Get.Set.

Law Monthly Magazine

August 2024
The Contents
CURRENT AFFAIRS 03
CURRENT AFFAIRS EXERCISE 43
LEGAL CURRENT AFFAIRS 50
LEGAL CURRENT AFFAIRS EXERCISE 58
ANSWER KEY 72

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CURRENT AFFAIRS NEWS
1 | NATIONAL

1.1. Governance & Policy

1.1.1. PM DEFENDS AGNIPATH SCHEME ON ANNIVERSARY OF KARGIL WAR
Why in the News?
In his address on ‘Kargil Vijay Diwas’ to mark the 25th anniversary of victory in Kargil war, PM Modi
said some people were playing politics over a sensitive issue related to national security and rubbished
claims that the ‘Agnipath’ scheme was launched to save pension money.
About:
• It allows youth ( referred to as Agniveer under this scheme) to serve in the Armed Forces for a
period of four years.
• The scheme aims to recruit approximately 45,000 to 50,000 Agniveers each year.
• After the initial four-year service, only 25% of Agniveers will be selected for further service,
extending their tenure by 15 years.
Eligibility Criteria:
• Applicants must be between 17.5 and 23 years old.
• The scheme is applicable only to personnel below officer ranks, not for commissioned officers.
Objectives:
• It is expected to bring down the average age profile of the Indian Armed Forces by about 4 to 5
years.
• The scheme envisions that the average age in the forces is 32 years today, which will go down to
26 in six to seven years.
• Upon the completion of the 4-years of service, a one-time ‘Seva Nidhi’ package of Rs 11.71 lakhs
will be paid to the Agniveers that will include their accrued interest thereon.
• They will also get a Rs 48 lakh life insurance cover for the four years.
• In case of death, the payout will be over Rs 1 crore, including pay for the unserved tenure.
• The government will help rehabilitate soldiers who leave the services after four years.

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1.1.2. U-WIN Portal
Why in the News?
On the government’s 100-day health agenda is the countrywide rollout of U-WIN, an online vaccine man-
agement portal for childhood vaccination — similar to CoWIN used during the Covid-19 pandemic.

What is U-WIN? How does it work

U-WIN Registration:
• Children (up to six years) and pregnant mothers are registered using government IDs like Aadhaar
and mobile numbers.
Vaccination Record:
• Records all 25 vaccines given to children and two vaccines given to pregnant mothers.
• Generates a digital vaccination certificate with color-coded vaccine status.
• Date of each administered vaccine is added to the certificate, along with the due date for the next
dose.
Reminders and Accessibility:
• Sends SMS reminders to parents before the next vaccine dose is due.
• Allows parents to download the digital vaccine certificate using their registered mobile numbers.
• Enables vaccination at any location across the country.
• Provides features to locate the nearest vaccination center and book slots.
For Health Workers:
• Automatically generates a due-list of children in specific areas for health workers.
• Helps study micro-trends in vaccination across different regions.
Birth Registration:
• Registers all births and records the administration of three vaccines (polio, hepatitis B, and
tuberculosis) given at birth.
• Captures additional data like birth weight and any physical deformities observed at birth.
Integration with Other Programs:
• Data can be utilized by other government programs.
• Aims to eventually connect all digital health records through ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health
Account) ID.

1.1.3. Maharashtra govt nod for Wainganga-Nalganga river linking project

Why in the news?
The Wainganga-Nalganga (Purna Tapi) River linking project will irrigate 3.7 lakh hectares of agricul-
tural land in six districts in Vidarbha region. Under the project, excess water from Gosikhurd dam in
Bhandara district will be diverted to Nalganga dam in Buldhana district in western Vidarbha by construct-
ing 426.52km of link canals. The National Water Development Agency (NWDA) presented the detailed
project report in 2018 and the project has since received approval from the Central Water Commission.
It will supplement the National River Linking Project (NRLP).
About NRLP
• NRLP is based on the National Perspective Plan (NPP) which was prepared by the then Ministry of
Irrigation (now Ministry of Jal Shakti) in 1980 for transferring water from water surplus basins to
water-deficit basins.

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 • Under the NPP, the NWDA has identified 30 links (16 under Peninsular Component & 14 under
Himalayan Component) for Feasibility Reports.
• In 2021, the Union Cabinet approved the implementation of Ken Betwa river link - first interlinking
of rivers project.
About Wainganga and Nalganga (Purna Tapi) River
• Wainganga River
• Source: Mahadeo Hills (Madhya Pradesh)
• Wainganga, is called Pranhita after the confluence of river Wardha, is a major tributary of river
Godavari.
Its riparian States include Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Telangana.
• Nalganaga is the main left bank tributaries of river Purna and a sub-tributary of Tapi river.

1.1.4. Underwater Structures in the Indian Ocean

Why in News?
Recently, three underwater structures in the Indian Ocean were named as Ashoka, Chandragupt, and
Kalpataru, which reflect India’s growing influence in marine science and its commitment to exploring and
understanding the Indian Ocean. This naming was proposed by India and approved by the International
Hydrographic Organisation (IHO) and UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC).
About Underwater Structures:
• Background and Significance:
• Part of the Indian Southern Ocean Research Programme initiated in 2004.
• Coordinated by the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR).
• Focuses on bio-geochemistry, biodiversity, and hydrodynamics.
• Total Structures:
• Seven underwater structures are named, primarily after Indian scientists or names proposed
by India.
• Previously Named Structures:
• Raman Ridge (1992): Discovered in 1951 by a US oil vessel, named after Sir CV Raman.
• Panikkar Seamount (1993): Discovered in 1992 by Indian research vessel Sagar Kanya, named
after oceanographer NK Panikkar.
• Sagar Kanya Seamount (1991): Named after the research vessel Sagar Kanya following its
discovery in 1986.
• DN Wadia Guyot (1993): Named after geologist DN Wadia, discovered in 1992 by Sagar Kanya.
• Recently Named Structures:
• Ashoka Seamount (2012): An oval-shaped structure of 180 sq km, discovered by the Russian
vessel Akademik Nikolay Strakhov.
• Kalpataru Ridge (2012): An elongated ridge covering 430 sq km, believed to support marine
biodiversity.
• Chandragupt Ridge (2020): An elongated ridge of 675 sq km, identified by the Indian research
vessel MGS Sagar.

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About International Hydrographic Organisation (IHO)
• It is an intergovernmental consultative and technical body established in 1921 to enhance
navigation safety and protect the marine environment.
• India is a member of the IHO.
Objectives:
• Coordinating the activities of national hydrographic offices.
• Achieving the highest possible uniformity in nautical charts and documents.
• Promoting the adoption of reliable and efficient methods for conducting and utilising hydrographic
surveys.
• Advancing the sciences of hydrography and the techniques used in descriptive oceanography.
About UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC)
• It promotes international cooperation in marine sciences, capacity development, ocean
observations and services, ocean science, tsunami warning, and ocean literacy.
• It has 150 member states, and India has been a member since 1946.
• The IOC’s work contributes to UNESCO’s mission to promote the advancement of science and its
applications for economic and social progress.
• The IOC is coordinating the United Nations Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development
2021-2030, also known as the “Ocean Decade.”

1.1.5 India’s First Grain ATM

Why in news?
The Odisha government introduced the state’s first Grain ATM, a new technology designed to improve
food distribution under the National Food Security Programme on August 08, 2024. This machine is part
of the central government’s Annapurti programme and was developed with help from the World Food
Programme (WFP) to enhance food security in the region.
What is a Grain ATM?
Grain ATMs are automated machines that dispense food grains directly to people, aiming to reduce hun-
ger and ensure fair distribution. Introduced during the COVID-19 pandemic, they minimize human inter-
vention, cutting down on corruption. Some use biometric authentication and provide fortified grains for
better nutrition. The goal is to enhance food supply efficiency and reduce waste.
What are the Key Features?
• 24/7 Access: The ATMs are available all day, every day, for people across Odisha to get food grains.
• Universal Access: Any person with a valid ration card from anywhere in India can use the ATM, no
matter where they live.
• Fast Dispensing: The machine can give out up to 50 kilograms of grains in just five minutes and
operates with a high accuracy of 99.99%.
• Modular Design: The machine is designed to be easily assembled and set up in different locations.
• Energy Efficiency: The ATMs use energy efficiently and can be powered by solar panels for
automatic refilling.

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1.2.Schemes
1.2.1. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0:
Why in News?
The Union Cabinet approved a new version of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U) program.
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0:
• Approval: The Union Cabinet approved PMAY-U 2.0 on August 9, 2024.
• Objective: To provide financial assistance for the construction, purchase, or rental of affordable
housing to one crore urban poor and middle-class families.
• Target Beneficiaries:
• Urban poor and middle-class families.
• Families must belong to the Economically Weaker Section (EWS), Low Income Group (LIG), or
Middle Income Group (MIG) segments.
• Families must not own a ‘pucca’ house anywhere in the country.
• Current Status of PMAY-U:
• 1.18 crore houses have been sanctioned under PMAY-U.
• More than 85.5 lakh houses have been constructed and delivered to beneficiaries.
• Financial Details:
• The scheme will be implemented over the next five years.
• Total government subsidy: ₹2.30 lakh crore.
• Total investment: ₹10 lakh crore.
• Credit Risk Guarantee Fund:
• The corpus fund has been increased from ₹1,000 crore to ₹3,000 crore.
• Benefits will be provided for affordable housing loans from banks, housing finance companies, and
primary lending institutions to EWS/LIG segments.
• Management of the Credit Risk Guarantee Fund will be transferred from the National Housing Bank
to the National Credit Guarantee Company.
• The Credit Risk Guarantee Fund Scheme will be restructured, and modified guidelines will be
issued by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
• Coverage Area:
• All statutory towns as per Census 2011 and towns notified subsequently.
• Notified Planning Areas, areas within Notified Planning/Development areas under various state
legislations, including Industrial Development Authorities, Special Area Development Authorities,
and Urban Development Authorities, are included in the scheme.

1.2.2. Clean Plant Programme

Why in News?
The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, today approved the Clean Plant
Programme (CPP) proposed by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

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With a substantial investment of Rs.1,765.67 crore, this pioneering initiative is set to revolutionize the
horticulture sector in India and expected to set new standards for excellence and sustainability. An-
nounced earlier in the Budget Speech by the Finance Minister in February 2023, the CPP represents a
major leap forward in enhancing the quality and productivity of fruit crops across the nation.
Key Benefits of the Clean Plant Programme (CPP):
• Farmers: The CPP will provide access to virus-free, high-quality planting material, leading to
increased crop yields and improved income opportunities.
• Nurseries: Streamlined certification processes and infrastructure support will enable nurseries to
efficiently propagate clean planting material, fostering growth and sustainability.
• Consumers: The initiative will ensure that consumers benefit from superior produce that is free
from viruses, enhancing the taste, appearance, and nutritional value of fruits.
• Exports: By producing higher-quality, disease-free fruits, India will strengthen its position as a
leading global exporter, expanding market opportunities and increasing its share in the international
fruit trade.
• The Programme will prioritize affordable access to clean plant material for all farmers, regardless
of their landholding size or socioeconomic status.
• The Programme will actively engage women farmers in its planning and implementation, ensuring
their access to resources, training and decision-making opportunities.
• The Programme will address the diverse agro-climatic conditions across India by developing
region-specific clean plant varieties and technologies.

1.2.3. ‘Model Solar Village

Why in News?
The Scheme Guidelines for implementation of ‘Model Solar Village’ under PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yoja-
na have been notified by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy on 9th August 2024.
Allocation: ₹800 crore for the scheme, with ₹1 crore allocated per selected Model Solar Village.
Eligibility:
• Revenue villages with a population above 5,000 (or 2,000 for special category states).
• Villages selected through a competitive mode based on renewable energy (RE) capacity installed
6 months after being declared a potential candidate by the District Level Committee (DLC).
Selection Process:
• Villages assessed on overall distributed RE capacity.
• The village with the highest RE capacity in each district receives ₹1 crore in central financial
assistance.
Implementation: Managed by State/UT Renewable Energy Development Agencies under DLC supervi-
sion.
Scheme Background:
• Approved on February 29, 2024.
• Part of the PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, which aims to increase solar rooftop capacity and
empower residential households.
• Total scheme outlay: ₹75,021 crore, to be implemented until FY 2026-27.

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1.2.4. Master clock system for railways
Why in News?
For the first time, Indian Railways is set to develop a master clock system to synchronize time across its
entire network, addressing issues with the current manual time-keeping method.
• This initiative arose due to difficulties in investigating rail accidents caused by time mismatches
across different systems and applications.
• The existing system involves station masters setting time manually based on instructions from
section controllers, leading to discrepancies during accident investigations.
• The new master clock system will source time from reliable sources like NAVIC or the National
Physical Laboratory (NPL) and will be integrated across various railway applications and systems.
This synchronized time system will enhance operational efficiency and improve the accuracy of post-in-
cident analyses.

1.2.5. PM-PRANAM Scheme and Increased FRP

Why in news?
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), approved the PM-PRANAM scheme, aimed at restoring
and nurturing Mother Earth through the use of biofertilizers.
• Furthermore, the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane has been increased by Rs 10 to
Rs 315 per quintal for the 2023-24 season starting from October.
• Additionally, the government has extended the urea subsidy scheme until March 2025 with an
allocation of ₹3.68 lakh crore. Alongside, a nutrient-based subsidy of ₹38,000 crore has been
sanctioned for the Kharif season of 2023-24.
What is the PM-PRANAM Scheme?
About:
• PM-PRANAM stands for PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration
of Mother Earth.
• PM-PRANAM was first announced in the 2023-24 Budget by the Union government.
• The scheme aims to reduce the use of chemical fertilizers by incentivizing states to adopt alternative
fertilizers.
Objective:
• Encourage the balanced use of fertilizers in conjunction with biofertilizers and organic fertilizers.
• Reduce the subsidy burden on chemical fertilizers, which was around Rs 2.25 lakh crores in 2022-
2023.
Key Features of the Scheme:
Financing:
• The scheme will be financed by the savings of existing fertilizer subsidies under schemes run by
the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers.
• There will be no separate budget for the PM-PRANAM scheme.
Subsidy Savings and Grants:
• The Centre will provide 50% of the subsidy savings to the states as a grant.
• Out of the grant, 70% can be used to create assets related to the technological adoption of
alternative fertilizers and production units at various levels.

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 • The remaining 30% can be used to reward and encourage farmers, panchayats, and other
stakeholders involved in fertilizer reduction and awareness generation.
Calculation of Fertilizer Reduction:
• The reduction in urea consumption by a state will be compared to its average consumption of urea
over the previous three years.
• This calculation will determine the eligibility for subsidy savings and grants.
Promotion of Sustainable Agriculture:
• Encouraging the use of biofertilizers and organic fertilizers will promote sustainable agricultural
practices.
• This will enhance soil fertility, reduce environmental pollution, and support long-term agricultural
productivity.

2 | INTERNATIONAL
2.1.India & The World
2.1.1. India , china hold 30th round of border talks
Why in News?
India and China conducted the 30th meeting of the Working mechanism for consultation and coordina-
tion on India-China Border Affairs in New Delhi.
HIGHLIGHTS
• The two countries have been holding Corps Commander levels and the WMCC talks at the military
and diplomatic levels as part of efforts to resolve the stand-off along the LAC in eastern Ladakh.
• The 21st round of Corps Commander talks were held in February though it did not reach a
breakthrough towards disengagement in the two remaining friction areas.
• Gourangalal Das, Joint Secretary (East Asia), led the Indian delegation.
• The Chinese delegation was led by Hong Liang, Director General of the Boundary and Oceanic
Department of the Chinese Ministry of Foreign Affairs.
• AIM : talks were focussed on finding an early resolution of the remaining issues along LAC
INDIA - CHINA BACKGROUND
• In 1950, India became the first non-socialist bloc country to establish diplomatic relations with
the People’s Republic of China.
• The two countries also jointly expounded the Panchsheel (Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence)
in 1954.
• Though the border conflict in 1962 was a serious setback to bilateral ties, India and China restored
ambassadorial relations in August 1976.
• Indian PM Rajiv Gandhi’s landmark visit in 1988 marked the beginning of improvement in bilateral
relations.
• In 1993, the signing of an Agreement on the Maintenance of Peace and Tranquillity along the Line
of Actual Control on the India-China Border Areas reflected the growing stability in bilateral ties.
• Signed the Declaration on Principles for Relations and Comprehensive Cooperation in 2003.
• In 2005, the two sides established a Strategic and Cooperative Partnership for Peace and
Prosperity.

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 • 2020 marked the year of the 70th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic relations between
China and India
• In 2014, the two sides redefined the bilateral engagement as Closer Developmental Partnership.

2.1.2. IPEF elects India as Vice-Chair of Supply Chain Council

Why in News?
“India has been elected as Vice-Chair of the Supply Chain Council — one of the three bodies set up by
the 14-member Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) bloc,” the Commerce Ministry said on July 31.
About Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF)
• IPEF was launched on May 23, 2022, in Tokyo. The members are Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India,
Indonesia, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam and
the U.S.
• The IPEF seeks to strengthen economic engagement and cooperation among partner countries
with the goal of advancing growth, economic stability and prosperity in the region.
• The framework is structured around four pillars relating to Trade (Pillar I), Supply Chain Resilience
(Pillar II), Clean Economy (Pillar III), and Fair Economy (Pillar IV). India had joined Pillars II to IV
of IPEF while it has maintained an observer status in Pillar-I.
2.1.3. India-Australia Boost Maritime Ecology in Indo-Pacific Initiative
Why in news?
The 6th India-Australia Maritime Security Dialogue took place in Canberra. The meeting focused on
ensuring a safe and secure maritime environment and working together on the maritime ecology part of
the Indo-Pacific Ocean Initiative.
Key Discussions
• Maritime Security: Focused on maintaining a safe and secure maritime environment for inclusive
growth and global well-being.
• Topics Covered:
• Maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region
• Maritime domain awareness: It includes Monitoring and understanding maritime activities
• Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR): Coordination and response efforts for
emergencies

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 • Regional and multilateral engagements: Collaborating with other countries and organisations.
• Sustainable use of marine resources
• Key Areas of Cooperation
• Search and Rescue (SAR) : Joint efforts to assist in emergency situations at sea
• Pollution Response: Working together to tackle marine pollution
• Blue Economy: Promoting sustainable economic use of ocean resources
• Port State Control : Ensuring ships meet safety and environmental standards
Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)
Overview
• IPOI is an open, non-treaty initiative for countries to collaboratively address common regional
challenges.
• Region: Covers the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
• Purpose: Addresses global security and economic issues in the region.
• Origin: Extends from India’s SAGAR initiative (2015).
• Proposal: Initiated by Indian PM Narendra Modi at the 14th East Asian Summit (November 4,
2019).
Objectives
• Strengthen Maritime Boundaries: Improve maritime security in the region.
• Promote Free Trade and Sustainable Use: Support free trade and responsible resource management.
• Advance Democratic Governance: Foster a rules-based order for economic growth.
• Develop Cooperative Mechanisms: Collaborate with like-minded countries.
Seven Pillars
• Maritime Security: Ensuring safety at sea.
• Maritime Ecology: Protecting the marine environment.
• Maritime Resources: Sustainable use of ocean resources.
• Capacity Building and Resource Sharing: Enhancing skills and sharing resources.
• Disaster Risk Reduction and Management: Handling maritime disasters.
• Trade Connectivity and Maritime Transport: Improving trade routes and transport.
• Science, Technology, and Academic Collaboration: Promoting research and partnerships.

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2.1.4. 3rd Voice of Global South Summit 2024 (VOGSS)
Why in News?
India hosted the 3rd Voice of Global South Summit on 17th August 2024, in virtual format, with the over-
arching theme, “An Empowered Global South for a Sustainable Future”. 123 countries participated in the
3rd VOGSS. However, China and Pakistan were not invited. India had hosted the 1st VOGSS on 12-13th
January 2023, and the 2nd VOGSS on 17th November 2023, both in virtual format
Voice of the Global South Summit (VOGSS)
About:
• A unique India-led initiative that brings together countries of the Global South to share perspectives
and priorities on a common platform.
• Reflects India’s philosophy of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (“One Earth, One Family, One Future”) and
the vision of Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas, Sabka Vishwas, Sabka Prayas.
Need:
• Recent global issues (e.g., COVID-19, Ukraine conflict, debt, food and energy security) have
severely impacted developing countries.
• Concerns of the developing world often lack attention and resources.
• Existing platforms are inadequate for addressing these challenges.
Key Outcomes of 3rd VOGSS 2024:
• Global Development Compact (GDC): A proposal including:
• Trade for development
• Capacity building for sustainable growth
• Technology sharing
• Concessional finance and grants
Funding and Support:
• USD 2.5 million for trade promotion
• USD 1 million for trade policy and negotiation capacity building
Healthcare Promotion:
• Affordable generic medicines
• Training for drug regulators
• Sharing of natural farming technology
Reforming Global Institutions:
• Need for inclusive global governance
• Addressing Global South concerns and responsibilities of developed countries
Collaboration for SDGs:
• Focus on achieving Sustainable Development Goals and rapid development beyond 2030
• Strengthening efforts in finance, health, climate, technology, governance, energy, trade, youth
empowerment, and digital transformation
Global South:
• Term coined by Carl Oglesby in 1969.
• Refers to regions in Latin America, Asia, Africa, and Oceania, generally low-income and marginalized.

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 • Includes countries outside Europe and North America.
• China and India are key proponents.
• Brandt Line: Represents the economic divide between the rich Global North and poor Global South,
proposed by Willy Brandt in the 1970s.

2.1.5. Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work (FPRW) Project

Why in News?
The Confederation of Indian Textile Industry (CITI) and the International Labour Organisation (ILO) have
jointly launched the project titled Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work (FPRW). It will help create
awareness and share technical know-how and knowledge about the best labour standards.
What is ILO’s Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work (FPRW) Project?
• It is a commitment by governments, employers’ and workers’ organisations to uphold basic human
values that are vital to our social and economic lives.
• The ILO Declaration on Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work (FPRW) was adopted in 1998
and amended in 2022.
• Increasing concerns about the social impact of globalisation led the members of the ILO to
recognize four categories of labour standards, expressed in eight conventions.
• In 2022, four categories were amended to become five categories with the addition of the
occupation of safety and health conventions, expressed in ten conventions.
The five categories of the ILO’s Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work (FPRW) are:
1. Freedom of Association and Collective Bargaining: Ensures the right to form unions and negotiate
work conditions.
2. Elimination of Forced Labor: Abolishes all forms of forced or compulsory labor.
3. Abolition of Child Labor: Eliminates child labor and protects children from harmful work.
4. Elimination of Discrimination in Employment: Promotes equality and prevents discrimination in
the workplace.
5. Safe and Healthy Working Conditions: Ensures safe and healthy work environments for all workers.

2.2.World News
2.2.1 Palestine site gets UNESCO tag put on heritage in danger list
Why in News ?
• The Saint Hilarion Monastery, also known as Tell Umm Amer, located in Gaza, Palestine, has been
added to the UNESCO World Heritage List.
ANALYSIS
• It was simultaneously placed on the List of World Heritage in Danger due to the ongoing conflict
and other threats.
• The inclusion was made after an “emergency nomination,” highlighting the site’s urgent need for
protection and international attention.
• This dual listing aims to provide awareness and seek international support to

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2.2.2. Italy and China sign a 3 year action plan during Meloni’s visit
WHY IN NEWS ?
Italy and China signed a three year action plan on Sunday to implement past agreements and experiment
with new forms of cooperation.
ANALYSIS
• Italian Prime Minister Giorgia Meloni announced she was signing a three-year action plan to revive
cooperation with China.
• Italy had last year pulled out of China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), having been the only G7
country to sign up in 2019 to the infrastructure and transportation plan that seeks to build a sort
of modern-day Silk Road.
• Electric vehicles have also become a symbol of growing China-EU trade tensions, with the European
Union imposing provisional tariffs of up to 37.6% on China-made electric vehicles in early July.
• China launched an anti-dumping investigation into European pork exports, just days after the EU
announced it would impose the tariffs on Chinese EVs.

2.2.3. AUKUS Submarine (SSN-A) Programme:

Why in News?
Under the AUKUS Agreement, Australia will buy up to five nuclear submarines from the US in the early
2030s before jointly building and operating a new class, SSN-AUKUS, with Britain, around a decade later.
• The pact will see Australia become the seventh nation to operate nuclear-powered submarines.
• All AUKUS partners are significantly investing to ensure program success, reshaping and integrating
their industrial bases to facilitate SSN cooperation.
• Recent Developments: On the day of the funding announcement, Taiwan reported detecting 36
Chinese military aircraft in its vicinity over the previous 24 hours, marking the highest number
observed in 2024.
What Is the AUKUS Agreement?
• In 2021, Australia, the United Kingdom, and the United States have formed a significant trilateral
security partnership named AUKUS for the Indo-Pacific.
• Motive: To Bolster the Collective industrial base capacity and Stimulate economic growth within
the defense and national security sectors of the involved nations.
• Pivotal features : Transfer of US nuclear submarine technology to Australia.
• Strategic orientation towards the Indo-Pacific: Position the alliance as a countermeasure to China’s
increasingly assertive maneuvers in the South China Sea.

2.2.4. Without reforms, UNSC ‘ill-equipped’ to address global challenges: G4

nations
Why in News?
A reform of the UN Security Council that does not address the lack of representation, particularly in the
permanent category, would only “exacerbate” the current imbalances in its composition and render it
“ill-equipped” to address current global challenges, India has said on behalf of the G4 countries.

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Key Concerns:
• Reform of the UN Security Council (UNSC) that does not address representation issues, especially
in the permanent category, would worsen current imbalances.
• The UNSC’s current composition is seen as ineffective in addressing global challenges due to
outdated representation based on 1945 realities.
Representation Issues:
• Current lack of representation for Africa, Latin America, and the Caribbean.
• Under-representation of Asia Pacific in the permanent category.
G4 Reform Proposal:
• Increase UNSC membership from 15 to 25-26 members.
• Add six new permanent members:
• Two from African States.
• Two from Asia Pacific states.
• One from Latin American and Caribbean states.
• One from West European and Other States.
• Add four or five new non-permanent members.
Veto Power:
• Support for extending veto rights to all permanent members (new and old), aligning with the
Common African Position.
Objective of Reforms:
• Address historical injustices.
• Enhance African representation and overall effectiveness of the UNSC.

2.2.5. ICJ to Present Advisory Opinion on Global Environmental Obligations

Why in news?
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is set to provide an advisory opinion on December 2, 2024, con-
cerning the legal obligations of states to combat climate change.
About the News
• Global Demand for Legal Clarity: There is a widespread international demand for clear guidelines
on climate commitments, particularly from countries most at risk from climate change, like small
island states.
• Appeal by Vulnerable Nations: Among the 62 nations that petitioned the ICJ for an advisory
opinion on climate accountability are island nations from Oceania, Micronesia, and the Caribbean,
such as Antigua and Barbuda, El Salvador, Grenada, Saint Lucia, and Saint Vincent and the
Grenadines.
• Notably, India did not join this group, although neighboring countries like Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and
Bangladesh did.
• No Legally Binding Climate Commitments: Currently, global efforts to mitigate climate change are
not legally enforceable, leaving a significant gap in ensuring international accountability.
• Earlier Efforts:
• Tuvalu: The Pacific nation of Tuvalu (part of Oceania) decided to approach the ICJ in a historic
claim against Australia in the first such case in 2002.

16
 • Vanuatu: In 1991, another Pacific nation of Vanuatu championed the cause of island nations by
taking up the first Chair of the Alliance of Small Island States (AOSIS).
• Its efforts culminated with the inclusion of insurance for the loss and damage due to climate
change in the agenda of the UNFCCC.
• On August 16, the ICJ announced its intention to consider various arguments before issuing its
advisory opinion in December. These arguments include:
• State Obligations: Responsibilities of states under international law to protect the climate
system for current and future generations.
• Legal Consequences: Potential legal outcomes for states failing to meet these obligations.
• Vulnerability of Island States: Particular attention to small island developing states, which are
most vulnerable to climate change.
• Impact on Future Generations: Consideration of the effects of climate change on present and
future populations.
Nature of the Advisory Jurisdiction.
• Non-Binding Opinion: The ICJ’s advisory opinions are not legally binding. However, they carry
significant weight in guiding international law and influencing state behavior.
• Clarification of International Law: These opinions help clarify international law, contributing to its
development and the strengthening of peaceful relations between states.
• Influence on Policy: Although non-binding, advisory opinions can influence national and
international policies by providing a legal interpretation of states’ obligations.
• Flexibility for Implementation: The entities requesting the advisory opinion are free to decide how
to implement the ICJ’s guidance, offering flexibility in its application.
Concerns of Island States
• High Vulnerability: Island nations are highly susceptible to the adverse effects of climate change,
such as rising sea levels and extreme weather events.
• Existential Threats: Some island nations, like Tuvalu, face the possibility of being completely
submerged by rising ocean levels within a few decades.

3 | ECONOMY

3.1. NARCL Aims to Acquire Rs 2 Trillion Stressed Assets by FY26

Why in News?
The National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL), the government-backed bad bank, has set an
ambitious target to acquire Rs 2 trillion in stressed assets by FY26.
Bad Banks: Overview
• Definition: Bad banks are asset reconstruction companies that buy, manage, and recover bad loans
and manage non-performing assets (NPAs) from commercial banks to liquidate transferred assets.
• Purpose: They provide a safety net for banks by allowing them to offload bad loans, enabling a
focus on healthier lending activities.
Evolution of Bad Banks
• Origin: The concept emerged in the 1980s with institutions like Grant Street National Bank, which
acquired bad assets from Mellon Bank.

17
 • 2008 Financial Crisis: The concept gained prominence during the crisis, with countries like Sweden,
Germany, and France implementing similar models to manage bad assets.
• India: India’s first bad bank, NARCL, was established in 2021 to manage bad assets in public
sector banks, following a proposal in the 2016 Economic Survey.
• Global Trend: This move aligns with the global trend of using bad banks to stabilize financial
systems burdened by distressed loans.
Advantages of Bad Banks
• Centralized Management: Centralizes the management of NPAs, streamlining efforts, and
increasing efficiency in asset resolution.
• Capital Relief: By transferring NPAs to a bad bank, originating banks can free up capital held as
provisions, potentially increasing lending to more creditworthy customers.
• Enhanced Confidence: Government backing of bad banks can boost confidence in originating
banks, improving their capital buffers and financial stability.
Disadvantages of Bad Banks
• Public Sector Burden: Transferring bad assets to a government-backed entity can shift the burden
within the public sector, possibly leading to taxpayer liabilities for any losses.
• Moral Hazard: Government bailouts might discourage banks from exercising caution in lending,
potentially leading to a repeat of the same issues.
Current Challenges for Bad Banks
• Price Discovery: Difficulties in pricing bad loans and determining future liabilities.
• Finding Buyers: Challenges in selling portfolios of distressed assets, especially without established
market mechanisms or precedents.
• Economic Conditions: Weak economic conditions can depress asset values and reduce the pool of
potential buyers.
What is NARCL?
• About: Designed as a “bad bank,” NARCL aims to cleanse the financial system of distressed loans,
thereby stabilizing banks and fostering a healthier economic environment.
• NARCL was announced in the Union Budget 2021-22 to handle large loans of over Rs 500 crore.
Initial delays occurred due to the Reserve Bank of India’s dissatisfaction with the proposed
structure, leading to a revised plan.
• Under the new structure NARCL acquires and aggregates bad loan accounts from banks. India
Debt Resolution Co. Ltd (IDRCL) handles the resolution process, operating under an exclusive
arrangement with NARCL.
• Role of NARCL: Purchase bad loans from commercial banks. Manage these distressed assets.
• Sell them in the market through bidding methods like Swiss Challenge to recover funds and
liquidate the transferred assets.
• Funding and Ownership: NARCL’s acquisition strategy involves paying 15% of the agreed loan
value in cash and the remaining 85% in government-backed security receipts.
• State-owned banks hold a 51% stake in NARCL, with the remaining stake owned by private
banks.

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3.2. Monetary Policy Committee
Why in News?
The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has kept the repo rate
unchanged at 6.5 per cent for the ninth time amid risks from higher food inflation.
• About Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
• Role: The MPC is responsible for setting India’s benchmark interest rate.
• Meeting Frequency: The committee meets at least four times a year.
• Decision Publication: Decisions are published after each meeting, with each member’s position on
the rate decision disclosed.
• Membership: The MPC has six members:
• Three from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• Three appointed by the government.
• Decision-Making Process:
• The committee is chaired by the RBI Governor.
• Decisions are made by majority vote.
• The RBI Governor has a casting vote in the event of a tie.
• Confidentiality: A “silent period” is observed to ensure utmost confidentiality surrounding rate
decisions.
• Mandate: The MPC’s mandate is to maintain an annual inflation rate of 4%, with a tolerance range
of 2-6%, until March 31, 2026.
History and Formation of MPC:
• Pre-MPC Era: Before the MPC was formed, the RBI Governor made all significant interest rate
decisions independently.
• Establishment:
• The MPC was established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• It was created to increase transparency and accountability in India’s monetary policy-making.
• Recommendations:
• The Urjit Patel Committee first suggested forming a five-member MPC.
• The government later recommended a seven-member committee.
• Support:
• The Monetary Policy Department (MPD) of the RBI assists the MPC in policy development.
• The Financial Markets Operations Department (FMOD) implements the monetary policy through
daily liquidity management operations.
• Formation Date: The MPC was officially established on June 27, 2016.

4 | DEFENCE, SECURITY & DISASTER MANAGEMENT

4.1. Defence News

4.1.1. Long Range Glide Bomb
Why in News?

19
Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has carried out a successful
maiden flight test of Long Range Glide Bomb (LRGB), GAURAV from Su-30 MK-I platform of the Indian
Air Force (IAF).
About Long Range Glide Bomb:
• It is an air launched 1,000 kg class glide bomb capable of hitting targets at long distance.
• Features
It is an Air to Surface LRGB with conventional warheads to destroy enemy air strips, bunkers, hard
installations, buildings etc.
It is designed to integrate with fighter aircrafts.
It consists of an Inertial Navigation based guidance system with Digital Control.
• GAURAV has been designed and developed indigenously by the Research Centre Imarat (RCI),
Hyderabad.
• After being launched, the glide bomb steers towards the target using a highly accurate hybrid
navigation scheme with a combination of INS and GPS data.
• During the flight test, the glide bomb hit the target erected at Long Wheeler’s island with pinpoint
accuracy.
• Complete flight data during the test launch was captured by Telemetry and Electro optical tracking
systems deployed by Integrated Test Range along the coastline.

4.1.2. INS Arighat

Why in News?
India is now all set to commission its second nuclear-powered submarine, INS Arighat, armed with nu-
clear missiles for strategic deterrence.
About INS Arighat:
• It is India’s second indigenously built nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN),following
India’s first nuclear submarine, INS Arihant, commissioned in 2018.
• It was constructed at the Indian Navy’s Ship Building Centre (SBC) in Visakhapatnam.
• It represents a critical component of India’s nuclear triad, enabling the nation to launch nuclear
missiles from land, air, and sea.
• Features:
• It measures 111.6 meters in length, has a beam of 11 meters, a draught of 9.5 meters, and a
displacement of 6,000 tonnes.
• It will have one seven-blade propeller powered by a pressurised water reactor.
• It can achieve a maximum speed of 12–15 knots (22–28 km/h) when on surface and 24 knots
(44 km/h) when submerged.
• It can carry up to four nuclear-capable K-4 SLBMs (Submarine Launched ballistic Missile) with
a range of over 3500 kilometers or twelve conventional warhead K-15 SLBMs with a range of
about 750 kilometers.
• The K-15can also carry a strategic nuclear warhead.
• It also carries torpedoes and mines.
• Additional safety measures include two standby auxiliary engines and a retractable thruster for
emergency power and mobility.

20
4.1.3. Man-Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile (MP-ATGM).
Test-Fire Success:
• Date: August 13, 2024
• Location: Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
• Conducted by: Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
• Purpose: Successful test-firing of the indigenously-built MP-ATGM at a field firing range.
System Overview:
• Type: Shoulder-launched, portable missile system
• Purpose: Designed to destroy enemy tanks and armoured vehicles
• Features: Day and night capabilities, top attack functionality, dual-mode seeker.
Warhead Flight Trials:
• Date: April 13, 2024
• Location: Pokhran Field Firing Range, Rajasthan
• Outcome: Demonstrated impressive missile and warhead performance.
Technical Specifications:
• Length: Approximately 130 cm
• Diameter: 12 cm
• Total System Weight: 14.5 kg (Missile) + 14.25 kg (Command Launch Unit - CLU)
• Range: 200 to 300 metres (minimum), up to 4 km (maximum)
• Launch Method: Soft-launched from a canister using an ejection motor
• Capabilities: Advanced imaging infrared homing (IIR) sensor, integrated avionics, top attack mode,
dual-mode seeker.
Operational Capabilities:
• Target: Modern armour-protected Main Battle Tanks
• Features: Capable of day and night operations, top attack mode, tripod deployment, range of 2.5
km.
Testing History:
• Initial Trials: September 2018
• Guided Flight Trials: March 2019, successful demonstration of top attack mode at 2,500 metres

21
 • Tripod Launcher Test: September 2019, successful top attack on a dummy tank
• Minimum Range Validation: July 2021, tested at 200 to 300 metres in direct attack mode
• Final Configuration Test: January 2022, confirmed consistent performance at minimum range
• Subsequent Tests: Included a 2.5 km range flight test at NOAR in Kurnool (2023) and field
evaluation tests at Pokhran (April 2024), including tandem warhead penetration and warhead
flight trials.

4.2.Defence Exercises
4.2.1. IAF’s largest multilateral drill began in August
Why in News?
IAF all set to host the largest ever multilateral military exercise called “ TARANG SHAKTI”
ABOUT TARANG SHAKTI
• AIM: To improve cooperation and teamwork among the participating countries through complex
aerial drills and missions.
• It is an annual naval exercise by India to improve naval strength and security at sea
• It started in 2019
• Exercise will take place in 2 phases
• PHASE 1 : Sulur, Tamil Nadu
• PHASE 2 : Jodhpur, Rajasthan
• Nearly 30 countries will participate out of the 51 invited
• TARANG SHAKTI will showcase India’s military equipment, including the LCA tejas and Rafale
jets
• This aligns with India’s goal of ATMA NIRBHARTA in defense
• Germany will deploy fighter jets and also a A400M transport air

4.2.2. Maritime Partnership Exercise (MPX)

INS Tabar, on departure from St. Petersburg, Russia successfully conducted a Maritime Partnership Ex-
ercise (MPX) with the Russian Navy Ship Soobrazitelny on 30 July 2024.

22
4.2.3. Mitra Shakti
The Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army conducted the 10th edition of their joint exercise, “Mitra Shak-
ti,” at Maduruoya in Sri Lanka’s Southern Province. This annual event is crucial for fostering cooperation
and enhancing interoperability between the two nations’ armed forces.

4.2.4. Parvat Prahaar’ exercise

Exercise focuses on high-altitude warfare near India-China border, Parvat Prahaar involves infantry, ar-
moured, artillery, support units. Over 500 tanks, 50,000 troops deployed in Ladakh region since 2020

4.2.5. UDARA SHAKTI 2024

After successful participation in Exercise Udara Shakti 2024 at Malaysia, the Indian Air Force (IAF) con-
tingent returned to India, on 10 Aug 24. The joint air exercise was conducted in collaboration with the
Royal Malaysian Air Force (RMAF) from 05 to 09 August 2024 at Kuantan, Malaysia. The IAF participated
with Su-30MKI fighter jets.

4.3. Disaster Management

4.3.1.Disaster management bill tabled in Lok sabha
Why in News?
Government introduced the disaster management bill 2024 in the Lok sabha
ANALYSIS
IMPORTANT POINTS OF THE BILL
• Seeks to amend the disaster management act 2005

23
 • Bill makes provision for the constitution of URBAN DISASTER MANAGEMENT AUTHORITY for state
capitals and large cities having municipal corporations except the UT’s of delhi and chandigarh
• Bill empowers NDMA and state disaster management authorities to prepare the disaster plan at
the national and state level
• Seeks to create a disaster database at national and state level
• Bill will grant statutory recognition to existing bodies like the national crisis management committee
and the high level committee
• NEW SECTION 60A will be added to empower both the central and state governments to direct
individuals to take necessary actions
NDMA
• Apex statutory body for disaster management in India
• NDMA formally constituted : 27th September 2006
• CHAIRPERSON : Prime Minister

5 | SCI - TECH & ENVIRONMENT

5.1 Sci & Tech

5.1.1. WHO declares mpox as public health emergency of international concern
Why in News?
WHO has declared mpox a PHEIC due to a significant increase in cases, particularly in the Democratic
Republic of Congo (DRC) and neighboring African countries.Affected Regions: Detected in 10 African
nations this year, with over 96% of cases in the DRC. New Strains: Emergence of a new virus strain, clade
1b, spreading mainly through sexual contact. Another clade (Ia) is also considered high risk, primarily
affecting children.
Risk Assessment:
• PHEIC Status: The highest level of alarm under International Health Regulations (IHR, 2005),
indicating potential for the disease to spread beyond Africa.
• Global Emergency: This is the second global emergency declaration for mpox in two years.
Disease Information:
• Causative Agent: Viral illness caused by the monkeypox virus, a member of the Orthopoxvirus
genus.
• Clades: Two main clades – clade I and clade II.
Symptoms:
• Common Symptoms: Skin rash or mucosal lesions lasting 2–4 weeks, accompanied by fever,
headache, muscle aches, back pain, low energy, and swollen lymph nodes.
Transmission:
• Modes: Can be transmitted through physical contact with an infected person, contaminated
materials, or infected animals.

Prevention:
• Avoid Contact: Prevented by avoiding physical contact with infected individuals.

24
 • Vaccination: JYNNEOS® vaccine can help protect those at risk.
Treatment:
• Isolation: Affected individuals should be isolated.
• Antivirals: Treatments include antivirals like tecovirimat, with ongoing research for more options.

5.1.2. Google Faces Antitrust Complaints in the US and India

Why in news?
A US District Court has found Google guilty of monopolistic practices in search and text advertising,
disrupting its longstanding dominance and is coinciding with India’s new digital competition law discus-
sions.
Key Points:
• Google has invested over USD 26 billion annually to maintain its default search engine status on
devices, with a substantial market share of 89.2% in general search services and 94.9% on mobile.
• In India, the Alliance of Digital India Foundation (ADIF) has filed a complaint with the Competition
Commission of India (CCI) claiming Google’s dominance hinders competition and negatively
impacts Indian businesses.
About ADIF:
• DIF is an industry body for India’s digital startups formed in 2020 to transform the Indian startup
ecosystem into the top 3 globally by 2030.
• ADIF is concerned that Google’s Privacy Sandbox initiative, which removes third-party cookies from
Chrome, could hinder non-Google Demand Side Platforms’ effectiveness in digital advertising.
• The development comes as India discusses a digital competition law, which could lead to increased
compliance by large tech companies.
• It also comes amid antitrust scrutiny into Google by the CCI, after fining it in 2022 for “abusing its
market dominant position” in Android-related categories.
• Also:
• India is proposing the Digital Competition Bill, 2024, which aims to curb anti-competitive
practices by setting presumptive norms and imposing heavy penalties.

5.2. Space
5.2.1. Indian Institute of Astrophysics researchers discover ‘vampire star’ that
feeds off its companion star
Why in the News?
Researchers have made a groundbreaking discovery of a vampire star in the star cluster M67 located in
the constellation Cancer,that has been rejuvenating its youth by sucking up material from a companion.

About Vampire Stars:

• These are known to astronomers as blue straggler stars (BSS), and are identified easily in star
clusters.
• These stars, found in clusters, appear younger than their neighbours, defying simple models of
stellar evolution.

25
 • The mystery behind their youthful appearance has long puzzled astronomers, with theories
suggesting they might be consuming material from companion stars.
• They are also known as Symbiotic Binaries because they are normally in pairs.
• The Vampire star will start as the smaller star but, nearing the end of the sucking process will
inevitably be the larger of the two.
• The sucking star, when it has consumed a large amount from its victim, will become a blue star,
also known as a blue straggler.
Highlights of the research
• The scientists studied the surface composition of the vampire star in M67, called WOCS 9005, an
open cluster in the constellation Cancer.
• They discovered that WOCS 9005’s atmosphere is unusually rich in heavy elements such as
barium, yttrium, and lanthanum. These elements are typically associated with much older, more
massive stars in their final stages of life.
• This star is expected to show chemistry very similar to our Sun, but they found that its atmosphere
is rich in heavy elements. This chemical anomaly pointed to a fascinating possibility: WOCS 9005
had been “polluted” by material from a companion star.
• Using AstroSat’s Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (UVIT), they detected significant ultraviolet
emissions from WOCS 9005.
• The blue straggler star that we see now must have eaten up most of this barium-rich material due
to its gravitational pull, and is now presenting itself as a rejuvenated star.

5.2.2. Completion of SSLV Development Project

Why in News?
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched the third and final developmental
flight of the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Srihariko-
ta. The SSLV-D3 placed the Earth observation satellite EOS-08 precisely into orbit. This also marks the
completion of ISRO/Department of Space’s SSLV Development Project.NewSpace India Limited (NSIL),
ISRO’s commercial arm, and India’s private space industry can now produce SSLVs for commercial mis-
sions.

What is a Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)?

• SSLV is the new small satellite launch vehicle developed by ISRO to cater for the launch of small
satellites.

26
 • It has a three-stage launch vehicle, having a lift-off weight of about 120 tonnes and is 34 metres
in length and 2 metres in diameter.
• It is a 3 stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages and liquid propulsion-
based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage.
• VTM is the last liquid-propellent based stage of the rocket which is used to correct the velocity just
before injecting the satellites into orbit.
Uses
• The SSLV missions are useful to launch small-sized satellites weighing anywhere between 10 to
500kg into the Low Earth Orbit.
• Going by their size and weight, these are typically referred to as mini, micro or nano satellites.
• They are low on cost and intended satellite insertion into orbits takes a shorter flight time.
• SSLV are best suited for commercial and on-demand launches.
• Previously, satellite projects built by college students and private players involved in the space
sector have benefitted from SSLV missions.
India’s journey towards SSLV
• The first SSLV mission — SSLV-D1 — carrying two satellites, including EOS-02 and AzaadiSat, in
August 2022, was a failure.
• The insertion of the two satellites after their separation took place into a 356 km circular orbit
instead of the intended elliptical orbit.
• In its second attempt with the SSLV-D2 in February 2023, ISRO tasted success.
• The rocket inserted three satellites onboard into the intended 450 km circular orbit following a
15-minute flight.
• SSLV-D3 has been launched recently.
Significance
• Seamless launch of small satellites
• The launch of small satellites has until now been dependent on ‘piggy-back’ rides with big
satellite launches on ISRO’s PSLV.
• Against this backdrop, the SSLV is intended to cater to a market for the launch of small satellites
into low earth orbits.
• Suited for launching multiple microsatellites
• SSLV is perfectly suited for launching multiple microsatellites at a time and supports multiple
orbital drop-offs.
• The new launch vehicle has been designed keeping in mind commercial launches of small
satellites with a quick turn-around time for the missions.
• Shift the burden from PSLV
• SSLV will shift the burden of commercial launches from Polar Satellite Launch Vehicles (PSLV).
• The SSLV is likely to cost a fourth of the current PSLV.

5.3. Environment
5.3.1. Centre reissues draft Western Ghats notification for the 6th time
Why in the News?

27
The Union government re-issued a draft notification declaring parts of the Western Ghats as ecologically
sensitive areas (ESAs) after a landslide in Wayanad, Kerala. This is the sixth time the notification has
been issued in a decade.

HIghlights:

• Draft Notification Details:

• Imposes restrictions on economic activities like quarrying, mining, and large infrastructural
development in ESAs.
• The latest draft was issued on July 31 and made public on August 2, 2024, open for public
comments for 60 days.
• The draft has not become law due to objections from six affected States: Gujarat, Maharashtra,
Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
• State Concerns:
• Kerala opposes the notification, fearing it would impact agricultural plantations, hydro-electricity
plans, and cause a migration crisis.
• Other States have also raised objections to specific areas included in the ESA regions.
• ESA History and Committees:
• The first draft was issued in March 2014, based on the Madhav Gadgil committee’s recommendation
to declare the entire Western Ghats (1,29,000 sq km) as an ESA.
• The Gadgil panel proposed three broad zones (ESA 1, ESA 2, ESA 3) with varying restrictions on
economic activity.
• Due to resistance from States, the Kasturirangan committee halved the protected area and allowed
States to draw up their own ESAs.
• Current ESA Area:
• The total ESA area across all six States amounts to 56,825 sq km.
• Breakdown: Kerala (9,993 sq km), Karnataka (20,668 sq km), Tamil Nadu (6,914 sq km),
Maharashtra (17,340 sq km), Goa (1,461 sq km), and Gujarat (449 sq km).
• Ongoing Review:
• A committee, constituted in 2022, is examining State concerns and discrepancies in the draft
notification.
• The committee aims to balance conservation needs with the rights and developmental aspirations
of the region.
• Implications of Final ESA Notification:
• A complete ban on mining, quarrying, and sand mining in ESAs.
• Existing mines to be phased out within five years.
• Prohibition of new thermal power projects and expansion of existing plants.
• Prohibition of new ‘Red category’ industries, as listed by the Central Pollution Control Board.
• Restriction on new and expansion projects of building and construction exceeding 20,000 sq
meters and townships exceeding 50 hectares or 1,50,000 sq meters.

28
 • Certain hydropower projects are allowed under conditions, with a monitoring mechanism for
economic activities in the region.
(Note: The Kerala government has also requested the Centre to declare the catastrophic landslide that
devastated at least three villages in Vythiri taluk in the Wayanad district on July 30 a national disaster)

5.3.2. Chhattisgarh approves country’s third largest tiger reserve

Why in the News?
Chhattisgarh cleared a proposal to establish a new tiger reserve, the third largest in the country, due to
the recent plunge in its tiger population. The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve is Chhattisgarh’s
fourth tiger reserve.It will integrate the Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Sanctuary. It will
be spread across the districts of Manendragarh-Chirmiri-Bharatpur, Koriya, Surajpur, and Balrampur.
Current Tiger Reserves in Chhattisgarh: Chhattisgarh currently has three tiger reserves: Achanakmar Ti-
ger Reserve in Mungeli district,Indravati Tiger Reserve in Bijapur district, Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserve
in Gariaband district.
Tiger Reserves in India:
• Definition:
• Tiger Reserves are protected areas designated for the conservation of tigers.
• They can also be national parks or wildlife sanctuaries.
• Project Tiger:
• A wildlife conservation movement initiated in India to protect endangered tigers.
• Launched in 1973 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of
India.
• Current Status:
• As of March 2024, there are 55 designated tiger reserves in India.
• Administration:
• Tiger Reserves are part of Project Tiger and are administered by the National Tiger Conservation
Authority (NTCA) of the Government of India.
• Notification Process:
• Tiger Reserves are notified by State Governments under Section 38V of the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972, based on the advice of the NTCA.
• Zoning in Tiger Reserves:
• Core Zone: The central area with strict restrictions on human activities, allowing tigers to thrive
without disturbance.
• Buffer Zone: Surrounds the core zone, permitting limited human activities, providing a degree of
protection to the core area.

29
5.3.3. New Ramsar Sites
Why in News?
The centre declared the Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary and Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu and Tawa
Reservoir in Madhya Pradesh as three new wetlands as Ramsar Sites. With these inclusions, India has
increased its tally of Ramsar sites to 85. Now, Tamil Nadu harbours a maximum number of Ramsar Sites
(18 sites) followed by Uttar Pradesh (10 sites).
What is the Ramsar Convention?
• The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran, under the auspices
of UNESCO, aimed at conserving wetlands of international importance.
• In India, it came into force on 1st February 1982, under which wetlands of international importance
are declared as Ramsar sites.
• Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites of International Importance where changes in
ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological
developments, pollution or other human interference.

5.3.4. Gross Environment Product Index

Why in News?
Uttarakhand has become the first Indian state to launch a Gross Environment Product Index.
Key Points
• The Himalayan Environmental Studies and Conservation Organisation is the creator of the Gross
Environment Product Index.
• There are four pillars of the Gross Environment Product Index: air, soil, tree and water.
• The formula is, GEP index = (Air-GEP index + Water-GEP index + Soil-GEP index + Forest-GEP
index).
• Significance:
• It helps in assessing the impact of anthropological pressure on our ecosystem and natural
resources.
• It provides a robust and integrated method for assessing a state’s ecological growth, capturing
various facets of environmental well-being as a result of human actions.
• Recommendation:
• Activities should be prohibited; regulated and promoted.
• Regulated activities should be allowed only as per carrying capacity and environmental impact
assessment.

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6 | PERSON IN NEWS
6.1. Appointment
6.1.1. Former Union Health Secretary Preeti Sudan
was appointed chairperson of the Union Public Ser-
vice Commission (UPSC) after Manoj Soni resigned
from the post earlier this month, according to an of-
ficial order. She would take the oath of office on Au-
gust 1.Ms. Sudan, currently a member of the UPSC,
will take charge on August 1 and will have a tenure
till April 29, 2025 or till further orders. She will turn
65 in April next year.
Preeti Sudan

6.1.2. Former Maharashtra Assembly Speaker and

veteran Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh leader
Haribhau Kisanrao Bagde was sworn in as the Gov-
ernor of Rajasthan here on July 31. Rajasthan High
Court’s Chief Justice Manindra Mohan Shrivastava
administered the oath of office to Mr. Bagde at a cer-
emony held on the lawns of Raj Bhavan.

Haribhau Kisanrao Bagde

6.1.3. The newly constituted European Commis-

sion (EC), the executive arm of the European Union,
elected Ursula von der Leyen, the EC’s first female
President, for a second term.

Ursula von der Leyen

6.1.4. Interim government headed by Muhammad

Yunus took oath on August 8

Muhammad Yunus

31
6.2. Obituary
6.2.1. Former Chief of Army Staff (COAS) General
S. Padmanabhan passed away at his residence in
Chennai on Sunday. The funeral is scheduled for
Tuesday. General Padmanabhan, who was the COAS
between September 2000 and December 2002

S. Padmanabhan

7 | AWARDS
7.1.1. President Droupadi Murmu has been awarded the Companion of the Order of Fiji, the highest ci-
vilian honour from Fiji recognising the strong India-Fiji ties

7.1.2. The Indian government announced the first-ever Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) awardees 2024.
The awards will be presented on 23rd August, first National Space Day, celebrating the milestone of
Chandrayaan-3’s moon landing. RVP is a prestigious set of awards that recognize and encourage sig-
nificant achievements by scientists, technologists, and innovators of Indian origin, including Persons
of Indian Origin (PIO), whether working in India or abroad. These awards honour individuals who have
made distinguished contributions through impactful research, innovation, or discovery that benefits In-
dian communities or society. The RVP is being introduced for the first time in 2024. It was established
to replace the existing science awards, including the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize. Named after Shanti
Swarup Bhatnagar, the founder and director of the CSIR. Thirty-three of these awards are slated to be
given on August 23, the National Space Day to mark Chandrayaan 3’s moon landing

7.1.3. President Smt Droupadi Murmu has approved 103 Gallantry awards to Armed Forces and Central
Armed Police Forces personnel on the eve of Independence Day 2024. These are: four Kirti Chakras
including three posthumous; 18 Shaurya Chakras including four posthumous; one Bar to Sena Medal
(Gallantry); 63 Sena Medals (Gallantry) including two posthumous; 11 Nao Sena Medal (Gallantry); and
six Vayu Sena Medals (Gallantry). The President has also approved 39 Mention-in-Despatches, including
to Army Dog Kent (posthumous) for their significant contributions in different military operations. The
operations include Operation Rakshak, Operation Snow Leopard, Operation Sahayata, Operation Hifazat,
Operation Orchid and Operation Katchal.

8 | REPORTS & INDEXES

8.1. State top performer in SDG india index 2023-2024
ABOUT
- India’s apex public policy think-tank, NITI Aayog, released its latest Sustainable Development
Goal (SDG) Index in July
- The SDG India Index 2023-24 evaluates the progress of all states and union territories on 113
indicators aligned with the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation’s (MoSPI)

32
 National Indicator Framework (NIF).
- India’s national score will reach 71 in 2023-24, up from 66 in 2020-21 and 60 in 2019-20,
showing significant progress in areas like poverty eradication, decent work, economic growth,
climate action, and life on land.
- According to BVR Subrahmanyam, CEO of NITI Aayog, in addition to making significant progress
on all 16 SDG parameters, India is also ahead of schedule in reaching several of the goals, with
some predicted to be accomplished before 2030.
Key Points:
• The SDG India Index was first released in 2018.
• According to NITI Aayog’s fourth edition, the SDG India Index 2023-24, significant progress has been
noted in Goal 1 (No Poverty), Goal 8 (Decent Work and Economic Growth), Goal 13 (Climate Action),
and Goal 15 (Life on Land).
• The largest increase in score was observed in Climate Action, which rose from 54 in 2020-21 to 67 in
2023-24.
State-wise performance
- According to the index, Indian states such as Uttarakhand, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Goa, and Himachal
Pradesh were the highest-scoring states, while Bihar, Jharkhand, Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Arunachal
Pradesh lagged.

8.2 World Development Report 2024

Why in News?
A recent World Bank report titled “World Development Report 2024: The Middle Income Trap” has high-
lighted significant challenges faced by over 100 countries, including India, in achieving high-income sta-
tus in the coming decades.

Highlights
Middle Income Trap:
• India is among 100 countries, including China, at risk of falling into the “middle income trap,”
where countries struggle to transition from middle-income to high-income status.
• India is at a crucial juncture, benefiting from favorable demographics and advancements in
digitalization, but faces a tougher external environment compared to the past.
• India’s aim to become a developed nation by 2047 requires a comprehensive approach that
enhances overall economic performance, rather than focusing on isolated sectors.
• The report notes that only 34 middle-income economies have transitioned to high-income
status since 1990, often due to special circumstances like European Union integration or oil
reserves.
• Middle-income countries face challenges in sustaining economic growth due to diminishing
returns on physical capital.
• While low-income countries benefit from building physical capital and improving basic
education like India in the 1980s, where capital deepening was crucial, middle-income
countries encounter diminishing returns as they invest further.
• Simply increasing saving and investment rates to meet growth targets isn’t sufficient; these
countries also need to address factors beyond physical capital.

33
 • Despite having relatively high capital endowments, middle-income economies struggle with
productivity issues, highlighting that physical capital alone isn’t the main barrier to further
growth.
• The World Bank criticizes many middle-income countries for using outdated economic
strategies focused mainly on expanding investment.
• Global Economic Impact:
• Middle-income countries are home to six billion people, representing 75% of the global population,
and generate over 40% of global Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
• The success or failure of these countries in achieving high-income status will significantly
impact global economic prosperity.
• Per Capita Income Disparity:
• India is identified as the fastest growing major economy, but it would take 75 years for its per
capita income to reach a quarter of the US income levels if current trends continue.
• China would take over 10 years, Indonesia nearly 70 years, and India 75 years to reach a
quarter of US income per capita.
• Challenges and Risks:
• Middle-income countries face significant obstacles, including ageing populations, rising debt,
geopolitical and trade frictions, and environmental concerns.
• These countries are at risk of not achieving reasonably prosperous societies by the middle of
the century if they continue with current trends.
• Strategic Recommendations:
• 3i Strategy: Report recommended a three-phase approach for countries to reach high-income
status:
• 1i Phase: Focus on investment for low-income countries.
• 2i Phase: Investment and infusion of foreign technologies for lower-middle-income countries.
• 3i Phase: Investment, infusion, and innovation for upper-middle-income countries.
• The report highlighted South Korea as an example, starting with a per capita income of USD 1,200
in 1960, South Korea reached USD 33,000 by 2023 by sequentially adopting the 3i strategy.
• Policy Recommendations:
• India’s aim to become a developed nation requires a comprehensive approach that enhances
overall economic performance, rather than focusing on isolated sectors.
• Focus on horizontal policies rather than vertical debates (e.g., manufacturing vs. services).
• Emphasize improving education and skills to enable better absorption of technology and innovation.
• Strengthen connections between universities and industries to enhance knowledge transfer.
• India shows potential in technology preparedness, with a good track record in digitalization.
However, there is a need for greater dynamism in firms to absorb and utilize these technologies
effectively.
• The report highlights the prevalence of microenterprises in India, suggesting that barriers exist for
productive firms to grow due to policies favoring smaller firms.

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8.3. NIRF Rankings 2024
Why in News?
The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) rankings 2024, announced by the Union Ministry
of Education (MoE), has once again highlighted the leading institutions in India’s higher education land-
scape.
Key Highlights of NIRF 2024:
1. Top Institutions:
• IIT Madras:
• Top in ‘Overall’ and ‘Engineering’ categories for six and nine consecutive years, respectively.
• Second in ‘Research Institutions’ and ‘Innovations’ categories.
• IISc Bengaluru:
• Top in ‘Universities’ and ‘Research Institutions’ for the ninth and fourth consecutive years.
• IIM Ahmedabad:
• Top in ‘Management’ for the fifth consecutive year.
• AIIMS New Delhi:
• Leading in ‘Medical’ for seven consecutive years.
• Ranked 7th in ‘Overall’.
2. Category Leaders:
• Jamia Hamdard:
• Top in ‘Pharmacy’.
• IIT Roorkee:
• Leading in ‘Architecture and Planning’.
3. Delhi University (DU):
• Jumped from 11th to 6th place in overall rankings.
• Hindu College secured the top position among colleges for the first time.
• St. Stephen’s College ranked third.
4. New Additions to NIRF 2024:
• New Categories:
• State Public Universities, Open Universities, and Skill Universities.
• Integrated ‘Innovation’ ranking, expanding to 16 categories.
• Top New Categories:
• Anna University: Top in State Public Universities.
• IGNOU: Top in Open Universities.
• Symbiosis Skill and Professional University (SSPU), Pune: Top in Skill Universities.
• Future Plans:
• Introduction of a Sustainability Rankings category in NIRF 2025.
5. Increased Participation:
• Unique institutions: Increased from 2,426 in 2016 to 6,517 in 2024.
• Significant rise in the total number of applications, indicating growing engagement and recognition.

35
8.4. Multidimensional Vulnerability Index (MVI)
Why in News?
The UN General Assembly officially launched a new data-driven “vulnerability” index that would help
small island states and developing nations gain access to low-interest financing. Since the 1990s, SIDS
that don’t qualify for low-interest development loans due to their relatively higher GDP per capita have
been advocating for a measure that accounts for their vulnerability to external shocks like climate change.
About:
• Purpose: A new international benchmark to assess structural vulnerability and resilience across
multiple dimensions of sustainable development at the national level.
• Complement: Used alongside Gross National Income (GNI) per capita to provide a more
comprehensive measure of development.
Need for MVI:
• Current Limitations: GNI per capita is an insufficient indicator of development and well-being,
particularly for countries prone to external shocks.
• Access to Concessional Financing: Countries often struggle with accessing affordable development
support due to eligibility being based on income thresholds rather than vulnerability.
• Inclusive Aid Allocation: MVI could improve the allocation of development aid and identify nations
needing international assistance more effectively.

9 | SPORTS

9.1. India at Paris Olympics 2024

Why in News?
The Paris Olympics 2024 have concluded with India finishing 71st in the medal tally, a decline from its
48th place in Tokyo 2020. Despite winning six medals, including one silver and five bronze, the nation
experienced several near misses and disheartening outcomes that have sparked discussions about the
future of Indian sports. Sreejesh and Bhaker to Co-Flag Bear for India at Paris 2024 Closing Ceremony

What were the Higlights of India’s Performance at Paris Olympics 2024?

Indian athletes Medal Event

Manu Bhaker Bronze women 10m air pistol event
Manu Bhaker and Sarabjot singh Bronze 10m air pistol mixed team event
Swapnil Kusale Bronze men’s 50m rifle 3 positions
Indian hockey team Bronze men’s hockey
Neeraj Chopra Silver men’s javelin Throw
Aman Sehrawat Bronze wrestling men’s 57kg freestyle event

Key Points on India’s Olympic Achievements:

• Neeraj Chopra’s Achievement:
• Secured a silver medal in javelin with a throw of 89.45m.
• This was his second Olympic medal, making him India’s fifth two-time Olympic medallist.

36
 • Manu Bhaker’s Historic Feat:
• Became the first Indian woman to win an Olympic shooting medal.
• First athlete from independent India to win two medals in a single Games, achieving medals in
both individual and mixed team events.
• Shooting Success:
• India won three shooting medals at the Olympics, the highest tally for the country in this sport.
• Swapnil Kusale achieved India’s first-ever Olympic medal in the 50m rifle 3 positions event.
• Sports Participation:
• Indian athletes competed in 69 medal events across 16 sports, including archery, athletics,
badminton, boxing, equestrian, golf, hockey, judo, rowing, sailing, shooting, swimming, table
tennis, and tennis.
• Badminton Milestone:
• Lakshya Sen became the first Indian to reach the semi-finals in men’s badminton at the
Olympics, finishing fourth.
• Vinesh Phogat’s Incident:
• Wrestler Vinesh Phogat reached the final in the women’s 50 kg category but was disqualified
for being overweight by 100 grams.
• Youngest Boxing Referee:
• Lieutenant Colonel Kabilan Sai Ashok, a serving Indian Army Officer, has become the youngest
Olympic referee in boxing from India at the Paris Olympics 2024.
• India’s Olympic Medal History:
• India has won a total of 41 Olympic medals.
• Notable milestones include Norman Pritchard’s Silver Medals (1900 Paris), KD Jadhav’s Bronze
(1952 Helsinki), Karnam Malleswari’s Bronze (2000 Sydney), Abhinav Bindra’s Gold (2008
Beijing), and Neeraj Chopra’s Gold (2020 Tokyo).
• Men’s Hockey has won 13 medals, including eight golds, and Wrestling has won eight medals.
• India’s best-ever Olympic performance was at Tokyo 2020, with seven medals, including one
gold.
• India’s second-best performance was in the 2012 London Olympics, with six medals (two silver
and four bronze).
9.2. The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) secretary Jay Shah is all set to replace the incumbent
Greg Barclay as the new chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC).

9.3. Neeraj Chopra at the Lausanne Diamond League, securing his second-best javelin throw ever with a
season-best distance of 89.49 meters on his final attempt. He was second behind Grenada’s Anderson
Peters, who threw 90.61 meters. Germany’s Julian Weber completed the podium with a throw of 87.08
meters.

9.4. 14-year-old Tanvi Patri from Odisha, India, has etched her name in the annals of badminton history.
Patri clinched the women’s singles title at the prestigious Asian U-15 Junior Championships 2024, held
in Chengdu, People’s Republic of China

9.5. The ICC has announced the relocation of the Women’s T20 World Cup 2024 from Bangladesh to the
United Arab Emirates (UAE). The event, originally set to be hosted in Bangladesh, will now take place
from October 3 to 20 in Dubai and Sharjah.

37
9.6. The first-ever Global Women’s Kabaddi League will commence next month (September) in Haryana.
Officially named the Global Pravasi Women’s Kabaddi League (GPKL), this groundbreaking tournament
will feature female athletes from over 15 countries.

9.7. Novak Djokovic of Serbia secured his first Olympic gold medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics. The
37-year-old tennis legend overcame Spain’s Carlos Alcaraz in a gripping men’s singles final at Roland
Garros on Sunday, cementing his status in the annals of tennis history.

9.8. Sri Lanka secured their first Women’s Asia Cup title win, beating India with a clinical run-chase in
front of home fans.

10 | IMPORTANT DAYS & THEMES

10.1. Some important Days
Date Important Days Theme
06th August 2024 Hiroshima Day Together with the Hibakusha, let us achieve a
nuclear weapon-free, peaceful, and just world —
for the future of humankind and our planet”.
07th August 2024 National Handloom Day “Weaving Sustainable Futures”
09th August 2024 International Day of World’s Protecting the Rights of Indigenous Peoples in
Indigenous People Voluntary Isolation and Initial Contact'.
09th August 2024 Nagasaki Day Together with the Hibakusha, let us achieve a
nuclear weapon-free, peaceful, and just world—
for the future of humankind and our planet
10th August 2024 World Biofuel Day “Sustainable Biofuels: Fueling a Greener Future.
12th August 2024 International Youth Day "From Clicks to Progress: Youth Digital Pathways
for Sustainable Development,"
12th August 2024 World Elephant Day Personifying prehistoric beauty, theological rele-
vance, and environmental importance.”
14th August 2024 Partition Horrors Remem-
brance Day in India
15th August 2024 Independence Day of India
19th August 2024 World Humanitarian Day #ActForHumanity
23rd August 2024 National Space day Touching Lives while Touching the Moon: India’s
Space Saga.
23rd August 2024 ISRO Day
23rd August 2024 International Day for the --------------
Remembrance of the Slave
Trade and its Abolition
26th August 2024 Women’s Equality Day Thank the Women in your life
29th August 2024 National Sports Day Sport for the Promotion of Peaceful and Inclu-
sive Societies

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 29th August 2024 International Day Against
Nuclear Tests
30th August 2024 National Small Industry Day

10.2. KARGIL DIWAS

WHY IN NEWS ?
The year 2024 marks the 25th anniversary of Kargil Vijay Diwas.
ABOUT KARGIL WAR
• War came to an end on 26 July, 1999, with India’s victory.
• Took place in the Kargil district of J&K
• Lasted for about 3 months.
• Fought between India and Pakistan at the Line of Control in the Kargil District
• Indian army fought bravely and recaptured the famous TIGER HILL
• First ever war to be broadcasted live on TV
• Last war that happened between India and Pakistan
• Indian side used the Bofors FH- 77B for the first time
Indian air force named the war of kargil as OPERATION SFAED SAGAR
• To commemorate the silver jubilee of victory in 1999 kargil war , IAF is celebrating kargil vijay
diwas rajat jayanti at air force station in sarwasa
• AIR SHOW by akash ganga team and aerial displays by jaguar , SU-30 MKI and Rafale fighter
aircraft
• Missing man formation - flown by Mi-17 V5
INDIAN ARMY names the war of Kargil as OPERATION VIJAY
• Motorcycle expedition from three corners of the country to honour the 25th anniversary
• DINJAN in EAST
• DWARKA in WEST
• DHANUSHKODI in SOUTH
• OPERATION BADR : Pakistan moved troops into Indian territory covertly and took over a portion of
Kargil.
• The Indian Army utilized heavy artillery, air power, and major infantry operations.
• Employed Bofors FH-77B howitzers to shoot down enemy positions.
• Received support from Israel’s Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) during the conflict

OPERATION TALWAR
• Carried out by the Indian Navy during the Kargil War of 1999 with the aim to choke Pakistani trade
channels.
MISCELLANEOUS
• Kargil review Committee was set up by the Government of India in July 1999 -
• AIM: to examine the sequence of events and make recommendations for the future
• INDIAN AIR FORCE CHIEF in 1999 - Chief marshal Anil Yashwant Tipnis
• INDIAN NAVY CHIEF in 1999 - Admiral Sushil Kumar
• INDIAN ARMY CHIEF in 1999 - Gneral Ved Prakash Malik

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10.3. Article 370 abrogation anniversary
Why in the News?
Fifth anniversary of the revocation of Article 370, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir,
was observed. On 5th August 2019, the Government of India revoked Article 370.
What was Article 370?
• Article 370 of the Indian constitution granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
• It was drafted by N Gopalaswami Ayyangar, a member of the Constituent Assembly of India and
was added as a ‘temporary provision’ in 1949.
• This article allowed Jammu and Kashmir to have its constitution, flag, and autonomy over most
matters except defence, foreign affairs, and communications.
• The provision was based on the terms of the Instrument of Accession, which was signed by the
ruler of Jammu and Kashmir, Hari Singh, in 1947 following an invasion by Pakistan.
Repeal of Article 370:
• Presidential Order: In the 2019 Presidential orders, Parliament redefined the “constituent
assembly of Jammu and Kashmir” to mean the “Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir.”
• By invoking the President’s rule, Parliament then assumed the powers of the Legislative Assembly
to revoke Article 370.
• Resolutions in Parliament: On 5th and 6th August 2019, concurrent resolutions were passed by
both houses of Parliament, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, respectively.
• Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019: It was passed by Parliament in 2019 to bifurcate
the state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
• It divided Jammu and Kashmir into 2 Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
• Leh and Kargil districts were included in the Union Territory of Ladakh, while the remaining areas
became part of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Five Lok Sabha seats were retained by Jammu and Kashmir, and one was transferred to Ladakh.
• The seats in the Legislative Assembly will be reserved for tribal and scheduled caste people to
keep the proportion intact of their population in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The Lt. Governors can nominate two women members for the Assembly to represent women if
women are not sufficiently represented to justify equality between men and women.
• The elected Legislative Assembly will be for 5 years, and the Lt. The Governor will summon the
Assembly once every six months.

10.4. 82nd Anniversary of the QIM

Why in the News?
August Kranti Day (August Revolution Day) is observed on the 8th August annually in India. It commem-
orates the historic launch of the QIM in 1942, under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
Reasons for Starting QIM:
• Failure of Cripps Mission (1942): Cripps Mission exposed Britain’s unchanged attitude on constitution-
al advance and made it clear that any more silence would be tantamount to accepting the British right to
decide the fate of Indians without consulting them.
Quit India Resolution:

40
• The Congress Working Committee adopted the ‘Quit India’ Resolution on 14th July 1942 at Wardha.
• The All India Congress Committee (AICC) accepted this resolution with some modifications, on 8thAu-
gust 1942 at Gowalia Tank in Bombay and Gandhiji was named the leader of the struggle.
• On this occasion, Gandhi delivered his famous “Do or Die” speech, arguing that “We shall either free
India or die in the attempt; we shall not live to see the perpetuation of our slavery.”

10.5. 78th Independence Day Address

Why in news?
In his 78th Independence Day speech, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi outlined a series of futuristic
goals aimed at shaping India’s growth, driving innovation, and positioning the country as a global leader
across various sectors.
Key points from the Prime Minister’s address include:
1. Ease of Living Mission: PM Modi outlined his vision to fulfil ‘Ease of Living’ on a mission mode. He spoke
of enhancing the quality of life in urban areas through systematic assessments and improvements in
infrastructure and services.
2. Revival of Nalanda Spirit: The Prime Minister sought to revive the ancient Nalanda University spirit,
positioning India as a global education hub by promoting higher learning and research. This builds on
the inauguration of Nalanda University in 2024.
3. Made in India Chip-Semiconductor Production: PM Modi outlined India’s commitment to becoming
a global leader in semiconductor production, aiming to reduce dependency on imports and enhance
technological self-sufficiency.
4. Skill India: Referring to the Budget 2024, the Prime Minister highlighted landmark initiatives
announced by the government to train India’s youth and become the skill capital of the world.
5. Hub of Industrial Manufacturing: PM Modi envisioned transforming India into a global manufacturing
hub, leveraging its vast resources and skilled workforce.
6. “Design in India, Design for the World”: The Prime Minister exalted indigenous design capabilities and
urged to create products that cater to both domestic and international markets, coining this phrase.
7. Leader in Global Gaming Market: PM Modi said that India must leverage its rich ancient legacy and
literature to come up with Made in India gaming products. He added that Indian professionals must
lead the global gaming market, not just in playing but also in producing games, stating that Indian
games should make their mark worldwide.
8. Green Jobs and Green Hydrogen Mission: PM Modi emphasized the importance of green jobs in India’s
efforts to combat climate change. He stated that the focus of the country is now on green growth
and green jobs, which will generate employment opportunities while contributing to environmental
protection.
The Prime Minister reiterated India’s commitment to becoming a global leader in green hydrogen
production and creating sustainable employment opportunities in environmental conservation and
renewable energy sectors.
9. Swasth Bharat Mission: PM said that to achieve the goal of Viksit Bharat 2047, India must tread the
path ‘Swasth Bharat’ which has begun with the launch of Rashtriya Poshan Abhiyan.
10. State-level Investment Competition: The Prime Minister called for state governments to establish
clear policies to attract investments, offer assurances of good governance, and ensure confidence in
the law and order situation.

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11. Indian Standards as Global Benchmarks: PM Modi spoke on India’s aspiration to be recognized
for its commitment to quality, stating that Indian standards should aspire to become international
benchmarks.
12. Climate Change Targets: The Prime Minister reiterated India’s ambitious goal of achieving 500
gigawatts of renewable energy capacity by 2030. He noted that India has been the only country
among the G20 nations to meet its Paris Accord goals.
13. Medical Education Expansion: PM Modi announced plans to add 75,000 new medical seats in the
next 5 years, aiming to enhance the country’s medical education capacity and address the growing
demand for healthcare professionals.
14. Inducting Fresh Blood in Politics: PM Modi gave a call to bring 1 lakh youth into the political system,
specifically those with no history of politics in their families. The Prime Minister said this initiative was
aimed at fighting the evils of nepotism and casteism and inducting fresh blood into India’s polity.

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CURRENT AFFAIRS EXERCISE

I. The government-backed bad bank, National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL), aims to
take over ₹2 trillion worth of banks’ stressed or non-performing assets (NPAs) by FY26 after having
achieved the ₹1-trillion mark in FY24, a senior finance ministry official told Mint.
As of July 2024, NARCL had acquired 18 accounts with outstanding loans of ₹62,000 crore, while
resolution plans have been approved for two accounts worth almost ₹33,000 crore, said Vivek Joshi,
secretary of the finance ministry’s department of financial services. Bad banks are asset reconstruction
companies that buy bad loans from commercial banks, manage them, sell them in the market and
recover the money to liquidate the transferred assets.
“The Swiss challenge process is completed for an account worth ₹591 crore, and the process (the
Swiss challenge) has been initiated for six accounts worth about ₹30,000 crore,” Joshi said.
“Due diligence is underway for 13 accounts worth about ₹36,000 crore,” he added.
The Swiss Challenge method allows private players and state-backed companies to accept contracts
from the government through the process of bidding.
Under this process, auctioneers invite counter-bids, following a bid, to select the best one. The original
bidder has the right of first refusal to match the best counterproposal.
The method is used by many states like Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh,
Bihar, Punjab and Gujarat for roads and housing projects.
The plan to form a bad bank to clean up banks’ balance sheets was announced in the Union budget
2021-22 for taking up large loans of over ₹500 crore.

1. What is the primary purpose of a “bad bank”?

a) To create new loans for banks
b) To manage and recover bad loans and NPAs
c) To provide financial aid to small businesses
d) To manage foreign exchange reserves

43
2. When was India’s first bad bank, the National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL), established?
a) 2016
b) 2008
c) 2021
d) 1980

3. What is the Swiss Challenge method used for?

a) Managing NPAs in private banks
b) Public procurement process for government contracts
c) Foreign exchange management
d) Regulating interest rates in banks

4. What percentage of the loan value does NARCL pay in cash when acquiring bad loans?
a) 50%
b) 85%
c) 15%
d) 100%

5. Which of the following is NOT a challenge faced by NARCL?

a) Dual Structure Issues
b) High Operational Costs
c) Inadequate government funding
d) Pricing Discrepancies

6. Which method does NARCL use to sell distressed assets in the market?
a) Auction Method
b) Direct Sale
c) Swiss Challenge Method
d) Reverse Auction

II. Amid the pressing challenge to increase the tiger population in the state, the Chhattisgarh government
has cleared the pending project on creating a new dedicated Tiger Reserve, which will be the third
largest in the country. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), a statutory authority under
the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, has already approved the plan. According
to the latest tiger census report, Chhattisgarh has only 17 tigers left, a steep decline from 46 in 2014.
“The state government has notified the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve spanning over an
area of 2829.38 sq km. The decision was taken in the cabinet meeting chaired by CM Vishnu Deo Sai.
The formation of the new Tiger Reserve is expected to increase the number of tigers owing to the given
region remaining more protected and shielded, ideally suited as a natural habitat for tigers,” a senior
officer told this newspaper.Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve of Andhra Pradesh is the country’s
largest tiger reserve with an area of 3296.31 sq km followed by Assam’s Manas Tiger Reserve with
an area of 2837.15 sq km.The new Tiger Reserve will come into existence by integrating the regions
of Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Sanctuary covering the districts of Manendragarh-
Chirmiri-Bharatpur, Koriya, Surajpur and Balrampur.The previous BJP government in Chhattisgarh

44
 led by Dr Raman Singh had sent a draft proposal to the NTCA to create Tiger Reserve by merging
Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Sanctuary. The NTCA approved it earlier but during the
previous Congress regime the project venture got stuck due to the coal block, oil block and methane
gas block cited in the reserve area. With the return of the BJP in power, the push for the formation of
the new Tiger Reserve was expedited.

7. How many tiger reserves does Chhattisgarh currently have, including the newly proposed one?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

8. Which tiger reserve in India is the largest by area?

a) Manas Tiger Reserve
b) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve
c) Indravati Tiger Reserve
d) Achanakmar Tiger Reserve

9. What is the primary reason for establishing a new tiger reserve in Chhattisgarh?
a) To increase tourism revenue
b) To protect other endangered species
c) Due to a significant decrease in the state’s tiger population
d) To promote agriculture in the region

10. Under which act are Tiger Reserves in India notified?

a) Environment Protection Act, 1986
b) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
c) Indian Forest Act, 1927
d) Biodiversity Act, 2002

11. What type of forest is predominant in the Achanakmar Tiger Reserve?

a) Tropical Evergreen Forest
b) Tropical Rainforest
c) Tropical Moist Deciduous and Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest
d) Mangrove Forest

12. What is the role of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in tiger conservation?
a) To provide funding for tiger tourism
b) To create and enforce laws related to tiger hunting
c) To grant legal authority to Project Tiger and enhance government responsibilities for managing Tiger
Reserves
d) To promote the breeding of tigers in captivity

45
III. Paris 2024 will be remembered for the six medals which brought joy to the Indians as well as the
six fourth place finishes that resulted in heartbreaks.A medal less than what the country got in the
previous edition may have restricted the celebrations in the Indian camp, but the mixed bouquet
of hits and near misses paint a promising picture of Indian sports.Neeraj Chopra, Manu Bhaker,
Sarabjot Singh, Swapnil Kusale, Aman Sehrawat and the Indian hockey team contributed in the six
medals, including a silver and five bronze, and gave reasons to celebrate. India managed the 71st
place on the medals tally. In Tokyo, one gold, two silver and four bronze had placed the country at
the 48th spot in Tokyo three years ago.
Shooters Manu (25m sports pistol), Arjun Babuta (10m air rifle) and the mixed team pair of Anantjeet
Singh Naruka and Maheshwari Chauhan (skeet), the archery mixed team pair of Ankita Bhakat and
B. Dhiraj, shuttler Lakshya Sen and weightlifter Mirabai Chanu lost their respective bronze medal
contests to miss podium finishes by a whisker. Add to this the quarterfinal losses of boxers Nishant
Dev and Lovlina Borgohain, just a step away from securing a medal, to the country’s so-near-yet-so-
far moments. The unexpected disqualification of wrestler Vinesh Phogat after reaching the women’s
50kg final was another huge blow to the country’s aspirations of securing medals in double digit.
After wrestler Sushil Kumar and shuttler P.V. Sindhu, Chopra became the third Indian to claim two
consecutive individual medals. Always a big event athlete, Tokyo Olympics gold medallist Chopra
managed his workload well and gave his best despite some injury issues to achieve his season best,
89.45m, which was close to his personal best 89.94m, to pick up a silver. The world champion needs
to get fitter to raise his game in order to cross the much-awaited 90m mark.

13. How many medals did India win at the Paris 2024 Olympics?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

14. Lakshya Sen achieved which of the following milestones at the Olympics?
a) First Indian to win a gold medal in badminton
b) First Indian to reach the final in men’s badminton
c) First Indian to reach the semi-finals in men’s badminton
d) First Indian to win a bronze medal in badminton

15. Vinesh Phogat appealed against her disqualification and claimed a silver medal in which court?
a) Supreme Court of India
b) High Court of Delhi
c) Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS)
d) International Court of Justice (ICJ)

16. Which Indian athlete won the silver medal in javelin at Paris 2024?
a) Sarabjot Singh
b) Aman Sehrawat
c) Neeraj Chopra
d) Manu Bhaker

46
17. Which Indian shooter became the first Indian woman to win two medals in a single Games?
a) Anantjeet Singh Naruka
b) Maheshwari Chauhan
c) Manu Bhaker
d) Arjun Babuta

18. What was the notable achievement of the Indian hockey team at Paris 2024?
a) Winning a gold medal
b) Winning a silver medal
c) Retaining the bronze medal
d) Reaching the semi-finals

IV. Australia and India are intensifying their maritime cooperation in the Indian Ocean region,
Australia’s envoy to India Philip Green said the day the 6th Australia-India Maritime Dialogue was
held in Canberra. The Australian envoy, taking to X, said this Dialogue will present an opportunity
for its foreign and defence ministry to discuss the shared priorities. The 6th India-Australia Maritime
Security Dialogue was held today in Canberra. The Indian delegation was led by Muanpuii Saiawi,
Joint Secretary, Disarmament and International Security Affairs, Ministry of External Affairs and
the Australian delegation was led by Sarah Storey, First Assistant Secretary, South Asia and Central
Asia Division, Department of Foreign Affairs and Trade and Bernard Philip, First Assistant Secretary,
International Policy, Department of Defence.
As per a Ministry of External Affairs statement, the two sides conferred on ways to sustain a safe and
secure maritime environment conducive for inclusive growth and global well-being.
They exchanged views on various topics of mutual interest, including the maritime security
environment in the Indo-Pacific region, maritime domain awareness, Humanitarian Assistance and
Disaster Relief (HADR) coordination, regional and multilateral engagements and sustainable use of
marine resources.

19. Where did the 6th India-Australia Maritime Security Dialogue take place?
a) New Delhi
b) Canberra
c) Sydney
d) Melbourne

20. What is one of the key areas of cooperation discussed in the maritime security dialogue?
a) Climate Change Mitigation
b) Search and Rescue (SAR)
c) Space Exploration
d) Cybersecurity

21. What is the primary purpose of the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)?
a) To establish new trade agreements
b) To address global security and economic issues in the Indian and Pacific Oceans
c) To promote space exploration
d) To create a new international treaty

47
22. Which initiative is the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) an extension of?
a) SAGAR
b) BRI
c) ASEAN
d) QUAD

23. Who proposed the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) at the 14th East Asian Summit?
a) Australian Prime Minister
b) Japanese Prime Minister
c) Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi
d) Chinese President

24. Which pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) focuses on ensuring safety at sea?
a) Maritime Ecology
b) Maritime Resources
c) Maritime Security
d) Capacity Building and Resource Sharing

V. The realities of 1945, when the Council was established, have long been superseded by current
geopolitical realities, with the need for change being felt across the board, Ravindra said ahead of
next month’s annual high-level UN General Assembly session which world leaders will attend.
He noted that for the G4, the primary reason for the underperformance of the critical UN Security
Council remains the non-representation of Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, and the under-
representation of Asia Pacific in the permanent category.
“It is the G4’s firm belief, shared we believe by Africa and other groups, that any reform of the Council
that does not address the lack of representation, particularly in the permanent category, would only
exacerbate the current imbalances in the Council’s composition and render it ill-equipped to address
today’s international challenges,” he said. The 15-nation UNSC comprises five permanent, veto-
wielding members — China, France, Russia, the UK and the US — and 10 non-permanent members,
without veto powers, who are elected for two-year terms. Underlining that the G4 has “walked
the talk” when it comes to correcting historical injustices done to Africa, Ravindra said the group’s
model of UNSC reforms has clearly proposed that the Security Council membership increase from
the current 15 to 25-26 by adding six permanent and four or five non-permanent members.
Among the six new permanent members, two each are proposed to be from African States and Asia
Pacific states, one from Latin American and Caribbean states, and one from West European and
Other States.“On rights and privileges associated with permanent memberships, such as the veto,
we also support the Common African Position that as long as it exists, it should be available to all
permanent members, both new and old alike,” Ravindra said.

25. According to India on behalf of the G4 countries, what would happen if UN Security Council reforms
do not address the lack of representation, particularly in the permanent category?
a) The Council would become more effective
b) The Council’s composition would improve
c) The current imbalances would be exacerbated
d) The Council would be better equipped to handle challenges

48
26. Which countries are part of the G4 group advocating for UNSC reforms?
a) Brazil, Germany, Japan, and India
b) China, France, Russia, the UK, and the US
c) Brazil, South Africa, Australia, and Japan
d) Germany, India, South Korea, and Italy

27. How many new permanent members does the G4 propose to add to the UNSC in their reform model?
a) Four
b) Six
c) Eight
d) Ten

28. Which region is proposed to have two new permanent members in the G4’s UNSC reform plan?
a) Africa
b) Latin America and the Caribbean
c) Asia Pacific
d) West Europe and Other States

29. What position does the G4 support regarding the veto power for new and old permanent members
of the UNSC?
a) The veto should be abolished
b) The veto should be available to all permanent members
c) Only new permanent members should have the veto
d) The veto should be limited to the five original permanent members

30. What significant event is scheduled to occur next month that will involve world leaders and the
discussion of the ‘Pact for the Future’?
a) UN General Assembly session
b) Climate Change Summit
c) G20 Summit
d) World Trade Organization meeting

49
LEGAL CURRENT AFFAIRS

1. S. 138 NI Act |Once Execution Of Cheque Is Admitted, Dispute

Regarding Interest Rate Of Loan No Defence: Supreme Court

Why in News
The Supreme Court, in the case of Sri Sujies Benefit Funds Limited vs. M. Jaganathuan, overturned the
High Court’s decision that had acquitted a respondent in a cheque dishonour case under Section 138 of
the Negotiable Instruments (NI) Act. The apex court ruled that once a person admits to handing over a
signed cheque with an amount filled in, they cannot raise disputes regarding the interest rate as a de-
fense. The court emphasized that the key issue is the dishonour of the cheque, not the underlying loan’s
interest rate.
Legal Concept to Learn:
Section 138 of the NI Act deals with the offence of cheque dishonour due to insufficient funds or other
reasons. When a cheque, drawn by someone, is returned unpaid by the bank, it constitutes a criminal
offence if specific conditions are met. These include: the cheque must be presented within its validity
period, the payee must issue a notice to the drawer within 30 days of receiving the cheque’s dishonour
information, and the drawer must fail to make the payment within 15 days of receiving the notice.
The Supreme Court has clarified that once the execution of a cheque is admitted, any dispute regarding
the underlying transaction, such as the interest rate on a loan, does not constitute a valid defense under
Section 138. The focus is on the dishonour of the cheque itself, rather than the terms of the agreement
that led to the issuance of the cheque. The ruling reinforces that a cheque, once issued and dishonoured,
primarily serves as evidence of a liability, and the drawer cannot evade responsibility by contesting ancil-
lary aspects like interest rates. This ensures that the sanctity of cheque transactions is maintained, and
drawers are held accountable for the cheques they issue.

50
2. Foreign Judgment Violative Of Indian Law Not Binding On Indian
Courts : Supreme Court
Why in News:
The Supreme Court of India recently ruled that a foreign judgment which violates Indian law, is not bind-
ing on Indian courts. The case involved a custody dispute where the petitioner sought repatriation of
their minor daughter based on a U.S. court order. The Supreme Court upheld the Gujarat High Court’s
dismissal of the petition, emphasizing that under Section 13(f) of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC), 1908,
a foreign judgment that contradicts Indian law is not conclusive between the parties and cannot be en-
forced in India.
Legal Concept to Learn:
Under the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) of 1908, the execution of foreign judgments in India is governed by
Section 13, which outlines the conditions under which a foreign judgment is considered conclusive and
can be enforced in India. A foreign judgment is generally recognized and enforceable unless it falls under
certain exceptions specified in the CPC.
The primary grounds under Section 13 on which a foreign judgment may not be executed include:
• a) Lack of Competence: If the foreign court lacked jurisdiction over the matter.
• b) Merits not Involved: If the judgment was not given on the merits of the case.
• c) Incorrect View of International Law: If the judgment was based on an incorrect understanding
of international law or Indian law.
• d) Contrary to Natural Justice: If the judgment was obtained without fair trial principles being
observed.
• (e) Obtained by Fraud: If the judgment was obtained through fraud.
• (f) Violation of Indian Law: If the judgment sustains a claim founded on a breach of Indian law.
In essence, while foreign judgments can be enforced in India, they are subject to scrutiny, especially
when they contradict Indian laws or principles of natural justice. This ensures that foreign legal decisions
do not undermine the legal system or public policy in India.

3. States Can Recover Past Tax Dues On Mineral Rights, But Not For
Period Before April 1, 2005 : Supreme Court
Why in News:
On July 25, 2024, the Supreme Court, in a significant ruling by an 8:1 majority, held that states have the
authority to levy taxes on mineral rights, independent of the Union law, Mines and Minerals (Develop-
ment and Regulation) Act 1957. However, the Court restricted states from recovering past tax dues for
periods before April 1, 2005. The judgment was delivered by a 9-judge bench headed by Chief Justice
DY Chandrachud. A subsequent hearing on July 31 addressed concerns about whether the judgment
should have retrospective application, ultimately deciding against it to avoid undue financial burden on
industries and consumers.
Legal Concept to Learn:
The legal concept revolves around the power of states to levy taxes on mineral rights, as upheld by the
Supreme Court, confirming that this power is not curtailed by the Union’s Mines and Minerals (Develop-
ment and Regulation) Act of 1957. The Court’s decision emphasizes the principle of fiscal federalism,
allowing states to exercise their taxing authority within their jurisdictions.
However, the ruling also highlighted the importance of applying judgments prospectively to prevent un-
due disruption. The Court restricted the recovery of past tax dues to after April 1, 2005, thereby avoiding

51
a scenario where industries, having operated under the previous legal framework established by the
India Cements Ltd. v. State of Tamil Nadu (1990) ruling, would face unexpected financial liabilities. This
approach balances the need to correct a legal interpretation while preventing economic hardship that
could arise from a retroactive application of the law.
This case illustrates how the judiciary ensures that significant legal shifts consider both the letter of the
law and the broader economic impact on society.

4. S. 193 IPC | When Can Perjury Proceedings Be Initiated Against

A Litigant? Supreme Court Explains
Why in News:
The Supreme Court recently quashed perjury proceedings initiated against a litigant under Section 193
of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), clarifying the conditions under which such proceedings can be pursued.
The bench, consisting of Justices BR Gavai, Sanjay Karol, and KV Viswanathan, overturned the Uttara-
khand High Court’s decision to register a complaint of perjury against an appellant accused of filing a
false affidavit in a bail cancellation proceeding. The Court emphasized that merely inaccurate statements
or denials in affidavits do not necessarily constitute perjury, especially without evidence of deliberate
falsehood or malafide intent.
Legal Concept to Learn:
Perjury under Indian law, specifically Section 193 of the IPC, pertains to giving false evidence or fabri-
cating false evidence in a judicial proceeding. The Supreme Court outlined specific criteria for initiating
perjury proceedings:
1. Prima Facie Evidence: The Court must find sufficient and reasonable grounds to believe that a false
statement was made intentionally.
2. Interest of Justice: Perjury proceedings should only be initiated if they are expedient in the interest
of justice and not merely because of minor inaccuracies or innocent errors in statements.
3. Deliberate Falsehood: There must be a deliberate falsehood on a substantial matter, and not just
a simple denial of facts.
4. Reasonable Foundation: The Court should be convinced that there is a reasonable foundation for
the charge, based on distinct evidence rather than mere suspicion.
5. Exceptional Circumstances: Proceedings should be reserved for exceptional cases where the false
statement has led to a beneficial outcome for the party in question.
The Supreme Court emphasized that at least three of these criteria must be met before perjury proceed-
ings can be justified. In the case at hand, the Court found that these conditions were not sufficiently met,
and therefore, quashed the perjury charges against the appellant. This judgment reinforces the principle
that perjury should not be lightly alleged and must be backed by substantial evidence and circumstances
that indicate a deliberate attempt to mislead the court.

5. Does ‘PV Anwar’ Judgment Mandating S.65B Evidence Act

Certificate For Electronic Evidence Apply Retrospectively? Supreme
Court To Decide
Why in News:
The Supreme Court is currently addressing whether the judgment in Anwar PV v. PK Basheer (2015),
which mandates a Section 65B Evidence Act certificate for the admissibility of electronic evidence,
should apply retrospectively or prospectively. In Anwar PV, the Court ruled that electronic records must
be accompanied by a certificate under Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act to be admissible in court.

52
This decision overruled previous case law and clarified that such certification must be obtained at the
time the document is created. The Supreme Court is now determining if this requirement should be ap-
plied to cases prior to this ruling.
Legal Concept to Learn:
Under Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, electronic evidence must be accompanied by a certificate
to be admissible in court. This provision ensures the authenticity and integrity of electronic records. The
certificate, issued by a person in control of the device or electronic record, must confirm that the record
was created and maintained in the normal course of business. This certificate must be issued at the time
the document is created or before its submission in court.
Key Aspects of Section 65B:
1. Admissibility of Electronic Records: For electronic records to be admissible as secondary evidence,
they must be accompanied by a Section 65B certificate. This requirement ensures that the
electronic evidence is trustworthy and has not been altered.
2. Certificate Requirements: The certificate must specify the device used to create the record, the
manner of its creation, and its compliance with the procedures established under the law. This
helps verify that the electronic evidence is authentic and reliable.
3. Impact of Anwar PV Judgment: The Anwar PV judgment clarified that a Section 65B certificate is
mandatory for electronic evidence to be admissible in court. This ruling overruled earlier decisions
and set a precedent for the certification of electronic records. The current debate is whether this
mandate should apply to cases prior to the Anwar PV decision or only to cases decided after the
ruling.
4. Retrospective vs. Prospective Application: The Court’s decision will determine if the certification
requirement applies to past cases or only moving forward, which could impact the admissibility of
electronic evidence in ongoing and past cases.
This concept is crucial for maintaining the credibility of electronic evidence and ensuring fair judicial
proceedings

6. Jostling & Pushing To Wriggle Out Of Arrest Didn’t Amount to

Criminal Use Of Force : Supreme Court Sets Aside Conviction U/S 353
IPC
Why in News:
The Supreme Court, in the case Mahendra Kumar Sonker v. The State of Madhya Pradesh, set aside the
appellant’s conviction under Section 353 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) for allegedly using criminal force
against police officers during a trap proceeding. The Court held that jostling and pushing to evade arrest
did not amount to criminal use of force as defined under Section 353 IPC. The bench, comprising Justic-
es B.R. Gavai, K.V. Vishwanathan, and N.K. Singh, concluded that the prosecution failed to establish the
necessary ingredients of the offense.
Legal Concept to Learn:
Section 353 IPC pertains to the offense of assault or use of criminal force against a public servant to
deter them from discharging their duty. For a conviction under this section, it must be proven that the ac-
cused intentionally used force against a public servant without consent to commit an offense or prevent
the servant from performing their duties.
The Supreme Court clarified that mere jostling or pushing, especially in an attempt to escape arrest,
does not constitute the intentional use of criminal force. The prosecution must establish that the force
used was deliberate and aimed at obstructing the public servant in the execution of their duties. In this
case, the evidence did not support such intent. The Court also noted that the appellant was not charged

53
under Section 186 IPC, which deals with obstructing a public servant, as it requires a specific complaint
procedure under Section 195 of the Criminal Procedure Code.
Thus, the Court concluded that the actions of the appellant did not fulfill the criteria for an offense under
Section 353 IPC, leading to the acquittal.
7. ‘Bail Is The Rule, Jail Is The Exception’ Even In Special Statutes
Like UAPA : Supreme Court
Why in News:
The Supreme Court, in Jalaluddin Khan v. Union of India, reiterated that “bail is the rule, jail is the ex-
ception,” even under special statutes like the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA). The
Court granted bail to Jalaluddin Khan, accused of renting his property to alleged members of the banned
organization Popular Front of India (PFI). The Patna High Court had earlier denied bail, citing the severity
of the charges under UAPA. The Supreme Court emphasized that denying bail in deserving cases violates
Article 21 of the Constitution.
Legal Concept to Learn:
Bail is a fundamental aspect of the criminal justice system, ensuring that an accused person is not de-
prived of liberty unnecessarily. Under Indian law, offenses are categorized as bailable or non-bailable.
In bailable offenses, the accused has the right to be released on bail, subject to fulfilling conditions set
by the court. In non-bailable offenses, bail is not a right but can be granted at the discretion of the court,
depending on factors like the nature of the crime, the likelihood of the accused fleeing justice, and the
possibility of tampering with evidence.
The principle that “bail is the rule, jail is the exception” reflects the presumption of innocence until guilt
is proven beyond a reasonable doubt. This principle is crucial in upholding the right to a speedy trial
under Article 21 of the Constitution. Courts generally lean towards granting bail unless there are com-
pelling reasons to deny it, such as the severity of the offense, potential to commit further crimes, risk of
absconding, or interfering with the investigation.
In special statutes like the UAPA, where stringent conditions are imposed for bail, the same principles
apply, with the added caution that conditions in the statute must be satisfied. The Supreme Court’s de-
cision reaffirms that even in cases under special laws, the presumption of innocence and the right to
personal liberty should not be overshadowed, and bail should be granted if conditions are met. Denial of
bail without just cause is seen as a violation of constitutional rights.

8. S. 27 Evidence Act | Statement Of Accused Inadmissible If No

New Fact Is Discovered Pursuant To Disclosure: Supreme Court
Why in News:
The Supreme Court, in the case of Allarakha Habib Memon etc. v. State of Gujarat held that a statement
made by an accused under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act is inadmissible if no new fact is discov-
ered as a result of the disclosure. The Court reversed a conviction in a murder case, emphasizing that the
crime scene identified by the accused was already known to the police, rendering the disclosure irrele-
vant and inadmissible under Section 27.
Legal Concept to Learn:
Under Indian law, Article 20(3) of the Constitution provides protection against self-incrimination, stating
that no person accused of an offense shall be compelled to be a witness against themselves. Section 25
of the Indian Evidence Act (IEA) ensures that confessions made to police officers are inadmissible as
evidence in court, reinforcing the protection against forced confessions.
Section 27 of the IEA, however, creates an exception, allowing certain parts of a confession to be admis-
sible if they lead to the discovery of a new fact. This section permits the use of information obtained from
the accused while in police custody, but only if it leads to the discovery of new, relevant evidence. For in-

54
stance, if an accused person discloses the location of a murder weapon, and the weapon is subsequently
found, this part of the confession can be admitted in court.
The Supreme Court in this case clarified that for a disclosure under Section 27 to be admissible, it must
lead to the discovery of a new fact. If the fact is already known to the police or does not result in the
discovery of any new evidence, the statement is inadmissible. Furthermore, the Court highlighted the
importance of maintaining the chain of custody of evidence; any lapse in proving that the recovered items
were securely handled renders the forensic evidence insignificant. The ruling reinforces the principle that
evidence must be carefully scrutinized, especially when derived from statements made in police custody,
to ensure that convictions are based on solid, lawful evidence.

9. Public Authorities Should Take Best Efforts To Reduce Trees

Required To Be Cut For Public Projects : Supreme Court
Why in News:
The Supreme Court, in MC Mehta v. Union of India & Ors., directed public authorities to make their best
efforts to minimize the number of trees cut for public projects by re-examining project alignments. This
direction, issued on August 8, 2024, emphasizes the importance of environmental protection in line with
Article 51A of the Constitution, which outlines the fundamental duty to protect the environment. The
Court stressed that permissions for tree felling would only be granted once compulsory afforestation
measures have commenced, particularly in the Agra-Jalesar-Etah road project case.
Legal Concept to Learn:
The Supreme Court’s ruling highlights the balance between development and environmental conserva-
tion, anchored in the spirit of Article 51A of the Indian Constitution, which enjoins citizens to protect and
improve the natural environment. The Court reinforced the principle that public authorities must actively
work to reduce environmental damage, particularly in projects requiring tree felling.
This directive aligns with the Godavarman judgment, which mandates strict scrutiny of projects involving
deforestation, ensuring that every effort is made to minimize ecological impact. The Court further em-
phasized that afforestation—planting trees to compensate for those felled—must be completed before
granting permissions for tree removal. This ensures that any environmental loss is mitigated through
proactive replanting efforts.
Moreover, the Court criticized the casual approach of authorities toward environmental considerations,
reinforcing that compliance with environmental norms is not optional but a mandatory prerequisite for
project approval. The ruling underscores the judiciary’s role in enforcing environmental laws and holding
public authorities accountable to prevent arbitrary and large-scale deforestation, safeguarding the right
of citizens to a healthy environment.

10. Mere Attempt To Overtake Vehicle On Road Doesn’t Mean Rash &
Negligent Driving : Supreme Court
Why in News:
The Supreme Court, in Prem Lal Anand and Others v. Narendra Kumar and Others, ruled that merely
attempting to overtake another vehicle on the road does not automatically constitute rash and negligent
driving. This judgment overturned the Motor Accident Claims Tribunal’s findings that attributed contrib-
utory negligence to the appellants, who were involved in a tragic accident. The Court significantly in-
creased the compensation awarded to the appellants, who had initially been granted a limited sum due
to the alleged contributory negligence.
Legal Concept to Learn:
The concept of rash and negligent driving under the Motor Vehicles Act involves actions that show a dis-
regard for the safety of others. In this case, the Supreme Court clarified that overtaking another vehicle,

55
a common road occurrence, does not by itself amount to rash and negligent driving. For such a charge to
hold, there must be evidence of recklessness beyond the mere act of overtaking.
The Court emphasized that the assumption of contributory negligence—where the victim is partially at
fault—must be based on solid evidence. In this case, the Tribunal had unjustly attributed 50% contributo-
ry negligence to the appellant simply because he was overtaking when the accident occurred. The Court
found this to be an erroneous conclusion, particularly since the accident was primarily caused by another
vehicle that was speeding and coming from the wrong side.
The ruling also sheds light on how compensation is calculated in such cases. The Court corrected the
Tribunal’s error by applying a higher multiplier for future prospects, thereby significantly increasing the
compensation amount. The judgment underscores that actions like overtaking should not automatically
be considered negligent unless accompanied by clear evidence of reckless behavior, and it reinforces the
principle that compensation must fairly reflect the extent of the loss suffered.

11. Delimitation Commission’s Orders Aren’t Immune From Judicial

Review : Supreme Court
Why in News: The Supreme Court recently held that the orders passed by the Delimitation Commission
are not immune from judicial review. In Kishorchandra Chhanganlal Rathod v. Union of India & Ors., the
Court emphasized that constitutional courts can scrutinize the validity of such orders if they are found to
be manifestly arbitrary and contrary to constitutional values. This judgment marks a significant stance on
the judicial oversight of delimitation exercises, rejecting the notion that such orders are beyond judicial
intervention.
Legal Concept to Learn: The Delimitation Commission, established under the Delimitation Act, is respon-
sible for determining the boundaries of constituencies for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assem-
blies. The Commission’s powers include adjusting and rationalizing constituencies based on population
data from the Census. The Commission is a high-power body whose orders, after receiving Presidential
assent, are typically considered final and beyond the scope of judicial review, as suggested by Article
329a) of the Constitution.
However, the Supreme Court clarified that while Article 329 limits the scope of judicial scrutiny regarding
the delimitation of constituencies, it does not completely bar the constitutional courts from intervening.
Judicial review remains available if the orders are found to be arbitrary, mala fide, or violate fundamental
constitutional principles. This aligns with past rulings where the Court has intervened to ensure the pro-
tection of constitutional values, even in matters related to elections or delimitation.
The next significant delimitation exercise in India is expected after the 2026 Census, which will redraw
the constituencies based on updated population data. The Supreme Court’s ruling reaffirms that such
exercises, although generally immune to frequent judicial interference, can still be challenged if they fail
to meet the standards of fairness, transparency, and adherence to constitutional norms.

12. LG Can Nominate Members To Delhi Municipal Corporation

Without Delhi Govt’s Consent : Supreme Court
Why in News: The Supreme Court ruled that the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Delhi has the power to
nominate members to the Delhi Municipal Corporation (DMC) without requiring the consent of the Delhi
Government. The decision was made in response to a petition filed by the Delhi Government challenging
the LG’s authority to independently appoint 10 members to the DMC, bypassing the Council of Ministers.
The Court clarified that this power is a statutory duty of the LG under the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act,
1957, and does not fall under the executive powers of the state.

56
Legal Concept to Learn: The judgment delves into the special status of the National Capital Territory
(NCT) of Delhi under Article 239AA of the Constitution, which grants the LG specific powers distinct from
those of a Governor in other states. Unlike Governors, who generally act on the aid and advice of the
Council of Ministers, the LG of Delhi has certain discretionary powers due to the unique constitutional
status of Delhi. Article 239AA was introduced to balance the powers between Delhi’s elected govern-
ment and the Union Government, with the LG playing a pivotal role in this structure.
The Supreme Court underscored that the power to nominate members to the DMC is a statutory power
provided to the LG by the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957, as amended in 1993. This power is
exercised independently of the Delhi Government, meaning the LG is not bound by the aid and advice of
the Council of Ministers in this context. The Court also pointed out that while the LG generally acts on the
advice of the Delhi Government, certain statutory powers, like those under the DMC Act, allow the LG to
act at his discretion.
This judgment reaffirms the distinct constitutional status of Delhi and the specific roles and powers as-
signed to its LG, particularly in the context of local governance and municipal administration. The next
delimitation exercise in 2026 may further explore and redefine such powers, considering the evolving
dynamics of the NCT’s governance.

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LEGAL CURRENT AFFAIRS EXERCISE

I. The Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 introduces significant legal provisions for the admissibility
and authentication of electronic evidence, marking an evolution in India’s legal framework. The new
law reinforces and updates the earlier framework established by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(IEA) and the Information Technology Act, 2000, which first addressed the admissibility of electronic
records.
Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 governs the admissibility of electronic records,
specifying that electronic evidence is admissible in court if it is accompanied by a certificate that
verifies its authenticity. This certificate must be issued by a person in a responsible position and
must explain the process through which the electronic record was produced. Section 65A further
reinforces that electronic records are admissible as documents if they comply with Section 65B.
Building on this, the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 in Section 63 preserves these core
requirements for the admissibility of electronic evidence. However, it introduces a specified format
for the certificate of authenticity. This certificate is split into two parts: Part A, to be completed by
the party submitting the evidence, and Part B, to be completed by an expert. This dual certification
process enhances the credibility and reliability of electronic records presented in court.
Section 61 of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam clearly states that electronic and digital records
cannot be denied admissibility solely based on their electronic nature. They are granted the same
legal validity, enforceability, and effect as traditional documentary evidence, provided they meet the
conditions laid out in Section 63. This provision underscores the equal treatment of digital evidence
alongside physical documents.
The Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, like the Indian Evidence Act, outlines stringent conditions for
the admissibility of electronic records. These conditions include the continuous and lawful use of the
computer from which the electronic record was generated, accurate reproduction of the data, and
proper documentation of the process by which the evidence was created.

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 In alignment with Section 65B of the IEA, the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam requires that any electronic
evidence be presented with a certificate verifying the method of its production. This certificate must
be issued by a responsible official or expert, ensuring that the electronic record was properly handled
and has not been tampered with. The strict requirements for the admissibility of electronic evidence
aim to preserve the integrity of the digital evidence in legal proceedings.
The Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 places a strong emphasis on the authentication of electronic
records. It builds on the existing legal framework by mandating the use of robust authentication
methods, such as digital signatures and hash values, which help ensure the integrity and origin of
the evidence. The law also emphasizes the importance of maintaining a clear chain of custody for
electronic evidence, which is vital to prove that the data has not been altered from the time it was
collected to the time it is presented in court.
To address the complexities involved in electronic evidence, the Adhiniyam encourages the use of
expert testimony to explain technical details and validate the process of data collection, storage,
and presentation. This ensures that the court is fully informed of the reliability and accuracy of the
electronic evidence, especially in cases where the technology involved is sophisticated.

1. Geeta is a senior manager at Raaga Technologies and has been accused of stealing proprietary
algorithms from her employer. The prosecution claims to have an email exchange between Geeta
and a competitor that incriminates her. However, the email was printed and submitted without a
corresponding certificate verifying its authenticity. The defense counsel challenges the admissibility,
pointing out that there is no certificate issued by someone in a responsible position ensuring the
email’s authenticity. The prosecution argues that Geeta’s position confirms her access to the
information, implying the authenticity of the email’s content.
a) The email is admissible as the defendant’s position confirms the likelihood of access to the
information.
b) The email is inadmissible due to the absence of a proper certificate verifying its authenticity as
required under Section 65B.
c) The email should be considered since it was printed from Geeta’s work computer, which only she
had access to.
d) The admissibility of the email hinges on the senior position of Geeta, thus making the document
authentic by implication.

2. During a patent infringement litigation, Vibha Labs provides a computer-generated log showing the
illegal use of its software by Bharat Enterprises. The logs are produced with an accompanied Part A
certificate, completed by Vibha Labs’ IT manager, but lack the Part B certificate from an independent
expert. Bharat Enterprises objects that the logs should be inadmissible due to the absence of Part B
certification. Vibha’s legal team presents an IT expert during the trial to testify about the generation
and accuracy of the log files. Bharat’s counsel insists that expert testimony does not substitute for
the required Part B certification.
a) Vibha’s evidence is admissible as the expert’s testimony during the trial validates the authenticity of
the log files.
b) The computer logs should be excluded because the expert’s testimony cannot replace the necessity
of Part B certification.
c) The log files remain admissible as the IT manager’s certificate is sufficient to confirm the logs’
generation.
d) The presence of the IT manager’s testimony is adequate to establish the integrity of the logs,
rendering Part B certification unnecessary.

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3. Arjun is prosecuted for embezzlement and the main evidence against him is a series of WhatsApp
messages. The defense claims these messages are fabricated and should be inadmissible as they
are electronic in nature. However, the prosecution provides screenshots of the messages along with
a detailed affidavit from a cybersecurity firm confirming the messages’ authenticity and that they
were retrieved from Arjun’s phone, which corroborates with the company’s server logs. The defense
disputes the admissibility, arguing that the electronic nature of WhatsApp messages inherently lacks
the reliability of written documents.
a) The messages should be admitted since their electronic nature is not a ground for inadmissibility if
corroborated by the affidavit and server logs.
b) The WhatsApp messages are inadmissible, considering the defense’s argument about the inherent
unreliability of electronic messages.
c) Admission of the messages is contingent upon the court’s interpretation of the ‘electronic nature’ as
a reliable form of evidence.
d) WhatsApp messages are to be excluded as evidence owing to the possibility of fabrication, as argued
by the defense.

4. In a defamation suit against journalist Rekha, the plaintiff alleges that Rekha published a defamatory
article online. To prove publication, the plaintiff presents a printed copy of the article from the
website. The printout is accompanied by a certificate under Section 65B from a web administrator
but lacks a timeline of the document’s history, including when it was published or edited. Rekha
counters that without this timeline, the printout could represent an edited or updated version of the
original, which may not have contained the alleged defamatory content.
a) The article printout is admissible as it is accompanied by a certificate as required under Bhartiya
Sakshya Adhiniyam, irrespective of the editing timeline.
b) Publication evidence is inadmissible because it does not feature a complete history, risking the
presentation of potentially altered content.
c) The printout cannot be admitted without the document’s full history, which is crucial to establishing
a timeline of the defamation act.
d) In spite of the certificate, the printout’s credibility is compromised without a record of the article’s
edits, calling into question its admissibility.

5. Navin, a social activist, finds himself in a legal battle after being accused of inciting violence through
social media posts. The prosecution presents a series of tweets attributed to Navin’s account.
To authenticate these electronic records, they offer digital signatures linked to the account and
timestamps from the social media platform’s servers. However, Navin argues that his account had
been hacked around the time of the purported posts, evidenced by an investigation report from a
digital security firm showing IP addresses that do not match his usual locations. The prosecution
argues that the authentication is still valid as the timestamps and digital signatures are specific to
his account.
a) The tweets are admissible because the digital signatures and timestamps authenticate them as
having originated from Navin’s account.
b) Authentication of the tweets cannot be accepted due to Navin’s supported claim of account hacking,
which compromises their reliability.
c) The legal battle should focus on the digital security firm’s report rather than the digital signatures to
determine the admissibility of the tweets.
d) Examination and verification of IP addresses should be prioritized over digital signature and
timestamp evidence for the tweets’ admissibility.

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6. If the fact is introduced that an independent cybersecurity firm recovered logs showing unauthorized
access to Navin’s social media account from foreign IP addresses around the dates of the controversial
posts, would it strengthen Navin’s case, weaken it, or have no effect?
a) Strengthen Navin’s case, as it provides direct evidence of potential hacking, challenging the
authenticity of the posts attributed to his account.
b) Weaken Navin’s case, because it could imply that Navin failed to secure his account adequately,
which could still hold him responsible for posts made from his account.
c) Have no effect, as the digital signatures and timestamps still validate the posts as originating from
his account.
d) Strengthen the prosecution’s case, as the foreign IP addresses might suggest Navin was trying to
obscure his own involvement in the posts.

II. In the case concerning the 2019 amendment to The Citizenship Act, 1955, the Supreme Court was
tasked with determining the amendment’s constitutionality, particularly in relation to Article 14,
which mandates equality before the law. This legal scrutiny arose because the amendment provided
citizenship eligibility based on religious lines, potentially conflicting with India’s secular framework.
The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019, modifies The Citizenship Act, 1955, introducing
special provisions for Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians from Afghanistan,
Bangladesh, and Pakistan. These amendments exempt individuals from these groups who arrived
in India on or before December 31, 2014, from being classified as illegal migrants and shorten their
required residency period for naturalization from eleven years to five years. Aimed at providing these
minorities a secure legal status due to their conditions in their respective countries, the CAA has,
however, ignited considerable controversy and legal scrutiny. Critics argue it contradicts India’s
constitutional values of equality and secularism as outlined in Article 14, by excluding Muslims and
other religious groups who face similar adversities, thereby questioning the Act’s constitutional
validity.
Article 131 of the Indian Constitution establishes the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in
any dispute between the Union of India and one or more states, or between two or more states. This
jurisdiction is exclusive, meaning no other court can entertain such disputes. The key aspect of this
jurisdiction is that it is applicable only when the dispute involves questions regarding the rights or
obligations of the states or the Union under the Constitution.
Article 14 guarantees that the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal
protection of the laws within the territory of India. This includes protection against discrimination
on grounds such as religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. In the context of the Citizenship
Amendment Act, challenges were raised about whether creating a differentiation based on religious
identity aligns with the constitutional mandate of equality.
Delhi Special Police Establishment Act of 1946, which governs the functioning of the Central Bureau
of Investigation (CBI), becomes significant in disputes involving the state’s revocation of consent for
CBI operations within their territory. Section 6 of this Act allows a state to withdraw consent, making
it a pivotal point in discussing the extent of central intervention under federal principles.
Article 262 addresses disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers or river valleys. It provides
that Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to
the use, distribution, or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-state river or river valley. Notably,
Article 262 explicitly states that notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by
law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect
of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause (1).

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7. Vishnu, a social activist, decided to challenge the implementation of a state government’s scheme
that provides educational scholarships only to female students of a particular caste, claiming this
was discriminatory under Article 14, as it excluded male students and those from other castes. The
state government argued that the scheme was designed to promote education among a marginalized
community that had historically low literacy rates. During litigation, the High Court decided to stay
the application of the scheme pending the outcome of the case. Meanwhile, Amit, a male student
from the same caste, was unable to apply for the scholarship due to the stay despite the urgent need
to finance his education.
a) Amit should not be able to apply for the scholarship as the stay order is rightfully imposed, ensuring
no further inequality is perpetuated.
b) Amit should be able to apply for the scholarship because the stay on the scheme disproportionately
impacts students who are in immediate need.
c) Amit should be able to apply for the scholarship, overriding the stay as this will be in consonance
with the state’s aim of upliftment of a marginalized community.
d) Amit should not be able to apply as the scheme was rightly stayed, given that it contravenes Article
14 by discriminating against other castes and genders.

8. If the fact is introduced that the state government proposes a revised scholarship scheme to include
economically disadvantaged male students from the same caste, would it strengthen Amit’s case,
weaken it, or have no effect?
a) Strengthen Amit’s case, as it highlights the state’s recognition of the discriminatory nature of the
original scheme and its effort to rectify this.
b) Weaken Amit’s case, because the introduction of a new scheme suggests that the original scheme
was appropriately stayed due to its discriminatory nature.
c) Have no effect, as the proposed new scheme does not change the legality of the stay imposed on the
original scheme.
d) Strengthen the state government’s case, as it shows proactive adjustment to meet constitutional
mandates and might mitigate the need for judicial intervention.

9. The state of Arunodaya has been facing severe environmental issues due to the construction of a dam
by its neighboring state, Prachanda Pradesh; This construction has led to the displacement of several
indigenous tribes and altered the regional ecosystem. Arunodaya claims that the construction is
unauthorized under environmental norms and has resulted in a water-sharing dispute. Arunodaya’s
government decides to approach the Supreme Court under Article 131 to resolve this inter-state
matter directly. Meanwhile, Prachanda Pradesh insists the dam is vital for its own agricultural and
energy needs, stating that they have complied with all necessary environmental regulations and
secured clearances from the Union government, which has supported the project citing national
energy security and bilateral water agreement with Arunodaya.
a) The Supreme Court should refuse to exercise jurisdiction because the environmental clearances by
the Union government suggest a legal consensus on the dam’s construction.
b) The Supreme Court has the jurisdiction to hear Arunodaya’s case, as it involves a dispute between
two states on the matter of rights and obligations under the Constitution.
c) The Supreme Court lacks jurisdiction to adjudicate because the dam pertains to environmental
concerns, a subject matter for the National Green Tribunal and not under Article 131.
d) The Supreme Court should delegate the dispute to an inter-state water tribunal since water-sharing
conflicts are beyond its original jurisdiction as outlined in Article 131.

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10. In a case involving corporate fraud, the CBI sought to conduct operations in Karnataka, based on
allegations that several high-profile companies registered there were involved in a massive inter-
state financial scam. However, the Karnataka government, citing previous instances of alleged
misuse of CBI authority for political reasons, withdrew its general consent for CBI investigations
within state boundaries under Section 6 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act. This
withdrawal meant that the CBI would require specific consent for each case or an order from the
higher judiciary to proceed. The affected companies, however, claimed the state’s withdrawal of
consent was an attempt to shield local business figures from investigation, as some of them held
influential positions in state politics.
a) The Supreme Court should rule that the CBI can proceed without Karnataka’s consent, due to the
interstate nature of the alleged fraud.
b) The Karnataka government’s withdrawal of consent should stand, as it has the sovereign power to
manage law and order within its territory including investigation modalities.
c) The CBI must halt all operations in Karnataka unless specific consent is granted or judicial intervention
is received, respecting the state’s decision under Section 6.
d) The CBI should continue its investigation without considering the state’s withdrawal as it concerns a
matter of national financial security.

11. The state of Sutrantapur has been in a contentious dispute with its neighbor, Mandal Pradesh, over
the use of the River Tirtha’s waters, which flows between them. Tirtha has been a lifeline for both
states, but recent droughts have exacerbated tensions. Sutrantapur enacted legislation reallocating
River Tirtha’s waters, giving priority to its agricultural sectors, which Mandal Pradesh contested
as violative of prior water-sharing agreements. Mandal Pradesh approached the Supreme Court
for redress, while Sutrantapur argued that under Article 262, the Supreme Court should not have
jurisdiction, and the matter should be resolved by a tribunal established under the Inter-State Water
Disputes Act. However, there’s no existing tribunal for River Tirtha, and Sutrantapur has delayed its
formation.
a) The Supreme Court should reject Mandal Pradesh’s petition as Article 262 clearly restricts its
jurisdiction over inter-state water disputes.
b) The Supreme Court can adjudicate the dispute given the absence of a tribunal and Sutrantapur’s
delay in the formation is against equitable justice.
c) Mandal Pradesh’s petition is valid and the Supreme Court should form a tribunal, as per Article 262,
to ensure the dispute is resolved.
d) The Supreme Court should direct the central government to intervene and facilitate an ad-hoc
agreement between the states until a tribunal is formed.

12. In the state of Pratibandhak, a new state law extended benefits to various minority communities
except for the Marzani community, which is predominantly Muslim. The government justified
the exclusion by citing historical data showing that the Marzani community had higher economic
indicators than other minorities in the state. A Marzani activist, Zara, filed a suit against the state,
arguing that the exclusion contravenes Article 14. The state responded, stating that its laws targeted
the most disadvantaged and that including the Marzani would dilute the efficacy of the benefits. The
socio-economic indicators of the Marzani community are contentious; some reports support the
state’s claims while others refute them, casting doubt on the exclusion’s constitutionality.
a) The exclusion of the Marzani community should not be legally permissible, as it appear to undermine
the secularism ingrained in Article 14.
b) Zara’s suit should be dismissed on the grounds that the state has identified higher economic
standards for the Marzani, justifying exclusion.

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c) The Marzani community should be included if evidence suggests their socio-economic indicators are
similar to those of included communities.
d) The state’s exclusion of the Marzani community is justified, given the focus on the most disadvantaged,
even if it means overlooking one minority.

III. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) derives its extensive investigative powers from
Section 11-C of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. This section, was significantly
enhanced in 2002, empowers SEBI to conduct inquiries into any securities transactions or alleged
violations of the Act along with its accompanying rules and regulations. Notably, SEBI’s investigations
can commence even without the prior identification of specific individuals, allowing it to identify
relevant parties as inquiry progresses. This authority is crucial for addressing transactions that may
adversely affect investors or disrupt the securities market, as well as for penalizing violations by
intermediaries or market participants.
SEBI’s investigative powers under Section 11-C include the authority to demand documentation,
examine associated individuals under oath, and seize necessary records. The Act grants SEBI
broad discretion, allowing it to appoint any qualified person as an investigator, thereby reflecting
the agency’s autonomy in managing its investigative functions. In urgent-situations, SEBI may seek
judicial assistance to seize documents that are at risk of being destroyed or tampered with, ensuring
the preservation of crucial evidence.
The legal framework mandates strict compliance with SEBI’s directives during investigations, backed
by severe penalties for non-compliance as outlined in Section 11-C(6). These penalties include
fines and imprisonment, underscoring the obligatory nature of these directives and highlighting the
potential daily accrual of penalties for ongoing non-compliance.
Additional provisions relevant to SEBI’s investigative powers include Section 11 of the SEBI Act,
which outlines the general duties and functions of the board, empowering it to protect investor
interests and promote the development and regulation of the securities market. Moreover, Section
11B authorizes SEBI to issue directions for the protection of investors and orderly conduct of market
players.
The appellate mechanism, as outlined in Section 15T, is also crucial. It allows appeals against of
SEBI’s orders to be made to the Securities Appellate Tribunal. ensuring a layer of judicial review,
maintaining checks and balances over SEBI’s regulatory actions.
In its operations, SEBI transitions from an inquisitorial role during investigations to a quasi-judicial
role when adjudicating and making final decisions on the matters at hand. This dual capacity ensures
that SEBI not only investigates potential infractions but also adjudicates them with a formal legal
process, reinforcing the rule of law within India’s securities market.

13. In the city of Mumbai, Rajan, an enterprising stockbroker, received a perplexing directive from SEBI
to produce all transaction records of a certain stock for the past six months. SEBI had initiated a
broad investigation into market manipulation practices potentially affecting stock prices. No specific
individuals were initially named in the inquiry. Rajan, however, suspected that his former colleague,
Priyanka, who had access to his records before her abrupt resignation, might be involved in suspicious
trading activities. Despite his suspicions, Rajan knew that cooperating with SEBI’s request would
expose all his clients’ confidential transactions, possibly incriminating Priyanka and implicating his
firm due to her past access to the data.
a) Rajan is required to comply with SEBI’s request as the probe does not rely on specific individual
identification initially.
b) Rajan can refuse to produce documents as it could incriminate his clients and potentially his firm.

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c) SEBI must first identify specific individuals involved before Rajan is obliged to provide any
documentation.
d) Rajan does not have to comply until Priyanka is officially named in the investigation.

14. Amit, the CEO of a growing fintech startup in Bengaluru, received multiple notifications from SEBI to
submit detailed trading logs related to a recent surge in penny stock trading through his platform.
Amit entrusted this task to his financial analyst, Ramesh, who inadvertently overlooked the SEBI
notifications while focusing on a critical software upgrade to enhance security measures. The notices
had stipulated a strict deadline, which had now passed. Upon realizing this, Amit was concerned
about potential penalties, considering the notifications were addressed to him personally, yet
compliance failure occurred due to Ramesh’s oversight amidst company-wide priorities to upgrade
their security infrastructure, inadvertently leading to non-compliance with SEBI’s requests.
a) Amit may face penalties as the responsibility for compliance lies with the CEO personally, despite
internal oversights.
b) SEBI will take into account the security upgrade priorities and waive any potential penalties as they
were not intentional.
c) Ramesh will solely be held responsible for any non-compliance penalties as he was entrusted with
the task.
d) No penalties will apply since the fintech startup was engaged in improving their security measures,
which takes precedence over compliance.

15. Sanjana, the compliance officer at a prominent brokerage firm in Kolkata, is reviewing a complex
set of transactions involving a network of seemingly unrelated high-net-worth individuals who have
conducted sizable trades through the brokerage. Sanjana observes a pattern that suggests potential
front running, where these clients appear to have made profitable trades by acting on advance
information regarding large unannounced transactions that would impact securities’ prices. While
reviewing the unusual trading activity, a directive from SEBI arrives, compelling Sanjana’s firm to
furnish all details related to these transactions for an ongoing investigation into market practices that
could harm the investor community and the securities market’s stability. The directive ambiguously
mentions an anonymous whistleblower tip but does not accuse any specific individual or entity.
a) Sanjana must promptly comply with the directive, providing all requested details since SEBI is acting
to safeguard investor interests.
b) The firm should seek advice from a securities law expert before proceeding, as no specific individual
or entity is accused.
c) As compliance officer, Sanjana should not comply until given a more detailed reason that concerns
their clients’ privacy.
d) The firm is excused from compliance until clear evidence of their specific clients’ involvement is
provided by SEBI.

16. Aarti runs a proprietary trading firm in Hyderabad that is known for high-frequency trading. SEBI
initiates an investigation targeting market manipulations specifically related to high-frequency
trading patterns and sends out directives to several trading firms, including Aarti’s, to secure their
records for inspection. Aarti faces a dilemma as her firm recently experienced a server crash, leading
to partial data loss which may include some of the records SEBI has sought. Aartin knows server
recovery efforts are ongoing, but the complete data retrieval is uncertain. Moreover, nearby, a junior
employee, out of fear upon hearing rumors of the investigation, starts deleting his trade logs, which
could be misconstrued as intentional tampering.

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a) Aarti should notify SEBI immediately about the server crash and deletion of logs by the employee to
avoid misunderstanding.
b) The firm must halt all ongoing server recovery efforts to prevent any possible misinterpretation of
data tampering.
c) Since the data loss was due to a server crash, Aarti has no obligation to inform SEBI about the
potential data loss risk.
d) Aarti should only report the junior employee’s actions and not the server crash as that seems to be
an IT issue, not a legal one.

17. If the fact is introduced that a third-party IT forensic team successfully retrieved all lost data before
SEBI’s scheduled inspection, would it strengthen Aarti’s case, weaken it, or have no effect?
a) Strengthen Aarti’s case, as it demonstrates her commitment to compliance and transparency by
ensuring all data is available for SEBI’s inspection.
b) Weaken Aarti’s case, because it might imply that the data could have been altered during the retrieval
process.
c) Have no effect, as the successful data recovery does not address the issue of the junior employee’s
actions.
d) Weaken Aarti’s case, as the use of a third-party may raise questions about the integrity and
confidentiality of the data recovery process.

18. Consider the following statements regarding SEBI’s investigative powers under Section 11-C of the
SEBI Act, 1992:
I. SEBI can commence investigations without identifying specific individuals and can target relevant
parties as the investigation progresses.
II. SEBI has the authority to impose penalties for non-compliance with its investigative directives,
which can include both fines and imprisonment.
III. SEBI can only appoint its internal officers as investigators and does not have the discretion to
appoint external qualified individuals for investigations.
IV. SEBI’s investigative powers are limited to requesting documents and do not extend to examining
individuals under oath or seizing records.
Which of the following is correct?
a) Only I and II are correct.
b) Only II and IV are correct.
c) Only III and IV are correct.
d) Only I and III are correct.

IV. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS) has introduced comprehensive changes to India’s criminal
law landscape, significantly affecting legal protections concerning non-consensual sexual offences.
This overhaul comes after the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of
India, which in 2018 decriminalized consensual homosexual acts by reading down Section 377 of
the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC). This section historically criminalized “carnal intercourse against
the order of nature” and included non-consensual sexual acts under its ambit, providing protection
to all individuals, regardless of gender or sexual orientation.
With the enactment of the BNS, which replaces the IPC entirely, Section 377 was removed, raising
concerns about the specific protections it offered against non-consensual acts. Petitioners at the

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 Delhi High Court have highlighted a potential gap in the new legislation, pointing out that while
Section 377 served as a broad protective measure, the BNS’s provisions on sexual crimes seem
narrower in scope.
Under the BNS, Chapter V specifically addresses “Offences against women and children,” with
Section 63 defining rape in explicitly gendered terms, recognizing only men as perpetrators and
women as victims. This represents a shift from the more inclusive language previously found in
Section 377 of the IPC. Critics argue that this change may leave gaps in legal protections for men,
transgender individuals, and non-binary persons against non-consensual sexual acts.
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita does include broader protective measures under Section 36, which
articulates the “right of private defence” against offences affecting the human body. This section
allows individuals to defend themselves or others against attempts at rape or acts driven by
“unnatural lust,” albeit without defining these terms explicitly. Additionally, Section 140 criminalizes
kidnapping or abduction with intent to subject individuals to grievous harm, slavery, or unnatural
lust, suggesting some level of recognition of these crimes in the new legal framework.

19. Ravi, a transgender man, was assaulted by his friend, Deepak, after a night out. Deepak forced Ravi
into non-consensual acts while intoxicated, which Ravi reported to the police the next morning.
The police, however, were uncertain whether this could be categorized as rape under the BNS,
given that Ravi is not biologically female. Furthermore, Ravi identifies as a man, and Deepak argues
that their drunken state resulted in a misunderstanding of consent, further complicating the case’s
categorization under the new legal guidelines.
a) Ravi’s case is clearly rape under Section 63 of BNS as it explicitly includes all forms of non-consensual
acts.
b) The case cannot be considered rape under Section 63 since it only recognizes women as victims.
c) Assault on Ravi might be prosecutable, but categorization under the BNS as rape requires further
legal clarification.
d) Ravi can invoke right of private defence under Section 36 against the assault, but cannot file under
rape due to gender specificity in law.

20. Vikram, known for his high-profile crimes, masterminded the abduction of Akhilesh, a wealthy
businessman, intending to demand a hefty ransom. During confinement, Akhilesh was threatened
with grievous harm, including acts considered as ‘unnatural lust.’ Vikram was careful to avoid physical
harm to Akhilesh directly, delegating any such attempts to his subordinates. After a successful police
raid, the officers arrested Vikram and his team. Vikram’s defense argues that he solely orchestrated
the kidnapping for ransom and did not participate in the threats of unnatural lust.
a) Vikram’s defense holds, as only his subordinates engaged in the act, which was outside his plan of
simple ransom.
b) Vikram cannot be charged under Section 140 since there was no intent for unnatural lust, only
ransom.
c) Vikram is liable under Section 140 as principal of the crime, whether he personally engaged in all
aspects or not.
d) Since Akhilesh was neither physically harmed nor subjected to the threatened acts, Vikram’s liability
is questionable.

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21. Aadarsh and Yash, in a consensual romantic relationship, faced harassment from their neighbor,
Bhavesh, who disapproved of their partnership. Bhavesh, under the false pretense of performing a
citizen’s arrest for what he believed to be “an offence against the order of nature,” restrained Aadarsh
and Yash within their home. Bhavesh proceeded to call the authorities to take them into custody.
When the police arrived, Aadarsh and Yash were engaged in a consensual private act. Bhavesh urged
the police to arrest them under the old IPC regime, claiming ignorance of the recent legal changes.
a) Bhavesh’s actions are justifiable since he believed he was upholding the law as per the old IPC
provisions.
b) Bhavesh is liable for wrongfully restraining Aadarsh and Yash as the Supreme Court decriminalized
consensual homosexual acts.
c) The police can arrest Aadarsh and Yash based on Bhavesh’s report, due to his belief in the illegality
of their consensual act.
d) Since the passage mentioned decriminalization, Aadarsh and Yash’s privacy should not be infringed,
and Bhavesh’s actions have no legal standing.

22. Kiran, a young woman, was followed late at night by Anil, who intended to snatch her purse. Sensing
danger, Kiran preemptively turned and pepper-sprayed Anil before he could make a move. Anil, who
also had a concealed knife, was overpowered by passersby when he became aggressive post-being
sprayed. Anil claimed that the action taken by Kiran was excessive as he had not yet committed any
act threatening her safety, and thus she had no right to use private defense.
a) Kiran is justified in her actions as Section 36 allows preemptive defense against perceived threats to
her security.
b) Kiran exceeded the bounds of private defense by disabling Anil before any clear and present danger
surfaced.
c) Since Anil was carrying a concealed weapon, Kiran’s actions are nullified under private defense
apprehensions.
d) Anil, not having initiated any overt physical threat, means Kiran’s use of pepper spray was unwarranted
and illegal.

23. During a college theatre production, two actors, Rohan and Meera, were asked to simulate a scene
suggesting carnal acts against the order of nature, but Rohan went beyond simulation and engaged
in an actual act with Meera without her consent. The director, unaware of Rohan’s intentions,
believed the act to be a fine depiction of the script. Meera, distressed, lodged a complaint against
Rohan. Rohan argues that it was all part of the artistic expression and there was a misunderstanding,
claiming protection under the BNS’s provisions for art and expression.
a) Rohan’s act is non-consensual and therefore criminally actionable, regardless of his claim for artistic
expression.
b) Rohan is protected under the BNS for freedom of artistic expression, and Meera’s consent is
presumed due to the nature of their work.
c) Due to the complexities in discerning artistic license from criminal acts, Rohan’s defense might find
legal grounding in the BNS.
d) Meera’s situation cannot be recognized as a crime under the BNS due to the unique context of
performing arts and the supposed consent therein.

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24. Which of the following legal statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 has replaced Section 377 of the IPC, which previously provided
broad protection against non-consensual sexual acts regardless of gender.
b) Section 63 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita defines rape in gendered terms, recognizing only men as
perpetrators and women as victims.
c) Section 140 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita criminalizes kidnapping or abduction with intent to
subject individuals to grievous harm, slavery, or unnatural lust.
d) The removal of Section 377 from the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita has left no legal recognition of crimes
involving “unnatural lust” in India’s criminal law framework.

V. The President of India occupies the the apex of the constitutional hierarchy, functioning encapsulated
within a framework that designates the President as the ceremonial head of state, the first citizen,
and the Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Armed Forces. This role also extends to being the titular
head of the Union Executive, which includes the Vice-President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers,
and the Attorney General of India.
The President’s executive jurisdiction encompasses all executive actions undertaken by of the
Government of India, exxceuted formally under the President’s name. This entails the prerogative
to prescribe procedural rules for the authentication of orders and other executive instruments.
Addiditionally, the-President holds the authority to orchestrate the transaction of governmental
affairs, notably apportioning ministerial responsibilities.
The President’s powers of appointment extend to pivotal positions such as the Prime Minister, various
ministers who hold office at the President’s pleasure, and other key officials such as the Governors
of States, the Attorney General, and the heads of various constitutional bodies. In the legislative
domain, the President holds the prerogative to convene or adjourn Parliament, as well as dissolve
the Lok Sabha. The President’s formal address initiates Parliamentary sessions, particularly after
general elections or at the onset of the year. Legislative instruments such as messages to Parliament
regarding bills or policies also fall under the President’s purview. Additionally, the President has the
authority to nominate members to both houses of Parliament, influencing the legislative process
directly.
Financially, the President is integral to the budgetary process of the Union Government, as no money
bill can be introduced in Parliament without the President’s recommendation. The President also lays
the Annual Financial Statement before Parliament and can sanction advances out of the Contingency
Fund of India to meet unforeseen expenses. Judicially, the President appoints the judges of the
Supreme Court and High Courts of India. Moreover, the President has the power to seek advice from
the Supreme Court on legal matters, although this advice is not binding. The pardoning power of the
President is significant, particularly in cases involving death sentences or other severe penalties,
where he/she can grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or commutations.
Diplomatically, the President negotiates and ratifies international treaties, a process that requires
Parliamentary approval. Militarily, as the supreme commander of the armed forces, the President
appoints the chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force and oversees the declaration of war and peace,
subject to the approval of Parliament. Furthermore, The President can declare three types of
emergencies: national, state, and financial. These powers enable the President to manage severe
crises that threaten the nation’s security or financial stability.
Moreover, the President exercises veto authority over legislative measures passed by Parliament,
with the potential to employ absolute, suspensive, or a pocket veto, thereby to withholding assent to
bills. Under Article 123 of the Constitution, the President can also promulgate ordinances during the
recess of Parliament, which hold the same power as laws passed by Parliament until disapproved by
it.
Source: president of India, Britannica.

69
25. The city of Indraprastha was thrown into political turmoil when the Chief Minister proclaimed his
intention to autonomously annex an adjoining territory without the Union Government’s consent.
Despite multiple warnings, he proceeded with his plan. Eventually, the President of India intervened
by issuing a direct executive order to halt the annexation, citing national interest and constitutional
provisions. The Chief Minister challenged the action, arguing that his state’s autonomous decision
was within its rights and the President overstepped by issuing an executive order in this matter,
which should have fallen under the state’s purview.
a) The President’s order was justified because it related to the state’s decision affecting national
boundaries.
b) The President lacked the authority; the Chief Minister could annex territory without Union
Government’s interference.
c) The Chief Minister had exceeded his powers; the President rightly intervened in national interest.
d) The matter was within state jurisdiction; the President could not intervene with an executive order.

26. Krishnaveni Sagar, a large dam located in the Federal State of Bharatpur, sustained severe structural
damage after an unexpected earthquake, threatening to flood numerous cities. As the inhabitants
panicked, the state government remained indecisive. In reaction, the President of India, considering
the imminent disaster and potential loss of life, declared a state emergency to expedite relief efforts.
Subsequently, the Governor of Bharatpur challenged the proclamation, asserting that the state
machinery was capable of dealing with the crisis, and thus the declaration of a state emergency by
the President was an unnecessary federal overreach into the state’s autonomy.
a) The President’s proclamation was unnecessary; the state should handle natural disaster
management.
b) The Governor’s assertion is moot; a state emergency was appropriate due to the potential disaster’s
magnitude.
c) The President had no grounds for a state emergency; the situation was a state-level issue.
d) The state emergency was justifiable, enabling federal intervention for a swift response.

27. In the administrative corridors of New Delhi, confusion reigned as several newly appointed ministers
claimed overlapping jurisdictions over cyber security. The Prime Minister proposed a Cyber Security
Administrative Bill aiming to clarify the roles but did not consult the President for approval in the
allocation of these roles. Meanwhile, three different ministers independently launched initiatives to
combat cybersecurity threats, causing duplication of efforts and financial inefficiencies. Concerned
about the disarray, the President stepped in to streamline the process, issuing an executive order
to define clear boundaries and jurisdictions among the differing ministerial roles for cybersecurity,
overruling the Prime Minister’s proposed bill.
a) The President had overstepped by issuing an executive order without waiting for the Parliamentary
process on the PM’s bill.
b) By intervening, the President validly exercised authority to allocate Union government business
among ministers.
c) The President should not interfere as the allocation of business among ministers is the Prime
Minister’s prerogative.
d) The executive order was invalid since it overruled a proposed Parliamentary bill without any
legislative procedure.

70
28. Rameshwar Prasad, an eminent jurist, was recommended by the collegium to be appointed as a
judge to the Supreme Court of India. However, rumors of his affiliation with a political party emerged,
raising concerns about the integrity of his future judgments. Despite no formal evidence, the President
of India decided to withhold the appointment, citing concerns about the potential partiality and the
impact it might have on judicial impartiality. Rameshwar Prasad contested this decision, asserting
that the absence of any substantiated allegations or misconduct should have made his appointment
proceed as recommended by the collegium.
a) The President rightfully withheld the appointment due to concerns over the jurist’s impartiality.
b) Without substantiated evidence, the President should not have interfered with the collegium’s
recommendation.
c) The President is bound to appoint the jurist if the collegium has found no issues regarding his
integrity.
d) The President’s decision is justified; potential political affiliations justify concerns about judicial
impartiality.

29. The Republic of Bharatan was gripped by political suspense after the conclusion of its fiercely
contested general elections. Whilst the victor’s celebrations were underway, a monumental clerical
error surfaced: the President’s traditional address to initiate the first session of the newly elected
Parliament was inadvertently not scheduled. The oversight remained undiscovered until a senior
bureaucrat, Vikramjeet Banerjee, raised the issue, asserting that without the President’s address, the
session could not be deemed officially commenced and any proceedings might be constitutionally
infirm. However, a prominent constitutional lawyer contended that as long as the Parliament was
convened, and members sworn in, the President’s address, though symbolically significant, was not
a mandate for legislative authoritativeness or the validity of proceedings.
a) The commencement of the Parliament session is valid without the President’s address; its absence
does not impugn proceedings.
b) Absence of the President’s address renders the initiation of Parliament session and subsequent
proceedings constitutionally unlawful.
c) The Parliament can proceed with its business as usual since the President’s address is a mere
formality and not a constitutional requirement.
d) Without the President’s address, the newly elected Parliament’s first session is not properly
constituted as per constitutional norms.

30. The Parliament of Samyukta had passed a landmark bill that sought to introduce sweeping
environmental regulations impacting several key industries. The industries, which formed a powerful
lobby, managed to persuade some members of Parliament to oppose the bill, claiming that it would
disrupt economic growth. As the bill awaited presidential assent, President Pratyusha Sinha found
herself in a political quandary. While the bill had garnered public support for its potential to curb
pollution, the economic arguments by the lobbyists were also compelling. In an unprecedented
move, the President neither granted assent nor explicitly rejected the bill, letting it languish,
effectively exercising a form of passive veto. Environmental activists challenged this, demanding a
clear decision, while the lobbying group supported the President’s subtle disapproval of the bill.
a) The President’s passive withholding of assent effectively amounts to a valid exercise of pocket veto
power.
b) President Sinha should have overtly rejected the bill; a passive veto is not a constitutionally
recognized form of veto.
c) The President’s failure to act on the bill counts as tacit approval; the bill should be considered
enacted into law.
d) The President’s non-action contravenes her duty; the veto power must be explicitly exercised.

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 ANSWER KEY
CURRENT AFFAIRS EXERCISE
1. Answer: B) To manage and recover bad loans and NPAs
Explanation: A bad bank is designed to buy, manage, and recover bad loans and non-performing assets
(NPAs) from commercial banks, allowing those banks to focus on healthier lending activities.

2. Answer: C) 2021
Explanation: NARCL was established in 2021 to manage bad assets in public sector banks, following a
proposal in the 2016 Economic Survey.

3. Answer: B) Public procurement process for government contracts

Explanation: The Swiss Challenge method is a public procurement process allowing private companies to
bid on government contracts. It’s also used by banks for selling NPA accounts, where the initial offer
can be counter-bid by others.

4. Answer: C) 15%
Explanation: NARCL pays 15% of the agreed loan value in cash, while the remaining 85% is paid through
government-backed security receipts.

5. Answer: C) Inadequate government funding

Explanation: The challenges faced by NARCL include dual structure issues, high operational costs, and
pricing discrepancies. Inadequate government funding was not mentioned as a challenge.

72
6. Answer: C) Swiss Challenge Method
Explanation: NARCL uses the Swiss Challenge method, which involves an initial offer, invitation for counter-
bids, and then preference to the highest bid, to sell distressed assets in the market.

7. Answer: C) 4
Explanation: Chhattisgarh currently has three tiger reserves: Achanakmar, Indravati, and Udanti-Sitanadi.
The newly proposed Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve will be the fourth.

8. Answer: B) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Explanation: The Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh is the largest tiger reserve in
India, covering an area of 3,296.31 sq km.

9. Answer: C) Due to a significant decrease in the state’s tiger population

Explanation: The new tiger reserve is being established because Chhattisgarh’s tiger population decreased
significantly from 46 in 2014 to 17 in 2022, as reported by the National Tiger Conservation Authority.

10. Answer: B) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Explanation: Tiger Reserves in India are notified by State Governments under the provisions of Section 38V
of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, on the advice of the National Tiger Conservation Authority.

11. Answer: C) Tropical Moist Deciduous and Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest
Explanation: The Achanakmar Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh primarily consists of tropical moist deciduous
and tropical dry deciduous forest types.

12. Answer: C) To grant legal authority to Project Tiger and enhance government responsibilities for
managing Tiger Reserves
Explanation: The NTCA is a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and its role includes
granting legal authority to Project Tiger, ensuring compliance with its guidelines, and enhancing the
responsibilities of both central and state governments for managing Tiger Reserves.

13. Answer: b) 6
Explanation: India won six medals at the Paris 2024 Olympics, including one silver and five bronze. India
finished in 71st place in the medals tally at Paris 2024, compared to 48th place in Tokyo 2020.

14. Answer: C) First Indian to reach the semi-finals in men’s badminton

Explanation: Lakshya Sen became the first Indian to reach the semi-finals in men’s badminton at the
Olympics, finishing in fourth place.

15. Answer: C) Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS)

Explanation: Vinesh Phogat’s appeal regarding her disqualification was addressed by the Court of Arbitration
for Sport (CAS), where she was awarded a silver medal following the appeal.

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16. Answer: c) Neeraj Chopra
Explanation: Neeraj Chopra won the silver medal in javelin with a throw of 89.45m at Paris 2024.

17. Answer: c) Manu Bhaker

Explanation: Manu Bhaker became the first Indian woman to win two medals in a single Games, earning
bronze in both the 10m air pistol individual and mixed team events.

18. Answer: c) Retaining the bronze medal

Explanation: The Indian hockey team retained its bronze medal at Paris 2024, showing consistency despite
a coaching change.

19. Answer: B) Canberra

Explanation: The 6th India-Australia Maritime Security Dialogue took place in Canberra.

20. Answer: B) Search and Rescue (SAR)

Explanation: The dialogue focused on joint efforts for Search and Rescue (SAR) in emergency situations at
sea.

21. Answer: B) To address global security and economic issues in the Indian and Pacific Oceans
Explanation: The IPOI aims to collaboratively address common regional challenges, focusing on global
security and economic issues in the Indian and Pacific Oceans.

22. Answer: A) SAGAR

Explanation: IPOI extends from India’s SAGAR initiative (Security and Growth for All in the Region).

23. Answer: C) Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi

Explanation: Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi proposed the IPOI at the 14th East Asian Summit on
November 4, 2019.

24. Answer: C) Maritime Security

Explanation: One of the seven pillars of the IPOI, Maritime Security, focuses on ensuring safety at sea.

25. Answer: C) The current imbalances would be exacerbated

Explanation: India, speaking on behalf of the G4 countries, stated that reforms not addressing the lack
of representation, especially in the permanent category, would exacerbate current imbalances in the
UNSC.

26. Answer: A) Brazil, Germany, Japan, and India

Explanation: The G4 group, advocating for UNSC reforms, includes Brazil, Germany, Japan, and India.

27. Answer: B) Six

Explanation: The G4 proposes adding six new permanent members to the UNSC in their reform model.

74
28. Answer: C) Asia Pacific
Explanation: The G4’s reform plan proposes adding two new permanent members from the Asia Pacific
region.

29. Answer: B) The veto should be available to all permanent members

Explanation: The G4 supports the Common African Position that the veto power, as long as it exists, should
be available to all permanent members, both new and old.

30. Answer: A) UN General Assembly session

Explanation: The annual high-level UN General Assembly session, where world leaders will convene, is
scheduled for next month and will include discussions on the ‘Pact for the Future.’

LEGAL CURRENT AFFAIRS

1. Answer: B)
Explanation: Option (b) is correct because the passage states that electronic evidence must be accompanied
by a certificate that verifies its authenticity, as per Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and
no such certificate accompanied the email evidence. Option (a) is incorrect because the defendant’s
position confirming the likelihood of access does not satisfy the requirement for a certificate under
Section 65B. Option (c) is incorrect because mere printing from a particular computer does not meet
the legal requirement for a certificate verifying the process of production. Option (d) is incorrect
because the authenticity of an electronic record is not established by implication through the position
of the accused, but through the compliance with the certificate requirement stipulated in Section 65B.

2. Answer: B)
Explanation: Option (b) is correct because the passage indicates that expert testimony is encouraged
to explain technical details; however, it also mandates a dual certification process for electronic
evidence to be admissible, which includes Part B from an independent expert. The absence of the
Part B certification renders the logs inadmissible despite the expert’s testimony at trial. Option (a) is
incorrect as even though expert testimony is valuable, it doesn’t fulfill the specific requirement for Part
B certification as per the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam. Option (c) is incorrect because the IT manager’s
certificate alone does not satisfy the dual certification requirement for the admissibility of electronic
records. Option (d) is incorrect because while the IT manager’s testimony can aid in understanding the
logs’ integrity, it does not comply with the new dual certification requirement for electronic evidence
specified by the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, thereby failing to make the logs admissible.

3. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because the passage states that electronic and digital records cannot be
denied admissibility based solely on their electronic nature, as affirmed by Section 61 of the Bhartiya
Sakshya Adhiniyam, and the prosecution has supported the messages’ authenticity with appropriate
evidence. Option (b) is incorrect because the assertion of the messages’ unreliability by the defense does
not hold against the clear stance of the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam regarding the non-discrimination

75
 of electronic records. Option (c) is incorrect because Section 61 does not leave room for interpretation
on the admissibility of electronic messages based on their nature, and supplementary evidence has
been provided by the prosecution. Option (d) is incorrect as the mere possibility of fabrication raised
by the defense is not sufficient to override the specific legal provisions that establish the admissibility
of electronic evidence when supported by authentication measures.

4. Answer: D)
Explanation: Option (d) is correct because while the article printout does have a certificate, as per the
passage, the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam preserves core requirements for admissibility relating to the
accuracy and completeness of the evidence’s history, which in this case is lacking. The absence of a
complete history could result in an inaccurate representation of the evidence. Option (a) is incorrect
because the mere presence of a certificate does not override the need for a comprehensive history that
proves the integrity of the electronic document, which is preserved under Section 63 of the Adhiniyam.
Option (b) is incorrect as it is not definitively inadmissible but the missing document history does cast
significant doubt on the reliability of the evidence. Option (c) is incorrect because while the full history
is important, the admissibility it is not solely dependent upon it; however, in this scenario, the lack of a
timeline does impact the integrity of the evidence presented.

5. Answer: B)
Explanation: Option (b) is correct because the passage tells us that the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam strongly
emphasizes the authentication of electronic records. In this case, Navin’s argument accompanied by the
digital security firm’s report demonstrating the discrepancy in IP addresses undermines the reliability
of the digital signatures and timestamps provided by the prosecution. This puts the authenticity of the
tweets in question, adhering to the Standards of the Adhiniyam. Option (a) is incorrect because, even
though digital signatures and timestamps are valid forms of authentication, they are outweighed by
credible evidence of a security breach, as noted in the passage’s emphasis on reliable authentication.
Option (c) is incorrect because it makes a unilateral suggestion to prioritize the security firm’s report,
whereas the admissibility of electronic records must meet multifaceted authentication requirements
according to the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam. Option (d) is incorrect since while verifying IP addresses
is crucial given the claimed account hacking, the prioritization cannot overshadow the role of digital
signatures and timestamps in authentication, and the overall question of the admissibility must
consider all aspects of authentication as a whole as per the Adhiniyam’s emphasis.

6. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because the new evidence of unauthorized access from foreign IP
addresses strongly supports Navin’s claim that his account was hacked, directly challenging the
prosecution’s assertion that the digital signatures and timestamps conclusively authenticate the posts
as having originated from him. This evidence could significantly undermine the reliability of the posts
as evidence against him, aligning with the Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam’s requirements for robust and
credible authentication of electronic records. Option (b) is incorrect because while the issue of account
security could be raised, the critical legal question in this case is the authenticity of the posts, not the
security practices of Navin, which does not directly influence the admissibility of the supposed evidence.
Option (c) is incorrect as the introduction of evidence showing hacking occurrences directly affects the
integrity of the data attributed to Navin’s account, thus impacting the authenticity of the electronic

76
 records. Option (d) is incorrect because the presence of foreign IP addresses, in this context, supports
the hacking defense rather than suggesting an attempt by Navin to hide his involvement; without
additional evidence, this interpretation is speculative and not supported by the facts introduced.

7. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (d) is correct because the passage indicates that the stay order is based on a potential
violation of Article 14, which prohibits discrimination. The stay is an interim measure to prevent the
continuation of potentially unconstitutional practices until the court makes a final ruling. Option (a)
is incorrect because it assumes the stay order is automatically justified without considering that the
stay is meant to address possible constitutional concerns, not establish guilt. Option (b) is incorrect
because immediate individual needs cannot override a stay imposed to protect constitutional rights
under Article 14. Option (c) is incorrect because the state’s intent cannot override the constitutional
mandate for equality, and the stay order serves to ensure that the legal challenge under Article 14 is
fully addressed before any further application of the scheme.

8. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because the introduction of a revised scheme that includes provisions
for economically disadvantaged male students can strengthen Amit’s case by demonstrating that
the state government acknowledges the discriminatory gaps in the original scheme and is taking
corrective action. This fact supports Amit’s argument that the original exclusion was inappropriate
and that interim solutions should be considered to address immediate needs until the revised
scheme is implemented. Option (b) is incorrect because, while it reflects a recognition of issues
with the original scheme, it does not necessarily weaken Amit’s specific case for needing immediate
financial assistance for education; rather, it supports the argument for interim measures. Option (c)
is incorrect as the introduction of a revised scheme directly impacts the context and considerations
around the stay, suggesting a shift towards rectifying the discrimination issues raised by Amit and
others. Option (d) is incorrect because while it does show the government’s responsiveness, this
does not inherently strengthen the government’s position regarding the stay of the original scheme;
the focus remains on addressing the immediate discriminatory effects experienced by individuals
like Amit.

9. Answer: B)
Explanation: Option (b) is correct because the passage indicates that Article 131 provides the Supreme
Court with exclusive jurisdiction over disputes between states, including those involving questions
about constitutional rights and obligations. Arunodaya’s claim relates to the allocation of rights
under the water agreement and compliance with constitutional environmental norms, which falls
within the scope of Article 131. Option (a) is incorrect because the mere issuance of environmental
clearances by the Union government does not negate the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article
131 to address disputes between states. Option (c) is incorrect because Article 131 specifically
deals with disputes between states about rights and obligations under the Constitution, and the
environmental issues raised may implicate such constitutional rights, thus falling within the Supreme
Court’s purview. Option (d) is incorrect because Although water tribunals may be established to
handle water disputes under the Inter-State Water Disputes Act, the provision of arbitration under
Article 131 includes diverse inter-state disputes, including those involving constitutional rights , the
Supreme Court jurisdiction in the case at hand.

77
10. Answer: C)
Explanation: Option (c) is correct because according to the passage, Section 6 of the Delhi Special
Police Establishment Act allows states to withdraw consent for CBI operations, necessitating either
specific consent for each case or a judiciary order for the CBI to operate within state boundaries. The
scenario presented aligns with this legislative provision, meaning the CBI must respect Karnataka’s
withdrawal of consent until further legal permissions are acquired. Option (a) is incorrect because
the interstate nature of the crime does not, by itself, negate the requirement of state consent or a
judicial order as mandated by the Act; such an exception is not provided in the text. Option (b) is
incorrect as the question of whether the withdrawal of consent should stand needs to be adjudicated
in relation to the legitimacy and reasonableness of the state’s action under Section 6, and not solely
based on an assertion of sovereign power; judicial review of this decision is conceivable. Option (d)
is incorrect because the CBI’s ability to continue investigations in Karnataka, despite the state’s
withdrawal of consent, is subject to the legal framework and not unilaterally determined by national
security concerns.

11. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (b) is correct because, as the passage indicates, Article 262 allows for the
establishment of a tribunal to handle inter-state water disputes, and the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction
is restricted only if such a tribunal exists. Since there is no tribunal for River Tirtha and Sutrantapur
has delayed its formation, the Supreme Court retains jurisdiction to adjudicate the matter. Option
(a) is incorrect because the restriction on the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 262 applies
only when a tribunal is established. In the absence of a tribunal, the Supreme Court can still hear
the dispute. Option (c) is incorrect because the Supreme Court does not have the authority to form
tribunals; this is the role of Parliament. Option (d) is incorrect because Article 262 does not provide
for the Supreme Court to direct the central government to facilitate temporary agreements; the
Court’s role is to adjudicate disputes, not to manage ad-hoc solutions.

12. Answer: C)
Explanation: Option (c) is correct because, according to the passage, Article 14 insists on equality before
the law and equal protection of the laws without discrimination. If there is evidence showing that the
socio-economic indicators of the Marzani community match those of communities that are included,
then excluding them solely on religious grounds would contravene the principles of equality and
secularism enshrined in Article 14. Option (a) is incorrect because, while secularism is an important
facet of Article 14, the concrete legal determination of the lawfulness of exclusion would depend
on a more substantial analysis of the socio-economic data and relative disadvantage among
minority communities, which is not provided in the factual situation. Option (b) is incorrect because
the mere assertion of higher economic standards by the state is not sufficient to justify exclusion
without a comprehensive comparison of socio-economic indicators, particularly in light of Article
14, which prohibits unfounded discrimination. Option (d) is incorrect because prioritizing the most
disadvantaged does not allow for blanket exclusion without proper justification, and doing so based
on religious identity challenges the secularism mandated by Article 14; the state must show clear
evidence that the Marzani community is not among the most disadvantaged to justify the exclusion.

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13. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because the passage states that Section 11-C empowers SEBI “to
conduct inquiries into any securities transactions or alleged violations of the Act,” and “investigations
can commence without the identification of specific individuals.” Therefore, Rajan must comply
regardless of the impacts on his clients and his firm. Option (b) is incorrect because although the
documents may incriminate his clients or firm, the law mandates compliance with SEBI’s requests
during investigations. Option (c) is incorrect because SEBI’s authority does not require the preemptive
identification of specific individuals for the inquiry to proceed. Option (d) is incorrect for the same
reason as option (c); the directive from SEBI is binding regardless of naming specific individuals, and
Rajan’s suspicions about Priyanka do not exempt him from compliance.

14. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because the passage states that there are “severe penalties for
non-compliance” with SEBI’s directives, emphasizing that the obligation to comply rests with the
entity to which the directive is issued, not the individual delegate, and does not consider internal
oversights as an excuse. Option (b) is incorrect because while SEBI mandates compliance, there is
no provision mentioned that allows SEBI to waive penalties for accidental non-compliance during
internal company initiatives. Option (c) is incorrect because the passage indicates that it is the
company, represented by its CEO Amit, that is responsible for complying with the directives, not
the employee who failed to comply. Option (d) is incorrect because there is no indication in the
passage that improving security measures would exempt the company from compliance with SEBI’s
directives and any ensuing penalties for missed deadlines.

15. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because according to the passage, Section 11 empowers SEBI to act
with the purpose of “protecting investor interests and promoting the development and regulation of
the securities market,” requiring Sanjana to comply with the directive aimed at investigating market
practices. Option (b) is incorrect as seeking legal advice does not suspend the obligation to comply
with SEBI’s directive. Option (c) is incorrect because, as noted in the passage, the obligation to
comply with SEBI’s investigation exists notwithstanding concerns about client privacy. Option (d) is
incorrect as the passage mandates compliance during ongoing SEBI investigations, which does not
depend on prior clarity regarding specific clients’ involvement.

16. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because the passage states that SEBI “may seek judicial assistance
to seize documents at risk of destruction or tampering,” which means Aarti needs to inform SEBI
of the potential risks to the relevant documents promptly to prevent any misinterpretation of the
events as obstruction. Option (b) is incorrect because halting the server recovery could risk the loss
of evidence and increase liability; it is not advised unless SEBI instructs so. Option (c) is incorrect
because Aarti has a duty to inform SEBI of any risks to the documents, regardless of the cause of the
data loss, to comply with the investigation. Option (d) is incorrect as the passage implies that any
risk to documents, including technical issues like a server crash, is relevant to SEBI’s investigative
powers and should be reported.

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17. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because the successful retrieval of all data by a third-party IT forensic
team before SEBI’s inspection significantly strengthens Aarti’s case. It demonstrates her proactive
efforts to comply with regulatory requirements and maintain transparency, which is likely to be viewed
favorably by SEBI and reduce any suspicions about data tampering or loss. Option (b) is incorrect
because, typically, third-party IT forensic teams are used precisely for their expertise and ability to
maintain data integrity during recovery, which would counter any implications of data alteration.
Option (c) is incorrect as it does not address the issue of the junior employee’s actions; however,
the successful data recovery ensures that the primary issue of data availability for SEBI is resolved,
which directly impacts the case positively. Option (d) is incorrect because using a recognized third-
party IT forensic team is a standard and trusted practice in data recovery and is unlikely to raise
additional concerns about the integrity or confidentiality of the process, especially when it ensures
compliance with regulatory demands.

18. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because Statement I accurately describes SEBI’s authority to commence
investigations without identifying specific individuals, targeting relevant parties as the investigation
progresses, and Statement II correctly reflects SEBI’s ability to impose penalties, including fines
and imprisonment, for non-compliance with its directives under Section 11-C(6). Statement III is
incorrect because SEBI has the discretion to appoint any qualified person as an investigator, not
just internal officers. Statement IV is incorrect because SEBI’s powers extend beyond requesting
documents to also include examining individuals under oath and seizing necessary records. Option
(b) is incorrect because Statement IV is false. Option (c) is incorrect because both Statements III
and IV are inaccurate. Option (d) is incorrect because Statement III is false.

19. Answer: B)
Explanation: Option (b) is correct because the passage specifies that under Section 63 of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, rape is defined in gendered terms, which exclusively acknowledges men as
perpetrators and women as victims. Ravi, being a transgender man, is not accounted for in this
definition, and thus his case cannot fall under rape as per Section 63. Option (a) is incorrect
because, contrary to the selection, the passage explicitly states that Section 63 does not cover all
non-consensual acts but is gender-specific. Option (c) is incorrect because while it might be true
that the assault on Ravi could be prosecuted under another provision, the option suggests that
there is ambiguity related to rape under Section 63, which the passage confirms is gendered and
wouldn’t cover Ravi’s circumstance. Option (d) is incorrect because it conflates the right of private
defence under Section 36 with the reportability of the crime under rape provisions; while the private
defence might apply to prevent an assault, the legal categorization as rape is distinct and does not
accommodate Ravi’s situation per the passage.

20. Answer: C)
Explanation: Option (c) is correct as the passage indicates that Section 140 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita recognizes the crime of kidnapping with the intent to subject persons to grievous harm,
slavery, or unnatural lust. Vikram, being the mastermind and principal of the entire crime, carries
responsibility for not just the kidnapping but also the intent and threats made during the kidnapping,

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 regardless of who executed those threats. Option (a) is incorrect because it ignores the concept
of conspiratorial liability that applies to Vikram as the orchestrator of the crime; he cannot escape
liability for the parts of the crime that were naturally foreseeable outcomes of the kidnapping. Option
(b) is incorrect as it neglects the intrinsic and inescapable connection between the act of abduction
and the associated intents and threats which form part of Vikram’s actionable crime plan. Option (d)
is incorrect because liability under criminal law doesn’t necessitate that every threat be actualized;
the mere intent and actions aligning with that intent, as orchestrated by Vikram, are sufficient to
establish criminality under Section 140 as elucidated in the passage.

21. Answer: B)
Explanation: Option (b) is correct as the passage clearly states that the Supreme Court’s judgment
in 2018 decriminalized consensual homosexual acts, making Bhavesh’s actions of restraining
Aadarsh and Yash legally indefensible and thus rendering him liable for wrongful restraint. Option
(a) is incorrect because ignorance of the law is not a defense, and the Supreme Court’s judgment
supersedes the old IPC regime. Option (c) is incorrect because the police are bound by the current
legal framework, which decriminalizes consensual homosexual acts, thus no arrest should be made
on such grounds. Option (d) is correct as it aligns with the legal framework post the Supreme Court
judgment; however, it is expressed as an affirmative defense, which not only supports Aadarsh and
Yash against wrongful detainment but also asserts the lack of legal standing in Bhavesh’s actions
based on misconceived legal application.

22. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because Section 36 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita constitutes the
right of private defense against offences affecting the human body. Kiran, sensing an imminent
threat, exercised her right to defend herself preemptively, which is in line with the legal protection
for private defense. The passage supports the notion that actions may be taken in anticipation of
offenses against the body. Option (b) is incorrect because private defense does not require one to
wait until an attack has already started; it enables one to act against perceived imminent threats.
Option (c) is incorrect because Anil having a concealed weapon further justifies Kiran’s preemptive
defense action, rather than nullifying it. Option (d) is incorrect as it disregards the legal provision
allowing one to act upon a perceived threat, which in this case is validated by Anil’s aggressive
approach and the concealed knife, which substantiates Kiran’s perception of danger.

23. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because regardless of the repealed Section 377, the act committed by
Rohan was non-consensual, and the BNS’s commitment to replacing IPC doesn’t afford protection to
non-consensual acts done under the guise of artistic expression. The principle that non-consensual
acts are criminally actionable remains intact and irrespective of any claims of misunderstanding
or artistic freedom, the lack of consent from Meera makes the act criminally actionable. Option (b)
is incorrect because artistic expression under the BNS does not override the fundamental legal
principle of consent, and consent cannot be presumed simply due to professional circumstances.
Option (c) is incorrect; while the intersection of art and criminal law might be complex, it would not
provide Rohan with a reasonable defense against a clear instance of non-consensual sexual act

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 within an artistic setting. Option (d) is incorrect because the context of performing arts does not
eliminate the necessity for consent in any interaction, and the BNS does not create an exception to
this in its provisions, hence Meera’s claim has legal standing.

24. Answer: D)
Explanation: Option (d) is incorrect because the passage clarifies that Section 140 of the Bharatiya Nyaya
Sanhita criminalizes kidnapping or abduction with the intent to subject individuals to “unnatural
lust,” meaning such crimes are still recognized under the new law. Option (a) is correct because
Section 377 of the IPC previously offered broader protections against non-consensual sexual acts.
Option (b) is correct because Section 63 defines rape in explicitly gendered terms, recognizing only
men as perpetrators and women as victims. Option (c) is correct because Section 140 does indeed
criminalize kidnapping or abduction with intent to commit acts of “unnatural lust.”

25. Answer: C)
Explanation: Option (c) is correct because the passage states that the President’s executive authority
extends over all executive actions of the Government of India and encompasses interventions on
matters of national interest, When the Chief Minister’s actions potentially affect national boundaries
and the sovereignty of India, they fall beyond the state’s jurisdiction, making the President’s
intervention legitimate Option (a) is incorrect because while the President’s order may relatesto
national boundaries, , the matter of annexation involves sovereignty and requires Union Government
oversight, not merely boundary considerations. Option (b) is incorrect because the Chief Minister
cannot unilaterally annex territory as this matter falls outside the scope of state autonomy and into
the Union Government’s domain, which is under the President’s executive authority. Option (d) is
incorrect because the issue does not solely pertain to state jurisdiction when national boundaries
and interests are at stake, hence the President has the power to intervene with an executive order.

26. Answer: D)
Explanation: Option (d) is correct because the passage states that the President can declare a state
emergency, which is applicable in severe crises including natural disasters, and therefore, enables
federal intervention for a swift response, protecting the nation’s interest and public safety. Option
(a) is incorrect as it ignores the President’s constitutional emergency powers and the urgency of
the situation. Option (b) is incorrect because it does not acknowledge the potential incompetence
of the state machinery in such extenuating circumstances and misstates the grounds for the state
emergency. Option (c) is incorrect because the President does have grounds for declaring a state
emergency when the state government shows incapacity to manage the crisis effectively.

27. Answer: B)
Explanation: Option (b) is correct because the passage states that the President has the authority
to facilitate the transaction of business of the Union government, which includes allocating said
business among ministers, hence an executive order to address ministerial jurisdiction falls within
this authority. Option (a) is incorrect because the President possesses the power to streamline Union
government operations and is not required to wait for Parliamentary procedures if urgent action

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 is needed. Option (c) is incorrect because although the Prime Minister usually leads the initiative
in allocating ministerial roles, the President still holds supervening authority to intervene as per
the constitutional mandates. Option (d) is incorrect because while the President’s executive order
did indeed sidestep a proposed bill, it is a constitutionally granted prerogative to ensure proper
governance and not dependent on legislative procedure in this context.

28. Answer: B)
Explanation: Option (b) is correct because the passage indicates that the President appoints judges of the
Supreme Court and High Courts, but the conventional practice requires adherence to the collegium’s
recommendations, especially in the absence of formal evidence undermining the candidate’s
integrity. Option (a) is incorrect because mere rumors without concrete evidence do not constitute
a valid ground for withholding the appointment of a jurist recommended by the collegium. Option
(c) is incorrect because while the President generally follows the collegium’s recommendations,
the President does retain discretionary authority to withhold appointments if there are legitimate
concerns. Option (d) is incorrect because potential political affiliations, without proof of actual bias
or impropriety, are not sufficient grounds to challenge the integrity of a jurist, and the President
should not withhold an appointment based on unsubstantiated rumors.

29. Answer: B)
Explanation: Option (b) is correct because the passage indicates that the President has the role of
addressing Parliament to initiate the session at the start of each year and after general elections,
suggesting that this ritual is an essential part of commencing Parliament’s proceedings thus making
the sessions without it constitutionally infirm. Option (a) is incorrect because while legislative
business may occur, the absence of the President’s address impacts the formal commencement
of the session, possibly affecting the constitutionality of the proceedings. Option (c) is incorrect as
it misinterprets the President’s address as a mere formality when it is a constitutionally mandated
procedure. Option (d) is incorrect because it assumes that without the President’s address, the first
session is not properly constituted, while the factual situation presents an argument questioning
the necessity of the address, the passage states that the President’s initial address is a part of the
constitutional procedures for initiating a session.

30. Answer: A)
Explanation: Option (a) is correct because, as per the passage, the President holds the power to execute
a pocket veto, which involves not taking any action on a bill passed by Parliament, thus effectively
withholding it from becoming law. The President’s passive withholding of assent in the given situation
aligns with this constitutional right, making it a valid exercise of veto power. Option (b) is incorrect
because the passage clearly states that the President has a pocket veto power, which does not
require explicit rejection of a bill. Option (c) is incorrect as it confuses non-action with assent; under
the pocket veto, the absence of a decision is not equivalent to tacit approval but is a recognized
form of veto. Option (d) is incorrect because the President’s duty includes the discretionary use of
veto power, including the choice to not act on a bill (pocket veto), which does not require explicit
execution, and this is within her constitutional rights.

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