PRC Reviewer
PRC Reviewer
PRC Reviewer
SETTING OF INTERVIEW
1. BACKGROUND INTERVIEW - time
and place of interview are not a
consideration except for busy person.
2. ROUTINE CRIMINAL CASES -
interview should be carefully planned. B. TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND
Busy person can be interviewed at night, ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION
privacy is important. ACCIDENT (Legal meaning) – an accident is
3. IMPORTANT CRIMINAL CASES - any happening beyond the control of a person
should be conducted in places other than the consequences of which are not foreseeable.
the subjects home/office to (There is no criminal liability in accident
prevent him/her feeling confident. provided, the following requisites or elements
Investigator should get interviewees under the law must be satisfied;
respect. 1. performance of a lawful act
4. APPROPRIATE TIME - General rule - 2. with due care
(ASAP) as soon possible while facts are 3. causes injury to another by mere accident
fresh in the memory of interviewees. 4. without any fault or intention of causing it
ARTICULATED VEHICLE - shall mean any
METHODS OF CRIME SCENE motor vehicles with a trailer having no front
SEARCH axle and so attached that part of the trailer rest
1. STRIP METHOD - the area is blocked upon the motor vehicle and a substantial part of
out in the form of a rectangle. The the weight of the trailer and of its load is born
searchers (3 person is good) proceed slowly by the motor vehicle.
at the same pace along paths parallel to one BENZ PATENT-MOTORWAGEN -
side of the rectangle. (motorcar) built in 1886, is widely regarded as
2. DOUBLE STRIP SEARCH METHOD the first automobile. It is a vehicle designed to
- modification of the strip search method. be propelled by an internal combustion engine.
The rectangle is traversed first parallel to BOX JUNCTION - is a road traffic control
the base then parallel to a side. measure designed to prevent congestion and
3. SPIRAL SEARCH METHOD - The gridlock at junctions. A road area at a junction
searchers (3 person is good) follow each marked with a yellow grid, which a vehicle
other along the path of a spiral beginning should enter only if its exit from it is clear. Box
on the outside and spiraling in towards the junctions were introduced in UK during 1967,
center. following a successful trial in London.
CHAIN OF EVENTS – is the making up of 4. Municipal Road
accident or the link which explains the 5. Barangay Road
occurrence of the accident and its components 6. Private Road
are present in every accident.
PERCEPTION OF HAZARD – is the point of COMPRESSED AIR CAR - is an alternative
sensory warning at which the operator sensed fuel car that uses a motor powered by
the approaching hazard. The driver may not compressed air. The car can be powered solely
comprehend or recognized the hazard in all of by air, or by air combined (as in a hybrid
its implications at this point of perception, but electric vehicle) with gasoline,diesel, ethanol, or
there was a warning. The normal routine is electric plant.
perception, realization, or recognition, decision, CROSSWALKS - are designed to keep
and action. pedestrians together where they can be seen by
POSSIBLE PERCEPTION - is a link in the motorists, and where they can cross most safely
accident chain dealing with the reaction of a across the flow of vehicular traffic.
normal person. Prompt perception occurs when DEFENSIVE DRIVING – is an act of driving
possible and actual perception are very close. while preventing accidents despite of the wrong
Maximum delayed perception occurs when actions of others aggravated by the existence of
actual perception is delayed until impact shock adverse driving conditions. Which requires
alerts the driver.. knowledge, alertness, foresight, judgment and
ENCROACHMENT – is the movement of a skill.
vehicle into the path assigned to the other traffic FERDINAND VERBIEST - a member of a
unit. Jesuit mission in China, built the first steam-
EVASIVE ACTION – is the first action taken powered vehicle around 1672 which was of
by a traffic unit to escape from a collision small scale and designed as a toy for the
course or otherwise avoid the hazard. Chinese Emperor, that was unable to carry
POINT OF NO ESCAPE – is that location and a driver or a passenger, but quite possibly, was
that time after or beyond which an accident the first working steam-powered vehicle.
cannot be prevented by the driver or pedestrian. FORCE MAJURE – is an inevitable accident
INITIAL CONTACT – it is the first accidental or casualty, an accident produced by any
touching of an object collided with by a traffic physical cause which is irresistible. In other
unit in motion. words it is an Act of Man, such robbery, fire,
MAXIMUM ENGAGEMENT – is the greatest fault, negligence, rebellion, etc.
collapse or overlap in a collision. FORTUITOUS EVENT – an event which
DISENGAGEMENT – is the separation of a takes place by accident and could not have been
traffic unit in motion from an object with which foreseen. In other words it is an Act of God
it has collided. which could neither be foreseen nor resisted,
FINAL REST OF STOPPING – it usually such as earthquake, lightning, flood, and the
stabilizes the accident situation where both like.
vehicles in a collision has ceases its force, and FRANCOIS ISAAC DE RIVAZ - A French
stopping may occur with or without control by and Swiss national who invented a hydrogen
the driver or pedestrian. powered internal combustion engine with
electric ignition and described it in a French
CLASSIFICATION OF ROAD patent published in 1807. In 1808 he fitted it
1. National Road into a primitive working vehicle the world's first
2. Provincial Road internal combustion powered automobile.
3. City Road FUEL CELL HYBRID VEHICLE - FCHV
was developed by Toyota in 2005. The vehicle KARL FRIEDRICH BENZ - was a German
is powered by the chemical reaction between engine designer and car engineer, generally
hydrogen and oxygen to power the motor regarded as the inventor of the first automobile
driving the vehicle. powered by an internal combustion engine, and
GENEVA CONVENTION ON ROAD together with Bertha Benz, pioneering founder
TRAFFIC - September 19, 1949. Promotes the of the automobile manufacturer Mercedes-Benz.
development and safety of international road LAST CLEAR CHANCE - it means that the
traffic by establishing certain uniform rules. driver who is in the better position to prevent the
GOTTLIEB DAIMLER - He invented the accident shoulders the responsibility of
high-speed petrol engine.He is also thought to preventing the accident. The last clear chance
have invented the first real motorcycle in 1885. principle is always applied in any traffic
GUSTAVE TROUVE - In November 1881, accidental investigation in order to justify
Trouvé demonstrated a working three-wheeled penalized the driver who was not defensive in
electric automobile at the International its driving.
Exhibition of Electricity in Paris. LESTER WIRE - a policeman in Salt Lake
HIT-AND-RUN - is the act of causing (or City, Utah. He developed the first electric traffic
contributing to) a traffic accident (such as light in 1912 which used red-green.
colliding with a person or a fixture), and failing MACADAM - is a type of road construction
to stop and identify oneself afterwards. It is pioneered by Scottish engineer John Loudon
considered a crime in most jurisdictions. McAdam around 1820. The method simplified
CHARACTERISTICS OF HIT-AND RUN what had been considered state of the art at that
DRIVERS point. Single-sized aggregate layers of small
1. After living the scene, he dreads or frighten of stones, with a coating of binder as a cementing
being caught. agent, are mixed in an open-structured roadway.
2. He may have left the accident scene because MESOPOTAMIA - (Present Iraq) location of
he was shocked, injured, or intoxicated. the oldest constructed roads discovered to date.
3. He may have been too confused to know he The stoned paved streets date back to about
was doing. 4000 BC, in the Mesopotamia cities of Ur and
4. He may have a long record of violations or Babylon.
accidents and therefore a terrible fear of getting MILESTONE - The earliest road signs, giving
further involve with the law. distance or direction. milestone is one of a series
5. More often, he fears financial loss specially if of numbered markers placed along a road or
he does not have liability insurance. boundary at intervals of one mile or
6. Hit-and run drivers do not have a establish occasionally, parts of a mile. They are typically
method of operation unlike criminals. located at the side of the road or in a median.
MOTOR CAR ACT 1903 - introduced
IMPRUDENCE – indicates deficiency of registration of motor cars and licensing of
action. If a person fails to take the necessary drivers in the United Kingdom and increased the
precaution to avoid injury to a person or damage speed limit.
to property, there is imprudence. Imprudence MOTOR VEHICLE – shall mean any vehicle
usually involves lack of skill. propelled by any power other than muscular
IVAN KULIBIN - a Russian mechanic and power using the public highways, but exempting
inventor, he developed in 1971 a human- road rollers, trolley cars, street sweepers,
pedalled, three-wheeled carriage with modern bulldozers, graders, fork-lifts, cranes, vehicles
features such as a flywheel, brake, gear box, and which runs only on rails or tracks, tractors,
bearings. trailers, and traction engine.
NEGLIGENCE – indicates a deficiency of markings used in traffic islands in order to warn
perception. If a person fails to pay proper the driver of the traffic island on the road and
attention to use due diligence in foreseeing the aids the motorist to its traffic lane.
injury or damage impending to be caused there 5. PAINTED CROSSWALK – are placed at
in negligence. Negligence usually involves lack intersections and other places where there is
of skill. considerable pedestrians traffic to provide
NICOLAS-JOSEPH CUGNOT - was a pedestrians with safety zones when crossing.
French inventor. He is known to have built the 6. BROKEN WHITE LINES – is used to
first working self-propelled mechanical vehicle, define or separate traffic lanes. It permits
the world's first automobile. crossing from one lane to another if there is
NIKOLAUS AUGUST OTTO - the German ample passing distance, and if the opposing lane
inventor of the first internal-combustion engine is clear of traffic.
to efficiently burn fuel directly in a piston 7. SOLID WHITE LINE – is used to separate
chamber. opposing streams of traffic. Crossing is unlawful
PARIS - in 1964, first time that police women except where ample distance exists and where
were used for traffic control duties. the opposing traffic lane is clear of traffic.
PAVEMENT MARKINGS – are markings on 8. SOLID YELLOW LINE – is your driving
the roads and surfaces whereby a message is lane prohibits you from passing other vehicles.
conveyed by means of words or symbols, 9. DOUBLE YELLOW LINE – indicates two
officially reflected for the purpose of regulating, way traffic; were crossing of pedestrian and
warning and guiding traffic. motorist is not allowed. It separates the
MAY INDICATE A NUMBER OF THINGS opposing flow of traffic.
LIKE 10.BROKEN YELLOW LINES – is a two
1. Where lanes are divided way/highway which means no overtaking or
2. Where you may pass other vehicles passing is permitted only when the road ahead is
3. Where you may change lanes or which lane to clear.
use for turns 11.STOP LINE – it indicates where stop should
4. Where pedestrian walkways are located be made.
5. Where you may stop for traffic signs and
traffic signals PD 96 - A law declaring unlawful the use or
attachment of sirens, bells, horns, Whistles or
TYPES OF PAVEMENT MARKINGS similar gadgets that emit exceptionally loud or
1. CURVE MARKINGS – are used to show startling sounds, including dome lights and other
where parking is legally prohibited or not signalling or flashing devices on motor vehicles.
allowed, such Bus Stop, or in front of `a fire (January 13, 1973)
hydrant, drive way. Excemptions - Motor Vehicles designated for
2. OBJECT MARKINGS – are painted on official use by the
fixed poles, and on vertical ends of bridges and 1. AFP
ports to avoid accidents. 2. NBI
3. REFLECTORIZED MARKINGS – are 3. LTO
used to mark hazardous area and also used as 4. PNP
delineators or road limits, these delineators are 5. BFP
aids especially during night driving, particularly 6. Hospital Ambulances
when the alignment of a road changes and might
confused the operator of the vehicle. PENALTY
4. STRIPED CURB MARKINGS – are 1. CONFISCATION - 1st offense
2. IMPRISONMENT - 6 months and/or Fine. - PROHIBITED
2nd and succeeding offenses. 1. Within an intersection
3. Cancellation or Revocation or Certificate of 2. On a crosswalk
Registration 3. Within six meters of the intersection of curb
lines.
PD 1911 - a law authorizing the disposal of of 4. Within four meters of the driveways entrance
unclaimed recovered and impounded carnapped to any fire station.
motor vehicles. 5. Within four meters of a fire hydrant.
This law provides that all carnapped or stolen 6. In front of a private driveway
motor vehicle, recovered and impound by law 7. On the roadway side of any vehicle stopped
enforcement agencies which after a period of or parked at the curb or edge of the highway.
three (3) months from the date of its 8. At any place where official signs have been
seizure/recovery have remained unclaimed or erected prohibiting parking.
whose real owners could no longer be
determined or established because the original PNP HIGHWAY PATROL GROUP - is an
numbers of the motor engine or chassis numbers operational support unit of the PNP in charged
could no longer be determined and restored, are of anti-carnapping, highway robbery and hi-
considered as abandoned motor vehicles and jacking incidents. Formerly called Traffic
shall be sold and disposed of by the Chief PNP Management Group. Traffic Management in
or his authorized representative in a public Metro Manila is managed by the MMDA.
auction. PROFESSIONAL DRIVER – shall mean
In all cases before any public auction is effected, every and any driver hired or paid for driving or
there shall be published once a week for three operating a motor vehicle, whether for private
(3) consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general use or for public.
circulation in the Philippines or in the place CATEGORIES OF DRIVERS
where it was recovered or found, a description 1. Tourist
of the motor vehicles intended to be auctioned 2. International Driver
with a notice that after the lapse of one month 3. Government
from the date of the last publication, should no 4. Professional
person file a claim for the recovery of the same, 5. Non-professional
said motor vehicles will be sold at public 6. Student Permit
auction.
PEDESTRIAN CROSSING - is a place RA 4136 - the Land Transportation and Traffic
designated for pedestrians to cross a road. Code.
PIERRE-MARIE-JÉRÔME TRÉSAGUET - RA 6539 - Anti-Carnapping Act of 1972. An act
was a French engineer. He is widely credited preventing and penalizing carnapping. (repealed
with establishing the first scientific approach to by RA 10883)
road building about the year 1764. Proposed a CARNAPPING - is the taking, with intent to
method of construction relying on a firm well- gain, of a motor vehicle belonging to another
drained foundation of large rocks topped by without the latter's consent, or by means of
progressively smaller ones, forming a convex violence against or intimidation of persons, or
surface to make it more impervious to water. He by using force upon things.
is sometimes considered the first person to bring ROAD INTELLIGENCE – Unusual points of
post-Roman science to road building. serious congestion must be noted. Note and
report unnecessary delay at stop signs or signals
PLACES WHERE PARKING IS which are installed when traffic is heavier. Note
and report congestion that ties up traffic for a a sliding tire.
block or more. 8. SCRUB OF TIRE DURING COLLISION
SKID MARKS - are marks caused by tires on – collision of cars usually cause the wheel to
roads which occur when a vehicle wheel stops jam and prevents it from turning. If the vehicles
rolling and slides or spins on the surface of the are moving there will be a heavy scrubbing
road. action between tire and road surface.
IMPORTANCE OF SKID MARK IN 9. FURROW – is a ploughed depression made
TRAFFIC ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION by a sliding tire with material piled-up on each
Skid marks can be analyzed to find the sides and usually at the end. If the soil is smooth
maximum and minimum vehicle speed prior to and sticky, there may be soft material smear in
an impact or incident. the bottom of the rut.
PERMANENT CONSULTANTS OF THE They shall have a rank of Assistant Secretary and
DDB both are appointed by the President of the
Director of the NBI Philippines upon recommendation of the board.
Chief of the PNP
MANDATORY SERVICES OF THE PDEA
PDEA - implementing arm of the DDB. 1. Intelligence and Investigation
2. International Cooperation and Foreign
QUALIFICATION OF THE 3 PERMANENT Affairs
MEMBERS OF THE DDB 3. Preventive Education and Community
- at least 7 years training and experience in the Involvement
field of dangerous drugs and in any of the 4. Plans and Operation
following fields: 5. Compliance, Legal and Prosecution
law,medicine,criminology,psychology or social 6. Administrative and Human Resource
work.They are appointed by the President. 7. Financial Management
The President shall designate a Chairman of the 8. Logistic Management
DDB from among the 3 permanent members 9. Internal Affairs
who shall serve for 6 years.
The Chairman of the DDB shall have a rank of PDEA shall establish regional offices.
Under Secretary. PDEA ACADEMY - Shall be established either
Term of office of the permanent members of the in Baguio City or Tagaytay City and in such
DDB - 6 years and until their successors shall other places as may be necessary.
have been duly appointed and qualified.
The PDEA shall be headed by a Director General PDEA Academy shall be headed by a
with the rank of undersecretary. Superintendent with the rank of Director. He
The PDEA Director General shall be appointed shall be appointed by the PDEA Director
by the President of the Philippines. General.
Iran
3 PRONGED APPROACHED IN THE India
SOLUTION OF DRUG PROBLEMS
1. Law enforcement activities CLASSIFICATION OF DRUG
2. Preventive Drug Education and Information USER/ABUSER
program in school and in communities. SITUATIONAL USER - those who use drugs
3. Treatment and Rehabilitation programs for to keep them awake or for additional energy to
drug dependent. perform an important work. Such individual may
or may not exhibit psychological dependence.
CLASSIFICATION OF DRUGS SPREE USER - school age user who take drugs
ACCORDING TO EFFECT for "kicks", adventure, daring experience or a
DEPRESSANT - "downers" - a drug reducing means of fun.
functional or nervous activity. Lower the level of HARDCORE ADDICTS - those whose
arousal when taken. activities revolves almost entirely around drug
STIMULANTS - "Uppers" - increase mental use and securing supplies. They show strong
and/or physical function. A substance that raises psychological dependence on the drug.
the levels of physiological or nervous activity in HIPPIES - Those who are addicted to drugs
the body. believing that drug is an integral part of life.
HALLUCINOGENS - "psychedelics" - a drug
that causes hallucinations. Psychoactive drugs COMMONLY ABUSED DRUGS:
that cause subjective change in SEDATIVES - are depressant drugs which
perception,thought,emotion and consciousness. reduce anxiety and excitement such as
barbiturates, tranquilizers and alcohol.
CLASSIFICATION OF DRUGS STIMULANTS - are drugs which increase
ACCORDING TO PHARMACOLOGY alertness and activity such as amphetamine,
Depressants cocaine and caffeine.
Narcotics HALLUCINOGEN/PSYCHEDELICS - drugs
Tranquilizers which affect sensation,thinking,self awareness
Stimulants and emotion.
Hallucinogens NARCOTICS - drugs that relieve pain and often
Solvents/Inhalants induce sleep. This includes opium and its
derivatives like morphine,codeine and heroin.
CLASSIFICATIONS OF DRUGS SOLVENTS - volatile substances which are
ACCORDING TO LEGAL CATEGORIES found to be the most commonly abused.
Prohibited Drugs
Regulated Drugs PRIMARY CAUSES OF DRUG
Volatile substances ADDICTION:
PRIDE - excessive feeling of self worth or self
GOLDEN TRIANGLE OF DRUG esteem or sense of self importance.
TRAFFICKING ANGER - against, himself,family,friends and
Laos society in general.
Thailand LUST - burning sexual desire can distort the
Burma human mind to drug abuse.
GLUTTONY - "food trip" in the lingo of
THE GOLDEN CRESCENT junkies.
Afghanistan GREED - wealth,fame,recognition as
Pakistan
exemplified by people under pressure in their Irritability
work of art such as musician,actors and athletes Lots of cans,aerosols in the trash
who indulge in rug abuse. 5 . HALLUCINOGENS - ex. LSD, PCP
ENVY - to get attention from someone as sign of Dilated pupils
protest. Bizarre and irrational behavior including
LAZINESS - "i cant syndrome" incapacity to paranoia, aggression, hallucination
achieve is a breeding ground of drug abuse and Mood swings
boredom coupled with poor self image. Detachment from people
Absorption with self or other objects
WARNING SIGNS OF COMMONLY Slurred speech
ABUSED DRUGS Confusion
1. MARIJUANA 6. HEROIN
Glassy red eye Contracted pupils
Loud talking No response of pupils to light
Inappropriate laughter followed by sleepiness Needle marks
Loss of interest, motivation Sleeping at unusual time
Weight gain or loss Sweating
2. DEPRESSANT Vomiting
Contracted pupils Coughing, shiffling
Drunk-like Twitching
Difficulty concentrating Loss of appetite
Clumsiness 7. ALCOHOL
Poor judgement Clumsiness
3. STIMULANTS - ex. cocaine, amphetamines Difficulty walking
Dilated pupils Slurred speech
Hyperactivity Sleepiness
Euphoria Poor judgement
Irritability Dilated pupils
Anxiety Possession of false id cards
Excessive talking followed by depression or 8. TOBACCO/NICOTINE
excessive sleeping Smell of tobacco
May go long period of time without eating or Stained fingers or teeth
sleeping
Weight loss ANALGESIC - any drugs such as salicylates,
Dry mouth and nose morphine or opiates used primarily for the relief
4. INHALANTS - ex. glues, aerosols, vapors of pain.
Watery eyes ACUTE TOLERANCE - The development of
Impaired vision, memory and thought tolerance within the course of a single exposure
Secretions from the nose or rashes around the to a drug.
nose and mouth ADDICTION - Implies a very severe form of
Head aches and nausea dependence, one involving an overwhelming
Appearance of intoxication compulsion for the use of a particular drug.
Drowsiness ADULTERANT - Material used to increase the
Poor muscle control mass of a controlled substance. Adulterants
Changes in appetite produce physiological effects and give the
Anxiety illusion that more controlled substance is
present than its actual content. Secobarbital. Intoxication can result in lethargy,
ALKALOID - One of a group of nitrogenous confusion, disorientation, and ataxia.
organic bases, especially one of vegetable CANNABIDIOL - A constituent of cannabis,
origin, having a powerful toxic effect on which, upon isomerization to a
animals and man, such as nicotine, cocaine, tetrahydrocannabinol, has some of the
strychnine, or morphine. physiologic activity of marijuana.
AMITRIPTYLINE - A tricyclic antidepressant CANNABINOL - (C21H26O2) A
drug, found to impair skilled performance and to physiologically inactive phenol formed by
be additive with ethanol in its adverse effects. spontaneous dehydrogenation of
AMOBARBITAL - A barbiturate derivative tetrahydrocannabinol from cannabis.
used as a sedative or hypnotic; available in CANNABIS - A genus of tall annual herbs in
ampules for intravenous or intramuscular the family Cannabaccae having erect stems,
injection for the control of seizures. with 3 to 7 elongated leaflets and pistillate
AMPHETAMINE - A drug that is flowers in spikes along the stem. Commonly
representative of a class of structurally related known as marijuana or sometimes referred to on
compounds known as phenethylamines. Basis of the street as grass or pot.
a group of hallucinogenic,habit-forming drugs CHRONIC - Persistent, prolonged, repeated.
that affect the central nervous system.The sale CHRONIC EFFECT - A pathologic process
and use restricted to physicians; trade name caused by repeated exposures over a period of
Benzedrine. long duration.
ANALGESIC - Any drugs, such as salicylates, CHRONIC TOLERANCE - The gradual
morphine, or opiates used primarily for the decrease in degree of effect produced at the
relief of pain. same blood concentration in the course of
ANAPHYLAXIS - An allergic hypersensitivity repeated exposure to that drug.
reaction of the body to a foreign protein or drug. COCAINE - A colorless to white crystalline
ANTIDEPRESSANT - A drug, such as powder. Used as a local anesthetic (medicine or
imipramine and tranylcypromine, that relieves dentistry), usually as the hydrochloride. Also
depression by increasing central sympathetic known by street names, such as coke, snow, or
activity. freebase.
ANTISERA - Injecting human serum into CODEINE - A narcotic alkaloid that is used in
various animals, such as the horse, goat,sheep, medicine and cough syrups; highly toxic and
rabbit, duck, hen, or guinea pig, can produce habit-forming narcotic.
antihuman sera. CONCENTRATION - The amount of a
ANTISERUM - Any immune serum that substance in a stated unit of a mixture or
contains antibodies active chiefly in destroying solution. Common methods of stating
a specific infecting virus or bacterium. concentration are percent by weight,percent by
BARBITURATE - A derivative of barbituric volume, or weight per unit volume. Amount of a
acid that produces depression of the central drug in a unit volume of biological fluid,
nervous system and consequent sedation. expressed as weight/volume.
BENZOYLECOGNINE - A cocaine CONFIRMATORY TEST - Second test by an
metabolite. alternative chemical method for unambiguous
BUTABARBITAL - A short- to intermediate- identification of a drug or metabolite.
acting barbiturate derivative. CRACK - Concentrated form of cocaine, which
BUTALBITAL - An occasionally encountered is used in vapor form. It is smoked or inhaled
short-acting barbiturate closely related to through crack pipes. It is a highly addictive drug
Talbutal and less closely to Amobarbital and that causes psychotic behavior, which is often
violent. Almost pure form of the drug cocaine MEPERIDINE HYDROCHLORIDE - A
hydrochloride, obtained from a shrub native to fine, white, odorless, crystalline powder; very
Bolivia and Peru. It can cause increased soluble in water, soluble in alcohol, and used in
alertness and energy, runny nose, and decreased medicine as a narcotic.
appetite when snorted, injected, or smoked. METHADONE HYDROCHLORIDE - A
CUT-OFF CONCENTRATION - synthetic narcotic. Used medicinally as a
Concentration of a drug in a specimen or sample sedative and also useful in treating heroin
used to determine whether the specimen or addiction.
sample is considered positive or negative. In METHAMPHETAMINE - Colorless, volatile
some circumstances it is recommended that the liquid; characteristic strong odor and slightly
cut-off concentration should be set equal to the burning taste. Highly toxic, flammable, as well
limit of detection. as a dangerous fire risk. Basis of a group of
DEPRESSANTS - Drugs that depress the hallucinogenic, habit-forming drugs that affect
action of the central nervous system such as the central nervous system.
phenobarbital, pentobarbital, and alcohol. MORPHINE - White crystalline alkaloid,
DESIGNER DRUGS - Drugs that are produced slightly soluble in water, alcohol, and ether;
illicitly by means of chemical technology.They highly toxic, narcotic, habit-forming drug.
can cause uncontrollable tremors, chills, or MUSHROOM - (Drugs) Umbrella-shaped
sweating and faintness and paranoia when fungus, some varieties of which contain a drug
injected or taken in pill form. that can cause hyperventilation, tremors, and
DIAZEPAM - (valium) The second hyperactivity when the fungus is chewed,
benzodiazepine derivative to have been smoked, or ground and infused in water and
approved for human usage has been one of the drunk as a tea.
most frequently prescribed drugs in the United NARCOTIC - Pharmacologically, any
States. It is administered as an antianxiety substance that produces narcosis, a stuporous
agent,muscle relaxant, or anticonvulsant. state resembling sleep, and characterized by loss
DRUG - Any natural or synthetic substance that of sensation. Addictive substance that reduces
is administered to produce specific pain, alters mood and behavior, and usually
physiological or psychological effects. induces sleep or stupor.
DRUG ABUSE - The nonmedicinal use of a OPIATES - Natural, semi-synthetic, or
drug in a manner that is not socially acceptable. synthetic substances with morphine-like effects
DRUG DEPENDENCE - The primary hazard in the body. They are primarily employed as
of the abusive use of drugs is the likelihood for analgesics and can be considered narcotic in
some individuals to develop a “need” or their effects.
compulsive desire that may occur as a result of a OPIUM - A highly toxic plant alkaloid that is a
psychological or a physical craving. habit-forming narcotic; one source of opium is
HALLUCINOGENS - Drugs like marijuana, morphine.
LSD, PSP, and ecstasy that produce changes in OVERDOSE - An excessive dose of medicine
mood, thought and perception. or narcotic substance.
HASHISH - Purified resin prepared from the PeyOTE - The common name for the small
flowering tops of the female cannabis plant and Mexican cactus, Lophophora williamsii,which
smoked or chewed as a narcotic or an intoxicant. contains the hallucinogen, mescaline.
IMPRAMINE - The prototype of the tricyclic PHARMACODYNAMICS - The study of the
antidepressant drugs. relationship of drug concentration to drug
MARIJUANA - Popular name for the dried effects.
flowers and leaves of Cannabis sativa. PHARMACOKINETICS - The study of the
time course of the processes can cause weight loss, increased respiration and
(absorption,distribution, metabolism, and heart rate, blurred vision, and anxiety when
excretion) a drug undergoes in the body. snorted,injected, smoked, or swallowed in
PHARMACOLOGIC - Relating to the study capsule, tablet, or pill form.
of drugs and their origin, natural properties,and STRYCHNINE - An alkaloid found together
effects on living organisms. with the less active brucine in the seed of
PHENCYCLIDINE (PCP) - Has an anesthetic Strychnos nux-vomica, a tree indigenous to
activity and is manufactured legitimately for use India. It is a potent central nervous system
as a veterinary anesthetic. It has no legitimate stimulant and convulsant, acting by the selective
use in humans because of its hallucinogenic blockage of postsynaptic neuronal inhibition.
actions. The effects on humans are considered SUBSTANCE ABUSE - Use of alcohol or
euphoric, but at times depression or anxiety and drugs that results in adverse effects on the user.
aggressive behavior are produced. Common Substance abuse is a major health and social
street names are PCP, peace pill,hog, and angel problem in the United States among adolescents.
dust. TOLERANCE - A state that develops after
PICKING - Adherence of a drug to the face of long-term exposure to a drug. Metabolic
the punch used to produce a tablet.Picking tolerance infers a faster removal and oxidation
creates holes in the surfaces of pressed tablets, by the liver. Functional tolerance infers a
usually near letters such as A or R. change in sensitivity of the organ to the effects
PROPOXYPHENE - A mildly effective of the drug.
narcotic analgesic, somewhat less potent than
codeine, that bears a close structural relationship
to methadone.
QUALITATIVE TEST - A test that determines F. FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON
the presence or absence of specific drugs or INVESTIGATION
metabolites, proteins, or enzymes in the 3 STATES OF MATTER
specimen or sample. Solid
QUININE - Bulky, white, amorphous powder Liquid
or crystalline alkaloid; very bitter taste; odorless Gas
and levorotatory. Used in medicine as an
antimalarial drug. 4 GENERAL CATEGORIES OF HEAT
SECOBARBITAL - A barbiturate derivative of ENERGY
short duration of action; used as either a Chemical Heat Energy
sedative or hypnotic. Electrical Heat Energy
SOLVENT - A substance capable of dissolving Mechanical Heat Energy
another substance (solute) to form a uniformly Nuclear Heat Energy
dispersed mixture (solution) at the molecular or
ionic size level. BACKDRAFT - a phenomenon in which a fire
STIMULANTS - Drugs that increase the that has consumed all available oxygen
activity of the central nervous system, creating suddenly explodes when more oxygen is made
feelings of confidence and energy. A drug that available, typically because a door or window
produces a temporary increase of functional has been opened.
activity or efficiency. A drug that increases BOILING POINT - The temperature of a
alertness and motor activity and, at the same substance where the rate of evaporation exceeds
time, reduces fatigue, allowing the individual to the rate of condensation.
remain awake for an extended period of time. It BRITISH THERMAL UNIT - (BTU) The
amount of heat needed to raise the temperature oxidizing agent along with the evolution of heat
of one pound of water one degree F. and light.
CALORIE - The amount of heat needed to DRY CHEMICALS AND HALONS - method
raise the temperature of one gram of water one of fire extinguishment, interrupt the flame
degree Centigrade. producing chemical reaction, resulting in rapid
CENTIGRADE - (Celcius) On the Centigrade extinguishment.
scale, zero is the melting point of ice; 100
degrees is the boiling point of water. ELECTRICAL HEAT ENERGY
DIELECTRIC HEATING - The heating that
CHEMICAL HEAT ENERGY results from the action of either pulsating direct
HEAT OF COMBUSTION - The amount of current, or alternating current at high frequency
heat generated by the combustion (oxidation) on a non-conductive material.
process. HEAT FROM ARCING - Heat released either
HEAT OF DECOMPOSITION - The release as a high-temperature arc or as molten material
of heat from decomposing compounds. These from the conductor.
compounds may be unstable and release their HEAT GENERATED BY LIGHTNING -
heat very quickly or they may detonate. The heat generated by the discharged of
HEAT OF SOLUTION - The heat released by thousands of volts from either earth to cloud,
the mixture of matter in a liquid. Some acids, cloud to cloud or from cloud to ground.
when dissolved, give off sufficient heat to pose INDUCTION HEATING - The heating of
exposure problems to nearby combustibles. materials resulting from an alternating current
SPONTANEOUS HEATING - The heating of flow causing a magnetic field influence.
an organic substance without the addition of LEAKAGE CURRENT HEATING - The heat
external heat. Spontaneous heating occurs most resulting from imperfect or improperly insulated
frequently where sufficient air is not present to electrical materials. This is particularly evident
dissipate the heat produced. The speed of a where the insulation is required to handle high
heating reaction doubles with each 180 F (80 C) voltage or loads near maximum capacity.
temperature increase. RESISTANCE HEATING - The heat
generated by passing an electrical force through
CLASSIFICATION OF FIRES a conductor such as a wire or an appliance.
CLASS A FIRE - Fires involving ordinary STATIC ELECTRICITY HEATING - Heat
combustible materials, such as wood, cloth, released as an arc between oppositely charged
paper, rubber and many plastics. surfaces. Static electricity can be generated by
CLASS B FIRES - Fires involving flammable the contact and separation of charged surfaces or
liquids, greases and gases. by fluids flowing through pipes.
CLASS C FIRES - Fires involving energized
electrical equipment. ENDOTHERMIC HEAT REACTION - A
CLASS D FIRES - Fires involving combustible chemical reaction where a substance absorbs
metals, such as magnesium, titanium, zirconium, heat energy.
sodium and potassium. EXOTHERMIC HEAT REACTION - A
CLASS K FIRES - Class K is a new chemical reaction where a substance gives off
classification of fire as of 1998 and involves heat energy.
fires in combustible cooking fuels such as FAHRENHEIT - On the Fahrenheit scale, 32
vegetable or animal fats. degrees is the melting point of ice; 212 degrees
is the boiling point of water.
COMBUSTION - is the self-sustaining process FIRE POINT - The temperature at which a
of rapid oxidation of a fuel being reduced by an
liquid fuel will produce vapors sufficient to heat generated by the combustion (oxidation)
support combustion once ignited. The fire point process.
is usually a few degrees above the flash point.
FIRE TRIANGLE - Oxygen, Fuel, Heat HEAT TRANSFER
FIRE NATIONAL TRAINING INSTITUTE CONDUCTION - Conduction is the transfer of
- (FNTI) the Institution for training on human energy through matter from particle to particle.
resource development of all personnel of the Heat may be conducted from one body to
Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP). another by direct contact of the two bodies or by
FLAME - A gas-phased combustion. an intervening heat-conducting medium.
FLAMMABLE OR EXPLOSIVE LIMIT - CONVECTION - is the transfer of heat by the
The percentage of a substance in air that will actual movement of the warmed matter.
burn once it is ignited. Most substances have an Transfer of heat by the movement of air or
upper (too rich) and a lower (too lean) liquid.
flammable limit. RADIATION - Electromagnetic waves that
FLASHOVER - an instance of a fire spreading directly transport energy through space.
very rapidly across a gap because of intense
heat. Occurs when a room or other area becomes IGNITION TEMPERATURE - The minimum
heated to the point where flames flash over the temperature to which a fuel in air must be
entire surface or area. heated in order to start self-sustained
FLASH POINT - The minimum temperature at combustion independent of the heating source.
which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapors to HEAT - The form of energy that raises
form an ignitable mixture with the air near the temperature. Heat is measured by the amount of
surface. At this temperature, the ignited vapors work it does.
will flash, but will not continue to burn. HEAT OF DECOMPOSITION - The release
FUEL - is the material or substance being of heat from decomposing compounds. These
oxidized or burned in the combustion process. compounds may be unstable and release their
Material such as coal, gas, or oil that is burned heat very quickly or they may detonate.
to produce heat or power. HEAT OF SOLUTION - The heat released by
FUEL REMOVAL - method of fire the mixture of matter in a liquid. Some acids,
extinguishment, fire is effectively extinguished when dissolved, give off sufficient heat to pose
by removing the fuel source. This may be exposure problems to nearby combustibles.
accomplished by stopping the flow of liquid or
gaseous fuel or by removing solid fuel in the MECHANICAL HEAT ENERGY
path of the fire or allow the fire to burn until all FRICTIONAL HEAT - The heat generated by
fuel is consumed. the movement between two objects in contact
GLOWING COMBUSTION - A condensed with each other.
phased combustion. FRICTION SPARKS - The heat generated in
HEAT - the quality of being hot; high the form of sparks from solid objects striking
temperature. A form of energy arising from the each other. Most often at least one of the
random motion of the molecules of bodies, objects is metal.
which may be transferred by conduction, HEAT OF COMPRESSION - The heat
convection, or radiation. generated by the forced reduction of a gaseous
HEATING - is transfer of energy, from a hotter volume. Diesel engines ignite fuel vapor
body to a colder one, other than by work or without a spark plug by the use of this principle.
transfer of matter. NUCLEAR FISSION AND FUSION - The
HEAT OF COMBUSTION - The amount of heat generated by either the
splitting or combining of atoms. DIRECTORS OF THE DIRECTORATES
OXIDATION - The complex chemical reaction IN THE RESPECTIVE NATIONAL
of organic material with oxygen or other HEADQUARTERS OFFICE - rank is Senior
oxidizing agents in the formation of more stable Superintendent.
compounds. REGIONAL DIRECTOR FOR FIRE
OXIDIZING AGENTS - are those materials PROTECTION - The BFP shall establish,
that yield oxygen or other oxidizing gases operate and maintain their respective regional
during the course of a chemical reaction. offices in each of the administrative regions of
OXYGEN DILUTION - is the reduction of the the country. Rank is Senior Superintendent.
oxygen concentration to the fire area. - He/She shall be respectively assisted by the
following officers with the rank of
PHASES OF FIRE superintendent: Assistant Regional Director for
Incipient Phase (Growth Stage) Administration, Assistant Regional Director for
Free-Burning Phase (Fully Developed Stage) Operations, and Regional Chief of Directorial
Smoldering Phase (Decay Stage) Staff.
PRODUCTS OF COMBUSTION ASSISTANT REGIONAL DIRECTOR FOR
Fire gases FIRE PROTECTION – The assistant heads of
Flame the Department's regional offices – rank is
Heat Senior Superintendent.
Smoke DISTRICT FIRE MARSHALL - the heads of
the NCR district offices - rank is Senior
PYROLYSIS (also known as thermalde Superintendent.
composition) - is defined as the chemical PROVINCIAL FIRE MARSHALL - the
decomposition of matter through the action of heads of the provincial offices - rank is
heat. Superintendent.
DISTRICT FIRE MARSHALL - heads of the
RA 6975 - CREATED THE BFP. district offices – rank is Chief Inspector.
BUREAU OF FIRE PROTECTION (BFP) - CHIEF OF MUNICIPAL/CITY FIRE
administers and enforces the fire code of the STATION - (also called City/ Municipal Fire
Philippines. The Fire Bureau shall have the Marshall) - the heads of the municipal or city
power to investigate all causes of fires and, if stations - rank is Senior Inspector.
necessary, file the proper complaints with the FIRE STATION - at least one in every
city or provincial prosecutor who has provincial capital, city and municipality.
jurisdiction over the case. LGU - (Local Government Unit) - shall
CHIEF OF THE FIRE BUREAU - rank is provide the site of the Fire Station.
Director. RA 9263 - this Act shall be known as the
DEPUTY CHIEF FOR ADMINISTRATION "Bureau of Fire Protection and Bureau of Jail
OF THE FIRE BUREAU - 2nd highest officer Management and Penology Professionalization
in the BFP. Rank is Chief Superintendent. Act of 2004.
DEPUTY CHIEF FOR OPERATION OF
THE FIRE BUREAU - the 3rd highest officer The BFP is headed by a Chief to be assisted by
in the BFP. Rank is Chief Superintendent. 2 deputy chief, 1 for administration and 1 for
CHIEF OF DIRECTORIAL STAFF OF operation, all appointed by the President upon
THE FIRE BUREAU - 4th highest officer in recommendation of DILG Secretary from
the BFP. Rank is Chief Superintendent. among qualified officers with at least the rank of
Senior Superintendent in the service. CELLULOSE - A highly combustible and
explosive compound produced by the reaction
In no case shall any officer who has retired or is of nitric acid with a cellulose material.
retriable within six (6) months from his/her CELLULOSE NITRATE PLASTIC
compulsory retirement age be appointed as (Pyroxylin) - Any plastic substance, materials
Chief of the Fire Bureau or Chief of the Jail or compound having cellulose nitrate (nitro
Bureau. cellulose) as base.
COMBUSTIBLE, FLAMMABLE OR
The Chief of the Fire Bureau and Chief of the INFLAMMABLE - Descriptive of materials
Jail Bureau shall serve a tour of duty not to that are easily set on fire.
exceed four (4) years. COMBUSTIBLE FIBER - Any readily
ignitable and free burning fiber such as cotton,
The President may extend such tour of duty in oakum, rags, waste cloth, waste paper, kapok,
times of war or other national emergency hay, straw, Spanish moss, excelsior and other
declared by Congress. similar materials commonly used in commerce.
COMBUSTIBLE LIQUID - Any liquid having
RA 9514 - this act shall be known as the fire a flash point at or above 37.8 C (100 F).
code of the Philippines of 2008. An Act CORROSIVE LIQUID - Any liquid which
establishing a comprehensive fire code of the causes fire when in contact with organic matter
Philippines repealing PD 1185 and for other or with certain chemicals.
purposes. CURTAIN BOARD - A vertical panel of non-
SPECIFIC GRAVITY - the density of liquids combustible or fire resistive materials attached
in relation to water. to and extending below the bottom chord of the
SPONTANEOUS HEATING - The heating of roof trusses, to divide the underside of the roof
an organic substance without the addition of into separate compartments so that heat and
external heat. Spontaneous heating occurs most smoke will be directed upwards to a roof vent.
frequently where sufficient air is not present to CRYOGENIC - Descriptive of any material
dissipate the heat produced. which by its nature or as a result of its reaction
TEMPERATURE REDUCTION - method of with other elements produces a rapid drop in
extinguishing fire, cooling the fuel with water temperature of the immediate surroundings.
to a point where it does not produce sufficient DAMPER - A normally open device installed
vapor to burn. inside an air duct system which automatically
VAPOR DENSITY - the density of a particular closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire.
gas or vapor relative to that of hydrogen at the DISTILLATION - The process of first raising
same pressure and temperature. the temperature in separate the more volatile
from the less volatile parts and then cooling and
DEFINITION OF TERMS UNDER RA 9514 condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce
ABATEMENT - Any act that would remove or a nearly purified substance.
neutralize a fire hazard. DUCT SYSTEM - A continuous passageway
ADMINISTRATOR - Any person who acts as for the transmission of air.
agent of the owner and ma nages the use of a DUST - A finely powdered substance which,
building for him. when mixed with air in the proper proportion
BLASTING AGENT - Any material or mixture and ignited will cause an explosion.
consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off ELECTRICAL ARC - An extremely hot
explosives. luminous bridge formed by passage of an
CELLULOSE NITRATE OR NITRO electric current across a space between two
conductors or terminals due to the integral to and incorporated into a building or
incandescence of the conducting vapor. structure in order to minimize danger to life
EMBER - A hot piece or lump that remains from fire, smoke, fumes or panic before the
after a material has partially burned, and is still building is evacuated. These features are also
oxidizing without the manifestation of flames. designed to achieve, among others, safe and
FINISHES - Materials used as final coating of a rapid evacuation of people through means of
surface for ornamental or protective purposes. egress sealed from smoke or fire, the
FIRE - The active principle of burning, confinement of fire or smoke in the room or
characterized by the heat and light of floor of origin and de lay their spread to other
combustion. parts of the building by means of smoke sealed
FIRE TRAP - A building unsafe in case of fire and fire resistant doors, walls and floors.It shall
because it will burn easily or because it lacks also me an to include the treatment of buildings
adequate exits or fire escapes. components or contents with flame retardant
FIRE ALARM - Any visual or audible signal chemicals.
produced by a device or system to warm the FLASH POINT - The minimum temperature at
occupants of the building or fire fighting which any material gives off vapor in sufficient
elements of the presence or danger of fire to concentration to form an ignitable mixture with
enable them to undertake immediate action to air.
save life and property and to suppress the fire. FORCING - A process where a piece of metal
FIRE DOOR - A fire resistive door prescribed is heated prior to changing its shape or
for openings in fire separation walls or dimensions.
partitions. FULMINATE - A kind of stable explosive
FIRE HAZARD - Any condition or act which compound which explodes by percussion.
increases or may cause an increase in the HAZARDOUS OPERATION/PROCESS -
probability of the occurrence of fire, or which Any act of manufacturing, fabrication,
may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with fire conversion, etc., that uses or produces materials
fighting operations and the safeguarding of life which are likely to cause fires or explosion.
and property. HORIZONTAL EXIT - Passageway from one
FIRE LANE - The portion of a roadway or building to another or through or around a wall
public way that should be kept opened and in approximately the same floor level.
unobstructed at all times for the expedient HOSE BOX - A box or cabinet where fire
operation of fire fighting units. hoses, valves and other equipment are stored
FIRE PROTECTIVE AND FIRE SAFETY and arranged for fire fighting.
DEVICE - Any device intended for the HOSE REEL - A cylindrical device turning on
protection of buildings or persons to include but an axis around which a fire hose is wound and
not limited to built-in protection system such as connected.
sprinklers and other automatic extinguishing HYPERGOLIC FUEL - A rocket or liquid
system, detectors for heat, smoke and propellant which consist of combinations of
combustion products and other warning system fuels and oxidizers which ignite spontaneously
components, personal protective equipment such on contact with each other.
as fire blankets, helmets, fire suits, gloves and INDUSTRIAL BAKING AND DRYING -
other garments that may be put on or worn by The industrial process of subjecting
persons to protect themselves during fire. materials to heat for the purpose of removing
FIRE SAFETY CONSTRUCTIONS - Refers solvents or moisture from the same, and/or to
to design and installation of walls, barriers, fuse certain chemical salts to form a uniform
doors, windows, vents, means of egress, etc. glazing the surface of materials being treated.
JUMPER - A piece of metal or an electrical compound. It shall also refer to partial
conductor used to bypass a safety device in an distillation and electrolysis.
electrical system. SELF-CLOSING DOORS - Automatic closing
OCCUPANCY - The purpose for which a doors that are designed to confine smoke and
building or portion thereof is used or intended to heat and delay the spread of fire.
be used. SMELTING - Melting or fusing of metallic
OCCUPANT - Any person actually occupying ores or compounds so as to separate impurities
and using a building or portions thereof by from pure metals.
virtue of a lease contract with the owner or SPRINKLER SYSTEM - An integrated
administrator or by permission or sufferance of network of hydraulically designed piping
the latter. installed in a building, structure or area with
ORGANIC PEROXIDE - A strong oxidizing outlets arranged in a systematic pattern which
organic compound which releases oxygen automatically discharges water when activated
readily. It causes fire when in contact with by heat or combustion products from a fire.
combustible materials especially under STANDPIPE SYSTEM - A system of vertical
conditions of high temperature. pipes in a building to which fire hoses can be
OVERLOADING - The use of one or more attached on each floor, including a system by
electrical appliances or devices which draw or which water is made available to the outlets as
consume electrical current beyond the designed needed.
capacity of the existing electrical system. VESTIBULE - A passage hall or antechamber
OWNER - The person who holds the legal right between the outer doors and the interior parts of
of possession or title to a building or real a house or building.
property. VERTICAL SHAFT - An enclosed vertical
OXIDIZING MATERIAL - A material that space of passage that extends from floor to
readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to floor, as well as from the base to the top of the
stimulate or support combustion. building.
PRESSURIZED OR FORCED DRAFT
BURNING EQUIPMENT - Type or burner
where the fuel is subjected to pressure prior to
discharge into the combustion chamber and/or
which includes fans or other provisions for the
introduction of air at above normal atmosphere 5. CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
pressure into the same combustion chamber. A. INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
PUBLIC ASSEMBLY BUILDING - Any ALCATRAZ - a US federal penitentiary, Often
building or structure where fifty (50) or more referred to as "The Rock", the small island of
people congregate, gather, or assemble for any alcatraz was developed with facilities for a
purpose. lighthouse, a military fortification, a military
PUBLIC WAY - Any street, alley or other strip prison (1868), and a federal prison from 1933
of land unobstructed from the ground to the sky, until 1963.
deeded, dedicated or otherwise permanently ALEXANDER MACONOCHIE - was a
appropriated for public use. Scottish naval officer, geographer, and penal
PYROPHORIC - Descriptive of any substance reformer. He is known as the Father of Parole.
that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air.
REFINING - A process where impurities HIS 2 BASIC PRINCIPLE OF PENOLOGY
and/or deleterious materials are removed from a 1. As cruelty debases both the victim and
mixture in order to produce a pure element of society, punishment should not be vindictive but
should aim at the reform of the convict to BJMP DEPUTY CHIEF FOR
observe social constraints, and OPERATIONS - the 3rd highest ranking BJMP
2. A convict's imprisonment should consist of officer. Appointed by the President upon
task, not time sentences, with release depending recommendation of the DILG Secretary. Rank is
on the performance of a measurable amount of Chief Superintendent.
labour. BJMP CHIEF OF THE DIRECTORIAL
AUBURN PRISON - Constructed in 1816 , STAFF - the 4th highest BJMP officer.
(opened 1819) it was the second state prison in Appointed by the President upon
New York, the site of the first execution by recommendation of the DILG Secretary. Rank is
electric chair in 1890. It uses the silent or Chief Superintendents.
congregate system.
BANISHMENT - a punishment originating in BORSTAL - a custodial institution for young
ancient times, that required offenders to leave offenders.
the community and live elsewhere, commonly in BORSTAL SYSTEM - rehabilitation method
the wilderness. formerly used in Great Britain for delinquent
BJMP - (Bureau of Jail Management and boys aged 16 to 21. The idea originated (1895)
Penology) government agency mandated by law with the Gladstone Committee as an attempt to
(RA 6975) to take operational and reform young offenders. The first institution was
administrative control over all city, district and established (1902) at Borstal Prison, Kent,
municipal jails. It takes custody of detainees England.
accused before a court who are temporarily BRANDING - stigmatizing is the process in
confined in such jails while undergoing which a mark, usually a symbol or ornamental
investigation, waiting final judgement and those pattern, is burned into the skin of a living
who are serving sentence promulgated by the person, with the intention that the resulting scar
court 3 years and below. makes it permanent as a punishment or
- created Jan. 2, 1991. imposing masterly rights over an enslaved or
- Charles S. Mondejar - 1st BJMP chief. otherwise oppressed person.
- BJMP chief tour of duty, must not exceed 4 BRIDEWELL PRISON AND
years, maybe extended by President. Grounds: WORKHOUSE - was the first correctional
1. In times of war institution in England and was a precursor of the
2. other national emergencies. modern prison. Built initially as a royal
- Senior superintendent - the rank from which residence in 1523, Bridewell Palace was given
the BJMP chief is appointed. This is the rank of to the city of London to serve as the foundation
the BJMP Directors of the Directorates in the for as system of Houses of Correction known as
National Headquarters. This is also the rank of “Bridewells.” These institutions, eventually
the Regional Director for Jail Management and numbering 200 in Britain, housed vagrants,
Penology. homeless children, petty offenders, disorderly
CHIEF OF THE BJMP - Highest ranking women, prisoners of war, soldiers, and colonists
BJMP officer. Appointed by the President upon sent to Virginia.
recommendation of DILG Secretary. Rank is BRIDEWELL PRISON AND HOSPITAL -
Director. was established in a former royal palace in 1553
BJMP DEPUTY CHIEF FOR with two purposes: the punishment of the
ADMINISTRATION - the 2nd highest ranking disorderly poor and housing of homeless
BJMP officer. Appointed by the President upon children in the City of London.
recommendation of the DILG Secretary. Rank is BUREAU OF CORRECTIONS - has for its
Chief Superintendent. principal task the rehabilitation of national
prisoners, or those sentenced to serve a term of the world.
imprisonment of more than three years. CODE OF JUSTINIAN - formally Corpus
- has 7 prison facilities Juris Civilis (“Body of Civil Law”), Justinian I
- 1 prison institution for women the collections of laws and legal interpretations
- 1 vocational training centre for juveniles. developed under the sponsorship of the
- Classification Board - classifies inmates Byzantine emperor Justinian I from AD 529 to
according to their security status. 565.
- Reception and Diagnostic Centre - (RDC) COMMITMENT ORDER - is an act of
receives, studies and classifies inmates sending a person to prison by means of such a
committed to Bureau of Corrections. warrant or order.
- Board of Discipline - hears complaints and CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION -
grievances with regard to violations of prison the study and practice of a system of managing
rules and regulations. jails and prisons and other institutions
- Iwahig Penal Farm - established in 1904 upon concerned with the custody, treatment and
orders of Gov. Forbes, then the Sec. of rehabilitation of criminal offenders.
Commerce and police. CORRECTIONS - describes a variety of
- New Bilibid Prison - established in 1941 in functions typically carried out by government
Muntinlupa Camp Bukang Liwayway - agencies, and involving the punishment,
minimum security prison. Camp Sampaguita - treatment, and supervision of persons who have
medium security prison been convicted of crimes.
- Davao penal Colony - established jan 21, 1932 DEATH ROW - refers to incarcerated persons
(RA 3732) who have been sentenced to death and are
- Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm - established awaiting execution.
Sept.27, 1954 (Proclamation No.72) DETERRENCE - as contended by Cesare
location:Occidental Mindoro Beccaria, proponent of the classical theory, that
- Leyte Regional Prison - established Jan.16, punishment is to prevent others from
1973 committing crime.
- Old Bilibid Prison - First Penal Institution in DIRECTOR CHARLES S. MONDEJAR -
the Phil. designated as insular penitentiary by the first Chief of BJMP. He took his oath of
Royal Decree in 1865. office on July 1 of 1991.
DISTRICT JAIL - is a cluster of small jails,
BURNING AT STAKE - a form of ancient each having a monthly average population of ten
punishment by tying the victim in a vertical post or less inmates and is located in the vicinity of
and burning him/her. the court.
CESARE BECCARIA - an Italian DRACO - was the first legislator of ancient
criminologist, jurist, philosopher and politician Athens, Greece, 7th century BC. He replaced
best known for his treaties On Crimes and the prevailing system of oral law and blood feud
Punishments (1764), which condemned torture by a written code to be enforced only by a court.
and the death penalty, and was a founding work DUCKING STOOL - a chair fastened to the
in the field of penology and the Classical School end of a pole, used formerly to plunge offenders
of criminology into a pond or river as a punishment.
CHARLES MONTESQUIEU - a french DUNGEON - a dark cell, usually underground
lawyer, who analyzed law as an expression of where prisoners are confined.
justice. He is famous for his articulation of the ELMIRA REFORMATORY - located in new
theory of separation of powers, which is York, was originally a prison opened to contain
implemented in many constitutions throughout Confederate prisoners of war during the Civil
War. It became known as a “death camp” sails and up to three banks of oars, chiefly used
because of the squalid conditions and high death for warfare or piracy and often manned by
rate in its few years of operation. Established slaves or criminals.
1876.
ELMIRA SYSTEM - An American penal GOALS OF CRIMINAL SENTENCING
system named after Elmira Reformatory, in New 1. Retribution
York. In 1876 Zebulon R. Brockway became an 2. Punishment
innovator in the reformatory movement by 3. Deterrence
establishing Elmira Reformatory for young 4. Incapacitation
felons. The Elmira system classified and 5. Rehabilitation
separated various types of prisoners, gave them 6. Reintegration
individualized treatment emphasizing vocational 7. Restoration
training and industrial employment, used
indeterminate sentences. GOLDEN AGE OF PENOLOGY - 1870 -
ERGASTULUM - is a Roman prison used to 1880
confine slaves. They were attached to work GUILLOTINE - an ancient form of capital
benches and forced to do hard labor in period of punishment by cutting the head.
imprisonment. HALFWAY HOUSE - a center for helping
EXEMPLARITY - the criminal is punished to former drug addicts, prisoners, psychiatric
serve as an example to others to deter further patients, or others to adjust to life in general
commission of crime. society.
EXPIATION - (Atonement) execution of HAMMURABI'S CODE - an ancient code
punishment visibly or publicly for the purpose which contain both civil and criminal law. First
of appeasing a social group. Expiation is a group known codified law prior to Roman law. Better
vengeance as distinguished from retribution. organized and comprehensive than biblical law.
FIRST WOMEN'S PRISON - opened in One of its law is lex taliones (an eye for an eye)
Indiana 1873. Based on the reformatory model. HEDONISM - the ethical theory that pleasure
(in the sense of the satisfaction of desires) is the
FOUR CLASSES OF PRISONERS highest good and proper aim of human life.
1. INSULAR OR NATIONAL PRISONER – HULK - an old ship stripped of fittings and
one who is sentenced to a prison term of three permanently moored, especially for use as
years and one day to death; storage or (formerly) as a prison.
2. PROVINCIAL PRISONER – one who is IMPALEMENT - (Impaling) a form of capital
sentenced to a prison term of six months and punishment, is the penetration of an organism
one day to three years; by an object such as a stake, pole, spear or hook,
3. CITY PRISONER – one who is sentenced to by complete (or partial) perforation of the body,
a prison term of one day to three years; and often the central body mass.Killing by piercing
4. MUNICIPAL PRISONER – one who is the body with a spear or sharp pole.
sentenced to a prison term of one day to six INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS - refers
months. to those persons housed in secure correctional
facilities.
FLOGGING - (Flog) beat (someone) with a JAIL - is defined as a place of confinement for
whip or stick as a punishment. inmates under investigation or undergoing trial,
FRED T. WILKINSON - last warden of the or serving short-term sentences
Alcatraz prison. GAOL - old name/term of jail.
GALLEY - a low, flat ship with one or more
THREE TYPES OF DETAINEES for only 24 to 48 hours. A suspect may later be
1. Those undergoing investigation; transferred from the lockup to the jail.
2. those awaiting or undergoing trial; and MAMERTINE PRISON - was a prison
3. those awaiting final judgment (carcer) located in the Comitium in ancient
Rome. It was originally created as a cistern for a
JAILS - HOLDS spring in the floor of the second lower level.
a. Convicted offenders serving short sentences Prisoners were lowered through an opening into
b. Convicted offenders awaiting transfer to the lower dungeon.
prison MARK SYSTEM - developed in Australia by
c. Offenders who have violated their probation Alexander Maconochie, whereby credits, or
or parole marks, were awarded for good behaviour, a
d. Defendants who are awaiting trial certain number of marks being required for
release.
JAMES V. BENNETT - was a leading MITTIMUS - is a process issued by the court
American penal reformer and prison after conviction to carry out the final judgment,
administrator who served as director of the such as commanding a prison warden to hold
Federal Bureau of Prisons (FBOP) from 1937 to the accused, in accordance with the terms of the
1964. He was one of the strongest advocates in judgment. Mittimus is often attached on the
the movement in persuading Congress to close commitment order issued by the court whenever
Alcatraz and replace it with a new maximum- the convict is to be transferred to prison for
security prison, eventually successful in 1963 service of sentence.
when it closed. MORTALITY RATE - A measure of the
JANUARY 2, 1991 - the Bureau of Jail frequency of deaths in a defined population
Management and Penology was created thru during a specified interval of time.
Republic Act 6975 as a line Bureau under the MUTILATION OR MAIMING - an ancient
Department of Interior and Local Government. form of punishment, is an act of physical injury
JEAN JACQUES VILLAIN - pioneered that degrades the appearance or function of any
classification to separate women and children living body, sometimes causing death.
from hardened criminals. NATIONAL PRISONS ASSOCIATION -
JEREMY BENTHAM - a prison reformer, was organized in Cincinnati in 1870.
believed that the prisoner shouldsuffer a severe
regime, but that it should not be detrimental to NEO-CLASSICAL - children and lunatics
the prisoner's health. He designed the should not be punished as they can not calculate
Panopticon in 1791. pleasure and pain.
JOHN HOWARD - a philanthropist and the CLASSICAL THEORY - pain must exceed
first English prison reformer. pleasure to deter crime. All are punished
JUSTICE - crime must be punished by the state regardless of age, mental condition, social status
as an act of retributive justice, vindication of and other circumstances.
absolute right and moral law violated by the POSITIVIST THEORY - criminal is a sick
criminal. person and should be treated and not punished.
LAPIDATION - (Stoning) the act of pelting
with stones; punishment inflicted by throwing ECLECTIC - it means selecting the best of
stones at the victim. various styles or ideas.
LEX TALIONES - an eye for an eye, a tooth NEWGATE PRISON - not a real prison but an
for a tooth. abandoned copper mine of Simsbury
LOCKUPS - Suspects usually stay in a lockup Connecticut. Inmates are confined underground
(Black hole of horrors).
OPERATIONAL CAPACITY - the number of New York, under which inmates worked and ate
inmates that can be accommodated based on a together in silence during the day and were
facility's staff, existing programs, and services. placed in solitary cells for the evening.
PANOPTICON - a prison design, allowed a (Congregate System)
centrally placed observer to survey all the PENOLOGY - a branch of Criminology that
inmates, as prison wings radiated out from this deals with prison management and reformation
central position. of criminals.
PAROLE - refers to criminal offenders who are Poene (latin) - penalty
conditionally released from prison to serve the Logos (latin) - science
remaining portion of their sentence in the
community. PILLORY - a wooden framework with holes
PAROLE AND PROBATION for the head and hands, in which offenders were
ADMINISTRATION (PPA) - was created formerly imprisoned and exposed to public
pursuant to Presidential Decree (P.D.) No.968, abuse.
as amended, to administer the probation system. PRISON - which refers to the national prisons
Under Executive Order No. 292, the Probation or penitentiaries managed and supervised by the
Administration was renamed as the Parole and Bureau of Corrections, an agency under the
Probation Administration, and given the added Department of Justice.
function of supervising prisoners who, after PRISON HULKS - (1776-1857) were ships
serving part of their sentence in jails are which were anchored in the Thames, and at
released on parole or granted conditional Portsmouth and Plymouth. Those sent to them
pardon. The PPA and the Board of Pardons and were employed in hard labour during the day
Parole are the agencies involved in the non- and then loaded, in chains, onto the ship at
institutional treatment of offenders. night.
PENAL MANAGEMENT - refers to the PRISON REFORM - is the attempt to improve
manner or practice of managing or controlling conditions inside prisons, aiming at a more
places of confinement such as jails and prisons. effective penal system.
PD NO. 603 - was promulgated to provide for PROBATION - Probation in criminal law is a
the care and treatment of youth offenders from period of supervision over an offender, ordered
the time of apprehension up to the termination by a court instead of serving time in prison.
of the case. Under this law, a youth offender is JOHN AUGUSTUS - Father of Probation.
defined as a child, minor or youth who is over Augustus was born in Woburn, Massachusetts in
nine years but under eighteen years of age at the 1785. By 1829, he was a permanent resident of
time of the commission of the offence. Boston and the owner of a successful boot-
PENNSYLVANIA AND NEW YORK - making business.
pioneered the penitentiary movement by FATHER COOK - a chaplain of the Boston
developing two competing systems of Prison visited the courts and gained acceptance
confinement. The Pennsylvania system and the as an advisor who made enquiries into the
Auburn system. circumstances of both adult and juvenile
PENNSYLVANIA SYSTEM - An early offenders
system of U.S. penology in which inmates were PROVINCIAL JAIL - under the office of the
kept in solitary cells so that they could study Governor. Where the imposable penalty for the
religious writings, reflect on their misdeeds, and crime committed is more than six months and
perform handicraft work.(Solitary System). the same was committed within the
AUBURN SYSTEM - An early system of municipality, the offender must serve his or her
penology, originating at Auburn Penitentiary in sentence in the provincial jail.
were equally influential in raising public
Where the penalty imposed exceeds three years, awareness. Reforms such as the separation of
the offender shall serve his or her sentence in women and children from men and the
the penal institutions of the Bureau of development of purposeful activity of work or
Corrections. education came about through pressure from
informed people.
PUNISHMENT - the infliction or imposition of
a penalty as retribution for an offence. RA 6975 - SEC.60 TO 65, CREATED THE
BJMP.
QUAKERS - (or Friends, as they refer to RANK CLASSIFICATION OF BJMP
themselves) are members of a family of Director
religious movements collectively known as the Chief Superintendent
Religious Society of Friends. Many Quakers Senior Superintendent
have worked for reform of the criminal justice Superintendent
systems of their day. Quakers believe that Chief Inspector
people can always change: their focus has been Senior Inspector
on reforms that make positive change more Inspector
likely, such as increased opportunities for Senior Jail Officer IV
education, improved prison conditions, help Senior Jail Officer III
with facing up to violent impulses, and much Senior Jail Officer II
else. Senior Jail Officer I
WILLIAM PENN - founder of the Province of Jail Officer III
Pennsylvania, the English North American Jail Officer II
colony and the future Commonwealth of Pennsy Jail Officer I
lvania.was the first great Quaker prison RA 10575 - The Bureau of Corrections Act of
reformer. In his ‘Great Experiment’ in 2013.
Pennsylvania in the 1680s he abolished capital RACK - a form of torture or punishment
punishment for all crimes except murder. He wherein pain is inflicted to to the body through
also stated that ‘prisons shall be workhouses,’ stretching.
that bail should be allowed for minor offences’, RATED CAPACITY - the number of beds or
and ‘all prisons shall be free, as to fees, food inmates assigned by a rating official to
and lodgings’. He provided for rehabilitation, as institutions within the jurisdiction.
he stipulated that prisoners should be helped to REFORMATION - the object of punishment in
learn a trade, so that they could make an honest a criminal case is to correct and reform the
living when they were released. offender.
JOHN BELLERS - (1654-1725) was the REFORMATORY MOVEMENT - The
earliest British Friend to pay serious and reformatory movement was based on principles
systematic attention to social reform. He adopted at the 1870 meeting of the National
pleaded for the abolition of the death penalty, Prison Association.
the first time this plea had been made. He
argued that criminals were the creation of THE REFORMATORY WAS DESIGNED:
society itself and urged that when in prison there a. for younger, less hardened offenders.
should be work for prisoners so that they might b. based on a military model of regimentation.
return to the world with an urge to industry. c. with indeterminate terms.
ELIZABETH FRY - (1780-1845) was the d. with parole or early release for favorable
most famous of Quaker reformers, though others progress in reformation.
SECURITY PRISON - house notorious
REHABILITATION - to restore a criminal to a offenders and problem inmates from other
useful life, to a life in which they contribute to institutions. These institutions utilize: Total
themselves and to society. isolation of inmates, Constant lockdowns
RETRIBUTION - punishment inflicted on MEDIUM-SECURITY INSTITUTIONS -
someone as vengeance for a wrong or criminal place fewer restrictions on inmate movement
act. inside the facility.
SECURITY LEVEL - A designation applied to
a facility to describe the measures taken, both CHARACTERISTICS OFTEN INCLUDE:
inside and outside, to preserve security and (MEDIUM)
custody. - Dormitory or barracks-type living quarters
- No external security wall
THE SIMPLEST SECURITY LEVEL - Barbed wire rather than razor wire
CATEGORIZATION IS: - Fences and towers that look less forbidding
a. maximum
b. medium HOUSES THE FOLLOWING INMATES:
c. minimum - Those sentenced to less than 20 years
HOUSES THE FOLLOWING INMATES: SING SING PRISON - was the third prison
- Those sentenced to death built by New York State. It is a maximum-
- Those sentenced with min. 20 years security prison.
- Those remanded inmates/detainees with min. SIR EVELYN RUGGLES BRISE - was a
20 years sentence British prison administrator and reformer, and
- Those whose sentences is under review by SC founder of the Borstal system.
(min.20 years) SIR WALTER CROFTON - the director of
- Those whose sentences is under appeal Irish prisons. In his program, known as the Irish
(min.20 years) system, prisoners progressed through three
- Those with pending cases stages of confinement before they were returned
- Those who are recidivist to civilian life. The first portion of the sentence
was served in isolation. After that, prisoners
ULTRA-MAXIMUM/SUPER-MAXIMUM were assigned to group work projects.
STOCKS - an instrument of punishment VOLTAIRE - believes that fear of shame is a
consisting of a heavy timber frame with holes in deterrent to crime.
which the feet and sometimes the hands of an WALNUT STREET JAIL - opened in 1790 in
offender can be locked. Philadelphia. Considered the 1st state prison.
Inmates labored in solitary cells and received
THREE MAJOR GOVERNMENT large doses of religious training
FUNCTIONARIES INVOLVED IN THE WORKHOUSES - European forerunners of the
PHILIPPINE CORRECTIONAL SYSTEM: modern U.S. prison, where offenders were sent
1. DOJ to learn discipline and regular work habits.
2. DILG ZEBULON REED BROCKWAY - was a
3. DSWD penologist and is sometimes regarded as the
Father of prison reform and Father of American
DOJ - supervises the national penitentiaries Parole in the United States.
through the Bureau of Corrections, administers
the parole and probation system through the
Parole and Probation Administration, and assists
the President in the grant of executive clemency
through the Board of Pardons and Parole.
DILG - supervises the provincial, district, city B. NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
and municipal jails through the provincial BOARD OF PARDONS AND PAROLE -
governments and the Bureau of Jail was created pursuant to Act No. 4103, as
Management and Penology, respectively. amended. It is the intent of the law to uplift and
DSWD - supervises the regional rehabilitation redeem valuable human material to economic
centers for youth offenders through the Bureau usefulness and to prevent unnecessary and
of Child and Youth Welfare. excessive deprivation of personal liberty.
TRANSPORTATION - a punishment in which FUNCTIONS
offenders were transported from their home 1. To grant parole to qualified prisoners;
nation to one of that nation's colony to work. 2. To recommend to the President the grant of
TWELVE TABLES - The Law of the Twelve pardon and other forms of executive clemency;
Tables (Latin: Leges Duodecim Tabularum or 3. To authorize the transfer of residence of
Duodecim Tabulae) was the ancient legislation parolees and pardonees, order their arrest and
that stood at the foundation of Roman law. recommitment, or grant their final release and
Established basic procedural rights for all discharge.
Roman citizens as against one another
UNDERGROUND CISTERN - a reservoir for BASIS FOR GRANT OF PAROLE
storing liquids, an underground tank for storing 1. The prisoner is fit to be released;
water. This was also used in prison in ancient 2. There is a reasonable probability that, if
times. released, he or she will live and remain at liberty
UTILITARIANISM - a tradition stemming without violating the law; and
from the late 18th- and 19th-century English 3. His or her release will not be incompatible
philosophers and economists Jeremy Bentham with the welfare of society.
and John Stuart Mill that an action is right if it
tends to promote happiness and wrong if it tends HOW MAY EXECUTIVE CLEMENCY BE
to produce the reverse of happiness—not just EXERCISED?
the happiness of the performer of the action but 1. Reprieve
also that of everyone affected by it. 2. Absolute pardon
3. Conditional pardon
4. Commutation of sentence. WHEN APPLICATIONS FOR
EXECUTIVE CLEMENCY WILL NOT BE
COMMUTATION – refers to the reduction of FAVOURABLY ACTED UPON BY THE
the duration of prison sentence of a prisoner. BOARD OF PARDON AND PAROLE
COMMUTATION ALLOWED WHEN: 1. Convicted of evasion of service of sentence;
1. person is over 70 years old 2. Who violated the conditions of their
2. 8 justices fail to reach a decision affirming conditional pardon;
the death penalty 3. Who are habitual delinquents or recidivists;
4. Convicted of kidnapping for ransom;
ABSOLUTE PARDON - An act of grace, 5. Convicted of Violation of the Dangerous
proceeding from the power entrusted with the Drugs Act of 1972 and the Comprehensive
execution of the laws, Exempts the individual Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002;
from the penalty of the crime, he has committed. 6. Convicted of offenses committed under the
CONDITIONAL PARDON - If delivered and influence of drugs
accepted, it is a contract between the executive 7. Whose release from prison may constitute a
and the convict that the former will release the danger to society.
latter upon compliance with the condition.
Example of a condition: Not to violate any of ISSUES CONFRONTING THE
the penal laws of the country again. PHILIPPINE CORRECTIONS SYSTEM
REPRIEVE - refers to the deferment of the 1. Overcrowding of Certain Prison
implementation of the sentence for an interval of Institutions/Jails
time; it does not annul the sentence but merely 2. Fragmented Set-Up of the Corrections System
postpones or suspends its execution 3. Lack of Information Technology Systems and
BASIS FOR GRANT OF EXECUTIVE Expertise
CLEMENCY 4. Lack of/Inadequate Training - lack of
The BPP recommends to the President the grant awareness and understanding by some
of executive clemency when any of the prison/jail officials and staff on the rights of
following circumstances are present: inmates.
1. The trial or appellate court recommended in
its decision the grant of executive clemency for Petitions for parole shall be addressed to the
the prisoner Chairman or to the Executive Director of the
2. Under the peculiar circumstances of the case, Board. However, the Board may, motu proprio,
the penalty imposed is too harsh compared to consider cases for parole, commutation of
the crime committed sentence or conditional pardon of deserving
3. Offender qualifies as a youth offender at the prisoners whenever the interest of justice will be
time of the commission of the offense served thereby.
4. Prisoner is seventy years old and above;
5. Prisoner is terminally-ill; Minimum Requirements A Prisoner Must Meet
6. Alien prisoners where diplomatic Before Petitions for executive clemency may be
considerations and amity among nations reviewed.
necessitate review and
7. Other similar or analogous circumstances FOR COMMUTATION OF SENTENCE
whenever the interest of justice will be served 1. The prisoner shall have served at least one-
thereby third (1/3) of the minimum of his indeterminate
and/or definite sentence or the aggregate
minimum of his indeterminate and/or definite (2) needs medical treatment abroad which is not
sentences. available locally;
2. At least ten (10) years for prisoners sentenced (3) will take any government examination; or
to Reclusion Perpetua or Life imprisonment for (4) is emigrating.
crimes or offenses committed before January 1,
1994. Prisoners who escaped or evaded service of
3. At least twelve (12) years for prisoners whose sentence are not eligible for executive clemency
sentences were adjusted to a definite prison term for a period of one (1) year from the date of
of forty (40) years in accordance with the their last recommitment to prison or conviction
provisions of Article 70 of the Revised Penal for evasion of service of sentence.
Code, as amended.
4. At least fifteen (15) years for prisoners BUREAU OF CORRECTION - Where the
convicted of heinous crimes as defined in penalty imposed exceeds three years, the
Republic Act No. 7659 and other special laws offender shall serve his or her sentence in the
committed on or after January 1, 1994, and penal institutions of the BuCor.
sentenced to one or more Reclusion Perpetua or CARPETA - refers to the institutional record of
Life imprisonment. an inmate which consists of his mittimus or
5. At least twenty (20) years in case of one (1) commitment order issued by the Court after
or more Death penalty/penalties, which conviction, the prosecutor's information and the
was/were automatically reduced or commuted to decisions of the trial court and the appellate
one (1) or more Reclusion Perpetua or Life court, if any; certificate of non-appeal,
imprisonment. certificate of detention and other pertinent
documents of the case.
FOR CONDITIONAL PARDON DISTRICT JAIL - is a cluster of small jails,
The prisoner shall have served at least one-half each having a monthly average population of ten
(1/2) of the minimum of his original or less inmates, and is located in the vicinity of
indeterminate and/or definite sentence. the court.
However, in the case of a prisoner who is JAIL - is defined as a place of confinement for
convicted of a heinous crime as defined in inmates under investigation or undergoing trial,
Republic Act No. 7659 and other special laws, or serving short-term sentences.
he shall have served at least one-half (1/2) of the - Jails include provincial, district, city and
maximum of his original indeterminate sentence municipal jails managed and supervised by the
before his case may be reviewed for conditional Provincial Government and the Bureau of Jail
pardon. Management and Penology (BJMP)
respectively, which are both under the
FOR ABSOLUTE PARDON Department of the Interior and Local
After he has served his maximum sentence or Government.
granted final release and discharge or court
termination of probation. However, the Board Municipal and city prisoners are committed to
may consider a petition for absolute pardon even municipal, city or district jails managed by the
before the grant of final release and discharge BJMP.
under the provisions of Section 6 of Act No.
4103, as amended, as when the petitioner: PRISON - refers to the national prisons or
(1) is seeking an appointive/elective public penitentiaries managed and supervised by the
position or reinstatement in the government Bureau of Corrections, an agency under the
service; Department of Justice.
- prison refers to the national prisons or valuable human material and prevent
penitentiaries managed and supervised by the unnecessary and excessive deprivation of liberty
Bureau of Corrections, an agency under the and economic usefulness
Department of Justice. - It is necessary to consider the criminal first as
PROVINCIAL JAIL - Where the imposable an individual, and second as a member of the
penalty for the crime committed is more than six society.
months and the same was committed within the - The law is intended to favor the defendant,
municipality, the offender must serve his or her particularly to shorten his term of imprisonment,
sentence in the provincial jail which is under the depending upon his behavior and his physical,
Office of the Governor. mental and moral record as a prisoner, to be
EXECUTIVE CLEMENCY - refers to determined by the Board of Indeterminate
Reprieve, Absolute Pardon, Conditional Pardon Sentence.
with or without Parole Conditions and
Commutation of Sentence as may be granted by The settled practice is to give the accused the
the President of the Philippines. benefit of the law even in crimes punishable
with death or life imprisonment provided the
INDETERMINATE SENTENCE LAW resulting penalty, after considering the attending
THE INDETERMINATE SENTENCE IS circumstances, is reclusion temporal or less.
COMPOSED OF:
1. a MAXIMUM taken from the penalty ISL does not apply to destierro. ISL is expressly
imposable under the penal code granted to those who are sentenced to
2. a MINIMUM taken from the penalty next imprisonment exceeding 1 year.
lower to that fixed in the code.
Procedure For Determining The Maximum and
THE LAW DOES NOT APPLY TO Minimum Sentence
CERTAIN OFFENDERS: - It consists of a maximum and a minimum
1. Persons convicted of offense punished with instead of a single fixed penalty.
death penalty or life imprisonment. - Prisoner must serve the minimum before he is
2. Those convicted of treason, conspiracy or eligible for parole.
proposal to commit treason. - The period between the minimum and
3. Those convicted of misprision of treason, maximum is indeterminate in the sense that the
rebellion, sedition or espionage. prisoner may be exempted from serving said
4. Those convicted of piracy. indeterminate period in whole or in part.
5. Those who are habitual delinquents. - The maximum is determined in any case
6. Those who shall have escaped from punishable under the RPC in accordance with
confinement or evaded sentence. the rules and provisions of said code exactly as
7. Those who violated the terms of conditional if the ISL had never been enacted.
pardon granted to them by the Chief Executive. - Apply first the effect of privileged mitigating
8. Those whose maximum term of imprisonment circumstances then consider the effects of
does not exceed one year. aggravating and ordinary mitigating
9. Those who, upon the approval of the law, had circumstances.
been sentenced by final judgment. - The minimum depends upon the court’s
10. Those sentenced to the penalty of destierro discretion with the limitation that it must be
or suspension. within the range of the penalty next lower in
degree to that prescribed by the Code for the
Purpose of the law: to uplift and redeem offense committed.
NOTE: A minor who escaped from
confinement in the reformatory is entitled to the SPECIAL FACTORS - The Board may give
benefits of the ISL because his confinement is special consideration to the recommendation for
not considered imprisonment. commutation of sentence or conditional pardon
whenever any of the following circumstances
PAROLE – The suspension of the sentence of are present
the convict after serving the minimum term of 1. Youthful offenders;
the intermediate penalty, without being granted 2. Prisoners who are sixty (60) years old and
a pardon, prescribing the terms upon which the above;
sentence shall be suspended. 3. Physical disability such as when the prisoner
- May be given after the prisoner has served the is bedridden, a deaf-mute, a leper, a cripple or is
minimum penalty; is granted by the Board of blind or similar disabilities;
Pardons and Parole under the provisions of the 4. Serious illness and other life-threatening
Indeterminate Sentence Law. diseases as certified by a government physician;
5. Those prisoners recommended for the grant
DISQUALIFICATION FOR PAROLE - of executive clemency by the trial/appellate
THE FOLLOWING PRISONERS SHALL court as stated in the decision;
NOT BE GRANTED PAROLE: 6. Alien prisoners where diplomatic
1. Those convicted of an offense punished with considerations and amity between nations
Death penalty, Reclusion Perpetua or Life necessitate review;
imprisonment; 7. Circumstances which show that his continued
2. Those convicted of treason, conspiracy or imprisonment will be inhuman or will pose a
proposal to commit treason or espionage; grave danger to the life of the prisoner or his co-
3. Those convicted of misprision of treason, inmates; and,
rebellion, sedition or coup d'etat; 8. Such other similar or analogous
4. Those convicted of piracy or mutiny on the circumstances whenever the interest of justice
high seas or Philippine waters; will be served thereby.
5. Those who are habitual delinquents i.e. those
who, within a period of ten (10) years from the PRISON RECORD - refers to information
date of release from prison or last conviction of concerning an inmate's personal circumstances,
the crimes of serious or less serious physical the offense he committed, the sentence imposed,
injuries, robbery, theft, estafa and falsification, the criminal case number in the trial and
are found guilty of any of said crimes a third appellate courts, the date he commenced serving
time or oftener; his sentence, the date he was received for
6. Those who escaped from confinement or confinement, the place of confinement, the date
evaded sentence; of expiration of the sentence, the number of
7. Those who were granted Conditional Pardon previous convictions if any, and his behavior or
and violated any of the terms thereof; conduct while in prison.
8. Those whose maximum term of imprisonment PROBATION - is a disposition under which an
does not exceed one (1) year or those with accused, after conviction and sentence is
definite sentence; released subject to conditions imposed by the
9. Those suffering from any mental disorder as court and to the supervision of a probation
certified by a government officer.
psychiatrist/psychologist; PROGRESS REPORT - refers to the report
10.Those whose conviction is on appeal; submitted by the Probation and Parole Officer
11.Those who have pending criminal case/s. on the conduct of the parolee/pardonee while
under supervision. treatment of mental illness. An expert witness in
INFRACTION REPORT - refers to the report a sanity trial.
submitted by the Probation and Parole Officer ANDREW VON HIRSCH - developed the
on violations committed by a parolee/pardonee notion of just desert.
of the conditions of his release on parole or JUST DESERT - has five guidelines; 1. treat
conditional pardon while under supervision. legal punishment as a desert; 2. avoid doing
SUMMARY REPORT - refers to the final harm; 3. Sentence delinquency, not the
report submitted by the Probation and Parole delinquent; 4. interfere parsimoniously; 5.
Officer on his supervision of a parolee/pardonee restrain efforts to prevent crime; modern day
as basis for the latter's final release and utilitarianism.
discharge. ANGER - is an emotion characterized by
SENTENCE - in law, is the penalty imposed by antagonism toward someone or something you
the court in a criminal case against a person, feel has deliberately done you wrong.
known as the “accused”, who is found guilty of ANOMIE - is a condition in which society
committing the crime charged. provides little moral guidance to individuals.
YOUTH OFFENDER - is defined as a child, ANTHROPOLOGY - is the study of humans,
minor or youth who is over nine years but under past and present.
eighteen years of age at the time of the ATAVISM - The return of a trait or recurrence
commission of the offense. of previous behavior after a period of absence.
ATAVISTIC ANOMALY - physically their
throwbacks on the evolutionary scale to more
primitive times, where people were savages.
AUGUST AICHHORN - is considered to be
one of the founders of psychoanalytic education.
He is remembered for his work with juvenile
6. SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES AND ETHICS delinquent and disadvantaged youth. He
believed that imposed discipline and
A. INTRODUCTION TO CRIMINOLOGY suppression which were practiced in traditional
ABRAHAMSEN - In his crime and human reformatories yielded few positive results.
mind, 1945, explained the causes of crime by AUTOPHOBIA - is the specific phobia of
his formula "Criminal Behavior equals isolation; a morbid fear of being egotistical, or a
criminalistic tendencies plus crime inducing dread of being alone or isolated.
situation divided by the persons mental or MONOPHOBIA - is an acute fear of being
emotional resistance to temptation. alone and having to cope without a specific
ADOLPHE QUETELET (1796–1874) - was a person, or perhaps any person, in close
Belgian mathematician, astronomer and proximity.
statistician, he helped to establish the BIOMETRICS - is a technique for
cartographic school and positivist schools of identification of people that uses body
criminology which made extensive use of characteristics or behavioral traits and is
statistical techniques. Through statistical increasingly being used instead of or in
analysis, Quetelet gained insight into the conjunction with other forms of identification
relationships between crime and other social based on something you have (e.g. ID card) or
factors. Among his findings were strong something you know (e.g. password or PIN).
relationships between age and crime, as well as BROMBERG - (crime and mind 1948)
gender and crime. criminality is the result of emotional immaturity.
ALIENIST - a doctor specializing in the A person is emotionally matured when he has
learned to control his emotion effectively and disorganization. The high crime and
who live at peace with himself and in harmony delinquency rates of certain ethnic or racial
with the standard of conduct which are group is explained by their exposure to diverse
acceptable to society. Am emotionally immature and incongruent standards and codes of larger
person rebels against rules and regulations, society.
tends to engage in unusual activities and CONTAINMENT THEORY - criminality is
experience a feeling of guilt due to inferkiority brought about by the inability of the group to
complex. contain behavior of its member and that of
BROTHERHOOD - an association, society, or effective containment of the individual into the
community of people linked by a common value system and structure of society will
interest, religion, or trade. minimize crime.
CESARE BECCARIA - founders of the COPYCAT CRIME - A copycat crime is a
classical school of thought within criminology. criminal act that is modelled or inspired by a
CESARE LOMBROSO - an Italian previous crime that has been reported in the
criminologist, founder of the Italian school of media or described in fiction.
criminology, formulated the theory of CRIMINALOID - (from the word "criminal"
anthropological criminology, essentially stated and suffix -oid, meaning criminal-like) is a
that criminality was inherited, and that someone person who projects a respectable, upright
"born criminal" could be identified by physical facade, in an attempt to conceal a criminal
defects, which confirmed a criminal as savage, personality. This type, first
or atavistic. defined by Cesare Lombroso in the later editions
CHARLES DARWIN - wrote Origin of of his 1876 work "the Criminal man".
Species in 1859, kicked off the scientific CRIMINAL PERSONALITY - 1. the roots of
revolution, father of evolution. criminality lie in the way in which people think
CHARLES GORING - author of the and make decisions; 2. criminals think and act
influential work The English convict: a differently from others, even at a very young
statistical study. age; 3. criminals are irresponsible, 4.
THE ENGLISH CONVICT: A deterministic explanations of crime result from
STATISTICAL STUDY - It was first believing the criminal who is seeking sympathy.
published in 1913, and set out to establish ANTI-SOCIAL PERSONALITY -
whether there were any significant physical or characterized by patterns of irresponsible and
mental abormalities among the criminal classes antisocial behavior, as well as aggressive
that set them apart from ordinary men, as tendencies.
suggested by Cesare Lombroso. He ultimately CYRIL BURT - gave the theory of general
concluded that "the physical and mental emotionality. An excess of the submissive
constitution of both criminal and law-abiding instinct account for tendency of many criminals
persons, of the same age, stature, class, and to be weak-willed or easily led. Fear and
intelligence, are identical. There is no such thing absconding may be due to the impulse of fear.
as an anthropological criminal type." DETERMINISM - belief that individual
CLASSICAL SCHOOL - based on free will; behavior is beyond the control of the individual;
able to make decisions in a logical way; opposite of free will.
assumes people are hedonistic. DIFFERENTIAL ASSOCIATION THEORY
CONFLICT OF CULTURE THEORY - by - Criminal behavior is learnable and learned in
Thorstein Sellin. It was emphasized in this interaction with other deviant persons. Through
theory that the multiplicity of conflicting this association, they learn not only techniques
cultures is the principal source of social of certain crimes, but also specific rationale,
motives and so on. annoyed, especially because of inability to
EDWIN SUTHERLAND - Differential change or achieve something.
association theory was Sutherland's major GENERAL DETERRENCE - involves the
sociological contribution to criminology; similar effects of legal punishment on those persons
in importance to strain theory and social control who have not suffered.
theory. These theories all explain deviance in SPECIFIC DETERRENCE - involves the
terms of the individual's social relationships. effects of legal punishment on those who have
IMITATION-SUGGESTION THEORY - by suffered it.
Gabriel Tarde, Delinquency and crime pattern GENETICS - the branch in biology that deals
are learned and adopted. The learning process with heredity.
either be conscious type copying or unconscious HEALY - (individual delinquency) crime is the
copying of confronting pattern of behavior. expression of the mental content of the
DIFFERENTIAL-SOCIAL individual. Frustration of the individual causes
DISORGANIZATION THEORY - This is emotional discomfort, personality demands
sometimes called Social Disorganization. There removal of pain and the pain is eliminated by
is social disorganization when there is substitute behavior, that is the start of the crime
breakdown, changes, conflict of values between delinquency of an individual.
the new and the old, when there is reduced GIANELT INDEX OF CRIMINALITY - this
influence of the social institution over behavior crimino-synthesis explains the reason why a
and when there is declining influence of the person may commit a crime or inhibit himself
solid moral and ethical front. from doing so.
ELECTROENCEPHALOGRAM - recording HEDONISM - pleasure or the absence of pain
of electrical activity of the brain; measures it. is the soul good in life.
EMILE DURKHEIM - father of sociology. He HENRY MAUDSLEY - mental illness and
is a Frenchman, Chief among his claims is that criminal behavior went hand in hand, crime
society is a sui generis reality, or a reality prone traits were inherited.
unique to itself and irreducible to its composing INCAPACITATION - when they are locked
parts. It is created when individual consciences up behind bars, they can't commit anymore
interact and fuse together to create a synthetic crimes.
reality that is completely new and greater than ITALIAN SCHOOL OF CRIMINOLOGY -
the sum of its parts. Founded in the end of the 19th century by
E. O. WILSON - put forth a theory that Cesare lombroso and 2 of his disciples, Enrico
differed from earlier theories, believed that Ferri and Rafael Garofalo.
biological factors affect the perception and ENRICO FERRI - an italian criminologist,
learning of social behaviors. student of Lombroso, His work served as the
ETIOLOGY OF CRIME - causes of crime. basis for Argentina’s penal code of 1921. His
EUGENICS - the science of improving a research led to him postulating theories calling
human population by controlled breeding to for crime prevention methods to be the mainstay
increase the occurrence of desirable heritable of law enforcement, as opposed to punishment
characteristics. Developed largely by Francis of criminals after their crimes had taken place.
Galton as a method of improving the human RAFAEL GAROFALO - often regarded as the
race. father of Criminology. He is a student of Cesare
FREE WILL - the idea that human beings are Lombroso.
free to choose one behavior or action over JAMES Q. WILSON - advocate for special
another. deterrence; ultilitarian. JEREMY BENTHAM
FRUSTRATION - the feeling of being upset or - founders of the classical school of thought
within criminology. He is a lawyer. structure of an organism or any of its parts;
JUKES FAMILY - family of criminals. measuring different parts of the human head;
Descendants are criminally minded and there is a meaningful relationship between
committed crimes. certain types of physical features and
JONATHAN EDWARDS FAMILY - opposite personality.
of jukes Family, descendants are good people NEO-CLASSICAL PERSPECTIVE - stressed
and attained prominence in various fields. that the legal system should focus exclusively
KALLIKAK FAMILY - A Study in the on doing justice; respond to the crime; the
Heredity of Feeble-Mindedness was a 1912 criminal made the rational decision.
book by the American psychologist and NEUROSIS - condition characterized by
eugenicist Henry H. Goddard. The work was an anxiety, impulses may breakthrough and take
extended case study of Goddard's for the control.
inheritance of "feeble-mindedness," a general AMNESIA - a partial or total loss of memory.
category referring to a variety of mental Origin late 18th century: from Greek amnēsia
disabilities including mental retardation, ‘forgetfulness.’
learning disabilities, and mental illness. DELUSION - a belief that is not true : a false
Goddard concluded that a variety of mental idea. : a false idea or belief that is caused by
traits were hereditary, and society should limit mental illness.
reproduction by people possessing these traits. DEMENTIA PRAECOX (a "premature
KARYOTYPE STUDIES - examination and dementia" or "precocious madness") refers to a
comparison of chromosomes. chronic, deteriorating psychotic disorder
KLEPTOMANIA - a recurrent urge to steal, characterized by rapid cognitive disintegration,
typically without regard for need or profit. usually beginning in the late teens or early
LAWRENCE KOHLBERG - pathological adulthood. It is a term first used in 1891 in this
jealousy, quick anger reactions, and the bearing Latin form by Arnold Pick (1851–1924), a
of grudges. professor of psychiatry at the German branch of
LIMBIC SYSTEM - a set of areas in the Charles University in Prague.
human brain that integrate a wide variety of PSYCHOSIS - severe form of mental
messages from the senses and control goal- disturbance, behavior impairs or gets in the way
oriented response to environmental and internal of everyday focus, Id takes control.
stimuli. SCHIZOPHRENIA - often linked to criminal
MEGALOMANIa - is a psychopathological behavior, incoherent thought process, thinking is
condition characterized by delusional fantasies scrambled and may have split personalities.
of power, relevance, omnipotence, and by PARANOIA - pathological jealousy, quick
inflated self-esteem. anger reactions, and the bearing of grudges.
MENS REA - The state of mind indicating PENAL COUPLE - is defined as the
culpability which is required by statute as an relationship between perpetrator and victim of a
element of a crime.(Latin) guilty mind. crime. That is, both are involved in the event.
MILLER LOWER-CLASS CULTURE PENITENTIARY - repent of wrongdoing and
CONFLICT THEORY - citizens who obey the the will to atone for it.
street rules of lower class life find themselves in PHOBIA - an extreme or irrational fear of or
conflict with the dominant culture. aversion to something.
MORAL/INTELLECTUAL STAGES - deals PHRENOLOGY - study of the shape of the
with how adults morally represent a reason skull and bumps of facial features. The study of
about the world that they live in. facial features.
MORPHOLOGY - deals with the form and CRANIOLOGY - the scientific study of the
shape and size of the skulls of different human obsession with unusual sexual practices.
races. Another term for Phrenology. EXHIBITIONISM - a mental condition
PSYCHOPATIC PERSONALITY – This is characterized by the compulsion to display one's
the most important cause of criminality among genitals in public.
youthful offenders and habitual criminals. It is FETISHISM - is sexual attraction to objects,
characterized by infantile level or rescind, lack situations, or body parts not traditionally viewed
of conscience, deficient feeling of affection to as sexual.
others and aggression to environment and other PARAPHILIA - a condition characterized by
people. abnormal sexual desires, typically involving
PHYSIOGNOMY - to judge, interpret, or extreme or dangerous activities.
assess a person's character or personality from PEDOPHILIA - sexual feelings directed
his or her outer appearance, especially the face. toward children.
This study and science was used by Beccaria SADOMASOCHISM - is the giving or
(1764) and lavater (1175) to discover the receiving of pleasure, sometimes sexual, from
character of a person. acts involving the infliction or reception of pain
POSITIVIST SCHOOL - based on or humiliation.
determinism; human behavior is controlled by SADISM - the tendency to derive pleasure,
science. especially sexual gratification, from inflicting
POSITIVISM - the belief that the classical pain, suffering, or humiliation on others.
school of thought is wrong in explaining what TRANSVESTISM (also called transvestitism) -
causes crime because they failed to explain is the practice of dressing and acting in a style
adequately the why portion. or manner traditionally associated with another
CESARE LOMBROSO - father of positivism; gender.
medical doctor who wanted to see whether MASOCHISM - the tendency to derive
criminals were physically different, believed in pleasure, especially sexual gratification, from
atavistic anomaly. one's own pain or humiliation.
PSYCHIATRY - the study and treatment of VOYEURISM - Watching others while naked
mental illness, emotional disturbance, and or having sex, generally without their
abnormal behavior. knowledge; also known as scopophilia or
PSYCHOANALYTIC - the analysis of human scoptophilia.
behavior. First laid out by Sigmund Freud in the ZOOPHILIA - is a paraphilia involving cross-
19th century. species sexual activity between human and non-
RECIDIVISM - elapse into criminal behavior; human animals or a fixation on such practice.
where you return back into the criminal system. SHAW AND MCKAY'S ECOLOGICAL
REGRESSION - a return to an earlier stage of THEORY - crime is a product of transitional
life or a supposed previous life, especially neighborhoods that manifest social
through hypnosis or mental illness, or as a disorganization and value conflict.
means of escaping present anxieties. SIGMUND FREUD - austrian psychiatrist; his
SAMUEL YOCHELSON - convinced that approach: crime is but one form of deviance.
there is such thing as a criminal personality. ID - contains the inner world of the individual's
SCHOOLS OF THOUGHT - devices for inborn instincts and reflexes.
organizing fundamentally differing views of EGO - represents the real world of the
human nature and relating them to issues individual's conscious reason and common
surrounding crime and its control. sense. SUPEREGO - inner world of the
SEXUAL DEVIATION - a type of mental individual's ideal expectations and conscience;
disorder characterized by a preference for or the conceptions of what the individual considers
to be morally good. behavior,intelligence, and social hierarchy
SOCIAL BOND THEORY - relation between through his Ivy league nude posture photos.
social factors and individual activities;
individuals become free to commit crimes when TEMPERAMENT
their ties to society are broken. VISCEROTONIC - Coined by WH Sheldon,
SPIRITUAL SCHOOL - based on from viscera + -o- + tonic. Designating a
determinism; human behavior is determined by personality type characterised as sociable, easy-
God or demons or Satan. going, and comfort-seeking.
STANTON SAMENOW - convinced that SOMATONIC - active, dynamic; walks, talks,
there is such thing as a criminal personality. gestures assertively and behaves aggressively.
THOMAS HOBBES - he believed that man is CEREBROTONIC - Introvert and full of
egotistical and self-centered; if he thought he functional complaints to allergies, skin troubles,
could get away with it, then he would commit chronic fatigue, insomia, insensitive skin, and to
the crime. noise, shrinks from crowds.
XYY Syndrome - these people are very tall and
TYPE OF PHYSIQUE disproportionate; more inclined to commit
ECTOMORPH - a person with a lean and crimes.
delicate body build. Are tall and thin and less
social and more intellectual.
MESOMORPH - a person with a compact and
muscular body build. Have well-developed
muscles and an athletic appearance. They are
active, aggressive, sometimes violent, and more B. CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM
likely to become criminals. CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM - is the
ENDOMORPH - a person with a soft round system of practices and institutions of
body build and a high proportion of fat tissue. governments directed at upholding social
Have heavy builds and are slow moving. They control, deterring and mitigating crime or
arte known for lethargic behavior rendering sanctioning those who violate laws with
them unlikely to commit violent crime and more criminal penalties and rehabilitation efforts.
willing to engage in less strenuous criminal
activities such as fencing stolen property. GOALS OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE
To protect individuals and society
TYPOLOGY OF CRIME - involve classifying To reduce crime by bringing offenders to
offenses or offenders according to some criteria justice
of relatedness or similarity. To increase the security of the people
UTILITARIANISM - the belief that legal
punishments serve two vital functions: CRIMINAL JUSTICE SYSTEM
1. deterring persons from committing the crimes CONSISTS OF THREE MAIN PARTS
and LEGISLATIVE - create laws
2. protecting society from those wholes acts COURTS - adjudication
threaten the social order; the greatest good for CORRECTIONS - jail, prison, probation,
the greatest number. parole
14. The taking of another person’s personal property, 20. An offense committed by a married woman
with intent to gain, by means of force and through carnal knowledge with a man not her
intimidation. husband who knows her to be married, although the
A. qualified theft marriage can be later declared void.
B. robbery A. concubinage
C. theft B. bigamy
D. malicious mischief C. adultery
D. immorality
15. Felony committed when a person compels Answer: C
another by means of force, violence or intimidation 21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the
to do something against his will, whether right or commission of a crime.
wrong. A. 15-18 years old
A. grave threat B. 18-70 years old
B. grave coercion C. 9 years old and below
C. direct assault D. between 9 and 15 years old
D. slander by deed Answer: C
Answer: B
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the
16. These are persons having no apparent means of execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous
subsistence but have the physical ability to work and acts.
neglect to apply himself or herself to lawful calling. A. Accomplices
A. Pimps B. Suspects
B. prostitutes C. principal actors
C. gang members D. accessories
D. vagrants Answer: A
Answer: D
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade government to execute the final sentence after the
of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult. lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime A. gang
B. prescription of prosecution B. conspiracy
C. prescription of judgement C. band
D. prescription of penalty D. piracy
Answer: D Answer: C
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the 30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one
execution of penalty is suspended. is bound to.
A. Pardon A. Negligence
B. commutation B. imprudence
C. amnesty C. omission
D. reprieve D. act
Answer: D Answer: C
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed 31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of
to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the
the society. execution of his criminal plan.
A. mala prohibita A. Misfeasance
B. mala in se B. entrapment
C. private crimes C. inducement
D. public crimes D. instigation
Answer: A Answer: B
26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees 32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for
to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no
act is connected with the discharge of his public penalty imposed.
duties. A. impossible crimes
A. qualified bribery B. aggravating circumstances
B. direct bribery C. absolutory causes
C. estafa D. Complex Crimes
D. indirect bribery Answer: C
Answer: B
33. One of the following is an alternative
27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood circumstance.
under oath of affirmation, administered by authority A. Insanity
of law on a material matter. B. intoxication
A. libel C. passion or obfuscation
B. falsification D. evident premeditation
C. perjury Answer: B
D. slander
Answer: C 34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make
conditional plea of guilty, what shall be entered for
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution. him?
A. Treachery A. a plea of not guilty
B. evident premeditation B. a plea of guilty
C. ignominy C. a plea of mercy
D. cruelty D. a plea of surrender
Answer: B Answer: A
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall 35. At what time may the accused move to quash the
have acted together in the commission of a crime. complaint or information?
A. at any time before his arrest C. preliminary investigation
B. only after entering his plea D. plea bargaining
C. any time before entering his plea Answer: C
D. Monday morning
Answer: C 41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same
state of facts.
36. The process whereby the accused and the A. secondary evidence
prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually B. prima facie evidence
satisfactory C. corroborative evidence
disposition on the case subject to court approval. D. best evidence
A. Arraignment Answer: C
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation 42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or
D. trial uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the
Answer: B proposition affirmed.
A. secondary evidence
37. The security given for the release of a person in B. prima facie evidence
custody, furnished by him or a bondsman, C. corroborative evidence
conditioned upon his appearance before any court as D. best evidence
required under the conditions specified by law. Answer: B
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance 43. A form of evidence supplied by written
C. bail instruments or derived from conventional symbols,
D. warrant such as letters, by which ideas are represented on
Answer: C material substances.
A. documentary evidence
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, B. testimonial evidence
according to the laws of the land, of the acts in issue C. material evidence
in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue. D. real evidence
A. Trial Answer: A
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial 44. When the witness states that he did not see or
D. judgment know the occurrence of a fact.
Answer: A A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is C. secondary evidence
guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged, and the D. negative evidence
imposition of the proper penalty and Answer: D
A. trial
B. Pre-trial 45. Personal property that can be subjects for search
C. Arraignment and seizure.
D. Judgment A. used or intended to be used as means in
Answer: D committing an offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of of the offense
determining whether there is sufficient ground to C. subject of the offense
engender a well founded belief that an offense has D. all of the above
been committed and the offender is probably guilty Answer: D
thereof and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial 46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can
B. arraignment make known their perception to others.
A. Suspects 52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not
B. witnesses more than….
C. victims A. 36 hours
D. informers B. 24 hours
Answer: B C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth Answer: D
prematurely, of human fetus before the natural time
of birth which results in death. 53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from
A. abortion compliance therewith.
B. infanticide A. ignorantia legis non excusat
C. murder B. parens patriae
D. parricide C. res ipsa loquitur
Answer: A D. dura lex sed lex
Answer: A
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or
wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel 54. An act which would be an offense against persons
among several persons not organized into groups and or property if it was not for the inherent impossibility
the parties responsible cannot be ascertained. of its accomplishment.
A. alarm and scandal A. compound crime
B. mysterious homicide B. impossible crime
C. death under exceptional circumstances C. complex crime
D. tumultuous affray D. accidental crime
Answer: D Answer: B
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution 55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.
of which is the logical antecedent of the issue A. RA 5425
involved in said case and the cognizance of which B. RA 8553
pertains to another tribunal. C. RA 7659
A. legal question D. RA 8551
B. juridical question Answer: C
C. prejudicial question
D. judicial question 56. One who is deprived completely of reason or
Answer: C discernment and freedom of the will at the time of the
commission of the crime.
50. The RPC was based on the A. discernment
A. Spanish penal code B. insanity
B. English penal code C. epilepsy
C. American penal code D. imbecility
D. Japanese penal code Answer: D
Answer: A
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to
51. An act or omission which is a result of a a person as its owner or author
misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not A. responsibility
intentional. B. duty
A. impossible crime C. guilt
B. mistake of facts D. imputability
C. accidental crime Answer: D
D. complex crime
Answer: B 58. Something that happen outside the sway of our
will, and although it comes about through some acts
of our will, lies beyond the bound s of humanly B. alternative
foreseeable consequences. C. justifying
A. fortuitous event D. aggravating
B. fate Answer: C
C. accident
D. destiny 64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making
Answer: C his victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him
unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with the criminal act.
an offense,subscribed by the offended party, any A. Ignominy
peace officer or other public officer charged with the B. cruelty
enforcement of the law violated. C. treachery
A. subpoena D. masochism
B. information Answer: B
C. complaint
D. writ 65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime
Answer: C shall have been previously convicted by final
judgment of another crime embraced in the same title
60. This right of the accused is founded on the of the Revised Penal Code.
principle of justice and is intended not to protect the A. Recidivism
guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can the B. habitual delinquency
conviction of an innocent person. C. reiteracion
A. right to due process of law D. quasi-recidivism
B. presumption of innocence Answer: A
C. right to remain silent
D. right against self-incrimination 66. Alevosia means
Answer: B A. Craft
B. treachery
61. Known in other countries as the body of C. evident premeditation
principles, practices, usages and rules of action which D. cruelty
are not recognized in our country. Answer: B
A. penal laws
B. special laws 67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon
C. common laws inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial.
D. statutory laws A. ex post facto law
Answer: C B. equal protection of the law
C. rule of law
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the D. due process of law
agent of the crime any of all the conditions that Answer: D
would make an act voluntary and hence, though
there is no criminal liability there is civil liability. 68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the
A. Exempting date of his release or last conviction of the crime of
B. alternative serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery,
C. justifying theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of any
D. aggravating of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
Answer: A A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are C. habitual delinquent
in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no D. hardened criminal
criminal and civil liability. Answer: C
A. exempting
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or contempt upon another person.
overcome. A. libel
A. Primary B. slander by deed
B. Best C. incriminating innocent person
C. Secondary D. intriguing against honor
D. Conclusive Answer: B
Answer: D
76. The improper performance of some act which
70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or might lawfully be done.
overcome. A. misfeasance
A. Primary B. malfeasance
B. Best C. nonfeasance
C. Secondary D. dereliction
D. Conclusive Answer: B
Answer: D
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath
71. These questions suggest to the witness the before an authorized magistrate or officer.
answers to which an examining party requires. A. subpoena
A. leading B. writ
B. misleading C. warrant
C. stupid D. affidavit
D. hearsay Answer: D
Answer: A
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and to himself without authority of law.
prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a A. alias
crime, and or their punishment in case of conviction B. common name
A. Criminal Law C. fictitious name
B. Criminal Evidence D. screen name
C. Criminal Procedure Answer: C
D. Criminal Jurisprudence
Answer: C 79. A special aggravating circumstance where a
person, after having been convicted by final
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable judgment, shall commit a new felony before
by death. beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving
A. 20 years the same.
B. 15 years A. quasi-recidivism
C. 10 years B. recidivism
D. 40 years C. reiteracion
Answer: A D. charivari
Answer: A
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a
crime. 80. Which of the following is not a person in
A. Accomplices authority?
B. Accessories A. Municipal mayor
C. Instigators B. Private School Teacher
D. Principals C. Police Officer
Answer: D D. Municipal Councilor
Answer: C
75. A crime against honor which is committed by
performing any act which casts dishonor, discredit, or 81. In its general sense, it is the raising of
commotions or disturbances in the State. C. Rebellion
A. Sedition D. Rape
B. Rebellion Answer: C
C. Treason
D. Coup d’ etat 88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than
Answer: A that which is intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its B. Error in personae
date. C. Dura Lex Sed lex
A. 30 days D. Praeter Intentionem
B. 15 days Answer: D
C. 10 days
D. 60 days 89. It means mistake in the blow.
Answer: C A. Aberratio Ictus
B. Error in Personae
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds C. Dura lex sed lex
by a public officer or employee. D. Praeter Intentionem
A. illegal detention Answer: A
B. arbitrary detention
C. compulsory detention 90. A stage of execution when all the elements
D. unauthorized detention necessary for its execution and accomplishment are
Answer: B present.
A. Attempted
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, B. Frustrated
committed by a person who owes allegiance to it. C. Consummated
A. treason D. Accomplished
B. espionage answer: C
C. rebellion
D. coup d’ etat 91. An act or omission which is the result of a
Answer: A misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not
intentional.
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest A. Absolutory Cause
and comfort. B. Mistake of facts
A. sanctuary C. Conspiracy
B. prison D. Felony
C. jail Answer: B
D. dwelling
Answer: D 92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
A. Material
86. The mental capacity to understand the difference B. Formal
between right and wrong. C. Seasonal
A. treachery D. Continuing
B. premeditation Answer: A
C. recidivism
D. discernment 93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the
Answer: D offender are malicious.
A. Culpable
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable B. Intentional
under the law. C. Deliberate
A. Estafa D. Inculpable
B. Murder Answer: B
with her 11 year old girlfriend without threat, force
94. It indicates deficiency of perception. or intimidation. What was the crime committed?
A. Negligence
B. Diligence A. Child rape
C. Imprudence B. Qualified Rape
D. Inference C. Statutory Rape
Answer: A D. None of these
Answer: C
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal
laws. Law Enforcement Administration Review
A. Offenses Questions
B. Misdemeanors
C. Felonies 1. The amount and nature of the demands
D. Ordinances of the police service
Answer: A A.Clientele
B.Purpose
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding C.Time
upon all persons who live or sojourn in the
D. Process
Philippines.
A. General Answer: C
B. Territorial
C. Prospective 2. The PNP has a program which ensures
D. Retroactive the deployment of policemen in busy and
Answer: A crime prone areas. This is called
A. patrol deployment program
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment B. roving patrol program
without judicial trial. C. patrol and visibility program
A. Bill of Attainder D. police patrol program
B. Bill of Rights
Answer: C
C. Ex Post Facto Law
D. Penal Law
Answer: A 3. All regional appointments of
commissioned officers commence with the
98. The taking of a person into custody in order that rank of:
he may be bound to answer for the commission of an A. Senior Police Officer I
offense. B. Inspector
A. Search C. Police Officer III
B. Seizure D. Senior Inspector
C. Arrest Answer: B
D. Detention
Answer: C
4. In busy and thickly populated
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime commercial streets like those in Divisoria,
committed? police patrol is very necessary. Since there
A. Robbery are several types of patrol, which of the
B. Farm Theft following will you recommend:
C. Qualified Theft
D. Simple Theft
A. Horse patrol
Answer: C B. Mobile patrol
C. Foot patrol
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse D. Helicopter patrol
Answer: C B. perimeter barriers
C. communication barriers
5. It is the product resulting from the D. window barriers
collection, evaluation, analysis, and Answer:B
interpretation of all available information
which concerns one or more aspects of 10. All of the following are members of the
criminal activity and which is immediately People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB),
or potentially significant to police planning. EXCEPT:
A. Investigation A. Three (3) members chosen by the
B. Information Peace and Order Council from among the
C. Data respected members of the community.
D. intelligence B. Any barangay Captain of the
Answer: D city/municipality concerned chosen by the
association of the Barangay Captains.
6. These are work programs of line C. Any member of the Sangguniang
divisions which related to the nature and Panglungsod/Pambayan
extent of the workload and the availability D. A bar member chosen by the
of resources. Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP)
A. administrative plan Answer: D
B. operational plan
C. strategic plan 11. It is the circumspect inspection of a
D. tactical plan place to determine its suitability for a
Answer: B particular operational purpose.
7. It is the premier educational institution A. Inspection
for the police, fire and jail personnel. B. Surveillance
A. Philippine Military Academy C. Survey
B. Development Academy of the D. Casing
Philippines Answer: C
C. Philippine College of Criminology
D. Philippine Public Safety College 12. In the civil service system, merit and
Answer: D fitness are the primary considerations in the
68. Who is the most important officer in the 73. Governors and mayors, upon having
police organization? been elected and having qualified as such,
A. investigator are automatically deputized as
B. patrol officer representatives of the
C. traffic officer A. NAPOLCOM
D. The Chief of B. DND
Police Answer: B C. PLEB
D. none of these
69. Which of the following is the oldest Answer: A
warning device?
A. trumpet 74. It is constitutionally and legally
B. horn mandated to administer and control the
C. radio Philippine National Police.
D. siren A. DILG
Answer: A B. DND
C. NAPOLCOM
70. What type of cover uses actual or true D. DFA
background? Answer: C
A. artificial
B. multiple cover 75. It is the central receiving entity for any
C. natural citizen’s complaint against the members
D. cover within a cover and officers of the PNP.
Answer: C A. DILG
B. NAPOLCOM
71. What is the principle of organization C. PLEB
suggesting that communication should D. IAS
ordinarily go upward and downward Answer: C
through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command 76. When we say that a commander is
B. Span of Control directly responsible for any act or omission
C. Unity of Command of his subordinates in relation to the
D. Delegation of performance of their official duties, we are
Authority Answer: A referring to:
A. chain of command
72. What is the optional retirement for B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility A. off duty
D. span of control B. off limits
Answer: C C. on call
D. on duty
77. A police strategy which aims to directly Answer: D
involve members of the community in the
maintenance of peace and order by police 81. The act of temporarily denying an
officers. officer the privilege of performing his
A. Integrated Police System police duties in consequence of an offense
B. Comparative Police System and violation of rules and regulations.
C. Police Visibility A. dismissal
D. Community Oriented Policing System B. restriction
(COPS) C. suspension
D. reprimand
Answer: D Answer: C
78. No person in an organization can do all 82. The credential extended by the Civil
the tasks necessary for accomplishing Service Commission/National Police
group objective. Also, no one should Commission for the purpose of conferring
exercise all the authority for making status for permanent appointment in the
decisions.This refers to police service.
A. chain of command A. police credibility
B. command responsibility B. police visibility
C. unity of command C. Criminology Board Examination
D. delegation of authority D. police patrol examination
Answer: D E. police eligibility
Answer: E
79. Under RA 6975, a police officer is
entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to 83. In the history of our police force, who
how many percent (%) of his monthly basic was the first Director General of the
salary for every five years of service, to be Philippine National Police (PNP)?
reckoned from the date of his original A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
appointment in the police, fire, jail or other B. Gen. Raul Imperial
allied services? C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
A. 2 percent D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
B. 5 percent Answer: A
C. 10 percent
D. 15 percent 84. The premier educational institution for
Answer: C the training, human resource development
and continuing education of all the
80. This term refers to the period when a personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
police officer is actively engaged in the A. PNPA
performance of his duty. B. PCCR
C. PNTC
D. PPSC 90. The annual reservation percentage
Answer: D quota for women in the PNP
A. 25%
85. Under the law,the city/municipal jail B. 5%
warden should have a rank of __. C. 10%
A. Inspector D. 20%
B. Chef Inspector Answer: C
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent 91. Which of the following administers and
Answer: C attends to cases involving crimes against
chastity?
86. The required rank for the Chief of Jail A. CIDG
Bureau. B. DSWD
A. Chief Superintendent C. Women’s Desk
B. Director General D. Homicide Division
C. Director Answer: C
D. Deputy Director General
Answer: C 92. They are automatically deputized as
NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise
87. It exercise supervision and control over supervision and control over PNP units.
the provincial jails. A. Chief of Police
A. BJMP B. Judges
B. Bureau of Prisons C. Local Government Executives
C. Department of Justice D. Fiscals
D. Provincial Government Answer: C
Answer: D
93. They have the authority to recommend
88. The required rank for the head of the to the Provincial Director the transfer,
Fire Bureau. reassignment of PNP members outside of
A. Chief Superintendent their town residences.
B. Director General A. Regional Directors
C. Director B. Priests
D. Deputy Director General C. Chiefs of Police
Answer: C D. Mayors
Answer: D
89. It exercise supervision and control over
all city and municipal jails. 94. The head of a local peace and order
A. BJMP council is the __.
B. Bureau of Prisons A. judge
C. Department of Justice B. chief of police
D. Local Government C. mayor
Answer: A D. governor
Answer: C Answer: C
95. The utilization of units or elements, of 100. The current PNP deputy director
the PNP for the purpose of protection of General for Administration is
lives and properties, enforcement of laws A. Arturo Cacdac Jr.
and maintenance of peace and order. B. Emilito Sarmiento
A. employment C. Rommel Heredia
B. deployment D. Alexander Roldan
C. assignment Answer: A
D. designation
Answer: A 101. Registration of a security agency as a
corporation must be processed at what
96. The orderly and organized physical particular government agency.
movement of elements or units of the PNP. A. PNP SAGSD
A. employment B. NAPOLCOM
B. deployment C. DND
C. assignment D. SEC
D. designation Answer: D
Answer: B
102. Minimum age requirement for security
97. One of the following exercises control manager or operator of a security agency.
and supervision over the PNP units during A. 25 years old
elections. B. 30 years old
A. NBI C. 35 years old
B. Ombusdman D. 40 years old
C. COMELEC Answer: A
D. DILG
Answer: C 103. He exercises the power to revoke for
cause licenses issued to security guards.
98. The number of eligible for which the A. Chief PNP
Regional Director may recommend for B. DILG Usec
Provincial Director to the governor is __. C. NAPOLCOM chairman
A. 2 D. DILG Secretary
B. 3 Answer: A
C. 5
D. 4 104. Refers to a natural or man made
Answer: B structure which is capable of delaying
illegal access to facility.
99. Who is the current Chief of the PNP? A. Wall
A. Nicanor Bartome B. Fence
B. Nicanor Bartomeo C. Barriers
C. Nick Bartolome D. Beach fronts
D. Nicanor Bartolome Answer: C
Answer: A
105. It refers to means and ways that
personnel and employees making them 110. This is an additional outward inclined
security conscious. fixed structure usually barbed wires placed
A. Security Promotion above a vertical fence to increase
B. Security Education physical protection from intruders of a
C. Security Investigation certain area,this is known as
D. Security Seminar A. Cellar Guard
Answer: B B. Tower Guard
C. Top Guard
106. Industrial management must establish D. Top Tower
the first line of physical defense,it refers to Answer: C
A. Perimeter barriers
B. The building itself 111. The exterior and interior parallel area
C. Door,Locks,Window barriers near the perimeter barrier of an industrial
D. Entry points where security guards are compound to afford better observation and
located Answer: A patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone
107. Physical security is a system of B. Clear zone
barriers placed between the potential C. Twilight zone
intruder and the object matter to be D. Patrol lane zone
protected. As criminologists, this is simply Answer: B
a denial of
A. Opportunity to commit the offense 112. Protective guarding in a compound
B. Opportunity to the object of protection can be done by the use of electronic
C. Access to the object of protection hardware,human guards and even
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the animals.In England,an owner to protect his
potential offender Answer: C compound used this and they are not only
effective but also the cheapest to
108. Weakest link in the security chain. maintain.This man is using
A. Security Guards A. Doberman
B. Manager B. Tame Tigers
C. Barriers C. Geese
D. Personnel D. Duck
Answer: D Answer: C
109. Perimeter barriers,protective lighting 113. The government agency that issues
and ______ system are known in industrial licenses for private and government
security as physical security. security guard is
A. Guarding A. PNP SOSIA
B. Reporting B. Mayors office
C. Relieving C. PNP FEO
D. Accounting D. PNP SAGSD
Answer: D or owning a security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
114. If access is limited only to C. A police officer
unauthorized personnel,this particular place D. A security agency owner
is referred to as Answer: A
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area 119. As a security officer,you can not
C. Danger area prevent nor protect natural hazards like
D. Exclusive area storm, earthquakes, floods and the like.In
Answer: B order to reduce the disastrous effects of
these natural hazards you will
115. First measure undertaking before a A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the
comprehensive security program for an next storm is coming
industrial plan could be developed. B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
A. Security education C. Not take any concern of such hazards
B. Security check D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan for
C. Security survey these hazards for the firm Answer: D
D. Security Inspection
Answer: C 120. Practical exercise or test of a plan or
activity to determine its effectiveness is
116. A security of a plant or industrial firm called
is also known by other terms except A. Sham drill
A. Robbery evaluation B. Fire drill
B. Vulnerability C. Dry run
C. Risk Assessment D. Evacuation plan
D. Security Audit Answer: C
Answer: B
121. The main reason for a personnel
117. Today there are 3 categories of security investigation is
security guards belonging to the blue army. A. To weed out undesirable employees
A. Government security guards B. To check loyalty of employees to the
B. Company guards organization
C. Agency guards C. To determine the character and
D. Body guards reputation of certain employees secretly
Answer: D tagged as risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive
118. Whether to put up its own security positions for those who are security
guard organic to the firm or hire contractual risks. Answer: D
agency guards have their individual merits 122. In an industrial firm there is a need for
and disadvantages.To determine which type document security.As security officer,you
of guarding system an industrial firm will can advice management on this aspect
require management must consult although this is not totally your assigned
A. A security consultant not connected to work.Document
security is not a protection of vital records C. key control
from D. Key management
A. Authorized handlers Answer: C
B. Theft or loss
C. Compromise or destruction 126. It is defined as system of barriers
D. Unauthorized access placed between the matters protected and
Answer: A the potential intruder
A. Computer security
123. As a security chief of an industrial B. Personnel security
firm,inventory shows that pilferage is C. Document security
rampant in the warehouses.What will be D. Physical security
your choice of action Answer: D
A. To resign if you have failed your job
B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage 127. This type of alarm system utilizes a
prone areas to catch the culprit station located outside the compound
C. Prepare your protective plans and confer A. Auxiliary system
with management for their immediate B. Proprietary system
implementation C. Central alarm system
D. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of D. Local alarm system
the compound/complex Answer: C
Answer: B
128. It is installed as part of the building
124. There are many types of electronic and which holds up to 10,000 cubic meters of
electric protective devices available for essential items.At least 12 ft. in height with
security buildings,storehouses and enough ventilation and fire proof of at least
compounds.One of the ff: is true one hour.
A. Electronics/electrical devices provide A. Protective cabinet
total protection for the place to be B. File room
safeguarded C. Vault
B. Types of alarms needed can best be D.
given by the dealers of said devices Safe
C. Each building or compound requires Answer: B
particular electronic/electrical protective
devices 129. It is the susceptibility of a plant or
D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate establishment to damage,loss or disruption
human guards of operations due to various hazards.
Answer: C A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
125. The management of keys used in plant C. Relative vulnerability
office or business organization to prevent D. Relative criticality
unauthorized access is referred to as Answer: C
A. Security key control
B. Lock control 130. It refers to the importance of the
establishment with reference to the national plant adequacy and deficiency all aspects of
economy and security. security with the corresponding
A. Risk analysis recommendation.
B. Relative vulnerability A. Security audit
C. Risk assessment B. Security survey
D. Relative criticality C. Security inquiry
Answer: D D. Security operations
Answer: B
131. The association of all licensed security
agencies operators 136. Barrier which includes but not limited
A. POAPAD to wall,fences,grill etc.
B. PADPAO A. Structural barriers
C. PODPAO B. Man made barriers
D. PAOPAD C. Physical barriers
Answer: B D. Natural barriers
Answer: B
132.Who among below can own or operate
security agency? 137. One who steals due to his inability to
A. A Filipino citizen resist the unexpected opportunity and has
B. Anyone provided he knows the little fear of detection.
job A. Systematic
C. An alien but living in the B. Outsider
Philippines C. Casual
D. All of them D. Insider
Answer: A Answer: C
133. A licensed issued to operate security 138. A barrier which includes but not
agency or company forces. limited to mountains, cliffs, ravines, cliffs,
A. Business license etc.
B. License to engage in business A. Energy
C. License to operate B. Human
D. All of them C. Natural
Answer: C D. Animals
Answer: C
134. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation
of 139. Issued by the security guard for
A. Private detective personnel to be admitted to the company.
B. Company security A. Duress code
C. Private security forces/agencies B. Pass system
D. All of them C. ID
Answer: D D. Access list
Answer: B
135. A fact-finding prove to determine a
140. In a close-in security formations, a one A. Electronic hazard
man security covers B. natural hazard
A. 360 degrees C. Artificial hazard
B. 180 degrees D. Human
C. 45 degrees hazard Answer: D
D. 90 degrees
Answer: A 145. Example of the Security
Communication system.
141. A mechanical device of supplying A. Telephone
water which can be manual or motor B. Paging system
driven. C. Radio
A. Stand pipe D. All of them
B. Fire extinguisher Answer: D
C. Fire hydrant
D. Fire pump 146. The revised rules and regulations
Answer: A governing the organization and operation of
private detective and private security
142.Intrusion alarm devices are designed to agencies and company security forces
______ and not prevent criminals from throughout the country.
trespassing and should be used normally as A. Private security law
an independent adjunct and not a B. International law
replacement of the human guard forces. C. Private law
A. Detect D. Security law
B. Deterred Answer: A
C. Provide
D. Impeded 147. A metallic container used for the
Answer: A safekeeping of documents or small items in
an office or installation.
143. An authenticated list of personnel A. Steel cabinet
given to security allowing entry to B. Drawer
compound or installation or part thereof. C. Basket
A. Pass system D. Safe
B. ID Answer: D
C. Access list
D. Duress code 148. A heavily constructed fire and burglar
Answer: C resistant container usually a part of the
building structure used to keep and protect
144. The act or condition affecting the safe cash, document and negotiable instruments.
operation of the facility caused by human A. Basket
action,accidental or intentional.It includes B. Vault
sabotage,espionage,pilferage and theft, C. Steel cabinet
disloyalty,disaffection and subversive D. Concrete
activities. coffin Answer: B
inactive or retirees
149. Steal or plastic pipes located in the B. At least 25 years of age
building from the lowest to the top floor C. Filipino citizen
with water under pressure for use in case of D. All of them
fire. Answer: D
A. Lowering pipe
B. Wet pipe 154. A security force maintained and
C. Top pipe operated by any private company for its
D. Stand pipe own security requirements only.
Answer: D A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
150. Who among below are exempted from C. Government security unit
pre-licensing training? D. Private security
A. AFP and PNP retirees unit Answer: B
B. Graduate of ROTC basic or
advance 155. A person who offers or renders
C. AFP and PNP veterans personal services to watch or secure a
D. All of the residence or business establishment or both
above Answer: D is
A. Watchman
151. Tenure of security personnel is based B. Security guard
on C. B only
A. Can be extended by the client D. B and
B. The service contract between the agency A Answer: D
and the client
C. Labor only contracting between the 156. Include all the security measures
agency and the guard designed to prevent unsuitable individuals
D. Tenure provided by the labor or persons of doubtful loyalty to the
code Answer: B government from gaining access to
classified matter or to any security facility
152. Before private security agencies and to prevent appointment or retention as
render security services to its clients,there employees of such individuals.
must be a contract that must bind them,it is A. Security personnel
called B. Employee security
A. Contract service C. Personnel security
B. Service contract D. Both A and
C. Security contract C Answer: C
D. Security service
contract Answer: D 157. It is an inquiry into the character,
reputation, discretion and loyalty of
153. Which below is a qualification for the individual in order to determine a persons
operator or manager of security agency. suitability to be given security clearance.
A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP, A. BI
B. LAC 162. Motives that cause people to be
C. NAC disloyal
D. PSI A. Character
Answer: D B. Revenge
C. Moral
158. Consist of the investigation of the D.
background of an individual but limited Reputation
only to some of the circumstances of his Answer: B
personal life which are deemed pertinent to
the investigation. 163. Weakness that makes people
A. PSI susceptible to pressure
B. PBI A. Jealousy
C. CBI B. Weakness of character
D. BI C. Close relative in foreign land
Answer: B D. All of
them Answer: D
159. A thorough and complete investigation
of all or some of the circumstances or 164. A security unit maintained and
aspect of a persons life is conducted. operated by any government entity.
A. PSI A. Insular security force
B. PBI B. Company security force
C. CBI C. Government security unit
D. BI D. Private security
Answer: D agency Answer: C
160. Among the following,which is the 165. Cosnsist of the investigation of the
least expensive and least secure personnel background of a person particularly all the
control identification system? circumstances of his personal life
A. Multiple pass system A. PSI
B. Group pass and badge system B. PBI
C. Spot magnetized identification C. CBI
pass D. BI
D. Single pass or badge Answer: C
system Answer: D
166. Any
161. Factors considered in background person,association,partnership,firm or
investigation except: private corporation,who contracts recruits,
A. Integrity trains,furnishes or post any security guards
B. Character to do its functions.
C. Personal prestige A. Insular security force
D. Loyalty B. Company security force
Answer: C C. Government security unit
D. Private security
agency Answer: D A. Top secret
B. Information security
167. Shall be responsible to the detachment C. Personnel security
commander as far as his shift is concerned. D. Documents
A. Officer in charge security Answer: D
B. Shift in charge
C. Security guard on duty 172. Refers to assigned information by one
D. Assistant detachment of the four classification categories
commander Answer: B A. Reclassify
B. Classified
168. Before a security guard can practice C. Declassify
his profession,he shall possess a valid D. Security
security license,What is this license? clearance Answer: B
A. Firearm license
B. License to operate 173. Refers to the administrative
C. Drivers license determination that an individual is eligible
D. Security guard for access to classified matter.
license Answer: D A. Reclassify
B. Classified
169. How many firearms issued for every C. Declassify
two guards employed by the security D. Security
agency is allowed by law? clearance Answer: D
A. 4
B. 3 174. Means loss of security which results
C. 2 from an unauthorized persons obtaining
D. 1 knowledge of classified matter.
Answer: D A. Vulnerability
B. Criticality
170. Firearms of security agency should be C. probability
covered with firearms license issued by the D.
PNP through its Firearm Explosive Compromise
Division under the civil security group Answer: D
renewable every
A. 4 years 175. These are information and material,the
B. 3 years unauthorized disclosure of which would
C. 2 years cause exceptional grave damage to the
D. 1 year nation, politically, economically or from a
Answer: D security aspect,this category is reserved for
the nations closest secret and is to be used
171. The aspect of security which involves with great reserve.
the application of security measures For the A. Restricted matters
protection and safeguarding of classified B. Secret matters
information C. Confidential matters
D. Top secret matters manufacturing,treating or preserving
Answer: D materials,a pattern for machine or device or
a list of customers.
176. These information and material,the A. Transmission security
authorized disclosure of which would B. Trade secret
endanger national security,cause serious C. Patents
injury to the interest or prestige of the D. Proprietary
nation or of any governmental activity or information Answer: B
would be of great advantage to a foreign
nation. 180. It is the protection resulting from the
A. Restricted matters application of various measures which
B. Secret matters prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized
C. Confidential matters persons in gaining information through
D. Top secret communication.
matters Answer: B A. Transmission security
B. Cryptographic security
177. These information and material,the C. Communication security
unauthorized disclosure of which while not D. All of the
endangering the national security would be above Answer: C
prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the
nation or any government activity or would 181. That component of communication
cause administrative embarrassment or security which results from the provisions
unwarranted injury to an individual or of technically sound crypto system and
would be of the advantage to a foreign their proper use.
nation. A. Transmission security
A. Restricted matters B. Cryptographic security
B. Secret matters C. Communication security
C. Confidential matters D. All of the
D. Top secret above Answer: B
matters Answer: C
182. A system which uses words as the
178. It is information that in some special smallest element.
way relates to the status or activities of the A. Transposition system
possessor and over which the possessor B. Code
asserts ownership. C. Concealment
A. Transmission security D.
B. Trade secret Cipher
C. Patents Answer: B
D. Proprietary
information Answer: D 183. A system that manipulate 1,2 or 3
characters at a time.
179. It maybe a formula for a chemical A. Transposition system
compound, a process of B. Code
C. Concealment common human hazards which security has
D. to deal with.
Cipher A. Casual pilferage
Answer: D B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
184. It is the potential damage or loss of an D. None of the
asset. above Answer: C
A. Adversary
B. Risk 189. One who steals with pre conceived
C. Security hazard plans and takes always any or all types of
D. items or supplies for economic gain.A.
Criticality Casual pilferage
Answer: B B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
185. It is the impact of a loss as measured D. None of the
in financial terms. above Answer: B
A. Adversary
B. Risk 190. What date is the Republic Act No.
C. Security hazard 5487 or the private security agency law
D. passed?
Criticality A. June 13, 1999
Answer: D B. June 13, 1969
C. June 7, 2009
186. Eliminating or removing the risk D. June 31,
totally from the business,government or 1969 Answer: B
industrial environment for which the risk
manager has responsibility. 191. A natural hazards or acts of god.
A. Risk self-assumption A. Calamity
B. Risk spreading B. Phenomenon
C. Risk avoidance C. Disaster
D. Risk D. Force
avoidance Answer: majeure Answer: D
C
192. A restricted area where visitors are
187. It is an act of spying. limited in movement and are usually
A. Saboteur escorted.
B. Espionage A. Exclusive area
C. pilferer B. Limited area
D. C. Restricted area
Sabotage D. Protected
Answer: B area Answer: B
188. It is one of the most annoying and 193. A structure placed above a vertical
fence to increase protection from intruder. D.
A. Guard house Peterman
B. Clear zone Answer: D
C. Tower guard
D. Top
guard Answer: D 198. The badge or pass coded for
authorization to enter specific
194.A conference similar to entrance areas is issued to an employee who
conference,this is only done keeps it in his possession
after the completion of security survey. until his authorization terminates.
A. Entrance conference A. Pass system
B. Briefing B. Pass exchange system
C. Debriefing C. Single pass system
D. Exit D. Multi pass
conference Answer: system Answer: C
D
195. It is the lost that would be sustained if 199. Company owned alarm system with a
a given target or unit in the nearest police
combination of target where totally station so that in case of need, direct
removed,destroyed or call is possible.
both. A. Auxiliary alarm
A. Risk reduction B. Proprietary system
B. Probable maximum loss C. Local alarm system
C. Risk transfer D. Central station station
D. Possible maximum system Answer: A
loss Answer: D
200. The system consists of ringing up a
196. Refers to the amount of loss a target visual or audible alarm
would be likely to system near the object to be protected.
sustain through theft and robbery. A. Auxiliary alarm
A. Risk reduction B. Proprietary system
B. Probable maximum loss C. Local alarm system
C. Risk transfer D. Central station
D. Possible maximum system Answer: C
loss Answer: B
Criminalistics Review Questions 1
197. A term used in England for lock 1. There is freehand invitation and is
pickers,safe crackers and considered as the most skilful
penetrators of restricted rooms or area. class of forgery
A. Superman A. simulated or copied forgery
B. Peterpan B. simple forgery
C. Batman C. traced forgery
D. carbon A. Certificate
tracing B. Subpoena
C. Warrant
2. Condensed and compact set of authentic D. Document
specimen which is
adequate and proper, should contain a
cross section 7. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the
of the material from known sources. slope or downward
A. disguised document flow of the innermost sufficient
B. questioned document recurve is towards the
C. standard document thumb of radius bone of the hand of
D. requested origin.
document A. ulnar loop
B. tented arch
3. Specimens of hand writing or of C. accidental whorl
typescript which is of known D. radial loop
origin.
A. Letters
B. Samples 8. The forking or dividing of one line to
C. Exemplars two or more branches.
D. A. Ridge
Documents B. Island
C. Delta
4. A document which is being questioned D. Bifurcation
because of its origin, its
contents or the circumstances or the
stories of its production. 9. The point on a ridge at or in front of and
A. disputed document nearest the center of
B. standard document the divergence of the type lines.
C. requested document A. Divergence
D. questioned B. Island
document C. Delta
D. Bifurcation
5. The art of beautiful writing is known as
A. Drafting
B. Calligraphy 10.The following are considerations used
C. Art appreciation for the identification
D. Gothic of a loop except one:
A. Delta
B. Core
6. Any written instrument by which a right C. a sufficient recurve
or obligation is D. a ridge count across a looping
established. bridge
11.The process of recording fingerprint 16.The impressions left by the patterns of
through the use of ridges and depressions on
fingerprint ink. various surfaces.
A. Pathology A. kiss marks
B. Fingerprinting B. finger rolls
C. Dactyloscopy C. thumb marks
D. Printing press D. fingerprints
12.The fingerprint method of identification. 17.Which among the following is not
A. Pathology considered as a basic fingerprint
B. Fingerprinting pattern?
C. Dactyloscopy A. Arch
D. Printing press B. Accidental
C. Loop
D. Whorl
13.Two lines that run parallel or nearly
parallel, diverge and
surround the pattern area. 18.The minimum identical characteristics to
A. Ridges justify the identity
B. Delta between two points.
C. Type line A. Eighteen
D. Bifurcation B. Fifteen
C. Twelve
D. Nine
14.A part of the whorl or loop in which
appear the cores, deltas
and ridges. 19.A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges
A. type line form a sequence of
B. bifurcation spirals around core axes.
C. pattern area A. whorl
D. furrow B. double loop
C. central pocket loop
D. accidental
15.Fingerprints left on various surfaces at
the crime scene which are
not clearly visible. 20.A fingerprint pattern which one or more
A. plane impressions ridges enter on either side
B. visible fingerprints of the impression by a recurve, and
C. rolled impressions terminate on the same side
D. latent fingerprints where the ridge has entered.
A. Loop
B. radial loop a predetermined time interval.
C. ulnar loop A. holder of sensitized material
D. tented arch B. view finder
C. shutter
D. view finder
21.A person allowed who gives his/her
opinion or conclusion on a
given scientific evidence is considered 26.A lens with a focal length of less than
A. interrogator the diagonal of its negative
B. expert witness material.
C. prosecutor A. telephoto lens
D. judge B. long lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angle lens
22.The application of scientific knowledge
and techniques in the
detection of crime and apprehension of 27.Chemical used as an accelerator in a
criminals. developer solution.
A. Law Enforcement A. Potassium Bromide
Administration B. Sodium Carbonate
B. Forensic Administration C. Sodium Sulfite
C. Criminal Psychology D. Hydroquinone
D. Criminalistics
19. Circumscribed extravation of blood or 24. Types of fingerprint patters, except:
subcutaneous tissue or A. Arches
underneath the mucous membrane. B. Ordinary
A. Contusion C. Loop
B. Petechia D.
C. Abrasion Whorl
D. All of them
25. It is any unusual pattern of sexual
behavior including habitual,
20. Among the following, which has the preference and completing need for
greatest value in scientific sexual gratification by any
examination/identification?
A. Dental examination means except sexual intercourse which
B. Fingerprinting results to bodily
C. Photography excitement
D. Pictures Parle A. Virginity
B. Sexual intercourse
C. Prostitution
21. One is a condition that can approximate D. Sexual
the time of death. deviation
A. Cadaver
B. Magnus test 26. An open wound produced by a sharp-
C. Rigor mortis pointed instrument and is
D. None of these characterized by a small opening of the
wound.
22. The means sanctioned by the law, of A. Gunshot wound
ascertaining the judicial B. Stab wound
power/proceeding, the truth respecting C. Shrapnel wound
D. Punctured wound A. Bore
Answer: D B. Barrel
C. Rifling
27. A physical injury wherein the offended D. Primer
victim is incapacitated for Answer: A
work or requires medical assistance for 32. The portion of the gun which is held or
10 days or more but not shouldered is called
A. Slight physical injury A. Buckle
B. Mutilation B. Buttstock
C. Serious physical injury C. Handle
D. less serious physical D. End
injury Answer: D joint Answer: B
28. It is the type of burn due to gamma rays 33. In a gun, the portion of the "action" that
and which is difficult to holds the cartridge ready
remedy: for firing is called
A. Thermal burn A. Gas tube
B. Electric burn B. Chamber
C. Chemical burn C. Double-action
D. Radiation burn D. Trigger
Answer: D Answer: B
29. The metal tube through which the bullet 34. A metal rod or plate that strikes the
is fired is called cartridge primer to detonate
A. Bore the powder.
B. Barrel A. Spring
C. Baretta B. Trigger guard
D. Bromet C. Hammer
Answer: B D. Revolver
Answer: C
30. The old form of gunpowder invented
over a thousand years ago 35. This is a device for storing cartridges in
and consisting of nitrate, charcoal, and a repeating firearm for
sulfur. loading into the chamber. Also referred
A. Chinese Powder to as a "clip".
B. Black Powder A. Clipper
C. Gray Powder B. Holder
D. All of these C. Pin or pinhead
Answer: B D. None of these
Answer: D
31. The inside of the barrel is generally
termed as 36. A device that fits over the muzzle of the
barrel to muffle the C. Core
sound of a gunshot. Most work by D. Cuticle
baffling the escape of gases. Answer: B
A. Buffer
B. Silencer 40. Who was the noted British Examiner of
C. Magazine questioned documents said
D. Hanger that an intelligent police investigator
Answer: B can detect almost 75% of all
forgeries by careful inspection of a
37. Under the management of Lt. Darby document with simple
during the American magnifiers and measuring tools?
occupation in the Philippines, a modern A. Dr. Arthur Stoll
and complete fingerprint B. Dr. Aristotle Curt
file has been established for the C. Dr. William Harrison
Philippine commonwealth. In 1937, D. Dr. Benjamin Jones
the first Filipino fingerprint technician Answer: C
employed by the Phil.
Constabulary was 41. In police photography studies, what are
A. Mr. Generoso Reyes called the thin, gelatinous,
B. Mr. Amado Delos Santos light-sensitive coatings on film that
C. Mr. Calixto Solis react chemically to capture
D. None of these the color and shadings of a scene?
Answer: A A. Films
B. Emulsions
38. The first leading judicial decision in the C. Chemical Coatings
Philippine jurisprudence on D. None of these
the science of fingerprinting was the Answer: B
case of
A. People vs Medina 42. A medium that divert or absorb light,
B. People vs Pineda but does not allow lights to
C. People vs Amador pass though, they absorb most of the
D. People vs. Rosas light while reflecting some of
Answer: A it is called
A. Opaque object
39. What is the intermediate and the B. Convection
thickest layer of the hair and is C. Visible light
composed of elongated, spindle-shaped D. Prisms
fibrils which cohere? They Answer: A
contain pigment granules in varying
proportion depending on the 43. In the practice of polygraphy, what do
type of hair. you call questions
A. Medulla unrelated to the matter under
B. Cortex investigation but are of similar
nature although less serious as compared fingerprint which maybe compared with
to those relevant the low area in a tire
questions under investigation? tread.
A. Irrelevant questions A. None of these
B. Relevant questions B. Envelope
C. Control questions C. Furrows
D. Interrogative questions D. Bifurcation
Answer: C Answer: C
44. What test is given if a subject of 48. In the study of questioned documents,
interrogation is not yet informed what do you call the
of the details of the offense for which he quality of paper that does not allow light
is being interrogated by to pass through or which
the investigation, or by other persons or prevents dark objects from being seen
from other sources like through the paper?
the print media? A. Opacity
A. Peak of Tension test B. Watermarks
B. Control test C. Skid marks
C. IQ Test D. Invisibility
D. Guilt Complex Test Answer: A
Answer: A
49. What is the oldest ink material known?
45. In fingerprinting, the space between A. Ball point pen ink
shoulders of a loop, free of B. Chinese Ink
any appendage, and a butting at right C. Aniline Ink
angle. D. White Ink
A. Complete curve Answer: B
B. Sufficient Recurve
C. Straight arrow 50. It is the art of extracting and working
D. Core on metals by the application
Answer: B of chemical and physical knowledge.
A. Cryptography
46. The term use to refer to a single B. Metallurgy
recurving ridge enclosing one or C. Casting
more rods or bars of a fingerprint. D. Matalisky
A. None of these Answer: B
B. Envelope
C. Furrows 51. The branch of geology that deals with
D. Bifurcation the systematic
Answer: B classification and identification of
rocks, rock forming minerals and
47. These are depressions or canals soil.Also includes study of dust, dirt,
between the ridges of a safe insulation, ceramics and
other such materials, both natural and Answer: A
artificial.
A. Petrography 56. The ratio of the weight of the powder
B. Serology charge to the weight of the
C. Anthropology projectile is called
D. Ecology A. Power to speed ratio
Answer: A B. Charge weight to bullet weight
ratio
52. In a fire, the presence of reddish brown C. Firing pin stroke ratio
smoke indicates D. All of these
A. Nitrocellulose Answer: B
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Nitric acid 57. Chemical rearrangement of molecules
D. All of these into gas instead of solids to
Answer: D cause the high explosives to exert full
power of shock. The speed
53. The bending of light around an object varies in different explosive but in some
gives rise to the it is as high as 7000 yards
phenomenon called in a second. This refers to
A. attraction A. Energy
B. diffraction B. Gas
C. light curve C. Detonation
D. light fingerprint D. Gun powder
Answer: B Answer: C
54. Under the law of reflection, The angle 58. What occurs when a cartridge fails to
of reflection depends upon explode on time or delayed
the angle of the light striking the in firing?
material, which is referred to as A. Knocking Power
the B. Hang fire
A. angle of incidence C. Recoil
B. angle of biometry D. None of
C. angle of light these Answer: B
D. none of these
Answer: A 59. In China, fingerprint is called ___. It
was valued for purposes of
55. In ballistics, what is the pressure identification since time immemorial as
generated within the chamber found on a Chinese clay
erroneously called breeched pressure? seal made not later than the 3rd Century
A. Chamber Pressure B.C.
B. Barrel Pressure A. Hua Chi
C. Gunpowder B. Mah Whang
D. None of these C. Wong Cho
D. Tiang Hin C. John Dellinger
Answer: A D. Billy the Kid
Answer: C
60. Who has given the fame title as “Father
of Dactyloscopy”? 64. What is the science of palm print
A. Johannes Purkinje identification?
B. Leonard Keeler A. Chiroscopy
C. Charles Darwin B. Poroscopy
D. Sir Francis Galton C. Podoscopy
Answer: A D.
Astrology
61. In Hoogly, district of Bengal, India, he Answer: B
used fingerprints to prevent
fraudulent collection of army pay 65. A single ridge which splits into two
account and for identification of ridges forming a “Y” shape
other documents. He was known as the formation or structure is commonly
Father of Chiroscopy. known as
A. William Herschel A. Diverging ridges
B. Francis Galton B. Bifurcating ridges
C. Gilbert Thompson C. Loop
D. Alphonse Bertillon D. Delta
Answer: A Answer: B
62. A noted British anthropologist who 66. Symbolized by letter W in the
began observation which led to fingerprint classification. It is a
the publication in 1882 of his book fingerprint pattern which there are two
“Fingerprints.” That deltas and in which at
established the individuality of least one ridge makes a turn through one
classifying fingerprint patterns. complete circuit.
A. Francis Galton A. Plain whorl
B. Gilbert Thompson B. Central pocket loop whorl
C. Wayne Kate C. Accidental loop
D. Alphonse Bertillon D. Ulnar loop
Answer: A Answer: A
52.The main product of the combustion of 56.A type of fire which results from
carbon. It is not burning of wood, paper,
poisonous but is an asphyxia which textiles, and other carbonaceous
lowers the proportion of materials.Extinguishment of
oxygen available for breathing. this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. carbon oxide A. class A
B. carbon monoxide B. class B
C. carbon paper C. class C
D. carbon dioxide D. class D
Answer: D Answer: A
53.A normal product of combustion, and is 57.The following are components of fire
poisonous, especially except one:
when the air supply to the fire is A. Gas
restricted. B. Fuel
A. carbon oxide C. Oxygen
B. carbon monoxide D. Heat
C. carbon paper Answer: A
D. carbon dioxide
Answer: B 58.It is observed in structural fires and can
be an indicator of
54.The fire resisting property of structural the fire travel and point of origin.
elements and the A. Charring
behavior of a building material in a fire, B. Alligatoring
it is used to predict C. V pattern
how long it will resist the effect of a fire D. Pour pattern
before it fails. Answer: A
C. pyromania
59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular D. pyrophobia
lines in glass and wood. Answer:
A. Crazing C
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs 64.It is known as the “Fire Code of the
D. Charring Philippines.”
Answer: A A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay C. PD 1081
the start of the fire D. PD 1185
and allow him to establish an alibi. Answer: D
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic 65.Any material or mixture consisting of a
C. timing device fuel and oxidizer used
D. stopper to set off explosives.
Answer: C A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
61.It can be readily identified by their C. gun powder
distinctive odors, and the D. explosive primer
most common examples are gasoline, Answer: A
turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants 66.These are description of materials or
B. Trailers compounds that are
C. timing device easily set on fire except one:
D. Stopper A. Combustible
Answer: A B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
62.This catalytic combustion device is the D. Inflammable
most common means Answer: B
employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant 67.Any material having a flash point at or
B. Sniffer above 37.80 degree
C. timing device Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
D. stopper A. combustible liquid
Answer: B B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion D. corrosive liquid
to start a fire and Answer: A
experience gratification and satisfaction
from it. 68.Any liquid that causes fire when in
A. fire starter syndrome contact with organic matter.
B. pyrotechnic disease A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid 73.The temperature at which a liquid is
C. inflammable liquid transformed or converted to
D. corrosive liquid vapor.
Answer: A A. burning point
B. melting point
69.An extremely hot luminous bridge C. freezing point
formed by the passage of an D. boiling point
electric current across the space between Answer: B
two conductors.
A. electrical arc 74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to
B. damper escape from a
C. duct system collision course or to avoid hazard.
D. ember A. point of no return
Answer: A B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
70.The active principle of burning, D. final position
characterized by the heat Answer: C
and light combustion.
A. explosion 75.The movement of vehicles, and
B. arson pedestrians in a road or highway.
C. combustion A. Traffic
D. fire B. Flight
Answer: D C. Trip
D. Journey
71.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and Answer: A
gasses.
A. class A 76.A method of locating a spot in the area
B. Class B by measurements from
C. Class C two or more reference points.
D. Class D A. traffic report
Answer: B B. spot report
C . triangulation
72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example D. accident investigation
a liquid or a gas where Answer: C
fluid at one temperature and density
moves under the influence 77.The force that tends to pull all objects to
of gravity at different temperatures. the center of the
A. Conduction earth.
B. Convection A. Inertia
C. Radiation B. Friction
D. Combustion C. Energy
Answer: B D. Gravity
Answer: D
D. D. traffic violation
78.Any motor vehicle accident that results Answer: A
in no death, but only
injuries to one or more persons. 83.The first accidental touching of an
A. Fatal object collision course
B. Chronic or otherwise avoid a hazard.
C. Non fatal A. primary contact
D. Injurious B. secondary contact
Answer: B C. disengagement
D. initial contact
79.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Answer: D
Code of the Philippines”
A. RA 7160 84.The following are the three E’s of
B. RA 8551 Traffic Management and
C. RA 6425 Operation except one:
D. RA 4136 A. Engineering
Answer: D B. Education
C. Enforcement
80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, D. Evaluation
which usually produces Answer: D
unintended injury, death or property
damage. 85.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs
A. traffic incidents Act of 2002.”
B. traffic accidents A. RA 9870
C. traffic hazards B. RA 9165
D. traffic events C. RA 1017
Answer: B D. RA 6195
Answer: B
81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring
on a traffic way. 86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration,
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident varying emotional
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic change, thought disruption and ego
accident distortion. They are called
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident psychedelics.
D. motor vehicle traffic accident A. Tranquillizers
Answer: D B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
82.An order wherein a violator is D. Depressants
commanded to appear in court, Answer: B
but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation 87.Drugs which produce insensibility,
B. traffic request stupor, melancholy or
C. traffic warrant dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants depravity, wickedness and corruption of
B. Narcotics the mind and body.
C. Depressants A. Vice
D. Hallucinogens B. Abuse
Answer: B C. Addiction
D. Virtue
88.The practice or profession of having Answer: A
sexual intercourse for
money or profit. 93.The most common form of stimulant.
A. Gynecology A. Heroin
B. Prostitution B. Codeine
C. White Slavery C. Morphine
D. Sex Trade D. Shabu
Answer: B Answer: D
89.The scientific name of Indian hemp 94.It is chemically known as
plant. methamphetamine hydro chloride.
A. cannabis sativa L A. Heroin
B. Papaver somniforum B. Codeine
C. deoxyribonucleic acid C. Morphine
D. methamphetamine HCl D. None of these
Answer: A Answer: D
90.The original components of heroin and 95.A derivative of opium which is used a
morphine. cough reliever.
A. Codeine A. Codeine
B. Caffeine B. Heroin
C. Opium C. Morphine
D. Methamphetamine D. Caffeine
Answer: C Answer: A
91.An inter department agency that enforce 96.Any part of the plant of the papaver
and carry out the law somniferum, including the
against illegal drugs. seeds.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement A. opium poppy
Agency B. marijuana
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs C. caffeine components
C. Dangerous Drug Board D. codeine
D. Food and Drug Administration Answer: A
Answer: A
97.Another term for psychological drug
92.A harmful conduct or habit, the addiction.
indulgence of which leads to A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness 10. A 35. C
C. drug pushing 11. D 36. B
D. drug dependence 12. D 37. D
Answer: D 13. D 38. C
14. B 39. C
98.Commercially produced drugs that can 15. C 40. B
be legally sold or 16. C 41. D
dispensed only by a physician’s order. 17. D 42. A
A. illegal drugs 18. D 43. C
B. prohibited drugs 19. D 44. B
C. regulated drugs 20. B 45. C
D. prescription drugs 21. A 46. B
Answer: D 22. A 47. C
23. A 48. D
99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of 24. B 49. C
its chemical nature 25. B 50. D
alters the structure and functioning of Sociology of Crimes Review Questions
living organism. 1. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez
A. Alcohol asking the police officer to
B. Poison run after an unidentified young man who
C. Drug allegedly snatched her mobile
D. Vice phone. PO3 Gomez declined claiming that
Answer: C the man was
already a block away from them and
100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for besides the police officer
obtaining information alleged that he is rushing home for an
to determine the origin and cause of fire. urgent matter. The
officer’s refusal to help the old woman
A. Evidence collection is an example of
B. laboratory examination of A. nonfeasance
evidence B. malfeasance
C. interview witnesses C. misfeasance
D. interrogation of suspects D. misconduct
Answer: C
1. C 26. A Answer: A
2. D 27. A
3. D 28. D 2. When the accused is found not guilty of
4. D 29. B the charges presented
5. D 30. A before the court, he is
6. A 31. A A. convicted
7. C 32. A B. suspended
8. A 33. C C. acquitted
9. A 34. A D. absuelto
Answer: A
Answer: C
7. What aggressive behavior includes
3. Guilty by act means cursing/swearing, intentional
A. Actus Reus destruction of property, and self
B. Actus Numbus destructive behaviors?
C. Giltus reus A. Isolated
D. Rea mensa B. Covert
C. Interactive
Answer: A D . Overt
4. If physiological or psychological Answer: A
dependence on some agent are
obviously detected from a person, he is 8. What aggressive behavior includes the
in the state of emotional and cognitive
A. dependency or addiction components of aggression such as anger
B. comatose and hostility?
C. insanity A. Covert
D. metamorphosis B. Dynamic
C. Interactive
Answer: A D. Directive
5. Which of the following is described as Answer: A
the threatening behaviors,
either verbal or physical, directed at 9. When there is an apparent, intentional,
others and physically aggressive
A. Abnormality act irrespective of severity against
B. Dependency another person, there is
C. Aggression A. Battering
D. Violence B. Assault
C. Chaos
Answer: C D. Crisis
6. What aggressive behavior includes Answer: B
repeated noncompliance to a
direct command, verbal abuse-name 10.What kind of assault committed when it
calling, verbal abuse-threat, includes kicking,
and physical abuse? punching,deliberately throwing an
A. Interactive object and drawing a lethal
B. Isolated weapon against someone?
C. Covert A. Mental
D. Overt B. Physical
C. Sexual
D. Verbal B. Conspiracy theory
C. Neurotic Mind theory
Answer: B D. Dementia praecox
Answer: A
11.Allege means
A. Assert or make an accusation 15.A term used to describe a clinical
B. remove from its position condition in young children who
C. direct an act from doing
D. intentional mutilation have received non-accidental,
Answer: A inexcusable violence or injury,
ranging from minimal to severe or fatal
12.What do you call measures other than trauma, at the hand of
judicial proceedings used an adult in a position of trust, generally
a parent or guardian
to deal with a young person alleged to A. Battered Child Syndrome
have committed an B. Incapacitated Child Syndrome
offense? C. Abuse Trauma Syndrome
A. Rehabilitation D. None of these
B. Alternative measures Answer: A
C. Individual response against bad
behavior 16.When we say capital offense, it means:
D. Extra judicial proceedings A. a very serious crime, for which
Answer: B the death penalty is
imposed
13.What do we call the psychological, B. the highest penalty for selected
emotional and behavioral offenses
C. total punishment of offender by
reactions and deficits of women victims incarceration
and their inability to D. all of the above
respond effectively to repeated physical Answer: A
and psychological
violence?
A. Woman Menopausal Syndrome 17.At trial, the authenticity of an item as
B. Battered Woman Syndrome evidence is crucial,
C. Violence against women whether it be a physical object like a
D. M'Naghten Rule bullet, a medical record or a
Answer: B photograph. The item cannot be offered
in court without a
14.What is the theory that tumors and testimonial sponsor who can vouch for
seizures have been its unaltered authenticity
associated with aggression and violent to the court and the jury. To validate an
behavior? items unaltered
A. Brain lesion theory authenticity, a record must be kept of
each and every time the evidence to the
item changes hands. This refers to contrary, and which is not related to
A. Records management cultural or religious beliefs
B. Presentation of evidence in court A. False alarm
C. Chain of custody B. Wrong perception
D. Laboratory analysis of items C. Incoherence
Answer: A D. Delusion
Answer: D
18.The negligent treatment or maltreatment
of a child by a parent or 22.Which of the following is an act
caretaker under circumstances indicating committed by a juvenile for
harm or threatened which an adult could be prosecuted in a
harm to the child's health or welfare is criminal court?
known as A. Adult offense
A. Child Abuse B. Status offense
B. Child Neglect C. Delinquency offense
C. Child Dilemma D. Children in conflict with the
D. Child in conflict with the law law Answer: C
Answer: C
23.Anything that has been used, left,
19.The exchange of sexual favors for removed, altered or
money or other material goods contaminated during the commission of
without any emotional involvement a crime by either the
involving a person under the suspect or victim is part of
age of 18 years is called A. Evidence
A. Child prostitution B. Modus operandi
B. Child trafficking C. Recidivism
C. Both A and B are correct D. Preservation of crime scene
D. Both A and B are wrong Answer: A
Answer: A
24.Generally, putting to death a person, as a
20.An abuse that is kept secret for a legal penalty, is called
purpose, concealed, or A. Infliction
underhanded is called B. Execution
A. Clandestine abuse C. Murder
B. Clinical abuse D. Capital punishment
C. Overt abuse Answer: B
D. Abuse of authority
Answer: A 25.Among the following, what is the form
of abuse where the use of
21.A false belief based on an incorrect the victim is for selfish purposes and or
inference about external financial gain?
reality and firmly sustained despite clear A. Verbal Abuse
B. Exploitation rather than by courts or
C. Racketeering judges.
D. Khotongism A. Criminal procedure
Answer: C B. Administrative procedure
C. Summary procedure
26.The most common legal grounds for D. Trial
termination of parental rights, Answer: B
also a form of child abuse in most states.
Sporadic visits, a few 30.A legal relationship between two people
phone calls, or birthday cards are not not biologically related,
sufficient to maintain usually terminating the rights of
parental rights. biological parents, and usually
A. Exploitation with a trial "live-in" period. Once it is
B. Abuse finalized, the records are
C. Neglect sealed and only the most compelling
D. Abandonment interests will enable
Answer: D disclosure of documents.
A. Adoption
27.Which of the following is defined as B. Foster parenting
acts or omissions by a legal C. Common law relationship
caretaker that encompasses a broad D. Brotherhood
range of acts, and usually Answer: A
requires proof of intent.
A. Abuse 31.What is the legal doctrine establishing
B. Exploitation court as determiner of best
C. Neglect environment for raising child which is
D. Abandonment an alternative to the Parens
Answer: A Patriae Doctrine?
A. Rights of Society
28.The phase of a delinquency hearing B. Miranda Doctrine
similar to a "trial" in adult C. Best interest of the Child Rule
criminal court,except that juveniles have D. Parental Obligation
no right to a jury trial, a Answer: C
public trial, or bail.
A. Acquittal 32.What was the case that allowed second
B. Conviction prosecution in adult
C. Adjudication court for conviction in juvenile court
D. Entertainment which was based on idea
Answer: C that first conviction was a "civil"
matter?
29.Any of the processes involving A. Case Law
enforcement of care, custody, or B. Breed v. Jones
support orders by an executive agency C. Miranda v. Arizona
D. Matt v. Jeff delinquent.
Answer: B A. Summon
B. Subpoena
33.The Law established by the history of C. Custodial confinement
judicial decisions in cases D. Rehabilitation order
decided by judges, as opposed to Answer: C
common law which is
developed from the history of judicial 37.___ is anyone under the care of someone
decisions and social else. A child ceases to
customs. be a dependent when they reach the age
A. Case Law of emancipation.
B. Breed v. Jones A. Delinquent
C. Miranda v. Arizona B. Dependent
D. Matt v. Jeff C. Independent
Answer: A D. Recognizance
Answer: B
34.The filing of legal papers by a child
welfare agency when its 38.It a phase of delinquency proceeding
investigation has turned up evidence of similar to "sentencing"
child abuse. This is a phase of adult trial. The judge must
civil,rather than criminal, charge consider alternative,
designed to take preventive innovative, and individualized sentences
action, like appointment of a guardian rather than imposing
for at-risk children before standard sentences.
abuse occurs. A. Preliminary investigation
A. Child prosecution B. Judgment
B. Child protection action C. Disposition
C. Parens Patriae D. Probationary period
D. Preliminary investigation Answer: C
Answer: B
39.The independence of a minor from his
35.The act of being responsible for or her parents before
enforcing child support reaching age of majority is known as
obligations is known as A. Enlightenment
A. Child’s care B. Recognizance
B. Parental Guidance C. Emancipation
C. Child at risk D. Freedom from parental
D. Child support obligation Answer: C
Answer: D
40.A clause requiring government to treat
36.A court order for placement in a secure similarly situated people
facility, separate from the same or have good reason for
adults, for the rehabilitation of a juvenile treating them differently.
Compelling reasons are considered to of a child's inheritance. Guardians are
exist for treating children usually compensated for
differently. their services.
A. Bill of Rights A. Guardianship
B. Equal Protection B. Order of Authority
C. Parens Patriae C. In Loco Parentis
D. Diversion D. Parens Patriae
Answer: B Answer: A
41.What is the legal doctrine preventing 45.Teachers, administrators, and babysitters
unemancipated children who are viewed as
from suing their parents? having some temporary parental rights
A. Parens Patriae Doctrine & obligations are
B. Equal Protection considered
C. Family Immunity Doctrine A. Guardianship
D. Poisonous Tree B. Order of Authority
Doctrine Answer: C C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
42.What is the legal doctrine holding Answer: C
parents liable for injuries caused
by a child's negligent driving or other 46.What is the legal doctrine establishing
actions? "parental" role of state
A. Family Purpose Doctrine over welfare of its citizens, especially its
B. Family Immunity Doctrine children?
C. Parens Patriae Doctrine A. Guardianship
D. None of the above B. Order of Authority
Answer: A C. In Loco Parentis
D. Parens Patriae
43.Guardian ad litem means: Answer: D
A. “For the Proceeding"
B. “Protection of child by the law” 47.The emergency, temporary custody by a
C. “Guardians of the little children” child welfare agency,
D. “Legal authority” police agency, or hospital for reasons of
Answer: A immanent danger to the
child is called
44.A court order giving an individual or A. Preventive detention
organization legal authority B. Diversion
over a child. A guardian of the person is C. Witness protection program
usually an individual and D. Protective custody
the child is called a ward. A guardian of Answer: D
the estate is usually an
organization, like a bank, which 48.What is the legal doctrine granting
manages the property and assets custody to the parent whom
the child feels the greatest emotional 52.A parent who provided an egg, sperm,
attachment to? or uterus with an intent of
A. Psychological Parent giving the child up for adoption to
B. Maternity specific parties.
C. Paternity A. None of these
D. Parental Selection B. Stepparent
Answer: A C. Foster Parent
D. Surrogate Parent
49.A disposition requiring a defendant to Answer: D
pay damages to a victim.
The law prohibits making it a condition 53.What is the legal doctrine that unless the
of receiving probation. mother is "unfit", very
Poor families cannot be deprived of young children should be placed in
probation simply because custody with their mother
they are too poor to afford it. following a divorce?
A. Bond A. Tender Years Doctrine
B. Surety B. Psychological Parent Doctrine
C. Restitution C. Unwed Mother’s Doctrine
D. Protection money D. Illegitimacy
Answer: C Answer: A
50.An activity illegal when engaged in by a 54.What is declared of a temporary or
minor, but not when done permanent termination of
by an adult. Examples include truancy, parental rights in the best interest of the
curfew, running away, or child usually for
habitually disobeying parents. reasons of abandonment, abuse, or
A. Adult Offenses neglect, but also including
B. Minor Offenses mental illness, addiction, or criminal
C. Status Offenses record?
D. Stubbornness A. Unfit Parent
Answer: C B. Psychological Incapacitation
C. Mental Disturbance
51.A spouse of a biological parent who has D. Child at risk
no legal rights or duties Answer: B
to the child other than those which have
been voluntarily 55.It refers to the security given for the
accepted. release of the person in
A. Maternity custody of the law, furnished by him/her
B. Paternity or a bondsman, to
C. Stepparent guarantee his/her appearance before any
D. Foster parent court.
Answer: C A. Surety
B. Money order
C. Conditions as:
D. None of these A. Arrest
Answer: D B. Initial contact
C. Child custody
56.It refers to the totality of the D. All of the above
circumstances and conditions most Answer: B
congenial to the survival, protection and
feelings of security of 60.The series of activities designed to
the child and most encouraging to the address issues that caused
child’s physical, the child to commit an offense. It may
psychological and emotional take the form of an
development. individualized treatment program, which
A. Best interest of the child may include counseling,
B. Rights skills training, education, and other
C. Obligations activities that will enhance
D. Child’s role his/her psychological, emotional and
Answer: A psycho-social well-being is
called
57.Children who are vulnerable to and at A. reformation guide
the risk of committing B. intervention
criminal offenses because of personal, C. diversion
family and social D. welfare procedures
circumstances are considered Answer: B
A. Abused Children
B. Neglected Children 61.An undertaking in lieu of a bond
C. Children in conflict with the law assumed by a parent or
D. Children at risk custodian who shall be responsible for
Answer: D the appearance in court of
the child in conflict with the law, when
58.A child who is alleged as, accused of, or required is known as
adjudged as, having A. Status offense
committed an offense under Philippine B. None of these
laws is considered C. Recognizance
A. Child at risk D. Bail
B. Child in conflict with the law Answer: C
C. Minor offense
D. Juvenile offender 62.What is the type of offense committed
Answer: B where there is no private
offended party involved?
59.The apprehension or taking into custody A. Status offense
of a child in conflict with B. Victimless crime
the law by law enforcement officers or C. Minor crime
private citizens is termed D. None of these
Answer: B C. The belief that man is a demon
and devil
63.What is the doctrine that requires a D. The belief that man is evolved
process of resolving conflicts from the animal ape.
with the maximum involvement of the
victim, the offender and Answer: B
the community?
A. Proactive justice 66.Among the following classical thoughts
B. Restorative justice in Criminology is not
C. Reactive justice correct:
D. All of the above A. The Classical school of
Answer: B Criminology is spearheaded by
Bentham and Beccaria.
64.One of the following is an act B. The Classical School of
constituting exploitation and sex Criminology is an advocate of
abuse among children in exchange of punishment as a deterrent to
any form of incentive. crime.
A. Child trafficking C. The Classical School of
B. Child abuse Criminology argues that criminals
C. Child prostitution were primitive creatures,
D. Child racketeering incapable of living normally in
Answer: C society.
D. The Classical School of
65.Centuries ago, criminal behavior was Criminology also argued that
believed to be the result of nature has placed mankind under
evil spirits and demons.Guilt and the governance of two
innocence were established by a sovereign masters, “pain” and
variety of procedures that presumably “pleasure’.
called forth the
supernatural allies of the accused. The
accused were innocent if Answer: C
they could survive an ordeal, they were
guilty if they died at the 67.What school of thought in Criminology
stake or if omens were associated with challenges the proposition
them. In the 18th that man has absolute free will to
century,this spiritual determination choose between good and evil
began to give way to: and states that it is not absolute as
A. The belief that there is no such presumed to be because
thing as bad spirits free will can be diminished by
B. The belief that humans are pathology, mental disorders and
rational creatures with free other conditions that may instigate
will,who seek happiness and personal responsibility?
pleasure and avoid pain A. Neo-classical School of
Criminology they could best
B. Positivism understand human behavior by
C. Hedonistic Calculus searching for a stable, consistent
D. Radical Criminology personality dispositions or traits that
Answer: A exert orderly generalized
effects on behavior. Which among the
68.The Classical School of thoughts in following theory on
Criminology is based on the Criminal Behavior is not consistent with
principle of free will. The positivist the previous statement?
thoughts on the other hand is A.Psychoanalytical Theory
focused on the principle of: B.Strain Theory
A. Darwinism C.Behavioral descriptions
B. Determinism D.Psychological Determination
C. Cognitive Functioning Answer: B
D. Conceptual Thinking
Answer: B 72.Based on the Lombroso’s works, he
classified criminals as: the
69.The Differential Association Theory born criminal, the habitual, the
provides a good illustration of passionate and the criminoloid.
a social learning approach perspective in Which of the following statements
Criminology Criminal describe a criminoloid?
behavior according to this theory is: A. the morally insane and hysteric
A. A result of an emotional criminal
disturbance B. the impulsive and cruel criminal
B. An inmate quality of goodness or C. the “weak natures” susceptible to
badness bad examples
C. Learned and not inherited D. the primitive and atavist
D. An excess of wisdom Answer: C
Answer: C
73.Some criminology theorists have linked
70.What perspective in Criminology probes physical characteristics
the situational or with personality. Among these theories
environmental action and examines the is William Sheldon’s
underlying conditions with Somatotyping theory. He classified body
in the environment that may encourage physique into three
criminal behavior? categories as the endomorphic, the
A. Psychiatric Criminology mesomorphic and the
B. Psychological Criminology ectomorphic body. Of the following
C. Sociological Criminology statements, which
D. Criminal Anthropology appropriately describes the
Answer: C mesomorphic?
A. the twin and fragile with
71.In the past, psychologist assumed that withdrawn behavior
B. the muscular and hard physique Enforcement in the
C. the attractive and beautifully U.S.
shaped
D. the fat and soft body type Answer: A
Answer: B
77.One family background predictors in
74.According to Hans Eyesenck, in his juvenile delinquency is
study about the behavioral broken home. The term broken home is
character and incidence to crime, the ambiguous but can be
typical extravert is one characterized by:
who is: A. Inadequate type of family
A. sociable, impulsive, optimistic structure
and has high needs for B. Anti-social type of family
excitement structure
B. reserved, quiet and cautious C. Discordant or disturbed family
C. undersized, short and untidy structure
D. over sized, heavy and firm D. Disrupted or incomplete family
Answer: A structure Answer: D
89.The best PCR a police officer can do to 93.The one who makes complete estimate
the community is of the crisis situation and
plans his courses of actions upon arrival taker is due to
at the incident area A. selfishness
while negotiation is in progress is the B. personal grudge
A. Chief Negotiator C. personal affection
B. Tactical Commander D. personal interest
C. Fire fighting team Answer: C
D. Support Unit Commander
Answer: B 98.The stage of advance planning,
organization and coordination
94.A comprehensive plan which delineates and control in response to an anticipated
responsibilities and future crisis occurrence
specific action to be taken when a bomb is called
incident or bomb threat A. Proactive Crisis Management
occurs is called B. Reactive Crisis Management
A. Floor plan C. Performance Stage
B. Bomb threat plan D. Reaction Phase
C. Drill Answer: A
D. Contingency plan
Answer: B 99.What stage is the performance of the
crisis management plan
95.What do you call the phenomenon when a crisis situation occurs?
where a hostage begins to A. Pro-active Phase
identify his captor and give his B. Reactive Phase
sympathy to his own hostage C. Prediction
taker? D. None of these
A. Holmshock syndrome Answer: B
B. Traumatic syndrome
C. Withdrawal syndrome 100.What model of insurgency does the
D. none of these New People’s Army in the
Answer: D Philippines is employing?
A. Communist Model
96.Among the following, which is most B. Socialist Model
contagious on human C. Democratic Model
emotion? D. None of these
A. Fear Answer: A
B. Panic Correctional Administration Review Questions
C. Worry
D. Dementia Praecox
Answer: A 1. It is the authority of the President of the
Philippines to
97.In Stockholm syndrome, some of the suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the
causes why a hostage sentence and
becomes cooperative with the hostage extinguish criminal liability.
A. Parole budgeting, accounting, and other activities
B.Executive clemency related to financial
C. Pardon services. It consolidates and prepares
D.President’s clemency financial reports and
Answer: B related statements of subsistence outlays and
disbursements in
2. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the operational of the jail.
the: A. Budget and finance branch
A. Executive Department B. General services branch
B. P.N.P. C. Property and supply branch
C. D.I.L.G. D. Mess services branch
D. D.O.J Answer: A
Answer: C
7. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a
3. There are three (3) casework techniques prisoner maybe
applied by the parole
officer, which is not included? checked at any time. His bedding's, lockers
A. The trick and treat techniques and personal
B.The executive techniques belongings may also be opened at anytime, in
C.The guidance, counseling and leadership his presence,
techniques whenever possible. This practice is known
D.The manipulative techniques as:
Answer: A A. Check and balance
B. S.O.P.
4. The basis of this old school of penology is the C. Inventory
human free-will. D. Operation Greyhound
A. Penology School Answer: D
B. Classical School
C. Neo-classical 8. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the
D. Positivist following instances.
Answer: B A. Murder
B. Brigandage
5. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the C. Rape
resolution of his problems D. Impeachment
A. Meeting Answer: D
B. Working
C. Recreation 9. It refers to commission of another crime
D. Counseling during service of
Answer: D
sentence of penalty imposed for another
6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in previous offense.
programming, A. Recidivism
B. Delinquency
C. Quasi-recidivism prisoner to pursue
D. City prisoner his normal job during the week and return to
Answer: C the jail to serve
his sentence during the weekend or non-
10. A person who is detained for the violation of working hours.
law or ordinance A. Amnesty
and has not been convicted is a - B. good conduct time allowance
A. Detention Prisoner C. probation
B. Provincial Prisoner D. delayed sentence
C. Municipal Prisoner Answer: D
D. City
Prisoner Answer: 15. The following are the justifications of
A punishment, EXCEPT
A. Retribution
11. The following are forms of executive B. Deterrence
clemency, EXCEPT C. Redress
A. Commutation D. Expiration or atonement
B. Reform model Answer: C
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon 16. Pardon is exercised when the person is __.
Answer: B A. already convicted
B. not yet convicted
12. It is that branch of the administration of C. about to be convicted
Criminal Justice D. serve the sentence
System charged with the responsibility for the Answer: A
custody,
supervision, and rehabilitation of the 17. The idea that punishment will be give the
convicted offender. offender lesson by
A. conviction showing to others what would happen to them
B. corrections if they have
C. penalty committed the heinous crime.
D. punishment A. Protection
Answer: B B. Deterrence
C. Lethal injection
13. Which of the following instances Pardon D.Stoning
cannot be exercised? Answer: B
A. before conviction
B. before trial 18. For a convicted offender, probation is a form
C. after conviction of __.
D. during service of sentence A. Punishment
Answer: B B. Treatment
C. Enjoyment
14. This is a procedure which permits a jail D. Incarceration
Answer: B B. Social defense
C. Exemplary
19. For amnesty to be granted, there should be D. Equality
__. Answer: C
A. Recommendation from U.N.
B. Recommendation from C.H.R. 24. The purpose of the decree on probation shall
C. Application from C.H.R be to
D. Concurrence of the congress A. provide an opportunity for the
Answer: D reformation of a
penitent offender
20. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the B. prevent the commission of offenses
A. Director C. promote the correction and
B. Secretary of the DND rehabilitation of an offender
C. Chief of Executive by providing him with individualized
D. Prison Inspector treatment
Answer: A D. All of these
Answer: D
21. Which program plays a unique role in the
moral and spiritual 25. In the Philippines, the most common
regeneration of the prisoner? problem of the
A. None of these National Prison is
B.Work programs A. Excessive number of escapes
C.Education programs B. Overcrowding
D.Religious programs C. Disagreement about their mess
Answer: D D. Lack of adequate funding
Answer: D
22. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person
shall not be permitted 26. A justification of penalty which states that
to enter the place designated in the sentence or nobody can assume
within the radius the suffering for a crime committed by
therein specified, which shall not be more than others.
250 and not less A. Justice
than 25 kilometers from the place designated. B. Personal
A. Fine C. Legal
B. None of these D. Certain
C. P22.00/day Answer: B
D. P19.00/day
Answer: B 27. These are the factors considered in
diversification, EXCEPT;
23. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as A. Age of offenders
an example to B. Mother of offender
others is the theory of C. Sex of offenders
A. Self-defense D. Medical condition
Answer: B dangerous as the super security prisoners.
They are not
28. This branch takes charge of the preparation allowed to work outside the institution.
of the daily menu, A. maximum security prisoners
makes foodstuff purchases, prepares and B. super security prisoners
cooks the food and C. minimum security prisoners
serves it to the inmates.It maintains a record D. medium security prisoners
of daily purchases Answer: A
and consumption and submits a daily report
to the warden. 33. Among the following, which has the
A. General Services Branch authority to grant parole?
B. Mittimus Computing Branch A. President
C. Budget and Finance B. Board of Pardons and Parole
D. Mess services Branch C. Director of Prison
Answer: D D. Court
Answer: B
29. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B)
of the Philippines 34. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________
Constitution, pardoning power is vested with from civil
the liability imposed upon him by the sentence.
A. Department of Justice A. partially exempted
B. Judiciary B. exempted
C. Chief Executive C. conditionally exempted
D. Legislative D. not exempted
Answer: C Answer: D
30. The temporary stay of execution of sentence 35. It is an act of clemency which changes a
is called heavier sentence to
A. Reprieve a less serious one or a longer term to a
B. Pardon shorter term.
C. Communication A. Amnesty
D. Amnesty B. Commutation
Answer: A C. Reprieve
D. none of these
31. Parole is a matter of ___. Answer: B
A. Privilege
B. Right 36. ___ is an act of grace and the recipient is not
C. Grace entitled to
D. Requirement it as a matter of right.
Answer: A A. Pardon
B. Parole
32. This group consists of chronic troublemakers C. Probation
but not as D. none of these
Answer: B Supervision of the BJMP?
A. Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails
37. In probation system’s philosophy and B. City and Municipal Jails
concept, it is stated C. Lock up Jails
that the individual has the ability to ____ and D. Insular Jails
to modify Answer: B
his anti-social behavior with the right kind of
help. 42. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910
A. challenge under the
B. none of these American Regime. At present, who
C. change supervises and controls the
D. aggravate his behavior said jails?
Answer: C A. BJMP
B. Provincial Government
38. The Bureau of Corrections is under the C. DOJ
_____. D. Municipal or City Mayor
A. Department of Social Welfare and Answer: B
Development
B. Department of Justice 43. What is the primary purpose of
C. Department of the Interior and Local imprisonment?
Government A. Rehabilitation and Reformation
D. Department of Health B. To stand trial
Answer: B C. Punishment
D.
39. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison Socialization
term of over three Answer: A
(3) years is a _________________.
A. Municipal prisoner 44. Which is a place of confinement for persons
B. Detention prisoner awaiting trial or
C. National or Insular prisoner court action and where the convicted
D. City prisoner offenders serve short
Answer: D sentences or penalty of imprisonment?
A. Jail
40. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is also B. Lock-up
the C. Penitentiary
A. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections D. Detention
B. Director of the Bureau of Corrections Cells Answer: A
C. Superintendent of the Bureau of
Corrections 45. Which is a warrant issued by the court
D. Warden bearing its seal and
Answer: B signature of the judge directing the jail or
prison authorities to
41. What is the type of Jails under the receive the convicted offender for service of
sentence or state which exempts an individual from the
detention? punishment which the
A. Mittimus law imposes or prescribes for his crime,
B. Detention Mittimus extended by the President
C. Sentence Mittimus thru the recommendation of the Board of
D. Detention Warrant Parole and Pardon is
Answer: C called
A. Amnesty
46. The maintenance or care and protection B. Parole
accorded to people who C. Pardon
by authority of law are temporarily D. Probation
incarcerated for violation Answer: C
of laws and also those who were sentenced by
the court to serve 50. Under the prison service manual, the
judgment is called – prescribed color of prison
A. custody uniform for maximum security prison is -
B. safe-keeping A. Orange
C. classification B. Brown
D. caring C. Stripe Orange
Answer: A D. Blue
Answer: A
47. Which of these refers to the assigning or
grouping of offenders 51. When an inmate is given a “shakedown”
according to their sentence, gender, age, before admission, it
nationality, health, means:
criminal record, etc.? A. He has taken the process of
A. None of these identification, record,
B. Custody fingerprint and photograph
C. Security B. He has been examined for contraband
D. Safe-keeping C. His commitment paper are delivered to
Answer: A record clerk
D. All of these
48. The institution for dangerous but not Answer: B
incorrigible prisoners
in the Philippines is the 52. An inmate maybe granted parole if he
A. NBP A. earned good conduct time allowance
B. Medium Security Institution credit
C. Maximum Security Institution B. serve minimum sentence
D. Minimum Security Institution C. earned good behavior while serving
Answer: B prison term
D. all of these
49. The act of grace from a sovereign power Answer: D
inherent in the
53. Aside from protecting the public, D. None of the above
imprisonment has for its Answer: B
latest objective, the
A. reformation of offenders 58. The putting of offenders in prison for the
B. deterrence purpose of protecting
C. segregation of offender the public and at the same time rehabilitating
D. confinement of Offender them by requiring
Answer: A the latter to undergo institutional treatment
program is
54. In the New Bilibid Prison, all medium referred to as:
security prisoners are A. Imprisonment
confined at the B. Trial
A. NBP Main Prison C. Conviction
B. Camp Bukang Liwayway D. Detention
C. Camp Sampaguita Answer: A
D. Medium Security Prison
Answer: C 59. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a
National Penitentiary in
55. Under the prison rules, who is charged for the Philippines under the BUCOR is located
the hearing of in ____.
disciplinary cases in prison? A. Palawan
A. Classification Board B. Zamboanga
B. Parole Board C. Davao
C. Administrative Board D. Occidental Mindoro
D. Disciplinary Board Answer: D
Answer: D
60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, this is credited
56. The form of conditional release that is as the oldest
granted after a code prescribing savage punishment but in
prisoner has served a portion of his sentence fact ___ is nearly.
in a correctional 100 years older
A. Conditional pardon A. Hammurabic Code
B. Probation B. Sumerian Code
C. Parole C. Justinian Code
D. Commutation D. Code of Draco
Answer: C Answer: B
57. In jails or prisons, which of the following is a 61. The penalty imposed for offenders must be
function of certain. This means
the Custodial Division? that:
A. Supervision of prisoners A. The guilty one must be the one to be
B. Escort of inmates or prisoners punished, no proxy.
C. Keeping of records B. No one must escape its effect
C. It must be equal for all persons C. PD 968
D. The consequence must be in D. PD 869
accordance Answer: C
with law.
Answer: B 66. The continuing relationship between
probation officer and
62. The following are the duties of the custodial probationer is known as –
force in prison, A. Affiliation Guidance
except: B. Pre-sentenced Investigation
A. Censor offender’s items C. Supervision
B. Escort inmates D. Probation Guidance
C. Inspect security devices Answer: C
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing
Answer: D 67. Those who have been once on probation
under the Probation
63. As a rule, when a jailbreak, escape or riot is Law:
in progress or has A. are qualified to apply for probation
just been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at B. are disqualified to apply for probation
the control C. may be granted for another probation
centers shall immediately: D. should be confined in prison
A. sound the alarm Answer: B
B. locked prisoners in their respective cells
C. Notify the nearest police precinct 68. This pillar/component of our criminal justice
D. call the warden or the director system has been
Answer: A regarded the weakest pillar due to its failure
to eliminate
64. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the recidivism and habitual offenders.
custodial force A. law enforcement
shall immediately issued firearms and B. prosecution
assigned to critical posts to: C. court
A. plug off the escape routes D. correction
B. to shoot the escapees Answer: D
C. protect the other inmates
D. to give warning shots 69. The traditional goal of penology is
Answer: A A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
65. Which of these is known as the Adult C. Incapacitation
Probation Law, which D.
grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term Rehabilitation
in prison of not Answer: B
more than six (6) years?
A. PD 603 70. The attempt to prevent future crimes through
B. RA 698 fear of
punishment. implement a better
A. Retribution system of jail management nationwide
B. Deterrence A. Bureau of Jail Management and
C. Incapacitation Penology
D. Rehabilitation B. Department of Justice
Answer: B C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Parole and Probation
71. The task of changing an offender’s attitude Administration Answer: A
so that he or she
may not commit another crime in the future. 75. It exercise supervision and control over
A. Retribution provincial jails.
B. Deterrence A. BJMP
C. Incapacitation B. Bureau of Corrections
D. Rehabilitation C. Provincial Government
Answer: D D. Parole and Probation
Administration Answer: C
72. The idea that re-entry of an offender should
be in the 76. An agency under the Department of Justice
mainstream of society rather than the usual that is charged with
abrupt re-entry custody and rehabilitation of national
at the end of a prison sentence. offenders, that is, those
A. Reintegration sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of
B. Deterrence more than three
C. Incapacitation (3) years
D. Rehabilitation A. BJMP
Answer: A B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
73. They were known as Bridewells, which D. Parole and Probation
started in 1553 and Administration Answer: B
served as training schools for delinquent
youths, provided 77. The New Bilibid Prison, the Correctional
housing and support for older and poorer Institution for Women
persons, (CIW), Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm, and
and detained vagrants. Sablayan Prison and
A. House of Corrections Penal Farm are all under this agency.
B. Workhouses A. BJMP
C. Common jails B. Bureau of Corrections
D. Penal colonies C. Provincial Government
Answer: B D. Department of Justice
Answer: B
74. It direct, supervise and control the
administration and operation 78. An attached agency of the Department of
of all district, city and municipal jails to Justice which provides
a less costly alternative to imprisonment of C. Work Release
offenders who are D. Halfway Houses
likely to respond to individualized community Answer: B
based treatment
programs. 83. An alternative to incarceration granted after a
A. BJMP convicted person
B. Bureau of Corrections served a part of his sentence and is allowed to
C. Provincial Government complete a
D. Parole and Probation sentence at large, subject to restrictions and
Administration Answer: D supervision.
A. Probation
79. Prisoners whose sentences are more than B. Work release
three years to capital C. Parole
punishment are considered D. Halfway houses
A. municipal prisoners Answer: C
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners 84. An alternative to incarceration that allow
D. insular prisoners convicted persons
Answer: D to remain at large and under varying degrees
of restriction
80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day and supervision and certain conditions
to six months are imposed by the
A. municipal prisoners granting court.
B. provincial prisoners A. Probation
C. city prisoners B. Work release
D. insular prisoners C. Parole
Answer: A D. Halfway houses
Answer: A
81. A prison model which sought penitence
(hence the term 85. A correctional institution that has the
penitentiaries) through total individual authority to detain
isolation and silence. persons awaiting trial or adjudication or
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model confine convicted
B. Auburn Prison Model offenders for a short period of time.
C. Work Release A. Halfway houses
D. Halfway Houses B. Penal colonies
Answer: A C. Jails
D. All of these
82. A prison model where incarcerated persons Answer: C
are allowed to work
outside the institution that houses them. 86. A correctional institution that has the
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model authority to detain
B. Auburn Prison Model convicted offenders for longer or extended
period of time, 90. Which of the following is an executive
including those who are waiting their death clemency that requires
sentence. the concurrence of congress?
A. Halfway house A. Probation
B. Farm house B. Pardon
C. Jail C. Amnesty
D. Prison D. Parole
Answer: D Answer: C
87. The law creating the Bureau of Jail 91. The Parole and Probation Administration
Management and Penology. administers the _____
A. RA 8551 Correctional Program.
B. RA 9165 A. Institutional
C. RA 6975 B. Integrated
D. RA 4890 C. Community – based
Answer: C D. Traditional
Answer: C
88. Who among the following is a provincial
prisoner? 92. A minimum and maximum amount of time to
A. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) be served in prison is
years referred to as
B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) A. a corporal punishment
years and up B. a determinate sentence
C. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) C. an indeterminate sentence
months and one D. a capital punishment
(1) day to three (3) years Answer: C
D. A prisoner serving a term of three
(3)years and one 93. Pedro was required to provide financial
(1) day up remuneration for the
Answer: C losses incurred by the victim. What is the type
of penalty
89. This theory in criminology states that people described?
are totally A. Bond
responsible for their behaviors and the stress is B. Retribution
more on the C. Restitution
effect of their felonious act than upon the D. Remuneration
criminal. Answer: C
A. Positivist Theory
B. Psychological Theory 94. What kind of program employs prisoners in
C. Biological Theory various product or
D. Classical Theory good producing tasks?
Answer: D A. Agricultural
B. Operational
C. Industrial
D. Administrative 99. The ________ theory in crime causation
Answer: C focuses on the criminal
disorders, chromosomes irregularity and
95. What crimes apparently have no complaining abnormal brain activity.
victims such as A. None of these
gambling, prostitution and drunkenness? B. Age Reform
A. Complex Crime C. Age of Discernment
B. Compound Crime D. Age of Reason
C. Blue Collar crimes Answer: A
D. Victimless crimes
Answer: D 100. What correctional institution houses
accused persons awaiting
96. Which agency performs the evaluation of trial?
prisoner’s fitness and A. Rehabilitation center
qualifications for the grant of pardon or B. Jail
parole? C. Halfway house
A. Punishment, confinement retribution, D. Prison
treatment Answer: B
B. Retribution, Deterrence, incapacitation,
rehabilitation 101. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised
C. Deterrence, retribution, punishment Administrative Code as
treatment amended is known as
D. None of the above A. Correction Law
Answer: D B. Jail Management Law
C. Prison Law
97. Which of the following should a probationer D. Parole and Probation Law
avoid? Answer: C
A. Make periodic report
B. Go and play in the gambling den 102. The mechanical device or contrivance, tools
C. Work regularly to support family or implement used
D. Stay away from bad associates. to hold back, keep in check or under control
Answer: B is the
A. Instrument of Restraint
98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews B. Iron leg Lock
the cases of criminals C. Handcuffs
convicted and meted out the penalty of D. Metallic chains
A. 12 years 6 months and one day Answer: A
B. Death
C. Life imprisonment 103. Who is tasked with the gathering and
D. 6 years one month and one day collecting of information
Answer: B and other data of every prisoner into a case
study to determine
the work assignment, the type supervision B. social degradation
and degree of C. banishment
custody and restriction under which an D. public trial
offender must live in jail? Answer: B
A. Classification Board
B . Board of Custody 108. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a
C. Diagnostic Board criminal may be sent
D. Treatment Board away from a place carried out by prohibition
Answer: A to coming against a
specified territory. This is an ancient form of
104. The imprisonment a convicted offender punishment called:
may serve, at the rate A. Exile
of PhP8.00 a day subject to certain rules, for B. Transportation
failure to pay a C. Banishment
fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment D. Public trial
is referred to as Answer: C
A. Subsidiary imprisonment
B. Secondary imprisonment 109. One of the following represents the earliest
C. Preventive imprisonment codification of the
D. None of the above Roman law, which was incorporated into
Answer: A the Justinian Code.
A. Twelve Tables
105. The meaning of the word oblivion is B. Burgundian Code
A. forgetting completely C. Code of Draco
B. class of persons D. Hammurabic code
C. abolish Answer: A
D. community based treatment
Answer: A 110. In the history of correction, thinkers during
the reformatory
106. The process of determining the needs and movement were the major influences of
requirements of today’s correctional
prisoners for assigning them to programs system. Alexander Macanochie was the one
according to their who introduced the __
existing resources is called: of correction
A. classification A. Solitary system
B. quarantine B. Irish System
C. diversification C. Marked System
D. quality control D. Congregate system
Answer: C Answer: C
107. Public humiliation or public exhibition also 111. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to
mean: Bureau of Correction
A. public execution during the Aquino administration in the
Philippines? and abolition of fee system by which jailers
A. E.O 727 obtained money from
B. E.O 292 prisoners.
C. E.O 645 A. John Howard
D. E.O 104 B. Robert Peel
Answer: B C. William Penn
D. Manuel Montesimos
112. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a Answer: A
wrong act to any one (in
the primitive society). The concept follows 115. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of
that the victim’s murder. After 10 days
family or tribe against the family or tribe of from the promulgation of the sentence, he
the offender, hence escaped from his
“blood feuds” was accepted in the early place of confinement. He maybe
primitive societies. A. liable for evasion of service of sentence
Retaliation means: B. considered as an escaped prisoner
A. Personal Vengeance C. not liable for evasion of service of
B. Tooth for a tooth sentence
C. Eye for an Eye D. All of these
D. All of these Answer: A
Answer: A
116. Ms. Bantog was convicted for the crime of
113. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its infanticide. After
Muntinlupa property serving her sentence she committed again
with the Bureau of Prisons originally the same crime.Ms.
intended as a site for boys’ Ines Bantog maybe considered as a
training school. Today, the old Bilibid A. recidivist
Prison is now being used as B. quasi-recidivist
the Manila City Jail, famous as the : C. habitual delinguent
A. “ May Halique Estate” D. mentally retarded person
B. “Tandang Sora State” Answer: A
C. New Bilibid Jail
D. Muntinlupa Jail 117. Ramon, a basketball player, arrested Berto
Answer: A for some legal ground
but he failed to file a complaint against the
114. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who latter with in the
devoted his life and prescribed period of filing. What crime did
fortune to prison reform.After his findings on Ramon committed?
English Prisons, he A. arbitrary detention
recommended the following: single cells for B. illegal Detention
sleeping, segregation C. illegal arrest
of women, segregation of youth, provision of D. no crime committed
sanitation facilities, Answer: B
118. The Camp Sampaguita of the national 122. One of the following is an admission
Bilibid Prison houses procedure which involves
A. Super Maximum Security Prisoners the frisking of the prisoner.
B. Maximum Security Prisoners A. Identification
C. Medium Security Prisoners B. Searching
D. Minimum Security Prisoners C. Briefing/Orientation
Answer: C D. minimum security prisoners
Answer: B
119. The only early Roman place of confinement
which was built 123. If the warden is taken as the hostage, for all
under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C. intents and
A. Bridewell Workhouse purposes, he ceases to exercise authority
B. Wulnut Street Jail and the next in
C. Burgundian House command or the __________ officer
D. none of these present shall assume the
Answer: D command.
A. Veteran
120. The punishment should be provided by the B. Assistant
state whose sanction C. Most senior
is violated, to afford the society or D. Custodian
individual the opportunity of Answer: C
imposing upon the offender suitable
punishment as might be 124. Upon receipt of the probation officer
enforced. Offenders should be punished investigation report, the
because they deserve court shall resolve the application for
it.This is one justification of punishment probation not later than-
called: A. 60 days
A. Atonement B. 5 days
B. Incapacitation C. 15 days
C. Deterrence D. 45 days
D. Retribution Answer: B
Answer: D
125. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation?
121. The purpose of commutation of sentence is A. Jose Lacson
to: B. Juan Ponce Enrile
A. do away with the miscarriage of justice C. Antonio Torres
D. None of these
B. break the rigidity of the law Answer: D
C. restore the political and civil rights of the
accused 126. What is the country, whose early schemes
D. all of the above for humanizing the
Answer: D criminal justice under it’s common law,
originated probation. A. Montesquieu
A. England B. Pope Clement XI
B. United States C. Samuel Romily
C. Greece D. John Howard
D. France Answer: B
Answer: A
131. The advocate of ultimate prison known as
127. Which of the following does not belong to “the Panopticon” was
the common law A. Jeremy Bentham
practices to which the emergence of B. Samuel Romily
probation is attributed? C. Walter Crofton
A. Recognizance D. John Howard
B. Reprieve Answer: A
C. Benefit of the Clergy
D. Penance 132. The founder of the Classical School of
Answer: D Criminology and published
a short treaties “ On Crimes and
128. Benefit of clergy, judicial reprieve, Punishments” which contains
sanctuary, and abjuration his reformatory ideas was
offered offenders a degree of protection A. Jeremy Bentham
from the enactment of B. Cesare Lombroso
A. harsh sentences C. Cesare Beccaria
B. soft sentences D. Enrico Ferri
C. criminal liabilities Answer: C
D. code of Hammurabi
Answer: A 133. Diversification means
A. Proper integration of prisoners
129. In the United States, particularly in B. Proper classification of prisoners
Massachusetts, different C. Proper segregation of prisoners
practices were being developed. "Security D. Welfare of prisoners
for good behavior," Answer: C
also known as good aberrance, was much
like modern bail. 134. Filipino female national prisoners are
A. Penalizing confined at the
B. Good aberrance A. Mental hospital
C. Paying in cash B. CIW
D. Collateral C. Manila City Jail
Answer: B D. Iwahig Penal Colony
Answer: B
130. Who among the following was the builder
hospice of San 135. An offender who surrenders from escaping
Michelle, a reformatory for delinquent boys because of calamity
immediately 48 hours after the
pronouncement of the C. 60 days
passing away of calamity shall be D. 90 days
granted Answer: C
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
B. ½ reduction of sentence 140. Parole in the Philippine is governed by the
C. 2/5 reduction of sentence A. determinate sentence law
D. 2/6 reduction of sentence B. Indeterminate sentence law
Answer: B C. Board of pardon and parole
D. Parole and probation administration
136. What is the name of the prison institution Answer: B
situated in
Zamboanga, named after Capt. Blanco of the 141. A detention jail in Philadelphia but it was
Spanish Royal converted into state
Army? prison and became the first American
A. Old Bilibid Prison penitentiary.
B. Sablayan Prsions and Penal Farm A. Auburn Prison
C. San Ramon Prison & Penal Farm B. Walnut Street Jail
D. Iwahig Penal C. Pennsylvania Prison
Answer: C D. Bride Well
Answer: B
137. A branch or division of law which defines
crimes, treat of their 142. The system of prison were the
nature and provides for their punishment confinement of the prisoners in
A. Remedial law single cells at night and congregate work in
B. Criminal law stop during the
C. Civil law day.
D.Political law A. Pennsylvania prison
Answer: B B. Auburn prison
C. Elmira reformatory
138. One who investigates for the court a D. Alcatraz prison
referral for probation or Answer: B
supervises a probationer or both 143. Under the rules, the chairman of the
A. police officer classification board and
B. probationer officer disciplinary board for jails should be
C. intelligence officer A. Warden
D. law enforcer B. Assistant warden
Answer: B C.Custodial officer
D. Security officer
139. Post sentence investigation report must be Answer: B
submitted by the
probation officer to the court within 144. A special group of prisoners composed of
A. 20 days incorrigible, intractable
B. 30 days and dangerous persons who are so difficult
to manage inside measures imposable to inmate offender
prisons. except
A.Medium Security prisoners A. Reprimand
B. Maximum security prisoners B. Cancellation of visiting privilege
C. Super maximum security prisoners C. Cancellation of food allowance
D. Minimum Security Prisoners D. Extra fatigue duty
Answer: B Answer: D
145. One of the following is considered as the 149. The principle of an “eye for an eye” “tooth
corner stone in for a tooth” doctrine
reformation n which includes all the life is common among ancient laws, specifically
experiences which t
shape a persons attitudes and behaviors. A. Code of Draco
A. Recreational program B. Hammurabic Code
B. Religious program C. Summerian Code
C. Educational program D. Code of Solomon
D. Work program Answer: B
Answer: C
150. “Lex Tallionis” means
146. It involves supervision of prisoners to A. Punishment
insure punctual and B. Law of retaliation
orderly movement from the dormitories, C. Retribution
place of work, hospital D. Suffering
and churches in accordance with the daily Answer: B
schedules.
A. Control 151. These were abandoned or unusable
B. Custody transport ships use to
C. Discipline confine criminals during the early period of
D. Inspection treating criminal
Answer: A offenders.
A. Hulks
147. It is a special unit in prison where by newly B. Gaols
arrived prisoners C. Transportation
will be admitted for diagnostic examination, D. Galleys
observation Answer: A
A. Reception and Diagnostic Center
B. Medium Security Compound 152. He wrote his book “State of the Prisons”
C. Maximum Security Compound and he was also
D. Minimum Security Compound considered as the great prison reformer.
Answer: A A. John Howard
B. John Augustus
148. Under the jail rules, the following are C. William Penn
authorized disciplinary D. Domets of France
Answer: A Government
D. BJMP
153. The first house of correction in London Answer: B
England was the
A. Bridewell Workhouse 158. What is nature in hearing the violation of a
B. Walnut Street Jail probation?
C. Mamertine Prison A. Formal
D. Panopticon B. Summary
Answer: A C. Due process
D. None of the above
154. ___ - known as the “Rock” build in San Answer: B
Francisco Bay
A. Walnut prison 159. Which is considered the forerunner of
B. Alcatraz prison parole?
C. New York prison A. Mark system
D. Red Rock penitentiary B. Solitary system
Answer: B C. Benefits of a clergy
D. Congregate system
155. Anything that is contrary to prison or jail Answer: A
rules and regulations
are considered 160. The following are considered as
A. Firearms discretionary conditions of
B. Contrabands probation except
C. Greyhounds A. Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess
D. Personal belongings B. Abstain from visiting house of ill repute
Answer: B C. Meet his family responsibilities
D. Cooperate with the program of
156. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the probation Answer: C
state for the
transgression of a law for the purpose of 161. The first convict in the Philippines,
controlling criminals. sentenced to death by
A. Prevention means of Lethal injection was
B. Revenge A. Baby Ama
C. Penalty B. Asiong Salonga
D. All of the above C. Leo Echagaray
Answer: C D. Gregorio S. Mendoza
Answer: C
157. Parole and Probation Administration is
under the direction of 162. In the 13th C, a criminal could avoid
the ________ by claiming
A. Department of Finance refugee in a church for a period of 40 days at
B. Department of Justice the end of which time he has compelled to
C. Department of Interior and Local leave the realm by a road or path
assigned to him. B. Anglo-American Law
A. Penalty C. Roman Law
B. punishment D. Hammurabic Code
C. trial Answer: C
D. conviction
Answer: D 166. Hanging is for death penalty, maiming is for
A. Social degradation
163. Long, low, narrow, single decked ships B. Exile
propelled by sails, usually C. Physical torture
rowed by criminals, a type of ship used for D. Slavery
transportation of Answer: C
criminals in the 16th century. This referred
to as the: 167. Who is the Director of the English Prison
A. Gaols who opened the Borstal
B. Galleys Institution for young offenders? The Borstal
C. Hulks Institution is
D. Stocks considered as the best reform institution for
Answer: B young offenders
today.
164. The Classical School of penology maintains A. Evelyn Brise
the “doctrine of B. Manuel Montesimos
psychological hedonism” or __________. C. Zebulon Brockway
That the individual D. Walter Crofton
calculates pleasures and pains in advance of Answer: C
action and
regulates his conduct by the result of his 168. The __________ is considered forerunner
calculations. of modern penology
A. denied individual responsibility because it has all the elements in a modern
B. free will system.
C. pleasures and avoiding pain A. Bridewell Workhouse
D. natural phenomenon B. Elmira Reformatory
Answer: C C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Borstal Institution for Boys
165. History has shown that there are three main Answer: B
legal systems in the
world, which have been extended to and 169. Capital punishment refers to:
adopted by all A. Life imprisonment
countries aside from those that produced B. Death Penalty
them. Among the C. Reclusion Perpetua
three, it was the _____ that has the most D. All of these
lasting and most Answer: B
pervading influence.
A. Mohammedan Law 170. One of the following is not an
administrative function exercised sound custody, security and control of
by the executive branch of the government. inmates and their
A. Probation movements and also responsible to enforce
B. Pardon prison or jail
C. Parole discipline is the:
D. Amnesty A. Security group for jails
Answer: A B. Escort Platoon
C. Control Center groups
171. Pardon granted by the Chief Executive D. Warden
A. extinguishes criminal liability of Answer: A
offender
B. does not extinguish civil liability of 175. A unit of the prison or a section of the RDC
offender where the prisoner is
C. must be given After the prosecution of given thorough physical examination
the offense including blood test, x-rays,
D. all of the above vaccinations and immunity is the:
Answer: D A. Quarantine cell
B. NBP
172. The enactment of Republic Act no. 6975 C. Death row
created the BJMP. It D. Control Area
operates as a line bureau under the Answer: A
Department of Interior and
Local Government (DILG). This statement 176. Imprisonment is not always advisable.
is: Placing a person to
A. partially true custodial coercion is to place him in physical
B. partially false jeopardy, thus
C. true drastically narrowing his access to source of
D. false personal
Answer: C satisfaction and reducing his self-esteem.
This principle is based
173. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief on the ____ of community based treatment
with a rank of programs.
Director General, and assisted by Deputy A. Restorative aspect
Chief with the Rank of B. Humanitarian aspect
Chief Superintendent. This statement is: C. Managerial aspect
A. partially true D. Legal aspect
B. partially false Answer: A
C. true
D. false 177. The case where the Supreme Court laid
Answer: D down the doctrine that
the absolute pardon removes all that is left
174. The group having the responsibility of of the consequences
providing a system of of conviction, and that it is absolute in so far
it restores the 180. Prisoners who are nearly to leave the
pardonee to full civil and political rights. institution, awaiting
A. Cristobal vs. Labrador transfer,those in disciplinary status, and
B. Fernandez vs. Aquino those who are
C. People vs. Galit chronically ill with mental disabilities are
D. None of these considered:
Answer: A A. unassignable prisoners to undergo
prison programs
178. The power of the chief Executive to grant B. all of these
pardon is limited to C. special group of offenders
the following, except: D. minimum security prisoners
A. Pardon can not be extended to cases of Answer: D
impeachment.
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of 181. Parole is not claimed as a right but the
sentence for the Board of Parole grants it
violation of any election law may be as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This
granted without statement is:
favorable recommendation of the A. partially true
Commission B. partially false
of Elections. C. true
C. Pardon is exercised only after D. false
conviction Answer: B
D. Pardon is administered by the
court Answer: D 182. Every violation of jail/prison discipline
shall be dealt with
179. In determining the fitness of a prisoner for accordingly. In extreme cases, where the
release on conditional violation necessitate
pardon, the following points shall be Immediate action, the warden or the Officer
considered as guides, of the Day may
except: administer the necessary restraints and
A. The political, organizational or reports the action
religious affiliation of the taken to
prisoner should be disregarded. A. an SOP
B. Due regard should be given the attitude B. an emergency plan
of the people in C. a general rule
the community from which he was D. not applicable to prisoners
sentenced. Answer: C
C. The background of the prisoner before
he was committed 183. Which of the following is a maximum
to prison – social, economic. security prison in Ossining,
D. Financial capacity of the prisoner. New York, USA? It is located
Answer: D approximately 30 miles (48 km)
north of New York City on the banks of the
Hudson River which Women is a prison in
the Auburn Prison system was applied Bedford Hills, Westchester County, New
A. Alcatraz prison York, USA. It is the
B. Sing Sing Prison largest women's prison in New York State
C. Wulnut Street Jail and has hosted many
D. Silver Mine Farm infamous prisoners. It is the only women's
Answer: B maximum security
prison in New York State. This statement is:
184. A ___, also called a 'block' or 'isolation A. True
cell', used to separate B. False
unruly, dangerous, or vulnerable prisoners C. Partially true
from the general D. Partially false
population, also sometimes used as Answer: A
punishment.
A. Segregation Unit 188. The Panopticon is a type of prison building
B. Reception Unit designed by English
C. Quarantine Unit philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. The
D. Cell 45 concept of the design
Answer: A was derived from the word meaning of
“pan” and “opticon”.
185. What is the place in some prisons, or a “Opticon’ means:
section in prisons where A. to allow an observer to observe
criminals are placed awaiting execution? B. with out the prisoner
A. Execution room C. avoid watching
B. Death row D. To walk in military manner
C. Garotine Answer: A
D. Galley room
Answer: B 189. Elmira Correctional Facility, known
otherwise as ___, is a
186. The Auburn system is a penal method of the maximum security prison located in New
19th century in York in the USA. The
which persons worked during the day in prison is located in Chemung County, New
groups and were kept in York in the City of
solitary confinement at night, with enforced Elmira.
silence at all times. A. “the school”
The Auburn system is also known as B. “the hill”
A. Albany system C. “the rock”
B. Irish system D. “the dungeon”
C. New York System Answer: B
D. None of these
Answer: C 190. Who among the following was given the
title “father of Prison
187. Bedford Hills Correctional Facility for Reform” in the United States?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Robert Peel 194. Lethal injection refers to the practice of
C. John Howard injecting a person with
D. Alexander Macanochie a fatal dose of drugs for the explicit purpose
Answer: A of causing the
death of the subject. The main application
191. It is the idea that the moral worth of an for this procedure is
action is solely capital punishment. Which of the following
determined by its contribution to overall drug is injected to
utility, that is, its stops the heart thus causing death by cardiac
contribution to happiness or pleasure as arrest?
summed among all A. Sodium thiopental
persons. It is thus a form of B. Pancuronium
consequentialism, meaning that the C. Potassium chloride
moral worth of an action is determined by its D. Bicarbonate
outcome—the ends Answer: C
justify the means.
A. Hedonism 195. Execution by electrocution (referred to as
B. Positivism the Electric Chair) is
C. Determinism an execution method originating in the
D. Penology United States in which
Answer: A the person being put to death is strapped to a
specially built
192. The concept of probation, from the Latin wooden chair and electrocuted through
word “probatio” which electrodes placed on
means ___, has historical roots in the the body. In the Philippines, its first use was
practice of judicial in :
reprieve. A. 1924
A. walk with faith B. 1976
B. live with integrity C. 1972
C. testing period D. 1918
D. out of prison Answer: A
Answer: C
196. Who was the British prison administrator
193. In the history of capital punishment, what and reformer, and
do they call this founder of the Borstal system?
frame, typically wooden, used for execution A. Zebulon Brockway
by hanging? B. Alexander Mocanochie
A. Galley C. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
B. Gallows D. Sir John Watson
C. Hulk Answer: C
D. Double blade
Answer: B 197. Besides religious laws such as the Torah,
important codifications B. Pardon
of laws were developed in the ancient C. Parole
Roman Empire, with the D Amnesty
compilations of the Lex Duodecim Answer: A
Tabularum.This law refers to
A. the Corpus Juris Civilis
B. the Twelve Tables
C. the Hammurabic code
D. lex taliones
Answer: B