Resumo AZL
Resumo AZL
PERFORMANCE
Basic Weight: Empty acft with all its basic Equipment plus declared quantity of unusable fuel/oil.
Variable Load: weight of crew / crew baggage / removable units (catering loads)
The Zero Fuel Mass (ZFW) and the Dry Operating Mass (DOW):
a) differ by the mass of usable fuel.
b) differ by the value of the traffic load mass.
c) are the same value.
d) differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass.
BLOCK FUEL is the TOTAL FUEL required for the flight (Taxi + Trip + Contingency + Alternate + Reserve).
MZFM: 86.300 +
Trip: 27.000 +
Contingency: 1.350 +
Alternate: 2.650 +
Reserve: 3.000 +
Actual take-off mass: 120.300kg
We cannot exceed any of these limits so the maximum possible take-off mass for this flight is the lowest of
the three, which is 120.300kg.
Prior to departure the medium range twin jet acft is loaded with maximum fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density
(specific gravity) of 0.78. Using the following data:
- Performance Limited Takeoff Mass: 67200 kg
- Performance Limited Landing Mass: 54200 kg
- Dry Operating Mass: 34930
- Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
- Trip Fuel: 9250 kg
- Contingency and holding Fuel: 850 kg
- Alternate Fuel: 700 kg
An acft is to depart an airfield where the performance limited takeoff mass is 89200 kg. Certified maximum
masses are as follows:
- Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg
- Maximum Takeoff Mass: 89430 kg
- Maximum Landing Mass: 71520 kg
- Actual Zero Fuel Mass: 62050 kg
Fuel on board at ramp:
- Taxi Fuel: 600 kg
- Trip Fuel: 17830 kg
- Contingency, final reserve and alternate: 9030 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg, the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is:
a) 21080 kg
b) 21500 kg
c) 21220 kg
d) 20870 kg
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AIRPLANE DATUM
Airplane Datum is a plane perpendicular to the fuselage centerline from where all arm measurements are
taken.
A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is known as:
a) Station.
b) Moment.
c) MAC.
d) Index.
Usually, the CG position is referred to in terms of %MAC, as it is represented in the figure bellow:
The CG position, referred in terms of %MAC, can be obtained, according to the formula:
Screen Height: minimum height achieved over the RWY before the end of the Clearway should an engine
failure occurs on takeoff (End of Takeoff Distance).
• Distance required to accelerate the airplane to V1, maintain this speed for a period of 2 seconds, and then
decelerate to a complete stop with All Engines Operating (AEO).
• Distance required to accelerate the airplane to VEF with AEO, then accelerate to V1 with One Engine
Inoperative (OEI), maintain this speed for a period of 2 seconds, and then decelerate to a complete stop
(OEI).
Note: Modern certification rules require that aircraft acceleration should be considered during the 2 seconds
period mentioned above, instead of constant speed. EMB-135/140/145 certification uses the old rules, i.e., 2
seconds of constant speed at V1. The aircraft deceleration considers the use of Maximum Manual Braking
and Speedbrakes extended. Reverse thrust is not considered for dry runway accelerate-stop distance, but
may be used for wet or contaminated runways.
The calculated accelerate-stop distances in the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) account for demonstration
times for transitioning the aircraft to the rejected takeoff configuration (idle thrust, full brakes and full
spoilers). The following time intervals are considered:
• Time to recognize the critical engine failure that occurred at VEF and take the first action to bring the
aircraft to a stop (throttles to idle). Demonstrated in flight tests, but may not be less than 1 second.
• 2 seconds interval at V1.
• Time interval between throttles to idle and full brakes application, demonstrated in flight tests.
• Time interval between full brakes application and spoilers extension, also demonstrated in flight tests.
Note: Calculated ASD considers that the engine thrust is kept constant during the engine spool
down time (time interval between throttles to idle and actual idle thrust).
but should not be such as to hinder the movement of rescue and fire fighting vehicles or any other aspect of
emergency response activity.
Minor aircraft runway overruns and undershoots are a relatively frequent occurrence. Most data sources
point to significant occurrences on average once a week worldwide and suggest that runway excursions
overall are the fourth largest cause of airline fatalities. It has been stated by the FAA Airport Design Division
that approximately 90% of runway undershoot or overruns are contained within 300 metres of the runway
end. The contribution which RESAs can make to a reduction in the consequences of such over-runs has
frequently been demonstrated as has the avoidable hazardous outcomes where they have not been present.
RWY STOPWAY: length of an unprepared surface at the end of the runway in the direction of the takeoff
that is capable of supporting an acft if the acft has to be stopped during a takeoff run.
The Stopway is an area beyond the runway end with the following characteristics:
• must be as wide as the runway;
• centered around the extended centerline of the runway;
• must be able to support the airplane weight, without causing structural damage to the airplane;
• designated by the airport authorities for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff.
RWY CLEARWAY: Length of an obstacle-free area at the end of the RWY in the direction of the takeoff.
Minimum dimension: 75% either side of the extended RWY centerline.
Can be water / area which acft make a portion of its initial climb to screen height (35ft).
The clearway is an area beyond the runway end with the following characteristics:
• minimum 500 feet wide;
• centrally located around the extended centerline of the runway;
• must be under control of airport authorities;
• no obstacle protruding above 1.25% slope plane, except threshold lights located at the sides of
runway with a height lower than 26 feet.
Takeoff field length calculation allow the aircraft to reach the 35 ft screen height position above the
clearway area, provided at least one half of the flare distance between VLOF and V2 is made above the
runway.
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as
a suitable area where:
a) A landing acft can be stopped only in emergency;
b) A landing acft can be stopped if overcoming the end of the runway;
c) An acft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off;
d) An acft taking-off or landing can be stopped;
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CLEARWAY: a defined rectangular area on the ground or water at the end of a runway in the direction of
takeoff and under control of the competent authority selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an
aircraft may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.
Purpose of using a BALANCED FIELD calculation is to optimize V2 climb performance (2nd segment) with a
corrected V2/Vr speed from a single performance calculation/chart.
Stopway may extend beyond the Clearway if length of the Clearway is limited because of an obstruction
(does not limit the STOPWAY, only need to be as wide as the RWY) within 75m of the RWY/Stopway
centerline.
V1, VR and V2 are indicated airspeeds (IAS) and does the pilot use the speeds during takeoff. The
other speeds are certification speeds used for takeoff performance calculations.
These certification speeds are necessary to make sure that the operational speeds are safe from
the standpoint of controllability, braking and tire speed. These constraints are all common sense.
Take VLOF £ VMAX TIRE, for example. This is to ensure that ground roll does not exceed the tire limit;
or V1min £ V1: this grants that, should an engine fail close to V1, directional control can be
maintained if the pilot elects to continue the take off; or 1.1VMCA V2: this grants that adequate
engine-out directional control exists in the airborne part of the take off. And so on.
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CRITICAL SPEED: lowest possible speed on a MLTE ACFT at a constant power setting and configuration at
which the pilot is able to maintain a constant heading after failure of an OFF-CENTER engine
Vef: Engine Failure Speed – The speed at which the critical engine is assumed to become inoperative. May
not be less than Vmcg.
The speed during the takeoff ground run at which, when the critical engine is made suddenly inoperative
and if the takeoff is continued, it is possible to maintain directional control of the airplane using primary
aerodynamic controls only (nose wheel steering not allowed), without deviating from the runway
centerline by more than 30 ft.
V1min – Minimum V1 – The speed at which the aircraft will be after the pilot recognizes the critical engine
failure that occurred at Vef and takes the first action to bring the aircraft to a stop.
V1 is the speed by which the decision to reject a takeoff must have been made.
Below V1: abort T/O if engine failure
Above V1: continue T/O if engine failure
VMCG ≤ V1 ≤ Vr/Vmbe
V1 cannot be less than Vmcg / cannot be greater than Vr or Vmbe
Weight Affect V1
Field length is limiting: the greater the acft weight, the lower is the V1 speed.
Lower V1 speed provides a greater stopping distance while ensuring that V1 remains greater than Vmcg
and Vmu.
Field length is not limiting: the greater the acft weight, the higher is the V1 speed, providing V1
remains less than Vmbe speed and the field length emergency stopping distance is not
compromised
WET V1: max speed for abandoning a T/O on contaminated RWY. Improves stopping capabilities (Final Stop
Point) back to the dry conditions level but DEGRADES the T/O chances with a reduced screen height in the
event of a T/O being continued.
DRY: MAX V1
WET: MIN V1
WET V1 = DRYV1 – 10kts / WET V1 < V1
Wet RWY: stop distance increases due to ability to break.
The takeoff run on a wet runway is the greater of—(i) The horizontal distance along the takeoff path
from the start of the takeoff to the point at which the airplane is 15 feet above the takeoff surface,
achieved in a manner consistent with the achievement of V2 before reaching 35 feet above the
takeoff surface, as determined under §25.111 for a wet runway
The takeoff run on a dry runway is the greater of—*(i) The horizontal distance along the takeoff path
from the start of the takeoff to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached
and the point at which the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff surface, as determined under §
25.111 for a dry runway;
Contaminated Runway: a runway is considered as contaminated when more than 25% of the surface to be
used is covered by standing water more than 1/8 inch (3 mm) deep. Runways covered by snow and slush are
also considered contaminated, depending on the snow/slush depth, as it will be seen later.
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Slippery Runway: a runway is considered slippery if it has an accumulation of compacted snow or ice, with
decreased braking efficiency during aircraft deceleration. Retarding forces during aircraft acceleration
(caused by precipitation drag) are negligible on slippery runways. Slippery and contaminated performance
accountability are required by JAR, but not by FAR. FAA allows the operators to use it at their discretion (see
FAA AC 91-6A and Draft AC 91-6B).
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
a) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
b) lower.
c) higher.
d) unaffected.
If the runway coverage requirements above are not met, but if contaminants are lying on that portion of the
runway where the high speed part of the takeoff roll will occur, it may be appropriate to consider the runway
contaminated (or slippery/wet).
For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?
a) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
b) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated
runway is available.
c) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few
values are verified by flight tests.
d) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to
compensate for decreasing friction.
With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?
a) Screen height cannot be reduced.
b) The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.
c) When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway
length.
d) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.
Screen Height is reduced for a WET V1 due to a portion of the airborne distance being added to the ground
run as a result of increased ground run.
During brakes application, kinetic energy is transformed into heat energy. The brakes must be able to
absorb this heat energy. If more heat energy is generated than the brakes are able to absorb, they will
overheat and can be destroyed. Therefore, there is a maximum speed for full braking to a complete stop.
This speed is the maximum brake energy speed (VMBE). VMBE depends on the takeoff weight, ambient
temperature, ambient pressure, runway slope and wind component along the runway. When the optimum
V1 has to be reduced in order not to exceed VMBE, there is degradation on the takeoff limited weight.
Brake energy capacity limits the acft MTOW given the ambient aerodrome Pressure Altitude, Temperature,
Wind, RWY Slope conditions so that V1 does not exceed Vmbe, to ensure that the acft brake system has
sufficient energy to dissipate and stop the acft inertia from V1.
If V1 speed exceeds max. brake energy (Vmbe) then the acft TOW has to be reduced until V1 ≤ Vmbe.
Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the :
a) temperature of the hydraulic fluid.
b) pressure of the hydraulic fluid.
c) pressure of the pneumatic tires.
d) temperature of the brakes.
If pilots underestimate their weight, they will calculate a lower speed than is necessary to provide the lift
for takeoff. This means that when they rotate, the plane doesn't have enough airspeed yet to create
enough lift to take off. So instead of leaving the ground before fully pitching up, the tail strikes the runway.
If a pilot inserts 14.500kg on FMC instead of 15.500kg, the acft will achieve the “wrong V1/Vr” and will not
lift-off, causing a possible tail-strike.
Vmax tire: Maximum Tire Speed – The maximum ground speed for which the tires were structurally
certified. Above VMAX TIRE the strength limits of the tires are exceeded and they may not resist to the
centrifugal forces (caused by high wheel spinning) they are subject to.
Vlof: Lift-off Speed - The speed at which the airplane becomes airborne (i.e., no contact with the runway).
VLOF cannot be less than 1.10 VMU (All Engines Operating, AEO) or 1.05 VMU (One Engine Inoperative,
OEI), except for geometry limited aircraft where VLOF cannot be less than 1.08 VMU (AEO) or 1.04 VMU
(OEI). In addition, VLOF cannot be greater than VMAX TIRE.
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Vmcg/a: relates to the minimal directional (heading) control speed on the ground or in the air, at which the
turning moment produced by the vertical tailplane with max. rudder deflection is sufficient to balance the
yawing moment of the acft nose when the acft loses an off-center engine (asymmetrical power).
MOMENT is the turning effect/force of a weight around the Datum. Product of the Weight x Arm.
Speed determines the aerodynamic force/weight over the vertical tailplane. The greater the speed, the
greater is the rudder turning moment and the greater is the directional control for a given atmospheric
condition (density) weight is a product of airspeed.
Vmcg ≤ V1
Vmca ≤ V2
The mass of an item multiplied by its distance from the datum is it´s MOMENT.
Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is
located. That point is known as
a) the datum.
b) the focal point.
c) the axis.
d) the centre of gravity of the aeroplane.
Similarly to this fuel consumption analysis, an aft CG is also beneficial to takeoff performance. For this
reason the certification flight tests must be performed in the most forward CG position, so that the AFM
takeoff performance is conservative for any CG position located aft of the forward limit of the CG envelope.
Some airplanes have a special AFM supplement with a restricted CG envelope, in order to improve the
takeoff performance.
Case 1: A forward CG position requires higher lift forces and moments for the same aircraft weight.
Case 2: An aft CG position reduces lift required, drag and fuel consumption.
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of the aeroplane is said to
act. The weight acts in a direction:
a) at right angles to the flight path.
b) governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane.
c) parallel to the gravity vector.
d) always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis.
CG outside limits:
Outside forward:
- Nose heavy
- Increase in longitudinal stability
- Increased angle of attack (higher induced drag reducing acft performance and range)
- Increased stalling speed
- Reduced maneuverability of acft to rotate/flare
FORWARD CG:
- Higher stall speed: stalling angle of attack reached at a higher speed due to increased wing loading;
- Slower cruise speed: increased drag, greater angle of attack required to maintain altitude;
- More stable: when angle of attack increased, the airplane tends to reduce angle of attack; longitudinal
stability;
- Greater back elevator pressure required: longer takeoff roll, higher approach speeds and problems with
the landing flare;
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The aft CG limit is the most critical during flight maneuvers or operation of the acft. Acft stability
decreases as the CG moves AFT, and the ability of the acft to right itself after maneuvering will be
correspondingly decreased.
Outside aft:
- Tail heavy
- Longitudinally unstable (because is too tail heavy)
- Horizontal tailplane will have a Short Moment Arm
- Pitch control increases (light stick forces)
- Decrease in angle of attack
- Lower stall speed
During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly
than expected. This is an indication that:
a) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
b) the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
c) the aeroplane is overloaded.
d) the centre of gravity is too far forward.
AFT CG:
- Lower stall speed: less wing loading;
- Higher cruise speed: reduced drag, smaller angle of attack required to maintain altitude;
- Less stable: stall and spin recovery more difficult when angle of attack is increased it tends to result in
even more increased angle of attack;
An additional baggage container is loaded into the acft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load
and trim sheet. The airplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds:
a) Will not be achieved;
b) Will be greater than required;
c) Will give reduced safety margins;
d) Are unaffected but V1 will be increased;
Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an airplane
in flight?
a) Lowering the landing gear;
b) Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabilizer) incidence angle;
c) Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties;
d) Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing acft;
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FORWARD CG will have a LONGER ARM, therefore the vertical tailplane turning moment is greater for a
given speed. Acft have a LOWER VMCG/A.
When loading an acft the position of CG is determined and the CG position affects the size of both the
yawing and turning moments. Therefore Vmcg/a speeds vary with CG position.
Vmcg/a relates to asymmetrical power configuration and guarantees directional control of the acft
whenever the acft airspeed is equal to or greater than Vmcg/a.
Vmcg/a relates to the mininum control speed on the ground or in the air. At and above which the vertical
tailplane turning moment is dominant over the yawing moment.
Directional control of the acft is guaranteed.
If Vmcg is limiting for the weight of the acft, REDUCE TAKEOFF THRUST.
Reduced T/O thrust gives rise to a lower Vmcg.
Vmcg has to be equal to or less than V2
Directional control of the acft is essential for safe operation.
With an engine failure between V1 and Vr and a Max. Crosswind is best to lose UPWIND ENGINE, because
the Crosswind would oppose the yawing moment of the downwind engine.
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The term Drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:
a) the vertical and horizontal plane;
b) the vertical plane;
c) the horizontal plane;
d) any plane;
Lateral component of vehicle motion due to crosswind or to gyroscopic action of spinning projectile.
The Gyro is DRIFTING when the axis wanders horizontally and TOPPLING when it wanders vertically.
V2: Takeoff Safety Speed: achieved by the screen height in the event of an engine failure that maintains
adequate directional control and climb performance properties of the acft.
V3: all engine operating takeoff climb speed the acft will achieve at screen height.
V4: all engine operating takeoff climb speed the acft will achieve by 400ft. used the lowest height where
acceleration flap retraction speed is initiated.
Max. T/O flaps may be used to reduce ground run. When field length is limiting. However CLIMB
PERFORMANCE may be compromised due to an increase in drag (reduced rate of climb).
Use of flap settings outside T/O range increase aerodynamic drag during ground run, causing a slower
acceleration that results in increased TORR and when airborne would degrade the climb gradient
performance because of poor LIFT-DRAG RATIO that results in UNACCEPTABLE increase in TODR.
Large flap setting (>20°) increases aerodynamic drag during T/O ground run, causing slower acceleration.
Resulting in UNACCEPTABLE INCREASE in T/O run required (TORR). Once airborne reduces Lift-Drag Ratio
degrading the climb gradient performance to Unacceptable level.
Principles of flap deployment on T/O performance for swept/straight wing acft is similar but the effects are
much more acute for swept-wing.
Use of flap deployment is more rigid on swept-wing, straight-wing acft have more flexibility and variation
among different types of acft.
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
a) 100%
b) normal.
c) emergency.
d) on demand.
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The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurized aeroplanes during and
following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the
cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:
a) 15000 ft
b) 25000 ft
c) 13000 ft
d) 14000 ft
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the
period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between:
a) 10000 ft and 13000 ft
b) 10000 ft and 12000 ft
c) 11000 ft and 13000 ft
d) 11000 ft and 12000 ft
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On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout
the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
a) 13000 ft
b) 12000 ft
c) 11000 ft
d) 10000 ft
In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is:
a) done oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow
b) descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA
c) transmit mayday call
d) carry out check for structural damage
Types of altitude:
High density altitude corresponds to reduced air density, and thus to reduced acft performance.
Altitude: the higher the altitude, the less dense the air.
Temperature: the warmer the air, the less dense it is. When temperature rises above the standard
temperature for a given place, the density of the air is reduced (density altitude increases).
Humidity: at high ambient temperatures, the atmosphere can retain high water vapor content. High density
altitude and high humidity do not always go hand in hand. If high humidity does exist, however, it is wise to
add 10% to your computed takeoff distance and anticipate a reduced rate of climb.
Increase in DENSITY ALTITUDE results in:
Density (rho – ρ)
Increase in density altitude (decrease in air density) increases the T/O distance Required (TODR).
HOT & HIGH mean a decrease in performance that results in a greater (TODR) or lower (TOW).
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off
performance:
a) A reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance;
b) A reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance;
c) An increased take-off distance and degrader initial climb performance;
d) An increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance;
A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off
performance:
a) A reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance;
b) An increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance;
c) A reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance;
d) An increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance;
HEADWIND: reduces T/O distance required. Permits a higher TOW for the TOR/D available.
the greater the headwind, the better is the acft performance.
TAILWIND: increases T/O distance required. Requires a lower TOW for the TOR/D available.
The greater the tailwind, the worse is the acft performance.
RWY LENGTH:
Length of the available RWY is one of the performance limitations that restricts the max weight of the acft.
The greater the RWY length, the greater is the acceleration the acft can gain. And higher is the lift-off speed
(Vr) the acft can obtain. Vr is related to acft weight, it can be seen that the longer the RWY available, the
greater is the possible acft T/O weight.
RWY SURFACE:
Hard & Dry RWY surface allows good acceleration on the ground run and therefore reduces the T/O Run
Required. For a given weight or allows a higher acft weight for a given RWY length.
Grass & Wet Contaminated surfaces, acceleration is retarded on the ground, TORR is increased.
RWY SLOPE:
downward slope allows the acft to accelerate faster, TOR & Distance Required for a given weight are
reduced or a higher max. TOW is possible for a given RWY length compared with a level RWY.
Upward slope HINDERS (IMPEDE/IMPEDIR) the acft acceleration, TOR & Distance Required are
increased acft Max. TOW is reduced compared with level RWY.
NOT PERMITTED T/O FROM WET (CONTAMINATED) RWY:
- When acft anti-skid system is inoperative
- When the standing water level is above a specified limit
- Any other type-specific restrictions
FIELD LIMITS:
Most restrictive field length available from either
1) All-engine operating RWY length
2) RWY emergency distance length available
3) One-engine inoperative RWY length
Limits the acft MTOW (or MLW) so that it meets the required TOR/D performance given the ambient
aerodrome conditions of pressure altitude and temperature (density)
DOWNWARD SLOPE:
RWY SLOPE
UPWARD SLOPE:
The minimum height an acft would be able to achieve at MTOW, WAT-Limited conditions with one-engine
inoperative would be the circuit height (1500ft.).
ASSUMED/FLEX TEMPERATURE is a performance calculation technique used to find the T/O EPR (Engine
Pressure Ratio) setting for an acft actual TOW. (DERATED/REDUCED THRUST VALUE).
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Full takeoff thrust is calculated against an acft performance limited (field length / WAT / tire / net flight
path / obstacle clearance climb profile) MTOW, which is calculated from the ambient conditions of
aerodrome pressure altitude and temperature.
When the acft takeoff with a weight lower than the max permissible T/O weight. When this happens an
ASSUMED TEMPERATURE PERFORMANCE TECHNIQUE presents a method of calculating a decreased T/O
thrust that is adapted for the acft actual TOW.
It is done by calculating the corresponding assumed/flexible temperature (HIGHER THAN THE ACTUAL AIR
TEMP.) from the WAT performance graph by using the acft actual TOW as if it were the performance
limiting MTOW against the actual aerodrome altitude to find the limiting temperature.
Temperature increases as max permissible weight decreases, so you can assume a temperature at which
the actual TOW would be the limiting. Then by using this calculated assumed/flexible temperature, you can
calculate the acft correct T/O EPR thrust.
The maximum thrust reduction permitted is 25% from the thrust rating, as per FAA AC 25-13 and JAA AMJ
25-13. In addition, this method may not be used if the runway is contaminated. For wet runways it is
permitted provided wet runway performance is used.
Assumed Temperature (actual acft weight) EPR is a reduced/derated thrust value from the MTOW full-
thrust setting.
Assumed/flex temperature setting for lower-weight acft meet the same TOR performance (same rotation
point) as max thrust setting for MTOW acft.
Assumed temperature can be used:
- Calculate on paper the required T/O EPR;
- Enter into the acft engine computer to calculate required T/O EPR;
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Performance condition that was limiting at full thrust (field length / WAT curve / net flight path) is not
necessarily the limiting condition at a reduced thrust.
GROSS PERFORMANCE: average performance that a fleet of acft should achieve if maintained satisfactorily
and flown in accordance with the techniques established during flight certification and described in the acft
performance manual. Defines a level of performance that any acft of the same type has a 50% chance of
exceeding at any time.
NET PERFORMANCE: gross performance diminished to allow for various contingencies that cannot be
accounted for operationally (variations in piloting technique / temporary below-average performance). It is
improbable that the Net Performance/Flight Path will not be achieved in operation, provided the acft is
flown in accordance with the recommended techniques (power / attitude / speed).
REFERENCE ZERO: ground point at the end of the T/O distance (below Net T/O Flight Path screen height);
FIRST SEGMENT: reference point (35”) to where the landing gear is retracted at constant V2 speed;
SECOND SEGMENET: end of 1st segment to a gross height of at least 400” (max 1000ft AGL) at contstant V2
speed;
THIRD SEGMENT: assume a level flight acceleration during which flaps are retracted in accordance with
speed schedule;
FOURTH/FINAL SEGMENT: from 3rd segment level-off height to a Net Height of 1500ft or more with flaps up
and Max Continuous Thrust (MCT);
CLIMB GRADIENT:
The ratio in the same units, expressed as a percentage (%) of change in height divided by horizontal
distance traveled.
Climb Gradients on performance charts are true gradients for the ALL-UP WEIGHT (AUW) of the acft which
allows for temperature/aerodrome pressure altitude and acft configuration
- They are achieved from True Rates of Climb, not Pressure.
-
CLIMB GRADIENT = ((THRUST-DRAG)/WEIGHT) x100
The table below summarizes the climb gradient requirements in each takeoff segment:
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NET T/O FLIGHT PATH: is the true height versus horizontal distance traveled from reference zero assuming
failure of the critical engine at V1 and it is used to determine the obstacle clearance by a specific minimal
amount (35”).
Flight Path begins at REFERENCE ZERO, where the jet acft has attained a height of 35ft (dry conditions) and
V2 after failure of its critical engine at V1, landing gear retraction is completed at the end of the first
segment, and the climb is continued at V2 with T/O flaps and T/O thrust on the operating engine until the
second to third segment level-off transition takes place at:
- A minimum gross height of 400ft;
- Maximum standard gross height, usually 1000ft (AGL);
Then the acft is accelerated in level flight, flaps are retracted (according to speed schedule) and
acceleration is continues to the final segment, where climb is reassumed on Max Continuous Thrust (MCT)
or the max height which can be reached using:
- T/O thrust for its max period after brakes are released (usually 5minutes);
- Max Continuous Thrust (MCT) to an unrestricted height;
If an acft is said to be TAKEOFF WEIGHT LIMITED by an obstacle in the 2nd segment. This means that the acft
TOW has to be reduced to ensure adequate climb performance at a normal V2 speed to clear any obstacles
below the 2nd and 3rd segment level-off height.
If an acft is limited by an obstacle in the 2nd segment because it´s climb performance is insufficient to clear
obstacles, it can use the following procedures:
- Increase T/O flaps (within T/O flap range);
- Reduce TOW to achieve required climb gradient that clear obstacles;
- Increased V2 climb, maintain TOW;
- Max angle climb profile;
INCREASED V2:
Techniques for improving an acft climb gradient performance in the 2nd segment by increasing the V2 climb
speed. Increasing the V2 base speed, increases lift, because lift is a function of speed, and for a given
weight, an increased V2 speed will provide an increase in lift, thus producing a greater Net Climb Gradient.
Thus an increased V2 climb allows higher obstacles to be cleared in the 2nd segment climb-out profile.
INCREASED V2 SPEED REQUIRES A GREATER THAN NORMAL TOD OR REDUCED ACFT WEIGHT
Increased V2 climb technique can only be used if TOW is not restricted by field length limits, so that some
or all of excess field length can be used to increase T/O speed Vr and V2.
Benefits:
- To achieve a greater obstacle clearance performance with an improved T/O climb gradient without
reducing TOW;
- To allow a higher acft TOW that achieves the standard (minimum) T/O climb gradient corresponding to
the required obstacle clearance gradient;
If an obstacle in the 3rd segment limits and acft because the obstacle in question is higher than the 2nd to 3rd
segment level-off height:
- Extended V2 climb profile technique;
- Reduce TOW to a level that achieves the required climb profile and clears the obstacle;
- Flight path climbing turns to avoid the obstacles;
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EXTENDED V2 CLIMB:
Acft 2nd segment climb at V2 / T/O flaps is:
- Continued to the highest possible level-off height allowing for acceleration and flap retraction if
applicable which can be reached with max T/O thrust on all operating engines for its max time limit
(5minutes);
- Continued to an unlimited height with max continuous thrust (MCT), instead of T/O thrust, that meets
the acft minimum acceleration and climb gradient requirements in the T/O flight path above 400ft.
Extended V2 climb is used to clear distant 3rd segment obstacles that are higher than the normal 2nd to 3rd
segment level-off height (between 400 – 1000ft). Extended V2 may only be used to clear the last obstacle in
the flight path so that normal 3rd segment acceleration and final segment can be achieved.
CRUISE CLIMB: compromise between the best enroute speed profile and the best climb profile (used by
commercial airlines)
Best Rate of Climb (Vy): departure uses the least trip fuel because it ensures that the acft reaches its
optimal cruise altitude as quickly as possible. Acft spends a greater part of its flight time at its optimal
altitude than with any other climb profile.
Optimal Enroute Altitude has the best aerodynamic and engine performance qualities.
Being at the optimal cruise altitude for as long as possible the Best Fuel Economy and Specific Fuel
Consumption (SFC) are obtained for the largest percentage of the flight (trip) therefore least trip fuel is
used.
Reduced Power Climb: (Derated T/O) uses more trip fuel. Using a reduced power climb means that the acft
has a slower rate of ascent and therefore takes longer to reach its cruise altitude. It spends less time at its
optimal cruise altitude and thus uses more trip fuel.
AT OPTIMAL CRUISE ALTITUDE AN ACFT EXPERIENCES THE BEST AERODYNAMIC AND ENGINE
PERFORMANCE WHICH RESULTS IN THE BEST FUEL ECONOMY (SFC-SPECIFIC FUEL CONSUMPTION).
Flap Extension: Vx ↓ / Vy ↓
PAVEMENT STRENGTH LIMITATIONS
There are a huge variety of runway pavement types available, the most common ones being asphalt,
concrete, gravel and grass. Jet aircraft operations usually are restricted to asphalt and concrete runways,
due to its higher strength and cleanness. Not all concrete and asphalt runways have the same
characteristics, including variations in the capacity of the pavement supporting the aircraft weight
(pavement strength). As a consequence, each airport authority reports the maximum weight an aircraft
may operate on the particular runway without damaging it.
There are various methods for reporting the pavement strength, the most common one being the PCN
(Pavement Classification Number). In order to use it, the aircraft manufacturer must also publish the ACN
(Aircraft Classification Number).
34
The Pavement Classification Number (PCN) reported shall indicate that an airplane with CAN equal to or
less than the reported PCN can operate on that pavement.
Example: PCN 50 / F / A / X / T
/1/2/3/4
1 - Type of pavement:
R = Rigid (concrete) F = Flexible (asphalt)
2 - Pavement sub-grade strength category:
A = High, B = Medium, C = Low, D = Ultra-low.
3 - Maximum tire pressure authorized for the pavement:
W = High, no limit; X = Medium (up to 217 psi)
Y = Low (up to 145 psi); Z = Very low (up to 73 psi)
4 - Pavement evaluation method:
T = Technical evaluation;
U = By experience of airplane actually using the pavement.
OVERLOAD OPERATIONS
Individual airport authorities are free to decide on their own criteria for permitting overload operations as
long as pavements remain safe for use by airplane. However, the following guidance is provided:
A 10% difference in ACN over PCN for flexible pavement and 5% for rigid pavements is generally accepted,
provided that overload operations do not exceed 5% of the annual departures and are spread throughout
the year.
ENROUTE PERFORMANCE
Absolute Ceiling: acft max attainable altitude/flight level at which the MACH NUMBER BUFFET & PRESTALL
BUFFET occur coincidentally COFFIN CORNER.
Acft is unable to climb above its absolute ceiling
Max Service Ceiling: acft imposed enroute max operating altitude/flight level, which provides a safety
margin below absolute ceiling.
Total drag generated by an acft is high at both high and low airspeeds. At HIGH Airspeeds the total drag is
high because the acft experiences a lot of PROFILE DRAG, and at LOW Airspeeds the total drag is high
because the acft experiences a lot of INDUCED DRAG.
Minimum drag occurs at an intermediate speed (Vimd) .
Max Endurance: achieved by flying at the max endurance airspeed, indicated airspeed (IAS) that relates to
the thrust required to balance the minimum drag (Vimd) experienced by the acft.
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Max Range: achieved by flying at the max range airspeed, indicated airspeed (IAS) that balances a value of
drag slightly higher than the minimum drag point. (Best Endurance Speed) that achieves a greater range for
a given quantity of fuel because the benefits of the increased airspeed outweights the associated increase
in drag and fuel consumption.
Max Range Airspeed is where the ratio of power required (to produce thrust to balance drag) to airspeed is
least.
Airspeed is the rate of covering distance, and power required is the rate of burning fuel to produce thrust
to balance drag.
MAX RANGE SPEED = ENROUTE
Max Range Cruise: speed at which, for a given weight and altitude, the max fuel mileage is obtained. It is
difficult to establish and maintain stable cruise conditions at Max Range Speeds.
Long Range Cruise: speed significantly higher than the Max Range Speed (10kts/M0.01) which results in a
1% mileage loss at a constant altitude. The Long Range Cruise schedule requires a gradual reduction in
cruise speed as gross weight decreases with fuel burn off.
With one or two engines inoperative the Best Specific Range at high altitudes is:
a) improved;
b) reduced;
c) not affected;
d) first improved and later reduced;
COST INDEX:
Performance management function that optimizes the acft speed for the minimum cost.
- Company stored route and are inserted into the FMC. It is taken into account specific routes factors
such as the price of fuel at the departure and destination airports so that the acft is flown at the correct
speed to balance the fuel costs against the dry operating costs. An incorrect CI will always cost more $$.
Range is increased when flying into a HEADWIND because the best range speed will be a little faster, and
the airspeed represents the rate of distance covered. Therefore, range will be increased with a headwind.
Increased fuel flow is compensated by a higher speed, allowing less time enroute for the headwind to act.
A flight carried out below its optimal altitude uses more fuel but takes less time to complete the trip when
flying at a constant Mach Number (MN).
- Higher FL means that time increases and fuel consumption decreases (still air and at constant MN).
- Lower FL means that time decreases and fuel consumption increases (still air and at constant MN).
The acft uses more fuel because the engines are designed to achieve their best Specific Fuel Consumption
(SFC) at a height operating RPM. This can only be achieved at high (optimal) altitudes.
So when a flight is carried out below its optimal altitude its engines cannot operate at their optimal RPM
therefore, the SFC is higher. Acft uses more fuel to complete the trip.
Flights at lower altitudes (below FL260) where IAS is the reference speed, will have the opposite effect.
TAS decreases at lower altitudes for constant IAS. Therefore GS is reduced and the trip will take a longer
time.
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OPTIMUM ALTITUDE: Optimum altitude for a given weight is the altitude which gives maximum fuel
mileage in still air conditions at Long Range Cruise Speed.
STEP CLIMB: is a technique which may be used to improve fuel mileage capability on long flights by staying
closer to optimum altitude as weight is reduced during the cruise segment.
It is generally desirable to stay within 2000ft of optimum altitude.
Cruise step climb occurs when an acft in the cruise, loses weight due to fuel burn, which allows the acft to
fly higher; therefore, a cruise (step) climb is initiated to climb the acft to its new max altitude.
- Acft might have several step climbs, especially on long-haul routes.
Cruise climb is important because a jet acft most efficient performance is gained at its highest possible
altitude.
Fuel Howgozit: comparison of the Actual Fuel Remaining against the Planned Fuel Remaining along the
flight path. At any stage of flight an estimate of the fuel difference can be obtained and it is ideal to show
any trends, such as increasing fuel burn.
Critical Point (Equal-time Point) is the enroute track position where it is as quick (time) to go to your
destination as is to turn back. CP is calculated as a distance and time from the departure airfield using the
formula:
Distance to CP = DH
O+H
D – Total sector distance
H – Ground speed home
O – Ground speed out
Time to CP = distance to CP/O
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Critical Point moves into the wind in still air conditions; the Critical Point (CP) between 2 aerodromes is the
Halfway Point.
Flying into a headwind moves the CP closer to the destination aerodrome;
Flying with a tailwind moves the CP closer to the departure aerodrome;
CP is the equal time point to reach an airfield and therefore GS (Groundspeed) is all-important
GS = TAS x WV
PNR (Point of No Return): the last point on a Route at which it is possible to return to the departure
aerodrome with a sensible fuel reserve. Normal PNR is based on the acft safe endurance:
Time to PNR = EH
OxH
E – safe endurance time
H – ground speed home
O – ground speed out
Distance to PNR = time to PNR x O
One-engine PNR:
- Calculate 1NM round trip fuel flow (all-engine ground speed out & one-engine INOP ground speed
home);
- Safe endurance divided by 1 NM round trip flow;
One-engine PNR time is calculated by distance divided by ground speed out.
PNR is important for acft flying over large water areas it is crucially important to have a PNR if you elect to
carry Island Holding Fuel instead of Diversion Fuel because you become solely committed to landing at your
destination once you pass the PNR.
Island Holding Fuel: quantity of fuel uplifted usually in place of diversion fuel that allows an acft to hold
over a destination aerodrome for an extended period of time (associated with remote island: such as Easter
Island). Where there is no diversion option and there is possibility of a delayed landing due to adverse
weather.
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The Field Length Limited Landing Weight is the maximum weight at which the aircraft is capable of landing
in 60% of the available runway length.
FAR-121.195 and JAR-OPS-1.520 state that in case appropriate weather reports or forecast indicate that the
runway at the estimated time of arrival may be wet, the landing distance available is at least 115% of the
required landing distance, defined in accordance with FAR-121.195 and JAR-OPS-1.515.
Therefore, for wet runways, since the dry runway factored distance is the unfactored landing distance
multiplied by 1.67, the wet runway factored distance is the unfactored landing distance multiplied by 1.92
(1.67 x 115% = 1.92).
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An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the
aircraft will have:
a) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
b) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
c) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
d) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the
aircraft will have:
a) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
b) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
c) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
d) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
A higher flap setting within the T/O range will reduce the T/O ground run for a given acft weight. Use of
flaps increases the max Cl. Of the wing due to the increased chord line for a low drag penalty. Which reduce
stall speeds (Vs), (Vr) and (V2), the higher the flap setting within this range, the less is the T/O run required
because the drag is not significantly increased because the angle of attack is low. However the drag
increment is higher when the acft is in flight and out-of-ground effect. Because of the acft angle of attack is
much higher.
Pressure Altitude: is height above the standard datum plane (SDP). If the altimeter is set for 29.92”Hg /
1013Hpa the altitude indicated is the pressure altitude. (altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding
to the sensed pressure).
What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?
a) It will increase the take-off distance;
b) It will decrease the take-off distance;
c) It will increase the take-off distance available;
d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance available;
What will be the effect on an aeroplane´s performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
a) It will increase the take-off distance required;
b) It will increase the take-off ground run;
c) It will increase the accelerate stop distance;
d) It will decrease the take-off distance required;
An increase in atmospheric pressure has among other things, the following consequences on landing
performance:
a) A reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance;
b) A reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance;
c) An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance;
d) And increased landing distance and improved go-around performance;
Density Altitude: is Pressure Altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. As the density of the air
increases (lower density altitude), aircraft performance increases. On the other hand, as air density
decreases (higher density altitude), aircraft performance decreases.
Density Altitude is determined by first finding pressure altitude, and then correcting this altitude for
nonstandard temperature variations. Since density varies directly with pressure, and inversely with
temperature.
Air density is affected by changes in altitude, temperature and humidity.
HIGH DENSITY ALTITUDE: thin air / high elevations / low atmospheric pressure / high temperatures / high
humidity
LOW DENSITY ALTITUDE: dense air / low elevations / low atmospheric pressure / low temperatures / low
humidity
SATURATED AIR – relative humidity of 100%
41
Pressure Altitude: High aerodrome elevation (high pressure altitude) decrease acft performance, which
results in an increased landing distance, required (LDR)
- HOT means a decrease a in performance that results in greater LDR or lower Landing Weight (LW).
Humidity: high humidity decreases air density, which decreases an acft aerodynamic (Cl) and engine
performance, resulting in an increased LDR for a given acft weight.
- HOT / HIGHT & HUMID: mean a decrease in performance that results in greater LDR or a lower Landing
Weight (LW).
RWY SURFACE: low-friction surfaces increase landing distance required (LDR) for a given weight because
the surface does not permit effective braking
- Low-friction surface: contaminated hard surface (snow/water)
non-hard surface (grass/mud surfaces)
RWY SLOPE:
- Downward slope: requires a longer LD for given weight or lower LW for given LDA (downslope
maintains the acft momentum, acft braking is less effective).
- Upward slope: requires a shorter LD for a given acft weight or allows a higher LW for a given LDA.
- Upslope dissipates the acft momentum, braking is more effective.
Factors:
- Engine out overshoot performance
- Weight
- Altitude
- Pressure (WAT)
- RWY length (LDA) conditions
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Vmcl: Minimum control speed in the air for the MLTE acft in the approach & landing configuration at and
above is possible to maintain directional control of acft (around normal/vertical axis).
Vat/Vref:
- Vat: Velocity at Threshold
- Vref: Reference Speed
Target approach THR speed above the fence height for a specified flap setting that ensures that the landing
field length is achieved.
Adjustments to Vat/Vref are made for Headwind values, 50% of headwind and full gust value are added to
Vat/Vref speed up to a max permitted limit.
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EMERGÊNCIA
PERIGO (DISTRESS): condição onde a acft encontra-se ameaçada por um perigo sério e/ou iminente e
requer assistência imediata
MAYDAY / MAYDAY / MAYDAY
Urgent Assistance
Signal sent by radiotelephony, consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY means:
Imminent danger threatens the acft and immediate assistance is required.
URGÊNCIA (URGENCY): condição relacionada a Segurança de uma acft ou outro veículo, ou de alguma
pessoa a bordo ou a vista mas que não requer assistência imediata
CANCELAMENTO:
“TORRE CAMPINAS, AZUL 4-2-8-8, CANCELANDO MAYDAY”
When an acft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which
words shall this message include?
a) MAYDAY, resuming normal operations;
b) Cancel distress;
c) MAYDAY cancelled;
d) Distress condition terminated;
DISTRESS: a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate
assistance.
DISTRESS PHASE: a situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that an acft and its occupants are
threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance.
CANCEL DISTRESS: never use “CANCEL MAYDAY” as the word MAYDAY usually triggers everybody and starts
panic.
MAYDAY:
- falha de motor
- perda de pressurização rápida
- fogo/fumaça não identificada/incontrolável
- emergência elétrica
- falha de trem de pouso
- pilot Incapacitation
Fases de Emergência:
INCERTEZA (INCERFA): quando não se tem comunicação da aeronave após 30minutos seguintes à hora em
que deveria se receber a comunicação da mesma ou quando a acft não chega após 30minutos do ETA.
ALERTA (ALERFA): após a fase de INCERFA, se ainda não conseguir comunicação. Quando acft autorizada a
pousar não o fizer dentro de 5minutos seguintes. OBJETO DE INTERFERÊNCIA ILÍCITA.
PERIGO (DETRESFA): após a fase de ALERFA, ainda sem comunicação quando se evidenciar que a
autonomia da acft tenha esgotado.
TRANSPONDER:
7500 – Unlawful Interference / hijacking / unlawful interception
7600 – Two-way communication failure (radio-comm failure)
7700 – Emergency
Position: ON - #3 (Threshold)
OFF - #5 (Landing/Leaving RWY)
TCAS:
An aircraft’s traffic collision avoidance system (TCAS) will interrogate the secondary surveillance radar (SSR)
transponders of nearby aircraft to plot their positions and relative velocities. Direction finding aerials obtain
the relative bearings of other aircraft, and distance is calculated by using the time delay between the
transmitted and received signals. With this information, the TCAS computer can determine the track and
closing speeds of other aircraft fitted with transponders, and where it determines a collision is possible, it
provides visual and aural warnings as well as command actions on how to avoid the collision. This is all done
with vertical avoidance commands only. As yet, no turn commands are given. The warnings and advice
(advised actions) from the system have different levels:
Initially. A traffic advisory (TA) warning is generated for other traffic that may become a threat. No
maneuver is advised or should be taken.
Collision threat. A resolution advisory (RA) warning is generated when an aircraft is considered to be on a
collision course. Advice on a maneuver in the pitching plane, i.e., rate of climb or descent, to avoid the
collision is generated that can be increased or decreased as the threat increases or reduces until a clear of
conflict notice is given.
Therefore, you only respond to an RA, which should be done promptly and smoothly and should take
precedence over air traffic control (ATC) clearance to avoid immediate danger. RA use should be restricted in
the following circumstances:
1. In dense traffic area (limited to TA use)
2. Descent recommendations inhibited below 1000 ft
3. All RAs inhibited below 500 ft (Note: All TAs also restricted below 400 ft)
TCAS can cope with mode A, C, and S transponders. However, when both aircraft are equipped with TCAS II
and mode S, the advice on how to avoid a collision will be coordinated by the mode S data link between the
two aircraft.
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O VDP é um ponto, calculado pelos pilotos, para melhora do Alerta Situacional durante uma aproximação.
O objetivo de se determinar o VDP é para se confirmar que a aeronave estará em uma posição apropriada
na aproximação correspondente ao ponto de intersecção com o perfil (rampa) de 3° para a Zona de Toque
(TDZE). Existem diversas maneiras de se calcular o VDP, todas se utilizam da regra do 3 para 1 (3-1), onde
para cada milha do toque, a rampa corresponde a um múltiplo de 300ft. acima da TDZE.
Exemplo: uma MDA coloca a aeronave a 480ft. acima da TDZE. Isto significa (3-1) que a rampa normal (3°)
intercepta a MDA a aproximadamente 1.6NM da cabeceira da pista.
A partir do VDP, uma aproximação não deverá ser continuada, em função da necessidade da adoção de
uma razão de descida alta a baixa altitude, contrariando o princípio de “Aproximação Estabilizada”. Neste
caso a MDA será mantida e no MAPT o procedimentos de aproximação perdida será iniciado.
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50
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55
56
57
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59
60
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Decision Altitude/Height (DA/H): specified altitude or Height (A/H) in the precision approach at which a
missed approach must be initiated if the Required visual Reference to continue the approach has not been
established.
Decision Altitude (DA) is referenced to MEAN SEA LEVEL (MSL) and Decision Altitude (DH) is
referenced to the THRESHOLD (THR) ELEVATION.
Decision Height (DH): with respect to the operation of the acft, means the height at which a decision must
be made, during an ILS/PAR instrument approach, to either continue the approach or to execute a missed
approach.
Jeppesen APP Charts use DA(H). The Decision Altitude DA is referenced to MEAN SEA LEVEL (MSL) and the
parenthetical Decision Height (DH) is referenced to the TDZE or Threshold Elevation.
TDZE (Touchdown Zone Elevation): highest elevation in the first 3000ft. of the landing surface.
GRID MORA: (GRID MINIMUM OFF-ROUTE): an altitude derived by Jeppesen or provided by State
authorities. GRID MORA provides terrain and man-made structure clearance within the section outlined by
latitude and longitude lines.
GRID MORA values derive by Jeppesen clears all terrain and man-made structure by 1000ft. in areas
where the highest elevations are 5000ft. MSL or lower. MORA values clear all terrain and man-
made structures by 2000ft. in areas where the highest elevation are 5001ft. MSL or higher.
GRID MORA (State) altitude supplied by the State Authority provides 2000ft. clearance in
mountainous areas and 1000ft. in non-mountainous areas.
-
TAA: Terminal Arrival Area
Altitude mais baixa que prevê liberação de obstáculo de (300m/1000ft) acima de todos obstáculos em um
raio de 25NM, centrado no fixo de aproximação inicial (IAF) ou fixo intermediário (IF).
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a) In designated mountain areas, 2000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM
from the course to be flown;
b) Other than mountainous areas, 1000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM
from the course to be flown;
c) As otherwise authorized by the Administrator or assigned ATC.
LIGHTS
RUNWAY EDGE LIGHTS (ICAO) – Are provided for a runway intended for use at night or for a precision
approach runway intended for use by day or night. Runway edge lights shall be fixed lights showing variable
white, except that:
- In the case of a displaced threshold, the lights between the beginning of the runway and the displaced
threshold shall show red in the approach direction; and
- A section of the lights 600m or one-third of the runway length, whichever is the less, at the remote end
of the runway from the end at which the take-off run is started, may show yellow.
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
b) Flashing white.
c) Fixed lights showing variable white.
d) Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
Spacing for Runway Edge Lights and Centerline lights is included as a parenthetical value, at selected
locations. The parenthetical value is the spacing in feet or meters as appropriate. Example: HIRL (60m), is
High Intensity Runway Edge Lights with a 60 meter spacing (CL50´), is Centerline Lights with a 50 foot
spacing.
CAT I approach lights (centerline lights and crossbars) shall be fixed lights showing:
a) Variable intensity white;
b) Flashing white;
c) Variable intensity yellow;
d) White, flashing every 2 seconds;
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
a) Flashing lights showing variable green.
b) Fixed lights showing variable white.
c) Flashing lights showing variable white.
d) Fixed lights showing variable green.
REGULAMENTOS
Identificação (matrícula)
Posição
Hora
Nível de voo/ altitude
Próxima posição/hora de sobrevoo
Próximo ponto significativo
Informações complementares
Temperatura do ar
Vento
Turbulência
Formação de gelo na anv.
Informações complementares
Azul 4288 sobrevoando NANDU 20:03 Nível 350, estimando PONCA 20:11, OSAMU a próxima, temperatura
menos 47, vento 300 graus 75 nós, turbulência moderada, trovoada e nuvens CB entre as posições
BELIC/ILBEK/NAFIL
• Aircraft identification
• Position
• Time
• Level
• Next position and time over
• Ensuing significant point
Note: when transmitting time, only the minutes of the hour should be required. Each digit should be
pronounced separately. The hour is only included when any possibility of confusion is likely to arise.
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AIREP Content
The AIREP is divided into three sections, the first always sent, the others only sent when required.
• Aircraft identification
• Position
• Time
• Flight level or altitude
• Next position and ETA
• Air temperature
• Wind
• Turbulence
• Aircraft icing
• Supplementary information
When a special AIREP of pre-eruption volcanic activity, a volcanic eruption or volcanic ash cloud is
transmitted, the content and order in the AIREP message is:
• Aircraft identification
• Position
• Time
• Flight level or altitude
• Volcanic activity observed
• Air temperature
• Wind
• Supplementary information
Because position reports are omitted when under radar control and radar control is the norm over land this
tends to mean that routine position reports contain met information mostly when operating in oceanic
areas.
Shanwick Airbus123 55 North 15 West 0300 FL330 estimate 57 North 20 West 0400 next 58 North 25
West wind 250 diagonal 50 temperature minus 57 over.
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The term "OVER" at the end of the transmission indicates an HF position report.
OVER = My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
OUT = This exchange of transmission is ended and no response is expected.
"OVER" and "OUT" are not normally used in VHF communications, these are HF terms.
Gradiente de subida:
Razão expressa em porcentagem entre a variação do deslocamento vertical e a distância percorrida pela
aeronave sobre a superfície terrestre.
Q) Summary
A) Applies To
B) Valid From
C) Valid Until
D) Repeat Cycle
E) Message Content
F) Lower Vertical Limit
G) Upper Vertical Limit
NOTAM N: new
NOTAM E: event
NOTAM R: replacing
NOTAM C: cancelation
NOTAM Q-CODES:
A) Airspace Organization
C) Communications and Radar
F) Facilities and Services
G) Military
I) Instrument and Microwave Landing
L) Lightning
M) Movement and Landing Area
N) Terminal and En-route Navigation
O) Other
P) Air Traffic Procedures
R) Airspace Restrictions
S) Air Traffic / VOLMET Services
T) Hazard
W) Warning
X) Other
FIR:
RECIFE: B
SÃO PAULO: D
CURITIBA: E
BRASÍLIA: F
MANAUS: G
CENTRO GERAL DE NOTAM: Z
FIR: Espaço aéreo ATS mais simples que existe classificado como G.
Serviço prestado: Serviço de Informação de Voo e Alerta
Consulta de abreviaturas:
ROTAER – Seção 4
AIP Brasil – GEN 2.2
Flight Information Region (FIR) is a specified region of airspace in which a flight Information service and an
alerting service (ALRS) are provided.
ICAO ANNEX 11 – Air Traffic Services
The information on holding, approach and departure procedures are found in the following part of the AIP:
a) MAP
b) GEN
c) ENR
d) AD
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ABREVIATURAS:
Na região localizada próxima a fronteira com a Venezuela (FIR MANTIQUEIRA) FL130 (mínimo).
Quando a FIR estiver no espaço aéreo superior será denominada: Região Superior de Informação de Voo (UIR).
UIR: Upper Flight Information Region
COMMUNICATION FAILURE
7600
BLIND TRANSMISSION (frequência em uso) / 121.50
Segue até onde autorizado (ponto autorizado)
Segue conforme plano (até auxilio nav. / fixo designado do destino)
Inicia descida no NAVAID/ fixo (na última hora estimada recebida/cotejada)
IAC previsto / pousar se possível dentro dos 30minutos da hora estimada
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When an acft Station is unable to establish communication due to receiver failure, it shall transmit reports
at the scheduled times, or positions, on the frequency in use, preceded by the phrase: “TRANSIMITTING
BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE”.
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure.
You will:
a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC;
b) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight;
c) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC;
d) Select 7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination;
If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and you experience a total communications failure, you should:
a) try to contact another aircraft for relay
b) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report to ATS
c) try to make contact on another frequency with either a ground station or another aircraft
d) continue the flight according to flight plan
The Minimum vertical Separation for IFR flight at and below FL290 is 1000ft.
RVSM: Vertical separation is only 1000ft. up to FL290 and 2000ft. in non-RVSM airspace.
When operating under IFR, between the surface and an altitude of FL290, no acft should come closer
vertically than 1000ft.
Above FL290, no acft should come closer than 2000ft. except in airspace where RVSM (Reduced Vertical
Separation Minimums) can be applied, in this case, vertical separation is 1000ft. (FAA-H-8083-16A)
ALTITUDE ALERT: is a device which warns the pilot when he is approaching a pre-set altitude or deviating
from that altitude.
(1) alerting the flight crew when approaching a preselected altitude; and
(2) alerting the flight crew by at least an aural signal, when deviating from a preselected altitude.
Alarms are standardized and follow a code of colors. Those requiring action but not immediately, are
signaled by the color:
a) red
b) green
c) flashing red
d) amber
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Nível Mínimo (FL mínimo): 1° nível disponível acima da Altitude de Transição (TA).
CLEARANCE MSG:
C – Clearance
R – Route
A – Altitude
F – Frequency
T – Transponder
Tripulante: toda pessoa devidamente habilitada que exerce função a bordo da aeronave;
Jornada de Trabalho de um tripulante terá início no horário de apresentação do mesmo para a realização
do seu primeiro voo e encerra-se a trinta minutos após o corte dos motores em seu último voo;
Repouso:
SECTOR 1: PARALLEL
SECTOR 2: OFFSET (TEARDROP)
SECTOR 3: DIRECT
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1) PARALLEL ENTRY: fly to the fix and turn onto an outbound heading to fly parallel to the inbound track
on the non-holding side for 1 minute, and then turn in the direction of the holding side through more
than 180° to intercept the inbound track to the fix.
2) TEARDROP ENTRY: fly to the fix, and turn onto a heading to fly a track on the holding side at 30° offset
to the reciprocal of the inbound track for a period of 1 minute, then turn in the direction of the holding
pattern to intercept the inbound track to the fix.
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3) DIRECT ENTRY: fly to the fix, and turn to follow the holding pattern. On the face of it, the sector 3 direct
entry procedure is the easiest to carry out. However when joining from extremities of the sector area, it
is necessary to apply some finesse to the procedure.
The timing in a HOLD PATTERN should be commenced from abeam the fix at the start of the outbound leg
or on attaining the outbound heading (whichever comes later).
- Outbound timing should be 1minute for a standard holding pattern up to and including 14.000ft and
1:30minutes above 14.000ft.
NORMAL TURBULENCIA
Até FL140 170kts. (A/B) 230kts. 170kts. (A/B)280kts.
FL140 – FL200 240kts. 280kts. / M 0.83 (menor)
FL200 – FL340 265kts. 280kts. / M 0.83 (menor)
Acima FL340 Mach 0.83 Mach 0.83
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Nível Mínimo de Espera é estabelecido em função de fatores topográficos e operacionais, abaixo do qual
não é permitido às aeronaves permanecerem em procedimento de espera. A partir deste Nível a aeronave
será autorizada a descer para Altitude de Início de Procedimento (normalmente coincide com a Altitude de
Transição).
The Information on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the
AIP: ENR
APP pode solicitar/autorizar razões maiores/menores.
The Situation which exists when the radar position of a particular acft is seen na identified on a radar
display (Jeppesen)
Which does ATC Term Radar Contact signify?
a) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar
contact has been lost;
b) Your acft has been identified and you will receive separation from all acft while in
c) Your acft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until
radar identification is terminated;
d) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised
that contact has been lost;
ICAO ANNEX 11 (Chapter 5)
The Alerting Service is provided by:
a) The Area Control Center;
b) The ATC unit responsible for the acft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 Mhz;
c) Only by ATC units;
d) The ATC unit responsible for the acft at that moment;
Service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding acft in need of search and rescue aid, and
assist such organizations as required.
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
a) air traffic coordination centers.
b) control centers only.
c) air traffic control and flight information centers.
d) search and rescue coordination centers.
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the
responsibility of the:
a) operational air traffic control centers
b) flight information or control organizations
c) air traffic co-ordination services
d) search and rescue co-ordination centers
The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service area:
a) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.
b) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
c) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
d) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centers.
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When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in:
a) Central European Time
b) UTC
c) Local mean time
d) local standard time
1. Radar control service. is available wherever radar coverage exists in controlled airspace, i.e., airways,
terminal control zones, aerodrome traffic zones, and control areas, whereby air traffic control (ATC) is
responsible for:
a. Monitoring and separation from other aircraft
b. Radar vectoring
c. Controlled airspace crossing
d. Navigation assistance
e. Weather information
f. Hazard warnings
g. Emergency assistance
Note: Instructions from ATC under a radar control service have to be adhered to. However, it remains the
responsibility of the aircraft commander, not ATC, to maintain terrain clearance even when under radar
control.
2. Radar advisory service. The radar controller will use radio communications to provide:
a Traffic information
b. Advisory avoiding action necessary to maintain separation from other aircraft
3. Radar information service. The radar controller will use radio communications to provide traffic
information only (no avoiding action will be offered).
When vectoring acft to the final approach course controllers are required to ensure the intercept is at least
2NM outside the approach gate.
Controllers must assign headings that will permit final approach course interception without exceeding the
table:
Distance From Interception Point to Approach Gate Max Interception Angle
Less than 2NM or with triple simultaneous ILS 20 °
approaches in use
2NM or More 30° (45° for helicopter)
QNH: arredondado para inteiro INFERIOR mais próximo (questão de segurança, em caso de erro de
indicação – altitude menor do que a real)
Altitude de Transição (TA): Altitude na qual, ou abaixo, a posição vertical de uma acft é controlada por
referências à altitude.
Nível de Transição: nível de voo mais baixo disponível para uso, acima da Altitude de Transição (TA). Usado
para efetuar o ajuste de altímetro, quando acft desce do nível mínimo de espera para Altitude de Transição.
Nível de Transição é calculado a partir da TA e QNH.
MAS é apresentada em forma de altitude, quando for igual ou inferior à Altitude de Transição (TA), ou em
Nível de Voo quando acima da TA.
(MAS) Altitude ≤ TA
(MAS) FL > TA
ISA:
Sea-level temperature: 15° C
Sea-level pressure: 1013mb.
Sea-level density: 1225kg/m³
Temperature lapse rate: 6.5° C/1000m.
1.3 da velocidade de stall (em configuração de pouso e MLGW – peso máximo de pouso) Vat
Vat – speed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall speed in the landing configuration at max certified landing
mass
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FMS:
The purpose of an FMS is to manage the aircraft’s performance and route navigation to achieve the optimal
result.
The three sources of flight management system data are
1. Stored databases
2. Pilot inputs via the control display unit (CDU)
3. Other aircraft systems, which are fed automatically into the FMS
These input sources are fed into the flight management computer (FMC) and are duplicated for both
performance and navigation management functions.
A flight management system (FMS) is a fundamental component of a modern airliner's avionics. An FMS is a
specialized computer system that automates a wide variety of in-flight tasks, reducing the workload on the
flight crew to the point that modern civilian aircraft no longer carry flight engineers or navigators. A
primary function is in-flight management of the flight plan. Using various sensors (such as GPS and INS
often backed up by Radionavigation) to determine the aircraft's position, the FMS can guide the aircraft
along the flight plan. From the cockpit, the FMS is normally controlled through a Control Display Unit (CDU)
which incorporates a small screen and keyboard or touchscreen. The FMS sends the flight plan for display
to the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), Navigation Display (ND), or Multifunction Display (MFD).
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The most common sensors interfacing an FMS to compute the acft position along the flight plan are:
- DME;
- GPS;
- IRS;
- VOR;
- MLS;
- LOCALIZER;
- NDB;
The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS), as for example installed in the B737-400, is to
provide:
a) both manual navigation guidance and performance management
b) continuous automatic navigation guidance and performance management
c) manual navigation guidance and automatic performance management
d) continuous automatic navigation guidance as well as manual performance management
Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) is used to enter flight plan routing
and performance parameters?
a) Multi-Function Control Display Unit
b) Flight Management Computer
c) Inertial Reference System
d) Flight Director System
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Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane stabilization are:
1- pitch attitude holding
2- horizontal wing holding
3- displayed heading or inertial track holding
4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
5- yaw damping
6- VOR axis holding
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 4, and 5.
b) 1, 2 and 5.
c) 1, 2, 3 and 6.
d) 3, 4, 5 and 6.
Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are:
1- pitch attitude holding
2- horizontal wing holding
3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4- altitude holding
5- VOR axis holding
6- yaw damping
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 6.
b) 1, 3, 4 and 5.
c) 3, 4 and 5.
d) 1, 2, and 6.
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A visual approach is defined as: an approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure
is not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain. (JEPPESEN – ICAO).
An approach conducted on an IFR flight plan which authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of
clouds to the airport. The pilot must, at all times, have either the airport or the preceding acft in sight. This
approach must be authorized and under the control of the appropriate ATC facility. Reported weather at
the airport must be ceiling at or above 1000ft. and visibility of 3miles or greater (Jeppesen – USA).
To expedite traffic at any time, IFR flights may be authorized to execute visual approaches if the pilot
reports that he can maintain visual reference to the surface and the reported cloud ceiling is not below the
initial approach level or the pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the
visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be
accomplished.
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All VFR flights shall not be flown (except for T/O, landing by emission from authority):
- At a height less than 150m (500ft.) above the ground or water;
- At a height less than 300m (1000ft.) above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m from the acft
over the congested areas of cities/towns or settlements or over open-air assembly of persons.
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Air traffic control service is a service provided for the purpose of:
preventing collisions:
between aircraft, and
between aircraft and obstracles on the maneuvering area; and
expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic. (ICAO Annex 11)
Further Reading
ICAO Annex 11 Chapter 3 ICAO Doc 4444: Procedures for Air Navigation Services- Air Traffic Management
(PANS-ATM
Acft must be able to land within 60% of effective RWY. If RWY is forecasted to be wet/slippery 15% must be
added to the required landing RWY.
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METEOROLOGIA
Consulta:
FCA 105-2 (Códigos Meteorológicos TAF)
FCA 105-3 (Códigos Meteorológicos METAR/SPECI)
SIGWX
NUVENS:
SKC: SKY CLEAR (0/8)
FEW: FEW (1-2/8) – POUCAS
SCT: SCATTERED (3-4/8) – ESPARSO
BKN: BROKEN (5-7/8) – NUBLADO
OVC: OVERCAST(8/8) – ENCOBERTO
31015KT 280V350
predominante variando entre
WINDSHEAR:
Conditions are normally associated with the Following phenomena:
Thunderstorms / microbursts / funnel cloud / gust fronts
Frontal surfaces
Strong surface winds coupled with local topography
Sea breeze fronts
Mountain waves (low-level rotor in terminal area)
LEVE 0 – 4 KTS/100FT/MIN
MODERADA 5 – 8 KTS/100FT/MIN
SEVERA 9 – 12 KTS/100FT/MIN
EXTREMA > 12 KTS/500FT/MIN
METAR:
METAR is a written coded routine Aviation weather report for an Aerodrome. It is an observation of the
actual weather given by a meteorologic observer at the aerodrome.
Cloud base in METAR is given above ground level (AGL).
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations abbreviated to
“CAVOK”?
a) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600
b) 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG
c) 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500
d) 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG
Groups used for reporting weather phenomena of operational significance which were observed and
reported in METAR message of present weather and are no longer observed.
- Was heavy, now it is moderate, light or over;
TAF:
- Routine Forecast (TAF);
- Amended Forecast (TAF AMD);
- Corrected Forecast (TAF COR);
TAF AMD – issued when the current TAF no longer adequately describes the ongoing weather;
TAF COR – indicates that the message has been corrected due to formal mistakes;
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103
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If a parcel of air containing water vapor is lifted sufficiently, it will cool adiabatically, and its capacity to hold
water vapor will decrease (i.e., cooler air supports less water). Therefore, its relative humidity increases
until the parcel of air cools to its dewpoint temperature, where its capacity to hold water vapor is equal to
that which it is actually holding, and the parcel of air is said to be saturated (i.e., its relative humidity is 100
percent). Any further cooling will cause some of the water vapor to condense out of its vapor state as water
droplets and form clouds. Further, if the air is unable to support these water droplets, then they will fall as
precipitation in the form of rain, hail, or snow.
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CIRRUS (CI)
Detached clouds in the form of white, delicate filaments, mostly white patches or narrow bands. They may
have a fibrous (hair-like) and/or silky sheen appearance.
Cirrus clouds are always composed of ice crystals, and their transparent character depends upon the
degree of separation of the crystals.
As a rule when these clouds cross the sun's disk they hardly diminish its brightness. Before sunrise and after
sunset, cirrus is often colored bright yellow or red. These clouds are lit up long before other clouds and fade
out much later.
CIRROSTRATUS (CS)
Transparent, whitish veil clouds with a fibrous (hair-like) or smooth appearance. A sheet of cirrostratus
which is very extensive, nearly always ends by covering the whole sky.
A milky veil of fog (or thin Stratus) is distinguished from a veil of Cirrostratus of a similar appearance by the
halo phenomena which the sun or the moon nearly always produces in a layer of cirrostratus.
CIRROCUMULUS (CC)
Thin, white patch, sheet, or layered of clouds without shading. They are composed of very small elements
in the form of more or less regularly arranged grains or ripples.
In general Cirrocumulus represents a degraded state of cirrus and cirrostratus both of which may change
into it and is an uncommon cloud. There will be a connection with cirrus or cirrostratus and will show some
characteristics of ice crystal clouds.
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MID CLOUDS
ALTOSTRATUS (AS)
Gray or bluish cloud sheets or layers of striated or fibrous clouds that totally or partially covers the sky.
They are thin enough to regularly reveal the sun as if seen through ground glass.
Altostratus clouds do not produce a halo phenomenon nor are the shadows of objects on the ground
visible.
Sometime virga is seen hanging from Altostratus, and at times may even reach the ground causing very
light precipitation.
ALTOCUMULUS (AC)
White and/or gray patch, sheet or layered clouds, generally composed of laminae (plates), rounded masses
or rolls. They may be partly fibrous or diffuse.
When the edge or a thin semitransparent patch of altocumulus passes in front of the sun or moon a corona
appears. This colored ring has red on the outside and blue inside and occurs within a few degrees of the sun
or moon.
The most common mid cloud, more than one layer of Altocumulus often appears at different levels at the
same time. Many times Altocumulus will appear with other cloud types.
NIMBOSTRATUS (NS)
The continuous rain cloud. Resulting from thickening Altostratus, This is a dark gray cloud layer diffused by
falling rain or snow. It is thick enough throughout to blot out the sun. The cloud base lowers into the low
level of clouds as precipitation continues.
Also, low, ragged clouds frequently occur beneath this cloud which sometimes merges with its base.
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LOW CLOUDS
CUMULUS (CU)
Detached, generally dense clouds and with sharp outlines that develop vertically in the form of rising
mounds, domes or towers with bulging upper parts often resembling a cauliflower.
The sunlit parts of these clouds are mostly brilliant white while their bases are relatively dark and
horizontal.
Over land cumulus develops on days of clear skies, and is due diurnal convection; it appears in the morning,
grows, and then more or less dissolves again toward evening.
STRATUS (ST)
A generally gray cloud layer with a uniform base which may, if thick enough, produce drizzle, ice prisms, or
snow grains. When the sun is visible through this cloud, its outline is clearly discernible.
Often when a layer of Stratus breaks up and dissipates blue sky is seen.
CUMULONIMBUS (CB)
The thunderstorm cloud, this is a heavy and dense cloud in the form of a mountain or huge tower. The
upper portion is usually smoothed, fibrous or striated and nearly always flattened in the shape of an anvil
or vast plume.
Under the base of this cloud which is often very dark, there are often low ragged clouds that may or may
not merge with the base. They produce precipitation, which sometimes is in the form of virga.
Cumulonimbus clouds also produce hail and tornadoes.
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STRATOCUMULUS (SC)
Gray or whitish patch, sheet, or layered clouds which almost always have dark tessellations (honeycomb
appearance), rounded masses or rolls. Except for virga they are non-fibrous and may or may not be
merged.
They also have regularly arranged small elements with an apparent width of more than five degrees (three
fingers - at arm's length).
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MOUNTAIN WAVES: is defined as oscillations to the lee-side/leeward (downwind) of high ground resulting
from the disturbance in the horizontal air flow caused by the high ground.
The wavelength and amplitude of the oscillations depends on many factors including the height of the high
ground relative to surrounding terrain, the wind speed and the instability of the atmosphere.
Formation of mountain waves can occur in the following conditions:
Wind direction within 30 degrees of the perpendicular to the ridge of high ground and no change in
direction over a significant height band.
Wind speeds at the crest of the ridge in excess of 15 kts, increasing with height.
Stable air above the crest of the ridge with less stable air above and a stable layer below the ridge.
Vertical currents within the oscillations can reach 2,000 ft/min. The combination of these strong vertical
currents and surface friction may cause rotors to form beneath the mountain waves causing severe
turbulence.
Effects:
Mountain Waves are associated with severe turbulence, strong vertical currents, and icing.
Loss of Control and / or Level Bust. The vertical currents in the waves can make it difficult for an aircraft
to maintain en route altitude leading to level busts and can cause significant fluctuations in airspeed
potentially leading, in extremis, to loss of control. Loss of Control can also occur near to the ground prior to
landing or after take-off with a risk of terrain contact or a hard landing if crew corrective response to a
downdraft is not prompt.
Turbulence. Aircraft can suffer structural damage as a result of encountering severe clear air turbulence.
In extreme cases this can lead to the breakup of the aircraft. In even moderate turbulence, damage can
occur to fittings within the aircraft especially as a result of collision with unrestrained items of cargo or
passenger luggage. If caught unaware, passengers and crew walking around the aircraft cabin can be
injured.
Icing. Severe icing can be experienced within the clouds associated with the wave peaks
Defences:
Awareness.
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When approaching a mountain ridge, it is advantageous, if heading upwind towards it, to cross at an
angle of around 30 - 45 degrees in order to allow an escape should downdrafts prove excessive.
In the Alps regions, particularly in the Zurich – Milano regions, a general rule of thumb that a QNH
difference of more than 5 – 8 mb between LSZH and LIMC, for example, or between north and south of the
Alps, will provide for significant mountain wave activity over the Alps. A higher QNH in Zurich will result in
mountain waves south of the Alps, for example.
If significant mountain wave activity is expected, as a rule of thumb and if possible plan a flight at least
5000 – 8000 feet above the highest elevation along your route.
Forecasting. Local knowledge of the conditions which tend to cause the formation of mountain waves
enables forecasting of potential wave propagation.
Cloud Formation. Lenticular Clouds (lens shaped clouds) can form in the crest of the mountain waves if
the air is moist. Roll Clouds can also occur in the rotors below the waves if the air is moist. These clouds are
a good indication of the presence of mountain waves but, if the air is dry, there may not be any cloud to
see. Windward of the mountains IMC conditions may likely be present, whereas due to the “Foehn Effect”
VMC conditions are generally expected to the leeward.
Airflow rises over mountains due to orographic uplift and cools adiabatically. If it cools below its dewpoint
temperature, then the water vapor will condense out and form clouds, either as lenticular clouds, often on
the hillside when there is a stable layer of air above the mountain, or as cumulus or even cumulonimbus
clouds when there is unstable air above the mountain. Rotor, or roll, clouds, particularly common with
lenticular cloud formation, also may form at a low level downstream of the mountain as a result of surface
turbulence.
Lenticular (lens-shaped) clouds indicate standing (mountain) wave clear air turbulence (CAT). They are
found at height in rising air above the downwind side of a range of hills, often extending for up to 100
nautical miles downward of a line of hills and at a height of up to 25,000 ft.
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OROGRAPHIC LIFT: The process by which a mass of air is lifted by a geographical feature such as a line of
hills or a mountain range.
When a moving Air Mass meets a geographical feature such as a mountain, some of the air will have no
option but to rise up over it. This process is known as Orographic lift. If the rising air is moist, clouds will
form.
Windward slopes of a mountain range will therefore tend to have higher rainfall than the leeward side
slopes of the mountain range
OROGRAPHIC WIND: Wind flow caused, affected, or influenced by mountains.
Orographic effects include both dynamic, in which mountains disturb or distort an existing approach flow,
and thermodynamic, in which heating or cooling of mountain-slope surfaces generates flow.
Orographic winds may give rise to the Föhn Effect.
RADAR
Knowledge of the radar principle is essential in order to accurately interpret the weather radar display.
What does the radar detects? Water vapor/ vapor / water droplets
Reflectivity:
Radar echo returns are proportional to droplet size, and therefore, precipitation intensity. Droplets that are
too small (fog droplets) will return no echo, whereas heavy droplets (thunderstorm droplets) will return the
majority of radar waves (Figure below).
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Reflectivity of precipitation not only depends on the intensity of the precipitation, but also on the type of
precipitation. Precipitation that contains water will return a stronger return than dry precipitation. Dry hail,
for example, will reflect far less than wet hail (Figure 5). The upper level of a thunderstorm, that contains
ice crystals, provides weaker returns than the middle part, that is full of water or wet hail.
It is important to note that reflectivity of particles is not directly proportional to the hazard that may be
encountered in a cell. Air can be very humid, when close to the sea for instance. In this case, thermal
convection will produce clouds that are full of water. These clouds will have a high reflectivity, but will not
necessarily be a high threat. On the other hand, there are equatorial overland regions where converging
winds produce large scale uplifts of dry air. The resulting weather cells have much less reflectivity than mid-
latitude convective cells, making them much harder to detect. However turbulence in or above such clouds
may have a higher intensity than indicated by the image on the weather radar display. Similarly, snow
flakes have low reflectivity, as long as they are above freezing level. As they descend through freezing level,
snowflakes stick together and become water covered. Their reflectivity increases and the weather radar
display may display amber or red cells, despite the fact that there is no threat.
Attenuation:
Because the weather radar display depends on signal returns, heavy precipitation may conceal even
stronger weather: The major part of the signal is reflected by the frontal part of the precipitation. The aft
part returns weak signals, that are displayed as green or black areas. The flight crew may interpret these as
a no/small threat areas. Modern weather radars are now able to apply a correction to a signal when it is
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suspected to have been attenuated behind a cloud. This reduces the attenuation phenomenon. However, a
black hole behind a red area on a weather radar display should always be considered as a zone that is
potentially very active. Despite this attenuation correction function, the weather radar should not be used
as a tool to penetrate, or navigate around, areas that are displayed as severe. The weather radar should
only be considered as a tool to be used for weather avoidance.
The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is where converging air masses meet near the thermal equator.
Like the thermal equator, ITCZ movement is a function of seasonal heating that is much greater over the
land than over the sea. Over South America and southern Africa, ITCZ movement is large, especially in the
summer season, whereas over the Atlantic Ocean, its movement is small. In other words, it is stable.
Effect of the ITCZ determines the weather pattern over a significant portion of the globe.
The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone, or ITCZ, is a belt of low pressure which circles the Earth generally near
the equator where the trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres come together. It is
characterized by convective activity which generates often vigorous thunderstorms over large areas. It is
most active over continental land masses by day and relatively less active over the oceans.
The position of the ITCZ varies with the seasons, and lags behind the sun's relative position above the
Earth's surface by about 1 to 2 months, and correlates generally to the thermal equator. Since water has a
higher heat capacity than land, the ITCZ propagates pole ward more prominently over land than over
water, and over the Northern Hemisphere than over the Southern Hemisphere. In July and August, over the
Atlantic and Pacific, the ITCZ is between 5 and 15 degrees north of the Equator, but further north over the
land masses of Africa and Asia. In eastern Asia, the ITCZ may propagate up to 30 degrees north of the
Equator. In January, over the Atlantic, the ITCZ generally sits no further south than the Equator, but extends
much further south over South America, Southern Africa, and Australia. Over land, the ITCZ tends to follow
the sun's zenith point.
Where the trade winds are weak, the ITCZ is characterized by isolated Cumulus (Cu)
and Cumulonimbus (Cb) cells. However, where the trade winds are stronger, the ITCZ can spawn a solid line
of active Cb cells embedded with other cloud types developing as a result of instability at higher levels. Cb
tops can reach and sometimes exceed an altitude of 55,000 feet, and the ITCZ can be as wide as 300
nautical miles in places presenting a formidable obstacle to aircraft transit.
Aircraft flying through an active ITCZ (strong trade winds) will probably encounter some or all the hazards
associated with Cb clouds such as icing, turbulence, lightning, and wind shear. However, it is in this zone
that the most severe effects may often be encountered. In particular, it is within the ITCZ that convective
breakthroughs of the tropopause often occur, with the majority occurring over land, especially in the
second half of each day. Convective penetration of the tropopause is less common over oceanic areas
where the phenomenon is more likely to occur in the early hours of each day, generating more isolated
cells. Research sponsored by NASA has shown that 1% of tropical deep convective activity exceeds 46,000 ft
altitude, with a small proportion of this reaching much greater heights. For further information on the
potential hazards of transit through or near Cb cloud, see the article Cumulonimbus.
ZCIT é formada pelo movimento vertical em grande parte derivado da atividade convectiva de tempestades
provocadas pelo aquecimento solar (sugam o ar).
Posição mais ao Norte durante o verão do Hemisfério Norte e mais ao Sul durante o mês de Abril.
Se move de um lado para outro do Equador, seguindo o Ponto Zenital (ZENITH) do sol.
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The great circle defining the meridian is divided into the local meridian (containing the zenith and
terminated by the celestial poles) and the anti-meridian (opposite half containing nadir).
Great Circle Track: line of shortest distance between 2 points on a sphere (or flat surface) with a constantly
changing track direction as a result of convergence.
What is convergency?
Convergency represents the change of direction experienced along east-west tracks, except rhumb lines, as
a result of the way direction is measured due to the effects of converging meridians at the poles. The
change of direction experienced between two points is known as convergency.
Convergency is clearly dependent on latitude; it is zero at the equator, where the meridians are
parallel, and a maximum at the poles, where the meridians converge. It is also dependent on how far
you travel. A short distance traveled will have only a small change of direction, whereas a long
distance will have a large change of direction.