What are the safety devices in refrigeration system on ships?

1. L. P cut-out on compressor suction side: Set at a pressure corresponding to 5 °C below

the lowest expected evaporating gauge reading
2. H.P cut-out on compressor discharge side: Set at a pressure corresponding to 5 °C above
the highest expected evaporating gauge reading
3. Lube oil low pressure cut-out: Oil pressure usually set at 2 bar above crankcase pressure
4. Cooling water L .P cut-out in condenser side
5. Safety spring load ed liquid shock valve on compressor cylinder head
6. Bursting disc on cylinder head, between inlet and discharge manifold
7. Bursting disc on Condenser, [if fitted]
8. Relief valve on Condenser; air purging valve on condenser
9. Master solenoid valve : to prevent liquid being entered into Compressor, when the plant
is standstill, especially in Large Plant

Why Refrigeration Compressor Takes Suction from Crankcase ?

See “Suction From Crank Case”

What is critical temperature ?

 Critical temperature is the temperature above which it is impossible to liquefy the

refrigerant regardless of pressure.
 It should be as high as possible and certainly above the maximum expected
condenser temperature.

What is the primary refrigerant ?

 It is a medium which is used in a vapour compression cycle to remove heat from a

low temperature region and convey it to a high temp: region
 It undergoes change of physical state during its working cycles.
 Mostly volatile liquid and employed inside direct expansion closed system.
 Evaporate at low temperature and at reasonable pressure
 Condense at SW temperature at reasonable pressure

What is secondary refrigerant ?

 It is a substance which is transferred heat by conduction and convection.

 Brine is a secondary refrigerant with density 1250 kg /m3
 It is a non volatile liquid during its working cycle and employed at large, complex
installation, to avoid circulation of expensive primary refrigerant in large quantities.
 Cooled inside Refrigeration Machinery Room and pumped around the ship to batteries in
each cargo space
What is solenoid valve is fitted in refrigeration system on ships ?

 Solenoid valve is a liquid stop valve.

 The valve is either fully open and close.
 To control the cool room temp: within set limit
 It is a electro magnetic cut in cut out device when the room temperature reaches the
desire point, the pressure switch which is connected to the thermo bulb in the room shut
the solenoid valve which stop the refrigerant flow into the evaporator.

What is the function of thermostatic expansion valve ?

1. To control the flow amount of liquid refrigerant to the evaporator in such a way as to
keep practically the entire coils filled with the evaporating refrigerant.
2. To keep constant super heat on the refrigerant vapour leaving the evaporator.
3. For sudden drop in pressure and temperature.
4. Automatic and prompt responds of refrigerant flow to match the Evaporator Load.
5. Prevention of Liquid Refrigerant being entered into the Compressor.
6. Maintaining appropriate amounts of refrigerant in the high pressure side and low
pressure side of the system.

What is relative humidity ?

 Ratio of amount of water vapour in given volume of air, to maximum amount of water
vapour that can be present before precipitation occurs.
 It is the mass of water vapour per unit volume of air compared to the mass of water
vapour per unit volume of saturated air at the same temperature.

What is saturated air ?

 The air contains maximum weight of water vapour at the particular temperature.

What is super heating ?

 Keeping refrigerant at a temperature above the saturated temperature.

What are the effects and remedies of under charge in refrigeration ?

Symptoms

1. Low discharge pressure

2. Large bubbles in the liquid sight glass
3. Compressor delivery temperature high.
4. The machine runs for longer periods between cut out.

Remedies
 1. To charge the refrigerant until the bubbles disappears in the liquid sight glass
and charging will correct the pressure gauge reading.
2. To find out the leaky points by halide torch or soap solution or electronic leak detector.

What are the effects and remedies of over charge in refrigeration ?

Symptoms

1. It is indicated by high compressor discharge pressure.

2. Compressor runs cold.
3. Excess frost on compressor suction line after evaporator.
4. Full of sight glass.

Remedies

 The excess refrigerant is released to atmosphere through the purging valve fitted on
the condenser until discharge pressure return to normal.

What are the effects of air in refrigeration system ?

Symptoms

1. High condenser and compressor temperature.

2. Abnormally high discharge pressure
3. Jerky pointer gauge
4. Very small bubbles in liquid sight glass.

Remedies

To remove the air from the system:

1. Change the compressor to manual position

2. Closed the liquid stop valve after the condenser
3. Pumping down the entire charge into the condenser
4. Until the suction pressure just above zero.
5. Stop the compressor and closed the consider inlet valve
6. Then allowed to cool the consider contents.
7. Air is expelled through the purging valve until the refrigerant gas appears at the valve.

What are the effects of moisture in refrigeration system on ships ?

Symptoms

1. Starving of evaporator and rapid condenser pressure rise cause compressor short cycling.
2. Frost at expansion valve inlet.
Remedy

1. Clean expansion valve filter.

2. Renew drying agents of dehydrator or drier.

Cause of expansion valve chocking ?

When a valve is functioning correctly frost forms on the outlet side of the valve, and if the
inlet side does show frosting then this is a sign of blockage.

 It is caused by dirt or freeze up by water present in the system.

 Starving of evaporator and rapid consider pressure rise cause compressor short cycling.

Remedy

 Clean the expansion valve filter

 Renew the drying agent of dehydrator or drier. (activated alumina or silica gel )

What are the effects of oil in refrigeration system on ships ?

Symptoms

1. Incorrect condenser and evaporator temperature differential.

2. The system running longer than normal.
3. Difficult to cool down room temperature.

Remedy

1. Pumping down the entire charge to condenser.

2. Along the system must be blown out with compress air by stripping individual unit
component.
3. Repair the oil separator.
4. Renew the compressor piston rings.

What are the indications of leaky suction and discharge valves in refrigeration
system ?

Defective Suction valve

1. Continuous running of compressor

2. Insufficient cooling effects
3. Noisy operation
4. High suction pressure

Defective Discharge valve

 1. Continuous running of compressor
2. Insufficient cooling effects
3. Noisy operation
4. High suction pressure during running
5. Low discharge pressure during running
6. Suction pressure increase faster after compressor is shut down
7. Warm cylinder head

High pressure (HP) cut out and low pressure (LP) cut out in refrigeration
system on ships ?

HP cut out

 Occurs due to condenser coolant failure, low coolant pressure and malfunction of
consider cooler valve operation.
 Also can cause dirty or chocked condenser tubes.
 The refrigerant can not liquefy rapidly .The discharge pressure will abnormally raise and
high pressure cut out will take in action.

LP cut out

 Operate the solenoid valve is closed when the cool room temperature reach its desired
temperature (setting temperature)
 Can cause when expansion valve is chocked by dirt or freeze up by water present in
the system.
 Starving of evaporator and rapid condenser pressure rise.
 Compressor may stop by low pressure cut out.
Linear Circuit

In simple words, a linear circuit is an electric circuit in which circuit parameters (Resistance,
inductance, capacitance, waveform, frequency etc) are constant. In other words, a circuit whose
parameters are not changed with respect to Current and Voltage is called Linear Circuit.

Fundamentally, the word “linear” literally means “along with a straight line”. As the name tells
everything, a linear circuit means linear characteristics in between Current and Voltage, which
means, current flowing through a circuit is directly proportional to the applied Voltage.

If we increase the applied voltage, then the current flowing through the circuit will also increase,
and vice versa. If we draw the circuit output characteristic curve in between Current and Voltage,
it will look like a straight line (Diagonal) as shown in fig (1).

Refer to Ohm’s Law, where we recognize that:

“If the applied voltage increases, then Current also increases (where resistance remains same).”

But this is not always the case. That’s why we use P=VxI instead of V=IxR (in Transformer)

In other words,

In a linear circuit, the output response of the circuit is directly proportional to the input. Simple
Explanation of the above statement is,

in an electric circuit, in which the applied sinusoidal voltage having frequency “f”, the output
(Current through a component or Voltage between two points) of that circuit is also sinusoidal
having frequency “f”.

Examples of Liner Circuits and Linear Elements

 Resistance and Resistive Circuit

 Inductor and Inductive Circuits
 Capacitor and Capacitive Circuits

Non Linear Circuit

A nonlinear circuit is an electric circuit whose parameters are varied with respect to Current and
Voltage. In other words, an electric circuit in which circuit parameters (Resistance, inductance,
capacitance, waveform, frequency etc) is not constant, is called Non Linear Circuit.

If we draw the circuit output characteristic curve in between Current and Voltage, it will look
like a curved or bending line as shown in fig (2).

 Diode
 Transistor
  Transformer
 Iron Core
 inductor (when the core is saturated)
 and any circuit composed exclusively of ideal Diode,
 Transistor
 Transformer
 and Iron Core inductor is called Non linear circuit.

The Main difference between Neutral, Ground and Earth?

eutral

Neutral is return path for an AC circuit which is supposed to carry current in normal condition.
This current may be because of many reasons, primarily because of phase current imbalance and
some time because 3rd and 5th harmonics also.

 Also read: What is the difference between Real Ground and Virtual Ground?

There may be others reasons too but the magnitude of this current is in fraction of phase current
and in few case it can be even double of phase current. So Neutral wire is always assumed to be
charged (in active circuit). This neutral wire is given to ground (by grounding) to make the
second terminal of neutral wire at zero potential.

Earth or Ground

Earth or Ground is for safety concerns against leakage or residual currents on the system via
least resistance path. While phase and neutral is connected to main power wiring, earth may be
connected to body of equipment or to any system which in normal condition doesn’t carry
current but in case of some insulation failure, is supposed to carry some minor current.

 Also read: The purpose of Earth or Ground wire in over-Head Transmission lines.

This current is not directly coming from live or phase wire, but is from secondary links which
was not in touch with live system in normal condition. This current is usually much lesser than
main line current or phase current and mostly is in order of mA. But this leakage current is good
enough to kill someone or may risk fire. Such current are being provided a low resistance path
and sent to earth via earth wire.

Because of the difference in application we never mix grounding of neutral and earth. However
both are made grounded (of-course the process may be different). If both will be mixed then the
earth wire which is not supposed to carry any current in normal condition , may have some
charges across and will become hazardous.
What is the difference between real ground and virtual ground?

Real ground is when a terminal is connected physically to the ground or earthed. where as virtual
ground is a concept used in Op-Amps in which a node a assumed to have the potential that of the
ground terminal.

1. An ideal operational amplifier has

A.infinite output impedance

B.zero input impedance

C.infinite bandwidth

D
All of the above
.

2.Another name for a unity gain amplifier is:

A.difference amplifier

B.comparator

C.single ended

D
voltage follower
.

3. The open-loop voltage gain (Aol) of an op-amp is the

A.external voltage gain the device is capable of

B. internal voltage gain the device is capable of

C. most controlled parameter

D.same as Acl
 4.What is the output waveform?

a. sine wave
b. square wave
c. sawtooth wave
d. triangle wave

A series dissipative regulator is an example of a:

A.linear regulator

B.switching regulator

C.shunt regulator

D
dc-to-dc converter
.

7. A noninverting closed-loop op-amp circuit generally has a gain factor:

A
less than one
.

7. B.greater than one

C.of zero

D
equal to one
.
8. In order for an output to swing above and below a zero reference, the op-amp circuit requires:
A
a resistive feedback network
.

B.zero offset

C.a wide bandwidth

D a negative and positive supply

Op-amps used as high- and low-pass filter circuits employ which configuration?
A B
noninverting comparator
. .

C D
open-loop inverting
. .

Decreasing the gain in the given circuit could be achieved by

A.reducing the amplitude of the input voltage

B.increasing the value of the feedback resistor

C.increasing the value of the input resistor

D
removing the feedback resistor
.

8. In order for an output to swing above and below a zero reference, the op-amp circuit requires:
A
a resistive feedback network
.

B.zero offset

C.a wide bandwidth

 D
a negative and positive supply
.

11. If ground is applied to the (+) terminal of an inverting op-amp, the (–) terminal will:
A
not need an input resistor
.

B.be virtual ground

C.have high reverse current

D
not invert the signal
.

An astable multivibrator is also known as a:

A.one-shot multivibrator

B.free-running multivibrator

C.bistable multivibrator

D
monostable multivibrator
.

1 With negative feedback, the returning signal:

3. A. aids the input signal

B. is proportional to output current

C. opposes the input signal

D. is proportional to differential voltage gain

14. What starts a free-running multivibrator?

A
a trigger
.

B.an input signal

C.an external circuit

D
nothing
.

15. A portion of the output that provides circuit stabilization is considered to be:
A
negative feedback
.
 B.distortion

C.open-loop

D
positive feedback
.

16. How many leads does the TO-5 metal can package of an operational amplifier have?
A
8, 10, or 12
.

B.6, 8, or 10

C.8 or 14

D
8 or 1
.

17. If a noninverting amplifier has an RIN of 1000 ohms and an RFB of 2.5 kilohms, what is the RIN
voltage when 1.42 mV is applied to the correct input?

AR
.i

18. Input impedance [Zin(I)] of an inverting amplifier is approximately equal to: R

A
Ri f
.
B
+
B .
Rf + Ri
.
R
C.∞ i

D C
Rf – Ri ∞
. .

19. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals: R

A f
the ratio of the input resistance to the feedback resistance
. D
–
B .
the open-loop voltage gain
. R
i
C.the feedback resistance divided by the input resistance
 D
the input resistance
.

21. All of the following are basic op-amp input modes of operation EXCEPT
A
inverting mode
.

B
common-mode
.

C.double-ended

D
single-ended
.

23. A circuit whose output is proportional to the difference between the input signals is
considered to be which type of amplifier?
A B
common-mode darlington
. .

C D
differential operational
. .

With negative feedback, the returning signal

A
is proportional to the output current
.

B
is proportional to the differential voltage gain
.

C
opposes the input signal
.

D
aids the input signal
.

26. The voltage follower has a:

A
closed-loop voltage gain of unity
.

B
small open-loop voltage gain
.

C
closed-loop bandwidth of zero
.
 D
large closed-loop output impedance
.

28. The ratio between differential gain and common-mode gain is called:
A.amplitude

B.differential-mode rejection

C.common-mode rejection

D
phase
.

30. If the gain of a closed-loop inverting amplifier is 3.9, with an input resistor value of 1.6
kilohms, what value of feedback resistor is necessary?
A.6240 ohms

B.2.4 kilohms

C.410 ohms

D
0.62 kilohm
.

31. In an open-loop op-amp circuit, whenever the inverting input (–) is negative relative to the
noninverting input (+), the output will:
A.swing negative

B.close the loop

C.be balanced

D
swing positive
.

33. If the input to a comparator is a sine wave, the output is a:

A.ramp voltage

B.sine wave

C.rectangular wave

D
sawtooth wave
.

35. The major difference between ground and virtual ground is that virtual ground is only a:
A.voltage reference
 B.current reference

C.power reference

D
difference referenc
.

36. If an op-amp has one input grounded and the other input has a signal feed to it, then it is
operating as what?
A.Common-mode

B.Single-ended

C.Double-ended

D
Noninverting mode
.

37. If the feedback/input resistor ratio of a feedback amplifier is 4.6 with 1.7 V applied to the
noninverting input, what is the output voltage value?
A.7.82 V

B.saturation

C.cutoff

D
9.52 V
.

The Schmitt trigger is a two-state device that is used for:

A.pulse shaping

B.peak detection

C.input noise rejection

D
filtering
.

When a capacitor is used in place of a resistor in an op-amp network, its placement determines:

A.open- or closed-loop gain

B.integration or differentiation
 C.saturation or cutoff

D
addition or subtraction
.

The common-mode voltage gain is

A.smaller than differential voltage gain

B.equal to voltage gain

C.greater than differential voltage gain

D
None of the above
.

How many logic states does an S-R flip-flop have?

A.2 B.3

C.4 D.5

43. An output that is proportional to the addition of two or more inputs is from which type of
amplifier?
A.differentiator

B.difference

C.summing

D
analog subtractor
.

45. An ideal amplifier should have:

A.high input current

B.zero offset

C.high output impedance

D
moderate gain
.

What is the difference between common-mode and differential-mode input signals?

A.phase relationship

B.voltage
 C.current

D
apparent power
.

Which of the following is the dynamic characteristics of an instrument ?

 1. Sensitivity

 2. Fidelity

 3. Dead zone

 4. Reproducibility

Response of a system to a sinusoidal input is called __________ response.

 1. none of these

 2. unit step

 3. impluse

 4. frequency

The operation of a rotameter is based on

 1. pressure at a stagnation point.

 2. variable flow area.

  3. rotation of a turbine.

 4. pressure drop across a nozzle.

Pick out the first order system from among the following.

 1. Damped vibrator.

 2. Interacting system of two tanks in series.

 3. Mercury in glass thermometer kept in boiling water.

 4. Non-interacting system of two tanks in series.

The __________ of a vapor pressure thermometer is a functioning element.

 1. bourdon tube

 2. none of these

 3. pointer

 4. bulb

Which of the following temperature measuring instruments need not touch the object whose
temperature is being measured ?

 1. Thermo electric pyrometer

 2. Mercury in glass thermometer

 3. Radiation/infrared pyrometer

 4. Filled system thermomet

Smoke density of the flue gas going out of the chimney is measured by a

 1. thermal conductivity meter

 2. polarograph

 3. chromatograph

 4. photo electric cell

Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument ?

 1. Poor reproducibility

 2. High fidelity

 3. High drift

 4. High measuring lag

Load cells are used for the measurement of

 1. stress

 2. strain

 3. weight

 4. velocity

The temperature of tempering oil baths maintained at 400°C during heat treatment of steel is
measured by a/an __________ thermocouple.

 1. none of these.

 2. platinum-platinum/rhodium
  3. iron-constantan

 4. chromel-alume

A negative gain margin expressed in decibels means a/an __________ system.

 1. critically damped

 2. unstable

 3. stable

 4. none of these

Which of the following is an undesirable dynamic characteristic of an instrument ?

 1. Time lag

 2. Dead zone

 3. Static error

 4. Reproducibilit

Thermistor, which has high temperature co-efficient of resistivity, is used as the sensing
element in resistance thermometer. It is a/an

 1. solid semi-conductor

 2. insulator

 3. conductor

 4. liquid semi-conductor
Flapper nozzle is used in a/an __________ controller.

 1. none of these

 2. pneumatic

 3. electronic

 4. hydraulic

Which of the following relates the emf. generated in a single homogeneous wire to the
temperature difference ?

 1. Thomson effect

 2. Peltier effect

 3. Seebeck effect

 4. none of these

Working principle of radiation pyrometer is based on the

 1. Seebeck effect

 2. Wien's law

 3. Kirchoffs law

 4. Stafan-Boltzman law

1. Proportional band of a controller is defined as the range of:

a) Measured variable to the set variable
b) Air output as the measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
c) Measured variables through which the air output varies from maximum to minimum
d) None of the above
 2. Proportional band of the controller is expressed as:
a) Gain
b) Ratio
c) Percentage
d) Range of control variables

3. The term reset control refers to:

a) Proportional
b) Integral
c) Derivative
d) None of the above

4. The integral control:

a) Increases the steady state error
b) Decreases the steady state error
c) Increases the noise and stability
d) Decreases the damping coefficient

5. In a proportional temperature controller, if the quantity under the heater increases the
offset will:
a) Increase
b) Reduce
c) Remain uneffected
d) None of the above

6. When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional band:

a) Increases
b) Reduces
c) Remains unchanged
d) None of the above

Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state response:
a) Proportional action
b) Proportional + Integral action
c) Proportional + Differential action
d) Proportional + Integral + Differential action

9. In a PID controller, the offset has increased. The integral time constant has to be ___ so as to reduce
offset:
a) Reduced
b) Increased
c) Reduced to zero
d) None of the above

10. In a PID controller, the overshoots has increased. The derivative time constant has to be __ so as to
reduce the overshoots:
a) Increased
b) Reduced
c) Reduced to zero
d) None of the above
If the value of resistor Rf in an averaging amplifier circuit is equal to the value of one input
resistor divided by the number of inputs, the output will be equal to

 1. the inverted sum of the individual inputs

 2. the average of the individual inputs

 3. the sum of the individual inputs

 4. the inverted average of the individual inputs

3. Question
1 points

A basic series regulator has

 1. a load

 2. an error detector

 3. a reference voltage

 4. both an error detector and a reference voltage

. In Ideal case, the Charging current for 200Ah battery would be _________ ?

1. 10 A
2. 12 A
3. 15 A
4. 20 A

Show Explanatory Answer

Answer: 4. 20 A.
Explanation:
Charging current should be 10% of the Ah (Ampere hour) rating of battery.
Therefore, Charging current for 120Ah battery would be = 200Ah x (10/100) = 20A.

In Real case, the Charging current for 200Ah battery would be _________ ?

1. 20-22 A
2. 14-16 A
3. 12-14 A
4. 10-12 A

Show Explanatory Answer

Answer: 1. 20-22A
Explanation:
Charging current should be 10% of the Ah (Ampere hour) rating of battery.
Therefore, Charging current for 120Ah battery would be = 200Ah x (10/100) = 20A
but due to losses, the charging current for 200Ah battery should be 20-22A.

In Ideal case, the Charging Time for 200Ah battery would be _________ ?

1. 5 hours
2. 10 hours
3. 15 hours
4. 20 hours

Show Explanatory Answer

Answer: 2. 10 hours
Explanation:
Charging current should be 10% of the Ah (Ampere hour) rating of battery.
Therefore, Charging current for 120Ah battery would be = 200Ah x (10/100) = 20A
Hence, Charging Time for 200 Ah battery = Ah rating of battery / Charging Current
= 200Ah/20 = 10 hours.

In Real case, the Charging Time for 200Ah battery would be _________ ?

1. 5 hours
2. 10 hours
3. 11 hours
4. 12 hours

Show Explanatory Answer

Answer: 3. 11 hours
Explanation:
Suppose for 200 Ah battery,
First of all, we will calculate charging current for 200 Ah battery. As we know that charging
current should be 10% of the Ah rating of battery.
so charging current for 200Ah Battery = 200 x (10/100) = 20 Amperes.
but due to losses, we can take 20-22Amperes for charging purpose.
suppose we took 22 Amp for charging purpose,
then charging time for 200Ah battery = 200 / 22 = 9.09 Hrs.
but this was an ideal case…
practically, this is noted that 40% of losses ( in case of battery charging)
then 200 x (40 / 100) = 80 …..(200Ah x 40% of losses)
therefore, 200 + 80 = 280 Ah ( 200 Ah + Losses)
Now Charging Time of battery = Ah/Charging Current
280 / 22 = 12.72 or 12.5 Hrs ( in real case)
 Therefore, a 200Ah battery would take 12 Hrs for completely charging (with 22A charging
current).

One (1) Ah = ________?

1. 1C
2. 1200C
3. 2400C
4. 3600C

Show Explanatory Answer

Answer: 4. 3600C
Explanation:

∴ A (One Ampere) = One Coulomb per second = C/s

1Ah = (1A) x (3600s) = (C/s) x (3600s) = 3600 C.

The commercial lead acid cell has 13 plates. The number of positive plates would be_______.

1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9

Show Explanatory Answer

Answer: 1. 6
Explanation:
The number of negative plates in a lead acid cell is one more than the number of positive plates ;
the outside plates being negative. So the number of positive plates would be 6.

he commercial lead acid cell has 15 plates. The number of negative plates would be_______.

1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9

Show Explanatory Answer

Answer: 3. 8
Explanation:
The number of negative plates in a lead acid cell is one more than the number of positive plates ;
the outside plates being negative. So the number of negative plates would be 8.

A lead acid cell has 15 plates. In absence of manufacturer’s data [nameplate], the charging
current should be________.

1. 3A
2. 6A
3. 7A
4. 13A

Show Explanatory Answer

Answer. 4. 7A
Explanation:
The charging current for battery should be 1A for every positive plate of a single cell. Also we know that
The number of negative plates in a lead acid cell is one more than the number of positive plates ; the
outside plates being negative. therefore, the number of Negative and Positive plates wold be 8 and 7
respectively. thus, the charging current for this battery would be 7A.

Consider a feedback control system with loop tf [math] G(S)H(S) = \frac{K(1 + 0.55)}{S(1 + S)
(1 + 2S)} [/math] Type of the closed loop system is

1. Zero.

2. One.

3. Two.

4. Three

[math] \frac{d^2y}{dt^2}+ \frac{dy}{dt} = \frac{du}{dt} + 2 u [/math] with 'u' as input 'y' as

outout is

1. S/(S2 + S).

2. 2S/(S2 + S).
 3. (S + 2)/(S2 + S).

4. (S + 1)/(S2 + S).

Consider a unity feedback control system with open loop transfer function [math] G(S) =
frac{K}{S(S + 1)} [/math] The steady state error of the system due to a unit step input is

1. Zero.

2. K.

3. 1/K.

4. ∞.

A unity feedback control system has a forward path tf equal to [math] \frac{42.25}{S^2(S +
6.5)}[/math] The unit step response of this system starting from rest, will have it maximum value
at a time equal to

1. Infinity.

2. 0.

3. 0.56 sec.

4. 5.6 sec.

The characteristic polynomical of a system is [math] q(s) = 2S^5 + S^4 + 4S^3 + 2S^2 + 2S + 1
[/math] The system is

1. Oscillatory.

2. Stable.

3. Unstable.

4. Marginaly stable.
A unity feedback control system has the open looptf [math] G(S) = \frac{4(1 + 2S)}{S^2(S + 2)}
[/math] If input to the system is a unit ramp, then steady state error will be

1. Infinity.

2. 0.

3. 2.

4. 0.5.

The purpose of series quadrature windings in an amplidyne is to

1. Increase the gain.

2. Reduce commutation difficulties.

3. Increase the response time.

4. Neutralise the effect armature reaction.

 The output of a linear time invariant control system is c(t) for a certain input r(t). If r(t) is
modified by passing it through a block whose transfer fuction is e-S and then applied to the
system, the modified output of the system would be

1. C(t - 1)u(t - 1).

2. C(t)u(t - 1).

3. C(t)/(1 + et).

4. C(t)/(1 + e-t).
1. The minimum range of radar is primarily determined by

 a. The pulse width and the TR cell recovery time

 b. The ATR cell recovery time
 c. The overall height of the antenna
 d. The peak power output of the radar transmitter

2. Bearing resolution is

 a. The ability to distinguish two target of different distances

 b. The ability to distinguish two target of different elevations
 c. The ability to distinguish two adjacent targets of equal distances
 d. The ability to distinguish two targets of different sizes

3. Find the distance in yards to an object if the display of a radar signal measures 4.4
microseconds.

 a. 380
 b. 328
 c. 722
 d. 656

4. What device is located between the magnetron and the mixer and prevents received signals
from entering the magnetron?

 a. TR box
 b. ATR box
 c. RF attenuator
 d. Resonant cavi

5. Where is RF attenuator used in a radar unit?

 a. Between the antenna and the receiver

 b. Between the magnetron and the antenna
 c. Between the magnetron and the AFC section of the receiver
 d. Between the AFC section and klystron

6. What radar circuit determines the pulse repetition rate?

 a. Discriminator
 b. Timer/ synchronizer circuit
 c. Artificial transmission line
 d. Pulse-rate indicator circuit
7. Given the pulse width of 8 microseconds and a duty cycle of 8%, determine the pulse
repetition time of a radar system.

 a. 100 us
 b. 1 us
 c. 1000 us
 d. 10 ms

8. On runway, an ILS localizer shows

 a. Deviation left or right of runway center line

 b. Deviation up or down from ground speed
 c. Deviation percentage from authorized ground speed
 d. Wind speed along runway

9. Range markers are determined by

 a. CRT
 b. Magnetron
 c. Timer
 d. Video amplifier

10. The characteristic of the magnetron output pulse that relates to accurate range measurement
is its

 a. Amplitude
 b. Decay time
 c. Rise time
 d. Duration

11. The minimum range of a radar is determined by

 a. The frequency of the radar transmitter

 b. He pulse repetition rate
 c. The transmitted pulse width
 d. The pulse repetition frequency

12. A circuit to develop AFC voltage in a radar receiver is called the

 a. Peak detector
 b. Crystal mixer
 c. Second detector
 d. Discriminator

13. The echo box is used for

  a. Testing and tuning of the radar unit by providing artificial targets
 b. Testing the wavelength of the incoming echo signal
 c. Amplification of the echo signal
 d. Detection of the echo pulses

14. In a radar unit, the local oscillator is

 a. A hydrogen thyratron
 b. A klystron
 c. A pentagrid converter tube
 d. A reactance tube modulator

15. What is the peak power of a radar pulse if the pulse width is 1.0 microsecond, PRR is 900
and the average plate power input is 45 watts?

 a. 50 kW
 b. 45 kW
 c. 60 kW
 d. 62.5 kW

16. Radar uses what form of energy to detect planes, ships and land masses

 a. Sound energy
 b. Visible light
 c. Infrared radiation
 d. Electromagnetic energy

17. In a pulse radar system, what component controls the timing throughout the system?

 a. Power supply
 b. Synchronizer
 c. Indicator
 d. Receiver

18. What radar measurement of an object is referenced to true north?

 a. Height
 b. Surface angle
 c. Vertical angle
 d. One-way distance

19. Surface search radar normally scans how many degrees of azimuth?

 a. 30 degrees
 b. 90 degrees
 c. 360 degrees
 d. 180 degrees
20. What limits the maximum range of a surface search radar?

 a. Pulse width
 b. Transmitter power
 c. Frequency
 d. Radar horizon

21. What IF frequency (ies) is (are) normally used in radar receivers?

 a. 30 or 60 MHz
 b. 455 kHz
 c. 70 MHz
 d. 10.7 MHz

22. What is the typical frequency range about the center frequency of a tunable magnetron?

 a. Plus or minus 5 percent

 b. Plus or minus 10 percent
 c. Plus or minus 15 percent
 d. Plus or minus 8 percent

23. What type of radar provides continuous range, bearing and elevation data on an object?

 a. Track radar
 b. Search radar
 c. Pulsed radar
 d. Doppler shift

24. What radio navigation and determines the distance from a transponder beacon by measuring
the length of time the radio signal took to travel to the receiver?

 a. Radar
 b. Loran C
 c. Distance marking
 d. Distance measuring equipment

25. Which of the following is a feature of an instrument landing system?

 a. The localizer which shows aircraft deviation horizontally from center of runway
 b. The glideslope or glide path which shows vertical altitude of an aircraft during landing
 c. Provides communications to aircraft
 d. Both a and b

26. What transmission method does not depend on relative frequency or target motion?

 a. Digital transmission
  b. Frequency modulation
 c. Pulse modulation
 d. CW modulation

27. The beat frequency in a swept-frequency transmitter provides what contact information?

 a. Frequency
 b. Travel time
 c. Range
 d. Velocity

28. A self- synchronization radar system obtains timing trigger pulses from what source?

 a. Transmitter
 b. Echo box
 c. Anti-transmit and receive box
 d. Transmit and receive box

29. In externally-synchronized radar, what determines the PRR of the transmitter?

 a. Synchronizer
 b. Master oscillator
 c. Blocking oscillator
 d. Free-running multivibrator

30. Transmitter power readings are most often referenced to what power level?

 a. 1 watt
 b. 1 milliwatt
 c. 1 microwatt
 d. 1 picowatt

31. What type of radiator normally drives a corner reflector?

 a. Half-wave
 b. Despun
 c. Isotropic
 d. Marconi

32. A monopulse receiver has how many separate channels?

 a. One
 b. Two
 c. Three
 d. Four

33. How many major lobes are produced by a paraboloid reflector?

  a. One
 b. Two
 c. Three
 d. Four

34. The Doppler variation is directly proportional to what radar contact characteristics?

 a. Frequency
 b. Velocity
 c. Range
 d. Travel time

35. What is the simplest type of scanning?

 a. Single lobe scanning

 b. Mechanical scanning
 c. Electronic scanning
 d. Electromechanical scanning

36. What term is used to describe the ability of a radar system to distinguish between targets that
are close together?

 a. Target resolution
 b. Bearing resolution
 c. Range resolution
 d. Angular resolution

37. Radar altimeters use what type of transmission signal?

 a. Amplitude modulated
 b. Frequency modulated
 c. Phase modulated
 d. Pulsed modulated

38. Tracking radar searches a small volume of space during which phase of operation?

 a. Scanning
 b. Tracking
 c. Searching
 d. Acquisition

39. How many active elements are contained in a magnetron?

 a. Two
 b. Three
 c. Four
 d. Five
40. Transit time might be defined as the time required for

 a. RF energy to travel through the waveguide

 b. A pulse to travel a wavelength inside a waveguide
 c. One cycle of operation to be completed
 d. Electrons to travel from cathode to anode

41. On a basic synchro system, the angular information is carried on

 a. Dc feedback signal
 b. Stator lines
 c. Deflection coils
 d. Rotor lines

42. What circuit element receives the drive voltage in a radar system’s fiber optic signal
transmitter?

 a. Filter capacitor
 b. Load-limiting capacitor
 c. Temperature sensor
 d. Transistor

43. For a range of 10 nautical miles, the radar pulse repetition frequency (PRF) should be

 a. Approximately 8.1 kHz or less

 b. 900 Hz
 c. 18.1 kHz or more
 d. 120.3 microseconds

44. If the operating radar frequency is 3000 MHz, what is the distance between the waveguide
and the spark gaps in older radar units?

 a. 10 cm
 b. 5 cm
 c. 2.5 cm
 d. 20 cm

45. Ship raster scan radar has a CRT with the following characteristics: 70 pixels per character,
80 character per line, 25 lines per screen and it scans 100 screen per second. What is the
minimum required bandwidth for the electron beam control signal?

 a. 210 MHz
 b. 0.21 MHz
 c. 2.1 MHz
 d. 21 MHz
46. Continuous wave radar is frequency modulated with a 50-Hz sine wave. At the output of the
receiver phase detector, a phase delay of 36 degrees is measured. This indicates a target range of

 a. 15 km
 b. 75 km
 c. 150 km
 d. 300 km

47. A target pulse appears on the CRT 100 microseconds after the transmitted pulse. The target
slant range is

 a. 30 km
 b. 93 miles
 c. 15 km
 d. 15, 000 yards

48. A gated LC oscillator operating at 12.5 kHz is being used to develop range markers. If each
is converted to a range, the range between markers will be

 a. 120 km
 b. 12 km
 c. 1.2 km
 d. 210 km

49. What type of tube best meets the requirements of a modulator switching element?

 a. Thyratron
 b. Magnetron
 c. Klystron
 d. Phanotron

50. What type of transmitter power is measured over a period of time?

 a. Peak
 b. Return
 c. Average
 d. Reciprocal