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Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 1 Reproduction in Organisms

1. Gametes are usually

( A ) Haploid
( B ) Diploid
( C ) Polyploid
( D ) Nulliploid
Answer-( A )

2. Yeast reproduces by means of

( A ) Budding
( B ) Fragmentation
( C ) Pollination
( D ) All of these
Answer-( A )

3. Flowers of Vallisneria spp are

( A ) Anemophilous
( B ) Entomophilous
( C ) Hydrophilous
( D ) Zoophilous
Answer-( C )

4. Reproduction by budding occurs in

( A ) Yeast
( B ) Paramoecium
( C ) Penicillium
( D ) All of these
Answer-( A )

5. What is the number of chromosomes present in human gametes

( A ) 21
( B ) 23
( C ) 44
( D ) 46
Answer-( B )

6. Oviparous are :
( A ) Hen
( B ) Snake
( C ) Crocodile
( D ) All of these
Answer-( D )

7. Diploid is :
( A ) Ovum
( B ) Pollen
( C ) Both A and B
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( D ) Zygotes
Answer-( D )

8. Aril is edible in which of the following fruits ?

( A ) Myristica
( B ) Litchi
( C ) Annona
( D ) All of these
Answer-( B )

9. Which one of the following is insectivorous plant ?

( A ) Drosera
( B ) Nepenthes
( C ) Both A & B
( D ) Hydrila
Answer-( B )

10. One meiosis produces how many male gametes ?

(A)4
(B)1
(C)2
(D)8
Answer-( D )

11. MMC has 24 chromosomes . What will be the number of chromosomes in its endsoperm ?
( A ) 12
( B ) 24
( C ) 36
( D ) 48
Answer-( C )

12. Ephyra larva found in Aurelia is formed by :

( A ) Regeneration
( B ) Segmentation
( C ) Fragmentation
( D ) Strobilation
Answer-( D )

13. Strobilanthus Kunthiana ( Neelak uranji ) flowers once in 12 years . The last time this plant
flowered during september – october 2006. It is found in hilly areas in :
( A ) Kerala and Kamataka
( B ) Orissa
( C ) Andhra Pradesh
( D ) Maharashtra
Answer-( A )

14. Gerontology means study of :

( A ) birds
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( B ) bones
( C ) ageing
( D ) earth
Answer-( C )

15. Endosperm provides food to the growing :

( A ) seeds
( B ) fruit
( C ) endosperm
( D ) embryo
Answer-( D )

16. Which one in the following is called ” Terror of Bengal ” ?

( A ) Eichhornia
( B ) Penicillium
( C ) Bambusa
( D ) others
Answer-( A )

17. The plants which flower and fruit only once in their life are
( A ) Monocarpic
( B ) Polycarpic
( C ) Vegetative plants
( D ) reproductive plants
Answer-( A )

18. Polyembryony commonly occurs in

( A ) banana
( B ) tomato
( C ) potato
( D ) Citrus
Answer-( D )

19. Lever mechanism of pollination is found in :

( A ) Antirrhinum
( B ) Ficus
( C ) Wheat
( D ) Salvia
Answer-( D )

20. Pollination induces the abscission of all floral organs except one . That organ is :
( A ) anther
( B ) pistil
( C ) sepals
( D ) receptacles
Answer-( B )

21. Process of fusion of haploid cells is :

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( A ) Cell cycle
( B ) Meiosis
( C ) Mitosis
( D ) Syngamy
Answer-( D )

22. Which one undergoes longitudinal binary fission ?

( A ) Euglena
( B ) Plasmodium
( C ) Planaria
( D ) Paramoecium
Answer-( A )

23. What would be chromosome number of cells in aleurone layer if megaspore mother cell has
ten chromosomes ?
( A ) 10
( B ) 15
( C ) 20
( D ) 25
Answer-( B )

24. What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant
species with 8 chromosomes in its synergids ?
( A ) 16
( B ) 24
( C ) 32
(D)8
Answer-( B )

25. When offspring in formed by single parent , then it is called :

( A ) Sexual reproduction
( B ) Asexual reproduction
( C ) Both ( A ) & ( B )
( D ) Internal fertilization
Answer-( B )

26. Which of following plants is monoecious ?

( A ) Papaya
( B ) Date palm
( C ) Coconut
( D ) Two of above
Answer-( C )

27. Which are hermaphrodite ?

( A ) Earthworm , Hydra and Leech
( B ) Cockroach , Ascaris and Hydra
( C ) Earthworm , Ascaris and Leech
( D ) Ascaris , Cockroach and Hydra
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Answer-( A )

28. Formation of the whole body of an organism from a small fragment is called :
( A ) morphallaxis
( B ) epimorphosis
( C ) morphogenesis
( D ) metabolism
Answer-( A )

29. The chromosome number is haploid in :

( A ) zygote
( B ) gametes
( C ) embryo
( D ) seed
Answer-( B )

30. In Angiosperms , how many male gametes are formed in pollen tube
( A ) one
( B ) two
( C ) three
( D ) infinite
Answer-( B )

31. The term dioecious is used t describe :

( A ) bisexual condition
( B ) unisexual condition
( C ) hermaphrodite condition
( D ) gynandromorph
Answer-( B )

32. Double fertilization is found in :

( A ) angiosperms
( B ) gymnosperms
( C ) pteridophytes
( D ) bryophytes
Answer-( A )

33. In plants , meiosis occurs in :

( A ) root tip
( B ) pollen grain
( C ) stem tip
( D ) anther
Answer-( D )

34 .Seeds are called products of sexual reproduction because they :

( A ) are formed by fusion of gametes
( B ) give rise to new plants
( c ) can be stored for long time
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( D ) are formed by fusion of pollen tubes

Answer-( A )

35. Bamboo species flower :

( A ) only once in lifetime
( B ) lonce in 12 years
( C ) every year
( D ) twice in 50-100 yrs
Answer-( A )

36. Chromosome number in meiocyte Drosophila ( fruit fly ) is

(A)2
(B)4
(C)6
(D)8
Answer-( D )

37. Life span of crocodile and may fly is respectively :

( A ) 15 years , 1 week
( B ) 30 years , 1 week
( C ) 45 years , 1 month
( D ) 60 years , 1 day
Answer-( D )

38. The nodes are called ” eyes ‘ which will form a new plant in :
( A ) Ginger
( B ) Bryophyllum
( c ) Alocasia
( D ) Potato
Answer-( D )

39. Ciliate motile spores are called :

( A ) aplanospores
( B ) conidia
( C ) zoospores
( D ) ospores
Answer-( C )

40. Where two gametes are similar in appearance , they are called :
( A ) Isogametes
( B ) Heterogametes
( C ) Anisogametes
( D ) Exogamy
Answer-( A )

41. Chromosome number in meiocyte of human beings is :

( A ) 40
( B ) 42
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( C ) 44
( D ) 46
Answer-( D )

42. Sexual reproduction is responsible for :

( A ) restoring diploid condition
( B ) creation of identical young ones
( C ) no any role in evolution
( D ) restoring haploid condition
Answer-( A )

43. Amphimixis is :
( A ) reaction of antifertilizin and fertilizin
( B ) fusion of male and female pronuclei
( C ) formation of reception cone by ovum
( D ) penetration of sperm into ovum
Answer-( B )

44. Sporogenesis is :
( A ) development and formation of spores
( B ) production of mitospores
( C ) production of meiospores
( D ) formation of zygote and embryo
Answer-( A )

45. Which is diploid structure ?

( A ) Pollen grains
( B ) Egg
( c ) Megaspore
( D ) MMC
Answer-( D )

46. Vegetative propagation occurs in Mint through :

( A ) Suckers
( B ) Runners
( C ) offsets
( D ) Rhizome
Answer-( A )

47. Maximum life span of Dog is :

( A ) 20 years
( B ) 15 years
( C ) 10 years
( D ) 5 years
Answer-( A )

48. Scion is grafted on stalk . Quality of fruits produced will depend upon genotype of :
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( A ) Scion
( B ) Stalk
( C ) Both A and B
( D ) None of the above
Answer-( A )

49. Process of fusion of haploid cells is

( A ) Cell cycle
( B ) Meiosis
( C ) Mitosis
( D ) Syngamy
Answer-( D )

50 . is vegetatively propagated by leaf segments ?

( A ) Agave and Kalanchoe
( B ) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
( C ) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
( D ) Chrysanthemum and Agave
Answer-( B )

51. The maximum number of chromo some in a flowering plant ( = Poa litorosa ) is 2n = 265 ,
then the minimum number is :
( A ) 2n = 4
( B ) 2n = 14
( C ) 2n = 2
( D ) 2n = 16
Answer-( A )

52. Maize has 10 pair chromosomes . How many linkage groups would it have ?
( A ) 20
( B ) 40
( C ) 10
(D)5
Answer-( C )

53. In which of the following species of plants seeds are produced through apomixis :
( A ) Asteraceae and Grass
( B ) Mustard
( C ) Citrus and Mango
( D ) None of these
Answer-( A )

54. Which of the following animals , is / are ovo – viviparous :

( A ) Hen
( B ) Platypus
( C ) Rattle snake
( D ) Echidna
Answer-( C )
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55. Parthenogenesis occurs in :

( A ) Axolotle Larva
( B ) Miracidium
( C ) Cercaria
( D ) Sporocyst and redia larva
Answer-( D )

56. When male differs from female in morphology , it is called :

( A ) heterogamy
( B ) homogamy
( C ) sexual dimorphism
( D ) hermaphorditism
Answer-( C )

57. Paedogenesis is found in the larvae of :

( A ) Taenia
( B ) Fasciola
( C ) Rana
( D ) Butterfly
Answer-( B )

58. Oblique binary fission is found in :

( A ) Monocystis
( B ) Plasmodium
( C ) Planaria
( D ) Ceratium
Answer-( D )

59. Which one has the capacity to reproduce without fertilization of f 1 eggs ?
( A ) Spider
( B ) Crow
( C ) Honey bee
( D ) Earthworm
Answer-( C )

60. In animals , juvenile phase is followed by :

( A ) vegetative phase
( B ) rep ductive phase
( C ) senescent phase
( D ) old age
Answer-( B )

61. Which is the correct sequence ?

( A ) Gametogenesis – syngamy embryogenesis – zygote
( B ) Syngamy – gametogenesis zygote – embryogenesis
( C ) Gametogenesis – syngamy zygote – embryogenesis
( D ) zygote – embryogenesis syngamy – gametogenesis
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Answer-( C )

62. The term homothallic and monoecious are used to denote

( A ) Bisexual condition
( B ) Unisexual condition
( C ) Staminate flowers
( D ) Pistillate flowers
Answer-( A )

63. What is the maximum age of parrot ?

( A ) 90 years
( B ) 25 years
( C ) 500 years
( D ) 140 years
Answer-( D )

64. No individual is immortal , except :

( A ) single – celled organisms
( B ) green plants
( C ) sponges
( D ) cyanobacteria
Answer-( A )

65. The offspring exactly identical to one another as well as identical to their parents is :
( A ) twins
( B ) replicates
( C ) drones
( D ) clone
Answer-( D )

66. Find the correct combination in the following :

( A ) Zoospore in Sponge
( B ) Gemmules in Pencilium
( C ) Conidia in Algae
( D ) Buds in Hydra
Answer-( D )

67. Grafting in Monocots is rarely successful because :

( A ) Monocots have closed vascular bundles
( B ) Monocots are without cambium
( C ) Monocots are herbaceous
( D ) Monocots have parallel venation
Answer-( B )

68. Grafting in sugarcane can not be performed because :

( A ) Vascular bundles are scattered
( B ) Phloem is internal to xylem
( C ) Sugarcane plant is delicate
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( D ) It is unable to bear injury

Answer-( A )

1. A human female reaches menopause around the age of:

(a) 70 years
(b) 50 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 15 years
► (b) 50 years

2. In an egg, the type of cleavage is determined by

(a) Shape and size of the sperm
(b) Size and location of the nucleus
(c) Amount and distribution of yolk
(d) Number of egg membranes
► (c) Amount and distribution of yolk

3. The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is:

(a) Zona pellucida
(b) Zona radiata
(c) Corona radiata
(d) Chorion
► (c) Corona radiata

4. In grafting, the portion to be grafted on the main plant is called

(a) Stock
(b) Scion
(c) Stem
(d) Adventitious bud
► (b) Scion

5. Eye lens is formed from

(a) Ectoderm
(b) Mesoderm
(c) Endoderm
(d) Ectoderm and Mesoderm
► (a) Ectoderm

6. The chances of survival of young one is greater in ________ organism.

(a) Gemmules
(b) Omniparous
(c) Viviparous
(d) Oviparous
► (c) Viviparous

7. In diploid organism, gametes are produced by meiosis division but in haploid organism
gametes are produced by:
(a) Mitosis
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(b) Meiosis
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Reduction division
► (a) Mitosis

8. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by

(a) Sucker
(b) Rhizome
(c) Offset
(d) Runner
► (a) Sucker

9. Senescence in most of the animals is NOT caused by _____.

(a) Wear and tear
(b) Genetic damage
(c) Lack of Nutrition
(d) Loss of metabolism
► (c) Lack of Nutrition

10. Syngamy can occur outside the body of the organism in:
(a) Fungi
(b) Mosses
(c) Algae
(d) Ferns
► (c) Algae

11. Budding is a method of asexual reproduction found in

(a) Hydra
(b) Honey bee
(c) Bacteria
(d) Virus
► (a) Hydra

12. During regeneration, modification of an organ to other organ is known as

(a) Morphogenesis
(b) Epimorphosis
(c) Morphallaxis
(d) Accretionary growth
► (b) Epimorphosis

13. External fertilisation occurs in the majority of

(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Mosses
(d) Liverworts
► (a) Algae

14. In males, urethra carries

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(a) Urine only

(b) Sperms only
(c) Both of these
(d) None of the above
► (c) Both of these

15. Which of the following is NOT correct about artificial means of vegetative propagation?
(a) Quick production of new plants
(b) Combining good qualities of two different varieties
(c) Economical
(d) Genetic variation
► (d) Genetic variation

16. Identify the wrong statement from the following.

(a) High level of estrogen triggers the ovulatory surge.
(b) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in regular cycle puberty
onwards.
(c) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are poorly motile/non-motile.
(d) Progesterone level is high during the post ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
► (b) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in regular cycle puberty
onwards.

17. A flower having both male and female reproductive parts are termed as______.
(a) Heterolithic
(b) Monoecious
(c) Homolithic
(d) Dioecious
► (b) Monoecious
18. Which one of the following pairs of plant structure has haploid number of chromosome?
(a) Nucellus and antipodal cells
(b) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
(c) Egg and antipodal cells
(d) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cell
► (c) Egg and antipodal cells

19. Select the wrong statement:

(a) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function or behaviour.
(b) In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-
motile.
(c) Chalmydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy.
(d) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour.
► (b) In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-
motile.

20. Menstrual cycle is completed in

(a) 28 days
(b) 31 days
(c) 27 days
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(d) 30 days
► (a) 28 days

21. What is common between vegetative reproduction and apomixis?

(a) Both are applicable to only dicot plants
(b) Both bypass the flowering phase
(c) Both occur round the year
(d) Both produces progeny identical to the parent
► (d) Both produces progeny identical to the parent

22. Termination of gastrulation is indicated by

(a) Obliteration of blastocoel
(b) Obliteration of archenteron
(c) Closure of blastopore
(d) Closure of neural tube
► (a) Obliteration of blastocoel

23. Which of the following is developed by parthenogenesis:

(a) Drones
(b) Queen honey bee
(c) Worker honey bee
(d) Both (b) and (c)
► (a) Drones

24. An edible part of cauliflower is

(a) Inflorescence
(b) Bract
(c) Leaves
(d) Bud
► (a) Inflorescence

25. What is true about cleavage in the fertilized egg of humans?

(a) Meroblastic
(b) Starts when egg reaches uterus
(c) Starts in fallopian tube
(d) It is identical to normal mitosis
► (c) Starts in fallopian tube

26. Meroblastic cleavage refers to which type of division of egg?

(a) Complete
(b) Incomplete
(c) Horizontal
(d) Spiral
► (b) Incomplete

27. Which plant can propagated Vegetatively by leaf?

(a) Bryophyllum
(b) Chrysanthemum
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(c) Agave
(d) Asparagus
► (a) Bryophyllum

28. Which type of vegetative propagation is present in bamboo?

(a) Offset
(b) Offspring
(c) Sucker
(d) Runner
► (c) Sucker

29. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Onion - Bulb
(b) Ginger - Sucker
(c) Chlamydomonas - Conidia
(d) Yeast - Zoospores
► (a) Onion - Bulb

30. The female gametophyte in angiosperm is also known as _______.

(a) Egg
(b) Embryo sac
(c) Carpel
(d) Ovule
► (b) Embryo sac

31. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of :

(a) Stamen and carpel of the same plant
(b) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant
(c) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant
(d) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant
► (c) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

32. Apomixis means_____.

(a) Formation of seeds without fusion of gamete
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Formation of seedless fruit
(d) Vegetative propagation
► (a) Formation of seeds without fusion of gamete

33. What is true about cells during cleavage?

(a) They move from animal pole to vegetal pole
(b) They do not grow in size
(c) They consume little O2
(d) Their divisions resemble ordinary mitosis
► (b) They do not grow in size

34. What is true for cleavage?

(a) Size of embryo increases
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(b) Size of cells decrease

(c) Size of cells increase
(d) Size of embryo decreases
► (b) Size of cells decrease

34. Which of the following is prevented by unisexuality of flowers?

(a) Both xenogamy and geitonogamy
(b) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(c) Autogamy but not geitonogamy
(d) Geitonogamy but not xenogamy
► (c) Autogamy but not geitonogamy

35. The growing embryo (foetus) obtains nutrition from mother's body from
(a) Amnion
(b) Placenta
(c) Amniotic fluid
(d) Heart
► (b) Placenta

36. Blastopore is the opening of

(a) Coelenteron
(b) Coelom
(c) Blastocoel
(d) Archenteron
► (d) Archenteron

Question 1.
Which of the following is a unisexual organism?

Answer:

Question 2.
Which of the following groups is formed only of the hermaphrodite organisms?
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(a) Earthworm, tapeworm, housefly, frog

(b) Earthworm, tapeworm, sea horse, housefly
(c) Earthworm, leech, sponge, roundworm
(d) Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge
Answer:
(d) Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge
Question 3.
Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only?
(a) Amoeba, sponge, leech
(b) Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
(c) Earthworm, sponge, leech
(d) Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
Answer:
(c) Earthworm, sponge, leech
Question 4.
Read the following statements and select the incorrect one.
(a) Cucurbits and coconuts are monoecious plants.
(b) Papayas and date palms are dioecious plants.
(c) Leeches and tapeworms are bisexual animals.
(d) Sponges and coelenterates are unisexual animals.
Answer:
(d) Sponges and coelenterates are unisexual animals.
Question 5.
Meiosis does not occur in
(a) asexually reproducing diploid individuals
(b) sexually reproducing haploid individuals
(c) sexually reproducing diploid individuals
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) asexually reproducing diploid individuals
Question 6.
A diploid parent plant body produces ________ gametes and a haploid parent plant body
produces ________ gametes.
(a) diploid, haploid
(b) haploid, diploid
(c) diploid, diploid
(d) haploid, haploid
Answer:
(d) haploid, haploid
Question 7.
Which of the following organisms has the highest number of chromosomes?
(a) Housefly
(b) Butterfly
(c) Ophioglossum
(d) Onion
Answer:
(c) Ophioglossum
Question 8.
In maize, a meiocyte has 20 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in its
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somatic cell?
(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 20
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 20
Question 9.
If a butterfly has chromosome number 360 in its meiocyte (2n). What will be the chromosome
number in its gametes?
(a) 380
(b) 190
(c) 95
(d) 760
Answer:
(b) 190
Question 10.
In flowering plants, both male and female gametes are non-motile. The method to bring them
together for fertilisation is
(a) water
(b) air
(c) pollination
(d) apomixis
Answer:
(c) pollination
Question 11.
In which of the following plants, sepals do not fall off after fertilisation and remain attached to
the fruit?
(a) Brinjal
(b) Cucumber
(c) Papaya
(d) Bitter gourd
Answer:
(a) Brinjal
Question 12.
Which of the labelled parts in the transverse section of tomato fruit, is/are diploid?

(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Both X and Y
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both X and Y
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Question 13.
The wall of the ovary forms
(a) pericarp
(b) fruit wall
(c) fruit
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b).
Question 14.
The term ‘clone’ cannot be applied to offspring formed by sexual reproduction because
(a) offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
(b) DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on to the offspring
(c) offspring are formed at different times
(d) DNA of parent and offspring are completely different
Answer:
(a) offspring do not possess exact copies of parental DNA
Question 15.
The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome
number in the female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively
(a) 12,24,12
(b) 24,12,12
(c) 12, 24, 24
(d) 24, 12, 24.
Answer:
(c) 12, 24, 24
Question 16.
Appearance of vegetative propagules from the nodes of plants such as sugarcane and ginger
is mainly because
(a) nodes are shorter than intemodes
(b) nodes have meristematic cells
(c) nodes are located near the soil
(d) nodes have non-photosynthetic cells.
Answer:
(b) nodes have meristematic cells
Question 17.
There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because
(a) they cannot reproduce sexually
(b) they reproduce be binary fission
(c) parental body is distributed among the offspring
(d) they are microscopic.
Answer:
(c) parental body is distributed among the offspring
Question 18.
There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism
depends on
(a) the habitat and morphology of the organism
(b) morphology of the organism
(c) morphology and physiology of the organism
(d) the organisms habitat, physiology and genetic makeup.
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Answer:
(d) the organisms habitat, physiology and genetic makeup.
Question 19.
Which of the following is a post-fertilisation event in flowering plants?
(a) Transfer of pollen grains
(b) Embryo development
(c) Formation of flower
(d) Formation of pollen grains
Answer:
(b) Embryo development
Question 20.
The number of chromosomes in the shoot tip cells of a maize plant is 20. The number of
chromosomes in the microspore mother cells of the same plant shall be
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 40
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 20
Question 21.
The growth phase of an organism before attaining sexual maturity is referred to as
(a) juvenile phase
(b) vegetative phase
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)
Question 22.
Select the monocarpic plant out of the following.
(a) Bamboo
(b) Lite hi
(c) Mango
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Bamboo
Question 23.
Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases cannot be observed in
(a) annual plants
(b) perennial plants
(c) biennial plants
(d) ephemeral plants.
Answer:
(b) perennial plants
Question 24.
Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in
(a) 5 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 50 years.
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Answer:
(b) 12 years
Question 25.
Strobilanthus kunthiana differs from bamboo in
(a) being monocarpic
(b) length of juvenile phase
(c) being polycarpic
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) length of juvenile phase
Question 26.
Oestrous cycle is reported in
(a) cows and sheep
(b) humans and monkeys
(c) chimpanzees and gorillas
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) cows and sheep
Question 27.
Which of the following animals show menstrual cycle?
(a) Gorillas and chimpanzees
(b) Monkeys and humans
(c) Orangutans and monkeys
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 28.
Senescent phase of an organism’s life span can be recognised by
(a) slow metabolism
(b) cessation of reproduction
(c) decreased immunity
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these
Question 29.
If a fungal thallus has both male and female reproductive structures, it will be called
(a) heterothallic
(b) homothallic
(c) dioecious
(d) monoecious
Answer:
(b) homothallic
Question 30.
Staminate flowers produce
(a) eggs
(b) antherozoids
(c) fruits
(d) all of these
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Answer:
(b) antherozoids
Question 31.
Single-celled animals are said to be immortal because
(a) they grow indefinitely in size
(b) they can tolerate any degree of change in temperature
(c) they can reproduce throughout their life span
(d) they continue to live as their daughter cells.
Answer:
(d) they continue to live as their daughter cells.
Question 32.
Which of the following has the longest life span?
(a) Banyan tree
(b) tortoise
(c) parrot
(d) Elephant
Answer:
(a) Banyan tree
Question 33.
Select the option which arrnages the given organisms in ascending order of their life span.
(a) Parrot < Crow < Butterfly < Banyan tree
(b) Butterfly < Crow < Parrot < Crocodile
(c) Fruit fly < Crocodile < Parrot < Banyan tree
(d) Parrot < Tortoise < Dog < Crow
Answer:
(c) Fruit fly < Crocodile < Parrot < Banyan tree
Question 34.
________ is a life process that is not essential for an individual’s survival but for survival of
the species.
(a) Growth
(b) Reproduction
(c) Respiration
(d) Nutrition
Answer:
(b) Reproduction
Question 35.
‘Clones’ are individuals that have exactly the same
(a) Lifespan
(b) physiology
(c) growth rate
(d) genetic makeup.
Answer:
(d) genetic makeup.
Question 36.
Which one of the following processes results in the formation of clone of bacteria?
(a) Regeneration
(b) Budding
(c) Binary fission
(d) Fragmentation
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Answer:
(c) Binary fission
Question 37.
Asexual reproduction is seen in members of Kingdom
(a) Monera
(b) Plantae
(c) Animalia
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(d) All of these.
Question 38.
During binary fission in Amoeba which of the following organelles is duplicated?
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Nucleus
(c) Contractile
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Nucleus
Question 39.
Vegetative propagation is the term used for
(a) sexual reproduction in animals
(b) sexual reproduction in plants
(c) asexual reproduction in animals
(d) asexual reproduction in plants.
Answer:
(d) asexual reproduction in plants.
Question 40.
Which of the following is not used for vegetative propagation?
(a) Bud
(b) Bulbil
(c) Turion
(d) Antherozoid
Answer:
(d) Antherozoid
Question 41.
Identify the given organism and find its maximum life span.

(a) Sparrow, 25 years

(b) Crow, 30 years
(c) Crow, 15 years
(d) Eagle, 40 years
Answer:
(c) Crow, 15 years
Question 42.
Which of the following options shows two plants in which new plantlets arise from the same
organ?
 P a g e | 24

(a) Dahlia and ginger

(b) Potato and sweet potato
(c) Dahlia and rose
(d) Potato and sugarcane
Answer:
(d) Potato and sugarcane
Question 43.
Refer to the given figure and identify X in it.

(a) Offset
(b) Eyes
(c) Runner
(d) Bulb
Answer:
(b) Eyes
Question 44.
Fleshy buds produced in the axil of leaves, which grow to form new plants when shed and fall
on ground, are called
(a) bulbs
(b) bulbils
(c) tubers
(d) offsets.
Answer:
(b) bulbils
Question 45.
In which one pair, both the plants can be vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces?
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(b) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(c) Agave and Dioscorea
(d) Bryophyllium and Asparagus
Answer:
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
Question 46.
Identify the given vegetative propagule.

(a) Bulb
(b) Runner
(c) Rhizome
(d) Bulbil
Answer:
(d) Bulbil
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Question 47.
If a leaf cell of Agave has x chromosomes then what will be the number of chromosomes in a
cell of its bulbil?
(a) 2 x
(b) x/2
(c) x/4
(d) x
Answer:
(d) x
Question 48.
Which of the following cannot serve as a vegetative propagule?
(a) A piece of potato tuber with eyes
(b) A middle piece of sugarcane internode
(c) A piece of ginger rhizome
(d) A marginal piece of Bryophyllum leaf
Answer:
(b) A middle piece of sugarcane internode
Question 49.
Which of the following options correctly identifies artificial and natural methods of vegetative
propagation?
Artificial methods – Natural methods
(a) Grafting – Cutting
(b) Layering – Bulbils
(c) Offset – Tissue culture
(d) Tubers – Rhizomes
Answer:
(b) Layering – Bulbils
Question 50.
Sexual reproduction is considered more beneficial than asexual reproduction because
(a) it is not affected by adverse environmental conditions
(b) fertilization is a chance factor
(c) it rapidly multiplies the population
(d) it assists in evolution by producing variations.
Answer:
(d) it assists in evolution by producing variations.
Question 51.
Development of new individual from female gamete without fertilisation is termed as
(a) syngamy
(b) embryogenesis
(c) oogamy
(d) parthenogenesis.
Answer:
(d) parthenogenesis.
Question 52.
Fertilisation cannot occur in absence of surface water in
(a) Fucus
(b) Funaria
(c) Marsilea
(d) all of these.
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Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 53.
Spirogyra is a sexually reproducing alga in which vegetative thallus is haploid. In Spirogyra,
meiosis
(a) never occurs
(b) occurs at time of gamete production
(c) occurs after fertilisation
(d) occurs during vegetative growth.
Answer:
(c) occurs after fertilisation
Question 54.
Life begin in all sexually reproducing organisms as a
(a) single-celled zygote
(b) double-celled zygote
(c) haploid zygote
(d) haploid gametes.
Answer:
(a) single-celled zygote
Question 55.
Which of the following is not correct regarding sexual reproduction ?
(a) It is usually biparental.
(b) Gametes are always formed.
(c) It is a slow process
(d) It involves only mitosis.
Answer:
(a) It is usually biparental.
Question 56.
Offsprings of oviparous animals are at greater risk of survival as compared to those of
viviparous animals because
(a) proper embryonic care and protection is absent
(b) embryo does not develop completely
(c) progenies are of smaller size
(d) genetic variations do not occur.
Answer:
(a) proper embryonic care and protection is absent
Question 57.
Deposition of calcareous shell around zygote occurs in
(a) birds and reptiles
(b) birds and mammals
(c) mammals and reptiles
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) birds and reptiles
Question 58.
Select the option which shows viviparous animals only,
(a) Lizard, Turtile
(b) Platypus, Crocodile
(c) Cow, Crocodile
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(d) Whale, Mouse

Answer:
(d) Whale, Mouse
Question 59.
Which of the following animals give birth to young ones?
(a) Ornithorhynchus and Echidna
(b) Macropus and Pteropus
(c) Balaenoptera and Homo sapiens
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Question 60.
Viviparity is found in
(a) Sharks
(b) lizards
(c) frogs
(d) birds
Answer:
(a) Sharks
Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 2 Sexual Reproduction in flowering plants
1. Amphibians among plants belong to
(A) Algae
(B) Bryophytes
(C) Fungi
(D) Pteridophytes
Ans – (B)
2. Gynoecium is made up of
(A) Stigma
(B) Style
(C) Ovary
(D) All of above
Ans – (D)
3. The monohybrid genotypic ratio 1 2: 1 in F2 generation indicates :
(A) Segregation
(B) Independent assortment
(C) Dominance
(D) Incomplete dominance
Ans – (A)
4. In a fully developed male gametophyte the number of nuclei is :
(A) one
(B) five
(C) three
(D) four
Ans – (C)
5. If an endosperm cell of an angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes
in each cell of the root will be
(A) 8
(B) 4
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(C) 16
(D) 24
Ans – (C)
6. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is
(A) 8-celled
(B) 7-celled
(C) 6-celled
(D) 5-celled
Ans – (B)
7. Feathery stigma occurs in
(A) Pea
(B) Wheat
(C) Datura
(D) Caesalpinia
Ans – (D)
8. How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 100 functional megaspores ?
(A) 100
(B) 50
(C) 25
(D) 26
Ans – (A)
9 How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 100 pollen grains ?
(A) 100
(B) 50
(C) 25
(D) 26
Ans – (C)
10. Pollen grains are
(A) megaspore
(B ) microspore
(C) microsporophyll
(D) microsporangium
Ans – (B)
11. The total number of nuclei involved in double fertilization in angiosperms are :
(A) two
(B) three
(C) four
(D) five
Ans – (D)
12. In which of the following species of plants seeds are produced through Apomixis ?
(A) Asteraceae and grass
(B) Mustard
(C) Citrus and Mango
(D)None of these
Ans – (A)
13. Pollination is the characteristic of
(A) Bryophytes and Angiosperms
(B) Peteridophytes and Angiosperms
 P a g e | 29

(C) Angiosperms and Gymnosperms

(D) Angiosperms and Fungi
Ans – (C)
14. Progeny produced as a result of cross pollination :
(A) Shows high degree of variability and is evolutionary important
(B) is sterile
(C) has recessive characters
(D) is homozygous with phenotypic uniformity
Ans – (A)
15. Pollination occurs when a pollen grain:
(A) releases its sperms nuclei
(B) lands on stigma
(C) matures and has 3 nuclei
(D) releases its sperm nuceli and fertilize the egg and polar nuclei
Ans – (B)
16. Anemophily is pollination through :
(A) animals
(B) insects
(C) birds
(D) air
Ans – (B)
17. Entomophily is pollination through :
(A) water
(B) insects
(C) animals
(D) air
Ans – (B)
18. When the anthers and stigma in an intersexual flower mature at the same time, it is known as
:
(A) allogamy
(B) dichogamy
(C) homogamy
(D) syngamy
Ans – (C)
19. Cross pollination is beneficial because it results in:
(A) formation of male offsprings
(B) weaker progeny
(C) better progeny
(D) fromation of seeds
Ans – (C)
20 The deposition of pollen grains on the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called :
(A) dichogamy
(B) geitonogamy
(C) Xenogamy
(D) hydrogamy
Ans – (B)
21. The true embryo develops as a result of fusion of :
(A) two polar nuclei of embryo sac
 P a g e | 30

(B) egg cell and male gamete

(C) Synergid & male gamete
(D) Male gamete and antipodals
Ans – (B)
22. Which is not a water pollinated plants ?
(A) Zostera
(B) Vallisneria
(C) Hydrilla
(D) Cannabis
Ans – (D)
23. Spiny or Sticky pollen grains and large attractively coloured flowers are associated with :
(A) hydrophily
(B) entomophily
(C) Ornithophily
(D) anemophily
Ans – (B)
24. Male and female flowers are present on different plants to ensure Xenogamy in:
(A) papaya
(B) bottlc gourd
(C) maize
(D) all
Ans – (A)
25. Fusion of one of male gamete with egg nucleus is called :
(A) generative fertilization
(B) Syngamy
(C) Vegetative fertilization
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans – (D)
26. Endospermic seeds are found in :
(A) castor
(B) barley
(C) coconut
(D) all
Ans – (D)
27. Which in the following is not an endospermic seed ?
(A) Pea
(B) Castor
(C) Maize
(D) Wheat
Ans – (A)
28. The endosperm in angiosperms is :
(A) haploid
(B) diploid
(C) triploid
(D) tetraploid
Ans – (C)
29. The endosperm in gymnosperms is :
(A) haploid
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(B) diploid
(C) triploid
(D) tetraploid
Ans – (A)
30. Sexual reproduction was first reported in plants by:
(A) Kolreuter
(B) Camerarius
(C) Van Beneden
(D) Nawaschin
Ans – (D)
31. In flowering plants, unisexual male of flower is called:
(A) Pistillate
(B) Monoecious
(C) Dioecious
(D) Staminate
Ans – (D)
32. The fertile part of stamen is :
(A) anther
(B) filament
(C) connective
(D) ovule
Ans – (A)
33.Flower organs have evolved from modified :
(A) leaves
(C) sporangia
(B) branches
(D) apical meristems
Ans – (A)
34. Polynology is the study of :
(A) Pollen grains
(B) Palms
(C) Flowers
(D) Fruits
Ans – (D)
35. A monothecous anther with two microsporangia is found in :
(A) Brassica
(B) Corianders
(C) Legumes
(D) Hibiscus
Ans – (A)
36. The tissue which attaches the ovules inside the ovary is :
(A) Funicle
(B) Hilum
(C) Placenta
(D) Chalaza
Ans – (C)
37. Point out the odd one :
(A) archesporium
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(B) oogonium
(C) ovule
(D) antheridium
Ans – (C)
38. Mieropyle is found in
(A) ovule
(B) seeu
(C) ovule and seed both
(D) fruit
Ans – (C)
39. Female gametophyte is represented by :
(A) ovule
(B) embryo sac
(C) megaspore mother cell
(D) megasporophyll
Ans – (B)
40. The female gamete of angiosperm is represented by :
(A) egg
(B) carpel
(C) pollen grain
(D) oospore
Ans – (A)
41. The female gametophyte (embryo sac) of a typical dicot (= polygonum) at the time of
fertilization is :
(A) 8-nucleated and 7-celled
(B) 7-nucleated and 8-celled
(C) 4-nucleated and 4-celled
(D) 8-nucleated and 8-celled
Ans – (A)
42. Filliform apparatus characteristic of :
(A) synergids
(B) 3g
(C)anther wall
(D lantipodal cells
Ans – (A)
43. The haploid cell which divide by mitosis to form embryo sac is :
(A) megaspore mother cell
(B) microspore mother cell
(C) functional megaspore
(D) non-functional megaspore
Ans – (C)
44. Largest cell in the ovule is :
(A) MMC
(B) antipodal
(C) eentral cell
(D) size of cells variable
Ans – (C)
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45. When anthers and stigma in an inter sexual flower, mature at different times the condition is
called:
(A) dicliny
(B) dichogamy
(C) herkogamy
(D) cleistogamy
Ans – (B)
46 Maturation of gynaecium before anthers of the same flower is :
(A) Protogyny
(B) Protandry
(C) Heterogamy
(D) Autogamy
Ans – (A)
47. A typical example of cross pollination is:
(A) Wheat
(B) Tomato
(C) Potato
(D) Maize
Ans – (D)
48 For self pollination, a flower should be :
(A) asexual
(B) monosexual
(C) unisexual
(D) bisexual
Ans – (D)
49. Anther represents :
(A) sporogonium
(B) male gametophyte
(C) male sporophyll
(D) sporangium
Ans – (C)
50. The developing pollen derives its nutrition from:
(A) tapetum
(B) endothecium
(C) middle layers
(D) SMC
Ans – (A)
51. Pollen grains are non-green due to
(A) absence of plastids
(B) degeneration of plastids
(C) conversion of plastids into chromoplasts
(D) attraction of vectors
Ans – (A)
52. If there are only four sporogenous cells in an anther, the number of pollen grains will be :
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 12
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Ans – (C)
53. Ploidy in a pollen grain (= cyperus) is :
(A) 5n
(B) 3n
(C) n
(D) 2n
Ans – (C)
54. Pollen grains is related to embryosac as :
(A) sperm to egg
(B) male gametophyte to female gametophyte
(C) male gametophyte to egg
(D) sperm to female gametophyte
Ans – (B)
55. How many pollen mother cells will form 1000 pollen grains ?
(A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 300
(D) 100
Ans – (B)
56. The microspore mother cell in a pollensac of arnther is:
(A) diploid
(B) haploid
(C) tripolid
(D) polyptoid
Ans – (A)
57. Pollen grain with polten tube represents :
(A) male sporophyte
(B) male gametophyte
(C) female sporophyte
(D) female gametophyte
Ans – (A)
58. How many nuclel are present in mature polten ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans – (B)
59.Pollen gains are yellow due to :
(A) flavonoids and carotenoids
(B) sulphur
(C) chromoplast
(D) etiolin
Ans – (A)
60. Cytoplasm of pollen grain is rich in
(A) fat and starch
(B) protein
(C) starch and Ravonoids
(D) DNA
 P a g e | 35

Ans – (A)
61. Cross polination is preferred over self pollination because it
(A) Produces better offspring
(B) Forms new varieties
(C) Induces parthenogenesis
(D ) ls economical
Ans – (A)
62. Anemophily occurs in………….
(A) Salvia
(B) Vallisneria
(C) Coconut
(D) Bottle brush
Ans – (C)
63. During formation of pollen grains, a microspore mother cell undergoes
(A) One meiotic division
(B) One mitotic division
(C) One meiotic and one mitotic division
(D) One meiotic and two mitotic division
Ans – (D)
64. Which of the following will help in making early germination of pollen on stigma ?
(A) P
(B) Ca++
(C) Mo
(D) CI–
Ans – (B)
65. Auxins contained in pollen grains stimulate growth of
(A) pollen tube as well as ovary
(B) only pollen tube
(C) only ovary
(D ) male gametes
Ans – (A)
66. Arrangement of nuclei in normal dicot embryo sac is :
(A) 3 + 3 + 2
(B) 2 + 3 + 3
(C) 3 + 2 + 3
(D) 2 + 4 + 2
Ans – (C)
67. Tapetum which develops into ovule is called :
(A) amoeboid tapetum
(B) glandular tapetum
(C) integumentary tapetum
(D) flagellar tapetum
Ans – (C)
68. In angiosperms, all the four microspores of a tetrad are covered by a layer formed of :
(A) cellulose
(B) sporopollenin
(C) pectose
(D) callose
 P a g e | 36

Ans – (D)
69. Male gametophyte of anglosperms / monocots is :
(A) Mierosporangium
(B) Nucellus
(C) Microspore
(D) Stamen
Ans – (C)
70. In flowering plant a mature gametophyte is derived from a pollen mother cell by:
(A) 3 mitosis
(B) 1 meiosis and three mitosis
(C) 1 melosis and two mitosis
(D) singte meiosis
Ans – (C)
71. Chemically pollen kit is made up of :
(A) proteins
(B) lipids and carotenoids
(C) carbohydrates and carotenoids
(D) sporopollenium
Ans – (B)
72. Night blooming flowers are generally
(A) Light weight
(B) Stunted
(C) Brightly coloured
(D) Bloom in clusters
Ans – (B)
73. When a flower is brightly coloured and secretes nectar, if is most probably :
(A) pollinated by wind
(B) pollinated by insects
(C) an insectivorous plants
(D) sterile flower
Ans – (B)
74. Natural parthenogenesis occurs in :
(A) Drosophila
(B) House fly
(C) Honey bee
(D) All
Ans – (C)
75. Anther is related to :
(A) formation of pollen
(B) development of pollen
(C) opening of flower bud
(D) reception of pollen by stigma
Ans – (C)
76. Formation and differentiation of pollen grains in anther is called :
(A) megasporogenesis
(B) microsporogenesis
(C) spermiogenesis
(D) double fertilization
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Ans – (B)
77. A dithecous anther contains:
(A) 4 microsporangia
(B) 3 microsporangia
(C) 2 microsporangia
(D) 1 microsporangia
Ans – (A)
78. Meiosis in anther occurs in :
(A) endothecium cells
(B) pollens
(C) tapetal cells
(D) spore mother cells
Ans – (D)
79. Pollen grains are produced in :
(A) anther
(B) stigma
(C) filament
(D) polten sac
Ans – (D)
80. The pollen is :
(A) haploid
(B) dipolid
(C) triploid
(D) tetraploid
Ans – A()
81. Sexual of flowering plants reproduction was discovered by :
(A) Camerarius
(B) Nawaschin
(C) Strasburger
(D) Maheswari
Ans – (A)
82. Function of tapetum is
(A) Protective
(B) Nutritive
(C) Respiratory
(D ) All of the above
Ans – (B)
83. Number of chromosomes in root cell is 14. What will be the number in synergids ?
(A) 14
(B) 21
(C) 7
(D) 28
Ans – (C)
84. Proteinaceous endosperm of maize is called
(A) apophysis
(B) scutellum
(C) coleoptile
(D) aleurone layer
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Ans – (D)
85. The ovary of a flower is :
(A) haploid
(B) dipolid
(C) triploid
(D) tetraploid
Ans – (B)
86. In angiosperms the fertilization occurs in :
(A) nucellus
(B) embryo sac
(C) ovary
(D) ovule
Ans – (B)
87. After fertilization, seed coats of seed develop from :
(A) embryo sac
(B) integuments
(C) ovule
(D) chalazal region
Ans – (B)
88. One of the following essential for fertilization is :
(A) Corolla
(B) Mature ovule
(C) Calyx
(D) Fruit
Ans – (B)
89. At the time the pollen tube contains :
(A) two male gametes
(B) two male nuclei
(C) four male gametes
(D) three male gametes
Ans – (A)
90. Double fertilization is the fusion of:
(A) one egg with two sperms
(B) sperm nucleus with egg nucleus as well as with polar nuclei
(C) one male gamete with egg and other male gamete with synergid
(D) one male gamete with egg and other male gamete with secondary nucleus.
Ans – (D)
91. Double fertilization is characteristic of :
(A) dicots and monoctos/all angiosperms
(B) all Gymnosperms
(C) phanerogams
(D) Spermatophytes
Ans – (A)
92. Triple fusion is :
(A) fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei in the embryo sac
(B )fusion of one male gamete with three nuclei in embryo sac
(C) fusion of one male gamete with two synergids
(D )three fusions in one embryo sac
 P a g e | 39

Ans – (A)

Question 1.
What is the function of filiform apparatus in an angiospermic embryo sac?
(a) Brings about opening of the pollen tube
(b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
(c) Prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into a synergid
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid
Question 2.
The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is
(a) 8 – celled
(b) 7 – celled
(c) 6 – celled
(d) 5 – celled
Answer:
(b) 7 – celled
Question 3.
Polygonum type of embryo sac is
(a) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled
(b) 8 – nucleate, 8 – celled
(c) 7 – nucleate, 7 – celled
(d) 4 – nucleate, 3 – celled
Answer:
(a) 8 – nucleate, 7 – celled
Question 4.
Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in
(a) Helianthus
(b) Commelina
(c) Rosa
(d) Gossypium
Answer:
(b) Commelina
Question 5.
Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in
(a) Commelina
(b) Zostera
(c) Salvia
(d) Fig
Answer:
(a) Commelina
Question 6.
Male and female flowers are present on different plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in
(a) papaya
(b) bottle gourd
(c) maize
(d) all of these.
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Answer:
(a) papaya
Question 7.
Feathery stigma occurs in
(a) pea
(b) wheat
(c) Datura
(d) Caesalpinia
Answer:
(b) wheat
Question 8.
Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by
(a) bees
(b) butterflies
(c) birds
(d) wind
Answer:
(d) wind
Question 9.
Which of the following is not a water pollinated plant ?
(a) Zostera
(b) Vallisneria
(c) Hydrilla
(d) Cannabis
Answer:
(d) Cannabis
Question 10.
Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large, attractively coloured flowers are associated with
(a) hydrophily
(b) entomophily
(c) ornithophily
(d) anemophily
Answer:
(b) entomophily
Question 11.
Endospermic seeds are found in
(a) castor
(b) barley
(c) coconut
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these
Question 12.
In albuminous seeds, food is stored in _______ and in non albuminous seeds, it is stored in
_______.
(a) endosperm, cotyledons
(b) cotyledons, endosperm
(c) nucellus, cotyledons
(d) endosperm, radicle
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Answer:
(a) endosperm, cotyledons
Question 13.
Persistent nucellus is called as _______ and is found in _______.
(a) perisperm, black pepper
(b) perisperm, groundnut ‘
(c) endosperm, black pepper
(d) endosperm groundnut
Answer:
(a) perisperm, black pepper
Question 14.
Indentify the wrong statement regarding post-fertilisation development.
(a) The ovary wall develops into pericarp.
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen.
(c) The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into endosperm.
(d) The ovule develops into seed.
Answer:
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen.
Question 15.
Polyembryony commonly occurs in
(a) banana
(b) tomato
(c) potato
(d) citrus.
Answer:
(d) citrus.
Question 16.
An embryo may sometimes develop from any cell of embryo sac other than egg. It is termed
as
(a) apospory
(b) apogamy
(c) parthenogenesis
(d) parthenocarpy
Answer:
(b) apogamy
Question 17.
Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther.
(a) Stamen
(b) filament
(c) pollen grain
(d) androecium
Answer:
(c) pollen grain
Question 18.
The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively
(a) endothecium and tapetum
(b) epidermis and endodermis
(c) epidermis and middle layer
(d) epidermis and tapetum.
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Answer:
(d) epidermis and tapetum.
Question 19.
During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in
(a) endothecium
(b) microspore mother cells
(c) microspore tetrads
(d) pollen grains
Answer:
(b) microspore mother cells
Question 20.
From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the
gynoecium.
(a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
(b) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
(c) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
(d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
Answer:
(a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
Question 21.
Science of cultivation, breeding, marketing and arrangement of flowers is called
(a) arboriculture
(b) floriculture
(c) horticulture
(d) anthology
Answer:
(b) floriculture
Question 22.
Nonessential floral organs in a flower are
(a) sepals and petals
(b) anther and ovary
(c) stigma and filament
(d) petals only.
Answer:
(a) sepals and petals
Question 23.
The stamens represent
(a) microsporangia
(b) male gametophyte
(c) male gametes
(d) microsporophylls.
Answer:
(d) microsporophylls
Question 24.
Anther is generally
(a) monosporangiate
(b) bisporangiate
(c) letrasporangiate
(d) trisporangiate.
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Answer:
(c) letrasporangiate
Question 25.
The anther wall consists of four wall layers where
(a) tapetum lies just inner to endothecium
(b) middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
(c) endothecium lies inner to middle layers
(d) tapetum lies next to epidermis.
Answer:
(b) middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum
Question 26.
The innermost layer of anther is tapetum whose function is
(a) dehiscence
(b) mechanical
(c) nutrition
(d) protection.
Answer:
(c) nutrition
Question 27.
Callase enzyme which dissolves callose of pollen tetrads to separate four pollens is provided
by
(a) pollens
(b) tapetum
(c) middle layers
(d) endothecium.
Answer:
(b) tapetum
Question 28.
In angiosperms various stages of reductional division can best be studied in
(a) young anthers
(b) mature anthers
(c) young ovules
(d) endosperm cells.
Answer:
(a) young anthers
Question 29.
Study of pollen grains is called
(a) micrology
(b) anthology
(c) palynology
(d) pomology
Answer:
(c) palynology
Question 30.
Several pollen grains form a unit designated as pollinium in Family
(a) Asteraceae
(c) Asclepiadaceae Pollen
(b) Cucurbitaceae
(d) Brassicaceae
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Answer:
(c) Asclepiadaceae Pollen
Question 31.
Triple fusion in Capsella bursa pastoris is fusion of male gamete with
(a) egg
(b) synergid
(c) secondary nucleus
(d) antipodal.
Answer:
(c) secondary nucleus
Question 32.
Double fertilisation was first discovered in 1898 by _______ in Fritillaria and Lilium.
(a) Nawaschin
(b) Strasburger
(c) Amici
(d) Focke
Answer:
(a) Nawaschin
Question 33.
If an endosperm cell of an angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes, the number of
chromosomes in each cell of the root will be
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 16
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 16
Question 34.
The cells of endosperm have 24 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in
the gametes ?
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 23
(d) 32
Answer:
(a) 8
Question 35.
The true embryo develops as a result to fusion of
(a) two polar nuclei of embryo sac
(b) egg cell and male gamete
(c) synergid and male gamete
(d) male gamete and antipodals.
Answer:
(b) egg cell and male gamete
Question 36.
Father of Indian embryology is
(a) P. Maheshwari
(b) Swaminathan
(c) R. Misra
 P a g e | 45

(d) Butler
Answer:
(a) P. Maheshwari
Question 37.
The portion of embryonal axis between plumule (future shoot) and cotyledons is called
(a) hypocotyl
(b) epicotyl
(c) coleorhiza
(d) coleoptile.
Answer:
(b) epicotyl
Question 38.
Coleoptile and coleorhiza are the protective sheaths _______ covering _______ and _______
respectively.
(a) plumule, epicotyl
(b) radicle, plumule
(c) plumule, radicle
(d) radicle, hypocotyl
Answer:
(c) plumule, radicle
Question 39.
_______ is not an endospermic seed.
(a) Pea
(b) Castor
(c) Maize
(d) Wheat
Answer:
(a) Pea
Question 40.
Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in
(a) pea and groundnut
(b) maize and castor
(c) castor and groundnut
(d) maize and pea.
Answer:
(a) pea and groundnut
Question 41.
Pollen grain is a
(a) megaspore
(b) microspore
(b) microspore
(d) microsporangium.
Answer:
(b) microspore
Question 42.
How many pollen mother cells should undergo meiotic division to produce 64 pollen grains ?
(a) 64
(b) 32
(c) 16
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(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 16
Question 43.
How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 100 pollen grains ?
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) 26
Answer:
(c) 25
Question 44.
One of the most resistant biological material present in the exine of pollen grain is
(a) pectocellulose
(b) sporopollenin
(c) suberin
(d) cellulose.
Answer:
(b) sporopollenin
Question 45.
What is the function of germ pore ?
(a) Emergence of radicle
(b) Absorption of water for seed germination
(c) Initiation of pollen tube
(d) All of these .
Answer:
(c) Initiation of pollen tube
Question 46.
_______of the pollen grain divides to form two male gametes.
(a) Vegetative cell
(b) Generative cell
(c) Microspore mother cell
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Generative cell
Question 47.
The three cells found in a pollen grain when it is shed at 3-celled stage are
(a) 1 vegetative cell, 1 generative cell, 1 male gamete
(b) 1 vegetative cell, 2 male gametes
(c) 1 generative cell, 2 male gametes
(d) either (a) or (b).
Answer:
(b) 1 vegetative cell, 2 male gametes
Question 48.
Megasporangium along with its protective integuments is called
(a) ovary
(b) ovule
(c) funicle
(d) chalaza
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Answer:
(b) ovule
Question 49.
Mature ovules are classified on the basis of funiculus. If micropyle comes to lie close to the
funiculus the ovule is termed as
(a) orthotropous
(b) anatropous
(c) hemitropous
(d) campylotropous
Answer:
(b) anatropous
Question 50.
When micropyle, chalaza and hilum lie in a straight line, the ovule is said to be
(a) anatropous
(b) orthotropous
(c) amphitropous
(d) campylotropous.
Answer:
(b) orthotropous
Question 51.
Fragrant flowers with well developed nectaries are an adaptation for
(a) hydrophily
(b) anemophily
(c) entomophily
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) entomophily
Question 52.
Pollen kitt is generally found in
(a) anemophilous flowers
(b) entomophilous flowers
(c) ornithophilous flowers
(d) malacophilous flowers
Answer:
(b) entomophilous flowers
Question 53.
Which of these is a condition that makes flowers invariably autogamous ?
(a) Dioecy
(b) Self incompatibility
(c) Cleistogamy
(d) Xenogamy
Answer:
(c) Cleistogamy
Question 54.
Heterostyly as a contrivance for cross-pollination is found in
(a) Pennisetum
(b) Impatiens
(c) Primula vulgaris
(d) Oenothera
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Answer:
(c) Primula vulgaris
Question 55.
The part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature of pollen is
(a) stigma
(b) style
(c) ovary
(d) synergids
Answer:
(a) stigma
Question 56.
Part of the gynoecium which receives the pollen is called
(a) style
(b) stigma
(c) ovule
(d) ovary
Answer:
(b) stigma
Question 57.
Growth of pollen tube towards embryo sac is
(a) chemotropic
(b) thigmotaxis
(c) geotropic
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) chemotropic
Question 58.
During the process of fertilisation the pollen tube of the pollen grain usually enters the
embryo sac through
(a) integument
(b) nucellus
(c) chalaza
(d) micropyle
Answer:
(d) micropyle
Question 59.
Fusion of one of the male gametes with egg nucleus is referred to as
(a) generative fertilisation
(b) syngamy
(c) vegetative fertilisation
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)
Question 60.
The total number of nuclei involved in double fertilisation in angiospersm are
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
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Answer:
(d) five
CBSE Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 3 Human Reproduction

1. Which hormone of pituitary gland regulates Sertoli cells?

(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) GH
(d) prolactin
Ans:-(b)

2. The correct sequence of stages in spermatogenesis are:

(a) spermatogonia →spermatid →spermatocyte →sperm
(b) spermatocyte →spermatogonia →spermatid →sperm
(c) spermatogonia →spermatocyte →spermatid →sperm
(d) spermatid →spermatocyte →spermatogonia →sperm
Ans:-(c)

3. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in

(a) fructose and calcium
(b) glucose and calcium
(c) progesterone and testosterone
(d) potassium and calciumn
Ans:-(a)

4. The signals of parturition originate from

(a) placenta
(b) fully developed foetus
(c) Oxytocin released from pituitary
(d) both placenta and fully developed foetus
Ans:-(d)

5. The Leydig cells are a source of

(afructose
(b) androgens
(c) progesterone
(d) mucus
Ans:-(b)

6. The function of corpus luteum is to produce ofbasgotsmpe

(a) estrogen
(b) progesterone oo
(c) HCG
 P a g e | 50

(d) relaxin ooto

Ans:-(b)

7. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.

(a) In birds and mammals internal fertilisation takes place.
(b) Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients.
(c) Polyspermy in mammals is prevented by the chemical changes in the egg surtace
(d) In the human female implantation occurs almost seven days after fertilisation.
Ans:-(c)

8. Identify the correct statement from the following

(a) High levels of estrogen triggers the ovulatory surge.
(b) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in regular cycles from
puberty onwards.
(c) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are non-motile.
(d) Progesterone level is high during the post ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
Ans:-(d)

9. Spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive
system.
(a) Rete testis
(b) Epididymis
(c) Vasa efferentia
(d) Isthmus
Ans:-(d)

10. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by

(i) Seminal vesicle
(ii) Prostate gland
(iii) Urethra
(iv) Bulbourethral gland
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i),(ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Ans:-(b)

11. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) GnRH stimulates secretion of FSH and LH.
(b) LH stimulates the Leydig cells to secrete androgen.
(C)FSH acts on the Sertoli cells and stimulates spermiogenesis.
(d) None of these
 P a g e | 51

Ans:-(d)

12. Spermiation is the process of release of sperms trom

(a) seminiferous tubules
(b) vas deferens
(C) epididymis
(d) prostate gland
Ans:-(a)

13. Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female
around
(a) 5-8 day of menstrual cycle
(b) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
(C) 18-23 day of menstrual cycle
(d) day of menstrual cycle
Ans:-(b)

14. Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to

(a) its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
(b) reactions within the uterine environment of the female
(C) reactions within the epididymal environment of the male
(d) androgens produced in the uterus
Ans:-(a)

15. Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland?

(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Ampulla
(c) Prostate
(d) Bulbourethral gland
Ans:-(b)

16. The immature male germ cells undergo division to produce sperms by the process of
spermatogenesis. Choose the correct one with reference to above.
(a) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic cell division.
(b) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division.
(C) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo second meiotic division.
(d) Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids.
Ans:-(c)

17. Match between the following representing parts of the sperm and their functions and
choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
 P a g e | 52

(A) Head (i) Enzymes

(B) Middle piece (ii) Sperm motility
(C) Acrosome (iii) Energy
(D) Tail (iv) Genetic material
(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(c) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(d) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
Ans:-(b)

18. Number of chromosomes in polar body of human is

(a) 23
(b) 46
(c) 21
(d) 1
Ans:-(a)

19. Which among the following has 23 chromosomes?

(a) Spermatogonia
(b) Zygote
(C) Secondary oocyte
(d) Oogonia
Ans:-(c)

20. Match the following and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
(A) Trophoblast (i) Embedding of blastocyst in the endometrium
(B) Cleavage (ii) Group of cells that would differentiate as embryo
(C) Inner cell mass (iii) Outer layer of blastocyst attached to the endometrium
(D) Implantation (iv) Mitotic division of zygote
(a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(C) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
Ans:-(b)

21. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?

(a) hCG
(b) Estrogens
(C) Progesterone
(d) LH
Ans:-(d)
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22. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as
(a) epididymis
(b) ejaculatory duct
(c) efferent ductule
(d) ureter
Ans:-(b)

23. Urethral meatus refers to the

(a) urinogenital duct
(b) opening of vas deferens into urethra
(c) external opening of the urinogenital duct
(d) muscles surrounding the urinogenial duct
Ans:-(c)

24. Morula is a developmental stage

(a) between the zygote and blastocyst
(b) between the blastocyst and gastrula
(c) after the implantation
(d) between implantation and parturition
Ans:-(a)

25. The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is

(a) corona radiata
(b) zona radiata
(c) zona pellucida
(d) chorion
Ans:-(a)

26. Identify the odd one from the following.

(a) Labia minora
(b) Fimbriae
(c) Infundibulum
(d) Isthmus
Ans:-(a)

27. What is common in sperms and ovum?

(a) Diploidy
(b) Polyploidy
(c) Haploidy
(d) Presence of same type of chromosomes
Ans:-(c)
 P a g e | 54

28. Sucking of milk takes place through

(a) mammary alveoli
(b) mammary tubules
(C) mammary ampulla
(d) mammary duct
Ans:-(c)

29. Human females are

(a) heterogametic
(b) monogametic
(C) agametic
(d) homogametic
Ans:-(d)

30. Choose the correct statement regarding oxytocin.

(a) It helps in contraction of uterine muscles.
(b) It controls the blood pressure.
(c) It facilitates parturition.
(d) It helps to expand the ligaments.
Ans:-(a)

31. Number of testicular lobules found in each testis of human being is

(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 250
(d) 500
Ans:-(c)

32. Process of delivery of the foetus (child birth) is known as

(a) gastrulation
(b) parturition
(c) gestation
(d) implantation
Ans:-(b)

33. Cells which secrete milk in mammary glands are

(a) acinar cells
(b) chondrocytes
(c) leucocytes
(d) cells of mammary alveoli
Ans:-(d)
 P a g e | 55

34. Stem cells are the part of

(a) ectoderm
(b) mesoderm
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) inner cell mass
Ans:-(d)

35. The number of mammary lobes in each mammary gland is

(a) 30 – 40
(b) 50 – 70
(c) 15-20
(d) 80 – 90
Ans:-(c)

36. “The middle piece of human sperm is considered as the powerhouse of the sperm’. This is
because
(a) it contains numerous mitochondria which produce energy for movement of sperms
(b) it is responsible for the movement of sperms which helps in fertilisation
(c) it holds the DNA of the cell to break through the egg membrane
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans:-(a)

37functional sperms will be formed by a primary oocyte and primary spermatocyte,

respectively.
(a) One, four
(b) Four, one
(c) Four, four
(d) One, one
Ans:-(a)

38. Follicular phase of menstrual cycle is also called

(a) menstruation phase
(b) proliferative phase
(c) luteal phase
(d) ovulatory phase
Ans:-(b)

39. Identify the figure given below.

 P a g e | 56

(a) Morula
(b) Embryo
(c) Trophoblast
(d) Blastocyst
Ans:-(d)

40. In the following diagram of ‘ovum’ identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.

(a) A : Zona pellucida, B : Corona radiata

(b) A : Corona radiata, B: Zona pellucida
(c) A : Yolk sac, B: Zona pellucida
(d) A: Corona radiata, B: Yolk sac
Ans:-(b)

41. The sperms penetrate through the zona pellucida in human ovum with the help of
(a) mitochondria present in the sperm cells
(b) tail as it facilitates sperm motility
(c) both (a) and (b)
 P a g e | 57

(d) secretions from the acrosome

Ans:-(d)

42. Which of the following stimulates the pituitary to release the hormone responsible for
parturition?
(a) Oxytocin
(b) Foetal ejection reflex
(c) Relaxin
(d) Chorionic villi
Ans:-(b)

43. Which of the following statement is true about chorionic villi?

(a) Chorionic villi appear on morula after implantation.
(b) The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interlocked and forms the placenta between
developing embryo and maternal body.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) The blastomeres in blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer. The layer is the chorionic
villi.
Ans:-(b)

44. The embryonic stage that gets implanted in the uterine wall of human female is
(a) morula
(b) trophoblast
(c) blastocyst
(d) gastrula
Ans:-(c)

45. Generally, woman cannot conceive a child after fifty years of age. This is because of
(a) old age
(b) menarche
(c) hormones
(d) menopause
Ans:-(d)

46. In the following diagram of a human foetus within the uterus, identify ‘A’.
 P a g e | 58

(a) Yolk sac

(b) Umbilical cord
(c) Cavity of uterus
(d) Placental villi
Ans:-(a)

47. Choose the correct statement(s).

(i) Androgens are produced by Sertoli cells.
(ii) Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum.
(iii) Menstrual cycle stops during pregnancy.
(iv) Presence/absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.
(a) (i)
(b) (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii), (ii)
(d) (i), (iii), (ii)
Ans:-(b)

48. When does oogenesis and spermatogenesis initiate in

(A) human males and (B) females, respectively?
(a) Foetal stage Puberty
(b) Puberty Puberty
(c) Puberty Foetal stage
(d) Foetal stage Foetal stage
Ans:-(c)

49. Hormones produced only during pregnancy is/are:

(a) human chorionic gonadotropin
(b) human placental lactogen
(c) relaxin
(d) all of these
Ans:-(d)
 P a g e | 59

50. In a female reproductive system, fimbriae are present in

(a) edges of infundibulum
(b) edges of isthmus
(c) edges of perimetrium
(d) uterine fundus
Ans:-(a)

51. Match the number of chromosomes in column I with the cells of human female in column
II.

(a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A

(c) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B
(d) 1-B, 2–C,3-A
Ans:-(b)

52. During ovulation, the egg from ovary are released into
(a) oviduct
(b) uterus
(c) vagina
(d) cervix
Ans:-(a)

53. is the outermost layer of a blastocyst.

(a) Ectoderm
(b) Mesoderm
(c) Trophoblast
(d) Endoderm
Ans:-(c)

54. Choose the odd one out.

(a) Rete testis
(b) Vasa efferentia
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Ampulla
Ans:-(d)

55. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) Sertoli cells nourish the germ cells in the testes.
(b) The finger like projection, fimbriae, help in the collection of ovum into the fallopian tube.
 P a g e | 60

(C) Leydig cells are a source of androgen.

(d) Morula is the developmental stage between the blastocyst and gastrula.
Ans:-(d)

56. Identify the cells that undergo spermiogenesis from the diagram given below.

(a) W
(b) Y
(c) X
(d) z
Ans:-(b)

57. Which of the following is/are the primary sex organ(s) of human male?
(a) Testes
(b) Seminal vesicle
(C) Prostate gland
(d) All of these
Ans:-(a)

58. In human male, the testes descend down into scrotal sac for
(a) spermatogenesis
(b) spermiogenesis
(c) more space to visceral organs
(d) independent functioning of kidney
Ans:-(a)

59. Temperature in scrotum necessary for sperm formation should be

(a) 4°C lower than body temperature
(b) 2°C lower than body temperature
(c) 4°C above body temperature
(d) 2°C above body temperature
Ans:-(b)
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60. The capsule enclosing testes in human is

(a) tunica vasculosa
(b) theca externa
(c) tunica vaginalis
(d) tunica albuginea
Ans:-(c)

61. Interstitial cells or Leydig cells

(a) synthesise androgens
(b) secrete androgens
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Ans:-(d)

62. Common duct formed by union of vas deferens and duct from seminal vesicle is
(a) ejaculatory duct
(b) epididymis
(c) urethra
(d) spermatic duct
Ans:-(a)

63. Which one is unpaired gland in male reproductive system?

(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Prostate gland
(C) Cowper’s gland
(d) None of these
Ans:-(b)

64. What will happen if the vasa deferentia of a man are surgically cut?
(a) Spermatogenesis will be stopped.
(b) Sperms in the semen become non-motile.
(C) Testosterone will disappear from blood.
(d) Semen will be without sperms.
Ans:-(d)

65. Seminal plasma of human is rich in

(a) fructose and magnesium
(b) glucose and calcium
(c) fructose and calcium
(d) glucose and sodium
Ans:-(c)
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66. Which of the following doesn’t contribute to seminal plasma?

(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Prostate
(C) Bulbovestibular gland
(d) Epididymis
Ans:-(c)

67. Match the following representing parts of the sperm and their functions.

(a) A-2, B4, C-1, D-3

(b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(c) A-4, B-1, C—2, D-3
(d) A-2, B-1, C–3, D-4
Ans:-(b)

68. Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from

(a) seminiferous tubules
(b) penis
(c) epididymis
(d) Leydig’s cell
Ans:-(a)

69. In adult human male, sperms are produced

(a) continuously
(b) periodically
(c) just before intercourse
(d) just before ejaculation
Ans:-(b)

70. Which one of the following is not associated with male reproductive system?
(a) Bulbourethral gland
(b) Bulbovestibular gland
(c) Prostate gland
(d) None of these
Ans:-(a)

71. In which of the following parts of the male reproductive system sperms are stored and
nourished ?
(a) Epididymis
(b) Testis
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(c) Seminiferous tubules

(d) Vasa efferentia
Ans:-(c)

72. Introduction of sperms into the female genital tract is called

(a) copulation
(b) capacitation
(c) insemination
(d) fertilisation
Ans:-(d)

73. If Cowper’s glands are removed, they will affect

(a) erection of penis
(b) ova
(c) sperm mobility
(d) sperm protection
Ans:-(d)

74. Which among the following has 23 chromosomes?

(b) Primary spermatocyte
(a) Spermatogonia
(c) Secondary oocyte
(d) Oocytes may not show disjunction
Ans:-(c)

75. In human female, secretion of which of the following hormones doesn’t decrease ds
menopause?
(a) FSH
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) LH
(d) Estrogen
Ans:-(c)

76. Endometrium is part of

(a) ovary
(b) uterus
(c) vagina
(d) urethra
Ans:-(b)

77. Which hormone is responsible for inducing both spermatogenesis and oogenesis?
(a) FSH
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(b) Progesterone
(c) Testosterone
(d) Estrogen
Ans:-(a)

78. Menstrual cycle is influenced by

(a) FSH
(b) Estrogen
(c) LH
(d) All of these
Ans:-(d)

79. Number of eggs released from both ovaries of a non-pregnant woman in a year is
(a) 24
(b) 12
(c) 6
(d) 416
Ans:-(b)

80. Identify the odd one from the following.

(a) Vulva
(b) Fimbriae
(c) Infundibulum
(d) Isthmus
Ans:-(a)

81. Corpus luteum secretes

(a) progesterone
(d) estrogen
(c) both (a) and (b)
(b) relaxin
Ans:-(c)

82. Onset of menstruation is due to

(a) increased progesterone level
(b) increase in level of FSH
(c) fall in progesterone level
(d) decrease in level of FSH
Ans:-(c)

83. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Menstrual cycle is present in all mammals.
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(b) Estrous cycle occurs in all primates.

(c) Menstrual cycle is present in all primates.
(d) Estrous cycle occurs in all mammals.
Ans:-(c)

84. Estrogen is more active during

(a) ovulatory phase
(c) menstrual phase
(b) secretary phase
(d) post-menstrual phase
Ans:-(b)

85. In which phase of meiosis, the first polar body is formed?

(a) Phase of multiplication
(b) Phase of growth
(c) First maturation division
(d) Second maturation division
Ans:-(c)

86. In human female the antrum first develops in

(a) primary follicle
(c)tertiary follicle
(b) secondary follicle
(d) Graafian follicle
Ans:-(b)

87. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) GnRH stimulates secretion of FSH and LH.
(b) LH stimulates the Leydig cells to secrete androgen.
(c) FSH acts on the Sertoli cells and stimulates spermiogenesis.
(d) GnRH stimulates secretion of estrogen.
Ans:-(d)

88. A mature Graafian follicle of human contains

(a) an Ovum
(6) a primary oocyte
(c) a secondary oocyte
(d) an oogonium
Ans:-(c)

89. Ovulation occurs

(a) alternately from two ovaries
 P a g e | 66

(b) simultaneously from both the ovaries

(c) from one ovary throughout the life
(d) according to temperature condition of female body
Ans:-(a)

90. Identify the odd one from the following

(a) Labia minora
(c) Infundibulum
(b) Ampulla
(d) Isthmus
Ans:-(a)

91. Match the column I with column II.

Column I Column II
A. LH 1. Ovulation
B. Progesterone 2. Maturation of Graafian follicle
C. Estrogen 3. Female secondary sexual characters
D. FSH 4. Parturition
E. Oxytocin 5. Pregnancy
(a) A-2, B-5, C-3, D-1, E- 4
(b) A-3, B-1,C-2, D-4 E- 5
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E – 5
(d) A-1, B–5, C-3, D-2, E -4
Ans:-(d)

92. In 28 days of human menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs on

(a) day 1
(b) day 7
(c)day 14
(d) day 21
Ans:-(c)

93. What of the following is the correct sequence of different stages of development?
(a) Zygote-blastula-morula-gastrula
(b) Zygote-morula-gastrula-blastula
(C) Zygote-blastula-gastrula-morula
(d) Zygote-morula-blastula-gastrula
Ans:-(d)

94. After ovulation the remaining follicular cells are transfered into corpus luteum on
influence of hormone
(a) FSH
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(b) estrogen
(c) progesterone
(d) LH
Ans:-(d)

95. Which of the following functions as endocrine gland after ovulation?

(a) Stroma of ovary
(c) Germinal epithelium
(b) Zona pellucida
(d) Graafian follicle
Ans:-(d)

96. In an oocyte, second maturation division occurs in

(a) fallopian tube
(b) ovary
(c) uterus
(d) abdominal cavity
Ans:-(a)

97. At least how many meiotic divisions are required for formation of 100 zygotes?
(a) 150
(b) 125
(c) 400
(d) 200
Ans:-(b)

98. How many sperms and ova will be produced from 50 primary spermatocytes and 50
primaryy 100cytes respectively?
(a) 200 sperms and 200 ovva
(b) 200 sperms and 100 ova
(c) 200 sperms and 50 ova
(d) 50 sperms and 50 ova
Ans:-(c)

99. Which of the following phases is also called luteal phase?

(a) Follicular phase
(c) Menstruation phase
(b) Proliferative phase
(d) Secretory phase
Ans:-(d)

100. Ovary produces

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(a) estrogen
(b) estrogen and progesterone
(c) relaxin
(d) all of these
Ans:-(d)

101. Match the following and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
A. Trophoblast (i) Morphogenetic movement in the endometrium
B. Cleavage (ii) Group of cells which form embryo
C. Inner cell mass (ii) Outer layer of blastocyst
D. Gastrulation (iv) Mitosis but no growth of the embryo
(a) A-(ii), B–(i), C-(iii), D — (iv)
(b) A-(iii), B–(iv), C—(ii), D — (i)
(c) A-(ii), B–(iv), C—(iii), D — (i)
(d) A-(iii), B–(i), C-(ii), D — (iv)
Ans:-(b)

102. In human being, the fallopian tube is a part of

(a) uterus
(b) oviduct
(c) cervix
(d) vagina
Ans:-(b)

103. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human testes?

(a) Androgen
(b) Inhibin
(c) Gonadotropin
(d) None of these
Ans:-(c)

104. Progesterone is secreted by

(a) uterus
(b) corpus luteum
(c) placenta
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans:-(d)

105. In human beings fertilisation occurs in

(a) uterus
(b) coelom
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(c) fimbriated funnel

(d) ampulla
Ans:-(c)

106. Which of the following helps in the penetration of sperm into egg?
(a) Fertilizin
(b) Anti-fertilizin
(c) Sperm lysin
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans:-(c)

107. Zona pellucida disintegrates just

(a) before fertilisation
(b) after fertilisation
(c) midway during cleavage
(d) before implantation
Ans:-(d)

108. Implantation occurs between

(a) 3rd and 5th day after fertilisation
(b) 5th and 7th day after fertilisation
(c) 9th and 11th day after fertilisation
(d) 6th and 10th day after fertilisation
Ans:-(d)

109. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta ?

(a) hCG
(b) hPL
(c) Estrogen
(d) LH
Ans:-(d)

110. Colostrum contains

(a) IgE
(b) IgG
(c) IgM
(d) IgA
Ans:-(d)

111. Solid ball-like structure formed by cleavage is called

(a) blastula
(b) morula
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(c) gastrula
(d) neural tube
Ans:-(b)

112. Which of the following stages of the human embryo is implanted in the uterus?
(a) Morula
(b) Blastocyst
(c) Zygote
(d) Gastrula
Ans:-(b)

113. hCG is secreted from

(a) ovary
(b) uterus
(c) placenta
(d) corpus luteum
Ans:-(c)

114. If for some reason the vasa efferentia in the human get blocked, it will obstruct the
transport of sperms from
(a) penis to vagina
(b) epididymis to vas deferens
(c) testes to epididymis
(d) vagina to cervix
Ans:-(c)

115. Which layer of the uterus is shed off during menstruation?

(a) Endometrium
(b) Perimetrium
(c) Myometrium
(d) All of these
Ans:-(a)

116. Choose the correct statement.

(a) No cell division is involved in spermiogenesis.
(b) Ovulation occurs under the influence of follicle stimulating hormone.
(c) After the release of secondary oocyte, the Graafian follicle develops into corpus callosum.
(d) The outermost thin membranous part of uterine wall is called myometrium.
Ans:-(a)

117. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as

(a) GH
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(b) prolactin
(c) LH
(d) FSH
Ans:-(d)

118. Match the items in column I with the items in column II.
Column I Column II
A. Ovaries 1. Birth
B. Oviduct 2. Fertilisation
C. Vagina 3. Ovulation
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3
(b) A-3, B-2, C-1
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2
(d) A-2, B-3, C-1
Ans:-(b)

119. During spermiogenesis____________ is transformed to____________

(a) spermatogonium to primary spermatocyte
(b) spermatid to sperm
(c) secondary spermatocyte to spermatid
(d) primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
Ans:-(b)

120. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is

(a) FSH, progesterone, estrogen
(b) FSH, estrogen, progesterone
(c) estrogen, FSH, progesterone
(d) estrogen, progesterone, FSH
Ans:-(b)

121. GnRH secreted from hypothalamus acts at the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretio of
(a) FSH
(b) LH
(c) progesterone
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans:-(d)

Question 1.
Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle
(a) at the mind secretory phase
(b) just before the end of the secretory phase
(c) at the beginning of the proliferative phase
 P a g e | 72

(d) at the end of the proliferative phase.

Answer:
(d) at the end of the proliferative phase.
Question 2.
After ovulation Graafian follicle regresses into
(a) corpus atresia
(b) corpus callosum
(c) corpus luteum
(d) corpus albicans
Answer:
(c) corpus luteum
Question 3.
Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane known as
(a) chorion
(b) zona pellucida
(c) corona radiata
(d) vitelline membrane.
Answer:
(c) corona radiata
Question 4.
Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal
menstrual cycle ?
(a) Release of egg : 5 th day
(b) Endometrium regenerates : 5 – 10 days
(c) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation: 11 – 18 days
(d) Rise in progesterone level : 1 – 15 days
Answer:
(b) Endometrium regenerates : 5 – 10 days
Question 5.
If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilised, which one of the following is unlikely ?
(a) Corpus luteum will distintegrate.
(b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines.
(c) Estrogen secretion increases.
(d) Primary follicle starts developing.
Answer:
(c) Estrogen secretion increases.
Question 6.
A human female reaches menopause aroung the age of
(a) 50 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 70 years
(d) 25 years.
Answer:
(a) 50 years
Question 7.
A reaction of granules content which harden the zona pellucida and ensures sure block to
polyspermy is
(a) acrosomal reaction
(b) cortical reaction
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(c) acrosin reaction

(d) bindin reaction.
Answer:
(b) cortical reaction
Question 8.
Which part of the sperm plays an important role in penetrating the egg membrane ?
(a) Allosome
(b) Tail
(c) Autosome
(d) Acrosome
Answer:
(d) Acrosome
Question 9.
In oocyte secondary maturation occurs in
(a) ovary
(b) abdominal cavity
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) uterus.
Answer:
(c) Fallopian tube
Question 10.
Besides activating the egg another role of a sperm is to carry to egg
(a) RNA
(b) mitochondria
(c) DNA
(d) ribosomes.
Answer:
(c) DNA
Question 11.
Preparation of sperm before penetration of ovum is
(a) spermiation
(b) cortical reaction
(c) spermiogenesis
(d) capacitation.
Answer:
(a) spermiation
Question 12
Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from
(a) seminiferous
(b) vas deferens
(c) epididymis
(d) prostate gland
Answer:
(a) seminiferous
Question 13.
Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female around
(a) 5-8 day of menstrual cycle
(b) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
(c) 18-23 day of menstrual cycle
 P a g e | 74

(d) 24-28 day of menstrual cycle.

Answer:
(b) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
Question 14.
Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to
(a) its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
(b) reactions within the uterine environment of the female
(c) reactions within the epididymal environment of the male
(d) androgens produced in the uterus.
Answer:
(a) its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
Question 15.
Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland ?
(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Ampulla
(c) Prostate
(d) Bulbourethral gland
Answer:
(b) Ampulla
Question 16.
Which among the following has 23 chromosomes ?
(a) Spermatogonia
(b) Zygote
(c) Secondary oocyte
(d) Oogonia
Answer:
(c) Secondary oocyte
Question 17.
Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta ?
(a) hCG
(b) Estrogens
(c) Progesterone
(d) LH
Answer:
(d) LH
Question 18.
The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as
(a) epididymis
(b) ejaculatory duct
(c) efferent ductule
(d) ureter
Answer:
(b) ejaculatory duct
Question 19.
Urethral meatus refers to the
(a) urinogenital duct
(b) opening of vas deferens into urethra
(c) external opening of the urinogenital duct
(d) muscles surrounding the urinogenial duct.
 P a g e | 75

Answer:
(c) external opening of the urinogenital duct
Question 20.
Morula is a developmental stage
(a) between the zygote and blastocyst
(b) between the blastocyst and gastrula
(c) after the implantation
(d) between implantation and parturition.
Answer:
(a) between the zygote and blastocyst
Question 21.
The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is
(a) corona radiata
(b) zona radiata
(c) zona pellucida
(d) chorion.
Answer:
(a) corona radiata
Question 22.
Identify the odd one from the following
(a) Labia minora
(b) Fimbriae
(c) Infundibulum
(d) Isthmus
Answer:
(a) Labia minora
Question 23.
Temperature of the scrotum which is necessary for the functioning of testis is always
________ around below body temperature.
(a) 2°C
(b) 4°C
(c) 6°C
(d) 8°C
Answer:
(a) 2°C
Question 24.
Which of the following is correct about mammalian testes ?
(a) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Leydig’s cells
(b) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules
(c) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules, Leyding’s cells
(d) Graafian follicle, leyding’s cells, Seminiferous tubule
Answer:
(c) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules, Leyding’s cells
Question 25.
The nutritive cells found in seminiferous tubules are
(a) Leydig’s cells
(b) atretic follicular cells
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) chromaffin cells.
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Answer:
(c) Sertoli cells
Question 26.
Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) GH
(d) prolactin.
Answer:
(b) FSH
Question 27.
The head of the epididymis at the head of the testis is called
(a) cauda epididymis
(b) vas deferens
(c) caput epididymis
(d) gubernaculum.
Answer:
(c) caput epididymis
Question 28.
Seminal plasma in humans is rich in
(a) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
(b) glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
(c) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
(d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
Answer:
(d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
Question 29.
Prostate glands are located below
(a) gubernaculum
(b) seminal vesicles
(c) epididymis
(d) bulbourethral glands
Answer:
(b) seminal vesicles
Question 30.
The function of the secretion of prostate gland is to
(a) inhibit sperm activity
(b) attract sperms
(c) stimulate sperm activity
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) stimulate sperm activity
Question 31.
Lower narrow end of uterus is called
(a) urethra
(b) cervix
(c) clitoris
(d) vulva.
 P a g e | 77

Answer:
(b) cervix
Question 32.
Bartholin’s glands are situated
(a) on the either side of vagina in humans
(b) on either side of vas deferens in humans
(c) on either side of penis in humans
(d) on either side of Fallopian tube in humans.
Answer:
(a) on the either side of vagina in humans
Question 33.
In human adult females oxytocin
(a) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
(b) causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
(c) is secreted by anterior pituitary
(d) stimulates growth of mammary glands.
Answer:
(b) causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
Question 34.
The third stage of parturition is called “after-birth”. In this stage
(a) excessive bleeding occurs
(b) fetus is bom and cervix and vagina contraction to normal condition happens
(c) fetus is bom and contraction of uterine wall prevents excessive bleeding
(d) placenta is expelled out.
Answer:
(d) placenta is expelled out.
Question 35.
After birth, colostrum is released from mammary glands which is rich in
(a) fat and low in proteins
(b) proteins and low in fat
(c) proteins, antibodies and low in fat
(d) proteins, fat and low in antibodies.
Answer:
(c) proteins, antibodies and low in fat
Question 36.
Spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive
system.
(a) Rate testis
(b) Epididymis
(c) Vasa efferentia
(d) Isthmus
Answer:
(d) Isthmus
Question 37.
Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by
(i) seminal vesicle
(ii) prostate
(iii) urethra
(iv) bulbourethral gland
 P a g e | 78

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Question 38.
In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the
(a) spermatids
(b) spermatogonia
(c) primary spermatocytes
(d) secondary spermatocytes.
Answer:
(d) secondary spermatocytes.
Question 39.
How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte ?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(c) 2
Question 40.
How many sperms are formed from 4 primary spermatocytes ?
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 16
Question 41.
In spermatogenesis, reduction division of chromosome occurs during conversion of
(a) spermatogonia to primary spermatocytes
(b) primary spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes
(c) secondary spermatocytes to spermatids
(d) spermatids to sperms.
Answer:
(b) primary spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes
Question 42.
Which of the following groups of cells in the male gonad, represent haploid cells ?
(a) Spermatogonial cells
(b) Germinal epithelial cells
(c) Secondary spermatocytes
(d) Primary spermatocytes
Answer:
(c) Secondary spermatocytes
Question 43.
The process of release of spermatozoa from Sertoli cells into cavity of the seminiferous
tubules is called
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(a) spermiogenesis
(b) spermatogenesis
(c) spermatocytogenesis
(d) spermiation.
Answer:
(d) spermiation.
Question 44.
The principal tail piece of human sperm shows the microtubular arrangement of
(a) 7 + 2
(b) 9 + 2
(c) 11 + 2
(d) 13 + 2
Answer:
(c) 11 + 2
Question 45.
Acrosome is a type of
(a) lysosome
(b) flagellum
(c) ribosome
(d) basal body.
Answer:
(a) lysosome
Question 46.
Which of the following contains the actual genetic part of a sperm ?
(a) Whole of it
(b) Tail
(c) Middle piece
(d) Head
Answer:
(d) Head
Question 47.
The sperms undergo physiological maturation, acquiring increased motility and fertilising
capacity in
(a) seminiferous tubules
(b) vasa efferentia
(c) epididymis
(d) vagina.
Answer:
(c) epididymis
Question 48.
At what stage of life is oogenesis initiated in a human female ?
(a) At puberty
(b) During menarch
(c) During menopause
(d) During embryonic development
Answer:
(d) During embryonic development
Question 49.
1st polar body is formed at which stage of oogenesis ?
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(a) 1st meiosis

(b) 2nd mitosis
(c) 1st mitosis
(d) Differentiation
Answer:
(a) 1st meiosis
Question 50.
Which one is released from the ovary ?
(a) Primary oocyte
(b) Secondary oocyte
(c) Graafian follicle
(d) Oogonium
Answer:
(b) Secondary oocyte
Question 51.
During oogenesis, each diploid cell produces
(a) four functional eggs
(b) two functional eggs and two polar bodies
(c) one functional egg and three polar bodies
(d) four functional polar bodies.
Answer:
(c) one functional egg and three polar bodies
Question 52.
In oogenesis haploid egg is fertilised by sperm at which stage ?
(a) Primary oocyte
(b) Secondary oocyte
(c) Oogonium
(d) Ovum
Answer:
(b) Secondary oocyte
Question 53.
Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is
(a) corona radiata, zona pellucida and vitelline membrane
(b) zona pellucida, corona rodiata and vitelline membrane
(c) vitelline membrane, zona pellucida and corona radiata
(d) zona pellucida, vitelline membrane and corona radiata.
Answer:
(a) corona radiata, zona pellucida and vitelline membrane
Question 54.
Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation ?
(a) Stroma
(b) Germinal epithelium
(c) Vitelline membrane
(d) Graafian follicle
Answer:
(d) Graafian follicle
Question 55.
The sex of the fetus will be decided at
(a) fertilisation by male gamete
 P a g e | 81

(b) implantation
(c) fertilisation by female gamete
(d) the start of cleavage.
Answer:
(a) fertilisation by male gamete
Question 56.
What is true about cleavage in the fertilised egg in humans ?
(a) It starts while the egg is in Fallopian tube.
(b) It starts when the egg reaches uterus.
(c) It is meroblastic
(d) It is identical to the normal mitosis.
Answer:
(a) It starts while the egg is in Fallopian tube.
Question 57.
Cleavage differs from mitosis in lacking
(a) synthetic phase
(b) growth phase
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) growth phase
Question 58.
The solid mass of 8-16 cells formed from zygote after successive mitotic divisions is called
(a) blastula
(b) gastrula
(c) morula
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) morula
Question 59.
Implantation takes place after __________ of fertilisation.
(a) 5 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 7 days
(d) 8 days
Answer:
(c) 7 days
Question 60.
Structure connecting the fetus to placenta is
(a) umbilical cord
(b) amnion
(c) yolk sac
(d) chorion.
Answer:
(a) umbilical cord
Question 61.
Which of the following hormones is not a secretory product of human placenta ?
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(b) Prolactin
 P a g e | 82

(c) Estrogen
(d) Progesterone
Answer:
(b) Prolactin
Question 62.
Urine test during pregnancy determines the presence of
(a) human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
(b) estrogen
(c) progesterone
(d) luteinising hormone.
Answer:
(a) human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
Question 63.
In the event of pregnancy, the corpus luteum persists under the influence of
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) chorionic gonadotropin
(d) progesterone.
Answer:
(c) chorionic gonadotropin
Question 64.
During the development of embryo, which of the following occurs first?
(a) Differentiation of organ
(b) Differentiation of tissue
(c) Differentiation of organ system
(d) Differentiation of cells
Answer:
(d) Differentiation of cells
Question 65.
The structures derived from ectoderm are
(i) pituitary gland
(ii) cornea
(iii) kidneys
(iv) notochord
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iv).
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii)
Question 66.
Gastrula is the embryonic stage in which
(a) cleavage occurs
(b) blastocoel form
(c) germinal layers form
(d) villi form.
Answer:
(c) germinal layers form
 P a g e | 83

Question 67.
In the development of the human body, the ectoderm is responsible for the formation of
(a) lens of the eye
(b) nervous system
(c) sweat glands
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 68.
The first movements of the fetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed
during which month of pregnancy ?
(a) Fourth month
(b) Fifth month
(c) Sixth month
(d) Third month
Answer:
(b) Fifth month
Question 69.
The early stage human embryo distinctly possesses
(a) gills
(b) gill slits
(c) external ear (pinna)
(d) eyebrows.
Answer:
(b) gill slits
Question 70.
Delivery of developed fetus is scientifically called
(a) parturition
(b) oviposition
(c) abortion
(d) ovulation.
Answer:
(a) parturition
Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 4 Reproductive Health

Here we providing Class 12 Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 4 Reproductive
Health and it will help you to prepare your board exams. Biology MCQs for class 12 chapter with
answers prepared on the basis of latest exam pattern. Students can solve the NCERT Class 12
Biology Reproductive Health to know their preparation level.
We hope that the Chapter 4 Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Reproductive Health help you.
1. Which of the following in sexually transmitted disease
( A ) Syphilis & gonorrhoea
( B ) Syphilis & Tuberculosis
( C ) Tuberculosis & Asthma
( D ) Diptheria & plague
ANSWER-( A )

2. Medical Termination of Pregnancy is very safe upto

( A ) 12 th wk of Foetus
 P a g e | 84

( B ) 20 th wk . of Foetus
( C ) 28 th wk Foetus
( D ) None
ANSWER-( A )

3. In production of test tube babies :

( A ) Fertilization is external and foetus formation internal
( B ) Fertilization is internal and foetus formation external
( C ) Both fertilization and foetus formation internal
( D ) Both fertilization and foetus formation external
ANSWER-( A )

4. A method of sterilisation is :
( A ) IUDCB
( B ) Diaphragm
( C ) Tubectomy
( D ) Loop
ANSWER-( C )

5. Which of the following is mechanical barrier used in birth control ?

( A ) Copper – T
( B ) Diaphragm
( C ) Loop
( D ) Dalcon shield
ANSWER-( B )

6. The test which is used for study of genetic and metabolic defects of an unborn baby is :
( A ) Amniocentesis
( B ) Erythroblastosis
( C ) Angiogram
( D ) Clotting test
ANSWER-( A )

7. Average failure rate of intrauterine contraceptive device is :

( A ) 23 %
( B ) 20 %
(C)1%
(D)4%
ANSWER-( D )

8. Which of the following disease is diagnosed by Australian antigen test :

( A ) AIDS
( B ) Hepatitis
( C ) Genital warts
( D ) Chancroid
ANSWER-( B )

9. In AIDS the drug of choice is :

 P a g e | 85

( A ) acyclovir
( B ) didanosine
( C ) zidovudine
( D ) tetracycline
ANSWER-( C )

10. The test which is misused for sex identification of an unborn baby is :
( A ) clotting test
( B ) amniocentesis
( C ) erythroblastosis
( D ) angiogram
ANSWER-( B )

11. Which of the following is a method of birth control ?

( A ) GIFT
( B ) IVF – ET
( C ) IUCDs
( D ) HTF
ANSWER-( C )

12. Hormone releasing IUCD is :

( A ) Lippes loop
( B ) Multiload 375
( C ) CUT
( D ) LNG – 20
ANSWER-( D )

13. ” Morning After Pills ” can prevent pregnancy if taken within …….. hours .
( A ) 50
( B ) 60
( C ) 30
( D ) 72
ANSWER-( D )

14. Candidiasis is caused by :

( A ) Public Lice
( B ) Vaginal yeast
( C ) Pin worm
( D ) Giant Amoeba
ANSWER-( B )

15. Confirmatory test for syphillis is

( A ) ELISA
( B ) PCR
( C ) VDRL
( D ) DNA hybridisation
ANSWER-( C )
 P a g e | 86

16. Which of the following is a non medicated intrauterine device ?

( A ) CUT
( B ) Lippes Loop
( C ) Cu7
( D ) LNG – 20
ANSWER-( B )

17. World AIDS Day is

( A ) December 21
( B ) December 1
( C ) November 1
( D ) June 5
ANSWER-( B )

18. The common means for transmission of AIDS is :

( A ) Sexual intercourse
( B ) blood transfusion
( C ) Placental transfer
( D ) All of these
ANSWER-( A )

19. The main reason for makin Cooper T most effective and popular Intra uterine device in
female :
( A ) Reduction in fertilization ability of Spermatozoa
( B ) Increased phagocytosis of Spermatozoa due to release of copper ion
( C ) Reduction in motility of spermatozoa
( D ) All of these
ANSWER-( D )

20. Ammiocentesis is a technique to

( A ) determine error in amino acid metabolism in embryo
( B ) Cardiac deformity in Foetus
( C ) determine chromosomal defect in foetus
( D ) All of above
ANSWER-( C )

21. Gonorrhoea and syphilis are common in :

( A ) African countries
( B ) Europeon countries
( C ) All over the world
( D ) Asian countries
ANSWER-( C )

22. Which one of the following is sexually transmited diseases ?

( A ) Typhoid
( B ) Tetanus
( C ) Leprosy
( D ) Hepatitis – B
 P a g e | 87

ANSWER-( D )

23. The main reason for making Copper T – most effective and popular Intra Uterine device in
female
( A ) Reduction in fertilization ability of spermatozoa
( B ) Increased phagocytosis of spermatozoa due to release of copper ion
( C ) Reduction in motility of sperma tozoa
( D ) All of these
ANSWER-( D )

24. Which one is the safest method of birth control ?

( A ) M.T.P .
( B ) Sterlisation technique
( C ) Rhythm method
( D ) use of physical barriers
ANSWER-( B )

25. Nirodh is :
( A ) a type of birth – control pill
( B ) a popular brand of male condom
( C ) An awareness programme to encourage vasectomy
( D ) Related to tubectomy
ANSWER-( B )

26. Chemical method of birth control involves the use of :

( A ) condom
( B ) loop
( C ) cream or jelly
( D ) diaphragm
ANSWER-( C )

27. Which of the following is a mechanical device which prevents pregnancy by preventing
fertilization and an IUCD for birth control ?
( A ) Copper – T
( B ) A combined pill
( C ) Foam
( D ) Abortant pill
ANSWER-( A )

28. Which mechanical device to control child birth is fitted on the cervix ?
( A ) Diaphragm
( B ) Condom
( C ) Loop
( D ) Copper T.
ANSWER-( A )

29. Progesterone present in contraceptive pill is meant for :

( A ) checking ovulation
 P a g e | 88

( B ) preventing fertilisation
( C ) preventing implantation of zygote
( D ) preventing cleavage
ANSWER-( A )

30. A contraceptive pill prevents ovulation by :

( A ) blocking fallopian tube
( B ) inhibiting release of FSH and LH
( C ) stimulating release of FSH and LH
( D ) causing immediate degeneration of released ovum
ANSWER-( B )

31. Polymerase chain reaction ( PCR ) is used for the detection of :

( A ) Genital Herpes
( B ) Malaria
( C ) Small pox
( D ) Measles
ANSWER-( A )

32.Gonorrhoea is a :
( A ) Bacterial disease
( B ) Venereal disease
( C ) STD
( D ) All of these
ANSWER-( D )

33 : Barrier methods of birth control are use of :

( A ) condom
( B ) vaginal pouch
( C ) diaphragm
( D ) all of these
ANSWER-( D )

34. Spermicides kill the sperms in the :

( A ) vagina
( B ) cervix
( C ) Fallopian tubes
( D ) both ( A ) and ( B )
ANSWER-( D )

Question 1.
Which of the following is ART?
(a) IUDs
(b) GIFT
(c) ZIFT
(d) Both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) & (c)
 P a g e | 89

Question 2.
The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
females
(a) who cannot produce an ovum
(b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
(c) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) who cannot produce an ovum
Question 3.
Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable
environment ?
(a) IUD
(b) GIFT
(c) IUI
(d) ICSI
Answer:
(b) GIFT
Question 4.
Which of these can be used to cure infertility in couples where male partner has very low
sperm count ?
(a) IUD
(b) GIFT
(c) IUI
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) IUI
Question 5.
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is
called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET
Answer:
(c) ICSI
Question 6.
Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will
(a) cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) result in decline in growth rate
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) result in an explosive population.
Answer:
(b) result in decline in growth rate
Question 7.
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins .
(c) suppression of gametic transport
 P a g e | 90

(d) suppression of fertilisation.

Answer:
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
Question 8.
A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our
country in
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s
Answer:
(a) 1950s
Question 9.
Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within,
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation.
Answer:
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
Question 10.
From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not
specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhea
(d) Genital warts
Answer:
(b) AIDS
Question 11.
Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination.
(b) They do not interfere with coital act.
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above
Question 12.
The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
(a) ovariectomy
(b) hysterectomy
(c) vasectomy
(d) castration.
Answer:
(c) vasectomy
Question 13.
RCH stands for
(a) routine check-up of health
(b) reproduction cum hygiene
 P a g e | 91

(c) reversible contraceptive hazards

(d) reproductive and child health care.
Answer:
(d) reproductive and child health care.
Question 14.
Amminocentesis is a technique used to
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
(b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
(c) determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
Question 15.
Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
(a) Jaundice
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Colourblindness
Answer:
(a) Jaundice
Question 16.
In which of the following weeks of pregnancy CVS is done ?
(a) 12th – 14th week
(b) 8th – 10th week
(c) 5th – 7th week
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 8th – 10th week
Question 17.
Causes for increased population growth in india is/are
(a) increase in birth rate
(b) decrease in death rate
(c) lack of education
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 18.
Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population ?
(a) Natality and immigration
(b) Mortality and emigration
(c) Natality and emigration
(d) Mortality and immigration
Answer:
(a) Natality and immigration
Question 19.
Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of lower population ?
(a) It increases the poverty of a country.
(b) It leads to shortage of food supply.
(c) It results in unemployment
 P a g e | 92

(d) All of these

Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 20.
The best way to decrease population of a country is
(a) to educate people
(b) to have better houses
(c) to kill people on a large scale
(d) to practice and implement familay planning.
Answer:
(d) to practice and implement familay planning.
Question 21.
Which of the following correctly describes the measures
that can be used to control over-population ?
(a) Educating people about the advantages of a small family
(b) Raising the age of marriage
(c) Encouraging family planning programme
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 22.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive ?
(a) User-friendly
(b) Irreversible
(c) Easily available
(d) Least side-effects
Answer:
(b) Irreversible
Question 23.
Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis ?
(a) Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are not.
(b) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial.
(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.
(d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not.
Answer:
(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.
Question 24.
Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria
only ?
(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
(b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid
(c) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies
(d) Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis
Answer:
(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
Question 25.
Confirmatory test for STDs is
(a) ELISA
(b) PCR
 P a g e | 93

(c) DNA hybridisation

(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 26.
Hepatitis B is transmitted through
(a) blood transfusion
(b) intimate physical contact
(c) sexual contact
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these
Question 27.
The common means of transmission of AIDS is
(a) sexual intercourse
(b) blood transfusion
(c) placental transfer
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 28.
Which of the following STDs are not completely curable ?
(a) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
(b) Chancroid syphilis, genital warts
(c) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
(d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Answer:
(d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Question 29.
World AIDS day is
(a) December 21
(b) December 1
(c) November 1
(d) June 11
Answer:
(b) December 1
Question 30.
In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the
fallopian tube ?
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(c) Embro of 32 cell stage
(d) Zygote only
Answer:
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
Question 31.
The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ?
(a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(b) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
 P a g e | 94

(c) Gamete intra Fallopian transfer

(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
Question 32.
The first case of IVF-ET technique success, was reported by
(a) Louis joy Brown and Banting Best
(b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards
(c) Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
(d) Baylis and Starling Taylor.
Answer:
(b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards
Question 33.
On which of the following facts does the method of periodic abstinence is based ?
(a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation.
(b) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(c) Sperms survive for about 3 days.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 34.
Which of the following is a non-medicated intrauterine device (IUD) ?
(a) CuT
(b) Lippes Loop
(c) Cu7
(d) LNG-20
Answer:
(b) Lippes Loop
Question 35.
Multiload device contains
(a) manganese
(b) iron
(c) copper
(d) calcium
Answer:
(c) copper
Question 36.
Which of the following is not an intrauterine device ?
(a) Progestasert
(b) Multiload-375
(c) Norplant
(d) Lippes loop
Answer:
(c) Norplant
Question 37.
What is the work of copper-T ?
(a) To inhibit ovulation
(b) To inhibit fertilisation
(c) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst
 P a g e | 95

(d) To inhibit gametogenesis

Answer:
(b) To inhibit fertilisation
Question 38.
IUDs prevent pregnancy by
(a) inhibiting physiological and morphological uterine changes required for implantation.
(b) increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within uterus
(c) suppressing motility of sperms as well as their fertilising capacity
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 39.
Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)
(a) prevent ovulation
(b) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(c) decrease phagocytosis of sperms
(d) suppress sperm motility.
Answer:
(d) suppress sperm motility.
Question 40.
The birth control device used by women is
(a) diaphragm
(b) vault
(c) copper T
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 41.
The most important component of oral contraceptive pills is
(a) progesterone-estrogen
(b) growth hormore
(c) thyroxine
(d) luteinising hormone.
Answer:
(a) progesterone-estrogen
Question 42.
Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not allowing
(a) ova formation
(b) fertilisation
(c) implantation
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(a) ova formation
Question 43.
What is true about “Saheli” ?
(i) Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow
(ii) Contains a steroidal preparation
(iii) “Once-a-weak” pill
(iv) Many side effects
 P a g e | 96

(v) High contraceptive value

(vi) Very few side effects value
(vii) Low contraceptive value
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi)
(b) (i), (iii), (v), (vi), (vii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
Question 44.
What is the figure given below showing in particular ?

(a) Ovarian cancer

(b) Uterine cancer
(c) Tubectomy
(d) Vasectomy
Answer:
(c) Tubectomy
Question 45.
Which of the following birth control measures can be considered as the safest ?
(a) The rhythm method
(b) The use of physical barriers
(c) Termination of unwanted pregnancy
(d) Sterilisation techniques
Answer:
(d) Sterilisation techniques
Question 46.
Which of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India at
present ?
(a) Cervical caps
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Diaphragms
(d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)
Answer:
(d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)
Question 47.
Which of the following is a full proof method contraception ?
(a) Implantation
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Condoms
(d) Sterilisation
Answer:
(d) Sterilisation
Question 48.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding vasectomy ?
 P a g e | 97

(a) It prevents the production of sperm in the testes.

(b) It prevents the production of semen.
(c) It prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra.
(d) It prevents a man from having an erection.
Answer:
(c) It prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra.
Question 49.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the medical termination of
pregnancy (MTP) ?
(a) These help in getting rid of unwanted pregnancies.
(b) These help in aborting the pregnancies which may be harmful to either mother of foetus or
both.
(c) These contribute in decreasing the human population.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(d) None of these.
Question 50.
Which of the following represents the correct match of a sexually transmitted disease with its
pathogen ?
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
(b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
(d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis
Answer:
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
Question 51.
The sexually transmitted disease, that can affect both the male and the female genitals and
may damage the eyes of babies born of infected mothers is
(a) AIDS
(b) syphilis
(c) gonorrhoea
(d) hepatitis
Answer:
(c) gonorrhoea
Question 52.
A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by the development of chancre on the genitals
is caused by the infection of
(a) Treponema pallidum
(b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(c) human immunodeficiency virus
(d) hepatitis B virus
Answer:
(a) Treponema pallidum
Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 5 Principles of Inheritance & Variation

Here we providing Class 12 Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Principles of
Inheritance & Variation and it will help you to prepare your board exams. Biology MCQs for class
12 chapter with answers prepared on the basis of latest exam pattern. Students can solve the
NCERT Class 12 Biology Principles of Inheritance & Variation to know their preparation level.
 P a g e | 98

We hope that the Chapter 4 Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Principles of Inheritance &
Variation help you.
1. The phenotypic ratio for F2 generation in Incomplete dominance is
(A)3:1
(B)2:2
(C)1:2:1
( D ) None of these
ANS-( C )

2. Sickle – cell anemia is related to which type of disease ?

( A ) Sex linked disease
( B ) Autosomal linked disease
( C ) Deficiency disease
( D ) Metabolic disease
ANS-( B )

3. The ratio of phenotypes in F2 of a monohybrid cross is :

(A)3:1
(B)1:2:1
(C)9:3:3:1
(D)2:1
ANS-( A )

4. A pure tall pea was crossed with a pure dwarf pea . All the plants of F1 were found to be tall .
This is due to :
( A ) Dominance
( B ) Disappearance of factor for dwarfness in F1 generation
( C ) Segregation of factors
( D ) Co – ordination
ANS-( A )

5. Sickle cell anemia shows

( A ) Epistasis
( B ) Co – dominance
( C ) Pleiotrophy
( D ) Incomplete dominance
ANS-( C )

6. The trisomy of 21st chromosome causes

( A ) Kleinfelter’s syndrome
( B ) Turner’s Syndrome
( C ) Sickle cell Anemia
( D ) Down’s syndrome
ANS-( D )

7. ABO blood grouping in human beings cites the examples of

( A ) Incomplete dominance
( B ) Co – dominance
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( C ) Multiple allelism
( D ) Both ( B ) and ( C )
ANS-( D )

8. Which of the following will not result in variation among siblings ?

( A ) Independent assortment
( B ) Crossing over
( C ) Linkage
( D ) Mutation
ANS-( C )

9. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by :

( A ) Morgan
( B ) Sutton & Boveri
( C ) Hugo de Vries
( D ) Mendel
ANS-( B )

10. Which of the following is not an example of recessive autosomal disease ?

( A ) Haemophilia
( B ) Cystic Fibrosis
( C ) Phenylketonuria
( D ) Sickle-cell Anemia
ANS-( A )

11. Mongolism in a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome number:
( A ) 20
( B ) 21
( C ) 17
( D ) 23
ANS-( B )

12. Kleinfelter’s syndrome is characterised by

( A ) XYY
( B ) XO
( C ) XXX
( D ) XXY
ANS-( D )

13. Grasshopper is an example of XO type of sex determination in which males have:

( A ) one X chromosome
( B ) no Y-chromosome
( C ) two X-chromosome
( D ) no X-chromosome
ANS-( A )

14. Father of a child is colourblind and mother is carrier for colourblindness,the possibility of the
child being colourblind is:
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( A ) 25 %
( B ) 50 %
( C ) 100 %
( D ) 75 %
ANS-( B )

15. Female’s with Turner’s syndrome have

( A ) small uterus
( B ) rudimentary ovaries
( C ) underdeveloped breasts
( D ) all of these
ANS-( D )

16 Trisohry is represented by
( A ) (2n – 1)
( B ) (2n – 2 )
( C ) (2n + 2)
( D ) (2n + 1)
ANS-( D )

17. A couple has six daughters. What is the possibility of their having a girl next time
( A ) 10 %
( B ) 50 %
( C ) 90 %
( D ) 100 %
ANS-( B )

18. What can be the blood group of offspring AB blood when group both? parents have
( A ) AB only
( B ) A, B & AB
( C ) A, B, AB & O
( D ) A & B only
ANS – ( B )

19. A normal vision female whose father is colour-blind marries a normal vision male What
would be the probability of her sons and daughters to be colour blind?
( A ) 25 % sons colourblind and all daughters with phenotypically normal vision
( B ) 50 % sons colourblind and 50 % daughters normal.
( C ) 50 % sons colourblind and 50 % daughter colour blind.
( D ) Allsons normal and 50 % colourblind daughter
ANS-( B )

20. A family has 5 daughters. Probability of 6th child being boy will be:
( A ) 1 in 2
( B ) 1 in 5
( C ) 1 in 3
( D ) 1 in 6
ANS-( A )
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21. A genotype AaBBCcDD can produce how many types of gametes?

(A)4
(B)3
( C ) 16
( D ) 64
ANS-( A )

22. In a dihybrid test cross the genotypic ratio of the progeny is:
( A ) 9: 3: 3: 1
( B ) 1: 1: 1: 1
( C ) 3: 1: 2: 1
( D ) 1: 7: 1
ANS-( B )

23. If mother has ‘ O ‘ blood group and child also has ‘ O ‘ group. What will be the blood group of
Father?
(A)O
(B)A
(C)B
( D ) AB
ANS-( A )

24. Child has blood group o ‘ and his father is’ B ‘ type. Then genotype of the father should be:
( A ) IBIB
( B ) IB IO
( C ) IA I B
( D ) lOIO
ANS-( B )

25. Antiserum used in testing blood groups has:

( A ) Antibody
( B ) Antigen
( C ) Leucocytes
( D ) None
ANS-( A )

26. Polygenic inheritance in plants like tobacco was first studied by:
( A ) Davenport
( B ) Nilsson-Ehle
( C ) Kolreuter
( D ) Galton
ANS-( C )

27. A recessive trait in Garden pea is

( A ) wrinkled seeds
( B ) tall stem
( C ) round seeds
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( D ) coloured seeds coats

ANS-( A )

28. In complementary genes, the dihybrid ratio of 9: 3: 3: 1 is modified into

( A ) 9: 7
( B ) 12: 3: 1
( C ) 15: 1
( D ) 13: 3
ANS-( A )

29. Which blood groups are common in Man & Apes but absent in Monkey?
( A ) A and O
( B ) A and B
( C ) AB and O
( D ) B and AB
ANS-( B )

30. Number of barr bodies present in Turner’s syndrome is:

(A)0
(B)1
(C)2
(D)8
ANS-( A )

31. In an individual haploid number is 10. Its tetrasomic number will be:
( A ) 40
( B ) 14
( C ) 22
( D ) 44
ANS-( C )

32. A male grass hopper will have a sex complement of:

( A ) XY
( B ) XX
( C ) XO
( D ) YO
ANS-( C )

33. Individuals with blood group A has:

( A ) Antigen A, antibody B
( B ) Antigen B, antibody A
( C ) Antigen A, antibody b
( D ) Antigen A, no antibody
ANS-( C )

34. Phenomenon of one gene controlling several phenotypes is:

( A ) Epistasis
( B ) Pleiotropism
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( C ) Co-dominance
( D ) Multiple allelism
ANS-( B )

35. The monohybrid genotypic ratio 1: 2 : 1 in F2 generation indicates:

( A ) Segregation
( B ) Independent assortment
( C ) Dominance
( D ) Incomplete dominance
ANS-( A )

36. Genes present on same locus having different expressions are called
( A ) Multiple allele
( B ) Polygene
( C ) Oncogene
( D ) Codominant gene
ANS-( A )

37. The human chromosome with highest and least number of genes are
( A ) Chromosome 21 and Y
( B ) Chromosome 1 and X
( C ) Chromosome 1 and Y
( D ) Chromosome X and Y
ANS-( C )

38. Sickle cell anaemia shows-

( A ) Epistrasis
( B ) Co – dominance
( C ) Pleiotropy
( D ) Incomplete dominance
ANS-( C )

39. The trisomy of 21st chromosome causes …

( A ) Klinefelter’s syndrome
( B ) Turner’s syndrome
( C ) Sickle cell anaemia
( D ) Down’s syndrome
ANS-( D )

40. A normal vision female whose father is colour – blind marries normal vision male What
would be the probability of her sons and daughters to be colour blind ?
( A ) 25 % sons colour blind and all daughters with phenotypically normal vision
( B ) 50 % sons colour blind and 50 % daughter mormal
( C ) 50 % sons colour blind and 50 % daughter colour blind .
( D ) All sons normal and 50 % colour blind daughter
ANS-( B )

41. A child with blood group o ‘ has B blood group type father then the father has geno type of —
 P a g e | 104

( A ) l OIO
( B ) IOIB
( C ) IBI B
( D ) IA IA
ANS-( B )

42. Lactose ( Lac ) operon is regulated by :

( A ) Lac repressor only
( B ) Lac repressor and CAP – CAMP complex
( C ) Lac repressor and c – GMP complex
( D ) CAP CAMP and CAP GMP complex
ANS-( B )

43. The distance between the genes is measured by :

( A ) angstrom
( B ) map unit
( C ) Dobson unit
( D ) millimeter
ANS-( B )

44. The percentage of ab gamete produced by AaBb parent will be

( A ) 25 %
( B ) 50 %
( C ) 75 %
( D ) 12.5 %
ANS-( A )

45. Which of the following is a test cross ?

( A ) TT x TT
( B ) Tt x Tt
( C ) tt x tt
( D ) Tt x tt
ANS-( D )

46. Number of Autosomes present in Liver cells of a human female is :

( A ) 22 Autosomes
( B ) 22 pairs
( C ) 23 Autosome
( D ) 23 pairs
ANS-( B )

47. A person suffering from colour blindness can not recognise :

( A ) red & yellow colours
( B ) red & green colours
( C ) blue & green colours
( D ) None of these
ANS-( B )
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48. In human blood group AB :

( A ) antibodies are present
( B ) antibodies are absent
( C ) antibody a is present
( D ) antibody b is present
ANS-( B )

49. Mendel proposed

( A ) Law of linkage
( B ) 10 % energy law
( C ) Laws of inheritance
( D ) none of these
ANS-( C )

50. Who is regarded as ‘ Father of Genetics

( A ) Mendel
( B ) Morgan
( C ) Lamarek
( D ) De Vries
ANS-( A )

51. The number of different type of gametes produced from a plant with genotype AaBbcc is :
(A)2
(B)8
(C)4
( D ) 16
ANS-( A )

52. How many types of gametes are expected from the organism with genotype AABBCC ?
( A ) One
( B ) Two
( C ) Four
( D ) Eight
ANS-( A )

53. A haploid set of all the genes present in a gamete is called

( A ) Genotype
( B ) Phenotype
( C ) Genome
( D ) Linkage group
ANS-( C )

54.Number of characters studied by Mendel in Pea was ?

(A)5
(B)7
(C)6
(D)4
ANS-( B )
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55. The The genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross will be

(A)3:1
(B)1:1
(C)1:2:1
(D)2:1
ANS-( C )

56. Mendel’s law of segregation is based upon the F ratio of :

(A)1:2
(B)9:3:3:1
(C)1:2:1
(D)3:1
ANS-( D )

57 Genes do not occur in pairs in :

( A ) Zygote
( B ) Somatic cell
( C ) Endosperm cells
( D ) Gametes
ANS-( D )

58. Segregation of genes take place during

( A ) Metaphase
( B ) Anaphase
( C ) Prophase
( D ) Embryo formation
ANS-( B )

59. A cross between hybrid and a parent is known as :

( A ) Monohybrid cross
( B ) Back cross
( C ) Test cross
( D ) Reciprocal cross
ANS-( C )

60. cross between offspring and recessive parent is

( A ) Monohybrid cross
( B ) Back cross
( C ) Test cross
( D ) Reciprocal cross
ANS-( C )

61. Common test to find genotype of hybrid is by :

( A ) Studying sexual behaviour of F1 progeny
( B ) Crossing F1 individuals with recessive parents
( C ) Crossing one F2 progeny.with male parents
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( D ) Crossing one F2 progeny with female parent

ANS-( B )

62. Segregation of genes occurs in :

( A ) Embryo formation
( B ) Anaphase I
( C ) Anaphase
( D ) Metapliase
ANS-( B )

63. Offspring produced from a cross between two pure individuals differering in one set of
characters is called :
( A ) Monohybrid
( B ) Mutant
( C ) Polyploid
( D) Variant
ANS-( A )

64. Test Cross is performed to known the genotype . It is a cross between

( A ) F1 hybrid with dominant parent
( B ) F1 hybrid with recessive parent
( C ) Two F1 hybrids
( D ) Two F2 hybrids
ANS-( B )

65. A cross between hybrid and either of any parent is called :

( A ) test cross
( B ) reciprocal cross
( C ) Monohybrid cross
( D ) back cross
ANS-( D )

66. To see the effect of sex on inheritance , Mendal performed :

( A ) test cross
( B ) out cross
( C ) reciprocal cross
( D ) sib cross
ANS-( C )

67. A cross between F hybrid with the dominant parent is called :

( A ) Test cross
( B ) out cross
( C ) back cross
( D ) reverse cross
ANS-( B )

68. A dominant trait in the following is :

( A ) Colourblindness
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( B ) Night blindness
( C ) RH
( D ) Albinism
ANS-( C )

69. Independent assortment of Mendal was :

( A ) Monohybrid cross
( B ) Dihybrid cross
( C ) Incomplete dominance
( D ) Back cross
ANS-( B )

70. IF Mendel has considered eighth trait in pea , which law would have failed ?
( A ) Law of segregation
( B ) Law of Purity of gametes
( C ) Law of independent
( D ) Law of dominance
ANS-( C )

71. An exception to Mendelian Law of independent assortment is :

( A ) Crossing over
( B ) Incomplete dominance
( C ) Segregation
( D ) Linkage
ANS-( D )

72. Who modified Mendel’s postulates as Mendel’s laws ?

( A ) Correns
( B ) Tschermark
( C ) Hugo de Vries
( D ) Morgan
ANS-( A )

73. In incomplete dominance in F2 generation :

( A ) ratio of phenotype is 3 : 1
( B ) ratio of genotype is 3 : 1
( C ) both ( A ) and ( B )
( D ) phenotypic ratio corresponds to genotypic ratio
ANS-( D )

74. A tall plant on selfing produce tall and dwarf both What are the probabilities that first
offspring will be ?
( A ) tall
( B ) dwarf
( C ) equal chance
( D ) data not sufficient
ANS-( A )
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75. Offspring of which of the following crosses are all phenotypically alike ?
( A ) Dd x Dd
( B ) Dd x dd
( C ) DD x Dd
( D ) Ww x Ww
ANS-( C )

76. A test cross of AaBbCC produces how many phenotypes ?

( A ) 16
( B ) 12
(C)8
(D)4
ANS-( D )

77. Which one of the following individuals can produce 16 different gametes ?
( A ) Aa Bb cc Dd
( B ) Aa Bb cc DD Ee Ff
( C ) Aa Bb Cc dd EE FF
( D ) Aa Bb Cc DD Ee FF
ANS-( B )

78. Which is pure hybrid in the following ?

( A ) Rrtt
( B ) TTrr
( C ) TtRr
( D ) TTRR
ANS-( C )

79. Which one of the following crosses shows 3 : 1 ratio ?

( A ) AaBb x AaBb
( B ) aabb × AABb
( C ) Aabb × Aabb
( D ) AaBb x aabb
ANS-( C )

80. ABO blood group in humans is an example of

( A ) Polygenic inheritance
( B ) Multifactor inheritance
( C ) Pleiotrople gene
( D ) Multiple alleles
ANS-( D )

81. Genotype of A – group father and of O – group child would be :

( A ) IA IA
( B ) IA i
( C ) IA I B
( D ) ii
ANS-( B )
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82. An O – group child can not have parents of blood groups :

( A ) B and B
( B ) A and B
( C ) O and O
( D ) AB and O
ANS-( D )

83. A recessive trait in Garden Pea is :

( A ) Tall stem
( B ) Coloured flower
( C ) Wrinkled seed
( D ) Inflated pod
ANS-( C )

84. Dihybrid test cross is :

(A)1:1:1:1
(B)1:1
(C)9:3:3:1
( D ) 15 : 1
ANS-( A )

85. A couple has two girls . The probability of a third girl baby is :
( A ) 100 %
( B ) 50 %
( C ) 25 %
( D ) 12.5 %
ANS-( B )

86. Genes present on the same locus but having different expressions are :
( A ) Multiple alleles
( B ) Polygenes
( C ) Oncogenes
( D ) Co – dominants
ANS-( A )

87. How many kinds of gemetes will be produced by AA Bb cc genotype ?

( A ) Two
( B ) Four
( C ) Six
( D ) Nine
ANS-( A )

88. Phenotypic ratio of monohybrid F1 progeny of an incomplete dominance is

(A)1:1:1:1
(B)1:2:1
(C)3:1
(D)2:1:2
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ANS-( B )

89. Sickle cell anaemia shows :

( A ) Epistasis
( B ) Co – dominance
( C ) Pleiotropy
( D ) Incomplete dominance
ANS-( C )

90. G.J. Mendel was :

( A ) British monk
( B ) Australian monik
( C ) Austrian monk
( D ) German scientist
ANS-( C )

91. Ultimate source of variation is :

( A ) Mitosis
( B ) Hybridisation
( C ) Fertilization
( D ) Mutations
ANS-( D )

92. A monohybrid cross produced tall and dwarf Pea plants in ratio of 3 : 1. Their genotypes
would be :
( A ) TT × Tt
( B ) Tt x Tt
( C ) TT x tt
( D ) Tt x H
ANS-( B )

93 Individuals with blood group A has

( A ) Antigen A , antibody B
( B ) Antigen B , antibody A
( C ) Antigen A , antibody b
( D ) Antigen A , no antibody
ANS-( C )

94. Mendel’s law of segregation applicable to :

( A ) Monohybrid cross
( B ) Hybrid cross
( C ) Hybrid but Monohybrid cross
( D ) Homologous pairs between cromozome
ANS-( D )

Question 1.
If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only
some of the male progeny, the disease is
 P a g e | 112

(a) autosomal dominant

(b) autosomal recessive
(c) sex-linked dominant
(d) sex-linked recessive.
Answer:
(d) sex-linked recessive.
Question 2.
In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets
codes for valine ?
(a) GGG
(b) A AG
(c) G A A
(d) GUG
Answer:
(d) GUG
Question 3.
Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of
(a) pleiotropy
(b) co-dominance
(c) segregation
(d) incomplete dominance.
Answer:
(b) co-dominance
Question 4.
ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in
(a) platypus
(b) snails
(c) cockroach
(d) peacock
Answer:
(d) peacock
Question 5.
A cross between two tall plants resulted in offspring having few dwarf plants. What would be
the genotypes of both the parents ?
(a) TT and Tt
(b) Tt and Tt
(c) TT and TT
(d) Tt and It
Answer:
(b) TtandTt
Question 6.
In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio it denotes that
(a) the alleles of two genes are interacting with each other
(b) it is a multigenic inheritance
(c) it is a case of multiple allelism
(d) the alleles of two genes are segregating independently.
Answer:
(d) the alleles of two genes are segregating independently.
 P a g e | 113

Question 7.
Which of the following will not result in variations among siblings ?
(a) Independent assortment of genes
(b) Crossing over
(c) Linkage
(d) Mutation
Answer:
(c) Linkage
Question 8.
Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the
(a) non-homologous chromosomes
(b) homologous chromosomes
(c) extra nuclear genetic element
(d) same chromosome.
Answer:
(b) homologous chromosomes
Question 9.
Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called
(a) multiple allelism
(b) mosaicism
(c) pleiotropy
(d) polygeny.
Answer:
(c) pleiotropy
Question 10.
In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes
are
(a) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 16
(b) phenotypes – 9; genotypes – 4
(c) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 8
(d) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9.
Answer:
(d) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9.
Question 11.
The colour based contrasting traits in seven contrasting pairs, studied by Mendel in pea plant
were
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3
Question 12.
_________ pairs of contrasting traits were studied by Mendel in pea plant.
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
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Answer:
(b) 7
Question 13.
Which of the following characters was not chosen by Mendel ?
(a) Pod shape
(b) Pod colour
(c) Location of flower
(d) Location of pod
Answer:
(d) Location of pod
Question 14.
Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as
(a) dominant genes
(b) alleles
(c) linked genes
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) alleles
Question 15.
A recessive allele is expressed in
(a) heterozygous condition only
(b) homozygous condition only
(c) F3 generation
(d) both homozygous and heterozygous conditions.
Answer:
(b) homozygous condition only
Question 16.
The characters which appear in the first filial generation are called
(a) recessive characters
(b) dominant characters
(c) holandric characters
(d) lethal characters
Answer:
(b) dominant characters
Question 17.
What will be the distribution of phenotypic features in the first filial generation after a cross
between a homozygous female and a heterozygous male for a single locus ?
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) 1 : 1
Question 18.
In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals, percentage of pure
homozygous individuals obtained in F1 generation will be
(a) 25 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 75 %
 P a g e | 115

(d) 100 %
Answer:
(b) 50 %
Question 19.
What is the probability of production of dwarf offsprings in a cross betweeen two
heterozygous tall pea plants ?
(a) Zero
(b) 50 %
(c) 25 %
(d) 100 %
Answer:
(c) 25 %
Question 20.
Which of the following crosses will give tall and dwarf pea plants in same proportions ?
(a) TT × tt
(b) Tt × tt
(c) TT × Tt
(d) tt × tt
Answer:
(b) Tt × tt
Question 21.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW – ZZ type of sex determination ?
(a) It occurs in birds and some reptiles.
(b) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic.
(c) 1:1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic.
Question 22.
A couple has six daughters. What is the possibility of their having a girl next time ?
(a) 10 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 90 %
(d) 100 %
Answer:
(b) 50 %
Question 23.
Number of autosomes present in liver cells of a human female is
(a) 22 autosomes
(b) 22 pairs
(c) 23 autosomes
(d) 23 pairs
Answer:
(b) 22 pairs
Question 24.
Haplodiploidy is found in
(a) grasshoppers and cockroaches
(b) birds and reptiles
(c) butterflies and moths
 P a g e | 116

(d) honeybees, ants and waspe.

Answer:
(d) honeybees, ants and waspe.
Question 25.
Rate of mutation is affected by
(a) temperature
(b) X-rays
(c) gamma rays
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 26.
Two or more independent genes present on different chromosomes which determine nearly
same phenotype are called
(a) supplementary genes
(b) complementary genes
(c) duplicate genes
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) duplicate genes
Question 27.
Select the incorrect statement regarding pedigree analysis.
(a) Solid symbols show unaffected individuals.
(b) Proband is the person from which case history starts.
(c) It is useful for genetic counsellors.
(d) It is an analysis of traits in several generations of a family.
Answer:
(a) Solid symbols show unaffected individuals.
Question 28.
To determine the genotype of a tall plant of F2 generation, Mendel crossed this plant with a
dwarf plant. This cross represents a
(a) test cross
(b) back cross
(c) reciprocal cross
(d) dihybrid cross.
Answer:
(a) test cross
Question 29.
Which of the following is a test cross ?
(a) TT × TT
(b) Tt × Tt
(c) tt × tt
(d) Tt × tt
Answer:
(d) Tt × tt
Question 30.
Mendal formulated the law of purity of gametes on the basis of
(a) monohybrid cross
(b) dihybrid cross
 P a g e | 117

(c) test cross

(d) back cross.
Answer:
(a) monohybrid cross
Question 31.
The inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum (dog flower) is an example of
(a) incomplete dominance
(b) co-dominance
(c) multiple alleles
(d) linkage.
Answer:
(a) incomplete dominance
Question 32.
In Antirrhinum (dog flower), phenotypic ratio in F2 generation for the inheritance of flower
colour would be
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 1 : 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
Answer:
(b) 1 : 2 : 1
Question 33.
Phenotypic and genotypic ratio is similar in case of
(a) complete dominance
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) over dominance
(d) epistasis.
Answer:
(b) incomplete dominancec
Question 34.
What can be the blood group of offspring when both parents have AB blood group ?
(a) AB only
(b) A, B and AB
(c) A, B, AB and O
(d) A and B only
Answer:
(b) A, B and AB
Question 35.
Inheritance of roan coat in cattle is an example of
(a) incomplete dominance
(b) codominance
(c) multiple allelism
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) codominance
Question 36.
ABO blood grouping in human beings cites the example of
(a) incomplete dominance
(b) co-dominance
 P a g e | 118

(c) multiple allelism

(d) both
(b) and (c)
Answer:
(b) and (c)
Question 37.
In mice, Y is the dominant allele for yellow fur an y is the recessive allele for grey fur. Since Y
is lethal when homozygous, the result of cross Yy × Yy will be
(a) 3 yellow : 1 grey
(b) 2 yellow : 1 grey
(c) 1 yellow : 1 grey
(d) 1 yellow : 2 grey
Answer:
(b) 2 yellow : 1 grey
Question 38.
How many types of gametes can be produced by a diploid organism who is heterozygous for
4 loci ?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 16
Question 39.
Which of the following is correct for the condition when plant YyRr is back crossed with the
double recessive parent ?
(a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio of phenotypes only
(b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio of genotypes only
(c) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio of phenotypes only
(d) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio of phenotypes and genotypes
Answer:
(d) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio of phenotypes and genotypes
Question 40.
Law of independent assortment can be explained with the help of
(a) dihybrid
(b) test cross
(c) back cross
(d) monohybrid cross
Answer:
(a) dihybrid
Question 41.
Mendel’s work was rediscovered by three scientists in the year
(a) 1865
(b) 1900
(c) 1910
(d) 1920
Answer:
(b) 1900
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Question 42.
Which three scientists independently rediscovered Mendel’s work ?
(a) Avery, McLeod, McCarty
(b) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
(c) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges
(d) de Vries, Correns and Tschemark
Answer:
(d) de Vries, Correns and Tschemark
Question 43.
Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
(a) Morgan et al
(b) Sutton and Boveri
(c) Hugo deVries
(d) Gregor J. Mendel
Answer:
(b) Sutton and Boveri
Question 44
Experimental verification of ‘chromosomal theory of inheritance’ was done by
(a) Sutton and Boveri
(b) Morgan et al
(c) Henking
(d) Karl Correns.
Answer:
(b) Morgan et al
Question 45.
Genes located very close to one another on same chromosome tend to be transmitted
together and are called as
(a) allelomorphs
(b) identical genes
(c) linked genes
(d) recessive genes
Answer:
(c) linked genes
Question 46.
What is true about the crossing over between linked genes ?
(a) No crossing over at all
(b) High percentage of crossing over
(c) Hardly any crossing over
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Hardly any crossing over
Question 47.
Chromosome maps/genetic maps were first prepared by
(a) Sutton and Boveri (1902)
(b) Bateson and Punnett (1906)
(c) Morgan (1910)
(d) Sturtevant (1911)
Answer:
(d) Sturtevant (1911)
 P a g e | 120

Question 48.
The distance between the genes is measured by
(a) angstrom
(b) map unit
(c) Dobson unit
(d) millimetre
Answer:
(c) Dobson unit
Question 49.
Which of the following is suitable for experiment on linkage ?
(a) aaBB x aaBB
(b) AABB x aabb
(c) AaBb x AaBb
(d) AAbb x AaBB
Answer:
(b) AABB x aabb
Question 50.
Mendel’s law of independent assortment does not hold true for the genes that are located
closely on
(a) same chromosome
(b) non-homologous chromosomes
(c) X-chromosome
(d) autosomes
Answer:
(a) same chromosome
Question 51.
If linkage was known at the time of Mendel then which of the following laws, he would not
have been able to explain ?
(a) Law of dominance
(b) Law of independent assortment
(c) Law of segregation
(d) Law of purity of gametes
Answer:
(b) Law of independent assortment
Question 52.
Which of the following are reasons for Mendel’s success ?
(i) Usage of pure lines or pure breeding varieties
(ii) Consideration of one character at a time
(iii) Maintenance of statistical records of experiments
(iv) Knowledge of linkage and incomplete dominance
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Question 53.
XO type of sex determination and XY type of sex determination are the examples of
(a) male heterogamety
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(b) female heterogamety

(c) male homogamety
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) male heterogamety
Question 54.
Grasshopper is an example of XO type of sex determination in which the males have
(a) one X chromosome
(b) one Y chromosome
(c) two X chromosomes
(d) no X chromosome
Answer:
(a) one X chromosome
Question 55.
In XO type of sex determination
(a) females produce two different types of gametes
(b) males produce two different types of gametes
(c) females produce gametes with Y chromosome
(d) males produce gametes with Y chromosome.
Answer:
(b) males produce two different types of gametes
Question 56.
If both parents are carriers for thalassaemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what
are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child ?
(a) 25 %
(b) 100 %
(c) No chance
(d) 50 %
Answer:
(a) 25 %
Question 57.
Select the disease which is caused by recessive autosomal genes when present in
homozygous conditions.
(a) Alkaptonuria
(b) Albinism
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 58.
Which of the following trait is controlled by dominant autosomal genes ?
(a) Polydactyly
(b) Huntington’s chorea
(c) PTC (phenylthiocarbamide) tasting
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 59.
Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division results in the gain or loss of
 P a g e | 122

chromosomes, this is called as

(a) euploidy
(b) monoploidy
(c) aneuploidy
(d) polyploidy
Answer:
(c) aneuploidy
Question 60.
Trisomy is represented by
(a) (2n – 1)
(b) (2n – 2)
(c) (2n + 2)
(d) (2n + 1)
Answer:
(d) (2n + 1)
Question 61.
Mongolism is a genetic disorder which is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome
number
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 17
(d) 23
Answer:
(b) 21
Question 62.
Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterised by a karyotype of
(a) XYY
(b) XO
(c) XXX
(d) XXY
Answer:
(d) XXY
Question 63.
This abnormality occurs due to monosomy (2n – 1); the individual has 2n = 45 chromosomes
with 44 + XO genotype.
(a) Edward’s syndrome
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome
(d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Answer:
(c) Turner’s syndrome
Question 64.
Females with Turner’s syndrome have
(a) small uterus
(b) rudimentary ovaries
(c) underdeveloped breasts
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
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Question 65.
All genes located on the same chromosome
(a) form different groups depending upon their relative distance
(b) form one linkage group
(c) will not from any linkage groups
(d) form interactive groups that affect the phenotype.
Answer:
(b) form one linkage group
Question 66.
Conditions of a karyotype 2n±l and 2n + 2 are called
(a) aneuploidy
(b) polyploidy
(c) allopolyploidy
(d) monosomy.
Answer:
(a) aneuploidy
Question 67.
Distance between the genes and percentage of recontbfnatidnshows
(a) a direct relationship
(b) an inverse relationship
(c) a parallel relationship
(d) no relationship.
Answer:
(a) a direct relationship
Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 7 Genetics and Evolution

1. S.L. Miller is related to

( A ) Origin & Evolution of life
( B ) Use and disuse theory of evolution
( C ) Neo-Darwinism
( D ) Neo-Lamarckism
Answer-( A )

2. Dryopithecus is more similar to

( A ) Ape
( B ) Gorilla
( C ) Chimpanzee
( D ) Man
Answer-( A )

3. Organic evolution was preceded bychemical evolution, the champions of this theory are
( A )A. I. Oparin and J.B.S. Haldane
( B ) Charles Darwin
( C ) Arrhenius
( D )Baptiste Lamarck
Answer-( A )

4. Adaptive radiation in Australian marsupials are example of :

( A ) Divergent Evolution
 P a g e | 124

( B ) Convergent Evolution
( C ) Saltation
( D ) None
Answer-( A )

5. Appearance of antibiotic resistancebacteria is an example of

( A ) Adaptive radiation
( B ) Transduction
( C ) Pre-existing variation
( D ) Divergent Evolution
Answer-( A )

6. It is beleived that earth’s atmosphere before origin of life was consisted of a mixture of :
( A ) CH4, O3, O2 , NH3
( B ) CH4,NH3, H2, H2O vapours
( C ) CH4 , NH3, CO2, H2
( D ) H2, CO2, H2O, NH2
Answer-( B )

7. The primate which existed 15 mya was

( A ) Homohabilis
( B ) Australopithecus
( C ) Ramapithecus
( D ) Homo errectus
Answer-( C )

8. Which is an example of homology ?

( A ) Eye of octopus and mammals
( B ) Wings of butterfly and birds
( C ) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
( D ) Thorns of Boughainvillea and tendrils of cucurbits
Answer-( D )

9. The brain capacity of Homo erectuswas about :

( A ) 650 C.C.
( B ) 900 C.C.
( C ) 1500 C.C.
( D ) 1200 C.C.
Answer-( B )

10. The prebiotic atmosphere of earthwas of a reducing nature. It was transformed into an
oxidizing atmosphere of present day due to the emergence of:
( A ) Cyanobacteria
( B ) angiosperms
( C ) photosynthetic bacteria
( D) eukaryotic algae
Answer-( A )

11. Non directional alteration in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is :

 P a g e | 125

( A ) Gene flow
( B ) Mutation
( C ) Genetic drift
( D ) Gene recombination.
Answer-( C )

12. A gene of operon which forms therepressor protein is :

( A ) Operator
( B ) Promoter
( C ) Regulator
( D ) Structural
Answer-( C )

13. Which one is linked to evolution ?

( A ) Extinction
( B ) Variation
( C ) Reproduction
( D ) Competition
Answer-( B )

14. Dodo is-

( A ) Extinct species
( B ) Endangered species
( C ) Threatened species
( D) All of these
Answer-( A )

15. The earliest hominids evolved about4 million years ago were :
( A ) Homo erectus
( B ) Neanderthal man
( C ) Cro Magnon man
( D ) Australopithicus
Answer-( D )

16. The first cellular form of life possiblycame into existence in :

( A ) 2000 million
( B ) 2000 billion
( C ) 4500 million
( D ) 4.5 billion
Answer-( A )

17. Sweet potato and Potato represent:

( A ) analogous structure
( B ) Divergent evolution
( C ) belong to same ganes
( D) both A & C
Answer-( A )

18. The extinct human ancestor who ate only fruits and hunted with stone weapons was-
 P a g e | 126

( A ) Ramapithecus
( B ) Australopithecus
( C ) Dryopithecus
( D ) Homo errectus
Answer-( B )

19. The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homosapiens is traced in :
( A ) Loss of body hair
( B ) walking upright
( C ) shortening of jaws
( D ) remarkable increase in brain size
Answer-( D )

20. The devonian period is considered as

( A ) age of fishes
( B ) age of amphibians
( C ) age of reptiles
( D ) age of mammals
Answer-( A )

21. First life formed on earth was a

( A ) cyanobacterium
( B ) chemoheterotroph
( C ) autotroph
( D ) photoautotroph
Answer-( B )

22. The presence of gillslits in the embryoof all vertebrates, supports the theory of :
( A ) metamorphosis
( B ) biogenesis
( C ) organic evolution
( D ) recapitulation
Answer-( D )

23. phenomenon of ‘industrial melanismdemonstrates :

( A ) geographical isolation
( B ) reproductive isolation
( C ) natural selection
( D ) induced mutation
Answer-( C )

24. Which is not a vestigeal organ inman ?

( A ) Nictiating membrane
( B ) Tail vertebrae
( c ) Vermiform appendix
( D ) Nails
Answer-( D )

25. Major radiation of mammals, birds and pollinating insects took place in which epoch?
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( A ) Oegocene
( B ) Eocene
( C ) Pliocene
( D ) Palaeocene
Answer-( D )

26. Golden age of reptiles was:

( A ) Proterozoic era
( B ) Palaeozoic era
( C ) Mesozoic era
( D ) Coenozoic era
Answer-( C )

27. Amphibians were dominant during

( A ) Carboniferous
( B ) Silurian
( C ) Ordovician
( D ) Cambrian
Answer-( A )

28. Coacervates were experimentally produced by :

( A ) Oparin and Sydney Fox
( B ) Fischer and Huxley
( C ) Jacob and Monod
( D ) Urey and Miller
Answer-( A )

29. Chance elimination of alleles fromsmall population is :

( A ) Adaptation
( B ) Genetic drift
( C ) Speciation
( D ) Selection pressure
Answer-( B )

30. Which are immortal ?

( A ) Germ cells
( B ) Liver cells
( C ) Kidney cells
( D ) Neurons
Answer-( A )

31. Discontinuous variations are dueto :

( A ) Crossing over
( B ) Mutations
( C ) Segregation of chromosomes
( D ) Independent assortment
Answer-( B )

32. Theory of chemical origin of life wasproposed by :

 P a g e | 128

( A ) Miller and Fox

( B ) Oparin and Haldane
( C ) Miller and Watson
( D )Watson and Melvin
Answer-( B )

33. Evolutionary history of an organismis known as:

( A ) Ontogeny
( B ) Phylogeny
( C ) Ancestry
( D ) Palaenotology
Answer-( B )

34. Which one provides most evident proof of evolution ?

( A ) Fossils
( B ) Vestigial organs
( C ) Embryo
( D ) Morphology
Answer-( A )

35. Dinosaurs were present during :

( A ) Palaeozoic
( B ) Precambrian
( C ) Coenozoic
( D) Mesozoic
Answer-( D )

36.Extra terrestrial origin of life was proposed by

( A ) Catastrophism
( B ) Special creation
( C ) Panspermia
( D ) Sportaneous generation
Answer-( C )

37. Stanley Miller’s expreriment

Supports
( A ) Chemical theory
( B ) Abiogenesis
( C ) Biogenesis
( D ) Pangenesis
Answer-( A )

38. Operon model was proposed was

( A ) Watson & Crick
( B ) Nierenberg
( C ) Jacob & Monad
( D ) None of these
Answer-( C )
 P a g e | 129

39. Echidna is
( A ) Connecting link
( B ) Vestigeal organ
( C ) Extinct link
( D ) None of these
Answer-( A )

Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
November 15, 2019 by Veerendra
Free PDF Download of CBSE Biology Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers
Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance. Biology MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with
Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve
NCERT Class 12 Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance MCQs Pdf with Answers to know
their preparation level.
Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 Biology MCQs Pdf
Question 1.
In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked together by
(a) glycosidic bonds
(b) phosphodiester bonds
(c) peptide bonds
(d) hydorgen bonds.
Answer:
(b) phosphodiester bonds
Question 2.
The net electric charge on DNA and histones is
(a) both positive
(b) both negative
(c) negative and positive, respectively
(d) zero.
Answer:
(c) negative and positive, respectively
Question 3.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia ?
(a) It cannot be treated with iron supplements.
(b) It is a molecular disease.
(c) It conferes resistance to acquiring malaria.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.
Question 4.
The first genetic material could be
(a) protein
(b) cabohydrates
(c) DNA
(d) RNA.
Answer:
(d) RNA.
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Question 5.
The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively
(a) chromosome 21 and Y
(b) chromosome 1 and X
(c) chromosome 1 and Y
(d) chromosome X and Y.
Answer:
(c) chromosome 1 and Y
Question 6.
Who amongst the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double
helix model for the structure of DN A ?
(a) Rosalind Franklin
(b) Maurice Wilkins
(c) Erwin Chargaff
(d) Meselson and Stahl
Answer:
(b) Maurice Wilkins
Question 7.
Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase ?
(a) Initiation
(b) Elongation
(c) Termination
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above
Question 8.
Control of gene expression takes place at the level of
(a) DNA-replication
(b) transcription
(c) translation
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(b) transcription
Question 9.
Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced ?
(a) Chromosome 1
(b) Chromosome 11
(c) Chromosome 21
(d) Chromosome X
Answer:
(a) Chromosome 1
Question 10.
In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called
(a) A – DNA
(b) B – DNA
(c) cDNA
(d) rDNA.
Answer:
(c) cDNA
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Question 11.
If the sequence of initrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is: 5’ –
ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be
(a) 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
(b) 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
(c) 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
(d) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Answer:
(d) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’.
Question 12.
The RNA polymerase holocnzyme transcribes
(a) the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region.
(b) the promoter and the terminator region
(c) the structural gene and the terminator region
(d) the structural gene only.
Answer:
(b) the promoter and the terminator region
Question 13.
If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’ – AUG – 3′ the sequence of tRNA pairing with it
must be
(a) 5’ – UAC – 3’
(b) 5’ – CAU – 3’
(c) 5’-AUG – 3’
(d) 5’ – GUA – 3’
Answer:
(b) 5’ – CAU – 3’
Question 14.
The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its
(a) 5’- end
(b) 3’ – end
(c) anticodon site
(d) DHUloop.
Answer:
(b) 3’ – end
Question 15.
To initiate translation, the wiRNA first bind to
(a) the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
(b) the larger ribosomal sub-unit
(c) the whole ribosome
(d) no such specificity exists.
Answer:
(a) the smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Question 16.
In E. colt, the lac operon gets switched on when
(a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
(b) repressor binds to operator
(c) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
(d) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase.
 P a g e | 132

Answer:
(a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
Question 17.
In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together by
(a) glycosidic bonds
(b) phosphodiester bonds
(c) peptide bonds
(d) hydrogen bonds.
Answer:
(b) phosphodiester bonds
Question 18.
If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, what will be the percentage of adenine in it ?
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 60%
Answer:
(c) 30%
Question 19.
If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence
of bases on complementary strand ?
(a) ATGCATGCA
(b) AUGCAUGCA
(c) TACTACGT
(d) UACGUACGU
Answer:
(c) TACTACGT
Question 20.
How far is each base pair from the next one in DNA double helix model ?
(a) 2 nm
(b) 3.4 nm
(c) 34 nm
(d) 0.34 nm
Answer:
(d) 0.34 nm
Question 21.
Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by
(a) central dogma reverse
(b) reverse transcription
(c) feminism
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 22.
Histone proteins are
(a) basic, negatively charged
(b) basic, positively charged
(c) acidic, positively charged
(d) acidic, negatively charged
 P a g e | 133

Answer:
(b) basic, positively charged
Question 23.
The structure in chromatin seen as ‘beads-on string’ when viewed under electron microscope
are called
(a) nucleotides
(b) nucleosides
(c) histone octamer
(d) nucleosomes.
Answer:
(d) nucleosomes.
Question 24.
Find out the wrong statement about heterochromatin,
(a) It is densely packed
(b) It stains dark.
(c) It is transcriptionally active.
(d) It is late replicating.
Answer:
(c) It is transcriptionally active.
Question 25.
They year 2003 was celebrated as the 50th anniversary of discovery of
(a) transposons by Barbare Me Clintock
(b) structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
(c) Mendel’s laws of inheritance
(d) biotechnology by Kary Muliis.
Answer:
(b) structure of DNA by Watson and Crick
Question 26.
The process of transofrmation is not affected by which of the following enzymes ?
A. DNase
B. RNase
C. Peptidase
D. Lipase
(a) A, B
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) B, C, D
(d) A, B, C
Answer:
(c) B, C, D
Question 27.
The three codons which result in the termination of polypeptide chain synthesis are
(a) UAA, UAG, GUA
(b) UAA, UAG, UGA
(c) UAA, UGA, UUA
(d) UGU,UAG,UGA
Answer:
(b) UAA, UAG, UGA
Question 28.
Amino acids which are specified by single codons are
 P a g e | 134

(a) phenylalanine and arginine

(b) tryptophan and methionine
(c) valine and proline
(d) methionine and aroinine.
Answer:
(b) tryptophan and methionine
Question 29.
Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Genetic code is ambiguous.
(b) Genetic code is deqenerate.
(c) Genetic code is universal.
(d) Genetic code is non-overlanning.
Answer:
(a) Genetic code is ambiguous.
Question 30.
Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the genetic code is
(a) overlapping
(b) degenerate
(c) wobbled
(d) unambiguous.
Answer:
(d) unambiguous.
Question 31.
The mutations that involve addition, deletion or substitution of a single pair in a gene are
referred to as
(a) point mutations
(b) lethal mutations
(c) silent mutations
(d) retrogressive mutations.
Answer:
(a) point mutations
Question 32.
Sickle cell anemia results from a single base substitution in a gene, thus it is an example of
(a) point mutation
(b) frame-shift muttion
(c) silent mutation
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(a) point mutation
Question 33.
Select the incorreclty matched pair.
(a) Initation codons – AUG,GUG
(b) Stop codons – UAA, UAG, UGA
(c) Methionine – AUG
(d) Anticodons – mRNA
Answer:
(d) Anticodons – mRNA
Question 34.
Amino acid acceptor end of tRNA lies at
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(a) 5’ end
(b) 3’ end
(c) T VC loop
(d) DHUloop.
Answer:
(b) 3’ end
Question 35.
Which RNA carries the amino acids from the amino acid pool to mRnA during protein
synthesis ?
(a) rRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) /RNA
(d) hnRNA
Answer:
(c) /RNA
Question 36.
During translation, activated amino acids get linked to tRNA. This process is commonly
called as
(a) charging of tRNA
(b) discharging of tRNA
(c) aminoacylation of tRNA
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(b) discharging of/RNA
Question 37.
To prove that DNA is the genetic material, which radioactive isotopes were used by Hershey
and Chase (1952) in experiments ?
(a) 33S and 15N
(b) 32P and 35S
(c) 32P and 15N
(d) 14N and 15N
Answer:
(d) 14N and 15N
Question 38.
RNA is the genetic material in
(a) prokaryotes
(b) eukaryotes
(c) Tabacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)
(d) E.coli.
Answer:
(c) Tabacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)
Question 39.
Which one among the following was the first genetic material ?
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) Protein
(d) Nuclein
Answer:
(b) RNA
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Question 40.
Which of the following life processes is evolved around RNA ?
(a) Metabolism
(b) Translation
(c) Splicing
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Translation
Question 41.
Chemically, RNA is (i) reactive and (ii) stable as compared to DNA.
(a) (i) equally, (ii) equally
(b) (i) less, (ii) more
(c) (i) more, (ii) less
(d) (i) more, (ii) equally
Answer:
(c) (i) more, (ii) less
Question 42.
Which of the following phenomena was experimentally proved by Meselson and Stahl ?
(a) Transformation
(b) Transduction
(c) Semi-conservative DNA replication
(d) Central dogma
Answer:
(c) Semi-conservative DNA replication
Question 43.
First experimental proof for semi-conservative DNA replication was shown in
(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Neurospora crassa
(d) Rattus rattus.
Answer:
(b) Escherichia coli
Question 44.
Select the correct match of enzyme with its related function.
(a) DNA polymerase – Synthesis of DNA strands
(b) Helicase – Unwinding of DNA helix
(c) Ligase – Joins together short DNA segments
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 45.
Other than DNA polymerase, which are the enzymes involved in DNA synthesis ?
(a) Topoisomerase
(b) Helicase
(c) RNA primase
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
 P a g e | 137

Question 46.
DNA replication takes place at _________ phase of the cell
cyle.
(a) G1
(b) S
(c) G2
(d) M
Answer:
(b) S
Question 47.
The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA to RNA is termed as
_________ .
(a) replication
(b) transcription
(c) translation
(d) reverse transcription
Answer:
(b) transcription
Question 48.
The enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerisation reaction in
___________direction.
(a) only 5’ → 3’
(b) only 3’ → 5’
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) only 5’ → 3’
Question 49.
If the sequence of bases in coding strand of DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases
in mRNA will be
(a) TAAGCTAC
(b) UAAGCUAC
(c) ATTCGATG
(d) AUUCGAUG.
Answer:
(d) AUUCGAUG.
Question 50.
If the sequence of bases in DNA is GCTTAGGCAA then the sequence of bases in its
transcript will be
(a) GCTTAGGCAA
(b) CGAATCCGTT
(c) CGAAUCCGUU
(d) AACGGAUUCG.
Answer:
(c) CGAAUCCGUU
Question 51.
Transcription unit
(a) starts with TATA box
(b) starts with pallendrous regions and ends with rho factor.
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(c) starts with promoter region and ends in terminator region

(d) starts with CAAT region.
Answer:
(c) starts with promoter region and ends in terminator region
Question 52.
During transcription, the site of DNA molecule at which RNA polymerase binds is called
(a) promoter
(b) regulator
(c) receptor
(d) enhancer.
Answer:
(a) promoter
Question 53.
Polycistronic messenger RNA (mRNA) usually occurs in
(a) bacteria
(b) prokaryotes
(c) eukaryotes
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)
Question 54.
In transcription in eukaryotes, heterogenous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is tmascribed by
(a) RNA polymerase I
(b) RNA polymerase II
(c) RNA poly merase II
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(b) RNA polymerase II
Question 55.
Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5’ end of hnRNA in a process of
(a) splicing
(b) capping
(c) tailing
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) capping
Question 56.
In eukaryotes, the process of processing of primary transcript involves
(a) removal of introns
(b) capping at 5’end
(c) tailing (polyadenlation) at 3’ end
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(b) capping at 5’end
Question 57.
In a n/RNA molecule, untranslated regions (UTRs) are present at
(a) 5’ – end (before start codon)
(b) 3’ – end (after stop codon)
(c) both (a) and (b)
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(d) 3’- end only.

Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)
Question 58.
UTRs are the untranslated regions present on
(a) rRNA
(b) hnRNA
(c) mRNA
(d) hnRNA.
Answer:
(c) mRNA
Question 59.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding ribosomes ?
(a) Most of a cell’s DNA molecule are stored there.
(b) Complete polypeptide is released from there.
(c) mRNAs are produced there.
(d) DNA replication takes place there.
Answer:
(b) Complete polypeptide is released from there.
Question 60.
Regulation of gene expression occurs at the level of
(a) transcription
(b) processing/splicing
(c) translation
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(d) all of these.
Question 61.
During expression of an operon, RNA polymerase binds to
(a) structural gene
(b) regulator gene
(c) operator
(d) promoter.
Answer:
(d) promoter.
Question 62.
The sequence of structural genes in lac operon is
(a) Lac A, Lac Y, Lac Z
(b) Lac A, Lac Z, Lac Y
(c) Lac Y, Lac A, Lac A
(d) Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A
Answer:
(d) Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A
Question 63.
Which of the following cannot act as inducer ?
(a) Glucose
(b) Lactose
(c) Galactos
(d) Both (a) and (c)
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Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Question 64.
Human genome consists of approximately
(a) 3 × 109 bp
(b) 6 × 109 bp
(c) 20,000 – 25,000 bp
(d) 2.2 × 104 bp.
Answer:
(a) 3 × 109 bp
Question 65.
Estimated number of genes in human beings is
(a) 3,000
(b) 80,000
(c) 20,500
(d) 3 × 109
Target Series Objective Guide Science (English Medium)
Answer:
(c) 20,500
Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 8 Human Health and Disease

1. In certain cases for early and accurate detection of disease we may use
( A ) ELISA
( B ) Culture
( C ) Chemical
( D ) Analytical
Answer-( A )

2. Tuberculosis is transmitted by-

( A ) Air
( B ) Water
( C ) Insect
( D ) Contact
Answer-( A )

3. Opium is obtained from

( A ) Papaver somniferum
( B ) Erythroxylum coca
( C ) Cannabis sativa
( D ) Atropa belladonna
Answer-( A )

4. B-lymphocytes are produced in

( A ) Bone marrow
( B ) Thymus
( C ) Blood
( D ) Lymph
Answer-( A )
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5. In retroviruses, genetic material is :

( A ) RNA
( B ) DNA
( C ) hn RNA
( D ) Split gane
Answer-( A )

6. The common cold is caused by

( A ) Rhino virus
( B ) Streptococcus pneumoniae
( C ) Salmonella typhi
( D ) Pasmodium vivax
Answer-( A )

7. A Toxic substance responsible for chill and high fever in Malaria is

( A ) Interferon
( B ) haemozoin
( C ) hirudin
( D ) colostrum
Answer-( B )

8. Virus infected cells secrete which proteins

( A ) histamines
( B ) colostrum
( C ) interferons
( D ) interleukines
Answer-( C )

9. Which is called first line of defence ?

( A ) Skin & Mucous membrane
( B ) Inflammation
( C ) Complement system
( D ) None
Answer-( A )

10. The genetic material of HIV is

( A ) ds DNA
( B ) ds RNA
( C ) ss DNA
( D ) ss RNA
Answer-( D )

11. An antibody consists of

( A ) H¹L¹
( B ) H²L²
( C ) H²L⁴
( D ) H⁴L⁴
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Answer-( B )

12. Humoral immunity is associated with

( A ) T-cells
( B ) B-cells
( C ) Macrophages
( D ) None
Answer-( B )

13. The most abundant Antibody

produced against allergens is :
( A ) IgE
( B ) IgA
( C.) IgG
( D ) IgM
Answer-( A )

14. Which of the following disease can

not be cured by taking antibiotics?
( A ) Plague
( B ) Amoebiasis
( C ) Leprosy
( D ) Diptheria
Answer-( B )

15. Passive immunity can be conferred

directly by :
( A )vaccines
( B ) antitoxins
( C )colostrum
( D ) T-cells
Answer-( A )

16. The antibody which can cross

placental barrier is :
( A ) IgA
( B ) IgE
( C ) IgM
( D ) IgG
Answer-( D )

17. The primary Lymphoid organs are :

( A ) Spleen and thymus
( B ) Bone marrow & thymus
( C ) Bone marrow & lymph nodes
( D) Thymus & MALT
Answer-( B )
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18. HIV is a retrovirus that attacks :

( A ) helper T-cells
( B ) killer T-cell
( C ) B-cell
( D ) Neutrophils
Answer-( A )

19. The cell called “HIV factory” is

( A ) helper T-cell
( B ) Macrophage
( C ) WBCs
( D ) Dendritic cells
Answer-( B )

20. Most common cancer in humans is

( A ) Melanoma
( B ) Lymphoma
( C ) Sarcoma
( D ) Carcinoma
Answer-( D )

21. Antibodies are formed by :

( A ) Fibroblasts
( B ) Plasma cells
( C ) Histiocytes
( D) Mast cells
Answer-( B )

22. T-lymphocytes originate from

( A ) bone-marrow
( B ) stomach
( C ) thymus
( D ) liver
Answer-( A )

23. Oncology is the study of :

( A ) Cancer
( B ) Oncogenes
( C ) Both A & B
( D ) Virus
Answer-( A )

24. LSD is got from

( A ) Fungus
( B ) Lichen
( C ) Algae
( D ) Bacterium
Answer-( A )
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25. Which one is a stimulant

( A ) LSD
( B ) Cocaine
( C ) Cannabis
( D ) Opium
Answer-( B )

26. Which of the following is an example of autoimmune disease?

( A ) Asthma
( B ) Rheumatoid arthritis
( C ) Cancer
( D ) None of these
Answer-( B )

27. The immediate metabolic changes in the body noticed after consuming tobacco is
( A ) Release of catecholamines due to stimulation of Adrenal gland.
( B ) Sudden increase in BP & Heart beat
( C ) ‘A’ & ‘B’ both
( D ) None of these
Answer-( C )

28. Which of the following is a retro virus ?

( A ) Human Immuno Deficiency virus
( B ) Hepatitis virus
( C ) Micro virus influenzii
( D ) All of these
Answer-( A )

29. Which of the following disease is generated by allergens?

( A ) Skin cancer
( B ) Hay fever
( C ) Enteric fever
( D ) Goitre
Answer-( B )

30. Mast cell secretes :

( A ) Prostagland in
( B ) Glycoprotein
( C ) Histamine
( D ) Hirudin
Answer-( C )

31. AIDS is widely diagnosed by:

( A ) Widal Test
( B ) ELISA
( C ) PCR
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( D ) Chromatography
Answer-( B )

32. Which is formed by Acetylation of Morphine ?

( A ) Heroin
( B ) Cocaine
( C ) Nicotine
( D ) Alkaloids
Answer-( A )

33.Cocaine is obtained from:

( A ) Erythroxylon coca
( B ) Paparver sominiferum
( C ) Atropa belladona
( D ) Datura stramonium
Answer-( A )

34. Hepatitis B is transmitted through

( A ) Sneezing
( B ) Coughing
( C ) Blood transfusion
( D )female mosquito
Answer-( C )

35. Level of which hormones get elevated by the in take of nicotine ?

( A ) FSH, LH
( B ) Oxytocin, prolactin
( C ) Adrenaline, Nor-adrenaline
( D ) FSH & Estrogen
Answer-( C )

36. Which one of the following is an opiate narcotic ?

( A ) Barbiturates
( B ) Morphine
( C ) Amphetamines
( D ) LSD
Answer-( B )

37. Which causes whooping cough?

( A ) Legionella sps.
( B ) Bordetella pertusis
( C ) Haemophilus
( D ) Mycobacterium
Answer-( B )

38. Which of the following disease is generated by allergens?

( A ) Skin
( B ) Hay fever
 P a g e | 146

( C ) Enteric fever
( D ) Goitre
Answer-( B )

39. HIV destroys which cell in AIDS disease ?

( A ) B-cell
( B ) C-cell
( C ) T⁴-lymphocyte
( D ) Both (A) and (B)
Answer-( C )

40. Cancer is caused by

( A ) Bacteria
( B ) Oncogenes
( C ) Both (A) and (B)
( D ) None of these
Answer-( B )

41. Which one is viral disease ?

( A ) Flu
( B ) Polio
( C ) AIDS
( D ) All of these
Answer-( D )

42. Which in the following is viral disease?

( A ) Hepatitis
( B ) Polio
( C ) Aids
( D ) All
Answer-( D )

43. Widal Test is for the diagnosis of which disease in the following ?
( A ) Typhoid
( B ) T.B.
( C ) Cancer
( D ) Leprosy
Answer-( A )

44. Vaccine for Rabies was first produced by :

( A ) Edward Jenner
( B ) Robert Kotch
( C ) Louis Pasteur
( D ) S.L.Miller
Answer-( C )

45. Kotch postulate are not applicable to :

( A ) Diptheria
 P a g e | 147

( B ) Leprosy
( C ) T.B.
( D ) Cholera
Answer-( B )

46. Hey fever is caused by :

( A ) virus
( B ) loss of vitamin
( C ) alergy
( D ) none
Answer-( C )

47 Cell mediated immunity is due to :

( A ) B-lymphocytes
( B ) T-lymphocytes
( C ) Both
( D ) Plasma cell
Answer-( B )

48. Chemically an antibody is :

( A ) Protein
( B ) Lipoprotein
( C ) Lipid
( D ) Nucleoprotein
Answer-( A )

49 Antibody found in colostrum is :

( A ) IgA
( B ) IgG
( C ) IgD
( D ) IgE
Answer-( A )

50. Morphine and opium are got from :

( A ) Cajanus Cajan
( B ) Cannabis sativa
( C ) Papaver somniferum
( D ) Rauwolfia serpentina
Answer-( C )

51. AIDS spreads through:

( A ) Blood transfusion
( B ) Placental transmission
( C ) Sexual intercourse
( D ) All the above
Answer-( D )
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52. Resistance against disease is due to :

( A ) Immunoglobulin
( B ) HLA proteins
( C ) Antigens
( D ) Histamine
Answer-( A )

53.HIV attacks :
( A ) B-lymphocytes
( B ) Antibodies
( C ) T-lymphocytes
( D ) Erythrocytes
Answer-( C )

54. Aquatic fern which is an excellent biofertiliser :

( A ) Azolla
( B ) Salvinia
( C ) Marsilea
( D ) Pteridium
Answer-( A )

55. Most famous bacterial fertilizer is :

( A ) Nitrosomonas
( B ) Nitrobacter
( C ) Nitrosococcus
( D ) Rhizobium
Answer-( D )

56. Group of bacteria used in biogas production is :

( A ) Eubacteri
( B ) Organotrophs
( C ) Methanotrophs
( D ) Methanogens
Answer-( D )

57. Stimulant found in Cola, Tea and Cocoa is :

( A ) Cocaine
( B ) Tannin
( C ) Amphetamine
( D ) Caffeine
Answer-( D )

58. Opiates and heroin are obtained from :

( A ) Thea
( B ) Papaver
( C ) Cannabis
( D ) Theobroma
Answer-( B )
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59. Heroin is got from plant of Family:

( A ) Leguminosae
( B ) Papaveraceae
( C ) Liliacae
( D ) Solanaceae
Answer-( B )

60. Stem cells arise from :

( A ) Yolk sac
( B ) Liver of foetus
( C ) Bone marrow
( D ) All
Answer-( D )

61. Which antibody initatiates allergic reaction ?

( A ) IgM
( B ) IgE
( C ) IgD
( D ) IgA
Answer-( B )

62. The drug that functions as depresent of CNS is :

( A ) Amphetamine
( B )Caffeine
( C ) Opium
( D ) Hallucinogen
Answer-( C )

63.LSD is :
( A ) Narcotic
( B ) Stimulant
( C ) Antidepresent
( D ) Hallucinogen
Answer-( D )

64.Stimulant cocaine is obtained from :

( A ) Rauwolfia
( B ) Erythroxylon
( C ) Papaver
( D ) Eucalptus
Answer-( B )

64.AZT is used in treatment of

( A ) Malaria
( B ) AIDS
( C ) T.B.
( D ) Kala-azar
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Answer-( B )

Question 1.
AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of
HIV?
(a) Transfusion of contaminated blood.
(b) Sharing the infected needles.
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons.
(d) Sexual contact with infected persons.
Answer:
(c) Shaking hands with infected persons.
Question 2.
‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from the
(a) latex of Papever somniferum
(b) leaves of Cannabis saliva
(c) flowers of Datura
(d) fruits of Erythroxyl coca.
Answer:
(a) latex of Papever somniferum
Question 3.
The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further
infection is
(a) serotonin
(b) colostrum
(c) interferon
(d) histamine.
Answer:
(c) interferon
Question 4.
Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is of
(a) IgG type
(b) IgA type
(c) IgD type
(d) IgE type.
Answer:
(b) IgA type
Question 5.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline. The
component causing this could be
(a) nicotine
(b) tannic acid
(c) curaimin
(d) catechin.
Answer:
(a) nicotine
Question 6.
Antivenom against snake poison contains
(a) antigens
(b) antigen-antibody complexes
 P a g e | 151

(c) antibodies
(d) enzymes
Answer:
(c) antibodies
Question 7.
Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue ?
(a) Spleen
(b) Tonsils
(c) Pancreas
(d) Thymus
Answer:
(c) Pancreas
Question 8.
Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with ageing ?
(a) Pineal
(b) Pituitary
(c) Thymus
(d) Thyroid
Answer:
(c) Thymus
Question 9.
Haemozoin is a
(a) precursor of haemoglobin
(b) toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
(d) toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells.
Answer:
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
Question 10.
One of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm.
(a) Microsporum
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Epidermophyton
(d) Macrosporum
Answer:
(d) Macrosporum
Question 11.
A person with sickle cell anaemia is
(a) more prone to malaria
(b) more prone to typhoid
(c) less prone to malaria
(d) less prone to typhoid.
Answer:
(c) less prone to malaria
Question 12.
Which of the following facrtors affect human health ?
(i) Infections
(ii) Silent mutation
(iii) Life style
 P a g e | 152

(iv) Genetic disorders

(a) (i), (ii)and(iv)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Question 13.
Which one of the following disease is non – communicable ?
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Flu
(c) Cancer
(d) Malaria
Answer:
(c) Cancer
Question 14.
Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease respectively
?
(a) Typhoid and AIDS
(b) AIDS and cancer
(c) Pneumonia and malaria
(d) Cancer and malaria
Answer:
(b) AIDS and cancer
Question 15.
Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Salmonella typhi
(d) Rhinoviruses.
Answer:
(c) Salmonella typhi
Question 16.
Which of the following is the bacterial disease in humans ?
(a) Dysentery
(b) Malaria
(c) Plague
(d) Both (a) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) & (c)
Question 17.
Which of the following pathogens causes whooping coough ?
(a) Legionella spp.
(b) Bordetella pertussis
(c) Vibrio cholerae
(d) Burcella melitensis
Answer:
(b) Bordetella pertussis
 P a g e | 153

Question 18.
Which one of the following sets includes bacterial diseases ?
(a) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
(b) Diptheria, leprosy, plague
(c) Cholera, typhoid, mumps
(d) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelits
Answer:
(b) Diptheria, leprosy, plague
Question 19.
The common cold is caused by
(a) Rhino viruses
(b) Streptococcus pnemoniae
(c) Salmonella typhimurium
(d) Plasmodium vivax.
Answer:
(a) Rhino viruses
Question 20.
Hepatitis B is transmitted through
(a) sneezing
(b) female Anopheles
(c) coughing
(d) blood transfusion.
Answer:
(b) female Anopheles
Question 21.
A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four days
in malarial fever, is
(a) interferon
(b) haemozoin
(c) hirudin
(d) colostrum
Answer:
(b) haemozoin
Question 22.
Humoral immunity is associated with
(a) T-cells
(b) B-cells
(c) macrophages
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) B-cells
Question 23.
The antibody which can cross placental barrier is.
(a) IgA
(b) JgE
(c) IgM
(d) IgG.
Answer:
(d) IgG.
 P a g e | 154

Question 24.
The most abundant class of immunoglobulins (Igs) in the body is
(a) IgA
(b) IgG
(c) IgE
(d) IgM
Answer:
(b) IgG
Question 25.
A protein or polysaccharide molecule that stimulates antibody formation.
(a) antigen
(b) antibiotics
(c) exotoxin
(d) endotoxins.
Answer:
(a) antigen
Question 26.
Passive immunity can be conferred directly by
(a) vaccines
(b) antitoxins
(c) colostrum
(d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) & (c)
Question 27.
Which form of pathogen is used in vaccination ?
(a) Activated and strong pathogenic antigens
(b) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
(c) Hyperactive and strong pathogen
(d) Preformed antibodies
Answer:
(b) Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
Question 28.
Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers which type of immunisation ?
(a) Active immunisation
(b) Passive immunisation
(c) Auto-immunisation
(d) Humoral immunisation
Answer:
(b) Passive immunisation
Question 29.
The term ‘antitoxin’ refers to a preparation containing
(a) B-lymphoctyes and T-lymphocytes
(b) antibodies to the toxin
(c) weakend pathogen
(d) inactivated T-lymphocytes.
Answer:
(b) antibodies to the toxin
 P a g e | 155

Question 30.
The injection given against the snake venom contains
(a) antigenic proteins
(b) preformed antibodies
(c) attenuated pathogen
(d) all of these.
Answer:
(b) preformed antibodies
Question 31.
Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of
(a) auto-immunisation
(b) passive immunisation
(c) active immunisation
(d) simple immunisation
Answer:
(c) active immunisation
Question 32.
During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual reproduction takes place in which of the
following hosts ?
(a) Human
(b) Female Anopheles mosquito
(c) Male Anopheles mosquito
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) Female Anopheles mosquito
Question 33.
Amoebic dysentery (amoebiasis) is caused by
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
(b) E. coli
(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(d) Trichophyton.
Answer:
(a) Entamoeba histolytica
Question 34.
Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured by taking antibiotics ?
(a) Plague
(b) Amoebiasis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Whooping cough
Answer:
(b) Amoebiasis
Question 35.
An intestinal parasite which causes blockage of the intestinal passage and whose eggs are
excreted along with the faeces of infected person is ______.
(a) Wuchereria bancrofti
(b) Ascaris
(c) Epidermophyton
(d) Microsporum
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Answer:
(b) Ascaris
Question 36.
Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by
(a) Ascaris
(b) E.coli
(c) Wuchereria
(d) Trichophyton
Answer:
(c) Wuchereria
Question 37.
Which of the following is affected by the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti ?
(a) Lymphatic vessels
(b) Respiratory system
(c) Nervous system
(d) Blood circulation
Answer:
(a) Lymphatic vessels
Question 38.
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of the female mosquito vector ?
(a) Filariasis
(b) Amoebiasis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Pneumonia
Answer:
(a) Filariasis
Question 39.
Which of the following pairs correctly matches a disease and a pathogen causing it ?
(a) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi
(b) Pneumonia – Haemophilus pneumoniae
(c) Malaria – Ascaris lumbricoides
(d) Ringworm – Entamoeba histolytica
Answer:
(a) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi
Question 40.
The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the
same kingdom as that of
(a) Taenia, a tapeworm
(b) Ascaris, a roundworm
(c) Rhizopus, a mould
(d) Wuchereria, a filarial worm,
Answer:
(c) Rhizopus, a mould
Question 41.
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching on various parts of the body are the symptoms
of _______.
(a) elephantiasis
(b) ringworm
(c) ascariasis
 P a g e | 157

(d) amoebiasis
Answer:
(b) ringworm
Question 42.
Heroin is commonly called as
(a) coke
(b) crack
(c) smack
(d) charas.
Answer:
(c) smack
Question 43.
Which compound is formed by acetylation of morphine ?
(a) Heroin
(b) Cocaine
(C) Tobacco.
(d) Marijuana
Answer:
(a) Heroin
Question 44.
Marijuana is extracted from .
(a) dried leaves and flowers of hemp plant .
(b) ergot fungus
(c) roots of hemp plant
(d) cocoa plant.
Answer:
(a) dried leaves and flowers of hemp plant .
Question 45.
Charas and ganja are the drugs which affect
(a) respiratory system
(b) cardiovascular system
(c) digestive system
(d) nervous system.
Answer:
(b) cardiovascular system
Question 46.
Cocaine is obtained from
(a) Erythroxylon coca
(b) Papaver somniferum
(c) Atropa belladona
(d) Dature stramonium
Answer:
(a) Erythroxylon coca
Question 47.
Cocaine is commonly called as
(a) smack
(b) coke
(c) crack
(d) both(b)&(c)
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Answer:
(d) both(b)&(c)
Question 48.
_______ is a CNS stimulant as it interferes with the trasport of the neuro-transmitter
__________ .
(a) Cocaine, acetylcoline
(b) Barbituarate, glutamate
(c) Cocaine, dopamine
(d) Barbiturate, glycine
Answer:
(c) Cocaine, dopamine
Question 49.
Whihc of the following plants possess hallucinogenic properties ?
(a) Erythroxylon coca
(b) Atropa belladona
(c) Datura stramonium
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 50.
Which drug is being excessively taken by some sports persons nowadays ?
(a) Opioids
(b) Barbiturates
(c) Cannabinoids
(d) Lysergic acid diethly amides (LSD)
Answer:
(c) Cannabinoids
Question 51.
Which drug is used as medicine to help patients cope with depression and insomnia ?
(a) Morphine
(b) Amphetamines
(c) Barbiturate
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Question 52.
Hepatitis B vaccine is produced from
(a) inactivated viruses
(b) yeast
(c) Haemophilus influenzae
(d) Salmonella typhimurium.
Answer:
(b) yeast
Question 53.
Use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have controlled which of the following
infectious diseases ?
(a) Polio and tetanus
(b) Diphtheria and pheumonia
(c) Cancer and AIDS
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(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Question 54.
The most abundant antibody produced against allergens is
(a) IgE
(b) IgA
(c) IgG
(d) IgM.
Answer:
(a) IgE
Question 55.
Which of the following cells actively participate during allergy ?
(a) B-lymphocytes
(b) Liver cells
(c) Mast cells
(d) Red blood cells
Answer:
(c) Mast cells
Question 56.
The drugs used to quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy are
(a) ati-histamine and adrenaline
(b) histamine and thyroxine
(c) adrenaline and a-interferon
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) ati-histamine and adrenaline
Question 57.
An auto-immune disease is
(a) SCID
(b) rheumatoid arthritis
(c) myasthenia gravis
(d) both (b) and (c).
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c).
Question 58.
Which out of the following groups represent auto-immune disorders ?
(a) SCID and diphtheria
(b) Diabetes mellitus (type 1) and rheumatic fever
(c) AIDS and cholera
(d) Hepatitis and leukaemia
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus (type 1) and rheumatic fever
Question 59.
The primary lymphoid organs are
(a) spleen and thymus
(b) bone marrow and thymus
(c) bone marrow and lymph node
(d) thymus and MALT.
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Answer:
(d) thymus and MALT.
Question 60.
The site where lymphocytes interact with antigens and proliferate to become effector cells are
(a) spleen and lymph nodes
(b) bone marrow and thymus
(c) Peyer’s patches and tonsils
(d) both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (c).
Question 61.
Which of these glands is large at the time of birth but in adults, it reduces to a very small size
?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Adrenal
(c) Thymus
(d) Spleen
Answer:
(c) Thymus
Question 62.
AIDS is widely diagnosed by
(a) Widal test
(b) ELISA
(c) PC
(d) Chromatography.
Answer:
(b) ELISA
Question 63.
Which of the following day is celebrated as ‘World AIDS Day’ ?
(a) 31st March
(b) 1st March
(c) Ist December
(d) 31st December
Answer:
(c) Ist December
Question 64.
Cancer cells do not exhibit the property of
(a) generating tumors
(b) metastasis
(c) contact inhibition
(d) less number of mitochondrial^cristae.
Answer:
(c) contact inhibition
Question 65.
A person suffering from leukaemia has
(a) tumors in adipose tissue
(b) increased number of plasma cells
(c) increased number of melanocytes
(d) increased number of WBCs.
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Answer:
(d) increased number of WBCs.
Question 66.
A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’ if the disorder is in
(a) fibroblasts
(b) circulatory system
(c) immune system
(d) epithelial cells.
Answer:
(a) fibroblasts
Question 67.
A chemical carcinogen present in tobacco smoke is responsible for
(a) skin cancer
(b) pancreatic cancer
(c) stomach cancer
(d) lung cancer.
Answer:
(d) lung cancer.
Question 68.
Major factors that cause cancer are
(a) oncogenes and polymorphonuclear leucocytes
(b) oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes
(c) MHC genes
(d) cellular oncogenes and a-interferons.
Answer:
(b) oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes
Question 69.
Which of the following approaches are used for the treatment of cancer ?
(a) Immunotherapy
(b) Surgery
(c) Radiotherapy & chemotherapy
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Question 70.
The substance given to cancer patients in order to activate their immune system and destroy
the tumour is
(a) histamine
(b) interleukin
(c) a-interferon
(d) morphine.
Answer:
(c) a-interferon
Question 71.
In humans, receptors for opioids are present in
(a) central nervous system
(b) gastrointestinal tract
(c) respiratory tract
(d) both (a) and (b)
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Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 9 Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production

1. Pisciculture is related culture of

( A ) Aquatic plants
( B ) Aquatic animals
( C ) Silk worm
( D ) Lac worm
Answer-( B )

2. Taichung is a variety of
( A ) Rice
( B ) Wheat
( C ) Maize
( D ) Sugarcane
Answer-( A )

3. An infertile plant hybrid can be madefertile by :

( A ) colchicine treatment
( B ) polyploidy
( C ) ganoson treatment
( D) all correct
Answer-( D )

4. The inbreeding between closelyrelated organisms :

( A ) reduces variations
( B ) increases variations
( C ) reduces dominance
( D ) none
Answer-( A )

5. Somaclonal variations are :

( A ) Variations produced in tissue culture
( B ) Variations produced during sexual reproduction
( C ) Variations caused by mutagens
( D )Variations caused by gamma rays.
Answer-( A )

6. In Maize, hybrid vigour is obtainedby :

( A ) Inducing mutations
( B ) Crossing two inbreed lines
( C ) Bombarding seeds with DNA
( D ) Harvesting seeds from most productive plants
Answer-( B )

7. Which of the following nematodesinfect the root of tobacco plants?

( A ) Bacillus thuringiensis
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( B ) Cry IAC
( C ) Meloidogyne incognita
( D ) Both A & B
Answer-( C )

8. ‘Sona Lika’ and ‘Kalyan Sona’ arehigh yielding disease resistant variety of
( A ) Rice
( B ) Wheat
( C ) Maize
( D ) Cotton
Answer-( B )

9. The toxic protein secreted by Bacillusthuringiensis is

( A ) Tubulin
( B ) Insulin
( C ) Cry Protein
( D ) All of these
Answer-( C )

10. Green revolution is mainly concernedwith :

( A ) Maize
( B ) Sugarcane
( C ) Fish
( D ) Wheat
Answer-( D )

11. Maize is generally rich in :

( A ) Thiamine
( B ) Lysine
( C ) Methionine
( D ) Cysteine
Answer-( D )

12. Which one is the example of Petroleum plants in the following:

( A ) Euphorbia
( B ) Jatropha
( C ) Hevea & Calotropis
( D ) All
Answer-( D )

13. White rust of wheat is caused by

( A ) Puccinia
( B ) Albugo
( C ) Ustilage
( D ) Cystopus
Answer-( A )

14. Which of the following is an exampleof a cross-breed?

( A ) Mule
 P a g e | 164

( B ) Hilsa
( C ) Hisardale
( D ) Sahiwal
Answer-( C )

15. Jaya and Ratna are varieties of

( A ) Wheat
( B ) rice
( C ) mustard
( D ) pea
Answer-( B )

16. MOET is related to :

( A ) transfer of super embryo
( B ) transfer of super eggs
( C ) super ovulation and embryo transfer
( D ) None
Answer-( C )

17. A plant cell without cell wall is called

( A ) proplast
( B ) protoplast
( C ) nucleoplasm
( D ) explant
Answer-( B )

18. A fungal disease of Poultry is

( A ) coccidiosis
( B ) coryza
( C ) aspergillosis
( D) Mark’s disease
Answer-( C )

19. Ranikhet disease in Poultry is a

( A ) Viral disease
( B ) Bacterial disease
( C ) Fungal disease
( D ) none
Answer-( A )

20. Which in the following is an improvedvariety of chicken ?

( A )Jersey
( B ) Leghorn
( C ) Himgiri
( D ) Kalyansona
Answer-( B )
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21. Which disease is found in hen ?

( A ) Smut
( B ) Cholera
( C ) Both A & B
( D ) Ranikhet
Answer-( D )

22. Norman Borlaug is associated with:

( A ) White revolution
( B ) Green revolution
( C ) Blue revolution
( D ) Yellow revolution
Answer-( B )

23. In callus culture, rooting can be induced by :

( A ) Gibberellin
( B ) Cytokinin
( C ) Auxin
( D ) Ethylene
Answer-( C )

24. Borlaug developed new varieties of:

( A ) Wheat
( B ) Rice
( C ) Sugarcane
( D ) Mango
Answer-( A )

25. Virus free plants can be obtainedby :

( A ) Embryo rescue
( B ) Meristem culture
( C ) Protoplast culture
( D ) Anther culture
Answer-( B )

26. Coccidiosis in poultry is caused by:

( A ) Protozoan parasites
( B )Nematode parasites
( C ) Viruses
( D ) Tapeworms
Answer-( A )

27. Which of the following is a freshwater

food fish ?
( A ) Harpodon
( B ) Cichina mrigala
( C ) Anguilla
( D ) Hilsa
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Answer-( B )

28. Which species of honey bee in commonly domesticated and cultured?

( A ) Apis indica
( B ) Apis millipera
( C ) Apis dorsata
( D ) Apis florea
Answer-( A )

29. Workers of Honey bee are :

( A ) Fertile male
( B ) Sterile male
( C ) Fertile female
( D ) Sterile female
Answer-( D )

30. Honey is made by

( A ) male honey bee
( B ) queen honey bee
( C ) worker honey bee
( D ) Both (A) & (B)
Answer-( C )

Question 1.
The use of certain chemicals and radiation to change the base sequences of genes of crop
plants is termed
(a) recombinant DNA technology
(b) transgenic mechanism
(c) mutation breeding
(d) gene therapy
Answer:
(c) mutation breeding
Question 2.
The scientific process by which crop plants are enriched with certain desirable nutrients is
called
(a) crop protection
(b) breeding
(c) bio-fortification
(d) bio-remediation
Answer:
(c) bio-fortification
Question 3.
The term ‘totipotency’ refers to the capacity of a
(a) cell to generate whole plant
(b) bud to generate whole plant
(c) seed to germinate
(d) cell to enlarge in size
Answer:
(a) cell to generate whole plant
 P a g e | 167

Question 4.
An explant is
(a) dead plant
(b) part of the plant
(c) part of the plant used in tissue culture
(d) part of the plant that expresses a specific gene
Answer:
(c) part of the plant used in tissue culture
Question 5.
The biggest constraint of plant breeding is
(a) availability of desirable gene in the crop and its wild relatives
(b) infrastructure
(c) trained manpower
(d) transfer of genes from unrelated sources
Answer:
(a) availability of desirable gene in the crop and its wild relatives
Question 6.
Lysine and tryptophan are
(a) proteins
(b) non-essential amino acids
(c) essential amino acids
(d) aromatic amino acids
Answer:
(c) essential amino acids
Question 7.
Micropropagation is
(a) propagation oif microbes in vitro
(b) propagation of plants in vitro
(c) propagation of cells in vitro
(d) growing plants on smaller scale
Answer:
(b) propagation of plants in vitro
Question 8.
Protoplast is
(a) another name for protoplasm
(b) an animal cell
(c) a plant cell without a cell wall
(d) a plant cell
Answer:
(c) a plant cell without a cell wall
Question 9.
To isolate protoplast, one needs
(a) pectiriase
(b) cellulase
(c) both pectinase and cellulase
(d) chitinase
Answer:
(c) both pectinase and cellulase
 P a g e | 168

Question 10.
Which one of the following is a marine fish ?
(a) Rohu
(b) Hilsa
(c) Catla
(d) Common Carp
Answer:
(b) Hilsa
Question 11.
Which one of the following products of apiculture is used in cosmetics and polishes ?
(a) Honey
(b) Oil
(c) Wax
(d) Royal jelly
Answer:
(c) Wax
Question 12.
More than 70 percent of livestock population is in
(a) Denmark
(b) India
(c) China
(d) India and China
Answer:
(d) India and China
Question 13.
The agriculture sector of India employs about
(a) 50 percent of the population
(b) 70 percent of the population
(c) 30 percent of the population
(d) 60 percent of the population
Answer:
(d) 60 percent of the population
Question 14.
33 percent of India’s (Gross Domestic Product) comes from
(a) industry
(b) agriculture
(c) export
(d) small-scale cottage industries
Answer:
(b) agriculture
Question 15.
A collection of all the alleles of all the genes of a crop plant is called
(a) germplasm collection
(b) protoplasm collection
(c) herbarium
(d) somaclonal collection
Answer:
(a) germplasm collection
 P a g e | 169

Question 16.
Which of the following is the “bird flu virus” ?
(a) H5N1
(b) Haemophilus influenzae
(c) HIV
(d) Rhino virus
Answer:
(a) H5N1
Question 17.
The infectious and contagious bacterial disease that affects cattle, buffaloes, horses, sheeps
and goats is
(a) anthrax
(b) rinderpest
(c) tick fever
(d) necrosis
Answer:
(a) anthrax
Question 18.
Which of the following is an improved variety of chicken ?
(a) Jersey
(b) Leghorn
(c) Himgiri
(d) Kalyan Sona
Answer:
(b) Leghorn
Question 19.
Which of the following is a draught breed of Indian cattle ?
(a) Malvi
(b) Gir
(c) Sahiwal
(d) Deoni
Answer:
(a) Malvi
Question 20.
Holstein-Frisian, Brown Swiss and Jersey are all well known
(a) exotic breeds of cow
(b) exotic breeds of goat
(c) exotic breeds of poultry
(d) animal husbandry scientists
Answer:
(a) exotic breeds of cow
Question 21.
Which one of the following is a breed of cattle ?
(a) Ayrshire
(b) Ghagus
(c) Kadaknath
(d) Scampi
Answer:
(a) Ayrshire
 P a g e | 170

Question 22.
Which one of the following poultry birds is not an English breed ?
(a) Sussex
(b) Australorp
(c) Orpington
(d) Minorca
Answer:
(b) Australorp
Question 23.
High milk yielding cross bred Frieswal cow is the product of
(a) Brown Swiss × Sahiwal
(b) Friesian × Sahiwal
(c) Holstein × Tharparkar
(d) Brown Swiss × Red sindhi
Answer:
(b) Friesian × Sahiwal
Question 24.
What strategy would you suggest if a person wants to evolve a pure line in an animal ?
(a) Cross-breeding
(b) Inbreeding
(c) Out-breeding
(d) artificia insemination
Answer:
(b) Inbreeding
Question 25.
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding inbreeding ?
(a) It is the breeding between animals of the same breed
(b) It decreases homozygosity
(c) It exposes harmful recessive genes
(d) It helps in accumulation os superior genes
Answer:
(b) It decreases homozygosity
Question 26.
Which of the following are common freshwater fishes ?
(a) Mackerel and rohu
(b) Rohu, common carp and Catla
(c) Hilsa and sardine
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Rohu, common carp and Catla
Question 27.
Which one of the following is a marine fish ?
(a) Rohu
(b) Hilsa
(c) Catla
(d) Common carp
Answer:
(b) Hilsa
 P a g e | 171

Question 28.
Which one of the following is an exotic carp species ?
(a) Labeo rohita
(b) Crprinus carpio
(c) Labeo bata
(d) Cirrhinus mrigals
Answer:
(b) Crprinus carpio
Question 29.
Aquaculture is the rearing and management of
(a) molluscs and crustaceans
(b) only freshwater fishes
(c) economically useful aquatic plants and animals
(d) only aquatic plants
Answer:
(c) economically useful aquatic plants and animals
Question 30.
Aquaculture does not include
(a) prawns
(b) fishes
(c) silkworms
(d) shell fishery
Answer:
(c) silkworms
Question 31.
Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) Sericulture – Fish
(b) Aquaculture – Mosquito
(c) Apiculture – Honeybee
(d) Pisciculture – Silkmoth
Answer:
(c) Apiculture – Honeybee
Question 32.
Germplasm collection is the collection of
(a) germ cells
(b) semens
(c) plants/seeds with all the diverse alleles for all genes
(d) egg cells
Answer:
(c) plants/seeds with all the diverse alleles for all genes
Question 33.
Major percentage of India’s Gross Domestic Product is constituted by
(a) industry
(b) agriculture
(c) export
(d) small scale cottage industry
Answer:
(b) agriculture
 P a g e | 172

Question 34.
The Noble Laureate, who developed semi-dwarf wheat varieties in Mexioc was
(a) Norman E. Borlaug
(b) herbert Boyer
(c) William Harvey
(d) Typhoid Mary
Answer:
(a) Norman E. Borlaug
Question 35.
Jaya and Ratna are the semi-dwarf varieties of
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) cowpea
(d) mustard
Answer:
(b) rice
Question 36.
The term “inbreeding depression” is related to
(a) increased fertility and productivity
(b) increased milk production
(c) reduced fertility & productivity
(d) reduced milk production
Answer:
(c) reduced fertility & productivity
Question 37.
Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding generally results in
(a) inbreeding depression
(b) inbreeding stimulation
(c) inbreeding hybridisation
(d) inbreeding mutation
Answer:
(a) inbreeding depression
Question 38.
The breeding carried out between animals of different breeds is called
(a) out-crossing
(b) cross-breeding
(c) inbreeding
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) cross-breeding
Question 39.
Which of the following is an example of a cross-breed ?
(a) Mule
(b) Hilsa
(c) Hisardale
(d) Sahiwal
Answer:
(c) Hisardale
 P a g e | 173

Question 40.
Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing
(a) Merino ram and Bikaneri ewe
(b) Assel ram and White leghorn ewe
(c) Rhode Island ram and White leghorn ewe
(d) Cochin ram and Ghagus ewe
Answer:
(a) Merino ram and Bikaneri ewe
Question 41.
Crossing of individuals of two different species to produce a hybrid is called
(a) interspecific hybridisation
(b) intervarietal hybridisation
(c) intergeneric hybridisation
(d) intravarietal hybrididisation
Answer:
(a) interspecific hybridisation
Question 42.
Artificial insemination involves
(a) super ovulation
(b) semen collection
(c) egg collection
(d) embryo collection
Answer:
(b) semen collection
Question 43.
Artificial breeding of cattle is brough about by
(a) artiticial insemination
(b) super ovulation and embryo transplantation
(c) MOET
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these
Question 44.
MOET stands for
(a) Multiple Ovulation and Egg transfer Technology
(b) Multiple Ovary and Embryo Transfer Technology
(c) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
(d) Method of Egg Transfer Technology
Answer:
(c) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
Question 45.
Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology is related to
(a) transfer of super embryo
(b) transfer of super eggs
(c) super ovulation and embryo transfer
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) super ovulation and embryo transfer
 P a g e | 174

Question 46.
‘Lean meat’ is cosidered to be of high quality because it has
(a) lesser but easily digestible protein
(b) lesser lipid content
(c) more fat that makes the meqt softer
(d) longer table life due to lesser chances of infection
Answer:
(b) lesser lipid content
Question 47.
In livestock breeding experiments, which of the following stages is transferred to surrogate
mothers ?
(a) Unfertilised eggs
(b) Fertilised eggs
(c) 8 to 32 celled embryo
(d) Frozen semen
Answer:
(c) 8 to 32 celled embryo
Question 48.
The term ‘apiculture’ refers to
(a) tissue culture
(b) pisciculture
(c) bee-keeping
(d) animal-keeping
Answer:
(c) bee-keeping
Question 49.
Which of the following plays a role in indigenous system of medicine ?
(a) Plant breeding
(b) Fisheries
(c) Apiculture
(d) MOET
Answer:
(c) Apiculture
Question 50.
In honey, the main constituent is
(a) calcium
(b) sugar
(c) protein
(d) water
Answer:
(b) sugar
Question 51.
Turnip mosaic disease is caused by
(a) bacteria
(b) viruses
(c) nematodes
(d) fungi
Answer:
(b) viruses
 P a g e | 175

Question 52.
Which of the following dieases is caused by virus ?
(a) Tobacco mosaic
(b) Late blight of potato
(c) Turnip mosaic
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Question 53.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
Disease Causative organism
(a) Black rot of crucifers Bacteria
(b) Brown rust of wheat Fungi
(c) Late blight of potato Virus
(d) Red rot of sugarcane Fungi
Answer:
(c) Late blight of potato Virus
Question 54.
Which of the following dieases is caused by bacteria ?
(a) Tobacco mosaic
(b) Black rot of crucifers
(c) Red rot of sugarcane
(d) Lata blight of potato
Answer:
(b) Black rot of crucifers
Question 55.
Black rust of wheat is caused by
(a) Puccinia
(b) Albugo
(c) Ustilagp
(d) Cystopus
Answer:
(a) Puccinia
Question 56.
Which of the following is incorrectly paired ?
(a) What – Himgiri
(b) Milch breed – Sahiwal
(c) Rice – Ratna
(d) Pusa Komal – Brassica
Answer:
(d) Pusa Komal – Brassica
Question 57.
The yellow mosaic virus-resistant variety “Parbhani Kranti” belongs to
(a) bhindi
(b) barley
(c) chilli
(d) cauliflower
Answer:
(a) bhindi
 P a g e | 176

Question 58.
Hairy leaves of many plants are associated with
(a) resistance to insect pests
(b) resistance to viruses
(c) resistance to fungi
(d) resistance to bacteria
Answer:
(a) resistance to insect pests
Question 59.
Resistance to jassids in cotton plants and to cereal leaf beetle in wheat plants is due to
(a) biochemical characters
(b) physiological characters
(c) morphological characters
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) morphological characters
Question 60.
Maize generates resistance against stem borers by having
(a) low aspartic acid, high nitrogen and sugar content
(b) low aspartic acid and sugar but high nitrogen content
(c) high aspartic acid and nitrogen but low sugar content
(d) high aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content
Answer:
(d) high aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content
Question 61.
Meristem culture is the cultue of
(a) axillary or apical shoot meristems
(b) anthers
(c) plant seeds
(d) young embryos
Answer:
(a) axillary or apical shoot meristems
Question 62.
A plant cell without cell wall is called
(a) proplast
(b) protoplast
(c) nucleoplasm
(d) explant
Answer:
(b) protoplast
Question 63.
A somatic hybird between potato and tomato is named as
(a) bomato
(b) mopato
(c) pomato
(d) topamo
Answer:
(c) pomato
 P a g e | 177

Question 64.
The enzymes required to obtain protoplast from a plant cell are
(a) cellulase
(b) chitinase
(c) pectinase
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (c)
Question 65.
The chances of contracting bird flu from a properly cooked (above 100°C) chicken and egg
are
(a) very high
(b) high
(c) moderate
(d) none
Answer:
(d) none
Question 66.
A group of animals which are related by descent and share many similarities are referred to
as
(a) breed
(b) race
(c) variety
(d) species
Answer:
(a) breed
Question 67.
Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it
(a) increases vigour
(b) improves the breed
(c) increases heterozygosity
(d) increases homozygosity
Answer:
(d) increases homozygosity
Question 68.
Sonalikea and Kalyan Sona are varieties of
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) millet
(d) tobacco
Answer:
(a) wheat
Question 69.
Which one of the following is not a fungal disease?
(a) Rust of wheat
(b) Smut of Bajra
(c) Black rot of crucifers
(d) Red rot of sugarcane
 P a g e | 178

Answer:
(c) Black rot of crucifers
Question 70.
Fungicides and antibiotics are chemicals that
(a) enhance yield and disease resistance
(b) kill pathogenic fungi and bacteria, respectively
(c) kill all pathogenic microbes
(d) kill pathogenic bacteria and fungi respectively
Answer:
(b) kill pathogenic fungi and bacteria, respectively
Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 10 Microbes in Human Welfare

1. Brewery is connected with

( A ) Saccharomyces
( B ) Protozoans
( C ) Pteridophytes
( D ) Marsupials
Answer-( A )

2. For Nitrogen fixation in soil we may use

( A ) Cyanobacteria
( B ) Protozoans
( C ) Nematodes
( D ) Wheat plants
Answer-( A )

3. Which of the following antibiotics was extensively used to treat american soldiers wounded in
world war II.
( A ) Neomycin
( B ) Bacitracin
( C ) Chloramphenicol
( D ) Penicillin
Answer-( D )

4. Probiotics are :
( A ) New kind of food allergens.
( B ) Safe antibiotics
( C ) Live microbial food supplement
( D ) Cancer inducing microbes
Answer-( C )

5. Organic farming does not include

( A ) green manures
( B ) chemical fertilizers
( C ) farmyard manures
( D ) compost
Answer-( B )
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6. Farmers have reported 50% higher rice yield by the use of biofertilizers?
( A ) Bacillus thuringiensis
( B ) Rhizobium
( C ) Mycorrhizae
( D ) Azolla pinnata
Answer-( D )

7. Most commonly used green manures in India are :

( A ) Crotolaria Juncea
( B ) Sesabaria aculeata
( C ) Cyamopsis tetragonoloba
( D ) All
Answer-( D )

8. Which one is not used as a biopesticide?

( A ) Trichoderma harzianum
( B ) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
( C ) Xanthomonas campestris
( D ) Bacillus thuringiensis
Answer-( C )

9. Streptomycin is obtained from :

( A ) Streptomyces griseus
( B ) S. cerevisae
( C ) S. venezuelae
( D ) S. ramosus
Answer-( B )

10. Process of biogas production is :

( A ) aerobic
( B ) anaerobic
( C ) active process
( D ) passive process
Answer-( B )

11. Which of the following is not biofertilizer ?

( A ) Azotobacter
( B ) Bacillus thuringiensis
( C ) Clostridium
( D ) Azolla
Answer-( B )

12. Masses of bacteria associated with fungal filament to form a mesh like structure is called :
( A ) Flocs
( B ) Methanogen
( C ) Plasminogen
( D ) None of these
Answer-( A )
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13. The toxic protein secreted by Bacillus thuringiensis is:

( A ) Tubulin
( B ) Insulin
( C ) Cry protein
( D ) All
Answer-( C )

14. Which of the following is a retro virus?

( A ) Human Immuno Deficienyc virus
( B ) Hepatitis virus
( C ) Microvirus Influenzil
( D ) All of these
Answer-( A )

15. Which microbe is useful in the formation of curd from milk ?

( A ) Clostridium
( B ) Lactobacillus
( C ) Both (A) and (B)
( D ) Streptococcus
Answer-( B )

16. The flour of Idli & Dosa is made by the use of which microbe ?
( A ) Bacteria
( B ) Lactobacillus
( C ) Virus
( D ) Yeast
Answer-( A )

17. Which one of the following is helpful in the improvement of soil ?

( A ) Insecticide
( B ) Biofertilizer
( C ) Yeast
( D ) None of these
Answer-( B )

18. Aquatic fern which is an excellent biofertilizer :

( A ) Salvinia
( B ) Azolla
( C ) Marsellia
( D ) Pteridium
Answer-( B )

19. Third generation pesticides are :

( A ) Insect repellants
( B ) Pheromones
( C ) Pathogens
( D ) Insect hormone analognes
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Answer-( D )

20. Which of the following can cause molecular nitrogen as nutrient ?

( A ) Methanomonas
( B ) Mucor
( C ) Rhizobium
( D ) Spirogyra
Answer-( C )

21. Industrial production of ethanol fromstarch is brought about by a certain species of :

( A ) Penicillin
( B ) Azotobacter
( C ) Saccharomyces
( D ) Lactobacillus
Answer-( C )

22. Which of the following was an accidental discovery ?

( A ) Penicillin
( B ) Insulin
( C ) Chloramphenicol
( D ) DNA
Answer-( A )

23 Sour taste of vinegar is due to :

( A ) Lactic acid
( B ) acetic acid
( C ) butyric acid
( D ) fumaric acid
Answer-( B )

24. Which one is biofertilizer ?

( A ) Mycorrhiza
( B ) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
( C ) Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria
( D ) All the above
Answer-( D )

25. Some blue green algae are used as biofertiliser because they can:
( A ) Fix nitrogen
( B ) Secrete nuclilage
( C ) Perform photosynthesis
( D ) Grow everywhere
Answer-( A )

26. An insect repellent neem product is :

( A ) Rotenone
( B ) Azadirachtin
( C ) Parathion
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( D ) Endrin
Answer-( B )

27. Bt cotton is resistant to :

( A ) Insects
( B ) Herbicides
( C ) Salt
( D ) Drought
Answer-( A )

28. The process of increasing soil fertility by earth worms is

( A ) Worm casting
( B ) Vermi composting
( C ) Compost bedding
( D ) None of these
Answer-( B )

29. In gobar gas maximum amount is that of :

( A ) Propane
( B ) Methane
( C ) Butane
( D ) CO2
Answer-( B )

30. Which of the following step is taken by Govt. of India to protect rivers from water pollution ?
( A ) Ganga action plan
( B ) Narmada action plan
( C ) Yamuna action plan
( D ) Both (A) and (C)
Answer-( D )

31. Bacteria present in the rumen of cattle is :

( A ) Azotobacter
( B ) Rhizobium
( C ) Methanobacterium
( D ) Azospirillum
Answer-( C )

32. In the sewage treatement, bacterial of are allowed to sediment in a settling tank. This
sediment is called :
( A ) inactivated sludge
( B ) activated sludge
( C ) primary sludge
( D ) secondary sludge
Answer-( B )

33. During primary treatment of sewage solid particles that settle down are called
( A ) flocs
 P a g e | 183

( B ) primary sludge
( C ) activated sludge
( D )anaerobic sludge
Answer-( B )

34. Which of the following organism is used in the production of beverages?

( A ) Penicillium notatum
( B ) sacharomyces cerevisac
( C ) Aspergillus niger
( D ) Clostridium butylicum
Answer-( B )

35. Which of the following microbes is a proteinaceous infectious agents ?

( A ) Fungi
( B ) Prions
( C ) Bacteria
( D ) Protozoa
Answer-( B )

36.Cyanobacteria are :
( A ) heterotrophs
( B ) chemotrophs
( C ) autotrophs
( D ) organotrophs
Answer-( C )

37. The chemicals produced by some microbes to kill or retard the growth of other microbes are
called :
( A ) antiseptics
( B ) antacid
( C ) antibiotics
( D ) all
Answer-( C )

38. The symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants is called :
( A ) Lichen
( B ) mycorrhiza
( C ) biofertilizer
( D ) biocontrol agent
Answer-( B )

39. Statins used for lowering blood-cholesterol level are extracted from:
( A ) algae
( B ) bacteria
( C ) viruses
( D ) yeasts
Answer-( D )
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40. Which is the first step of sewage treatment

( A ) Precipitation
( B ) Chlorination
( C ) Sedimentation
( D ) Aeration
Answer-( C )

41. Integrated Pest management discourages the excessive use of :

( A ) biological methods
( B ) chemical pesticides
( C ) mechanical methods
( D ) All
Answer-( B )

42. Which in the following is a non- symbiotic biofertilizer?

( A ) VAM
( B ) Azotobacter
( C ) Anabaena
( D ) Rhizobium
Answer-( B )

43. Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control

( A ) bacterial pathogens
( B ) fungal pathogens
(C ) nematodes
( D) insect pests
Answer-( D )

44. Which is widely used successful biofertilizer in Indian rice fields ?

( A ) Rhizobium
( B ) Acacia
( C ) Acalypha
( D ) Azolla
Answer-( D )

45. N2-fixation in root nodules of almus is brought about by

( A ) Frankia
( B ) Azorhizobium
( C ) Bradyrhizobium
( D ) Clostridium
Answer-( A )

46. Name the fungus used for steroid synthesis ?

( A ) Aspergillus oryzae
( B ) Torulopsis utilis
( C ) Rhizopus stolonifer
( D ) Neurospora cross
Answer-( C )
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47. A major component of gobar gas is :

( A ) butane
( B ) ammonia
( C ) methane
( D ) ethane
Answer-( C )

48. Baker’s yeast in the following is :

( A ) S.Cerevisae
( B ) S.ludwingia
( C ) S.Octosporus
( D ) Sehizosaccharomyces
Answer-( A )

49. ‘Yeast’ is an important source of :

( A ) Vitamin C
( B ) riboflavin
( C ) Sugars
( D ) Proteins
Answer-( B )
50. Formation of vinegar from alcohol is caused by :
( A ) Bacillus subtilis
( B ) Clostridium
( C ) Acetobacter aceti
( D ) Azotobacter
Answer-( C )

51. The bacterium capable of anaerobic N2-fixation is known as:

( A ) Azotobacter
( B ) Clostridium
( C ) Bacillus
( D ) Rhizobium
Answer-( B )

Question 1.
A nitrogen fixing microbe associated with the fern Azolla in rice fields is
(a) Frankia
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Spirulina
(d) Anabaena
Answer:
(d) Anabaena
Question 2.
Azolla pinnata has been found to be an important biofertiliser for paddy crops. This quality is
due to the presence of
(a) N2 fixing bacteria
(b) N2 fixing cyanobacteria
 P a g e | 186

(c) mycorrhizae
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) N2 fixing cyanobacteria
Question 3.
Which of the following is widely used as a successful biofertiliser in Indian rice field ?
(a) Rhizobium
(b) Acacia arabica
(c) Acalypha indica
(d) Azolla pinnata
Answer:
(d) Azolla pinnata
Question 4.
Which of the following options incldes biofertilscrs ?
(a) cowdung manure and farmyard waste
(b) A quick growing crop ploughed back into the field
(c) Nostoc, Oscillatoria
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Nostoc, Oscillatoria
Question 5.
Which of the following is a non-symbiotic biofertiliser ?
(a) VAM
(b) Azotobacter
(c) Anabaena
(d) Rhizobium
Answer:
(b) Azotobacter
Question 6.
Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by
(a) Frankia
(b) Azorhizobium
(c) Bradyrhizobium
(d) Clostridium
Answer:
(a) Frankia
Question 7.
The vitamin whose content increases following the conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid
bacteria is
(a) vitamin C
(b) vitamin D
(c) vitamin B12
(d) vitamin E
Answer:
(c) vitamin B12
Question 8.
Wastewater treatment generates a large quantity of sludge, which can be treated by
(a) anaerobic digesters
(b) floe
 P a g e | 187

(c) chemicals
(d) oxidation pond
Answer:
(a) anaerobic digesters
Question 9.
Methanogenic bacteria are not found in
(a) rumen of cattle
(b) gobar gas plant
(c) bottom of water-logged paddy field
(d) activated sludge
Answer:
(d) activated sludge
Question 10.
The primary treatment of wastewater involves the removal of
(a) dissolved impurities
(b) stable particles
(c) toxic substances
(d) harmful bacteria
Answer:
(b) stable particles
Question 11.
BOD of wastewater is estimated by measuring the amount of
(a) total organic matter
(b) biodegradable organic matter
(c) oxygen evolution
(d) oxygen consumption
Answer:
(d) oxygen consumption
Question 12.
Which one of the following alcoholic drinks is produced without distillation ?
(a) Wine
(b) Whisky
(c) Rum
(d) Brandy
Answer:
(a) Wine
Question 13.
The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for
(a) killing insects
(b) biological control of plant diseases
(c) controlling butterfly caterpillars
(d) producing antibiotics
Answer:
(b) biological control of plant diseases
Question 14.
Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in
(a) enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
(b) increasing its tolerance to drought
(c) enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
 P a g e | 188

(d) increasing its resistance to insects

Answer:
(d) increasing its resistance to insects
Question 15.
Which one of the following is not a nitrogen-fixing organism ?
(a) Anabaena
(b) Nostoc
(c) Azotobacter
(d) Pseudomonas
Answer:
(d) Pseudomonas
Question 16.
Which of the following microbes is a proteinacious infectious agent ?
(a) Fungi
(b) Prions
(c) Bacteria
(d) Protozoa
Answer:
(b) Prions
Question 17.
The nutritive medium for growing bacteria and many fungi in laboratory is called
(a) growth media
(b) suspension media
(c) culture media
(d) colonial media
Answer:
(c) culture media
Question 18.
The inoculum is added to the fresh milk in order to convert milk into curd, the term ‘inoculum’
here refers to
(a) a starter rich in vitami Bp
(b) a starter rich in proteins
(c) a starter containing milions of LAB
(d) an aerobic digester
Answer:
(c) a starter containing milions of LAB
Question 19.
Which of the following organisms is used in the production of beverages ?
(a) Penicillium notatum
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Aspergilus niger
(d) Clostridium butylicum
Answer:
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Question 20.
Which of the following options contains the end products formed during anaerobic
respiration in yeast ?
(a) H2O, CO2 and energy
(b) H2S, C6H12O6 and energy
 P a g e | 189

(c) CO2, C2H5OH and energy

(d) H2O and CO2
Answer:
(c) CO2, C2H5OH and energy
Question 21.
The chemical substances produced by some microbes which can kill or retard the growth of
other microbes are called
(a) antiseptics
(b) antacids
(c) antibiotics
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) antibiotics
Question 22.
Antibiotics are obtained from
(a) bacteria
(b) fungi
(c) actinomycetes
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these
Question 23.
Which of the following antibiotics was extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded
in World War 11 ?
(a) Neomycin
(b) Bacitracin
(c) Chloramphenicol
(d) Penicillin
Answer:
(d) Penicillin
Question 24.
Streptomycin is obtained from
(a) Streptomyces griseus
(b) S. cerevisiae
(c) S. venezuelae
(d) S. rimosus
Answer:
(a) Streptomyces griseus
Question 25.
Integrated Pest Management (IPM) discourages the excessive used of
(a) biological methods
(b) chemical pesticides
(c) mechanical methods
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) chemical pesticides
Question 26.
Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide ?
(a) Trichoderma harzianum
 P a g e | 190

(b) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(c) Xanthomonas campestris
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis
Answer:
(c) Xanthomonas campestris
Question 27.
Organic farming does not include
(a) green manures
(b) chemical fertilisers
(c) farmyard manures
(d) compost
Answer:
(b) chemical fertilisers
Question 28.
Organic farming includes
(a) use of fertilisers and pesticides of biological origin
(b) IPM (Integrated Pest Management)
(c) locally developed pest resistant varieties
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these
Question 29.
Living organisms used to enrich the nutrient quality of the soil are called as
(a) biocontrol agents
(b) biofertilisers
(c) synthetic fertilisers
(d) natural fertilisers
Answer:
(d) natural fertilisers
Question 30.
Biofertilisers are
(a) some bacteria and cyanobacteria
(b) fertilisers formed by ploughing in barseem
(c) fertilisers obtained by decay of dead organisms
(d) fertilisers prepared by mixing cattle dung with crop residues
Answer:
(a) some bacteria and cyanobacteria
Question 31.
Biofertilisers are the living organisms which
(a) bring about soil nutrient enrichment
(b) maximise the ecological benefits
(c) minimise the environmental hazards
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these
Question 32.
Which one of the following can be used as biofertiliser in cotton field ?
(a) Azolla-Anabaena
(b) Streptococcus
 P a g e | 191

(c) Azospirillum
(d) Azotobacter chroococcum
Answer:
(d) Azotobacter chroococcum
Question 33.
The symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plants is referred to as
(a) lichen
(b) mycorrhiza
(c) biofertiliser
(d) biocontrol agent
Answer:
(b) mycorrhiza
Question 34.
Cyanobacteria are
(a) heterotrophs
(b) chemotrophs
(c) autotrophs
(d) organotrophs
Answer:
(c) autotrophs
Question 35.
Enzyme which has the fibrinolytic effect is
(a) protease
(b) amylase
(c) lipase
(d) streptokinase
Answer:
(d) streptokinase
Question 36.
Statins used for lowering blood cholesterol level are extracted from
(a) algae
(b) bacteria
(c) viruses
(d) yeast
Answer:
(d) yeast
Question 37.
Monascus purpureus is a yeast commercially used in the production of
(a) citric acid
(b) ethanol
(c) blood cholesterol lowering statins
(d) streptokinase for removing clots from blood vessels
Answer:
(c) blood cholesterol lowering statins
Question 38
is the first step of sewage treatment.
(a) Precipitation
(b) Chlorination
(c) Sedimentation
 P a g e | 192

(d) Aeration
Answer:
(c) Sedimentation
Question 39.
During the primary treatment of sewage, solid particles that settle down are called
(a) floes
(b) primary sludge
(c) activated sludge
(d) anaerobic sludge
Answer:
(b) primary sludge
Question 40.
The purpose of biological treatment of waste water is to
(a) reduce BOD
(b) increase BOD
(c) reduce sedimentation
(d) increase sedimentation
Answer:
(a) reduce BOD
Question 41.
The masses of bacteria held together by slime and fungal filaments to form mesh-like
structures are called as
(a) primary sludge
(b) floes
(c) activated sludge
(d) anaerobic sludge
Answer:
(b) floes
Question 42.
BOD is………..in polluted water and in potable water.
(a) more, less
(b) less, more
(c) less in both
(d) medium in both
Answer:
(a) more, less
Question 43.
In the sewage treatment, bacterial floes are allowed to sediment in a settling tank. This
sediment is called as
(a) inactivated sludge
(b) activated sludge
(c) primary sludge
(d) secondary sluge
Answer:
(b) activated sludge
Question 44.
Which of the following steps is taken by the Ministry of Environment and Forests to protect
rivers from water pollition ?
(a) Ganga Action Plan
 P a g e | 193

(b) Narmada Action Plan

(c) Yamuna Action Plan
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Question 45.
Methanogens, growing anaerobically on cellulosic material produce
(a) methane
(b) methane and carbon dioxide
(c) methane and hydrogen
(d) methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Answer:
(d) methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen
Question 46.
Which of the following bacteria is present in the rumen of cattle ?
(a) Azotobacter
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Methanobacterium
(d) Azospirillum
Answer:
(c) Methanobacterium
Question 47.
Process of biogas production is
(a) aerobic process
(b) anaerobic process
(c) active process
(d) passive process
Answer:
(b) anaerobic process
Question 48.
Biogas is produced by
(a) aerobic breakdown of biomass
(b) anaerobic breakdown of biomass
(c) with the help of methanogenic bacteria
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)
Question 49.
Dragonflies are used to get rid of
(a) mosquitoes
(b) aphids
(c) butterfly caterpillars
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) mosquitoes
Question 50.
A microbial biocontrol agent that can be used to control butterfly caterpillars is
(a) Trichoderma polysporum
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
 P a g e | 194

(c) Streptococcus
(d) mycorrhiza
Answer:
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
Question 51.
Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control
(a) bacterial pathogens
(b) fungal pathogens
(c) nematodes
(d) insect pests
Answer:
(d) insect pests
Question 52.
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel
(a) biofertilisers
(b) bio-metallurgical techniques
(c) bio-mineralisation process
(d) bio-insecticidal plants
Answer:
(d) bio-insecticidal plants
Question 53.
Trichoderma harzianum has proved to be a useful microorganism for
(a) gene transfer in higher plants
(b) biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
(c) bioremediation of contaminated soils
(d) reclamation of wastelands
Answer:
(b) biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
Question 54.
Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show
(a) host specificity
(b) narrow spectrum applications
(c) effects on non-target pathogens
(d) utility in IPM programme
Answer:
(c) effects on non-target pathogens
Question 55.
The residue left after methane production from cattle dung is
(a) burnt
(b) burried in land fills
(c) used as manure
(d) used in civil construction
Answer:
(c) used as manure
Question 56.
Methanogens do not produce
(a) oxygen
(b) methane
(c) hydrogen sulphide
 P a g e | 195

(d) carbon dioxide

Answer:
(a) oxygen
Question 57.
Microbes are present in
(a) soil
(b) thermal vents
(c) polluted water
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 11 BIOTECHNOLOGY : PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

1. For induction of alien DNA is host cell we may use-

(A) Gene gun
(B) Micro-pipette
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer-( C )

2. (amp)R gene is responsible for developing resistance in

(A) Pest
(B) Insect
(C) Antibiotic
(D) Spherosome
Answer-( C )

3. Amplification of gene for interest may be done by

(A)MMR
(B) PCR
(C) MRI
(D) All of these
Answer-( B )

4. Bio reactors provide optimal conditions to produce desired-

(A) Product
(B) Organism
(C) Medium
(D) All of these
Answer-( A )

5. Restriction enzymes are known as

(A) Biological guns
(B) Molecular scissors
(C)Plasmid
(D) Micro Pipette
Answer-( B )
 P a g e | 196

6. The most common bacterium used in genetic engineering is :

(A) Escherichia
(B) Clostridium
(C) Salmonella
(D) Bacillus
Answer-( A )

7. Genetic engineering is also called

(A)Recombinant DNA technique
(B) Tissue culture
(C) Cloning vector
(D ) Flow of resources
Answer-( A )

8. Which in the following is not Restriction enzyme ?

(A) EcoR1
(B) Bam H1
(C) Hind III
(D) Pectinase
Answer-( D )

9. Which one is used to observe DNA?

(A) Ethidium bromide
(B) Aniline blue
(C) Saffarine
(D) Fast green
Answer-( A )

10. Bam H1 restriction enzyme is obtained from

(A) Haemophilus influenzae
(B) E. Coli
(C) Bacillus emaloliquifaciens
(D) None
Answer-( C )

11. DNA polymerase can be obtained from-

(A) PBR 322
(B) Thermus aquaticus
(C) Agrobacterium
(D) Retrovirus
Answer-( B )

12. In Eco RI of Restriction endonuclease Co represents

(A) Colon
(B) Coelom
(C) Co-enzyme
(D) Coli
 P a g e | 197

Answer-( D )

13. Fungus is filtered by which enzyme?

(A) Chitinase
(B) Lysozyme
(C) Cellulose
(D) Galactose
Answer-( A )

14. “Restriction’ enzyme is used to splices which of the following ?

(A) SS-RNA
(B) ds-DNA
(C)SS-DNA
(D) ds-RNA
Answer-( B )

15. Enzyme ligase is used in

(A) Splitting of DNA
(B) Ligation of broken DNA
(C)To purify DNA
(D) To enhance production efficiency of Bioreactors.
Answer-( B )

16. Ti-plasmid is found in :

(A) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(B) E.Coli
(C) B.coli
(D) All of these
Answer-( A )

17. Agarose is extracted from

(A) See weeds
(B) Maize
(C) Cycas
(D) None of these
Answer-( A )

18. What is true of plasmids ?

(A) They are found in viruses
(B) They are main parts of chromosomes
(C) They are widely used in gene transfer
(D) They contain genes for vital activities
Answer-( C )

19. ‘Cry gene’ prevents which crop from bolloworms ?

(A) Cotton
(B) Mango
(C) Tea
 P a g e | 198

(D) Wheat
Answer-( A )

20. Bacteria has

(A) Plasmid DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer-( C )

21. A molecular technique in which multiple copy of the desired gene is synthesized in vitro is
called as
(A) ELISA
(B) PCR
(C) Gel Electrophoresis
(D) Flow cytometry
Answer-( B )

22. Probiotics are

(A) A new kind of food allergen
(B)Safe antibiotics
(C) Live microbial food supplement
(D)Cancer inducing microbes
Answer-( C )

23. Which of the following techniques can be to introduce foreign DNA into cell ?
(A) Using disarmed pathogen
(B) Microinjection
(C) Gene gun
(D)All of above
Answer-( D )

24. T-DNA is found in :

(A)Ti-plasmid
(B) phagemid
(C) PBR 322
(D) PUC 18
Answer-( A )

25. The first restriction enzyme used in genetic engineering is :

(A) Eco RI
(B) Hind III
(C) Eco RV
(D) None of above
Answer-( A )

26. The restriction site chain present inE. Coli.

(A) Eco RI
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(B) Hind III

(C) Bam HI
(D) All of above
Answer-( D )

27. Which vector is used in cloning of plants ?

(A) PBR 322
(B) Ti Plasmid
(C)Both (A) and (B)
(D) None
Answer-( C )

28. Which of the following sequences are recognised by EcoRI restriction enzyme ?
(A) GAATTC
(B) GGCC
(C) AGGCCT
(D) TCCGGA
Answer-( A )

29. Which cry gene in the following prevents boring of crop?

(A) cryIAC
(B) cryIIAb
(C)crylab
(D) All of above
Answer-( D )

30. “Molecular scissors” used in genetic engineering is :

(A)DNA ligase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) Helicase
(D)Restriction endonuclease
Answer-( D )

31. Which is used extensively for genetic engineering in plants ?

(A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(B) Xanthomonas citri
(C) Bacillus coagulens
(D) Clostridium septicum
Answer-( A )

32.PCR is required for :

(A) DNA synthesis
(B) DNA amplification
(C) Protein synthesis
(D ) Amino acid synthesis
Answer-( B )
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33. Restriction endonuclease is most widely used in DNA recombinant Technology. It is obtained
from :
(A) bacteriophage
(B) bacterial cells
(C) plasmids
(D) all prokaryotic cells
Answer-( B )

34. Bacteria protects themselves from viral attack by producing :

(A) Exonuclease
(B) Endonuclease
(C) DNA Ligage
(D) Gyrase
Answer-( B )

1. Electroporation facilitates introduction of foreign DNA into the target organism by

(a) Changing the porosity of the cell wall
(b) Changing the electric potential of the cell wall
(c) Lysis of the cell wall
(d) Active transport across the cell wall
► (a) Changing the porosity of the cell wall

2. Who discovered recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology?

(a) James D. Watson
(b) Walter Sutton and Avery
(c) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
(d) Har Gobind Khorana
► (c) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer

3. Brief exposure of cells to an electric field also allow the bacteria to take up DNA and this
process is called as_______.
(a) Apheresis
(b) Electroporation
(c) Electrolysis
(d) Electrophoresis
► (b) Electroporation

4. Which of the given statements is correct in the context of visualizing DNA molecules separated
by agarose gel electrophoresis?
(a) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
(b) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(c) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light
(d) DNA can be seen in visible light
► (a) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light

5. Which one is called molecular scissors?

(a) Endocrine
(b) Ribonuclease
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(c) Restriction enzymes

(d) Exonuclease
► (c) Restriction enzymes

6. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein.

(a) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it
(b) is coded by several genes including the gene cry
(c) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.
(d) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin
► (a) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it

7. The extraction of DNA from the agrose gel is called as______.

(a) Elution
(b) Ligation
(c) Transformation
(d) Isolation
► (a) Elution

8. Helium is used in Biolistic gun as______.

(a) It is a light gas
(b) It acts as a propellant
(c) It is an inert gas
(d) Tungsten coated with DNA can be easily passed in the presence of Helium
► (b) It acts as a propellant

9. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR

(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cell
(b) It serves as a selectable marker
(c) It is isolated from a virus
(d) It remains active at high temperature
► (d) It remains active at high temperature

10. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which

(a) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
(b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
(d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
► (a) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule

11. Introduction of food plants developed by genetic engineering is not desirable because
(a) economy of developing countries may suffer
(b) these products are less tasty as compared to the already existing products
(c) this method is costly
(d) there is danger of entry of viruses and toxins with introduced crop
► (d) there is danger of entry of viruses and toxins with introduced crop

12. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching?

(a) Vector DNA – Site for t-RNA synthesis
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(b) Somatic hybridisation – Fusion of two diverse cells

(c) Callus – Unorganised mass of cell produced in tissue culture
(d) Micropropagation – In vitro production of plants in large numbers
► (a) Vector DNA – Site for t-RNA synthesis

13. DNA fingerprinting can resolve:

(a) Identification of a person
(b) Paternity dispute
(c) Maternity dispute
(d) All of the above
► (d) All of the above

14. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their:
(a) Charge only
(b) Charge to size ratio
(c) both a and b
(d) Size only
► (d) Size only

15. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are
made up of:
(a) Silver or Platinum
(b) Gold or Tungsten
(c) Silicon or Platinum
(d) Platinum or Zinc
► (b) Gold or Tungsten
16. Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq DNA polymerase in a PCR reaction?
(a) Denaturation of template DNA
(b) Annealing of primers to template DNA
(c) Extension of primer end on the template DNA
(d) All of the above
► (c) Extension of primer end on the template DNA

17. The polymerase chain reaction is a technique that

(a) is used for in vivo replication of DNA
(b) is used for in vitro replication of specific DNA sequence using thermostable DNA polymerase
(c) is used for in vivo synthesis of mRNA
(d) is used for in vitro synthesis of mRNA
► (b) is used for in vitro replication of specific DNA sequence using thermostable DNA
polymerase

18. Restriction enzymes belongs to a larger class of enzymes called?

(a) Nucleases
(b) Glcucatase
(c) Chitinase
(d) Protease
► (a) Nucleases
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19. Gel electrophoresis is used for

(a) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
(b) Isolation of DNA molecules
(c) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size
(d) Cutting of DNA into fragments
► (c) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size

20. Origin of replication is the specific DNA sequence on chromosome that which is responsible
for
(a) Initiating replication
(b) Synthesis of polymerase enzyme
(c) Terminating replication
(d) All of the the above
► (a) Initiating replication

21. Select the correct statement from the following?

(a) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste
(b) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle
(c) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane
(d) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of
aerobic bacteria
► (d) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of
aerobic bacteria

22. Insertional inactivation helps in

(a) X-gal breakdown
(b) Identification of recombinant clones
(c) Ampicillin resistance
(d) Functioning of B-galactosidase
► (b) Identification of recombinant clones

23. The agarose gel with high % of agar will lead to accumulation of large sized DNA fragment
near the wells as:
(a) Absence of pores
(b) Pore size is small
(c) Voltage fluctuation with high % of agar
(d) Pore size is big
► (b) Pore size is small

24. Humulin is a
(a) Protein
(b) Hybridoma
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Fat
► (a) Protein

25. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living
organisms?
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(a) X-ray diffraction

(b) Recombinant DNA technique
(c) Heavier isotope labelling
(d) Hybridization
► (b) Recombinant DNA technique

26. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are
made up of:
(a) Silver or Platinum
(b) Platinum or Zinc
(c) Silicon or Platinum
(d) Gold or Tungsten
► (d) Gold or Tungsten

27. The group of letters that form same words when read both forward and backward are called?
(a) Palindrome
(b) Puzzle
(c) Endonucleases
(d) Sticky ends
► (a) Palindrome

28. Eco RI acting on goi and vector will produce?

(a) Blunt and sticky ends respectively
(b) Sticky and blunt ends respectively
(c) Sticky ends in both
(d) Blunt ends in both
► (c) Sticky ends in both

29. Primers are______.

(a) Nucleases
(b) Fragments of RNA
(c) Palindromic sequences
(d) Chemically synthesized oligonucleotides
► (d) Chemically synthesized oligonucleotides

30. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are

(a) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(b) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(c) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(d) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans
► (a) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

31. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non
recombinant bacteria because of :
(a) Non-recombinant bacteria containing β-galactosidease
(b) Insertional inactivation of α-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(c) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
(d) None of the above
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► (b) Insertional inactivation of α-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria

32. Enzymes used to join foreign DNA to plasmid is______.

(a) Nucleases
(b) Ligases
(c) Endonucleases
(d) Pectinases
► (b) Ligases

33. Proteins can be digested by

(a) Protease
(b) Pectinase
(c) Chitinase
(d) Nuclease
► (a) Protease

34. The nuclease will act on______.

(a) DNA only
(b) Proteins
(c) RNA only
(d) DNA and RNA
► (d) DNA and RNA

Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 12 Biotechnology and its Applications

1. RNAi is used to control pests on which plant ?

( A ) Tobacco
( B ) Mango
( C ) Potato
( D ) Poppy
Answer-( A )

2. Cry IAb controls

( A ) Corn Borer
( B )Wheat Rust
( C ) Cotton insects
( D ) Maize height insects
Answer-( A )

3. Transgenic mice may be used for testing of

( A ) The safety of vaccines
( B )Efficiency of fertilizers
( C )Doses of antibiotics
( D )All of these
Answer-( C )

4. Electrophoresis is used for

( A ) Isolation of DNA
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( B ) Separation of RNA
( C ) Separation of Protein
( D ) Separation of above all
Answer-( D )

5. The enzyme to ligate specific site on DNA is

( A ) Lysozyme enzyme
( B ) Restriction enzyme
( C ) Nuclease enzyme
( D ) None of above
Answer-( A )

6. Biolistic or gene gun is used in :

( A ) cutting plasmid
( B ) Ligation of broken DNA segment
( C ) To introduce interspecific DNA
into host cells
( D ) To purify DNA
Answer-( C )

7. Insulin for diabetic persons is obtained from pancreas of which of the following ?
( A ) Pig
( B ) Goat
( C ) Hen
( D ) Buffalo
Answer-( A )

8. Medical Therapy is used for the treatment of a hereditary disease ?

( A ) Allopathy
( B ) Surgery
( C ) Gene therapy
( D ) Other method
Answer-( C )

9. The molecular strcture of Insulin was discovered by

( A ) Korenberg
( B ) Swaminathan
( C ) Richardson
( D ) Sanger
Answer-( D )

10. If blood strain was found from the murder site. What will be the proper way to test for DNA
profile ?
( A ) RBC
( B ) WBC
( C ) Platelets
( D ) Plasma
Answer-( B )
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11. The permanent treatment of hereditary defect ‘ADA’ (Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency) is
done by :
( A ) Enzyme Transfer therapy
( B ) Introduction of Lymphocyte having active ADA & ĆDNA by Genetic engineering
( C ) to activate adenosine deaminase
( D ) Introduction of Bone marrow cells into early embryonic stage.
Answer-( D )

12. In man alzeimer disease is due to deficiency of

( A ) Dopamine
( B ) Glutamic acid
( C ) Acetylcholine
( D ) Gama amino butyric acid
Answer-( C )

13. Monoclonal antibody is obtained from

( A ) one antigen from one parent
( B ) one antigen from many parents
( C ) many antigens from one parent
( D ) many antigens from many parents
Answer-( B )

14. Which of the following organelles is related to genetic engineering ?

( A ) Plastids
( B ) Plasmids
( C ) Mutations
( D ) Hybrid vigour
Answer-( B )

15. Chlorella is a type of

( A ) Bacteria
( B ) Algae
( C ) Protozoa
( D ) Single Cell protein
Answer-( B )

16. ‘Flaver Savr’ is a

( A ) Pesticide
( B ) Chicken breed
( C ) Transgenic Tomato
( D ) Insecticidal Protein
Answer-( C )

17. The first clinical gene therapy was given for

( A ) Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency
( B ) Chicken pox
( C ) Diabetes mellitus
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( D ) Rheumatoid Arthritis
Answer-( A )

18. The first transgenic cow was named

( A ) Daisy
( B ) Maizy
( C ) Dolly
( D ) Rosie
Answer-( D )

19. Which of the following enzyme is used to break the bacterial cell wall to release DNA and
other bio macro molecules?
( A ) Lysozyme
( B ) Cellulase
( C ) Chitinase
( D ) Collagenase
Answer-( A )

20. Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency can be removed by which of the following?

( A ) Gene therapy
( B ) Antibiotics
( C ) Human growth hormone
( D ) Interferon
Answer-( A )

21. Flavr savr is the transgenic variety of :

( A ) wheat
( B ) tomato
( C ) rice
( D ) cotton
Answer-( B )

22. A strain of golden rice” contains high contents of :

( A ) Vitamin A
( B ) Vitamin K
( C ) Vitamin E
( D ) Vitamin C
Answer-( A )

23. Single Cell Protein (SCP) is obtained from :

( A ) unicellular organisms
( B ) multicellular organisms
( C ) bacteria only
( D ) both A and B
Answer-( D )

24. Semen is frozen in :

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( A ) Liquid nitrogen
( B ) Refrigeration
( C ) Ice
( D ) All of these
Answer-( A )

25. Fusogen of Protoplast culture is :

( A ) Liquid nitrogen
( B ) PEG
( C ) Lactic acid
( D ) All of these
Answer-( B )

26. Which vitamin is present in Golden rice ?

( A ) Vitamin A
( B ) Vitamin B
( C ) Vitamin C
( D ) Vitamin D
Answer-( A )

27. The first transgenic crop was :

( A ) Cotton
( B ) Pea
( C ) Tobacco
( D ) Flax
Answer-( C )

28. Which is not transgenic plant ?

( A ) Soyabean
( B ) Maize
( C ) Golden rice
( D ) Cucumber
Answer-( D )

29. Example of transgenic animals is :

( A ) Cow
( B ) Mouse
( C ) Pig
( D ) All
Answer-( D )

1. Toxicity of drug on human can be studied by using transgenic animal by

(a) Introducing complementary gene into organism
(b) Inoculating gene that make them more sensitive to toxic substances
(c) Introducing gene that show change in physiology of organism
(d) All of the the above
► (b) Inoculating gene that make them more sensitive to toxic substances
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2. Seeds of golden rice are yellow in colour because

(a) It has vitamin E encoding gene
(b) Provitamin A is produced in the entire grain
(c) It has vitamin B encoding gene
(d) It is a biproduct of 3 genes
► (b) Provitamin A is produced in the entire grain

3. Domestic cooking gas cylinder is filled with

(a) Alcohol
(b) Diesel oil
(c) Liquid petroleum gas
(d) Coal gas
► (c) Liquid petroleum gas

4. Which group is not related with petroplantation

(a) Euphorbiaceae
(b) Asclepiadiaceae
(c) Apocyanaceae
(d) Leguminaceae
► (d) Leguminaceae

5. Formation of vinegar from alcohol is caused by

(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) Clostridium
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Azotobacter
► (c) Acetobacter aceti

6. GM Arabidopsis produces dsRNA to

(a) To produce more protein product
(b) To stop transcription
(c) Knock out specific parasitic genes in the nematode
(d) To make DNA non functional
► (c) Knock out specific parasitic genes in the nematode

7. For which of the disease transgenic models do not exists now days?
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Cancer
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Alzheimer’s disease
► (a) Tuberculosis

8. For biogas production, besides dung, which of the following is used as manure
(a) Eichhornia
(b) Parthenium
(c) Glycine
(d) Arachis
► (a) Eichhornia
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9. The pioneer country in the production of 'Fuel alcohol' is

(a) Japan
(b) Brazil
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) India
► (b) Brazil

10. Conversion of sugar into alcohol during fermentation is due to the direct action of
(a) Temperature
(b) Microorganisms
(c) Zymase
(d) Concentration of sugar solution
► (c) Zymase

11. Biopiracy is
(a) Monitoring GMO’s
(b) Commercial production of GMO’s
(c) Governing research on GMO’s
(d) Use of bio resources without proper authorization
► (d) Use of bio resources without proper authorization

12. Biogas production from waste Biomass with the help of methanogenic bacteria is
(a) One step process
(b) Two step process
(c) Multi step process
(d) Three step process
► (c) Multi step process

13. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel
(a) Bio-metallorgical techniques
(b) Bio-insecticidal plants
(c) Bio-mineralization processes
(d) Bio-fertilizers
► (b) Bio-insecticidal plants

14. Cry genes introduced in a plant will not be affective against

(a) lepidoptera
(b) hymenoptera
(c) coleoptera
(d) rodents
► (d) rodents

15. For biogas production besides dung an extensive use of which weed is recommended in our
country
(a) Mangifera indica
(b) Hydrilla
(c) Eichhornia crassipes
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(d) Solanum
► (c) Eichhornia crassipes
16. First fermented acid is :
(a) Gluconic acid
(b) Lactic acid
(c) Fumaric acid
(d) All the above
► (b) Lactic acid

17. Which of the following is an advantage of transgenesis?

(a) Study of diseases and gene therapy
(b) Increased production of biological products
(c) Vaccine safety testing
(d) All of the above
► (d) All of the above

18. Recombinant DNA technology prepared vaccine is called

(a) Second generation vaccine
(b) Third generation vaccine
(c) First generation vaccine
(d) Synthesized vaccine
► (b) Third generation vaccine

19. Humulin is the term used for

(a) A new antibiotic
(b) A sex hormone
(c) Human insulin
(d) A vaccine
► (c) Human insulin

20. Which of the following is used to manufacture ethanol from starch

(a) Penicilline
(b) Lactobacillus
(c) Azotobactor
(d) Saccharomyces
► (d) Saccharomyces

21. An example of petroleum plant is

(a) Zea mays
(b) Beta vulgaris
(c) Euphorbia lathyris
(d) Solanum tuberosum
► (c) Euphorbia lathyris

22. Mechanism of action of antibiotics are :

(a) Disruption of cell wall
(b) Inhibition of DNA/RNA synthesis
(c) Disruption of plasma lemma
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(d) All of the above

► (d) All of the above

23. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the formation of

(a) Ethanol
(b) Methanol
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Antibiotics
► (a) Ethanol

24. Important objective of biotechnology in agriculture section is

(a) To produce pest resistant varieties of plants
(b) To increase the nitrogen content
(c) To decrease the seed number
(d) To increase the plant weight
► (a) To produce pest resistant varieties of plants

25. Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing of alcohol in petrol . What is the amount of alcohol
permitted for mixing in petrol ?
(a) 5%
(b) 2.5%
(c) 10-15%
(d) 10%
► (a) 5%

26. Cry I Ab controls

(a) Stem Borer
(b) Corn Borer
(c) Cotton Bollworm
(d) Root pest
► (b) Corn Borer

27. The two polypeptide chains in insulin are linked via Sulphur. The bond formed is
(a) Peptide bond
(b) Glycosidic linkage
(c) Disulphide linkage
(d) Diester bond
► (c) Disulphide linkage

28. Which of the following is ionic detergent

(a) RPM
(b) HAT
(c) PEG
(d) SDS
► (d) SDS

29. Transgenic cow Rosie, produced human protein enriched milk that contain:
(a) 2.4 gram per litre
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(b) 7.4 gram per litre

(c) 3.5 gram per litre
(d) 4.2 gram per litre
► (a) 2.4 gram per litre

30. Indicator of water pollution

(a) E. Coli
(b) Chlorella
(c) Beggiatoa
(d) Ulothrix
► (a) E. Coli

31. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The prefix Bt means
(a) “Barium treated” cotton seeds
(b) “Bigger thread” variety of cotton with better tensile strength
(c) Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) Produced by “biotechnology” using restriction enzymes and ligases
► (c) Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis

32. Who is credited with identifying petrocrops?

(a) M.S. Swaminathan
(b) M.Calvin
(c) K.Krebs
(d) N.Borlaug
► (b) M.Calvin

33. Insect resistance transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting a piece of DNA from
(a) A virus
(b) A bacterium
(c) A wild relative of cotton
(d) An insect
► (b) A bacterium

34. Which country has been successfully used alcohol as a motor fuel
(a) India
(b) U.S.A
(c) Brazil
(d) Canada
► (c) Brazil

Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 13 Organisms and populations

1. Number of deaths during a limitedtime period and place for a particular population is known as
( A ) Natality
( B ) Mortality
( C ) Migratory
( D ) Integrity
Answer-( B )
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2. Climax community is present in whicharea ?

( A ) In equilibrium
( B ) In transition
( C ) Bare land
( D ) None of these
Answer-( A )

3. The maximum number of species has been extincted from :

( A ) islands
( B ) mainland
( C ) oceans
( D ) fresh water bodies
Answer-( A )

4. Loss of relative biological equilibriumis due to :

( A ) low temperature
( B ) high temperature
( C ) radiation
( D ) pollution
Answer- ( D )
5. The value of Biological potency ismeasured by
( A ) Birth rate Death rate
( B ) Birth rate + Death rate
( C ) Birth rate : Death rate
( D ) None of above
Answer-( A )
6. The bacteria Rhizobium present insoil in which way take part in the population growth of plants
?
( A ) By Nitrogen-fixation & increase in soil fertility.
( B ) By Fungal roots
( C ) By commensalism
( D ) None
Answer-( A )
7. The shallow-water region near by Pond is called
( A ) Littoral zone
( B ) Limnetic zone
( C ) Profundal zone
( D ) Benthic zone
Answer-( A )
8. Animal that can tolerate water lossequal to one third body weight is :
( A ) Necturus
( B ) Camel
( C ) Lizard
( D) Chiton
Answer-( B )
9. In commensalism :
( A ) Both partners are benefitted
( B ) Both partners are harmed
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( C ) Weaker is benefitted while stronger is unharmed

( D ) None of the above
Answer-( C )
10. A successful parasite is the onewhich :
(A) Grows rapidly
(B) Reproduces fast
(C) Sticks to host for long
(D) Makes minimum demands from its host
Answer-( D )

11. The formula for Log/ Exponentialgrowth is :

( A ) dt/dN
( B ) IN/N = dt
( C ) rN/dN = dt
( D ) dN/dt = rn
12. Unrestricted reproductive capacity is:
( A ) Birth rate
( B ) Carrying capacity
( C ) Biotic potentiality
( D ) Fertility
Answer-( C )
13. One who secures food at the costof others is :
( A ) Parasite
( B ) Insectivore
( C ) Commensal
( D ) Saprophyte
Answer-( D )
14. Frog feeding on herbivorous insect is:
( A ) Primary consumer
( B ) Secondary consumer
( C ) Tertiary consumer
( D ) Top carnivore
Answer-( B )
15. Mutualism occurs between :
( A ) Butterfly and flower
( B ) Escherichia coli and man
( C ) Zoochlorellae and Hydra
( D ) Hermit Crab and Sea Anemone
Answer-( C )

16. The maximum growth rate is in

( A ) Senescent phase
( B ) lag phase
( C ) Exponential phase
( D ) Stationary phase
Answer-( C )
17. Which in the following has root cap?
( A ) Xerophyte
( B ) Mesophyte
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( C ) Hydrophyte
( D) Hallophyte
Answer-( C )
18. The mycorrhiza is an example of
( A ) Symbiotic interaction
( B ) Ectoparasite
( C ) Endoparasite
( D )Decomposer
Answer-( A )
19. Lichen is the association of
( A ) Algae & algae
( B ) Algae & fungi
( C ) Algae & higher plant roots
( D ) Fungi & fungi
Answer-( B )
20. The region of atmosphere near theearth is called
( A ) Stratosphere
( B ) Mesosphere
( C )Trophosphere
( D )Thermosphere
Answer-( C )

21. Which in the following has highestnumber of species?

( A ) Birds
( B ) Angiosperms
( C )Fungi
( D ) Insects
Answer-( D )
22. Hibernation occuring in certainanimal is :
( A ) Rhythmic
( B ) Periodic
( C ) Occasional
( D ) Intermittent
Answer-( B )

1. The plants of this group are adapted to live partly in water and partly above substratum and
free from water
(a) Xerophytes
(b) Thallophytes
(c) Hydrophytes
(d) Helophytes
► (d) Helophytes

2. Which of the following would necessarily decrease the density of a population in a given
habitat?
(a) Immigration > emigration
(b) Natality and immigration
(c) Natality > mortality
(d) Mortality and emigration
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► (d) Mortality and emigration

3. Biotic components of the ecosystem :

(a) Share and compete for resources
(b) Only compete for resources
(c) Only share their resources
(d) Neither share nor compete for resources
► (a) Share and compete for resources

4. When the number of immigration and births is more than emigration and deaths, the growth
curve of the population will show
(a) Declining phase
(b) Steady phase
(c) Exponential phase
(d) Lag phase
► (c) Exponential phase

5. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called

(a) Biotic potential
(b) Birth rate
(c) Fertility
(d) Carrying capacity
► (a) Biotic potential

6. All of the following do not harm their host except:

(a) Pilot fish
(b) Pediculus
(c) Orchids
(d) Balanus
► (b) Pediculus

7. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them
relates to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing to it is called
(a) mortality
(b) fecundity
(c) biotic control
(d) environmental resistance
► (d) environmental resistance

8. The population growth curve is sigmoid if the growth pattern is

(a) Geometric
(b) Accretionary
(c) Logistic
(d) Exponential
► (c) Logistic

9. Which should be considered more realistic growth model?

(a) Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth
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(b) Geometric growth

(c) Exponential growth
(d) None of the above
► (a) Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth

10. An example of predation is :

(a) Cuckoo laying eggs in crow’s nest
(b) Biological control of pest population
(c) Penicilliumwhose toxins kill bacteria
(d) None of the the above
► (b) Biological control of pest population

11. The number of births in polygamous population is often directly related to :

(a) number of males
(b) number of females
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
► (b) number of females

12. Genetic drift operates in

(a) Large isolated population
(b) Slow reproductive population
(c) Small isolated population
(d) Fast reproductive population
► (c) Small isolated population

13. The rate of individuals born per 1,000 individuals per year is called
(a) Mortality rate
(b) Growth rate
(c) Vital rate
(d) Natality rate
► (d) Natality rate

14. Human population follows the

(a) J-shaped growth curve
(b) Z-shaped growth curve
(c) S-shaped growth curve
(d) All of the above
► (c) S-shaped growth curve

15. The semilog of per minute growing bacteria is plotted against time. What will be the shape of
graph?
(a) Sigmoid
(b) Hyperbolic
(c) Ascending straight line
(d) Descending straight line
► (c) Ascending straight line
16. In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected ?
 P a g e | 220

(a) Predation
(b) Parasitism
(c) Mutualism
(d) Competition
► (d) Competition

17. What is true about the isolated small tribal populations?

(a) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own tribe
(b) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness do not spread in the isolated population
(c) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles in their life time pass this character on to their
progeny
(d) There is no change in population size as they have a large gene pool
► (a) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own tribe

18. Excessive aerenchyma is a characteristic feature of

(a) Mesophytes
(b) Heliophytes
(c) Hydrophytes
(d) Xerophytes
► (c) Hydrophytes

19. Migration is an adaptation that should be categorised under:

(a) Behavioural attribute
(b) Physiological attribute
(c) Anatomical attribute
(d) Morphological attribute
► (a) Behavioural attribute

20. In a population curve, the rate of growth becomes steady towards the end of the exponential
curve due to
(a) Reproductive power is reduced
(b) Environmental stress
(c) Migration
(d) All of the above
► (b) Environmental stress

21. Growth of the population of an area depends on

(a) Natality rate
(b) Immigration
(c) Environmental resistance
(d) All of the above
► (d) All of the above

22. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot
summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions
move to:
(a) Western Ghat
(b) Meghalaya
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(c) Corbett National Park

(d) Keoladeo National Park
► (d) Keoladeo National Park

23. Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth curve for bacteria
(a) Lag, log, stationary, decline phase
(b) Lag, log, stationary phase
(c) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase
(d) Decline, lag, log phase
► (a) Lag, log, stationary, decline phase

24. If in a population, natality is balanced by mortality, then there will be

(a) Decrease in population growth
(b) Increase in population growth
(c) Zero population growth
(d) Overpopulation
► (c) Zero population growth

25. Xerophytes are mostly

(a) Succulents
(b) Water related
(c) Mesophytes
(d) None of the above
► (a) Succulents

26. Edaphic factors will include:

(a) pH, humidity and air
(b) topography and water
(c) pH, topography and substratum
(d) pH, temperature and rain
► (c) pH, topography and substratum

27. Organisms capable of maintaining constant body temperature are

(a) Poikilothermal
(b) Conformers
(c) Stenothermal
(d) Homeothermal
► (d) Homeothermal

28. Which of the following will not be considered a predator?

(a) Paramecium
(b) Tiger
(c) Vultures
(d) Starfish
► (c) Vultures
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29. An interesting modification of flower shape for insect pollination occurs in some orchids in
which a male insect mistakes the pattern on the orchid flower for the female species and tries to
copulate with it, thereby pollinating the flower. This phenomenon is called:
(a) mimicry
(b) pseudocopulation
(c) pseudopollination
(d) Pseudoparthenocarpy
► (b) pseudocopulation

30. Niche overlap indicates

(a) two different parasites on the same host
(b) sharing of one or more resources between the two species
(c) mutualism between two species
(d) active cooperation between two species
► (b) sharing of one or more resources between the two species

31. Penicillin and streptomycin are responsible for:

(a) neutral interactions
(b) beneficial interactions
(c) positive interactions
(d) negative interactions
► (d) negative interactions

32. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(a) stationary phase
(b) senescent phase
(c) lag phase
(d) exponential phase
► (d) exponential phase

Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 14 Ecosystem

1. A lake ecosystem is
( A ) artificial
( B ) abiotic
( C ) natural
( D ) water bodies
Answer-( D )

2. The correct sequence of a common food-chain is

( A ) Grass – Goat – Man
( B ) Goat Grass – Man
( C ) Man Goat Grass
( D ) None of above
Answer-( A )

3. The highest number of which of the following is in a food-chain ?

( A ) Producer
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( B ) Primary consumer
( C ) Secondary consumer
( D ) Decomposer
Answer-( A )

4. The pyramid of number in a forest Ecosystem is

( A ) Upright
( B ) Inverted
( C ) Both
( D ) None
Answer-( B )

5. Treeless genome is called

( A ) Tundra
( B) deserts
(C) Grassland
(D) All of above
Answer-( D )

6. The energy flow of food chain in an ecosystem is

(A) Unidirectional
(B) Bidirectional
(C) Multidirectional
(D ) None of above
Answer-( A )

7. which in the following is Hydrophyte?

(A) Singhara
(B) Opuntia
(C) Sesame
(D) Acacia
Answer-( A )

8. Which in the following is the insectivorous plant ?

(A) Drosera
(B) Nepenthes
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Hydrilla
Answer-( C )

9. If co, is removed from biosphere then the first bad impact will be on which organisms :
(A) Primary Producer
(B) Primary consumer
(C) Secondary consumer
(D) Tertiary consumer
Answer-( A )

10. The term ‘Ecosystem’ was proposed by :

 P a g e | 224

(A) Gardener
(B) Odum
(C) Tansley
(D) Warming
Answer-( C )

11. Controlling factor in ecosystem is :

(A) Soil moisture
(B) Food
(C) Predation
(D) Temperature
Answer-( C )

12. Bacteria and Fungi are :

(A) Scavengers
(B) Primary consumers
(C) Secondary consumers
(D) Decomposers
Answer-( C )

13. Decomposers are :

( A ) Animalia and Morera
( B ) Protista and Animalia
( C ) Fungi and Plantae
( D ) Bacteria and Fungi
Answer-( D )

14. In a biotic community primary consumers are :

(A) Carnivores
(B) Detrivores
(C) Herbivores
(D) Omnivores
Answer-( C )

15. What will happen if decomposers will be destroyed from the ecosystem?
(A) Energy flow will stop
(B) Flow of minerals will stop
(C) Rate of decomposition will increase
(D) Photosynthesis will stop
Answer-( B )

16. The trophical evergreen forest is

found in :
(A) Himalaya
(B) Western Ghat
(C) Arawali
(D) Assam
Answer-( B )
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17. Pyramid of Energy is

(A) Always upright
(B) Always inverted
(C) Both upright & inverted
(D) Spindle-shaped
Answer-( A )

18. The driving force for an ecosystem is

(A) Producers
(B) Biomass
(C)Carbohydrates present in producers
(D)Solar energy
Answer-( D )

19. Carnivores represent :

(A) Primary consumers
(B) Secondary and Tertiary consumers
(C) Secondary consumers
(D ) Primary producers
Answer-( B )

20. Which in the following has maximum Biomass ?

(A) Temperate forest
(B) Tropical rain forest
(C) Alpine vegetation
(D) Taiga
Answer-( B )

. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will be adversely
affected, because
(a) energy flow will be blocked
(b) herbivores will not receive solar energy
(c) mineral movement will be blocked
(d) rate of decomposition will be very high
► (c) mineral movement will be blocked

2. Which one of the following is a denitrifying bacterium?

(a) Pseudomonas
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Nitrobacter
(d) Nitrosomonas
► (a) Pseudomonas

3. The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is

(a) Rhizobium
(b) Azospirillum
(c) Frankia
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(d) Oscillatoria
► (b) Azospirillum

4. Flow of energy in our ecosystem takes place :

(a) only in one direction
(b) possible in two directions
(c) in three dimensions
(d) may occur in multiple directions
► (a) only in one direction

5. River water deposits

(a) loamy soil
(b) alluvial soil
(c) laterite soil
(d) sandy soil
► (b) alluvial soil

6. During adverse season, therophytes survive by

(a) bulbs
(b) corms
(c) rhizomes
(d) seeds
► (d) seeds

7. Breakdown of detritus by microbial enzymes into simple forms is called?

(a) Mineralization
(b) Fragmentation
(c) Catabolism
(d) Leaching
► (b) Fragmentation

8. Which one of the following is the most important service provided by ecosystems?
(a) soil formation
(b) aesthetic values
(c) pollination
(d) water purification
► (a) soil formation

9. In a biotic community, the most important factor for survival of an animal is

(a) day length
(b) soil moisture
(c) green food
(d) predators
► (c) green food

10. In a biotic community, the primary consumers are

(a) carnivores
(b) omnivores
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(c) detritivores
(d) herbivores
► (d) herbivores

11. The pyramid which cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem is that of

(a) Biomass
(b) Number
(c) Energy
(d) All the above
► (c) Energy

12. Which of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle?

(a) oxygen and nitrogen
(b) phosphorus and sulphur
(c) phosphorus and nitrogen
(d) phosphorus and carbon dioxide
► (b) phosphorus and sulphur

13. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?
(a) tropical deciduous forest
(b) temperate evergreen forest
(c) temperate deciduous forest
(d) tropical rain forest
► (d) tropical rain forest

14. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland
ecosystem?
(a) Secondary Production
(b) Tertiary Production
(c) Gross Production (GP)
(d) Net Production (NP)
► (c) Gross Production (GP)

15. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?

(a) Forest
(b) Desert
(c) Mountain
(d) Ocean
► (d) Ocean

16. What is true of ecosystem?

(a) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers
(b) Primary consumers out - number producers
(c) Producers are more than primary consumers
(d) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerful
► (c) Producers are more than primary consumers
17. Conditions favouring decomposition are:
(a) high temperature and intermediate humidity
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(b) low temperature and low humidity

(c) low temperature and high humidity
(d) high temperature and low humidity
► (a) high temperature and intermediate humidity

18. Which of the following ecosystems has highest rate of gross primary production?
(a) Grasslands
(b) Mangroves
(c) Equatorial rain forest
(d) Coral reefs
► (d) Coral reefs

19. Which of the following ecological pyramid is always erect and upright?
(a) Pyramid of biomass
(b) Pyramid of energy
(c) Pyramid of number
(d) None of these
► (b) Pyramid of energy

20. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the oceans is that of

(a) sea grasses and slime moulds
(b) free floating microalgae, cyanobacteria and nanoplankton
(c) benthic brown algae,coastal red algae and daphnids
(d) benthic diatoms and marine viruses
► (b) free floating microalgae, cyanobacteria and nanoplankton

21. In an ecosystem, which one shows one-way passage

(a) free energy
(b) carbon
(c) nitrogen
(d) potassium
► (a) free energy

22. Pedology is science of

(a) earth
(b) soil
(c) diseases
(d) pollution
► (b) soil

23. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are inactivated, then there will be no
(a) fixation of nitrogen in legumes
(b) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
(c) conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes
(d) conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
► (a) fixation of nitrogen in legumes

24. Forest controls drought through

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(a) Functioning as water shed.

(b) Lot of water plant
(c) Retention of water and prevention of soil erosion.
(d) Increasing rainfall
► (d) Increasing rainfall

25. A biome is
(a) Sum of all ecosystems on the Earth
(b) Biotic components in a population
(c) Sum of ecosystems in a geographical area
(d) Biotic components in an ecosystem
► (c) Sum of ecosystems in a geographical area

26. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their
(a) low cellulose content
(b) poor nitrogen content
(c) anaerobic environment around them
(d) low moisture content
► (d) low moisture content

27. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called
(a) standing crop
(b) deteritus
(c) humus
(d) standing state
► (a) standing crop

28. Approximately how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to
chemical energy by photosynthesis?
(a) Less than 1%
(b) 2-10%
(c) 30%
(d) 50%
► (b) 2-10%

29. Available organic matter for herbivores is represented by:

(a) Secondary productivity
(b) GPP
(c) NPP
(d) All the the above
► (c) NPP

30. Correct decreasing order for rate of primary productivity on land will be :
(a) Tropical rainforests >Savannah > Arid regions>Temperate forests
(b) Temperate forests > Tropical rainforests > Savannah > Arid regions
(c) Tropical rainforests > Temperate forests > Savannah > Arid regions
(d) Savannah > Temperate forests > Tropical rainforests > Arid regions
► (c) Tropical rainforests > Temperate forests > Savannah > Arid regions
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31. The decomposition of organic matter is brought about by

(a) Protozoans
(b) Plants
(c) Microorganisms
(d) None of the above
► (c) Microorganisms

32. In which of the following places, succession will occur in short time?
(a) on a bare rock
(b) in heavily overgrazed pasture
(c) in a small oligotrophic lake
(d) area exposed by a retreating glacier
► (b) in heavily overgrazed pasture

33. Sudden mass killing of fishes is likely in

(a) mesotrophic lake
(b) oligotrophic lake
(c) salt lake
(d) eutrophic lake
► (d) eutrophic lake

34. The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called:
(a) net primary productivity
(b) secondary productivity
(c) standing crop
(d) gross primary productivity
► (a) net primary productivity

Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 15 Biodiversity and Conservation

1. Water holding capacity is one of the qualities of

( A ) Soil
( B ) Plants
( C ) Water
( D ) Animals
Answer-( A )

2. In India Biodiversity Act was passed in Parliament

( A ) 1992
( B ) 1996
( C ) 2000
( D ) 2002
Answer-( D )

3. Chipko movement was launched for protection of

( A ) Forests
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( B ) Grasslands
( C ) Wet lands
( D ) Livestock
Answer-( A )

4. Core, Buffer and Manipulation zones are found in :

( A ) National Park
( B ) Biosphere reserve
( C ) Sanctuary
( D ) Tiger reserve
Answer-( B )

5. Which in the following is an example of ex situ conservation ?

( A ) Sacred grooves
( B ) National park
( C ) Wildlife sanctuary
( D) Seed bank
Answer-( D )

6. Wildlife is conserved
( A ) In situ
( B ) Ex situ
( C ) Both A and B
( D ) Selective hunting of predators
Answer-( C )

7. Biosphere reserves are being

threatened with :
( A ) Population growth
( B ) Rains
( C ) Pollution
( D) All the above
Answer-( C )

8. World Biodiversity day is :

( A ) April 22
( B ) June 5
( C ) September 16
( D ) December 29
Answer-( D )

9. The variation of genes within a species is called

( A ) Species diversity
( B ) Alpha diversity
( c ) Genetic diversity
( D) Speciation
Answer-( A )
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10. Xerophytes possess :

( A ) Sunken stomata
( B ) Deep roots
( C ) Thick cuticle
( D ) All of above
Answer-( D )

11. Decrease in species diversity in tropical countries is mainly due to :

( A ) urbanisation
( B ) pollution
( C ) deforestation
( D ) soil erosion
Answer-( C )

12. The diversity of the habitats over the total landscape/geographical area is called :
( A ) gamma diversity
( B ) beta diversity
( C ) omega diversity
( D ) delta diversity
Answer-( A )

13. Local diversity is called :

( A ) a-diversity
( B ) ß-diversity
( C ) r-diversity
( D ) species diversity
Answer-( A )

14. Which one is exotic variety ?

( A ) Katla
( B ) Rohu
( C ) Nile perch
( D ) Hippocampus
Answer-( C )

15. How many biogeographical regions are in India ?

( A ) 10
( B ) 13
(C)4
(D)5
Answer-( A )

16. Sundervan National garden is locatedin

( A ) Rajsthan
( B ) M.P.
( C ) West Bengal
( D ) U.P.
Answer-( C )
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17. Ghana Birds sanctuary is located in

( A ) U.P.
( B ) Rajsthan
( C ) Hariyana
( D ) Bihar
Answer-( B )

18. Dudhwa National Park is located in

( A ) Lakhimpur Khiri
( B ) Mathura
( C ) Nainital
( D ) kashi
Answer-( A )

19. Which is hotspot of biodiversity :

( A ) Aaravali
( B ) Eastern Ghats
( C ) Western Ghats
( D ) Indogangetic plain
Answer-( C )

20. Gir National Park is famous for

( A )Deer
( B ) Lion
( C ) Leopard
( D) Birds
Answer-( B )

21. The total number of Bio diversity hot spots in the world is
( A ) 25
(B)9
( C ) 34
( D ) none of these
Answer- ( C )

22. Maximum bio-diversity occurs in latitudinal range of:

( A ) 23.5°N to 23.5°S
( B ) 66.5°N to 66.5°S
( C ) 23.5° N to 66.5°S
( D ) 33°N to 33°S
Answer-( A )

23. The Jim Corbett National Park is located in :

( A ) Utrakhand
( B ) U.P.
( C ) Haryana
( D ) M.P.
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Answer-( A )

24. Which of the following countries has the highest biodiversity ?

( A ) Brazil
( B ) South Africa
( C ) Russia
( D ) India
Answer-( A )

25. Which one of the following is an endangered plant species in India ?

( A ) Rauwolfia
( B ) Santalum (sandal wood )
( C ) Cycas beddonei
( D ) All of above
Answer-( D )

26. Kanha National Park is famous for:

( A ) Birds
( B ) Rhino
( C ) Tiger
( D ) Crocodiles
Answer-( C )

27. Bandipur Sanctuary in Karnataka is famous for

( A ) Elephants
( B ) Eagle
( C ) Leopards
( D ) A and C
Answer-( D )

28. Sardar Sarovar Bandh is made on the river

( A ) Jhelum
( B ) Narmada
( C ) Tapti
( D ) Vyaas
Answer-( B )

29. The national bird of India is

( A ) Pavo cristatus
( B ) Flemingo
( C ) Columba
( D ) Psittacula
Answer-( A )

30 Kaziranga National park is in

( A ) Kerala
( B ) Karnataka
( C ) Bengal
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( D ) Assam
Answer-( D )

31. First National park in India is

( A ) Kanha
( B ) Periyar
( C ) Corbet
( D ) Bandipur
Answer-( C )

32 Organisation responsible for maintaining ‘Red Data Book’ is :

( A ) IUGN
( B ) CITES
( C ) WWF
( D ) IBWL
Answer-( A )

33.Logo of WWF – N is :
( A ) Red Panda
( B ) Giant Panda
( C ) Polar bear
( D ) Tiger
Answer-( A )

1. Alpha diversity will describe:

(a) diversity within biomes
(b) intra community diversity
(c) inter community diversity
(d) diversity within a species population
► (b) intra community diversity

2. Fertility of soil is measured by its ability to

(a) retain nutrients
(b) hold organic materials
(c) hold water
(d) support life
► (d) support life

3. The species of animals protected in Kaziranga sanctuary is

(a) Panthera tigris
(b) Macaca mullata
(c) Panthera leo
(d) Rhinocersos unicornis
► (d) Rhinocersos unicornis

4. American water plant that has become a troublesome water weed in India is
(a) Cyperus rotundus
(b) Eichhornia crassipes
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(c) Trapa latifolia

(d) Trapa bispinosa
► (b) Eichhornia crassipes

5. If all the members of a host species die then all its unique parasites also die off, representing:
(a) biological control
(b) co-extinction
(c) conservation
(d) extinction
► (b) co-extinction

6. To preserve seeds that rapidly lose viability, can’t survive dessication and plants which are
propagated vegetatively, method employed is :
(a) cryopreservation
(b) agroforestry
(c) gene sanctuary
(d) in - situ conservation
► (a) cryopreservation

7. When we compare the relationship between species richness and area for wide variety of taxa,
the graph appears to be a:
(a) cubic parabola
(b) rectangular hyperbola
(c) cubic hyperbola
(d) rectangular parabola
► (b) rectangular hyperbola

8. Out of the following which one will not represent an alternative way to categories ecosystem
diversity:
(a) population diversity
(b) community diversity
(c) habitat diversity
(d) landscape diversity
► (a) population diversity

9. Speciation maintains biodiversity :

(a) only at individual level
(b) only at species level
(c) only at community level
(d) both at species level and community level
► (d) both at species level and community level

10. Largest amount of fresh water is found in

(a) lakes and streams
(b) underground
(c) polar ice and glaciers
(d) rivers
► (c) polar ice and glaciers
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11. How many bio-geographical regions are present in India?

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 10
(d) 5
► (c) 10

12. A sacred lake is

(a) Suraj kund Lake of Haryana
(b) Chilka Lake of Orissa
(c) Dal lake of Kashmir
(d) Khecheopalari Lake of Sikkim
► (d) Khecheopalari Lake of Sikkim

13. Bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis takes place in

(a) Tropical rain forests
(b) Tropical rain forest and crop plants
(c) Crop plants
(d) Oceans
► (d) Oceans

14. Red data Book deals with:

(a) Animals on verge of extinction
(b) Plants showing photoperiodism
(c) Endemic plant
(d) Plants that are extinct
► (a) Animals on verge of extinction
15. Which animals is the symbol of the World Wildlife Fund?
(a) Horn bill
(b) Giant panda
(c) White bear
(d) Tiger
► (b) Giant panda

16. If a species experiences a 90 percent decline over 10 years (or three generations), would be
classified as:
(a) critically endangered
(b) vulnerable
(c) data deficient
(d) endangered
► (a) critically endangered

17. Keystone species include:

(a) Only tiger
(b) Only American bullfrogs
(c) Tiger, Salmon and Sea Otters
(d) Sea otters and American bullfrogs
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► (c) Tiger, Salmon and Sea Otters

18. Polyps and medusae of coelenterates (fixed and free-floating stages) are examples of
polymorphism related to:
(a) genetic diversity
(b) species diversity
(c) ecosystem diversity
(d) habitat diversity
► (a) genetic diversity

19. The species becomes extinct most easily by:

(a) Deforestation
(b) Heavy rains
(c) Urbanization
(d) Sliding of hills
► (a) Deforestation

20. Soil fertility is reduced by

(a) crop rotation
(b) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(c) decaying organic matter
(d) intensive agriculture
► (d) intensive agriculture

21. Biological diversity level that doesn’t exist is:

(a) gamma
(b) beta
(c) delta
(d) alpha
► (c) delta

23. Project elephant started in the year:

(a) 1990
(b) 1993
(c) 1992
(d) 1982
► (c) 1992

23. Which animal has become extinct from India?

(a) Snow Leopard
(b) Hippopotamus
(c) Wolf
(d) Cheetah
► (d) Cheetah

24. Deforestation will decrease

(a) soil erosion
(b) land slides
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(c) soil fertility

(d) rainfall
► (d) rainfall

25. Renewable source of energy is

(a) Biomass
(b) Coal
(c) Petroleum
(d) Kerosene
► (a) Biomass

26. MAB stands for

(a) Man and Biology Programme
(b) Man and Biosphere Programme
(c) Mammals and Biosphere Programme
(d) Mammals and Biology Programme
► (b) Man and Biosphere Programme

27. Which animal has gone extinct in recent times in India?

(a) Panthera leo
(b) Acinonyx jubatus
(c) Antilope cervicapra
(d) Rhinoceros unicornis
► (c) Antilope cervicapra

28. Tropical Botanical garden and research institute is situated at:

(a) Tiruvananthapuram
(b) Kerala
(c) Andra Pradesh
(d) Shimla
► (a) Tiruvananthapuram

29. Sacred grooves are specially useful in

(a) Preventing soil erosion
(b) Year- round flow of water in rivers
(c) Generating environmental awareness
(d) Conserving rare and threatened species
► (d) Conserving rare and threatened species

30. Species which suffered a near-extinction from ingesting the carrion of diclofenac-treated
cattle is/are:
(a) only white rumped vulture
(b) Himalayan Wolf and Bengal tiger
(c) Striped Hyena and white rumped vulture
(d) Bengal tiger and white rumped vulture
► (d) Bengal tiger and white rumped vulture

31. Which of the following can solely keep an ecosystem self-sustaining and viable?
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(a) producer-decomposer food chain

(b) producer-predator food chain
(c) producer-consumer food chain
(d) consumer-decomposer food chain
► (a) producer-decomposer food chain

32. Which article of the Constitution of India specifies that, "it shall be the duty of every citizen of
India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and
wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures."
(a) Article 48
(b) Article 52-A
(c) Article 51-A
(d) None of these
► (c) Article 51-A

Class 12 Biology MCQs Chapter – 16 Environmental Issues

1. Major source of methane is :

(A) Sugarcane plantation
(B) Rice fields
(C) Fruit orchards
(D) Wheat fields
Answer-( B )

2. Rain is called acid rain when its pH is below :

(A) 7
(B) 6.5
(C) 6
(D) 5.6
Answer-( D )

3. Ozone hole is caused by :

(A) Acetylene
(B) Ethylene
(C) Chlorofluorocarbons
(D) Methane
Answer-( C )

4. Green-house effect is due to :

(A) Higher CO2concentration
(B) Absorption in infra-red gases and dust particles
(C) Both A and B
(D) Rarefaction of atmosphere
Answer-( C )

5. Indicator of SO2pollution is :
(A) Algae
(B) Lichen
(C) Fungi
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(D) All of these

Answer-( B )

6. Factors of acid rain are

(A) CO and CO2
(B) NO2 and SO2
(C) CO2 and NO2
(D) N2 and NO2
Answer-( B )

7. Generally threshold of sound intensityfor human is

(A) 20-30 decibel
(B ) 80-90 decibel
(C) 120-130 decibel
(D) 140-150 decibel
Answer-( A )

8. Pollution is rising due to :

(A) research
(B) population explosion
(C) industries and transportation
(D ) rain water
Answer-( C )

9. The environmental protection act ofgovernment of india was passed in:

(A) 1976
(B) 1986
(C) 1966
(D) 1996
Answer-( B )

10. The newspaper contains one of thefollowing toxic materials:

(A) Cd
(B) Pd
(C) Mg
(D) Hg
Answer-( B )

11. Which is the major source of harmfulradiations in the house ?

(A) Tube light
(B) Colour TV
(C) Oven
(D) Heater
Answer-( A )

12. Which one is not produced as exhaustof vehicle ?

(A) SO2
(B) CO2
(C) CO
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(D) Flyash
Answer-( D )

13. SO2pollution affects :

(A) Mitochondria
(B) Chloroplast
(C) Golgibodies
(D) ER
Answer-( B )

14. Climate of world is threatened by :

(A) increasing amount of CO2
(B)increasing amount of O2
(C)increasing amount of O3
(D)increasing amount of N2
Answer-( A )

15. Ozone day is celebrated on :

(A) 6 September
(B ) 21 April
(C) 25 December
(D) January 30
Answer-( A )

16. Which is the effect (s) of deforestation

(A) Enhanced CO2concentration
(B) Desertification
(C) Global warming
(D)All of above
Answer-( D )

17. The cause of Minimata disease isdue to poisoing of:

(A) Methyl Mercury
(B) Methyl cyanide
(C) Lead
(D) Copper
Answer-( A )

18. At present the concentration ofatmospheric co2 is:

(A) 100 ppm
(B) 240 ppm
(C) 380 ppm
(D) 520 ppm
Answer-( C )

19. Which is related to ‘Polyblend’ ?

(4) Ahmad Khan
(B) Ramesh Chandra Dagar
(C) Ramdev Mishra
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(D) Swaminathan
Answer-( A )

20. Photochemical smog consists of

(A) SO2 PAN and smoke
(B) Ozone, PAN and NO2
(C) Ozone, SO2 and Hydrocarbon
(D)SO² CO2 and Hydrocarbon
Answer-( B )

21. Snow blindness in human being is caused by

(A) Absorption of UV B radiation
(B) Absorption of infra radiation
(C) Absorption of cosmic radiation
(D) Erosion of cornea by snow
Answer-( A )

22. The thickness of Ozone in a columnof air from the ground to the top of atmosphere is measured
in terms of
(A) Dobson unit
(B ) Arab unit
(C) Pascal unit
(D ) None of these
Answer-( A )

23. Which of the following is green house gas?

(A) Methane
(B) CO2
(C) Chloro fluoro carbon
(D ) All of these
Answer-( D )

1. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that :

(a) Water is highly polluted
(b) Water is less polluted
(c) Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
(d) Water is pure
► (a) Water is highly polluted

2. Photochemical smog is caused by a light-mediated reaction between

(a) SO2 and O3
(b) SO2 and unburnt hydrocarbons
(c) NO2 and unsaturated hydrocarbons
(d) NO2 and O3
► (c) NO2 and unsaturated hydrocarbons

3. Which of the following elements is responsible for Minamata disease?

(a) Pb
(b) Cd
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(c) Fe
(d) Hg
► (d) Hg

4. Which of the following is an effect of waste accumulation?

(a) Urbanisation
(b) Over population
(c) Health problems
(d) Industrialisation
► (c) Health problems

5. The process of restoring a forest which once existed but was removed at some point of time in
the past is called
(a) Tree plantation
(b) Afforestation
(c) Deforestation
(d) Reforestation
► (d) Reforestation

6. Large-scale disposal of solid waste in low areas of the ground and then covering it with earth is
called
(a) Deep well injection
(b) Landfill
(c) Pyrolysis
(d) Incineration
► (b) Landfill

7. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
(a) drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.
(b) increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
(c) an increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.
(d) death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
► (d) death of fish due to lack of oxygen.

8. A gas produced by paddy fields and involved in global warming is

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Sulphur dioxide gas
(d) Chlorine
► (b) Methane

9. According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in
micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health?
(a) 5.2 - 2.5
(b) 2.5 or less
(c) 1.5 or less
(d) 1.0 or less
► (b) 2.5 or less
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10. Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during

(a) 1960s
(b) 1970s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s
► (c) 1980s

11. Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for

(a) Thermal inversion
(b) Acid rain
(c) Ozone layer depletion
(d) Global warming
► (c) Ozone layer depletion

12. What is the 3R approach?

(a) Reduce, Remove and Replenish
(b) Reduce, Remove and Reuse
(c) Reuse, Replenish and Remove
(d) Reduce, Reuse and Recycle
► (d) Reduce, Reuse and Recycle

13. Which of the following correctly represents the stages in solid waste management?
(a) Segregation – Collection – Transportation – Dumping
(b) Transportation – Collection – Segregation – Dumping
(c) Collection – Segregation – Transportation – Dumping
(d) Collection – Segregation – Dumping – Transportation
► (c) Collection – Segregation – Transportation – Dumping
14. The ozone hole causes
(a) Reduction in the rate of photosynthesis
(b) Global warming
(c) More ultraviolet rays coming to the Earth
(d) Thermal pollution
► (c) More ultraviolet rays coming to the Earth

15. Ozone depletion shall cause higher incidence of

(a) Decreased immunity only.
(b) Skin cancer only
(c) Skin cancer, Cataract and decreased immunity.
(d) Cataract only
► (c) Skin cancer, Cataract and decreased immunity.

16. Which of the following does not cause desertification?

(a) Deforestation
(b) Restricted grazing
(c) Poor irrigation practices
(d) Over cultivation
► (b) Restricted grazing
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17. In normal adults, the enzyme which catalyses conversion of MHb into Hb is:
(a) MHb protease
(b) MHb oxidase
(c) MHb lipase
(d) MHb reductase
► (d) MHb reductase

18. All are biofuels except:

(a) ethanol
(b) biopetrol
(c) biodiesel
(d) marsh gas
► (b) biopetrol

19. The term biomagnification refers to the

(a) Growth of organisms due to food consumption
(b) Blowing up of environmental issues by man
(c) Increase in the concentration of non-degradable pollutants as they pass through the food
chain
(d) Increase in population size
► (d) Increase in the concentration of non-degradable pollutants as they pass through the food
chain

20. In a polluted environment, the concentration of pollutant would be maximum in

(a) Primary consumers
(b) Tertiary consumers
(c) Producers
(d) Secondary consumers
► (b) Tertiary consumers

21. Which of the following will be able to cope with greenhouse effect?
(a) Hibernators
(b) Homeotherms
(c) Poikilotherms
(d) Stenotherms
► (b) Homeotherms

22. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers
(a) Nitrous oxide
(b) Ozone
(c) Ammonia
(d) Methane
► (b) Ozone

23. Substances which can be broken down into non-poisonous substances by the action of
microorganisms are said to be
(a) Non-degradable
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(b) Non-biodegradable
(c) Non-decomposable
(d) Biodegradable
► (d) Biodegradable

24. A common indicator organism of water pollution is

(a) Lemna paucicostata
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Entamoeba histolytica
(d) Eichhornia crassipes
► (b) Escherichia coli

25. Oil spills prevent oxygenation of water so they are :

(a) Biological pollutants
(b) Chemical pollutants
(c) Physical pollutants
(d) None of the above
► (c) Physical pollutants

26. Eutrophication of water bodies leading to killing of fishes is mainly due to non-availability of :
(a) Light
(b) Essential minerals
(c) Oxygen
(d) Food
► (c) Oxygen

27. The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2012 was held at:
(a) Doha
(b) Lima
(c) Warsaw
(d) Durban
► (a) Doha

28. That species which is found in highest concentration within a polluted water reservoir is
called :
(a) Index species
(b) Climax species
(c) Fugitive species
(d) Pioneer species
► (a) Index species

29. The neurotoxic form of Mercury which can be directly absorbed by fishes :
(a) Benzomercury
(b) Methyl mercury
(c) Acetyl mercury
(d) Ethyl mercury
► (b) Methyl mercury
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30. How should the hazardous waste be disposed of?

(a) It should be disposed of after proper treatment.
(b) It should be thrown in the sea.
(c) It should be burnt.
(d) It should be disposed of randomly.
► (a) It should be disposed of after proper treatment.