VITEEE 2023 Question Paper with Solutions

Time Allowed :2 hours 30 minutes Maximum Marks :125 Total questions :125

General Instructions
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :

1. This question paper contains 125 questions. All questions are compulsory.

2. There are 5 sections in the question paper- Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry,

Aptitude, English.

3. There are 35 questions each in Chemistry and Physics, 40 questions in

Mathematics, 10 question of Aptitude, and 5 questions of English.

4. 1 mark will be given for each correct answer. There is no negative marking. No
marks will be deducted for any wrong response selected by candidates.

1
 1 Physics

1. Light of wavelength λA and λB falls on two identical metal plates A and B

respectively. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is KA and KB respectively.
Given that λA = 2λB , which one of the following relations is true?
KB
(A) KA < 2

(B) 2KA = KB
(C) KA = 2KB
(D) KA > 2KB

2. Which one of the following curves represents the variation of impedance (Z) with
frequency f in a series LCR circuit?

(A)

(B)

2
(C)

(D)

3. A Carnot engine takes 3 × 106 cal of heat from a reservoir at 627◦ C , and gives it to a
sink at 27◦ C . The work done by the engine is:
(A) 4.2 × 106 J
(B) 8.4 × 106 J
(C) 16.8 × 106 J
(D) 0

4. An element of 0.05 m is placed at the origin, carrying a large current of 10A. The
magnetic field at a perpendicular distance of 1 m is:

3
(A) 4.5 × 10−8 T
(B) 5.5 × 10−8 T
(C) 5.0 × 10−8 T
(D) 7.5 × 10−8 T

5. A sinusoidal voltage of amplitude 25 V and frequency 50 Hz is applied to a half-wave

rectifier using a P-N junction diode. No filter is used, and the load resistor is 1000Ω. The
forward resistance Rf of the ideal diode is 10Ω. The percentage rectifier efficiency is:
(A) 40%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 15%

6. A flask contains a monoatomic and a diatomic gas in the ratio of 4 : 1 by mass at a

temperature of 300K . The ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule of the two gases
is:
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 1 : 4

7. The potential energy of a particle U (x) executing simple harmonic motion is given by:

4
(A) U (x) = k2 (x − a)2
(B) U (x) = k1 x + k2 x2 + k3 x3
(C) U (x) = Ae−bx
(D) U (x) = a constant

8. Consider an electric field E = E0 x̂, where E0 is a constant. The flux through the
shaded area (as shown in the figure) due to this field is:

(A) 2E0 a2
√
(B) 2E0 a2
(C) E0 a2
2
E√
0a
(D) 2

9. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density 0.04 kg/m is given by:

 t x

y = 0.02 sin 2π −
0.04 0.50
The tension in the string is:
(A) 4.0N
(B) 12.5N
(C) 0.5N
(D) 6.25N

10. Equipotential surfaces are shown in the figure. The electric field strength will be:

5
(A) 100 V/m along X-axis
(B) 100 V/m along Y-axis
(C) 200 V/m at an angle 120◦ with X-axis
(D) 50 V/m at an angle 120◦ with X-axis

11. Water falls from a 40 m high dam at the rate of 9 × 104 kg per hour. Fifty percent of
gravitational potential energy can be converted into electrical energy. The number of
100W lamps that can be lit is:
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 18

12. An electron (mass = 9 × 10−31 kg, charge = 1.6 × 10−19 C) moving with a velocity of
106 m/s enters a magnetic field. If it describes a circle of radius 0.1 m, then the strength
of the magnetic field must be:
(A) 4.5 × 10−5 T
(B) 1.4 × 10−5 T
(C) 5.5 × 10−5 T
(D) 2.6 × 10−5 T

13. If V1 is the velocity of a body projected from point A and V2 is the velocity of a body
projected from point B, which is vertically below the highest point C, and if both the
bodies collide, then:

6
(A) V1 = 21 V2
(B) V2 = 12 V1
(C) V1 = V2
(D) V1 = 3V2

14. A square frame of side 10 cm and a long straight wire carrying current 1A are in the
plane of the paper. Starting from close to the wire, the frame moves towards the right
with a constant speed of 10 m/s (see figure). The induced EMF at the time the left arm
of the frame is at x = 10 cm from the wire is:

(A) 2µV
(B) 1µV
(C) 0.75µV
(D) 0.5µV

7
15. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current through the inductor is 0.9A while
the current through the condenser is 0.4A. Then:

(A) Current drawn from source I = 1.13A

1
(B) ω = 1.5LC

(C) I = 0.5A
(D) I = 0.6A

16. The ozone layer in the atmosphere absorbs:

(A) Only the radio waves
(B) Only the visible light
(C) Only the γ -rays
(D) X-rays and ultraviolet rays

17. The P-V diagram of a diatomic ideal gas system undergoing a cyclic process is
shown in the figure. The work done during the adiabatic process CD is (Use γ = 1.4):

(A) −500J
(B) 200J
(C) −400J

8
(D) 400J

18. In YDSE, how many maximas can be obtained on a screen, including central
maxima, on both sides of the central fringe if λ = 3000 Å, d = 5000 Å?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 1

19. A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies 1.8 × 1014 Hz and 2.2 × 1014 Hz.
Two identical photons of energy 0.825 eV each are incident on them. Then
photoelectrons are emitted in (Take h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js):
(A) B alone
(B) A alone
(C) Neither A nor B
(D) Both A and B

20. A sinusoidal voltage of amplitude 25 V and frequency 50 Hz is applied to a

half-wave rectifier using a P-N junction diode. No filter is used, and the load resistor is
1000Ω. The forward resistance Rf of the ideal diode is 10Ω. The percentage rectifier
efficiency is:
(A) 40%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 15%

21. The force between two short bar magnets with magnetic moments M1 and M2
whose centers are r meters apart is 8 N when their axes are in the same line. If the
separation is increased to 2r, the force between them is reduced to:
(A) 4N
(B) 2N

9
(C) 1N
(D) 0.5N

22. In a Rutherford scattering experiment, when a projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1

approaches a target nucleus of charge Z2 and mass M2 , the distance of closest approach
is r0 . The energy of the projectile is:
(A) Directly proportional to Z1 Z2
(B) Inversely proportional to Z1
(C) Directly proportional to mass M1
(D) Directly proportional to M1 × M2

23. What will be the maximum speed of a car on a road turn of radius 30m if the
coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4? (Take g = 9.8 m/s2 )
(A) 10.84 m/s
(B) 9.84 m/s
(C) 8.84 m/s
(D) 6.84 m/s

24. A person aiming to reach the exactly opposite point on the bank of a stream is
swimming with speed of 0.5 m/s at an angle of 120◦ with the direction of flow of water.
The speed of water in the stream is:
(A) 1 m/s
(B) 0.5 m/s
(C) 0.25 m/s
(D) 0.433 m/s

25. A car moves at a speed of 20 m/s on a banked track and describes an arc of a circle
√
of radius 40 3 m. The angle of banking is: (Take g = 10 m/s2 )
(A) 25◦
(B) 60◦
(C) 45◦
(D) 30◦

10
26. A force F = αî + 3ĵ + 6k̂ is acting at a point r = 2î − 6ĵ − 12k̂ . The value of α for
which angular momentum about the origin is conserved is:
(A) 2
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) −1

27. A convex lens has power P . It is cut into two halves along its principal axis. Further,
one piece (out of the two halves) is cut into two halves perpendicular to the principal
axis (as shown in figure). Choose the incorrect option for the reported pieces.

P
(A) Power of L1 = 2
P
(B) Power of L2 = 2
P
(C) Power of L3 = 2

(D) Power of L1 = P

28. A ball of radius r and density ρ falls freely under gravity through a distance h
before entering water. The velocity of the ball does not change even on entering water.
If the viscosity of water is η , the value of h is given by:

11
 2
2 r (1−ρ)
(A) 9 ηg
2
2 (ρ−1)
r
(B) 81 ηg
4
2 r (ρ−1)
(C) 81 η 2 g
4
2 r (ρ−1)
(D) 9 η2 g

29. The pressure inside a tyre is 4 times that of the atmosphere. If the tyre bursts
suddenly at temperature 300K , what will be the new temperature?
(A) 300(4)7/2
(B) 300(4)2/7
(C) 300(2)7/2
(D) 300(4)−27

30. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and
then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K , which can just fill
the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.
(B) The change in energy stored is 12 CV 2 (1 − K1 ).
(C) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
(D) The potential difference between the plates decreases K times.

31. A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism P .

12
Additional prisms Q and R of identical shape and of the same material as P are now
added as shown in the figure. The ray will now suffer:

(A) Greater deviation

(B) No deviation
(C) Same deviation as before
(D) Total internal reflection

32. If m is magnetic moment and B is the magnetic field, then the torque is given by:
(A) m
⃗B⃗
m
⃗
(B) ⃗
B
⃗
⃗ ×B
(C) m
(D) |m||
⃗ B|⃗

33. An α-particle of 10 MeV collides head-on with a copper nucleus (Z = 29) and is
deflected back. The minimum distance of approach between the centers of the two is:
(A) 8.4 × 10−15 cm
(B) 8.4 × 10−15 m
(C) 4.2 × 10−15 m
(D) 4.2 × 10−15 cm

34. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive than Earth and its
radius is 10 times smaller. Given that the escape velocity from Earth’s surface is 11
km/s, the escape velocity from the planet’s surface would be:
(A) 1.1 km/s
(B) 11 km/s
(C) 110 km/s
(D) 0.11 km/s

13
35. In the given figure, two equal positive point charges q1 = q2 = 2.0µC interact with a
third point charge Q = 4.0µC . The magnitude and direction of the net force on Q is:

(A) 0.23N in the +x-direction

(B) 0.46N in the +x-direction
(C) 0.23N in the −x-direction
(D) 0.46N in the −x-direction

2 Chemistry

36. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in a 4f
orbital?
(A) n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = + 12
(B) n = 4, l = 4, m = −4, s = − 21
(C) n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = + 12
(D) n = 3, l = 2, m = −2, s = + 12

37. Arrange the following in increasing order of ionic radii: C 4− , N 3− , F − , O2− .

(A) C 4− < N 3− < O2− < F −
(B) N 3− < C 4− < O2− < F −
(C) F − < O2− < N 3− < C 4−
(D) O2− < F − < N 3− < C 4−

38. The bond dissociation energies of X2 , Y2 , and XY are in the ratio of 1:0.5:1. If ∆H
for the formation of XY is -200 kJ mol−1 , what is the bond dissociation energy of X2 ?
(A) 200 kJ mol−1

14
(B) 100 kJ mol−1
(C) 400 kJ mol−1
(D) 800 kJ mol−1

39. Values of dissociation constant Ka are given as follows:

Acid Ka
HCN 6.2 × 10−10
HF 7.2 × 10−4
HNO2 4.0 × 10−4

Correct order of increasing base strength of the conjugate bases CN− , F− and NO−
2 is:

(A) F− < CN− < NO−

2

(B) NO− −
2 < CN < F
−

(C) F− < NO−

2 < CN
−

(D) NO− −
2 < F < CN
−

40. The product(s) formed when diborane (B2 H6 ) is hydrolyzed is/are:

(A) B2 O3 and H3 BO3
(B) B2 O3 only
(C) H3 BO3 and H2
(D) H3 BO3 only

41. The compounds CH3 CH = CHCH3 and CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 :

(A) are tautomers
(B) are position isomers
(C) contain the same number of sp3 -sp3 , sp3 -sp2 , and sp2 -sp2 carbon-carbon bonds
(D) are chain isomers

42. Choose the correct option for the following reactions.

15
(A) A and B are both Markovnikov addition products.
(B) A is Markovnikov product and B is anti-Markovnikov product.
(C) A and B are both anti-Markovnikov products.
(D) B is Markovnikov and A is anti-Markovnikov product.

43. Which of the following exhibits Frenkel defects?

(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Silver bromide
(C) Graphite
(D) Diamond

44. An element X has a body-centred cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 200 pm.
The density of the element is 5 g cm−3 . The number of atoms present in 300g of the
element X is:
Given: Avogadro Constant, NA = 6.0 × 1023 mol−1 .
(A) 5NA
(B) 6NA
(C) 15NA
(D) 25NA

45. On passing current through two cells, connected in series, containing solutions of
AgNO3 and CuSO4 , 0.18 g of Ag is deposited. The amount of Cu deposited is:
(A) 0.529 g
(B) 10.623 g
(C) 0.0529 g
(D) 1.2708 g

46. The limiting molar conductivities of HCl, CH3 COON a, and N aCl are respectively
425, 90, and 125 mho cm2 mol−1 at 25°C. The molar conductivity of 0.1M CH3 COOH
solution is 7.8 mho cm2 mol−1 at the same temperature. The degree of dissociation of
0.1M acetic acid solution at the same temperature is:

16
(A) 0.10
(B) 0.02
(C) 0.15
(D) 0.03

47. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by:

Rate = k[A]m [B]n

On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the
new rate to the earlier rate of the reaction will be:
(A) (m + n)
(B) (n − m)
(C) 2(n−m)
1
(D) 2(m+n)

48. In a reaction, the threshold energy is equal to:

(A) Activation energy + normal energy of reactants
(B) Activation energy - normal energy of reactants
(C) Normal energy of reactants - activation energy
(D) Average kinetic energy of molecules of reactants

49. Which property of white phosphorus is common to red phosphorus?

(A) It burns when heated in air.
(B) It reacts with hot caustic soda solution to give phosphine.
(C) It shows chemiluminescence.
(D) It is soluble in carbon disulphide.

50. XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral having:

(A) Two pπ − dπ bonds
(B) One pπ − dπ bond
(C) Four pπ − dπ bonds
(D) Three pπ − dπ bonds

17
51. Cuprous ion is colourless while cupric ion is coloured because:
(A) Both have half-filled p- and d-orbitals.
(B) Cuprous ion has an incomplete d-orbital and cupric ion has a complete d-orbital.
(C) Both have unpaired electrons in the d-orbitals.
(D) Cuprous ion has a complete d-orbital and cupric ion has an incomplete d-orbital.

52. The reason for the greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to:
(A) Actinoid contraction
(B) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
(C) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies
(D) The radioactive nature of actinoids

53. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [N i(CO)4 ] are:
(A) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
(B) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(C) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
(D) Square planar geometry and paramagnetic

54. Indicate the complex ion which shows geometrical isomerism.

(A) [Cr(H2 O)4 Cl2 ]+
(B) [P t(N H3 )3 Cl]−
2

(C) [Co(N H3 )6 ]3+

(D) [Co(CN )(N C)]3−

55. Reaction of C6 H5 CH2 Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows:

(A) SN1 mechanism
(B) SN2 mechanism
(C) Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction
(D) Saytzeff rule

18
56. What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction?

R − OH + HCl → R − Cl + H2 O

(A) 1◦ > 2◦ > 3◦

(B) 3◦ > 2◦ > 1◦
(C) 1◦ < 2◦ < 3◦
(D) 3◦ > 1◦ > 2◦

57. Which of the following cannot be made by using Williamson’s synthesis?

(A) Methoxybenzene
(B) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether
(C) Methyl tertiary butyl ether
(D) Di-tert-butyl ether

58. Which of the following reactions will yield benzaldehyde as a product?

Choose the correct answer from the following options:

A. (B) and (C)
B. (C) and (D)
C. (A) and (D)

19
D. (A) and (C)

59. In Clemmensen reduction, carbonyl compounds are treated with:

(A) Zinc amalgam + HCl
(B) Sodium amalgam + HCl
(C) Zinc amalgam + Nitric acid
(D) Sodium amalgam + HNO3

60. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is:

(A) II < III < I

(B) III < I < II
(C) III < II < I
(D) II < I < III

61. The major product of the following reaction is:

(A)

20
(B)

(C) (D)

62. Blister copper is:

(A) Impure Cu
(B) Cu alloy
(C) Pure Cu
(D) Cu having 1% impurity

63. PA and PB are the vapor pressures of pure liquid components A and B, respectively,
in an ideal binary solution. If XA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total
pressure of the solution will be:
(A) PA + XA (PB − PA )
(B) PB + XA (PB − PA )

21
(C) PA + XA (PA − PB )
(D) PB + XA (PA − PB )

64. Which of the following complexes shows sp3 d2 hybridization?

(A) [Cr(N O2 )6 ]3−
(B) [F e(CN )6 ]4−
(C) [CoF6 ]3−
(D) [N i(CO)4 ]

65. 2-Pentene contains:

(A) 15 σ - and one π -bond
(B) 14 σ - and one π -bond
(C) 15 σ - and two π -bonds
(D) 14 σ - and two π -bonds

66. For the below-given cyclic hemiacetal (X), the correct pyranose structure is:

22
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

67. Sucrose, which is dextrorotatory in nature, after hydrolysis gives glucose and
fructose, among which:
(i) Glucose is laevorotatory and fructose is dextrorotatory.
(ii) Glucose is dextrorotatory and fructose is laevorotatory.
(iii) The mixture is laevorotatory.
(iv) Both are dextrorotatory.
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) only

68. The Allyl cyanide molecule contains:

(A) 9 sigma bonds, 4 pi bonds, and no lone pair
(B) 9 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds, and one lone pair
(C) 8 sigma bonds, 5 pi bonds, and one lone pair
(D) 8 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds, and two lone pairs

23
69. Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?
(A) T eI2 , XeF2
(B) IBr2− , XeF2
(C) IF5 , XeF5
(D) BeCl2 , XeF2

70. In which case does the change in entropy (∆S ) become negative?
(A) Evaporation of water
(B) Expansion of a gas at constant temperature
(C) Sublimation of solid to gas
(D) 2H(g) → H2 (g)

3 Mathematics

71. The argument of the complex number

i 2

−
2 i

is equal to:
π
(A) 4
3π
(B) 4
π
(C) 12
π
(D) 2

72. The lines

p(p2 + 1)x − y + q = 0 and (p2 + 1)2 x + (p2 + 1)y + 2q = 0

are perpendicular to a common line for:

(A) Exactly one value of p
(B) Exactly two values of p
(C) More than two values of p

24
(D) No value of p

73. The probability that a card drawn from a pack of 52 cards will be a diamond or a
king is:
1
(A) 52
2
(B) 13
4
(C) 13
1
(D) 13

74. If n(A) = 4 and n(B) = 7, then the difference between the maximum and minimum
value of n(A ∪ B) is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

75. The domain of the function

1
f (x) = √
9 − x2
is:
(A) −3 ≤ x ≤ 3
(B) −3 < x < 3
(C) −9 ≤ x ≤ 9
(D) −9 < x < 9

76. If
1
sin x + cos x =
5
then tan 2x is:

25
(A) 17
7
(B) 25
q
25
(C) 7
24
(D) 7

25
77. For the binary operation defined on R − {1} such that:
a
ab =
b+1
which of the following is true?
(A) Not associative
(B) Commutative
(C) Not commutative
(D) Both (A) and (B)

78. Evaluate:
1 1
cos−1 + sin−1 (1) + tan−1 √
2 3
(A) π
π
(B) 3
4π
(C) 3
3π
(D) 4

79. If    
1 −1 x 1
A= , B= 
2 −1 y −1
and
(A + B)2 = A2 + B 2

then x + y is:
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

80. The determinant of the matrix:

 
−a2 ab ac
 
−b2
 
 ab bc 
 
ac bc −c2

26
is:
(A) 0
(B) abc
(C) 4a2 b2 c2
(D) None of these

81. If  
α β
A= 
γ α
thenAdj(A) isequal to:
δ −γ
(A)  
−β α
 
δ −β
(B)  
−γ α
 
−δ β
(C)  
γ −α
 
−δ −β
(D)  
γ α

82. If
sec(x − y)
=a
sec(x + y)
dy
then dx is:
(A) − xy
x
(B) y

(C) − xy
y
(D) x

83. The number of nonzero terms in the expansion of

√ √
(1 + 3 2x)9 + (1 − 3 2x)9

is:

27
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

84. If
an + b n
an−1 + bn−1
is the arithmetic mean (A.M.) between a and b, then the value of n is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

85. The sum of the series

1 1 1
√ +√ √ +√ √ + ...
1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4
up to 15 terms is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

86. The equation of the circle with centre (0,2) and radius 2 is

x2 + y 2 − my = 0.

The value of m is:

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3

28
87. The integral Z
xn (1 + log x) dx

is equal to:

(A) xn + C
(B) x2x + C
(C) xn log x + C
(D) 12 (1 + log x)2 + C

88. Evaluate the definite integral:

π
√ √
Z 2
I= ( tan x + cot x)dx
0

(A) √π
2
√
(B) π 2
π
(C) 2
√
(D) 2π

89. The area of the region bounded by the ellipse

x2 y 2
+ =1
16 9
is:
(A) 12π
(B) 3π
(C) 24π
(D) π

90. If the vertex of a parabola is (2, −1) and the equation of its directrix is

4x − 3y = 21,

then the length of its latus rectum is:

(A) 2
(B) 8

29
(C) 12
(D) 16

91. Eccentricity of ellipse

x2 y 2
+ 2 =1
a2 b
if it passes through point (9, 5) and (12, 4) is:
q
(A) 34
q
(B) 45
q
(C) 56
q
(D) 67

92. In △ABC the mid-point of the sides AB, BC and CA are respectively (1, 0, 0), (0, m, 0) and (0, 0, n).

(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 9
(D) 25

93. If
x + |x|
f (x) =
x
then the value of
lim f (x)
x→0

is:
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) Does not exist
(D) None of these

94. Negation of the Boolean expression

p ⇔ (q ⇒ p)

30
is:
(A) ∼ p ∧ q
(B) p∧ ∼ q
(C) ∼ p∨ ∼ q
(D) ∼ p∧ ∼ q

95. If
R = {(x, y) : x is exactly 7cm taller than y}

then R is:
(A) Not symmetric
(B) Reflexive
(C) Symmetric but not transitive
(D) An equivalence relation

96. The particular solution of

dy
log = 3x + 4y, y(0) = 0
dx
is:
(A) e3x + 3e−4y = 4
(B) 4e3x − 3e−4y = 3
(C) 3e3x + 4e4y = 7
(D) 4e3x + 3e−4y = 7

97. The general solution of the differential equation given by:

tan−1 x + tan−1 y = c

dy 1+y 2
(A) dx = 1+x2
dy 1+x2
(B) dx = 1+y 2

(C) (1 + x2 )dy + (1 + y 2 )dx = 0

(D) (1 + x2 )dx + (1 + y 2 )dy = 0

98. If |a| = 3, |b| = 4, then the value of λ for which a + λb is perpendicular to a − λb is:

31
 9
(A) 16
3
(B) 4
3
(C) 2
4
(D) 3

99. The area of the parallelogram whose diagonals are

3 1
d1 = î + ĵ − k̂, d2 = 2î − 6ĵ + 8k̂
2 2
is:
√
(A) 5 3
√
(B) 5 2
√
(C) 25 3
√
(D) 25 2

100. Bag P contains 6 red and 4 blue balls, and Bag Q contains 5 red and 6 blue balls. A
ball is transferred from Bag P to Bag Q, and then a ball is drawn from Bag Q. What is the
probability that the ball drawn is blue?
7
(A) 15
8
(B) 15
4
(C) 19
8
(D) 19

101. The mean and variance of a random variable X having binomial distribution are 4
and 2, respectively. Find P (X = 1).
1
(A) 4
1
(B) 32
1
(C) 16
1
(D) 8

102. Evaluate:
4 2
tan(cos−1 ) + tan−1
5 3
6
(A) 17

32
 7
(B) 16
16
(C) 7

(D) None of these

103. If the function 



1, x≤2


f (x) = ax + b, 2 < x < 4




7, x≥4

is continuous at x = 2 and x = 4, then the values of a and b are:

(A) a = 3, b = −5
(B) a = −5, b = 3
(C) a = −3, b = 5
(D) a = 5, b = −3

104. The derivative of

 2x 
−1
sin
1 + x2
with respect to
1 − x2
 
−1
cos
1 + x2
is equal to:
(A) 1
(B) −1
(C) 2
(D) None of these

105. The number of distinct real roots of the equation:

x7 − 7x − 2 = 0

is:
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 1

33
(D) 3

106. The minimum value of the function

y = x4 − 2x2 + 1
1 
in the interval 2, 2 is:
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 8
(D) 9

107. Evaluate the integral:

sin2 x − cos2 x
Z
I= dx
sin2 x cos2 x
(A) tan x + cot x + C
(B) csc x + sec x + C
(C) tan x + sec x + C
(D) tan x + csc x + C

108. Consider a curve y = y(x) in the first quadrant as shown in the figure. Let the area
A1 be twice the area A2 . The normal to the curve perpendicular to the line

2x − 12y = 15

does NOT pass through which point?

34
(A) (6, 21)
(B) (8, 9)
(C) (10, −4)
(D) (12, −15)

109. The shortest distance between the lines x = y + 2 = 6z − 6 and x + 1 = 2y = −12z is:
1
(A) 2

(B) 2
(C) 1
3
(D) 2

110. The angle between the two lines:

x+1 y+3 z−4
= =
2 2 −1
x−4 y+4 z+1
= =
1 2 2
is:
(A) cos−1 91
(B) cos−1 94
(C) cos−1 29
(D) cos−1 39

4 Aptitude

111. What is the approximate percentage increase in the production of Monopoly from
1993 to 1995?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 25

35
112. For which toy category has there been a continuous increase in production over
the years?
(A) Ludo
(B) Chess
(C) Monopoly
(D) Carrom

113. What is the percentage drop in the production of Ludo from 1992 to 1994?
(A) 30
(B) 50
(C) 20
(D) 10

114. Find the missing number in the sequence:

285, 253, 221, 189, ?

(A) 150
(B) 182
(C) 157
(D) 156

115. In a certain code language, PRESENTATION is written as ENESTAITPRON.

How would INTELLIGENCE be written in that code?
(A) TETGLLTNENCE
(B) LUENLINTETG
(C) LLKKTGTEEBTB
(D) LLTEIGENINCE

116. Ram moves from a point X to 20 metres towards North. Then he moves 40 metres
towards West. Then he moves 20 metres North. Then he moves 40 metres towards East
and then 10 metres towards right and he reaches a point Y . Find the distance and
direction of Y from X ?

36
(A) 30 metres, North
(B) 40 metres, North
(C) 30 metres, South
(D) 40 metres, South

117. If the 5th date of a month is Tuesday, what date will be 3 days after the 3rd Friday
in the month?
(A) 17
(B) 22
(C) 19
(D) 18

118. Statements:
I. Some cats are dogs.
II. No dog is a toy.
Conclusions:
I. Some dogs are cats.
II. Some toys are cats.
III. Some cats are not toys.
IV. All toys are cats.
(A) Only Conclusions I and either II or III.
(B) Only Conclusions II and III follow.
(C) Only Conclusions I and II follow.
(D) Only Conclusion I follows.

119. How is H related to B ?

Statements:
I. H is married to P . P is the mother of T . T is married to D. D is the father of B .
II. B is the daughter of T . T is the sister of N . H is the father of N .
(A) Statement I alone is sufficient.
(B) Statement II alone is sufficient.

37
(C) Either statement I or II is sufficient.
(D) Both statements together are necessary.

120. Among five persons D, E, F, G, H , each having different heights, who is the second
tallest?
Statements:
I. D is taller than only G and E . F is not the tallest.
II. H is taller than F . G is taller than E but shorter than D.
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient.
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient.
(C) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient.
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

5 English

121. If someone else’s opinion makes us angry, it means that

(A) we are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for becoming angry
(B) there may be good reasons for his opinion but we are not consciously aware of them
(C) our own opinion is not based on good reason and we know this subconsciously
(D) we are not consciously aware of any reason for our own opinion

122. ”Your own contrary conviction” refers to

(A) the fact that you feel pity rather than anger
(B) the opinion that two and two are four and that Iceland is a long way from the Equator
(C) the opinion that two and two are five and that Iceland is on the Equator
(D) the fact that you know so little about arithmetic or geography

38
123. Conviction means
(A) persuasion
(B) disbelief
(C) strong belief
(D) ignorance

124. The writer says if someone maintains that two and two are five, you feel pity
because you
(A) have sympathy
(B) don’t agree with him
(C) want to help the person
(D) feel sorry for his ignorance

125. The second sentence in the passage

(A) builds up the argument of the first sentence by restating it from the opposite point of view
(B) makes the main point which has only been introduced by the first sentence
(C) simply adds a further point to the argument already stated in the first sentence
(D) illustrates the point made in the first sentence

39