1 and Type-2 diabetes mellitus
4. Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual ?
IX. Long answer questions.

1. Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic.

2. Changes in lifestyle is a risk factor for occurrence of cardiovascular diseases. Can it be modified ? If yes, suggest
measures for prevention.
X. HOTS.
1. What is the role of fat in the cause of atherosclerosis ?
2. Eating junk food and consuming soft drinks results in health problems like obesity, still children prefer. What are the
suggestions you would give to avoid children eating junk food/ consumption of soft drinks?
3. Regular physical exercise is advisable for normal functioning of human body. What are the advantages of practising
exercise in daily life?
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4. A leading weekly magazine has recently published a survey analysis which says that number of AIDS patient in the
country is increasing day by day. The report says that the awareness among the people about AIDS is still very poor.
You are discussing the magazine report in your class and a team of your class decides to help people to fight against
the dreadful disease.
a) What problem you face when trying to educate the people in your village near by your school?
b) How do you overcome the problem ?
XI. Value based questions.
1. Once a person starts taking drugs or alcohol it is difficult to get rid of the habit. Why ?
2. Men addicted to tobacco lead to oxygen deficiency in their body. What could be the possible reason?
3. Name any three foods that are to be avoided and included in the diet of a diabetic patient. Why should it be followed?
4. How can informational efforts change people’s HIV knowledge and behaviour?
XII. Assertion and Reasoning.
In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given
just below it. Of statements given below mark the correct answer as
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Asssertion
c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
1. Assertion: All drugs act on the brain
Reason: Drugs disturb the functioning of the body and mind
2. Assertion: Excretion of excess glucose in urine is observed in a person with diabetes mellitus
Reason: Pancreas is unable to produce sufficient quantity of insulin
========================================================================================

Unit 22 ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT

I. Fill in the blanks
1. Deforestation leads to ________ in rainfall.
2. Removal of soil particles from the land is called ________
3. Chipko movement is initiated against ________
4. ________ is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
5. Tidal energy is ________ type of energy.
6. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called ________ fuels.
7. ________ is the most commonly used fuel for the production of electricity.

II. State whether True or False, if false write the correct statement.
1. Biogas is a fossil fuel.
2. Planting trees increases the groundwater level.
3. Habitat destruction cause loss of wild life.
4. Nuclear energy is a renewable energy.
5. Overgrazing prevents soil erosion.
6. Poaching of wild animals is a legal act.
7. National park is a protected park.
8. Wild life protection act was established in 1972.

III. Match the following.

1. Soil erosion energy saving

2. Bio gas acid rain
3. Natural gas removal of vegetation
4. Green house gas renewable energy
5. CFL bulbs CO2
6. Wind non-renewable energy
7. Solid waste lead and heavy metals

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IV. Choose the correct answer
1. Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel?
i. Tar ii. Coal iii. Petroleum
a) i only b) i and ii c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii
2. What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
a) reduce the amount of waste formed b) reuse the waste c) recycle the waste d) all of the above
3. The gas released from vehicles exhaust are
i. carbon monoxide ii. Sulphur dioxide iii. Oxides of nitrogen
a) i and ii b) i and iii c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii
4. Soil erosion can be prevented by
a) deforestation b) afforestion c) over growing d) removal of vegetation
5. A renewable source of energy is
a) petroleum b) coal c) nuclear fuel d) trees
6. Soil erosion is more where there is
a) no rain fall b) low rainfall c) rain fall is high d) none of these
7. An inexhaustible resources is
a) wind power b) soil fertility c) wild life d) all of the above
8. Common energy source in village is
a) electricity b) coal c) biogas d) wood and animal dung
9. Green house effect refers to
a) cooling of earth b) trapping of UV rays c) cultivation of plants d) warming of earth
10. A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is
a) hydropower b) solar energy c) wind energy. d) thermal energy
11. Global warming will cause
a) raise in level of oceans b) melting of glaciers c) sinking of islands d) all of these
12. Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy
a) wind energy is a renewable energy
b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric motor
c) production of wind energy is pollution free
d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels.

V. Answer in a sentence.
1. What will happen if trees are cut down?
2. What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
3. What are the agents of soil erosion?
4. Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
5. Solar energy is a renewable energy. How?
6. How are e-wastes generated?
VI. Short answer questions.
1. What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
2. What are the advantages of using biogas?
3. What are the environmental effect caused by sewage?
4. What are the consequences of deforestation?
VII. Long answer questions.
1. How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge ground water?
2. How will you prevent soil erosion?
3. What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
4. Enumerate the importance of forest.
5. What are the consequences of soil erosion?
6. Why is the management of forest and wildlife resource considered as a challenging task?
VIII. Assertion and Reason.

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Direction : In each of the following question a statement of assertion(A) is given and a corresponding statement of
reason (R). Of the four statements given below mark the correct answer.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Both assertion and reason are false.
1. A : Rainwater harvesting is to collect and store rain water.
R : Rainwater can be directed to recharge the underground water source.
2. A : Energy efficient bulbs like CFL must be used to save electric energy.
R : CFL bulbs are costlier than ordinary bulbs, hence using ordinary bulbs can save our money.
IX. HOTS.
1. Although coal and petroleum are produced by degradation of biomass, yet we need to conserve them. Why?
2. What are the objectives for replacing non-conventional energy resources from conventional energy resources?
3. Why is the Government imposing ban on the use of polythene bags and plastics? Suggest alternatives. How is this
ban likely to improve the environment?
IX. Value based questions.
1. Why is it not possible to use solar cells to meet our energy needs? State three reason to support to your answer.
2. How would you dispose the following wastes?
a. Domestic wastes like vegetable peels
b. Industrial wastes like metallic cans
Can the disposal protect the environment? How?
3. List any three activities based on 4R approach to conserve natural resources.
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Unit 23 VISUAL COMMUNICATION

I. Choose the best answer.

1. Which software is used to create animation ?
a) Paint b) PDF c) MS Word d) Scratch
2. All files are stored in the ______________
a) Folder b) box c) Pai d) scanner
3. Which is used to build scripts?
a) Script area b) Block palette c) stage d) sprite
4. Which is used to edit programs?
a) Inkscape b) script editor c) stage d) sprite
5. Where you will create category of blocks?
a) Block palette b) Block menu c) Script area d) sprite

II. Match the following.

1. Script Area Type notes

2. Folder Animation software
3. Scratch Edit programs
4. Costume editor Store files
5. Notepad Build Scripts

II. Answer the following.

1. What is Scratch?
2. Write a short note on editor and its types?
3. What is Stage?
4. What is Sprite?

P.KALAISELVAN. M.Sc.,M.Ed.,M.Phil. TVHSS. Gudiyattam. Cell : 9487765953. Mail : pkalai73@gmail.com 40

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