17/01/2024 Code-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06 Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered :
Physics:
Work Energy and Power
System of Particles and Rotational Motion
Laws of Motion
Chemistry:
Thermodynamics
Equilibrium
Botany:
Biological Classification
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Zoology:
Body Fluids and Circulation
Locomotion and Movement
Excretory Products and their Elimination
Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates)
Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Physics

1. A wheel initially at rest, starts rotating with a 2. A block of mass m is placed on the rough
uniform angular acceleration. The wheel inclined plane as shown in figure. If angle of
rotates through an angle θ1 in first second repose for the block is 60°, then coefficient of
and through an additional angle θ2 in next friction between the block and inclined plane
θ2 will be
two second. The value of is
θ1

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 1
4

(4) 1

–
(1) √2
–
(2) √3

(3) 4

(4) 1

√3

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OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

3. The centre of mass of the system of three 7. A body of mass m starts to move on a
particles having masses and locations as circular path of radius r. At any instant of time
shown in the figure, has coordinates (in m) its speed is u and tangential acceleration cx,
where c is a positive constant and x is
distance travelled by particle. The gain in
kinetic energy in one complete revolution is
(1) 1 cmπ 2 r2
2

(2) 1
cmπ r
2 2

(3) 2
2π mcr
2

(4) cmπ r
2 2

8. The minimum work done to accelerate a

(1) (1.2, 2.4) truck on a horizontal road from rest to speed
(2) (2.4, 2.4) v
(3) (1.2, 1.2) (1) Is less than that required to accelerate
it from v to 2v
(4) (2.4, 1.2)
(2) Is equal to that required to accelerate it
from v to 2v
4. A machine gun fires n bullets per second (3) Is more than that required to accelerate
and the mass of each bullet is m kg. If v (m/s) it from v to 2v
is the speed of each bullet, then the force (in
N) exerted on the machine gun is (4) May be any one of the above
(1) 3nmv
(2) mvn 9. The potential energy function for the force
between two atoms in a diatomic molecule is
(3) mnv
6 a b
given by U (x) = − , where a and
(4) mnv 12
x
6
x
10
b are constants and x is the distance
between the atoms. The value of x for which
5. A body of mass 6 kg is lowered down with the system of atoms in equilibrium is
help of a string with downward acceleration (1) 1

g 2a 6

4
. The work done by the string on the body (
b
)

in first 3 s after start of the motion is (g = 10 (2) 1

m/s2 ) (
a
)
6

b
(1) –675 J
(3) 1

(2) –506.25 J (
a
)
3

2b
(3) –2025 J
(4) Zero (4) 1

b 6

( )
2b

6. Two persons of masses 60 kg and 80 kg

respectively, are at the opposite ends of a 10. If a force is applied to a body externally, then
boat. The length of the boat is 4.0 m and it’s momentum’s
weighs 100 kg. Both persons move towards (1) Magnitude must vary
each other and sit in the middle of the boat.
The centre of mass of the system shifts by (2) Direction must vary
(neglect water friction) (3) Magnitude may remain constant
(1) 0.25 m (4) Magnitude must remain constant
(2) 0.5 m
(3) 0.75 m 11. A body constrained to move along the z-axis
(4) zero of a co-ordinate system is subject to a
→
constant force F given by
→
ˆ ˆ ˆ
F = (2 i + 3 j − 5k)N. Work done by
this force in moving the body by a distance
of 6 m along negative z-axis is
(1) 10 J
(2) 20 J
(3) 30 J
(4) 40 J

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OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

12. The linear momentum (p) of a moving body 17. Work is said to be done by a force on a body
varies with time (t) as shown in the figure. if
The magnitude of net force acting on body at (1) The body has displacement in the
t = 2.8 s is direction of force
(2) The angle between force and
displacement vector is other than 90°
(3) The angle between force and
displacement vector is 90°
(4) Both (1) and (2)

18. A fan is rotating with a speed of 360

rev/minute. It comes to rest in 6 s, on
(1) 40 N switching off the switch. The number of
(2) 10 N revolutions made by it before coming to rest
is
(3) 5N
(1) 9
(4) 20 N
(2) 27
(3) 18
13. Potential energy function is defined for
(4) 36
(1) Conservative forces
(2) Non-conservative forces
19. A bullet moving with a speed of 100 m/s can
(3) Air drag just penetrate two planks of equal thickness.
(4) Both (A) and (B) Now if speed is doubled, then number of
such planks required to stop the bullet will
be
14. The potential energy of a system decreases
if (1) 8
(1) Conservative forces do positive work (2) 10
on the system (3) 6
(2) Conservative forces do negative work (4) 5
on the system
(3) Conservative forces do no work on the
system
20. If the acceleration of block A is 2 m/s2 , then
the acceleration of block B is (If all the
(4) Both (B) and (C) surface are smooth)

15. In the figure shown if all the surfaces are

smooth and strings are inextensible. The
ratio of T1 to the T2 is (1) 1 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2
(1) 5:3 (4) 4 m/s2
(2) 2:3
(3) 5:2
21. A : The value of potential energy depends
(4) 1:1 on the reference taken for zero potential
energy.
16. A particle of mass 2 kg located at the R : The value of change in potential energy
is independent from reference level.
ˆ ˆ
position ( i + j) m has a velocity (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
ˆ ˆ ˆ
the reason is the correct explanation of
2( i – j + k) m/s. Z-component of its the assertion
angular momentum about origin is (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(1) Zero the reason is not the correct
(2) +8 explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(3) 12
is false
(4) –8
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

3
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

22. A rod is slipping against vertical wall and 27. A block of mass m is kept on frictionless
horizontal floor as shown in the figure. For plank as shown in figure below. If plank is
what value of angle θ, speed of end B is pulled with a horizontal acceleration a, then
twice the speed of end A? maximum compression in the spring is
(spring constant of spring is k)

(1) mg

(2) ma

(3) 2ma

(1) sin–1 (2) k

(4) 2mg

(2) cot–1 (2) k

(3) cos–1 (2)

(4) tan–1 (2) 28. The radius of gyration of a uniform solid
sphere of radius r about a tangential axis is
−−
(1) 5
√ r
23. Two springs A and B, having force constant 3

KA and KB (KA = 3KB ) are stretched by (2) 2

r
applying equal forces. If energy stored in A 3

−
−
is E, then that in B is (3) 2
√ r
(1) E 5

3
−
−
(4) 7
(2) E √
5
r

(3) 3E
(4) 9E
29. Match the list I with list II.
List-I List-II
24. If angular velocity of disc depends on angle
A. Angular acceleration P. J s
rotated θ as ω = θ2 + 2θ + 1 (where ω is in
rad/s and θ is in rad), then its angular B. Moment of inertia Q. kg m2
acceleration at θ = 1 rad is
C. Torque R. rad/s2
(1) 12 rad/s2
D. Angular momentum S. N m
(2) 16 rad/s2
(1) A→R, B→Q, C→S, D→P
(3) 10 rad/s2
(2) A→Q, B→R, C→P, D→S
(4) 4 rad/s2
(3) A→Q, B→P, C→R, D→S
(4) A→R, B→S, C→R, D→S
25. Which law of motion expresses the idea of
inertia?
30. A constant power P is supplied to a particle
(1) First law of motion of mass m. The distance travelled by the
(2) Second law of motion particle when its velocity increases from v1
(3) Third law of motion to v2 is (Neglect friction)
(4) All of these (1) 3P
(v
2 2
−v )
m 2 1

(2) m
(v2 – v1 )
26. The potential energy of a body of mass 2 kg 3P

is given as U = 3x + 4y. The magnitude of (3) m

(v
3 3
−v )
3P 2 1
acceleration of body is
(4) m
(v
3 2
−v )
(1) 2.5 m/s2 2P 2 1

(2) 4 m/s2
31. If net force acting on a system is zero, then
(3) 3.5 m/s2
(1) Its kinetic energy may increase
(4) 2 m/s2
(2) Its kinetic energy must be zero
(3) Its momentum is conserved
(4) Both (1) and (3)

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OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

32. Statement A: Energy is cause for doing 38. Two springs P and Q (KP = 4KQ ) are
work and work is the effect. stretched by applying force of equal
Statement B: Energy is scalar quantity but magnitude at the four ends. If energy stored
power is a vector quantity. in Q is E, then in P will be
(1) A and B are correct (1) 4E
(2) A and B are incorrect (2) E
4
(3) A is correct and B is incorrect –
(3) E √2
(4) A is incorrect and B is correct
(4) E

33. CGS unit of work is

(1) Slug 39. A block of mass 5 kg is pulled by a force of
(2) Dyne 30 N on horizontal surface as shown in
(3) Erg figure. If acceleration of block is 3 ms–2 , then
coefficient of friction is
(4) Joule

34. In a conservative field, if positive work is

done on a system by the field, (Assume no
other force is present) then
(1) Kinetic energy of the system decreases
(2) Potential energy of the system (1) 0.1
increases (2) 0.2
(3) Potential energy of the system (3) 0.3
decreases (4) 0.4
(4) Both (1) and (2)
40. A 2 kg mass moving along x-axis whose
35. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is fixed acceleration-position graph is shown in
at one end released from horizontal position figure. The work done on the particle from 2
as shown in the figure. The angular velocity m to 8 m is
of the rod when the rod makes an angle 60°
with vertical is

−−
(1) 4g
√
3l

−−
(2) 2g
√
l

−−
(3) 3g (1) 45 J
√
l
(2) Zero
−−
(4) 3g (3) 30 J
√
2l
(4) 15 J

36. A constant torque of 1000 Nm starts turning 41. If a man speeds up by 1 m/s, his kinetic
a wheel of moment of inertia 200 kgm2 energy increases by 44%. His original
initially at rest about an fixed axis through its speed in m/s is
centre. Its angular velocity after 2 s from start (1) 1
will become
(2) 2
(1) 1 rad/s
(3) 5
(2) 5 rad/s
(4) 4
(3) 10 rad/s
(4) 15 rad/s

37. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.6, then

collision is
(1) Perfectly elastic collision
(2) Perfectly inelastic collision
(3) Inelastic collision
(4) May be perfectly elastic or inelastic

5
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

42. →
ˆ ˆ ˆ
→
ˆ ˆ
44. For the structure shown in figure, moment of
If A = 2 i − 3 j + 7k, B = i + 2k and inertia about an axis passing through yy' is
→
ˆ ˆ
C = j − k, then the value of
→ → →
A ⋅ (B × C ) is

(1) Zero
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

43. ˆ ˆ ˆ
A force of (3 i + 4 j + 5k) N acts on a
body for 2 seconds and produces a (1) 2M L
2

3
ˆ ˆ ˆ
displacement of (2 i + 3 j + 2k) m. (2) ML
2

Calculate the average power 3

(1) 7 W (3) 8M L
2

(2) 14 W (4) 4M L
2

(3) 9 W 3

(4) 12 W
45. A small bead starts sliding from A on a
frictionless wire as shown in figure. On
reaching B, the speed of bead will be (g = 10
m/s2 ).

–
(1) 3√2 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
–
(3) 5√2 m/s
(4) 50 m/s

Chemistry

46. When 5 moles of an ideal gas is expanded 47. For a sparingly soluble salt (A2 B3 ) the
at 350 K reversibly from 5 L to 40 L, then the relationship of its solubility product (Ksp ) with
entropy change for the process is (R = 2 cal its solubility (S) is
mol–1 K–1 ) (1) K = 108S5
sp
(1) 9.01 cal K–1
(2) K = 27S4
(2) 20.8 cal K–1 sp
(3) Ksp = 81S5
(3) –15.2 cal K–1
(4) Ksp = 72S5
(4) 22.3 cal K–1

6
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

48. A : The pH of aqueous solution prepared by 52. Consider the following reactions and their
the salt of weak acid and strong base is less reaction enthalpies:
than 7. (i) CaO (s) + CO2 (g) → CaCO3 (s); ΔrH° = –
R : When a salt is ionized in water, there is
178.3 kJ mol–1
always net increase of H+ ion concentration
(ii) 6C (s) + 3H2 (g) → C6 H6 (l); ΔrH° = + 49
in solution making it acidic.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and kJ mol–1
1
the reason is the correct explanation of (iii) CO2 (g) → CO (g) + 2
O2 (g); ΔrH° =
the assertion +283 kJ mol–1
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Now, choose the correct statement among
the reason is not the correct the following
explanation of the assertion (1) Standard enthalpy of formation of CO is
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason –283 kJ mol–1
is false
(2) Formation of benzene is an exothermic
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false process
statements
(3) Decomposition of CO2 into CO and O2
involves evolution of heat
49. If enthalpy change for the evaporation of a (4) Standard enthalpy of formation of
liquid at 127°C is 20 kJ mol–1 then the CaCO3 is not equal to –178.3 kJ mol–1
entropy change for the process will be
(1) 20 J mol–1
(2) 50 J mol–1
53. ΔcH° for butane is –2658 kJ mol–1 . The
amount of heat released by complete
(3) 75 J mol–1 combustion of 5.8 g of butane is
(4) 100 J mol–1 (1) 265.8 kJ
(2) 458.2 kJ
50. If ΔrG° for any reaction is –2.303 then, the (3) 1329 kJ
value of equilibrium constant K is (4) 2652.2 kJ
(1) 10RT
(2) 2.303/ RT 54. For the reaction, A2 (g) + B (g) ⇌ A2 B(g) +
10
heat.
(3) 10
1/ RT
The equilibrium shifts in the forward
(4) RT/2.303 direction
10
(1) By increasing the concentration of A2 B
(g)
51. H+ ion concentration in H2 O at 90°C will be (2) By decreasing the pressure
(1) 10–7 (3) By decreasing the temperature
(2) More than 10 –7 (4) By adding inert gas at constant
pressure
(3) Less than 10–7
(4) Zero
55. For the following reaction
AB(g) ⇌ A(g) + B(g) , AB is
1
rd dissociated at a total equilibrium
3

pressure of P. P is related to Kp by which one

of the following options?
(1) P = Kp
(2) P = 8Kp
(3) P = 4Kp
(4) P = 3Kp

7
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

56. For a MX3 type salt, if Ksp is solubility 62. Which of the following has non-zero
product, then solubility will be enthalpy of formation?
− − −
(1) K sp
(1) Graphite
√
4 (2) White phosphorus
−−−
(2) Ksp (3) Br2 (l)
√
27

−−−
(4) Ozone
(3) 3
Ksp
√
27

−−− 63. Given below are two statements: one is

(4) Ksp
√
4
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
27
labelled as Reason R:
Assertion: Unit of KP for 2SO3 (g) ⇌ 2SO2 (g)
57. Which of the following is not correct + O2 (g) is atmosphere.
expression? Reason: Atmosphere is SI unit of pressure.
(1) pKw = pH + pOH In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
(2) Kn =
Kw
(for NH4 CN) below
Kb

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and

(3) [ Salt ]
pH = pKa + log (For buffer of the reason is the correct explanation of
Acid ]
[
the assertion
CH3 COONa + CH3 COOH)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(4) pH = 7 +
1
pK
1
log C (For salt
+ the reason is not the correct
2 2 a

of weak acid and strong base at 25°C) explanation of the assertion

(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
58. Which among the following is a Lewis acid?
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) H2 O statements
(2) B2 H6
(3) NH3 64. Which of the following mixture of solutions
(4) CH3 OH can behave as a buffer solution?
(1) 10 mL of 1 M HCl + 10 mL of 1 M
NH4 OH
59. The unit of equilibrium constant KP for the
(2) 10 mL of 1 M HCl + 10 mL of 0.5 M
reaction, CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2 (g) is NH4 OH
(1) atm
(3) 10 mL of 0.5 M HCl + 10 mL of 0.5 M
(2) atm2 NH4 OH
(3) atm–1 (4) 10 mL of 0.5 M HCl + 10 mL of 1 M
(4) atm–2 NH4 OH

60. Which among the following is an extensive

property?
(1) Temperature
(2) Pressure
(3) Density
(4) Entropy

61. Two sparingly soluble salts AB2 and XY

have same Ksp . Compare the solubility of
two salts.
(1) XY is more soluble
(2) AB2 is more soluble
(3) Both have same solubility
(4) XY is 10 times more soluble than AB2

8
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

65. Which among the following plots between ln 69. If the pH of a solution is 4, then the
1
Kp and ( T ) (where Kp is equilibrium hydroxide ion concentration in the solution
would be
constant and T is temperature) represents
an exothermic reaction? (1) 10–4
(1) (2) 10–12
(3) 10–10
(4) 10–14

70. The heat of formation of AB is

(2) – 50 kJ mol–1 . If the bond dissociation
energy of A2 and B2 are 10 and 20 kJ mol–1
respectively then the bond dissociation
enthalpy of AB is (in kJ mol–1 ) is
(1) 50
(2) 20
(3) (3) 80
(4) 65

71. 3 g of PCl5 was completely vaporised at

327°C in a closed vessel of 1.5 litre capacity.
If the partially dissociated PCl5 at this
(4) temperature exert a pressure of 0.82 atm at
equilibrium then degree of dissociation of
PCl5 at the given temperature will be (R =
0.082 L atmK–1 mol–1 , molar mass of PCl5 =
208.5)
(1) 0.62
(2) 0.41
(3) 0.74
66. Given :
1
N2 +
1
O2 ⇌ NO, KC = 5
2 2 (4) 0.92
The value of equilibrium constant (KC) for
the reaction N2 + O2 ⇌ 2 NO will be 72. The unit of KP in the following reaction is
(1) 5 CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2 (g)
(2) 25 (1) bar2
(3) 2.23
(2) bar–1
(4) 125
(3) bar
(4) bar–2
67. The degree of dissociation of PCl5 is 50% at
400 K and 1.0 atm pressure for the gaseous
reaction PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) . 73. Among the following, select the salt of
Assuming ideal behaviour the density of highest solubility
equilibrium gaseous mixture at 400 K and Given [Ksp (NiS) > Ksp (MnS) > Ksp (ZnS) >
1.0 atmosphere will be (Atomic mass of P = Ksp (CdS)]
31.0 u) (1) NiS
(1) 4.85 g/litre (2) ZnS
(2) 5.20 g/litre (3) MnS
(3) 4.24 g/litre (4) CdS
(4) 2.42 g/litre
74. pH of the solution obtained by mixing 20 mL
68. The total entropy at equilibrium stage is of 0.2 M H2 SO4 and 40 mL of 0.2 M
(1) Zero Mg(OH)2 is
(2) Minimum (1) 0.875
(3) Maximum (2) 12.825
(4) Negative (3) 13.125
(4) 13.855

9
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

75. Consider the two processes: 81. For the given reaction
C3 H8 (g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2 O(g); A2 + B2 ⇌ 2AB

ΔH° = – 488 kcal/mol The initial molar concentration of A2 , B2 and

C(s) +
1
O2 (g) → CO(g); ΔH
∘
= −26 AB is 6M, 5M and 2.5M respectively. If molar
2
concentration of AB at equilibrium becomes
kcal/mol 4.5M then the equilibrium constant of the
The correct statement is reaction will be
(1) Enthalpy of formation of CO(g) is –26 (1) 2.01
kcal/mol (2) 1.01
(2) Enthalpy of formation of CO2 (g) is –488 (3) 4.51
kcal/mol
(4) 2.81
(3) Enthalpy of combustion of C3 H8 (g) is –
244 kcal/mol
82. pH of 0.05 M aqueous solution of weak acid
(4) Enthalpy of combustion of C(s) is –13
kcal/mol HA (Ka = 4 × 10–4 ) is
(1) 4.70
76. For the reaction A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ 2C(g) + (2) 2.35
D(s), the ratio of KP to KC is (3) 3.39
(1) 1 (4) 1.30
(2) (RT)
(3) (RT)2 83. Which of the following represents standard
(4) (RT) –2 enthalpy of formation (ΔHf0 )?
(1) C( graphite) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

77. For the reaction, (2) 2 CO (g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g)

CO(g) + H2 O(g) ⇌ CO2 ( g) + H2 ( g) , (3) C( diamond) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

at a given temperature, the equilibrium
amount of CO2 (g) can be increased by (4) H (g) + F (g) 2HF(l)
2 2
(1) Adding an inert gas at constant
pressure
84. A : The ionisation of AgCl(s) in water is
(2) Adding an inert gas at constant volume suppressed on addition of NaCl.
(3) Decreasing the volume of the container R : Common ion effect decreases the
(4) Increasing the amount of CO(g) solubilty.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
78. The maximum solubility of Ag2 CO3 in 0.02 M the assertion
Na2 CO3 is (Ksp of Ag2 CO3 is 8 × 10–12 ) (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(1) 4 × 10–10 M the reason is not the correct
– explanation of the assertion
(2) √2 × 10–4 M
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(3) 2 × 10–5 M is false
(4) 1 × 10–5 M (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

79. Enthalpy of neutralisation of four acids A, B,

C and D with NaOH are –10.5, –13.7, – 5.9 85. The value of ΔH and ΔS for the reaction,
and –12.7 kcal eq–1 respectively. Out of A, B, C( graphite) + CO2 (g) → 2 CO(g) are
C and D strongest acid is 170 kJ and 170 J K–1 respectively. This
(1) C reaction will be spontaneous at
(2) A (1) 950 K
(3) D (2) 900 K
(4) B (3) 750 K
(4) 1200 K
80. If the mean bond energies of C–H and C–C
bonds are x and y kJ/mole respectively then
the heat of atomisation of ethane is
(1) 3y + x
(2) 6y + x
(3) 6x + y
(4) y + 3x

10
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

86. A : If a refrigerator's door is kept open, then 88. Bond dissociation energy of CH4 is 360
room will get heated. kJ/mole and C3 H8 is 820 kJ/mole. The bond
R : Heat transfer from a colder body to Hotter dissociation energy of (C – C) bond is
body is a spontaneous process.
(1) 50 kJ/mole
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of (2) 80 kJ/mole
the assertion (3) 120 kJ/mole
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (4) 210 kJ/mole
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
89. The dissociation energy of CH4 (g) is 360
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false kcal mol–1 and that of C2 H6 (g) is 620
kcal/mol. The C–C bond energy is
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements (1) 260 kcal/mol
(2) 180 kcal/mol
87. Relation between ΔG° and K is (3) 130 kcal/mol
(1) ΔG° = 2.303 RT logK (4) 80 kcal/mol
(2) ΔG° = –2.303 RT logK
(3) RT 90. For a given reaction, ΔH = –46.5 kJ mol–1
ΔG° = − logK
2.303
and ΔS = 15.5 J K–1 mol–1 . If ΔH and ΔS do
(4) ΔG° =
2.303
logK not vary with temperature then the reaction
RT is spontaneous at
(1) T = 3000 K
(2) T = 4000 K
(3) T = 300 K
(4) All of these

Botany

91. Structure that holds the leaf blade to sunlight 94. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
is Basidiomycetes
(1) Midrib (1) Asexual spores are conidia
(2) Pulvinus (2) Vegetative reproduction is by
(3) Rachis fragmentation
(4) Petiole (3) Sex organs are absent
(4) Dikaryotic phase is long lived
92. In Bougainvillea, thorns are the
modifications of 95. Select the odd one out w.r.t. the members of
(1) Leaf lamina family Poaceae.
(2) Stem (1) Triticum
(3) Petiole (2) Brassica
(4) Calyx (3) Zea mays
(4) Oryza
93. In fungi, sporangiospores are
(1) Produced inside sporangia and are 96. How many of the given below feature(s)
non motile is/are associated with racemose
inflorescence?
(2) Produced inside sporangia and are
a. Flowers arise laterally
sexual motile spores
b. Seen in members of fabaceae family
(3) Nonmotile and exogenously produced c. Younger flowers are present towards the
(4) Motile and exogenously produced apex
d. Arrangement of flowers is basipetal
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

11
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

97. The mycelium is septate and branched in 104. Which of the following regions / structure is
(1) Basidiomycetes and phycomycetes responsible for the growth of root in length?
(2) Zygomycetes and ascomycetes (1) Meristematic region
(3) Deuteromycetes and oomycetes (2) Region of elongation
(4) Basidiomycetes and deuteromycetes (3) Root cap
(4) Region of maturation
98. A common feature between members of
kingdom Fungi and Plantae is 105. Select the correct statement w.r.t. labelled
(1) Being autotrophic structure in given diagram.
(2) Presence of cell wall
(3) Composition of cell wall
(4) Absence of nuclear membrane

99. Find the mismatched pair.

(1) Acetobacter aceti – Vinegar production
(2) Bacillus vulgaris – Ammonification
(3) Nitrosomonas – N2 fixation
(4) Lactobacillus – Curd production
(1) A : Non-peptidoglycan cell wall
100. The peculiar feature which distinguishes (2) B : Vegetative cell having chlorophyll a
E.coli from Claviceps is that the latter and b.
(1) Has polysaccharide in cell wall (3) C : Heterocyst for nitrogen fixation in
aerobic condition
(2) Produces meiotic haploid spores
(4) C : Lacks PS-II activities
(3) Is heterotrophic in nature
(4) Has 70S ribosomes
106. Select the kingdom in which all members
are heterotrophic.
101. Diadelphous condition in pea shows that
(1) Plantae
(1) Out of total stamens, only two stamens
(2) Monera
are fused together
(3) Fungi
(2) Total two stamens are present
(4) Protista
(3) Stamens are united into two bundles
(4) Both types of sex organs are present
107. Panthera leo and Canis familiaris are
(1) Placed in same Kingdom and same
102. Match the following columns and select the
genus
correct option.
(2) Placed in different orders and different
Column II families
Column I
(Aestivation of (3) Placed in same Kingdom and different
(Flower)
petals) families
a. Gulmohur (i) Valvate (4) Placed in different Kingdom and
different orders
b. Calotropis (ii) Twisted

China 108. Which of the following is not a similarity

c. (iii) Vexillary
rose between offsets and runners?
d. Bean (iv) Imbricate (1) They have roots at their nodes
(2) Both are sub-aerial modifications of
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) stem
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) They have green-photosynthetic leaves
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) at their nodes
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) Shorter size of internodes

103. Which floral family has 1 + 2 + (2)

arrangement of petals in the corolla?
(1) Malvaceae
(2) Rutaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Caesalpiniaceae

12
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

109. In some plants growing in swampy areas 115. The transfer of genetic material of one
such as Rhizophora, many roots come out of bacterium to another through sex pili is
ground and grow vertically upwards and called
helps it to get oxygen for respiration are (1) Transduction
called
(2) Conjugation
(1) Storage root
(3) Transformation
(2) Pneumatophores
(4) Translocation
(3) Prop roots
(4) Stilt roots
116. I. Present in the gut of ruminants.
II. Biogas production
110. Match the following columns and select the III. Chemoautotrophic nutrition
correct option. IV. Obligate anaerobes
Column I Column II Above features are related with
(1) Methanogens
Amoeboid
a. (i) Plasmodium (2) Halophiles
protozoan
b. Ciliated protozoan (ii) Trypanosoma (3) BGA
(4) Eubacteria
c. Sporozoan (iii) Entamoeba
Flagellated
d. (iv) Paramoecium 117. Which one of the following is odd w.r.t. mode
protozoan
of nutrition?
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (1) Rhizobium
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) Frankia
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) Anabaena
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) Azotobacter

111. The type of phyllotaxy in which a pair of 118. A : Petals such as standard, wings, keel are
leaves arise at each node on opposite site is associated with papilionaceous aestivation.
seen in R : Twisted aestivation is found in the flowers
(1) Alstonia and Nerium of Cassia.
(2) Guava and Calotropis (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(3) Shoe flower and sunflower the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(4) China rose and guava
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
112. Which of the following statement/feature is explanation of the assertion
incorrect for lichens? (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(1) Symbiotic association between algae is false
and fungi (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(2) They are dual or composite organisms statements
(3) Phycobiont is the dominant partner and
is mostly a member of chlorophyceae
(4) Are considered as indicators of SO2
pollution

113. The smaller subunits of outer thin loose

covering called envelope present in viruses
like HIV is called
(1) Capsomeres
(2) Capsid
(3) Peplomeres
(4) Polymer

114. Which of the following plants have

tetramerous flowers?
(1) Tomato
(2) Tulip
(3) Sunhemp
(4) Mustard

13
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

119. Match the following columns and select the 122. Identify the plant family with the help of floral
correct option. formula given below and select the option
Column I Column II for the plant which is an example of this
family.
a. Amoeboid (i) Floats
protozoans passively
in water
currents
b. Diatoms (ii) Marine (1) Petunia
forms (2) Sweet pea
have
(3) Tulip
silica
shells (4) Brassica
c. Ciliated (iii) Most of
protozoans them 123. Role of rhizome is
have two (1) Providing support
flagella
(2) Perennation
d. Dinoflagellates (iv) Have a
cavity (3) Absorption of water and minerals
(gullet) (4) To perform photosynthesis
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) 124. An infectious acellular sub-viral agent
consist of abnormally folded proteins and
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
responsible for causing diseases affecting
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) brain.
Which of the following option is incorrect for
this infectious agent?
120. In the three-domain system, Monera can be
studied under (1) Similar in size to viruses
(1) One domain (2) Causes kuru disease in humans
(2) Three domains (3) Is present inside capsid of larger
viruses
(3) Two domains
(4) Discovered by Alper et al.
(4) Five kingdoms

125. Which of the given plants of family Fabaceae

121. Match the following column-I with column-II
is used as an ornamental plant?
and choose the correct option.
(1) Sesbania
Column-I Column-II
(2) Lupin
Marine forms have
Flagellated (3) Pea
a. (i) silica shell on their
protozoan (4) Muliathi
surface
Include organism
which cause a 126. Select the wrong statement.
Ciliated
b. (ii) disease that has a (1) Halophiles can tolerate extreme saline
protozoan
staggering effect on condition
human population
(2) Mycoplasma is non motile
They have gullet that
Amoeboid (3) Chemosynthesis require
c. (iii) opens to the outside of
protozoan photosynthetic pigments
the cell surface
(4) Majority of bacteria are decomposers
Its parasitic form
d. Sporozoans (iv) cause disease like
sleeping sickness 127. The main function of stem in most of plants is
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (1) Conduction of water and minerals from
leaves to roots
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) Storage of food and photosynthesis
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Spreading out branches bearing
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) leaves, flowers and fruits
(4) Vegetative propagation and protection
from high light intensity

14
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

128. Whorled phyllotaxy is seen in 132. Read the following statements.

(1) Calotropis (a) They are modified axillary buds
(b) They are spirally coiled and help plants
(2) Guava
to climb
(3) Alstonia (c) Can be seen in gourds
(4) China rose Above features are true for
(1) Leaf spines
129. A : Unisexual flower is a complete flower (2) Stem tendrils
with all four whorls. (3) Stem thorns
R : Flowers with united calyx are referred to (4) Leaf tendrils
as polysepalous.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of 133. Lateral meristems are represented by
the assertion (a) Cork cambium
(b) Interfascicular cambium
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(c) Fascicular vascular cambium
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion (1) Only (b) is correct
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (2) Only (a) and (c) are correct
is false (3) Only (c) is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4) All (a), (b) and (c) are correct
statements
134. Which of the following is not a similarity
130. All are correct statements w.r.t between offsets and runners?
phycomycetes, except (1) Production of roots at their nodes
(1) Aplanospores are exogenously (2) Both are sub-aerial modifications of
produced stem
(2) Aseptate and multinucleated mycelium (3) Presence of green-photosynthetic
(3) Can be aquatic in habitat leaves on their nodes
(4) Formation of zygospores (4) Size of internodes

131. Flower is epigynous and ovary is said to be 135. A lateral branch with short internodes and
inferior in each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a
(1) Rose tuft of roots is found in
(2) Petunia (1) Pistia and Eichhornia
(3) Bittergourd (2) Mint and Jasmine
(4) Brinjal (3) Banana and Pineapple
(4) Opuntia and Euphorbia

Zoology

136. Nearly A per cent of CO2 is transported 137. A double walled membranous bag that
¯¯¯¯¯¯ protects human heart is called
by RBCs whereas B per cent of it is
(1) Perimysium
¯¯¯¯¯¯
carried as bicarbonates. (2) Pericardium
Choose the option which fills the blanks A
and B correctly. (3) Perimetrium
A B (4) Peritoneum

(1) 97 : 7
138. Part of the excretory system that connects
(2) 3 : 7 kidney to urinary bladder is/are
(3) 20-25 : 70 (1) Renal pelvis
(4) 70 : 20 – 25 (2) Collecting duct
(1) (1) (3) Ureters
(2) (2) (4) Urethra
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

15
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

139. Read the following statements w.r.t. the 145. Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in
human respiratory system. urine are indicative of
Statement A : Left primary bronchus divides (1) Diabetes insipidus
into secondary bronchi which further divide
(2) Diabetes melliltus
into tertiary bronchi and bronchioles.
Statement B : Only trachea and the primary (3) Uremia
bronchi are supported by cartilaginous rings. (4) Cystitis
Choose the correct option.
(1) Both statements are correct
146. The juxta-glomerular cells are stimulated to
(2) Both statements are incorrect produce renin in case of
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (1) Fall in GFR
(4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct (2) Rise in blood pressure
(3) Rise in glomerular blood flow
140. Elimination of urea in urine is a result of the (4) Increase in GFR
process known as
(1) Tubular secretion
147. Read the following statements and choose
(2) Ultrafiltration the correct option.
(3) Active absorption Statement-A : 70-80 percent of electrolytes
(4) Selective reabsorption and water are reabsorbed by the proximal
convoluted tubules.
Statement-B : PCT is lined by brush
141. Which of the following plasma proteins do bordered simple cuboidal epithelium.
not participate in coagulation of blood? (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Albumin (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Prothrombin (3) Both statements are correct
(3) Fibrinogen (4) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Thrombokinase
148. A person having blood group O can receive
142. A : From Aschelminthes to Mollusca, animals blood from a person having blood group
are said to be protostomous. (1) O only
R : Blastopore develops into mouth during
(2) A, B, O only
embryonic development.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (3) AB, O only
the reason is the correct explanation of (4) A, B, AB, O
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but 149. Maximum number of action potentials are
the reason is not the correct generated by
explanation of the assertion
(1) SAN
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(2) AVN
is false
(3) Bundle of His
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements (4) Purkinje fibres

143. Under normal physiological conditions, 150. Given the following values, calculate the net
erythropoiesis in an adult male occurs in filtration pressure and select the correct
option
(1) Kidneys and bone marrow
GHP = 60 mm Hg, BCOP = 30 mm Hg,
(2) Liver and kidneys CHP = 20 mm Hg
(3) Spleen (1) 70 mm Hg
(4) Red bone marrow (2) 50 mm Hg
(3) 10 mm Hg
144. The maximum volume of air a person can (4) 110 mm Hg
breath in after a forced expiration is termed
as
151. Individuals with which blood group lack
(1) Inspiratory capacity
antibodies in plasma?
(2) Functional residual capacity
(1) O
(3) Total lung capacity
(2) A
(4) Vital capacity
(3) B
(4) AB

16
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

152. Read the following statements and choose 158. Choose the correct pair of muscles involved
the correct option. only during forceful exhalation in humans.
Statement A : Sweat produced by sweat (1) Diaphragm and external intercostal
glands is a watery fluid containing NaCl, muscles
small amount of urea, lactic acid etc.
(2) Diaphragm and internal intercostal
Statement B : Sebaceous glands eliminate
muscles
certain substances like sterols,
hydrocarbons and waxes through sebum. (3) External intercostal and internal
intercostal muscles
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect (4) Internal intercostal muscles and
abdominal muscles
(3) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
(4) Both statements are correct
159. Select the correct option stating the factor
which can cause oxygen dissociation curve
153. In human body, which cells show to shift right or to left respectively.
pseudopodial movements? (1) High pO , low H+ ion concentration
2
(1) Hepatocytes and erythrocytes
(2) Low pCO2 , high BPG concentration
(2) Macrophages and leucocytes
(3) High H+ concentration, high pO2
(3) Leucocytes and spermatozoa
(4) Macrophages and thrombocytes (4) Low BPG concentration, low pO2

154. Due to increasing airborne allergens, 160. Proximal convoluted tubule of the nephrons
people suffering from respiratory disorder is lined by
manifest wheezing due to (1) Simple squamous epithelium
(1) Reduction in the secretion of (2) Simple cuboidal brush border
surfactants by pneumocytes epithelium
(2) Proliferation of fibrous tissue and (3) Simple ciliated columnar epithelium
damage of alveolar walls
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium
(3) Inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles
(4) Benign growth on mucous lining of 161. The part of JG nephrons which dips into the
alveoli renal medulla is
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Glomerulus
155. A person with blood group ‘O’ has
(1) Antigen A on RBCs and anti B (3) Loop of Henle
antibodies in plasma . (4) Distal convoluted tubule
(2) No antigen on RBCs but both anti A
and anti B antibodies in plasma 162. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. normal
(3) Antigen A and B on RBCs, but neither expiration.
anti A nor anti B antibodies in plasma. (1) Volume of thorax decreases
(4) Antigen A and B on RBCs and both anti (2) Decrease in pulmonary volume
A and anti B antibodies in plasma
(3) Ribs and sternum are raised
(4) Diaphragm relaxes
156. Maximum reabsorption of electrolytes from
nephric filtrate occurs in region lined by
163. Complete the analogy from option below
(1) Brush bordered columnar epithelium
Leukocytes : Immunity :: Thrombocytes :
(2) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium ____
(3) Ciliated bordered cuboidal epithelium (1) Blood clotting
(4) Simple squamous epithelium (2) Oxygen transport
(3) Defense
157. Most toxic nitrogenous waste product among (4) Maintain blood pressure
the following is
(1) Ammonia
164. The partial pressure of oxygen in
(2) Urea deoxygenated and oxygenated blood (in
(3) Uric acid mm Hg) respectively is
(4) Amino acids (1) 159 and 104
(2) 95 and 45
(3) 45 and 40
(4) 40 and 95

17
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

165. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin to 170. The decrease in O2 affinity of haemoglobin

attain hemostasis in the presence of due to rise in pCO2­ at tissue level is termed
(1) Fibrin as
(2) Fibrinogen (1) Bohr’s effect
(3) Thrombokinase (2) Haldane’s effect
(4) Sodium ions (3) Hamburger’s phenomenon
(4) Chloride shift
166. Choose the incorrect match.
Respiratory Defined Amount 171. Select the mismatch w.r.t. a cardiac cycle in
capacity as (in ml) a man under normal physiological
(1) Inspiratory capacity TV+IRV 3500 ml conditions.
(2) Expiratory capacity TV+ERV 1600 ml (1) Duration of a cardiac cycle : 0.8
seconds
(3) Vital capacity IC+EC 5100 ml
(2) Stroke volume : Approximately 70 mL
Functional residual
(4) ERV+RV 2500 ml (3) Second heart sound : Closure of
capacity
semilunar valves
(1) (1)
(4) First heart sound : Blood is pumped
(2) (2) from auricles into ventricles
(3) (3)
(4) (4) 172. If a man has 20 g haemoglobin per 100 ml of
blood and 1 g of haemoglobin transports 2.3
167. A : Hepatic vein carries maximum amount of ml oxygen then, how much oxygen will be
urea. transported by 100 ml of blood?
R : Renal vein carries minimum amount of (1) 20 ml
urea. (2) 8.7 ml
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (3) 46 ml
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (4) 23 ml
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct 173. During joint diastole, all the four chambers of
explanation of the assertion heart are in
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (1) Contracted state
is false (2) Relaxed state
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) Partially contracted state
statements
(4) Empty state

168. Choose the incorrect statement regarding

174. Selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions occurs
blood pressure
in
(1) Diastolic pressure is always greater
than systolic pressure (1) PCT and Henle’s loop
(2) Blood pressure is greater in aorta than (2) DCT and Henle’s loop
the inferior vena cava (3) Collecting duct and DCT
(3) Normal blood pressure is registered as (4) Collecting duct and Henle’s loop
Systolic/Diastolic mmHg
(4) 200/100 mmHg pressure can cause 175. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t counter
damage to the vital organs current mechanism.
(1) Osmolarity of filtrate increases while
169. The first heart sound i.e. Lub is associated moving down the descending limb of
with the loop of Henle
(1) Closure of semilunar valves (2) There will be no urine formation if loop
(2) Closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid of Henle is absent in mammalian
valves nephrons
(3) Opening of the tricuspid and bicuspid (3) NaCl and urea maintain the osmolarity
valves gradient in medulla
(4) Opening of the semilunar valves (4) Osmolarity of fluid moving out from the
collecting duct is four times that of
plasma

18
OYM Practice Test for AIATS-06

176. Read the following statements (i – v) and 178. An increase in blood flow to the atria of heart
answer the question which follows them. can stimulate the release of
(i) Wall of artery and vein consists of three (1) ANF from kidney
layers.
(2) ADH from posterior pituitary
(ii) Tunica intima of blood vessels consists of
collagen fibres. (3) ANF from heart
(iii) Tunica media of blood vessels consists (4) Renin from kidney
of smooth muscles and elastic fibres.
(iv) Tunica media is thinner in the veins in
comparison to arteries. 179. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli
(v) Open circulatory system is present in of the lungs is
arthropods and most of annelids. (1) Less than that in the arterial blood
How many of the above statements are (2) More than that in the arterial blood
correct?
(3) Equal to that in the venous blood
(1) One
(4) Less than that in the tissue
(2) Two
(3) Three
180. pO2 among the following is least in
(4) Four
(1) Alveoli
(2) Oxygenated blood
177. Podocytes form filtration slits through which
the blood is filtered are modified (3) Deoxygenated blood
(1) Smooth muscle fibres (4) Atmospheric air
(2) Epithelial cells of glomerulus
(3) Elastic fibres
(4) Epithelial cells of Bowman's capsule

19