Theme 6 – Muscles and Nerves

111 Practice Questions

MCQs for King’s MBBS1

Alastair Asher
 Table of Contents
Questions for Theme 6 – Muscles and Nerves
Th6 L01 – The nervous system
Th6 L02 – Striated muscle structure and function
Th6 L03 – Skeletal muscle regulation of contraction & plasticity
Th6 L04 – Cardiac, smooth and skeletal muscle compared
Th6 L05 – Anatomy of the autonomic nervous system
Th6 L06 – The autonomic nervous system, a pharmacological perspective
Th6 L07 – Cholinergic neurotransmission
Th6 L08 – Adrenergic neurotransmission
Answers for Theme 6 – Muscles and Nerves
Th6 L01 – The nervous system – Answers
Th6 L02 – Striated muscle structure and function – Answers
Th6 L03 – Skeletal muscle regulation of contraction & plasticity – Answers
Th6 L04 – Cardiac, smooth and skeletal muscle compared – Answers
Th6 L05 – Anatomy of the autonomic nervous system – Answers
Th6 L06 – The autonomic nervous system, a pharmacological perspective – Answers
Th6 L07 – Cholinergic neurotransmission – Answers
Th6 L08 – Adrenergic neurotransmission – Answers
Questions for Theme 6 – Muscles and
Nerves
 Th6 L01 – The nervous system

Single best answers: Choose the one best answer to each question.
1. Neuroglia
a. are found in the PNS only
b. are found in the CNS only
c. consist of neurons, Schwann cells, and oligodendrocytes in the PNS
d. consist of neurons, astocytes, microglia & ependymal cells in the CNS
e. consist of astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia & ependymal cells in the CNS
2. The cells that secrete CSF are
a. neurons
b. microglia
c. ependymal cells
d. oligodendrocytes
e. astrocytes
3. The cells that insulate neurons in the CNS are
a. myelin
b. microglia
c. astrocytes
d. oligodendrocytes
e. Schwann cells
4. The glial cells that contribute to the blood-brain barrier are
a. oligodendrocytes
b. microglia
c. astrocytes
d. ependymal cells
e. endothelial cells
5. Schwann cells surround
a. all neurons
b. only myelinated neurons
c. all neurons in the PNS
d. myelinated neurons in the CNS
e. myelinated neurons in the PNS
6. Microglia are
a. basophils in the CNS
b. basophils in the PNS
c. macrophages in the CNS
d. lymphocytes in the CNS
e. lymphocytes in the PNS
7. The cerebrospinal fluid is found in the
a. epidural space
b. subdural space
c. subarachnoid space
d. subpial space
e. interstitial space of the neural parenchyma
8. The dural fold between the cerebral hemispheres is the
a. falx cerebri
b. longitudinal fissure
c. third ventricle
d. tentorium cerebelli
e. central sulcus
9. The cerebrospinal fluid is produced
a. in the 3rd ventricle
b. in the lateral ventricles and anteroinferior to the cerebellum
c. throughout the subarachnoid space
d. in the 4th ventricle and the lateral ventricles
e. in the central sulcus and anterosuperior to the pons
10. In the nervous system, ganglia are
a. collections of neuron cell bodies
b. bundles of myelinated axons
c. sites of division of the ventral and dorsal spinal roots
d. sites of division of the ventral and dorsal spinal rami
e. bundles of unmyelinated axons
11. The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains
a. sensory fibres only
b. both motor and sensory fibres
c. motor fibres and the motor root ganglion
d. motor fibres only
e. autonomic fibres and the sympathetic chain ganglion
12. Denticulate ligaments join
a. spinal nerves to the vertebral column
b. adjacent vertebrae anteriorly and posteriorly
c. adjacent vertebrae, laterally
d. the spinal cord to the anterior and posterior vertebral walls
e. the spinal cord to the lateral vertebral walls
13. The arachnoid membrane ends at about
a. L1
b. L3
c. L5
d. S1
e. S2

14. The conus medullaris ends at the lower border of

a. L1
b. L3
c. L5
d. S1
e. S2
15. Dermatomes represent areas of skin supplied by
a. each ventral root of a spinal nerve
b. each dorsal root of a spinal nerve
c. each ventral ramus of a spinal nerve
d. each dorsal ramus of a spinal nerve
e. all fibres of a spinal nerve
16. Each brachial plexus
a. supplies both arms
b. arises from the dorsal roots of C4-C8
c. arises from the ventral rami of C5-T1
d. contains a random pattern of branching nerves
e. contains only motor nerves
17. The somatic nervous system
a. supplies only skeletal muscles
b. supplies skeletal muscles, the body wall and the internal organs
c. supplies skeletal muscles and the body wall
d. supplies skeletal muscles, smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
e. supplies skeletal muscles, smooth muscle and the body wall
 Th6 L02 – Striated muscle structure and function

Single best answers: Choose the one best answer to each question.
1. What is surrounded by
a. epimysium?
b. endomysium?
c. sarcolemma?
d. perimysium?
e. deep fascia?

i. a myofibril
ii. a whole muscle
iii. a motor unit
iv. a muscle fibre
v. a muscle fascicle
vi. a muscle compartment
vii. sarcoplasmic reticulum
viii. triads
2. Myofibrils
a. store Ca²⁺
b. link T-tubules to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. are electrically excitable
d. are surrounded by perimysium
e. consist of sarcomeres in series
3. Striations are found in
a. cardiac and smooth muscle
b. cardiac muscle only
c. skeletal muscle only
d. skeletal and cardiac muscle
e. skeletal and smooth muscle
4. Striations are caused by
a. the characteristic arrangement of nuclei in a syncytium
b. the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. myofibrils
d. T-tubules
e. triads
5. Myosin
a. makes up thick filaments
b. is pulled by actin during the power stroke
c. is attached to a Z-disc
d. is responsible for the light part of a striation
e. binds Ca²⁺ during muscular contraction
6. In a sarcomere, which area
a. refers to the dark part of a striation
b. refers to the light part of a striation
c. makes up one sarcomere length
d. marks the centre of a sarcomere
e. varies in width with muscle contraction

i. The Z disc
ii. The A band
iii. The distance from one Z-disc to the next Z disc
iv. The I band
v. The Z band
vi. The distance from the M line to the Z disc
vii. The H band plus the A band
viii. The M line
7. Transverse tubules
a. store Ca²⁺
b. are invaginations of the sarcolemma
c. store Na⁺
d. are invaginations of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. consist of sarcomeres in series
8. A muscle contraction where force changes but length does not is
a. isotonic
b. eccentric
c. isometric
d. hypertonic
e. concentric
9. In cross-bridge cycling, ATP binds to
a. actin
b. troponin
c. myotroponin
d. myosin
e. tropomyosin
10. Cross-bridge cycling in a single sarcomere occurs
a. synchronously in the presence of Ca²⁺, asynchronously in the absence of Ca²⁺
b. synchronously, when Ca²⁺ is present
c. asynchronously, when Ca²⁺ is present
d. synchronously, when Ca²⁺ is absent
e. asynchronously, when Ca²⁺ is absent
11. The section of the sarcomere containing only myosin is
a. the M zone
b. the Z band
c. the I band
d. the A band
e. the H zone
12. When a sarcomere contracts,
a. the A band gets shorter and the I band stays the same
b. the A band gets shorter and the H zone stays the same
c. the I band gets shorter and the H zone stays the same
d. the H zone gets shorter and the I zone get shorter
e. the I band gets shorter and the A band gets shorter
13. Tetanic contraction force in a muscle
a. is constant regardless of length
b. is maximal at maximal length
c. is maximal at minimal length
d. is maximal at some other length
e. is only possible at maximal length
 Th6 L03 – Skeletal muscle regulation of contraction
& plasticity

Single best answers: Choose the one best answer to each question.
1. Calcium binds to
a. troponin C
b. myosin
c. troponin T
d. troponin I
e. tropomyosin
2. Calcium binding causes
a. troponin T to change conformation
b. ATP to bind to myosin
c. the power stroke
d. tropomyosin to change conformation
e. crossbridge cycling
3. Relaxation of muscle occurs when
a. ATP is used up
b. ATP is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. calcium is used up
d. ATP is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. calcium is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
4. The neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is
a. adrenaline
b. acetylcholine
c. nicotine
d. noradrenaline
e. muscarine
5. Excitation-contraction coupling occurs from
a. SR to T-tubules to NMJ
b. NMJ to SR to T-tubules
c. NMJ to T-tubules to SR
d. SR to NMJ to T-tubules
e. T-tubules to NMJ to SR
6. A twitch
a. varies in timespan depending on type of muscle fibre
b. is another word for a tetanic contraction
c. is identical in timespan to an action potential
d. is shorter than an action potential
e. varies in magnitude according to strength of action potential
7. A tetanus is caused by
a. a continuous action potential
b. a low frequency of action potentials
c. a single high-amplitude action potential
d. a slow twitch
e. a high frequency of action potentials
8. In a whole muscle,
a. one motor neuron innervates all muscle fibres
b. one motor unit is innervated by several motor neurons
c. one muscle fibre is innervated by several motor neurons
d. one motor neuron innervates one muscle fibre
e. one motor unit is innervated by one motor neuron
9. A motor unit
a. consists of all muscle fibres in a muscle fascicle
b. consists of scattered muscle fibres that contract together
c. consists of muscle fibres of the one type (SO/FOG/FG)
d. consists of all muscle fibres that contract in a single twitch
e. consists of all muscle fibres in a whole muscle
10. Muscle contraction properties can change in
a. FOG fibres only
b. FG fibres only
c. SO fibres only
d. SO fibres & FOG fibres
e. FG fibres & FOG fibres
 Th6 L04 – Cardiac, smooth and skeletal muscle
compared

Single best answers: Choose the one best answer to each question.
1. The length of a cardiac muscle fibre is
a. about 20µm
b. up to 200mm
c. about 200µm
d. about 20mm
e. up to 2mm
2. Cardiac muscle fibres are
a. linked together by Z-discs
b. linked together electrically by tight junctions
c. a functional electrochemical syncytium
d. linked together mechanically by gap junctions
e. multinucleate
3. Intercalated discs consist of
a. a tight junction and an adherens junction
b. an adherens junction and a gap junction
c. a gap junction and a desmosome
d. a desmosome and a tight junction
e. an extracellular Z-disc attached on each side to actin
4. Bundles of actin are connected inside a smooth muscle cell by
a. membrane dense areas
b. Z-discs
c. dystrophin
d. dense bodies
e. adherens junctions
5. Smooth muscle contains no
a. actin
b. myosin
c. troponin
d. sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. intermediate filaments
6. Smooth muscle cells are connected by
a. gap junctions and thick filaments
b. membrane dense areas and adherens junctions
c. dense bodies and membrane dense areas
d. membrane dense areas and gap junctions
e. intercalated discs
7. In smooth muscle, Ca²⁺
a. binds to troponin
b. binds to calmodulin
c. binds to myosin
d. binds to actin
e. binds to tropomyosin
8. In smooth muscle, cross-bridge cycling can only occur when
a. Ca²⁺ is bound to troponin
b. actin is phosphorylated
c. Ca²⁺ is bound to myosin
d. myosin is phosphorylated
e. troponin is phosphorylated
9. Calcium-induced calcium release is an important element of excitation-contraction coupling
in
a. skeletal muscle
b. smooth muscle
c. cardiac muscle
d. skeletal and cardiac muscle
e. skeletal and smooth muscle
10. Intracellular calcium concentration modulates strength of contraction in
a. skeletal muscle and smooth muscle
b. smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
c. cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle
d. skeletal, smooth and cardiac muscle
e. no type of muscle
11. In cardiac muscle,
a. the action potential is about 2ms while the twitch is about 200ms
b. the twitch is about 2ms while the action potential is about 200ms
c. the action potential and twitch are both about 2ms
d. the action potential and twitch are both about 200ms
e. there are no action potentials, only graded potentials
 Th6 L05 – Anatomy of the autonomic nervous
system

Single best answers: Choose the one best answer to each question.
1. Preganglionic autonomic neuron cell bodies are located in
a. the ventral horn of the grey matter
b. the lateral horn of the grey matter
c. the dorsal horn of the grey matter
d. paravertebral ganglia
e. prevertebral ganglia
2. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons arise from
a. cervical and thoracic spinal nerves
b. thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves
c. cervical, thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves
d. thoracic, lumbar and sacral spinal nerves
e. cranial and sacral spinal nerves
3. The splanchnic nerves carry
a. postganglionic parasympathetic neurons to the viscera
b. preganglionic sympathetic neurons to prevertebral ganglia
c. sympathetic neurons between sympathetic chain ganglia
d. postganglionic sympathetic neurons to the viscera
e. preganglionic parasympathetic neurons to intramural ganglia
4. The sympathetic chain
a. extends inferiorly to form 5 lumbar ganglia and fuses superiorly
b. extends superiorly to form 7 cervical ganglia
c. fuses both superiorly and inferiorly
d. terminates inferiorly at L2
e. extends superiorly to form 3 cervical ganglia and fuses inferiorly
5. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons pass through
a. the ventral root, then a grey ramus communicans
b. the dorsal root, then a white ramus communicans
c. the lateral root, then a white ramus communicans
d. the lateral root, then a grey ramus communicans
e. the ventral root, then a white ramus communicans
6. Sympathetic neurons that synapse in the paravertebral ganglia then travel through
a. a white ramus communicans, then a spinal nerve
b. a grey ramus communicans, then a spinal nerve
c. a spinal nerve, then a white ramus communicans
d. a white ramus communicans, then a splanchnic nerve
e. the sympathetic chain, then a grey ramus communicans
7. Parasympathetic neurons arise from
a. cranial nerves and S2-S4
b. C2-C4 and L2-L4
c. cranial nerves, C1-C8, and L3-Co
d. cranial nerves and L2-L4
e. T1-L2
8. The urinary bladder is supplied by parasympathetic innvervation via
a. cranial nerve XI and the pudendal nerve
b. the celiac plexus
c. the inferior mesenteric ganglion
d. cranial nerve X and the pelvic nerves
e. splanchnic nerves
9. The splanchnic nerves travel with
a. spinal nerves
b. lymphatics
c. arteries
d. veins
e. peripheral nerves
10. Overall central control of the autonomic nervous system occurs in the
a. pons
b. medulla oblongata
c. hypothalamus
d. pituitary
e. thalamus
 Th6 L06 – The autonomic nervous system, a
pharmacological perspective

Single best answers: Choose the one best answer to each question.
1. The ANS is part of
a. the central nervous system
b. the motor branch of the peripheral nervous system
c. the somatic motor nervous system
d. the afferent branch of the peripheral nervous system
e. the sympathetic nervous system
2. Match the function to the autonomic branch:
a. Digestion
b. Fight, fright
c. Adaptation to exercise
d. Excretion
e. Visual accomodation

i. Sympathetic
ii. Parasympathetic
3. Autonomic afferents
a. do not exist
b. carry mainly unconscious sensory information
c. exist only in the enteric nervous system
d. innervate sensory receptors in the skin
e. synapse in the thymus
4. Autonomic ganglia
a. exist for all sympathetic neural pathways
b. are located either paravertebrally or prevertebrally
c. contain neuroeffector junctions
d. all use the same neurotransmitter
e. exist for all autonomic neural pathways
5. The adrenal medulla is innervated by
a. postganglionic sympathetic fibres
b. nothing: it is activated only by hormones
c. preganglionic parasympathetic fibres
d. postganglionic parasympathetic fibres
e. preganglionic sympathetic fibres
6. Muscarinic receptors are found in
a. all preganglionic synapses
b. preganglionic parasympathetic synapses
c. postganglionic sympathetic synapses and the neuroeffector junction at salivary glands
d. postganglionic parasympathetic synapses and the neuroeffector junction at sweat glands
e. the autonomic neuromuscular junction
7. The parasympathetic neurotransmitter at the neuroeffector junction is
a. always acetylcholine
b. always noradrenaline
c. either acetylcholine or noradrenaline
d. either acetylcholine, noradrenaline or adrenaline
e. always muscarine
8. Which branch of the autonomic nervous system promotes
a. pupil constriction?
b. micturition?
c. bronchodilation?
d. ejaculation of semen?
e. penile erection?
f. increase in blood glucose levels?
g. increase in gastrointestinal secretions?

i. Sympathetic
ii. Parasympathetic
9. Which part(s) of the autonomic system have an effect on
a. the heart?
b. the detrusor muscle?
c. vasomotor tone?
d. metabolism?
e. exocrine glands?
f. skeletal muscle contraction?
g. renin release?

i. Sympathetic
ii. Parasympathetic
iii. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic
iv. Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic
10. In a healthy young person at rest, influence over heart rate is dominated by
a. the sympathetic nervous system
b. the parasympathetic nervous system
c. the somatic nervous system
d. blood adrenaline level
e. blood noradrenaline level
11. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart causes
a. the AV node to depolarise faster
b. depolarisation of ventricular cardiomyocytes
c. the autonomic nervous system to take over pacemaker function
d. the SA node to depolarise faster
e. cardiac contraction
12. Arteries
a. contain no muscarinic receptors
b. constrict on parasympathetic stimulation
c. are dominated by the influence of the sympathetic nervous system
d. are all innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
e. in the penis relax due to sympathetic stimulation
13. Autonomic fibres innervating pupillary muscles are carried by the
a. facial nerve (VII)
b. optic nerve (II)
c. vagus nerve (X)
d. trigeminal nerve (V)
e. oculomotor nerve (III)
14. Block of ganglionic nicotinic receptors at rest would cause
a. increased BP
b. increased sweating
c. decreased heart rate
d. constipation
e. urinary incontinence
15. Muscarinic block at rest would cause
a. no alteration in sympathetic function
b. decreased BP
c. decreased sweating
d. urinary incontinence
e. increased watery salivary secretions
16. Block of adrenergic receptors would cause
a. absence of all sympathetic function
b. constipation
c. increased heart rate
d. loss of vasomotor tone
e. dry skin
17. Phaeochromocytoma is characterised by
a. lack of catecholamine release
b. autoimmune destruction of muscarinic receptors
c. autoimmune destruction of chromaffin cells
d. overproduction of adrenaline and noradrenaline
e. a tumour of the sympathetic chain
18. The enteric nervous system
a. is entirely self-governed
b. uses the same neurotransmitters as the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
c. consists of the innervation of arterioles supplying the gastrointestinal parenchyma
d. is part of the somatic nervous system
e. consists of myenteric and submucosal plexuses
 Th6 L07 – Cholinergic neurotransmission

Single best answers: Choose the one best answer to each question.
1. Autonomic cholinergic synapses are located in
a. dorsal root ganglia
b. neuromuscular junctions
c. paravertebral ganglia
d. basal ganglia
e. premural ganglia
2. Acetylcholine release is caused by
a. Ca²⁺ influx
b. K⁺ efflux
c. Na⁺ influx
d. acetylcholine esterase
e. K⁺ influx
3. Acetylcholine esterase is located
a. in the presynaptic cell
b. on the postsynaptic membrane
c. in the synaptic cleft
d. in the postsynaptic cell
e. on the presynaptic membrane
4. Nicotinic receptors are
a. non-selective cation channels
b. Gs-protein-linked
c. Ca²⁺-selective ion channels
d. Na⁺-selective ion channels
e. Gi-protein-linked
5. Depolarisation block of nicotinic receptors is caused by
a. dexamethasone
b. high doses of a competitive antagonist
c. botox
d. continuous stimulation by an agonist
e. pancuronium

6. Match the drug to its action:

a. Suxamethonium
b. Pancuronium
c. Botulinum toxin
d. Neostigmine
e. Edrophonium

i. Depolarisation block
ii. Prevents acetylcholine release
iii. Prevents acetylcholine synthesis
iv. Hyperpolarisation block
v. Nicotinic receptor antagonism
vi. Na⁺ channel antagonism
vii. Ca²⁺ channel antagonism
viii. Acetylcholine esterase antagonism
7. In the neuromuscular junction, an acetylcholine molecule is usually metabolised in about
a. 1 second
b. 100 milliseconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 1 millisecond
e. 0.1 millisecond
8. Suxamethonium
a. has a duration of action of approximately two hours
b. is a general anaesthetic
c. is broken down by cholinesterase
d. is a nicotinic receptor antagonist
e. is a local anaesthetic
9. The cell membrane potential in a muscle cell in depolarisation block
a. consists of a fused tetanus
b. is hyperpolarised
c. carries a continuous series of action potentials
d. cannot repolarise to a resting level
e. is the same in magnitude but opposite in polarisation to a normal resting potential
10. Match the acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to its approximate length of action
a. Edrophonium
b. Pyridostigmine
c. Dyflos
d. Neostigmine

i. milliseconds
ii. seconds
iii. minutes
iv. hours
v. indefinitely
11. A therapeutic effect of cholinesterase inhibitors is
a. stimulation of adrenergic receptors
b. facilitation of skeletal muscle stimulation
c. respiratory depression
d. myaesthenia gravis
e. depolarisation block of autonomic ganglia
12. Myaesthenia gravis
a. affects men and women equally
b. is caused by ineffective acetylcholine release from the presynaptic terminal
c. is characterised by diplopia and ptosis
d. follows a relapsing and remitting course
e. results from a mutation in the gene coding for the acetylcholine receptor
13. Ecothiopate
a. is an insecticide
b. increases intraocular pressure
c. causes pupillary constriction
d. is a nerve gas
e. can be used to diagnose myaesthenia gravis
14. Myaesthenia gravis is treated by
a. monoclonal antibodies specific to the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
b. pyridostigmine
c. botox
d. edrophonium
e. suxamethonium
15. Atropine
a. is a muscarinic antagonist
b. is a nicotinic antagonist
c. is an adrenergic agonist
d. is a muscarinic agonist
e. is a nicotinic agonist
16. Ipatropium is used to treat asthma because it is
a. a nicotinic agonist
b. a β2 agonist
c. a corticosteroid
d. a β2 antagonist
e. a muscarinic antagonist
17. Nicotine
a. causes skeletal muscle relaxation
b. stimulates the reticular activating system
c. reduces blood pressure
d. activates dopaminergic reward pathways
e. has no effect on the parasympathetic nervous system
 Th6 L08 – Adrenergic neurotransmission

Single best answers: Choose the one best answer to each question.
1. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons release neurotransmitter at
a. ganglia
b. varicosities
c. the neuromuscular junction
d. the adrenal medulla
e. the adrenal cortex
2. Sympathetic stimulation causes contraction of most
a. skeletal muscles
b. arteries
c. capillaries
d. ventricles of the heart
e. bronchioles
3. Sympathetic stimulation causes
a. erection of the penis
b. micturition
c. peristalsis
d. production of watery saliva
e. pupillary dilation
4. Sympathetic stimulation decreases
a. secretion of thick saliva
b. secretion of insulin
c. production of sweat
d. blood glucose levels
e. piloerection
5. The adrenal medulla secretes
a. equal amounts of adrenaline and noradrenaline
b. mostly noradrenaline, some adrenaline
c. mostly adrenaline, some noradrenaline
d. exclusively noradrenaline
e. exclusively adrenaline
6. α1 receptors
a. respond better to adrenaline than noradrenaline
b. are found in cardiac muscle
c. are found in smooth muscle
d. respond better to isoprenaline than adrenaline
e. are found paired with β receptors
7. α2 receptors
a. are found on the presynaptic membrane
b. produce a similar response to α1 receptors when stimulated
c. are found in cardiac muscle
d. do not respond to adrenaline
e. are found in nonsynaptic sites
8. β2 receptors
a. increased heart rate when stimulated
b. cause bronchodilation when stimulated
c. are found in autonomic ganglia
d. respond to acetylcholine
e. cause uterine smooth muscle to contract when stimulated
9. Noradrenaline stimulation is terminated mainly by
a. re-uptake into the presynaptic cell
b. metabolism within the synaptic cleft
c. methylation
d. uptake into satellite cells
e. diffusion away from the synapse
10. Monoamine oxidase
a. breaks down noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft
b. converts noradrenaline to adrenaline
c. blocks the re-uptake of noradrenaline
d. breaks down noradrenaline in the presynaptic cell
e. is used to treat depression
11. α2 receptors
a. stimulate release of noradrenaline
b. stimulate breakdown of noradrenaline
c. inhibit release of noradrenaline
d. stimulate re-uptake of noradrenaline
e. inhibit re-uptake of noradrenaline
12. Indirect sympathomimetics
a. are ganglionic acetylcholinesterase receptor agonists
b. are adrenergic agonists
c. inhibit monoamine oxidase
d. structurally resemble acetylcholine
e. cause noradrenaline to be released from storage vesicles
13. Which drug is a selective agonist for the
a. α2 receptor
b. α1 receptor
c. β1 receptor
d. β2 receptor
e. β receptors

i. metoprolol
ii. tamsulosin
iii. clonidine
iv. salbutamol
v. dobutamine
vi. phenylephrine
vii. propranolol
viii. isoprenaline
14. α blockers
a. reduce BP
b. increase BP
c. reduce heart rate
d. reduce heart contractility
e. cause bronchiolar contraction
15. The following drugs specifically block which receptors?
a. labetalol
b. prazosin
c. propranolol
d. metopralol
e. phenoxybenzamine

i. α1
ii. α2
iii. β1
iv. β2
v. α
vi. β
vii. α and β
viii. neither α nor β
Answers for Theme 6 – Muscles and Nerves
Th6 L01 – The nervous system – Answers
1. Neuroglia
a. are found in the PNS only
b. are found in the CNS only
c. consist of neurons, Schwann cells, and oligodendrocytes in the PNS
d. consist of neurons, astocytes, microglia & ependymal cells in the CNS
e. consist of astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia & ependymal cells in the CNS

e.
2. The cells that secrete CSF are
a. neurons
b. microglia
c. ependymal cells
d. oligodendrocytes
e. astrocytes

c.
3. The cells that insulate neurons in the CNS are
a. myelin
b. microglia
c. astrocytes
d. oligodendrocytes
e. Schwann cells

d.
4. The glial cells that contribute to the blood-brain barrier are
a. oligodendrocytes
b. microglia
c. astrocytes
d. ependymal cells
e. endothelial cells

c.
5. Schwann cells surround
a. all neurons
b. only myelinated neurons
c. all neurons in the PNS
d. myelinated neurons in the CNS
e. myelinated neurons in the PNS

c.
6. Microglia are
a. basophils in the CNS
b. basophils in the PNS
c. macrophages in the CNS
d. lymphocytes in the CNS
e. lymphocytes in the PNS

c.
7. The cerebrospinal fluid is found in the
a. epidural space
b. subdural space
c. subarachnoid space
d. subpial space
e. interstitial space of the neural parenchyma

c.
8. The dural fold between the cerebral hemispheres is the
a. falx cerebri
b. longitudinal fissure
c. third ventricle
d. tentorium cerebelli
e. central sulcus

a.
9. The cerebrospinal fluid is produced
a. in the 3rd ventricle
b. in the lateral ventricles and anteroinferior to the cerebellum
c. throughout the subarachnoid space
d. in the 4th ventricle and the lateral ventricles
e. in the central sulcus and anterosuperior to the pons

b.
10. In the nervous system, ganglia are
a. collections of neuron cell bodies
b. bundles of myelinated axons
c. sites of division of the ventral and dorsal spinal roots
d. sites of division of the ventral and dorsal spinal rami
e. bundles of unmyelinated axons

a.
11. The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains
a. sensory fibres only
b. both motor and sensory fibres
c. motor fibres and the motor root ganglion
d. motor fibres only
e. autonomic fibres and the sympathetic chain ganglion

d.
12. Denticulate ligaments join
a. spinal nerves to the vertebral column
b. adjacent vertebrae anteriorly and posteriorly
c. adjacent vertebrae, laterally
d. the spinal cord to the anterior and posterior vertebral walls
e. the spinal cord to the lateral vertebral walls

e.
13. The arachnoid membrane ends at about
a. L1
b. L3
c. L5
d. S1
e. S2

e.
14. The conus medullaris ends at the lower border of
a. L1
b. L3
c. L5
d. S1
e. S2

a.
15. Dermatomes represent areas of skin supplied by
a. each ventral root of a spinal nerve
b. each dorsal root of a spinal nerve
c. each ventral ramus of a spinal nerve
d. each dorsal ramus of a spinal nerve
e. all fibres of a spinal nerve

b.
16. Each brachial plexus
a. supplies both arms
b. arises from the dorsal roots of C4-C8
c. arises from the ventral rami of C5-T1
d. contains a random pattern of branching nerves
e. contains only motor nerves

c.
17. The somatic nervous system
a. supplies only skeletal muscles
b. supplies skeletal muscles, the body wall and the internal organs
c. supplies skeletal muscles and the body wall
d. supplies skeletal muscles, smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
e. supplies skeletal muscles, smooth muscle and the body wall

c.
Th6 L02 – Striated muscle structure and function –
Answers
1. What is surrounded by
a. epimysium?
b. endomysium?
c. sarcolemma?
d. perimysium?
e. deep fascia?

i. a myofibril
ii. a whole muscle
iii. a motor unit
iv. a muscle fibre
v. a muscle fascicle
vi. a muscle compartment
vii. sarcoplasmic reticulum
viii. triads

a. ii.
b. iv.
c. iv.
d. v.
e. vi.
2. Myofibrils
a. store Ca²⁺
b. link T-tubules to the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. are electrically excitable
d. are surrounded by perimysium
e. consist of sarcomeres in series

e.
3. Striations are found in
a. cardiac and smooth muscle
b. cardiac muscle only
c. skeletal muscle only
d. skeletal and cardiac muscle
e. skeletal and smooth muscle

d.
4. Striations are caused by
a. the characteristic arrangement of nuclei in a syncytium
b. the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. myofibrils
d. T-tubules
e. triads

c.
5. Myosin
a. makes up thick filaments
b. is pulled by actin during the power stroke
c. is attached to a Z-disc
d. is responsible for the light part of a striation
e. binds Ca²⁺ during muscular contraction

a.
6. In a sarcomere, which area
a. refers to the dark part of a striation
b. refers to the light part of a striation
c. makes up one sarcomere length
d. marks the centre of a sarcomere
e. varies in width with muscle contraction

i. The Z disc
ii. The A band
iii. The distance from one Z-disc to the next Z disc
iv. The I band
v. The Z band
vi. The distance from the M line to the Z disc
vii. The H band plus the A band
viii. The M line

a. ii.
b. iv.
c. iii.
d. viii.
e. iv.
7. Transverse tubules
a. store Ca²⁺
b. are invaginations of the sarcolemma
c. store Na⁺
d. are invaginations of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. consist of sarcomeres in series

b.
8. A muscle contraction where force changes but length does not is
a. isotonic
b. eccentric
c. isometric
d. hypertonic
e. concentric

c.
9. In cross-bridge cycling, ATP binds to
a. actin
b. troponin
c. myotroponin
d. myosin
e. tropomyosin

d.
10. Cross-bridge cycling in a single sarcomere occurs
a. synchronously in the presence of Ca²⁺, asynchronously in the absence of Ca²⁺
b. synchronously, when Ca²⁺ is present
c. asynchronously, when Ca²⁺ is present
d. synchronously, when Ca²⁺ is absent
e. asynchronously, when Ca²⁺ is absent

c.
11. The section of the sarcomere containing only myosin is
a. the M zone
b. the Z band
c. the I band
d. the A band
e. the H zone

e.
12. When a sarcomere contracts,
a. the A band gets shorter and the I band stays the same
b. the A band gets shorter and the H zone stays the same
c. the I band gets shorter and the H zone stays the same
d. the H zone gets shorter and the I zone get shorter
e. the I band gets shorter and the A band gets shorter

d.
13. Tetanic contraction force in a muscle
a. is constant regardless of length
b. is maximal at maximal length
c. is maximal at minimal length
d. is maximal at some other length
e. is only possible at maximal length

d.
Th6 L03 – Skeletal muscle regulation of contraction
& plasticity – Answers
1. Calcium binds to
a. troponin C
b. myosin
c. troponin T
d. troponin I
e. tropomyosin

a.
2. Calcium binding causes
a. troponin T to change conformation
b. ATP to bind to myosin
c. the power stroke
d. tropomyosin to change conformation
e. crossbridge cycling

d.
3. Relaxation of muscle occurs when
a. ATP is used up
b. ATP is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. calcium is used up
d. ATP is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. calcium is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

e.
4. The neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is
a. adrenaline
b. acetylcholine
c. nicotine
d. noradrenaline
e. muscarine

b.
5. Excitation-contraction coupling occurs from
a. SR to T-tubules to NMJ
b. NMJ to SR to T-tubules
c. NMJ to T-tubules to SR
d. SR to NMJ to T-tubules
e. T-tubules to NMJ to SR

c.
6. A twitch
a. varies in timespan depending on type of muscle fibre
b. is another word for a tetanic contraction
c. is identical in timespan to an action potential
d. is shorter than an action potential
e. varies in magnitude according to strength of action potential

a.
7. A tetanus is caused by
a. a continuous action potential
b. a low frequency of action potentials
c. a single high-amplitude action potential
d. a slow twitch
e. a high frequency of action potentials

e.
8. In a whole muscle,
a. one motor neuron innervates all muscle fibres
b. one motor unit is innervated by several motor neurons
c. one muscle fibre is innervated by several motor neurons
d. one motor neuron innervates one muscle fibre
e. one motor unit is innervated by one motor neuron

e.
9. A motor unit
a. consists of all muscle fibres in a muscle fascicle
b. consists of scattered muscle fibres that contract together
c. consists of muscle fibres of the one type (SO/FOG/FG)
d. consists of all muscle fibres that contract in a single twitch
e. consists of all muscle fibres in a whole muscle

b.
10. Muscle contraction properties can change in
a. FOG fibres only
b. FG fibres only
c. SO fibres only
d. SO fibres & FOG fibres
e. FG fibres & FOG fibres

a.
Th6 L04 – Cardiac, smooth and skeletal muscle
compared – Answers
1. The length of a cardiac muscle fibre is
a. about 20µm
b. up to 200mm
c. about 200µm
d. about 20mm
e. up to 2mm

c.
2. Cardiac muscle fibres are
a. linked together by Z-discs
b. linked together electrically by tight junctions
c. a functional electrochemical syncytium
d. linked together mechanically by gap junctions
e. multinucleate

c.
3. Intercalated discs consist of
a. a tight junction and an adherens junction
b. an adherens junction and a gap junction
c. a gap junction and a desmosome
d. a desmosome and a tight junction
e. an extracellular Z-disc attached on each side to actin

b.
4. Bundles of actin are connected inside a smooth muscle cell by
a. membrane dense areas
b. Z-discs
c. dystrophin
d. dense bodies
e. adherens junctions

d.
5. Smooth muscle contains no
a. actin
b. myosin
c. troponin
d. sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. intermediate filaments

c.
6. Smooth muscle cells are connected by
a. gap junctions and thick filaments
b. membrane dense areas and adherens junctions
c. dense bodies and membrane dense areas
d. membrane dense areas and gap junctions
e. intercalated discs

d.
7. In smooth muscle, Ca²⁺
a. binds to troponin
b. binds to calmodulin
c. binds to myosin
d. binds to actin
e. binds to tropomyosin

b.
8. In smooth muscle, cross-bridge cycling can only occur when
a. Ca²⁺ is bound to troponin
b. actin is phosphorylated
c. Ca²⁺ is bound to myosin
d. myosin is phosphorylated
e. troponin is phosphorylated

d.
9. Calcium-induced calcium release is an important element of excitation-contraction coupling
in
a. skeletal muscle
b. smooth muscle
c. cardiac muscle
d. skeletal and cardiac muscle
e. skeletal and smooth muscle

c.
10. Intracellular calcium concentration modulates strength of contraction in
a. skeletal muscle and smooth muscle
b. smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
c. cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle
d. skeletal, smooth and cardiac muscle
e. no type of muscle

b.
11. In cardiac muscle,
a. the action potential is about 2ms while the twitch is about 200ms
b. the twitch is about 2ms while the action potential is about 200ms
c. the action potential and twitch are both about 2ms
d. the action potential and twitch are both about 200ms
e. there are no action potentials, only graded potentials

d.
Th6 L05 – Anatomy of the autonomic nervous
system – Answers
1. Preganglionic autonomic neuron cell bodies are located in
a. the ventral horn of the grey matter
b. the lateral horn of the grey matter
c. the dorsal horn of the grey matter
d. paravertebral ganglia
e. prevertebral ganglia

b.
2. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons arise from
a. cervical and thoracic spinal nerves
b. thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves
c. cervical, thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves
d. thoracic, lumbar and sacral spinal nerves
e. cranial and sacral spinal nerves

b.
3. The splanchnic nerves carry
a. postganglionic parasympathetic neurons to the viscera
b. preganglionic sympathetic neurons to prevertebral ganglia
c. sympathetic neurons between sympathetic chain ganglia
d. postganglionic sympathetic neurons to the viscera
e. preganglionic parasympathetic neurons to intramural ganglia

b.
4. The sympathetic chain
a. extends inferiorly to form 5 lumbar ganglia and fuses superiorly
b. extends superiorly to form 7 cervical ganglia
c. fuses both superiorly and inferiorly
d. terminates inferiorly at L2
e. extends superiorly to form 3 cervical ganglia and fuses inferiorly

e.
5. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons pass through
a. the ventral root, then a grey ramus communicans
b. the dorsal root, then a white ramus communicans
c. the lateral root, then a white ramus communicans
d. the lateral root, then a grey ramus communicans
e. the ventral root, then a white ramus communicans

e.
6. Sympathetic neurons that synapse in the paravertebral ganglia then travel through
a. a white ramus communicans, then a spinal nerve
b. a grey ramus communicans, then a spinal nerve
c. a spinal nerve, then a white ramus communicans
d. a white ramus communicans, then a splanchnic nerve
e. the sympathetic chain, then a grey ramus communicans

b.
7. Parasympathetic neurons arise from
a. cranial nerves and S2-S4
b. C2-C4 and L2-L4
c. cranial nerves, C1-C8, and L3-Co
d. cranial nerves and L2-L4
e. T1-L2

a.
8. The urinary bladder is supplied by parasympathetic innvervation via
a. cranial nerve XI and the pudendal nerve
b. the celiac plexus
c. the inferior mesenteric ganglion
d. cranial nerve X and the pelvic nerves
e. splanchnic nerves

d.
9. The splanchnic nerves travel with
a. spinal nerves
b. lymphatics
c. arteries
d. veins
e. peripheral nerves

c.
10. Overall central control of the autonomic nervous system occurs in the
a. pons
b. medulla oblongata
c. hypothalamus
d. pituitary
e. thalamus

c.
Th6 L06 – The autonomic nervous system, a
pharmacological perspective – Answers
1. The ANS is part of
a. the central nervous system
b. the motor branch of the peripheral nervous system
c. the somatic motor nervous system
d. the afferent branch of the peripheral nervous system
e. the sympathetic nervous system

b.
2. Match the function to the autonomic branch:
a. Digestion
b. Fight, fright
c. Adaptation to exercise
d. Excretion
e. Visual accomodation

i. Sympathetic
ii. Parasympathetic

a. ii.
b. i.
c. i.
d. ii.
e. ii.
3. Autonomic afferents
a. do not exist
b. carry mainly unconscious sensory information
c. exist only in the enteric nervous system
d. innervate sensory receptors in the skin
e. synapse in the thymus

b.
4. Autonomic ganglia
a. exist for all sympathetic neural pathways
b. are located either paravertebrally or prevertebrally
c. contain neuroeffector junctions
d. all use the same neurotransmitter
e. exist for all autonomic neural pathways

d.
5. The adrenal medulla is innervated by
a. postganglionic sympathetic fibres
b. nothing: it is activated only by hormones
c. preganglionic parasympathetic fibres
d. postganglionic parasympathetic fibres
e. preganglionic sympathetic fibres

e.
6. Muscarinic receptors are found in
a. all preganglionic synapses
b. preganglionic parasympathetic synapses
c. postganglionic sympathetic synapses and the neuroeffector junction at salivary glands
d. postganglionic parasympathetic synapses and the neuroeffector junction at sweat glands
e. the autonomic neuromuscular junction

d.
7. The parasympathetic neurotransmitter at the neuroeffector junction is
a. always acetylcholine
b. always noradrenaline
c. either acetylcholine or noradrenaline
d. either acetylcholine, noradrenaline or adrenaline
e. always muscarine

a.
8. Which branch of the autonomic nervous system promotes
a. pupil constriction?
b. micturition?
c. bronchodilation?
d. ejaculation of semen?
e. penile erection?
f. increase in blood glucose levels?
g. increase in gastrointestinal secretions?

i. Sympathetic
ii. Parasympathetic

a. ii.
b. ii.
c. i.
d. i.
e. ii.
f. i.
g. ii.
9. Which part(s) of the autonomic system have an effect on
a. the heart?
b. the detrusor muscle?
c. vasomotor tone?
d. metabolism?
e. exocrine glands?
f. skeletal muscle contraction?
g. renin release?

i. Sympathetic
ii. Parasympathetic
iii. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic
iv. Neither sympathetic nor parasympathetic

a. iii.
b. iii.
c. i.
d. i.
e. ii.
f. iv.
g. i.
10. In a healthy young person at rest, influence over heart rate is dominated by
a. the sympathetic nervous system
b. the parasympathetic nervous system
c. the somatic nervous system
d. blood adrenaline level
e. blood noradrenaline level

b.
11. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart causes
a. the AV node to depolarise faster
b. depolarisation of ventricular cardiomyocytes
c. the autonomic nervous system to take over pacemaker function
d. the SA node to depolarise faster
e. cardiac contraction

d.
12. Arteries
a. contain no muscarinic receptors
b. constrict on parasympathetic stimulation
c. are dominated by the influence of the sympathetic nervous system
d. are all innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
e. in the penis relax due to sympathetic stimulation

c.
13. Autonomic fibres innervating pupillary muscles are carried by the
a. facial nerve (VII)
b. optic nerve (II)
c. vagus nerve (X)
d. trigeminal nerve (V)
e. oculomotor nerve (III)

e.
14. Block of ganglionic nicotinic receptors at rest would cause
a. increased BP
b. increased sweating
c. decreased heart rate
d. constipation
e. urinary incontinence

d.
15. Muscarinic block at rest would cause
a. no alteration in sympathetic function
b. decreased BP
c. decreased sweating
d. urinary incontinence
e. increased watery salivary secretions

c.
16. Block of adrenergic receptors would cause
a. absence of all sympathetic function
b. constipation
c. increased heart rate
d. loss of vasomotor tone
e. dry skin

d.
17. Phaeochromocytoma is characterised by
a. lack of catecholamine release
b. autoimmune destruction of muscarinic receptors
c. autoimmune destruction of chromaffin cells
d. overproduction of adrenaline and noradrenaline
e. a tumour of the sympathetic chain

d.
18. The enteric nervous system
a. is entirely self-governed
b. uses the same neurotransmitters as the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems
c. consists of the innervation of arterioles supplying the gastrointestinal parenchyma
d. is part of the somatic nervous system
e. consists of myenteric and submucosal plexuses

e.
Th6 L07 – Cholinergic neurotransmission – Answers
1. Autonomic cholinergic synapses are located in
a. dorsal root ganglia
b. neuromuscular junctions
c. paravertebral ganglia
d. basal ganglia
e. premural ganglia

c.
2. Acetylcholine release is caused by
a. Ca²⁺ influx
b. K⁺ efflux
c. Na⁺ influx
d. acetylcholine esterase
e. K⁺ influx

a.
3. Acetylcholine esterase is located
a. in the presynaptic cell
b. on the postsynaptic membrane
c. in the synaptic cleft
d. in the postsynaptic cell
e. on the presynaptic membrane

b.
4. Nicotinic receptors are
a. non-selective cation channels
b. Gs-protein-linked
c. Ca²⁺-selective ion channels
d. Na⁺-selective ion channels
e. Gi-protein-linked

a.
5. Depolarisation block of nicotinic receptors is caused by
a. dexamethasone
b. high doses of a competitive antagonist
c. botox
d. continuous stimulation by an agonist
e. pancuronium

d.
6. Match the drug to its action:
a. Suxamethonium
b. Pancuronium
c. Botulinum toxin
d. Neostigmine
e. Edrophonium

i. Depolarisation block
ii. Prevents acetylcholine release
iii. Prevents acetylcholine synthesis
iv. Hyperpolarisation block
v. Nicotinic receptor antagonism
vi. Na⁺ channel antagonism
vii. Ca²⁺ channel antagonism
viii. Acetylcholine esterase antagonism

a. i.
b. v.
c. ii.
d. viii.
e. viii.
7. In the neuromuscular junction, an acetylcholine molecule is usually metabolised in about
a. 1 second
b. 100 milliseconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 1 millisecond
e. 0.1 millisecond

d.
8. Suxamethonium
a. has a duration of action of approximately two hours
b. is a general anaesthetic
c. is broken down by cholinesterase
d. is a nicotinic receptor antagonist
e. is a local anaesthetic

c.
9. The cell membrane potential in a muscle cell in depolarisation block
a. consists of a fused tetanus
b. is hyperpolarised
c. carries a continuous series of action potentials
d. cannot repolarise to a resting level
e. is the same in magnitude but opposite in polarisation to a normal resting potential

d.
10. Match the acetylcholinesterase inhibitor to its approximate length of action
a. Edrophonium
b. Pyridostigmine
c. Dyflos
d. Neostigmine

i. milliseconds
ii. seconds
iii. minutes
iv. hours
v. indefinitely

a. iii.
b. iv.
c. v.
d. vi.
11. A therapeutic effect of cholinesterase inhibitors is
a. stimulation of adrenergic receptors
b. facilitation of skeletal muscle stimulation
c. respiratory depression
d. myaesthenia gravis
e. depolarisation block of autonomic ganglia

b.
12. Myaesthenia gravis
a. affects men and women equally
b. is caused by ineffective acetylcholine release from the presynaptic terminal
c. is characterised by diplopia and ptosis
d. follows a relapsing and remitting course
e. results from a mutation in the gene coding for the acetylcholine receptor

c.
13. Ecothiopate
a. is an insecticide
b. increases intraocular pressure
c. causes pupillary constriction
d. is a nerve gas
e. can be used to diagnose myaesthenia gravis

c.
14. Myaesthenia gravis is treated by
a. monoclonal antibodies specific to the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
b. pyridostigmine
c. botox
d. edrophonium
e. suxamethonium

b.
15. Atropine
a. is a muscarinic antagonist
b. is a nicotinic antagonist
c. is an adrenergic agonist
d. is a muscarinic agonist
e. is a nicotinic agonist

a.
16. Ipatropium is used to treat asthma because it is
a. a nicotinic agonist
b. a β2 agonist
c. a corticosteroid
d. a β2 antagonist
e. a muscarinic antagonist

e.
17. Nicotine
a. causes skeletal muscle relaxation
b. stimulates the reticular activating system
c. reduces blood pressure
d. activates dopaminergic reward pathways
e. has no effect on the parasympathetic nervous system

d.
Th6 L08 – Adrenergic neurotransmission – Answers
1. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons release neurotransmitter at
a. ganglia
b. varicosities
c. the neuromuscular junction
d. the adrenal medulla
e. the adrenal cortex

b.
2. Sympathetic stimulation causes contraction of most
a. skeletal muscles
b. arteries
c. capillaries
d. ventricles of the heart
e. bronchioles

b.
3. Sympathetic stimulation causes
a. erection of the penis
b. micturition
c. peristalsis
d. production of watery saliva
e. pupillary dilation

e.
4. Sympathetic stimulation decreases
a. secretion of thick saliva
b. secretion of insulin
c. production of sweat
d. blood glucose levels
e. piloerection

b.
5. The adrenal medulla secretes
a. equal amounts of adrenaline and noradrenaline
b. mostly noradrenaline, some adrenaline
c. mostly adrenaline, some noradrenaline
d. exclusively noradrenaline
e. exclusively adrenaline

c.
6. α1 receptors
a. respond better to adrenaline than noradrenaline
b. are found in cardiac muscle
c. are found in smooth muscle
d. respond better to isoprenaline than adrenaline
e. are found paired with β receptors

c.
7. α2 receptors
a. are found on the presynaptic membrane
b. produce a similar response to α1 receptors when stimulated
c. are found in cardiac muscle
d. do not respond to adrenaline
e. are found in nonsynaptic sites

a.
8. β2 receptors
a. increased heart rate when stimulated
b. cause bronchodilation when stimulated
c. are found in autonomic ganglia
d. respond to acetylcholine
e. cause uterine smooth muscle to contract when stimulated

b.
9. Noradrenaline stimulation is terminated mainly by
a. re-uptake into the presynaptic cell
b. metabolism within the synaptic cleft
c. methylation
d. uptake into satellite cells
e. diffusion away from the synapse

a.
10. Monoamine oxidase
a. breaks down noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft
b. converts noradrenaline to adrenaline
c. blocks the re-uptake of noradrenaline
d. breaks down noradrenaline in the presynaptic cell
e. is used to treat depression

d.
11. α2 receptors
a. stimulate release of noradrenaline
b. stimulate breakdown of noradrenaline
c. inhibit release of noradrenaline
d. stimulate re-uptake of noradrenaline
e. inhibit re-uptake of noradrenaline

c.
12. Indirect sympathomimetics
a. are ganglionic acetylcholinesterase receptor agonists
b. are adrenergic agonists
c. inhibit monoamine oxidase
d. structurally resemble acetylcholine
e. cause noradrenaline to be released from storage vesicles

e.
13. Which drug is a selective agonist for the
a. α2 receptor
b. α1 receptor
c. β1 receptor
d. β2 receptor
e. β receptors

i. metoprolol
ii. tamsulosin
iii. clonidine
iv. salbutamol
v. dobutamine
vi. phenylephrine
vii. propranolol
viii. isoprenaline

a. iii.
b. vi.
c. v.
d. iv.
e. viii.
14. α blockers
a. reduce BP
b. increase BP
c. reduce heart rate
d. reduce heart contractility
e. cause bronchiolar contraction

a.
15. The following drugs specifically block which receptors?
a. labetalol
b. prazosin
c. propranolol
d. metopralol
e. phenoxybenzamine

i. α1
ii. α2
iii. β1
iv. β2
v. α
vi. β
vii. α and β
viii. neither α nor β

a. vii.
b. i.
c. vi.
d. iii.
e. v.