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12th Medical

The document outlines an objective test for Class 10+2 covering topics in Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and Zoology. It includes various questions related to motion, electric fields, and chemical properties, with a time limit of 3 hours and a total mark of 720. The test features multiple-choice questions that assess students' understanding of key concepts in each subject area.

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Naveen Yadav
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
2 views22 pages

12th Medical

The document outlines an objective test for Class 10+2 covering topics in Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and Zoology. It includes various questions related to motion, electric fields, and chemical properties, with a time limit of 3 hours and a total mark of 720. The test features multiple-choice questions that assess students' understanding of key concepts in each subject area.

Uploaded by

Naveen Yadav
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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OBJECTIVE TEST (MED)

Physics Motion in 1D, Vector, Gauss Law, Electric flux, Electric potential, electric potential energy,
Chemistry: Periodic properties, Stereo isomerism and reaction mechanism,Haloalkane &
Haloarenes, bio: Principle of inheritance and variation (upto dihybrid cross), Gametogenesis,
Menstrual cycle flowering plants, Zoology : The living World, Human Reproduction (Male and
Female reproductive system
Time :- 3 Hrs. Class- 10+2 MM-720
PHYSICS (07APRIL,2025)
1. 1. The velocity of the particle at any time t 4. A vehicle travels half the distance L with
speed v 1 and other half with speed v 2 , then
−1
is given by v=2t(3−t ) m s At what time is
its velocity maximum? its average speed is
2 3 v 1+ v 2 2 v 1+ v 2
s s
(b) 3 s (c) 3 (d) 2 (a) 2 (b) v 1 + v 2
(a) 2 s 2 v1 v2 L( v 1 + v 2 )
2. The speed-time graph of a particle moving v 1+ v 2 (d) v 1 v 2
along a fixed direction is shown in the
(c)
figure. The distance traversed by the
5. In the given v-t graph the distance
particle between t = 2 s the particle t = 6 s
travelled by the body in 5 second will bel
is

(a) 100 m (b) 80 m (c) 40 m (d) 20


(a) 26 m (b) 36 m m
(c) 46 m (d) 56 m
6. A particle moving along a straight line has
−2
a velocity v m s , when it cleared a
-1
3. A car moving with a speed of 50 km h
can be stopped by brakers after at least 6 distance of x m. These two are connected
m. If the same car is moving at a speed of
100 km h-1 the minimum stopping distance by the relation v=√ 49+x . When its
−1
is velocity is 1 m s , its acceleration is
(a) 6 m (b) 12 m (c) 18 m (d) 24 2 m s−2 −2
(a) (b) 7 m s
m
1 m s−2 (d) 0.5 m s
−2
(c)

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7. An auto travelling along a straight road the first second and that in the next two
increases its speed from 30.0 m s-1 to 50.0 seconds
m s-1 in a distance of 180 m. If the Y
30

Displacement
acceleration is constant, how much time
20
elapses while the auto moves this distance? 10
(a) 6.0 s (b) 4.5 s (c) 3.6 s (d) 7.0 X
0
s 1 2 3
Time

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 :


8. A particle is released from rest from a 1
tower of height 3h. The ratio of the
intervals of time to cover three equal 12. If the displacement of a particle varies with
heights h is
(a) t 1 : t 2 : t 3 =3 : 2: 1 time as , the
(b) t 1 :t 2 :t 3 =1: ( √2−1 ) : ( √3 :2 ) (a) velocity of the particle is inversely
(c) t 1 :t 2 :t 3 =√ 3: √2 :1 porportional to t
t 1 :t 2 :t 3 =1: ( √ 2−1 ) : ( √ 3−√ 2 ) (b) velocity of the particle is directly
(d) proportional to t
9. The displacement of the point of the wheel (c) velocity of the particle is proportional
initially in contact with the ground, when to
the wheel roles forward half a revolution (d) the particle moves with a constant
will be (radius of the wheel is R) acceleration
R
√ π 2+ 4 (b) R √ π +4
2
(a) (c) 2 πR (d)
πR 13. Two balls are dropped from the same point
after an interval of 1 s. If acceleration due
10. The motion of a particle is described by the to gravity is 10 m/s2, what will be the
2
equation x=a +bt where a=15 cm and separation 3 seconds after the release of
b=3 cm. Its instantaneous velocity at time first ball?
3 sec will be (a) 5 m (b) 10 m
(a) 36 cm/sec (b) 18 (c) 25 m (d) 20 m
cm/sec
(c) 16 cm/sec (d) 32 14. Two bodies of different masses ma and mb
cm/sec are dropped from two different heights, viz
a and b. The ratio of times taken by the
11. Figure shows the displacement time graph two to drop through these distance is
of a body. What is the ratio of the speed in

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−9×103 V (d)
(c)
(a) a : b (b) −3×103 V

(c) (d) 18. As per the diagram a point charge +q is


placed at the origin O. work done in taking
another point charge −Q from the point A
15. A man standing on the edge of a cliff [coordinates (0,a)] to another point B
throws a stone straight up with initial speed [coordinates (a,0)] along the straight line
u and then throws another stone straight AB is.
down with same initial speed u from the
same position. Find the ratio of speeds, the
stones would have attained when they hit
the ground at the base of the cliff?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 3 : 1 (a) Zero (b)

16. A cube of side x has a charge q at each of


( qQ 1
)
4 πε 0 a 2
√2 a

its vertices. The potential due to this charge


array at the centre of the cube is. (c)
(
−qQ 1
4 πε 0 a 2 )
√2 a
(d)
4q
( )
4q qQ 1 a
3 πε 0 x (b) √3 πε 0 x 4 πε 0 a 2 √ 2
(a)
3q 2q 19. The electric field and the potential of an
electric dipole vary with distance r as.
4 πε 0 x (d) √3 πε 0 x 1 1 1 1
and 2 and
(c)
(a) r r
2
r (b) r
1 1 1 1
17. Two points A and B are located in 2
and 3 3
and 2
r r (d) r r
diametrically opposite directions of a point
(c)
charge of +2 μC at distances 2 m and 1 m
respectively from it. The potential
difference between A and B is.
3 4
(a) 3×10 V (b) 6×10 V 20. For equal charges q each are placed at four
corners of a square of side a each. Work

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done in carrying a charge −q from its
centre to infinity is.
√2 q 2
24. Two infinite linear charges are placed
(b) πε 0 a parallel at 0.1 m apart. If each has charge
(a) Zero density of 5 C/m, then the force per unit
√2 q q2 length of one of linear charges in N/m is :
πε 0 a (a) 2.5 (b) 3.25
(d) πε 0 a
(c) 4.5 (d) 7.5
(c)

21. A system consists of two charges 4 μC and 25. Two spheres of radii 2 cm and 4 cm are
−3 μC with no external field placed at (-5 charged equally, then the ratio of surface
charge density on the surfaces of the
cm, 0,0) and (5 cm, 0, 0) respectively. The
spheres will be –
amount of workdone required to separate the
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1
two charges infinitely away from each other
(c) 8 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
is
(a) −1.1 J (b) 2 J (c) 2.5 J (d) 3 J
26. Two large sized charged plates have a
22. A hollow charged metal sphere has radius r. charge density of + and -. The resultant
If the potential difference between its surface force on the proton located midway
and a point at a distance 3r from the centre is between them will be –
V, then the electric field intensity at distance
3r from the centre is - (a) (b)
V V V V
3r (b) 4 r (c) 6 r (d) 2r (c) (d) zero
(a)

23. Find the electric field between 6 m and 8 m 27. A simple pendulum has a length , mass of
is– bob m. The bob is given a charge q
coulomb. The pendulum is suspended in a
uniform horizontal electric field of strength
E as shown in figure, then calculate the
time period of oscillation when the bob is
slightly displace from its mean position is :

(a) 10 V/m (b) – 10 V/m


(c) 20 V/m (d) – 20 V/m

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E (c) along OC (d) along OD

q1m 30. Three large parallel plates have uniform


surface charge densities as shown in the
figure. Find out electric field intensity at
point P.
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

28. A charged particle of charge q and mass m (a) (b)


is released from rest in an uniform electric
field E. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the (c) (d)
kinetic energy of the charged particle after
time ‘t’ seconds is 31. An infinite number of charges of equal
magnitude q, but alternate charge of
(a) (b) opposite sign are placed along the x-axis at
x = 1, x = 2, x = 4, x =8,... and so on. The
electric potential at the point x = 0 due to
(c) (d) all these charges will be –
(a) kq/2 (b) kq/3
29. The linear charge density on upper half of a (c) 2kq/3 (d) 3kq/2
segment of ring is  and at lower half, it is –
. The direction of electric field at centre
O of ring is : 32. 64 charged drops coalesce to from a bigger
charged drop. The potential of bigger drop
will be times that of smaller drop –
(a) 4 (b) 16
(c) 64 (d) 8

(a) along OA (b) along OB

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33. Consider a thin spherical shell of radius R E (r )
V(r)
with its centre at the origin, carrying
uniform positive surface charge density.
The variation of the magnitude of the

electric field and the electric potential


V(r) with the distance r from the centre, is
0 r
best represented by which graph? (d) R

E (r )
V(r)
34. Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2
respectively are charged and joined by a
wire. The ratio of electric fields of spheres
is

0 r
(a) R
(a) (b)
E (r )
V(r)

(c) (d)

35. Some equipotential surfaces are shown in


the figure. The magnitude and direction of
the electric field is-
0 r
(b) R
20V 30V 40V
E (r ) 
V(r) 0  
10 20 30 (cm )
 = 30º

(a) 100 V/m making angle 1200 with the x-


axis
(b) 100 V/m making angle 600 with the x-
0 r axis
(c) R
(c) 200 V/m making angle 1200 with the x-
axis
(d) none of the above

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36. Electric potential at any point is V = – that of outer cylinder is ‘b’. A charged
particle of mass m, charge q revolves in a
5x + 3y + , then the magnitude of the circle of radius r. Then, its speed ‘v’ is :
electric field is - (Neglect gravity and assume the radii of
both the cylinders to be very small in
(a) (b) comparison to their length.)
(c) (d) 7

37. The electric potential V as a function of


distance x (in metre) is given by

V = (5x2 + 10x – 9) volt.


The value of electric field at x = 1 m would
be (a) – 20 volt/m (b) 6 volt/m
(c) 11 volt/m (d) –23 volt/m
(a) (b)

38. The electric potential at a point due to an (c) (d)


electric dipole will be –
41. Figure shows a closed surface which
intersects a conducting sphere. If a positive
(a) (b) charge is placed at the point P, the flux of
the electric field through the closed surface

(c) (d)

39. A charge q is placed at the corner of a cube


of side a. The electric flux through the cube (a) will remain zero
is : (b) will become positive
(c) will become neagative
(d) will become undefined
(a) (b)

42. A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread


(c) (d) S, which makes an angle  with a large
40. Figure shows two large cylindrical shells charged conducting sheet P, as shown in
having uniform linear charge densities + the figure. The surface charge density  of
and – . Radius of inner cylinder is ‘a’ and the sheet is proportional to

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(c) (d)

(a) cot  (b) cos 


(c) tan  (d) sin 

43. What is the flux through a cube of side 'a' if


a point charge of q is at one of its corner

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

44. Two parallel infinite line charges with +2 (MED.)CHEMISTRY


linear charge densities + C/m and – C/m 07-04-2025
are placed at a distance of 2R in free 46. Which pair of atomic numbers represents s

space. What is the electric field mid-way -block elements


between the two line charges ? (a) 7, 15 (b) 6, 12
(c) 9, 17 (d) 3, 12
λ
N /C
(a) 2 πε 0 R (b) zero 47. Beryllium resembles much with
(a) Zn (b) Al
2λ λ (c) Li (d) Ra
N /C N /C
(c) πε 0 R (d) πε 0 R
48. The long form of periodic table is based on
(a) Shape of the atom
45. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C (b) Mass of the atom
of respective radii a,b and c (a < b < c) (c) Atomic number of the atom
have surface charge densities +, – and (d) Electronegativity
+ respectively. The potential of shell B is
: 49. The total number of rare–earth elements is
(a) 8 (b) 32
(c) 14 (d) 10
(a) (b)
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50. The element with atomic number 55 correct relationship between two energy
belongs to would be
(a) s-block (b) p-block (a) E1 < E2 (b) E1 =E2
(c) d-block (d) f-block (c) E1 > E2 (d) E1 ≠E2
58. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al
51. Whose name is not associated with the and Si are in the order
development of Periodic Table (a) Na < Mg > Al < Si
(a) Prout’s (b) Newlands (b) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(c) Rutherford (d) Loother Meyer (c) Na < Mg < Al > Si
(d) Na > Mg > Al < Si
52. Which cation has smallest radius 59. The decreasing order of the ionisation
(a) K + (b) Na+ potential in the following elements is
(c) Li + (d) Be 2+ (a) Ne>Cl > P> S> Al> Mg
53. Which of the following is largest (b) Ne>Cl > P> S> Mg > Al
(a) Cl− (b) S2− (c) Ne>Cl >S > P> Mg > Al
+
(c) Na (d) F− (d) Ne>Cl >S > P> Al> Mg
54. Atomic radii of fluorine and neon in 60. Match List – I with List - II
angstrom units are respectively given by LIST-I LIST-II
(a) 0.762, 1.60 (b)1.60, 1.60 (Atomic number) (Block of periodic
table)
(c) 0.72, 0.72
(A) 37 I. p-block
(d)None of these values (B)78 II. d-block
(C) 52 III. f-block
55. Ionic radii are (D) 65 IV. s-block
(a) Directly proportional to effective Choose the correct answer from the
nuclear charge options given below:
(b) Directly proportional to square of (a)A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
effective nuclear charge (b) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(c) Inversely proportional to effective (c)A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
nuclear charge (d)A-IV,B-II,C-I,D-III
(d) Inversely proportional to square of 61. An element with atomic number 21 is a
effective nuclear charge. (a)transition element
(b) alkali meta l
56. Ionization potential is lowest for (c)halogen
(a) Halogens (b) Inert gases (d) representative element.
(c) Alkaline earth metals (d) Alkali metals 62. Match the following:
+ + 2+
57. A→ A +e , E 1 and A → A +e , E2 . The List-I List – II
energy required to pull out the two (Atomic number) (Group number
electrons are E1 and E2 respectively. The & Period number)

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A. 56 I. 9,4 (b) K > Al> Na> Be
B. 50 II. 3,6 (c) Al> K > Na> Be
C. 27 III. 14,5 (d) Na> K > Be> Al
D. 58 IV. 2,6 68. The correct stereochemical formula of
(a) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II Trans-3-chloro-1-phenylbut-1-ene is
(b) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
(c) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
(d) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II (a)
63. The general formula of the compound
formed when a metal (M) of group-1 reacts
with non metal (x) of group-16 is
(a) MX 6 (b) M 2 X 3 (b)
(c) MX 2 (d) M 2 X
64.The number of valence electrons present in
an element with atomic number 117 is (c)
(a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 6 (d) 5

65. What is the atomic number of the element (d)


with symbol us? 69. By acidic hydrolysis - CN group changes
(a) 117 (b) 116 to
(c) 115 (d) 114
66. Match the following.
List I List II I.
A. Rubidium (1) Germanium
B. Platinum (2) Radioactive
chalcogen
C. Eka-silicon (3) s-block element II.
D. Polonium (4) Atomic number 78

A B C D III.
(a) 4 3 2 1 In which case(s), preference group of
(b) 3 4 1 2 nomenclature does not change?
(c) 2 1 4 3 (a) Both I and II (b) Both II and III
(d) 4 3 1 2 (c) Both I and III (d) I, II and III

67. The correct order of the metallic character 70. Formula of phenyl carbinol and chloral are
of the elements Be , Al , Na , K is respectively:
(a) K > Na> Al> Be (a) 6 H 5 CH 2 CH 2 OH and CHCl 2 CHO
C

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(b) C 6 H 5 CH 2 OH and CCl3 CHO KMnO 4
(c) C 6 H 5 CH 2 OH and CH 2 Cl .CHO (d) Aqueous
(d) C 6 H 5 CHO and CHCl 2 CHO
76. Identify the products (A) and (B) in the
71. Which of the following is not an allylic reactions.
halide? RX + AgCN → ( A)+ AgX ;
(a) 4- Bromopent – 2 – ene RX + KCN → ( B)+KX
(b) 3- bromo -2- methylbut -1-ene (a) ( A ) → RCN , ( B ) →RCN
(c) 1-Bromobut -2- ene
(b) ( A ) → RCN , ( B ) →RNC
(d) 4-bromobut -1-ene
(c) ( A ) →RNC , (B ) → RCN
72. A primary alkyl halide would prefer to ( A ) →RNC , (B ) → RNC
(d)
undergo___
(a) S N 1 reaction (b) S N 2 reaction KCN Y⃗
I 3 X⃗
77. CH 3 OH P⃗ Hydrolysis Z .
(c) α−e lim ination (d) Racemisation The final product in the reaction is
(a) CH 3 OH (b) HCOOH
CH 3 CHO (d) CH 3 COOH
(c)
73. Bromination of methane is presence of
sunlight is a
(a) Nucleophilic substitution 78. The end product (Q) in the following
(b) Free radical substitution sequence of reactions is.
(c) electrophilic substitution
(d) nucleophilic addition

74. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in (a) (b)


presence of FeCl 3 gives predominantly.
(a) A mixture of o-and p-chlorotoluene (c) (d)
(b) Benzyl chloride 79. Which of the following statements
(c) M-Chlorotoluene
regarding the S N 1 reaction shown by alkyl
(d) Benzoyl chloride.
halide is not correct?
(a) The added nucleophile plays no kinetic
75. Ethyl alcohol is obtained when ethyl
chloride is boiled with. role in S N 1 reaction
(a) Alcoholic KOH (b) The S N 1 reaction involves the inversion
(b) Aqueous KOH of configuration of the optically active
(c) Water substrate.

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(c) the S N 1 reaction on the chiral starting (c) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
material ends up with racemization of the CH 3 CH 2 CHI 2
product. (d)
(d) the more stable the carbocation
intermediate the faster the S N 1 reaction. 84. Among the isomers of C 5 H 11 Cl , the one
which is chiral is
CH 3
|
80. Which one of the following CH 3 − C −CH 2 Cl
chlorohydrocarbons readily undergoes |
(i) CH
solvolysis.
3

2,2-Dimethyl-1-Chloropropane
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 −C H−CH 3
(a) CH 2 =CHCl (b) (ii)
|
Cl

2-Chloropentane
CH 3
(c) (d) |
CH 3 CH 2 −C −CH 3
|
81. S N 1 reaction is fastest in (iii) Cl

2-Methyl-2-Chlorobutane
CH 3 CH 2 −CH −CH 2 CH 3
(a) (b) |
(iv) Cl

3-Chloropentane
(a) (i) and (ii)
(c) (d) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
82. Among the choices of alkyl bromide, the (d) only (ii)
last reactive bromide in S N 2 reaction is
(a) 1-Bromopentane 85. Reaction of trans-2-phenyl-1-
(b) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane bromocuyclopentane on reaction with
(c) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane alcoholic KOH produces
(d) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane. (a) 4-phenycyclopentene
(b) 2-phenycyclopentene
83. (c) 1-phenycyclopentene
CH 3 −C H −CH 3⃗
alc . KOH X ⃗
HBr Y ⃗
NaI Z
(d) 3-phenylcyclopenetene.
| Peroxide Acetone
Br

In the given reaction what will be the final 86. Chloroform is kept in dark coloured bottles
product. because
(a) It reacts with clear glass
(a) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 I
(b) It undergoes chlorination in transparent
(b) CH 3 CHICH 2 I glass bottles

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Cl− (c) AlCl 3
+
(c) It is oxidized to poisonous gas, (b) Cl (d)
phosgene in sunlight (a)
(d) It starts burning when exposed to [ AlCl 4 ]−
sunlight.

87. Identify the compound ‘Y’ in the following


reaction

BOTANY (07-04-2025)
91. For Homologous pair of chromosome,
which statement is not true
(a) (b) (1) Similar in Morphology and structure
(2) Gene for same character present
(3) Show pairing in mitosis
(4) Show pairing in Meiosis
(c) (d) 92. A gene showing codominance has
(1) One allele dominant on the other
88. Which reagent will you use for the (2) Alleles tightly linked on the same
following reaction chromosome
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 ⃗ CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Cl+CH 3 CH 2 CHClCH 3 (3) Alleles that are recessive to each other
(a) Cl 2 / UV light (4) Both alleles independently expressed in the
heterozygote
(b) NaCl +H 2 SO 4
(c) Cl 2 gas in dark 93. In diploid organism , normally number of
(d) Cl 2 gas in the presence of iron in dark gene for one character is -
(1) two (2) three
89. The position of –Br in the compound in (3) four (4) one
CH 3 CH =CHC( Br )(CH 3 )2 can be classified 94. If Green seed is one trait, than trait which
as________. have common locus is –
(a) Allyl (b) Ary (1) Plant height (2) Wrinkled seed
(c) Vinyl (d) Secondary (3) Green seed (4) yellow seed
95. On a one chromosome pair have three
90. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of locus and it is heterozygous on all locus than it
chlorine with benzene in the presence of can be represented by –
AlCl 3 . Which of the following species (1) AABBCC (2) AaBbCC
(3) AaDdYj (4) DdRrYy
attacks the benzene ring in this reaction. 96. Which of the following represent haploid
pollen –
(1) Aa (2) Bb
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(3) BDd (4) aBd 102. Mark the incorrect matched

97. Which genotype is correctly matched – (1) Genotype of parents in mendel experiment
(1) Diploid- TtYR is Pure
(2) Haploid- AaTy (2) Genotype of F1 generation resemble any
(3) Dihybrid – AaRY one of the parent in mendel’s cross
(4) Trihybrid- AaRrYy (3) Genotype of F2 generation is show both
98. If plant have genotype of AaBbCc than homozygous and heterozygous
possible genotype of pollen is – (4) Recessive trait express only in
(1) AaB, BCb homozygous state
(2) ABD, AAB
(3) abc, ABD 103. Which of the following characteristics
(4) ABc, abC, Abc,ABC represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups in
humans?
99. Dihybrid double heteozygous condition 1. Dominance
represented by – 2. Codominance
(1) TTRR (2) TtRr 3. Multiple alleles
(3) TTRr (4) ttRr 4. Incomplete dominance
5. Polygenic inheritance
100 Mark the incorrect statement – (1) 2, 4 and 5 (2) 1, 2 and 3
(1) Mendel’s hydridisation experimental (3) 2, 3 and 5
material was Pisum sativum (4) 1, 3 and 4
(2) Through artificial selection and
domestication from ancestral wild cows to 104. F1 progeny of Mendelian dihybrid cross
well-known Sahiwal cows produces
(3) Gregor Mendel, conducted hybridisation (1) Two types of pollen grains
experiments on garden peas for seven years (2) Four genotypes of gametes
(1856-1863) (3) Two types of eggs and four type of pollen
(4) Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant (4) Four types of Diploid pollens
varieties, as pairs which were similar except 105. In monohybrid cross, pure homozygous
for two character with contrasting traits. plants will be……in F2
(1) one (2) two
101. From following example- Tall plant, (3) three (4) four
Axial flower, green seed, yellow pod, white
flower , round seed how many are dominant 106. In a cross between a pure Tall Round pea
trait plant with Dwarf Wrinkled plant, mark the
(1) Two (2) Three incorrect for F2 generation?
(3) Four (4) Five (1) Total four phenotype

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(2) Total nine genotype heterozygous axial violet flower with terminal
(3) Double heterozygous genotype is four in white flower then phenotypic ratio is
number (1) 50:50 (2) 9:3:3:1
(4) Total dwarf plants are three in number (3) 1:3 (4) 1:1:1:1
112. mark the incorrect match
107. In a dihbrid cross between TtRR with (1) Tt cross with tt – two phenotype
TtRr , not true (2) Tt cross with TT – one phenotype and one
(1) Eight boxes in punett square genotype
(2) Only round plant produced not wrinkled (3) TtRR cross with ttrr- two phenotype and
(3) Tall round and dwarf round plants two genotype
produced (4) TTRr cross with ttRr – give two phenotype
(4) Round and wrinkled plants are equal in and three genotype
number
113. A plants of genotypes TtRRYY is selfed .
108. In a cross between RrYy round yellow Phenotypic ratio of f2 generation would be
with rryy give percentage of round yellow is (1) 1:1
(1) 100% (2) 25% (2) 9:3:3:1
(3) 50% (4) 75% (3) 3:1
(4) 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1
109. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over 114. If a progeny having genotype TtRr is
yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant selfed than number of progeny with tall round
over shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt phenotype out of total progeny is -
genotype is crossed with a plant that is rrtt, (1) 9/16 (2) 10/16
(1) 25% will be tall with red fruit (3) 5/16 (4) 12/16
(2) 50% will be tall with red fruit 115. If a progeny TtRr is selfed than number
(3) 75% will be tall with red fruit of progeny with TtRr genotype is-
(4) All of the offspring will tall with red fruit (1) 9/16 (2) 10/16
(3) 4/16 (4) 12/16
116. In a cross between AaBb x aabb, the ratio
of F2 genotypes between AaBb, aaBb, Aabb,
110. Mark the incorrect for number of gametes and aaBb would be
(1) TtRrYy- Three (2) TTRrYy- Four (1) 9:3:3:1 (2) 2:1:1:2
(3) TtRrYyZz- sixteen (3) 1:1:1:1 (4) 7:5:3:1
(4) TTRRYY- one 117. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea,
round seed shape (RR) was dominant over
111. In pea plants axial flower is dominant wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY)
over terminal flower and violet flower is was dominant over green cotyledon (yy), what
dominat over white flower if we cross are the expected number of plant with

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genotype RrYY in the F2 generation of the (1) 1856-1863 (2) 1840-1850
cross RRYY x rryy? (3) 1857-1869 (4) 1870-1877
(1) two (2) four 124. How many pairs of true breeding varieties
(3) two out of sixteen (4) four out of sixteen were selected by Mendel for his experiment on
118. The offspring of AAbb x aaBB is crossed pea plant?
with aabbThe genotypic ratio of progeny will (1) 12 (2) 13
be (3) 14 (4) 15
(1) 9:3:3:1 (2) 1:2:1 125. Among the following characters, which
(3) 1:1:1:1 (4) 4:1 one was not considered by Mendel in his
experiments on pea?
119. Number of genotypes produced when two (1) Stem – Tall or Dwarf
individuals of same genotype ‘YyRrTt’ are (2) Eye colour – Black and green
crossed with each other (3) Seed – Green or yellow
(1) 4 (2) 45 (4) Pod – Inflated or constricted
(3) 28 (4) 27
126. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over
120. Mendel’s law of segregation is applicable yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant
to over shortness (t). If a plant with Rrtt genotype
(1) Dihybrid cross only is crossed with a plant that is rrtt then -
(2) Both dihybrid and monohybrid crosses (A) 75% will be tall with red fruit.
(3) Monohybrid cross only (B) All the offspring will be tall with red fruit.
(4) Dihybrid but not monohybrid cross (C) 25% will be tall with red fruit.
(D) 50% will be short with red fruit.
121. Tall plants with round seeds (TTRr) is
crossed with dwarf plants having wrinkled
seed (ttrr) then probability of round seed is
(1) 25 % (2) 50 %
(3) 16 % (4) 100 % 127. A common test to find the genotype of a
122. Mendel’s Law of dominance explains- hybrid by?
(1) Expression of only one of the parental (A) Crossing of one F2 progeny with male
characters in monohybrid cross in the F1 parent.
(2) Expression of both parental character in F2 (B) Crossing of one F2 progeny with female.
(3) Proportion of 3:1 obtained at the F2 (C) Studying the sexual behaviour of F1
generation progeny.
(4) All of the above (D) Crossing of one F1 progeny with recessive
male parent.
123. Which one from those given below is the
period of Mendel’s hybridization experiments?

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128. Law of independent assortment is green, wrinkled yellow, wrinkled green seeds
applicable for ? separately?
(A) All genes in all organisms. (A) 315, 108, 101, 32
(B) All genes of pea plant only. (B) 315, 122, 100, 56
(C) All linked genes only. (C) 315, 108, 100, 36
(D) All non linked genes only. (D) 318, 208, 122, 56
133. A gene is heterozygous at 4 gene locus.
129. If 2 persons with 'AB' blood group marry How many different type of gametes can it
and have sufficiently large number of children, form?
these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood (A) 2 (B) 3
group; ‘AB’ blood group; ‘B’ blood group in (C) 6 (D) 16
1: 2: 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein
electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ 134. Dihybrid cross states that -
and ‘B’ type protein in AB blood group (A) Tightly linked genes on the same
individuals. This is an example of- chromosome show very few recombinations.
(A) Co-dominance (B) Tightly linked genes on the same
(B) Incomplete dominance chromosome show higher recombinations.
(C) Partial dominance (C) Loosely linked genes on the same
(D) Complete dominance chromosome show few recombinations.
(D) Genes loosely linked on the same
130. In Dihybrid cross when heterozygous chromosome show similar recombinations as
round yellow are self-crossed, round green the tightly linked genes.
offspring are represented by the genotype ? 135. The F2 generation offspring in a plant
(A) RrYy, RrYY, RRYy showing incomplete dominance, exhibit -
(B) RrYy, RRyy, rryy (A) Variable genotypic and phenotypic ratios
(C) Rryy, RRyy (B) A genotypic ratio of 1 : 1
(D) RrYy, rryy, Rryy (C) A phenotypic ratio of 3 : 1
(D) Similar phenotypic and genotypic ratio of
131. A Dihybrid plant on self pollination 1 : 2 : 1.
produced 400 phenotypes with 9 types of ZOOLOGY
genotype. How many seeds will have genotype 136. Which is not a secondary sex organ
TtRr? inhuman?
(A) 200 (B) 100 (a) Vagina (b) Penis
(C) 50 (D) 150 (c) Prostate (d) Mammary gland
132. In a Dihybrid cross 556 seeds were
collected in F2 generation. Count them shape 137. Germinal epithelial cells are cuboidal
wise and colour wise as Round yellow, Round andthese are found in :-
(a) testes (b) ovaries

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(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above 145. The function of mitochondria in sperm
is to
138. Degenerative process of follicles or (a)Control the movements of sperm
eggs inovary is called :- (b)Provide energy for the movements of sperm
(a) metagenesis (b) atresia (c)Provide energy to nucleus
(c) regression (d) None of the above (d)Provide secretions required for penetrating
into ovum
139. Endometrium is lining of :-
(a) testis (b) urinary bladder 146. What are the diploid stages in
(c) uterus (d) ureter gametogenesis?
(a)Spermatogonia and secondary
140. Clitoris is present at the upper junction spermatocytes
of :- (b)Spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes
(a) labia majora (b) mons pubis (c)Spermatogonia and sperm
(c) perineum (d) labia minora (d)Primary spermatocytes and secondary
spermatocytes
141. Which of the following is not related
tovulva? 147. If 2 n=16 in a primary spermatocyte
(a) Mons veneris (b) Clitoris which is in metaphase of first meiotic
(c) Labia majora (d) Epididymis division. What shall be the total number of
chromatids in each secondary
142. Identify the cells which are stimulated spermatocyte?
by LH and synthesise androgens. (a)16 (b)24
(a)Sertoli cells (b)Leydig cells (c)32 (d)8
(c)Spermatogonia (d)Sperms
148. 1st polar body is formed at which stage
143. In a mammalian sperm, spirally of oogenesis?
arranged mitochondria around an axial (a)1st meiosis (b)2nd mitosis
filament occurs in: (c)1st mitosis (d)Differentiation
(a)Head (b)Middle piece
(c)End piece of tail (d)Principal piece of tail 149. How many ova and sperms will be
produced from 100 secondary oocytes and
144. How many primary follicles are left in 100 secondary spermatocytes during
each ovary at puberty in a normal healthy gametogenesis in human?
human female? (a)50 ova, 100 sperms
(a)10,000−20,000 (b)20,000−30,000 (b)100 ova, 100 sperms
(c)10,000−15,000 (d)60,000−80,000 (c)200 ova, 200 sperms
(d)100 ova, 200 sperms

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(b) help in collection of the ovum after
150. The second maturation division of the ovulation
mammalian ovum occurs (c) help in development of ova
(a)Shortly after ovulation before the ovum (d) help in fertilization
makes entry into the fallopian tube
(b)Until after the ovum has penetrated by a 154. Several mammary ducts join to form a
sperm wider mammary ampulla, which is
(c)Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused connected to
with that of the ovum (a) lactiferous duct
(d)In the Graafian follicle following the first (b) seminiferous duct
maturation division (c) seminiferous tubules (d) nipple

151. is covered by a thin epithelium which 155. Number of chromosomes present in


encloses the ovarian stroma. troma is spermatogonium is
divided into two zones …D… and …E… . (a) 46 (b) 23
Fill the suitable choices for The ovaries are (c) 48 (d) 43
located one on each side of the…A….
Each ovary is about 2-4 cm in length 156. Which one of the following cells have
connected to he …B… wall by …C… . haploid number of chromosome?
Each ovary A-E. (a) Primary spermatocytes
(a) A–inner medulla, B–peripheral cortex, C– (b) Secondary spermatocytes
ligaments, D–pelvic wall, E-lower abdomen (c) Spermatid
(b) A–lower abdomen B–pelvic, C–ligaments, (d) Both (b) and (c)
D–peripheral cortex, E–inner medulla
(c) A–pelvic wall, B–lower abdomen, C– 157. Spermiogenesis is
ligaments, D–inner medulla, E–peripheral (a) spermatids transformed into spermatozoa
cortex (b) spermatozoa transformed into spermatids
(d) A–inner medulla, B–peripheral cortex, C– (c) spermatozoa transformed to spermatocytes
lower abdomen, D–pelvic wall, E–ligaments (d) spermatid to secondary spermatocytes

158. What is the correct sequence of sperm


152. Oviducts are also called formation?
(a) Fallopian tubes (b) uterus (a) Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia,
(c) vagina (d) None of these Spermatozoa
(b) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte,
153. The main function of fimbriae of Spermatozoa, Spermatid
Fallopian tube is (c) Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa,
(a) help in development of ovary Spermatocyte, Spermatid

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(d) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, (c) Secondary oocyte (d) Ootid
Spermatozoa
163. A regular cycling woman is not
159. The difference between spermiogenesis menstruating, which one of the following is
and spermiation is the most likely to be the root cause?
(a) in spermiogenesis, spermatozoa from (a) Maintenance of the hypertrophical
Sertoli cells are released into the cavity of endometrial lining
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation, (b) Maintenance of high concentration of sex-
spermatozoa are formed hormones in the bloodstream
(b) in spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are (c) Regression of well-developed corpus
formed, while in spermiation, spermatids are luteum
formed (d) Fertilisation of the ovum
(c) in spermiogenesis, spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation, spermatozoa are formed 164. What happens during the follicular
(d) in spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are phase of menstrual cycle?
formed, while in spermiation, spermatozoa are (a) Proliferation of endometrium
released through seminiferous tubules (b) Reduction in blood supply to endometrium
(c) Regression of endometrium
160. Spermatogenesis starts at puberty due (d) No effect on endometrium
to significant increase in the secretion of
(a) GnRH (b) prolactin 165. Level of LH is maximum
(c) testosterone (d) oestrogen (a) just before ovulation
(b) just after ovulation
161. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, (c) at the time of ovulation
needed in reproduction, acts on (d) during menstrual bleeding phase
(a) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of LH and oxytocin 166. When does ovulation occur in a healthy
(b) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates menstruating female?
secretion of LH and FSH (a) 9-14 days (b) 14-16 days
(c) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates (c) 16-28 days (d) 20-26 days
secretion of oxytocin and FSH
(d) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates 167. Which of the following events is not
secretion of LH and relaxin associated with ovulation in human
female?
162. At which stage of the development, (a) Decrease in oestradiol
ovum is released from the ovary of the (b) Full developement of Graafian follicle
human female? (c) Release of secondary oocyte
(a) Primary oocyte (b) Oogonium (d) LH surge

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(c) menses (d) menopause
168. No new follicles develop in the luteal
phase of the menstrual cycle because 173. Seminiferous tubules contain ____ cells
(a) follicles do not remain in the ovary after for providing nutrition to sperm cells.
ovulation (a) Leydig cells (b) Interstitial cell
(b) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase (c) Sertoli cells (d) Germ cells
(c) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
(d) Both (b) and (c) 174. Which one of the following is not an
accessory male duct in context of male
169. The main function of mammalian reproductive system?
corpus luteum is to produce (a) Rete testis (b) Testes
(a) oestrogen only (c) Epididymis (d) Vas deferens
(b) progesterone only
(c) human chorionic gonadotropin 175. The funnel shaped part of fallopian tube
(d) None of these which traps ovum is known as
(a) Isthmus (b) Ampulla
170. Which of them is not a correct match? (c) Infundibulum (d) Cervix
(a) Proliferative phase–Rapid regeneration of
myometrium and maturation of Graafian 176. The function of FSH in male is
follicle (a) Act on leydig cells and stimulates secretion
(b) Secretory phase–Development of corpus of factors responsible for spermiation.
luteum and increased secretion of progesterone (b) Act on sertoli cells and stimulates secretion
(c) Menstruction - Breakdown of endometrium of factors responsible for spermatogenesis.
and ovum is not fertilised (c) Act on interstitial cells and stimulates
(d) Ovulation - LH and FSH attain peak and secretion of factors responsible for
sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone spermiogenesis.
(d) Act on sertoli cells and stimulates secretion
171. Correct sequence of secretion of of factors responsible for spermiogenesis.
hormone from beginning of menstrual
cycle to the end is
(a) FSH, progesterone, LH 177. All copulations do not lead to
(b) oestrogen, FSH and progesterone pregnancy. The most appropriate reason to
(c) FSH, oestrogen, progesterone support this statement is
(d) oestrogen, progesterone, FSH (a) The ovum and sperm should be transported
randomly to ampullary-isthmic junction.
172. Cessation of menstrual cycle at the age (b) The ovum and sperm should be
of 50 is called continuously transported to ampullary-isthmic
(a) ovulation (b) gametogenesis junction.

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(c) The ovum and sperm should be
simultaneously transported to ampullary-
isthmic junction.
(d) None of these

178. After entry of sperm into cytoplasm of


ovum which of the following event takes
place?
(a) Mitotic division of secondary oocyte
(b) Meiotic division of primary oocyte
(c) Mitotic division of secondary oocyte
(d) Meiotic division of secondary oocyte
179. The human male has which of the
180. following sex chromosome pattern?
(a) XYX (b) XY
(c) XX (d) YY

180. In human embryonic development,


which layer develops between the
ectoderm and endoderm?
(a) Mesothelium (b) Mesoderm
(c) Myoderm (d) Myometrium

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