1. The S.I.

unit of power is
(a) Henry
(b) coulomb
(c) watt
(d) watt-hour
Ans: c
2. Electric pressure is also called
(a) resistance
(b) power
(c) voltage
(d) energy
Ans: c
3. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer
a low
resistance are called
(a) insulators
(b) inductors
(c) semi-conductors
(d) conductors
Ans: d
4. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?
(a) Cast iron
(b) Copper
(c) Carbon
(d) Tungsten
Ans: b
5. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?
(a) Copper
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Paper
Ans: d
6. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
(a) resistance
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
(d) inductance
Ans: c
7. Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) reluctance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
8. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as
(a) length
(b) area of cross-section
(c) temperature
(d) resistivity
Ans: b
9. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans: a
10. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans: a
11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its thickness
(diameter)
is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is around
(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m
(b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
(c) 1.6 x 10″”8 Q-m
(d) 1.8 x 10″8 Q-m
Ans: c
12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in
parallel.
The total resistance of the combination is
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 10 ohms
(c) 15 ohms
(d) 55 ohms
Ans:a
13. An instrument which detects electric current is known as
(a) voltmeter
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter
(d) galvanometer
Ans: d
14. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage
across the
resistor is
(a) 33 V
(b) 66 v
(c) 80 V
(d) 132 V
Ans: b
15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V. The
resistance
of the light bulb is
(a) 400 Q
(b) 600 Q
(c) 800 Q
(d) 1000 Q
Ans: c
16. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is 12
ohms. If the
resistance of one branch is 18 ohms, what is the resistance of the other ?
(a) 18 Q
(b) 36 Q
(c) 48 Q
(d) 64 Q
Ans: b
17. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the
same
length when connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 Q. If the
same four
wires are connected is series the effective resistance will be
(a) 1 Q
(b) 2 Q
(c) 3 Q
(d) 4 Q
Ans: d
18. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of
resistances 8 ohms and 12 ohms
respectively. The current in each branch is
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A
(b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A
(c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A
(d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A
Ans: b
19. Current velocity through a copper conductor is
(a) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy
(b) independent of current strength
(c) of the order of a few ^.s/m
(d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s
Ans: c
20. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-
efficient of
resistance?
(a) Manganin
(b) Porcelain
(c) Carbon
(d) Copper
Ans: a
21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q
resistor but
have several 1000 Q ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel
(b) two in parallel and one in series
(c) three in parallel
(d) three in series
Ans: b
22. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
(a) same current passes in turn through both
(b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents
(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
Ans: a
23. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a
parallel D.C.
circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents
(b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive
(d) Power are additive
Ans: d
24. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-
efficient of
resistance?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminum
(c) Carbon
(d) Brass
Ans: c
25. Ohm’s law is not applicable to
(a) vacuum tubes
(b) carbon resistors
(c) high voltage circuits
(d) circuits with low current densities
Ans: a
26. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?
(a) Iron
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Ans: b
27. For which of the following ‘ampere second’ could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance
(b) Charge
(c) Power
(d) Energy
Ans: b
28. All of the following are equivalent to watt except
(a) (amperes) ohm
(b) joules/sec.
(c) amperes x volts
(d) amperes/volt
Ans: d
29. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10 W is likely to be a
(a) metallic resistor
(b) carbon resistor
(c) wire wound resistor
(d) variable resistor
Ans: c
30. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature co-
efficient ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
(c) Rubber
(d) Mica
Ans: a
31. Varistors are
(a) insulators
(6) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient
Ans: b
32. Insulating materials have the function of
(a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires
(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
(c) conducting very large currents
(d) storing very high currents
Ans: b
33. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in
(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes
Ans: d
34. The minimum charge on an ion is
(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#) zero
Ans: b
35. In a series circuit with unequal resistances
(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Ans: d
36. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
(a) carbon
(b) aluminium
(c) tungsten
(d) nickel
Ans: c
37. A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of
(a) 2 watts
(b) 4 watts
(c) 6 watts
(d) 8 watts
Ans: c
38. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
Ans: c
39. The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed electrical
circuit is
(a) practically zero
(b) low
(c) high
(d) very high
Ans: a
40. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
(a) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
(b) increases in each branch
(c) is zero in all branches
(d) is zero in the highest resistive branch
Ans: c
41. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its
resistance
becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Ans: a
42. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one
bulb burns
open
(a) there will be heavy current in the main line
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light
(d) the other two bulbs will light
Ans: d
43. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series swift a battery
across
them, which of the following statement is true ?
(a) The current through each bulb in same
(b) The voltage across each bulb is not same
(c) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
44. Two resistances Rl and Ri are connected in series across the voltage
source
where Rl>Ri. The largest drop will be across
(a) Rl
(b) Ri
(c) either Rl or Ri
(d) none of them
Ans: a
45. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive
6.28 x 1018
electrons with potential difference of 20 V across the terminal ?
(a) 5 joules
(b) 10 joules
(c) 15 joules
(d) 20 joules
Ans:
46. A closed switch has a resistance of
(a) zero
(b) about 50 ohms
(c) about 500 ohms
(d) infinity
Ans: a
47. The hot resistance of the bulb’s filament is higher than its cold
resistance
because the temperature co-efficient of the filament is
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) about 2 ohms per degree
Ans: c
48. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current
due to
(a) reactance
(b) capacitance
(c) impedance
(d) resistance
Ans:
49. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided
(a) to prevent leakage of current
(b) to prevent shock
(c) both of above factors
(d) none of above factors
Ans: c
50. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on
(a) the magnitude of voltage on the conductor
(b) the magnitude of current flowing through it
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
51. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a
series
circuit ?
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
(d) Resistance
Ans: b
52. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W
bulb is
replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater output will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
(d) heater will burn out
Ans: b
53. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to boil
the
boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
54. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Ans: d
55. Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
56. Electric current passing through the circuit produces
(a) magnetic effect
(b) luminous effect
(c) thermal effect
(d) chemical effect
(e) all above effects
Ans: c
57. Resistance of a material always decreases if
(a) temperature of material is decreased
(6) temperature of material is increased
(c) number of free electrons available become more
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: c
58. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?
(a) Input power
(b) Losses
(c) True component of power
(d) kWh consumed
(e) Ratio of output to input
Ans: b
59. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its
temperature
rises. This is due to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Ans: a
60. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance
ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Ans: c
61. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
(a) it takes in proton
(b) its atoms are removed
(c) it gives away electrons
(d) it gives away positive charge
Ans: c
62. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in
reducing the magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Ans: d
63. It becomes more difficult to remove
(a) any electron from the orbit
(6) first electron from the orbit
(c) second electron from the orbit
(d) third electron from the orbit
Ans: d
64. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
(a) reduce
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) become zero
Ans: c
65. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total
resistance
of the load
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
66. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V
(alternating).
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter
(b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright
(d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Ans: b
67. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be
(a) 4.84 Q
(b) 48.4 Q
(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q
Ans: c
68. In the case of direct current
(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant
Ans: a
69. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of
bubbling is
observed. This suggests that the type of supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) any of above two
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
70. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
71. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end
Ans: a
72. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) high
(d) any value
Ans: c
73. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is
because
switching operation produces
(a) arcs across separating contacts
(b) mechanical noise of high intensity
(c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
74. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has
high
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) impedance
Ans: b
75. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three
times its
length without change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
(a) 1/9 times
(b) 3 times
(e) 9 times
(d) unchanged
Ans: c
76. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it
after
removing a portion of it, the power of the heater will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
77. A field of force can exist only between
(a) two molecules
(b) two ions
(c) two atoms
(d) two metal particles
Ans: b
78. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called
(a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto
(c) compound
(d) insulator
Ans: c
79. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of
(a) a column of mercury
(b) a cube of carbon
(c) a cube of copper
(d) the unit length of wire
Ans: a
80. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in
series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(a) 9 times
(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times
Ans: b
91. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of
resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm’s law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Ans: d
92. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the
resistance
between any two corners ?
(a) 3/2 Q
(b 6 Q
(c) 4 Q
(d) 8/3 Q
Ans: c
93. Ohm’s law is not applicable to
(a) semi-conductors
(b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors
(d) high currents
Ans: a
94. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area
of one
conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller
crosssectional
area has a resistance of 40 ohms the resistance of other conductor will
be
(a) 160 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms
Ans: d
95. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 £2/m.
For a
heater of 1 kW at 200 V, the length of wire required will be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 20 m
Ans: a
96. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohms/°C
(b) mhos/ohm°C
(e) ohms/ohm°C
(d) mhos/°C
Ans: c
97. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?
(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper
Ans:
98. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring
does not
glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material
Ans: c
99. The condition for the validity under Ohm’s law is that
(a) resistance must be uniform
(b) current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
(c) resistance must be wire wound type
(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at
negative
end
Ans: a
100. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as
between that of
a conductor and an insulator
(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having average
value of
conductivity of metal and insulator
(c) A semi-conductor is one which con¬ducts only half of the applied
voltage
(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting
material and insulator
Ans: a
101. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it
(a) has lower wattage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tapping
Ans: b
102. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper
conductor of
identical cross-section, for the same electrical resistance, is
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 100%
(d) 150%
Ans: a
103. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) high but within tolerance
(d) low but not zero
Ans: b
104. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most
of the
metals but much greater than that of typical insulators.
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor
(c) Semi-conductors
(d) Variable resistors
Ans: c
105. All good conductors have high
(a) conductance
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance
(d) thermal conductivity
Ans: a
106. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
(a) charcoal
(b) silicon carbide
(c) nichrome
(d) graphite
Ans: c
107. Voltage dependent resistors are used
(a) for inductive circuits
(6) to supress surges
(c) as heating elements
(d) as current stabilizers
Ans: b
108. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly
(a) 1840
(b) 1840
(c) 30
(d) 4
Ans: a
109. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: b
110. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W
the total
power supplied by the voltage source equals
(a) 10 W
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W
Ans: d
111. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Ans: c
112. If/, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then
according
to Joule’s law heat produced will be proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*
Ans: a
113. Nichrome wire is an alloy of
(a) lead and zinc
(b) chromium and vanadium
(c) nickel and chromium
(d) copper and silver
Ans: c
114. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one micro
ampere
current to flow through it. The conductance of the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(b) 106 mho
(c) 1 milli-mho
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
115. Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient ?
(a) Compounds of silver
(6) Liquid metals
(c) Metallic alloys
(d) Electrolytes
Ans: d
116. Conductance : mho ::
(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian
Ans: a
117. 1 angstrom is equal to
(a) 10-8 mm
(6) 10″6 cm
(c) 10″10 m
(d) 10~14 m
Ans: c
118. One newton meter is same as
(a) one watt
(b) one joule
(c) five joules
(d) one joule second
Ans: b
1. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the
charges is
doubled, the force will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N
Ans: b
2. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 meters from a point
charge is
200 N/C. If the distance is reduced to 2 meters, the field intensity will be
(a) 400 N/C
(b) 600 N/C
(c) 800 N/C
(d) 1200 N/C
Ans: c
3. The lines of force due to charged particles are
(a) always straight
(b) always curved
(c) sometimes curved
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
4. The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight
charged
conductor is
(a) proportional to d
(b) inversely proportional to d
(c) inversely proportional to d
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
5. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .
(a) away from the charge
(b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
6. A field line and an equipotential surface are
(a) always parallel
(b) always at 90°
(c) inclined at any angle 0
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
7. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne another is
attributed to the
existence of
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) electric field
Ans: d
8. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air
capacitor, the
capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become zero
Ans: b
9. A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its capacitance is
(a) 0.024 F
(b) 0.12 F
(c) 0.6 F
(d) 0.8 F
Ans: a
10. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having
(a) low permittivity
(b) high permittivity
(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air
Ans: b
11. The units of capacitance are
(a) volts/coulomb
(b) coulombs/volt
(c) ohms
(d) henry/Wb
Ans: b
12. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance
is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: a
13. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net
cararitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: b
14. A dielectric material must be
(a) resistor
(b) insulator
(c) good conductor
(d) semi conductor
Ans: b
15. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for
(a) D.C. only
(b) AC. only
(c) both D.C. as well as A.C.
Ans: a
16. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by
(a) distance between plates
(6) area of plates
(c) thickness of plates
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
17. Which of the following is not a vector ?
(a) Linear momentum
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Electric field
(d) Electric potential
Ans: b
18. Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor after being charged from a
constant
voltage source are separated apart by means of insulated handles, then
the
(a) Voltage across the plates increases
(b) voltage across the plates decreases
(c) charge on the capacitor decreases
(d) charge on the capacitor increases
Ans: b
19. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current
can flow
in the circuit because
(a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
(d) discharge current can flow
Ans: a
20. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic
field 100
times greater than air. What will be the value of dielectric constant ?
(a) 50
(6) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
Ans: b
21. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Air capacitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(6) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
(c) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity
(d) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 pF
Ans: b
22. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of
(a) 0.0002
(b) 0.002
(c) 0.02
(d) 0.2
Ans: a
23. “The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding
charges is
equal to the amount oflcharge enclosed”.
The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb’s square law
(b) Gauss’s law
(c) Maxwell’s first law
(d) Maxwell’s second law
Ans: b
24. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant
capacity 2/3 C
can be obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Ans: c
25. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of
the
capacitor remains unaffected ?
(a) Distance between plates
(b) Area of the plates
(c) Nature of dielectric
(d) Thickness of the plates
Ans: d
26. Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly
Ans: b
27. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength
?
(a) E = D/E
(b) E = D2/t
(c) E = jtD
(d) E= nD2
Ans: a
28. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
29. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric
constant?
(a) Glass
(b) Vacuum
(c) Ceramics
(d) Oil
Ans: c
30. Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Silver plated mica capacitor
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
31. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of
capacitance
(c) The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
(d) A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors
Ans: b
32. Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Electrolytic capacitor
(c) Ceramic capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: b
33. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by
inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
34. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value
will be
(a) small
(b) very small
(c) large
(d) zero
Ans: c
35. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above
Ans: a
36. In a capacitive circuit
(a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
(b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
37. When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the
potential
difference between plates will
(a) remain uncharged
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) become zero
Ans: b
38. Capacitance increases with
(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
(b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates
(c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
(d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates
Ans: a
39. A capacitor consists of
(a) two insulators separated by a conductor
(b) two conductors separated by an insulator
(c) two insulators only
(d) two conductors only
Ans: b
40. A gang condenser is a
(a) polarised capacitor
(6) variable capacitor
(c) ceramic capacitor
(d) none of the above
Ans:
41. A paper capacitor is usually available in the form of
(a) tubes
(b) rolled foil
(c) disc
(d) meshed plates
Ans: b
42. Air capacitors are generally available in the range
(a) 10 to 400 pF
(b) 1 to 20 pF
(c) 100 to 900 pF
(d) 20 to 100 pF
Ans: a
43. The unit of capacitance is
(a) henry
(b) ohm
(c) farad
(d) farad/m
Ans: c
44. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of charge. The value of
capacitance
will be
(a) 10 F
(6) 10 uF
(c) 100 nF
(d) 1000 uF
Ans: b
45. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to
wrong
connections, which type of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Any-of the above
Ans: c
46. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged
from a D.C
source of voltage V is equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV
Ans: a
47. The absolute permittivity of free space is given by
(a) 8.854 x 1(T9 F/m)
(6) 8.854 x 1(T10 F/m)
(c) 8.854 x KT11 F/m
(d) 8.854 x 10″12 F/m
Ans: b
48. The relative permittivity of free space is given by
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) 1000
Ans: a
49. Electric field intensity is a quantity
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
50. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store
energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules
Ans: d
51. The capacitor preferred for high frequency circuits is
(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
52. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is
expressed in
terms of
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kVAR
(d) volts
Ans: c
53. While testing a capacitor with ohm meter, if the capacitor shows
charging, but
the final resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be
concluded
that the capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky
Ans: d
54. If a 6 uF capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge in coulombs will
be
(a) 800 uC
(b) 900 uC
(c) 1200 uC
(d) 1600 uC
Ans: c
55. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings ?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Both will be of equal size
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
56. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel
with 50 pF
condenser to make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ?
(a) 50 pF
(b) 100 pF
(c) 150 pF
(d) 200 pF
Ans: b
57. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same
physical
dimensions. Which will have more value of capacitance ?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Both will have identical value of capacitance
(d) It depends on applied voltage
Ans: a
58. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric
constant ?
(a) Ceramics
(b) Oil
(c) Glass
(d) Paper
Ans: b
59. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of
breakdown
voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
60. The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is usually
(a) 20 to 60 volts
(b) 200 to 1600 volts
(c) 2000 to 3000 volts
(d) more than 10000 volts
Ans:
61. Dielectric constant for mica is nearly
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 3 to 8
(d) 1 to 2
Ans: c
62. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10
Ans: b
63. Which of the following capacitors is marked for polarity ?
(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
64. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature
compensation ?
(a) Air capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Paper capacitor
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
65. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower
the voltage
breakdown rating for a capacitor .
(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and
yellow has
the capacitance value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage
breakdown
rating for the combination
(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two
conductors
Ans: b
66. Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of
(a) ± 5%
(b) ± 10%
(c) ± 15%
(d) ± 20%
Ans: b
67. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually
preferred ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic disc capacitor
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
68. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each
and placed
at a distance of 0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10fa
(b) 36 x 107 N
(c) 36 x 108 N
(d) 36 x 109 N
Ans: d
69. The units of volume charge density are
(a) Coulomb/meter
(b) Coulomb/meter
(c) Coulomb/meter
(d) Coulomb/meter
Ans: c
70. “The surface integral of the normal component of the electric
displacement D
over any closed surface equals the charge enclosed by the surface”.
The above statement is associated with
(a) Gauss’s law
(b) Kirchhoff s law
(c) Faraday’s law
(d) Lenz’s law
Ans: a
71. Dielectric strength of mica is
(a) 10 to 20 kV/mm
(6) 30 to 50 kV/mm
(c) 50 to 200 kV/mm
(d) 300 to 500 kV/mm
Ans: c
72. The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of glass is given by
(a) 0.1 to 0.4
(b) 0.5 to 1.0
(c) 2.0 to 4.0
(d) 5 to 100
Ans: d
73. capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.
(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: b
74. capacitors can be used only for D.C.
(a) Air
(b) Paper
(e) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
75. capacitors are used in transistor circuits.
(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: a
76. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling
and
tuning.
(a) Air
(b) Mica
(c) Plastic film
(d) Ceramic
Ans: b
77. The inverse of capacitance is called
(a) reluctance
(b) conductance
(c) susceptance
(d) elastance
Ans: d
78. When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential gradient is
(a) uniform
(b) non-uniform
(c) zero
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
79. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than
across
the material of high permittivity.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
80. ________field is associated with the capacitor.
(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
81. A capacitor having capacitance of 5 uF is charged to a potential
difference of
10,000 V. The energy stored in the capacitor is
(a) 50 joules
(b) 150 joules
(c) 200 joules
(d) 250 joules
Ans: d
82. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm
and the
internal diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in
the cable
is
(a) 62 x 105 V/m
(b) 72 x 105 V/m
(c) 82 x 105 V/m
(d) 92 x 105 V/m
Ans: b
83. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between
them a
potential difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed
between
them is
(a) 0.56 x 1015 m/s2
(b) 1.5 x 1015 m/s2
(c) 1.6 x 1015 m/s2
(d) 1.76 x 1015 m/s2
Ans: d
84. The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) potential gradient
(d) charge
Ans: d
85. The relative permittivity has the following units
(a) F/m
(b) m/F
(c) Wb/m
(d) no units
Ans: c
86. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by
the
nearness of a charged body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Ans: d
87. A unit tube of flux is known as tube
(a) Newton
(b) Faraday
(c) Michale
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
88. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an
electric
field is called
(a) electric flux
(6) electric flux density
(c) magnetic flux density
(d) electric charge density
Ans: a
89. The unit of electric instensity is
(a) N/C2
(b) Wb/m2
(c) N/C
(d) N2/C
Ans:
90. The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found
with the
help of
(a) Faraday’s laws
(b) Kirchhoff s laws
(c) Coulomb’s laws
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
91. at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing
normally
through a unit cross section at that point.
(a) Electric intensity
(6) Magnetic flux density
(c) Electric flux
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
92. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at
that point.
(a) electric flux
(b) magnetic flux density
(c) potential gradient
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
93. Electric displacement is a______quantity.
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
94. at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.
(a) Electric intensity
(6) Electric flux
(c) Magnetic flux
(d) Magnetic flux density
Ans: a
95. The unit of dielectric strength is given by
(a) V/m
(b) V2/m
(c) m/V
(d) m/V2
Ans: a
96. Dielectric strength ______ with increasing thickness
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaltered
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
97. The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its
(a) capacitance
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
98. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage
across it.
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Potential gradient
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
99. A capacitance of 100 fiF is connected in series with a resistance of
8000 £2.
The time constant of the circuit is
(a) 0.2 s
(b) 0.4 s
(c) 0.6 s
(d) 0.8 s
Ans: d
100. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface of
the
(a) earth
(b) conduction
(c) sheath
(d) insulator
Ans: b
101. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during
which
capacitor charging voltage actually rises to ______ percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 62, initial
(c) 62, final
(d) 37, final
Ans: c
102 The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time
during
which the charging current falls to ______ percent of its initial maximum
value,
(a) 37
(b) 42
(c) 63
(d) 73
Ans: a
103. The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by
(a) plate area
(b) plate separation
(c) nature of dielectric
(d) none of the above
(e) all of the above
Ans:
104. A capacitor consists of two
(a) ceramic plates and one mica disc
(b) insulators separated by a dielectric
(c) silver-coated insulators
(d) conductors separated by an insulator
Ans: d
105. Permittivity is expressed in
(a) Farad/sq-m
(b) Farad/meter
(c) Weber/meter
(d) Weber/sq-m
Ans: b
106. Dielectric strength of a material depends on
(a) moisture content
(b) temperature
(c) thickness
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
107. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the
breakdown voltage is applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
Ans: c
108. Which medium has the least dielectric strength ?
(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Quartz
(c) Glass
(d) Air
Ans: d
109. 1 volt/meter is same as
(a) 1 meter/coulomb
(6) 1 newton meter
(c) 1 newton/meter
(d) 1 joule/coulomb
Ans: c
110. One volt is the same as
(a) one joule/coulomb
(b) one coulomb/joule
(c) one coulomb
(d) one joule
Ans: a
111. The capacitance between two plates increases with
(a) shorter plate area and higher applied voltage
(6) shorter plate area and shorter distance between them
(c) larger plate area, longer distance between plates and higher,applied
voltage
(d) larger plate area and shorter distance between plates
Ans: d
112. The capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time
constant of the
charging circuit is given by
(a) CIR
(b) 1/RC
(c) RC
(d) RIC
Ans: c
113. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the
capacitance is
(a) Wien’s bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay’s bridge
Ans: c
114. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and
stays there,
capacitor is
(a) charged
(b) short-circuited
(c) lossy
(d) satisfactory
Ans: b
115. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will
have the
smallest dimensions ?
(a) Aluminium foil capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: c
116. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then
(a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then
attracted
towards the charging body
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by
induction
(d) it remains as such
Ans: b
117. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one
increases the
(a) charge of the charged conductor
(6) capacity of the charged conductor
(c) potential of the charged conductor
(d) all of the above
Ans: b
118. Paper condenser is
(a) always polarised
(6) usually of fixed value
(c) electrolytic condenser
(d) a variable condenser
Ans: b
119. Mica capacitors are characterised by all of the following except
(a) stable operation
(b) accurate value
(c) low leakage reactance
(d) low losses
Ans: c
120. A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which
are 4 mm
apart. The strength of electric field is
(a) 100 kV/m
(b) 10 kV/m
(c) 5 kV/m
(d) 2 kV/m
Ans: a
121. For a good 0.05 uF capacitor ohmmeter reading should
(a) show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high
resistance
(6) show high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance
(c) go quickly to 50 ohm approximately and remain there
(d) not move at all
Ans: a
122. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is
(a) infinity
(b) few kilo ohms
(c)few megohms
(d) zero
Ans: d
123. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 5 to 20 uF
(b) Air capapitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(c) Electrolytic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
(d) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
Ans: c
124. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency
circuits ?
(a) Air capacitor
(6) Electrolytic capacitor
(c) Mica capacitor
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
125. An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to provide
(a) low capacitance
(b) fixed capacitance
(c) variable capacitance
(d) large value of capacitance
Ans: d
126. In order to remove static electricity from machinery
(a) construct insulated cabins
(b) insulate the machinery
(c) ground the framework
(d) humidify the surroundings
Ans: c
127. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal and
similar
charges, then this third charge will
(a) move out of the field of influence of the two charges
(b) remain in stable equilibrium
(c) not be in equilibrium
(d) be in unstable equilibrium
Ans: b
128. A region around a stationary electric charge has
(a) an electric field
(b) a magnetic field
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
129. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in
(a) insulation
(b) conductor
(c) outer sheath
(d) uniformly all over
Ans: a
130. Dielectric strength of medium
(a) increases with rise in temperature
(b) increases with moisture content
(c) is same for all insulating materials
(d) none of the above
Ans: d
131. Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar
charge
repels with a force of 9 x 10 N, is known as
(a) milli-coulomb
(b) micro-coulomb
(c) pico-coulomb
(d) coulomb
Ans: b
132. Dielectric strength of a medium is usually expressed in
(a) J/mm
(b) C/m2
(c) kV/mm
(d) N/mm
Ans: c
133. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When
they are
moved close together so that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force
between
them will be
(a) 5 times smaller than before
(b) 5 times greater than before
(c) 10 times greater than before
(d) 25 times larger than before
Ans: d
134. Which is the most superior dielectric out of the following ?
(a) Air
(b) Glass
(c) Bakelite
(d) Paper
Ans: c
135. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the field strength
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) reduces to zero
(d) remain unchanged
Ans: a
136. To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat leather
(a) surface is moistened
(b) conductive dressing is done
(c) oil compound dressing is done
(d) talcum powder is sprayed on the surface
Ans: b
137. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase
motor ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Ceramic capacitor
Ans: c
148. A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in
circuit
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
149. A condenser suitable for D.C. only is
(a) metallic plate variable gang condenser
(b) metallic paper capacitor
(c) oil impregrated paper condenser
(d) poled aluminium electrolytic condenser
Ans: d
150. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) dielectric as well as metal plates
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
1. Tesla is a unit of
(a) field strength
(b) inductance
(c) flux density
(d) flux
Ans: c
2. A permeable substance is one
(a) which is a good conductor
(6) which is a bad conductor
(c) which is a strong magnet
(d) through which the magnetic lines of force can pass very easily
Ans: d
3. The materials having low retentivity are suitable for making
(a) weak magnets
(b) temporary magnets
(c) permanent magnets
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
4. A magnetic field exists around
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) moving charges
Ans: d
5. Ferrites are materials.
(a) paramagnetic
(b) diamagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
6. Air gap has_______eluctance as compared to iron or steel path
(a) little
(b) lower
(c) higher
(d) zero
Ans: b
7. The direction of magnetic lines of force is
(a) from south pole to north pole
(b) from north pole to south pole
(c) from one end of the magnet to another
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
8. Which of the following is a vector quantity ?
(a) Relative permeability
(b) Magnetic field intensity
(c) Flux density
(d) Magnetic potential
Ans: b
9. The two conductors of a transmission line carry equal current I in
opposite
directions. The force on each conductor is
(a) proportional to 7
(b) proportional to X
(c) proportional to distance between the conductors
(d) inversely proportional to I
Ans: b
10. A material which is slightly repelled by a magnetic field is known as
(a) ferromagnetic material
(b) diamagnetic material
(c) paramagnetic material
(d) conducting material
Ans: b
11. When an iron piece is placed in a magnetic field
(a) the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in
order to go
away from the piece
(b) the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in
order to
pass through the piece
(c) the magnetic field will not be affected
(d) the iron piece will break
Ans: b
12. Fleming’s left hand rule is used to find
(a) direction of magnetic field due to current carrying conductor
(b) direction of flux in a solenoid
(c) direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field
(d) polarity of a magnetic pole
Ans: c
13. The ratio of intensity of magnetisation to the magnetisation force is
known as
(a) flux density
(b) susceptibility
(c) relative permeability
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
14. Magnetising steel is normals difficult because
(a) it corrodes easily
(6) it has high permeability
(c) it has high specific gravity
(d) it has low permeability
Ans: d
15. The left hand rule correlates to
(a) current, induced e.m.f. and direction of force on a conductor
(b) magnetic field, electric field and direction of force on a conductor
(c) self induction, mutual induction and direction of force on a conductor
(d) current, magnetic field and direction of force on a conductor
Ans: d
16. The unit of relative permeability is
(a) henry/metre
(b) henry
(c) henry/sq. m
(d) it is dimensionless
Ans: d
17. A conductor of length L has current I passing through it, when it is
placed
parallel to a magnetic field. The force experienced by the conductor will
be
(a) zero
(b) BLI
(c) B2LI
(d) BLI2
Ans: a
18. The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely
proportional to
(a) radius of conductors
(b) current in one conductor
(c) product of current in two conductors
(d) distance between the conductors
Ans: d
19. Materials subjected to rapid reversal of magnetism should have
(a) large area oiB-H loop
(b) high permeability and low hysteresis loss
(c) high co-ercivity and high retentivity
(d) high co-ercivity and low density
Ans: b
20. Indicate which of the following material does not retain magnetism
permanently.
(a) Soft iron
(b) Stainless steel
(e) Hardened steel
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
21. The main constituent of permalloy is
(a) cobalt
(b) chromium
(c) nickel
(d) tungsten
Ans: c
22. The use of permanent magnets is. not made in
(a) magnetoes
(6) energy meters
(c) transformers
(d) loud-speakers
Ans: c
23. Paramagnetic materials have relative permeability
(a) slightly less than unity
(b) equal to unity
(c) slightly more than unity
(d) equal to that ferromagnetic mate rials
Ans: c
24. Degaussing is the process of
(a) removal of magnetic impurities
(b) removing gases from the materials
(c) remagnetising metallic parts
(d) demagnetising metallic parts
Ans:
25. Substances which have permeability less than the permeability of
free space
are known as
(a) ferromagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
(d) bipolar
Ans: c
26. Two infinitely long parallel conductors in vacuum any separated 1
metre
between centers >then a current of 1 ampere flows the. uk each
conductor,
produce on each other a force of
(a) 2 x 1(T2 N/m)
(b) 2 x KT3 N/m
(c) 2 x 10″5 N/m
(d) 2x 1(T7 N/m)
Ans: d
27. In the left hand rule, forefinger always represents
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) magnetic field
(d) direction of force on the conductor
Ans: c
28. Which of the following is a ferromagnetic material ?
(a) Tungsten
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Nickel
Ans: d
29. Ferrites are a sub-group of
(a) non-magnetic materials
(6) ferro-magnetic materials
(c) paramagnetic materials
(d) ferri-magnetic materials
Ans: d
30. Gilbert is a unit of
(a) electromotive force
(6) magnetomotive force
(c) conductance
(d) permittivity
Ans: b
31. The working of a meter is based on the use of a permanent magnet.
In order to
protect the meter functioning from stray magnetic fields
(a) meter is surrounded by strong magnetic fields
(b) a soft iron shielding is used
(c) a plastic shielding is provided
(d) a shielding of anon-magnetic material is used
Ans: b
32. Reciprocal of permeability is
(a) reluctivity
(b) susceptibility
(c) permittivity
(d) conductance
Ans: a
33. The relative permeability is less than unity is case of
(a) ferromagnetic materials
(b) ferrites
(c) non-ferrous materials
(d) diamagnetic materials
Ans: d
34. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density ?
(a) weber
(b) lumens
(c) tesla
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
35. The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field has been removed
is known
as
(a) permeance
(b) residual magnetism
(c) susceptance
(d) reluctance
Ans: b
36. Which of the following is not a unit of flux?
(a) Maxwell
(b) Telsa
(c) Weber
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
37. Which of the following is expected to have the maximum permeability
?
(a) Brass
(b) Copper
(c) Zinc
(d) Ebonite
Ans: d
38. One telsa is equal to
(a) 1 Wb/mm2
(b) 1 Wb/m
(c) 1 Wb/m2
(d) 1 mWb/m2
Ans: c
39. Out of the following statements, concerning an electric field, which
statement
is not true ?
(a) The electric intensity is a vector quantity
(b) The electric field intensity at a point is numerically equal to the force
exerted
upon a charge placed at that point
(c) An electric field is defined as a point in space at which an electric
charge
would experience a force
(d) Unit field intensity in the exertion of a force of one newton on a
charge of one
coulomb
Ans: b
40. When a magnet is in motion relative to a coil the induced e.m.f. does
not
depend upon
(a) resistance of the coil
(b) motion of the magnet
(c) number of turns of the coil
(d) pole strength of the magnet
Ans: a
41. One maxwell is equal to
(a) 10 webers
(b) 10 webers
(c) 10 webers
(d) 10 webers
Ans: d
42. When two ends of a circular uniform wire are joined to the terminals
of a
battery, the field at the center of the circle
(a) will be zero
(b) will be infinite
(c) will depend on the amount of e.m.f. applied
(d) will depend on the radius of the circle
Ans: d
43. Susceptibility is positive for
(a) non-magnetic substances
(b) diamagnetic substances
(c) ferromagnetic substances
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
44. Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the conductors are
separated by
20 mm, the force per meter of length of each conductor will be
(a) 100 N
(b) 10 N
(c) 1 N
(d) 0.1 N
Ans: d
45. A 300 mm long conductor is carrying a current of 10 A and is
situated at right
angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.8 T ; the force on the
conductor will be
(a) 240 N
(6) 24 N
(c) 2.4 N
(d) 0.24 N
Ans: c
46. A 200 turn coil having an axial length of 30 mm and a radius of 10
mm is
pivoted in a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.8 T. If the coil
carries a
current of 0.5 A, the torque acting on the coil will be
(a) 8 N-m
(b) 0.48 N-m
(e) 0.048 N-m
(d) 0.0048 N-m
[Hint. Torque = 2BIlNr N-m]
Ans: c
47. The electromagnet has 50 turns and a current of 1A flows through
the coil. If
the length of the magnet circuit is 200 mm, what is the magnetic field
strength ?
(a) 2500 AT/m
(b) 250 AT/m
(c) 25 AT/m
(d) 2.5 AT/m
Ans: b
48. What is the magnitude and the direction of force per 1.1m length of a
pair of
conductors of a direct current linecarrying 10 amperes and spaced 100
mm apart ?
(a) 22 x 10″8 N
(b) 22 x 10″7 N
(c) 22 x 10-6 N
(d) 22 x 10″5 N
Ans: d
49. A square cross-sectional magnet has a pole strength of 1 x 10 Wb and
cross
sectional area of 20 mm x 20 mm. What is the strength at a distance of
100 mm
from the unit pole in air ?
(a) 63.38 N/Wb
(b) 633.8 N/Wb
(c) 6338 N/Wb
(d) 63380 N/Wb
Ans: c
50. The unit of flux is the same as that of
(a) reluctance
(b) resistance
(c) permeance
(d) pole strength
Ans: d
51. Unit for quantity of electricity is
(a) ampere-hour
(b) watt
(c) joule
(d) coulomb
Ans: d
52. The Biot-savart’s law is a general modification of
(a) Kirchhoffs law
(b) Lenz’s law
(c) Ampere’s law
(d) Faraday’s laws
Ans: c
53. The most effective and quickest may of making a magnet from soft
iron is by
(a) placing it inside a coil carrying current
(b) induction
(c) the use of permanent magnet
(d) rubbing with another magnet
Ans: a
54. The commonly used material for shielding or screening magnetism is
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) soft iron
(d) brass
Ans: c
55. If a copper disc is rotated rapidly below a freely suspended magnetic
needle,
the magnetic needle shall start rotating with a velocity
(a) less than that of disc but in opposite direction
(b) equal to that of disc and in the same direction
(c) equal to that of disc and in the opposite direction
(d) less than that of disc and in the same direction
Ans: d
56. A permanent magnet
(a) attracts some substances and repels others
(b) attracts all paramagnetic substances and repels others
(c) attracts only ferromagnetic substances
(d) attracts ferromagnetic substances and repels all others
Ans: a
57. The retentivity (a property) of material is useful for the construction
of
(a) permanent magnets
(b) transformers
(c) non-magnetic substances
(d) electromagnets
Ans: a
58. The relative permeability of materials is not constant.
(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) insulating
Ans: c
59. The materials are a bit inferior conductors of magnetic flux than air.
(a) ferromagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
(d) dielectric
Ans: c
60. Hysteresis loop in case of magnetically hard materials is more in
shape as
compared to magnetically soft materials.
(a) circular
(b) triangular
(c) rectangular
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
61. A rectangular magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two piece of
same
length, the magnetic moment of each piece will be
(a) M
(6) M/2
(c) 2 M
(d) M/4
Ans: b
62. A keeper is used to
(a) change the direction of magnetic lines
(b) amplify flux
(c) restore lost flux
(d) provide a closed path for flux
Ans: d
63. Magnetic moment is a
(a) pole strength
(6) universal constant
(c) scalar quantity
(d) vector quantity
Ans: d
64. The change of cross-sectional area of conductor in magnetic field will
affect
(a) reluctance of conductor
(b) resistance of conductor
(c) (a) and (b) both in the same way
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
65. The uniform magnetic field is
(a) the field of a set of parallel conductors
(b) the field of a single conductor
(c) the field in which all lines of magnetic flux are parallel and
equidistant
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
66. The magneto-motive force is
(a) the voltage across the two ends of exciting coil
(b) the flow of an electric current
(c) the sum of all currents embraced by one line of magnetic field
(d) the passage of magnetic field through an exciting coil
Ans: c
67. What will be the current passing through the ring shaped air cored
coil when
number of turns is 800 and ampere turns are 3200 ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
68. What will be the magnetic potential difference across the air gap of 2
cm
length in magnetic field of 200 AT/m ?
(a) 2 AT
(b) 4 AT
(c) 6 AT
(d) 10 AT
Ans: b
69. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is lower than its outside
surface
(6) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is zero
(e) The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is greater than its outside
surface
(d) The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is same as on its outside
surface
Ans: d
70. A certain amount of current flows through a ring-shaped coil with
fixed
number of turns. How does the magnetic induction B varies inside the
coil if an
iron core is threaded into coil without dimensional change of coil ?
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains same
(d) First increases and then decreases depending on the depth of iron
in¬sertion
Ans: b
71. The magnetic reluctance of a material
(a) decreases with increasing cross sectional area of material
(6) increases with increasing cross-sec-tional area of material
(c) does not vary with increasing cross-sectional area of material
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
72. The initial permeability of an iron rod is
(a) the highest permeability of the iron rod
(b) the lowest permeability of the iron rod
(c) the permeability at the end of the iron rod
(d) the permeability almost in non-magnetised state
Ans: d
73. How does the magnetic compass needle behave in a magnetic field ?
(a) It assures a position right angle to magnetic field
(b) It starts rotating
(c) It assures a position which follows a line of magnetic flux
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
74. In a simple magnetic field the strength of magnet flux
(a) is constant and has same value in energy part of the magnetic field
(6) increases continuously from initial value to final value
(c) decreases continuously from initial value to final value
(d) first increases and then decreases till it becomes zero
Ans: d
75. The stray line of magnetic flux is defined as
(a) a line vertical to the flux lines
(b) the mean length of a ring shaped coil
(c) a line of magnetic flux in a non-uniform field
(d) a line of magnetic flux which does not follow the designed path
Ans: d
76. The bar magnet has
(a) the dipole moment
(b) monopole moment
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
77. Which of the following materials are diamagnetic ?
(a) Silver
(b) Copper
(c) Silver and copper
(d) Iron
Ans: c
78. Which of the following type of materials are not very important for
engineering applications ?
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Diamagnetic
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
79. The susceptibility of paramagnetic materials generally lies between
(a) KT3 and 1CT6
(b) 1CT3 and 1CT7
(c) KT4 and KT8
(d) 10″2 and KT5
Ans: a
91. For which of the following materials the saturation value is the
highest ?
(a) Ferromagnetic materials
(6) Paramagnetic materials
(c) Diamagnetic materials
(d) Ferrites
Ans: d
92. The magnetic materials exhibit the property of magnetisation
because of
(a) orbital motion of electrons
(b) spin of electrons
(c) spin of nucleus
(d) either of these
(e) all of the above
Ans: c
93. For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment should
be zero ?
(a) Diamagnetic materials
(b) Ferrimagnetic materials
(c) Antiferromagnetic materials
(d) Antiferrimagnetic materials
Ans: c
94. The attraction capacity of electromagnet will increase if the
(a) core length increases i
(b) core area increases
(c) flux density decreases
(d) flux density increases
Ans: d
95. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) The conductivity of ferrites is better than ferromagnetic materials
(b) The conductivity of ferromagnetic materials is better than ferrites
(c) The conductivity of ferrites is very high
(d) The conductivity of ferrites is same as that of ferromagnetic materials
Ans: a
96. Temporary magnets are used in
(a) loud-speakers
(b) generators
(c) motors
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
97. Main causes of noisy solenoid are
(a) strong tendency of fan out of laminations at the end caused by
repulsion
among magnetic lines of force
(b) uneven bearing surface, caused by dirt or uneven wear between
moving and
stationary parts
(c) both of above
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
98. Strength of an electromagnet can be increased by
(a) increasing the cross-sectional area
(b) increasing the number of turns
(c) increasing current supply
(d) all above methods
Ans:
99. Core of an electromagnet should have
(a) low coercivity
(6) high susceptibility
(c) both of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
100. Magnetism of a magnet can be destroyed by
(a) heating
(b) hammering
(c) by inductive action of another magnet
(d) by all above methods
Ans: d
1. “The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional
to the
quantity of electricity”.
The above statement is associated with
(a) Newton’s law
(b) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic
(c) Faraday’s law of electrolysis
(d) Gauss’s law
Ans: c
2. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance
is known
as ______ constant
(a) time
(b) Faraday’s
(c) Boltzman
Ans: b
3. During the charging of a lead-acid cell
(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
4. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its
(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b
5. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid
battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Ans: a
6. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully
charged leadacid
battery are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
(c) lead peroxide and lead
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
7. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of its
positive
plate is
(a) dark grey
(b) brown
(c) dark brown
(d) none of above
Ans: c
8. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are
(a) nickel hydroxide
(6) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
9. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-
acid cell is
(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
10. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is
given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
11. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
(a) nickel-cadmium battery
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
12. The output voltage of a charger is
(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
13. Cells are connected in series in order to
(a) increase the voltage rating
(6) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
14. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel.
The output voltage is
(a) 1 V
(6) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: d
15. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
(a) current rating
(b) voltage rating
(e) ampere-hour rating
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
16. Duringthe charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell
(a) corrosive fumes are produced
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant
Ans: b
17. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system
of
charging a lead acid cell has the advantage of
(a) reducing time of charging
(b) increasing cell capacity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) avoiding excessive gassing
Ans: c
18. A dead storage battery can be revived by
(a) adding distilled water
(6) adding so-called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
(d) none of the above
Ans: d
19. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is
less due to
its
(a) compactness
(b) lower e.m.f.
(c) small quantity of electrolyte used
(d) higher internal resistance
Ans: d
20. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to
(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
Ans: d
21. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical
combination
and hence produce electricity during charging or discharging are known
as______materials.
(a) passive
(b) active
(c) redundant
(d) inert
Ans: b
22. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately
comprises
the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Ans: c
23. It is noticed that durum charging
(a) there is a rise in voltage
(6) energy is absorbed by the cell
(c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased
(d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe) and cathode
becomes
grey metallic lead (Pb)
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
24. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen
(a) both anode and cathode become PbS04
(b) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
(c) voltage of the cell decreases
(d) the cell absorbs energy
Ans: d
25. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between
(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: d
26. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies between
(a) 25 to 35%
(b) 40 to 60%
(c) 70 to 80%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: c
27. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in
(a) amperes
(b) ampere-hours
(c) watts
(d) watt-hours
Ans: b
28. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on
(a) rate of discharge
(b) temperature
(c) density of electrolyte
(d) quantity of active materials
(e) all above
Ans: e
29. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _____
appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky
Ans: d
30. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is nearly
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 1 V
(c) 0.9 V
(d) 0.8 V
Ans: a
31. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly _____ times that of
the leadacid
cell.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Ans: d
32. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: c
33. On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is about
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Ans: d
34. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is
(a) silver oxide
(b) lead oxide
(c) lead
(d) zinc powder
Ans: a
35. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500
(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1250
Ans: d
36. Life of the Edison cell is at least
(a) five years
(b) seven years
(c) eight years
(d) ten years
Ans: a
37. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
38. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) HC1
(d) HN03
Ans: b
39. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4
Ans: d
40. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of
(a) copper
(b) lead
(c) iron
(d) silver oxide
Ans: c
41. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon
(a) its chemical constituents
(b) on the strength of its electrolyte
(c) its temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
42. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Ans: c
43. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is
reduced to 1.1
to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) active state
Ans: b
44. In ______ system the charging current is intermittently controlled at
either a
maximum or minimum value
(a) two rate charge control
(b) trickle charge
(c) floating charge
(d) an equalizing charge
Ans: a
45. Over charging
(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Ans: d
46. Undercharging
(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature
Ans: a
47. Internal short circuits are caused by
(a) breakdown of one or more separators
(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
48. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
49. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates
happens
because of
(a) allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a long time
(b) topping up with electrolyte
(c) persistent undercharging
(d) low level of electrolyte
(e) all above
Ans: e
50. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy
during the
charge are called ______ materials
(a) active
(b) passive
(c) inert
(d) dielectric
Ans: a
51. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as
(a) positive active material
(b) negative active material
(c) passive material
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
52. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond
(a) 1.8 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: a
53. On overcharging a battery
(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur
Ans: d
54. Each cell has a vent cap
(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions
Ans: d
55. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Ans: d
56. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from
discharged to
fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
57. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of
(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Ans: d
58. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from
discharged to
fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
59. Battery charging equipment is generally installed
(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and dry place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features
Ans: d
60. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes
more than
1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Ans: d
61. Batteries are charged by
(a) rectifiers
(b) engine generator sets
(c) motor generator sets
(d) any one of the above methods
Ans: d
62. Cell short circuit results in
(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature
(c) reduced gassing on charge
(d) all above
Ans: d
63. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by
(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
64. Capacity of dry cells is
(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
65. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up
of
(a) glass
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) all above
Ans: d
66. Sulphated cells are indicated by
(a) the loss of capacity of the cell
(6) the decrease of the specific gravity
(c) the low voltage of the cell on discharge
(d) all above conditions
Ans: d
67. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it
will require
following ratio of acid to water to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Ans: c
68. Local action in a battery is indicated by
(a) excessive gassing under load conditions
(b) excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the cell
is on
open circuit
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: d
69. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur
Ans: d
70. Internal resistance of a cell is due to
(a) resistance of electrolyte
(b) electrode resistance
(c) surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte
(d) all above
Ans: d
71. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen
(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Ans: d
72. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G.
should be
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) undisturbed
(d) displaced sideways
Ans: a
73. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will
happen.
(a) Capacity of cell will reduce
(b) Sulphation of plates will occur
(c) Internal resistance will increase
(d) All above will occur
Ans: d
74. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order.
(a) Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell
(b) Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell
(c) Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell
(d) Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell
Ans: a
75. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear
(a) goggles or other face shield
(b) rubber
(c) rubber boots and gloves
(d) all above safety devices
Ans: d
76. Excessive charging a battery tends to
(a) produce gassing
(b) increase the internal resistance of the battery
(c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening
them
physically
(d) bring about all above changes
Ans: d
77. Shelf life of a small dry cell is
(a) equal to that of large dry cell
(6) less than that of large dry cell
(c) more than that of large dry cell
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
78. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of
(a) ions
(b) holes
(c) electrons
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
79. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be _____ the level of plates
(a) below
(b) equal to
(c) above
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
80. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and
negative plates
is changed to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04
Ans: d
81 _____ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Ans: d
82. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Ans: d
83. Dry cell is modification of
(a) Deniell cell
(b) Leclanche cell
(e) Lead-acid cell
(d) Edison cell
Ans: b
84. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in
(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh
Ans: a
85. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is
(a) dilute sulphuric acid
(b) concentrated sulphuric acid
(c) NaOH
(d) KOH
Ans: d
86. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is _____ Edison cell.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
(d) much more than
Ans: b
87. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on ____ hours
discharge rate.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans: a
88. The body of Edison cell is made of
(a) bakelite
(b) rubber
(c) nickel plated steel
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
89. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.95
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.21
Ans: d
90. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should
be by
(a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
(c) rigid cables
(d) flexible cables
Ans: d
91. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _____ volts from fully charged
state to
fully discharged state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9
Ans: c
92. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte tends to
change the
active material of the cell into
(a) Pb02
(6) PbSC-4
(c) PbO
(d) Pb
Ans: b
93. Chargmg of sulphated battery produces ____ heat.
(a) no
(b) very little
(c) less
(d) more
Ans: d
94. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when
it is
more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Ans: d
95. Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of ____ volts.
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
96. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon
(a) amount of moisture
(b) type of metals
(c) type of soil chemicals
(d) all above factors
Ans: d
97. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics ?
(a) Flat discharge current-voltage curve
(6) High power to weight ratio
(c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high
temperature
and humidity
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
98. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in
(a) boiling of electrolyte due to gassing
(b) warping of plates
(c) damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to
excessive
temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
99. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused
(a) buckling of plates
(b) faulty separators
(c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates
(d) excessive accumulation of sediment
(e) any one of above
Ans: e
100. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top
of the
battery container. This is done
(a) to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte
(b) to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte
(c) to discharge both of the above functions
(d) to discharge none of the above functions
Ans: c
101. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s) become
necessary ?
(a) Two electrodes of different meta’s should be inserted in the
electrolyte, not
touching each other
(b) Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the electrodes
(c) Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
(d) All above three conditions are necessary
Ans: d
102. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbon-zinc
Ans: c
103. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
(a) Manganese-alkaline
(6) Carbon-zinc
(c) Lithium
(d) Mercury
Ans: c
104. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery
(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
Ans: b
105. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?
(a) Lead-acid battery
(b) Nickel-iron battery
(c) Dry cell battery
(d) Silver oxide battery
Ans: b
106. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical reaction ?
(a) Lead-acid
(b) Mercury oxide
(c) Carbon-zinc
(d) Silver-oxide
Ans: a
107. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
Ans: c
108. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V
(a) Dilute H2S04
(6) Concentrated H2SO4
(c) Water
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
109. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be
(a) 10% of capacity
(b) 20% of capacity
(c) 30% of capacity
(d) 40% of capacity
Ans: a
110. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured
that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere-hour capacity
(d) they have identical internal resistance
Ans: a
111. A typical output of a solar cell is
(a) 0.1V
(b) 0.26 V
(c) 1.1 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: b
112. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-
acid
battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Ans: d
113. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of
the
following will be maximum ?
(a) Current
(b) Efficiency of the circuit
(c) Power in the load resistance
(d) Voltage across the load resistance
Ans: c
114. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is
(a) chlorine
(b) dust particles
(c) lead crystals
(d) iron
Ans: d
115. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of
(a) charged ions
(b) chemical energy
(c) electrostatic energy
(d) electromagnetic energy
Ans: b
116. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an
automobile
battery ?
(a) Brake light
(b) Self starter
(c) Parking lights
(d) Spark plugs
Ans: b
117. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the
leadacid
battery ?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
118. Cells are connected in parallel to
(a) increase the efficiency
(b) increase the current capacity
(c) increase the voltage output
(d) increase the internal resistance
Ans: b
119. A constant-voltage generator has
(a) minimum efficiency
(b) minimum current capacity
(c) low internal resistance
(d) high internal resistance
Ans: c
120. Satellite power requirement is provided through
(a) solar cells
(b) dry cells
(c) nickel-cadmium cells
(d) lead-acid batteries
Ans: a
1. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the
current
through the coil changes is known as
(a) self-inductance
(b) mutual inductance
(c) series aiding inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
2. As per Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is
induced in a
conductor whenever it
(a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux
(b) lies in a magnetic field
(e) cuts magnetic flux
(d) moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
Ans: c
3. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the
electromagnetic
field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistance
Ans: a
4. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following
conditions except
(a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided
(6) when the number of turns of the coil increase
(c) when more area for each turn is provided
(d) when permeability of the core increases
Ans: a
5. Higher the self-inductance of a coil,
(a) lesser its weber-turns
(b) lower the e.m.f. induced
(c) greater the flux produced by it
(d) longer the delay in establishing steady current through it
Ans: d
6. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes
an air
cored coil. The inductance of the coil will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) initially increase and then decrease
Ans: b
7. An open coil has
(a) zero resistance and inductance
(b) infinite resistance and zero inductance
(c) infinite resistance and normal inductance
(d) zero resistance and high inductance
Ans: b
8. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are
doubled.
Its self-inductance will be
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled
Ans: b
9. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz’s law self-
induced
voltage will
(a) aid the increasing current
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
(c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current
(d) aid the applied voltage
Ans: c
10. The direction of induced e.m.f. can be found by
(a) Laplace’s law
(b) Lenz’s law
(c) Fleming’s right hand rule
(d) Kirchhoff s voltage law
Ans: b
11. Air-core coils are practically free from
(a) hysteresis losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
12. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the
(a) flux density of the magnetic field
(b) amount of flux cut
(c) amount of flux linkages
(d) rate of change of flux-linkages
Ans: d
13. Mutually inductance between two magnetically-coupled coils
depends on
(a) permeability of the core
(b) the number of their turns
(c) cross-sectional area of their common core
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
14. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because
(a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
(b) the laminations are insulated from each other
(c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
(d) the laminations are stacked vertfcally
Ans: b
15. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause
producing them is due to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulomb
Ans: b
16. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance ?
(a) Henry
(b) Coulomb/volt ampere
(c) Volt second per ampere
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
17. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to
(a) voltage across the inductance
(b) magnetic field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
18. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in
circuit
current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
19. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true ?
(a) Apparent power is zero
(b) Relative power is.zero
(c) Actual power of the circuit is zero
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged
Ans: c
20. Which of the following is unit of inductance ?
(a) Ohm
(b) Henry
(c) Ampere turns
(d) Webers/metre
Ans: b
21. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of
change
of current must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4 A/s
Ans: d
22. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is 6
mH. If
the core length is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same, the
inductance will be
(a) 3 mH
(b) 12 mH
(c) 24mH
(d)48mH
Ans: a
23. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-
efficients of
coupling is 0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is
(a) 4 mH
(b) 5 mH
(c) 6 mH
(d) 12 mH
Ans: c
24. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of
coupling
of 0.5. If the two coils are connected in series aiding, the total
inductance will be
(a) 32 mH
(b) 38 mH
(c) 40 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: b
25. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is
increased to 400 turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining
the same,
the inductance will be
(a) 6 mH
(b) 14 mH
(c) 24 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: d
26. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual
inductance being
zero. If the two coils are connected in series, the total inductance will be
(a) 6 H
(b) 8 H
(c) 12 H
(d) 24 H
Ans: c
27. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-
efficient
of coupling will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
Ans: b
28. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The
inductive
reactance is
(a) 50 ohms
(b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 5000 ohms
Ans: d
29. A conductor 2 meters long moves at right angles to a magnetic field
of flux
density 1 tesla with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the
conductor will
be
(a) 10 V
(6) 15 V
(c) 25V
(d) 50V
Ans: c
30. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) induced current
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) induced e.m.f.
Ans: c
31. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a magnetic
field of 1.1
tesla. The force on the conductor will be
nearly
(a) 50 N
(b) 120 N
(c) 240 N
(d) 480 N
Ans: b
32. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50
amperes
at right angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla.
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N
(c) 600 N
(d) 1000 N
Ans: a
33. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
34. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a
result of a
change in flux which occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change is
(a) 20 Wb
(b) 2 Wb
(c) 0.2 Wb
(d) 0.02 Wb
Ans: d
35. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V.
Over what
time interval must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a
voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5 s
Ans: c
36. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current
losses ?
(a) Air core
(b) Laminated iron core
(c) Iron core
(d) Powdered iron core
Ans: a
37. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s.
The
value of inductance is
(a) 3500 mH
(b) 350 mH
(c) 250 mH
(d) 150 mH
Ans: b
38. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total
inductance of
(a) 300 uH
(b) 600 uH
(c) 150 uH
(d) 75 uH
Ans: b
39. Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second induced 20 volts in
a coil.
The value of inductance is
(a) 5 mH
(b) 10 mH
(c) 5 H
(d) 10 H
Ans: c
40. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only
(c) Capacitance only
(d) Inductance and capacitance
Ans: b
41. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in
(a) unchanged inductance
(b) increased inductance
(c) zero inductance
(d) reduced inductance
Ans: d
42. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced
voltage
in the coil is not affected by
(a) variation in coil current
(b) variation in voltage to the coil
(c) change of number of turns of coil
(d) the resistance of magnetic path
Ans: b
43. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor
that is
moving.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans:
44. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the
left-hand
generator rule.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
45. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force
on the
conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
46. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the
conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
49. When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8 with
the
lines of flux, the force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
50. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the e.m.f.
induced
in volts when the current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit Weber
turns.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
1. Laminations of core are generally made of
(a) case iron
(b) carbon
(c) silicon steel
(d) stainless steel
Ans: c
2. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of
laminations of a D.C. machine ?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
3. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to
(a) reduce the bulk
(b) provide the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss
Ans:d
4. The resistance of armature winding depends on
(a) length of conductor
(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
5. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors
by means
of
(a) copper lugs
(b) resistance wires
(c) insulation pads
(d) brazing
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
9. According to Fleming’s right-hand rule for finding the direction of
induced
e.m.f., when middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f.,
forefinger will
point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
10. Fleming’s right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f.,
correlates
(a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced
(c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor
Ans: b
11. While applying Fleming’s right-hand rule to And the direction of
induced
e.m.f., the thumb points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the
direction of
generated e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of
flux
Ans: d
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearings
Ans: a
13. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always
(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two
Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of
armature
conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
16. In a four-pole D.C. machine
(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Ans: b
17. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used
(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: a
18. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited
generator
(a) is amenable to better voltage control
(b) is more stable
(c) has exciting current independent of load current
(d) has all above features
Ans: d
19. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Ans: c
20. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in
(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage
Ans: b
21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is
given
through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
23. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of
(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Ans: a
24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of
conductor, then induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv
(b)Blv2
(c)Bl2v
(d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap
winding with
sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
26. The material for commutator brushes is generally
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
27. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is
normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c
28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact
with
conductors which
(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) lie under interpolar region
(d) are farthest from the poles
Ans: c
29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these
brushes in
magnetic neutral axis, there will be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as mag¬netisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
30. Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is
(a) crossmagnetising
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
(d) none of above
Ans: a
31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from
them only
under the floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above
Ans: d
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
33. In a D.C. machine, short-circuited field coil will result in
(a) odour of barning insulation
(b) unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be
increased to
maintain the voltage
(d) all above
Ans:
34. Equilizer rings are required in case armature is
(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
(c) delta wound
(d) duplex wound
Ans: b
35. Welding generator will have
(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding
Ans: a
36. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator segments is
equal to
(a) number of armature coils
(b) number of armature coil sides
(c) number of armature conductors
(d) number of armature turns
Ans: a
37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be
suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
38. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the mag¬netic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Ans: d
39. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is
(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch
(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches
Ans: d
40. A D.C. welding generator has
(a) lap winding
(b) wave moving
(c) duplex winding
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
41. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?
(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with
the
armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to
the pole
pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt
gen¬erators
Ans: d
42. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C.
generator
(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble
Ans: a
43. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by
(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
44. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on
(a) speed of armature
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected
Ans: d
45. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators
(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature reaction
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital
role for
providing direct current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b
47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are
reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
48. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for
(a) high voltage, high current
(b) low voltage, high current
(c) high voltage, low current
(d) low voltage, low current
Ans: b
49. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave
wound
armature while generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the
induced
e.m.f. is generator A and B will be
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be
expected to
be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now
while pole
flux remains constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f.
generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
52. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon
(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the ad¬jacent pole shoes
(d) all of the above
Ans:
53. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of
(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(c) non-ferrous material
(d) cast-iron
Ans: a
9.63. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires
(a) brushes should be of proper grade and size
(b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders
(c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
54. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is
(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open
circuited
coil is connected
(b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
55. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used
(a) to increase the generated voltage
(b) to reduce sparking
(c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections
(d) due to (b) and (c) above
Ans:
56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators,
we
should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer
connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or
negative side
of the armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
57. D.C. series generator is used
(a) to supply traction load
(b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage
(c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder
(d) for none of the above purpose
Ans: c
58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any
residual
magnetism in the poles
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
(d) self-excited generator
Ans: d
59. Interpole flux should be sufficient to
(a) neutralise the commutating self induced e.m.f.
(b) neutralise the armature reaction flux
(c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as commutating
e.m.f.
induced in the coil
(d) perform none of the above functions
Ans: c
60. D.C. generator generally preferred for charging automobile batteries
is
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) long shunt compound generator
(d) any of’the above
Ans: c
61. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical
degrees
will be the same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
62. Permeance is the reciprocal of
(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
63. In D.C. generators the polarity of the interpoles
(a) is the same as that of the main pole ahead
(b) is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole
(c) is opposite to that of the main pole ahead
(d) is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating e.m.f.
Ans: a
64. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to
(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
(d) all of the above
Ans: b
65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the
geometrical
neutral axis, when
(a) there is no load on|he generator
(b) the generator runs on full load
(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed
Ans: a
66. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-
induced
e.m.f. in the coil is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
67. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200
V. If the
speed increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
69. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is
(a) to reduce eddy current losses
(b) to enhance flux density
(c) to amplify voltage
(d) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
Ans: d
70. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted by
(a) speed limitation
(b) armature heating
(c) insulation restrictions
(d) saturation of iron
Ans:
71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
(a) imperfect brush contact
(b) field resistance less than the critical resistance
(c) no residual magnetism in the generator
(d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual magnetism
Ans: b
72. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means
(a) neutralising residual magnetism
(b) creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source
(c) making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
(d) increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on poles
Ans: b
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The
armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the
terminal
voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
74. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance of
(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are
rockedm
ahead so as to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
76. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies
(a) along neutral axis
(b) along field axis
(c) in any of the above positions
(d) in none of the above positions
Ans: a
77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when operating as
a motor
would be
(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt
(b) differentially compounded long shunt
(c) cumulatively compounded short shunt
(d) differentially compounded short shunt
Ans: b
78. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C. machine
(a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
(b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other
(c) brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving
Ans: a
79. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding.
(a) Insulation failure between two commutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
80. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to
(a) abrasion from dust
(b) excessive spring pressure
(c) rough commutator bars
(d) high mica insulation between com-mutation bars
(e) all of the above factors
Ans: e
81. Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is equal to
(a) number of pole pairs
(b) number of poles
(c) number of parallel paths
(d) number of commutator segments
Ans: a
82. A D.C. generator can be considered as
(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(c) rotating amplifier
(d) power pump
Ans: c
83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and
in which
e.m.f. induced is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
84. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of
(a) total copper loss and mechanical loss
(b) armature copper loss and iron loss
(c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
(d) iron loss and mechanical loss
Ans: d
85. Lap winding is composed of
(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: a
86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is
increased,
then output voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
87. An exciter for a turbo generator is a
(a) separately excited generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) series generator
(d) compound generator
Ans: b
88. In case of a flat compounded generator
(a) voltage generated is less than the rated voltage
(b) generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator
(c) voltage remains constant irrespective of the load
(d) speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator
Ans: c
89. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal
voltage while
running on no-load ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) Separately excited generator
Ans: a
90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build
up
without any residual magnetism in the poles ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) None of the above
Ans: d
91. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is
(a) almost zero
(b) less than no load terminal voltage
(c) more than no load terminal voltage
(d) equal to no-load terminal voltage
Ans: c
92. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is
(a) negligibly low
(b) equal to no-load terminal voltage
(c) more than no-load terminal voltage
(d) less than no-load terminal voltage
Ans: b
93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because
of all of
the following reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator
(a) external resistance = internal char-acteristic – armature reaction
(b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic – ohmic drop
(c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic – ohmic drop –
armature reaction
(d) magnetisation characteristic = external characteristic
Ans: c
95. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt
generator. The
armature voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) will be of 5 xiVHz
(d) will be of v Hz 5
Ans: b
96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation.
The open
circuit voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature
reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
98. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced
e.m.f. at zero
speed will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Ans: a
99. Armature reaction in a generator results in
(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole
tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole
tip
(c) damagnetising the center of all poles
(d) magnetising the center of all poles
Ans: a
100. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be
opened as it
would produce high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to
personnel and
may cause its own insulation failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field
(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field
Ans:
101. Wave winding is composed of
(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: c
102. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of
(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
103. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an
equilizer bar is
used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents
to the
load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both machines
Ans: c
104. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant
voltage on all
loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
105. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are
required to be
run in parallel ?
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
106. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may
run as
motor for which of the following reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed
(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads
Ans: d
107. A D.C. generator works on the principle of
(a) Lenz’s law
(b) Ohm’s law
(c) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
108. A series generator can self-excite
(a) only if the load current is zero
(b) only if the load current is not zero
(c) irrespective of the value of load current
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
109. A shunt generator can self-excite
(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater than critical value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resistance in the field circuit
Ans: a
110. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load
current is 5
A. If the load current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
111. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full
load the
terminal voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
112. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02
ohm and
field resistance of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of
1000
amperes to the load circuit. If their e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their
bus bar
voltage will be
(a) 270 V
(b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V
(d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
113. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators
is that
they have ‘
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage characteristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
114. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is
used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the
machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal
cur¬rents to
the load
Ans: d
115. With a D.C. generator which of the following regulation is preferred
?
(a) 100% regulation
(b) infinite regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C.
transmission lines ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
117. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by
(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed
Ans: c
118. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C. generator
having
duplex lap winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
119. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator
bars as the
number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
126. The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is excited by
(a) external current
(b) armature current
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
127. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual
air gap flux
in a D.C. generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
128. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation
because of
their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
129. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat
and over
compounded generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers
(d) unequal series field resistances
Ans: a
130. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up
on its
first trial run, the first thing to do is to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of primemover
(d) check armature insulation resistance
Ans: a
D.C. MOTORS Interview Questions and Answers :-
1. No-load speed of which of the following motor will be highest ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
2. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
3. Which of the following application requires high starting torque ?
(a) Lathe machine
(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) Air blower
Ans: c
4. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would be
preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Differentially compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: a
5. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
6. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications requiring
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
(d) frequent on-off cycles
Ans: b
7. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: d
8. According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in
the
direction of the field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction
of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
10. Starters are used with D.C. motors because
(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting
Ans: d
11. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced
(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce
Ans: c
12. A D.C. series motor is that which
(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
(b) has a poor torque
(c) can be started easily without load
(d) has almost constant speed
Ans: a
13. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because
(a) it limits the speed of the motor
(b) it limits the starting current to a safe value
(c) it starts the motor
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
Ans: d
15. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will
(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents
Ans: d
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of
electrical
energy is used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
(c) any of the above method
(d) none of the above method
Ans: a
17. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant
speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed
(d) zero
Ans: c
18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be
obtained
by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
19. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is
(a) independent of armature current
(b) directly proportional to the armature current
(c) proportional to the square of the current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: a
20. A direct on line starter is used: for starting motors
(a) up to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes
suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Ans: c
22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f.
only
because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Ans: d
23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the
current
in the armature will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current
(d) more than full-load current
Ans: d
24. These days D.C. motors are widely used in
(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that
a
particular motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Ans: c
26. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably
tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor operation in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
27. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used
(a) to improve cooling
(b) to reduce copper losses
(c) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(d) to reduce the sparking
Ans: d
28. A three point starter is considered suitable for
(a) shunt motors
(b) shunt as well as compound motors
(c) shunt, compound and series motors
(d) all D.C. motors
Ans: b
29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are
established,
the efficiency of the motor will be
(a) 100%
(b) around 90%
(c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
30. The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is least in case of
(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
31. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum
temperature
rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
33. Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the
direction of
rotation of D.C. motor ?
(a) Lenz’s law
(b) Faraday’s law
(c) Coloumb’s law
(d) Fleming’s left-hand rule
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than
the
rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
(d) Centrifugal pumps
Ans: b
35. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally
(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large
Ans: a
36. The speed of a D.C. series motor is
(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: d
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%,
the torque
of the motor will be equal
to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(c) 25% of the previous value
(d) 10% of the previous value
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
38. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly
proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
39. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor
indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded ‘motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable along with flywheel for
intermittent light
and heavy loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: c
42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit
suddenly
opens
(a) nothing will happen to the motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due
to
excessive centrifugal stresses (d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
43. D.C. series motors are used
(a) where load is constant
(b) where load changes frequently
(c) where constant operating speed is needed
(d) in none of the above situations.
Ans: d
44. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has
poor
starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelyc’ompounded
Ans: c
45. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the
compensating
winding is provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
46. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in
(a) damage to commutator segments
(b) damage to commutator insulation
(c) increased power consumption
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
47. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly
explosive
atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
(d) Battery operated motor
Ans: c
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the
following will
decrease ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
49. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C.
machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better uniformity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
Ans: a
50. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum
when
the ratio of back e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
51. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is
(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. = | x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = | x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
52. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over
an A.C.
motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
53. In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of the order of
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
(6) 10 to 15 per cent
(c) 20 to 25 per cent
(d) 50 to 75 per cent
Ans: a
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: a
55. Three point starter can be used for
(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
(d) both shunt and compound motor
Ans: d
56. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor because
(a) it increases the input power con-sumption
(b) commutator gets damaged
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed
variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak
demand by
the motor, compound motor will have
to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) differentially compounded
Ans: c
59. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed
range
control is required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
60. In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if shunt field suddenly
opens
(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as series
motor
(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the
same
direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the same
direction
(d) the motor will not work and come to stop
Ans: a
61. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: b
62. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and
therefore make use of
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors
Ans: a
63. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: a
64. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to
(a) field flux only
(b) armature current only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
65. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will
offer
minimum efficiency ?
(a) Voltage control method
(b) Field control method
(c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods
Ans: c

66. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of

(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) elevators
(c) steel rolling mills
(d) colliery winders
Ans: d
67. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m.
at rated
load. The speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
68. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides
(a) constant torque drive
(b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant current drive
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
69. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in
order to
prevent a heavy current from flowing though the armature circuit
(a) a resistance is connected in series with armature
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to the armature
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited
(d) a high value resistor is connected across the field winding
Ans: a
70. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be increased by
(a) increasing the resistance in armature circuit
(b) increasing the resistance in field circuit
(c) reducing the resistance in the field circuit
(d) reducing the resistance in the armature circuit
Ans: b
71. If I2 be the armature current, then speed of a D.C. shunt motor is
(a) independent of Ia
(b) proportional to la
(c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
72. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled,
the torque
developed by the motor will
(a) remain unchanged
(6) reduce to one-fourth value
(c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled
Ans: a
73. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it
behaves like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
74. The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by varying
(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
(c) resistance in series with armature
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
75. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C.
motors
over A.C. motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
Ans: a
76. For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is changed
(a) torque will remain constant
(b) torque will change but power will remain constant
(c) torque and power both will change
(d) torque, power and speed, all will change
Ans: b
77. Which motor has the poorest speed control?
(a) Differentially compounded motor
(b) Cumulatively compounded motor
(c) Shunt motor
(d) Series motor
Ans: d
78. The plugging gives the
(a) zero torque braking
(b) smallest torque braking
(c) highest torque braking
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
79. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides
(a) constant voltage drive
(b) constant current drive
(c) constant torque drive
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
80. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used
for 50°C
ambient temperature, then the motor
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected
(6) of higher H.P. should be selected
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
(d) is to be derated by a factor recommended by manufacturer and select
the next
higher H.P. motor
Ans: d
81. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this
action will
offer following kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
(d) none of the above
(e) any of the above
Ans: b
82. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary
compressor ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: d
83. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the
motor
will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
84. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications ?
(a) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
(b) Torque is proportional to armature current
(c) Torque is proportional to square root of armature current
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is
proportional to square of armature current
Ans: d
85. Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold
refrigerators ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Single phase induction motor (split phase start or induction run
motor)
(d) Reluctance motor
(e) Synchronous motor
Ans: c
86. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices
and
many kinds of timers ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: d
87. Which motor should not be started on no-load ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor.
Ans: a
88. Ward-Leonard control is basically a
(a) voltage control method
(b) field divertor method
(c) field control method
(d) armature resistance control method
Ans: a
89. For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
Ans: b
90. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by
(a) residual magnetism of the generator
(b) core losses of motor
(c) mechanical losses of motor and generator together
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
91. The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control method is
(a) high initial cost
(b) high maintenance cost
(c) low efficiency at Hght loads
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
92. Regenerative method of braking is based on that
(a) back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(b) back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied voltage
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
93. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on
(a) Frequency of magnetic reversals
(b) Maximum value of flux density
(c) Volume and grade of iron
(d) Rate of flow of ventilating air
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron
losses
except
(a) Loss of efficiency
(b) Excessive heating of core
(c) Increase in terminal voltage
(d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
Ans: c
95. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss
is likely
to have highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) field copper loss
(c) armature copper loss
(d) eddy current loss
Ans: c
96. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly
with the
load current ?
(a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss
(c) Armature copper loss
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
97. Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon
(a) magnetic field
(b) active length of the conductor
(c) current flow through the conductors
(d) number of conductors
(e) radius of armature
(f) all above factors
Ans: f
98. D.C. shunt motors are used for driving
(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools
Ans: d
99. In a manual shunt motor starter
(a) over load relay is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with
the load
(6) over load relay is connected in parallel and no volt relay in series
with the load
(c) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with the
load
(d) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel with
the load
Ans: a
100. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of
hysteresis loss
in a D.C. generator ?
(a) Providing laminations in armature core
(b) Providing laminations in stator
(c) Using non-magnetic material for frame
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core
material
Ans: d
101. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the
form of
heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
102. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by
laminating the
core of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
103. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be
nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b
104. The condition for maximum efficiency for a D.C. generator is
(a) eddy current losses = stray losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) copper losses = 0
(d) variable losses = constant losses
Ans: d
105. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency
around
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
106. In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take place in
(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(c) armature conductors
(d) armature rotor
Ans: d
107. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
108. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find
out
(a) stray losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
109. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar
D.C.
series motors of large capacity ?
(a) Swinburne’s test
(b) Hopkinson’s test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
110. Hopkinson’s test on D.C. machines is conducted at
(a) no-load
(b) part load
(c) full-load
(d) overload
Ans: c
111. During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors
(a) motor is run as a generator
(b) motor is reversed in direction
(c) motor is run at reduced speed
Ans: a
112. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used ?
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
113. Which method of braking is generally used in elevators ?
(a) Plugging
(b) Regenerative braking
(c) Rheostatic braking
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
114. In variable speed motor
(a) a stronger commutating field is needed at low speed than at high
speed
(b) a weaker commutating field is needed at low speed than at high
speed
(c) same commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: b
115. When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f. induced is
(a) self-induced e.m.f.
(b) mutually induced e.m.f.
(c) back e.m.f.
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
116. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting,
stopping,
reversing and speed control
(a) drum type controller is used
(b) three point starter is used
(c) four point starter is used
(d) all above can be used
Ans: a
117. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit
suddenly
opens
(a) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due
to
excessive centrifugal stresses
(c) nothing will happen to motor
(d) motor will come to stop
Ans: a
118. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for
most of
the time and some peak value for short
duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
119. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of
the load
cycle and peak value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
120. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: a
121. In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in
(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
Ans: b
122. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full
load speed.
This is possible by
(a) reducing the field current
(b) decreasing the armature current
(c) increasing the armature current
(d) increasing the excitation current
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: a
123. One D.C. motor drives another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor
when
excited and driven
(a) runs as a generator
(b) does not run as a generator
(c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after sometime
Ans: a

1. Which of the following does not change in a transformer ?

(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Frequency
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
2. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary
(a) through cooling coil
(b) through air
(c) by the flux
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
3. A transformer core is laminated to
(a) reduce hysteresis loss
(b) reduce eddy current losses
(c) reduce copper losses
(d) reduce all above losses
Ans: b
4. The degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the laminations of a
transformer depends on
(a) tightness of clamping
(b) gauge of laminations
(c) size of laminations
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
5. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually what per cent of
the fullload
current ?
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 per cent
(b) 2 to 5 per cent
(c) 12 to 15 per cent
(d) 20 to 30 per cent
Ans: b
6. The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer should have
(a) high resistance
(b) high reluctance
(c) low resistance
(d) low reluctance
Ans: d
7. No-load on a transformer is carried out to determine
(a) copper loss
(b) magnetising current
(c) magnetising current and loss
(d) efficiency of the transformer
Ans: c
8. The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be
(a) lkV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 100 kV
(d) 330 kV
Ans: b
9. Sumpner’s test is conducted on trans-formers to determine
(a) temperature
(b) stray losses
(c) all-day efficiency
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
10. The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain oriented steel
is
around
(a) 1.7 Wb/m2
(b) 2.7 Wb/m2
(c) 3.7 Wb/m2
(d) 4.7 Wb/m2
Ans: a
11. The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when
(a) copper losses = hysteresis losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) eddy current losses = copper losses
(d) copper losses = iron losses
Ans: d
12. No-load current in a transformer
(a) lags behind the voltage by about 75°
(b) leads the voltage by about 75°
(c) lags behind the voltage by about 15°
(d) leads the voltage by about 15°
Ans: a
13. The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer is to
(a) provide support to windings
(b) reduce hysteresis loss
(c) decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
(d) reduce eddy current losses
Ans: c
14. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation ?
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Buchholz relay
(d) Exciter
Ans: d
15. While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following
side is short
circuited
(a) High voltage side
(b) Low voltage side
(c) Primary side
(d) Secondary side
Ans: b
16. In the transformer following winding has got more cross-sectional
area
(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding
(d) Secondary winding
Ans: a
17. A transformer transforms
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) frequency
Ans: c
18. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply
because
(a) there is no need to change the D.C. voltage
(b) a D.C. circuit has more losses
(c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the
rate of
change of flux is zero
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
19. Primary winding of a transformer
(a) is always a low voltage winding
(b) is always a high voltage winding
(c) could either be a low voltage or high voltage winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
20. Which winding in a transformer has more number of turns ?
(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding
(d) Secondary winding
Ans: b
21. Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of
(a) 100 per cent
(b) 98 per cent
(c) 50 per cent
(d) 25 per cent
Ans: b
22. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain
constant
irrespective of load changes are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
23. A common method of cooling a power transformer is
(a) natural air cooling
(b) air blast cooling
(c) oil cooling
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied voltage
by an
angle of about
(a) 180°
(b) 120″
(c) 90°
(d) 75°
Ans: d
25. In a transformer routine efficiency depends upon
(a) supply frequency
(b) load current
(c) power factor of load
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d
26. In the transformer the function of a conservator is to
(a) provide fresh air for cooling the transformer
(b) supply cooling oil to transformer in time of need
(c) protect the transformer from damage when oil expends due to
heating
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
27. Natural oil cooling is used for transformers up to a rating of
(a) 3000 kVA
(b) 1000 kVA
(c) 500 kVA
(d) 250 kVA
Ans: a
28. Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at
(a) nearly full load
(b) 70% full load
(c) 50% full load
(d) no load
Ans: a
29. The maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer is
(a) at no load
(b) at 50% full load
(c) at 80% full load
(d) at full load
Ans: b
30. Transformer breaths in when
(a) load on it increases
(b) load on it decreases
(c) load remains constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
31. No-load current of a transformer has
(a) has high magnitude and low power factor
(b) has high magnitude and high power factor
(c) has small magnitude and high power factor
(d) has small magnitude and low power factor
Ans: d
32. Spacers are provided between adjacent coils
(a) to provide free passage to the cooling oil
(b) to insulate the coils from each other
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
33. Greater the secondary leakage flux
(a) less will be the secondary induced e.m.f.
(b) less will be the primary induced e.m.f.
(c) less will be the primary terminal voltage
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
34. The purpose of providing iron core in a step-up transformer is
(a) to provide coupling between primary and secondary
(b) to increase the magnitude of mutual flux
(c) to decrease the magnitude of mag-netizing current
(d) to provide all above features
Ans: c
35. The power transformer is a constant
(a) voltage device
(b) current device
(c) power device
(d) main flux device
Ans: d
36. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending
upon
their
(a) leakage reactance
(b) per unit impedance
(c) efficiencies
(d) ratings
Ans: b
37. If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the transformer and K
is the
transformation ratio then the equivalent secondary resistance referred to
primary
will be
(a) R2/VK
(b) R2IK2
(c) R22!K2
(d) R22/K
Ans: b
38. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not
connected
with regard to polarity ?
(a) The power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from the
power
factor of common load
(b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short circuit
(c) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their kVA
ratings
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
39. If the percentage impedances of the two transformers working in
parallel are
different, then
(a) transformers will be overheated
(b) power factors of both the transformers will be same
(c) parallel operation will be not possible
(d) parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at which
the two
transformers operate will be different from the power factor of the
common load
Ans: d
40. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on
(a) primary side
(b) secondary side
(c) low voltage side
(d) high voltage side
Ans: c
41. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design
(a) reduces weight per kVA
(6) reduces iron losses
(c) reduces copper losses
(d) increases part load efficiency
Ans: a
42. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the
quality of
(a) ionizing air
(b) absorbing moisture
(c) cleansing the transformer oil
(d) cooling the transformer oil.
Ans: b
43. The chemical used in breather is
(a) asbestos fiber
(b) silica sand
(c) sodium chloride
(d) silica gel
Ans: d
44. An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and secondary
inductances. The statement is
(a) true
(b) false
Ans: b
45. The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of
(a) volts
(b) amperes
(c) kW
(d) kVA
Ans: d
46. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by magnetic
forces, is
termed as
(a) magnetostrication
(b) boo
(c) hum
(d) zoom
Ans: c
47. Hysteresis loss in a transformer varies as CBmax = maximum flux
density)
(a) Bmax
(b) Bmax1-6
(C) Bmax1-83
(d) B max
Ans: b
48. Material used for construction of transformer core is usually
(a) wood
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) silicon steel
Ans: d
49. The thickness of laminations used in a transformer is usually
(a) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm
(b) 4 mm to 5 mm
(c) 14 mm to 15 mm
(d) 25 mm to 40 mm
Ans: a
50. The function of conservator in a transformer is
(a) to project against’internal fault
(b) to reduce copper as well as core losses
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil due
to
variation of temperature of sur-roundings
Ans: d
51. The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in India is
(a) 33 kV.
(6) 66 kV
(c) 132 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: d
52. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary is
(a) zero
(b) 1 ohm
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) infinite
Ans: d
53. A transformer oil must be free from
(a) sludge
(b) odour
(c) gases
(d) moisture
Ans: d
54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on
(a) auto-transformers
(b) air-cooled transformers
(c) welding transformers
(d) oil cooled transformers
Ans: d
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil
unless the oil
temperature exceeds
(a) 50°C
(b) 80°C
(c) 100°C
(d) 150°C
Ans: d
56. The main reason for generation of harmonics in a transformer could
be
(a) fluctuating load
(b) poor insulation
(c) mechanical vibrations
(d) saturation of core
Ans: d
57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum
efficiency
around
(a) 90% load
(b) zero load
(c) 25% load
(d) 50% load
Ans: d
58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in the
material for
transformer core ?
(a) Mechanical strength
(6) Low hysteresis loss
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) High permeability
Ans: c
59. Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when
(a) load is unbalanced only
(b) load is balanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
60. Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily when
(a) load is balanced only
(b) load is unbalanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
61. Buchholz’s relay gives warning and protection against
(a) electrical fault inside the transformer itself
(b) electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder
(c) for both outside and inside faults
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
62. The magnetising current of a transformer is usually small because it
has
(a) small air gap
(b) large leakage flux
(c) laminated silicon steel core
(d) fewer rotating parts
Ans: a
63. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer ?
(a) Frequency
(b) Voltage
(c) Current
(d) Any of the above
Ans: a
64. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the
material
for transformer core ?
(a) Low hysteresis loss
(b) High permeability
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Adequate mechanical strength
Ans: c
65. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon
(a) load current
(b) load current and voltage
(c) load current, voltage and frequency
(d) load current, voltage, frequency and power factor
Ans: a
66. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer should have
(a) high reluctance
(b) low reactance
(c) high resistance
(d) low resistance
Ans: b
67. Noise level test in a transformer is a
(a) special test
(b) routine test
(c) type test
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
68. Which of the following is not a routine test on transformers ?
(a) Core insulation voltage test
(b) Impedance test
(c) Radio interference test
(d) Polarity test
Ans: c
69. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at
(a) leading power factor
(b) lagging power factor
(c) unity power factor
(d) zero power factor
Ans: a
70. Helical coils can be used on
(a) low voltage side of high kVA transformers
(b) high frequency transformers
(c) high voltage side of small capacity transformers
(d) high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
Ans: a
71. Harmonics in transformer result in
(a) increased core losses
(b) increased I2R losses
(c) magnetic interference with communication circuits
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
72. The core used in high frequency transformer is usually
(a) copper core
(b) cost iron core
(c) air core
(d) mild steel core
Ans: c
73. The full-load copper loss of a trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-load,
the copper
loss will be
(a) 6400 W
(b) 1600 W
(c) 800 W
(d) 400 W
Ans: d
1.74. The value of flux involved m the e.m.f. equation of a transformer is
(a) average value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) maximum value
(d) instantaneous value
Ans: c
L.75. Silicon steel used in laminations mainly reduces
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) eddy current losses
(c) copper losses
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
76. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area ?
(a) Primary winding
(b) Secondary winding
(c) Low voltage winding
(d) High voltage winding
Ans: d
77. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum
efficiency
around
(a) no-load
(b) half-load
(c) near full-load
(d) 10% overload
Ans: c
.78. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer
over a
two winding transformer ?
(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
(b) Saving in winding material
(c) Copper losses are negligible
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated
Ans: b
79. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because
(a) the current on secondary side is negligible
(b) the voltage on secondary side does not vary
(c) the voltage applied on primary side is low
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the transformer
Ans: c
80. Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do
not have
equal percentage impedance. This is likely to result in
(a) short-circuiting of the secondaries
(b) power factor of one of the transformers is leading while that of the
other
lagging
(c) transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core
losses
(d) loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings
Ans: d
81. The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of
atmospheric temperature during day and
night is taken care of by which part of transformer
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Bushings
(d) Buchholz relay
Ans: a
82. An ideal transformer is one which has
(a) no losses and magnetic leakage
(b) interleaved primary and secondary windings
(c) a common core for its primary and secondary windings
(d) core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced
frequency, its
(a) flux density remains unaffected
(b) iron losses are reduced
(c) core flux density is reduced
(d) core flux density is increased
Ans: d
84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant
from
noload to fullload because
(a) value of transformation ratio remains constant
(b) permeability of transformer core remains constant
(c) core flux remains practically constant
(d) primary voltage remains constant
(c) secondary voltage remains constant
Ans: c
85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such
that
(a) copper loss = iron loss
(b) copper loss < iron loss
(c) copper loss > iron loss
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
86. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased,”the iron loss
will
(a) not change
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
87. Negative voltage regulation is indicative that the load is
(a) capacitive only
(b) inductive only
(c) inductive or resistive
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
88. Iron loss of a transformer can be measured by
(a) low power factor wattmeter
(b) unity power factor wattmeter
(c) frequency meter
(d) any type of wattmeter
Ans: a
89. When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its iron
core will
be
(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux
density
(b) hot because primary will carry heavy current
(c) cool as there is no secondary current
(d) none of above will happen
Ans: a
90. The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by
(a) mica strip
(6) thin coat of varnish
(c) paper
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
91. Which type of winding is used in 3phase shell-type transformer ?
(a) Circular type
(b) Sandwich type
(c) Cylindrical type
(d) Rectangular type
Ans: b
92. During open circuit test of a transformer
(a) primary is supplied rated voltage
(b) primary is supplied full-load current
(c) primary is supplied current at reduced voltage
(d) primary is supplied rated kVA
Ans: a
93. Open circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine
(a) hysteresis losses
(b) copper losses
(c) core losses
(d) eddy current losses
Ans: c
94. Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine
(a) hysteresis losses
(b) copper losses
(c) core losses
(d) eddy current losses
Ans: b
95. For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is
necessary that
they should have
(a) same efficiency
(b) same polarity
(c) same kVA rating
(d) same number of turns on the secondary side.
Ans: b
96. The transformer oil should have _____ volatility and _____ viscosity.
(a) low,low
(b) high,high
(c) low,high
(d) high,low
Ans: a
97. The function of breather in a transformer is
(a) to provide oxygen inside the tank
(b) to cool the coils during reduced load
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the transformer
Ans: d
98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is
always kept
closed ?
(a) Step-up transformer
(b) Step-down transformer
(c) Potential transformer
(d) Current transformer
Ans: d
99. The size of a transformer core will depend on
(a) frequency
(b) area of the core
(c) flux density of the core material
(d) (a) and (b) both
Ans: d
100. N atural air coo ling is generally restricted for transformers up to
(a) 1.5 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 15 MVA
(d) 50 MVA
Ans: a
101. A shell-type transformer has
(a) high eddy current losses
(b) reduced magnetic leakage
(c) negligibly hysteresis losses
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
102. A transformer can have regulation closer to zero
(a) on full-load
(b) on overload
(c) on leading power factor
(d) on zero power factor
Ans: c
103. A transformer transforms
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) current and voltage
(d) power
Ans: d
104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power supply
in India ?
(a) llkV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 122 kV
Ans: d
105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are obtained
with
transformer employing
(a) core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
(b) core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end turns
are
heavily insulated
(a) to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by the
shunting
capacitance of the end turns
(b) to absorb the line surge voltage and save the winding of transformer
from
damage
(c) to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a transformer from
damage
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the
applied
voltage
(a) eddy current loss will decrease
(b) eddy current loss will increase
(c) eddy current loss will remain unchanged
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur
in trans
formers are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) magnetic losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) copper losses
Ans: a
109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which
remain
constant irrespective of load changes are
(a) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(b) friction and windage losses
(c) copper losses
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel single-phase
transformer having a turn ratio of 1 : 2 and
drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V A.C. supply is incorrect ?
(a) Its secondary current is 5 A
(b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
(c) Its rating is 2 kVA
(d) Its secondary current is 20 A
(e) It is a step-up transformer
Ans: d
111. The secondary of a current transformer is always short-circuited
under
operating conditions because it
(a) avoids core saturation and high voltage induction
(b) is safe to human beings
(c) protects the primary circuit
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
112. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary
should be
(a) zero
(b) 10 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinity
Ans: d
113. A good voltage regulation of a transformer means
(a) output voltage fluctuation from no load to full load is least
(b) output voltage fluctuation with power factor is least
(c) difference between primary and secondary voltage is least
(d) difference between primary and secondary voltage is maximum
Ans: a
114. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum
efficiency
will occur at
(a) 0.8 leading power factor
(b) 0.8 lagging power factor
(c) zero power factor
(d) unity power factor
Ans: d
115. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small
distribution transformers ?
(a) Overfluxing protection
(b) Buchholz relay
(c) Overcurrent protection
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
116. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage
surges due to
lightning and switching ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Thermal overload relays
(c) Breather
(d) Conservator
Ans: a
117. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions
can be
determined by
(a) short-circuit test
(b) back-to-back test
(c) open circuit test
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
118. Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the
highest
temperature safely ?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Asbestos
(c) Mica
(d) Glass fibre
Ans: c
119. Which of the following parts of a transformer is visible from
outside ?
(a) Bushings
(b) Core
(c) Primary winding
(d) Secondary winding
Ans: a
120. The noise produced by a transformer is termed as
(a) zoom
(b) hum
(c) ringing
(d) buzz
Ans: b
121. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full
load ?
(a) Core loss
(b) Friction loss
(c) Eddy current loss
(d) Hysteresis loss
Ans: b
122. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a
transformer ?
(a) poor insulation
(b) Overload
(c) loose connections
(d) Core saturation
Ans: d
123. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature
rise will
occur in
(a) core
(b) windings
(c) tank
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
124. The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed to
(a) load changes
(b) oil in the transformer
(c) magnetostriction
(d) mechanical vibrations
Ans: c
125. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited by
its
(a) temperature rise
(b) dielectric strength of oil
(c) voltage ratio
(d) copper loss
Ans: c
126. The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is comparatively
low
because
(a) copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output
(b) iron loss is increased considerably
(c) voltage drop both in primary and secondary becomes large
(d) secondary output is much less as compared to primary input
Ans: a
127. An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to
measure
(a) insulation resistance
(b) copper loss
(c) core loss
(d) total loss
(e) efficiency
(f) none of the above
Ans: c
128. A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine
(a) core loss
(b) copper loss
(c) efficiency
(d) magnetising current
(e) magnetising current and loss
Ans: e
129. The voltage transformation ratio of a transformer is equal to the
ratio of
(a) primary turns to secondary turns
(b) secondary current to primary current
(c) secondary induced e.m.f. to primary induced e.m.f.
(d) secondary terminal voltage to primary applied voltage
Ans: c
130. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from
overheating is
(a) iron core
(b) copper winding
(c) winding insulation
(d) frame or case
(e) transformer tank
Ans: c
136. If a transformer is switched on to a voltage more than the rated
voltage
(a) its power factor will deteriorate
(b) its power factor will increase
(c) its power factor will remain unaffected
(d) its power factor will be zero
Ans: a
137. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper
losses, when
its transformation ratio is
(a) approximately equal to one
(b) less than one
(c) great than one
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
138. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the
load is
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Ans: c
139. In a step-down transformer, there is a change of 15 A in the load
current.
This results in change of supply current of
(a) less than 15 A
(b) more than 15 A
(c) 15 A
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
140. The efficiencies of transformers compared with that of electric
motors of the
same power are
(a) about the same
(6) much smaller
(c) much higher
(d) somewhat smaller
(e) none of the above
Ans: c

1. Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of silicon

steel ?
(a) Bearings
(b) Shaft
(c) Statorcore
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
2. The frame of an induction motor is usually made of
(a) silicon steel
(b) cast iron
(c) aluminium
(d) bronze
Ans: b
3. The shaft of an induction motor is made of
(a) stiff
(b) flexible
(c) hollow
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
4. The shaft of an induction motor is made of
(a) high speed steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) carbon steel
(d) cast iron
Ans: c
5. In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally
(a) less than 1%
(b) 1.5%
(c) 2%
(d) 4%
Ans: a
6. In medium sized induction motors, the slip is generally around
(a) 0.04%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 4%
(d) 14%
Ans: c
7. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given
slight skew
in order to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum
Ans: d
8. In case the air gap in an induction motor is increased
(a) the magnetising current of the rotor will decrease
(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) speed of motor will increase
(d) the windage losses will increase
Ans: b
9. Slip rings are usually made of
(a) copper
(b) carbon
(c) phospor bronze
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
10. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency
of rotor
e.m.f. will be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 0.2 Hz
Ans: c
11. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running
speed of an
induction motor will be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l-s)Ns
(d) (Ns-l)s
Ans: c
The efficiency of an induction motor can be expected to be nearly
(a) 60 to 90%
(b) 80 to 90%
(c) 95 to 98%
(d) 99%
Ans: b
13. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is usually
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none
Ans: d
14. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is
(a) low
(b) negligible
(c) same as full-load torque
(d) slightly more than full-load torque
Ans: a
15. A double squirrel-cage induction motor has
(a) two rotors moving in oppsite direction
(b) two parallel windings in stator
(c) two parallel windings in rotor
(d) two series windings in stator
Ans: c
16. Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case of
(a) single phase motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) low horse power motors
(d) high speed motors
Ans: a
17. The term ‘cogging’ is associated with
(a) three phase transformers
(b) compound generators
(c) D.C. series motors
(d) induction motors
Ans: d
18. In case of the induction motors the torque is
(a) inversely proportional to (Vslip)
(b) directly proportional to (slip)2
(c) inversely proportional to slip
(d) directly proportional to slip
Ans: d
19. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have
(a) 8 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles
(d) 2 poles
Ans: b
20. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the
average
flux density in the air gap is
(a) absent
(b) small
(c) large
(d) infinity
Ans: b
21. An induction motor is identical to
(a) D.C. compound motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) synchronous motor
(d) asynchronous motor
Ans: d
22. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have
(a) zero frequency
(b) the same frequency as the slip frequency
(c) the same phase as the rotor e.m.f.
(d) high value for the satisfactory speed control
Ans: b
23. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the
speed of the
squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Ans: a
24. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by
(a) low voltage supply
(b) high loads
(c) harmonics develped in the motor
(d) improper design of the machine
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
25. The auto-starters (using three auto transformers) can be used to
start cage
induction motor of the following type
(a) star connected only
(b) delta connected only
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
26. The torque developed in the cage induction motor with autostarter is
(a) k/torque with direct switching
(6) K x torque with direct switching
(c) K2 x torque with direct switching
(d) k2/torque with direct switching
Ans: c
27. When the equivalent circuit diagram of doouble squirrel-cage
induction motor
is constructed the two cages can be
considered
(a) in series
(b) in parallel
(c) in series-parallel
(d) in parallel with stator
Ans: b
28. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use
starter
because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: a
29. Stepless speed control of induction motor is possible by which of the
following
methods ?
(a) e.m.f. injection in rotor eueuit
(b) Changing the number of poles
(c) Cascade operation
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
30. Rotor rheostat control method of speed control is used for
(a) squirrel-cage induction motors only
(b) slip ring induction motors only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
31. In the circle diagram for induction motor, the diameter of the circle
represents
(a) slip
(b) rotor current
(c) running torque
(d) line voltage
Ans: b
32. For which motor the speed can be controlled from rotor side ?
(a) Squirrel-cage induction motor
(b) Slip-ring induction motor
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
33. If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged
(a) the motor will run in reverse direction
(b) the motor will run at reduced speed
(c) the motor will not run
(d) the motor will burn
Ans: a
34. An induction motor is
(a) self-starting with zero torque
(b) self-starting with high torque
(c) self-starting with low torque
(d) non-self starting
Ans: c
35. The maximum torque in an induction motor depends on
(a) frequency
(b) rotor inductive reactance
(c) square of supply voltage
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
36. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors
(a) rotor conductor ends are short-circuited through slip rings
(b) rotor conductors are short-circuited through end rings
(c) rotor conductors are kept open
(d) rotor conductors are connected to insulation
Ans: b
37. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor
winding is
always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Ans: d
38. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to
(a) low horsepower motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) high horsepower motors
(d) high speed motors
Ans: a
39. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by all
of the
following except
(a) changing supply frequency
(b) changing number of poles
(c) changing winding resistance
(d) reducing supply voltage
Ans: c
40. The ‘crawling” in an induction motor is caused by
(a) high loads
(6) low voltage supply
(c) improper design of machine
(d) harmonics developed in the motor
Ans: d
41. The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions will
be
closer to
(a) 0.2 lagging
(b) 0.2 leading
(c) 0.5 leading
(d) unity
Ans: a
42. The ‘cogging’ of an induction motor can be avoided by
(a) proper ventilation
(b) using DOL starter
(c) auto-transformer starter
(d) having number of rotor slots more or less than the number of stator
slots (not
equal)
Ans: d
43. If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to stator slots, runs
at 1/7 of
the normal speed, the phenomenon will be termed as
(a) humming
(b) hunting
(c) crawling
(d) cogging
Ans: c
44. Slip of an induction motor is negative when
(a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
(b) rotor speed is less than the synchronous speed of the field and are in
the same
direction
(c) rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed of the field and are in
the
same direction
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
45. Size of a high speed motor as compared to low speed motor for the
same H.P.
will be
(a) bigger
(b) smaller
(c) same
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
46. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full
load and
one of its fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its
winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: a
47. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load
and one
of its fuses blows out. Then the
motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its
winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: c
48. Low voltage at motor terminals is due to
(a) inadequate motor wiring
(b) poorely regulated power supply
(c) any one of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
49. In an induction motor the relationship between stator slots and rotor
slots is
that
(a) stator slots are equal to rotor slots
(b) stator slots are exact multiple of rotor slots
(c) stator slots are not exact multiple of rotor slots
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
50. Slip ring motor is recommended where
(a) speed control is required
(6) frequent starting, stopping and reversing is required
(c) high starting torque is needed
(d) all above features are required
Ans: d
51. As load on an induction motor goes on increasing
(a) its power factor goes on decreasing
(b) its power factor remains constant
(c) its power factor goes on increasing even after full load
(d) its power factor goes on increasing up to full load and then it falls
again
Ans: d
52. If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor is short circuited
rotor will
move
(a) in the opposite direction as the direction of the rotating field
(b) in the same direction as the direction of the field
(c) in any direction depending upon phase squence of supply
Ans: b
53. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use
starter
because
(a) it will run in reverse direction
(b) it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: c
54. The speed characteristics of an induction motor closely resemble the
speedload characteristics of which of the
following machines
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) universal motor
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
55. Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to
support the
rotor shaft ?
(a) Ball bearings
(b) Cast iron bearings
(c) Bush bearings
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
56. A pump induction motor is switched on to a supply 30% lower than
its rated
voltage. The pump runs. What will
eventually happen ? It will
(a) stall after sometime
(b) stall immediately
(c) continue to run at lower speed without damage
(d) get heated and subsequently get damaged
Ans: d
57. 5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction motors are available for the
following r.p.m. Which motor will be the
costliest ?
(a) 730 r.p.m.
(b) 960 r.p.m.
(c) 1440 r.p.m.
(d) 2880 r.p.m.
Ans: a
58. A 3-phase slip ring motor has
(a) double cage rotor
(6) wound rotor
(c) short-circuited rotor
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
59. The starting torque of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is
(a) twice the full load torque
(b) 1.5 times the full load torque
(c) equal to full load torque
Ans: b
60. Short-circuit test on an induction motor cannot be used to determine
(a) windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) transformation ratio
(d) power scale of circle diagram
Ans: a
61. In a three-phase induction motor
(a) iron losses in stator will be negligible as compared to that in rotor
(6) iron losses in motor will be neg¬ligible as compared to that in rotor
(c) iron losses in stator will be less than that in rotor
(d) iron losses in stator will be more than that in rotor
Ans: d
62. In case of 3-phase induction motors, plugging means
(a) pulling the motor directly on line without a starter
(b) locking of rotor due to harmonics
(c) starting the motor on load which is more than the rated load
(d) interchanging two supply phases for quick stopping
Ans: d
63. Which is of the following data is required to draw the circle diagram
for an
induction motor ?
(a) Block rotor test only
(b) No load test only
(c) Block rotor test and no-load test
(d) Block rotor test, no-load test and stator resistance test
Ans: d
64. In three-phase induction motors sometimes copper bars are placed
deep in
the rotor to
(a) improve starting torque
(b) reduce copper losses
(c) improve efficiency
(d) improve power factor
Ans: a
65. In a three-phase induction motor
(a) power factor at starting is high as compared to that while running
(b) power factor at starting is low as compared to that while running
(c) power factor at starting in the same as that while running
Ans: b
66. The vafcie of transformation ratio of an induction motor can be found
by
(a) open-circuit test only
(b) short-circuit test only
(c) stator resistance test
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
67. The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor can be found
from
(a) stator resistance test
(6) no-load test only
(c) short-circuit test only
(d) noue of the above
Ans: c
68. The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is
(a) parabola
(b) hyperbola
(c) rectangular parabola
(d) straigth line
Ans: c
69. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction motor will produce
a change
of appromimately
(a) 4% in the rotor torque
(b) 8% in the rotor torque
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque
Ans: d
70. The stating torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased
by adding
(a) external inductance to the rotor
(b) external resistance to the rotor
(c) external capacitance to the rotor
(d) both resistance and inductance to rotor
Ans: b
71. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a
speed of 960
r.p.m. on full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will
be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
Ans: d
72. The complete circle diagram of induetion motor can be drawn with
the help of
data found from
(a) noload test
(6) blocked rotor test
(c) stator resistance test
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
73. In the squirrel-cage induction motor the rotor slots are usually given
slight
skew
(a) to reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
(b) to increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars
(c) to ensure easy fabrication
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
74. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition
is
maximum
(a) at the unit value of slip
(b) at the zero value of slip
(c) at the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase equal
to the
resistance per phase
(d) at the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the
rotor
Ans: c
75. What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of
stator and
rotor of the induction motor is zero ?
(a) The slip of the motor will be 5%
(b) The rotor will not run
(c) The rotor will run at very high speed
(d) The torque produced will be very large
Ans: b
76. The circle diagram for an induction motor cannot be used to
determine
(a) efficiency
(b) power factor
(c) frequency
(d) output
Ans: a
77. Blocked rotor test on induction motors is used to find out
(a) leakage reactance
(b) power factor on short circuit
(c) short-circuit current under rated voltage
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
78. Lubricant used for ball bearing is usually
(a) graphite
(b) grease
(c) mineral oil
(d) molasses
Ans: b
79. An induction motor can run at synchronous speed when
(a) it is run on load
(b) it is run in reverse direction
(c) it is run on voltage higher than the rated voltage
(d) e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit
Ans: d
80. Which motor is preferred for use in mines where explosive gases
exist ?
(a) Air motor
(b) Induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: a
81. The torque developed by a 3-phase induction motor least depends on
(a) rotor current
(b) rotor power factor
(c) rotor e.m.f.
(d) shaft diameter
Ans: d
82. In an induction motor if air-gap is increased
(a) the power factor will be low
(b) windage losses will be more
(c) bearing friction will reduce
(d) copper loss will reduce In an induction motor
Ans: a
83. In induction motor, percentage slip depends on
(a) supply frequency
(b) supply voltage
(c) copper losses in motor
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
84. When /?2 is the rotor resistance, .X2 the rotor reactance at supply
frequency
and s the slip, then the condition for maximum torque under running
conditions
will be
(a) sR2X2 = 1
(b) sR2 = X2
(c) R2 = sX2
(d) R2 = s2X2
Ans: c
85. In case of a double cage induction motor, the inner cage has
(a) high inductance arid low resistance
(b) low inductance and high resistance
(c) low inductance and low resistance
(d) high inductance and high resistance
Ans: a
86. The low power factor of induction motor is due to
(a) rotor leakage reactance
(b) stator reactance
(c) the reactive lagging magnetizing current necessary to generate the
magnetic
flux
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
87. Insertion of reactance in the rotor circuit
(a) reduces starting torque as well as maximum torque
(b) increases starting torque as well as maximum torque
(c) increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque remains unchanged
(d) increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque decreases
Ans: a
88. Insertion of resistance in the rotcir of an induction motor to develop
a given
torque
(a) decreases the rotor current
(b) increases the rotor current
(c) rotor current becomes zero
(d) rotor current rernains same
Ans: d
89. For driving high inertia loods best type of induction motor suggested
is
(a) slip ring type
(b) squirrel cage type
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
90. Temperature of the stator winding of a three phase induction motor
is
obtained by
(a) resistance rise method
(b) thermometer method
(c) embedded temperature method
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
91. The purpose of using short-circuit gear is
(a) to short circuit the rotor at slip rings
(b) to short circuit the starting resistances in the starter
(c) to short circuit the stator phase of motor to form star
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
92. In a squirrel cage motor the induced e.m.f. is
(a) dependent on the shaft loading
(b) dependent on the number of slots
(c) slip times the stand still e.m.f. induced in the rotor
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
93. Less maintenance troubles are experienced in case of
(a) slip ring induction motor
(6) squirrel cage induction motor
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
94. A squirrel cage induction motor is not selected when
(a) initial cost is the main consideration
(b) maintenance cost is to be kept low
(c) higher starting torque is the main consideration
(d) all above considerations are involved
Ans: c
95. Reduced voltage starter can be used with
(a) slip ring motor only but not with squirrel cage induction motor
(b) squirrel cage induction motor only but not with slip ring motor
(c) squirrel cage as well as slip ring induction motor
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
96. Slip ring motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor
where
(a) high starting torque is required
(b) load torque is heavy
(c) heavy pull out torque is required
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
97. In a star-delta starter of an induction motor
(a) resistance is inserted in the stator
(b) reduced voltage is applied to the stator
(c) resistance is inserted in the rotor
(d) applied voltage perl stator phase is 57.7% of the line voltage
Ans: d
98. The torque of an induction motor is
(a) directly proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
99. The rotor of an induction motor runs at
(a) synchronous speed
(b) below synchronous speed
(c) above synchronous speed
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
100. The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be
increased by
(a) increasing slip
(b) increasing current
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
101. Insertion of resistance in the stator of an induction motor
(a) increases the load torque
(b) decreases the starting torque
(c) increases the starting torque
(d) none of the above
Ans: b

INDUCTION MOTORS- Electrical

Engineering Multiple Choice
Questions
and Answers
1. In a split phase motor, the running winding should have
(a) high resistance and low inductance
(b) low resistance and high inductance
(c) high resistance as well as high inductance
(d) low resistance as well as low inductiance
Ans: b
2. If the capacitor of a single-phase motor is short-circuited
(a) the motor will not start
(b) the motor will run
(c) the motor will run in reverse direction
(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
Ans: a
3. In capacitor start single-phase motors
(a) current in the starting winding leads the voltage
(b) current in the starting winding lags the voltage
(c) current in the starting winding is in phase with voltage in running
winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
4. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the running
capacitor in
series with the auxiliary winding is to
(a) improve power factor
(b) increase overload capacity
(c) reduce fluctuations in torque
(d) to improve torque
Ans: a
5. In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement between starting
and
running winding can be nearly
(a) 10°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Ans: d
6. In a split phase motor
(a) the starting winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(b) the running winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(c) both starting and running windings are connected through a
centrifugal
switch
(d) centrifugal switch is used to control supply voltage
Ans: a
7. The rotor developed by a single-phase motor at starting is
(a) more than i.he rated torque
(b) rated torque
(c) less than the rated torque
(d) zero
Ans: d
8. Which of the following motor will give relatively high starting torque ?
(a) Capacitor start motor
(b) Capacitor run motor
(c) Split phase motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: a
9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Split phase motor
Ans: a
10. In a shaded pole motor, the shading coil usually consist of
(a) a single turn of heavy wire which is in parallel with running winding
(b) a single turn of heavy copper wire which is short-circuited and
carries only
induced current
(c) a multilayer fine gauge copper wire in parallel with running winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
11. In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is produced
by the use
of
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor
(d) shading coils
Ans: d
12. A centrifugal switch is used to dis- connect ‘starting winding when
motor has
(a) run for about 1 minute
(b) run for about 5 minutes
(c) picked up about 50 to 70 per cent of rated speed
(d) picked up about 10 to 25 per cent of rated speed
Ans: c
13. If a particular application needs high speed and high starting torque,
then
which of the following motor will be
preferred ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Shaded pole type motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Capacitor start and run motor
Ans: a
14. The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse power motor will
be
(a) 100 uF
(6) 200 uF
(c) 300 uF
(d) 400 uF
Ans: c
15. In repulsion motor direction of rotation of motor
(a) is opposite to that of brush shift
(b) is the same as that of brush shift
(c) is independent of brush shift
Ans: b
16. In a single phase motor the centrifugal switch
(a) disconnects auxiliary winding of the motor
(b) disconnects main winding of the motor
(c) reconnects the main winding the motor
(d) reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor
Ans: a
17. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar
is found
to be ground. Most probable location of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Ans: d
18. A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is switched on to
supply with
its capacitor replaced by an inductor of equivalent reactance value. It
will
(a) start and then stop
(b) start and run slowly
(c) start and run at rated speed
(d) not start at all
Ans: d
19. Which of the following motors is used in mixies ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: d
20. Which of the following motors is inherently self starting ?
(a) Split motor
(b) Shaded-pole motor
(c) Reluctance motor
(d) None of these
Ans: b
21. The direction of rotation of an hysteresis motor is determined by
(a) interchanging the supply leads
(b) position of shaded pole with respect to main pole
(c) retentivity of the rotor material
(d) none of these
Ans: b
22. Burning out of windings is due to
(a) short circuited capacitor
(b) capacitor value hiving changed
(c) open circuiting of capacitor
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
23. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by
reversing the
connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
24. Short-circuiter is used in
(a) repulsion induction motor
(b) repulsion motor
(c) repulsion start induction run motor
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
25. The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors is
(a) 95% to 99%
(b) 80% to 90%
(c) 50% to 75%
(d) 5% to 35%
Ans: d
26. In a capacitor start single-phase motor, when capacitor is replaced
by a
resistance
(a) torque will increase
(b) the motor will consume less power
(c) motor will run in reverse direction
(d) motor will continue to run in same direction
Ans: d
27. The power factor of a single-phase induction motor is usually
(a) lagging
(b) always leading
(c) unity
(d) unity to 0.8 leading
Ans: a
28. A shaded pole motor can be used for
(a) toys
(b) hair dryers
(c) circulators
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
29. A hysteresis motor works on the principle of
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) magnetisation of rotor
(c) eddy current loss
(d) electromagnetic induction
Ans: a
30. Which of the following motor will give the highest starting torque ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Repulsion start and induction run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
31. For which of the applications a reluctance motor is preferred ?
(a) Electric shavers
(b) Refrigerators
(c) Signalling and timing devices
(d) Lifts and hoists
Ans: c
32. The motor used on small lathes is usually
(a) universal motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) single-phase capacitor run motor
(d) 3-phase synchronous motor
Ans: c
33. Which of the following motors is preferred for tape-recorders ?
(a) Shaded pole motor
(b) Hysteresis motor
(c) Two value capacitor motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
34. A single-phase induction motor is
(a) inherently self-starting with high torque
(b) inherently self-starting with low torque
(c) inherently non-self-starting with low torque
(d) inherently non-self-starting with high torque
Ans: c
35. A schrage motor can run on
(a) zero slip
(b) negative slip
(c) positive slip
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
36. A universal motor can run on
(a) A.C. only
(6) D.C. only
(c) either A.C. or D.C.
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
37. Which of the following single-phase motors is suitable for timing and
control
purposes ?
(a) Reluctance motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Repulsion motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
38. Single phase induction motor usually operates on
(a) 0.6 power factor lagging
(b) 0.8 power factor lagging
(c) 0.8 power factor leading
(d) unity power factor
Ans: a
39. In split-phase motor auxiliary winding is of
(a) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(b) thick wire placed at the top of the slots
(c) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(d) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
Ans: c
40. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor ?
(a) Shaped pole motor
(b) Split phase motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Capacitor run motor
Ans: d
41. In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for running
purposes is
(a) air capacitor
(b) paper spaced oil filled type
(c) ceramic type
(d) a.c. electrolytic type
Ans: b
42. Which of the following motors can be run on AC. as well as D.C.
supply ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: a
43. In A.C. series motor compensating winding is employed to
(a) reduce the effects of armature reaction
(b) increase the torque
(c) reduce sparking at the brushes
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
44. Which of the following single-phase induction motors is generally
used in
time phonographs ?
(a) Resistance start
(b) Capacitor start capacitor run
(c) Shaded pole
(d) Universal
Ans: c
45. Which of the following motors has highest starting torque ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Shaped pole motor
(c) Capacitor-start motor
(d) Split-phase motor
Ans: c
46. The repulsion-start induction-run motor is used because of
(a) good power factor
(b) high efficiency
(c) minimum cost
(d) high starting torque
Ans: d
47. In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of rotation of the motor
is
(a) from main pole to shaded pole
(b) from shaded pole to main pole
(c) either of the above depending on voltage
(d) either of the above depending on power factor
Ans: a
48. In case of high speed universal motor which of the following needs
more
attention ?
(a) End play
(b) Air gap
(c) Insulation in rotor
(d) Balancing of rotor
Ans: d
49. The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in the range
(a) 200 to 250 W
(b) 250 to 500 W
(c) 50 to 150 W
(d) 10 to 20 W
Ans: c
50. The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing machine will be
around
(a) 100 to 150 W
(b) 40 to 75 W
(c) 10 to 30 W
(d) 5 to 10 W
Ans: a
51. Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor
starting torque ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Capacitor motor
(d) All single phase motors have zero starting torque
Ans: c
52. Which type of load is offered by cranes and hoists ?
(a) Gradually varying load
(b) Non-reversing, no-load start
(c) Reversing, light start
(d) Reversing, heavy start
Ans: d
53. The speed of a universal motor is generally reduced by using
(a) gear trains
(b) V-belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power
factor will be
low because of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
(b) induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
(c) fine copper wire winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the by
reversing
the flow of current through
(a) armature winding
(b) field winding
(c) either armature winding or field winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
57. In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic
vibrations ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Universal motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and magnetic
vibrations
therefore these are considered as suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
(c) sound equipment
(d) mixer grinders
Ans: c
60. A reluctance motor
(a) is self-starting
(b) is constant speed motor
(c) needs no D.C. excitation
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
61. In a hysteresis motor, the rotor must have
(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) susceptibility
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
62. The rotor of a hysteresis motor is made of
(a) aluminium
(b) cast iron
(c) chrome steel
(d) copper
Ans: c
63. The electric motor used in portable drills is
(a) capacitor run motor
(b) hysteresis motor
(c) universal motor
(d) repulsion motor
Ans: c
64. Which of the following applications always have some load whenever
switched on ?
(a) Vacuum cleaners
(b) Fan motors
(c) Pistol drills
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
65. The speed control of universal motor used for sewing machines is by
(a) friction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) tapping the field
(d) centrifugal mechanism
Ans: b
66. Torque developed by a single phase induction motor at starting is
(a) pulsating
(b) uniform
(c) none of the above
(d) nil
Ans: d
67. In split phase motor main winding is of
(a) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(b) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(c) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(d) thick wire placed at the top of the” slots
Ans: c
68. In repulsion motor, maximum torque is developed when
(a) brush axis is at 45° electrical to the field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is at 90° electrical to the field axis
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
69. If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80 percent of
synchronous
speed of motor, it would result in
(a) damage to the starting winding
(b) damage to the centrifugal switch
(c) overloading of running winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
70. Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction motor is similar
to that of
a D.C.
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) compound motor
(d) separately excited motor
Ans: c
71. In a ceilingfan employing capacitor run motor
(a) secondary winding surrounds the primary winding
(b) primary winding surrounds the secondary winding
(c) both are usual arrangements
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
72. The shaded pole motor is used for
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) medium starting torque
(d) very high starting torque
Ans: b
73. The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite parallel
to the
shaft because it
(a) improves the efficiency
(b) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(c) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the
stator
teeth
(d) improves the power factor
Ans: c
74. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor is same as that of
(a) A.C. motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) D.C. series motor
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
75. The purpose of stator winding in the compensated repulsion motor is
to
(a) provide mechanical balance
(b) improve power factor and provide better speed regulation
(c) prevent hunting in the motor
(d) eliminate armature reaction
Ans: b
76. Which of the following motors is used for unity power factor ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: b
77. The motor used for the compressors is
(a) d.c. series motor
(b) shaded pole motor
(c) capacitor-start capacitor-run motor
(d) reluctance motor
Ans: c
78. Which of the following motors is used in a situation where load
increases with
speed ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Three-phase series motor
(c) Schrage motor
(d) Hysteresis motor
Ans: b
79. In repulsion motor, zero torque is developed when
(a) brush axis is 45° electrical to field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is 90° electrical to field axis
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: d
80. Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor at
about
____ percent of synchronous speed
(a) 30 to 40
(b) 70 to 80
(c) 80 to 90
(d) 100
Ans: b
81. Starting winding of a single phase motor of a refrigerator is
disconnected from
the circuit by means of a
(a) magnetic relay
(b) thermal relay
(c) centrifugal switch
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
82. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the most
likely
defect is
(a) worn bearings
(b) short-circuit in the winding
(c) open-circuit in the winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
83. Which of the following motors is used in tape-recorders ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Capacitor-run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
84. Which of the following statements regarding two value capacitor
motor is
incorrect ?
(a) It is a reversing motor
(b) It is preferred to permanent-split single-value capacitor motor where
frequent
reversals are required
(c) It has low starting as well as rushing currents
(d) It has high starting torque
Ans: b
85. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor
motor
in small home air-conditioners
because
(a) it is comparatively cheaper
(b) it has almost non-destructible capacitor
(c) it has low starting as well as running currents at relatively high
power factor
(d) it is quiet in operation
Ans: c
86. If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor motor using two
capacitors
fails to open then
(a) motor will not come up to speed
(b) motor will not carry the load
(c) current drawn by the motor will be excessively high
(d) electrolytic capacitor will, in all probability, suffer break down
Ans: d
87. In a universal motor, the most common cause of brush sparking is
(a) open armature winding
(b) shorted armature winding
(c) shorted field winding”
(d) high commutator mica
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
88. If starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is left in the
circuit, it
will
(a) run faster
(b) spark at light loads
(c) draw excessive current and overheat
(d) run slower
Ans: c
89. Most of the fractional horsepower motors have either
(a) hard and annealed bearings
(b) ball or roller bearings
(c) soft and porous bearings
(d) plain or sleeve bearings
Ans: d
90. Which of the following statements regarding reluctance-start motor
is
incorrect ?
(a) It is similar to reluctance motor
(b) It is basically an induction motor and not a synchronous one
(c) So far as its basic working principle is concerned, it is similar to
shaded pole
motor
(d) the air-gap between rotor and salient poles is non- uniform
Ans: a
91. To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor start motor while it
is
running we should
(a) disconnect motor from the supply till it stops then reconnect it to
supply with
reversed connection of main or auxiliary winding
(b) disconnect motor from supply and immediately reconnect it to supply
with
reversed connections of the main winding
(c) reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary winding and after
motor
comes to rest then connect auxiliary winding to the supply
(d) reverse the direction of connections of the auxiliary winding and
immediately
connect it to supply
Ans: a
92. In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is increased so that it
cannot
maintain synchronous speed the motor will
(a) become unstable
(b) draw excessive armature current and may burn out
(c) fall out of synchronism and come to stand still
(d) run as induction motor
Ans: d
93. Which of the following motors has two separate windings on the
motor ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Repulsion induction motor
(c) Repulsion start induction run motor
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
94. A shaded pole motor does not possess
(a) centrifugal switch
(b) capacitor
(c) commutator
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
95. In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually connected to
commutator
(a) through resistance
(b) through reactances
(c) through capacitors
(d) solidly
Ans: a
96. Which of the following statements regarding a reluctance motor is
incorrect ?
(a) It cannot be reversed, ordinarily
(b) It requires no D.C. field excitation for its operation
(c) It is nothing else but a single-phase, salient pole synchronous-
induction motor
(d) Its squirrel cage-rotor is of unsym-metrical magnetic construction in
order to
vary reluctance path between stator and rotor
Ans: a
97. A universal motor is one which
(a) can be operated either on D.C. or A.C. supply at approximately the
same speed
and output
(b) can be marketed internationally
(c) runs at dangerously high speed on no-load
Ans: a
98. A repulsion motor is equipped with
(a) slip rings
(b) commutator
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
99. The capacitors used in single-phase capacitor motors have no
(a) voltage rating
(b) dielectric medium
(c) polarity marking
(d) definite value
Ans: c
100. If a D.C. series motor is operated on A.C. supply, it will
(a) spark excessively
(b) have poor efficiency
(c) have poor power factor
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
101. After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is
disconnected
from supply, it continues to run only on
(a) running winding
(b) rotor winding
(c) field winding
(d) compensating winding
Ans: a
102. Which of the following statements regarding repulsion-start
induction motor
is incorrect ?
(a) It requires more maintenance of commutator and other mechanical
devices
(b) It makes quite a bit of noise on starting
(c) In fractional horse power motors, it has replaced the capacitor
motors
(d) It is not easily reversed
Ans: c
103. A.C. series motor as compared to D.C. series motor has
(a) smaller brush width
(b) less number of field turns
(c) more number of armature turns
(d) less air gap
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
104. Locked rotor current of a shaded pole motor is
(a) equal to full load current
(b) less than full load current
(c) slightly more than full load current
(d) several times the full load current
Ans: c
105. Speed control of a universal motor is achieved by
(a) varying field flux with tapped field windings
(b) connecting rheostat in series
(c) applying variable voltage by means of silicon controlled rectifier
(d) applying variable voltage by means of variable auto-transformer
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
116. Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for high-quality record
players and
tape-recorders because
(a) it revolves synchronously
(b) it is not subject to any magnetic or mechanical vibrations
(c) it can be easily manufactured in extremely small sizes of up to 1 W
output
(d) it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely steady both in
amplitude and
phase
Ans: d
117. Which of the following statements regarding hysteresis motor is in
incorrect ?
(a) It is extremely sensitive to fluctuations in supply voltage
(b) Its high starting torque is due to its high rotor hysteresis loss
(c) It is extremely quiet in operation
(d) It accelerates from rest to full-speed almost instantaneously
Ans: a
118. Which of the following statements regarding single-phase induction
motoris
correct ?
(a) It requires only one winding
(b) It can rotate in one direction only
(c) It is self-starting
(d) It is not self-starting
Ans: d
119. The starting winding of a single-phase motor is placed in
(a) armature
(b) field
(c) rotor
(d) stator
Ans: d
120. The speed of a universal motor is usually reduced by using
(a) gearing
(b) belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS – Electrical Engineering
Interview Questions and Answers :-
1. Synchronous motors are generally not self-starting because
(a) the direction of rotation is not fixed
(b) the direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half cycle
(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines
Ans: b
2. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is short-
circuited the
motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Ans: a
3. A pony motor is basically a
(a) small induction motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
(d) double winding A.C./D.C. motor
Ans: a
4. A synchronous motor can develop synchronous torque
(a) when under loaded
(b) while over-excited
(c) only at synchronous speed
(d) below or above synchronous speed
Ans: c
5. A synchronous motor can be started by
(a) pony motor
(b) D.C. compound motor
(c) providing damper winding
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
6. A three-phase synchronous motor will have
(a) no slip-rings
(b) one slip-ring
(c) two slip-rings
(d) three slip-rings
Ans: c
7. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor
is likely
to occur ?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over-excitation
(c) Over-loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Ans: a
8. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor
suddenly
gets disconnected
(a) the motor stops
(b) it runs as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(c) it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
9. When V is the applied voltage, then the breakdown torque of a
synchronous
motor varies as
(a) V
(b) V312
(c) V2
(d) 1/V
Ans: a
10. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when
the
load angle is
(a) zero
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: c
11. A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous capacitor when it
is
(a) under-loaded
(b) over-loaded
(c) under-excited
(d) over-excited
Ans: d
12. A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal excitation.
Now if the
load on the motor is increased
(a) power factor as well as armature current will decrease
(b) power factor as well as armature current will increase
(c) power factor will increase but armature current will decrease
(d) power factor will decrease and armature current will increase
Ans: d
13. Mostly, synchronous motors are of
(a) alternator type machines
(6) induction type machines
(c) salient pole type machines
(d) smooth cylindrical type machines
Ans: c
14. The synchronous motor is not inherently self-starting because
(a) the force required to accelerate the rotor to the synchronous speed in
an
instant is absent
(b) the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near synchronous speed
is absent
(c) a rotating magnetic field does not have enough poles
(d) the rotating magnetic field is produced by only 50 Hz frequency
currents
Ans: a
15. As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the motor takes more
armature
current because
(a) the increased load has to take more current
(b) the rotor by shifting its phase backward causes motor to take more
current
(c) the back e.m.f. decreases causing an increase in motor current
(d) the rotor strengthens the rotating field casuing more motor current
Ans: b
16. Synchronous motor always runs at
(a) the synchronous speed
(b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
17. An over-excited synchronous motor takes
(a) leading current
(b) lagging current
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
18. The working of a synchronous motor is similar to
(a) gear train arrangement
(b) transmission of mechancial power by shaft
(c) distribution transformer
(d) turbine
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
19. The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor
corresponds to
operation at
(a) zero power factor leading
(b) unity power factor
(c) 0.707 power factor lagging
(d) 0.707 power factor leading
Ans: b
20. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. £&
depends on
(a) d.c. excitation only
(b) speed of the motor
(c) load on the motor
(d) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: a
21. If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole synchronous motor is 6°
electrical, its
value in mechanical degrees is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: b
22. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between
(a) field current and armature current
(b) terminal voltage and load factor
(c) power factor and field current
(d) armature current and power factor
Ans: a
23. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends on
(a) speed
(b) load
(c) load angle
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
24. A synchronous motor can operate at
(a) lagging power factor only
(6) leading power factor only
(c) unity power factor only
(d) lagging, leading and unity power factors
Ans: d
25. In a synchronous motor which loss varies with load ?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Bearing friction loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) Core loss
Ans: c
26. A synchronous motor can be made self starting by providing
(a) damper winding on rotor poles
(b) damper winding on stator
(c) damper winding on stator as well as rotor poles
(d) none of the above
Ans: d
27. The oscillations in a synchronous motor can be damped out by
(a) maintaining constant excitation
(b) running the motor on leading power factors
(c) providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces
(d) oscillations cannot be damped
Ans: c
28. The shaft of synchronous motor is made of
(a) mild steel
(b) chrome steel
(c) alnico
(d) stainless steel
Ans: a
29. When the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the power
factor will
be
(a) leading
(b) lagging
(c) unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
30. The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is always
(a) 1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) positive
(d) zero
Ans: d
31. The percentage slip in case of a synchronous motor is
(a) 1%
(b) 100%
(c) 0.5%
(d) zero
Ans: d
32. The operating speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to new
fixed
value by
(a) changing the load
(b) changing the supply voltage
(c) changing frequency
(d) using brakes
Ans: c
33. A synchronous motor will always stop when
(a) supply voltage fluctuates
(b) load in motor varies
(c) excitation winding gets disconnected
(d) supply voltage frequency changes9885859805
Ans: c
34. riunting in a synchronous motor takes place
(a) when supply voltage fluctuates
(b) when load varies
(c) when power factor is unity
(d) motor is under loaded
Ans: b
35. When load on an over-excited or under excited synchronous*motor is
increased, rate of change of its armature current as compared with that
of power
factor is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) twice
Ans: b
36. The rotor copper losses, in a synchronous motor, are met by
(a) d.c. source
(b) armature input
(c) motor input
(d) supply lines
Ans: a
37. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a
coupling
angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Ans: c
38. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that the
number of
poles are made half, the speed of the rotor of a synchronous motor
(a) remains same as the original value
(b) decreases to half the original value
(c) tends to becomes zero
(d) increases to two times the original value
Ans: d
39. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor magnetic field
rotate at
the same speed ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: b
40. Synchronsizingpower of a synchronous machine is
(a) direcly proportional to the synchronous reactance
(6) inversely proportional to the synchronous reactance
(a) equal to the synchronous reactance
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
41. Synchronous motors are
(a) not-self starting
(b) self-starting
(c) essentially self-starting
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
42. The standard full-load power factor ratings for synchronous motors
are
(a) zero or 0.8 leading
(b) unity or 0.8 lagging
(c) unity or 0.8 leading
(d) unity or zero
Ans: c
43. A synchronous motor running with normal excitation adjusts to load
increases essentially by increase in
(a) back e.m.f.
(b) armature current
(c) power factor
(d) torque angle
Ans: b
44. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that of
an
equivalent induction motor. This is mainly because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
Ans: b
45. A synchronous motor working at leading power factor can be used as
(a) voltage booster
(b) phase advancer
(c) noise generator
(d) mechanical synchronizer
Ans: b
46. Slip rings are usually made of
(a) carbon or graphite
(b) brass or steel
(c) silver or gold
(d) copper or aluminium
Ans: b
47. An over excited synchronous motor is used for
(a) fluctuating loads
(b) variable speed loads
(c) low torque loads
(d) power factor corrections
Ans: d
48. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which
of the
following will reduce ?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: d
51. The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous motor will usually
fall in
range
(a) 60 to 70%
(6) 75 to 80%
(c) 85 to 95%
(d) 99 to 99.5%
Ans: c
52. To limit the operating temperature an electrical machine should have
proper
(a) voltage rating
(b) current rating
(c) power factor
(d) speed
Ans: b
53. Slip-rings in a synchronous motor carry
(a) direct current
(b) alternating current
(c) no current
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
54. A synchronous machine with large air gap has
(a) a higher value of stability limit
(6) a small value of inherent regulation
(c) a higher synchronizing power which makes the machine less sensitive
to load
variations
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
55. The armature current of the synchronous motor has higher values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
56. In a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation, when the load
is
increased three times, its torque angle becomes approximately
(a) one-third
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) six times
(e) nine times
Ans: c
57. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is called
_____
angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Ans: a
58. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous
motor ?
(a) Damper winding
(b) Star-delta starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star-delta starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Ans: c
59. When the rotor speed, in a synchronous machine, becomes more than
the
synchronous speed during hunting, the damper bars develop
(a) inductor motor torque
(b) induction generator torque
(c) synchronous motor torque
(d) d.c. motor toque
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
60. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound round
induction
motor is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
61. The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator,
in
polyphase multipolar synchronous motors running at full load, is of the
order of
(a) zero degree
(b) two degrees
(c) five degrees
(d) ten degrees
Ans: c
62. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when
(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
63. Change of D.C. excitation of a synchronous motor changes
(a) applied voltage of the motor
(b) motor speed
(c) power factor of power drawn by the motor
(d) any of the above
(e) all of the above
Ans: c
64. While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor action, field
winding
is usually
(a) connected to D.C. supply
(b) short-circuited by low resistance
(c) kept open-circuited
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
65. Which of the following motors will be used in electric clocks ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) A.C. induction motor
(d) A.C. synchronous motor
Ans: d
SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS – Electrical Engineering Interview Questions and
Answers
66. If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and drawing
current at
lagging power factor from constant voltage supply, its field excitation is
increased,
then its power factor
(a) become more
(b) become less
(c) remain constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
67. A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end substation
operates with
such an excitation that it takes power at lagging power factor. Now if the
applied
voltage of the synchronous motor goes down, the power factor of the
synchronous
motor will
(a) remain same
(b) go down
(c) improve
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
68. While starting a salient pole synchronous motor by induction motor
action
and connecting field discharge resistance across field, starting and
accelerting
torque is produced by
(a) induction motor torque in field winding
(b) induction motor torque in damper winding
(c) eddy current and hysteresis torque in pole faces
(d) reHetance motor torque due to saliency of the rotor
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
69. Armature of a synchronous machine is
(a) of reducing number of slip rings on the rotor
(b) armature is associated with large power as compared to the field
circuits
(c) of difficulty of providing high voltage insulation on rotor
(d) all of the above reasons
Ans: d
70. If excitation of a synchronous motor running with a constant load is
decreased from its normal value, ignoring effects of armature reaction, it
leads to
(a) increase in both armature current and power factor angle
(b) increase in back e.m.f. but decrease in armature current
(c) increase in both armature current and power factor which is lagging
(d) increase in torque angle but decrease in back e.m.f.
Ans: a
71. When a 3-phase synchronous generator is supplying a zero power
factor
lagging load, the armature field affects the main field in the following
way
(a) augments it directly
(b) directly opposes it
(c) cross-magnetises it
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
72. Stability of a synchronous machine
(a) decreases with increase in its excitation
(b) increases with increase in its excitation
(c) remains unaffected with increase in excitation
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
73. The power factor of a synchronous motor is better than that of
induction
motor because
(a) stator supply is relieved of responsibility of producing magnetic field
(b) mechanical load on the motor can be adjusted
(c) synchronous motor runs at synchronous speed
(d) synchronous motor has large air gap
Ans: a
74. If in a synchronous motor, driving a given mechanical load and
drawing
current at a leading power factor from constant voltage supply its field
excitation
is increased, its power factor
(a) will become more
(b) will become less
(c) will remain unchanged
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
75. A synchronous motor is running with normal excitation. When the
load is
increased, the armature current drawn by it increases because
(a) speed of the motor is reduced
(b) power factor is decreased
(c) Eb (back e.m.f.) becomes less than V (applied voltage)
(d) Er (net resultant voltage) in armature is increased
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
76. If one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited, motor
(a) will refuse to start
(b) will overheat in spots
(c) will not come upto speed
(d) will fail to pull into step
Ans: a
77. If the field circuit of an unloaded salientpole synchronous motor gets
suddenly open-circuited, then
(a) it runs at a slower speed
(b) the motor stops
(c) it continues to run at the same speed
(d) it runs at a very high speed
Ans: b
78. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor fields rotate
simultaneously ?
(a) D.C. motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
(e) Induction motor
Ans: d
79. The speed of a synchronous motor
(a) increases as the load increases
(b) decreases as the load decreases
(c) always remains constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
80. A rotory converter can also be run as a
(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) d.c. series motor
(c) d.c. compound motor
(d) induction motor
(e) synchronous motor
Ans: e
81. The maximum speed variation in a 3-phase synchronous motor is
(a) 10 per cent
(b) 6 per cent
(c) 4 per cent
(d) 2. per cent
(e) zero
Ans: e
82. Which of the following resistances can be measured by conducting
insulation
resistance test on a synchronous motor ?
(a) Phase to phase winding resistance
(b) Stator winding to earthed frame
(c) Rotor winding to earthed shaft
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
83. Due to which of the following reasons a synchronous motor fails to
pull into
synchronism after applying D.C. field current ?
(a) High field current
(b) Low short circuit ratio
(c) High core losses
(d) Low field current
Ans: d
16.84. In a synchronous motor, the maximum power developed depends
on all of
the following except
(a) rotor excitation
(b) maximum value of coupling angle
(c) direction of rotation
(d) supply voltage
Ans: c
85. In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the negative phase sequence exists
when the
motor is
(a) supplied with unbalanced voltage
(b) under-loaded
(c) over-loaded
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
86. In a synchronous motor, damper windings are provided on
(a) stator frame
(b) rotor shaft
(c) pole faces
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
87. The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous motor working on leading power
factor
will be
(a) more than the supply voltage
(b) less than the supply voltage
(c) equal to the supply voltage
Ans: a
88. The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous motor running
with
normal excitation is to
(a) decrease both armature current and power factor
(6) decrease armature current but increase power factor
(c) increase armature current but decrease power factor
(d) increase both its armature current and power factor
Ans: c
89. The net armature voltage of a synchronous motor is equal to the
(a) vector sum of Eb and V
(b) arithmetic sum of Eb and V
(c) arithmetic difference of Eb and V
(d) vector difference of Eh and V
Ans: d
90. The ratio of starting torque to running torque in a synchronous motor
is
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) infinity
Ans: a
91. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. Eb
depends on
(a) load on the motor
(b) d.c. excitation only
(c) both the speed and rotor flux
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
92. A 3-phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. If the direction of
its field
current is reversed
(a) the motor will stop
(b) the motor continue to run in the same direction
(c) the winding of the motor will burn
(d) the motor will run in the reverse direction
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
93. The magnitude of field flux in a 3-phase synchronous motor
(a) remains constant at all loads
(b) varies with speed
(c) varies with the load
(d) varies with power factor
Ans: a
94. The torque angle, in a synchronous motor, is the angle between
(a) the supply voltage and the back e.m.f.
(b) magnetising current and back e.m.f.
(c) the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
95. Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot be due to
(a) windage friction
(b) variable load
(c) variable frequency
(d) variable supply voltage
Ans: a
96. By which of the following methods the constant speed of a
synchronous motor
can be changed to new fixed value ?
(a) By changing the supply frequency
(b) By interchanging any two phases
(c) By changing the applied voltage
(d) By changing the load.
Ans: a
97. In a synchronous motor, V-curves represent relation between
(a) armature current and field current
(b) power factor and speed
(c) field current and speed
(d) field current and power factor
Ans: a
98. In a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor, the frequency, pole
number
and load torque all are halved. The motor speed will be
(a) 3000 r.p.m.
(b) 1500 r.p.m.
(c) 750 r.p.m.
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
99. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-bars has at constant
full load,
100% excitation and unity power factor. On changing the excitation only,
the
armature current will have
(a) no change of power factor
(b) lagging power factor with over-excitation
(c) leading power factor with under-excitation
(d) leading power factor with over-excitation
Ans: d
100. Which of the following motors is non-self starting ?
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) synchronous motor
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor
(d) Wound round induction motor
Ans: b
101. In a synchronous motor it the back e.m.f. generated in the armature
at
noload is approximately equal to the applied voltage, then
(a) the motor is said to be fully loaded
(b) the torque generated is maximum
(c) the excitation is said to be zero per cent
(d) the excitation is said to be hundred per cent
Ans: d
102. In a synchronous motor, the damping winding is generally used to
(a) prevent hunting and provide the starting torque
(b) reduce the eddy currents
(c) provide starting torque only
(d) reduce noise level
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
103. If the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited, the power factor
will be
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) lagging
(d) leading
Ans: c
104. The back e.m.f. in the stator of a synchronous motor depends on
(a) number of poles
(b) flux density
(c) rotor speed
(d) rotor excitation
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
105. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can
develop without
losing its synchronism, is known as
(a) slip torque
(b) pull-out torque
(c) breaking torque
(d) synchronising torque
Ans: d
106. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has large values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both high and low excitation
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
107. Which of the following losses, in a synchronous motor, does not vary
with
load?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Copper losses
(c) Any of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
108. The size of a synchronous motor decreases with the increase in
(a) flux density
(b) horse power rating
(c) speed
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
109. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the stator core
surface in a
synchronous motor ?
(a) Eddy current losses in the conductors
(b) Iron losses in the stator
(c) Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors
(d) Windage losses
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
110. The duration of sudden snort-circuit test on a synchronous motor is
usually
about
(a) one hour
(b) one minute
(c) one second
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
111. The maximum constant load torque under which a synchronous
motor will
pull into synchronism at rated rotor supply voltage and frequency is
known as
(a) pull-up torque
(b) pull-in torque
(c) pull-out torque
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
112. A synchronous machine with low value of short-circuit ratio has
(a) lower stability limit
(6) high stability limit
(c) good speed regulation
(d) good voltage regulation
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
113. The construction of a synchronous motor resembles
(a) a series motor
(b) an induction motor
(c) an alternator
(d) a rotary converter
Ans: c
114. If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor is
open
circuited, the motor will
(a) stop
(b) run as induction motor
(c) function as static condenser
(d) burn with dense smoke
Ans: a
115. For power factor correction, synchronous motors operate at
(a) no-load and greatly over-excited fields
(b) no-load and under-excited fields
(c) normal load with minimum excitation
(d) normal load with zero excitation
Ans: a
116. The maximum torque which a synchronous motor will develop at
rest for any
angular position of the rotor, at rated stator supply voltage and
frequency, is
known as
(a) locked-rotor torque
(b) synchronous torque
(c) pull up torque
(d) reluctance torque
Ans: a
117. Exciters of synchronous machines are
(a) d.c. shunt machines
(b) d.c. series machines
(c) d.c. compound machines
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
118. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is defined as
the
angle between the
(a) rotor and stator teeth
(b) rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity
(c) rotor and the stator poles of the same polarity
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
119. If the synchronous motor, properly synchronised to the supply is
running on
no load and is having negligible loss
then
(a) the stator current will be zero
(b) the stator current will be very small
(c) the stator current will be very high
(d) the back e.m.f. will be more than the supply voltage
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
120 The armature current of the synchronous motor
(a) has large values for low excitation i niy
(b) has large values for high excitation only
(c) has large values for low and high excitation
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
121. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor will depend
on
(a) the rotor excitation only
(b) the supply voltage only
(c) the rotor excitation and supply volt-age both
(d) the rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum value of coupling
angle
(90°)
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
122. A synchronous motor which works on a leading power factor and
does not
drive a mechanical load is called as
(a) static condenser
(b) condenser
(c) synchronous condenser
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
129. A synchronous motor develops maximum power when load angle is
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: c
130. In a synchronous motor, the breakdown torque is
(a) directly proportional to applied voltage
(b) directly proportional to the square of the applied voltage
(c) inversely proportional to applied voltage
(d) none of the above
Ans: a

Part – A (TRAIN LIGHTING) I. SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER:

1) In regulator how many windings are available in Magnetic amplifier ( a & c )

a. 6 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5
2) Size of V belts used 4.5KW Alternator ( c )

a. C121 c. C122 b. C123 d. C124

3) Capacity of battery fuse in TL Coaches ( a )

a. 35 A (HRC ) c. 16 A (HRC ) b. 63 A (HRC ) d. 5 A (HRC )

4) The gap between the two halves of axle pulley should be ( c )

a 0.5 – 1.0 mm c. 3.0 – 4.0 mm b. 2.0 – 3.0 mm d. 5.0 – 5.5 mm

5) What are the AH capacity of cells used in TL coaches ( c )

a. 110 c. 120 b. 1100 d. 800 6) Name the Acid used in lead acid cells ( a )

a. Sulphuric Acid c. Nitric acid b. Hydrochloric Acid d. Phosphoric Acid

7) Give the Spg & Voltage of Fully charged cells ( a ) a. 1220 & 2.2 a. 1200 & 2.2 b. 1220 & 2.1 b. 1200 &
2.1

8) Cut in speed for B/L alternator in TL application ( c )

a. 21 c. 19 b. 20 d. 18

9) Inverter converts ( a ) a. DC to AC c. AC to AC b. DC to DC d. AC to DC

10) IGBT are used as ( a )

a. High frequency switching device c. Low frequency switching device b. Illuminating device d. Amplifier
11) Boost charge of VRLA cells ( a )

a. 2.3 V/Cell c. 2.25 V/Cell b. 110 V/Cell d. 115 V/Cell

12) Trickle charging of VRLA cell ( c ) a. 2.3 V/Cell c. 2.25 V/Cell b. 110 V/Cell d. 115 V/Cell

13) No of MA’s in 4.5 KW regulators ( a ) a. 1 c. 2 b. 3 d. 4

14) No of ET in 4.5 KW regulators ( a ) a. 1 c. 2 b. 3 d. 4

15) Rectifier converts ( b )

a. DC to AC c. AC to AC b. AC to DC d. DC to DC

16) Give the half load setting of R/R for TL application ( a )

a. 19 Amps c. 21 Amps b. 20 Amps d. 22 Amps

17) Required level of Illumination for Ordinary sleeper coach ( c )

a. 14 Lux c. 20 Lux b. 22 Lux d. 16 Lux 18) Give the tension length of spring used in Tension rod of 4.5
KW Alternator ( a )

a. 310 mm c. 269 mm b 265 mm d. 275 mm

19) Why lead acid cells are called as Secondary cells ( c )

a. Since it can’t be recharge c. Since it can be recharge b. Since it can’t charge initially d. None

20) Name the method to be used to find out Earth leakage ( a ) a. Double test lamp method c. Tong
tester method b. Multi meter method d. Volt meter method

21) Voltage setting in VRLA cells for Express & passenger trains is ( c ) a. 128 ± 0.5V & 127 ± 0.5V c. 127 ±
0.5V & 128 ± 0.5V b. 125 ± 0.5V & 125 ± 0.5V d. 124 ± 0.5V & 122 ± 0.5V

22) If alternator is not generating voltage, the reason would be ( d ) a. Field may be open c. Dropping of
V-belts b. Fuse in regulator had blown d. All the above

23) The size of bus bars recommended to use in 4.5KW ERRU is ( b )

a. 90 Sq. mm c. 50 Sq. mm b. 16 Sq. mm d. None

24) Terminals of IGBT are ( b )

a. Base, emitter, collector c. Gate, source, drain b. Gate, emitter, collector d. None

25) No. of zeners connected across the primary of the step down transformer of power module. ( a )

a. 4 c. 2 b. 3 d. 1

II. WRITE DOWN THE ABBREVIATIONS:

1 PWM : Pulse Width Modulation.

2 VRLA : Valve Regulated Lead Acid

3 IGBT : Insulated Gate Bi polar Transistor

4 FRPCPY : Failure Rate Percentage Per Year.

5 BTU : British Thermal Unit. 6 IOD : Injured On Duty.

7 LAP : Leave at Average Pay

8 LHAP : Leave at Half Average Pay

9 CL : Casual Leave

10 PNM : Permanent Negotiable Machinery

11 AIRF : All India Railway men federation.

12 NFIR : National Federation of Indian railways.

13 DA : Dearness allowance

14 TA : Traveling allowance or transportation allowance

15 LWP : Leave without pay

16 CCA : City compensatory allowance.

17 PATB : Passenger alarm terminal board

18 EFT : Emergency feeding terminals

19 PELE : Portable emergency lighting equipment

20 IRIEEN : Indian railways institute of electrical engineers

21 PERT : Programme evaluation & review techniques

22 DGS&D : Director General of supply and Disposal

23 EMD : Earnest Money Deposit 24 SD : Security Deposit

25 BG : Bank Guarantee 26 PG : Performance Guarantee

27 CRI : Colour rendering Index

28 D&G charges : Direction & General charges

29 PPCP : Poly Propylene Co-polymer 30 EEPROM : Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only
Memory

III. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1) The process of removing heat from low temperature level and rejecting at high temperature is called.
REFRIGERATION.

2) Any substances for change of its state at constant temperature absorbs/give up heat is called LATENT
HEAT.

3) The sum of sensible heat and latent heat of substance in process is called ENTHALPY.

4) The latent heat of fusing ice is 144 BTU/LB.

5) The unit of refrigeration is TON OF REFREGIRATION – 12000 Btu/Hr or 3023.98 K.Cal/Hr.

6) The temperature measured by ordinary thermometer is called SENSIBLE HEAT. C.

7) What is the boiling point of water 100 C.

8) AT what temperature water starts freezing_ 0

9) One watt is 3.412 BTU. QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 6 of 57

10) One BTU is 0.252 K.calaries.

11) The unit of heat is BTU OR K.CAL

12) RMPU means ROOF MOUNTED PACKAGE UNIT

13) The setting of HP cutout in RMPU coaches is 415 psi.

14) The setting of LP cutout in under slung coaches is 35 psi. C.

15) The boiling point of refrigerant R22_ -40.8 C.16) The boiling point of refrigerant R12. – 29.8

17) Artificial respiration is required to the person met with electrical accident.

18) The rating of alternator in TL coaches is 4.5 KW.

19) The latent heat of evaporation IS THE HEAT REQUIRED TO CHANGE THE LIQUID INTO VAPOUR. C.

20) The temperature maintained in the refrigerator is LESS then 0

21) The dry bulb and vet bulb temperatures equals then the RH is 100%

22) The moisture absorption in refrigeration circuit is done by DEHYDRATOR CUM FILTER.

23) The commonly used refrigerants are R 12 & R 22

24) The lubrication of system in the sealed compressors is done by FREEZOL

25) The 3-phase voltage unbalance in supply should not exceed 2.5. % To 5%

26) For maintaining power supply quality the rate of change of frequency should not exceed. 1 HZ/Sec.
27) The voltage of 11 KV supply is 11000V

28) Tender Notice is to be published for. Open tender

29) Copper is the good conductor of electricity.

30) Completion estimate is not required for calling tender.

31) Contingencies charges mean Transportation charges.

32) Detailed estimate is to be prepared for sanctioned works.

33) Detailed estimate needs sanction of HOD.

34) The fire extinguisher used for Electrical fire is CO2

35) Fire is the combination of material and temperature & Oxygen.

36) B Type of fire extinguisher used to nullify the oil fires.

37) Electric type of fire is clarified as D type.

38) CO2 type fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires.

39) Ordinary fire can be extinguished by water.

40) RUBBER HAND GLOVES are to be used while operating isolator handle in substations.

41) Ordinary fire can be extinguished by WATER OR SAND.

42) Artificial respiration is required to the person met with ELECTRICAL accident.

43) What is IOD? INJURED ON DUTY

44) What is meant by fatal accident? THE ACCIDENT CAUSES WITH LOSS OF HUMAN LIFE

45) If a man touches a live wire, he gets SHOCK. /electrocuted.

46) CTC type extinguisher is used for ELECTRICAL fire.

47) If a transformer catches fire FOAM type of fire.

48) The fire extinguisher used for Electrical fire is CO2 TYPE.

49) Fire is the combination of Material, temperature and oxygen

50) B type of fire extinguisher used to nullify the oil fires.

51) Electric type of fire is clarified as D type.

52) CO2 type fire extinguisher is used for ELECTRICAL fires.

53) Soda ash type fire extinguisher is used for GENERAL fires.

54) CTC OR FOAM type of fire extinguishers will be used to extinguisher chemical fires.

55) The system voltage in TL coaches is 110 V DC supply.

56) Monoblock type & 120 Ah capacity of batteries are used in TL coaches.

57) The codal life of lead acid batteries is 04 years.

58) The codal life of VRLA batteries is 04 years.

59) The 35 SWG size of fuse wire is used for each fan or light in distribution fuse board.

60) The voltage setting of 4.5 KW alternator at regulator is 123 ± 0.5 volts.

61) If a cell is found less than 1.7 volts, it is considered as defective.

62) The wattage of 400 mm DC fan in TL coach is 35 watts.

63) The specific gravity of sulphuric acid which is used to make as electrolyte is 1.835.

64) The working voltage of 20W/TL inverter is 110 volts DC.

65) 16A HRC fuse is used for L1, L2 & fan circuit in RJB of TL coaches.

66) 100 KVA inverter capacity is used for cell phone charger in TL coaches.

67) The gap between wheel edge to axle pulley edge is 145mm ± 3mm.

68) The gap between the mounting bracket to adjustment nut of tension device for 4.5 KW alternator is
75mm.

69) Earht fault can be detected by using double test lamp or multi-meter.

70) The capacity of alternator, batteries & fans in TL coach are 4.5KW, 120Ah & 35W.

IV. INDICATE TRUE OR FALSE TO THE FOLLOWING:

1) Without EMD the tender offer is valid.

False

2) Amps is the unit of current

True

4) Internal Wiring system. True 5) Wood is the bad conductor of electricity.

True

6) Oil is used as a insulation in the power transformers.

False

7) The minimum capacity of power transformer on electrical General Services is 100KVA

True

11) The advantages of ERRU is to obtain pure DC supply and inbuilt over voltage protection.

True
12) The voltage of alternator in running condition cannot be checked at Roof Junction Box.

False

13) The cell voltage of TL coach is 2.2V.

True

14) TL coach alternator produces 35 Amps current.

False

15) The change of liquid state into vapour state is called evaporation.

True

16) Compressor works like a pump by drawing refrigerant vapour from the evaporator and sends to
condenser.

True

17) 40 SWG capacity wire is used as fuse wire for fan or light in Distribution Fuse Board.

False

18) The working voltage of 20W/TL inverter is 150V D.C.

False

19) Double test lamp method is adopted to detect earth leakage in a TL coach.

True

20) The maximum permissible voltage drop allowed between the battery and any of the farthest
light/fan point shall not exceed 3 volts at battery voltage of 108 ± 2 volts.

True

21) Flame retardant low tension tape is used for insulation of cables in TL & AC coaches.

True

22) Constant voltage method of charging is adopted for charging lead acid cells during POH.

False

23) The width of alternator pulley of 4.5 KW 110V is 140mm.

False
24) Shorting of power diode test to be conducted at full load.

True

25) Bus bars provided in ERRU shall be made of electrolytic copper.

True

V. SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:

1) What are the Fire prevention measures followed in coaches?

Ans: Adequate and proper maintenance of Electrical devices in the coaches as per laid norms. All
electrical equipments should be maintained properly. Check all the electrical circuits for foul (burning)
smell, smoke and sparks. After completion of the loading, guard must ensure that all the lights in the
luggage portion of the SLR are switched “off” to eliminate possibility of short-circuiting. Electrical
junction boxes should be covered and locked positively in all TL coaches especially in pantry cars.
Ensure all electrical connections are intact and there are no loose fittings in the coaches. Do not allow
battery boxes in ‘open’ condition and also MS sheet covering is provided in electrical circuits. Ensure
correct rated Over load, over voltage protection, fuses/MCBs are provided in electrical circuits. Ensure
the availability and proper knowledge of usage of fire extinguishers in AC coaches.

2) What are Levels of electrical protections in TL coaches?

Ans: a. Battery: TL coaches are provided with 120 Ah, 110 V flooded type Lead Acid Battery or VRLA
battery. 40 A HRC fuse provided in main positive side of Battery circuit in under frame. b. Alternator &
Regulator: TL coaches are provided with 4.5 kW alternator & RRU/ERRU. 35 A HRC fuse is provided in
one phase of AC input. 6 A HRC fuse is provided for field control circuit. c. Fuse cum rotary switch panel
35 A HRC fuse is provided in main –ve circuit. L1 & L2 lighting circuits are provided with 16 A HRC fuse
each in +ve side. Fan is provided with 16 A HRC fuse in +ve side. SPM circuit is provided with 16 A HRC
fuse in +ve side. d. Fuse Distribution board 35 SWG re-wirable fuse is provided in both +ve & -ve sides
for all individual light & fan fitting. Each Laptop/mobile charging point is provided with 500 mA/1.0 A
fuse in both +ve & -ve sides. Emergency light circuit is provided with 6 A HRC fuse in both +ve and –ve
sides.

3) What are the main components of Lead Acid Cell?

Ans. Main Components of Lead Acid Cells are: (i) Positive Plates which are tubular in shape made of
PBO2. (ii) Negative Plates usually consists of a lead grid into which active material of Sponge lead is
pressed. (iii) Separators which are made by Synthetic used between positive and negative plates. (iv)
Container is made of hard rubber or PPCP with high insulating strength to resist acids which are used as
Electrolyte. (v) Cells cover which covers container having vent plugs and level indicator.

4) What type of batteries are used in TL coachees.Explain briefly about each one of them?

Ans. In TL coaches two type of batteries are used. They are VRLA & SMF batteries. VRLA batteries: These
are the Valve Regulated Cells which works on Oxygen Recombination Principle. SMF batteries: To
overcome problems of frequent topping up and leakage of electrolyte sealed maintenance free batteries
are developed. Electrolyte in SMF batteries is in immobilized form and these can be used in any position.

5) What do you mean by PELE box and when it is utilized?

Ans. The equipments available in PELE box are: i. TRIPOD STAND ii. HOLDER iii. FLEXIBLE WIRE 25
METERS iv. CROCODILE CLIPS v. BULBS vi. HAND LAMP vii. LOG BOOK viii. LAMP FITTINGS These
equipments are used in emergency conditions of train service. This box is kept in the Guard
Compartment.
6) What are the Safety Checks in under gear and batteries?
Ans: Alternator:- 1. Alternator safety chains 2. Suspension pin with anti- rotation plate and cotter pin 3.
Suspension pin with nylon bushes 4. Alternator pulleys Axle pulley :- 1. Axle pulley with bolts and split
pins. Battery box:- 1. Condition of battery box channels 2. Check nuts with split pins. Regulator
Availability of nuts & bolts with split pins Availability of nuts & bolts with split pins of other under gear
electrical suspension equipments.
7) How to check Earth fault with Double Test Lamp?

Ans: Double test lamp having three leads. Centre lead should be connected to earth, left side lead to be
connected on positive side (+ve), right side to be connected on negative side (-ve) If both bulbs glow
dimly it indicates no earth in the coach. If left side bulb glows brightly it indicates negative earth (-ve) in
the coach. If right side bulb glows brightly it indicates positive earth (+ve) in the coach.

8) Draw the tube light circuit diagram. Explain its functioning?

9) (a) Define Ohms Law?

Ans. Temperature remaining constant the flow of current is directly proportional to applied Voltage. V, I
= V/R (resistance of the conductor)I

(b) Define Kirchoff's Voltage Law?

Ans. It states, " the sum of the Voltage drops around a DC series circuit equals the source or applied
voltage. E = E1 + E2 = E3.

(c) Define Kirchoff's Current Law?

Ans. It states " the current flowing toward a point in a circuit must equal to the current flowing away
from that point. I = I1 + I2 + I3.

(d) State Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction?

Ans. First Law: Whenever the flux linked with a circuit is changed an e.m.f. is induced in the circuit
Second Law: The magnitude of the induced e.m.f is equal to the rate of change of flux linkages.

10) Find the current load (IL) in the below mentioned circuit diagram ?

Ans. (2+2) x 4 Resistance of thrid loop = = 2Ω (2+2) x 4 2 x 2 Resistance of second loop = = 2Ω (2+2) x 4 (i)
I1 x 2 = I2 x 4 = IL x 4. (ii) I1 + I2 + IL = 2A. I1 + I1 x 2/4 + I1 x 2/4 = 2A. I1 [ 1 + 0.5 + 0.5 ] = 2. I1 = 2/2 = 1A.
IL = I1 x 2/4 = 1 x 2 = 0.5A. 4 Hence, IL = 0.5A.

11) Give the charge and discharge reaction of the lead acid battery?

Ans. Anode Electrolyte Cathode Discharge Anode Electrolyte Cathode PbO2 + 2H2SO4 + Pb PbSO4 + 2
H2O + PbSO4 Lead dioxide Sulphuric acid Sponge lead Charge Lead sulphate Water Lead sulphate

12) What is the difference between SG TL coaches and LHB TL coaches?

Ans: Sl.No Item description SG TL Coach LHB TL Coach 1 Coach load distribution From Roof junction Box
Power panel 2 Fuse distribution board Available Integrated in the power panel 3 Fans DC fans AC fans
( 2.5 KVA 110 V Dc/AC invters2 no's) 4 Pantry car Single alternator, single set of battery Two alternators,
Double set of Battery

13) What are the safety items to be inspected on battery?

Ans: Safety items to be checked on battery are full complements of battery box fixing bolts and its
tightness, observation of its bottom plate and side plates for damage, full tightness of cell packing,
proper securement of anti theft arrangement and battery box cover, full tightness of inter cell
connections with double fasteners, correct size of battery fuse, elimination of earth leakage and
maintenance of correct polarity, e.t.c,

14) What are the safety items to be inspected on Rotary Junction Box?
Ans: Safety items to be checked on rotary junction box are full tightness of all terminal connections,
provision of correct size of HRC fuses, maintaining correct polarity of incoming and outgoing cables,
avoiding earthing and shorting of cables.

15) What are the safety items to be inspected on wiring?

Ans: Safety items to be checked on wiring are securing of wiring through cleats with trough casing,
provision of correct size of fuses in wiring circuits, elimination of lower size cables, provision of PVC
bushes when ever wires passing through metal parts, eliminations of temporary wiring, avoiding of
earthing and shorting of cables etc.

16) What are the reasons for loss of residual magnetism? How do you regain it? What is the
permissible and maximum DC voltage is to be applied to regain the residual magnetism?

Ans. The reasons for loss of residual magnetism are keeping the alternator in idle condition for long time
and connecting field wires in wrong polarity. To regain the residual magnetism flash the field terminals
for correct polarity of DC supply. The permissible DC voltage is to be applied to regain the residual
magnetism is 6 to 12V DC. Maximum voltage is 24V DC.

17) What is the purpose of belt-tensioning device? What are the parts it consists of?

Ans. The purpose of belt tensioning device is to keep V belts in tight condition. Its parts are 1. Tension
rod 2. Tension spring 3. Belt tension indicator with spring seat 4. Fork eye 5. Fork eye side spring seat 6.
Belt tightening nut 7. Free end pipe and nut

18) What are the main components of Lead Acid cell?

Ans. Main components of Lead Acid cells are: a) Positive Plates, which are tubular n shape, made of
PBO2 b) Negative Plates, usually consists of lead grid into which active material of Sponge lead is
pressed. c) Separators, which are made by Synthetic, used between Positive and negative plates. d)
Container is made of hard rubber or PPCP with high insulating strength to resist acids which are used as
Electrolyte. e) Cell covers which covers container having vent plugs and level indicator.

19) Enumerate the cable sizes used in TL coaches?

Ans. Roof wiring Branch wiring : 4 sq.mm Aluminium, LI, LII & F+ve : 16 sq.mm Aluminium, SPMI&II : 16
sq.mm Aluminium. Under frame wiring Alternator to regulator, field winding : 6 sq.mm copper. Main
windings : 16 sq.mm copper, Regulator to under frame junction box : 35 sq.mm Al. UFJB to Battery box :
35 sq.mm Al.

20) Why earthing is necessary for any electrical equipments, domestic installation & service building
etc?

For TL coaches what is the minimum I.R. value required for new wiring? Ans:To drain away any leakage
of currents due to poor insulation and to save human life from dangerous shock and also to avoid burnt
of electrical equipment. The minimum IR value required for wiring is 2MΩ’s and minimum IR value
required in service for giving coach fit for service is 1MΩ.

21) Practically demonstrate how to use Fire extinguisher?

Ans: a) P -Pull the pin at the top of the extinguisher. b) A -Aim the nozzle towards the base of the fire. c)
S -Stand approximately 8 feet away from the fire and squeeze the handle to discharge the extinguisher.
d) S -Sweep the nozzle back and forth at the base of the fire.

22) What are the precautions to be taken before starting work on electrical installations?

Ans: Before starting any electrical works on installations disconnect the power supply to the Electrical
equipment and discharge & connect earth. If any capacitors are connected, it has to be discharged
properly. Test with meters for any availability of supply then start the work.

23) How do you conduct insulation resistance test on 100 VA inverter used for Laptop and mobile
charging sockets used in RC SG coaches?

Ans: The insulation resistance of the inverter shall be measured with 500v megger as given below: a)
Between input terminals shorted together and the housing with output being kept in open circuit
condition. b) Between the output terminals shorted together and keeping the input terminals in open
circuit. The insulation resistance values measured thus shall not be less than 10 Mega ohms in each test.

24) Write about the working principle of TL/AC alternator?

Ans. The core of the stator which is completely embraced by the field coils, will retain a residual
magnetism if excited by a battery once. The flux produced by the filed coils find its path through the
rotor. When the rotor is rotated the passage of rotor teeth and slots, alternatively, under the field,
offers a varying reluctance path for the flux produced by the field coils. The flux, which varies
periodically, links with AC coils and induces an alternating voltage in AC coil. The frequency of the
induced voltage depends on the speed of rotor, where as the magnitude depends on the speed of the
rotor and the level of excitation. The field is controlled through regulator to attain desired output
voltage by means of positive feedback again.

25) What are the precautions to be taken while loading and unloading of alternator?

Ans. i) While unloading and loading alternator, see that the terminal box and pulley should not be
broken. ii) The alternator to be loaded in correct way that bushes to be provided in proper place. iii)
While loading and unloading proper precautions to be taken not to fall on ground otherwise
men/materials will be injured/damaged. iv) See that the anti rotating clamp provided on trolley
coincides with alternator suspension pin. v) Replace the worn out alternator and alternator suspension
bracket bushes. vi) See that the alternator should not have play with proper washers in improper place
to align the axle pulley. vii) Safety chains and cotter pins to be provided without fail.

26) Give important measures adopted by railways for prevention of fires in TL coaches?

Ans. a) Cable sizes have been standardized. b) Provision of fuse on both positive and negative side in
FDB c) Use of self extinguishing PVC cables. d) Provision of rubber grommets at points where the cable
enters through metal members in the coach. e) Proper crimping at the cable terminals. f) Air clearance
of 10 mm between live part and earth and between parts of opposite polarity. g) Replacing of cables
with any joints, noticed during POH. h) Re-wiring of the coach planned on the basis of cable life of 15
years. i) Use of Flame retardant Insulation tape. j) If I.R. value of wiring is less than 1M, rewiring should
be taken up.

27) What precautions will you take during re-wiring of a coach?

Ans. a) Use of PVC cables of suitable current. b) In under frame and end walls of coach the wiring has to
be drawn through Rigid steel conduits c) Use of proper size of fuses. d) The phase and field wires from
the Alternator to terminal box shall be run in one flexible PVC conduit and from terminal box to rectifier
– cum-regulator & from rectifier-cum-regulator to under frame terminal board in one rigid steel conduit.
e) Proper method of crimping by using proper die and use of corrosion inhibiting compound during
crimping of Aluminium cables. f) Segregation of positive and negative cables. g) Cables in the roof (super
structure) to be carried in non-metallic rigid conduits with proper cleating arrangement. h) Use of FRLT
insulation tape. i) After re-wiring the test the insulation resistance with 500v dc megger. The minimum
insulation resistance should be 2 Mega ohms.

28) What are the disadvantages of 110 Volts DC Train lighting System?

Ans: Disadvantages: a) In the 120 volts system single battery is provided load on the battery is more.
The life of the battery is reduced considerably. b) Due to introduction of transform mounting system the
complete coach has to be lifted for replacement of V belts. c) Due to provision smaller size batteries, the
quantity of electrolyte is limited. If the level of electrolyte is not maintained by adding distilled water,
the batteries may damage. d) Due to high voltage system, requires high value of insulation resistance for
safety etc.

29) What are the major train lighting equipments available in Self Generating coaches?

Ans. The major train lighting equipments in coach are a) Alternator b) Rectifier cum Regulator Unit c)
Battery d) Axle Pulley e) Rotary/ Roof Junction Box f) Under frame Junction Box g) Fans h) Lights i) EFT j)
BCT

30) What are the sizes / capacity of fuses provided at various locations of 110 Volts Train Lighting
coach?
Ans. Sl. No. Circuit fuse Location Fuse size Current rating 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. Positive/negative SPM1 &
SPM2 Main negative L1, L2, and F +ve Battery fuse Field fuse AC fuse Branch fuses Junction box Junction
box Junction box Battery box Regulator box Regulator box DFB 35 SWG RW 16A HRC 35A HRC 16A HRC
40A HRC 6A HRC 20 35A HRC 6A --- --- --- --- 6A ---

31) What was the latest proforma issued by Railway Board for special drive to prevent fire in TL
coaches during trip inspection?

Ans: The latest proforma issued by Railway Board for special drive to prevent fire in TL coaches during
trip inspection is given below: Sl. No. Depot Date Train No. Coach No. Earth Leakage (Y/N) Incorrect
rating of HRC fuses (Y/ N) Rewire able fuses replaced with HRC fuses (Y/N) Availability of OVP in
RRU/ERRU (Y/N) Condition of FDBs (Y/N) Loose wires & connections (Y/N) Remarks

32) Explain Trickle Charging of Batteries?

Ans: When a battery is kept as an emergency reserve, it is very essential that it should be found fully
charged when an emergency arises. Due to leakage action and open circuit losses, the batteries
deteriorate .Hence to keep it fresh, batteries are kept on a small charging. For example: A standby
battery for station bas-bar of 400 Ah at 10 hr rating, a continuous trickle charge of 1 Amp will keep the
cells fully charged and keep in perfect condition

VI. ESSAY ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS :

1) List items to be checked in trip inspection of TL coaches?

Ans: i. Feel alternator temperature for generation. Warm- Generation OK, Cool- Check for generation. ii.
Replace field fuse if found blown iii. Check continuity of field & phase windings with the help of test
lamp/multimeter. iv. Checks for residual magnetism, in case of loss of magnetism provide 12V flash. v.
Check for continuity between alternator and regulator. vi. Check the condition of safety chain and
availability of split pins in safety chains vii. Check the alternator suspension bracket and tension gear for
damages and replace if any. viii. Check for availability of alternator castle nut. ix. Check for availability of
all V-belts and without and twist. x. Check the V- belt tension with the help of 4 Kg weight and adjust
accordingly. xi. Ensure 30mm gap between bracket and free end bush collar xii. Check for any shift of
axle pulley, the gap between axle pulley and wheel hub. xiii. Check for level of distilled water in lead acid
cells and top-up if required. xiv. Clean sulphation if any. xv. Ensure HRC fuse of correct rating & in
working condition. xvi. Check for any earth leakages and take remedial action. xvii. Check for tightness in
terminal connections xviii. Check for availability of cable cleats, clamps, and grommets for all cables. xix.
Check and replace any equipment.

2) List items to be checked in monthly inspection of TL coaches?

Ans: In addition to trip schedule the following examinations to be carried out i. Check for tightness of
terminal connections of alternators. ii. Thoroughly clean externally iii. Open Inspection cover of
regulator and blow off dust with the help of blower. iv. Check locking of current settings in the regulator
v. Check for availability and proper fixture of castle nut and split pin. vi. Record Specific gravity of each
mono block on On load and Off load. vii. Charge the cells through BCT until the specific gravity raises to
value of Pilot cell. viii. In case 1/3rd of total cells are with low specific gravity, the entire set to be
replaced ix. Cells showing reverse/ zero volts should be withdrawn and replaced by charged cells. In
addition to the works mentioned in Trip & Fortnightly Examination, carry out the following. Alternators,
Rectifier & Regulators: a) Check for tightening of terminal connections of alternators and rectifier
regulators. b) Thoroughly clean externally the alternator & regulator. c) Open inspection cover of
regulator. Blow dust with a portable blower. Secure cover tightly after inspection. d) Check locking of
current setting of regulator, if disturbed it should be reset/locked as prescribed. e) Check the alternator
pulley for proper fixture and the availability of castle nut & split pin. Axle pulley: Watch for shifting of
axle pulley by observing the white band on either side of pulley. Reset the correct position of pulley, if
found shifted and tighten the loose nuts with torque wrench with recommended torque. Check the
tightness of nuts and also availability of check nuts and split pins in all fixing bolts. Batteries: Record
specific gravity of individual cells/monoblock. “Switch on” load full load of the coach and record
individual voltage of cells and total voltage. “Switch off” load. If the specific gravity is less than that
painted on the battery box, charge the cells as specified under “Trip Examination” after topping up with
DM water, if required. Use battery charging terminals provided on coaches for charging purposes.
Charging should be continued till the specific gravity rises to the value of mentioned in battery box on
“Pilot” cells. In case pilot cells show no appreciable improvement, check specific gravity of adjacent cells.
If the specific gravity does not improve in spite of charging replace the battery by another set and send
the defective battery to Depot/Shop for treatment at the earliest. Cells should be handled with due care
while unloading and in transit to avoid breakage. Adequate facilities should be created in Depot for
treatment of cells which do not pick up charge. Sulphation will be the main cause for this and sulphated
cells should be treated for their recovery as specified. On completion of charging, record the specific
gravity of individual cells. If there is any wide variation in the specific gravity/voltage of cells, disconnect
and replace those cells showing low specific gravity/voltage by spare ones. In case there are more than
1/3rd of total cells with low specific gravity, the entire set should be replaced. Cells showing reverse
voltage, zero volts should be withdrawn and replaced by charged cells immediately. Record individual
voltage of cells and the total voltage on full load of the coach. Change the marking of the pilot cell as
given in table. Junction Box: Open front door. Check all connections in MCB cum fuse panel for tightness
any for heating sign, fuses etc. Check availability of terminal lugs for all cables in junction box and
replace if necessary by terminal lugs of correct size. Check rotary switch/MCBs provided for lights, fan
circuits for correct condition and Rotary Switch and EFTs for proper operation. Replace/repair defective
MCBs. If MCBs are not readily available provide rewirable fuses of appropriate ratings, purely as a stop
gap measure. Check up negative fuse and replace if necessary by different ratings of HRC fuse for AC and
non-AC coaches. If rotary switches are provided instead of MCBs, check for proper operation. Check up
HRC fuses provided with rotary switches for correct ratings and replace, if necessary. Close front door
and secure properly by the locking key. If found defective, the same may be attended/replaced. Wiring
and accessories: In addition to the items listed under trip inspection, the following items shall be
inspected. Superstructure wiring and under frame wiring shall be tested seperately for which the main
negative fuse in shall be opened and controlling MCBs for all circuits kept off. All other fuses shall remain
in circuit. Insulation resistance shall be measured with all fittings and equipment connected both on
under frame and superstructure. The under frame wiring shall be tested with battery fuse open. The IR
value shlould be minimum 2 mega-Ohm in fair weather condition and min. 1 mega-Ohm under adverse
weather condition. Availability of inspection cover of DFBs should ensured. Fans In addition to the items
listed under trip examination the following works shall be carried out. The fan body, guards and blade
shall be thoroughly cleaned with cloth. All fans shall be opened and condition of commutator, brushes
and brush gear shall be thoroughly checked. Action should be taken where necessary as given under
Trip attention. QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 18 of 57 All fans shall be opened and condition
of commutator, brushes and brush gear shall be thoroughly checked. Action should be taken where
necessary as given under Trip attention. Studs used for fixing the fan to coach body, shall be checked
and tightened, wherever necessary. Availability of all the three fixing studs should be ensured. All the
switches controlling the fans shall be checked for its smooth operation and correct working and
replaced, where necessary. Fan regulators in upper class coaches shall be checked for smooth operation
from one position to the other. In case the regulators are not regulating the fan speed, the resistance
box shall be checked and replaced where necessary. Fan blades shall be replaced if found bent, or if
there is no proper air discharge. Carriage Lighting: In addition to the items listed out under “Trip
Examination” proceed as follows: Open each fitting with the dome key and remove the dust of the
fitting both from inside and outside. Ensure free operation of locking mechanism and replace defective
fitting. Clean glass domes first with wet cloth and then with a clean dry cloth. Replace rusted fittings and
fittings with damaged surface. Check up whether toggle switches are marked to indicate lighting
control “L” night light control “NL” side lamps in guards compartment as “SL” tail lamps as “TL-Rear”
“TL-Front” luggage room as ‘LRL’ if not, stencil legends with fluorescent paint. Check up all lighting
circuit fuses in each coach for correct sizes and replace if necessary. Stencil the sizes of fuses near the
locations, if not already done. Mark inspection covers of distribution fuse boards as DFB if not done
already. Thoroughly clean metal guards for roof light fittings in luggage rooms and paint, if necessary.
Tumbler/Toggle Switches: Check each toggle switch of lights and fans for proper fixing and operation.
Replace defective toggle switches. Toggle switches should be provided in the locations intended for
them and provided with covers with their knobs exposed for operation by passengers. Distribution fuse
boards and fuse cut-outs: Check distribution fuse boards and fuse cut outs of light and fan circuits, for
tightness of connections and provisions of correct size of fuses in the fuse terminals. Replace missing
distribution fuse board covers. Emergency Feed Terminals (EFTs): Check up supply and making of
polarity of EFTs. Replace missing EFTs and those without wiring nuts.

3) What are the points to be attended during Fortnightly schedule on TL coaches?

Ans: In addition to the instructions contained under “Trip examination” the following works shall be
carried out: Clean the interior of battery box. Clean the cell tops and deposits of sulphate, if any in
inter cell and end cell connections. Remove sulphated inter cell connections, clean the connecting
surface with piece of cloth. Use fresh fasteners, sulphated internal connections and fasteners should be
soaked in kerosene oil. Cleaned with warm water and kept ready for use. QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non
– AC Page 19 of 57 Inter cell connections should be provided with both small and large strips and four
fasteners each with one hexagonal nut, one spring washer to IS:3063 and two steel punched waster to
IS:2016. Remove end cell connectors, clean the connecting surface both in cell and connector
thoroughly and provide back. Check for proper crimping of terminal. In case strands of connecting cable
are found cut at the crimping end and re-crimp with a new inter cell connector. End cell connector
confirming to IS: 6848 should only be provided. Tinned copper crimping sockets with a single hole if any
provided as a stop gap measure should be replaced by standard end cell connector. Provide end cell
connectors with both the fasteners each with one spring washer to IS: 3063 and one punched steel
washer to IS: 2016. Tap sealed float guides and check for free movement. Look for elongated holes in
sealed float guides and replace such guides. Replace deficient floats promptly. Check whether vent
plugs are of the anti-splash type and replace if required. Check the make of cells and the lug date.
Different makes of cells mono blocks if found mixed together should be replaced by a single make of
cells. If it is not possible to do this during one fortnightly examination this should be noted down and
attempts made to replace the same during the next Fortnightly Examination. Check whether cell/mono
block packing is tight and provide additional packing, if necessary. Use only hard wood coated with acid
resistant paint for cell packing. Never use untreated wood or plywood for packing of cells/mono block. If
any cell/mono block is found cracked, replace it promptly. Check for provision of anti-theft rods and
provision of nuts, both inside and outside the battery box on either side. Replace deficient rod and
nuts. Apply petroleum jelly on inter cell connection and end cell connections. Do not use grease.
Check battery fuses and replaces overhead/incorrect size of fuses by correct size. Check battery box
fixing nuts for tightness. VRLA batteries: SMI No. RDSO/PE/TL/SMI/0001-98 I Rev. 0 dated: 01/06/1998
to be followed.

4) List items to be checked during IOH of TL coaches?

Ans: In addition to Trip, monthly, fortnightly inspections the following has to be done during IOH
schedule i. Check alternator terminal board, incoming & outgoing terminal connection, covers, lugs,
clamps & cleats, grommets, flexible pipes etc., ii. Check condition of axle pulley, rubber pads, nuts, lock
nuts, split pins and replace pulley, if groves for wear and tear. Replace pad if shifting mark or perish. iii.
Check axle pulley gap between the two halves of axle pulley is 3 mm. iv. Check the distance between
axle pulley edge and wheel hub v. Check the spring tension of tension rods by its guide plates. vi.
Checking of Gap between Tension device supporting plate and Tension Device sleeve vii. Checking of
Alignment between Alternator Pulley and Axle Pulley viii. Replace V-Belts and transom mounting bushes.
ix. Lubricate Tension rod & adjusting nut x. Check the regulator box (ERRU/RRU), remove all dust
particles by compressed air externally & clean with soft brush inside area. xi. Check gaskets and replace
if required xii. Record battery set ON/OFF load voltage and specfic gravity of invidual xiii. Check
suspension arrangement of battery box and its condition. If any cracks or corrosion is noticed, it shall be
attended. Paint if required. xiv. Discharge the battery bank with full coach load for 15 minutes & record
the voltage during discharge. If all are above 1.98 and above battery is healthy, provide normal charging.
If some of the cell voltages are less than 1.98 Volts, then give boost charging with 2.30 VPC for 12 hrs. by
charging them separately with current limited to 20% of rated capacity. The weak cells which are
charged separately must be checked through a discharge at C-10 rate for 30 minutes, the end of
discharge voltage should be above 2.0 V. If such a re-charged cell fails to qualify the above test, it should
not be replaced back in the coach. xv. Clean the junction boxes & tighten the connections. xvi. Check
working of rotary switches, etc. xvii. Check all the safety devices are in working order. xviii.Ensure
availability of correct rating of HRC fuses in panel board. xix. Check earth leakages (+ve and –ve). xx.
Clean all fans commutator, carbon bushes & lights fittings internally & externally. xxi. Check all switches,
fan regulators for proper working. xxii. Check working of all mobile/laptop charging points and
emergency lights. xxiii.Check the availability and working of PAC lights.

5) List the items to checked in OFF POH arrived coaches?

Ans: 1.0 MUST CHANGE ITEMS To be replaced DURING EVERY POH: Sl. No. Description of items To be
replaced A. Alternator with pulley 1 Suspension pin with lock nut 2 V-belt 3 Alternator nylon bush 4
Bogie bush 5 Cotter pin for locking suspension pin 6 Axle pulley rubber pad 7 Washers (Spring & Flat) 8
Studs with nut, check nut & split pin for axle pulley 9 Split pins 10 Tension rod sleeve 11 Tension rod
springs B. RRU/ERRU 1 Regulator fixing nut bolt on cradle 2 Sponge rubber gasket 3 Split pin C. Battery 1
Battery box suspension bolts, nut, split pins 2 FRP tray 3 Changing of batteries 4 Vent plugs 5 Float guide
6 Connecting strips/leads of lead acid batteries with nut & bolts D. Cables Conduit etc., 1 Rubber
grommets, fittings and cleats 2 Jointed cables 3 PVC flexible conduits E. Light Fittings 1 Sealing gasket 2
Diffuser/Wire Mesh F. Carriage Fan DC/AC fans 1 Insulation rubber pads 2 Carbon brush spring 3 Carbon
brush 4 Painting of Fans G. Any other items/components 1 All gaskets, grommets, jointed cables, cleats
2 Rotary switches 2.0 MUST CHANGE ITEMS To be replaced DURING ALTERNATIVE POH: Sl. No.
Description of items To be replaced A. Alternator with pulley 1 Bearings 2 Axle pulley for 'V' belt 3
Tension rod complete assembly B. RRU/ERRU Cover fixing flying nut bolts D. Cables Conduit etc., Under
frame cables rewiring E. Light Fittings Reflector F. Carriage Fan DC/AC fans Ball bearing 6200 Brushless
DC fans Ball bearing G. Any other items/components 1 HRC fuse base 2 Battery charging terminals 3.0
RDSO modifications to be carried out Sl. No. Description of modification 1 Modification sheet for the
cover for fuse distribution board used in general second class and 2nd class SL coaches. 2 Modification in
battery charging terminal cum fuse box plate for provision of 40 Amp. HRC fuse instead of re-wire able
fuse. 3 Provision of over voltage protection in rectifier regulator unit of 4.5 kW alternator. 4 Checking for
Emergency Light Unit 5 Shifting of junction box from guards compartment to passenger area 6 Provision
of modified terminal box cover for 4.5 kW TL Alternator 7 Arrangement for anchoring of outgoing cables
from alternator terminal board/box to rectifiercum-regulator terminal box and under frame terminal
board of 4.5kW brushless alternators used on SG coaches. 8 Provision of modified terminal board
assembly in 4.5/18/25 kW alternators. QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 22 of 57 9 Modification
in HMTD make RRU for train lighting coach.in 4.5 KW regulators 10 Provision of filter circuit in rectifier
cum regulator unit of 4.5 kW Regulators used in SG BG coaches. 4.0 Condition of other items Sl. No.
Description of items To be replaced A. RRU/ERRU 1 Painting 2 Gasket B. Battery 1 Condition of Battery
box frame 2 L-clamps for covers C. Light Fittings 1 Painting of Wash basin light fittings 2 ACP light fitting
with red color paint 3 ELUs 4 LED Tail lamps (for SLR) 5 Reflectors 6 All types of screws for above fittings
D. Carriage Fan DC/AC fans 1 Base bolts 2 All types of screws E. HRC Fuses 1 Main Battery fuse 2 Main -
ve fuse in RJB 3 L1 fuse in RJB 4 L2 fuse in RJB 5 Fan fuse in RJB 6 SPM fuse in RJB 7 Fuses for ELU in RJB
F. Any other items/components 1 Proper locking of RJB 2 FDB covers without any gap 3 Mobile charging
points 4 +ve' Earth Leakage 5 -ve' Earth Leakage 6 I.R values of Wiring 7 LED Desitination board +ve to be
connected in the output of Fan circuit 8 Joints near FDB of LED Destination board 9 Tightness of
connections in underframe junction box G. Stenciling of 1 Battery boxes 2 Regulators 3 Emergengy Feed
Terminals 4 Battery Charging terminals 5 Roof Junction Boxes 6 FDB's

6) Expain the procedure of V-Belts replacement? Explain reasons for dropping of V-Belts? Ans:
Procedure of replacement of V- Belts:- i. The tension rod of the coach is removed by ETL staff ii. The axle
box safety loops and brake hanger pins are removed by C&W staff to facilitate insertion of new V- Belts.
iii. The coach is lifted with the help of Jacks and springs & dashpot are removed by C&W staff. iv. The
belts are moved on the wheel one by one. v. The V-Belts are secured between wheel axle pulley and
Alternator pulley. vi. The V-Belts are tightened with the help of Tension rod. vii. The Tension has to be
adjusted so that Then provide fixing nut, check nut and split pin leaving a gap of 30 mm non AC coaches
at free end side of tensioning for mechanism. viii. Then observe the tension of belt with the help of 4Kg
weight of the second belt from alternator, if the belt hangs completely below the straight line of
adjacent belt the tension has to be increased. Repeat until the belt is lifted to the straight line of
adjacent coach. Reasons for belt dropping in en- route:- ix. Belts having excessive tension x. Belts having
lower tension xi. Correct gap not maintained between bracket and free end bush collar of tensioning
device xii. Mismatched of V Belts grade xiii. Mis alignment of axle pulley and alternator pulley xiv. Over
loaded Alternator due to heavy earth leakage xv. Twisted belts not rectified in time. xvi. Foreign body
entangles the belts.

7) Explain the procedure for through feeding in TL coaches in case of adjacent coach is dark/dim?

Ans: The detailed procedure of emergency feed extension is given as under 1.0 Action to be taken in
healthy coach 1.1 The availability of power supply in the emergency feed terminal should be ensured.
1.2 Only one dark coach should be extended feed supply from one healthy coach. 1.3 Before connecting,
the polarity of healthy coach as well as dark coach shall be checked. 1.4 L-II circuit of the healthy coach
shall be switched off before connecting supply to dark coach. 1.5 The rotary switch of (socket paralleling
main) SPM-I and II shall be kept in ON position. 2.0 Action to be taken in defective coach and feed
extension 2.1 L-II and fan circuit of the dark coach shall be switched off before connecting supply from
healthy coach. 2.2 The rotary switch of (socket paralleling main) SPM-I and II shall be kept in ON
position. 2.3 2.3 The L-I circuit is having essential/emergency lighting circuit. This includes all lavatory
lights 50% of compartment lights, and night lights in all types of IInd class coaches. 2.4 Remove (+ve)
fuse from battery box and )-ve) main fuse from junction box to disconnect the power supply to/from
battery. 2.5 The earth fault shall be checked up with the help of testing lamp. If earth fault is there then
feed extension should not be done. 2.6 The feeding shall be given to L-I circuit only of the dark coach
from healthy coach. 2.7 2.8 The defective coach shall be attended and cable should be removed at the
first available opportunity by TL staff. QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 24 of 57 2.9 The size of
the cables for the feed extgension shall be of 16 sq.mm PVC Aluminium /2.5 sq.mm elastomeric /2.5
sq.mm e-beam copper cables. 2.10 The length of the wire for feed extension shall be 2x1.5 meter (for
both terminals). The length of the cable shall not be more than 1.5 meter. 2.11 Both ends of the cable
shall be provided with suitable size of lug. 2.122.132.14 2.15 The cable shall be secured tightly by the
screws or bolts, nuts and plain washer. The proper tightness of the connections should be ensured.

8) (a) Write about the LED based Emergency Lights provided in TL & AC Coaches?

Ans: The general lighting inside the TL and AC coaches is provided by 110V DC supply with battery
backup system. But during extreme emergencies like derailment and accidents etc. or regular supply
system failure, causing total darkness inside the coach. To facilitate easy exit of passengers and their
immediate rescue, during such situations an emergency light unit (E.L.U) system is developed to provide
illumination which are located inside the coaches at the passage and on the doorways for use of
movement of passengers. Emergency light consists of LED based lights working on 12V DC supply by
battery. The charging of the battery 12V, 12AH is done with 110V DC/ 12V DC , DC-DC converter. When
the coaches equipment working satisfactorily the 12V battery will be charging with the help of coach
supply. This unit will switch “ON” automatically on failure of normal supply system.

(b)Mention the indications provided in LED based emergency light unit provided in TL and AC coaches.

Ans: INDICATIONS: i. “GREEN LED” indicates the healthiness of battery. ii. “RED LED” indicates the input
power failure of 110V DC or card failure iii. “AMBER LED” indicates that the battery voltage has dropped
to 10.5V or below.

(c) Explain the operating instructions of LED based Emergency Light Unit?

Ans: This E.L.U. is designed for trouble free operation and easy installation in the coaches.

i. Ensure that the power supply is available always to the E.L.U. in normal condition and during halt time
of the coach. ii. Ensure that the input supply connections are tightened properly on supply terminals
provided on the box. iii. Ensure that the mate connector (02 pin) provided inside the unit always
connected i.e. Male/Female connections are made without fail. iv. Discharge the E.L.U. battery for at
least ½ hour on every primary maintenance of the coach when not in use by removing the coach battery
fuse for ½ hour.

9) (a) What are the technical requirements of 100 VA static inverter recommended for cell phone
charging and Laptop sockets used for 110V coaches?

Ans: Rated input voltage = 110 volts DC. Input voltage range = 90V to 140V. Input current = 1 Ampere.
Output voltage = 110V =/- 5% AC. Output frequency = 50 Hz +/- 5% Output wave form = sine wave.
Efficiency = more than 85%

(b) What is the acceptance and routine test shall be conducted on 100 VA inverter used for laptop and
mobile charging sockets?
 Ans: (i) Acceptance Test: a) Physical dimension and constructional features verifications test b)
Performance characteristics test and rating test c) Over voltage test d) Open circuit test e) Short circuit
test f) Temperature rise test g) High voltage test h) Insulation resistance test i) Reverse polarity test (ii)
Routing Test: a) Physical dimension and constructional features verifications test b) Performance
characteristic test and rating test c) Over voltage test d) Insulation resistance test e) Reverse polarity
test

(c) What are the markings to be provided on 100 VA inverter used for Laptop and mobile charging
sockets used in RC SG coaches?

Ans: The inverter shall be provided with an anodized aluminum name plate and riveted to the back side
of the inverter marked with the following information. a) Name of the manufacturer with logo. b) Type.
c) Serial number (first two digits the year of manufacturer, next two digits the month, one digit version
code and next four digits running serial number).

d) Wiring diagram (with sketch) indicating the position of terminals Rated input voltage. e) Nominal
input voltage. f) Rated output voltage at nominal voltage. g) Rated output current at nominal voltage. h)
Frequency. i) VA rating.

10) What are the important parts of ERRU and explain its advantages and disadvantages?

Ans: Important parts of ERRU: Isopack power diodes Universal voltage controller IGBT controlled
field circuit Hall sensor Static over voltage protection Interface unit LED/alpha numerical display
Advantages: a) Control circuit is Modular type design. b) Auto identification of alternator ratings and
indications. c) Auto setting of parameter of voltage, load current, Battery current, over voltage, over
current and current limiting for all the regulator of 4.5 kw, 18kw and 25kw. d) UVC is interchangeable
with all types of electronic regulators from 4.5 kw to 2.5 kw. e) Close regulation of voltage +/-2 V over
the entire range of load and speed to have uniform charging of batteries. f) Less voltage and current
ripple on Battery Charging current. g) Controlled battery charging current to have longer life of batteries.
h) Moulded Hall sensors for current sensing and setting current limit. i) Static over voltage protection
and latching without battery. j) Isolated power packs directly mounted on the heat sinks to have better
heat dissipation. k) Moulded PCBs to avoid dust and vibration problems. l) Separate interface unit for
monitoring the parameters like DC Voltage, DC current, Battery charging and discharging currents, Amps
Hours etc. m) This interface facilities to store AH.IN and AH.OUT, generation and non-generation time,
total distance travelled by coach and faults occurred in the regulators. n) This interface also has
Emergency unit. In case of failure of one control unit, the other control unit will take care of both
regulators. Disadvantages of ERRU: a) Sophisticated electronic equipment. b) Qualified staff is required
for maintenance. c) Costlier than MA type regulator. d) If PCB failed entire PCB to be changed. e) For
repairing ERRU on test bench, Alternator supply must be required. f) Alternator setting cannot be
adjusted manually on test bench. g) Costlier spare parts are to be stocked. QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non
– AC Page 27 of 57

11) Draw the neat Coach Wiring Diagram of 110V DC TL system including capacities of equipment and
protection devices?
 Ans. Diagram Of 110 Volts DC TL System Including Capacities Of Equipment And Protection Devices
MAJOR EQUIPMENTS IN TL COACH: Alternator – 4.5 kw, 110V, 3phase, brush less type, totally enclosed,
reversible shunt wound Regulator Board-4.5 kw Battery-120 Ah, 110V DC, lead acid / VRLA type
Light -15 w / 20w.110V DC Fans-40w V-belts, axle pulley, alternator pulley PROTECTIVE DEVICE:
OVR / OVP HRC fuse ( 40 A , 16 A, 6A) Rotary switch (40 A)

12) Write down the procedure to maintain correct tension of new ‘V’ belts on bogie transform mounted
alternator of non AC coaches?

Ans: a) Provide alternator on the bogie. b) Provide axle pulley on the wheel. c) Provide ‘V’ belt of
matching set between grade 48 & 52 on wheel axle, on which, the axle pulley is provided. d) After
lowering and completion of buffer head adjustment of bogie, provide ‘V’ belts over alternator towards
the axle pulley. e) After completion of provision of V belt, remove the split pin check nut and fixing nut
of free end side tension rod spring tightening collar nut. f) Free the check nut and fixing nut of U clamp
side of tension rod. g) Now insert the tension rod assembly between the bogie supporting bracket and
eye (leg) of the alternator. h) Provide bolt for ‘U’ clamp of tension rod and eye of the alternator. i) Then
slowly tighten the fixing nut (U clamp side) unit tension indicator match with the spring collar. This will
give the correct tension of the V belt. j) Then provide fixing nut, check nut and split pin leaving a gap of
30 mm non AC coaches at free end side of tensioning for mechanism. k) Then observe the tension of
belt with the help of 4Kg weight of the second belt from alternator, if the belt hangs completely below
the straight line of adjacent belt the tension has to be increased. Repeat until the belt is lifted to the
straight line of adjacent coach.

13) Explain working principle of KEL ALTERNATOR/REGULATORS 110 V, 4.5 K.W with the help of circuit
diagram?

Ans: . For easy understanding of KEL 3 & 4.5KW 30 volts alternator/rectifier regulator circuit diagram,
was divided into four sub circuits. They are (i) Power supply circuit (ii) Field circuit (iii) Voltage control
circuit (iv) Current control circuit a) Power supply circuit: This circuit consists of 3 phase alternator (ALT)
& 3 phase bridge rectifier.(PR). Three phase AC supply (13,14,15 terminals) produced by alternator is fed
to 3 phase bridge rectifier consists of 6 silicon power diodes. The bridge is protected against voltage
surges by 6 numbers of 0.25 mfd capacitors (C1 to C6), One 10 mfd capacitor (C7) and one 10000pf
capacitor (C8) are provided across the bridge for filtering DC output and protection against high
frequency surges respectively. Shunt (26 and 28) is provided in series to DC output voltage positive(+L)
terminal, for sensing output current. DC output voltage terminals are(+L,-C) Function: When the field
coils are excited and rotor is rotated the variation in reluctance offered by the rotor teeth arrangement
causes the flux produced by the field coil to pulsate. This pulsation of flux linked with Ac coils and
induces e.m.f. in the AC windings. The induced E.M.F. in the 3 phase winding is rectified by the 3 phase
bridge rectifier. The bridge rectifier also serves the purpose of maintaining the constant polarity in both
the directions of the train and prevents current flowing from battery to alternator , when the coach is
stable condition. b) Field circuit: Field circuit consists of Excitation transformer (ET) Magnetic
amplifier(MA),. Field rectifier (D2,D3) and Freewheeling diode(D4). And ET is an auto step up centre
tapped transformer. It has three functions. 1. It is auto transformer having one winding 2. It steps up the
voltage for good regulation of output voltage and current. 3. Its secondary winding is centre tapped
used for full wave rectification with two diodes and accommodates load windings of MA. Magnetic
Amplifier is used to control the field voltage and field current, there by controlling the output voltage
and output current. It has six windings. Two are load windings connected in series to the field circuit.
One winding is used for voltage control and one more winding is used for current control and other
winding used as gain winding to boost output voltage when train is in slow speeds one more winding is
spare. Freewheeling diode is provided to eliminate the surge voltage produced in the field coil. Cathode
of freewheeling diode connected to field positive and anode to field negative. Two phase AC supply of
Alternator given to ET primary (14 & 15 terminals) through field fuse F2. The centre tap secondary
terminals (19) are connected to field negative (-EX) of alternator. The end terminals of ET secondary (18
&161) are connected to full wave rectifier (D2 &D3) through MA load windings (18,162 and 161, 17). The
rectified DC fed to field positive (+EX) of alternator through gain winding. (40 and 20). Freewheeling
diode is connected across field terminals (19and20) in reverse direction. Function: The purpose of field
circuit is to feed rectified DC supply for field for excitation. Two phase supply of alternator is stepped up
by ET and rectified by full wave rectifier. This rectified DC is fed to field winding through gain winding.
Free wheeling diode is provided to dissipate energy produced in the field, in other way to eliminate
surge voltages produced in the field coil. c) Voltage control circuit: This circuit consists of auxiliary
rectifier(RT)(D5,D6,D7), voltage detector(DT) and voltage control winding of magnetic amplifier(10,11).
The voltage detector consists of resistance network (R1,R2,R3,R4) and zener diode D8, 1k potentiometer
(RH) is connected across the resistance R4 to vary the output voltage settings. Voltage detector serves
the purpose of providing DC signal to the control winding of MA. Function: When the output voltage
exceeds the present value, the drop across R1 is sufficient to conduct Zener diode and allows a DC signal
to the voltage control winding of MA. The DC flux produced in control winding will oppose the AC flux of
load winding and increases impedance of the field circuit. This increase of impedance, results in
decrease of field voltage and field current there by decreasing output voltage. This process is continuous
to maintain the output voltage constant. The voltage setting can be varied by varying the 1k
potentiometer. d) Current control circuit: This circuit consist of shunt resistance (SHR 26,28 terminals)
shunt diode(D1) and current control winding of M.A(26and27). For sensing output current, SHR is
provided in the DC output voltage of alternator. Shunt leads are connected to MA current control
winding through shunt diode. Function: When preset value of current is supplied by the alternator
exceeds, the voltage drop across the shunt is sufficient to conduct shunt diode. When shunt diode
conducts, it sends a DC signal to current control windings of MA. This DC signal induces DC flux in the
windings. This Dc flux opposes the AC flux of load windings and increases the impedance of the field
circuit. Increase of impedance in field circuit reduces the field voltage and field current thereby
decreasing the output voltage and output current. This process repeats when the output current
exceeds and maintains the alternator current within preset limits. The current setting can be varied by
varying the shunt resistance.

14) What are the safety precautions to be taken during work at IOH shed?

Ans: The following precautions has to be taken while working at IOH shed:- i. First obtain line block from
guard or ASM. ii. Keep DANGER board on the top of the line. iii. Wear helmets with straps iv. Wear
uniforms v. Wear industrial shoes vi. Always work under the supervision of a experienced supervisor/
technician. vii. Ensure all the cutouts / MCB’s and other electrical safety equipments are not bypassed
viii. Do not smoke at the IOH shed ix. Do not drink Alcohol at work x. Do not adopt short cut methods. xi.
Do not spill oil/ grease on the floor xii. Always ensure availability of Fire Extinguishers near vicinity. xiii.
Do not drop any metal on top of the battery. xiv. Use box type spanners while attending batteries. xv.
Never bring a naked flame near battery. xvi. Do not remove/ replace connections in regulator box when
supply is on. xvii. Do not try to remove v-belts when it is in tension. xviii. Disconnect supply in case of
any fire.

15) Explain working principle of cells and what are the types of Batteries used in Indian Railways?

Ans: Working Principal of Cells: PbO2+Pb+2HSO4↔2PbSO4+2H2O Discharging PbO2 on (+) plate and Pb
on (-)ve plates are converted into lead sulphate. In this process, HSO is converted and water is formed.
Consequently SPG of electrolyte falls and extents of fall is proportional to Ah taken out. Charging: The
chemical process is reversed. PbSO4 on positive plate is converted into PbO2 (lead peroxide) and PbSo4
on negative plate into Pb ( spongy lead ).H2SO4 is formed and water is consumed.SPG of electrolyte
rose. Types of Batteries used in Indian Railway: A. Lead Acid: 1. Conventional type 2. VRLA (Valve
Regulated Lead Acid Batteries ) 3. Low maintenance Batteries B. Alkaline Batteries: 1. Nickel Cadmium 2.
Silver Zinc

Constructional features: 1. Positive Plates 2. Negative Plates 3. Separators 4. Container 5. Cell cover
Accessories: a. Float b. Float guide c. Vent Plug Capacities of Batteries In train Lighting: 120 Ah-110V DC,
Lead Acid & VRLA. Part – B (POWER)

I. SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER:

1) Name of the meter used to measure Air velocity ( c )

a. Multi meter b. Thermometer c. Anemometer d. Ammeter

2) Name the Electrolyte used in lead acid cells ( a )

a. Sulpheric Acid c. Nitric acid b. Hydrochloric Acid d. Phasphoric Acid

3) Inverter converts ( a )

a. DC to AC c. AC to AC b. DC to DC d. AC to DC

4) Capacitor bank are used at substations to ( c )

a. Avoid short-circuiting c. Improve P.F b. Improve load factor d. Supply power in emergency

5) Circuit breaker is ( a )

a. Current breaking device c. Amplifier b. Attention device d. Starting device

6) PSI is the unit of ( a )

a. Pressure c. Humidity b. Temperature d. Velocity of gas

7) Rectifier converts ( b )

a. DC to AC c. AC to AC b. AC to DC d. DC to DC

8) Maximum permissible value of Earth Resistance for a small sub-stn? ( c )

a. 0.5 Ω c 2.0 Ω b 1.0 Ω d 8.0 Ω

9) Medium Voltage is clarified as ( d )

a. Less than 250V c Above 33KV b 650V to 33KV d 250V to 650V

10) Single Phasing preventer is used to prevent? ( c )

a. Single Phase voltage b Three phase voltage c Motors from single phasing d Motor to start

11) What is the minimum safe value of insulation resistance for Motors? ( a )

a 10 M Ω b 15 M Ω c 5 M Ω d 20 M Ω

12) The dimensions of earth electrode? ( b )

a. 3.0 mtr length x 40 mm dia x 3.2mm thick b 2.5 mtrs length x 50mm dia x 3.2mm thick y c 3.0 mtrs
length x 50mm dia x 3.2mm thick d 2.5mtrs length x 40mm dia x 3.2mm thick

13) Earth Megger used ( d )

a To measure insulation resistance of cables b To measure voltage c To measure current d To measure

insulation resistance of earth

14) Illumination levels measured by ( a )

a Lux Meter b Hydrometer c Anemometer c Multimeter A Generation, Transmission & Distribution of

Electrical Energy

15) The integration time employed by supply authorities for recording M.D. for a 33 kV/415 V, 10 MVA
Sub-station is – ( c )

a 5 minutes b 15 minutes C 45 minutes d 60 minutes

16) While designing a sub-station anticipated future loads in the next…. Years are taken: ( d )

a 1 year b 2 years c 20 years d 5-7 years 17) As per the present Tariff the minimum power factor of sub-
station should be ( c ) a 0.8 b 0.85 c 0.98 d 0.95

18) The 3 phase voltage unbalance in supply should not exceed ( a )

 a 2.5% to 5% b 20% c 25% d 10% 19) For maintaining power supply quality the rate of change of
frequency should not exceed ( c )

a 5Hz/Sec b 10Hz/Sec c 1 HZ/Sec d 3 Hz/Sec.

II. BIT QUESTIONS:

1) 11 KV HT power supply is to be availed when the total load exceeds 100 KW

2) The voltage of 11 KV supply is 11000V

3) The EHT power line crossing means above 11KV .

4) Guarding is required for the power line crossings of following Voltages up to 11KV

6) Copper is the good conductor of electricity.

8) Contingencies charges means Transportation charges.

9) Detailed estimate is to be prepared for sanctioned works.

10) Detailed estimate needs sanction of HOD.

11) The fire extinguisher used for Electrical fire is CO2

12) Fire is the combination of material and temperature & Oxygen.

13) B Type of fire extinguisher used to nullify the oil fires.

14) Electric type of fire is clarified as D type.

15) Ordinary fire can be extinguished by water.

16) Artificial respiration is required to the person met with electrical accident

III. INDICATE TRUE OR FALSE TO THE FOLLOWING:

1) Without EMD the tender offer is valid. False

2) Amps is the unit of current. True

3) Wood is the bad conductor of electricity. True

4) AB Switch is used to break and make the power supply in OH Mains. True

5) Oil is used as a insulation in the power transformers. False

6) Finance vetting is required, if the cost of NS item exceeds Rs.1,00,000/- while procuring through COS.

True
7) The Open tenders are to be opened in presence of a Accounts Office. True

8) Blue is the color of pure silica True

IV. OBJECTIVE TYPE:

Sl.No. Item To be filled

1) Transformer secondary volts = P.V. x (S.T.)/P.T. Note: PV: Primary Volts ST: Secondary Turns PT:
Primary Turns

(a) Primary Amps (b) Secondary Amps (c) Secondary Turns

2) Minimum insulation value of transformer of 400V winding with 500V Megger is 2 M Ohms

(a) 2 M Ohms (b) 10 M Ohms (c) 50 M Ohms (d) 15 M Ohms

3) Breather is packed with material Silica Gel

(a) Silaca Jel (b) Oil 20 KV

4) The minimum BDV of transformer Oil is 40 KV

(a) 40KV, (b) 50KV (c) 55 KV

5) Earth fault relays providing against Earth Fault

(a) Earth fault (b) Core beating (c) Full of oil level

6) Over current relays providing against Over current

(a) Over current (b) Over voltage (c) Earth fault

7) MCCB is………….. case circuit breaker Moulded

(a) Miniature (b) Moulded

1) Why earthing is necessary for any electrical equipments, domestic installation & service building
etc?

Ans: To drain away any leakage of currents due to poor insulation and to save human life from
dangerous shock and also to avoid burnt of electrical equipment.

2) What are Different type of earth conductor and sizes?

Ans: a) Copper plate electrode Minimum 60 cm X 60 cm X 3.15 mm b) Galvanized iron & steel plate
electrode 60 cm X 60 cm X 6.3 mm c) G.I. Pipe electrode internal diameter 50 mm and length 2.5 Mtrs

3) Action to be taken if the resistance to earth of earth electrode is high?

Ans: Earth resistance depends upon soil conductivity. To reduce earth resistance dig around the earth
electrode, clean all the rust around earth plate or pipe. Sprinkle the common salt dissolved water in the
pit and pack it up with powdered coke & salt. If it is not possible provide additional earths and connects
all the earth points in parallel by solid jumper connections.

4) What happens if electrical connection or electrical joint is loose?

Ans: due to loose connection at joints resistance at that point will increase thereby the I²R loses are
more and develops heat. The total wiring may burn.

5) Explain how to use Fire extinguisher practically?

Ans: a) Pull the pin at the top of the extinguisher. b) Aim the nozzle towards the base of the fire. c) Stand
approximately 8 feet away from the fire and squeeze the handle to discharge the extinguisher. d) Sweep
the nozzle back and forth at the base of the fire.

6) What are the precautions to be taken before starting work on electrical installations?

Ans: Before starting any electrical works on installations disconnect the power supply to the Electrical
equipment and discharge & connect earth. Test with meters for any availability of supply then start the
work.

7) Function of circuit – breaker, difference between 'isolator' and circuit breaker?

Ans: The function of circuit breaker is to break the electrical continuity in the event of faults duly
isolating the faulty part. Isolator is switching device, which operates in OFF load only. Circuit Breaker is
switching device, which can operate in, OFF or ON load.

8) If a feeder circuit-breaker trips, what action is required?

Ans: First isolate the faulty feeder check the faulty area on which fault the breaker was tripped (short
circuit, open circuit and earth fault) after attending the faults test for its continuity and take insulation
resistance of the feeder by using megger. And take the feeder into circuit.

9) Different types of low-tension fuses and high-tension fuses?

Ans: There are two types of fuses they are a) L.V Fuses - 1) Semi enclosed re-wirable fuses - 2) HRC
cartridge fuses. b) H.V Fuses - 1) High voltage HRC fuses - 2) Liquid type

10) Precautions to be taken in carrying out repairs on LT and HT switch gear?

Ans: The following precautions to be taken in carrying out repairs on LT & HT switch gears. a) Disconnect
the power supply. b) Discharge the lines by connecting earth. c) Short the three phases with chain d)
Start the work to carryout the repairs.

11) How do you measure the insulation resistance of transformer and what should be the minimum
value?

Ans; The insulation resistance of the transformer can be measured by using Megger and the minimum
value of insulation resistance is 50 mega Ohm’s.

12) Conditions for connecting two transformers in parallel?

Ans: a) Per unit impedance should be same b) Voltage rating should be same c) Phase sequence should
be same.

13) What is the function of CT & P.T and where they are used?

Ans: The full form of CT is Current transformer and is used for measuring of current. The full form of PT
is Potential transformer and is used to measure voltage.

14) Explain how to replace the HT Fuse on a 4-pole or 6-pole structure?

Ans: a) Open switch on 4-pole or 6-pole. b) Connect the discharge rod between conductor and earth. c)
Replace the blown HT fuse.

15) What is the safety items kept in Sub-Station?

Ans: a) Discharge rod b) Pair of gloves c) Sand buckets d) Fire extinguishers. e) Safety belts and helmets
f) 3 phase shortening chains

16) What are the Duties of Sub-Station Operator?

Ans: Sub station operator is responsible for proper and safe operation of all electrical equipments in
sub-station. He should write the hourly reading in log book. He should note any unusual occurrences. He
should able to operate fire extinguisher in case of emergency. He should keep all tools, safety belts,
testing equipments, etc., in good condition.

17) Describe procedure to take shut down and to test the power line before starting work?

Ans: Study the circuit and identify the circuit breaker to be opened. Open and lock the circuit breaker
and keep the key in personnel custody. Disconnect neutral link if available. Hang “Man at Work” notice
board on the circuit breaker. Test for supply after making sure that, the testing device itself is OK at the
equipment or line. Start the work

. 18) What are the types of Motors?

Ans: According the current there are two types of motors QUESTION a) AC motors - 1) single-phase AC
motors - 2) 3-phase AC motors. b) DC motors- 1) shunt motors - 2) Series motors - 3) Compound motors.

19) What are the different types of starters?

Ans; a) DOL starter b) Star - Delta starter c) Auto transformer starter d) Rheo-static starter

20) How do you change the direction of rotation of a D.C. motor?

Ans: The direction of rotation of DC motor can be changed either by changing the field winding
connections or by changing the armature winding connection.

21) Cause of sparking at the brushes of a DC Motor?

Ans: Sparking at the brushes may be occur due to poor quality of carbon brushes, poor armature, loose
connection of carbon brush holder and loose spring tension.

22) How do you change the direction of rotation of 1Ø AC motor & 3Ø AC motor?

Ans: The direction of rotation of single-phase AC motor is changed by changing the capacitor
connections from starting winding to running winding and vice versa. The direction of rotation of three-
phase AC motor is changed by changing the phase sequence of three-phase supply. 23) If a single phase
motor fails to start or run slow what action to be taken. Ans: If it is not starting check the supply and test
the winding if it found normal check capacitor. 24) Will a three-phase motor continue to run even if the
fuse on one-phase is blown? Ans: Yes it will be run but the motor will be getting heated up and chances
of motor winding may be burnt. 25) During run if a motor is getting unduly hot, what should be the
reason? Ans: The motor may be overloaded or bearing may be defective. 26) What is a CLS panel?
Briefly explain its functioning? Ans: A CLS (Colour Light Signaling) panel is a power control unit which
primarily extends the power supply to signaling system. The CLS panel is provided in Electrified section
of Railway line, where power supply from 25KV OHE which is most reliable is tapped and stepped down
by auxiliary transformers to 230V AC single phase. The power supply thus obtained from UP/DN OHE
lines and also the local power supply is fed to CLS panel, which automatically/manually senses the
healthy power and feeds to the signaling system.

27) What is power factor? List the disadvantages of lower power factor? How to improve power
factor? Mention the formula for required KVAR to improve power factor?

Ans: The ratio of useful power (KW) to apparent power (KVA) is termed as power factor. The power
factor indicates the portion of the current in the system performing useful work. The power factor of
Unity denotes 100% utilization of the total current. The disadvantages of lower power factors are: (i)
Over loading of cables & transformers. (ii) Drop in voltage at load points. (iii) In-efficient operation of
plants and (iv) Attraction of penalty from power supplies companies. The best way of improving power
factor by installing suitable rating static power capacitors preferably at load points. kVAR = kW (Tanφ1 -
Tan φ2)
28) What is the objective of Indian Electricity Act-2013?

Ans: The main objectives of Indian Electricity Act-2013 are: (i) To consolidate the laws relating to
generation, transmission, distribution, trading and use of electricity. (ii) Taking measures to conducive to
development of electric industry and promoting competition. Therein, protecting interests of consumers
including supply of electricity to all areas. (iii) Rationalization of electricity tariff, ensuring transparent
policies regarding subsidies. (iv) Promotion of efficient and environmentally being policies. (v)
Constitution of central electricity authority regulatory commission and establishment of appellate
tribunal.

29) What are the illumination levels to be maintained at A1, A & B stations?

Ans: S.No Location Approved Lux Levels for different category of stations Category of Station A1/A B/C 1
Concourse 150 /100/ 20 Circulating Area 50 /30/ 30 Waiting Hall 150/ 100/ 40 Retiring Room 100/
100/50 Platform a. Open 50 /30/30 b. Covered 150/ 100/60 Enquiry cum Reservation office. a. General
150/ 100/60 b. Counter 150/ 150/ 70 Covered Passenger Way a. Corridors 50/50 b.FOB 50/ 50 c. Stairs
50 /50 8 Parcel/luggage office a. General 100/100 b. Counter 150/150/90 Timer Table 200/200/100
Outdoor car parking 50/30/10 Restaurant Area a. Kitchen 200/150 b. Stores 150/100 c. Dining Hall 200/
150/120 Other Service building at Station 200/200/130Cloak Room a. General 100/100 b. Counter 150/
150/140 Public Utility Services (Toilet/Bathroom) 100/75

30) What are the essential equipments to be maintained in ART & MRV?

Ans: Electrical equipments in ART/MRV available as per Railway Board's Lr. No.99/Elec/G/113/1, dtd.16-
07-03. S. No. Equipment Proposed to be Modified ARTs (Class A/Class B) ARMEs (class C) 1 Diesel
generating set of 15 KVA 230 V Capacity * 1 Set -- 2 Generator set Kerosene driven 1.5 KVA 230 V.
20Sets 2 sets 3 Complete luminar fitting with 1000 W Halogen lamps and control gear 10Sets 2 sets 4
Complete luminar fitting with 150 W Metal Halide lamp and control gear 40Sets 10 sets 5 Telescopic
stand 2 Mts high for mounting luminars for Halogen/MH fittings. 20 Nos -- 6 PVC insulated and PVC
sheathed 3 Core flexible cables 23/0.193 mm 15 m long with 15 weather proof IC pin for weather proof
I.C. socket. 50 nos 12 nos 7 PVC insulated and PVC sheathed 3 Core flexible cable 23/0.193 mm 1500
mtrs 300 mtrs 8 K. Oil in 200 Lts capacity drums. 3 nos 1 no 9 Diesel oil in 200 Lts drums 1 no -- 10
Polythene containers 20 Lts capacity for handling kerosene and pouring into auxiliary tanks of engine 18
nos 4 nos 11 Lubricating Oil 40 ltrs 5 ltrs 12 Oil measuring can 1 Litre capacity 6 nos 1 no 13 Insulation
tape PVC in rolls of 10 mts. 24 nos 6 nos 14 Tool set comprising of 1 no. cutting plier (254 mm), 3 no’s of
screw driver (round of 300 mm, 150 mm & 100 mm), 1 no. Knife and 1 no. hammer DP. 1 set 1 set 15
Spanner DE 3m to 19mm in steps of 1.5mm 1 set 1 set 16 Socket spanner with lever 3 mm to 19 mm 1
set 1 set 17 Aluminum telescopic ladder 2 nos -- QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 39 of 57 18
Earthing rod for earthing OHE ** 2 nos -- 19 Portable switch board with water proof sockets each
capable of taking 500 watt load (2 sockets of 5 Amps and 2 combination sockets of 5/15 amps) 4 sets 1
set 20 Drum of fixed stand for main cable 2 nos -- 21 Battery charger 230 V AC/110 DC , 60 Amps 2 nos --
22 100 W Gas filled bulbs bayonet type along with holder in wire cage and with handle and hook 6 nos 4
nos 23 Telescopic masts 6 meters high 4 nos 2 nos Note: - To avoid premature replacement of existing 6
KVA D.G. set, the existing 6KVA DG set should only be replaced by 15 KVA D.G. set when it is due for
replacement. All new ART's shall be equipped with 15 KVA D.G. set. ** To be provided on Electrified
Section only.

31) What are the precautions to be taken while working in RE area?

Ans: No one shall attempt to work on any overhead line running alongside the electrified tracks without
taking special precautions of earthing on both sides of the work. Minimum 2m electrical clearance from
live OHE of the adjacent track or any other equipment nearby must be maintained. During foggy/cloudy
weather conditions, wear safety shoes, insulated rubber gloves and tools with insulated handles should
be used to protect from induction effect. Steel tape or metallic tape or tape with woven metal
reinforcement should not be used. Always carry the ladders/lengthy items in horizontal position instead
of vertical. While attending to platform lights (in COP/OPEN area), the ladders shall be properly secured
to avoid accidental fall in OHE.

32) What are the factors to be taken into consideration while selecting a pump for a particular
location/purpose<

33) What are the changes taken place to DISCOM billing system recently?

34) What are the factors/items to be checked in DISCOM bill to reduce the billing amount? What are
suggestions/remedies you propose to reduce billing amount?

35) Mentioned 2 types of renewable Energy Sources as alternatives to DISCOM Power supply? 36) What
are the major parts in Solar Lighting Systems?

37) Mentioned few Energy Conservation Measures in water pumping system?

38) What Energy Auditing? What are the advantages in conducting Energy Auditing?

39) What is the purpose of EOCR in pump starter? What are the factors to be taken into consideration
to select range of EOCR?

40) What are the probable reasons for failure/burning of submersible pumps? Or What are the items to
be checked to find out the reasons for any pump burning?

41) What are the items to be checked and maintained in LC Gates before GM’s Annual Inspection?

VI. DESCRIPTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS:

1) List out the various types of Maintenance schedules for Equipment used in Power Maintenance?

2) Explain the following Schedule Maintenance A Fortnightly of CLS Panel B Yearly of Sub-Station C
Quarterly of Pumps D Yearly of D.G.Sets E Half Yearly of Earth Electrode f Yearly of Transformers g
Monthly of AC (split & Window) h Monthly of Water coolers I Monthly of Solar Geyser
3) Design & List out the materials required for Electrification of the following: a LC Gate including Road
lighting b Dy.SS Room c VIP Lounge at station d ORH (Double bed room) e Booking Office at ‘B’ Class f
Running Room 6 beds.

4) Define the Energy Audit and Conduct the Energy Audit of a Sanchalan Bhavan b Any Coaching Depot c
Hospital 5) What are the Energy Conservation measures to be adopted at home and work place? 6)
Explain Procedure for working on 11KV OH Lines?

7) What are the Safety measures to be adopted for (i) Working on (11KV) HT installations. (ii) Working in
the Vicinity of 25KV OH traction line.

8) What are the Fire Prevention measures to be adopted for – i) Transformers ii) Batteries and also
Internal wiring of - a) Air-conditioners b) Switch Boards c) SDB’s

9) Explain how the efficiently of Pumps is measured.

10) What are the major parameters to be observed in OH Power line crossings?

11) Explain the procedure for taking a person on IOD?

12) What are the various types of electrical accidents and explain the preliminary First aid to be given in
case of Electrical accidents.

13) What are the requirements and tests for obtaining EIG approval of a newly erected 11KV sub.
Station of 250 KVA capacity?

14) What are the Electrical Safety precautions to be taken at home, workplace and surroundings?

15) What are the activities carried out by SC Division during Energy Conservation Week of 14th Dec –
21st Dec 2011?

16) Explain - (1) SOB (2) Technical Circular (3) Safety Circular (4) AC Message (5) Safety Meeting

17) Explain the precautions to be taken while recording measurements for contract works?

18) What are the documents proforma to be attached with Joint Measurements of contractor works?
Explain briefly about out each one of them/

19) What are the Points to be noted while placing of indents and passing of materials and bills as
circulated by Sr.DEE/M/SC

. VII. PROBLEMS:

1) An inductive circuit has a resistance of 2.0 Ohms in series with an inductance of 0.015 henry? Find (a)
Current (b) power Factor (c) Power consumed? When connected across 200 Volts, 50 Hz. Supply mains?

Ans Given data R = 2.0 Ohms , L = 0.015 V = 200V, f = 50 Hz. Formula used Z = √ R 2 + XL 2 XL = 2 ∏ ƒ L I =
V /Z P.F = R /Z Power = VI Cos ¢ (P.F) XL = 2 x 22/7 x 50 x 0.015 = 4.714 Ohms. Z = √ (2)2 + (4.174)2 =
√26.22 = 5.121 Ohms. (a) I = V/Z = 200/5.121 = 39.05 Amps. (b) Power Factor = R /z = 2/ 5.121 = 0.39 (c)
Power Consumed P = VI CosØ = 200 x 39.05 x 0.39 = 3045.9 Watts.

2) Calculate the Line and Phase current of AC, 3 phase, 400 Volts, 7.5 B.H.P.? Motor with a power factor
of 0.8 and efficiency 90%, when the winding is connected (a) in star (b) in Delta?

Ans Given Data VL = 400 Volts , 3 Phase BHP = 7.5, P.F = 0.8 ŋ = 90% Formula used - Efficiency ŋ =
Output/Input or Input = Output/ ŋ Power P = √3 VL IL CosØ BHP = 7.5 x 746 Watts. = 5595 Watts. Input
(P) = Output/ ŋ = 5595 / 0.9 P = 6216.66 Watts. P = √3 VL IL CosØ 6226.66 = √3 x 400 x IL X 0.8 IL =
6216.66 √3 x 400 x IL X 0.8 IL = 11.2 Amps. (a) In star Line current = Phase current Therefore IPh = 11.2
Amps. (b) In Delta Phase current IPh = IL / √3 = 11.2 / √3 = 6.4 Amps.

3) A 250 KVA, 11000/400 Volts Delta / Star 3 phase transformer has load of 100 Amps. Find the line
current on primary?

Ans Given Data Primary Voltage VP = 11000 Volts Secondary Voltage Vs = 440 / √3 (Since star connected)
Secondary Voltage Is = 100 Amps. Power = 250,000 VA Formula : Vs/ Is = Ip/ Is 440 / √3 = Ip 11,000 400
440 / √3 X 100 = 40 11,000 11 x √3 = 2.09 Amp.

4) Find the diameter of copper wire in mm, if the resistance of 1.5 Kilometer wire is 7.2 Ohms? (Specific
Resistance of copper is 1.7 x 10 -6 Ohm/cm3 )

Ans Given Data Length = 1.5 Km = 15,000 cm Resistance = 7.2 Ohms. ρ = 1.7 = 1.7 x 10 -6 106 We Know R
= ρ L/a 7.2 = 1.7 x 10 -6 x 1,50,000 / a a = 1.7 / 1,00,000 X 1,50,000 / 7.2 = 0.035 sq.cm. Now a = ∏ d 2 / 4
0.035 = 22 / 7 x (d)2 /4 d = 0.035 x 7 x 4 = 0.21 cm. 22

5) Find the capacity of pump (HP) to pump the water at the rate of 20 Gallons per minute, from the bore
well of 250 ft. depth to the over head tank of height 100 ft. Neglect all friction losses. Take specific
gravity of the water as ‘1’ and take efficiency of the pumps as 60%?

Ans: Given Data Discharge (Q) = 20 Gallons per minutes (GPM Depth of bore well = 250 ft. Height of the
water tank = 100 ft. Specific gravity of water (S.G) = 1.0 Efficiency of the pump (ŋ ) = 60% = 0.6 Pump
capacity in Horse Power(HP) = Q x Head x Specific Gravity 3960 x ŋ Total Head = Depth of bore well +
Height of the Tank (in feet) = 250 +100 = 350 Feet. Pump Capacity in HP = Q x Head x Specific Gravity
3960 x ŋ = 20 x 350 x 1.0 3960 x 0.6

PART – C (OFFICIAL LANGUAGE ACT AND RULES) I. OBJECTIVE: 1. In terms of Article 343 (1) of the
Constitution of India _________Language in ________Script shall be the Official language of the Union.
(Hindi, Devanagari) 2 Article 343(2) of the Constitution of India empowers to authorize use of Hindi and
___________numerals in addition English (Internation form of Indian numerals). 3 The Official Language
Act was passed in _________________(Yr. 1963) 4 According to Official Language Rules, India is divided
into ______________regions and they are __________, ___________________and
_________________(3 A, B and C) 5 States that come under ______ region are Bihar, Haryana, Himachal
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, New Delhi. (A) 6 The States that come under
Region are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Punjab, Andaman Nicobar, Chandigarh (B) States Other than
mentioned under the categories A and B, come under Region Non-Hindi speaking states come under
__________Region. (C) 8 Target for Originating Correspondence from C to A, B and C Regions ______%
(55%). 9 A cash Award of Rs.___________ is given under Railway Minister’s Rajbhasha Shield (7000/-).
10 Communications from Central Government Offices to the States, Offices and persons in ______
region shall be in Hindi, and if it is in English, a Hindi translation shall accompany. (A) 11
Communications from Central Govt. Offices to States or Offices in ______Region shall be in Hindi, and if
it is in English, Hindi translation shall accompany (A). 12 Communications from Central Govt. Offices to
persons in Region B shall be in ___ (Hindi) 13 Communications from Central Government Offices to
States or Persons in Region C shall be in ______________(Hindi/English) 14 Communications between
Central Government Offices _____between one Ministry or Department and another may be in
___________(Hindi/English). 15 Communications between Central Government Offices_______between
one Ministry or Department and attached/subordinate offices in Region A may be in _______depending
on number of persons having another may be in ____(Hindi) 16 Communications between Central Govt.
Offices in Region A shall be in ___ (Hindi) 17 Communications between Central Govt. Offices in Region B
or C may be in _______ (Hindi or English) 18 Translations of such communication shall be provided along
with the communication where it is addressed to Offices in _______________(C region) QUESTION
BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 44 of 57 19 Representations may be submitted by an employee in
_________(Hindi). 20 Representations, when made/signed in Hindi shall be replied to in
________(Hindi) 21 Notings in Central Government Offices may be made by an employee in
_____________and no_____be required to furnish a translation of it. (Hindi only, translation) 22 If an
employee has working knowledge of Hindi, he will not ask for English translation of a Hindi document,
unless it is of _________nature. (Technical) 23 Manuals, Codes, Forms, Notices etc. shall be printed or
cyclostyled in _______form (Hindi/English diglot form). 24 The forms and heading on registers shall be in
________________(bilingual form) 25 All name plates, sign boards, letter heads, inscriptions on
envelopes and other stationery etc. shall be in _________________(Bilingual form). 26 Responsibility for
compliance of the Official Language Rules shall be that of (Administrative Head/Head of the Office). 27
Andhra Pradesh and Kerala states come under ___________Region (C) II. Questions and Answers: Q.1.
Why is Hindi divas celebrated and When? Or What is importance of Hindi Divas? Ans: 14th September is
celebrated as Hindi Day because the Constituent Assembly of India had adopted in Devanagari Script as
the Official Language of the Union on 14th September 1949. Q.2 What are Documents to be issued in
Hindi-English bilingual form under Section 3(3) of OL Act, 1963? Ans The following documents have to be
issued in Hindi-English bilingual form simultaneously (i) Resolutions, general orders, Rules, Notifications,
Administrative reports or other reports or Press communiqués. (ii) Administrative and other Reports and
Official Papers lay before a House or the Houses of the Parliament. (iii) Contracts and agreements
executed and licenses permits, notices and forms tender issued. Q.3 How many members are in
parliamentary Committee of Official Language and how they are elected? Ans The Committee consists of
thirty members, out of them twenty members shall be from the House of the People (LOK SABHA) and
ten shall be from the council of states (RAJYA SABHA). They are elected respectively by the members of
the house of people and the members of the Council of States in accordance with the system of
proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote system. Q.4 What are provision of
OL Act, 1963 that are not applicable to Jammu and Kashmir? Ans: The provisions of section 6 and section
7 shall not apply to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Q.5 What do you mean by proficiency in Hindi? Ans: A Government servant who have studied
SSLC/SSC/Matric or equivalent in Hindi Medium.

Q.6 What do you mean by working knowledge in Hindi?

Ans: A Govt. employee who have studied Hindi as a Second Language/Third Language in
SSLC/SSC/Matric or equivalent or Inter/Degree or Passed Hindi Pragya examination or prescribed Hindi
Dept. Exam (i.e. Prabodh or Praveen)

Q.7 Who is responsible for use of Hindi or English for issuance of documents comes under Section 3(3)?

Ans: Both Hindi and English shall be used for all documents referred to in sub section (3) of section 3 of
OL Act. 1963 and it shall be the responsibility of persons signing such documents to ensure that such
documents are made, executed or issued both Hindi and English.

Q.8 Can any Govt. servant write notes etc. in Hindi only?

Ans: Yes, As per Rule No.8 of OL Rules, 1976, an employee may record a note or minute on a file in Hindi
or in English without being himself required to furnish a translation there of in the other language.

Q.9 Who is responsible to implement the Hindi in Govt. Offices?

Ans: It shall be the responsibility of the administrative head of each Central Govt. Office to implement
official language Hindi in their offices.
PART – D (ESTABLISHMENT, STORES & GENERAL QUESTIONS) I. OBJECTIVE: Ranker Section – B Question
Bank – General (Common to all Trades) Each question carries one mark. 1) Chief Electrical Engineer is
the Electrical head of the South Central Railway. 2) The full form of CESE is Chief Electrical Service
Engineer 3) Inventory can be in the form of Raw materials, supplies, in process goods . 4) In computer
terminology, LAN stands for Local area network. 5) I.R.S stands for Indian Railway standard. 6) 21
languages are recognized by the eighth schedule 7) On passing of which examination conducted by the
Hindi Training Scheme, Personal pay will be given Pragya. 8) Metal Token pass issued to Officers. 9)
Maternity leave can be granted for a maximum period of 180 Days. 10) Maximum LHAP that can be
granted at one time 24 Months. 11) RDSO stands for Research, Design and Standards
Organisationorganisation. 12) RDSO located at Lucknow. 13) An employee can be deemed suspended, if
he is detained in custody for more than 48 hrs reviewed 14) According to D and AR, commission means
UPSC. QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 46 of 57 15) Railway Board located at New Delhi 16)
Women employees having two minor children may be granted child care leave for a maximum period of
730 days during their entire service. 17) Rejected saleable scrap should be sent to Scrap Depot,
Lallaguda. 18) Dismissal is a more serious punishment. 19) PHOD stands for Principle Head of the
department. 20) Extraordinary leave can be granted in combination with other leaves except CL. 21)
PHOD of the Electrical Department CEE. 22) During Hospital leave full salary is granted for a period of
120 days. 23) During Special Disability leave full salary is granted for a period of 120 days. 24) Head
quarters of South Central Railway is located at Secunderabad. 25) SCR stands for South Central Railway.
26) Following leaves can be granted in combination LAP+LHAP+ Commuted leave. 27) For donation of
blood one day Special Casual Leave. 28) Decode COFMOW Central Organisation for Modernization of
Workshops. 29) Compulsory retirement is a Major penalty. 30) ISO stands for Institute of Science and
Ocean studies. 31) EMS stands for Environmental Management system. 32) ISO 9000 Series deals with
QMS. 33) ISO 14000 Series deals with EMS. 34) S1302A indent will be generated, when the value of
material is more than Rs. 10,000/-. 35) With holding of the Privilege Passes or Privilege ticket order or
both is a Minor penalty. 36) Rs. 2800/- is the grade pay of Technician –I 37) Paternity leave can be
granted for a maximum period of 15 days. 38) Periodicity for checking the fire extinguisher 3 months.
39) The term CCA stands for city compensatory allowance. 40) Leave cannot be claimed as a matter of
right. 41) The leave sanctioning authority may refuse or revoke of any kind of leave. 42) The leave
sanctioning authority cannot alter the kind of leave due and applied for. 43) LAP can be accumulated up
to maxim of 300 days. 44) Commuted leave not exceeding half the amount of half pay leave due can be
taken on medical certificate. 45) Leave not due during the entire service is limited to maximum of 360
days. 46) The duration of maternity leave is for 135 days. 47) ISO 9000 Series deals with QMS 48) ISO
14000 Series deals with EMS 49) ISO 18001 Series deals with OHSAS 50) If attempts are made to make
an instrument very sensitive, quality is likely to be impaired is precision. 51) In computer terminology, ID
address is computer address 52) In computer terminology, IP stands for Internet protocol 53) In
computer terminology, ORACLE is a Database. 54) Hospital leave can be granted for a maximum period
of 28 months. 55) In computer terminology, LAN stands for local area network . 56) In computer
terminology, HTTP is an Protocol. 57) I.R.S stands for Indian Railway standard. 58) In computer
terminology, IDE is related to HDD. 59) How many languages are recognized by the eighth schedule 21.
60) In computer terminology, Modem is a Analog to Digital / Digital to Analog converter. 61) Rail wheel
factory located at Yelahanka, Bangalore. QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 47 of 57 62) In
computer terminology, ISP is a service provider. 63) In computer terminology, MB stands for mega
bytes. 64) In computer terminology, NTFS is a file system. 65) In computer terminology, One kilo byte is
equal to 1024 bites. 66) In computer terminology, 80386 Processor is a 32 bit microprocessor chip used
in personal computers. 67) In computer terminology, Gateway in computers A device that connects
dissimilar networks. 68) Leave not due shall not be granted in case of leave preparatory.w 69) LHAP can
be converted in half period of leave on an average pay on medical grounds is called commuted leave..
70) Action to eliminate the cause of a detected non conformity is Corrective action. 71) Meeting of
PREM committee at Railway board, zonal Railway and Divisional Railway level will a quarter. 72) RWF
stands for Rail wheel factory. 73) In computer terminology, ISP stands for Internet service provide. 74)
Gear tooth vernier is used to measure pitch line thickness of gear. 75) Accuracy is agreement of the
result of a measurement with the true value of the measure quantity. 76) Acronym of LHB Linke
Hoffman Bosch. 77) In computer terminology, AGP stands for Advanced graphics port. 78) An
abbreviation made up of the first letters of a series of words is called acronym. 79) In computer
terminology, Bluetooth is a communication device. 80) Censure is a Minor penalty C. 81) House rent
allowance for ‘X’ classified cities is 30% of basic pay. 82) House rent allowance for 'Y' classified cities is
20% of basic pay. 83) House rent allowance for 'Z' classified cities is10% of basic pay. 84) For the purpose
of HRA Hyderabad is ‘X’ classified city. 85) For the purpose of HRA Warangal is ‘Y’ classified city. 86) For
the purpose of HRA Tirupathi is ‘Z’ classified city. 87) In computer terminology, a CD-R drive that can
read CDs. 88) In computer terminology, a CD drive that can read, write, and the rewrite CDs CD-RW
drive. 89) In computer terminology, A high-capacity disc that uses optical technology to store data in a
form that can be read but not written over CD-ROM. 90) A non railway official can assist 3 D and AR
cases at most. 91) A photo electric device in which the resistance of the metal changes directly
proportional to the light striking on it, is called photo conductive cell. 92) A tooth paste tube can be
produced by hollow backward extrusion. 93) In Electronics terminology, DTS is related to sound system.
94) In computer terminology, DVD stands for Digital versatile disk. 95) Email address uses @ symbol. 96)
For P.N.M. meeting's agenda should be submitted by the union for discussion1 before 2 days in advance
of Schedule date of meeting. 97) CAMTECH located at Gwalior. 98) Errors which are regularly repetitive
in nature are systematic errors. 99) In computer terminology, DOS stands for disk operating system. 100)
Expand the term CAMTECH centre for advanced maintenance technology. 101) In computer
terminology, DNS stands for domain name system. 102) In computer terminology, CPU stands for central
processing uni 103) D and AR formed in the year 1968. QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 48 of 57
104) In computer terminology, data transmission is measured in bits/s. 105) Optical flats are made of
quartz. 106) 3000/- will be given for festival advance. 107) 3000/- will be given for Cycle advance. 108) In
computer terminology, key board is the input device of PC. 109) In computer terminology, CPU is the out
put device of PC. 110) With holding of privilege pass for 10 years is minor penalty 111) With holding of
the Privilege Passes or Privilege ticket order or both is a… Minor penalty …. 112) In Computer
terminology, RED HAT is related to LINUX. 113) Reduction to lower stage in time scale of pay by one
stage for a period exceeding three year is a major 114) Reduction to lower stage in time scale of pay by
one stage for a period not exceeding three year is a minor penalty 115) In computer terminology, RAM
stands for random access memory 116) The D and A rules are derived from 309.article of Indian
constitution. 117) Festival advance can be recovered in …10…..equal instalments. 118) PEASD stands for
Passenger emergency alarm signal device 119) PEAV stands for Passenger Emergency alarm valve 120)
On motor cycle advance, interest can be recovered 121) Dy.CMM/M&E/LGD can recouped the stock
items value up to Two Lakhs through local purchase 122) TRD stands for Traction distribution 123) UPS
stands for uninterruptible power supply 124) A railway servant shall be permitted to encash leave on
average pay upto 10 days 125) For availing encashment leave …30……..days of leave on average pay
should be available to employee’s credit after taking into account the period of encashment as well as
leave availed of. 126) The total leave so encashed on average pay during the entire career shall not
exceed …60.….days 127) Expand RELHS Retired Railway Employees Liberalised Health scheme 128) How
many berths available in AC two tier coach 48 129) What is RSP rolling stock programme. 130) How
many clauses are there in ISO 9001:2000(E) quality system 8 131) What is the maximum speed of
Duranto Express 160 Kmph 132) The number of slip gauges in a set are 103 133) The retired railway
servant can hold not more than seven D and AR cases in his hand to act as defence helper. II. QUESTION
& ANSWERS: Q.1 What is Honorarium? Ans: Honorarium is a remuneration for work performed which is
occasional or intermittent in character and either so laborious or of such special merit on to justify a
special reward. Q.2 What is substantive Pay? Ans: Substantive pay means the pay other than special pay,
personal pay or emoluments classified as pay by the President under Rule 1303(iii) to which Railway
Servant is entitled on account of post to which he has been appointed substantively or by reasons of his
substantive position in a cadre. Q.3 What is meaning of “Officiating”? QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC
Page 49 of 57 Ans: Officiating Means the Railway Servant officiate in a post where he performs the
duties of a post on which any other person holds a lien or when a competent authority appoints him to
officiate in a vacant post on which no other railway servant holds lien. Q.4 What is LDCE? Ans: Limited
Departmental Competitive Examination. In Civil, Electrical, Mechanical, S&T Dep. 25% of Vacancies are
filled by this minimum pass Marks are 60%. Q.5 What is Dearness Allowance? Ans: Dearness Allowance
is in the nature of compensation for Established increase in the cost of living and comprised of Dearness
Allowance, Additional Dearness Allowance and Dearness Pay as the Government may from time to time
decide. Q.6 Which are the allowances are exempted from the income tax? Ans: 1. Sumptuary Allowance
and uniform Allowance 2. Death cum Retirement gratuity received by Government Servant their
families. 3. Gratuity received by an employee 4. Any payment in commutation of pension. 5. Amount by
way of encashment of unutilized earned leave. 6. Any some received under life insurance policy. Q.7
Elaborate Vigilance Organization and what is Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003? Ans: Vigilance
implies a state of being watchful or on the alert. There is a Chief Vigilance commission for all Central
Government Ministries and departments. Indian Railway had set up a Vigilance unit under a under
Control of Sr.,Dy. ,GM on Zonal Railways. CVC ACT, 2003 Mandates - the Central Vigilance Commission
to enquire or cause an enquiry into complaints against public servants wherein allegations of corruption
are involved. The commission can cause an enquiry through the Chief Vigilance Officer of the
Organization concerned or CBI or any other anti-corruption investigating agency under the Government
of India. Q.8 What is Arbitration? Ans: Arbitration is a device for setting up difference between the
Railway Administration and contractor by intervention of third person without the help of Court of Laws.
Under the procedure the contractor may call for arbitration after 90 days of his presentation of final
claim on disputed matter. There would be two Arbitration and also umpire over them. Arbitrators are
appointed by General Manager. Q.9 What are the objectives of PREM? Ans: The broad objectives of
PREM are : 1. evaluate the functioning of the Railways and exchange date and ideas on way and means
of improving the efficiency and viability of the enterprise 2. to facilitate effective and meaningful
participation of the Railway employees in the management process. 3. to discuss and identify the
measures for improving the quality of service in the rail passengers and safety operations. Q.10 What is
Trade Union Act 1926? QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 50 of 57 Ans: The Act provides for
Registration of Trade Unions. It clarifies privileges of Registered Trade Unions and Rules. Q.11 What is a
tribunal and purpose of CAT.? Ans: It is a forum appointed by a statute having powers to all adjudicate
on the matter falling with in its jurisdiction. The Central Government has Established. Administrative
tribunals with effective from Nov. Ist 1985. Purpose: Speedy and inexpensive adjudication or trial of
disputes or complaints regarding recruitment and conditions of service of Central Government
employees. Q.12 What is workmen's compensation act 1923 and its features? Ans: It provides for
Payment of compensation to workers in case of accidents involving injuries to them or to their
dependents in case of death. The Act also provides for a machinery to deal with claims of the workers.
Important features: 1. Pay limit which was Rs.1000 hitherto) for a person in Schedule II to be a
“Workman” has been removed. So now such a person shall be covered by this Act irrespective of his pay
limit. 2. The amount of compensation will now be related to a ‘relevant factor’ has been given in
Schedule IV. 3. ½ monthly payments will now be 25% of monthly wages. 4. Amount spent on medical
treatment shall not be deemed as a payment or allowance received by worker 5. A new and more
comprehensive Schedule III of Occupational disease’ has been given. Q.13 What are the objectives and
applicability of factories act 1948? Ans: The Act lays down the obligation of the occupier of a factory in
the matter of cleanliness of the premises, disposal of wastes and effluents, maintenance of proper
ventilation and temperature, prevention of overcrowding, provision of cool drinking water, latrines and
urinals, fencing of machinery, maintenance of machines in safe condition, precautionary measures
against fire hazard, provision of washing facilities, fixing of weekly holidays and payment of overtime
allowance, prevention of accidents etc. The factories Act applied to all Railway Workshops and
production units, but does not extend to Loco sheds and carriage and Wagon Depots which have been
specially exempted. Q.14 What are the objectives and applicability of payment of wages act 1936? Ans:
This Act Aims securing prompt and regular payment of wages without any arbitration. Deductions to
certain clause of person employed in Industrial Establishment including Railway either directly or
through a sub – Contractor by a person full filling agreement with Railways and Employing or having
employed twenty or more person are any day of proceeding 12 months. Q.15 What is the classification
of workers under HOER? Ans: (i) Continuous: An employment is continuous except when it is “Excluded”
or declared to be “Intensive” or “Essentially Intermittent”. (ii) Intensive: An employment is intensive
when declared to be so on grounds that it is of a strenuous nature involving continued mental or
physical strain or hard manual labour with title or no periods of relaxation. (iii) Essentially intermittent:
An employment is essentially intermittent. When it is declared to be so on grounds that daily hours of
duty normally include periods of inaction aggregating to QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 51 of
57 six hours or more including at least one such period of not less than one hour or two such periods of
not less than half an hour each during which the employee may be on duty but is not called upon to
display either physical activity or sustained attention. Q.16 What is the railway conduct rule 1966 Ans:
The conduct rules which were revised as a result of recommendation of Shanthanam Committee and
other prescribed the standard of conduct expected of every Railway servant and members of their
family. All orders / instructions issued by Supervisors from time to time must be obeyed. Q.17 What are
the principles for natural justice? Ans: Principle of natural justice is the principles which lay down and
elaborate the reasonable opportunity which should be given to the charged employee. Principles: 1. The
hearing must be impartial. 2. Reasonable opportunity should be given to defend the case. 3. Reasons for
decisions should be made known to the accused. 4. The charges should be intimated in advance. 5.
Justice should not only be done, it should also appear to have been done. Q.18 Describe appointing
authority? Ans Appointing Authority in relation to a Railway Servant means – (a) the authority to make
appointment to the service of which the railway servant is, for the time being a member or to be grade
or the service in which the Railway servant is, for the time being included or (b) the authority
empowered to make appointments to the post which the Railway servant for the time being holds. Or
(c)The authority which appointed the Railway servant to such service, grade or post, as the case may be
or (d) where, the Railway servant having been a permanent member of any other service or having
substantively held any other permanent post, has been in continuous employment under the Ministry of
Railways, the authority which appointed him to that service or to any grade in that service or to that
post, which ever authority is the highest authority. Q.19 Describe disciplinary authority ? Ans: (a) In
relation to the imposition of a penalty on a Railway servant, the authority competent , to impose on him
penalty is as per schedule in normal course and in case of imposing major penalties such authority
would be Appointing Authority. (b) In relation to Rule 9 (Major Penalty) and clauses (a) and (b) of sub
rule (1) of Rule 11 (Minor Penalty) in the case of any Gazetted Officer, an authority competent to impose
any of the penalties specified in Rules 6. QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 52 of 57 (c) In relation
to Rule 9 in the case of any non-gazetted Railway servant, an authority competent to impose major
penalties specified in Rule 6. An authority, who can impose any penalty under D&A rules, may impose a
minor penalty. For initiating a disciplinary proceeding, an authority who is competent to impose a minor
penalty, may issue the charge sheet. But as soon as he comes to know that based on the Inquiry (the
punishment required to be imposed is not within his competence, he should forward the case to the
competent authority. Q.20 Define suspension under DA & R ? Ans: Suspension is not a penalty. (1) An
employee may be placed under suspension – (i) When a disciplinary proceeding is contemplated or
pending against him or (ii) When engaged in activities prejudicial to the interest of the State, or (iii)
When a criminal case is pending investigation, inquiry or trial.. (2) An employee shall be deemed to have
been suspended:- (i) If he remains in police custody for exceeding 48 hours. (ii) If he is convicted for an
offence and sentenced to imprisonment for a period exceeding 48 hours and is not forthwith dismissed
removed or compulsorily retired. Q.21 Define deemed suspension under DA & R ? Ans: When a penalty
of dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement, imposed on an employee under suspension, is set aside
on appeal or revision and the case is remitted for further inquiry or action, the order of his suspension
shall be deemed to have continued in force from the date of the original order of dismissal etc. Q.22
Describe subsistence allowance? Ans: Subsistence Allowance is allowance granted to employee under
suspension equal the leave salary an half average pay and allowance admissible on such pay. Q.23
Mention any four types of minor penalties? Ans: Minor: (i) Censure (ii) Withholding of promotion for
specified period. (iii) Recovery from pay of the whole or part of any pecuniary loss caused to the Rly.
Adm. by his negligence etc. (a) Withholding of passes or PTOs or both (b) Reduction to lower stage in
time scale for not more than 3 yrs. Without cumulative effect and not affecting adversely his retirement
dues.

(iv) Withholding of increments (with or without cumulative effect).

[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[[ QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page
53 of 57 Q.24 Mention any four types of major penalties? Major: (1) Reduction to a lower stage (2)
Reduction to a lower time-scale, grade, post or service (3) Compulsory Retirement (4) Removal (5)
Dismissal. Q.25 What is ex-party enquiry? Ans: When charged employee refuses to participate the
despite repeated sittings, but not when he is submitting Medical Certificate of sickness Ex-partee inquiry
is conducted. Q.26 What is the period of availability of privilege passes? a) Single Journey pass – 3
months from the date of issue b) Return Journey pass – 4 months from the date of issue c) Settlement
Pass – 1 year from Retirement d) Kit Wagon Pass – 1 month from issue. Q.27 What is the meaning of
“Family” in view of passes? Ans: (i) Wife/Husband whether earning or not. (ii) Son under 21 years when
wholly dependent (iii) Unmarried daughters of any age – earning or not (iv) Widowed daughters when
wholly dependent (“Wholly dependent” is one whose monthly income from all sources including
pension/pension equivalent does not exceed Rs.3000/- to rs.3500/- p.m. plus appropriate dearness
relief as sanctioned from time to time or 15% of pay whichever is more. (v) Step-sons, unmarried step-
daughters. Age limit will not apply to bonafide students and invalid children,. Q.28 Mention any 8 types
of passes. ? Ans 1. Privilege Pass 2. Resident Card Pass 3. Duty Pass 4. Post Retirement Passes 5. Special
Passes 6. Kit Passes or Transfer/Retirement 7. School Pass QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 54 of
57 8. Platinum Pass. Q.29 What is encashment of leave? Ans: Those retiring after 30-09-77 were able to
draw cash equivalent of leave salary on average pay to the extent of LAP at their credit at the time of
their retirement subject to maximum of 300 days LAP For Group C & D Employees during service eligible
Encashment of leave average pay upto 10 days at the time of availing passes/PTOs for a maximum
period of 60 days in their entire service. Q.30 What is the procedure for sanction of commuted leave?
Ans: Reconversion or commutation of one type of leave into another retrospectively may be considered
if the sick and fit certificates are from the Authorized Railway Medical Attendant. LHAPs may be
committed to LAP by surrendering 2 days LHAP for one day of LAP without any limit in case of an
medical grounds. Q.31 Define Maternity Leave? Ans: It is a full pay leave, Female Government Servant
with less than 2 Serving Children may be granted Maternity leave by an authority competent to grant
leave for period of 135 days from the date of its commencement. Total period of Maternity leave on
account of mis-carriage/abortion should be restricted to 45 days in the entire service of Female Railway
servant. Q.32 Give any six General leave rules? Ans: General: a) Leave cannot be claimed by the
employee as a matter of right. The right to grant or refuse leave vests in the authority competent to
sanction leave. b) The leave usually commences on the day charge is handed over and ends on the day
the charge is taken over again. c) Leave sanctioning authority cannot alter the kind of leave due and
applied for except at the written request of the employee. d) Leave already availed may be converted
into another kind of leave on employee’s request retrospectively but not after retirement. e) Leave
cannot be sanctioned for more than 5 years. f) Combination of holidays proceeding or in continuation of
leave is permitted. In case of medical certificate of sickness, the holidays will be part of sickness leave. g)
The employee is not permitted to take up any employement during the period of leave. QUESTION BANK
FOR JEE Non – AC Page 55 of 57 Q.33 What is LHAP? Ans: At the rate of 20 days per year. No restriction
on accumulation. It can be availed on medical certificate or otherwise. It may be commuted to LAP by
surrendering 2 days LHAP for one day of LAP without any limit in case of on medical grounds and upto
180 days in entire service in other cases. However, if any employee does not return to duty after
commuted LHAP is over, it shall be reconverted to LHAP. Teachers will not earn LHAP after 11-12-84.
Q.34 Describe any six kinds of leave? Ans: 1. LAP (Leave Average Pay) 2. LHAP (Leave Half Average Pay)
3. CL (Casual Leave) 4. ML (Maternity Leave) 5. SDL (Special Disability Leave) 6. S L (Study Leave) Q.35
What is Restricted Holiday? Ans: Restricted Holidays are optional Holidays. Two Restricted Holidays are
to be selected by each employee working in administrative office from the list circulated for this
purpose. The office opens on these days. Q.36 What is productivity-linked Bonus? Ans: Productivity
Linked Bonus is a Bonus based on the productivity of the Railway during the year. The year 1977 – 100 is
the base year entitling to a Bonus of 25 days and any excess or decrease over it by 2250 million Revenue
Tonne KM will less bonus. If the productivity falls below Index 90 then no Bonus shall payable for that
year. Q.37 What is Incentive bonus? Ans: If an employee does not withdraw any amount from his
Provident Fund Account (including Voluntary Provident Fund) for a period of three continuous years. He
is granted additional 1% incentive bonus as interest after adding up his interest for the third year. Q.38
What is PF? Ans PF is Provident Fund. Every employee contributes 8 ½% of his monthly pay to his
Provident Fund Account which is maintained in the Accounts Department. This amount to recovered
from his pay Bill. Each Provident Fund Account is allotted a Specified number. Q.39 What is Local
Purchase? QUESTION BANK FOR JEE Non – AC Page 56 of 57 Ans: The local Purchase need of stock and
Non-stock items arises (a) to meet the emergencies (b) to maintain operation efficiency (c) to procure
items of small value which have not been stocked as per policy of Railways and (d) when supplies are
not received against contracts and stores are required immediately. Q.40 Describe the PL Number under
the Material Management? Ans The stores items have been codified in an eight metric structure under
an “Integrated Data Processing Technique for materials and Stores”. The code number of an item (XX XX
XXXX) is described as follows: First two digits indicate the group as per revised classification. Next two
digits indicate the sub-group in which the item is listed. Last four digits indicate the serial number of all
item – the last digit of the four represents the check digit calculated on MODULUS ii METHOD. Q.41
What is the ABC Method of material Management? Ans ABC Analysis: To have EFFECTIVE CONTROL, THE
Railway Board have classified the stores and fixed ceilings as under: A. 1. Category: Annual usage value –
above Rs.5 lakhs A. 2 Category: All items having annual usage value between Rs.50,000 and 5 lakhs -
Stock not to exceed three months requirement. B.1 Category: All items having annual usage of Rs.25,000
& above but below Rs.50,000 – Stock not to exceed six months requirement. B 2. Category: All items
having annual usage value of Rs.10,000 and above, but below Rs.25,000/- - Stock not to exceed six
months requirements. C Category: All items having annual usage of value of below Rs.10,000 – Stock not
to exceed 12 months requirement. D Category: All items which not moved more than one or two years.
Q.42 Under what condition should a PAC is issued.? Ans: Proprietary Article Certificate is issued to
Purchase the material if (a) No other make/brand will be suitable (b) This is the only firm who is
manufacturing/stocking this item and (c) A similar article is not manufactured/sold by any other firm
which could be used in lieu.

Q.43 What is Limited Tender?

Ans: Purchase through advertised tender is time consuming process and therefore, when the purchase
value is less than Rs.3 lakhs or if the item is urgently required, we invite tenders from a limited number
of firms. These firms are normally our approved suppliers, but in certain cases, limited tenders can be
invited from unregistered firms also with the approval of the competent authority

Q.44 How to procure the stock items?

Ans: Stock items are purchased through COS/SC calling for tenders by Limited and Open tenders. Q.45
How to revise the AAC of stock items? Ans: AAC of the stock items are made once in a year. The same is
vetted by accounts and sanctioned by ADRM. The items which are obsolete has to be deleted the items
which are low value as to be deleted and procured through imprest. To increase the items of AAC
justification should be given for increased in the AAC of the item. Q.46 What is the Special Indent and
when it should be used?

Ans: The special indent is used when item is not an imprest item for the consignee as special account
and also the full quantity of the item is not supplied against P.D. (Periodical demand) and balance
quantity will be drawn against special indent.

Q.47 What is the procedure for making the non-stock item into stock item?

Ans: The Non-stock item which is used frequently by the user department such items are to be
converted into stock items. The stock items are procured by stores department and stock at various
depots. The whole procedure for converting from NS to Stock item is done by SAF. The NS item is sent to
stores depot for certification of stocking of the item and Associate Finance vetting is done and
forwarded to HQrs. For onward transmission to COS Office for stocking and purchase.

Q.48 What is Zero based Budgeting?

Ans ZBB is that all the financial requirements of a Budget unit are analyzed, evaluated and justified
annually and not just the increased or additional requirements. It is evaluation and prioritization of all
programmes at different levels of efforts.

Q.49 What is the procedure for indent T & P items?

Ans: Non-Stock Indent has to be placed for procurement of T&P Item. Indent Rate up to 10,000/- should
be approved by JAG Officer. Indent Rate more than Rs.10,000/- approval should be taken from ADRM /
SAG for procurement of T&P items. *******
. Three-phase inverter circuit.
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Overall layout of the substation electrical rooms for a new office building