SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025

PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
1. Select the incorrect statement for skeletal muscle (1) I and III (2) I and IV
(1) Closely associated with the skeletal (3) II and III (4) I and II
components of the body
(2) They have a striped appearance under the 6. Read the following statement
microscope and hence are called unstriated (i) Contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by
muscles the sliding of the thick filaments over the
(3) Their activities are under the voluntary thin filaments.
control of the nervous system (ii) A motor neuron alongwith the muscle
(4) They are primarily involved in locomotory fibres connected to it constitute a motor
actions and changes of body postures. unit.
(iii) Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis,
2. Read the following statement the myosin head now binds to the exposed
(I) Located in the inner walls of hollow active sites on actin to form a cross bridge
visceral organs of the body like the (iv) Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen
alimentary canal, reproductive tract, etc. storing pigment called haemoglobin
(II) They do not exhibit any striation. How many of the given statements are correct?
(III) They assist, for example, in the (1) Two (2) Three
transportation of food through the digestive (3) One (4) Four
tract and gametes through the genital tract.
Given statements are true for 7. Arrange the given steps of muscle contraction in
(1) Skeletal muscles (2) Cardiac muscle the series of events from fast to last.
(3) Smooth muscle (4) Voluntary muscles I. Myosin head binds to exposed active site
on actin to form across-bridge.
3. Nervous system directly do not controls the II. The Z-line attached to these actins are also
activity of pulled inwards thereby, causing shortening
(1) Smooth muscles
of sarcomere, also called contraction.
(2) Cardiac muscles
III. This pulls the attached actin filaments
(3) Unstriated muscles
towards the centre of A-band.
(4) Skeletal muscles
The correct action is:
(1) I  II  III (2) III  II  I
4. Cardiac muscles are
(1) Striated, voluntary and branched (3) I  III  II (4) III  I  II
(2) Unstriated, involuntary and branched
(3) Striated, involuntary and branched 8. Arrange the following steps of muscle
(4) Striated, involuntary and unbranched contraction in the sequence of events occurring
first.
5. Identify the correct statement I. Receptor sites on sarcolemma
(I) Acetylcholine is released when the neural II. Nerve impulse
signal reaches to motor end plate III. Release of Ca2+
(II) Muscle contraction is initiated by signal IV. Acetylcholine release
sent by CNS via sensory neuron V. Shortening of sarcomere
(III) During muscle contraction, isotropic band VI. Neuromuscular junction
gets elongated VII. Spread or impulse over sarcolemma on
(IV) Repeated activation of the muscles can lead T-tubule
to lactic acid accumulation in them. The correct option is:

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(1) II  VI  IV  I  VII  III  V III. Each meromyosin’s tail is called Heavy
(2) II  IV  I  VI  VII  III  V Meromyosin (HMM) and head is called
(3) II  IV  I  VI  VII  V  III light meromyosin (LMM).
(4) IV  II  I  VI  VII  V  III IV. The globular head is an active ATPase
enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and
9. (I) Length of thin filament reduces active sites for actin.
(II) Length of thick filament reduces Choose the option with correct statements.
(III) Length of I-band reduces (1) I and II (2) III and IV
(IV) Sarcomere reduces (3) All except III (4) I and IV
(V) Length of H zone reduces 12. Consider the following statements.
How many of the given events do not occurs I. Muscle fibre is lined by the plasma
during muscle contraction? membrane called sarcolemma.
(1) Three (2) Two II. Cytoplasm of the muscle fibre contains
(3) Four (4) One single nucleus.
III. In muscle fibre, F-actin and tropomyosin
are helically wound filaments.
10. Read the following statements
IV. Muscle fibre is not a syncytium.
(I) Each organised skeletal muscle in our body
Choose the incorrect properties of muscle fibres.
is made of a number of muscle bundles or
(1) II and IV (2) I and III
fascia
(3) III and IV (4) I and IV
(II) Fascia are held together by a common
collagenous connective tissue layer called
13. Pick out the incorrect statement.
fascicles
(1) Amount of myoglobin is high in red muscle
(III) Muscle fibre is a syncitium as the
fibres
sarcoplasm contains single nuclei. (2) White muscle fibres possess low amount of
(IV) A characteristic feature of the muscle fibre sarcoplasmic reticulum
is the presence of a large number of (3) Red muscle fibres contain abundant
parallelly arranged filaments in the mitochondria
sarcoplasm called myofilaments or (4) White muscle fibres contain less amount of
myofibrils. mitochondria
(V) In a resting state, the edges of thin
filaments on either side of the thick 14. Which of the following statements are false
filaments partially overlap the free ends of regarding the muscle structure?
the thick filaments leaving the central part I. Each myofibril consists of alternate light
of the thick filaments and dark bands.
How many of the given statements are correct II. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the Z-
(1) Three (2) Two line.
(3) One (4) Four III. M-line is a fibrous membrane in the middle
of A-band.
11. Consider the following statements with reference IV. Both actin and myosin are rod-like
to muscle structure. structures parallel to each other and to
I. Each myosin is a polymerized protein. longitudinal axis of myofibril.
II. Many meromyosin constitute one thick Choose the correct option.
filament (myosin). (1) I and II (2) III and IV
(3) II and III (4) None of these

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
15. Read the following statements (1) Each half of pectoral girdle consists of a
(I) Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones clavicle and a scapula
(II) Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of (2) Scapula is a large triangular flat bone
two bones situated in the dorsal part of the thorax
(III) At the point of fusion of the bones of between the second and the seventh ribs
pectoral girdle is a cavity called acetabulum (3) The dorsal, flat, triangular body of scapula
to which the thigh bone articulates has a slightly elevated ridge called the spine
(IV) The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet which projects as a flat, expanded process
ventrally to form the pubic symphysis called the acromion
containing fibrous cartilage. (4) Below the acetabulum is a depression
Select the appropriate option with respect tot the called the glenoid cavity which articulates
above statements. with the head of the humerus to form the
(1) I is correct but II and II are incorrect shoulder joint
(2) I is incorrect but II and III are correct
(3) I and IV are correct but II and III are 18. Match the following columns.
incorrect
Column I (Bones) Colum II (Number)
(4) I and IV are incorrect but II and III are
correct A. Tarsals 1. 5 in number
B. Metatarsals 2. 8 in number
16. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D in
the given figure of right pelvic girdle and lower C. Phalanges 3. 14 in number
limb bone. D. Carpals 4. 7 in number
(1) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(2) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(4) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

19. Select the correct statement with respect to

locomotion in humans.
(1) A decreased level of progesterone causes
osteoporosis in old people
A B C D
(2) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints
(1) Coxal bone Femur Tibia Fibula
causes their inflammation
(2) Femur Coxal bone Tibia Fibula
(3) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic
(3) Fibula Tibia Coxal bone Femur
vertebrae
(4) Femur Fibula Tibia Coxal bone
(4) The joint between adjacent vertebrae s a
fibrous joint
17. Read the following statement and select
incorrect one

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
20. Examine the figure of vertebral column (right lateral view) and identify A, B, C, D, E and F.

A B C D E F
(1) Lumbar vertebrae Thoracic vertebrae Cervical vertebrae Intervertebral disc Sacrum Coccyx
(2) Cervical vertebrae Thoracic vertebrae Lumbar vertebrae Intervertebral disc Sacrum Coccyx
(3) Thoracic vertebrae Cervical vertebrae Intervertebral disc Lumbar vertebrae Coccyx Sacrum
(4) Cervical vertebrae Thoracic vertebrae Lumbar vertebrae Intervertebral disc Coccyx Sacrum

21. Which of the following is correct for joint 23. The characteristics and an example of a synovial
between humerus and pectoral girdle. joint in humans is:
(1) It allows movement in right and left Characteristics Examples
direction only
Fluid cartilage between
(2) It allows movement in up and down (1) two bones, limited Knee joints
direction only movements
(3) It allows movement in all directions
(4) It do not allow movement (2) Fluid-filled between two Skull bones
joints provides cushion
Fluid-filled synovial
22. Select the correcting matching of the type of the (3) cavity between two Joint between
joint with the example of human skeletal system. atlas and axis
bones
Types of Joints Examples Lymph-filled between
(4) two Gliding joint
bones, limited
Cartilaginous Between frontal and between carpals
(1) movement
joint parietal bone
Between C3 and C4
(2) Pivot joint
vertebrae
Between humerus and
(3) Hinge joint
pectoral girdle
(4) Gliding joint Between carpals
24. Match the following joints with the bones
involved.
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
Column I Colum II (2) Statement II and IV are true for Fibrous
joint
Between carpals and
A. Gliding joint 1. (3) Statement II and III are true for
metacarpal of thumb
cartilaginous joint
B. Hinge joint 2. Between atlas and axis (4) Statement I and III are true for fibrous joint
C. Pivot joint 3. Between the carpals
Between humerus and 27. Match the following columns.
D. Saddle joint 4.
ulna Column I (Joints) Colum II (Location)
(1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(2) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 A. Fibrous joints 1. Adjacent vertebrae
(3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 Cartilaginous
B. 2. Public symphysis
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 joints
Fibrous
25. Read the following statements. C. cartilaginous 3. Sutures
(i) Point of connection between bones and joint
cartilage cannot be regarded as joint (1) A-1, B-2, C-3 (2) A-2, B-3, C-1
(ii) Force generated by the muscles is used to (3) A-3, B-1, C-2 (4) A-2, B-1, C-3
carry out movement through joints, where
the joint acts as a fulcrum 28. Which of the following disorder can inherit from
parents to offsprings
(iii) Mainly three types of joints are found in
(1) Muscular dystrophy
human body
(2) Myasthenia gravis
(iv) Joints play a major role in locomotion but
(3) Osteoporosis
do not have significant role in movement
(4) Tetany
How many of the given statements are
incorrect? 29. Match the following columns.
(1) Three (2) Two Column I
Colum II (Features)
(3) One (4) Four (Disorders)
Myasthenia Degeneration of
A. 1.
26. Read the following statements. gravis skeletal muscles
(I) Do not allow any movement Muscular Neuromuscular
B. 2.
(II) The joint between the adjacent vertebrae in dystrophy junction affected
the vertebral column is of this pattern and it
permits limited movements. C. Tetany 3. Low Ca2+ in body fluid
(III) The bones involved are joined together
D. Arthritis 4. Inflammation of joints
with the help of cartilages.
(IV) This type of joint is shown by the flat skull (1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
bones which fuse end-to-end with the help (2) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
of dense fibrous connective tissues in the (3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
form of sutures, to form the cranium (4) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Select the correct option regarding above
statements. 30. Which of the following statement is correct
(1) Statement I and III are true for cartilaginous related to a age related disorder of bones
joint (1) It occurs due to high secretion of estrogen

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(2) It increases bone mass (2) They devoid of nucleus in all of mammals
(3) Increases chances of fracture (3) They are biconvex in shape
(4) It is known as tetany (4) Site of their formation is different in adult
and foetus
31. Find the correct descending order of percentage
proportion of leucocytes in human blood 35. Assertion: Erythrocytes appears red in colour
(1) Neutrophils  Basophils  Lymphocytes Reason: They Contains red coloured iron
 Acidophils (Eosinophils)  Monocytes containing respiratory pigment
(2) Monocytes  Neutrophils  Lymphocytes (1) Both assertion and reason are true and
 Acidophils  Basophils reason is a correct explanation of assertion
(3) Neutrophils  Lymphocytes Monocytes  (2) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not a correct explanation of
Acidophils  Basophils
assertion
(4) Lymphocytes  Acidophils  Basophils
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
 Neutrophils  Monocytes
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

32. Select the correct match.

36. Statement I: Haemoglobin molecules play a
(1) Monocytes 06-08% significant role in transport of respiratory gases
Statement II: A healthy individual has 12-16
gms of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood.
(2) Basophils 0.5-01% (1) Both Statements are correct
(2) Both Statements are incorrect
(3) Only I is correct
(3) Neutrophils 60-65%
(4) Only II is correct

(4) Eosinophils 02-03% 37. Read the following statements and select
incorrect
(1) ABO grouping is based on the presence or
33. Read the following statements. absence of two surface antigens
(i) Leucocytes are the nucleated component of (2) Plasma of blood contains proteins produced
blood plasma. in response to antigens
(ii) Leucocytes are generally short lived. (3) Persons with ‘AB’ group can accept and
(iii) Cytoplasm of Neutrophils, lymphocytes donate blood to persons with AB as well as
and monocytes do not contains any type of the other groups of blood.
granules and hence called as agranulocytes. (4) ‘O’ blood can be donated to persons with
(iv) Neutrophils and monocytes destroy foreign any other blood group and hence ‘O’ group
organisms entering the body individuals are called ‘universal donors’.
(v) Basophil constitute least number of WBCs
How many of the given statements are 38. Which of the given options is correct about
incorrect? blood groups and donor compatibility?
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Five
34. Choose the correct option for RBCs.
(1) (2)
(1) They are red coloured cells with copper
containing pigment.

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
43. What is the correct order of events during
clotting of blood
(3) (4) (i) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(ii) Formation of clot
(iii) Thromboplastin formation
39. Why Ist child of Rh+ husband and Rh wife does (iv) Formation of thrombin
not have erythroblastosis foetalis? (1) 3, 2, 1, 4 (2) 3, 4, 1, 2
(1) Due to the absence of Rh antigen in (3) 3, 4, 2, 1 (4) 4, 1, 3, 2
mother’s blood.
(2) Due to the presence of Rh antibodies in 44. When is thromboplastin released in humans?
mother’s blood. (1) During hypertension
(3) Due to the absence of Rh antibodies in (2) By the traumatised cell at the place of
mother’s blood injury
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) In the condition of erythroblastosis foctalis
(4) During anaemia
40. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a disease in which
(1) adults have severe anaemia and jaundice 45. Statement I: Clot or coagulam formed mainly
(2) foetus does not survive due to erythrocyte of a network of threads called fibrins in which
blast
dead and damaged formed elements of blood are
(3) foetus suffers from blood cancer
trapped.
(4) foetus have severe anaemia and jaundice
Statement II: Calcium ions play a very
41. Subsequent normal pregnancies of Rh+ husband important role in clotting
and Rh– wife could be possible by (1) Both Statements are correct
(1) administrating anti-Rh-antibody to the (2) Both Statements are incorrect
mother just after the delivery of Ist child (3) Only I is correct
(2) transfusion of blood to the 2nd baby just (4) Only II is correct
after the birth
(3) injecting anti-Rh antibody to the 2nd baby 46. Assertion (A): SA node malfunctioning leads to
just after the birth disturbance of heart rate.
(4) All of the above Reason (R): SA node is the pacemaker of heart
producing electric impulse for heart contraction.
42. Consider the following statements.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
I. Rh grouping in humans is based on the
presence or absence of rhesus antigen on explanation of A
RBCs surface. (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
II. Nearly 80% of humans possess Rh antigen correct explanation of A
and thus called Rh positive. (3) If A is true, but R is false
Select the correct option. (4) If A is false, but R is true

(1) I is true, IT is false 47. The correct route through which pulse making
(2) Both I and II are true impulse travels in the heart is
(3) T is false, II is true (1) SA node  Purkinje fibres  Bundle of
(4) Both I and II are false His  AV node  Heart muscles

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(2) SA node  AV node  Bundle of His  (3) ECGs obtained from different individuals
Purkinje fibres  Heart muscles have roughly the same shape
(3) AV node  Bundle of His  SA node  (4) To obtain a standard ECG a patient is
Purkinje fibres  Heart muscles connected to the machine with three
(4) AV node  SA node  Purkinje fibres  electrical leads
Bundle of His  Hearst muscles
53. The below figure is the diagrammatic
48. What will the result of non-functioning of SA representation of standard ECG.
node
(1) Atria and ventricle will not contract
(2) Atria will contract but ventricle will not
contract
(3) Both atria and ventricle will contract
(4) Atria will not contract but ventricle will
contract Column I Colum II
Ventricular depolarization
49. SA node is called pace maker of the heart. Why? A. P-wave 1. followed by ventricular
(1) It can change contractile activity generated contraction
by AV node Atrial depolarization
(2) It delays the transmission of impulse QRS
B. 2. followed by systole of both
between the atria and ventricles complex
atria
(3) It gets stimulated when it receives neural Ventricular repolarization
signal C. T-wave 3. followed by ventricular
(4) It initiates and maintains the rhythmic
relaxation
contractile activity of heart
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III (4) A-II, B-III, C-I
50. ECG is a graphical representation of
(1) Rate of heart beat
54. Match the following columns.
(2) Volume of blood pumped
Column I
(3) Pulse rate
(Cardiac Colum II (Features)
(4) Electrical activities of heart
disorders)
Heart muscle is suddenly
51. Which of ECG is used for determining the heart Heart
A. 1. damaged by an
beat of an individual failure
inadequate blood supply
(1) P wave (2) T wave Chest pain due to
(3) QRS complex (4) S-T segment Cardiac
B. 2. inadequate O, reaching
arrest
the heart muscles
52. Read the following statements and select Heart
C. 3. Atherosclerosis
incorrect one. attack
(1) The P-wave represents the electrical Heart not pumping blood
excitation of the atria. Coronary effectively Disease
D. 4.
(2) The contraction starts shortly after Q and Artery (CAD) enough to meet
marks the beginning of the diastole the needs of the body

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
Angina Column I (Blood
E. 5. Heart stops beating Colum II (Functions)
pectoris components)
(1) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-3, E-2
A. Fibrinogen 1. Osmotic balance
(2) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-3, E-2
(3) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-2, E-3
(4) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-3, E-1 B. Globulin 2. Blood clotting

55. Which one indicates hypertension or high Blood C. Albumin 3. Defence mechanism
Pressure (BP)?
(1) A-1, B-3, C-2 (2) A-1, B-2, C-3
(1) 120/80 (2) 110/70
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1 (4) A-2, B-3, C-1
(3) 130/80 (4) 140/90

59. Which of the following statements are correct?

56. Read the following statements.
I. Closure of atrioventricular valves produces
(i) A symptom of acute chest pain appears
‘dupp’ sound.
(ii) Enough oxygen do not reaches to heart
II. A cardiac cycle consists of a systole and a
muscles
diastole of both atria and ventricles.
(iii) It is more common among the middle-aged
III. The average number of the times, a normal
and elderly
heartbeats in one minute is 72.
Given statements are correct regarding.
IV. Change in the blood volume in all the
(1) Angina (2) Heart failure
chambers of the heart occurs during the
(3) Heart attack (4) CAD
cardiac cycle.
The option with correct statements is
57. Which of the below statements are correct and (1) I, II and III
incorrect? (2) II, III and IV
I. Plasma constitutes 15% of the human (3) I, II and IV
blood. (4) I, III and IV
II. Albumin is a plasma protein that helps in
blood clotting. 60. Bicuspid and tricuspid valves open to allow.
III. Factors of blood clotting are present in the (1) blood from the pulmonary artery and vena
blood plasma in inactive form. cava to flow into the left and right
IV. Plasma without clotting factors is serum. ventricles, respectively
V. Plasma contains minerals like Na+, Ca+, (2) blood from the pulmonary vein and vena
Mg+, 𝐻𝐶𝑂3− and Cl– along with glucose and cava to flow into left and right ventricles,
amino acids. respectively
Choose the appropriate option. (3) blood from the pulmonary vein and vena
Correct Incorrect cava to flow into left and right atrium,
(1) Only V I, II, III and IV respectively
(2) III, IV and V I and II (4) oxygen from the pulmonary vein and vena
(3) I, III and IV II and IV cava to flow into left and right atrium,
(4) II, III and IV I and V respectively

58. Match the items given in Column I with those in 61. I. Reabsorption in this region is minimum.
Column II and select the correct options given II. This region plays a significant role in the
below. maintenance of high osmolarity of
intestinal fluid
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
III. Its descending limb is permeable to water Reabsorption of
C. Henle's loop 3.
but almost impermeable to electrolytes electrolytes
IV. Its ascending limb is impermeable to water Counter-current
D. 4. Ionic balance
but allows transport of electrolyte actively mechanism
or passively Maintenance of
V. In descending limb filtrate is hypertonic E. Renal corpuscle 5. concentration
while in ascending limb filtrate is gradient in medulla
hypotonic (1) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2, E-1
The above characteristics are associated with: (2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2
(1) PCT (3) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4
(2) Loop of Henle (4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-5, E-2
(3) DCT
(4) Bowman's capsule 65. PCT helps in the maintenance of pH in the body
fluid by
62. Consider the following statements. (1) selective secretion of H+ ions
I. The filtrate is hypertonic in descending (2) selective secretion of ammonia
limbwhile hypotonic in ascending limb of (3) selective secretion of K+ ions and
Henle's loop.
absorption of HCO 3 ions
II. The descending limb is impermeable to
(4) All of the above
electrolytes while ascending limb is
permeable to electrolyte.
66. Choose the mismatched part of nephron with its
III. DCT secretes H+, K+ ions and NH3 into the
function.
filtrate during urine formation.
(1) Bowman's capsule-Glomerular filtration
IV. Ions like HCO 3 , Na+ and water are (2) PCT-Reabsorption of Na+ and K+
reabsorbed by DCT. (3) DCT-Reabsorption of glucose
Select the option containing correct statements. (4) Loop of Henle-Urine concentration
(1) I, II and III
(2) II, III and IV 67. Read the following statement
(3) I, III and IV (i) A minute vessel of this network runs
(4) I, II, III and IV parallel to the Henle’s loop forming a ‘U’
shaped vasa recta
63. The maximum amount of water and electrolyte (ii) The Malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT
from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in of the nephron are situated in the cortical
which segment of nephron region of the kidney
(1) Descending limb of loop pf henle (iii) Majority of nephrons have long loop of
(2) Distal convoluted tubule Henle which runs deep into medulla
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule (iv) Cortical nephrons are less in number.
(4) Collecting duct

64. Match the following columns. (1) All the statements are correct
Column I Column II (2) Only iii and iv are correct
Proximal Formation of (3) Only i and ii are correct
A. 1.
convoluted tubule concentrated urine (4) All the statements are incorrect
Distal convoluted
B. 2. Filtration of blood
tubule 68. Which of the following is incorrect?
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(1) Blood vessel leading to glomerulus is
called efferent arteriole 74. ANF mechanism checks on
(2) Vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, (1) oxytocin-renin mechanism
Glomerulus all have blood (2) counter-current mechanism
(3) Cortical nephron has no or highly reduced (3) renin-angiotensin mechanism
vasa recta (4) oxytocin-angiotensin mechanism
(4) Vasa recta runs parallel to the Henle's loop
in juxtamedullary nephrons 75. Which one of the following statement is correct
with respect to kidney function regulation?
69. JG apparatus does not play role in (1) When someone drinks lots of water, ADH
(i) Absorption divalent ion from GIT release is stopped
(ii) Increase GFR (2) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates
(iii) Formation of RBCs ADH release
(iv) Accumulation of urea in blood (3) An increase in glomerular blood flow
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (ii) stimulates the formation of angiotensin-II
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) Only (iv) (4) During summer, when body loses lot of
water by evaporation, the release of ADH is
70. Juxta glomerular apparatus which regulated the suppressed
GFR is formed at the contact of
(1) PCT and DCT 76. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(2) DCT and efferent arteriole (1) Micturition is carried out by a reflex
(3) DCT and afferent arteriole (2) ADH helps in water elimination, making
(4) DCR and collecting duct the urine hypotonic
(3) Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood
71. Osmoreceptors activated in response to plasma into the Bowman's capsule
excessive loss of fluid from body stimulate the (4) Henle's loop plays an important role in
release of concentrating the urine
(1) ADH from neurohypophysis
(2) Renin from JG cells 77. Assertion (A): RAAS gets activated in a person
(3) ADH from adenohypophysis suffering from diarrhoea.
(4) ANF from anterior pituitary Reason (R): Both loss of water and electrolytes
takes place in such a patient.
72. Which of the following causes an increase in (1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted explanation of A
tubule? (2) If both A and R are true and R is not the
(1) Increase in aldosterone levels correct explanation of A
(2) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels (3) If A is true, but R is false
(3) Decrease in aldosterone levels (4) If A is false, but R is true
(4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
78. Which of the following are correct statement(s)?
73. In response to low GFR, renin is released by I. Angiotensin-II, being a powerful
(1) hypothalamus vasoconstrictor, increases glomerular
(2) posterior lobe of pituitary pressure and thereby GFR.
(3) anterior lobe of pituitary II. Angiotensin-II activates the adrenal cortex
(4) JG cells to release aldosterone.

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
III. Aldosterone promotes reabsorption of Na+
and water from the DCT and CT leading to 83. NaCl return to interstitium by
an increase in blood pressure and GFR. (1) Ascending limb of Henles loop
IV. ANF causes vasoconstriction. (2) Discending limb of Henles loop
Select correct combination. (3) Ascending limb of vasa recta
(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV (4) Descending limb of vasa recta
(3) I, III and IV (4) II, III and IV
84. Match the following columns.
79. Select the incorrect match. Column I Colum II
Nitrogenous Examples (Disorders of
(Characteristic features)
waste excretory system)
Many bony fishes, Accumulation of uric
A. Ammonia A. Glycosuria 1.
Terrestrial amphibians acid in joints
B. Urea Marine fish Inflammation in
B. Renal calculi 2.
glomeruli
C. Uric acid Land snail, Birds, Reptiles
Glomerular Mass of crystallised
D. None of these C. 3.
nephritis salts within the kidney
The presence of
80. Order of toxicity among ammonia, urea and uric D. Gout 4.
glucose in urine
acid (from lower to higher) is (1) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(1) uric acid < urea < ammonia (2) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(2) uric acid < ammonia < urea (3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(3) urea < uric acid < ammonia (4) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(4) ammonia < urea < uric acid
85. Which statement is correct regarding the
81. Medullary gradient is mainly developed due to haemodialysis procedure?
(1) NaCl and urea (1) The cellophane membrane allows passage
(2) NaCl and glucose of nitrogenous waste based on
(3) glucose and urea concentration gradient
(4) ammonia and glucose (2) Blood is drained from a convenient artery
and pumped into dialysing unit containing
82. Counter-current mechanism helps to maintain a heparin
concentration gradient. This gradient helps in (3) The dialysing unit has a coiled parafine
(1) easy passage of water from medulla to tube surrounded by dialysing fluid
collecting tubule and thereby concentrating (4) The composition of dialysing fluid is
urine different from that of plasma except
(2) easy passage of water from collecting nitrogenous waste
tubule to interstitial fluid and thereby
concentrating urine 86. Which one of the following statements is
(3) easy passage of water from medullary incorrect?
interstitial fluid to collecting tubule and (1) The medullary zone of kidney is divided
thereby diluting urine into a few conical masses called medullary
(4) inhibition of passage of water between the pyramids projecting into the calyces
collecting tubule and medulla and so
isotonic urine is formed.

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(2) Inside the kidney, the cortical region I. Renin is released by the podocytes of
extends in between the medullary pyramids Bowman's capsule.
as renal pelvis II. Renin inhibits glomerular blood flow and
(3) Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule thus, decreases GFR.
is called the renal corpuscle III. Glucose, Na+ ions and amino acids are
(4) Renal corpuscle, Proximal Convoluted actively reabsorbed by the nephrons.
Tubule (PCT) and Distal Convoluted IV. Nephron reabsorbs nitrogenous waste
Tubule (DCT) of the nephron are situated through carrier transport.
in the cortical region of kidney Select the option containing correct statements.
(1) I, II and IV (2) II, III and IV
87. Different types of excretory structures and (3) I, III and IV (4) I, II and III
animals are given below match them
appropriately a mark the correct answer from 90. Match the following columns.
among these given below. Column I Column II
Excretory structure Animals (Excretory structure) (Examples)
Simple tubular
A. Protonephridia 1. Prawn A. 1. Earthworm
forms
B. Nephridia 2. Cockroach Complex tubular Platyhelminthes
B. 2.
forms and rotifers
C. Malpighian tubules 3. Earthworm
Protonephridia or
Green gland/Antennal C. 3. Vertebrates
D. 4. Flatworms flame cells
gland
Most
(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 D. Nephridia 4.
invertebrates
(2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (2) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(4) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
88. Various events occurring during micturition
reflex are listed below. 91. Cardiac output is:
I. Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary (1) volume of the blood pumped out by each
bladder send signal to the CNS. ventricle per minute
II. The bladder fills with urine and becomes (2) volume of the blood contained in the entire
distended. heart
III. Causing the release of urine. (3) volume of the oxygenated blood pumped
IV. CNS passes on motor messenger to initiate by heart
the contraction smooth muscles of bladder (4) volume of the deoxygenated blood pumped
and simultaneous relaxation of urethral by heart
sphincter.
Identify the correct order of their occurrence. 92. Read the following statements.
(1) II → I → IV → III Statement I: Ventricle gets empty at the end of
(2) IV → III → II → I ventricular systole.
(3) II→I→III→IV Statement II: Duration of atrial diastole is more
(4) III → II → I → IV than duration of ventricular diastole
(1) Both statements are correct
89. Consider the following statements.
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(2) Only I is correct (1) The hypothalamus contains a number of
(3) Only II is correct centres which control body temperature,
(4) Both are incorrect urge for eating and drinking. It also
contains several groups of neurosecretory
93. If heart beat of an athlete is 85 times per minute, cells
the blood pumped by his heart in a minute is (2) Neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus
5525 mL, the amount of blood pumped by his secrete hormones called hypothalamic
heart in each cardiac cycle will be hormones.
(1) 70 mL (2) 65 mL (3) Thalamus lies at the base of hypothalamus
(3) 120 mL (4) 55 mL (4) It also works along with limbic system

94. Select the correct statement. 97. Select the incorrect statement for limbic system.
(1) The value of End systolic volume is always (1) It works along with hypothalamus
greater than End diastolic volume (2) It is involved in the regulation of sexual
(2) The value of End systolic volume is less behaviour, expression of emotional
than Stroke volume reactions (e.g., excitement, pleasure, rage
(3) Value of End systolic volume and End and fear), and motivation.
diastolic volume remains same (3) It is composed of outer parts of cerebral
(4) Stroke volume can not become greater than hemispheres and a group of associated deep
End systolic volume structures like amygdala, hippocampus.
(4) None of these
95. Read the following statements
(i) A deep cleft divides the cerebrum 98. An area in the brain which is associated with
horizontally into two halves, which are strong emotions is
termed as the left and right cerebral (1) cerebral cortex (2) cerebellum
hemispheres. (3) limbic system (4) medulla
(ii) The cerebral cortex is referred to as the
grey matter due to its greyish appearance. 99. Match the Column I (the parts of the human
(iii) The cerebral cortex contains motor areas, brain) with Column II (the functions) and
sensory areas and large regions that are identify the correct choice from the given option.
neither clearly sensory nor motor in Column I Column II
function (Parts of brain) (Functions)
(iv) Fibres of the tracts not covered with the
myelin sheath, constitute the inner part of A. Cerebrum 1. Controls the pituitary
cerebral hemisphere.
Controls vision and
(v) Hypothalamus lies at the base of the B. Cerebellum 2.
hearing
thalamus
How many of the given statements are C. Hypothalamus 3. Maintains body posture
incorrect?
(1) Two (2) Three D. Midbrain 4. Site of intelligence
(3) One (4) Four (1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
96. Which of the given statement is not true for (3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
hypothalamus (4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
100. Which of the following statements are correct Consists of fibre tracts that
about functions of hypothalamus? Limbic interconnect different
(2)
I. Urge for eating and drinking. system regions of brain; controls
II. Thermoregulation. movement
III. Hormones production that regulates the Controls respiration and
secretion of pituitary gland. (3) Medulla cardiovascular oblongata
IV. Creative thinking and consciousness. reflexes
(1) I and III (2) II and III Band of fibres connecting
(3) I and II (4) I, II and III (4) Corpus left and right callosum
cerebral hemispheres
101. Brain stem is formed by
(1) Mid brain and pons 104. Which of the following statements are correct
(2) Mid brain, pond and cerebellum about the midbrain?
(3) Mid brain, pons and medulla I. Located between the
(4) Mid brain and hind brain thalamus/hypothalamus.
II. Possesses a canal named cerebral aqueduct
102. Read the following statements which passes through it.
(i) Brain stem forms the connections between III. Dorsal part consists of 4 lobes.
the brain and spinal cord. Choose the correct option.
(ii) The Pons of the brain is connected to the (a) I and II
spinal cord. (2) II and III
(iii) Association areas are responsible for (3) I and III
complex functions like intersensory (4) All of the above
associations, memory and communication.
(iv) The autonomic neural system is further 105. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
classified into sympathetic neural system correct about the cortex of cerebrum? Choose
and parasympathetic neural system. the correct option from the codes given below.
I. It consists of grey matter.
(v) The afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses II. It shows prominent folds.
from tissues/organs to the CNS and the III. It consists of white matter.
efferent fibres transmit regulatory impulses IV. It contains motor areas, sensory areas and
from the CNS to the concerned peripheral association areas.
tissues/organs. (1) Only I
How many of the given statements are correct? (2) I and II
(1) One (3) I, II and IV
(2) Three (4) I, III and IV
(3) Five
(4) Four

103. Which of the following structure or region is 106. Match the following columns.
incorrectly paired with its function? Column I Column II
Production of releasing (Parts of brain) (Features)
hormones and regulation of
(1) Hypothalamus A. Pons 1. Neurosecretory cells
temperature, hunger and
thirst

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
Interconnect brain IV. Impulse transmission is always faster in
B. Cerebellum 2. electric synapse than that across a chemical
regions through
synapse.
C. Hypothalamus 3. fibre tracts
V. Electrical synapses are rare in our system.
Convoluted surface to The correct option is:
D. Medulla 4.
accomodate (1) I, II, III and IV (2) I, III, IV and V
(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (3) I, II and IV (4) I, II, III, IV and V
(2) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(3) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 110. Impulse transmission across an electrical
(4) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 synapse is
(1) always equal to that across a chemical
107. The correct sequence meninges from inner to synapse
outerside is: (2) always slower than that across a chemical
(1) Arachnoid  Duramater  Piamater synapse
(2) Duramater  Arachnoid  Piamater (3) always faster than that across a chemical
(3) Piamater  Arachnoid  Duramater synapse
(4) Piamater  Duramater  Arachnoid (4) either faster or slower than that across a
chemical synapse
108. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
incorrect regarding synapse? 111. In resting stage, the axonal membrane is
I. Synapse is a junction between axon endings comparatively more permeable and nearly
of one nerve fibre and dendrite of the other. impermeable to
II. At a synapse, the membrane of axon and (1) sodium; potassium, respectively
dendrite are not in physical contact with (2) sodium; calcium, respectively
each other. (3) potassium; sodium, respectively
III. Transmission of nerve impulse through (4) potassium; calcium, respectively
synapse is only one way.
IV. Neurotransmitter is always released from 112. Consider the statements as True/False regarding
axon endings and not by dendrites. when a neuron is at rest and no impulse is
Select the correct option. conducting.
(1) Only IV (2) Only I I. The axoplasm inside the axon contains high
(3) I, II and III (4) None of these concentration of K+ and negatively charged
proteins.
109. Which of the following statements are correct II. The axoplasm inside the axon contains low
regarding electrical synapses? concentration of Na+.
I. Pre and post-synaptic membrane neurons III. The fluid outside the axon contains a low
are in very close proximity at electric concentration of K+.
synapse. IV. The fluid outside the axon contains a low
II. Electric current are involved in the concentration of Na+ and negatively
transmission of impulses. charged proteins.
III. Transmission of an impulse across The correct option is:
electrical synapses is very similar to
impulse conduction along a single axon. I II III IV
(1) True False False True
(2) True True False False

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(3) True True True False
(4) False True False False
B. Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on
113. Pick out the correct combination. post synaptic membrane
Column I Column II C. Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic
membrane, neurotransmitter releases into
A. Unipolar neuron 1. In cerebral cortex synaptic cleft.
D. Depolarization of pre-synaptic membrane
B. Bipolar neuron 2. In embryonic stage
E. Arrival of action potential at axon terminal.
C. Multipolar neuron 3. In retina of eye In which sequence do these events occur?
(1) A - I, B - II, C - III (1) E  D  C  B  A
(2) A - I, B - III, C - II (2) A  B  C  D  E
(3) A - II, B - I, C - III (3) A  B  D  C  E
(4) A - II, B - III, C - I (4) E  D  C  A  B

114. Consider the following statements. 117. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the
I. Increased permeability of Na+ ions due to action potential results from the movement of
the rise in stimulus is short lived. (1) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to
II. The resting membrane potential of extracellular fluid
membrane at the site of excitation is (2) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to
restored by Na+ and Cl– ions. intracellular fluid
Select the correct option. (3) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to
(1) I is true, II is false intracellular fluid
(2) Both I and II are true (4) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to
(3) I is false, II is true extracellular fluid
(4) Both I and II are false
118. In the resting stage of a neuron, concentration
115. Which of the following statements is/are correct gradient generates due to the
about resting state? (1) high concentration of K+ and low
I. Neuron is not conducting any impulse. concentration of Na+ inside the axon
II. Plasma membrane is electrically positive (2) high concentration of Na+ and low
outside and negative inside. concentration of K+ inside the axon
III. The nerve fibre is stimulated and conduct (3) low concentration of Na+ outside the axon
mechanical or electrical impulse. (4) high concentration of K+ outside the axon
IV. Plasma membrane is negative outside and
positive inside. 119. For the maintenance of ionic gradients across the
The correct option is: resting membrane, the sodium-potassium pump
(1) III and IV (2) I and IV transports
(3) II and III (4) I and II (1) 3Na+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell
(2) 2Na+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell
116. Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse (3) 3Na+ inwards for 2K+ out the cell
across the synapse: (4) 2Na+ inwards for 2K+ out the cell
A. Opening of specific ion channels allows the
entry of ions, a new action potential is
generated in the post-synaptic neuron.
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
120. The accompanying diagram show the structure of neuron. Identify A to E.

A B C D E
(1) Nerve fibre Cyton or cell body Schwann cell Node of Ranvier Synaptic knob
(2) Dendrites Cyton or cell body Schwann cell Node of Ranvier Synaptic knob
(3) Dendrites Nerve cell Schwann cell Node of Ranvier Synaptic knob
(4) Dendrites Cyton or cell body Nerve cell Node of Ranvier Synaptic knob

121. Study the diagram of synapse :

I. Which numbered label indicate the location
of the receptor molecules
II. Which number points to a synaptic vesicles
III. Which number points to neurotransmitter
IV. Which number points to synaptic cleft

(1) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D

(2) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(3) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
(4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
122. View the diagram of the lateral view of the human brain and choose the correct option in which A-D has been
indicated.
A B C D
(1) Cerebral hemisphere Spinal cord Corpus callosum Cerebellum
(2) Corpus callosum Cerebral hemisphere Cerebellum Spinal cord
(3) Cerebral hemisphere Corpus callosum Pons Spinal cord
(4) Spinal cord Pons Corpus callosum Cerebral hemisphere

123. Read the following statements (1) protein hormones - insulin, glucagon,
(i) Visceral nervous system is the part of the androgen
peripheral nervous system that comprises (2) steroids - cortisol, testosterone, estradiol
the whole complex of nerves only. and progesterone
(ii) The cell body contains cytoplasm with (3) iodothyronines - thyroid hormones
typical cell organelles and certain granular (4) amino-acid derivatives - e.g., epinephrine.
bodies called Nissl’s granules.
(iii) The axons transmit nerve impulses away 126. Match the following hormones with the
from the cell body to a synapse or to a respective disease.
neuro-muscular junction Column I Colum II
(iv) Only myelinated nerve fibres are enclosed
A. Insulin 1. Addison's disease
by schwann cells.
(v) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is commonly B. Thyroxine 2. Diabetes insipidus
found in autonomous and the somatic C. Corticoids 3. Acromegaly
neural systems. D. Growth hormone 4. Goitre
How many of the given statements are
Diabetes mellitus
incorrect?
(1) Three (2) Two (1) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(3) One (4) Four (2) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-3
(3) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
124. Match the following columns. (4) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-3

Column I Column II
127. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone need in
From tissue/organ to reproduction acts on
A. CNS 1.
CNS (1) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the
From CNS to tissue/ secretion of LH and vasopressin
B. PNS 2.
organ (2) Testes in male and ovary in female and
Comprises of brain and stimulate release of gametes
C. Afferent fibres 3.
spinal cord (3) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the
Comprises of nerves of secretion of LH and FSH
D. Efferent fibres 4.
body (4) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates the
(1) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 secretion of LH and vasopressin
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(4) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 128. Match the following columns.
125. Select the incorrect match.
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
Column I (Hormones (iv) The thyroid gland is composed of two lobes
Column II (Functions)
of adrenal gland) which are located on either side of the
Mineralocorticoids Suppresses immune trachea.
A. 1. (v) Due to cancer of the thyroid gland or due to
(Aldosterone) response
Growth of pubic development of nodules of the thyroid
B. Cortisol 2. hair and axial hair glands, the rate of synthesis and secretion
during puberty of the thyroid hormones is decreased
Androgenic Increased blood How many of the given statements are correct?
C. steroids of adrenal 3. glucose
cortex concentration (1) Two
Regulates balance of (2) Three
D. Catecholamine 4.
H2O and electrolytes (3) Five
(1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (4) Four
(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 132. Select the incorrect statement.
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (1) The thyroid gland is composed of follicles
and stromal tissues.
129. Which of the following hormones is mismatched (2) Iodine is essential for the normal rate of
with the stated functions? hormone synthesis in the thyroid
(1) ACTH - Stimulates the adrenal cortex (3) Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes
(2) Oxytocin - Stimulates water reabsorption defective development and maturation of
by the kidneys the growing baby leading to stunted growth
(3) Prolactin (PRL) - regulates the growth of called as goiter.
mammary glands and milk production in (4) Exopthalmic goitre is a form of
them hyperthyroidism.
(4) TSH - Promotes the synthesis and secretion
of thyroid hormones from thyroid gland 133. What will be the symptoms in child, if secretion
of thyroid hormone is low in mother during
130. Thymosin plays a significant role in pregnancy?
(1) The differentiation of T-lymphocytes (i) Mental retardation,
(2) Cell-mediated immunity (ii) Low IQ,
(3) increase the production of antibodies to (iii) Abnormal skin,
provide humoral immunity (iv) Excessive growth,
(4) All of these (v) Irregular menses
(1) All except (iv)
(2) All except (iv) and (v)
131. Read the following statements.
(3) All except (i) and (iv)
(i) Thyroid gland plays negligible role in
(4) All except (v)
metabolism of basal metabolic rate
(ii) The thyroid gland secretes T3 and T4
hormones.

134. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram and

(iii) The lobes of thyroid gland are connected by
choose the correct combination.
glandular structure known as isthmus

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(4) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the
blood sugar levels.

138. Secretion of catecholamines can result into

(1) Pupilary dilation, Piloerection, Increase
sweating, Increase peristalsis
(2) Pupilary dilation, Piloerection, Decrease
(1) A-Thyroid, B-Trachea, C-Vocal cord, D- sweating, Increase peristalsis
Parathyroid glands (3) Pupilary dilation, Piloerection, Increase
(2) A-Trachea, B-Thyroid, C-Vocal cord, D- sweating, Decrease peristalsis
Parathyroid glands (4) Pupilary dilation, Piloerection, Decrease
(3) A-Trachea, B-Vocal cord, C-Thyroid, D- sweating, Decrease peristalsis
Parathyroid glands
(4) A-Parathyroid glands, B-Thyroid, C-Vocal 139. How many of the given below are the function
cord, D-Trachea of Glucocorticoids Gluconeogenesis, lipolysis,
erythropoiesis, Increase glomerular filtration
135. Read the following statements and select rate, stimulates inflammatory reactions, Activate
incorrect one. the immune response
(1) The secretion of PTH is regulated by the (1) Five
circulating levels of calcium ions. (2) Six
(2) PTH is a hyperglycemic hormone (3) Three
(3) It increases the blood Ca2+ levels (4) Four
(4) Along with TCT, PTH plays a significant
role in calcium balance in the body 140. Glucagon stimulates
(1) Glycogenesis
136. Which of the do not depicts correct function of (2) Cellular uptake of glucose by cells
PTH. (3) Gluconeogenesis
(1) Stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal (4) Both (2) and (3)
tubules
(2) Increases Ca2+ absorption from the digested 141. S-I: Androgens stimulates anabolic pathways
food and erythropoiesis
(3) Inhibits process of bone dissolution S-II: Progesterone plays a major role in the
(4) Promote process of bone dissolution maintenance of pregnancy as well as in
mammary gland development and lactation
(1) Both Statements are correct
137. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of :
(2) Only I is correct
(1) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased
(3) Only II is incorrect
metabolic rate.
(4) Both are incorrect
(2) the kidney, leading to suppression of
reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway.

(3) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased

secretion of epinephrine and norepine 142. Match the following columns.

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
Column I (1) Grave’s disease – Hyperthyroidism
Column II (Functions) (2) Gigantism – Hyper secretion of growth
(Hormones)
hormone
A. Gastrin 1. Inhibits gastric secretion (3) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
B. Secretin 2. Acts on gall bladder (4) Underproduction of hormones by the
adrenal cortex – Addison’s disease
Stimulates secretion of H2O
C. CCK 3.
and HCO 3 147. Select the incorrect statement.
D. GIP 4. Secretion of HCl (1) Sleep-wake cycle and pigmentation are
(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 regulated by hypothalamus
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (2) Insulin plays a major role in glucose
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 homeostasis
(4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (3) There are about 1-2 million islets of
Langerhans in a normal human pancreas
143. Which of the following statement is not true? (4) Adrenaline increases alertness and pupilary
(1) The atrial wall of our heart secretes a dilation
peptide hormone which decreases blood
pressure. 148. Read the following statements and mark the
(2) Vasopressin and ANF causes same impact incorrect option.
on blood vessels. I. Epinephrine do not produce secondary
(3) The juxtaglomerular cells of kidney messengers.
produce a peptide hormone called II. Insulin deficiency and/or insulin resistance
erythropoietin which stimulates result in a disease called diabetes mellitus.
erythropoiesis. III. Thymosins increase the production of
(4) Endocrine cells present in different parts of interferons to provide cell-mediated
the gastro-intestinal tract secrete four major immunity.
peptide hormones IV. The pituitary hormones regulate the growth
and development of somatic tissues and
144. Like TSH stimulates thyroid gland, the target activities of peripheral endocrine glands.
organ/gland of ACTH is: (1) I and II (2) II and III
(1) adenohypophysis (3) I and III (4) I and IV
(2) kidney
(3) adrenal cortex 149. Consider the following statements.
(4) adrenal medulla I. Pituitary gland is called master gland and it
is attached to hypothalamus by a stalk.
145. Acromegaly is caused due to: II. In humans, pars intermedia is almost
(1) excess secretion of GH in adults merged with pars nervosa.
(2) hyposecretion of MSH in children III. Oxytocin is synthesised by hypothalamus
(3) reduced secretion of gonadotropins in and is transported axonally to
adults neurohypophysis.
(4) hypersecretion of PRL in adults Select the correct option.
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(3) I, II and III (4) I and III

146. Select the incorrect match.

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
150. What is correct to say about the hormone action (1) IP3 is a secondary messenger, while cAMP
in humans is a primary messenger
(1) Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of Islets of (2) Cyclic AMP is generated by hormone
Langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis which interact with membrane bound
(2) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with receptors
aging (3) Hormone receptor complex is formed by
(3) In females FSH first binds with specific membrane bound receptors
receptors on ovarian cell membrane (4) IP3 and cAMP are secondary messengers
(4) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen that can regulate cellular metabolism
and progesterone
153. Place in the correct order the action of water
151. A steroid hormone typically alters the activity of soluble hormones e.g. FSH
its target cells by: I. Physiological response e.g. ovarian growth
(1) Making holes in the membrane of the target II. Biochemical response
cells III. Generation of second messenger
(2) Entering the cell and altering gene IV. Response I
expression V. Hormone binds to plasma membrane bind
(3) Making holes in the lysosome of target (1) I  II  III  IV  V
cells (2) V  IV  HI  II  I
(4) Activation of cAMP (3) V  IV  II  III  I
(4) I  II  V  III  IV
152. Select the incorrect statement.

154. Go through the above diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of action for 2 categories of hormones. In
which of the following options correct answers for blanks A to I are indicated.

(1) A - Steroid hormone, B - Receptor, C-Secondary messenger, D - Non-steroid hormone, E-Nucleus, F -

Hormone-receptor complex, G - Genome, H - mRNA, I - protein
(2) A - Non-steroid hormone, B - Receptor, C - Secondary messenger, D-Steroid hormone, E-Nucleus, F -
Hormone receptor complex, G - Genome, H - mRNA, I - Protein
(3) A - Steroid hormone, B - Receptor, C - Primary messenger, D - Non-steroid hormone, E - Nucleus, F -
Hormone-receptor complex, G - Genome, H - mRNA, I - protein
(4) A - Steroid hormone, B - Enzyme, C - Secondary messenger, D - Non-steroid hormone, E - Nucleus, F -
Hormone-enzyme complex, G - Genome, H - mRNA, I - protein

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
155. Mechanisms of breathing vary among different
groups of animals depending mainly on their:
(1) Reproduction
(2) Habitat and level of organisation
(3) Excretion
(4) Nutrition

156. During catabolic reactions, O2 has to be

continuously provided to the cells and CO2
produced by the cells have to be released out. (1) A - Epiglottis - prevent the entry of food
This process of exchange of O2 from the into the wind pipe
atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells is B - Larynx - a bony box, help in sound
called: production
(1) Respiration (2) C - Trachea is a straight tube extending
(2) Breathing upto mid thoracic cavity
(3) Ventilation D - Cut end of rib
(4) All of these (3) E - Alveoli - thin, irregular walled and
vascularised bag like structure
157. Special vascularised structures called gills F - Bronchus - trachea divides at the level
(branchial respiration) are used by of 5th thoracic vertebra to form bronchi
(1) Earthworm (4) G - Pleural membrane - covering of lungs
(2) Aquatic arthropods H - Pleural fluid - secreted by alveoli
(3) Aquatic molluscs
(4) Both (2) and (3) 160. Air moves out of lungs when the intrapulmonary
pressure is ______.
158. Among vertebrates, …A… use gills whereas (1) Less than the pressure in the atmosphere
reptiles, birds and mammals respire through the (2) Greater than the pressure in the atmosphere
…B... Amphibians like frogs can respire through (3) Greater than the intra-alveolar pressure
…C… also. Select appropriate choice for the (4) Equal to the pressure in the atomosphere
blanks A, B and C to complete the given
statement. 161. How many layers and thickness of diffusion
(1) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-gills membrane are?
(2) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-dry skin (1) 5 and thickness 0.5 mm
(3) A-mammals, B-gills, C-moist skin (2) 3 and thickness 0.6 mm
(Cutaneous) (3) 2 and thickness 0.4 mm
(4) A-fishes, B-lungs, C-moist skin (4) 4 and thickness 0.7 mm
(Cutaneous)
162. The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber
159. Following is the diagrammatic view of human which is anatomically an air-tight chamber. The
respiratory system. Choose the option which thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the
correctly describes the labelled structures. ...A..., ventrally by the ...B… laterally by the
…C... and on lower side by the dome-shaped
...D...
Select the right choices for A, B, C and D to
complete the given statement.

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(1) A- sternum, B- vertebral column, C - ribs -. (iv) Larynx is a cartilaginous box which helps
D- diaphragm in sound production and hence called the
(2) A-vertebral column, B-ribs, C-sternum, D- sound box
diaphragm (1) Two
(3) A- sternum, B-ribs, C- diaphragm - D - (2) Three
vertebral column (3) One
(4) A-vertebral column, B-sternum, C-ribs, D- (4) Four
diaphragm
166. Incorrect matching are?
163. Regarding the function of conducting zone, mark volume of thoracic
By the contraction
the wrong statement? (A) cavity increases dorso-
in diaphragm
ventrally.
(1) Clears it from foreign particles volume of thoracic
By the contraction
(2) Diffusion of gases (B) cavity increases antero-
in diaphragm
(3) Humidifies posterior axis.
(4) Brings the air to body temperature, volume of thoracic
By the contraction
(C) cacity increases antero-
in EICM
164. Arrange the given steps of respiration in the posterior axis
sequence of event they occur. volume of thoracic
By the contraction
I. Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across (D) cavity increases in
in IICM
alveolar membrane. antero-posterior axis.
II. Transport of gases by the blood. (1) A and C (2) C only
III. Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic (3) A and D (4) A, C and D
reactions.
IV. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by 167. Volume of thoracic chamber decreases in antero-
which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 posterior and dorso-ventral axis in human by
rich alveolar air is released out. (1) Contraction of diaphragm and external
V. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between the blood intercostal muscles respectively
and tissue. (2) Relaxation of diaphragm and external
Choose the correct option. intercostal muscles respectively
(1) IV  II  I  V  III (3) Relaxation of diaphragm and abdominal
(2) III  II  V  I  IV muscles respectively
(3) IV  II  I  III  V (4) Relaxation of abdominal muscles and
(4) IV  I  II  V  III relaxation of internal intercostal muscles
respectively.
165. How many statements are correct?
(i) Mammals have negative pressure breathing. 168. Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs
(ii) The pharynx opens through the larynx at the end of normal inspiration:
region into the trachea (1) ERV + RV
(iii) The trachea, primary, secondary and (2) TV + IRV + ERV
tertiary bronchi and initial bronchioles are (3) TV + ERV + RV
supported by incomplete cartilaginous (4) TLC
rings.

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
169. Which of the following terms is matching with
its volume and capacities? 172. If a person inhale with maximum efforts and
(1) Residual volume – 1000 ml then exhale with no extra efforts, volume of air
(2) Inspiratory reserve volume – 2500 ml exhaled out will be its
(3) Functional residual capacity – 2300 ml (1) EC
(4) Expiratory capacity – 3000 ml (2) IC
(3) ERV
170. Identify the correct and incorrect match about (4) VC
respiratory volumes and capacities and mark the
correct answer. 173. The partial pressure of oxygen in pulmonary
Expiratory Tidal Volume + artery, pulmonary vein and systemic artery
a.
Capacity Residual Volume respectively:
Inspiratory Capacity (1) 104 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg, 95 mmHg
b. Vital Capacity (IC) + Expiratory (2) 40 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg, 45 mmHg
Reserve Volume (ERV) (3) 45 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg, 45 mmHg
Vital Capacity (VC) - (4) 40 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg
c. Residual Volume Inspiratory Reserve
Volume (IRV) 174. Rate of diffusion of CO2, is 20-25 times higher
Inspiratory Capacity than O2 as it depends upon
d. Tidal Volume (IC) – Inspiratory (1) Solubility of gases
Reserve Volume (IRV) (2) Partial pressure
a b с d (3) Thickness of membrane
(1) Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct (4) All of these
(2) Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct
(3) Correct Correct incorrect Correct 175. What are the characteristics of alveoli?
(4) Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect (1) Very thin, irregular walled and highly
vascularised
171. Approximate volume of air a healthy man can (2) Thick and smooth membrane
expire or inspire per minute is: (3) Network of blood capillaries and thick-
(1) TV × Rate of Breathing walled
(2) (TV-DSV) × Rate of Breathing (4) Thick, regular walled and lack of blood
(3) 7000–8000 ml/min vessels
(4) Approximately 8000–12000 ml/min

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
176. Identify part A to E in the given diagram and choose the correct option accordingly:

(1) A-Alveolus, B-Pulmonary artery, C- Pulmonary vein, D-Systemic vein, E- Systemic arteries
(2) A-Alveolus, B-Pulmonary vein, C- Pulmonary artery, D-Systemic vein, E-Systemic arteries
(3) A-Alveolus, B-Pulmonary vein, C- Pulmonary artery, D-Systemic arteries, E-Systemic vein
(4) A-Alveolus, B-Pulmonary vein, C- Pulmonary artery, D-Systemic arteries, E-Portal vein

177. The amount of O2 delivered by 100 ml blood to

the tissue and amount of CO2 delivered by 100 179. Read the statements given below and mark the
ml blood to lungs under normal physiological correct statement.
condition respectively: (1) O2 diffuses more easily than CO2 across
(1) 5 ml and 14 ml diffusion boundary in alveoli because
(2) 5 ml and 4 ml solubility of O2 is higher than CO2
(3) 1.34 ml and 14 ml (2) Arterial blood delivers 15 ml per dL of O2
(4) 15 ml and 4 ml to tissue under normal physiological
conditions
178. Which of the following does not occur as the (3) Percentage of O2 carried in chemical
blood passes through systemic capillaries in combination in blood is 93%
tissue? (4) O2 delivery to tissues does not depend on
(1) Unloading of oxygen haemoglobin concentration
(2) Shift of hemoglobin dissociation curve to
left
(3) Shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation 180. Which of the following is true for
curve to right hyperventilation?
(4) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can (1) P50 value increases and Hb affinity for O2
deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues also increases
during resting condition. (2) P50 value and Hb affinity for O2 decrease

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(3) P50 value increases and O2 affinity Select the correct option of animal groups
decreases which possess all the above characteristics.
(4) P50 value decreases and O2 affinity (1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
increases (2) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(3) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
181. Which of the following is not a factor that (4) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
promotes oxygen association and dissociation
with haemoglobin? 186. Which of the following statements are
(1) Partial pressure of oxygen true/false?
(2) Temperature I. Cell aggregate body plan is found in
(3) H+ concentration phylum Platyhelminthes.
(4) Number of RBC II. Radial symmetry is the most common
symmetry found in animals.
182. Which of the following is incorrect about the III. Pseudocoelom is found only in phylum
given graph? Aschelminthes.
(1) The curve is called Sigmoid curve IV. All triploblastic animals have a true
(2) The part A represents percentage saturation coelom.
of hemoglobin with oxygen. V. Haemocoel is found in Platyhelminthes
(3) The part B represents partial pressure of (1) I and V are true and II, III and IV are false
carbon dioxide (mmHg) (2) II, III and V are true and I and IV are false
(4) This curve is highly useful in studying the (3) I, II and III are true and IV and V are false
effect of factors like Temperature, pO2, (4) I, II, IV and V are false, Only III is true
pCO2 and H+ concentration, etc.
187. Match the following columns.
183. Pneumotaxic centre primarily controls the switch Column I Column II
off point of inspiration. When this signal is (Characteristics) (Animals)
strong, which of the following will not occur? Diploblastic, radial
(1) Shortening in inspiration time A. symmetry and tissue 1. Wuchereria
(2) Increase in rate of breathing level organisation
(3) Complete filling of lungs Triploblastic,
(4) Shortening in expiration time pseudocoelomates and
B. 2. Dugesia
complete digestive
184. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are system
damaged due to which respiratory surface is Bilateral symmetry,
decreased incomplete digestive
(1) Pneumonia C. system, organ and organ 3. Cucumaria
(2) Tuberculosis system level of
(3) Emphysema organisation
(4) Asthma Triploblastic, coelomate,
D. 4. Balanoglossus
radial symmetry
185. Consider the following features.
5. Hydra
A. Organ system level of organisation
B. Bilateral symmetry (1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-5
C. True coelomates with segmentation of body (2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-5
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-5
(4) A-5, B-1, C-2, D-3
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
188. Animal belonging to phylum Hemichordata has 193. How many of the given are matched correctly?
all the following characters except, (i) Ancyclostoma – Pinworm
(i) Respiration takes place through gills (ii) Fasciola – liver fluke
(ii) Excretory organ Flame cells (iii) Wuchereria – Hook worm
(iii) Sexes are separate (iv) Hirudinaria – Leech
(iv) Fertilisation is external. (v) Limulus – King crab
(v) Development is direct. (1) Three (2) Four
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (v) (3) Two (4) One
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i) and (iv)
194. Read the following statements.
189. Read the following statements. (i) Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles
(i) It includes both marine and fresh water (ii) Sexes are not separate
fishes with bony endoskeleton. (iii) Fertilisation is usually external
(ii) Their body is streamlined. Mouth is mostly (iv) Development is direct
terminal (v) They are triploblastic and coelomate
(iii) They have four pairs of gills. animals
(iv) Skin is covered with cycloid/ctenoid scales How many of the given characters are correct
Given statements are correct for: for Echinodermata?
(1) Pristis (2) Trygon (1) Three (2) Two
(3) Clarias (4) Carcharodon (3) Four (4) Five

190. Read the following statements and chose 195. Assertion: All vertebrates are chordates.
incorrect for phylum of Ichthyophis. Reason: All the members of vertebrata possess
(1) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive notochord at some stage of life.
tracts open into a common chamber called (1) Both assertion and reason are true and
cloaca reason is a correct explanation of assertion
(2) Respiration is by gills, lungs and through (2) Both assertion and reason are true but
skin reason is not a correct explanation of
(3) They are oviparous and development is assertion
direct (3) Assertion is true but reason ius false
(4) The eyes have eyelids (4) Both assertion and reason are false

191. Dorsal visceral mass and only marine species are 196. Presence of how many of the features mentioned
feature of (respectively). below is/are not considered as fundamental
(1) Mollusca and Mollusca characters of chordates.
(2) Echinodermata and Mollusca Notochord, Dorsal heart, Dorsal solid CNS,
(3) Mollusca and Echinodermata Pharyngeal gill slits, Post anal tail
(4) Arthropoda and annelida (1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Two
192. Which of the following groups is formed of only
the hermaphrodite organisms? 197. Phylum Chordata is divided into ____ subphyla.
(1) Earthworm, tapeworm, housefly, frog (1) Two
(2) Earthworm, tapeworm, sea horse, housefly (2) Four
(3) Earthworm, leech, sponge, roundworm (3) Three
(4) Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge (4) Five

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
198. Which of the following statement is correct for Column I Column II
cyclostomata?
(i) After spawning, within a few days, they A. Pila 1. Flame cells
die. B. Bombyx 2. Comb plates
(ii) Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return to
C. Pleurobrachia 3. Radula
the fresh water
(iii) Circulation is of open type D. Taenia 4. Malpighian tubules
(iv) Their body is devoid of scales and paired (1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
fins. (2) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(1) Statement i and ii is correct (3) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(2) Statement i and iii is correct (4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(3) Statement ii and iv is correct
(4) Statement ii and iii is correct 202. Match the following columns.
Column I (Common Column II (Scientific
199. Animals belonging to phylum-Chordata are name of arthropodes) names)
fundamentally characterised by the presence of A. Honeybee 1. Aedes
structure noted as A,B,C and D. Identify A,B,C
B. Mosquito 2. Apis
and D.
C. Lac insect 3. Laccifer
D. Silkworm 4. Bombyx
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(1) A-Notochord, B-Nerve cord, C-Gill slits,
D-Post-anal part 203. Which of the following organism is correctly
(2) A-Nerve cord, B-Notochord, C-Gill slits, matched with its common name?
D-Post-anal part (1) Aurelia - comb jelly
(3) A-Nerve cord, B-Notochord, C-Post-anal (2) Adamsia - sea anemone
part, D-Gill slits (3) Ancylostoma - pin worm
(4) A-Nerve cord, B-Gill slits, C-Notochord, (4) Aplysia - sea mouse
D-Post-anal part
204. Following are few examples of bony fishes.
200. Which of the following do not belong to Choose the odd one out as marine bony fish.
Urochordata? (1) Flying fish
(1) Ascidia (2) Hippocampus (Sea horse)
(2) Salpa (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Doliolum (4) Labeo (Rohu), Catla, Clarias
(4) Lancelet

201. Match the following organisms with their

respective characteristics.

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
205. Match the following columns. III. Amphibian skin is moist and has thick
Column I Column II scales.
(Animals) (Common names) IV. Birds are poikilothermous animals.
A. Chelone 1. Wall lizard V. The most unique mammalian characteristic
is the presence of milk producing
B. Bungarus 2. Viper mammary glands by which the young ones
C. Calotes 3. Krait are nourished.
D. Hemidactylus 4. Garden lizard (1) I, II and III are true; IV and V are false
(2) I, II and V are true; III and IV are false
5. Turtle (3) I, II and III are false; IV and V are true
6. Tortoise (4) I, II and IV are false; III, and V are true
(1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-6
(2) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1 209. Match the following columns.
(3) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-6 Column I Column II
(4) A-2, B-5, C-1, D-6 (Animals) (Common names)
A. Chelone 1. Wall lizard
206. Which of the following is mismatched?
B. Bungarus 2. Viper
(1) Corvus – Crow
(2) Aptenodytes – Penguin C. Calotes 3. Krait
(3) Neophron – Vulture D. Hemidactylus 4. Garden lizard
(4) Pavo – Parrot
5. Turtle
207. Match the following columns. 6. Tortoise
Column I Column II (1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-6
(Animals) (Common names) (2) A-5, B-3, C-4, D-1
A. Hippocampus 1. Fighting fish (3) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-6
(4) A-2, B-5, C-1, D-6
B. Betta 2. Great white shark
C. Clarias 3. Sea horse 210. Crocodile and cobra are similar to bat and Pristis
D. Labeo 4. Angelfish in which of the following feature.
(1) Presence of external ears
5. Rohu
(2) Presence of milk producing glands
6. Magur (3) Having gill slits at some stages of life
(1) A-3, B-1, C-6, D-5 (4) Possessing single solid nerve cord
(2) A-6, B-2, C-4, D-1
(3) A-3, B-2, C-6, D-4 211. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(4) A-4, B-1, C-6, D-5 for Chondrichthyes.
(1) Mouth is located ventrally.
208. Which of the following statements are (2) Notochord is persistent throughout life
true/false? (3) Gill slits are separate and with operculum
I. In Torpedo, the electric organs are capable (4) They have to swim constantly to avoid
of generating strong electric shock to sinking
paralyse the prey.
II. Bony fishes use pectoral, pelvic, dorsal,
anal and caudal fins in swimming.
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
212. Match the following columns. III. They are found in stomach and intestine
Column I Column II and help in secretion and absorption
(Mammals) (Scientific names) IV. Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in
hollow structure like bronchioles and
A. 1. Ornithorhynchus fallopian tubes / oviducts
V. They have apical nuclei
(1) Only I (2) Only V
(3) Only II and IV (4) Only II and III
Oryctolagus
B. 2.
cuniculus 216. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Brush border epithelium – PCT
(1) Ciliated epithelium – Trachea
(3) Simple squamous epithelium – Moist
C. 3. Pteropus
surface of buccal cavity
(4) Compound epithelium – pharynx
D. 4. Macropus 217. Which of the following statement is false about
the compound epithelium?
(1) It consists of several layers
5. Balaenoptera (2) It covers the dry surface of the skin, the
(1) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-2 moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx,
(2) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1 inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and
(3) A-1, B-2, C-5, D-4 pancreatic ducts
(4) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2 (3) It provides protection against chemical and
mechanical stresses
213. Find out the odd one with respect to mammals. (4) Being multilayered it has a great role in
(1) The most unique mammalian characteristic secretion and absorption
is the presence of milk producing glands
(2) They have two pairs of limbs, adapted for 218. Which of the following is not true of connective
walking, running, climbing, burrowing, tissue?
swimming or flying I. Connective tissues are most abundant and
(3) They are poikiliothermous widely distributed in the body of complex
(4) They are viviparous with few exceptions animals
and development is direct. II. They connect and support other tissues
III. They include such diverse tissues as bone,
214. Select the incorrect match. cartilage, tendons, adipose and loose
(1) Macropus – Kangaroo connective tissues
(2) Balaenoptera – Blue whale IV. They form the internal and external lining
(3) Delphinus – Dolphin of many organs
(4) Pteropus – Parrot V. In all connective tissues except blood, the
cells secrete fibres of structural proteins
215. Which of the following is false about columnar called collagen or elastin
epithelium? (1) Only IV (2) Only V
I. It is made of tall and slender cells (3) Only I and II (4) Only III and V
II. Free surface may have microvilli

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
219. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram of junctions facilitate communication
adipose tissue. between adjacent cells
(1) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(2) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(3) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

222. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
(Tissues) (Composition)

(1) A-Cytoplasm, B-Nucleus, C-Cell wall A. Areolar tissue 1. Fat cells

(2) A-Fat storage area, B-Mast cell, C-Plasma B. Adipose tissue 2. Osteocytes
membrane
Loose connective
(3) A-Cell fluid, B-Collagen fibres, C- C. Ligament 3.
tissue
Plasmalemma
Dense regular
(4) A-Fat storage area, B-Nucleus, C-Plasma D. Bone 4.
connective tissue
membrane
(1) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
220. Match the following columns.
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Column I Column II
(4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(Tissues) (Location)
Presents in
A. Squamous epithelium 1. 223. Select the odd statement regarding cuboidal
bronchioles
epithelial tissue.
B. Cuboidal epithelium 2. Presents in lungs (1) Composed of a single layer of cube-like
Presents in cells
C. Columnar epithelium 3.
stomach (2) Commonly found in ducts of glands
Presents in (3) Its main functions is protection and plays
D. Ciliated epithelium 4.
kidneys limited role in secretion and absorption
(1) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 (4) Found in tubular parts of nephrons
(2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 224. Read the following statements.
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (i) Adipose tissue is another type of loose
connective tissue located mainly beneath
221. Match the following cell structures with their the skin.
characteristic features. (ii) The excess of nutrients which are not used
Column I Column II immediately are converted into fats and are
stored in adipose tissue
Tight
A. 1. Cement neighbouring cells (iii) Tendons, which attach bone to bones and
junctions together to form sheet
ligaments which attach skeletal muscle to
Adhering
B. 2. Transmit information through bone are examples of this tissue.
junctions chemical to another cells
Gap Establish a barrier to prevent
C. 3. leakage of fluid across
junctions (iv) Cells of connective tissue also secrete
epithelial cells
modified polysaccharides, which
D. Synaptic 4. Cytoplasmic channels to
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
accumulate between cells and fibres and act A. Mushroom gland 1. 6 in number
as matrix (ground substance)
(v) In the dense regular connective tissues, the B. Abdominal ganglion 2. 9th sternum
collagen fibres are present in rows between C. Phallomeres 3. 6th -7th segment
many parallel bundles of fibres Total abdominal
D. 4. 10th segments
How many of the given statements are segments
incorrect? (1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(1) Two (2) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(2) Three (3) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(3) Four (4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(4) One
228. Read the given statements in reference to the
225. Match the following with reference to cockroach digestive system of cockroach.
and choose the correct option. I. Except foregut entire alimentary canal is
Column I Column II lined by cuticle.
Chain of developing II. Oesophagus opens into a sac-like structure
A. Phallomere 1. called crop.
ova
III. The hindgut is broader than midgut.
B. Gonopore 2. Bundles of sperm
IV. The gizzard possesses 6 cuticular teeth.
Opening of the Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
C. Spermatophore 3.
ejaculatory duct incorrect?
D. Ovarioles 4. The external genitalia (1) I and IV
(1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (2) II and III
(2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (3) III and IV
(3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (4) Only I
(4) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
229. Given below are the statements depicting
226. Select the correct statement from the given functions of different parts of the alimentary
below with respect to Periplaneta americana. canal of cockroach. Correlate these functions
(1) Nervous system located dorsally, consists with their respective organs.
of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a
pair of longitudinal connectives I. Grinding of food particles.
(2) Males bear a pair of short thread-like anal II. Secretion of digestive juices.
styles III. Clearing of haemolymph.
(3) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules The correct set of organs is:
present at the junctions of midgut and (1) I. Malpighian tubule
hindgut II. Proventriculus
(4) Grinding of food is carried out only by the III. Hepatic caeca
mouth parts (2) I. Gizzard
II. Gastric caeca
227. Match the following with reference to cockroach III. Malpighian tubule
and choose the correct option.
Column I Column II (3) I. Gastric caeca
(Body parts of (Position in the II. Gizzard
cockroach) body) III. Malpighian tubule

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
(4) I. Gizzard (iii) Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
II. Crop cerci which are absent in females.
III. Malpighian tubule (iv) The crop is followed by proventriculus
(v) The fat body, nephrocytes and urecose
230. Read the given statements about blood vascular glands also help in respiration.
system of cockroach. (1) (ii) and (v) are incorrect
I. Circulatory system of cockroach is of (2) (ii) and (iv) are incorrect
closed type. (3) (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
II. There are 12 pairs of alary muscles (4) (i) and (v) are incorrect
connected to heart.
III. Heart is 6-chambered, lies along mid-dorsal 233. Identify A to E in the given diagram of female
line of thorax and abdomen. reproductive system of cockroach.
IV. The haemolymph is composed of colourless
plasma and haemocytes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
incorrect?
(1) Only I
(2) I, II, and III
(3) I and III
(4) Only IV

231. Read the following statements and select the

wrong one with respect to cockroach. (1) A-Collaterial glands, B-Vestibulum, C-
(1) In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened Genital chamber D-Spermatheca, E-
plates called sclerites that are joined to each Gonapophysis
other by a thin and flexible articular (2) A-Vestibulum, B-Collaterial gland, C-
membrane. Gonapophysis, D-Spermatheca, E-Genital
(2) Head of cockroach is formed of six chamber
segments (3) A-Collaterial gland, B-Genital chamber, C-
(3) A pair of thread like antennae arise from Vestibulum, D-Spermatheca E-
membranous sockets lying in front of anus. Gonapophysis
(4) The mouthparts consisting of a labrum (4) A-Genital chamber, B-Spermatheca, C-
(upper lip), a pair of mandibles, a pair of Collaterial gland, D-Gonapophysis, E-
maxillae and a labium (lower lip) Vestibulum

232. Read the following statements about cockroach. 234. Which of the following is a sense organ pair in
(i) Forewings (mesothoracic) called tegmina cockroach?
are opaque dark and leathery and cover the (1) Antennae and eyes
hind wings when at rest. The hind wings (2) Maxillary palp and labial palps
are transparent, membranous and are used (3) Antennae and anal cerci
in flight (4) All of the above
(ii) In males, genital pouch or chamber lies at 235. Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure of
the hind end of abdomen bounded dorsally male reproductive system of frog.
by 9th and 10th terga and ventrally by the 9th
sternum.

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4

(1) A-Fat bodies, B-Testis, C-Ureters, D-Vasa

efferentia, E-Kidney
(2) A-Nephrons, B-Testis, C-Ureters, D-Villi, (1) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Testis, D-
E-Kidney Kidney, E-Urethra, F-Urinary bladder
(3) A-Vasa efferentia, B-Testis, C-Adrenal (2) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Fat bodies, D-
gland, D-Fat bodies, E-Kidney Kidney, E-Rectum, F-Urinary bladder
(4) A-Mesorchium, B-Testis, C-Adrenal gland, (3) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Ovary, D-
D-Fat bodies, E-Kidney Kidney, E-Ileum, F-Urinary bladder
(4) A-Gall bladder, B-Lungs, C-Fat bodies, D-
236. Select the correct route for the passage of Kidney, E-Colon. F-Urinary bladder
sperms in male frogs.
(1) Testes  Bidder's canal  Kidney  Vasa 239. The forelimbs and hindlimbs of frogs are
(1) four digits
efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(2) five digits
(2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney 
(3) four and five digits, respectively
Seminal vesicle  Urinogenital duct 
(4) five and four digits, respectively
Cloaca
(3) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Bidder's canal 240. Consider the following statements about frog.
 Ureter  Cloaca I. Skin acts as a respiratory organ only in
(4) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  water.
Bidder's canal  Urinogenital duct  II. Development is indirect through tadpole
Cloaca larva.
III. Bidder canal is present in kidneys into
237. The system for control and coordination in frogs which vasa efferentia opens in male frog.
comprises IV. They possess well-developed renal portal
(1) highly evolved neural system and endocrine system. Which of the statements given
glands above is/are incorrect?
(2) highly evolved exocrine glands and least (1) Only I
developed nervous system (2) I and III
(3) least developed endocrine system and (3) I, II, and III
nervous system (4) II and IV
(4) endocrine and exocrine glands
241. Select the option containing the correct
238. Given below is the diagram of internal organs of statements.
frog. Identify A to F. I. Frog is not a poikilotherm.
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
II. Frog does not have any coronary (iii) External ear is absent in frogs and only
circulation. tympanum can be seen externally
III. Heart is 'myogenic' in nature. (iv) In males the ureters and oviduct open
IV. Heart is autoex citable. separately in the cloaca
(1) Only III (v) RBC’s are nucleated but lacks
(2) Only IV haemoglobin.
(3) I and II How many of the given statements are correct?
(4) III and IV (1) Three
(2) Two
242. Read the following statement and select (3) One
incorrect with respect to the reproductive (4) Four
system of frog.
(1) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number that 244. Match the following columns with reference to
arise from testes frog.
(2) The ovaries are situated near kidneys with
functional connection with kidneys.
(3) Testes are found adhered to the upper part
of kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum Column I Column II
called mesorchium
A. Touch 1. Nasal epithelium
(4) A mature female can lay 2500 to 3000 ova
at a time B. Smell 2. Foramen magnum
C. Cranial nerves 3. Sensory papillae
243. Read the following statements.
(i) Mid brain of frog includes olfactory lobes, D. Medulla oblongata 4. Peripheral nervous
paired cerebral hemispheres and unpaired (1) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
diencephalon. (2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(ii) Frog has different types of sense organs, (3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
namely sensory papillae, taste buds, nasal (4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
epithelium etc.

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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
ANSWER
1. (2) 34. (4) 67. (3) 100. (4) 133. (2)
2. (3) 35. (1) 68. (1) 101. (3) 134. (1)
3. (2) 36. (1) 69. (4) 102. (4) 135. (2)
4. (3) 37. (3) 70. (3) 103. (2) 136. (3)
5. (2) 38. (2) 71. (1) 104. (4) 137. (3)
6. (1) 39. (3) 72. (1) 105. (3) 138. (3)
7. (3) 40. (4) 73. (4) 106. (4) 139. (4)
8. (1) 41. (1) 74. (3) 107. (3) 140. (3)
9. (2) 42. (2) 75. (1) 108. (4) 141. (1)
10. (2) 43. (2) 76. (2) 109. (4) 142. (3)
11. (3) 44. (2) 77. (1) 110. (3) 143. (2)
12. (1) 45. (1) 78. (1) 111. (3) 144. (3)
13. (2) 46. (1) 79. (1) 112. (3) 145. (1)
14. (4) 47. (2) 80. (1) 113. (4) 146. (3)
15. (3) 48. (4) 81. (1) 114. (1) 147. (1)
16. (1) 49. (4) 82. (2) 115. (4) 148. (3)
17. (4) 50. (4) 83. (3) 116. (1) 149. (4)
18. (2) 51. (3) 84. (3) 117. (2) 150. (3)
19. (2) 52. (2) 85. (2) 118. (1) 151. (2)
20. (2) 53. (3) 86. (2) 119. (1) 152. (1)
21. (3) 54. (1) 87. (1) 120. (2) 153. (2)
22. (4) 55. (4) 88. (1) 121. (1) 154. (2)
23. (3) 56. (1) 89. (4) 122. (3) 155. (2)
24. (1) 57. (2) 90. (4) 123. (2) 156. (4)
25. (2) 58. (4) 91. (1) 124. (3) 157. (4)
26. (3) 59. (2) 92. (3) 125. (1) 158. (4)
27. (3) 60. (2) 93. (2) 126. (2) 159. (3)
28. (1) 61. (2) 94. (2) 127. (3) 160. (2)
29. (4) 62. (4) 95. (1) 128. (3) 161. (3)
30. (3) 63. (3) 96. (3) 129. (2) 162. (4)
31. (3) 64. (2) 97. (3) 130. (4) 163. (2)
32. (4) 65. (4) 98. (3) 131. (2) 164. (4)
33. (2) 66. (3) 99. (4) 132. (3) 165. (4)
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 SURESHOT 500 QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 1, 2, 3 & 4
166. (4) 182. (3) 198. (3) 214. (4) 230. (3)
167. (2) 183. (3) 199. (2) 215. (2) 231. (3)
168. (3) 184. (3) 200. (4) 216. (3) 232. (1)
169. (3) 185. (4) 201. (1) 217. (2) 233. (3)
170. (2) 186. (4) 202. (3) 218. (1) 234. (4)
171. (1) 187. (4) 203. (2) 219. (4) 235. (3)
172. (2) 188. (2) 204. (3) 220. (1) 236. (2)
173. (4) 189. (3) 205. (2) 221. (3) 237. (1)
174. (4) 190. (3) 206. (4) 222. (1) 238. (2)
175. (1) 191. (3) 207. (1) 223. (3) 239. (3)
176. (1) 192. (4) 208. (195) 224. (4) 240. (1)
177. (2) 193. (1) 209. (2) 225. (2) 241. (4)
178. (2) 194. (1) 210. (3) 226. (2) 242. (2)
179. (3) 195. (1) 211. (3) 227. (2) 243. (2)
180. (4) 196. (4) 212. (2) 228. (4) 244. (4)
181. (4) 197. (3) 213. (3) 229. (2)

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
245. Read the following statements and select the (vi) Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal
incorrect with respect to male reproductive vesicle and opens into urethra as the
system ejaculatory duct.
(1) Testes are situated outside the abdominal How many of the statements are incorrect?
cavity to maintain the low temperature of (1) One (2) Three
the testes necessary for spermatogenesis (3) Four (4) Two
(2) The testis is covered by a dense covering
(3) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its 248. Read the following statements.
inside by two types of cells. I. Each testis has about 25 compartments
(4) The regions within the seminiferous tubules called testicular lobules.
called interstitial spaces II. Each testicular lobule contains one to three
highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which
246. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperms are produced.
sperm cells in male reproductive system. III. Sertoli cells act as nurse cells of testicles.
(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa IV. Sertoli cells are activated by FSH secreted
efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens by the adenohypophysis.
→ Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral Which of the above statements are incorrect?
meatus (1) I and III (2) Only I
(2) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → (3) II and IV (4) III and IV
Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
(3) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → 249. Match column I with column II.
Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Column-I Column-II
Inguinal canal → Urethra → Urethral
A. Clitoris p. Cushion of fatty tissue
meatus
(4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Upper junction of two
B. Hymen q.
Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra labia minora
C. Mons pubis r. Flesh folds
247. Read the following statements.
Partial covering of
(i) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete D. Labia majora s.
vagina
testicular hormones called androgens
(ii) The male sex accessory ducts include rete (1) (A)–r, (B)–s, (C)–q, (D)–p
testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, seminal (2) (A)–s, (B)–r, (C)–q, (D)–p
vesicle and vas deferens (3) (A)–r, (B)–p, (C)–q, (D)–s
(iii) Penis is made up of special tissue that helps (4) (A)–q, (B)–s, (C)–p, (D)–r
in erection of the penis, it`s enlarged end is
covered by a loose fold of skin called glans 250. Read the following statements.
penis. (i) Each ovary is covered by a thick epithelium
(iv) Secretions of male accessory glands which encloses the ovarian stroma, which is
constitute the seminal plasma which is rich divided into two zones.
in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. (ii) The edges of the infundibulum possess
(v) The epididymis leads to vas deferens that finger-like projections called fimbriae,
ascends to the abdomen and loops over the which help in collection of the ovum after
urinary bladder. ovulation

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(iii) Parts of the female reproductive system C. Uterus 3. Pregnancy
along with a pair of the mammary glands
are integrated structurally and functionally D. Cervix 4. Childbirth
to support the processes of ovulation, (1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
fertilisation, pregnancy, birth and child (2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
care. (3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(iv) The presence or absence of hymen is not a (4) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
reliable indicator of virginity or sexual
experience. 253. Match the following columns.
Select the correct option with respect to the Column I Column II
above statements. (Layers of uterus) (Features)
(1) All the statements are correct Inner glandular layer
A. Perimetrium p.
(2) All the statements are correct, except (i) of uterus
(3) All the statements are correct, except (iii) External thin
B. Endometrium q.
(4) All the statements are correct, except (iv) membrane of uterus
Middle thick
251. Given the diagrammatic sectional view of C. Myometrium r.
membrane of uterus
mammary gland. Identify A, B, C and D. (1) A-2, B-1, C-3
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1
(4) A-3, B-1, C-2

254. Read the following statements.

I. Spermatogonia and spermatids are diploid.
II. The extrusion of second polar body from
nucleus occurs after the entry of sperm and
completion of fertilisation.
III. Spermatogenesis and sperm differentiation
(1) A-Alveolus, B-Mammary duct, C- under the control of FSH and testosterone.
Lactiferous duct, D-Areola IV. A change in ovum after penetration of
(2) A-Alveolus, B-Lactiferous duct, C- sperm the formation of second polar body.
Mammary duct, D-Areola V. The secondary oocyte in the Graaffian
(3) A-Alveolus, B-Mammary duct, C- follicle forms a new membrane called zona
Lactiferous duct, D-Lactogenic spot pellucida surrounding it.
(4) A-Fat, B-Mammary duct, C-Lactiferous Which of the above statements are correct?
duct, D-Areola (1) I, II, III and V (2) I and III
(3) Only III (4) II, III, IV and V
252. Match the following columns.
255. The spermatids are transformed into
Column I
Column II spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called
(Female reproductive
(Related to) (1) Spermatogenesis
parts)
(2) Spermiogenesis
A. Ovaries 1. Fertilisation
(3) Spermiation
B. Oviduct 2. Ovulation (4) Spermatocytogenesis

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
256. Choose the incorrect pair. 259. Some important events in the human female
(1) Antrum - Fluid-filled cavity in primary reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the
follicle events in proper sequence.
(2) Tertiary follicle - Primary oocyte completes I. Secretion of FSH.
its Ist meiotic division inside it II. Growth of corpus luteum.
(3) Secondary oocyte - Haploid cell formed III. Growth of the follicle and oogenesis.
after Ist meiotic division IV. Ovulation.
(4) Graafian follicle - Mature tertiary follicle V. Sudden increase in the levels of LH.
which ruptures during ovulation Choose the correct option.
(1) III  I  IV  II  V
257. Which of the following statements is correct? (2) I  III  V  IV  II
I. Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic (3) I  IV  III  V  II
development stage. (4) II  I  III  IV  V
II. At puberty only 60,000 - 80,000 primary
follicles are left in each ovary. 260. Read the graph and correlate the uterine events
III. The primary follicles surrounded with that take place according to the hormonal levels
many layers of granulosa cells and form a on A. 6-15 days, B. 16-25 days, C. 3-5 days (if
new theca called secondary follicles. the ovum is not fertilised).
IV. Changing of sanitary napkins or pads after
every 4-5 hours is necessary for
maintaining menstrual hygiene.
(1) I and II (2) I, II, III and IV
(3) I and III (4) None of these

258. Identify A, B and C in the figure given below.

(1) A-Degeneration of endometrium, B-

Myometrium thickness, becomes
vascularised ready to receive and implant
embryo, C -Regeneration of endometrium
(2) A-Degeneration of endometrium, B-
Endometrium thickness increases, becomes
vascularised, ready to receive and implant
ovum, C-Regeneration of endometrium
(3) A-Regeneration of endometrium, B-
Endometrium becomes thick and
vascularised ready to receive and implant
embryo, C-Degeneration of endometrium
(1) A-Secondary oocyte, B-Oogonia, C-
(4) A-Regeneration of myometrium, B-
Primary oocyte
Endometrium becomes thick and
(2) A-Oogonia, B-Primary oocyte, C-
vascularised, ready to receive and implant
Secondary oocyte
embryo, C-Degeneration of endometrium
(3) A-Secondary oocyte, B-Primary oocyte, C-
Oogonia
261. Read the following statements.
(4) A-Oogonia, B-Secondary oocyte, C-
Primary oocyte
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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(i) Lack of menstruation may be indicative of Outer layer of
pregnancy. C. Inner cell mass 3. blastocyst attached to
(ii) Development of follicles and regeneration the endometrium
of endometrium occurs simultaneously. Mitotic division of
D. Implantation 4.
(iii) Changes in the ovary and the uterus are zygote
induced by only changes in the levels of (1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
pituitary and hypothalamic hormones (2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(iv) The secretion of corpus luteum is essential (3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
for maintenance of the endometrium (4) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(v) Degeneration of corpus luteum causes the
disintegration of the endometrium leading 264. Choose the incorrect pair.
to menstruation. Time of development in
Organ
How many of the given statements are correct? foetus
(1) One (2) Two After one month of
A. Heart
(3) Four (4) Three pregnancy
Limbs and By the end of second
B.
262. The given diagram refers to ovum surrounded by digits month
few sperms. Identify A, B and C in the diagram. External genital By the end of 24 weeks
C.
organs (second trimester)
First movement
D. During the fifth month
of foetus

265. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) The placenta is connected to the embryo
through an umbilical cord which helps in
the transport of substances to and from the
embryo.
(2) Placenta also produces several hormones
(1) A-Zona pellucida, B-Perivitelline space, C-
like human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG),
Corona reticulata
human placental lactogen (hPL), estrogens,
(2) A-Zona pellucida, B-Vitelline membrane,
progestogens, etc.
C-Corona radiata
(3) In the later phase of pregnancy, a hormone
(3) A-Zona pellucida, B-Perivitelline space, C-
called relaxin is only secreted by the ovary.
Corona radiata
(4) During pregnancy the levels of other
(4) A-Oolemma, B-Perivitelline space, C-
hormones like estrogens, progestogens,
Corona radiata
cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc., are
increased several folds in the maternal
263. Match the following columns.
blood.
Column I Column II
Embedding of 266. Signals for parturition originate from
A. Trophoblast 1. blastocyst in the (1) Both placenta as well as fully developed
endometrium foetus
Group of cells that (2) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
B. Cleavage 2. would differentiate as (3) placenta
embryo (4) fully developed foetus

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
267. Colostrum is important for newly born because: (1) I-T, II-F, III-T
(1) It contains antibodies (2) I-F, II-F, III-T
(2) It has nutrients required for the growth of (3) I-T, II-T, III-F
baby (4) I-F, II-T, III-T
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) It contains antigens 271. The spermatogonia undergo division to produce
sperms by the process of spermatogenesis.
268. Select the correct option describing Choose the correct one with reference to above.
gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant (1) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and
female. always undergo meiotic cell division
(1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the (2) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic
thickening of endometrium cell division
(2) High level of FSH and LH facilitates (3) Secondary spermatocytes have 23
implantation of the embryo chromosomes and undergo second meiotic
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis division
of oestrogen and progesterone (4) Spermatozoa are transformed into
(4) High level of hCG stimulates the spermatids
thickening of endometrium
272. Match the following columns.
269. Match the following columns. Column I Column II
Column I Column II A. Acrosome 1. Rudimentary tissue
A. Hyaluronidase 1. Acrosomal reaction
B. Endometrium 2. Uterus
Morphogenetic
B. Corpus luteum 2. C. Polar body 3. Oogenesis
movements
C. Gastrulation 3. Progesterone D. Clitoris 4. Spermatozoa

D. Capacitation 4. Mammary gland (1) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(2) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Colostrum Sperm activation (3) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(1) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-1, E-3 (4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4
(3) A-3, B-2, C-5, D-4, E-1 273. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5 nucleus occurs
(1) after fertilisation
270. Consider the following three statements related (2) before the entry of sperm into ovum
to the human male reproductive system and (3) simultaneously with first cleavage
select the correct option stating which ones are (4) after the entry of sperm but before
True (T) and which ones are False (F). fertilisation
I. Middle piece of spermatozoon is also
termed as power house of spermatozoon. 274. Give the name of two hormones A and B in the
II. Vas deferens joins a duct from seminal figure given below.
vesicle and form vasa efferentia.
III. Semen is a collection of secretions from the
seminal vesicles, prostate gland, Cowper's (1) FSH and GH (2) LH and androgens
glands and sperms from testes. (3) GH and LH (4) GH and lactin

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
275. Read the following statement and select the (i) Barrier methods such as condoms are
incorrect with respect to IUDs. available for both males and females.
(1) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms (ii) Use of condoms has decreased in recent
within the uterus years due to its additional benefit of
(2) It is one of most widely accepted methods protecting the user from contracting STIs
of contraception in India. and AIDS.
(3) Intrauterine devices are inserted by doctors (iii) Female condoms are disposable, can be
or expert nurses in the vagina. self-inserted and thereby gives privacy to
(4) The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, the user
make the uterus unsuitable for implantation (iv) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
and the cervix hostile to the sperms. also barriers made of rubber that are
inserted into the female reproductive tract
276. Select the mismatch. to cover the cervix during coitus.
(1) Copper releasing IUDs - CuT, Cu7, (v) Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are
Multiload 375 usually used along with barriers such as
(2) Hormone releasing IUDs - Progestasert condoms to increase their contraceptive
(3) Non-medicated IUDs - Lippes loop, LNG- efficiency.
20 How many of the given statements are true?
(4) None of these (1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Five
277. Which of the following is a hormone releasing
Intrauterine Device (IUD)? 281. What is true for an ideal contraceptive?
(1) Multiload 375 (2) LNG-20 I. It should be user-friendly.
(3) Cervical cap (4) Vault II. It should be easily available.
III. It should be effective and reversible with
278. Find out the incorrect statement for IUD. least side effects.
(1) They can be self-inserted IV. It should be interfering in coitus.
(2) They are inserted by expert nurses/doctors V. It should be expensive and effective.
(3) They may be non-medicated IUDs, copper Choose the correct option.
releasing IUDs or hormone releasing IUDs (1) I, IV and III (2) I, IV and V
(4) They are intrauterine devices (3) I, II and III (4) II, IV and V

279. Which of the following is not correct for natural 282. Which statements show the correct purpose of
method of contraception? contraceptive pills?
(1) Withdrawal of penis from the vagina by I. They inhibit ovulation and implantation.
male partner just before ejaculation II. They alter the quality of cervical mucus to
(2) As long as the mother breast-feeds the child prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
fully, chances of conception are almost nil III. They prevent the ejaculated semen from
(3) The couples avoid or abstain from coitus entering the female vagina.
from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle IV. They inhibit spermatogenesis.
when ovulation could be expected (1) I, II and IV
(4) Side effects are almost nil, chances of (2) I, II and III
failure, though, of this method are also nil (3) I and II
(4) I, II, III and IV
280. Read the following statements.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
283. Given below are the four methods and their 286. Read the given statements and select the correct
modes of action in achieving contraception. option regarding pills.
Select their correct matching from the four (i) Pills contains small doses of either
options that follows. progestogens or progestogen–estrogen.
Column I (Birth Column II (Modes of (ii) They inhibit ovulation and implantation as
control measures) action) well as alter the quality of cervical mucus
Prevents sperms to prevent/retard entry of sperms.
A. Pill 1. (iii) Pills are very effective with higher side
reaching cervix
effects and are well accepted by the
B. Condom 2. Prevents implantation
females.
C. Vasectomy 3. Prevents ovulation (iv) Pills have to be taken daily for a period of
Semen contains no 21 days starting preferably within the first
D. Copper-T 4.
sperms five days of menstrual cycle.
(1) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (1) All the statements are correct except iv.
(2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4 (2) All the statements are incorrect except iii.
(3) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (3) All the statements are correct except iii.
(4) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (4) All the statements are correct except i and
iii.
284. Which of the following approaches does not give
the defined action of contraceptive? 287. Select the correct statement for the given figure?
Increase phagocytosis of
Intra uterine sperms, suppress sperm
(1)
devices motility and fertilising
capacity of sperms
Prevent/retard entry of
sperms, prevent
(2) Hormonal
Contraceptives ovulation (1) They are used once in a week
and fertilisation (2) Contains progestogens alone or in
(3) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis combination with estrogen.
Prevent (3) Their mode of action is similar to that of
(4) Barrier methods
fertilisation pills and their effective periods are much
lesser.
285. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by (4) They inhibit oogenesis
the females. Choose the correct option from the
statements given below. 288. Which of the following can not act as emergency
I. They are introduced into the uterus. contraceptive?
II. They are placed to cover the cervical (i) Administration of progestogens
region. (ii) Administration of progestogen-estrogen
III. They act as physical barriers for sperm combinations
entry. (iii) IUDs
IV. They act as spermicidal agents. (iv) Vasectomy
(1) I and II (v) Coitus interruptus
(2) I and III (1) i and ii (2) i, ii and iii
(3) II and III (3) iii, iv and v (4) iv and v
(4) III and IV
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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
289. What does the given below figure depicts in
A. GIFT 1. Gamete intrafallopian
particular? transfer
B. ZIFT 2. Zygote intrafallopian
transfer
C. IUI 3. Semen introduced into
vagina/uterus
D. Test-tube baby 4. ART
(1) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(1) Ovarian cancer (2) Uterine cancer (2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(3) Tubectomy (4) Vasectomy (3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
290. Assertion (A): Amniocentesis is often misused.
Reason (R): It is meant for determining the 295. Given below are the four methods and their
genetic disorders in the foetus, but it is being modes of action in achieving contraception.
used to determine the sex of the foetus, leading Select their correct matching from the four
to increase in the female foeticide. options that follows.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A Column I Column II
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the Collected gametes are made In vivo
correct explanation of A A. to form the zygote in the 1.
fertilisation
laboratory.
(3) If A is true, but R is false
Zygote or Early embryo with
(4) If A is false, but R is true B. up to 8 blastomeres is 2. IUT
transferred into the oviduct.
291. Amniocentesis is the detection of Zygote with more than 8
(1) chromosomal pattern by taking amniotic fluid C. blastomeres, is transferred 3. ZIFT
(2) chorionic fluid from developing embryo into the uterus.
(3) chromosomal pattern after childbirth D. Fusion of the gametes in the 4. IVF
(4) chromosomal pattern before fertilization female reproductive tract.
(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(2) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
292. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(1) STDs incidences are reported to be very
(4) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
high among persons in the age group of 15-
24 years
296. The 'ART' in which the semen collected either
(2) STIs are a major threat to a healthy society.
from the husband or a healthy donor and
(3) Among STDs, HIV infection is most dangerous.
artificially introduced either into the vagina or
(4) Early symptoms may includer abortions,
into the uterus is
still births, ectopic pregnancies
(1) Intra uterine devices
(2) Intra uterine insemination
293. Which of the following is completely curable?
(3) Inter uterine insemination
(1) Hepatitis-B
(4) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
(2) Genital herpes
(3) HIV infections
297. Artificial insemination means
(4) Syphilis
(1) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a
test tube containing ova.
294. Select the correct match:

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(2) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube II. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method.
containing ova. III. MTPs are always surgical.
(3) Artificial introduction of sperms of a IV. MTPs require the assistance of qualified
healthy donor into the vagina. medical personnel.
(4) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor (1) I and III
directly into the ovary. (2) II and III
(3) I and IV
298. Select the statement which is not a cause of (4) I and II
population growth.
(1) Decline in death rate 303. Find out odd statement for Saheli.
(2) Rapid increase in MMR and IMR (1) It is an oral contraceptive
(3) Rapid decline in MMR and IMR (2) It is used as once in a week
(4) Increase in the number of people in the (3) Prepared in CDRI Kanpur
reproductive age group (4) It has very few side effects and high
contraceptive value
299. What are the various ways through which the
reproductive health can be improved? 304. To avoid transmission of STDs.
I. Education I. Avoid sex with multiple partners.
II. Awareness II. Always have unprotected sex.
III. Encouraging myths III. Use condoms during coitus.
IV. Ban on amniocentesis IV. Avoid sex with unknown partners.
(1) I and II (2) II and III V. Avoid sharing of needles.
(3) III and IV (4) I, II and IV Choose the correct option.
(1) I and II
300. According to 2011 census, the population (2) II, III and IV
growth rate was less than (3) I and III
(1) 0.2% (2) 2% (4) I, III, IV and V
(3) 0.5% (4) 1.5%
305. Match the columns:
301. Select the correct match. Column I Column II
Year Population A prepration of
Active
A. 1947 1. 350 million A. 1. inactivated/weakned
immunity
pathogen
B. 2000 2. 1.2 billion
Passive Injection of preparation
C. 2011 3. 1 billion B. 2.
immunity containing antibodies
(1) A-2, B-3, C-1
C. Vaccination 3. colostrum
(2) A-3, B-2, C-2
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3 Passive Slow and takes time for
D. 4.
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2 immunisation full response
(1) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
302. Following statements are given regarding MTP. (2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Choose the correct option given below. (3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
I. MTPs are generally advised during first (4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
trimester.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
306. Match the columns: 310. Which of the following drugs can be used to
Column I Column II quickly reduce the symptoms of allergic
reaction?
Physiological
A. Interferons 1. I. Anti-histamine II. Adrenaline
barrier
III. Steroids
Gastric juice, saliva, (1) I and II (2) I and III
B. 2. Physical barrier
tear and sweat (3) II and III (4) I, II and III
C. Mucosa and skin 3. Cellular barrier
311. Read the following statements and select he
Neutrophils, Cytokine
D. 4. correct statement.
monocytes, N-K cell barrier
(1) Primary response is highly intensified
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 anamnestic response.
(2) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 (2) Subsequent encounter with the same
(3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 pathogen elicits a response of low intensity.
(4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (3) Secondary response is based on the
memory of first encoder
307. Which of the following statements given below (4) The primary and secondary immune
is/are correct? responses are carried out with the help of T
I. Secondary lymphoid organs includes lymph – lymphocytes only
nodes, spleen and small masses of lymph
tissue such as Peyer's patches, appendix and 312. Which of the following is not a auto immune
tonsils. disease?
II. The secondary lymphoid organs provide the (1) Rheumatoid arthritis
site for interaction of lymphocyte with the (2) Alzheimer`s disease
antigens. (3) Vitiligo
(1) Only I (2) Only II (4) Psoriasis
(3) I and II (4) None of these
313. The figure given below shows an antibody
308. Select the incorrect statement with respect to molecule. Name the parts A, B and C.
interferons
(1) Secreted from virus infected cells
(2) Protect non- infected cells from further
infection
(3) They are proteinaceousin nature
(4) Included under the cytokine barrier of
acquired immunity

309. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can

distinguish self and non-self cells. If this
property is lost due to the genetic abnormality
and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to
(1) graft rejection
(2) autoimmune disease
(3) active immunity (1) A-Antigen binding site, B-Heavy chain, C-
(4) allergic response Light chain, D-Disulphide bond

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(2) A-Antibody binding site, B-Light chain, C- (2) A-Sporozoites in liver, B-Asexual
Heavy chain, D-Phosphoester bond reproduction of Plasmodium in RBC, C-
(3) A-Antigen binding site, B-Short chain, C- Gametocytes in RBC, D-Fertilisation of
Long chain, D-Sulphur bond gametocytes in mosquito's intestine (gut)
(4) A-Antibody binding site, B-Long chain, C- (3) A-Sporozoites in liver, B-Asexual
Short chain, D-Disulphide bond reproduction of Plasmodium in RBC, C-
Gametocytes in RBC, D-Fertilisation of
314. Fill up the blanks. gametocytes in mosquito's salivary glands
I. Heat and moisture help ______ fungi to (4) A-Sporozoites in kidney, B-Sexual
grow, which makes them thrive in skin reproduction of Plasmodium in RBC, C-
folds. Gametocytes in RBC, D-Fertilisation of
II. Maintenance of ______ and ______ gametocytes in mosquito's intestine
hygiene is important for the prevention of
many infectious diseases. 316. Read the following statements and select the odd
III. ______ gives the diseases its name, one with respect to ringworm.
elephantiasis. (1) Many fungi belonging to the genera
(1) I. Microsporum, II. public; personal, III. Microsporum, Trichophyton and
Swelling of hand Epidermophyton are responsible for
(2) I. Trichophyton, II. personal; public, III. ringworms
Enlargement of eye (2) Heat and moisture help these fungi to grow,
(3) I. Epidermophyton, II. personal; public, III. which makes them thrive in skin folds such
Swelling of legs as those in the groin or between the toes
(4) I. Wuchereria, II. personal; public; III. (3) Ringworms are generally acquired from
Enlargement of tongue contaminated food and water.
(4) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various
315. Study the given diagram and name the labelled parts of the body such as skin, nails and
A, B, C and D. scalp are the main symptoms of the disease.

317. Match the columns:

Column I Column II
Appearance of dry. Scaly
lesions on various parts of Entamoeba
A. 1.
the body such as skin histolytica
nails and scalp
Chronic inflammation of Ascaris
B. the lymphatic vessel of 2.
lumbricoides
lower limbs
Fever, chills, cough,
headache and in severe haemophilus
C. cases the lips and finger 3.
influenzae
nails my turns grey to
(1) A-Sporozoites in spleen, B-Sexual bluish in colour
reproduction of Plasmodium in RBC, C- Constipation, abdominal
pain and cramps, stool Wuchereia
Gametocytes in RBC, D-Fertilisation of D. 4.
with excess mucous and bancrofti
gametocytes in mosquito's intestine
blood clots

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
Internal bleeding, (4) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli
muscular pain, anaemia 5. whereas the common cold affects nose and
E.
and blockage of intestinal respiratory passage but not the lungs
passage
(1) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-1, E-2
321. Match the columns:
(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5, E-1
Column I Column II (Carrier)
(3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5 (Disease)
(4) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-1 Towels and clothes of
A. Amoebiasis 1.
infected individuals
318. Match the causative organisms with their B. Typhoid 2. Houseflies
diseases.
C. 3. Contaminated food and
Column I Column II Pneumonia
water
Malignant Droplets of infected
A. Haemophilus influenzae 1. D. Ringworm 4.
malaria person
B. Entamoeba histolytica 2. Elephantiasis (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
C. Plasmodium falciparum 3. Pneumonia (2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(3) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
D. Wuchereria bancrofti 4. Typhoid
(4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
E. Salmonella typhi 5. Amoebiasis
(1) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-1, E-2 322. Read the following statements.
(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5, E-1 (i) Pathogens generally enter the small
(3) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5 intestine through food and water
(4) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-2, E-1 contaminated with them.
(ii) Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C),
319. Which if the following is not correct for weakness, stomach pain, constipation,
Ascariasis? headache and loss of appetite are some of
(1) Caused by intestinal parasite the common symptoms of this disease.
(2) Symptoms of these disease include internal (iii) Intestinal perforation and death may occur
bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and in severe cases
blockage of the intestinal passage All the given statements are true for:
(3) The pathogens are transmitted to a healthy (1) Malaria
person through the bite by the female (2) Typhoid
mosquito vectors. (3) Pneumonia
(4) Causative agent is Ascaris (4) Amoebiasis

320. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that 323. The filariasis pathogen is transmitted to a
(1) pneumonia is a communicable disease, healthy person through the bite of
whereas the common cold is a nutritional (1) female Anopheles mosquito
deficiency disease (2) female Aedes mosquito
(2) pneumonia can be prevented by a live (3) female Culex mosquito
attenuated bacterial vaccine, whereas the (4) None of the above
common cold has no effective vaccine
(3) pneumonia is caused by a virus, while the 324. Identify the pictures A, B and C.
common cold is caused by the bacterium
Haemophilus influenzae

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
III. lack of interest in personal hygiene.
IV. isolation, depression, fatigue, aggressive
and rebellious behaviour.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV
(1) A-Opium poppy, B-Cannabis sativa, C- (3) II, III and IV (4) All of these
Datura
(2) A-Cannabis sativa, B-Opium poppy, C- 328. Which of these is not a member of the group of
Datura chemicals whose chemical structure is given
(3) A-Datura, B-Opium poppy, C-Cannabis below?
sativa
(4) A-Opium poppy, B-Datura, C-Cannabis
sativa

325. Match the columns:

Column I Column II (1) Marijuana (2) Hashish
A. Benzodiazepines Sedative and (3) Morphine (4) Both (1) and (2)
1.
painkiller
B. Morphine 2. Stimulant 329. LSD is obtained from:
Depression and (1) Cannabis sativa
C. Cocaine 3. (2) Papaver somniferum
insomnia
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3 (3) Erythroxylum cocca
(2) A-3, B-1, C-2 (4) Claviceps purpura
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2 330. In the given flow chart, the replication of
retrovirus in a host cell is shown. Observe it
326. Match the columns: carefully and fill up the blank A, B and C.
Column I Column II
A. Heroin Interfere with dopamine
1.
transport
B. Cannabinoids 2. Stimulates adrenaline
and noradrenaline release
C. Cocaine 3. Acetylation of morphine

D. Nicotine Effect on cardiovascular

4.
system
(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

327. Warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse include

I. drop in academic performance.
II. absence from school/college.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) A-Bacteriophage, B-Viral DNA is α-interferon which activates their immune
produced, C-New viral RNA is produced system and helps in destroying the tumor.
(2) A-Transcriptase, B-Bacterial RNA is (4) The property of metastasis is the most
produced, C-New viral DNA is produced feared property of Benign tumors
by the infected cell
(3) A-Bacteriophage, B-Viral DNA is 333. Choose the correct statements.
produced, C-New viral RNA is produced I. Innate immunity is accomplished by
by the infected cell providing different types of barriers.
(4) A-Retrovirus, B-Viral DNA is produced by II. Acquired immunity is present from the
reverse transcriptase, C-New viral RNA is birth and is inherited from parents.
produced by the infected cell III. Acquired immunity can be divided into
antibody mediated and cell-mediated
331. Select the true statements. immunity.
I. Cancer detection is based on biopsy and IV. Innate immunity is also called specific
histopathological study of the suspected immunity.
tissue. V. Acquired immunity consists of specialised
II. In biopsy, the suspected tissue is cut into cells (T-cell and B-cell) and antibodies that
thin sections, stained and examined under circulate in the blood.
microscope. (1) I, II and V (2) II, III, IV and V
III. Certain chemotherapeutic drugs are used to (3) I, III and V (4) I, II, III, IV and V
kill the cancerous cells, but majority of the
drugs have side effects like hair loss, 334. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect
anaemia, etc. the newborn from certain diseases is of
IV. MRI uses strong magnetic fields and (1) IgG type (2) IgA type
ionising radiations to accurately detect (3) IgD type (4) IgE type
pathological and physiological changes in
the living tissues. 335. Read the following statement.
(i) Sweet potato (stem modification) and
V. Techniques like radiography (use of X- potato (root modification) is example for
rays), CT (Computed Tomography) scan analogy.
and MRI are very useful to detect cancers (ii) The flippers of Penguins and Dolphins
of the internal organs. represent analogy
(1) I and II (iii) Homology is based on divergent evolution
(2) I and III whereas analogy refers to a situation
(3) II and III exactly opposite.
(4) All statements are true (iv) Analogy indicates common ancestry
(v) Wings of butterfly and of birds look alike
332. Select the incorrect statement. but are not anatomically similar structures
(1) Normal cells show a property called contact though they perform similar functions.
inhibition How many of the given statements are not true?
(2) As a result of this, cancerous cells just (1) Three (2) Two
continue to divide giving rise to masses of (3) Four (4) One
cells called tumors.
(3) The patients are given substances called 336. How many of the following statement are correct
biological response modifiers such as α α pair of homologous organs

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(i) Hands of man and wings of bat heterozygous and homozygous recessive
(ii) Wings of bat and wings of cockroach individuals in the population?
(iii) Wings of bird and butterfly (1) 0.16(AA);0.24(Aa);0.36(aa)
(iv) Forearm of human and forelimb of horse (2) 0.16(AA);0.48(Aa);0.36(aa)
(1) Two (2) One (3) 0.16(AA);0.36(Aa);0.48(aa)
(3) Three (4) Four (4) 0.36(AA);0.48(Aa);0.16(aa)

337. Among the following sets of examples for 341. Which of the following conditions represents the
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option. extent of evolutionary change in Hardy-
(1) Brain of bat, man and cheetah Weinberg principle?
(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah (1) Value of (p + q)2
(3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (2) Difference between measured value and
(4) Eye of Octopus, bat and man expected value
(3) Sum of measured value and expected value
338. The process by which organisms with different (4) This principle cannot predict the extent of
evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic evolutionary change
adaptations in response to a common
environmental challenge, is called 342. Read the following statements related to Hardy
(1) natural selection Weinberg and select the incorrect statements
(2) convergent evolution (1) Change of frequency of alleles in a
(3) non-random evolution population would then be interpreted as
(4) adaptive radiation resulting in evolution
(2) Five factors are known to affect Hardy-
339. Diagram given below indicates Weinberg equilibrium
(3) When migration of a section of population
to another place and population occurs,
gene frequencies change in the original
population but remain same in new
population.
(4) There would be a gene flow if this gene
migration, happens multiple times.

343. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared

to have occurred in an isolated geographical
area, it is
(1) convergent evolution
(2) divergent evolution
(1) analogous organs (3) natural selection
(2) homologous organs (4) genetic drift
(3) convergent evolution
(4) all of these 344. Identify what is indicated in the given diagram?

340. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the

frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what
will be the frequency of homozygous dominant,

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
Column I
Column II (Explanations)
(Terms)
Change in the population's
A. Genetic drift 1. allele frequency due to
chance alone
Difference in survival
B. Cannabinoids 2.
individuals
Immigration or
C. Gene flow 3. emigration changes the
allele frequency
(1) Analogy
(2) Convergent evolution D. Mutation 4. Source of the new alleles
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) No evolution (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
345. Which of the following is not an examples of (3) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
adaptive radiation? (4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(1) Wombat, numbat, flying phalanger
(2) Darwin's finches 349. 'PP' is a type of selection that favours both small
(3) Different mammals in other parts of world sized and large-sized individuals. 'PP' eliminates
(4) Lemur and spotted cuscus most of the members with mean expression, so
as to produce two peaks in the distribution of the
346. Australian marsupials are the examples of tract that many leads to the development of two
(1) Analogy different populations. Identify 'PP'.
(2) Convergent evolution (1) Disruptive selection
(3) Adaptive radiation (2) Stabilising selection
(4) Use and disuse theory (3) Directional selection
(4) None of these
347. Read the following statements.
(i) By the time of 350 mya, invertebrates were 350. Which of the following factors was not taken
formed and active into account by Darwin in his theory of natural
(ii) Jawless fish probably evolved around 500 selection?
mya. (1) Struggle for existence
(iii) Fish with stout and strong fins could move (2) Discontinuous variations
on land and go back to water. (3) Parasites and predators as natural enemies
(iv) The amphibians evolved into reptiles (4) Survival of the fittest
(v) Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 feet in
height and had huge fearsome dagger like 351. The peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-
teeth coloured form becomes dominant over the light-
How many of the given statements are correct? coloured form of moth in England during
(1) Two industrial revolution. This is an example of
(2) Three (1) appearance of the darker-coloured
(3) Four individuals due to very poor sunlight
(4) Five (2) protective mimicry
(3) inheritance of darker colour character
348. Match the following columns: acquired due to the darker environment
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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(4) natural selection whereby the darker forms 355. The diagram given here shows the skull of two
were selected different mammals. Choose the most appropriate
difference between A and B.
352. True statements regarding the genetic drift is/are
I. It mostly occurs in smaller populations.
II. Certain alleles can be lost forever because
of genetic drift.
III. Founder effects and bottle neck effects are
caused by genetic drift.
(1) Skull A has more teeth than skull B
IV. Mutations are primarily responsible for
(2) Skull A has more brain capacity than skull
genetic drift. The correct combination
B
showing true statements is:
(3) Skull A is of a human and skull B is of an
(1) Only I (2) III and IV
ape
(3) II and IV (4) All except IV
(4) Skull A is of an ape and skull B is of
human
353. Select the type of natural selection on the basis
of given diagram
356. Which of the following is the correct sequence
of events in the origin of life?
I. Formation of protobionts.
II. Synthesis of organic monomers.
III. Synthesis of organic polymers.
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems.
(1) Stabilising (2) Directional
Choose the correct option.
(3) Disruptive (4) Artificial
(1) I, II, III and IV
(2) I, III, II and IV
354. Select the incorrect option about the given
(3) II, III, I and IV
figure.
(4) II, III, IV and I

357. Which one of the following statements is/are

correct about Australopithecus?
(1) They essentially ate fruits
(2) They hunted with stone weapons
(3) They were transitional stage between ape
and humans
(4) All of the above

358. Match the hominids with their correct brain

size.
Column I Column II
(1) The given figure diagrammatic represents A. Homo habilis 1. 900 cc
representation of Pasteur experiment B. Homo neanderthalensis 2. 1350 cc
(2) X - Spark discharge
C. Homo erectus 3. 650 – 800 cc
(3) Y - Water containing organic compounds
(4) Z - vacuum pump D. Homo sapiens 4. 1400 cc

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 363. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Early Greek thinkers thought units of life
359. Homo sapiens arose during called spores were transferred to different
(1) ice age between 75000 - 10000 years ago planets including earth
(2) continental drift between 75000 - 10000 (2) Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation
years ago demonstrated that life comes only chemical
(3) continental drift between 75000 - 5000
molecules
years ago
(3) Spontaneous generation theory was
(4) ice age between 50000 - 10000 years ago
dismissed once and for all.
(4) Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England
360. Read the following statements and select the
proposed that the first form of life could
incorrect one.
(1) Two mya, Australopithecines probably have come from pre-existing non-living
lived in East African grasslands. organic molecules
(2) About 15 mya, primates called
Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were 364. Which of the following does not marks the
existing correct connotation of special creation theory?
(3) Ramapithecus was more ape-like while (1) All living organisms (species or types) that
Dryopithecus was more man-like. we see today were created as such.
(4) This creature was called the first human- (2) The diversity was always the same since
like being the hominid and was called creation and will be the same in future also.
Homo habilis. (3) Life arises from dead and decaying matter
only.
361. Correct pattern of human evolution is shown in: (4) Earth is about 4000 years old
(1) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus 
Homo sapiens  Homo habilis 365. Read the following statements
(2) Homo erectus  Homo habilis  Homo (i) In the year 1963, the two enzymes
sapiens responsible for restricting the growth of
(3) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Homo bacteriophage in Escherichia coli were
sapiens isolated.
(4) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo (ii) The first restriction endonuclease–Hind III,
erectus  Homo habilis  Homo sapiens whose functioning depended on a specific
DNA nucleotide sequence was isolated and
362. Match the following columns. characterised five years later.
Column I Column II (iii) Today we know more than 900 restriction
A. Darwin 1. Inherited enzymes that have been isolated from over
230 strains of bacteria each of which
B. Genetic drift 2. Not inherited
recognise different recognition sequences.
C. Mutation in germ cells 3. HMS Beagle (iv) Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class
Mutation in somatic of enzymes called lipases
D. 4. Founder effect
cells How many of the given statements are
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 incorrect?
(2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) Two 369. In the naming of restriction enzymes, the first
(2) Three letter of the name is derived from .....A…. and
(3) Four next two letters from the …..B…. and fourth
(4) One letters from the name of …..C… of ....D…. from
which the enzymes are extracted.
366. The restriction enzyme responsible for the A to D in the statement can be
cleavage of following sequence is A B C D
5' – G T C G A C 3' (1) genus species strain bacteria
3' – C A G C T G 5' (2) species genus strain bacteria
(1) Alu I (3) genus species variety eukaryote
(2) Bam HI (4) species genus variety eukaryote
(3) Hind II
(4) Eco RI 370. Read the following statements.
(i) Each restriction endonuclease functions by
367. Study the given diagram and identify the ‘inspecting’ the length of a DNA sequence.
enzymes A and B involved in steps I and II. (ii) Sticky ends form glycosidic bonds with
their complementary cut counterparts.
(iii) Restriction endonucleases are used in
genetic engineering to form ‘recombinant’
molecules of DNA, which are composed of
DNA from different sources/genomes.
(iv) Cutting DNA with the same restriction
enzyme creates fragments with same kind
of sticky ends, which can be joined using
DNA ligase.
(v) Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA
a little away from the centre of the
palindrome sites, but between the same two
bases on the opposite strands
Step I Step II Which of the following is not correct?
(1) Eco RI DNA ligase (1) iii
DNA ligase (2) v
(2) Alu I
(3) ii
(3) Hind II DNA polymerase (4) iv
Restriction DNA polymerase
(4)
endonuclease 371. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Each restriction endonuclease recognises a
368. Restriction enzyme cuts the DNA strand a little specific palindromic nucleotide sequence
away from the centre of palindrome site between (2) Specific base sequence is known as
(1) same two bases on same strand recognition sequence
(2) same two bases on opposite strand (3) Restriction enzymes cannot cut DNA
(3) opposite bases on same strand (4) Restriction enzymes belong to enzymes
(4) opposite bases on opposite strand called nucleases

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
372. Assertion (A): The tumour inducing plasmid (Ti (iii) Vectors used at present, are engineered in
plasmid) of Agrobacterium tumefaciens acts as a such a way that they help easy linking of
cloning vector in recombinant DNA technology. foreign DNA and selection of recombinants
Reason (R): The Ti plasmid which is used in the from non-recombinants.
mechanisms of delivering genes to a cell remains (iv) Ori is responsible for inhibiting the copy
pathogenic. number of the linked DNA.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct (v) Selectable marker helps in identifying and
explanation of A eliminating non transformants and
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the selectively inhibiting the growth of the
correct explanation of A transformants.
(3) If A is true, but R is false How many of the given statements are
(4) If A is false, but R is true incorrect?
(1) Two
373. Select the incorrect statement. (2) Three
(1) Selection of recombinants due to (3) One
inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome (4) Four
procedure because it requires simultaneous
plating on two plates having different 375. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of
antibiotics. E. coli cloning vector pBR322.
(2) Insertion of piece of DNA within the
coding sequence of an enzyme, β-
galactosidase will results into inactivation
of the gene for synthesis of this enzyme.
(3) Presence of insert results into insertional
inactivation of the β-galactosidase gene and
the colonies do not produce any colour,
these are identified as recombinant
colonies.
(4) The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of (1) A-Eco RI, B-Bam HI, C-ori, D-ampR
Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been (2) A-ampR, B-ori, C-Bam HI, D-Eco RI
modified into a cloning vector which is (3) A-ori, B-Bam HI, C-Eco RI, D-ampR
pathogenic to the plants (4) A-Bam HI, B-Eco RI, C-ampR, D-ori

374. Read the following statements. 376. The recognition site for Bam HI in pBR322 is
(i) Bacteriophages because of their high present in
number per cell, have very high copy (1) ampicillin resistant site
numbers of their genome within the (2) tetracycline resistant site
bacterial cells (3) ori site
(ii) Some plasmids may have only one or two (4) rop site
copies per cell whereas others may have
15-100 copies per cell

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
377. Simple stirred-tank bioreactor is given below. Identify A, B, C, D and E.

A B C D E
(1) Motor Foam breaker Sterile air Steam for sterilisation Acid/base for pH control
Acid/Base for pH
(2) Foam breaker Sterile air Steam for sterilisation Motor
control
Acid/base for Motor Foam breaker Sterile air Steam for sterilisation
(3)
pH control
Steam for
(4) Sterile air Foam breaker Motor Acid/base for pH control
sterilisation

378. The process of separation and purification of Cutting of DNA 2.

B. Gel electrophoresis
expressed protein before marketing is called: at specific
(1) upstream processing C. location 3. Chilled ethanol
(2) downstream processing Isolation of DNA
(3) bioprocessing D. fragments 4. PCR
(4) post-production processing
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
379. Significance of heat shock method in bacterial
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
transformation is to facilitate.
(4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(1) binding of DNA to the cell wall
(2) uptake of DNA through membrane
381. The different steps involved in the process of
transport proteins
recombinant DNA technology are given below
(3) uptake of DNA through transient pores in
randomly? Arrange these in correct order.
the bacterial cell wall
I. Extraction of the desired gene product.
(4) expression of antibiotic resistance gene
II. Amplification of the gene of interest.
III. Isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
380. Match the following columns.
IV. Ligation of the DNA fragment into a
Column I Column II vector.
A. Isolation of 1. V. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the
Restriction enzyme
purified DNA host.
Correct order is:
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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) I, II, III, IV and V
(2) III, II, IV, V and I
(3) II, IV, V, III and I
(4) I, IV, V, III and II

382. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the

following enzymes is not required?
(1) Lysozyme I. It represents typical agarose gel
(2) Ribonuclease electrophoresis showing differential
(3) Deoxyribonuclease migration of DNA fragments.
(4) Protease II. Lane 1 contains undigested DNA
fragments.
383. Match the following columns: III. Lanes 2 to 4 contain digested DNA
Column I Column II fragment.
Bacterial cell is 1. IV. Smallest DNA bands are present at A
A. Lysozyme
treated with position and largest DNA bands are present
B. Plant cell is 2. at B position.
Cellulase
treated with (1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV
C. Fungal cell is 3. (3) II and III (4) III and IV
Chitinase
treated with
(1) A-3, B-2, C-1 (2) A-2, B-3, C-1
386. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(3) A-1, B-2, C-3 (4) A-3, B-1, C-2
(1) The separated DNA fragments can be
visualised only after staining the DNA with
384. Given below are four statements pertaining to
a compound known as ethidium bromide.
separation of DNA fragments using gel
(2) The separated bands of DNA are cut out
electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect
from the agarose gel and extracted from the
statements.
gel piece.
I. DNA is negatively charged molecule and
(3) Elution is regarded as an important step of
so it is loaded on gel towards the anode
genetic engineering while performing the
terminal.
process if PCR.
II. DNA fragments travel along the surface of
(4) During gel electrophoresis, the DNA
the gel whose concentration does not affect
fragments separate (resolve) according to
movement of DNA.
their size through sieving effect provided
III. Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is
by the agarose gel.
the distance it travels through it.
IV. Pure DNA can be visualised directly by
387. Which of the following contributed popularising
exposing UV-radiation.
the PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
Select the correct option from the following.
technique?
(1) I, III and IV
(1) Easy availability of DNA template
(2) I, II and III
(2) Availability of synthetic primers
(3) II, III and IV
(3) Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
(4) I, II and IV
(4) Availability of 'thermostable' DNA
polymerase
385. Study the given figure carefully and select the
correct statements regarding this.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
388. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain (1) Both the statements are correct
Reaction (PCR) is: (2) Statement I is correct
(1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (3) Statement II is incorrect
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation (4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension 393. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for
ampicllin resitance is transferred into E. coli and
389. For selectable marker. the host cells are spread on agar plates
I. It helps to select the host cells which containing ampicillin, then
contain the vector and eliminate the non- (1) both transformed and untransformed
transformants. recipient cells will die
II. Genes encoding resistance to antibiotics (2) both transformed and untransformed
like ampicillin, chloramphenicol, recipient cells will grow
tetracycline or kanamycin, are useful (3) transformed recipient cells will grow and
selectable markers for E.coli. untransformed recipient cells will die
Which of the statements given above are (4) transformed recipient cells will die and
correct? untransformed recipient cells will grow
(1) Only I
(2) Only II 394. I. In the process of recombinant DNA
(3) I and II technology, after several treatment the
(4) None of these purified DNA is precipitated by adding
chilled acetone.
390. A selectable marker is used to II. The bacterial/plant, animal cell is broken
(1) help in eliminating the non-transformants, down by enzymes to release DNA, along
so that the transformants can be regenerated with RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and
(2) identify the gene for a desired trait in an lipids.
alien organism Choose the correct option for above statements.
(3) select a suitable vector for transformation (1) I is true, but II is false
in a specific crop (2) I is false, but II is true
(4) mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation (3) I and II are true
using restriction enzyme (4) I and II are false

391. How many of the given examples can act as 395. Match the following columns:
selectable marker? Column I Column II
Ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline, Recombinant
kanamycin, Pst I A. 1. Sea weeds
DNA
(1) Two (2) Three Gel
B. 2. DNA staining
(3) Four (4) Five electrophoresis
Plasmid DNA that has
Ethidium
392. Statement I: Transformation is a procedure C. 3. incorporated human
bromide
through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a DNA
host bacterium. Process by which DNA
Statement II: The normal E. coli cells do not D. Agarose 4. fragments are separated
carry resistance against any of these antibiotics. based on their size

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 (3) A- Chromosome, Salmonella typhimurium;
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 B - Six, Recognition sequence, G -
(3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 Palindrome, D - Agrobacterium
(4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 tumifaciens, T-DNA
(4) A - Plasmid, Salmonella typhimurium; B -
396. Read the following statements and select the Six, Recognition sequence, C - Palindrome,
incorrect one. D – Agrobacterium, tumifaciens, Z-DNA
(1) In order to link the alien DNA, the vector
needs to have very few, preferably single, 398. Following enzymes/techniques are used in the
recognition sites for the commonly used process of recombinant DNA technology.
restriction enzymes A. EcoRI to cut the isolated genome
(2) The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at B. DNA Iigase
a restriction site present in one of the two C. Protease and ribonuclease for removal of
antibiotic resistance genes proteins and RNA.
(3) Some plasmids may have only one or two D. Production of recombinant hosts
copies per cell whereas others may have E. Lysozyme for isolation of the genetic
15-100 copies per cell. material (DNA)
(4) If one wants to recover many copies of the F. Gel electrophoresis for separation and
target DNA it should be cloned in a vector isolation of DNA fragments
whose origin support low copy number. Mark the correct sequence of their use.
(1) C, E, B, F, A, D
(2) E, C, A, B, F, D
397. Fill up the blanks.
(3) E, C, A, F, B, D
A. The construction of the first recombinant
(4) A, E, C, B, D, F
DNA emerged from the possibility of
linking a gene encoding antibiotic
399. Select the incorrect match.
resistance with a native _____ of_____.
(1) Micro-injection – Recombinant DNA is
B. Hind II always cut DNA molecules at a
directly injected into the nucleus of an plant
particular point by recognising a specific
cell
sequence of ______ base pairs. This
(2) Biolistics – Gold or tungsten
specific sequence is known as ______for
(3) Gene gun – Plants
Hind II.
(4) Disarmed pathogen – Allowed to infect the
C. The ______ in DNA is a sequence of base
cell
that reads same on the two strands when
orientation of reading is kept the same. 400. Match the following enzymes with their
D. ______, a pathogen of several dicot plants functions.
is able to deliver a piece of DNA known as
Column I Column II
______to transform normal plant cells into
tumor cells. Restriction
A. 1. Joins the DNA fragments
(1) A - Plasmid, Salmonella typhimurium; B - endonuclease
Six, Recognition sequence, C - Palindrome, Restriction Extends primers on
B. 2.
D - Agrobacterium tumifaciens, T-DNA exonuclease genomic DNA template
(2) A- Plasmid, Salmonella typhimurium; B - Cuts DNA at specific
C. DNA ligase 3.
Seven, Recognition sequence, C - position
Palindrome, D - Agrobacterium Taq Removes nucleotides
D. 4.
tumifaciens, T-DNA polymerase from the ends of DNA

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 Salmonella
(2) Escherichia coli
(2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 typhimurium
(3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 Haemophilus Agrobacterium
(4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (3)
influenza tumefaciens
Agrobacterium Haemophilus I
401. Assertion (A): Use of chitinase enzyme is (4)
tumefaciens influenzae
necessary for isolation of DNA from fungal
cells.
405. Select the mismatch among the following given
Reason (R): Fungal cell wall is made up of
examples.
chitin and chitinase is able to digest it.
(1) Lepidopterans – tobacco budworm,
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
armyworm
explanation of A
(2) Coleopterans – beetles, mosquitoes
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
(3) Dipterans – Flies
correct explanation of A
(4) cryIAc – Cotton bollworms
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true
406. Bt toxin protein crystals present in bacterium
Bacillus thuringiensis, do not kill the bacteria
402. Read the following statements and select the
because
correct option.
(1) bacteria are resistant to the toxin
I. In blue/white colony selection,
(2) bacteria enclose toxins in a special sac
recombinants produce blue colonies due to
(3) toxins occur as inactive protoxins in
insertional inactivation of α-galactosidase
bacteria
II. Transformant produced during genetic
(4) None of the above
engineering include both recombinants and
non-recombinants.
407. cry IIAb and cry IAb produce toxins that control
(1) Both statement are correct
(1) cotton bollworms and corn borer,
(2) Only statement I is incorrect
respectively
(3) Only statement II is incorrect
(2) corn borer and cotton bollworms,
(4) Both statements are incorrect
respectively
(3) tobacco budworms and nematodes,
403. If gene of interest is cloned at Pst I site in
respectively
pBR322, the resulting recombinants
(4) nematodes and tobacco budworms,
(1) Will be susceptible to tetracycline
respectively
(2) Will not grow in presence of tetracycline
(3) Will be susceptible to ampicillin
408. Bt toxin kills insects by
(4) Will be resistant to ampicillin
(1) inhibiting protein synthesis
(2) generating excessive heat
404. During the construction of first recombinant
(3) creating pores in the midgut epithelial cells,
DNA molecule, plasmid was isolated from
leading to cell swelling and lysis
__A__ while the host for recombinant plasmid
(4) obstructing a biosynthetic pathway
was __B__.
Choose the option stating A and B correctly.
409. (i) Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that
A B kill certain insects
Salmonella (ii) B. thuringiensis forms protein crystals
(1) Escherichia coli
typhimurium during every phase of their growth
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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(iii) In Bacillus, Bt toxin protein exist as 413. In gene therapy of Adenosine deaminase
inactive protoxins. deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion
(iv) Bt. toxins converts into an active form of of genetic engineered lymphocytes because
toxin due to the acidic pH of the gut which (1) Retroviral vector is introduced into these
solubilise the crystals. lymphocytes
(v) The choice of genes to be incorporated (2) Gene isolated from marrow cells producing
depends upon the targeted pest only ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic
How many of the given statements are correct? stage
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Lymphocytes from patients blood are
(3) Two (4) Five grown in culture, outside the body
(4) Genetic engineered lymphocytes are not
410. Statement I: Bt toxin gene has been cloned immortal cells
from the bacteria and been expressed in plants to
provide resistance to insects with the use of 414. Adenosine deaminase deficiency result into
insecticides. (1) Addison’s disease
Statement II: Bt cotton, Bt corn, rice, tomato, (2) Dysfunction of immune system
potato and soyabean etc. are the examples of Bt (3) Parkinson’s disease
plants. (4) Digestive disorder
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Only I is correct 415. For the first time, gene therapy was tried on a 4
(3) Only II is incorrect year old girl in 1990 to treat which of the
(4) Both statements are incorrect following enzyme deficiency?
(1) Cytosine Deaminase (CDA)
411. Which of the following could be a permanent (2) Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
cure for Adenosine deaminase deficiency (3) Tyrosine oxidase
(ADA)? (4) Glutamate trihydrogenase
(i) Bone marrow transplantation
(ii) Enzyme replacement therapy 416. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a 4
(iii) Isolation of ADA producing gene from year old girl with Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
marrow cells and introduction into cells at deficiency?
early embryonic stages. (1) Gene therapy (2) Chemotherapy
(1) i only (2) iii only (3) Immunotherapy (4) Radiation therapy
(3) i and iii only (4) i, ii, and iii
417. Early diagnosis is not possible with:
412. Which of the following is performed during gene (1) Serum and urine analysis
therapy of ADA? (2) Recombinant DNA technology
(i) Lymphocytes from the blood of the patient (3) Polymerase Chain Reaction
are grown in a culture outside the body (4) Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay
(ii) A functional ADA cDNA (using a
retroviral vector) is then introduced into 418. Assertion: Early detection is possible with the
these lymphocytes, which are subsequently help of PCR.
returned to the patient. Reason: Very low concentration of a bacteria or
(1) Both i and ii (2) Only i virus can be detected by amplification of their
(3) Only ii (4) None of them nucleic acid by PCR.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and
reason is a correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not a correct explanation of
assertion
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

419. Statement I: ELISA is based on the principle of

antigen-antibody interaction.
Statement II: Infection by pathogen can be
detected by the presence of antigens (proteins,
glycoproteins, etc.) or by detecting the
antibodies synthesised against the pathogen. (1) A-A-peptide, B-B-peptide, C-Proinsulin,
(1) Both statements are correct D-Free C-peptide
(2) Only I is correct (2) A-Proinsulin, B-A-peptide, C-B-peptide,
(3) Only II is incorrect D-Free C-peptide
(4) Both statements are incorrect (3) A-Free C-peptide, B-A-peptide, C-B-
peptide, D-Proinsulin
420. In which of the following methods, a probe is (4) A-A-peptide, B-B-peptide, C-Free C-
allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA peptide, D-Proinsulin
in the clone of cells?
(1) Gene therapy 423. What is the demerit of using bovine insulin
(2) Autoradiography (from cow) and porcine insulin (from pig) in
(3) Polymerase chain reaction diabetic patients?
(4) Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (1) It leads to hypercalcemia
(ELISA) (2) It is expensive
(3) It may cause allergic reactions
421. Which of the following tagged with a radioactive (4) It may lead to mutations in human genome
molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridise to its
complementary DNA in a clone of cells 424. Which step was proved to be the main challenge
followed by detection using autoradiography. in the production of human insulin by
(1) Single stranded DNA or RNA recombinant DNA technology?
(2) Double stranded DNA or RNA (1) Splitting A and B-peptide chain
(3) Single stranded DNA or Double stranded (2) Addition of C-peptide to proinsulin
RNA (3) Getting insulin assembled into mature form
(4) Single stranded RNA or Double stranded (4) Removal of C-peptide from active insulin
DNA
425. Which is the shortest chain in insulin?
422. Select the correct set of the names labelled A, (1) A chain
B, C and D in the given diagram. (2) B chain
(3) C chain
(4) All are of same size

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
426. With regard to insulin choose correct options. 430. 'Flavr Savr' is a transgenic variety of
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (1) Potato (2) Tomato
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology (3) Soyabean (4) Rice
has C-peptide.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. 431. Tobacco plant resistant to a nematode have been
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are developed by the introduction of DNA, which is
interconnected by disulphide bridges. produced (in the host cell) as
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) A lipid soluble hormone
given below. (2) Sense RNA
(1) (b) and (d) only (3) Both sense and antisense RNAs
(2) (b) and (c) only (4) Antisense RNA
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only 432. RNA interference is used for which of the
following purposes in the field of
427. Select the incorrect statement regarding biotechnology?
artificial insulin. (1) to develop a plant tolerant to abiotic
(1) It contains A And B peptide stresses
(2) C peptide is removed during maturation of (2) to develop a pest resistant plant against
insulin infestation by nematode
(3) A and B peptides are joined by disulfide (3) to enhance the mineral usage by the plant
bonds (4) to reduce post harvest losses
(4) DNA sequences corresponding to A and B,
chains of human insulin and introduced 433. Select the incorrect statement.
them in plasmids of E. coli to produce (1) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic
insulin chains. organisms as a method of cellular defense
(2) Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-
428. Consider the following statements about insulin specific genes are used to introduced into
and select the incorrect. the host plant
(1) Human insulin is made up of 51 amino (3) Infection by viruses having RNA genomes
acids arranged in two polypeptide chains is the only source of introducing
(2) The two polypeptide chains are complementary RNA during RNAi
interconnected by disulphide bridges (4) The consequence of RNAi was that the
(3) In mammals including humans, insulin is parasite could not survive in a transgenic
synthesised as a prohormone, which host expressing specific interfering RNA.
contains an extra stretch called the C-
peptide 434. RNAi involves silencing of a specific ____ due
(4) C-peptide is present in the mature insulin to a complementary ____ molecule that binds to
and prevents translation of the mRNA.
429. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. (1) ds mRNA and ss RNA respectively
When released for cultivation, it will help in: (2) ss mRNA and ss RNA respectively
(1) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency (3) ds mRNA and ds RNA respectively
(2) Pest resistance (4) ss mRNA and ds RNA respectively
(3) Herbicide tolerance
(4) Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
435. Statement I: Over 95 per cent of all existing 439. Transgenic mice are being developed for use in:
transgenic animals are mice (1) Testing the safety of polio vaccines before
Statement II: Transgenic animals can be they are used on human
specifically designed to allow the study of how (2) Molecular diagnosis of diseases
genes are regulated, and how they affect the (3) Production of human protein enriched milk
normal functions of the body and its (4) Production of human insulin
development.
(1) Both statements are correct 440. _______is the term used to refer to the use of
(2) Only I is correct bio-resources by multinational companies and
(3) Only II is incorrect other organisations without proper authorization.
(4) Both statements are incorrect (1) Biopatent
(2) Biopiracy
436. Milk of transgenic 'Cow Rosie' was nutritionally (3) Bioethics
more balanced product for human babies than (4) None of these
natural cow milk because it contained:
(1) Human protein α-1-antitrypsin 441. Read the following statements.
(2) Human alpha-lactalbumin (i) There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of
(3) Human insulin-like growth factor rice in India alone.
(4) Human enzyme Adenosine Deaminase (ii) GEAC makes decisions regarding the
(ADA) validity of GM research and the safety of
introducing GM-organisms for public
437. Transgenic animals produces biological product services.
such as α-1-antitrypsin, which is used to treat : (iii) At present, about 50 recombinant
(1) Emphysema therapeutics have been approved for
(2) Cystic fibrosis human-use the world over. In India, 30 of
(3) Phenyl ketonuria these are presently being marketed
(4) Sickle cell anaemia (iv) There is growing public anger that certain
companies are being granted patents for
438. Select the incorrect statement from the given products and technologies that make use of
examples. the genetic materials
(1) Transgenic mice are being developed for (v) The Indian Parliament has recently cleared
use in testing the safety of vaccines before the third amendment of the Indian Patents
they are used on humans Bill, that takes such issues into
(2) If successful and found to be reliable, they consideration, including patent terms
could replace the use of monkeys to test the emergency provisions and research and
safety of batches of the vaccine. development initiative.
(3) Transgenic animals are made that carry How many of the given statements are correct?
genes which make them less sensitive to (1) Three
toxic substances than non-transgenic (2) Four
animals (3) Two
(4) Today transgenic models exist for many (4) Five
human diseases such as cancer, cystic
fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and
Alzheimer’s.

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
442. Match the following columns. 443. Meloidegyne incognitia which infects the roots
Column I Column II of tobacco plants causing a great reduction in
yield is a :
A. Rosie 1. Emphysema (1) Nematode (2) Bacterium
Right granted for (3) Virus (4) Alga
B. Biopiracy 2.
biological entities
444. Which of the following is/are the critical
Unauthorised use of
research area(s) of biotechnology?
C. Biopatent 3. biological products and
(1) Providing best catalyst
processes
(2) Creating optimal conditions for catalyst
D. α-1-antitrypsin 4. Transgenic cow function
(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (3) Developing downstreaming processing
(2) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 technique
(3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (4) All of the above
(4) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

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 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
ANSWER
245. (4) 278. (1) 311. (3) 344. (3) 377. (1)
246. (1) 279. (4) 312. (2) 345. (4) 378. (2)
247. (4) 280. (2) 313. (1) 346. (3) 379. (3)
248. (2) 281. (4) 314. (3) 347. (2) 380. (2)
249. (4) 282. (4) 315. (2) 348. (1) 381. (2)
250. (2) 283. (4) 316. (3) 349. (1) 382. (3)
251. (4) 284. (4) 317. (1) 350. (2) 383. (3)
252. (1) 285. (4) 318. (2) 351. (4) 384. (4)
253. (1) 286. (4) 319. (3) 352. (4) 385. (1)
254. (4) 287. (2) 320. (4) 353. (1) 386. (3)
255. (2) 288. (4) 321. (2) 354. (1) 387. (4)
256. (1) 289. (4) 322. (2) 355. (4) 388. (4)
257. (2) 290. (1) 323. (3) 356. (3) 389. (3)
258. (2) 291. (1) 324. (1) 357. (4) 390. (1)
259. (2) 292. (4) 325. (2) 358. (2) 391. (3)
260. (4) 293. (4) 326. (2) 359. (1) 392. (1)
261. (2) 294. (4) 327. (4) 360. (3) 393. (3)
262. (4) 295. (1) 328. (3) 361. (3) 394. (2)
263. (2) 296. (2) 329. (4) 362. (2) 395. (1)
264. (4) 297. (4) 330. (4) 363. (2) 396. (4)
265. (4) 298. (2) 331. (4) 364. (3) 397. (1)
266. (1) 299. (1) 332. (4) 365. (1) 398. (3)
267. (4) 300. (2) 333. (3) 366. (3) 399. (1)
268. (4) 301. (4) 334. (2) 367. (1) 400. (2)
269. (2) 302. (4) 335. (2) 368. (2) 401. (1)
270. (1) 303. (4) 336. (1) 369. (1) 402. (2)
271. (4) 304. (4) 337. (4) 370. (3) 403. (3)
272. (2) 305. (4) 338. (2) 371. (3) 404. (2)
273. (4) 306. (2) 339. (2) 372. (3) 405. (2)
274. (2) 307. (3) 340. (2) 373. (4) 406. (3)
275. (4) 308. (4) 341. (2) 374. (1) 407. (1)
276. (4) 309. (2) 342. (3) 375. (1) 408. (3)
277. (2) 310. (4) 343. (1) 376. (2) 409. (3)

https://instagram.com/ManishDubeyBMS
https://www.youtube.com/@ManishDubeyBMS Dr. Manish Dubey (MD Sir)
https://t.me/Dr_Manish_Dubey_MD_Sir_BMS [32]
 ZOOLOGY QUESTIONS NEET - 2025
PHASE - 5, 6 & 7
410. (3) 417. (1) 424. (3) 431. (3) 438. (3)
411. (2) 418. (1) 425. (1) 432. (2) 439. (1)
412. (1) 419. (1) 426. (3) 433. (3) 440. (2)
413. (4) 420. (2) 427. (2) 434. (4) 441. (1)
414. (2) 421. (1) 428. (4) 435. (1) 442. (1)
415. (2) 422. (2) 429. (1) 436. (2) 443. (1)
416. (1) 423. (3) 430. (2) 437. (1) 444. (4)

https://instagram.com/ManishDubeyBMS
https://www.youtube.com/@ManishDubeyBMS Dr. Manish Dubey (MD Sir)
https://t.me/Dr_Manish_Dubey_MD_Sir_BMS [33]