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1
1. If a material has identical properties in all directions, 7. The maximum stress produced due to compressive
it is said to be load (P) in a bar of tapering section is at
A. Homogeneous A. Larger end
B. Isotropic B. Middle
C. Elastic C. Anywhere
D. Orthotropic D. Smaller end

2. In a rectangular element subjected to like principal 8. Bending moment at the free end of a cantilever beam
tensile stresses P1 and P2 in two mutually perpendicular of carrying uniformly distributed load will be
direction x and y, the maximum shear stress would occur A. Zero
along the B. Maximum
A. Plane normal to x-axis C. Minimum
B. Plane normal to y-axis D. Equal to the load
C. Plane at 45o to y-direction
D. Plane at 45° and 135o to the y-direction
9. When a beam is loaded with concentrated loads, the
bending moment diagram will be a
3. Strain energy in a member is A. Horizontal straight line
A. Directly proportional to strains B. Vertical straight line
B. Directly proportional to changes in strain C. Inclined straight line
C. A function of strains as well as stresses D. Parabolic curve
D. A function of loads only
10. The bending equation is
4. A Mohr's circle reduces to a point when the body is A. M/I= σb/y = E/R
subjected to B. T/Ip= τ/R = CƟ/l
A. Pure shear C. M/y= σb /I = E/R
B. Uniaxial stress only D. T/R= τ /Ip = C𝜃/l
C. Equal and opposite axial stresses on two
mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being
free of shear 11. There are two hinged semi-circular arches A,B, and
D. Equal axial stresses on two mutually C of radii 5 m,7.5 m and 10 m respectively and each
perpendicular planes, the planes being free of carries a concentrated load W at their crowns. The
shear horizontal thrust at their supports will be in the ratio of
A. 1:1 :2

5. Rate of change of bending moment is called B. 2:1 :1

A. Shear force C. 1:1:2
B. Deflection D. None
C. Slope
D. Rate of loading
12. The deformation of a spring produced by a unit load
is called
6. The moment of inertia of a circular section of any A. Stiffness
diameter D about its centroidal axis is B. Flexibility
A. πD4/64 C. Influence coefficient
B. πD3/64 D. None
C. πD4/16
D. πD3/16
13. All the failure theories gives nearly the same result

2
 A. When one of the principal stresses at a point is A. Modulus of rigidity
large in comparison to the other B. Factor of safety
B. When shear stresses act C. Poisson's ratio
C. When both the principal stresses are numerically D. Bulk modulus
equal
D. For all situation of stress
20. The tangential stress on a principal plane is
A. Maximum
14. Of the several prismatic beams of equal lengths, the B. Minimum
strongest in flexure is the one having maximum C. Unity
A. Moment of inertia D. Zero
B. Section modulus
C. Tensile strength 21. Limit of proportionality depends upon
D. Area of cross-section ____________
A. Area of cross-section
15. The plane of maximum obliquity is inclined to the B. Type of loading
major principal plane at an angle C. Type of material
A. + D. All of the mentioned

B. + 22. The stress which acts in a direction perpendicular to

the area is called ____________
C. +
A. Shear stress
D. +𝜃
B. Normal stress
C. Thermal stress
16. When a cantilever beam is loaded at its free end the D. None of the mentioned
maximum compressive stress shall develop at 23. A weight of 10kN falls by 30mm on a collar rigidly
A. Bottom fibre attached to a vertical bar 4m long and 1000mm2 in
B. Top fibre section. What will be the instantaneous stress
C. Neutral axis (E=210GPa)?
D. Centre of gravity
A. 149.4 N/mm2
B. 179.24 N/mm2
17. The ratio of modulus of rigidity to modulus of C. 187.7 N/mm2
elasticity for a Poisson's ratio of 0.25 would be D. 156.1 N/mm2
A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 1
D. 1.2

18. "A plane section before bending will remain plane

after bending" this assumption leads to
A. Strain distribution being linear across the depth.
B. Stress distribution being linear across the depth
C. Not related to stress and strain distribution
D. Section is not affected with bending

19. The ratio between Ultimate stress/Permissible stress

is
3
24.. Where will be the centre of gravity of the T section 27.. Circumferential stress is same as of _________
shown in the figure?
A. Hoop stress
B. Longitudinal stress
C. Transverse stress
D. Phreatic stress
28.. Transverse bars are also called as _________
A. Main bars
B. Anchor bars
C. Distribution bars
D. Stirrups
29.. Slope is maximum at _______ in simply supported
beams.
A. Mid span
B. Through out
A. At 8.545cm C. Supports
B. At 6.5cm D. At point of loading
C. At 5cm
D. At 9.25cm 30.. In thin cylinders, the thickness should be
____________ times of internal diameter.
25. Find the reaction at simple support A?
A. 1/20
B. 1/15
C. 1/30
D. 1/40
31.. The ratio of strengths of solid to hollow shafts, both
having outside diameter D and hollow having inside
diameter D/2, in torsion, is
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
A. 6.5 kN C. 1/16
B. 9 kN D. 15/16
C. 10 kN
D. 7.5 kN
32.. The shape of the bending moment diagram over the
26.. Determine section modulus for beam of 100mm length of a beam, having no external load, is always
diameter. A. linear
B. parabolic
C. cubical
D. circular.

33.. The number of points of contraflexure in a simple

supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load, is
A. 1
A. 785 × 103 mm3 B. 2
B. 456 × 103 mm3 C. 3
C. 87 × 103 mm3 D. 0
D. 98 × 103 mm3

4
34. The length of a column, having a uniform circular C. equal to one
cross-section of 7.5 cm diameter and whose ends are D. none of these.
hinged, is 5 m. If the value of E for the material is 2100
tonnes/cm2, the permissible maximum crippling load
will be 41. The analysis of statically in determinate structures by
A. 1.288 tonnes two unit load method is based on
B. 12.88 A. Force method concept
C. 128.8 tonnes B. Stiffness method
D. 288.0 C. Consistent deformation
D. Consistent force

35. The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying a

concentrated load at its free end, will be 42. Muller Breslau's principle for obtaining influence
A. triangle lines is applicable to
B. rectangle (i) Trusses
C. parabola (ii) Statically determinate beams and frames
D. cubic parabola. (ii) Statically indeterminate structures, the material of
which is elastic and follow
Hooke's Law
36. The tension coefficient of any member is
(iv) Any statically indeterminate structure.
A. force divided by the length
B. tension divided by the length The correct answer is
C. tension per unit area A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. tension in the member. B. (i), (ii) and (iv)
C. (i) and (ii)
D. Only (i)
37. A short masonry pillar is 60 cm x 60 cm in cross-
section, the core of the pillar is a square whose side is
A. 17.32 cm 43. The Sway correction for frame will be necessary
B. 14.14 cm A. Only when the frame is unsymmetrical
C. 20.00 cm B. Only when the loading is unsymmetrical
D. 22.36 cm C. Only when both loading & frame are
unsymmetrical
D. When either the loading or the frame is
38. The ratio of the effective length of a column and unsymmetrical
minimum radius of gyration of its cross-sectional area, is
known
A. buckling factor 44. The following methods are used for structural
B. slenderness ratio analysis
C. crippling factor (i) Macaulay's method
D. none of these. (ii) Kani's method
(iii) Column analogy method
39. Strain energy of any member may be defined as (iv) Method of selections
work done on it Those method used for indeterminate structure
A. to deform it A. I and II
B. to resist elongation B. I and III
C. to resist shortening C. II and III
D. all the above. D. II, III and IV

40. The value of Poisson's ratio always remains 45.In the moment distribution method the sum of
A. greater than one distribution factors of all the members meeting at any
B. less than one joint is always
5
 A. Zero B. Dynamic
B. <1 C. Static and dynamic
C. >1 D. Neither static nor dynamic
D. =1
53.. For the validity of principle of superposition,
materials should behave in which manner?
46. The units of flexural stiffness is
A. Radians per unit rotation A. linear-elastic
B. Moment per unit rotation B. non-linear-elastic
C. Force per unit deflection and rotation C. Non-linear- inelastic
D. Extension per unit force D. Linear- inelastic
54.. If a member of a truss is in tension, then what will be
47.. A three moment theorem was put forward by the direction of force that itt will apply to the joints?
A. Galileo
B. Bernoulli A. Outward
C. Castigliano B. Inward
D. Clapeyron C. Depends on case
D. No force will be there

48.. In which of the following frames, sway will occurs 55. A bull nose brick is not used for
A. Restrained in horizontal direction A. rounding off sharp corners
B. Symmetric about vertical axis B. pillars
C. Unsymmetrical end conditions C. decoration purpose
D. Symmetric loaded D. arches.

49.. Internal work or strain energy does not develop when 56.. How many equations are solved per joints while
the structure solving space trusses?
A. Deforms
B. Elongates A. 1
C. Bends B. 2
D. Is subjected to zero external forces. C. 3
D. 4

50.
0. The degree of static indeterminacy a rigid frames is 57.. What is kinematic indeterminacy for the given figure
given by the formula without considering axial deformation?
A. (m +3r) -3j
B. (m + r)-2j
C. (3m + r)- 3j
D. (3m+ r) - j

51.. With which loads are impact effects considered?

A. Rain
B. Snow
C. Live
D. Fluids
52.. Impact load results from which type of effects of A. 0
loads applied? B. 2
C. 3
A. Static D. 6
6
58. Identify the correct statements of the followings. 64. According to IS:456-2000 minimum grade of RCC
used in sea water should be
A. Two degrees of freedom are available at each
A. M20
joint of pin jointed plane frame
B. M25
B. Six degrees of freedom are available at each
C. M30
joint of pin jointed space frame
D. M40
C. Four degrees of freedom are available at each
joint of rigid jointed plane frame
D. Three degrees of freedom are available at each 65. The anchorage value of a standard U-type hook shall
joint of pin jointed space frame be equal to
A. 8 times the diameter of the bar
59. What is the degree of indeterminacy of a pin
B. 12 times the diameter of the bar
supported portal frame?
C. 16 times the diameter of the bar
A. 1 D. 20 times the diameter of the bar
B. 2
C. 3
66. The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported
D. 4
slab, should not exceeds its effective depth by
A. Three times
B. Four times
60. Main reinforcement in any simply supported RCC C. Five times
member is placed at D. Six times
A. Both top and bottom
B. Top
C. Bottom 67. For a continuous floor slab supported on beams, the
D. Side faces ratio of end span length and intermediate span length, is
A. 0.6
B. 0.8
61. The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply C. 0.7
supported and spanning in one direction is D. 0.9
A. 35
B. 25
C. 30 68. In case of R.C. footings, it is usual to keep minimum
D. 20 cover under reinforcement as
A. 5 cm
B. 7.5 cm
62. A column can be considered as "Short column" if C. 10 cm
slenderness ratio is D. 12.5 cm
A. Greater then twelve
B. Equal to twelve
C. Less then twelve 69. In the design of retaining wall, the factor of safety
D. Between twelve and eighteen against sliding is usually taken as
A. 1.5
63. Minimum number of bars to be provided in case of B. 4
circular column is C. 4.5
A. 4 numbers D. 5
B. 6 numbers
C. 7 numbers
70. In limit state design, permissible bond stress in the
D. 8 numbers
case of deformed bars is more than that in plain bars by
If dia of column is > 300 mm
7
 A. 60% A. No lateral stresses exist
B. 50% B. Only longitudinal stresses exist
C. 40% C. Only shear stress exist
D. 25% D. Shear stresses are maximum

71. The development length in compression for a 20 mm 77. The anchorage value of 90° hook is
diameter deformed bar of gradeFe 415 embedded in A. 12ϕ
concrete of grade M25 whose design bond stress is 1.40 B. 16 ϕ
N/mm2 is C. 8ϕ
A. 1489 mm D. 10 ϕ
B. 1289 mm
C. 806 mm
D. 645 mm 78. In slab alternate bars are bent up at a distance
A. 1/7 from centre of support
B. 1/6 from centre of support
72. In compression members, the lap length of a bar C. 1/5 from centre of support
should not be less than D. 1/4 from centre of support
A. 16∅
B. 12∅
C. 24∅ 79. To design a continuous slab the depth of slab is
assumed as
D. 20∅
A. Span/20
∅ = Diameter of a bar
B. Span/25
C. Span/30
73. If the effective length of a 32cm diameter RCC D. Span/36
column is 4.40m, its slenderness ratio, is
A. 40
80. In a combined footing if shear stress exceeds 5
B. 45
kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided are:
C. 50
A. 6 legged
D. 55 B. 8 legged
C. 10 legged
74. In RCC work if the adhesion of the concrete to steel D. 12 legged
is not perfect within elastic limits, then
A. Steel will be overstressed
81. The width of the flange of a T-beam should be less
B. Steel reinforcement may break
than
C. Concrete will be overstressed
A. one-third of the effective span of the T-beam
D. Steel will bear more stress than Concrete B. distance between the centres of T-beam
C. breadth of the rib plus twelve times the thickness
75. For M15 grade concrete, shear reinforcement is of the slab
D. least of the above.
necessary, if shear stress is more than
A. 0.5 N/mm2
B. 1 N/mm2 82. If the average bending stress is 6 kg/cm2 for M 150
C. 1.5 N/mm2 grade concrete, the length of embedment of a bar of
D. 2 N/mm2 diameter d according to I.S. 456 specifications, is
A. 28 d
B. 38 d
76. In post-tensioned pre-stressed concrete beam, the end C. 48 d
block zone in the zone between the end of the beam and D. 58 d
the section where
8
83. For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed 89. The thickness of the flange of a Tee beam of a ribbed
load, the ratio of the maximum negative to maximum slab is assumed as
positive radial moment, is A. width of the rib
A. 1 B. depth of the rib
B. 2 C. thickness of the concrete topping 0d) half the
C. 3 thickness of the rib
D. 4 D. twice the width of the rib.
84. The maximum shear stress (qmax) in a rectangular
beam is 90. A pre-stressed concrete member
A. 1.25 times the average A. is made of concrete
B. 1.50 times the average B. is made of reinforced concrete
C. 1.75 times the average C. is stressed after casting
D. 2.0 times the average D. possesses internal stresses.
85. The live load to be considered for an inaccessible
roof, is
91. If diameter of a reinforcement bar is d, the anchorge
A. Nil
value of the hook is
B. 75 kg/m2
A. 4d
C. 150 kg/cm2
B. 8d
D. 200 kg/m2
C. 12d
D. 16d
86. A reinforced concrete cantilever beam is 3.6 m long,
25 cm wide and has its lever arm 40 cm. It carries a load
of 1200 kg at its free end and vertical stirrups can carry
1800 kg. Assuming concrete to carry one-third of the 92. If the size of a column is reduced above the floor, the
diagonal tension and ignoring the weight of the beam, main bars of the columns, are
the number of shear stirrups required, is A. continued up
A. 30 B. bent inward at the floor level
B. 35 C. stopped just below the floor level and separate
C. 40 lap bars provided
D. 45 D. all the above.

87.An R.C.C. column of 30 cm diameter is reinforced

with 6 bars 12 mm φ placed symmetrically along the 93. A circular slab subjected to external loading, deflects
circumference. If it carries a load of 40, 000 kg axially, to form a
the stress is A. semi-hemisphere
A. 49.9 kg/cm2 B. ellipsoid
B. 100 kg/cm2 C. parabolloid
C. 250 kg/cm2 D. none of these.
D. 175 kg/cm2
94. The diameter of the column head support a flat slab,
88. If permissible working stresses in steel and concrete is generally kept
are respectively 1400 kg/cm2 and 80 kg/cm2 and modular A. 0.25 times the span length
ratio is 18, in a beam reinforced in tension side and of B. 0.25 times the diameter of the column
width 30 cm and having effective depth 46 cm, the lever C. 4.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
arms of the section, is D. 5.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
A. 37 cm
B. 38 cm
C. 39 cm 95. The floor slab of a building is supported on
D. 40 cm reinforced cement floor beams. The ratio of the end and
intermediate spans is kept
A. 0.7
B. 0.8
9
 C. 0.9 102. Bolts are most suitable to carry
D. 0.6 A. Axial tension
B. Shear
C. Bending
96. Lapped splices in tensile reinforcement are generally D. Torsion
not used for bars of size larger than
A. 18 mm diameter
B. 24 mm diameter 103. A column splice is used to increase
C. 30 mm diameter A. Length of the column
D. 36 mm diameter B. Strength of the column
C. Area of cross section of column
D. Hardness of the column
97. The thickness of a butt weld as compared to the
thickness of the plate is
A. More 104. Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied
B. Less both in elastic and plastic analysis?
C. Equal A. Yield condition
D. either more or less B. Equilibrium condition
C. Plastic moment condition
D. Mechanism condition
98. Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than
A. 1.5d
B. 2.0d 105. The grip length of a rivet should not be more than
C. 2.5 d _______ diameters.
D. 3.0 d A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
99. In design of rivet connection if p and d are pitch and D. 4
gross dia of rivets, the efficiency of the riveted joint is
expressed by
106. For compression members, maximum pitch of
A.
tacking rivets should be
B. A. 200 mm
B. 300 mm
C.
C. 400 mm
D. D. (4)600 mm

100. The maximum size of fillet weld is a function of

A. Thickness of thicker pate 107. The effective length of a compression member of
B. Thickness of thinner plate length L held in position and restrained in direction at
one end and effectively restrained in direction but not
C. Both the thickness of thicker and thinner plate
held in position at the other end, is
D. Throat thickness
A. L
B. 0.67 L
101. The distance measured along one rivet line from the C. 0.85 L
centre of a rivet to the centre of adjoining rivet on an D. 1.5 L
adjacent parallel rivet line, is called
A. Pitch of rivet 108. If the pitch is 6 cm and rivet value is 4 tonnes, the
B. Gauge distance of rivet number of rivets required for a riveted connection
C. Staggered pitch carrying an eccentric load of 15 tonnes at a distance of
D. Screw line 30 cm from the centre line, is
A. 6
10
 B. 8
C. 10
115.The net area of round bars to resist the tension, is the
D. 12
area of cross section at
A. mid-section
B. root of the thread
109. If the depth of the section of an upper column is
C. difference of (a) and (b)
smaller than the lower column
D. none of these.
A. filler plates are provided with column splice
B. bearing plates are provided with column splice
C. neither filler plates nor bearing plates are 116.Tacking rivets in tension members, are provided at a
provided with column splice pitch in line not exceeding
D. filler plates and bearing plates are provided with A. 25 cm
column splice B. 50 cm
C. 75 cm
D. 100 cm
110. Strengths of a rivet in single shearing, in bearing
and in tearing are 3425 kg, 4575 kg and 5025 kg
117. Poisson’s ratio of steel is ________
respectively. If the load in the member is 35 tonnes, the
number of rivets required, is A. 0.1
A. 10 B. 1.0
B. 11 C. 0.3
C. 12 D. 2.0
D. 13

118. Which of the following relation is correct?

111. Perforated cover plates are particularly suitable for
A. Design Load = Characteristic Load
built up sections consisting of
B. Design Load = Characteristic Load + Partial
A. channels placed back to back
factor of safety
B. channels placed toe to toe
C. Design Load = Characteristic Load / Partial
C. four angle box section
factor of safety
D. all the above.
D. Design Load = Characteristic Load x Partial
factor of safety
112. A riveted joint may experience
A. shear failure of plates
B. bearing failure 119. For roofs of slope greater than 10˚, the imposed
C. bearing failure of rivets load is reduced by ____ for every degree rise in slope.
D. all the above. A. 0.02 kN/m2
B. 0.05 kN/m2
113. Outstanding length of a compression member C. 0.75 kN/m2
consisting of a channel, is measured as D. 0.5 kN/m
A. half of the nominal width
B. nominal width of the section
C. from the edge to the first row of rivets 120. Height of head for flat countersunk head rivet is
D. none of these. ______
A. 0.7d, where d=nominal rivet diameter
114. When plates are exposed to weather, tacking rivets B. 0.5d, where d=nominal rivet diameter
are provided at a pitch in line not exceeding (where t is C. 0.43d, where d=nominal rivet diameter
the thickness of the outside plate). D. 0.25d, where d=nominal rivet diameter
A. 8 t
B. 16 t
C. 24 t 121. Tacking fasteners are used when _______
D. 32 t
11
 A. minimum distance between centre of two B. they consist of plane section for welded plate
adjacent fasteners is exceeded girder
B. maximum distance between centre of two C. first horizontal stiffener is provide at one-fifth of
adjacent fasteners is exceeded distance from compression flange
C. maximum distance between centre of two D. first horizontal stiffener is provide at neutral axis
adjacent fasteners is not exceeded
D. for aesthetic appearance
127. Gantt charts indicates
122. The clear spacing between effective lengths of
A. Comparison of actual progress with the
intermittent welds should not be ______
scheduled progress
A. less than 16t in case of tension joint, where t is B. Balance of work to be done
thickness of thinner plate C. Progressive costs of project
B. less than 12t in case of compression joint, where D. Inventory costs
t is thickness of thinner plate
C. less than 20t in case of tension joint, where t is
thickness of thinner plate 128. Slack time is associated with
D. less than 20t in case of compression joint, where A. A real activity
t is thickness of thinner plate B. An event
123. Sagging of members by built up bars and rods may C. Both even and real activity
be minimised by D. Dummy activity
A. increasing length diameter
B. increasing thickness ratio 129. Standard deviation of an activity (St) is calculated
C. fabricating rod/bar short of its required by
theoretical length
A. (tb + ta)/6
D. fabricating rod/bar more than its required
theoretical length B. (tb – ta)/6
C. (ta – tb)/6
124. Which of the following is true about effective D. ) (ta + tb2)/6
length? ta = optimistic time, tb = pessimistic time
A. effective length shall be taken as length between
inner end bolts/rivets of bars for single lacings
B. effective length shall be taken as length between 130. Which of the following statement is true?
inner end bolts/rivets of bars for double lacings A. Any delay in critical path delays one activity
C. for welded bars, effective length shall be taken B. Any delay in critical path delays two activities
as 0.9 times distance between inner end welds C. Any delay in critical path delays three activities
connecting single bars to members D. Any delay in critical path delays whole project
D. effective length shall be taken as 1.5 times
length between inner end bolts/rivets of bars for
double lacings 131. An event is
A. A definite job
125. Battens should be designed to resist transverse
B. A definite time interval
shear force which is
C. The terminals of an activity
A. 5% of axial force D. A definite position of an activity
B. 0.5% of axial force
C. 2.5% of axial force
D. 7.2% of axial force 132. Latest finish time in CPM technique is indicated by
a
126. Which of the following is not true regarding
longitudinal stiffeners? A. Rectangle
B. Circle
A. longitudinal stiffeners increase buckling C. Triangle
resistance considerably as compared to D. Line
transverse stiffeners

12
133. Operations which take time to carry out and on 140. If D is the duration, ES and EF are the earliest start
which resources are expended are and finish, LS and LF are latest start and latest finish
A. Strategies time, then the following relation holds good
B. Activities A. EF = ES + D
C. Policies B. LS = LF - D
D. Procedures C. LF = LS + D
D. all the above.

134. A bar chart does not

141. The performance of a specific task in CPM, is
A. Represent the time required for completion of
known
activity A. Dummy
B. Show activities occuring concurrently B. Event
C. Show the progress of work C. Activity
D. Prove useful for minor works D. Contract.

135. All the activities having an ending is marked by an 142. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
_______ event. A. The float may be positive, zero or negative
A. Tail B. If the float is positive and the activity is delayed
B. Head by a period equal to its total float, the
C. Dual role completion of project is not delayed
D. Single C. If the float of an activity is negative, delay in its
performance is bound to delay the completion of
project
136. Crash time is the _______ possible time in which D. All the above.
an activity can be completed by employing ________
resources. 143. Completion of an activity on CPM network
A. Maximum, least diagram, is generally known
B. Minimum, least A. Event
C. Maximum, extra B. Node
D. Minimum, extra. C. Connector
D. All the above.
137. Which one of the following represents an activity
A. excavation for foundation 144. Military organisation is known as
B. curing of concrete A. line organisation
C. preparation of breakfast B. line and staff organisation
D. all the above. C. functional organisation
D. none of these.
138. The technique for establishing and maintaining
priorities among the various jobs of a project, is known 145. Various activities of a project, are shown on bar
A. Event flow scheduling technique charts by
B. Critical ratio scheduling A. vertical lines
C. Slotting technique for scheduling B. horizontal lines
D. Short interval scheduling. C. dots
D. crosses.
139. Pick up the PERT event from the following:
A. Digging of foundation started 146. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer
B. Digging of foundation completed A. to concentrate his attention on critical activities
C. Laying of concrete started B. to divert the resources from non-critical
D. All the above. advanced activities to critical activities
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 C. to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the 153. If TL is the latest allowable event occurrence time,
critical activities to avoid delay of the whole total activity slack(s), is equal to
project A. LST-EST
D. all the above. B. LFT-EFT
C. TL-EFT
D. all the above.
147. The time by which activity completion time can be
delayed without affecting the start of succeeding
activities, is known as 154. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. duration A. CPM analysis is activity oriented
B. total flat B. PERT analysis is event oriented
C. free float C. CPM does not make any allowance for the
D. interfering float. uncertainties in the duration of time
D. All the above.
148. The object of technical planning, is
A. preparation of specifications 155. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
B. initiating the procurement action of resources A. Earliest expected time is denoted by TE
C. taking remedial action for likely bottleneck in B. Latest occurrence time is denoted by TL
the execution C. Contractual obligation time is denoted by Ts
D. all the above. D. All the above.

149. Critical path method 156.Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. is an improvement upon bar chart method A. Optimistic time estimate refers to activities
B. provides a realistic approach to daily problems B. Pessimistic time estimate refers to activities
C. was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot C. Most likely time estimate refers to activities
and James E. Kalley or Remington U.S.A. in D. All the above.
1957
D. All the above.
157. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
150.The main principle of an organisation, is A. The duration between the earliest start time of
the preceding event and latest finish time of the
A. unity of command succeeding event, is called 'float'
B. cohegency B. The duration of time by which an activity can be
C. effective control at all levels delayed without affecting the succeeding
D. all the above. activity, is called free float
C. The float which affects neither the processor nor
the successor activities, is called independent
151. If the total float and duration of an activity are 5 float
and 10 days respectively, the particular activity can be D. All the above.
A. started 5 days later
B. completed 5 days later
C. performed at slower rate in 15 days 158. An event is indicated on the network by a number
D. all the above. enclosed in
A. a circle
B. a square
152. Bar charts are suitable for C. a triangle
A. minor works D. all the above.
B. major works
C. large projects
D. all the Above.

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159. For the network shown in the given figure, the 165. The aggregate containing moisture in pores and
expected time for the activity having its surface dry, is known as
A. Moist aggregate
B. Very dry aggregate
C. Dry aggregate
A. 1-2 is 4 D. Saturated surface dry aggregate
B. 2-3 is 7
C. 3-4 is 8
166. Extenders are added to the paint body to
D. all the above.
A. Give colour
B. Accelerate the process of drying
160. The three time estimates for the activities of the C. Reduce the viscosity
network shown in the given figure are shown above their D. Increase the volume
arrows. The earliest expected time for the event 4, is

167. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least

dimensions is less than
A. 2/5th of mean dimension
A. 19
B. 1/5th of mean dimension
B. 14
C. 24 C. 4/5th of mean dimension
D. None of these. D. 3/5th of mean dimension

161. The temperature at which bricks are burnt ranges 168. Excess of alumina in the clay
from A. Makes the brick brittle and weak
A. 700-1000°C B. Makes the brick crack and wrap on drying
B. 400-700°C C. Changes the colour of the brick from red to
C. 1000-1200°C yellow
D. 1200-1500°C D. Improves impermeability and durability of the
brick

162. Resin and solvent are essential ingredients of

A. Snowcem 169. Which of the following is used as a chemical
B. Plaster of Paris accelerator in manufacturing of bricks using fly ash
C. Varnish A. Calcium chloride
D. Thinner B. Magnesium chloride
C. Calcium nitrate
D. Magnesium nitrate
163. Timber can be made fire resistant by
A. Dipping and steeping process
B. Sir Abel's process 170. A high content of ________ makes the cement
C. Hot and cold open tank treatment unsound
D. Charring A. Calcium sulphate
B. Magnesia
C. Iron oxide
164. Seasoning of a timber is required to D. Alumina
A. Soften the timber
B. Harden the timber
C. Straighten the timber 171. The __________ is a mixture of cement, sand,
D. Remove sap from the timber pebbles or crushed rock and water, which, when placed
in the skeleton of forms and are allowed to cure,
becomes hard like a stone.
15
 A. Cement concrete D. Hydraulic Mortar
B. Cement slurry
178. The development of fine hair cracks is known as
C. Cement grouting
____________
D. Cement mortar
A. Popping
172. The term ________ of concrete is used to mean the
B. Crazing
compaction between aggregate and aggregate; between
C. Flaking
aggregate and reinforcement and between aggregate and
D. Efflorescence
forms.
179. The function of _______________ is to make the
A. Consolidation
paint thin so that it can be easily applied on the surface.
B. Hardening
C. Compaction A. Pigment
D. Curing B. Solvent
C. Carrier
173. __________ method is not in common use in case
D. Base
of placing concrete underwater.
180. A small portion of the painted surface is sometimes
A. Tremie
seen lose, it is known as the ___________
B. Grouting
C. Guniting A. Flashing
D. Spreading B. Flaking
C. Grinning
174. The only drawback of lightweight concrete is that
D. Running
the ___________
181. The Function of a __________ in varnish is to
A. Depth of carbonation
accelerate the process of drying.
B. Heavy absorption
C. Desalination A. Solven
D. Oxidation B. Resin
C. Coolant
175. The ratio of the amount of water to the amount of
D. Drier
cement by weight is termed as the _______
182. _____________ is used to apply whitewash.
A. Aggregate-sand ratio
B. Water-cement ratio A. Bevel
C. Cement-water ratio B. Chisel
D. Sand-aggregate ratio C. Trowel
D. Moonj
176. 1:2:4, 1:3:6, etc. Are used in which method of
volumetric proposition. 183. When a part of the timber is affected by dry rot, the
unaffected portion of the timber should be painted with a
A. Minimum void method
solution of _________
B. Water-cement ratio method
C. Arbitrary method A. Aluminium nitrate
D. Finesse modulus method B. Silver chloride
C. Copper sulphate
177. The ________________ consists of one part of
D. Lead acetate
cement to four parts of clean, coarse and angular river
sand by volume. 184. Percentage of alumina in good brick earth should be
about ________
A. Lime Mortar
B. Water proof mortar A. 5-10%
C. Cement mortar B. 20-30%

16
 C. 35-40% 192. Initial setting of cement is caused due to
D. 45-60% A. Tri-calcium silicate
B. Di-calcium silicate
185. Which of the following is not a variety of C. Tri-calcium aluminate
continuous kilns? D. Tetra calcium alumino ferrite.
A. Bull’s trench kil
B. Hoffman’s kiln 193. The silica is used for preparing
C. Down-draught kiln A. silica bricks
D. Tunnel kiln B. coke oven
C. lining for glass furnaces
186. Calcium sulphate is present in ordinary cement in D. all of these.
the form of __________
a) Lime
b) Alumina 194. Lime stone is not a
c) Gypsum A. sedimentary rock
B. stratified rock
d) Magnesia
C. aqueous rock
187. The specific surface of cement should not be lesser D. metamorphic rock.
than __________
A. 550 cm2/gm 195.Quick lime
B. 1250 cm2/gm A. generates heat when added to water
B. reacts with carbon dioxide
C. 2250 cm2/gm
C. when mixed with water forms slaked lime
D. 5250 cm2/gm
D. all the above.
188. Wrought iron contains carbon upto
A. 0.25%
196. A well seasoned timber may contain moisture up to
B. 1.0%
A. 4 to 6%
C. 1.5%
B. 6 to 8%
D. 2%.
C. 8 to 10%
D. 10 to 12%.
189. Ultimate strength to cement is provided by
A. Tricalcium silicate
197. The cracks which extend from bark towards the sap
B. Di-calcium silicate
wood in the cross section of a tree, are called
C. Tri-calcium aluminate
A. radial shakes
D. Tetra calcium alumino ferrite.
B. star shakes
C. heart shakes
190. The rocks in which argil (or clay) predominates, are D. cup shakes.
called
A. sillicious rocks
198.Glazing of clay products, is done
B. argillaceous rocks
A. to improve their appearance
C. calcareous rocks
B. to protect them from atmospheric effect
D. igneous rocks.
C. to protect them from corrosive action
D. all the above.
191. Refractory bricks are used for
A. retaining walls
199.Steel contains carbon approximately
B. columns
A. 1.50% to 5.6%
C. piers
B. 0.05% to 1.75%
D. combustion chambers.
C. 0.25%
D. none to these.

17
200. The yield strength and tensile strength of low
carbon steel may be improved by the addition of
A. manganese
B. chromium
C. nickel
D. venadium
----X-----------X---------X---------------

18