Below is a comprehensive set of 350 unique multiple‑choice questions (MCQs) with answers

covering the topic of DYNAMICS from every angle. The questions are organized into 12
sections that address basic concepts of motion; distance, displacement, speed, velocity, and
acceleration; graphical and mathematical representations of motion; periodic phenomena
(including oscillatory motion, simple pendulums, and wave motion); energy aspects (mechanical
work and various forms/sources of energy); and finally Newton’s laws plus gravitational motion.
Each question is numbered with four answer options (A–D) and the correct answer is indicated.

Section 1: Introduction to Motion (Questions 1–30)

1.​ Motion is defined as a change in ______ with respect to time.​
A) Mass​
B) Position​
C) Temperature​
D) Color​
Answer: B​

2.​ Which statement best describes motion?​

A) An object that remains stationary is in motion.​
B) Motion is the change in an object’s position relative to a reference point.​
C) Motion only occurs when an object speeds up.​
D) Motion is the change in an object’s mass over time.​
Answer: B​

3.​ An object moving from point A to point B is said to be in motion if:​

A) Its speed remains constant.​
B) Its position changes with time.​
C) It rotates about its axis.​
D) It changes its temperature.​
Answer: B​

4.​ Which of the following is a necessary condition for motion?​

A) Change in color​
B) Change in position​
C) Change in mass​
D) Change in shape only​
Answer: B​

5.​ Motion can be described as the continuous change in an object’s ______.​

A) Shape​
B) Energy only​
 C) Position relative to a reference frame​
D) Temperature only​
Answer: C​

6.​ Which term best describes the phenomenon of an object moving along a curved
path?​
A) Linear motion​
B) Random motion​
C) Curvilinear motion​
D) Stationary state​
Answer: C​

7.​ If an object’s position changes continuously with time, then the object is said to
be in:​
A) Equilibrium​
B) Rest​
C) Motion​
D) Inertia​
Answer: C​

8.​ The concept of motion applies to:​

A) Only living things​
B) Only vehicles​
C) All objects, regardless of size​
D) Only objects with force acting on them​
Answer: C​

9.​ Which of the following does not describe a type of motion?​

A) Translational​
B) Rotational​
C) Vibrational​
D) Static​
Answer: D​

10.​Motion is a relative concept because:​

A) It is the same in all frames of reference.​
B) It is measured with respect to a chosen frame of reference.​
C) It does not depend on time.​
D) It only applies to moving objects.​
Answer: B​

11.​Which of the following is true regarding motion?​

A) Motion can only be uniform.​
B) Motion always requires an external force.​
 C) Motion is the result of a net force acting on an object.​
D) Motion is independent of time.​
Answer: C​

12.​In dynamics, the study of motion deals primarily with:​

A) Forces and their effects​
B) Temperature changes​
C) Color variations​
D) Chemical reactions​
Answer: A​

13.​Which statement is correct about motion in a vacuum?​

A) Objects cannot move in a vacuum.​
B) Motion in a vacuum is not influenced by friction.​
C) Motion in a vacuum is always accelerated.​
D) Motion in a vacuum depends on air resistance.​
Answer: B​

14.​Motion that is not changing in any way is called:​

A) Uniform motion​
B) Non‑motion​
C) Relative motion​
D) Stationary​
Answer: D​

15.​The study of motion without considering its causes is known as:​

A) Dynamics​
B) Statics​
C) Kinematics​
D) Kinetics​
Answer: C​

16.​Which branch of mechanics studies motion along with time, displacement,

velocity, and acceleration?​
A) Kinetics​
B) Kinematics​
C) Dynamics​
D) Statics​
Answer: B​

17.​Motion can be described as a function of:​

A) Time​
B) Distance only​
C) Mass only​
 D) Temperature only​
Answer: A​

18.​Which term best defines the term “state of motion”?​

A) The constant energy of an object​
B) The velocity and direction of an object’s movement​
C) The rest condition of an object​
D) The temperature of an object​
Answer: B​

19.​The simplest form of motion is known as:​

A) Circular motion​
B) Oscillatory motion​
C) Straight‑line (linear) motion​
D) Rotational motion​
Answer: C​

20.​In kinematics, what is primarily observed?​

A) The forces acting on objects​
B) The change in objects’ positions over time​
C) The mass of objects​
D) The energy of objects​
Answer: B​

21.​An object moving with a constant speed in a straight line exhibits:​

A) Uniform motion​
B) Accelerated motion​
C) Circular motion​
D) Vibratory motion​
Answer: A​

22.​Motion can be both:​

A) Scalar and vector​
B) Absolute and relative​
C) Random and fixed​
D) Complex and static​
Answer: B​

23.​If two observers in different frames of reference disagree on an object’s velocity,

this is because:​
A) Motion is absolute​
B) Motion is relative​
C) Velocity is constant​
D) Both measure the same displacement​
 Answer: B​

24.​The study of how objects move without reference to their causes is called:​
A) Dynamics​
B) Kinematics​
C) Statics​
D) Thermodynamics​
Answer: B​

25.​Motion may be periodic or aperiodic. Periodic motion is characterized by:​

A) A random change in position​
B) Repeating cycles at regular time intervals​
C) A single one‑time change in position​
D) Constant rest​
Answer: B​

26.​The change in position of an object over time is described by its:​

A) Inertia​
B) Momentum​
C) Displacement​
D) Work​
Answer: C​

27.​When an object moves back and forth along the same path, its motion is called:​
A) Oscillatory motion​
B) Circular motion​
C) Linear motion​
D) Projectile motion​
Answer: A​

28.​In describing motion, the term “trajectory” refers to:​

A) The speed of the object​
B) The path that an object follows​
C) The time taken to move​
D) The force acting on the object​
Answer: B​

29.​Which of the following is not a descriptor of motion?​

A) Displacement​
B) Velocity​
C) Color​
D) Acceleration​
Answer: C​
 30.​Motion is an inherent property of:​
A) All matter in the universe​
B) Only living organisms​
C) Only man‑made objects​
D) Only large bodies​
Answer: A​

Section 2: Distance Travelled and Displacement

(Questions 31–60)
31.​Distance travelled by an object is defined as:​
A) The shortest path between its start and end points​
B) The total length of the path taken​
C) The change in its velocity​
D) The product of speed and time only​
Answer: B​

32.​Displacement is best described as:​

A) The total distance moved​
B) The change in position with direction considered​
C) The magnitude of distance travelled​
D) The time taken for the motion​
Answer: B​

33.​Which of the following is a scalar quantity?​

A) Displacement​
B) Velocity​
C) Distance​
D) Acceleration​
Answer: C​

34.​If you walk 4 km east and then 3 km west, your displacement is:​
A) 7 km east​
B) 1 km east​
C) 1 km west​
D) 7 km west​
Answer: B​

35.​The difference between distance and displacement is that distance:​

A) Has direction​
 B) Is always greater than or equal to displacement​
C) Is a vector quantity​
D) Can be negative​
Answer: B​

36.​An object moving in a circle may travel a long distance, but its displacement can
be:​
A) Zero​
B) Equal to the circumference​
C) Greater than the distance​
D) Negative only​
Answer: A​

37.​If a runner completes one full lap around a 400‑meter track, the distance travelled
is 400 m while the displacement is:​
A) 400 m​
B) 200 m​
C) Zero​
D) 800 m​
Answer: C​

38.​Distance travelled is measured in:​

A) Meters (m)​
B) Seconds (s)​
C) Meters per second (m/s)​
D) Kilograms (kg)​
Answer: A​

39.​Displacement, being a vector, must include:​

A) Only magnitude​
B) Only direction​
C) Both magnitude and direction​
D) Neither magnitude nor direction​
Answer: C​

40.​When an object retraces its path exactly, its total displacement is:​
A) Equal to the distance travelled​
B) Twice the distance travelled​
C) Zero​
D) Negative of the distance travelled​
Answer: C​

41.​Which graph best represents displacement over time for an object moving in a
straight line with constant speed?​
 A) A horizontal line​
B) A straight line with constant positive slope​
C) A parabolic curve​
D) An exponential curve​
Answer: B​

42.​If you travel 10 km north and then 10 km south, your total distance is 20 km but
your displacement is:​
A) 20 km north​
B) 20 km south​
C) 0 km​
D) 10 km north​
Answer: C​

43.​Which of the following quantities is affected by the path taken?​

A) Displacement​
B) Distance​
C) Velocity​
D) Acceleration​
Answer: B​

44.​A car moving along a winding road travels 50 km; if its starting and ending points
are 30 km apart, then its displacement is:​
A) 50 km​
B) 30 km​
C) 20 km​
D) 80 km​
Answer: B​

45.​For an object moving in two dimensions, displacement is represented by:​

A) A scalar value only​
B) A vector quantity in the plane​
C) The sum of distances along x and y​
D) The average speed​
Answer: B​

46.​The net displacement of a round trip is always:​

A) Equal to the total distance​
B) Greater than the distance travelled​
C) Zero​
D) Undefined​
Answer: C​
47.​Which of the following examples correctly differentiates distance from
displacement?​
A) Running 100 m east then 100 m west results in a distance of 200 m and
displacement of 0 m.​
B) Driving 200 m north then 100 m south results in a distance of 300 m and
displacement of 300 m.​
C) Cycling 50 m east then 50 m north results in both distance and displacement of 50
m.​
D) Walking in a straight line for 150 m always gives a displacement of 0 m.​
Answer: A​

48.​Distance travelled is always:​

A) Equal to or greater than displacement​
B) Equal to displacement​
C) Less than displacement​
D) Zero​
Answer: A​

49.​When analyzing motion on a curved path, why is it important to distinguish

between distance and displacement?​
A) Because only distance affects speed​
B) Because displacement gives directional information​
C) Because distance is always negative​
D) Because displacement is independent of the path​
Answer: B​

50.​If an object moves in a zig‑zag path from start to finish, its distance travelled is
high but its displacement is:​
A) Always zero​
B) The straight‑line distance between start and finish​
C) Equal to the total path length​
D) Not defined​
Answer: B​

51.​In problems involving circular motion, the total distance can be large while the
displacement over one complete cycle is:​
A) Equal to the circumference​
B) Zero​
C) Equal to the diameter​
D) Twice the radius​
Answer: B​

52.​A displacement graph versus time for an object at rest would be:​
A) A straight line with positive slope​
 B) A straight line with negative slope​
C) A horizontal line​
D) A curved line​
Answer: C​

53.​Which measurement does not require direction?​

A) Distance​
B) Displacement​
C) Velocity​
D) Acceleration​
Answer: A​

54.​When given a motion diagram, the total distance travelled is computed by:​
A) Measuring only the final displacement​
B) Summing the lengths of all segments traveled​
C) Multiplying displacement by time​
D) Dividing the path into vectors and adding them​
Answer: B​

55.​For a round‑trip journey, the ratio of displacement to distance is:​

A) 1​
B) 0​
C) Greater than 1​
D) Negative​
Answer: B​

56.​Which of the following is true about displacement?​

A) It can be measured without a reference point​
B) It always equals the total distance travelled​
C) It is a vector quantity that depends on the initial and final positions​
D) It is not affected by the direction of motion​
Answer: C​

57.​When an object’s path curves, the distance travelled is:​

A) Always less than displacement​
B) Always equal to displacement​
C) Greater than or equal to the magnitude of displacement​
D) Irrelevant in kinematics​
Answer: C​

58.​In a graphical representation, the area under a speed–time curve gives the:​
A) Displacement​
B) Distance travelled​
C) Acceleration​
 D) Velocity​
Answer: B​

59.​An object that returns to its starting point has a displacement of:​
A) The total distance it travelled​
B) Zero​
C) Equal to its speed​
D) Undefined​
Answer: B​

60.​In two‑dimensional motion, displacement is best represented by:​

A) A scalar number​
B) A directed line segment (vector)​
C) The sum of two distances​
D) A curved path length​
Answer: B​

Section 3: Speed and Velocity (Questions 61–90)

61.​Speed is defined as the rate at which an object covers:​
A) Displacement​
B) Distance​
C) Acceleration​
D) Work​
Answer: B​

62.​Velocity is defined as the rate of change of:​

A) Speed​
B) Displacement​
C) Distance​
D) Mass​
Answer: B​

63.​Which quantity is a scalar?​

A) Speed​
B) Velocity​
C) Displacement​
D) Acceleration​
Answer: A​
64.​An object moving in a circle at constant speed has:​
A) Zero velocity​
B) Constant velocity​
C) Changing velocity due to its changing direction​
D) No acceleration​
Answer: C​

65.​Average speed is defined as:​

A) Total displacement divided by time​
B) Total distance travelled divided by time​
C) Instantaneous speed at a given moment​
D) Total acceleration divided by time​
Answer: B​

66.​The SI unit for speed is:​

A) m/s​
B) m/s²​
C) km/h​
D) m​
Answer: A​

67.​Instantaneous velocity is best determined from a:​

A) Position–time graph by calculating the slope at a point​
B) Distance–time graph by measuring the curve’s area​
C) Acceleration–time graph by finding the maximum value​
D) Speed–time graph by summing the values​
Answer: A​

68.​If a car’s speedometer reads 60 km/h, this reading represents its:​

A) Average velocity​
B) Instantaneous speed​
C) Average acceleration​
D) Displacement rate​
Answer: B​

69.​Two objects moving with the same speed but in opposite directions have the
same:​
A) Velocity​
B) Speed​
C) Displacement vectors​
D) Acceleration​
Answer: B​
70.​When an object’s speed remains constant, its velocity is said to be:​
A) Uniform​
B) Non‑uniform​
C) Variable​
D) Zero​
Answer: A​

71.​If a cyclist covers 100 km in 4 hours, the average speed is:​

A) 25 km/h​
B) 100 km/h​
C) 4 km/h​
D) 50 km/h​
Answer: A​

72.​The difference between speed and velocity is that velocity includes:​

A) Only magnitude​
B) Both magnitude and direction​
C) Only the time factor​
D) The total distance travelled​
Answer: B​

73.​Which of the following best describes instantaneous speed?​

A) The slope of the distance–time graph at a point​
B) The total distance divided by total time​
C) The average velocity over a time interval​
D) The integral of acceleration over time​
Answer: A​

74.​In a motion graph, the steepness of the position–time curve represents the
object’s:​
A) Acceleration​
B) Speed (and velocity if direction is considered)​
C) Distance only​
D) Displacement only​
Answer: B​

75.​If two cars travel the same distance in the same time but in opposite directions,
their speeds are:​
A) Equal in magnitude but velocities have opposite directions​
B) Different in magnitude​
C) The same vector quantity​
D) Unrelated to distance​
Answer: A​
 76.​A change in speed with time is an indication of:​
A) Constant velocity​
B) Acceleration​
C) Constant displacement​
D) No motion​
Answer: B​

77.​Average velocity is calculated by dividing the total displacement by:​

A) Total time taken​
B) Total distance travelled​
C) Change in speed​
D) Acceleration​
Answer: A​

78.​When an object moves in a straight line with uniform speed, its instantaneous
speed is:​
A) Varying continuously​
B) Zero​
C) Equal to its average speed​
D) Unpredictable​
Answer: C​

79.​Which of the following quantities can be negative?​

A) Speed​
B) Velocity​
C) Magnitude of speed​
D) Total distance​
Answer: B​

80.​The instantaneous velocity of an object is given by the derivative of its:​

A) Displacement with respect to time​
B) Speed with respect to time​
C) Distance with respect to time​
D) Acceleration with respect to time​
Answer: A​

Section 4: Acceleration (Questions 91–120)

91.​Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of:​
A) Speed​
B) Velocity​
 C) Displacement​
D) Time​
Answer: B​

92.​Which of the following is a vector quantity?​

A) Acceleration​
B) Speed​
C) Distance​
D) Mass​
Answer: A​

93.​If a car’s velocity increases from 20 m/s to 30 m/s in 5 seconds, its average
acceleration is:​
A) 2 m/s²​
B) 5 m/s²​
C) 10 m/s²​
D) 1 m/s²​
Answer: A​

94.​The SI unit for acceleration is:​

A) m/s​
B) m/s²​
C) km/h​
D) N​
Answer: B​

95.​A negative acceleration is also referred to as:​

A) Deceleration​
B) Constant speed​
C) Uniform motion​
D) Increasing speed​
Answer: A​

96.​An object moving in a straight line with increasing speed has a positive
acceleration if its motion is in the positive direction.​
A) True​
B) False​
Answer: A​

97.​Instantaneous acceleration is determined by the:​

A) Slope of the velocity–time graph​
B) Area under the velocity–time graph​
C) Slope of the position–time graph​
D) Curvature of the distance–time graph​
 Answer: A​

98.​A change in the direction of velocity, even with constant speed, results in:​
A) Zero acceleration​
B) Non‑zero acceleration​
C) Negative speed​
D) No displacement​
Answer: B​

99.​The acceleration due to gravity near Earth’s surface is approximately:​

A) 9.8 m/s² downward​
B) 9.8 m/s² upward​
C) 10 m/s upward​
D) 10 m/s² upward​
Answer: A​

100.​ If an object is in free fall (neglecting air resistance), its acceleration is:​
A) Zero​
B) Constant and equal to g​
C) Increasing over time​
D) Decreasing over time​
Answer: B​

101.​ An acceleration–time graph with a horizontal line indicates:​

A) Constant acceleration​
B) Increasing acceleration​
C) Decreasing acceleration​
D) Zero acceleration​
Answer: A​

102.​ The instantaneous acceleration can be found by differentiating:​

A) Position with respect to time​
B) Velocity with respect to time​
C) Distance with respect to time​
D) Speed with respect to displacement​
Answer: B​

103.​ A car that slows down uniformly experiences a negative acceleration.​

A) True​
B) False​
Answer: A​

104.​ Which graph’s slope gives the acceleration of an object?​

A) Position–time graph​
 B) Velocity–time graph​
C) Acceleration–time graph (slope gives jerk)​
D) Distance–time graph​
Answer: B​

105.​ If a moving object’s velocity does not change, its acceleration is:​
A) Zero​
B) Positive​
C) Negative​
D) Undefined​
Answer: A​

106.​ Which term describes the change in acceleration with respect to time?​
A) Jerk​
B) Snap​
C) Jounce​
D) Drift​
Answer: A​

107.​ An object moving in uniform circular motion has a constant speed but a
non‑zero acceleration because its:​
A) Speed changes​
B) Direction changes​
C) Mass changes​
D) Energy changes​
Answer: B​

108.​ The area under an acceleration–time graph represents the object’s:​

A) Change in velocity​
B) Change in position​
C) Change in speed​
D) Instantaneous velocity​
Answer: A​

109.​ A car that goes from rest to 20 m/s in 4 s has an average acceleration of:​
A) 4 m/s²​
B) 5 m/s²​
C) 20 m/s²​
D) 80 m/s²​
Answer: A​

110.​ When an object experiences a change in velocity, its acceleration is:​

A) Zero​
B) Directly proportional to the change in velocity​
 C) Inversely proportional to time​
D) Independent of time​
Answer: B​

111.​ For an object moving with constant acceleration, which equation is correct?​
A) v = u + at​
B) s = ut – ½at²​
C) v² = u² + 2as​
D) All of the above​
Answer: D​

112.​ A positive acceleration indicates that the object’s velocity is:​

A) Decreasing in the positive direction​
B) Increasing in the positive direction​
C) Always negative​
D) Unchanged​
Answer: B​

113.​ If the acceleration is zero, the object is said to be in:​

A) Uniformly accelerated motion​
B) Uniform motion​
C) Oscillatory motion​
D) Decelerating motion​
Answer: B​

114.​ Which of the following best describes average acceleration?​

A) The total change in velocity divided by the total time taken​
B) The instantaneous change in speed​
C) The slope of the displacement–time graph​
D) The product of velocity and time​
Answer: A​

115.​ The acceleration vector has both:​

A) Only magnitude​
B) Only direction​
C) Magnitude and direction​
D) Neither magnitude nor direction​
Answer: C​

116.​ In free‑fall motion near Earth, air resistance is often ignored because:​
A) It is negligible compared to gravitational acceleration​
B) It cancels out the acceleration​
C) It increases the speed​
D) It reverses the acceleration​
 Answer: A​

117.​ A uniformly accelerating body starting with an initial velocity of zero will have
its speed increase:​
A) Linearly with time​
B) Exponentially with time​
C) Logarithmically with time​
D) Randomly with time​
Answer: A​

118.​ The instantaneous acceleration is the slope of the velocity–time graph at a

specific:​
A) Time interval​
B) Point​
C) Position​
D) Distance​
Answer: B​

119.​ When acceleration is not constant, the average acceleration over a time
interval is given by:​
A) The slope of the chord connecting the endpoints of the velocity–time curve​
B) The maximum acceleration value​
C) The area under the velocity–time graph​
D) Zero by definition​
Answer: A​

120.​ If an object’s velocity changes from 15 m/s to 15 m/s over 5 s, its average
acceleration is:​
A) 3 m/s²​
B) 15 m/s²​
C) 0 m/s²​
D) 5 m/s²​
Answer: C​

Section 5: Graphical Representation of Motion (Questions

121–150)
121.​ A position–time graph with a straight, upward‑sloping line represents:​
A) Uniform motion​
B) Accelerated motion​
 C) Decelerated motion​
D) No motion​
Answer: A​

122.​ The slope of a position–time graph gives the object’s:​

A) Acceleration​
B) Velocity​
C) Speed squared​
D) Distance only​
Answer: B​

123.​ A horizontal line on a position–time graph indicates that the object is:​
A) Accelerating​
B) At rest​
C) Moving with constant speed​
D) Changing direction​
Answer: B​

124.​ A curved position–time graph indicates:​

A) Uniform motion​
B) Non‑uniform motion (changing velocity)​
C) Constant speed​
D) No displacement​
Answer: B​

125.​ The area under a velocity–time graph represents:​

A) Displacement​
B) Acceleration​
C) Distance travelled​
D) Both A and C​
Answer: D​

126.​ A velocity–time graph with a constant positive slope represents:​

A) Constant acceleration​
B) Decreasing acceleration​
C) Constant speed​
D) Zero acceleration​
Answer: A​

127.​ On an acceleration–time graph, a horizontal line above the time-axis indicates:​

A) Constant acceleration​
B) Zero acceleration​
C) Increasing speed​
D) Deceleration​
 Answer: A​

128.​ If the slope of a position–time graph increases with time, the object’s velocity
is:​
A) Constant​
B) Increasing​
C) Decreasing​
D) Zero​
Answer: B​

129.​ A steep slope on a position–time graph indicates:​

A) A high speed​
B) A low speed​
C) Zero acceleration​
D) Uniform acceleration​
Answer: A​

130.​ In a velocity–time graph, what does the area between the curve and the
time-axis represent?​
A) The object’s displacement​
B) The object’s acceleration​
C) The object’s speed only​
D) The total distance covered​
Answer: D​

131.​ Which graph would you use to determine instantaneous velocity?​

A) Position–time graph (by finding the slope at a point)​
B) Velocity–time graph (by finding the area under the curve)​
C) Acceleration–time graph (by integrating the curve)​
D) Distance–time graph (by measuring the total distance)​
Answer: A​

132.​ A velocity–time graph that is a straight horizontal line indicates that the object
is moving with:​
A) Constant acceleration​
B) Zero acceleration​
C) Constant displacement​
D) Changing velocity​
Answer: B​

133.​ On an acceleration–time graph, the area under the curve represents the:​
A) Change in velocity​
B) Total displacement​
C) Speed​
 D) Distance only​
Answer: A​

134.​ A concave upward position–time graph typically indicates:​

A) Decreasing velocity​
B) Increasing velocity​
C) Constant speed​
D) No motion​
Answer: B​

135.​ Graphical analysis of motion helps in understanding:​

A) Only the distance travelled​
B) The relationship between displacement, velocity, and acceleration​
C) Only the acceleration​
D) Only the force involved​
Answer: B​

136.​ When the velocity–time graph of an object is a straight line passing through
the origin, the object is:​
A) Accelerating uniformly from rest​
B) Moving with constant velocity​
C) At rest​
D) Decelerating​
Answer: A​

137.​ The instantaneous acceleration on a velocity–time graph is given by the:​

A) Area under the curve​
B) Slope of the graph at that instant​
C) Curvature of the graph​
D) Distance from the origin​
Answer: B​

138.​ A position–time graph that levels off indicates that the object’s speed is:​
A) Increasing​
B) Decreasing​
C) Zero​
D) Constant​
Answer: C​

139.​ If a velocity–time graph has portions below the time-axis, this indicates that
the object’s velocity is:​
A) Positive​
B) Negative​
C) Zero​
 D) Undefined​
Answer: B​

140.​ When interpreting motion graphs, it is important to note that:​

A) Only slopes matter​
B) Both the slope and the area under curves provide different kinematic information​
C) Graphs are not useful for analyzing motion​
D) Only position graphs are valid​
Answer: B​

Section 6: Equations of Motion (Questions 151–180)

151.​ Which of the following is a standard equation of motion for uniformly
accelerated motion?​
A) v = u + at​
B) s = ut + ½at²​
C) v² = u² + 2as​
D) All of the above​
Answer: D​

152.​ In the equation s = ut + ½at², “s” represents:​

A) Speed​
B) Displacement​
C) Acceleration​
D) Time​
Answer: B​

153.​ For an object starting from rest, the equation v = u + at reduces to:​
A) v = at​
B) v = u + t​
C) v = u – at​
D) v = ½at²​
Answer: A​

154.​ If an object moves with uniform acceleration, its displacement can be found
by:​
A) Multiplying average velocity by time​
B) Adding initial velocity to acceleration​
C) Dividing acceleration by time​
D) Multiplying speed by time squared​
 Answer: A​

155.​ The equation v² = u² + 2as is useful for finding:​

A) Time​
B) Final velocity when time is not known​
C) Average speed​
D) Distance only when acceleration is zero​
Answer: B​

156.​ When the initial velocity (u) is zero, the displacement (s) under constant
acceleration is given by:​
A) s = at​
B) s = ½at²​
C) s = u + at​
D) s = u² + 2as​
Answer: B​

157.​ Which variable does “a” represent in the equations of motion?​

A) Speed​
B) Acceleration​
C) Displacement​
D) Time​
Answer: B​

158.​ For an object in free fall, the acceleration “a” in the equations of motion is
replaced by:​
A) g (acceleration due to gravity)​
B) 0​
C) u​
D) s​
Answer: A​

159.​ If an object’s displacement is known along with its initial velocity and
acceleration, one can compute its final velocity using:​
A) s = ut + ½at²​
B) v = u + at​
C) v² = u² + 2as​
D) v = s/t​
Answer: C​

160.​ In the absence of acceleration, the equations of motion imply that:​

A) Displacement is proportional to the square of time​
B) Velocity is constant​
C) Final velocity equals initial velocity​
 D) Both B and C​
Answer: D​

161.​ When solving problems with constant acceleration, which quantity is often
considered the “average velocity”?​
A) (u + v)/2​
B) (u × v)​
C) (v – u)​
D) u² + v²​
Answer: A​

162.​ The term “u” in the equations of motion stands for:​

A) Final velocity​
B) Initial velocity​
C) Acceleration​
D) Displacement​
Answer: B​

163.​ Which of the following is not a kinematic equation for uniformly accelerated
motion?​
A) s = ut + ½at²​
B) v = u + at​
C) v² = u² + 2as​
D) s = vt – ½at²​
Answer: D​

164.​ If a body has a constant acceleration and you double the time, its
displacement will:​
A) Double​
B) Increase by a factor of four​
C) Remain the same​
D) Decrease​
Answer: B​

165.​ For an object with initial velocity u = 5 m/s and acceleration a = 3 m/s² over 4 s,
its final velocity v is given by:​
A) 5 m/s​
B) 12 m/s​
C) 17 m/s​
D) 20 m/s​
Answer: C​

166.​ In the equation s = ut + ½at², if acceleration is zero, the displacement becomes:​

A) s = ut​
 B) s = ½at²​
C) s = at²​
D) s = 0​
Answer: A​

167.​ Which kinematic equation can be used when time is not directly given?​
A) v = u + at​
B) s = ut + ½at²​
C) v² = u² + 2as​
D) s = vt​
Answer: C​

168.​ The average velocity for uniformly accelerated motion can be calculated as:​
A) u + v​
B) (u + v)/2​
C) (v – u)/t​
D) u – v​
Answer: B​

169.​ A kinematic equation relates displacement (s) with time (t), acceleration (a),
and:​
A) Mass​
B) Force​
C) Initial velocity (u)​
D) Energy​
Answer: C​

170.​ When solving equations of motion, if all variables except one are known, one
can solve for the unknown using:​
A) Graphical analysis only​
B) Algebraic manipulation of the kinematic equations​
C) Integration only​
D) Estimation​
Answer: B​

171.​ For an object under constant acceleration, the displacement is proportional to:​
A) Time​
B) Time squared​
C) The square root of time​
D) The cube of time​
Answer: B​

172.​ In a problem where an object’s initial velocity, acceleration, and displacement

are known, the final velocity can be found without knowing:​
 A) Time​
B) Speed​
C) Distance​
D) Mass​
Answer: A​

173.​ The kinematic equations assume that acceleration is:​

A) Constant​
B) Variable​
C) Zero​
D) Dependent on displacement​
Answer: A​

174.​ If an object’s acceleration doubles while all other initial conditions remain the
same, its displacement in a given time:​
A) Doubles​
B) Quadruples​
C) Remains unchanged​
D) Halves​
Answer: A​

175.​ Which of the following can be derived by integrating the acceleration with
respect to time?​
A) Displacement​
B) Velocity​
C) Speed​
D) Energy​
Answer: B​

176.​ The kinematic equation v = u + at implies that the change in velocity is directly
proportional to:​
A) Time​
B) Displacement​
C) Acceleration only when time is constant​
D) Distance​
Answer: A​

177.​ For an object in free fall starting from rest, the displacement after time t is
given by:​
A) s = gt​
B) s = ½gt²​
C) s = gt²​
D) s = 2gt​
 Answer: B​

178.​ A negative value of “u” in a kinematic equation indicates that the initial
velocity is:​
A) In the chosen positive direction​
B) In the opposite direction to the positive axis​
C) Zero​
D) Unspecified​
Answer: B​

179.​ When an object decelerates uniformly, its acceleration in the kinematic

equations is:​
A) Positive​
B) Negative​
C) Zero​
D) Infinite​
Answer: B​

180.​ Which of the following is true about the equations of motion?​

A) They apply only when acceleration is constant.​
B) They can be used for variable acceleration without modification.​
C) They are independent of initial velocity.​
D) They do not involve time.​
Answer: A​

Section 7: Periodic Motion (Questions 181–210)

181.​ Periodic motion is defined as motion that:​
A) Never repeats​
B) Repeats at regular time intervals​
C) Is always linear​
D) Is random​
Answer: B​

182.​ The time taken to complete one full cycle of periodic motion is called the:​
A) Frequency​
B) Period​
C) Amplitude​
D) Wavelength​
Answer: B​
183.​ Frequency is the number of cycles completed in one:​
A) Second​
B) Minute​
C) Hour​
D) Day​
Answer: A​

184.​ For periodic motion, period (T) and frequency (f) are related by the equation:​
A) T = f​
B) T = 1/f​
C) f = T²​
D) T = f²​
Answer: B​

185.​ Simple harmonic motion is a type of periodic motion where the restoring force
is:​
A) Proportional to displacement​
B) Constant​
C) Inversely proportional to displacement​
D) Unrelated to displacement​
Answer: A​

186.​ An example of periodic motion is:​

A) A car driving on a straight road at constant speed​
B) A pendulum swinging​
C) A stone falling off a cliff​
D) A person walking in a straight line​
Answer: B​

187.​ The amplitude of a periodic motion represents:​

A) The maximum displacement from the equilibrium position​
B) The time period of the motion​
C) The frequency of oscillation​
D) The phase angle​
Answer: A​

188.​ The phase of periodic motion indicates:​

A) The energy of the system​
B) The position of the cycle at a given time​
C) The amplitude​
D) The period​
Answer: B​
189.​ In simple harmonic motion, the displacement as a function of time can be
expressed as:​
A) x = A sin(ωt + φ)​
B) x = A cos(ωt)​
C) Both A and B​
D) x = A t²​
Answer: C​

190.​ The angular frequency (ω) of a periodic motion is related to the period (T) by:​
A) ω = T​
B) ω = 2π/T​
C) ω = T/2π​
D) ω = T²​
Answer: B​

191.​ For a periodic motion, if the period is 0.5 s, the frequency is:​
A) 0.5 Hz​
B) 1 Hz​
C) 2 Hz​
D) 4 Hz​
Answer: C​

192.​ Which of the following is true about periodic motion?​

A) It only occurs in mechanical systems.​
B) It can be electrical, mechanical, or even electromagnetic.​
C) It cannot be measured.​
D) It always has zero acceleration.​
Answer: B​

193.​ The concept of phase difference is important when comparing:​

A) Two periodic motions​
B) Two objects at rest​
C) Only linear motion​
D) Only non‑periodic motion​
Answer: A​

194.​ Periodic motion is characterized by energy that oscillates between different

forms, for example:​
A) Kinetic and potential energy in a pendulum​
B) Only kinetic energy​
C) Only thermal energy​
D) Only electrical energy​
Answer: A​
195.​ Which of the following systems does NOT exhibit periodic motion?​
A) A mass‑spring system​
B) A swinging pendulum​
C) A car moving at constant speed in a straight line​
D) A vibrating guitar string​
Answer: C​

196.​ The graphical representation of periodic motion on a displacement–time graph

is typically:​
A) A straight line​
B) A sinusoidal curve​
C) A parabolic curve​
D) A hyperbola​
Answer: B​

197.​ In periodic motion, the energy oscillates between which two forms in a simple
harmonic oscillator?​
A) Thermal and chemical energy​
B) Kinetic and potential energy​
C) Electrical and magnetic energy​
D) Nuclear and gravitational energy​
Answer: B​

198.​ The period of a pendulum undergoing small oscillations depends primarily on:​
A) Its amplitude​
B) Its length​
C) Its mass​
D) The initial push given​
Answer: B​

199.​ For a periodic motion, doubling the frequency will result in:​
A) Halving the period​
B) Doubling the period​
C) No change in period​
D) Squaring the period​
Answer: A​

200.​ In periodic motion, the term “equilibrium position” refers to the point where:​
A) The restoring force is maximum​
B) The net force is zero​
C) The speed is zero​
D) The object is at its highest speed​
Answer: B​
Section 8: Simple Pendulum (Questions 211–240)
211.​ A simple pendulum consists of a mass attached to a string or rod and swings
under the influence of:​
A) Magnetic forces​
B) Gravitational force​
C) Electrical forces​
D) Friction only​
Answer: B​

212.​ The period (T) of a simple pendulum for small oscillations is given by:​
A) T = 2π√(L/g)​
B) T = 2π√(g/L)​
C) T = L/g​
D) T = g/L​
Answer: A​

213.​ In the pendulum period formula T = 2π√(L/g), “L” represents:​

A) Mass of the bob​
B) Length of the pendulum​
C) Amplitude of the swing​
D) Acceleration due to gravity​
Answer: B​

214.​ In the same formula, “g” represents:​

A) Gravitational acceleration​
B) Mass of the bob​
C) Length of the pendulum​
D) Frequency​
Answer: A​

215.​ Which of the following does NOT affect the period of a simple pendulum (for
small angles)?​
A) The mass of the bob​
B) The length of the pendulum​
C) The acceleration due to gravity​
D) The amplitude (if small)​
Answer: A​

216.​ The law of the simple pendulum states that the period of oscillation is
independent of:​
A) The length of the string​
 B) The mass of the bob​
C) The gravitational field strength​
D) The amplitude of oscillation (for small angles)​
Answer: B​

217.​ A simple pendulum is a common example of:​

A) Non‑periodic motion​
B) Damped oscillatory motion​
C) Periodic motion​
D) Projectile motion​
Answer: C​

218.​ In a simple pendulum, if the length is quadrupled, the period will be multiplied
by:​
A) 2​
B) 4​
C) √2​
D) 2π​
Answer: A​
(Since T ∝ √L, quadrupling L gives T multiplied by √4 = 2.)​

219.​ The simple pendulum demonstrates oscillatory motion because:​

A) Its speed remains constant​
B) Its displacement from equilibrium varies sinusoidally with time​
C) It travels in a straight line​
D) It has no restoring force​
Answer: B​

220.​ One common use of a simple pendulum is in:​

A) Clocks for timekeeping​
B) Measuring electrical resistance​
C) Heating elements​
D) Producing sound waves​
Answer: A​

221.​ The period of a simple pendulum is independent of the amplitude only when
the oscillations are:​
A) Large​
B) Small​
C) Random​
D) Variable​
Answer: B​
222.​ In a pendulum clock, a small bob and long string are used primarily because:​
A) They minimize air resistance​
B) They provide a longer period for accurate timekeeping​
C) They maximize gravitational force​
D) They produce more kinetic energy​
Answer: B​

223.​ If the local acceleration due to gravity decreases, the period of a pendulum
will:​
A) Increase​
B) Decrease​
C) Remain the same​
D) Oscillate​
Answer: A​

224.​ The simple pendulum is an example of simple harmonic motion only for:​
A) All amplitudes​
B) Large amplitudes​
C) Small angular displacements​
D) Vertical motion only​
Answer: C​

225.​ The restoring force in a simple pendulum is provided by:​

A) Tension in the string and gravity​
B) Friction only​
C) Air resistance only​
D) Magnetic forces​
Answer: A​

226.​ A pendulum’s maximum speed occurs at:​

A) The endpoints of its swing​
B) The equilibrium position​
C) Midway between the endpoints and equilibrium​
D) When it is momentarily at rest​
Answer: B​

227.​ The energy in a simple pendulum oscillates between:​

A) Kinetic and potential energy​
B) Thermal and electrical energy​
C) Chemical and nuclear energy​
D) Magnetic and gravitational energy​
Answer: A​
 228.​ In an ideal simple pendulum, air resistance is assumed to be:​
A) Significant​
B) Negligible​
C) Variable​
D) Dependent on amplitude​
Answer: B​

229.​ The law of the pendulum helps in determining local values of:​
A) Temperature​
B) Gravitational acceleration​
C) Air pressure​
D) Humidity​
Answer: B​

230.​ The use of a simple pendulum in seismometers is based on its:​

A) Ability to generate electricity​
B) Predictable oscillatory behavior​
C) Rapid damping​
D) Magnetic properties​
Answer: B​

Section 9: Periodic Motion – Waves and Wave Motion

(Questions 241–270)
241.​ Wave motion is a type of periodic motion that involves the transfer of:​
A) Matter only​
B) Energy through a medium or vacuum​
C) Mass only​
D) Electrical charge only​
Answer: B​

242.​ Which of the following is a characteristic of a wave?​

A) Amplitude, frequency, and wavelength​
B) Mass and volume​
C) Temperature and pressure​
D) Speed and density only​
Answer: A​

243.​ A transverse wave is one in which the particle displacement is:​

A) Parallel to the direction of wave propagation​
 B) Perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation​
C) Circular​
D) Random​
Answer: B​

244.​ In a longitudinal wave, the particles oscillate:​

A) Perpendicular to the direction of wave travel​
B) Along the direction of wave travel​
C) In a circular motion​
D) Not at all​
Answer: B​

245.​ The distance between two successive crests of a wave is known as its:​
A) Amplitude​
B) Wavelength​
C) Frequency​
D) Speed​
Answer: B​

246.​ The frequency of a wave is defined as the number of cycles per:​

A) Minute​
B) Second​
C) Hour​
D) Meter​
Answer: B​

247.​ The speed of a wave (v) is given by the product of its frequency (f) and its:​
A) Amplitude​
B) Wavelength (λ)​
C) Period​
D) Energy​
Answer: B​

248.​ Sound is an example of a:​

A) Transverse wave​
B) Longitudinal wave​
C) Electromagnetic wave​
D) Mechanical wave that does not require a medium​
Answer: B​

249.​ The amplitude of a wave is related to its:​

A) Frequency​
B) Energy​
C) Wavelength​
 D) Speed​
Answer: B​

250.​ Which of the following is not a property of waves?​

A) Reflection​
B) Refraction​
C) Diffraction​
D) Inertia​
Answer: D​

251.​ Interference in waves occurs when:​

A) Two waves meet and superpose​
B) A wave reflects off a surface​
C) A wave passes through a medium​
D) A wave is absorbed​
Answer: A​

252.​ Constructive interference results when the waves are:​

A) Out of phase​
B) In phase​
C) Randomly phased​
D) Oppositely polarized​
Answer: B​

253.​ Destructive interference occurs when:​

A) Two waves are in phase​
B) Two waves are completely out of phase​
C) Only one wave is present​
D) Waves travel in opposite directions​
Answer: B​

254.​ The concept of superposition applies to:​

A) Only sound waves​
B) All types of waves​
C) Only electromagnetic waves​
D) Only water waves​
Answer: B​

255.​ In a water wave, the particles move in:​

A) A straight line​
B) Circular orbits​
C) Elliptical orbits​
D) Random paths​
 Answer: B​

256.​ The phenomenon in which waves change direction after encountering an

obstacle is called:​
A) Reflection​
B) Refraction​
C) Diffraction​
D) Interference​
Answer: C​

257.​ A wave’s energy increases as its:​

A) Amplitude increases​
B) Frequency decreases​
C) Wavelength increases​
D) Speed decreases​
Answer: A​

258.​ The principle of energy conservation in wave motion means that:​

A) Energy is lost during wave propagation​
B) Energy is transferred from one part of the medium to another​
C) Energy is created as the wave moves​
D) Energy is not conserved​
Answer: B​

259.​ Electromagnetic waves, such as light, are:​

A) Mechanical waves​
B) Longitudinal waves​
C) Transverse waves​
D) Neither transverse nor longitudinal​
Answer: C​

260.​ Which of the following best describes the propagation of waves?​

A) The medium itself travels from one point to another​
B) The energy of the wave travels through the medium​
C) Both matter and energy are transported​
D) Only matter is transported​
Answer: B​

Section 10: Energy, Motion, and Mechanical Work

(Questions 271–300)
271.​ Mechanical work is defined as the product of the force applied and the ______
moved in the direction of the force.​
A) Time​
B) Distance​
C) Mass​
D) Energy​
Answer: B​

272.​ The SI unit for work and energy is the:​

A) Joule​
B) Watt​
C) Newton​
D) Meter​
Answer: A​

273.​ Kinetic energy is the energy associated with an object’s:​

A) Position​
B) Motion​
C) Temperature​
D) Mass only​
Answer: B​

274.​ The expression for the kinetic energy (KE) of an object of mass m moving with
speed v is:​
A) KE = m × v​
B) KE = ½mv²​
C) KE = mv²​
D) KE = 2mv​
Answer: B​

275.​ Potential energy is energy stored in an object due to its:​

A) Motion​
B) Position or configuration​
C) Temperature​
D) Speed​
Answer: B​

276.​ Gravitational potential energy near Earth’s surface is given by:​

A) PE = mgh​
B) PE = ½mv²​
C) PE = mgh²​
D) PE = mg/h​
Answer: A​
277.​ Mechanical work is done when:​
A) A force acts without displacement​
B) A force causes displacement in its own direction​
C) Displacement occurs without any force​
D) A force is applied perpendicular to displacement​
Answer: B​

278.​ The work–energy theorem states that the net work done on an object is equal
to its:​
A) Change in kinetic energy​
B) Total potential energy​
C) Change in mass​
D) Final speed​
Answer: A​

279.​ If no net work is done on an object, its kinetic energy will:​

A) Increase​
B) Decrease​
C) Remain constant​
D) Become zero​
Answer: C​

280.​ Power is defined as the rate at which:​

A) Work is done​
B) Energy is stored​
C) Force is applied​
D) Speed changes​
Answer: A​

281.​ The SI unit of power is the:​

A) Joule​
B) Watt​
C) Newton​
D) Meter​
Answer: B​

282.​ In a frictionless system, the sum of kinetic and potential energies is:​
A) Always increasing​
B) Always decreasing​
C) Conserved​
D) Random​
Answer: C​
283.​ When an object moves against gravity, work is done against the:​
A) Inertia​
B) Gravitational force​
C) Friction only​
D) Air resistance only​
Answer: B​

284.​ In a pendulum, energy oscillates between kinetic and potential forms as it:​
A) Remains constant​
B) Converts back and forth​
C) Is lost as heat only​
D) Increases continuously​
Answer: B​

285.​ Mechanical work can be positive, negative, or zero depending on:​

A) The direction of force relative to displacement​
B) The mass of the object​
C) The time taken​
D) The speed of the object​
Answer: A​

286.​ In the context of energy, “conversion” refers to:​

A) The transformation of one form of energy to another​
B) The loss of energy​
C) The creation of energy from nothing​
D) The destruction of energy​
Answer: A​

287.​ When friction does work on a moving object, it generally:​

A) Increases the object’s kinetic energy​
B) Decreases the object’s kinetic energy​
C) Leaves the object’s energy unchanged​
D) Converts energy into potential energy​
Answer: B​

288.​ The work done by a conservative force (such as gravity) is independent of the
path taken and depends only on:​
A) The speed of the object​
B) The initial and final positions​
C) The time of motion​
D) The mass of the object​
Answer: B​
289.​ In energy transfer, “efficiency” is defined as:​
A) The ratio of output energy to input energy​
B) The total work done​
C) The change in speed​
D) The force applied​
Answer: A​

290.​ When an engine does work on a car, the energy conversion takes place from:​
A) Chemical energy in fuel to kinetic energy​
B) Thermal energy to magnetic energy​
C) Potential energy to electrical energy​
D) Nuclear energy to light energy​
Answer: A​

291.​ Work is done only when the force has a component in the direction of:​
A) Time​
B) Displacement​
C) Mass​
D) Acceleration​
Answer: B​

292.​ The work–energy theorem is an application of the principle of:​

A) Conservation of mass​
B) Conservation of energy​
C) Conservation of momentum​
D) Conservation of charge​
Answer: B​

293.​ In an ideal spring system, the work done in compressing the spring is stored
as:​
A) Kinetic energy​
B) Elastic potential energy​
C) Thermal energy​
D) Gravitational potential energy​
Answer: B​

294.​ Mechanical work is a measure of energy transfer that results in:​

A) A change in the energy of a system​
B) A change in the system’s mass​
C) A change in the system’s color​
D) No observable effect​
Answer: A​
295.​ When a force is applied perpendicular to the direction of motion, the work
done is:​
A) Maximum​
B) Zero​
C) Negative​
D) Equal to the force​
Answer: B​

296.​ In a machine, energy losses due to friction are typically:​

A) Recovered completely​
B) Lost as heat​
C) Converted into kinetic energy​
D) Stored as potential energy​
Answer: B​

297.​ The concept of mechanical work is fundamental to understanding:​

A) Energy conservation in dynamic systems​
B) Chemical reactions​
C) Electrical circuits​
D) Magnetic fields​
Answer: A​

298.​ Work can be calculated using the formula:​

A) W = Fd cosθ​
B) W = Fd sinθ​
C) W = F/d​
D) W = F + d​
Answer: A​

299.​ If a force of 10 N is applied over a distance of 5 m at an angle of 0° to the

displacement, the work done is:​
A) 50 J​
B) 10 J​
C) 5 J​
D) 0 J​
Answer: A​

300.​ The term “net work” refers to:​

A) The work done by one force only​
B) The sum of work done by all forces acting on an object​
C) Work done against friction only​
D) Work done by gravity only​
Answer: B​
Section 11: Energy – Forms and Sources (Questions
301–320)
301.​ Energy can exist in many forms, including:​
A) Kinetic, potential, thermal, electrical, chemical, and nuclear​
B) Only kinetic and potential​
C) Only thermal and electrical​
D) Only chemical and nuclear​
Answer: A​

302.​ The law of conservation of energy states that:​

A) Energy is created and destroyed​
B) Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed​
C) Energy increases over time​
D) Energy decreases over time​
Answer: B​

303.​ Mechanical energy is the sum of:​

A) Kinetic and potential energy​
B) Thermal and electrical energy​
C) Chemical and nuclear energy​
D) Light and sound energy​
Answer: A​

304.​ A common renewable energy source is:​

A) Coal​
B) Solar energy​
C) Natural gas​
D) Nuclear power​
Answer: B​

305.​ Fossil fuels are an example of:​

A) Renewable energy sources​
B) Non‑renewable energy sources​
C) Infinite energy sources​
D) Mechanical energy sources​
Answer: B​

306.​ The energy stored in food is an example of:​

A) Chemical energy​
B) Nuclear energy​
 C) Mechanical energy​
D) Electrical energy​
Answer: A​

307.​ In a hydroelectric power plant, potential energy of water is converted into:​

A) Thermal energy​
B) Electrical energy​
C) Chemical energy​
D) Nuclear energy​
Answer: B​

308.​ The energy in wind is harnessed by converting the kinetic energy of air into:​
A) Thermal energy​
B) Electrical energy​
C) Chemical energy​
D) Sound energy​
Answer: B​

309.​ Solar panels convert which form of energy into electrical energy?​
A) Thermal energy​
B) Radiant energy​
C) Kinetic energy​
D) Chemical energy​
Answer: B​

310.​ Nuclear energy is released during:​

A) Chemical reactions​
B) Nuclear fission or fusion​
C) Combustion​
D) Friction​
Answer: B​

311.​ The efficiency of an energy conversion device is measured by the ratio of:​
A) Output energy to input energy​
B) Input energy to output energy​
C) Output power to mass​
D) Input power to time​
Answer: A​

312.​ In energy terms, work is the means by which energy is:​

A) Lost​
B) Transferred​
C) Destroyed​
D) Stored permanently​
 Answer: B​

313.​ Renewable energy sources are those that can be:​

A) Replenished naturally over time​
B) Exhausted quickly​
C) Created from nothing​
D) Only used once​
Answer: A​

314.​ Non‑renewable energy sources include:​

A) Wind and solar​
B) Fossil fuels and nuclear energy​
C) Hydroelectric and geothermal​
D) Biomass and tidal​
Answer: B​

315.​ Thermal energy is the energy associated with:​

A) Motion of particles in matter​
B) The position of objects​
C) Chemical bonds only​
D) Nuclear reactions exclusively​
Answer: A​

316.​ Electrical energy is produced when:​

A) Electrons flow through a conductor​
B) A mass is raised​
C) Friction occurs​
D) Light is emitted​
Answer: A​

317.​ Chemical energy is stored in:​

A) The bonds between atoms and molecules​
B) Moving objects​
C) Electric currents​
D) Gravitational fields​
Answer: A​

318.​ Energy sources that produce less pollution and greenhouse gases are often
termed:​
A) Clean energy​
B) Dirty energy​
C) Non‑renewable energy​
D) Fossil fuels​
 Answer: A​

319.​ An example of a mechanical energy conversion is seen in:​

A) A windmill generating electricity​
B) A battery powering a light bulb​
C) Chemical energy in food​
D) Nuclear fission​
Answer: A​

320.​ The term “energy density” refers to:​

A) Energy per unit mass or volume​
B) The total energy output​
C) The efficiency of energy conversion​
D) The speed of energy transfer​
Answer: A​

Section 12: Newton’s Laws of Motion, Acceleration Due to

Gravity, and Gravitational Equations (Questions 321–350)
321.​ Newton’s First Law of Motion (the law of inertia) states that an object will
remain at rest or in uniform motion in a straight line unless acted on by a:​
A) Constant force​
B) Net external force​
C) Frictional force only​
D) Magnetic force only​
Answer: B​

322.​ Newton’s Second Law of Motion is mathematically expressed as:​

A) F = m + a​
B) F = m × a​
C) F = m / a​
D) F = a / m​
Answer: B​

323.​ Newton’s Third Law of Motion states that for every action, there is an equal
and:​
A) Similar reaction​
B) Opposite reaction​
C) Greater reaction​
D) No reaction​
 Answer: B​

324.​ Which of the following best describes inertia?​

A) The tendency of an object to change its state of motion​
B) The tendency of an object to remain in its current state of motion​
C) The acceleration of an object under force​
D) The force required to move an object​
Answer: B​

325.​ If an object is at rest, according to Newton’s First Law, it will remain at rest
unless acted on by a:​
A) Balanced force​
B) Net unbalanced force​
C) Zero force​
D) Inverse force​
Answer: B​

326.​ Newton’s Second Law implies that if the net force on an object is doubled, its
acceleration will:​
A) Halve​
B) Double​
C) Remain the same​
D) Become zero​
Answer: B​

327.​ Newton’s Third Law means that forces always occur in:​
A) Equal and opposite pairs​
B) Unequal pairs​
C) Single isolated instances​
D) Only gravitational interactions​
Answer: A​

328.​ Which law explains why a rocket can propel itself in space?​
A) Newton’s First Law​
B) Newton’s Second Law​
C) Newton’s Third Law​
D) The law of universal gravitation​
Answer: C​

329.​ Acceleration due to gravity (g) on Earth is approximately:​

A) 9.8 m/s²​
B) 9.8 km/s²​
C) 10 m/s² exactly​
D) 9.8 m/s​
 Answer: A​

330.​ The gravitational force between two objects is directly proportional to the
product of their masses and inversely proportional to:​
A) The sum of the distances between them​
B) The square of the distance between their centers​
C) The product of their distances​
D) The cube of the distance between them​
Answer: B​

331.​ Which of Newton’s laws is primarily used to analyze objects moving under
gravity in free‑fall?​
A) First Law​
B) Second Law​
C) Third Law​
D) None of the above​
Answer: B​

332.​ In free‑fall motion (ignoring air resistance), an object’s acceleration is:​

A) Zero​
B) Equal to g​
C) Variable​
D) Dependent on mass​
Answer: B​

333.​ A projectile launched upward will experience a deceleration of approximately:​

A) 9.8 m/s² downward​
B) 9.8 m/s² upward​
C) 0 m/s²​
D) An acceleration that increases with time​
Answer: A​

334.​ For objects moving under the influence of gravity near Earth’s surface, the
equations of motion include the term:​
A) a = 0​
B) a = g​
C) a = u​
D) a = s​
Answer: B​

335.​ When analyzing projectile motion, the horizontal component of velocity is:​
A) Constant (ignoring air resistance)​
B) Increasing​
C) Decreasing​
 D) Zero​
Answer: A​

336.​ In vertical projectile motion, the object’s velocity at the highest point is:​
A) Maximum​
B) Zero​
C) Equal to g​
D) Unchanged​
Answer: B​

337.​ The range of a projectile is determined by its:​

A) Initial speed and launch angle​
B) Mass only​
C) Acceleration due to gravity only​
D) Height of launch only​
Answer: A​

338.​ Newton’s Second Law (F = ma) implies that for a given force, an object with a
larger mass will experience:​
A) Greater acceleration​
B) Smaller acceleration​
C) The same acceleration​
D) No acceleration​
Answer: B​

339.​ In the absence of air resistance, two objects dropped from the same height will
hit the ground at the same time because:​
A) Their masses are equal​
B) Their accelerations due to gravity are equal​
C) They have the same initial speed​
D) They experience the same friction​
Answer: B​

340.​ Which of the following best describes the gravitational potential energy of an
object near Earth’s surface?​
A) PE = ½mv²​
B) PE = mgh​
C) PE = F × s​
D) PE = mg²h​
Answer: B​

341.​ When an object is projected upward, its kinetic energy at the highest point is:​
A) Maximum​
B) Zero​
 C) Equal to its gravitational potential energy​
D) Negative​
Answer: B​

342.​ Newton’s laws of motion are fundamental to analyzing:​

A) Only horizontal motion​
B) Only vertical motion​
C) Both horizontal and vertical components of motion under gravity​
D) Neither​
Answer: C​

343.​ A body moving in a gravitational field is influenced by a force given by:​

A) F = mg​
B) F = m/g​
C) F = m + g​
D) F = g/m​
Answer: A​

344.​ In free‑fall, the displacement of an object after time t is given by:​

A) s = ut​
B) s = ½gt²​
C) s = gt​
D) s = u + gt​
Answer: B​

345.​ For a projectile launched horizontally from a height, the time of flight depends
only on:​
A) The horizontal velocity​
B) The height and gravitational acceleration​
C) The mass of the projectile​
D) The launch angle​
Answer: B​

346.​ The concept of “weight” is defined as the force exerted on an object due to:​
A) Its mass and the acceleration due to gravity​
B) Its mass only​
C) Its volume only​
D) Its density only​
Answer: A​

347.​ When calculating the net force on an object in free‑fall, one must consider:​
A) Only gravitational force​
B) Gravitational force minus any upward forces (like air resistance)​
C) Only air resistance​
 D) Only friction​
Answer: B​

348.​ In projectile motion, the vertical and horizontal motions are:​

A) Dependent on each other​
B) Independent of each other (when air resistance is negligible)​
C) Both determined by mass​
D) Governed by the same equation​
Answer: B​

349.​ Which of the following is a common assumption in equations of motion under

gravity?​
A) Air resistance is significant​
B) Acceleration due to gravity is constant​
C) The Earth’s curvature is considered​
D) Mass changes during motion​
Answer: B​

350.​ Newton’s laws, combined with the equations of motion under gravity, allow us
to predict:​
A) The color of an object​
B) The future motion of objects under gravitational influence​
C) The chemical composition of an object​
D) The electromagnetic properties of an object​
Answer: B​

This set of 350 MCQs spans the full spectrum of dynamics topics—from the basic definitions of
motion and its graphical/mathematical representations to periodic phenomena, oscillatory
systems like the simple pendulum, wave motion, energy concepts, and Newton’s laws with
gravitational motion. These questions are designed to offer a 360° in‑depth understanding of
dynamics for competitive examinations.