1. Which phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by the release of a mature egg?

A) Follicular Phase B) Menstruation Phase C) Ovulation Phase D) Luteal Phase

2. What causes the release of the mature egg during ovulation?
A) Decrease in estrogen levels B) Increase in progesterone levels
C) Increase in luteinizing hormone (LH) D) Decrease in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
3. If fertilization does not occur, what happens to the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle?
A) It remains thickened B) It breaks down and sheds
C) It becomes thinner D) It undergoes no changes
4. Which organ releases only one egg every 28 days on average?
A) Uterus B) Ovary
C) Fallopian tube D) Cervix
5. What are hormones, as mentioned in the passage?
A) Chemicals that affect specific body organs B) Biological tissues in the reproductive system
C) Fluids secreted by the ovaries D) Enzymes involved in digestion
6. What gland is responsible for controlling and initiating the reproductive cycle?
A) Thyroid gland B) Pituitary gland C) Adrenal gland D) Pancreas
7. Which hormone released by the pituitary gland initiates the maturation of follicles in the ovary?
A) Luteinizing hormone (LH) B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C) Estrogen D) Progesterone
8. In the absence of fertilization, what happens to the egg after entering the uterus?
A) It attaches to the uterine lining B) It disintegrates
C) It is expelled from the body during menstruation D) It remains in the uterus indefinitely
9. Where does the egg move through after being released from the ovary?
A) Uterus B) Ovary C) Cervix D) Oviduct
10. Which hormone stimulates the release of testosterone from the testes?
A) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) B) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
11. What gland is often dubbed the "master gland" for its pivotal role in hormone regulation?
A) Thyroid Gland B) Pancreas C) Pituitary Gland D) Adrenal Glands
12. Which hormone regulates cortisol production, impacting stress response and metabolism?
a) Prolactin b) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
c) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) d) Growth Hormone (GH)
13. Where is the thymus gland positioned in the body?
a) Upper chest b) Pelvic cavity c) Above the kidneys d) Below the larynx
14. What gland produces insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin to regulate blood sugar, metabolism, and digestion?
a) Thyroid Gland b) Adrenal Glands c) Pancreas d) Parathyroid Glands
15. Emily, a 30-year-old woman, wants to use the calendar method as a form of contraception. She has a regular
menstrual cycle lasting 28 days. What days should she avoid unprotected intercourse to prevent pregnancy?
a) Days 1-7 b) Days 8-14 c) Days 15-21 d) Days 22-28
16. Which hormone secreted by the pituitary gland stimulates the thyroid gland to produce hormones vital for
metabolism?
a) Growth Hormone (GH) b) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
c) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) d) Prolactin
17. What is the primary function of Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH), produced by the pituitary gland?
a) Regulating calcium levels b) Stimulating milk production
c) Controlling reproductive functions d) Regulating cortisol production
18. Which gland, situated atop the kidneys, produces hormones like cortisol, aldosterone, adrenaline, and
noradrenaline?
a) Thyroid Gland b) Parathyroid Glands c) Adrenal Glands d) Pancreas
19. What hormone secreted by the pituitary gland is essential for growth, tissue repair, and body composition?
a) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) b) Growth Hormone (GH)
c) Luteinizing Hormone (LH) d) Prolactin
20. Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the pituitary gland?
a) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) b) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
c) Calcitonin d) Prolactin
21. Sarah, a 10-year-old girl, has been experiencing stunted growth and reduced muscle mass. Which hormone
deficiency is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
a) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) b) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
c) Growth Hormone (GH) d) Prolactin
|\22. Mark, a 35-year-old man, is diagnosed with low testosterone levels and infertility. Which pituitary hormone
imbalance could be contributing to his condition?
a) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) b) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
c) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) d) Prolactin
23. Lisa, a 28-year-old woman, presents with symptoms of excessive lactation despite not being pregnant. Which
pituitary hormone is likely elevated in her case?
a) Growth Hormone (GH) b) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) c) Prolactin
d) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
24. Mary, a 40-year-old woman, is diagnosed with osteoporosis due to low calcium levels in her blood. Which hormone
imbalance related to the pituitary gland could be causing her condition?
a) Luteinizing Hormone (LH) b) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) c) Prolactin
d) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
25. James, a 45-year-old man, presents with symptoms of excessive thirst, frequent urination, and unexplained weight
loss. Which hormone imbalance originating from the pituitary gland could contribute to his symptoms?
a) Growth Hormone (GH) b) Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
c) Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) d) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
26. What is the primary reason why a person who is unconscious does not feel pain or any other sensations?
A) Lack of sensory organs B) Non-functioning of the brain
C) Damage to the spinal cord D) Inactivity of the nervous
27. Which division of the nervous system carries messages from the brain to other body parts?
A) Autonomic nervous system B) Somatic nervous system
C) Central nervous system D) Peripheral nervous system
28. What are the specialized cells responsible for signal transmission in the body called?
A) Neurons B) Glucose C) Proteins D) Fats
29. Which part of the neuron receives messages in the form of electric signals from other cells?
A) Cell body B) Axon C) Dendrites D) Axon terminals
30. What is the main function of the peripheral nervous system?
A) Regulating emotions B) Processing logical thoughts
C) Transmitting signals to and from the central nervous system D) Controlling involuntary actions
31. Which statement accurately describes the role of the cerebrum?
A) Responsible for smooth and coordinated body movements B) Main site of intelligence and logical thoughts
C) Regulates heart rate and breathing D) Receives signals from sensory nerves
32. Why can only a person with a functioning brain experience sensations such as seeing, hearing, tasting, and feeling?
A) Because the eyes and ears are essential for these sensations
B) Because the brain interprets signals from sensory organs
C) Because the spinal cord connects the brain to the body
D) Because the body parts send messages to the brain
33. Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary muscle movements and maintaining
balance and posture?
A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Brain stem D) Spinal cord
34. Which brain structure plays a crucial role in higher cognitive functions such as thinking, decision-making, and
emotional processing?
A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Brain stem D) Medulla oblongata
35. Damage to which area of the brain would most likely result in difficulties with motor coordination, precision, and
timing?
A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Brain stem D) Thalamus

36. Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating basic life-sustaining functions such as heartbeat, breathing, and
blood pressure?
A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Brain stem D) Hypothalamus
37. If a person experiences difficulty with maintaining balance, muscle coordination, and fine motor skills, which brain
structure is likely affected?
A) Cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Brain stem D) Corpus callosum
38. Which of the following is a long extension that transmits nerve impulses to other cells?
a. dendrite b. axon c. cell body d. none of the above
39. Which part of the nerve cell receives nerve impulses from other cells?
a. cell body b. dendrite c. axon d. axon terminal
40. Myelin is produced by a type of glial cell known as a Schwann cell. a. TRUE b. FALSE
41. Motor neurons conduct nerve impulses from tissues and organs to the spinal cord and brain. a. TRUE b. FALSE
1. Which lens is used to correct myopia, a condition where distant objects appear blurry
while nearby objects remain clear?
A. spherical lens B. diverging lens C. magnifying lens D. converging lens
2. Arrange the following types of radiation from least harmful to most harmful:
A. gamma rays, UV rays, infrared B. UV rays, X-rays, gamma ray
C. gamma rays, X-rays, UV rays D. X-rays, gamma ray, UV rays
3. What type of device uses radio waves for its operation?
A. television B. LASER C. RADAR gun D. X-rays
4. In a microwave oven, when microwaves interact with food, they are converted into which
type of energy?
A. sound B. chemical C. light D. heat
5. As the frequency of an electromagnetic wave increases, what happens to its
wavelength?
A. decreases B. becomes transverse C. remains straight D. increases
6. Which type of lens is naturally present in the human eye?
A. magnifying lens C. both concave and convex lenses
B. convex lens D. concave lens
7. What can be said about the image formed by a concave mirror?
A. always magnified B. always virtual C. either real or virtual D. always real
8. Through what mechanism do electromagnetic waves transfer energy?
A. magnetic radiation B. electrical radiation C. radiation D. electromagnetic radiation
9. Who is credited with the discovery of electromagnetic induction?
A. James Clerk Maxwell B. Heinrich Hertz
C. Hans Christian Oersted D. Michael Faraday
10. How are frequency and wavelength related in electromagnetic waves?
A. no relationship B. inversely related
C. directly related D. no change in frequency
11. What do you call the combination of all colors in the visible spectrum?
A. black light B. red light C. white light D. ROYGBIV
12. What energy conversion takes place in the motor of a ceiling fan?
A. Alternating current into direct current B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
C. Direct current and alternating current D. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
13. Which part of the eye functions like a digital sensor or film in a camera, capturing the
image?
A. crystalline lens B. iris C. retina D. pupil
14. Why is no image formed when an object is placed at the focal point of a concave
mirror?
A. The reflected rays are parallel B. The object cannot be focused
C. The object cannot be viewed D. The object is too small
15. Cell phone signals rely on which type of electromagnetic waves?
A. ultraviolet rays B. infrared light C. visible light D. microwave
16. Which electromagnetic wave has the shortest wavelength and the highest frequency?
A. X-rays B. visible light C. gamma rays D. ultraviolet
17. How would you describe the image formed by a plane mirror?
A. virtual, upright, and the same size as the object B. inverted and enlarged
C. real, inverted, and the same size D. real and reduced

18. What is the main purpose of a lens in a compound microscope?

A. To cover the specimen B. To protect the specimen C. To
magnify the specimen D. To hold the specimen in place
19. The distance between a plane mirror and the image it forms depends on which factor?
A. the wavelength of light used B. the location of the observer
C. the distance of the object from the mirror D. the observer’s proximity to the
mirror
20. When an object is placed at twice the focal length (2F) of a convex lens, what is the
nature of the image?
A. real, reduced, and inverted B. virtual, enlarged, and upright
C. real, same size, and inverted D. virtual, reduced, and upright
21. Which of these is considered a type of ionizing radiation?
A. infrared B. gamma rays C. microwave D. radio wave
22. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum has high energy capable of damaging
skin and eyes?
A. infrared light B. visible light C. ultraviolet light D. gamma rays
23. What kind of mirror can form both real and virtual images depending on the position of
the object?
A. concave mirror B. convex mirror C. plane mirror D. dual mirror
24. What type of energy conversion happens in an electric generator?
A. Electrical energy into mechanical energy B. Direct current and alternating current
C. Mechanical energy into electrical energy D. Alternating current into direct current
25. In a camera, which optical component focuses light onto the sensor?
A. prism B. mirror C. lens D. eyepiece
26. Which of these operates based on the principle of reflection?
A. mirror B. water C. lens D. glass
27. How would you classify the image of an object reflected in a plane mirror?
A. virtual and upright B. real and upright C. real and inverted D. virtual and inverted
28. What type of lens causes light rays to spread apart?
A. convex lens B. concave lens C. dual mirror D. mirror
29. Which type of electromagnetic wave is commonly used to verify the authenticity of
banknotes?
A. ultraviolet light B. infrared light C. visible light D. microwave
30. Which type of mirror is used for rearview mirrors in vehicles?
A. concave B. convex C. magnifying D. spherical
31. How does a concave mirror form an image when the object is positioned between its
focal point (F) and center of curvature (C)?
A. real, inverted, and reduced B. virtual, upright, and reduced
C. real, inverted, and enlarged D. virtual, upright, and enlarged
32. What is the energy transformation that occurs in a wind turbine?
A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
C. Direct current and alternating current D. Alternating current into direct current
33. Which type of electromagnetic wave is essential for photosynthesis in plants?
A. infrared light B. microwave C. visible light D. ultraviolet light
34. What is a characteristic of AM broadcasts compared to FM?
A. Carry more information B. Travel farther distances
C. Pass through the ionosphere D. Are clearer to hear
35. Which optical component is transparent, curved, and has two focal points?
A. lens B. mirror C. glass D. water
36. Which type of mirror always forms virtual and upright images, regardless of object
position?
A. convex mirror B. concave mirror C. dual mirror D. plane mirror
37. What is the nature of the image formed by a convex mirror?
A. Always real B. Always magnified C. Either real or virtual D. Always virtual
38. Why is visible light crucial for human skin health?
A. Generates Vitamin D production B. Accelerates skin aging
C. Treats muscle pain D. Treats skin cancer
39. Night-vision goggles and remote controls work by detecting which type of
electromagnetic wave?
A. X-rays B. visible light C. ultraviolet rays D. infrared waves
40. What is the speed of electromagnetic waves when traveling through a vacuum?
A. 3.0 × 10⁶ m/s B. 6.0 × 10⁴ m/s C. 9.0 × 10² m/s D. 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s
41. X-ray technicians wear lead aprons for protection against what?
A. dirt B. heat C. radiation D. light
42. Which scientist conducted experiments explaining reflection, refraction, and velocity of
electromagnetic waves?
A. Hans Christian Oersted B. Michael Faraday
C. James Clerk Maxwell D. Heinrich Hertz
43. A converging lens is also referred to as a __________ lens.
A. magnifying B. concave C. convex D. dual
44. Which electromagnetic wave possesses the highest penetrating power?
A. radio wave B. X-ray C. ultraviolet light D. gamma ray
45. Which of these is NOT a result of excessive ultraviolet (UV) light exposure?
A. glowing skin B. skin cancer C. skin aging D. sunburn
46. What is a defining property of electromagnetic waves?
A. Can travel in a vacuum B. Have a speed of 4 × 10⁸ m/s
C. Are longitudinal waves D. Require a medium for propagation
47. What type of image is formed by a concave mirror when the object is placed beyond
the center of curvature?
A. real, inverted, and reduced B. real, upright, and enlarged
C. virtual, upright, and reduced D. virtual, upright, and enlarged
48. Which electromagnetic wave is used for TV and radio communication?
A. ultraviolet rays B. radio waves C. infrared waves D. microwaves
49. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is considered non-ionizing radiation?
A. gamma ray B. X-rays C. ultraviolet rays D. infrared rays
50. The law stating that the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection is the law of
__________.
A. inertia B. refraction C. reflection D. interaction