GK Reaosioning

SSC CHSL Exam
Study Material for GI & Reasoning

STATEMENT & ASSUMPTION
The statement & assumption topic is most commonly featured in many competitive exams and is a
crucial part of the Government exam syllabus. The main idea of such questions is to test the candidate’s
decision-making ability.
Statement & Assumption – Concept

● In a statement and assumption question, a statement is given in the question followed by a few
assumptions made on the basis of them. Candidates need to pick the assumption which most
appropriately and logically is correct.
● One of the most important things to know about assumptions is that when a statement is given,
the author of the statement believes the assumption to be true and this same approach must
be used by candidates while answering the questions based on this topic.
● Questions based on statement and assumption can either help you score more if answered
logically or else result in losing marks if candidates choose to guess in such questions. Thus,
more and more questions must be solved so as to ensure that you are able to understand what
is the correct approach to such questions.
Tips to Solve Statement & Assumption Questions

● Read the statement with an approach that the assumptions would be true with regard to the
statement.
● Do not go too logical with the statements. Analyse the information given and the assumption
must only be made based on the information in the statement. Do not overcomplicate it.
● Common assumptions can always be followed but other than that do not align the statement
with General Knowledge or other facts.
● Use the elimination method if you are unable to apprehend the answer. Read the statement
and then the assumptions given in the options, you shall notice that a few of them will most
definitely not follow. Eliminate them and then choosing from lesser options may prove to be
more convenient.
● One thing to make a note of is that the assumption is something which the Author believes to
be true so while choosing the correct option, keep this thought in mind as well. If any option
contradicts the statement, then that assumption will not follow.
Types of Assumptions
Generally, we can face two types of assumptions mostly. They can be categorized as:
● Direct assumptions
● Indirect assumptions
Direct Assumptions
In this case, from the statement itself, we can assume the assumptions very easily. Just a careful
reading of the statement is enough to solve your problem. Let’s take an example to understand it
better.
Statement − An apple a day, keeps a doctor away.
Assumption I - Apple is good for health.

Assumption II - Apple is not good for health.
1. Only assumption I is practical.

2. Only assumption II is practical.
3. Either assumption I or II is practical.
4. Neither assumption I nor II is practical.
5. Both the assumptions are practical.
Answer: 1
Explanation: If consuming an apple everyday will eradicate the need of doctor, then off course we can
assume that it is good for health. Hence; assumption I is practical but II is not.
Indirect Assumptions
Indirect assumptions can only be traced out by properly understanding the meaning of the given
statement. This is because wrong interpretation can lead to choice of possibly wrong option.
Statement − The only possible way of getting success is to treat everything that comes on your way
positively.
Assumptions I - If you score low marks in any exam, instead of cursing yourself, you should find the
faults and just work upon them hard.
Assumption II - Whatever will happen to you, all depends upon your luck. You have no role to play in it.
1. Only assumption I is practical.

2. Only assumption II is practical.
3. Either assumption I or II is practical.
4. Neither assumption I nor II is practical.
5. Both the assumptions are practical.
Answer: 1
Explanation: If you will redirect all your results towards you luck, then your action will not be hard,
which is not an example of leading optimistic life. Instead working upon your weak points, so that, not
to repeat them in the next exam is a perfect way of dealing your life positively.
Practice Questions:
Q 1.
Statement: The advisable age for a child to join a school is 5 years.
Assumption I: At this age, the child is familiar to adaptability
Assumption II: After this age, kids do not like to go to school
Assumption III: Schools do not take admission of children who are more than 5 years old
1. Only Assumption I follows

2. Both Assumptions I & III follow
3. Assumption I, II & III follow
4. Only Assumption II follows
5. None of the Above
Answer: (1) Only Assumption I follows
Explanation: In the given statement it is mentioned that 5 years is an advisable age for kids to join the
school. The only sensible assumption which proves the statement to be true is that chances of kids
getting more adaptable to the school at this young age are very high.
Q 2.
Statement: Food poisoning due to the consumption of liquor is very common in rural areas
Assumption I: There are more illegal and unauthorised shops selling liquor in villages and rural areas
Assumption II: The ratio of people drinking liquor in villages is much more than that in towns
1. Both Assumption I and II follow

2. Neither Assumption I nor Assumption II follows
4. Assumption II follows but Assumption I does not follow
5. Either Assumption I or Assumption II follows
Explanation: The statement is talking about food poisoning due to liquor so the number of people
consuming liquor in towns or villages is not the main concern here. Which is why only assumption I
follow.
Q 3.
Statement: Divya was advised by the Doctor that she should not take part in the dance competition
Assumption I: The Doctor did not want Divya to take part in the competition because he was afraid
that she might lose
Assumption II: Divya had major surgery because of her injury
Assumption III: Divya did not have the money to go for the auditions
1. All Assumption I, II & III follow

3. Assumption II follows but Assumption I and III do not follow
4. None of the three assumptions follow
5. Only Assumption III follows
Answer: (3) Assumption II follows but Assumption I and III do not follow
Explanation: Based on the statement given, the Doctor would only advice a patient to not do a certain
thing if they are unwell, in this case surgery, which is the only suitable assumption why the doctor
would advise Divya to not take part in the dance competition.
Q 4.
Statement: In an election conducted in Village X, only 20% of the total number of women in the village
came to vote.
Assumption I: The number of men in the village is more than the number of women in the village X
Assumption II: Women had to cook food and could not come to vote

5. Both Assumption I and Assumption II follow
Answer: (3) Neither Assumption I nor Assumption II follows
Explanation: The statement clearly indicates that out of the total number of women in the village only
20% came around to vote so the ratio between the number of men and women is not applicable here
and the second assumption is not applicable as well.
Q 5.
Statement: The school has decided to cancel the summer camp this year
Assumption I: No entries have been received by the Institution for students willing to join the summer
camp
Assumption II: It is being cancelled because the weather is too hot

5. Both Assumption I and Assumption II follow
Explanation: Because the school was not receiving any student entries for participation in the summer
camp, that is why it was cancelled. The second option is not implicit because the camp is being
conducted in summers, so the weather is expected to be hot.
SSC CHSL Exam
SERIES (ALPHA/NUMERIC/FIGURAL)
Alphabet Test
● Arranging the general alphabetic letters which are given in jumbled or word form in the
sequence is called an arrangement.
● When two or more patterns of letters including number or symbol occurring equally and making
some pattern is called pattern of words or letters in general.
Points to Remember
● ‘A’ Preceded by ‘B’ → B A
● ‘A’ Followed by ‘B’ → A B
● ‘A’ Precedes ‘B’ → A B
● ‘A’ Follows ‘B’ → B A
● Vowel → A, E, I, O, U
● Consonant → B, C, D, F, G, H, J, K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z.
● Prime Numbers → A number which is not divisible by any number except 1.
Example: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, etc.
● Even Numbers → A number which is divisible by 2.
Example: 0, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22, etc.
● Odd Numbers → A number which is not divisible by 2.
● Example: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, etc.
Number Series (Group Based)

● In this pattern, group of numbers are given, and the multiple operations will be asked to
perform in the questions for example, addition, multiplication, interchanging of digits, etc.
Series: 567 289 376 189 852
Q. If 1 is added to the 2nd digit of each number and then positions of the first and last digits are
interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number?
A. Given series: 567 289 376 189 852

Adding 1 to the 2nd digit: 577 299 386 199 862
Now, interchange the first and last digit: 775 992 683 991 268
So, 992 is the highest number which comes from 289.
Trick
● In the Question, highest number after interchanging first and last digits is asked, so we don’t
need to perform the operation of addition of 1 to the 2nd digit of every number.
● We should check the last digit of each number only.
● Example: 567 289 376 189 852
● There are two highest digits: 289 and 189
● So, we must check only these two numbers,
● Interchange first and last digits and add 1 to the 2nd digit: 992 and 991
Q. If all the digits are arranged in increasing order within the numbers, then which number will be
the lowest?
A. Given Series: 567, 289, 376, 189, 852

When all the digits are arranged in increasing order: 567, 289, 367, 189, 258
So, ‘189’ is the lowest number which comes from ‘189’.
Trick
● In the question, lowest number after arranging the digits in increasing order is asked. So, we
must check that which number has the lowest digit.
● Example: 567 289 376 189 852
● There is only 189 which consists the lowest digit.
● So, ‘189’ is the correct answer and it comes from ‘189’.
Q. If the positions of first digits of each number are replaced by its next number and last digits of
each number are replaced by its previous number, how many numbers have minimum two same
digits?
A. Given Series: 567, 289, 376, 189, 852

Positions of first digits of each number are replaced by its next number and last digits of each
number are replaced by its previous number:
666 388 475 288 951, 'So, there are 3 numbers which have minimum two same digits'
So, we have three numbers which has two same digits: 666 388 288 and it comes from 567, 289,
189.
Alphabet Series (Group Based)

● In Alphabet Series section, group of alphabets are given, and the multiple operations will be
asked to perform in the questions. For example, arrange in dictionary or reverse dictionary
order, interchanging of alphabets etc.
Series: DEW BIG RAW FAN DOG
Q. If the positions of first and last alphabets of each word are interchanged and arranged in
dictionary order then, which word comes last?
A. Given words are: DEW BIG RAW FAN DOG
On interchanging the first and the last alphabet: WED GIB WAR NAF GOD
Now arranging in dictionary order: GIB GOD NAF WAR WED
So, ‘WED’ is the last word and it comes from ‘DEW’.
Trick
● In the Question, number of words are starting with vowel after replacing vowels of each word
by its next letter and consonant by its previous letter is asked.
● So, we must replace only first letter of the word which is starting with a consonant.
● Example: CEW AIG QAW EAN COG
● Now, words starting with vowel are: AJF EBM
● So, there are two words “AJF and EBM” which are starting with vowel.
Q. If the positions of first and last alphabets of each word are interchanged, how many meaningful
words are formed?
A. Given words are: DEW BIG RAW FAN DOG

On exchanging the alphabets: WED GIB WAR NAF GOD
The meaningful words are: WED GIB WAR GOD
So, there are four meaningful words are formed.
Mixed Series
Mixed Series is an arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols in a certain order.
Simple Series
In simple series, no operation will be asked to perform. Questions will be asked based on positions only.
Rule #1:
Left – Left = from the Left end
Left + Right = from the Right end
Right – Right = from the Right end
Right + Left = from the Left end
Please refer the given examples for understanding the application of these rules:
Series: A B 6 P 7 2 Z @ X ? V T W # & N S L %
Q. Which element is 6th to the left of 12th element from the left end?
A. 12th element from the left end:

AB6P72Z@X?VTW#&NSL%
Now, 6th to the left of 12th element:
AB6P72Z@X?VTW#&NSL%
So, 2 is 6th to the left of 12th element from the left end.
Trick
Left – Left = from Left end
12 – 6 = 6th from the left end.
6th element from left end is: A B 6 P 7 2 Z @ X ? V T W # & N S L %
Therefore 2 is the correct answer.
Q. Which element is 4th to the right of 11th element from the left end?
A. 11th element from the left end:

AB6P72Z@X?VTW#&NSL%
4th element to the right of 11th element: A B 6 P 7 2 Z @ X ? V T W # & N S L %
Trick
Right + Left = from left end
4 + 11 = 15th from the left end 15th element from left end is:
AB6P72Z@X?VTW#&NSL%
Therefore, & is the correct answer.
Q. Which element is 5th to the right of 9th element from the right end?
A. 9th element from the right end is:

AB6P72Z@X?VTW#&NSL%
5th to the right of 9th element from the right end: A B 6 P 7 2 Z @ X ? V T W # & N S L %
So, N is the 5th to the right of 9th from the right end.
Trick
Right – Right = from the right 9 – 5 = 4th from the right end.
4th element from the right end is:
AB6P72Z@X?VTW#&NSL%
So, N is the 5th to the right of 9th element from the right end.
Operation based Series
In Stepwise series, a few operations are given which need to be applied on the given mixed series and
then the questions can be asked from the different steps.
Step 1: The vowels are exchanged with its next letter.
Step 2: After completing step 1, the symbols are exchanged with 8.
Step 3: After completing step 2, numbers are increased by 1.
Input: N P L B S % & 1 E 4 G 4 $ T G 2 I 0 U K @ 1 7 V A
Q. How many 8 are there in the mixed series after completing the step 2?
A. Step 1: The vowels are exchanged with its next letter.

NPLBS%&1F4G4$TG2J0VK@17VB
Step 2: The symbols are exchanged with 8.

NPLBS881F4G48TG2J0VK817VB
Step 3: Numbers are increased by 1.
Creating New Words
In this section you will be given a few letters and will need to find if those letters can make a
meaningful word or not. If yes then how many meaningful words can be formed or the letter at any
position of the formed word can be asked.
Q. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the help of letter T, A, E such that no
letter is missed, and no letter is repeated.
A. T, A, E
We can clearly see that the words that can be formed are:
● TEA
● EAT
● ATE
Hence 3 meaningful words can be formed.
Q. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the help of 4th, 5th, 7th and 13th letter
of INTERNATIONAL such that no letter is repeated.
A. INTERNATIONAL
E, R, A, L are the 4th, 5th, 7th and 13th letter
We can clearly see that the words that can be formed are:
● REAL
● EARL
● RALE
Hence 3 meaningful words can be formed.
Q. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the 1st, 5th, 6th, and 8th letters of
the word INFORMATION, which of the following will be the fourth letter of that word? If no such
word can be made give ‘X’ as the answer.
A. Given word – INFORMATION

Chosen letters are – I, R, M, T
Possible word – TRIM (only one word is possible here)
Fourth letter of the word is: M
Thus, M is the correct answer.
Position of Letters and Numbers in a Series
In this section you have to find the pairs of the letters or digits which has as many letters or digits
between them in the word or number as they have between them in the English alphabetical series or
number sequence.
Q. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “INTERNET” after arranging the letters of the
word in alphabetical order each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they
have between them in the English alphabetical series.
A. The word can be represented as follows,
Clearly, we can see that 2 such pairs are there i.e., NT and IN.
Q. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “REPRESENT” each of which has as many
letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have between
them in the English alphabetical series?
A. The word can be represented as follows,

Clearly, we can see that 3 such pairs are there i.e., RP, RN and PS.
Q. How many such pairs of digits are there in the numbers “2651894” after arranging the digits of the
number in increasing order each of which has as many digits between them in the number, as they
have between them in the sequence? (Both direction)
A. The numbers can be represented as follows,
Clearly, we can see that 5 such pairs are there i.e., 12, 45, 46, 56 and 89.
Practice Questions:
Direction: Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
Series: 6 R O T 4 A 8 % B F 1 E # W @ 9 H I $ M N * 3 2 V $ 5 G P 7 Q
Q. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
Correct Option: C
Explanation:
According to the question,
Consonant – Cosonant-Number
B -F -1
G -P -7
Series: 6 R 0 T 4 A 8 % B F 1 E # W @ 9 H I $ M N * 3 2 V $ 5 G P 7 Q
Q. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a letter but immediately not followed by a symbol?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
Correct Option: B
Explanation:
According to question
Letter-Vowels-Letter/Number
R-O-T
Q. Which of the following is the fourth to left of the twelfth from the left end?
A) 8
B) B
C) 2
D) %
Correct Option: D
Explanation:
According to question,
L-L=L
12 - 4 = 8TH
So the required element is %.
Q. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their positive in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A) 406
B) F%A
C) @#1
D) $H9
Correct Option: D
Explanation:
According to question,
Q. If all the symbols are eliminated from the above arrangement, than which of the following will be
the 5th to the right of 10th element from the right end?
A) 4
B) 5
C) V
D) A
Correct Option: B
Explanation:
According to question.
R-R=R
10 - 5 = 5th from right end after deleting all the symbols is 5.
Figural Series
In this, there is a sequence of figures depicting a change step by step. Either one of these figures is out
of order and has to be omitted or figure has to be selected from a separate set of figures which would
continue the series. There are two directions mostly used in the figures.
● Clock-wise direction (CW)
● Anticlock-wise direction (ACW)
Clock-wise direction movement will be as in a square boundary.
Anticlock-wise direction moves like this in a square boundary will be as:
Note: In a square boundary means a square box.
First of all we divide the box into four parts like this:
● 45° means half step CW or ACW.

● 90° means one step CW or ACW.
● 135° means step CW or ACW.
● 180° means two step CW or ACW.
or opposite movement of symbols/number/letter means 180° movement CW/ACW.
Directions: In each of the following examples find the figure from the Answer set (i.e., figures A, B, C,
and D) which will continue the series given in the Problem set.
1. PROBLEM FIGURES
ANSWER FIGURES
Answer: D
Explanation: One of the pins gets inverted in each step. Hence answer is D.
2. PROBLEM FIGURES
ANSWER FIGURES
Answer: B
Explanation: Here, the square rotates one step clockwise in every subsequent figure. Hence answer is
B.
3. PROBLEM FIGURES
ANSWER FIGURES
Answer: D
Explanation: The white figure gets its lower half shaded in first step, gets shaded completely in the
second step and gets replaced by a new white figure in the third step and then the above steps are
repeated. Hence answer is D.
4. PROBLEM FIGURES
ANSWER FIGURES
Answer: D
Explanation: Number of cubes increase by one in every subsequent figure. Hence answer is D.
Memorable Points:
In nonverbal 45° = 1/2 place, 90° = 1 place, 135° = 1 ½ and so on.
Preference Order
Non-verbal can easily solve with the help of these preference order of the series.
● 1, 2, 3, 4--------
● 1 2, 1 2, 1 2, -------
● 1 2 3, 1 2 3, 1 2 3, -------
● 1 2 3 4, 1 2 ------
● 1 3, 2 4 -------
Let’s see with examples:
1.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(I) (II) (III)
2.
Answer: C
Explanation:
(I) (II)
3.
Answer: B
Explanation:
SSC CHSL Exam
VENN DIAGRAMS
In this chapter, we deal with questions which aim at analyzing a candidate's ability to relate a
certain given group of items and illustrate it diagrammatically. Figures representing groups of items
in the form of enclosed regions are called Venn Diagrams named after the British logician John
Venn. To represent these diagrams, we use different geometrical figures like circles, triangles,
rectangles, etc.
Different Types of Questions Based on Venn Diagrams
In this chapter, we will deal with basically three entities. There are following five types of questions
which are generally asked in various competitions.
Type 1: Universal Affirmative

When one group of items is completely included in the second group of items and the second, again
completely belongs to the third group, it is called Universal Affirmative. The Venn Diagram would be
as follows:
Example 1: Polygon, Rectangle, Square
Explanation:
All Squares are Rectangles and all Rectangles are Polygons. Hence, this case comes under Universal
Affirmative.
Example 2: Country, City, State
Explanation:
A city is situated within a state and the state is situated within a country.
Type 2: Universal Negative
If the items evidently belong to three different groups, i.e., they are not correlated with each other
in any way, called Universal Negative.
Example 3: Intelligence, Anxiety, Strength
Explanation:
Anxiety, Intelligence and Strength are entirely different from each other.
Because anxiety means- A vague unpleasant emotion that is experienced in anticipation of some
(usually ill-defined) misfortune.
Intelligence means- The ability to comprehend; to understand and profit from experience.
Strength means- The property of being physically or mentally strong.
Example 4: Whale, Crocodile, Bird
Explanation:
They all belong to different categories.
Type 3: Particular
In this type, two entities are correlated and statements arise like some-first entity belongs to the
second entity.
Example 5: Teachers, Authors, men
Explanation:
Here, some Teachers may be Authors and some Teachers may be Men. Also, some Authors may be
Men. So, the given items are partly related to each other.
Type 4: Miscellaneous
In this type, we deal with the questions which belong to at least two types as discussed earlier.
Different types of cases that can be studied under this type are as follows:
Case 1 - If two separate groups of items are completely unrelated to each other, but they are
completely included in the third group, then the relationships can be diagrammatically shown as:
Example 6: Hospital, Nurse, Patient
Explanation:
Nurse and Patient are entirely different. But both are parts of Hospital.
Case 2 - When two groups of items have some common relationship and both of them are
completely included in the third group, the relationships are shown by two smaller intersecting
circles in a third large circle.
Example 7: Animal, Dog, Pet
Explanation:
Some Dogs are Pets and some Pets are Dogs but all Dogs and Pets are Animals.
Case 3 - If one item belongs to the class of the second while, the third item is entirely different
from the two, then they may be represented by the following diagram.
Example 8: Pilots, Human, Ducks

Explanation:
We know all Pilots are Human but Ducks are entirely different to both of these.
Case 4 - If one group of items is partly included in the second group of items and the third group is
completely unrelated to these two groups, their relationship is diagrammatically shown as:
Example 9: Wire, Copper, Paper
Explanation:
Some Wires are made of Copper but Paper is entirely different.
Case 5 - If one item belongs to the class of second and the third item is partly related to these
two, they are represented as shown:
Example 10: Females, Mothers, Doctors
Explanation:
All Mothers are Females but some Females and some Mothers can be Doctors. So, the circles
representing Doctors would intersect both of the two concentric circles.
Case 6 - If one item belongs to the class of second and the third item is partly related to the
second, they are represented as shown.
Example 11: Males, Fathers, Children
Explanation:
All Fathers are Males. This would be represented by two concentric circles but some Males are
Children but Children cannot be Fathers.
Other type Venn Diagrams formed by using Different Geometrical Figures
We have used only circles to represent the different relationship. Here, we will use the different
figures to show different relationship.
Example 12: Study the figure given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Which part shows Males, who are neither Doctor nor Literate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Explanation: Only part 3 showing males, that is 3 is related to males only.

Practice Questions:
Based on Type 1: Universal Affirmative
Directions (1-10): Each of the following questions given below contains three elements. These
three elements may or may not have some linkage. Each group of the elements may fit into one
of the diagrams at (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to indicate group of elements in each of the
questions fit into which of the diagrams given below. The letter indicating the diagram is the
answer.
1. Vegetables, Potato, Cabbage
Answer: B
Explanation:
Potato and Cabbage are entirely different. But, both are vegetables.
2. Table, Chair, Furniture
Answer: B
Explanation:
Table and Chair are entirely different but, both are items of furniture.
3. Week, Day, Year

Answer: A
Explanation:
A year consists of weeks, and a week consists of days.
4. Judge, Thief, Criminal
Answer: D
Explanation:
All thieves are criminals. But judge is different.
5. Husband, Wife, Family
Answer: B
Explanation:
Husband and Wife are entirely different. But, both are parts of a family.
6. Square, Rectangle, Polygon
Answer: A
Explanation:
All squares are rectangles. All rectangles are polygons.
7. Bus, Car, Vehicle
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bus and Car are entirely different. But, both are vehicles.
8. Anxiety, Intelligence, Strength
Answer: C
Explanation:
Anxiety, Intelligence and Strength are entirely different from each other.
9. House, Bedroom, Bathroom
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bedroom and Bathroom are entirely different. But, both are parts of a house.
10. Barley, Potato, Mustard

Answer: C
Explanation:
Mustard, Barley and Potato are all separate items, entirely different from each other.
Based on Type II – Universal Negative
Directions (11-15): Study the following figure carefully and answer the questions based on it.
11. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the given figure?
A) A and B are in all the three figures.

B) E, A, B, C are in all the three figures.
C) F, C, D, B, A are in all the three figures.
D) Only B is in all the three figures.
Answer: D
Explanation: B is the region common to the circle, square and triangle.
12. Which number is in the square, ellipse and triangle?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Answer: D
Explanation: The number common to the square, ellipse and triangle is 7.
13. Which number is inside all the three figures?
A) 2
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer: C
Explanation: Clearly, 7 lies inside the square, trapezium and triangle.
14. What is the sum of the numbers which belong to two figures only?
A) 10
B) 14
C) 18
D) None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
Numbers common to square and trapezium: 6.
Numbers common to trapezium and triangle: 4, 8.
The number common to square and triangle i.e., 7 also lies inside the trapezium. So, it is not to be
considered. Required sum = (6 + 4 + 8) = 18.
15. Multiply the number which belongs to the square only with the sum of the numbers which
belong to the trapezium only. What is the result?
A) 45
B) 60
C) 75
D) None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
Number which belongs to the square only: 5.
Numbers which belong to the trapezium only: 1, 3, 9, 2.
Required product = 5 x (1 + 3 + 9 + 2) = (5 x 15) = 75.
16. Multiply the number which belongs to all the three figures with the sum of the numbers which
belong to the triangle only. What is the result?
A) 14
B) 35
C) 49
D) None of these
Answer: C
Explanation:
Number which belongs to all the three figures: 7.
Numbers which belong to the triangle only: 2, 5.
Required product = 7 x (2 + 5) = (7 x 7) = 49.
Directions (17-20): In the figure given below, there are three intersecting (into each representing
certain section of people. Different regions are marked a — statements in each of the following
questions and choose the letter of the option which correctly represents the statement.
17. Artist who are painters but not musicians?
A) b
B) c
C) d
D) g
Answer: A
Explanation: The required region is the one which is common to the circles A and B but lies outside
circle C i.e., b.
18. Painters who are neither Artist nor musicians?

A) b
B) c
C) f
D) g
Answer: C
Explanation: The required region is the one which lies inside the circle B but is not a part of either
circle A or circle C i.e., f.
19. Artist who are musicians but not painters?

A) d
B) c
C) b
D) a
Answer: A
Explanation: The required region is the one which is common to the circles A and C but is not a part
of circle B i.e., d.
20. Artist who are painters as well as musicians?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
Answer: C
Explanation: The required region is the one common to all the three circles i.e., c.
SSC CHSL Exam
WORD FORMATION
Word formation is advanced level alphabet test. This test is meant to test the ability of the
candidate in word building process. In word formation, a main word is given and we have to choose
that word, which can or cannot be formed from the main word. Sometime, a set of English letters
are given in a jumbled order, and the candidates are asked to arrange them in a meaningful order. In
some situations, we are asked to choose particular letters from a word and arrange them to form a
meaningful word.
Different Questions of Word Formation
Type 1: Word Formation Using Letters from a Given Word

In this type, three sub-types of questions are asked.
● First, a word has been given, followed by four other words, one of which can or cannot be
formed by using the main word.
● Second, a word has been given and candidates are asked to make new meaningful words
using letters like 1st, 3rd, 5th, 8th, etc. of the given word.
● Third, a word has been given and candidates are asked to form as many meaningful English
words as possible from the given word, using each letter only once in each word.
Directions (1-2): In each of the following questions, a word has been given, followed by four other
words, one of which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word. Find that word.
1. CONSTRUCTION
A) SUCTION
B) COINS
C) CAUTION
D) MOTION
Answer: C
Explanation: CAUTION—All the letters except ‘A’ are present in the main word. Hence, ‘CAUTION’
cannot be formed from the letters of the given word ‘CONSTRUCTION’.
2. NATIONALISATION
A) NOTATION
B) SALINATION
C) INSTALLATION
D) SANITATION
Answer: C
Explanation: INSTALLATION - All the letters except second ‘L’ are present in the main word. Hence,
‘INSTALLATION’ cannot be formed from the letters of the given word ‘NATIONALISATION’.
Directions (3-4): In each of the following questions, a word has been given, followed by four other
words, one of which can be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find that word.
3. MEASUREMENT
A) ASSURE
B) MASTER
C) SUMMIT
D) MANTLE
Answer: B
Explanation: MASTER—All the letters of this word are present in the main word. Hence, ‘MASTER’
can be formed from the letters of the given word ‘MEASUREMENT’.
4. COMPENSATION
A) TINY
B) COPY
C) MENTION
D) MOTIVE
Answer: C
Explanation: MENTION—All the letters of this word are present in the main word. Hence,
‘MENTION’ can be formed from the letters of the given word ‘COMPENSATION’.
Directions (5-6): If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the 1st, 4th, 7th and 11th letters from
the word ‘INTERPRETATION’, which of the following will be the third letter of that word?
5. If more than one such word can be made, given ‘M’ as the answer and if no such word can be
formed, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A) T
B) R
C) M
D) X
Answer: C
Explanation: 1st, 4th, 7th and 11th letters are I, E, R and T respectively. Hence, two meaningful
words RITE and TIRE can be formed.
6. How many meaningful English words can be formed by using letters of the word ‘ALEP’?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) More than three
Answer: C
Explanation: Such meaningful words are: ‘PEAL’, ‘LEAP’, ‘PALE’.
Type 2: Word Formation by Scrambling Letters

In these types of questions, a set of English letters is given in a jumbled order. The candidate is
required to arrange these letters to form a meaningful word. Let us look at some examples.
1. Select the combination of numbers so that the letters arranged will form a meaningful word.
HNRCAB
123456
A) 2, 5, 3, 4, 1, 6
B) 3, 5, 6, 4, 1, 2
C) 4, 1, 5, 6, 2, 3
D) 6, 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
Answer: D
Explanation: Clearly, the given letters, when arranged in the order of’6, 3, 5, 2, 4, 1,’ form the word
‘BRANCH’.
2. Rearrange the letters given below to form a meaningful word and select from the given
alternatives, the word which is almost opposite in meaning to the word so formed.
A, R, T, Y, D
A) Dirty
B) Quiet
C) Quick
D) Slow
Answer: C
Explanation: The word is ‘Tardy’ which means ‘Sluggish’, opposite of which is ‘Quick’.
Logical Order of Words

As the name implies, in this type of problems, a sequence is formed with a certain number of words
given in such a way that a particular arrangement of the words gives a logical step-by-step
completion of the process.
1. Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.

1) Travel
2) Destination
3) Payment
4) Berth/Seat number
5) Reservation
6) Availability of berth/seat for reservation
A) 6, 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
B) 5, 3, 4, 1, 6, 2
C) 2, 6, 3, 5, 4, 1
D) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3, 6
Answer: C
Explanation: From the above words, it is clear that in order to perform a journey, first, a Solution.
(A), from the above words, it is deduced destination is to be identified; secondly availability of berth
seat is ascertained, followed payment for reservation. As a result, berth is allotted and travelling is
completed.
2. Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1) Country
2) Furniture
3) Forest
4) Wood
5) Trees
A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
B) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
C) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: A
Explanation: From the above words, it is deducted that a country contains forests, a forest has trees
and trees give wood that is used to make furniture.
In this type of questions, certain inter-related words are given and numbered, followed by various
sequences of the numbers denoting them, as alternatives. The candidate is required to arrange
these words in a logical sequence based on a common property and then choose the correctly
graded sequence from the given alternatives. Some common sequences have been discussed
below:
Sequence of occurrence of events or various stages in a process:
1. Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence:

1) Consultation
2) Illness
3) Doctor
4) Treatment
5) Recovery
A) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5
B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
D) 5, I, 4, 3, 2
Answer: A
Explanation: Clearly, illness occurs first. One then goes to a doctor and after consultation with him,
undergoes treatment to finally attained recovery. Thus, the correct order is 2, 3, 1, 4, 5. Hence, the
answer is (A).
2. Arrange the fallowing in a logical order:
1) Birth
2) Death
3) Funeral
4) Marriage
5) Education
A) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
D) 4, 5, 3,1, 2
Answer: B
Explanation: Clearly, the given words when arranged in the order of various events as they occur in
a man’s life form the sequence: Birth, Education, Marriage, Death, Funeral. So the correct order
becomes 1, 5, 4, 2, 3. Hence, the answer is (B).
Sequence of objects in a class or group, from part to the whole:
1. Arrange the following in a meaningful order.
1) Family
2) Community
3) Member
4) Locality
5) Country
A) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
B) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
C) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
D) 3, 1, 4, 5,2
Answer: A
Explanation: Clearly, a member is a part of a family, which in turn is a part of community. The
community lives in a locality which lies within a country. Thus, the correct order is 3, 1, 2, 4, 5.
Hence, the answer is (A).
2. Arrange the following in a logical order.
1) Shoulder
2) Wrist
3) Elbow
4) Palm
5) Finger
A) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
B) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
C) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
D) 5, 4, 2, 3, 1
Answer: D
Explanation: Clearly, we are given the names of parts of a hand, which may be arranged-
From top to bottom, i.e., Shoulder, Elbow, Wrist, Palm, Finger, which is 1, 3, 2, 4, 5; or
From bottom to top, i.e., Finger, Palm, Wrist, Elbow, Shoulder, which is 5, 4, 2, 3, 1.
Out of these, the sequence 5, 4, 2, 3, 1 is given in the alternatives provided.
Hence, the answer is (D).
Sequence of increasing/decreasing size, value, intensity etc.
1. Arrange the following in a logical sequence from small to big.
1) Bungalow
2) Flat
3) Cottage
4) House
5) Palace
6) Mansion
A) 3, 2, 1, 4, 6, 5
B) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 6
C) 3, 2, 4, 1, 6, 5
D) 5, 6, 4, 1, 2, 3
Answer: C
Explanation: Clearly, the names of various dwelling units (when arranged in increasing order of
their sizes, form the sequences: Cottage, Flat, House, Bungalow, Mansion, Palace
Thus, the correct order is 3, 2, 4, 1, 6, 5.
Hence, the answer is (C).
2. Arrange the following in a logical order:
1) Gold
2) Iron
3) Sand
4) Platinum
5) Diamond
A) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
B) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
C) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
D) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer: A
Explanation: Clearly, the given names when arranged in order of increasing values, i.e., from
cheapest to the most expensive, form the sequence: Sand, Iron, Gold, Diamond, Platinum.
Thus, the correct answer is 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
Hence, the answer is (B).
3. Arrange the following in a logical order.
1) Euphoria
2) Happiness
3) Ambivalence
4) Ecstasy
5) Pleasure
A) 1,4,2,5,3
B) 2,1,3,4,5
C) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
D) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
Answer: C
Explanation: All the given words stand for ‘joy”, but the intensity increases in the order
—Ambivalence, Happiness, Pleasure, Euphoria, Ecstasy
Thus, the correct order is 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
Sequence in which a chain of given objects is formed:
1. Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence:
1) Phrase
2) Letter
3) Word
4) Sentence
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 1, 4
D) 2, 3, 4, 1
Answer: C
Explanation: A group of letters makes a word. A group of words makes a phrase. A group of phrases
makes a sentence. Thus, the correct order is 2, 3, 1, 4.
Hence, the answer is ©.
2. Arrange the following in a logical order:
1) Frog
2) Eagle
3) Grasshopper
4) Snake
5) Grass
A) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
B) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1
C) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
D) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
Answer: C
Explanation: Clearly, a grasshopper feeds on grass, a frog feeds on a grasshopper, a snake feeds on a
frog and an eagle feeds on a snake. Thus, a food-chain is formed. So, the correct order is 5, 3, 1, 4, 2.
SSC CHSL Exam
CLASSIFICATION
What is Classification?
“Classification” means ‘to assort the items of a given group on the basis of a certain common
quality they possess and then spot the stranger or ‘odd one out’. These questions are based on
words, letters and numerals. In these types of questions, you are given a group of certain items, out
of which all except one are similar to one another in some manner. The candidate is required to
choose this one item which does not fit into the given group.
Questions On Classification Types
Type 1: Choosing the Odd Word

In these types of problems, some words are given which belong to real world. They have some
common features except the odd one. You are required to find the ‘odd man out’.
Directions (1 to 11): In each of the following questions, four words have been given out of which
three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is different. Choose the odd one.
1. A) Pear
B) Apple
C) Guava
D) Orange
Answer: D
Explanation: Out of given fruits orange is citrus fruit. So, it is different from others.
2. A) Deck
B) Quay
C) Stern
D) Bow
Answer: B
Explanation: All except quay are parts of a ship.
3. A) Tomato
B) Brinjal
C) Cucumber
D) Potato
Answer: D
Explanation: All the vegetables except potato grow above the ground level.
4. A) Mustard
B) Onion
C) Olive
D) Sesame
Answer: B
Explanation: All except onion are used for extracting oil.
5. A) Curd
B) Butter
C) Oil
D) Cheese
Answer: C
Explanation: Here, all except Oil are products obtained from milk.
6. A) Rose
B) Lotus
C) Marigold
D) Lily
Answer: C
Explanation: Here, all except Lotus are flowers, which grow on land while lotus is a water flower.
7. A) Pistol
B) Sword
C) Gun
D) Rifle
Answer: B
Explanation: Here, all except Sword are fire arms.
8. A) Cathedral
B) Mosque
C) Church
D) Monastery
Answer: D
Explanation: All except Monastery are places of worship, while monastery is a place where monks
stay.
9. A) Book
B) Paper
C) Pencil
D) Pen
Answer: A
Explanation: Here, all except Book are stationery items.
10. A) Geometry
B) Algebra
C) Trigonometry
D) Mathematics
Answer: D
Explanation: Here, all except Mathematics are branches of Mathematics.
Type 2: Choosing the Odd Pair of Words

In this type of classification, different pairs are classified on the basis of some common features/
properties like names, places, uses, situations, origin, etc. The candidate is required to decipher this
relationship and choose the pair in which the words are differently related, as the answer.
Directions (1 to 10): In each of the following questions, four pairs of words are given out of which
words in three pairs bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are
differently related.
1. A) Gold: Ornaments
B) Cloth: Garments
C) Leather: Footwear
D) Earthen pots: Clay
Answer: D
Explanation: Except pair (D), in all other pairs, the first is the raw material used to make the second.
2. A) Broad: Wide
B) Light: Heavy
C) Tiny: Small
D) Big: Large
Answer: B
Explanation: Light is antonym of heavy. But in other pairs words are synonyms.
3. A) Petrol: Car
B) Ink: Pen
C) Garbage: Dustbin
D) Lead: Pencil
Answer: D
Explanation: Except pair (D) in all other pairs first is required by the second for its functioning.
4. A) Blacksmith : Anvil
B) Carpenter : Saw
C) Barber : Scissor
D) Goldsmith : Ornaments
Answer: D
Explanation: Clearly, the answer is (D). In all other pairs, second is the tool used by the first.
5. A) Painter : Gallery
B) Mason : Wall
C) Farmer : Field
D) Worker : Factory
Answer: B
Explanation: Clearly, the answer is (B). In all other pairs, second is the place where the first works.
6. A) Cow : Calf
B) Dog : Bitch
C) Lion : Cub
D) Insect : Larva
Answer: B
Explanation: Clearly, the answer is (B). In all other pairs, second is the young one of the first while in
(B), second is the female of the first.
7. A) Volume : Liter
B) Time : Seconds
C) Resistance : Ohm
D) Pressure : Barometer
Answer: D
Explanation: Clearly, the answer is (D). In all other pairs, second is the unit to measure the first. On
the other hand, barometer is an instrument.
8. A) China : Beijing
B) Russia : Moscow
C) Japan : Singapore
D) Spain : Madrid
Answer: C
Explanation: Clearly, the answer is (C). In all other pairs, second is the capital of first.
9. A) Ornithology : Birds
B) Mycology : Fungi
C) Biology : Botany
D) Phycology : Algae
Answer: C
Explanation: In all other pairs, first is the study of second.
10. A) Principal : School

B) Artist : Troupe
C) Soldier : Barrack
D) Singer : Chorus
Answer: A
Explanation: In all other pairs, second is a collective group of the first
Type 3: Choosing the Odd Letter Group

In these types of problems, some groups of letters are given. One out of them is different and this is
to be chosen by the candidate as the answer.
Directions (1-3): Choose the group of letters which is different from others.
1. A) H
B) Q
C) T
D) Z
Answer: B
Explanation: All other letters except (B), occupy the even-numbered positions in the English
alphabets.
2. A) GE
B) MK
C) WU
D) QN
Answer: D
Explanation: Here,
G’s place value = 7 E’s place value = 5 Difference = 2
M’s place value = 13 K’s place value = 11 Difference = 2
W’s place value = 23 U’s place value = 21 Difference = 2
Q’s place value = 17 N’s place value = 14 Difference = 3
3. A) DG2
B) EK5
C) JR6
D) PY8
Answer: C
Explanation:
Taking A=1, B = 2,… Z = 26,
Then,
DG2 = G - (D + 2) = 7 - (4 + 2) = 1
EK5 = K - (E + 5) = 11 - (5 + 5) = 1
JR6 = R - (J + 6) = 18 - (10 + 6) = 2
PY8 = Y - (P + 8) = 25 - (16 + 8) = 1
RV3 = V - (R + 3) = 22 - (18 + 3) = 1
Type 4: Choosing the Odd Number / Pair of Numbers
Odd Number
In these types of questions, certain numbers are given, out of which except one, all have some
common characteristics and hence are alike. The ‘different one’ is to be chosen as the answer.
Odd Numeral Pair/Group

In this type of questions, certain pairs/groups of numbers are given out of which all except one are
similar in some manner while one is different. The numbers in these similar pairs may have the
same property or may be related to each other according to the same rule. The candidate is
required to choose the odd pair/group.
Directions (1 to 10): In each of the following questions, four numbers are given. Out of these,
three are alike in a certain way but the fourth one is different. Choose the one which is different
from the rest four/three.
1. A) 2
B) 32
C) 56
D) 128
Answer: C
Explanation: Each of the numbers except 56, can be expressed in terms of powers of 2.
2. A) 57
B) 87
C) 131
D) 133
Answer: C
Explanation: Except 131, all other numbers are non-prime (composite) numbers.
3. A) 144
B) 169
C) 256
D) 288
Answer: D
Explanation: Except 288, all other numbers are square of natural numbers.
4. A) 35
B) 49
C) 50
D) 63
Answer: C
Explanation: Each of the number except 50 is divisible by 7.
5. A) 385
B) 572
C) 671
D) 427
Answer: D
Explanation: In all other numbers, the middle digit is the sum of the other two.
6. A) 3759
B) 2936
C) 6927
D) 5814
Answer: B
Explanation: In all other numbers, the sum of second and last digits is twice the sum of first and
third digits
7. A) 5698
B) 7894
C) 9865
D) 6958
Answer: D
Explanation: Sum of digits in each other number is 28.
8. A) 7359
B) 1593
C) 9175
D) 3781
Answer: D
Explanation: All other numbers consist of odd digits only.
9. A) 325
B) 236
C) 178
D) 639
Answer: B
Explanation: In all other numbers, the last digit is the sum of the first two.
10. A) 3740
B) 4635
C) 5869
D) 7946
Answer: A
Explanation: In all other numbers, the sum of the first and the last digits is equal to the product of
other two digits.
Directions (1 to 10): Choose the numeral pair/group which is different from others.
1. A) 70 – 80
B) 54 - 62
C) 28 – 32
D) 21 – 32
Answer: B
Explanation: In each of the pairs except (B), the ratio of the two numbers is 7 : 8.
2. A) 42- 4
B) 36- 6
C) 32 – 2
D) 5 - 5
Answer: A
Explanation: In all the pairs except (A), the first number is a multiple of the second.
3. A) 71, 7, 3, 17
B) 67, 71, 3, 5
C) 41, 5, 3, 47
D) 37, 14, 19, 7
Answer: D
Explanation: All other pairs except (D) consist of prime numbers only, while (D) consists of one
composite number i.e., 14.
4. A) 95 – 82
B) 69 – 56
C) 55 – 42
D) 48 - 34
Answer: D
Explanation: In all other pairs, first number is 13 more than the second.
5. A) 2- 8
B) 3-2 7
C) 4 – 32
D) 6 – 125
Answer: C
Explanation: In all other pairs second number in the cube of the first.
6. A) 80- 9
B) 64- 8
C) 36- 6
D) 7 – 49
Answer: A
Explanation: In all other pairs, one number is the square of the other.
7. A) 3 – 5
B) 5 – 3
C) 6 – 2
D) 7- 3
Answer: D
Explanation: In all other pairs, the sum of two numbers is 8.
8. A) 1 – 0
B) 3 – 8
C) 6- 35
D) 7 – 50
Answer: D
Explanation: In all other pairs, the second number is one less than the square of the first number.
9. A) 12 – 144
B) 13 – 156
C) 15 – 180
D) 16 – 176
Answer: D
Explanation: In all other pairs, second number is obtained by multiplying the first number by 12.
10. A) 23 – 29
B) 19 – 25
C) 13-17
D) 3- 5
Answer: B
Explanation: All other pairs consist of prime numbers only.
Type 5: Choosing the Odd Figure

In such problems we are given a set of figures, such that, all except one have similar
characteristics/features. We are required to select the figure which differs from all other figures in
the given set.
Directions (1-2): In each of the following questions, four figures are given. Out of these, three are
alike in a certain way but the fourth one is different. Choose the one which is different from the
rest three.
1.
Answer: D
Explanation: In all other figures, the two figures on either side of the line are inverted image
of one another.
2.
Answer: D
Explanation: In all other cases, one of the two figures is made of dotted lines.
SSC CHSL Exam
DECISION MAKING
It is a process in which a final outcome is derived by analysing the given data. A set of rules is specified
as selection criteria. It is followed by qualification of the candidate. In selection procedure, two
conditions are required these are;
● Primary Condition
● Additional condition
In decision making, questions contain following:
● Information about a candidate is provided.
● Some conditions are there which a candidate has to fulfil in order to get selected for a
particular job or post.
● When a candidate fulfils many criteria except some, some different course of action has to be
taken for him.
Primary Conditions and Additional Conditions

● There are some conditions in this type of questions which a candidate has to fulfil in order to
get selected for a particular job. These conditions are called Original or Primary conditions.
Similarly, in such problems, there are certain more conditions. We shall call
them Additional conditions.
● To solve this type of questions, little logic is required. All you have to do is to see the candidate
fulfils some of the given conditions to decide the correct choice. Taking into account various
aspects of this problem, a method is suggested below.
● These types of problems can be solved easily by constructing a table using the given
information.
Step I − First of all write the symbols of primary conditions (Say a, b, c, d etc.) and additional
conditions (Say i, ii, iii etc.) to the top row of the table. Then write the question number and the name
of candidates to the extreme left column of table. Put the primary conditions without brackets and the
additional conditions within brackets.
Again, write the symbols of additional conditions with an oblique (/) mark placed before them. Then
next to the symbol of that primary condition with which these might be related. Suppose we have 5
questions and 4 primary conditions and two additional conditions, then we have to construct a table as
following,
Q. No. a b/(i) c/(ii) f
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Step II − In this step, read each question carefully and compare the facts given in it with various
conditions one by one. Put the appropriate mark {‘✓’, or ‘×’ or ‘(✓)’ or ‘(×)’, as suitable}.
In the process of comparing and putting appropriate marks below the conditions indicates the
following:
● If a primary condition is satisfied, put a ‘✓’ mark below it.
● If a primary condition is violated, put a ‘×’ mark below it.
● If a primary condition is violated but there exist additional conditions attached to it, then if
additional condition is also violated, put a ‘(×)’ mark below it, and if additional condition is
satisfied put a ‘(✓)’ mark below it.
● When no information is given then put a ‘?’ or ‘-‘ mark below it.
The table given below is an example.
Q. No. a b/(i) c/(ii) f
1. ✓ ✓ ✓ ×
2. ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓
3. ✓ (✓) (✓) ✓
4. ✓ ✓ (×) ✓
5. ✓ - ✓ ✓
The above example illustrates the following:
● a, b, c and d are four primary conditions whereas, (i) and (ii) are two additional conditions.
Condition (i) is attached to b while condition (ii) is attached to c.
● In question (1), a, b, c are satisfied where d is violated.
● In question (2), all primary conditions a, b, c and d are satisfied.
● In question (3), the primary conditions a and d are satisfied and though the primary conditions
b and c are violated, the additional conditions (i) and (ii) are satisfied.
● In question (4), the primary conditions a, b and d are satisfied while both c and (ii) are violated.
● In question (5), the primary conditions a, c and d are satisfied but no information is given about
b or (ii).
Step III − Now select your answer according to following rule.

● Whenever you obtain a ‘×’ and a ‘(×)’ sign do not bother to examine the remaining conditions.
Select the choice candidate not selected and move over to next question.
● If there is no cross but a ‘?’ mark or ‘-’ mark below any condition, select the choice data is
inadequate”. This is called inadequacy of data.
● If there are no marks present, then look carefully at the answer and decide which combination
of conditions lead to which conclusion and prepare a combination chart as discussed in the
illustrative example given below.
Illustrative Examples
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it. The following are the
conditions for the requirement of person as faculty members in a computer education centre. The
candidate must:
a. Be in the range of 23 years to 28 years as on 1 November, 1993.
b. Have work experience- or programming experience.
c. Have a postgraduate degree in computer application. I.e. MCA, M.Tech etc. with at least 60% of
marks.
d. Obtain at least 25 marks in the interview out of a total of 50 marks.
In case of a candidate who
e. Fulfils the above criteria, he or she shall be appointed as senior faculty member.
f. Has a post graduate degree in computer application with less than 60% marks but 50% marks,
he/she should be appointed as junior faculty member.
g. Is of age more than 28 years but less than 32 years as on 1 Nov., 1993, in case may be referred
to director of centre.
On the above condition and the information provided, we have to decide which of the following
courses of action should be taken against each candidate. Don’t assume anything. The decisions will be
made only on the information provided.
Mark answer:
1) If the candidate is to be selected as junior faculty member.
2) If the candidate is to be selected as senior faculty member.
3) If the case is to be referred to the director of the centre.
4) If data is inadequate.
5) If candidate is not to be selected.
Questions:
1. Manisha Punjabi is M.Sc. in computer science with 65% of marks. Her date of birth is 31st July, 1965.
She has been working in an institution as a programmer for last 4 years.
2. Kishore Garg is MCA with 61% marks. His date of birth is 14 August, 1970. He has worked as a
computer teacher for 3 years. He has obtained 60% marks in the interview.
3. Babli Sarkar is M.Tech with 58% marks. Her date of birth is 31st December, 1971. She has been
working as a programmer for last two-and-half years. She has obtained 40 marks in an interview.
4. Manish Kumar is M.Sc. with 52% marks. His date of birth is 10 July, 1968. He has been working as
computer teacher for 4 years. He has obtained 40% mark in interview.
5. Sudha Ranjan is MCA with 56% marks. She has been working as a programmer for 3 years. Her date
of birth is 12 February, 1969. She has obtained 55% mark in interview.
Solution:
Step I − There are 4 primary conditions ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’, and two additional conditions are ‘f’ and ‘g’.
Q. No. a/(g) b c/(f) d
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Step II − Read each question carefully and compare facts given in it with the various conditions and put
appropriate mark below.
Q. No. a/(g) b c/(f) d
1. (✓) ✓ ✓ -
2. ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓
3. (×) ✓ (✓) ✓
4. (✓) ✓ (✓) ×
5. (✓) ✓ (✓) ✓
Question 1 − Manisha is a M.Sc. student with 65% marks. This fulfils condition c. Condition a is
violated though on 31st July, 1993, she is more than 28 years. Additional condition of a is g. g is
satisfied, that’s why we put ‘(✓)’ mark here. Manisha has more than 2 years of experience. So, we put
✓ mark below condition b. Below condition d we can see the vacant space. So, we refer to d in the
question. Information about Manisha’s mark in interview is missing so we put ‘-‘ mark there.
Question 2 − Kishore Garg is an MCA with 61% marks. It fulfils condition c, so we put a ✓ mark
below c. According to his date of birth, he will be slightly more than 23 years. So, it fulfils a. We
put a ✓ mark below a. He has a work experience of more than 3 years. So, it fulfils b. He acquired 60%
marks in interview that fulfils d.
Question 3 − Babli Sarkar is an M.Tech with 58% marks so it violates c. An additional condition is
attached to c, is f. Referring to f, we see that f is satisfied. So, we put ‘(✓)’ mark over there. She is
certainly below 23 as her date of birth is in 1971. This violates condition a. The additional condition
attached to a is g. so g is also violated. We put a (×) mark there.
Question 4 − Manish is M.Sc. with 52% marks. So, it violates c but fulfils the additional
condition f attached to c. We put (✓) mark there. He is born in 1968, so he is nearly 25 years.
Hence a is satisfied. We put ✓ mark below a. He worked as computer teacher for 4 years. So, it fulfils
condition b. Marks obtained in the interview is 40%. It violates d. so we put × mark below d.
Question 5 − Sudha is an MCA with 56% marks. This violates condition c but fulfils f. We put a (✓)
mark there. She has an experience of 3 years. It fulfils condition b. She was born in 1969, so she is 24
years old. So, condition a is satisfied. She has obtained more than 50% mark. So, condition d is
satisfied.
Step IV − Now we have to decide which combination of conditions leads to which conclusion and the
following are the conditions.
a + b + c + d ⇒ (2) (senior faculty member)
g + b + c + d ⇒ (3) (to be referred to director)
a + b + f + d ⇒ (1) (junior faculty member)
Question 1 − No cross mark and question mark; so, data inadequate.
Question 2 − a + b + c + d ⇒ 2
Question 3 − A cross-mark is there. So not selected.
Question 4 − Answer choice: 5.
Question 5 − a + b + f + d ⇒ 1
Practice Questions:
Directions: Following are the criteria for selection of chemistry lectures in an organization. The
candidate must:
a. Have passed +2 examination in first class with at least 60% marks.
b. Have passed graduation with chemistry honours or pass degree with at least 55% marks.
c. Have experience in chemistry teaching for a minimum of 1 year.
d. Be not less than 22 years and not more than 30 years of age as on 1.1.2014.
If a candidate satisfies all the above-mentioned criteria except,
e. Above but has a post-graduate degree in chemistry, case may be assigned to the executive
director (ED).
f. Above but can has experience and can do marketing, the case may be assigned to the vice
president (VP).
Q1. Sambhrant has completed +2 from BJB junior college with 65% marks and graduated in
chemistry from Utkal University with 70%. He has teaching experience in chemistry for more than 3
years and his age is 27 years.
A. If the candidate is to be selected.
B. If the case is to be assigned to ED.
C. If the case is to be assigned to VP.
D. If the information given is inadequate to answer.
E. If the candidate is not to be selected.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Sambhrant will be selected as he has all the required qualifications.
Q2. Laxmi Rattan Shukla has passed +2 with 70% marks and is a chemistry graduate with 50% and he
has also done M SC in chemistry. He has experience of teaching for more than 1 year and is 29 years
of age.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This case will be assigned to executive director of the institute because some points related to Mr.
Shukla is confusing.
Q3. Mamta Kulkarni is a BSc chemistry student with 53% marks. She has secured 58% in the +2 but
has teaching experience of 2 years. She is 28 years of age.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The candidate will not be selected because Miss Mamta doesn’t satisfy the criteria.
Q4. Ritu Chandra is a chemistry graduate. He has no experience in teaching but he can do marketing
for the institute. He has experience in marketing. His age is around 26 years.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This case will be assigned to the vice president of the institute as the candidate is able to do marketing.
So, option C is correct.
Q5. Mannishree Malhotra is a B.Sc. graduate in chemistry and has scored 65% in his graduation. He
has teaching experience of 3 years and his age is not more than 27 years.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The data is not sufficient as nothing is mentioned about +2 of Mannishree Malhotra. So, option D is
correct.
Directions (Q6-Q7): Refer to the information given below and answer the following questions:
In a school in New Delhi, a panel of three senior teachers has been formed to elect the Head Boy of
the school. Thre probable candidates have been selected by the students: Ajay, Veer and Nitin. Each
teacher has to vote either in against or for each student.
The following criteria is known to us about the selection:
a. Exactly two teachers vote for Ajay

b. Exactly one teacher votes for Veer
c. Exactly one teacher votes for Nitin
d. Teacher 1 votes for Ajay
e. Teacher 2 votes against Ajay and Nitin
f. Teacher 3 votes against Nitin
Q6. Which of the given statements is definitely true?

A. Teacher 2 votes against Nitin
B. Teacher 3 is in support of Ajay but against Nitin
C. Teacher 1 is against Ajay
D. Teacher 3 is against Veer
E. None of the above
Answer: B
Q7. Based on the given information, which of the statements is completely false?
A. If Teacher 3 votes against Veer, then Teacher 2 would have voted for Veer
B. Teacher 1 was against making Veer the Head Boy of the school
C. Teacher 3 voted for Ajay
D. Veer was not supported by Teacher 1
E. None of the above
Answer: E
Solution (Q6 – Q7):
Ajay Veer Nitin
Teacher 1 for against
Teacher 2 against
Teacher 3 for against
Directions (Q8 – Q9): Analyse the information given below about an election campaign strategy and
answer the following questions:
You are supposed to prepare a strategy for election campaigning which is going to start in 6 months
time. This is to be done at multiple constituencies involving many agencies. There would be a huge
amount of logistical support which would be required once the format has been decided. The
Minister has called for a meeting to hear your action plan and you need to be prepared for it.
Q8. What would be the most effective answer?
A. Concentrate on coordinating with the different agencies and having them approve the strategy
B. Concentrate on setting deadlines, targets and checkpoints in order to meet the deadlines.
C. Concentrate on getting an immediate feel for the contents design and layout of the strategy.
D. Concentrate on logistics: how to move people and equipments from one place to
another smoothly
Answer: C
Explanation:
The question clearly states that the logistics team need to contact after the format has been decided,
thus eliminating the 4th option. Only when the strategy is ready the agencies can be contacted and
then deadlines can be set, thus eliminating the 1st and 2nd option.
Q9. What would be the least effective answer?

A. Concentrate on coordinating with the different agencies and having them approve the strategy
B. Concentrate on setting deadlines, targets and checkpoints in order to meet the deadlines.
C. Concentrate on getting an immediate feel for the contents design and layout of the strategy.
D. Concentrate on logistics: how to move people and equipment from one place to
another smoothly.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Moving the equipment is the last step. Only once the entire strategy is set and the agencies agree to
the strategy, then based on the deadlines the equipment shall be moved from one place to another.
Direction Q10: You have been using a certain computer system to perform your role for years and it
has proved to be stable and reliable. Recently, you were informed that it is to be updated next month
with new functionality and applications. You are concerned about the time it would take to have a
trouble free system as the current system took six months to become trouble free. You now need to
decide your response to this news.
Q10. What would be the least effective answer?
A. Find out all you can about the system and volunteer to be the first to trail run it.
B. Voice your concern to your superior and recommend that all possible upgrades be delayed
until all possible issues have been identified and resolved.
C. Ask All other colleagues to run the new systems for errors so that the quality of your work is
not compromised, but seek their reviews.
D. Believe that the appropriate checks have been carried out and wait for the introduction of
the upgrade so that you can assess its functionality.
Answer: D
Explanation:
First the existing work needs to be reviewed to secure the data and only then the new upgrades can be
enjoyed.
Q11. As a relatively small part of your role, you are responsible for the maintenance of a database of
statistical information regarding meteorological data and its link to road traffic levels at the Indian met
department. This is drawn upon every three months for analysis, although for the past few years the
results have been consistent and predictable and some people have questioned the need for such
detailed data. In order to compile the information, you rely on daily input of information from a
number of people in different localities. One day, one of these individuals comes to you to request that
data be submitted on a weekly rather than daily basis, to save time. Your boss is on holiday and you are
left to take the decision. Which of the given options must not be considered by the employee?
A. Inform them that you cannot authorize it until your boss is back from leave.
B. Make the change as it seems more sensible, and inform your boss when he returns.
C. Inform him that there is no chance of any change in the reporting pattern.
D. Ask the other person involved in it and what is their take and tell this to your boss once he comes
back.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Since the Boss is on leave the employee must not take the decision immediately without informing him.
Thus, option 2 is the least effective answer
Q12. You are new to your department and your boss has handed you a brief for a presentation that
covers what you should tell your department about the new IT system that is being introduced. Your
boss would have done it himself, but he has annual leave for the next few days. It contains a lot of facts
and you are aware that your boss prefers a more factual dry presentation style. However, you are
concerned that the audience would find the content dull and you want to make a good first impression
on them. What would be the least effective answer?
A. Respect the approach that your superior would have taken and present just the facts, but try to do
so quickly so that the audience doesn’t get too bored.
B. Introduce a range of interactive, entertaining elements to the briefing that increase audience
engagement with the content prepared by your boss, but might not reflect the style of your boss.
C. Send a brief around in email form prior to the meeting and then engage in a two way discussion
with the audience about the system.
D. Suggest to your boss that he may like to present the content when he returns, as this will ensure
that it is delivered in the way he intended.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If an opportunity has been given, the employee must not let it go and make the most of it.
SSC CHSL Exam
FIGURAL PATTERN FOLDING AND COMPLETION
Figural Pattern - folding and completion questions form an integral part of many aptitude
examinations. These questions present a figure that either has to be completed from a set of
possible answers or have to select a figure that would resemble the pattern after unfolding.
The Paper Folding and Cutting involves a process in which a transparent sheet is folded and
then some cuts and/or folds are made. In the questions based on Paper Folding and Cutting
a few figures are given showing the way in which a piece is to be folded and then cut from a
particular section. The dotted line is the reference line along which the paper is to be folded
and the arrow indicates the direction of the fold.
Thus, these figures indicate the sequence in which the paper is to be folded. The designs
from the cut will appear on each one of the folds made on the paper. In questions based on
paper folding and cutting it can be asked to find either the folded or unfolded pattern of the
sheet.
Important Types of Figural Pattern Questions

Figural Pattern questions are a high-scoring section if you master the relevant techniques
and practise well before appearing for your examination. The types of figural pattern
questions include:
● Paper Folding - Select the figure which would resemble the pattern given when the
figure is unfolded along the dotted lines indicated.
● Completion of Figure - Find the missing part of a figure from the given answer set so
that when inserted in the empty place, it completes the pattern of the figure.
Tips to Solve Figural Pattern Questions

While there are no Figural Pattern - folding and completion rules, aspirants must remain
aware of their time while solving these questions. The trick here is to answer correctly
without spending too much time on the section. Here are a few Figural Pattern - folding and
completion tricks to keep in mind:
● Do not worry about the complexity of the figure.
● Read the question carefully to understand its meaning.
● The figure given will not necessarily be to scale or match the size of the answer
options.
● If you do not find the figure on the first try, rotate the figure to find the answer.
● Ensure that the orientation of the figure matches precisely.
Figural Patterns are a high-scoring section. As there is no Figural Pattern - folding and
completion formula, you must time yourself. Do not spend more than 60 seconds per
question.
Some Solved Examples For You
Directions: In each of the following problems, a square transparent sheet with a pattern is
given. Figure out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear
when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line.
Q1. Transparent Sheet Answer Figures
Answer: The right half of the transparent sheet is being folded along the dotted line and
placed on the left half of the sheet. The figure thus obtained resembles the answer figure
(c).
Directions: In the following question, a piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in
the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when
opened.
Q2.
Answer: In these types of questions, the easiest thing to do is to start with the last picture
and undo the steps taken in the question. Let us see, if we start from the figure z, and move
to y, we will get a figure that has square cuts as half diagonals in the left half only. From the
figure y we have to now move to the figure x, that would give a figure similar to the one in
(a). Hence the correct answer here is (a).
Let us see some difficult questions now.
Q1. A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. Figure out from among the four
alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at
the middle line shown.
Answer: If you look at the options, you would see that the option (a) can’t be the answer
because if the sheet was folded at the middle the triangles will be joined at the vertex.
Similarly, you can discard all the other options except (d). The correct option is (d).
Q2. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. from
the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
Answer: In the last problem figure, we see that the paper is folded in the form of a right
triangle and the cut is made near the midpoint of the hypotenuse inside the triangle.
Unfolding the triangle would give us another right triangle which has marks near the two
sides apart from the hypotenuse. At this point, we can say that the answer could be either
(a) or (d). Similarly, if we keep unfolding we will see that the correct answer is (d).
Q3. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From
the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?
Answer: As we have done with the other questions, we will begin with the last problem
figure and move on to the first one, while tracing out all the spots on each step. Whence we
do that we will see that out of the four options, the only one that represents the answer
figure is the one in option (a).
Practice Questions:
Q1. A triangular sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown in the following
series of figures. How will it appear when opened?
Answer: (d)
Q2. A square piece of paper cut at the edges as shown is taken and folded as shown
below. How would the folded pattern look?
Answer: (b)
SSC CHSL Exam
INEQUALITY
● In this section, comparison between any two elements is given using the inequality symbols i.e.
<, > or =.
Important symbols and their meaning:
Sr. No. Symbol Meanin

g
1. A>B A is Greater than B.
2. A<B A is Smaller than B
3. A=B A is Equal to B.
4. A≥B A > B or A = B
5. A≤B A < B or A = B
6. A≠B A < B or A > B
7. A≰B A>B
8. A𝛽B A<B
9. A≮B A > B or A = B
10. A𝑘B A < B or A = B

Basic Inequality
In this section, an expression consist of comparison between different elements will be given and a
definite relation between any 2 elements will be asked.
Directions: In the question, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion
(s) among given two conclusions is /are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.
Q. Statement:
H<A<T=G>U≥V≥B
Conclusions:
I. T > B
II. G > H
1) Only conclusion I follow.

2) Either conclusion I or II follow.
3) Only conclusion II follow.
4) None Follows.
5) Both conclusion I and II follow.
A. Given statement: H < A < T = G > U ≥ V ≥ B
T > B → True (as T = G > U ≥ V ≥ B)

G > H → True (as H < A < T = G)
Thus, Both conclusion I and II follow.
Description: In these questions, relationship between different elements is. shown in the statements.
The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements
and select the appropriate answer.
Q. Statement:
F > Y ≥ X < Z, C ≤ X < W
Conclusions:
I. Z > C
II. F > W

4) None Follows.
A. Given statement: F > Y ≥ X < Z, C ≤ X < W

On combining we will get: F > Y ≥ X ≥ C and F > Y ≥ X < W
Conclusions:
I. Z > C – True (F > Y ≥ X ≥ C)
II. F > W – False (F > Y ≥ X < W, Relationship between F and W cannot be determine)
Hence only conclusion I follow.
Trick you can use:

● You can consider the symbols by trick, so you can find the answer quickly.
o > as Father
o ≥ as Mother
o = as Servant
● And, we all know that Father is the Head of any Family.
● Among >, ≥, =, Priority will be given to “>” as this is the Father/head of the family.
Similarly,
● Among ≥, >, Priority will be given to “>” as this is the Father/head of the family.
● Among >, =, Priority will be given to “>” as this is the Father/head of the family.
● Among ≥, =, Priority will be given to “≥” as this is the Mother who is senior to servant.
<, ≤ the value of these symbols is same as above.
If relation between 2 elements is given as:

1. >, <
2. >, ≤
3. ≤, >
Then answer is can’t say i.e., false.

Memory Tip
S.No Statement Conclusion
1. P>Q>R
2. P>Q≥R
3. P≥Q>R P>R
4. P=Q>R
5. P>Q=R
6. P<Q<R
7. P<Q≤R
8. P≤Q<R
P<R
9. P=Q<R
10. P<Q=R
11. P≥Q≥R
12. P=Q≥R P > R or P = R
13. P≥Q=R
14. P≤Q≤R
15. P=Q≤R P < R or P = R
16. P≤Q=R
17. P<Q>R
18. P≤Q>R
19. P<Q≥R No conclusion can be
inferred
20. P>Q<R
21. P>Q≤R
22. P≥Q<R
Either- or Case
When a definite relation between 2 elements cannot be determined but we know that there will be
only 2 relation between the elements then we can say, either relation 1 or 2 is definitely true.
Rule #1:
S.No. Complementary Condition

Pair s
1. >+= 1) Elements in both conclusions should be

same.
2. <+= 2) Both are individually false.
3) Combination of the relation should be
3. >+<+= true.
1) Elements in all the conclusion should be
4. ≤+>
same.
2) The relation between the element in all
the case should be can’t say.
Note: Only three relations are possible
between any two elements and when all the
5. >+≤ relations are given in conclusion & the
relation between the elements can’t be
determined from the given statement. Either -
or case will be formed.
Directions: In the question, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion
(s) among given conclusions is /are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.
Q. Statement:
B=K≥H=T>U≤I
Conclusions:
I. H > I
II. H ≤ I

4) None Follows.
A. Given statement: B = K ≥ H = T > U ≤ I
I. H > I → False (as H = T > U ≤ I)

II. H ≤ I → False (as H = T > U ≤ I)
Conclusion I and II is false and it makes complementary form for either or.
Thus, Either conclusion I or II follow.
Q. Statement:
1. O < L > P > M ≤ N ≤ B
2. L = K, M ≥ R
Conclusions:
I. K > M
II. O = M
III. R < B
IV. R = B

2) Only conclusion I and III follow.
3) Only conclusion I and IV follow.
4) Either conclusion III or IV follow.
5) Only conclusion I and Either conclusion III or IV follow.
A. Given statements: O < L > P > M ≤ N ≤ B and L = K, M ≥ R
I. K > M → True (as L = K, so L replaced by K then K > P > M)

II. O = M → False (as O < L > P > M)
III. R < B → False (as M ≥ R, then R ≤ M ≤ N ≤ B gives either R < B or R = B)
IV. R = B → False (as M ≥ R, then R ≤ M ≤ N ≤ B gives either R < B or R = B)
R ≤ M ≤ N ≤ B is given in the statement. therefore, conclusion III and IV makes a complementary pair.
Thus, Only conclusion I and Either conclusion III or IV follow.
Exception
Either-or case can be formed even when elements given in conclusions are not same as
illustrated in the below example.
Q. Statement: C = T ≥ V ≥ U
Conclusion:
I. C > U
II. T = U

4) None Follows.
A. Given statement: C = T ≥ V ≥ U
I. C > U → False (C = T ≥ V ≥ U)
II. T = U → False (T ≥ V ≥ U)
In this case either I or II is true because C = T and when we put this in conclusion I then the
conclusion will be T.
Now the conclusions are: T > U and T = U.
We can see that both the conclusion consists of a complementary pair and both are individually false
and the combination of both the relation is true.
Hence, Either I or II are true.

Coded Inequality
Codes will be assigned to Inequality symbols and the expression will be given using those codes. You
need to decode the symbols and find the relation between the elements.
Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, %, * are used with the following meaning
illustrated below:
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’

‘A # B’ means ‘A is greater than or equal to B’
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor less than B’
‘A % B’ means ‘A is less than B’
‘A * B’ means ‘A is neither less than nor equal to B’
In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion
among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Q. Statements: R $ J; J % Y; C @ Y
Conclusions:
I. C % J
II. R * Y
III. R * C

2) All follows.
4) None Follows.
5) Only conclusion I and III follow.
A. According to the statement:
A@B→A≤B
A#B→A≥B
A$B→A=B
A%B→A<B
A*B→A>B
Given statements: R = J; J < Y; C ≤ Y
On combining: R = J < Y ≥ C
Conclusions:
I. C % J → C < J → False as (R = J < Y ≥ C → thus relationship between C and J cannot be
determined)
II. R * Y → R > Y → False as (R = J < Y ≥ C → R < Y)
III. R * C → R > C → False as (R = J < Y ≥ C → thus relationship between R and C cannot be
determined)
Thus, none are true.
Practice Questions
Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
given conclusions is /are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
1. Statements: W < X; X ≥ Y; Y = Z; Z ≥ A
Conclusions:
I. X ≥ A
II. A < Z
III. A > X
1) Only I is true
2) Only I and II is true
3) Only II and III is true
4) Only III is true
5) All are true
Correct Option: 1
Explanation:
Given statements: W < X; X ≥ Y; Y = Z; Z ≥ A
On combining: W < X ≥ Y = Z ≥ A
Conclusions:
I. X ≥ A → True (X ≥ Y = Z ≥ A)
II. A < Z → False (Z ≥ A; thus A < Z → it is possible but not definite)
III. A > X → False (X ≥ Y = Z ≥ A; this means that X ≥ A)
Therefore, conclusions I is only true.

2. Statements: P ≥ U; Q ≥ S; S ≤ P; R ≥ U
Conclusions:
I. P ≥ R
II. Q ≤ U
III. S ≥ R
1) None is true
2) Only I is true
3) Only I and II is true
4) Only II and III is true
5) Only III is true
Correct Option: 1
Explanation:
Here, according to the given information: Q ≥ S ≤ P ≥ U ≤ R
Conclusions:
I. P ≥ R → False (as P ≥ U ≤ R → clear relation between P and R cannot be determined)

II. Q ≤ U → False (as Q ≥ S ≤ P ≥ U → clear relation between Q and U cannot be determined)
III. S ≥ R → False (as S ≤ P ≥ U ≤ R → clear relation between S and R cannot be determined)
Therefore, none of the conclusions is true.
3. Statements: A ≤ B = D ≤ E; F < L = K; E ≥ F
Conclusion:
I. F ≥ B
II. E ≥ A
1) Only I is true.
2) Only II is true.
3) Both I and II are true.
4) Either I or II is true.
5) Neither I nor II is true.
Correct Option: 2
Explanation:
Given statements: A ≤ B = D ≤ E; F < L = K; E ≥ F
On combining: A ≤ B = D ≤ E ≥ F < L = K
Conclusion:
I. F ≥ B ⇒ False (as B = D ≤ E ≥ F hence relationship between F and B can’t be determine)

II. E ≥ A ⇒ True (as A ≤ B = D ≤ E)
Hence, only conclusion II is true.
4. Statements: X = Y > Z ≤ A; A = Q; Q > R ≥ S < W
Conclusions:
I. W > R
II. A ≥ Y
III. Q ≥ Z
IV. Q ≥ X
1) None is true
2) Only I and II are true
3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true
5) Only II and IV are true
Correct Option: 4
Explanation:
Given statements: X = Y > Z ≤ A; A = Q; Q > R ≥ S < W
On combining: X = Y > Z ≤ A = Q > R ≥ S < W
Conclusions:
I. W > R → False (as R ≥ S < W → thus clear relation between W and R cannot be determined)
II. A ≥ Y → False (as X = Y > Z ≤ A = Q → thus clear relation between A and Y cannot be determined)
III. Q ≥ Z → True
IV. Q ≥ X → False (as X = Y > Z ≤ A = Q > R ≥ S < W → thus clear relation between Q and X cannot be
determined)
Therefore, only conclusions III is true.
5. Statements: F ≥ B = C; C > D ≤ E; F < A ≤ E
Conclusions:
I. D < A
II. E > F
III. C > A
IV. E ≥ A

2) Only II, III and IV are true
3) Only I, II and IV are true
4) Only III and IV are true
5) All are true
Correct Option: 3
Explanation:
Given statements: F ≥ B = C; C > D ≤ E; F < A ≤ E
On combining: E ≥ A > F ≥ B = C > D ≤ E
Conclusions:
I. D < A → True (as A > F ≥ B = C > D → D < A)

II. E > F → True (as E ≥ A > F → E > F)
III. C > A → False (as A > F ≥ B = C → C < A)
IV. E ≥ A → True
Therefore, only conclusion I, II and IV are true.
6. Statement: C < D < E; D > F = G
Conclusions:
I. C = G
II. F > E
III. G < D

2) Only I and III are true
3) Only III is true
4) All of them are true
5) None of them are true
Correct Option: 3
Explanation:
Given statements: C < D < E; D > F = G
Conclusions:
I. C = G → False (as C < D and D > F = G → C < D > F = G → clear relation between C and G cannot be
determined)
II. F > E → False (as D < E and D > F → E > D > F → E > F)
III. G < D → True (as D > F = G → D > G)
Hence only conclusion III follows.
7. Statements: M > A ≥ B = Q ≤ P < J ≤ Y; Z ≥ A > X
Conclusions:
I. B < Y
II. X ≥ J
III. Z = Q
IV. Z > Q
1) None is true.
2) Only II and III are true.
3) Only I is true.
4) Only I and either conclusion III or IV are true.
5) Either III or IV is true.
Correct Option: 4
Explanation:
Given statements: M > A ≥ B = Q ≤ P < J ≤ Y; Z ≥ A > X
On combining: X < A ≥ B = Q ≤ P < J ≤ Y; Z ≥ A ≥ B = Q ≤ P < J ≤ Y; M > A > X; M > A ≤ Z.
Conclusions:
I. B < Y → True (as B = Q ≤ P < J ≤ Y → B < Y)

II. X ≥ J → False (as X < A ≥ B = Q ≤ P < J → relationship between X and J can’t be determined)
III. Z = Q → False (as Z ≥ A ≥ B = Q → Z ≥ Q)
IV. Z > Q → False (as Z ≥ A ≥ B = Q → Z ≥ Q)
Conclusion III and IV forms complementary pair.
Therefore, only conclusion I and either conclusion III or IV are true.
Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.
8. Statements: L = M, N < O, M ≥ N, P = O
Conclusions:
I. L > N
II. P > N
III. L = N
1) Only I follows
2) Both I and II follows
3) Only II and either I and III follows
4) Both I and III follows
5) None of the above
Correct Option: 3
Explanation:
Given Statements: L = M, N < O, M ≥ N, P = O
On combining: L = M ≥ N < O = P
I. L > N → False (as L = M ≥ N → L ≥ N )

II. P > N → True (as N < O = P → N < P)
III. L = N → False (as L = M ≥ N → L ≥ N )
Here conclusion I and III form a complementary pair.
Therefore, conclusion II and either I or III is true.
9. Statements: O ≤ P < Q, A > B ≤ C, X = O > C

Conclusions:
I. A > X
II.C ≤ A
III.Q > B
IV. A ≤ O
V. A < C
1) conclusion III follow.

2) either conclusion I or IV and conclusion III follow.
3) either Conclusion II or V and conclusion III follow.
4) either conclusion I or IV and either conclusion II or V and conclusion III follow.
5) either conclusion I or Iv and conclusion II or V follow.
Correct Option: 4
Explanation:
Combining all given conclusion: A > B ≤ C < O = X ≤ P < Q
Conclusions:
I. A > X → False (No relationship is found here as A > B ≤ C < X)
II.C ≤ A → False (No relationship is found here as A > B ≤ C)
III.Q > B → True ( B ≤ C < O = X ≤ P < Q)
IV. A ≤ O → False (as A > B ≤ C < O has given and also O = X given)
V. A < C → False (as A > B ≤ C < O given)
Conclusion I and iv are complementary pairs and II and V are complementary pairs.
Hence, the correct answer is the conclusion I or Iv and conclusion II or V and conclusion III follow.
10. Statement: Z = Y ≥ T > D < C = A ≤ H = G ≤ J
Conclusions:
I. Y < C
II. Z ≥ C
III. A ≤ J
IV. J = Y
1) either I or II follow.
2) conclusion III follows.
3) none follow.
4) either III or II follow and conclusion Iv follows.
5) either I or II follow and conclusion III follow.
Correct Option: 5
Explanation:
Given statement: Z = Y ≥ T > D < C = A ≤ H = G ≤ J
Conclusion:
I. Y < C → False (as no direct relationship is found Y ≥ T > D < C)

II. Z ≥ C → False (as no direct relationship is found Z = Y ≥ T > D < C)
III. A ≤ J → True (as A ≤ H = G ≤ J follow)
IV. J = Y → False
Here conclusion I and II are complimentary pairs so either or case is followed.
Hence, the correct answer is either I or II follow and conclusion III follows.
SSC CHSL Exam
BLOOD RELATION
● Blood Relation helps to find a relation among the members of a family.
● Based on the given information, you need to find the relation between members of the family.
● For example: Any relation by birth will be mother, father, son, daughter etc. and any relation by
marriage will be father-in-law, mother-in-law, sister-in-law etc.
Important Symbol and their meaning:
Pointing or Introducing
In this section, someone introduces or point at someone, you need to find the relation between them.
Q. Pointing to a lady, Rahul said, “She is the wife of my mother’s father’s only grandchild”. How is
that lady related to Rahul?
A. By using the symbols given above, we can draw the family tree: Rahul’s mother’s father means
Rahul’s grandfather. Rahul’s grandfather has only one grandchild who is a male as the lady is his wife.
Therefore, the grandchild is Rahul. According to the tree diagram, that lady is the wife of Rahul. Hence,
“wife” is the correct answer.
Q. Introducing a lady in party Goldy told her friend, “She is sister-in-law of my only brother who is
father of Ganesh who is grandson of Navya’s husband who is my father who have only two children.”
How is Ganesh related to that lady?
A. By using the symbols given above, we can draw the family tree. Family tree according to question:
Thus, Ganesh is nephew of that lady.
Memory Tip - You always have to consider “ME” (yourself) as the introducing person to
answer quickly.
Family Tree
In this section, relation between different member of family will be given and relation between any two
persons will be asked. The relation can be defined by blood or by law.
Directions: These questions are based on the following information.
Rahul is the son of Mohan. Hari is the father of Manu. Rahul is married to Dina. Rahul and Manu are
siblings. Kanav is the brother of Dina. Mohan has only one son. Neha is the son of Rahul. Kanav is the
father of Akash.
Q. What is the relation between Kanav and Akash respectively?
A. By using the family tree:

1) Hari is the father of Manu. Rahul is married to Dina. Rahul and Manu are siblings (implies Hari is
the father of Manu and Rahul).
2) Rahul is the son of Mohan (implies Mohan is the mother of Manu and Rahul and Dina is a woman)
3) Kanav is the brother of Dina and Father of Akash.
Akash’s gender is not given. Hence, Akash can either be daughter or son. Therefore, cannot be
determined is the correct answer.
Coded Relation
In this section, the relations among the members of the family are represented by specific codes or
symbols such as +, $, *, &, #, @, ! etc. The answers are obtained by decoding the given equation of
relation.
Directions: In these types of questions the symbols $, %, &, @ are used with the following meanings
as illustrated below:
P $ Q means P is the sister of Q.

P % Q means P is the brother of Q.
P & R means P is the mother of R.
P @ S means P is the son of S.
Q. How is F related to D in the given expression? D % C @ G $ H $ F

P is
Symbol $ % & @
Meaning sister Brother Mother son
Of Q
Now we draw the family tree using the following notations:
D % C @ G $ H $ F means “D is Brother of C”, “C is son of G”, “G is the sister of H” and H is the sister of
F.
As we don’t know the gender of F. So, F is either uncle or aunt of D. Hence, the correct answer is either
uncle or aunt.
Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
M@N means M is the wife of N

M#N means M is the son of N
M%N means M is the Sister of N
M$N means M is the father of N
Q. Which of the following expression shows I as the brother of H?
1) H#P$I
2) H%P$I
3) I%H$P
4)H%I$P
M is
Symbol @ # % $
Meaning Wife Son Sister Father
Of N
1) H#P$I 2) H%P$I
False. False.
3) I%H$P 4) H%I$P
False. True.
So, option 4 is true hence no need to check other option.
Trick you can use:

● We need to find the expression which represents I as the brother of H.
● So, check all the options and eliminate those in which either the gender is of I is unknown, or I
is female.
● Now in the given question, @ and % represents wife and sister respectively i.e., female so
eliminate all such options. And if in any expression, I is present in the end then it means that
the gender of I will be unknown so eliminate such options too.
● From the above trick we can eliminate options 1, 2 and 3. Hence, in the expression ‘H% I$P’, I
is the brother of H.
Point to Remember
When A is uncle of B. Two possible

cases are:
When A is Aunt of B. Two possible

cases are:
When A is Niece of B. Two possible

cases are:
When A is Nephew of B. Two possible

cases are:
When A is Granddaughter of B. Two

possible cases are:
When A is Grandson of B. Two possible

cases are:
When A is Grandmother of B. Two

possible cases are:
When A is Grandfather of B. Two
possible cases are:
When A is sister-in-law of B. Two

possible cases are:
When A is brother-in-law of B. Two

possible cases are:
When A is father-in-law of B. Two

possible cases are:
When A is mother-in-law of B. Two

possible cases are:
When A is son-in-law of B:
When A is daughter-in-law of B:
Common Mistake
● Don’t judge the gender of a person with her/his name. For example, Sonu can be a name of
both girl and boy.
● Only son or only daughter does not mean only child. For example, If A is the only son of B
then B can possibly have 1 son and 1 daughter or just 1 son.
SSC CHSL Exam
MIRROR AND WATER IMAGE
Mirror Image
The figure obtained by putting a mirror in front of the real figure is known as mirror image. The
reflection of object into the mirror is called its mirror image. It is obtained by inverting an object
laterally. If we combine the original figure and mirror image together, they form a symmetry. Now
look at these figures:
If we combine both the figures, we get a new figure in shape of the heart.
Take a mirror and place it along the vertical dotted line running through the middle of this shape.
You will see that the half figure on the left together with its image in the mirror gives the complete
figure of the heart. So, this heart-shape is said to have a reflection symmetry and the reflection
takes place along the vertical line of symmetry at the middle.
Mirror Images of Capital Letters
Note: The letters which have the same mirror images are — A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X, Y.
Mirror Images of Small Letters
Note: The letters which have the same mirror images are— i, l, o, v, w, x.
Mirror images of numbers
Note: 0 and 8 numbers have the same mirror images.

Different Types of Questions Based on Mirror Images
Type 1: Letter/Number Images

Here, we are given a single letter combination of letters/words/numbers. We have to find their
mirror images out of given alternatives.
Directions (1 to 4): In each of the following questions, you are given a combination of alphabets
and/or numbers followed by four alternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the alternative which
most closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination.
1. FUN
A) HUF
B)
C) NUF
D) NU7
Answer: B
Explanation: If we put a mirror in front of the word, we get the following image;
2. TRIUMPHS
A) SHPMUIRT
B) SPHMIURT
C) STRIUMPH
D)
Answer: D
Explanation: If we put a mirror in front of the word, we will get the image like
3. PAMPER
A)
B) REPMAP
C) REPAMP
D) RPAPME
Answer: A
Explanation: If we put a mirror in front of the word, we will get the image like
4. 2345
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: C
Explanation: If we put a mirror in front of the number, we will get the image like
Type 2: Geometrical Images

In these types of questions, we deal with figures taking defined geometrical shapes.
Directions (5 to 6): In each of the following questions, choose the correct mirror image from
alternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D) of the figure (X).
5.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Answer: D
Explanation: Here, mirror is taken vertically to right side. Hence, mirror image of figure (X) will be
like
6.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Answer: B
Explanation: Here, mirror is taken vertically to right side. Hence, mirror image of figure (X) will be
like
Water Image
The reflection of an object into the water is called its water image. It is obtained by inverting an
object vertically.
Water Images of Capital Letters
Note: The letters which have the same water images are—C, D, E, H, I, K, O, X.
Water Images of Small Letters
Note: The letters which have the same water images are— c, l, o, x.
Water Images of Numbers
Note: 0, 3 and 8 numbers have the same water images.
Different Types of Questions Based on Water Images
Type 1: Letter/Number Images

Here we are given a combination of letters and have to find their water images.
Directions (1 to 3): In each of the following questions, you are given a combination of alphabets
and/or numbers followed by four alternatives (A), (B), (C) ant (D). Choose the correct water image
out of given four alternatives in each case.
1. FROG
A)
B) GORF
C)
D)
Answer: A
Explanation: The water image of given sequence will be
2. TOP
A)
B) TOP
C)
D)
Answer: A
Explanation: The water image of given sequence will be
3. 96FSH52
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: C
Explanation: The water image of the given sequence will be

Type 2: Geometrical Images
In this case, we are given some figures/ shapes and we have to find corresponding water images.
Directions (4 to 5): In each of the following questions, choose the correct water image of the
figure (X) from the given four alternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D).
4.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Answer: A
Explanation: The water image of the figure will be
5.
(X) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Answer: A
Explanation: The water image of the figure will be
Mirror Images of Clocks
Here are certain questions in which the positions of the hour-hand and the minute-hand of clock as
seen in a mirror are given. On the basis of the time indicated by the mirror image of the clock we
have to detect the actual time in the clock. In the solution of such questions, we have the fact that if
an object A is the mirror-image of another object B then B is the mirror Image of A. The method of
solving such questions would be clear from the following example.
Looking into a mirror, the clock shows 9:30 as the time. The actual time is:
A) 2:30
B) 3:30
C) 4:30
D) 6:30
In the mirror the clock appears as:
Time = 9:30
Fig. A: This is the mirror image of the clock shown below:
Time = 2:30
Fig. B: is obtained by taking the mirror image of Fig. A.

Clearly, this clock shows the time 2:30. Therefore, the actual time is 2:30. Hence, the answer is (A).
Practice Questions:
Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions four alternatives are given which follow a
word marked as questions A, B, C and D. You have to select on alternative which exactly matches
with the mirror image of the letter/number/word/figure in questions.
1. GEOGRAPHY
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: A
2. ANS43Q12
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: B
3. qutubgarh
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: D
4.
Answer: C
5.
Answer: D
Directions (6-10): In each of the following questions four alternatives are given which follow a
word marked as questions a, b, c and d so on you have to select one alternative which exactly
matches with the water image of the letter/number/word/figure in questions.
6. ACOUSTIC
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: B
7. U4P15B7
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: C
8. NhRqSy
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: D
9.
Answer: C
10.
Answer: D
SSC CHSL Exam
CODING DECODING
● Coding is a process which is used to encrypt a word in a particular pattern following some set of
rules.
● Decoding is a process to decrypt the given code into its original form.
● Positional Value of Alphabets in forward direction:
● Positional Value of Alphabets in reverse direction:
● Memory Tip - “EJOTY” will help you to find nearby letters quickly.
E J O T Y
5 10 15 20 25
Letter to Letter Coding
In this section, the alphabets of a word are coded with the help of different operations like addition,
subtraction, interchanging etc. and we need to find the code of another word using the same
operation.
Q. In the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
ENGLISH: FOHNHRG :: SCIENCE ?
A. Here, ENGLISH is written as following: And same will be followed for SCIENCE,
Thus, TDJGMBD is the correct answer.
Q. In a certain code language, "if FRIEND" is written as "UIRVMW", then how is "TRADER" written in
that code language?
A. The pattern used here is opposite to that letter
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
Z Y X W V U T S R Q P O N
So, the TRADER is coded as GIZWVI. Hence, GIZWVI is the correct answer.
Trick you can use:

Follow the given steps to find the logic quickly.
Step 1: Check if the opposite letters are given in the code.
Step 2: Check if the position of letters is interchanged.
Step 3: Check if operation like addition or subtraction is applied.
Letter to Number Coding
In this section, either numerical code values are assigned to a word or alphabetical code letters are
assigned to the numbers.
Q. In a certain code language, "GIVE" is written as "810236" and "BOND" is written as "316155".
How is "CREW" written in that code language?
A. The pattern follows here is,

Hence ‘419624’ is correct answer.
Q. If Y = 50, SEA = 50, then ‘YACHT’ will be equal to?
A. The pattern followed is,

The place value of Y is 25 → 25 × 2 = 50
And,
For, SEA
The place value of S, E and A are 19, 5 and 1 respectively.
SEA → (19 + 5 + 1) × 2 = 50
Similarly,
For, YACHT
The place value of Y is 25, 25 + 25 = 50
YACHT → (25 + 1 + 3 + 8 + 20) × 2 = 114
Trick you can use:

Follow the given steps to find the logic quickly.
Step 1: Check if the positional values of letters are given in the code.
Step 2: Check if the position of positional values of letters are interchanged.
Step 3: Check if the positional values of letters in reverse alphabetical series is given.
Step 4: Check if the position of positional values of letters (in reverse alphabetical series) are
interchanged.
Step 5: Check if operation like addition, subtraction or multiplication is applied.
Substitutional Coding
In this section, words are encrypted or coded with the substitute word.
Q. If ‘eye’ is called ‘hand’, ‘hand’ is called ‘mouth’, ‘mouth’ is called ‘ear’, ‘ear’ is called ‘nose’ and
‘nose’ is called ‘tongue’, with which of the following would a person hear?
A. The logic follows here is:

A person hears from the ‘ear’
But ‘ear’ is called as ‘nose’
Thus, the correct answer is ‘nose’.
Chinese Coding
In this section, a few statements consisting of same words but in different order will be coded as words
or symbols or letters And you need to find the codes of words by finding the common words in
different statements as the code of a word in both the statement will be same.
Q. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. In a certain code
language:
‘si ta mi’ means ‘Seeta is dancing',

‘ge ma ta ki’ means ‘jewellery shop is there',
‘si la za’ means ‘Seeta likes sweet’,
‘za ta ki’ means ‘sweet is there’.
Which of the following means ‘jewellery’ in that language?
A. From the statement:
‘si’ means ‘Seeta’

‘ta’ means ‘is’
‘mi’ means ‘dancing’
‘ki’ means ‘there’
‘la’ means ‘likes’
‘za’ means ‘sweet’
Hence, either ‘ge’ or ‘ma’ means ‘jewellery’ in that language.
LSN Coding
In this section, words of different statements are coded with Letter, symbol and number using different
operations. You need to find the logic used for letter, symbol and number.
Directions: Study the information below and answer the following question.
In a certain code language,

‘The rank wombat waves’ is written as ‘%e3 $k4 @t6 @s5’.
‘An alcoholic advertises rank’ is written as ‘!n2 !c9 !s10 $k4’.
‘Another terrifying viewpoint sleeps’ is written as ‘!r7 %g10 *t9 (s6’.
‘Nidhi sleeps at nine’ is written as ‘^i5 (s6 !t2 ^e4’.
Q. How would the word ‘sleeps’ be coded?
A. According to the question:

● The first letter is a coded symbol of the first letter.
● The second letter is the last letter of the word.
● The third letter is the number of letters in the word.
E.g. *y2 = my
* represents m
‘y’ is last letter
2 is number of letters
Accordingly,
Therefore, ‘sleeps’ would be coded as (s6.
Conditional Coding
In this section, a few operations will be given and you need to apply all the given conditions to find the
code of given word.
Direction: Study the following information and answer the given questions.
In alphabetical series A-Z each letter except vowels is assigned as a place value of the letter (for ex - A
is coded as 1, C-3, D-4 …I-9) and place value of letters from J are added (for ex – J-10 = 1+0 = 1, K-11 =
1+1 = 2…………..Z-26 = 2+6 = 8).
In coded language:
“Always Work Hard” is coded as – 8194H& 5692H& 1351710L@

“Achieve Your Dreams” is coded as –4951410L@ 1389545N$ 5639H&.
“Study All Subjects” is coded as – 133F& 1032153210R@ 102347J&.
Conditions:
I. If the first letter of the word is vowel and the last letter is consonant then the vowel is coded as the
next letter comes in alphabetical series and the consonant is coded as the previous letter comes in
alphabetical order.
II. If both first and last letter of the word are vowel then the codes of both the vowels are replaced by
*.
III. If first letter of the word is consonant and last letter is vowel then both the codes of both the letters
is coded as the code of vowel.
IV. If both first and last letter of the word is consonant then the codes of both the consonants are
interchanged.
Q. What can be the code of “Endeavor”?
A. Code for ‘Endeavor’ → 55451469P$

In this statement the only condition (i) is followed,
Hence ‘Endeavor’ is coded as F545146QP$.
Directions: In each question below is given a group of numbers / symbols followed by five
combinations of letter codes numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). You have to find out which of the
combinations correctly represents the group of numbers / symbols based on the following coding
system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer:
Letter B A D E F H J K M I U O W L P
Letter Code 6 $ 7 8 # 1 2 * % 3 © 4 9 @ 5
Conditions:
I. If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, then their codes are to be
interchanged.
II. If both the first and the last letters are consonants, then both are to be coded as ‘β’.
III. If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, then both are to be coded as the
code for the vowel.
Q. IBHWPO
Given table:
Letter B A D E F H J K M I U O W L P
Letter Code 6 $ 7 8 # 1 2 * % 3 © 4 9 @ 5
According to the given conditions,
Rule No. Condition Result
If the first is a vowel and the last letter is a Their codes are to be
1
consonant interchanged
If both the first and the last letters are

2 Both are to be coded as β
consonants
If the first letter is a consonant and the last Both are to be coded as the
3
letter is a vowel code for Vowel
Here, simply write the code as no rule applies. Therefore, IBHWPO will be coded as 361954.
Clock Coding
In this section, number between 1 to 12 are coded and the questions will be asked on the basis of time.
Direction: Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
In a coded language A, B, %, @, & and # represents 2, 3, 4, 6, 7 and 9 respectively. When any two
symbols used together one of them represents the hour hand and other represents the minute hand
of a clock.
For example:
A B represents 2:15 AM in clock.
%@ represents 4:30 AM in clock.
Note – Consider all time at AM.
Q. A person is required to reach a place by &#. At what time he left his house if he requires a travel
time of sixty minutes and reaches fifteen minutes prior?
A. Based on information given in the passage:
Symbol / Letter A B % @ & #
Code 2 3 4 6 7 9
The person has to reach the place by &# means by 7:45 AM.
He reaches 15 minutes early and requires 60 minutes of travel

time so; he left home 75 minutes ago.
Hence, he would have left around 6:30 AM.
Clock Coding
In this section, decimal numbers are coded by binary numbers i.e., 0 and 1.
Directions: In a certain number system there are only two notations to represent numbers: A and B.
0 is represented by A and 1 by B. The subsequent numbers are represented in the following manner:
2 is represented as BA,
3 is represented as BB,
4 is represented as BAA,
5 is represented as BAB and so on.
Based on this coded language, answer the following questions.
Q. Which of the following is the average of BBBB and BBBBB?
A. According to the given information,
Number 0 1 2 3 4 5
Code A B BA BB BAA BAB
Simplified Code 0 1 10 11 100 101
So, this entire code language is based on only 2 symbols A and B, i.e., 0 and 1.
Logic:
On observation, we notice that starting from the rightmost digit, each digit is multiplied with
corresponding power of 2, starting with 20, and then all these terms are added to obtain the
number in decimal system.
[The rightmost term is multiplied with 20, second term from right is multiplied with 21, third term
from right is multiplied with 22 and so on]
2 → 10 ⇒ (0 × 20) + (1 × 21) = (0 × 1) + (1 × 2) = 0 + 2 = 2
3 → 11 ⇒ (1 × 20) + (1 × 21) = (1 × 1) + (1 × 2) = 1 + 2 = 3
4 → 100 ⇒ (0 × 20) + (0 × 21) + (1 × 22) = (0 × 1) + (0 × 2) + (1 × 4) = 0 + 0 + 4 = 4
5 → 101 ⇒ (1 × 20) + (0 × 21) + (1 × 22) = (1 × 1) + (0 × 2) + (1 × 4) = 1 + 0 + 4 = 5
and so on.
Logic:
BBBB → 1111 which is the binary equivalent of

(1 × 20) + (1 × 21) + (1 × 22) + (1 × 23) = 15.
BBBBB → 11111 which is the binary equivalent of

(1 × 20) + (1 × 21) + (1 × 22) + (1 × 23) + (1 × 24) = 31.
15 + 31 = 46
46/2 = 23
Hence, 23 is the correct answer.
Practice Questions
1. In a certain code language, “blue” means “car”, “car” means “wood”, “wood” means “rice”,
“rice” means “chair” and “chair” means “table”. What do we eat?
1) Blue
2) Wood
3) Chair
4) Rice
5) None of these
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
We eat rice and here “rice” means “chair”.
Thus, the answer is chair.
2. In a certain code language, ‘round’ is written as ‘tall’, ‘tall’ is written as ‘red’, ‘red’ is written
as ‘wood’ is written as ‘bread’ and ‘bread’ is written as ‘soil’. What do we eat in breakfast?
1) Tall
2) Wood
3) Bread
4) Soil
5) Red
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
We eat ‘bread’ in breakfast.

Here, ‘bread’ is coded as ‘soil’.
Hence, ‘soil’ is the correct alternative.
3. In a certain code language, if MONITOR = 49 and NARCOTIC = 64. How will the ‘STUPENDOUS’
be written in that language?
1) 49
2) 88
3) 64
4) 100
5) 81
Correct Option: 4
Explanation:
MONITOR: Number of words = 7 and (7)2 = 49

NARCOTIC: Number of words = 8 and (8)2 = 64
STUPENDOUS: Number of words = 10 and (10)2 = 100.
Hence, STUPENDOUS is coded as 100.
4. In a certain code language “EASY” is written as “5117”. In the same code language, how will
“BEAM” be written as?
1) 4512
2) 4567
3) 2513
4) 2514
5) 2563
Correct Option: 4
Explanation:
EASY → E is the 5th alphabet in the series

A is the first alphabet in the series
S is the 19th alphabet, which makes it (1+9 = 10 ⇒ 1+0 = 1)
Y is the 25th alphabet, which makes it (2+5 = 7)
Hence, EASY = 5117
Similarly,
BEAM → B is the 2nd alphabet in the series
E is the 5th alphabet in the series
A is the 1st alphabet in the series
M is the 13th alphabet, which makes it (1+3 = 4)
Hence BEAM = 2514
5. “SPECIAL” is written as “65” in a certain code language what will “CONNECT” be coded as?
1) 70
2) 64
3) 32
4) 78
5) 74
Correct Option: 5
Explanation:
SPECIAL → Sum of the place value of each alphabet in the alphabetical order
SPECIAL = 19+16+5+3+9+1+12 = 65
So, CONNECT = 3+15+14+14+5+3+20 = 74
Directions (Q6 - Q10): Study the data given below and answer the following questions:
‘Royal Monarch Regal' is written as @ # *,

'Regal legacy Gold' is written as * % ?,
'Hope Gold Life' is written as % & $,
'Regal Monarch Morals' is written as # * ∀
6. What will be the code for Regal?
1) %
2) *
3) $
4) #
5) ?
Correct Option: 2
7. What will be the code for “Gold Legacy”?
1. # &
2. % #
3. ? %
4. * ∀
5. & $
Correct Option: 3
8. Which word is coded as #?
1) Moral
2) Life
3) Regal
4) Monarch
5) Legacy
Correct Option: 4
9. In the given coded language, which of the following words has been coded as &?
1) Gold
2) Life
3) Hope
4) Either ‘2’ or ‘3’
5) None of the above
Correct option: 4
10. What is the code for royal?
1) %
2) @
3) ?
4) *
5) ∀
Correct Option: 2
Explanation (Q6 – Q10):

SSC CHSL Exam
DIRECTION AND DISTANCE
In this chapter, the questions consist of a sort of direction puzzle. A successive follow-up of
directions is formulated and the candidate is required to ascertain the final direction on the
distance between two points.
This test is meant to judge the candidate’s ability to trace and follow correctly and sense the
direction correctly.
THERE ARE FOUR MAIN DIRECTIONS

North, South, East & West
THERE ARE FOUR SUBORDINATE DIRECTIONS:

North-East (N-E), South - East (S-E), South-West (S-W) & North-West (N-W) those are also
called sub-directions and these sub-directions are between prime directions like NE is
between North and East, SE is between South & East & so on, ...
BASICALLY, THERE ARE FOUR TYPES OF QUESTIONS

1. Based on directions (from the Initial point or from endpoint).
2. Based on distance (total distances or shortest distances)
3. Based on degrees (clockwise and anticlockwise)
4. Based on shadow (morning or evening time)
FOR SHORTEST DISTANCE

First of all, we have to draw a right angle and then apply the Pythagorean Theorem.
2 2 2
𝐴𝐶 = 𝐴𝐵 + 𝐵𝐶 (Hypotenuse) 2 = (Perpendicular) 2 + (Base) 2
FOR SHADOW
(A) IN EVENING
(A) IN MORNING
NOTE
1. If a person is facing towards North then - (1) Clockwise means- Turn your right side (2)
Anticlockwise means – Turn your left side
2. If a person is facing towards South, then – (1) Clockwise means- Turn your left side (2)
Anticlockwise means – Turn your right side
Sample Questions
Q.1. Leeta starts walking from a point that walks 2 km. towards the north, turns towards
the right and walks 2 km., turns right again and walks 2 km. Which direction is she facing
now?
(1) East
(2) West
(3) South
(4) North
(5) None of these
Ans-(3) South
Q.2. Amitabh starts walking in the south direction and travels 15 km then he turns to his
right and walks 10 km and then he turns to his right and covers the distance of 15 km.
Now how far is he from the starting point?
(1) 5 km
(2) 20 km
(3) 10 km
(4) 15 km
(5) None of these
Ans- (3) 10 km
Q.3. Mani walks 10 steps towards west then turns towards her right and walks 5 steps
then she turns towards her back so far in which direction is she facing?
(1) East
(2) West
(3) North
(4) South
(5) None of these
Ans-(4) South
Mani starts from point O and moves 10 steps towards the left. Then turns right i.e., moves
north steps. Turns back again means she is facing south.
Q.4. Prakash travelled 6 km towards north then turned towards his left and walked 4 km
again he turned towards left and walked 6 km. So how far is he from his starting point?
(1) 6 km
(2) 4 km
(3) 10 km
(4) 8 km
(5) None of these
Ans-(2)
Let Prakash start from point O and move 6 km. towards the north. Again, turns left and goes
4 km. towards the west. Again, turns left and reaches at point C in the south.
Q.5-6. Ramesh walks 2 km towards north then turns towards his right and walks 4 km then
again, he turns towards his right and walks 4 km finally he turns towards his right and
walks another 4 km.
Q.5. Now in which direction Ramesh is facing?
(1) East
(2) North
(3) South
(4) West
(5) None of these
Ans-(4) As per Diagram Ramesh will be facing towards west.
Q.6. How far is Ramesh from his starting point?
(1) 2 km
(2) 4 km
(3) 6 km
(4) 8 km
(5) None of these
Ans-(1) As per Diagram Ramesh will be at 2km distance from Initial Point.
Q.7. Robin walks 2 km towards east then he turns towards the north-west and walks 3 km
then he turns towards the south and walks 5 km again then he again turns towards the
west and walks 2 km. Finally, he turns towards the north and walks 6 km. In which
direction he is from the starting point?
(1) South-west
(2) South-east
(3) North-west
(4) North-east
(5) None of these
Ans-(3)
Q.8. Vicky walks 2 km towards south then he turns towards his right and walks 3 km then
he turns towards his left and walks 4 km. Finally, he turns towards his left and walks 3 km.
In which direction he is from his starting point?
(1) West
(2) East
(3) North
(4) South
(5) None of these
Ans-(4)
Q.9. If south-east becomes north, north-east becomes west and direction changes
similarly. What east becomes?
(1) South
(2) South -East
(3) North - East
(4) North-West
(5) None of these
Ans-(4) North-West
Q.10. Atul walks 10 metres in the east then he turns to his right and moves 8 metres then
he turns to his left with the angle of 1500 and moves 6 metres. Now in which direction is
he facing?
(1) South-East
(2) South-West
(3) South
(4) North-East
(5) None of these
Ans-(4) North-East
Q.11. One moving after Sunrise. Mohan and Gaurav were standing back to each other.
Mohan's shadow fell exactly on his left. Toward which direction does Gaurav face?
(1) South
(2) North
(3) West
(4) Can't be determined
(5) None of these
Ans-(1) South
Q.12. In the evening when Sumant started walking from his house, his shadow was exactly
towards his right. He walked 6 km. Then he turned to his left and moved 4 km. Again, he
turned to his right and walked 6 km. Then he turned to his right and moved 13 km. How
far is he and in which direction from the starting point?
(1) 15 km North-East
(2) 15 km North
(3) 15 km South-East
(4) 16 km South
(5) None of these
Ans-(1) 15km North-East.
SSC CHSL Exam
REASONING ANALOGY
An analogy is a word used in terms of comparing two things or finding a relation between two
things.
In questions related to Analogy in reasoning, options are given, which may or may not be associated
with each other and candidates need to find the odd option out.
The analogy questions may be asked in various forms. Given below are the type of questions asked
for analogies:
● Numerical Analogy (Odd One Out) – A set of options may be given based on a certain
pattern, and one of them may be unlikely to follow the pattern and candidates need to
choose the odd one out.
● Numerical Analogy (Choose a similar pair) – An analogy may be given in the question and
candidates may have to find a similar analogy, based on the same pattern from the given
options.
● Alphabetical/Word Analogy (Odd One Out) – Options for different word analogy may be
given, in which one may not be following the set pattern, candidates need to find that odd
one out from the given options.
● Alphabetical/Word Analogy (Choose a similar pair) – An analogy may be given based on a
set pattern and candidates may have to find the word analogy pair from the given options,
which follows the exact same pattern.
Tips & Tricks to Solve Reasoning Analogy

● The first thing to solve an analogy question is to judge the pattern that is being followed in
the given analogy.
● If a candidate is unable to analyse the pattern followed, he/she must refer to the options
given. It shall help in analysing the pattern.
● For numerical questions, squares, cubes, multiplication, addition, etc. based patterns may be
followed. So, ensure that you recheck these pattern as well.
● It is easy to score marks in questions based on analogy as they are direct and not very
complicated.
Solved Examples – Reasoning Analogy
1. From the given options, find the pair which is similar to the given pair: 8:4
A. 27:9
B. 216:32
C. 72:24
D. 45:5
E. 37:13
Answer: A
Explanation:
The pattern followed is “Cube of a number: square of the same number”
So, (2×2×2) : (2×2)
= 8:4
Similarly, (3×3×3) : (3×3)
= 27:9
2. From the given options, choose the odd one out.
A. Bangladesh: Taka
B. Brazil: Real
C. Cyprus: Dollar
D. Iran: Rial
E. Japan: Yen
Answer: C
Explanation: All the other options given are correct in terms of country and their currency. The
currency of Cyprus is Euro.
3. What shall come in place of (?) Question mark?

Flow : River :: Stagnant : ?
A. Canal
B. Dam
C. Ocean
D. Pool
E. Sea
Answer: D
Explanation: Water in river flows whereas the water in a pool is stagnant.
4. Find the odd one out from the given options.
A. Book: Author
B. Art: Artist
C. Invention: Scientist
D. Potter: Potter
E. Patients: Doctors
Answer: E
Explanation: In all the other options, the creation is given in the first half and the creator in the
second half.
5. Find the odd one out from the given pairs.
A. 5:15
B. 24:70
C. 33:99
D. 121:363
E. 1:3
Answer: B
Explanation:
The pattern followed is 3 multiplied by the first digit gives the second digit
5×3 = 15 which gives 5:15
24×3 = 72 and the given option is 24:70
33×3 = 99 which gives 33:99
121×3 = 363 which gives 121:363
1×3 = 3 which gives 1:3
Practice Questions:
1. Which of the given options is correct with respect to the given pair: “Fire: Death”
A. Hunger: Starvation
B. Rain: Snow
C. Fire: Extinguisher
D. Black: Board
E. Pen: Pencil
Answer: A
Explanation: The cause is Fire and the effect is death. Similarly, the cause is hunger and the effect is
Starvation
2. Find the out one out from the given options.
A. Kathakali: Kerala
B. Mohiniyattam: Tamil Nadu
C. Sattriya: Assam
D. Kuchipudi: Andhra Pradesh
E. Bharatnatyam: Tamil Nadu
Answer: B
Explanation: Mohiniyattam is a dance form of Kerala and all the other options have a correct pairing
of dance forms and the state of origin
3. Out the given pairs, which of the following is incorrect?
A. Sardar Patel Stadium: Ahmedabad

B. Eden Garden: Kolkata
C. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium: New Delhi
D. M. Chinnaswamy Stadium: Chennai
E. D.Y.Patil Stadium: Mumbai
Answer: C
Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium is in Guwahati
4. From the set of pairs given below, find the odd one out.
A. Australia: Kangaroo
B. Bangladesh: Tiger
C. Canada: North America Beaver
D. Finland: Brown Bear
E. India: Peacock
Answer: E
Explanation: Peacock is the National Bird of India. In all the other options, countries along with
their
National Animal have been given.
5. What will come in place of question marks in the given series?
ABD: FGI : : PQS : ?
A. TUW
B. UVX
C. XYZ
D. TUV
E. UVW
Answer: B
Explanation: Pattern followed for “ABD: FGI” is two alphabets placed in continuation and the third
alphabet after a gap of one. Followed by one gap and again the same pattern. The same is done
with “PQS : UVX”
6. Which of the following analogies does not the pattern as for 9:3?
A. 16:4
B. 12:4
C. 121:11
D. 144:12
E. 81:9
Answer: B
Explanation: The pattern followed in 9:3 is that the first number if the square of the second number
42 = 16
112 = 121
122 = 144
92 = 81
And 4×3 = 12
7. Which of the given analogies is incorrect?
A. Algophobia: phobia of pain

B. Bibliophobia: phobia of books
C. Chronophobia: fear of time
D. Hematophobia: fear of water
E. Pharmacophobia: phobia of medication
Answer: D
Explanation: Hydrophobia is fear of water and Hematophobia is fear of disease
8. Of the following numbers, which can be a part of the given set?
Set: (3, 17, 19, 23)
A. 13
B. 27
C. 57
D. 93
E. 33
Answer: A
Explanation: The given set is a set of prime number and of all the options given, only 13 is a prime
Number.
9. Find the missing number in the given analogy.

27: 3 :: 64: ____
A. 6
B. 4
C. 7
D. 3
E. 5
Answer: B
Explanation: 3 3 = 27 and 4 3 = 64
10. Find the odd one out
A. AD: EH
B. BE: FI
C. CF: GJ
D. DG: HK
E. EH: IK
Answer: E
Explanation:
SSC CHSL Exam
CAUSE AND EFFECT
In this type of reasoning, each question contains two statements and the students have to find out
relationship between the two statements. Here the students have to test whether the statements
are related to each other or not. Read them and choose the best option that describes the
relationship between them. These types of problems judge the reasoning and analytical power of
the students. So, students are advised to read the statements very well to arrive at a particular
conclusion.
Example:
Statements −
I. Every body should work hard.
II. The only way to achieve success is to work hard.
A. Statement I is the reason and statement II is the response.

B. Statement II is the reason and statement I is the response.
C. Both the statements I and II are the not depended reasons.
D. Both the statements I and II are the response of not depended reasons.
E. Both the statements I and II are the response of some common reasons.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the statement I, it told about a generic statement. Working hard can be taken as a reason but to
describe it as a reason there should be some response. The response is shown in statement II that
tells that through hard work one can achieve success. Hence it shows that, statement I is the
reason and statement II is the response.
Types of Questions Asked

Case-I
Here we will discuss about those cases where there will be a direct reason and response type of
statement will be present in the question. The last example that we have discussed goes under this
category. Now let’s discuss another problem of the same kind.
Statement −
I. Apple has vitamin D that helps in boosting immunity.
II. Doctors advice to eat an apple every day.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Here we can clearly see the reason is statement II. This is a reason to describe its response.
Statement I that tells the necessity of consuming an apple every day.
Case-II
Here we will discuss about those cases in which Both the statements will be the response of some
common reason. Let’s analyse it with an example.
Statement −
I. There has been a curfew in the city.
II. 24 hours police patrolling is going on in the city.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Clearly Both the statements are directing towards a common reason. To simply our thought
process we can assume that for some common reason like riots must have been the reason for this
type of situation.
Case-III
Sometimes the two statements are the response of some not depended reasons. Let’s try to
analyse this with an example.
Statement −
I. There has been a curfew in the city.
II. Doctors advice to eat an apple every day.

Answer: D
Explanation:
We can clearly analyse one thing that, eating apple and curfew are nowhere related to each other.
Hence, they must be the response of not depended reasons.
Practice Questions:
Directions: The question given below has two statements as I and II. The statements can depict
themselves as non-dependent reason or some indirect response. Go through these statements
and decide which option best describes the relationship between them.
1. Statements:
I. Due to cyclone in Odisha, people living in the low lying areas has been evacuated to safer places in
large number during the last few days.
II. The Odisha government with utmost care rushed the affected areas to provide relief to the
people.
A. If the statement I is the reason and the statement II is its response.

B. If the statement II is the reason and the statement I is its response.
C. If Both the statements I and II are not depended reasons.
D. If Both the statements I and II are response of not depended reasons.
E. If Both the statements I and II are response of some common reason.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Both the statements are response of some common reason i.e., storm or cyclone.
2. Statements:
I. The expansion of few small engineering colleges is restricted by the AICTE.
II. The bigger engineering colleges like IIT, NIT and state government colleges are top in competition
and small private colleges are not in a position to withstand the competition.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The small colleges in education sector are not competitive so AICTE put restrictions on them.
Hence, the conclusion.
3. Statements:
I. For the past few months the prices of spices has not been changed in the domestic market.
II. For the past few months the prices of spices has gone up substantially in the international
market.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Here both the statements are not depended reasons.
4. Statements:
I. The competition standard of Odisha footballers in recently concluded national games did not
reach the level of expectation we had on them.
II. The competitive spirit of Odisha football players in the last eastern India games was far better
than any previous games.
A - If the statement I is the reason and the statement II is its response.
B - If the statement II is the reason and the statement I is its response.
C - If Both the statements I and II are not depended reasons.
D - If Both the statements I and II are response of not depended reasons.
E - If Both the statements I and II are response of some common reason.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Here both the statements I and II are response of some common reason.
5. Statements:
I. Large number of people have fallen sick after consuming food in a marriage party in Cuttack.
II. Major part of the locality of Cuttack is flooded due to a weeklong rain and has become
inaccessible.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Here both the statements I and II are response of not depended reasons.
6. Statements:
I. Today’s life of IT professionals is hectic, fast, demanding and result oriented so, it leads to a
stressful situation.
II. Whether it is IT professionals or in any other profession, heart disease is increasing day by day.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Here both the statements I and II are response of some common reason i.e., stress.
7. Statements:
I. The BPUT University has instructed all the colleges under its jurisdiction to ban smoking inside the
college premises as well as in the hostels.
II. Majority of the parents signed a joint petition and are complaining against the open environment
for students in colleges.

Answer: B
Explanation:
As the guardians have complained against open environment so it is now necessary to take
appropriate steps so option B follows.
8. Statements:
I. Majority of Aurobindonagar citizens have decided to protest against the construction of a
government office instead of a park.
II. There are no parks in that locality.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Here statement II is the reason and statement I is its response. As there are no parks in the locality
and in the allotted park’s place if an office will be built then the citizens will definitely protest.
9. Statements:
I. The government has reduced the petrol prices by Rs. 4 a week after increasing the prices by Rs. 8.
II. The tax on petrol imports has dropped marginally during the week.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement II is the reason and I is its response. If tax will be reduced then the prices will
automatically come down.
10. Statements:
I. Commissionerate police Mumbai has decided to increase patrolling in the evening times.
II. In Mumbai, the number of incidents of petty crimes like theft has been decreased.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Here statement I is the reason and II is its response as patrolling has increased crime has decreased.
SSC CHSL Exam
CUBE, CUBOID AND DICE
Basic Structure of a Cube
A cube is a 3-dimensional structure with three sides (length, width, and height) where all the sides
equal (length = width= height). The word cube is derived from the Arabic word “Kaba” a large
cube-shaped structure.
A cube has 6 faces: The faces appear at front, back, right, left, top and bottom.
Cube has 8 vertices: The corner points are called vertices. There are four vertices on the top face
and four more at the bottom face.
Cube has 12 Edges: The line which connects the two vertices is called edges. There are twelve edges
in a cube. Four on the top surface and four at the bottom and four more vertical lines connecting
the opposite vertices of top and bottom face.
Summary:
Faces Vertices Edges

A cube has:
6 8 12
Surface Area of Cube

A cube is a 3-dimensional representation of a square. Since dimensions of all the three sides i.e.,
length, breadth, and height of a cube are equal, they are referred to as sides and is indicated by a
symbol ‘s’.
The total surface area of a cube is:
● The surface area of a cube = (area of one square) *6
● The surface area of a cube = (s*s)*6
● The surface area of a cube = 6
The sum of areas of 4 constituting squares (faces) gives the lateral surface area of the cube.
● The lateral surface area of a cube = 4*(area of one square)
● The lateral surface area of a cube = 4*(s*s)
● The lateral surface area of a cube = 4
What is Cuboid?
A cuboid is a 3-dimensional structure with three sides where all the sides are not equal. The three
sides are the length, width, and height. All of its faces are rectangles. A cuboid also has 6 faces, 8
vertices, and 12 edges.
The total surface area (TSA) of a cuboid is the sum of the areas of its 6 faces:
Lateral Surface Area of Cuboid

The lateral surface area of a cuboid is the sum of the area of only four rectangles.
Lateral Surface Area of Cuboid = Area of left side face + Area of right side face + Area of front Face +
Area of back Face
Creation of Rubik’s cube
If we divide a cube into the size part of its side, we get smaller cubes. A cube Shown below, which is
painted on all the sides and then cut into 1/4th of its original face. Each small cube is known as “unit
cube”.
Ex: If we cut a cube to form three rows and three columns on each face then the total number of
unit cubes will be = 3*3*3 = 27.
Following is the list of unit cube generation based on the division of a bigger cube:
Rows on each side Columns on each side Unit cubes
2 2 8
3 3 27
4 4 64
5 5 125
6 6 216
7 7 343
Evaluation of Cube with ‘n’ sides painted
Observe the cube shown. It has been divided into ¼ of its original side length. Hence the total
number of smaller or unit cubes formed will be 64.
Q1. How many unit cubes have only three sides painted?
Answer: The cubes with three of their sides painted lie at the vertices of the cubes (The cubes
coloured in red). There are eight such cubes. Hence the answer is eight.
Q2. How many cubes have only two sides painted?
Answer: The cubes with two sides painted lie at the edges (the cubes coloured in blue). Evaluate
such cubes for one tip and multiply the result by 12 (as there are 12 edges in a cube). From the
figure, it is clear that there are two blue cubes at an edge. Hence the total number of such cubes
will be 2*12 = 24.
Alternate solution:
The value of n for the given cube 4. Substituting it in the formula we get
12 x (4-2) = 24.
Q3. How many cubes have only one side painted?
Answer: The cubes with only one side painted always lie at the surface. Evaluate the number of
such faces at each surface and multiply the result by six. As there are six faces in a cube. From the
figure, it is clear that there are four white cubes at the surface. Hence the total number of such
cubes will be 6*4 = 24.
Q4. How many cubes have no side painted?

Answer: The cubes at the inner core part of the cube will not have any side painted. Evaluating it
every time for different cubes is a tedious task. The simple and easiest approach is by analyzing the
pattern.
In 2*2*2 cube there are zero cubes that have no side painted. Whereas in 3*3*3 cube, there is only
one cube at the core part which has no sides painted.
Cube type Non painted cube

2*2*2 0
3*3*3 1
4*4*4 8
5*5*5 27
6*6*6 64
7*7*7 125
The logical pattern from the table follows that the total number of cubes with no side painted will
always be equal to the cube of natural numbers.
Practice Questions:
Direction: A cube of side 10 cm is coloured red with a 2 cm wide green strip along all the sides on
all the faces. The cube is divided into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. Answer the following
questions based on this statement.
1. How many cubes have three green faces each?
2. How many cubes have one face red and an adjacent face green?
3. How many cubes have at least one face coloured?
4. How many cubes have at least two green faces each?
Answer:
1. All the corner cubes are painted green. So, there are 8 cubes with 3 sides painted with green.
2. There is no cube having one face red and an adjacent face green as all the green painted cubes
got paint on at least 2 faces.
3. Let us calculate the number of cubes with no painting. By formula, which is 27.
Therefore, there are 125 – 27 = 98 cubes having at least one face coloured.
4. From the total cubes, let us subtract the cubes with red painting and cubes with no painting.
125 – (9 x 6) – 27 = 44
Directions: One hundred and twenty-five cubes of the same size are arranged in the form of a
cube on a table. Then a column of five cubes is removed from each of the four corners. All the
exposed faces of the rest of the solid (except the face touching the table) are coloured red. Now,
answer these questions based on the above statement:
1. How many small cubes are there in the solid after the removal of the columns?
2. How many cubes do not have any coloured face?
3. How many cubes have only one red face each?
4. How many cubes have two coloured faces each?
5. How many cubes have more than 3 coloured faces each?
Answer:
1. Since out of 125 total number of cubes, we removed 4 columns of 5 cubes each, the remaining
number of cubes = 125 – (4 x 5) = 125 – 20 = 105.
2. Cubes with no paintings lie in the middle. So, cubes which are below the cubes named as s, t, u,
p, q, r, m, n, o got no painting. Since there are 4 rows below the top layer, total cubes with no
painting are (9 x 4) = 36.
3. There are 9 cubes named as m, n, o, p, q, r, s, t and u in layer 1, and 4 cubes (in columns b, e, h,
and k) in each of the layers 2, 3, 4 and 5 got one red face. Thus, there are 9 + (4 x 4) = 25 cubes.
4. The columns (a, c, d, f, g, i, j, l) each got 4 cubes in the layers 2, 3, 4, 5. Also in layer 1, h, k, b, e
cubes got 2 faces coloured. so total cubes are 32 + 4 = 36
5. There is no cube in the block having more than three coloured faces. There are 8 cubes (in the
columns a, c, d, f, g, i, j and l) in layer 1 which have 3 coloured faces. Thus, there are 8 such
cubes.
What is a dice?
Dice is a cube having different numbers on all its faces. The numbers are usually a single digit, from
1 to 6.
Numbers on a Die
The scheme of numbering on a die is specific. The sum of the number on the opposite faces will be
equal to ‘7’ always. The number 1 will be opposite to number 6. The number 2 is opposite to 5 and
3 is opposite to 4. Such that:
● 1+6=7
● 2+5=7
● 3 + 4 =7.
Classification of Dice
Base dice: The base dice is further classified into two types.
● Standard dice - When the dice are rolled, if the number on the faces of the two dice do not
match each other, they are called as standard dice.
● Ordinary dice - If one or more than one number matches between two dice than it is called
as an ordinary dice.
Open dice: In an open dice all the six faces of the dice are shown. The dices show the opposite
position of rows and columns.
Constructed and Deconstructed Dice
● Constructed dice: This section of dice gives the constructed version of dice, the questions
will be based on the visualization of the flattened-out version of dice.
● Deconstructed Dice: This section of dice gives the flattened-out version of dice, the
questions will be based on the visualization of what is at the other end of the constructed
dice.
Rules to remember
Rule #1
If one of the numbers is common in both the dice when two dice have the same surface, then the
remaining surfaces of both dice are opposite to each other.
Example:
In the above two dice, the number 4 is common and the numbers 3 and 5 on one die and 1 and 2 on
the surface of the other die are opposite to each other respectively i.e., the number 3 is opposite 1
and 5 is opposite to 2.
Rule #2
If any two numbers are the same in two dices irrespective of their position on the dice then the
remaining third number in both the dice are opposite to each other.
Example:
In the above scenario, irrespective of their place or position the two numbers 6 and 2 are common
in both the dice. Then the third number 5 on one first die and 3 on the second die are opposite to
each other.
Rule #3
If there is one element common on both the dice at the different position, then rotate the dice in
a clockwise direction to get the opposite surface.
Example:
The number ‘2’ is common in both the dice, but it is occurring at a different position. In order to find
out, the number appearing on the opposite face, rotate the die in a clockwise direction with the
common number as the reference.
The rotation of the first die in the clockwise direction gives ‘6’ at the front face. Now the rotation of
the second die in the clockwise direction gives ‘4’ in the front face. Hence the number ‘6’ is
opposite to ‘4’. A similar operation gives the result that the number ‘5’ is opposite to ‘1’. This also
indicates that the number ‘3’ is opposite to ‘2’.
An Open die (A flat end version of a die)
Observations of an open die:

● The faces E & F, A & C, B & D are opposite to each other and their surfaces never touch each
other.
● Variations of open dice:
Open die Opposite faces
1 is opposite to 5.
2 is opposite to 4.
3 is opposite to 6.
1 is opposite to 6
2 is opposite to 4
3 is opposite to 5
1 is opposite to 3
2 is opposite to 5
4 is opposite to 6
Practice Questions:
1. Possible combination of dice. Observe the open die:
The number of a possible combination is:
1) Only A
2) Only B
3) Only C
4) Only D
Answer:
Option 1 is not possible as 3 is not opposed to 5. The second option is also wrong as 2 is not
adjacent to 4. Option 3 is possible. And option 4 is not possible as 1 is not adjacent to 6. Hence the
correct answer is option 3.
2. Finding the opposite side. Observe the die:
If the surfaces of the above die are reconstructed to form a perfect die. How many dots lie opposite
to the face having three dots?
1) 2
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
Answer:
Since 4, 5 and 2 are adjacent to 3, six is the only possibility. Hence the correct answer is option 4.
3. Choose the die that is similar to the die, formed from the open die.
1) Only 1
2) Only 2
3) 1 and 3
4) 1, 2 and 3
Answer:
The figure number 1 is possible as the top face is shaded and adjacent faces are blank. Figure 2 is
not possible as the surface with a dot should lie between shaded one, but here it is blank. Figure 3
is possible but the 4th one is impossible as the two shaded faces cannot be adjacent to each other.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
4. Observe the dice. How many dots are contained on the face opposite to that containing four
dots?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 6
Answer:
From the second figure, it can be observed that the face with 4 dots is adjacent to the one with 1
and 5 dots. Hence, then comparing this with the first die it can see that the only place possible the
face with 4 dots is opposite it to the face having 2 dots. Hence the correct answer is option 2.
5. Observe the dice. Two positions of a dice are shown. When 4 is at the bottom, what number
will be on the top?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 5
4) 6
Answer:
It can be observed from both the dice, if 2,3,5 and 6 adjacent to 1. Then the number opposite 1
should be 4. Hence the correct answer is option 1.
6. A dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in different ways. If 1 is adjacent to 2, 3 and 5, then which of the
following statements is necessarily true?
1) 1 is adjacent to 4
Answer:
If 1 is adjacent to 2,3 and 4 then there is a possibility that numbers 6 or 4 has to be opposite to 1.
Hence options A and C are definitely not possible. The number 2 need not necessarily be adjacent
to 5. But 4 will definitely be adjacent to 6. Hence, the correct is option 4.
SSC CHSL Exam
SYLLOGISM
Syllogism is a part of logical reasoning. It consists of some statements and you need to derive
conclusions from the given statements. The given statements and conclusions may seem to be illogical.
But we MUST assume the given statements to be 100% true.
Basic Syllogism
In this section, the conclusions must be 100% true. Conclusion which are 99% true will be considered as
False.
Rule #1:
If a definite conclusion is false in any of the possible diagram, then the definite conclusion is
considered to be false.
The statements are as follows:
Some A are B:
All A are B:
Some A are not B: No A are B:
Directions: In the following question, three statements are given followed by three conclusions I, II
and III. You have to consider the given statements to be true even, if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and decide which of the following logically follows
from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.
Q. Statements:
No panda is dog.
Some panda is crow.
All dogs are animal.
Conclusion:
I. Some dog are crow.
II. Some crow are panda.
III. Some animal are not panda.
A. The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows,
Conclusion:
I. Some dog are crow → False (No direct relation given hence, false)
II. Some crow are panda → True (Some panda are crow hence, some crow are panda is true)
III. Some animal are not panda → True (All dogs are animal and No dog is panda. so those animals
which are dog can never be panda hence, true)
Thus, only conclusion II and III follow.
Point to Remember
If all statements are positive, then all negative conclusion will be false in definite case and vice versa.
Either - Or Case
In this section, when the conclusion are not 100% true but the two given conclusion are 50% true then
the either-or case will be formed.
Rule #2:
Complementary pairs for Either or case are:

● Some + No
● All + Some not
Conditions:
● Both conclusions should consist of one of the above complementary pair.
● Subject and Predicate of the two conclusions should be same and they cannot interchange.
● The answer of both the conclusions should be can’t say.
Exception: Subject and Predicate can interchange for the complementary pair “Some + No”
Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by some conclusions. You have
to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from
the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q. Statements:
Some wicket are green.
Some wicket are dry.
No green is pitch.
Conclusion:
I. Some dry are pitch.
II. Some pitch are not green.
III. No pitch is dry.
A. The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:
Conclusion:
I. Some dry are pitch → False (No direct relation given hence, false)
II. Some pitch are not green → True (No green is pitch so some pitch are not green is true)
III. No pitch is dry → False (No direct relation given hence, false)
Conclusive I and III form complementary pair. Thus, Either conclusion I or III and II follow.
Common Mistake
● If two conclusions have same subject &predicate and consist of a complementary pair but one
of the conclusions is true, then it will not form an either-or case.
● Do not consider “Some + Some” as a complementary pair for Either or case.
Syllogism Possibility
Rule #3:
If a possible conclusion is true in any one of the possible diagrams, then the possibility is considered
to be true.
The definite and possible diagrams are shown together for better understanding:
All A are B: Some A are B :
Some A are not B : No A is B :
Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions I and II.
You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q. Statements:
Only a few doctors are teachers.
No teacher is a lawyer.
No lawyer is a scientist.
Conclusions:
I. Some teachers can be scientist is a possibility.
II. Some doctors are not lawyers.
Conclusion:
I. Some teachers can be scientist is a possibility → True
(Possibility is true as shown below)
II. Some doctors are not lawyers → True (As some Doctors are
Teachers and no Teacher is a Lawyer)
Thus, both conclusions I and II follows.
Memory Tip
Possible
Statement Definite Conclusion
Conclusion
All A are B
All B are A
All A are B Some A are B
Some B are not A
Some B are A
All A are B
Some A are B All B are A
Some A are B
Some B are A Some A are not B
Some B are not A
Some A are B
No A is B
Some A are not
Some A are not B No B is A
B
Some B are not A
All B are A
No A is B
No A is B No possibility is true
No B is A
New Keywords
The meaning of new words are:

● Each, Every, Only,100% → All
● Almost, Little, Few, At most, At least, Many, Mostly, 1-99% → Some
● None, 0% → No
Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered
I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q. Statements:
Some tables are chairs.
Only a few chairs are sofas.
No sofa is a cupboard.
Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are not Sofa.
II. All table can be cupboard is a possibility.
III. No chair is a cupboard.
Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are not Sofa →True (As only a few chairs are sofa
which means rest of the chairs are not sofa. Hence true)
II. All table can be cupboard is a possibility → True (Possibility is true
as shown below)
III. No chair is a cupboard → False (It is possible but not definite)
Thus, the correct answer is “Only conclusion I and II follow”.
Point to Remember
“Only a few” means some and some not both conclusions are definitely true i.e. If only a few A are B
then it means conclusions: some A are B and some A are not B will be definitely true.
Reverse Syllogism
In this section, conclusions will be given, and you need to find the set of statements from which the
given conclusions can be derived.
Q. Conclusions:
I. No real is fake.
II. All fake can be a man.
Statements:
1) All the papers are fake. No fake is pen. All real is fake. All pens are man.
2) All the papers are fake. No fake is pen. All real are pen. All pens are man.
3) Some papers are fake. No fake is man. All real are pen. All pens are man.
4) Some papers are fake. No fake is pen. All real is fake. All pens are man.
5) All the papers are fake. No fake is man. All real are pen. All pens are man.
A. 1) Statement: All papers are fake. No fake is pen. All realis fake. All pens are man.
The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:
Conclusions:
I. No real is fake. → False
II. All fake can be a man. → True (Possibility is true)
Here, conclusion II follows.
2) Statement: All papers are fake. No fake is pen. All real are pen. All pens are man.
The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:
Conclusions:
I. No real is a fake. → True
II. All fake can be a man. → True (Possibility is true)
Here, both conclusions follow. Hence, both the given conclusions can be derived from the 2nd set
of statements.
Coded Syllogism
In this section, statements and conclusions are given in coded form. You need to decode the
statements and conclusions to find the answer.
Direction: In the question below are given a statement followed by three conclusions Numbered I, II,
and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they Seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
“A*B” means “Some A’s are B’s.”

“A$B” means “All A’s are B’s.”
“A~B” means “No A’s are B’s.”
“A! B” means “All B’s are A’s.”
“%” means “Possibility.”
Example: “A$%B” means “All A’s being B’s is a possibility.
Q. Statement: Ww $ Pp !Uu * Rr ~ Tt
Conclusion:
I. Ww * Tt]
II. Uu $ Tt
III. Pp * Rr
A. Given Statement: Ww $ Pp !Uu * Rr ~ Tt
Decoding the Statement: All Ww are Pp. All Uu are Pp. Some Uu are Rr. No Rr is Tt.
Conclusion:
I. Ww * Tt means (Some Ww are Tt) → False (there is a possibility but not specific).
II. Uu $ Tt means (All Uu are Tt) → False as Some Rr which Uu cannot be Tt because it is given that
No Rr are Tt.
III. Pp * Rr means (Some Pp are Rr) → True
Hence, “Only III” is true.
Sequential Syllogism
In this section, statements are given followed by the options. You need to choose the set in which the
third statement can be logically deduced from first two statements.
Q. Statement:
I. All cars are cycle
II. All trucks are scooter
III. No cycle are scooter
IV. some trucks are cars
V. some cars are scooter
a) I, v, iii
b) ii, v, iv
c) iv, ii, v
d) all are true
e) None of these
A. c) iv, ii, v
Hence, iv, ii, v is true.

SSC CHSL Exam
STATEMENT AND CONCLUSIONS
Statement & Conclusion – Concept
● Questions from the statement and conclusions topic comprise a statement followed by a set
of conclusions for the same. Candidates need to choose the most appropriate conclusion
regarding the statement given.
● Mostly the biggest mistake which is made by candidates while solving the
statement-conclusion questions is that they make assumptions while answering questions
which ultimately leads to marking the incorrect option as a conclusion for the given
statement.
● No assumptions, facts or information can be used to answer questions based on this concept
and the data given in the statement is the only fact.
● Candidates must know that to answer questions from this topic, a candidate needs to
analyse the information given and then select the most logical conclusion based on the
statement.
Tips and Tricks to solve Statement and Conclusion Questions

● If there are two or more sentences which are used to frame a statement, then, the
sentences must be interrelated, and mutual contradiction should be there.
● Do not look for truthful notions. The information provided in the statement is the only
requirement for a candidate to answer the question. No assumptions must be made.
● Read the statement carefully and look for keywords which are common between the
statement and the conclusions
● If there is more than one conclusion which is applicable for the statement, candidates must
ensure that the conclusions they opt have some relation with each other.
● Do not go by the length of the statement or statements. Make sure that you read the
statement carefully before you make a conclusion.
● Candidates happen to lose a lot of marks in negative marking in such questions. So ensure
that you do not guess the answers in this topic.
Statement and Conclusion – Solved Examples

Q 1.
Statement: In a T20 match played between India and Australia, the total runs made by the Indian
team were 200. 160 runs out of 200 runs were made by spinners.
Conclusion I: 80% of the team consists of spinners
Conclusion II: The opening batsmen were spinners
1. Only Conclusion I is true

2. Only Conclusion II is true
3. Both Conclusion I and II are true
4. Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
5. Either Conclusion I or II is true
Answer: (4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true; Neither conclusion is logically correct with regard to
the statement
Q 2.
Statement: The Team Manager humiliated Varun in front of his colleagues on a Monday morning.
Conclusion I: The Team Manager did not like Varun
Conclusion II: Varun was not as popular as his other colleagues

Answer: (4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true; None of the conclusions gives a valid reason for the
statement to be correct.
Q 3.
Statement: A metal producing Company in India has moved from a position where there was a
shortage of metal production to a position where there is the self-sufficiency of metal.
Conclusion I: India was previously importing metal
Conclusion II: at this speed of self sufficiency, India can soon become a foreign exchange earner

Answer: (3) Both Conclusion I and II is true
Q 4.
Statement: Only good dancers are invited to the competition. No one without dancing techniques is
a good dancer.
Conclusion I: All invited dancers in the competition dance well
Conclusion II: Those dancers who do not have good dancing techniques are not invited to the
competition

Answer: (3) Both Conclusion I and II are true
Practice Questions:
Directions (1 - 10): In each of the following questions, a statement has been given followed by a
few conclusions. Consider the statement to be completely true and answer which of the given
conclusions can be derived based on the statement.
Q 1.
Statement: Gold prices are rising each day in the market
Conclusion I: Nobody wears gold nowadays

Conclusion II: It has become tougher to locate gold shops in the market
1. Only conclusion I follow

2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Both conclusion I and II follow
4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5. Either conclusion I or II follow
Answer: (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Solution: The prices of gold are not rising because of any of the two given statements. Thus, they
cannot be concluded based on the statement
Q 2.
Statement: Agrima took part in a State-level singing competition and won it.
Conclusion I: Agrima is the best singer in the country
Conclusion II: Agrima is also a good dancer

Solution: Winning the state level singing competition cannot conclude that she is the best singer in
the country and neither does the statement give any information about her dancing skills
Q 3.
Statement: Kids nowadays have become extremely tech-savvy and a report suggests that almost all
kids between the ages of 5 to 8 years spend 6 to 7 hours each day watching TV, mobiles or tablets.
This has resulted in eye-sight issues among young children.
Conclusion I: Kids can be kept busy while they are using such devices
Conclusion II: Using too much of these devices can be harmful to children

Answer: (2) Only conclusion II follows
Solution: Based on the statement, it can be derived that watching TV, mobiles or tables has directly
affected the eye-sight of young children
Q 4.
Statement: Going for walks in the morning and evenings can act as an exercise for old people.
Conclusion I: Going for morning walks will help the old and aged people to stay fit
Conclusion II: The youth must not go for walks in the morning and evening
Answer: (1) Only conclusion I follow
Solution: Nothing about the youth has been given in the statement, which is why Conclusion II does
not follow and only the first conclusion follows
Q 5.
Statement: To encourage students to become more active, healthy and fit, the school took up an
initiative to have one class dedicated to sports every day. This will also increase the interest of
candidates in sports.
Conclusion I: The step has been taken keeping in mind the physical and mental health of the
students
Conclusion II: The school is looking for suitable students to compete in the inter-school Cricket
competition

Solution: The initiative has been taken by the school keeping in mind the health of the students.
This
the second conclusion does not follow
Q 6.
Statement: The demand for modern art and paintings has increased in the market. People are
looking for unique paintings and art pieces to enhance the interiors of their house and offices.
Conclusion I: Presentation and ambience are very important as they create the first impression
Conclusion II: The liking of people in terms of art is modernising

Answer: (3) Both conclusion I and II follow
Solution: Both conclusions can be derived from the given statement
Q 7.
Statement: A Privately run company has declared salary deduction of all its employees by 20 per
cent because it has been facing loses over 3 months now.
Conclusion I: Employees are free to resign from their jobs

Conclusion II: The company will not deduct the salary of high scale Managers

Solution: None of the given conclusions can be derived. The second conclusion is false as the
statement clearly mentions “for all its employees”
Q 8.
Statement: If a candidate is looking forward to applying for any of the competitive exams conducted
in the country, there are certain eligibility criteria which they need to follow.
Conclusion I: If someone fulfils all the eligibility criteria, he/she can apply for the exam
Conclusion II: Anyone who has qualified class 12th is eligible to appear for competitive exams


Solution: Conclusion II does not follow because the detailed criteria has not been given in the
statement and no extra assumption can be made. This conclusion II does not follow
Q 9.
Statement: In a singing concert, singers from different states of India were invited to perform. The
tickets for this concert can be bought online only and there are only limited seats available.
Conclusion I: Some seats at the concert are reserved for the singers
Conclusion II: People can reach the concert venue and buy tickets for themselves

Solution: No information about the reserved seats has been mentioned in the statement and the
tickets can only be bought online, thus the conclusion II is definitely false
Q 10.
Statement: More than 20 students have been shortlisted from College X to be a part of the
Inter-College Sports fest in College Y. The number of girls and boys selected are exactly the same.
Each student is good at one sport.
Conclusion I: 10 girls are going to be a part of the Sports fest from College X
Conclusion II: Equal opportunities are provided to both girls and boys in College X

Answer: (3) Both conclusion I and II follow
Solution: Since 20 students are selected and equal boys and girls are sent, this can be concluded
that
there are 10 girls. Equal number of girls and boys have been given the opportunity which makes the
second conclusion true as well.
SSC CHSL Exam
ORDER AND RANKING
It is an important topic of the Reasoning section, in this topic the data related to ranks of a
person, which are in a particular order or well-arranged sequence are given. In some
questions the total number of persons are given and the rank of the person from the left
side/Right side/Top/Bottom are asked.
So, different types of Questions based on the rank /position of the persons in a row are as
follows.
1) Total number of persons

2) Rank of a person from left or right side.
3) Number of persons in between two persons.
4) Minimum/Maximum number of persons
5) Rank of a person sitting exactly between two persons.
6) Rank of a person after interchanging the positions
Total Number of persons

Case-1
To find the total number of persons, when rank of a person is given from both sides of the
Row.
Total number of persons= (R1 + R2)-1

R1 and R2 are the ranks of a person from both ends.
Example 1: - In a row of persons Position of Abhishek is 10th from left Corner and 15th from
Right Corner. Find the total number of Persons in the row?
Solution: -
Total = (R1+R2)-1
= (10+15)-1
= 24
Example 2: - In a class, all students participated in a quiz competition. Albert ranks 6th from
the top and 23rd from the bottom then, Find the total number of Students
Solution: -Total= (Top + Bottom)-1
= (6+23)-1
=29-1
=28
Case 2
To find the total number of persons in the row, when ranks of two persons and number of
the persons who are sitting between these two persons are given.
There are two cases possible under this type which are as follows
1)Simple case
When total number of persons> (Left position of one person + Right position of another
person)
Total number of persons= (Sum of positions of two different persons from both sides) +
(Number of persons between two persons).
2)Overlapping Case
When (left position of one person) + (Right position of another person) > Total number of
persons.
Total number of persons = (R1+R2) – (Number of persons between two persons + 2)
Example 1: -
In a row of persons. A is 12th from the left Corner and B is 17th from Right Corner. If 3
persons are there between A & B then find the total number of persons in between them.
1) 32
2) Either 30 or 25
3) 24
4) Either 32 or 24
Solution: - (4) Either 32 or 24.

Explanation: - we have taken both Simple and Overlapping cases.
Case1- Simple Case
Total = 29 + 3 = 32
Case2- Overlapping case

Total = (29) -(3+2)

= 24
Rank of a person from left or right side

To find the position of a person from the opposite side, when rank from one side and total
number of persons are given.
Example 1
In a row of 40 persons. Q is 23rd from the right corner. What is the position of Q from the
left corner?
1) 30
2) 28
3) 18
4) 22
Solution: -
Explanation: -(3) 18
Position of a person from opposite Side = (Total number of persons – Position of the same
person from given Side) + 1.
= (40- 23) +1
= 17+1
= 18
Number of Person in between two persons

There are Two cases possible under this type which are as follows.
1)Simple Case: - When total number of persons > (Left position of one person + Right
position of Another Person)
Number of persons in between them = Total number of persons – (Sum of positions of two
different persons from both Sides)
2) Overlapping Case: - When (Left position of one person + Right position of another Person)
> Total number of persons.
Number of persons between two persons = (Sum of positions of two different persons from
both sides) – (Total + 2)
Example 1
In a row of 52 persons, A is 12th from the right corner and B is 24th from the left Corner
then find the number of persons between A & B?
1- 16
2- 18
3- 12
4- 14
Solution: - (1) 16
Explanation: -
In this Question (Total > R1 + R2) means this is a simple Case.
Number of persons in between them= Total number of persons – (Sum of positions of two
= 52 – (36)
= 16
Example 2
In a row of 30 persons, A is 14th from the right corner and B is 20th from the left Corner
then find the number of persons between A & B?
1) 5
2) 4
3) 3
4) 2
Solution: -(4) 2
Explanation: -
In this Question (Total < R1 + R2) means this is an Overlapping Case.
Number of persons between two persons = (Sum of positions of two different persons from
both sides) – (Total + 2)
= 34 – (30 + 2)
=2
Minimum/Maximum number of persons

Simple case always gives Maximum strength and an Overlapping case always gives Minimum
strength.
If Minimum strength is asked then we have to consider the Overlapping case and if
Maximum strength is asked in question, we have to take the Simple case.
Example 1: -
In a row P is 12th from left corner and Q is 15th from right corner then find the Minimum
strength of the row if 5 persons are there in between P & Q.
1) 15
2) 20
3) 18
4) 14
Solution: - (2) 20
Explanation: -
Minimum means we have to take an Overlapping Case.
= 27- (5+2)
= 27- 7
= 20
Example 2: - In a row of Boys, Ashok is 19th from left corner and Devesh is 10th from right
corner,5 persons are there between them, then find the maximum strength of the row?
1) 34
2) 33
3) 36
4) 38
Solution: - (1) 34
Explanation: -
Maximum means we have to take a Simple Case.
= 29 + 5
= 34
Rank of a person sitting exactly between two persons.

In this type of Questions, you need to find the rank of a person sitting exactly between the
two persons
Example 1
In a row of 35 persons. Daisy is 5th from the left corner and Yashika is 9th from the right
corner. Lipi is exactly in between Daisy and Yashika. Then find the rank of Lipi from the
Right corner?
1) 12
2) 16
3) 18
4) 20
Solution: - (4) 20
Explanation: -
In this Question (Total > R1 + R2) means this is a simple Case.
Number of persons in between them= Total number of persons – (Sum of positions of two
=35-14
=21
In 21 persons, lipi is sitting exactly in between means there are 10 persons between lipi and
Yashika, and there are 10 persons between lipi and Daisy.
Therefore, the rank of lipi from the right corner is 20.
Rank of a person after interchanging the positions

When in a row, the position of two persons is given and their positions are interchanged and
after interchanging the position of 1st person is given from the same side as before
interchanging
New position of the 2nd person from the same side as before interchanging= Position of 2nd
person from the same side before interchanging + (Position of the 1st person after
interchanging – position of the 1st person before interchanging from the same side.
Total number of persons = Sum of the positions of a person (Common Person) from both
sides – 1.
Number of persons between two persons = Difference in the positions of a person
(Common person) whose position from the same side before and after interchanging is
given – 1.
Example 1
In a row of Boys, Prabhas is 15th from the left and Kartik is 23rd from the right. If they
interchange their positions, then Prabhas becomes 18th from the left. Then at what
position will Kartik be from the right?
1)23
2)24
3)25
4)26
Solution: - (4) 26
Explanation: -
Total number of boys = (Left end + Right end) – 1
= (18 + 23)-1
= 41- 1
= 40
Kartik’s position from right end= Total boys – left end + 1.
= (40 – 15) + 1
= 26
SSC CHSL Exam
CALENDAR
What is Calendar?
A Calendar is a chart or series of pages showing the days, weeks and months of a particular year, or
giving particular seasonal information.
Basic Structure of a Calendar

● Ordinary year: Any year which 365 days is called an ordinary year. Eg: 1879, 2009, 2019, etc.
● Leap year: Any year which has 366 days is called a leap year. Eg: 2012, 2016 2020 etc.
● The division of the number 365 by 7 gives the quotient 52 and remainder 1 which indicates
that an ordinary year has 52 weeks and one extra day. This extra day is referred to as an
“odd day” throughout the calendar topics.
● A leap year has 366 days, the division of the number 366 by 7 gives the quotient 52 and
remainder 2. This indicates that a leap year has 52 weeks and 2 extra days. These two extra
days are also referred to as “odd days”.
An ordinary year has one odd day, whereas a leap year has two odd days.
Concept of an Odd Day

A number of odd days in a month
● January has 31 days, irrespective of whether it’s an ordinary year or leap year. The division
of the number 31 by 7 provides the remainder 3 hence January has 3 odd days. On
generalising, any month which has 31 days has 3 odd days and any month which has 30 days
has 2 odd days.
● The only exception happens is in the case of February. The February month of an ordinary
year has 28 days, division of 28 by 7 provides zero as remainder. Hence, the number of odd
days in February of an ordinary year will have 0 odd days and that of leap year will have 1
odd day as February in a leap year has 29 days.
● The below table depicts the number of odd days in different months of a calendar year:
Month Number of odd days

January 3
February (ordinary/leap) (0/1)
March 3
April 2
May 3
June 2
July 3
August 3
September 2
October 3
November 2
December 3
Decoded day of the week
● The week always begins with Monday and hence Saturday and Sunday are referred to as
weekends. In order to make the calculation easier and reduce its time during the exams.
● The days of the week are coded as follows:
Code of the day Day

0 Sunday
1 Monday
2 Tuesday
3 Wednesday
4 Thursday
5 Friday
6 Saturday
Example:
Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be:
A. Tuesday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Saturday
Explanation:
Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days. So, after 63 days, it will be on Monday. After 61 days,
it will be on Saturday.
Evaluation of Leap Year

● The leap year occurs every four years, most of the time, but there are scenarios where the
gap between two leap years was 8 years instead of the regular 4 years. Eg: The year 1896 is a
leap year. The next leap year comes in 1904 (1900 is not a leap year).
● In order to make the investigation easier and faster, any year which is divisible by number 4
completely (remainder becomes zero) is considered as a leap year.
● Eg: 1888, 2012, 2016 are leap years as it’s completely divisible by 4. Years like 2009, 2019
etc. are not divisible by 4 completely hence they normal years.
An exception to note:
A year 700 is completely divisible by 4, but it is not considered as a leap year. For a century year, the
logic follows that it should always be divisible by 400 not by 4. Even though the year 700 is divisible
by 4 but not by 400. Hence, the year 700 cannot be considered as a leap year.
Ex: 400, 800, 1200 etc. are leap years as they are divisible by 400 and years 300, 700, 100 etc. are
not leap years as they are not divisible by 400.
Evaluation of Odd Days of a Century
This concept helps students in answering the question of calendars in less than 30 seconds. The
question looks unsolvable, but the application of these concepts makes it easier to solve it in a
quicker way.
Observe the question:
Q: What day of the week was year 100 A.D December 31st?
This might look like a difficult and big problem. But it’s definitely not.
Solution: Let’s consider the first 100 years i.e., Year 1.A.D to year 100 A.D
Dividing the first 100 by 4 we get that first 100 years had 76 ordinary years and 24 ordinary years.
(The quotient when 100 is divided by 4 gives 25 but the year 100 itself is not a leap year as it is not
divisible by 400 hence 24 is considered instead of 25)
Step 1: 100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years
We know that an ordinary year has 1 odd day and a leap year has 2 odd days. Hence, 76 ordinary
years will have 76 odd days and 24 leap years will 24*2 = 48 odd days. Adding both the results we
get 76+48 = 124 odd days in total.
Step 2: 100 years = (76 x 1 + 24 x 2) odd days = 124 odd days.
Dividing the total odd days 124 by 7 gives the quotient as 17 and a remainder as 5. This indicates
that 124 days had 17 weeks and 5 odd days.
Step 3: 100 years = (17 weeks + days) 5 odd days.
A number of odd days in 100 years = 5.
Now decoding the number to the days of the week from the table gives the result that the number
5 stands for Friday.
Hence, the last day (December 31st) of the year 100 A.D was Friday.
Extension of the logic

Similarly, one can find the last day of the other century years by extending the same logic.
If 100 years had 5 odd days, then logically 200 years should have 10 odd days. Since 10 is greater
than 7, the division of 10 by 7 gives the remainder 3. Hence, the 200 years had 3 odd days, which
means the last day of the year 200 was Wednesday.
Number of odd days in 200 years = (5 x 2) = 10 = (7+3) = 3 odd days.
If 100 years had 5 odd days and 200 years 10 odd days logically 300 years should have 15 odd days.
The division of 15 by 7 indicates it has 1 odd day from the remainder which indicates it is Monday.
Hence, the last day of the year 300 was Monday.
Number of odd days in 300 years = (5 x 3) = 15 = (14+1) = 1 odd day.
Logically, 400 years should have 20 odd days since 400th year is a leap year as it is divisible by 400.
This year will have 20+1 = 21 odd days, which when divided by 7 gives the zero (0) as remainder.
Hence, 400 years had 0 odd day and that was Sunday.
The logical approach for the next few years is shown in the table given below:
Century Number of odd days Day of the week

100 5 Friday
200 3 Wednesday
300 1 Monday
400 0 Sunday
500 = (100+400) (5+0) = 5 Friday
600 =(200+400) (3+0) =3 Wednesday
700 = (300+400) (1+0) = 1 Monday
800 = (400+400) (0+0) = 0 Sunday
900 = ( 400 + 500) (0 + 5) = 5 Friday
1000 = (500 +500) (5+5)= (7+3) = 3 Wednesday
Observations from the table:

● The cycle of a number of days repeats after every four centuries and also hence the days at
which it ends. The order will always be Friday, Wednesday Monday and Sunday.
● A century will always end on either Friday, Wednesday, Monday or Sunday (Decoded values
of these days are 5, 3, 1, and 0 respectively).
● A century will never end on Tuesday, Thursday and Saturday (Decoded values of these days
are 2, 4, and 6 respectively).
Type 1 Problems: Finding the day when another day is given

In this section, one has to find out the day of the week of a given date using the day of the week
information on the reference date.
Question: If 17th March 2008 was Monday, what was 1st April 2012?
Solution: The total number of odd days from 17th March 2008 to 17th March 2012.
2008 (leap year) 2 odd days

2009 (ordinary year) 1 odd day
Total odd days = 5 odd days
Since 17th march 2008 was Monday and 17th march 2012 is 5 days more than Monday. Then
adding 5 odd days to Monday, we get Saturday. Hence 17th march to April 1st we have 15 days.
Saturday+15=Sunday. Adding 15 days or (15 = 14+1) to Saturday, we get the answer as Sunday.
Question: If today is Sunday, what will be the day on 7777th day?
Solution: If today is Sunday, then the 7th day from today will be Sunday. Similarly, the 14th day,
21st day or 70th day or 700th day or 7000th day or 7777th day will be Sunday. Hence, the answer is
Sunday.
Type 2 Problems: Find the day when another day is not given
In this section, one has to find out the day of the week of a given date. There will no reference date
or day has given here. One can make use of the concept of an odd day to find the answer.
Question: What day of the week was 15th August 1947?
Solution: The date August 15th 1947 can be divided as follows for easy calculation:
1600 years + 300 years+ 46 years (1901 to 1946) + Jan 1st to august 15th (of 1947)
Note: Do not write 47 years in the third section, it would indicate 47th year in that century is over.
1600 years + 300 years+ 46 years (1901 to 1946) + Jan 1st to august 15th (of 1947)
Now let’s find out the total number of odd days in each section:
Section 1:
1600 is a multiple of 400 years. 400 years have 0 odd days hence 1600 years should have 0 odd
days.
Section 2:
The second section 30 years will have 1 odd day. Kindly refer to “evaluation of odd days in a
century” topic for clarification.
Section 3:
This section has 46 years from 1901 to 1946, we know that an ordinary year has one odd day and a
leap year has 2 odd days.
Let’s first calculate the total number of leap years from 1901 to 1946.
Division of 46 by 4 gives the quotient as 11, which indicates that from 1901 to 1946 we have 11 leap
years. If there are 11 leap years among 46 years then remaining 35 years should be ordinary years.
Hence, 35 ordinary years will have 35 odd days and 11 leap years will have 11*2 = 22 years.
The total number of odd days in 46 years will be 35+22 = 57 odd days. The division of 57 by 7 given
the remainder as 1.This indicates from 1901 to 1946 there is only one odd day.
Section 4:
It has months from January to August 15th. We have already calculated the total number of odd
days in each month in the odd day’s section.
Since 1947 is not a leap year February had zero odd days.
Check the table below for a better understanding of the number of odd days in a month:
Month Number of odd days

January 3
February (ordinary year) 0
March 3
April 2
May 3
June 2
July 3
August 15 (since the month is not over)
Total odd days = 31
The total number of odd days is 31 which when divided by 7 gives the remainder 3. Hence, the total
number of odd days in the year 1947 from January 1st to August 15th is 3.
Adding the total number of odd days of each section:
Section Years Odd days

Section 1 1600 0
Section 2 300 1
Section 3 46 1
Section 4 Jan 1st to Aug 15th 3
The total number of odd days = 0+1+1+3 = 5 = Friday. Hence, August 15th 1947 was Friday.
Type 3 Problems: Matching the Calendar

Question: Which year in the future will have the same calendar exactly as 2009?
A. 2010
B. 2013
C. 2015
D. 2017
Solution: If the total number of odd days between any years is zero or it’s a multiple of seven. Then,
those two years will have the same calendar.
The total number of odd days is listed below:
Year Odd days

2009 1
2010 1
2011 1
2012 2
2013 1
2014 1
Total number of odd days = 7
Hence, 2015 will have the same calendar as 2009. Option C is the correct answer.
Practice Questions:
1. Find the day of the week on 27th dec 1985.
A. Friday
B. Sunday
C. Monday
D. Thursday
Answer: A
Explanation:
27th dec 1985 has 1984 years, 11 months and 27 days. Now 1600 years have no odd days at all. One
odd day is present in 300 years. 84 years have twenty one leap years and 63 ordinary years so the
number of days can be calculated as follows −
(21 × 366 + 63 × 365) days
= (7686 + 22995) days
= 30681 days = 30681/7 = 4383 weeks. It means 84 years contain no odd days.
11 months and 27 days = 361 days = 51 weeks + 4 odd days. On calculation 4 + 1 = 5. 5 odd days
means that day is Friday. Hence option A is correct.
2. Find the day of the week on 11th April 1980.

A. Friday
B. Sunday
C. Monday
D. Tuesday
Answer: A
Explanation:
11th April 1980 has 1979 years, 3 months and 11 days. Now 1600 years have no odd days and 300
years have one odd day. 79 years contain 19 leap years and 60 ordinary years. The number of days
of 79 years can be calculated as follows −
(19 × 366 + 60 × 365) days
= 28854 days = 28854/7 = 4122 weeks. It means 79 years contain no odd days.
3 months and 11 days = 102 days = 14 weeks + 4 days = 4 odd days. 4 + 1 = 5. 5 odd days means
that day is Friday. Hence option A is correct.
3. Find the day of the week on 12th March 1950.

A. Friday
B. Sunday
C. Monday
D. Thursday
Answer: B
Explanation:
12th March 1950 has 1949 years, 2 months and 12 days. Now 1600 years have no odd days. 300
years have 1 odd day. 49 years contain 12 leap years and 37 ordinary years So number of days in 37
years can be calculated as follows:
(12 × 366 + 37 × 365) days
= 17897 days = 17897/7 = 2556 weeks and 5 odd days. It means 49 years contain 5 odd days.
2 months and 12 days = 71 days = 10 weeks + 1 odd day which means 1 + 5 + 1 = 7. 7 odd days
means that day is Sunday. Hence option B is correct.
4. Today is Wednesday, what will be the day after 91 days?

A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Sunday
D. Wednesday
Answer: D
Explanation:
Every day of the week is repeated after 7 days. Hence, it will be Wednesday after 91 days because
13 × 7 = 91.
5. Today is Friday, what will be the day after 59 days?

A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Sunday
D. Wednesday
Answer: A
Explanation:
Every day of the week is repeated after 7 days. Hence, it will be Friday after 56 days because 8 × 7 =
56. After this, 3 more days are left which means it is Monday.
6. Today is Monday, what will be the day after 32 days?

A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Sunday
D. Friday
Answer: D
Explanation:
Every day of the week is repeated after 7 days. Hence, it will be Monday after 28 days because 4 ×
7 = 28. After this, 4 more days are left which means it is Friday, hence option D is correct.
7. Today is Ram’s birthday which falls on Wednesday, Gopal’s birthday falls after 50 days after
Ram’s birthday. On which day Gopal’s birthday falls?
A. Monday
B. Thursday
C. Sunday
D. Wednesday
Answer: B
Explanation:
Every day of the week is repeated after 7 days. Hence, it will be Wednesday after 49 days. Because
7 × 7 = 49. After this one more day means Thursday. So Gopal’s birthday falls on Thursday.
8. Today is physics exam which falls on Sunday, the next physics exam will take place after a
fortnight. On which day the next physics exam will take place?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Sunday
D. Wednesday
Answer: A
Explanation:
As we know that every day of the week is repeated after 7 days. Hence, it will be Sunday after 14
days because 2 × 7 = 14. After this one more day is left and that will be Monday.
9. Today is Saturday, what will be the day after 86 days?

A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Sunday
D. Wednesday
Answer: A
Explanation:
Every day of the week is repeated after 7 days. Hence, it will be Saturday after 84 days because 12
× 7 = 84. After this two more days are remaining which means on 86th day, the day will be Monday.
10. Today is zoology practical which falls on Thursday, the next zoology lab will take place after a
fortnight. On which day the next zoology lab will take place?
A. Monday
B. Friday
C. Sunday
D. Wednesday
Answer: B
Explanation:
Every day of the week is repeated after 7 days. Hence, it will be Thursday after 14 days because 2 ×
7 = 14. After this, one more day means the lab will take place on Friday.

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SSC CHSL Exam

Study Material for GI & Reasoning

Statement & Assumption – Concept

Tips to Solve Statement & Assumption Questions

Statement − An apple a day, keeps a doctor away.

Assumption I - Apple is good for health.

1. Only assumption I is practical.

1. Only assumption I is practical.

1. Only Assumption I follows

Answer: (1) Only Assumption I follows

1. Both Assumption I and II follow

Answer: (3) Only Assumption I follows

1. All Assumption I, II & III follow

1. Only Assumption I follows

Answer: (3) Neither Assumption I nor Assumption II follows

1. Only Assumption I follows

Answer: (1) Only Assumption I follows

Number Series (Group Based)

Series: 567 289 376 189 852

A. Given series: 567 289 376 189 852

A. Given Series: 567, 289, 376, 189, 852

A. Given Series: 567, 289, 376, 189, 852

Alphabet Series (Group Based)

Series: DEW BIG RAW FAN DOG

A. Given words are: DEW BIG RAW FAN DOG

Mixed Series is an arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols in a certain order.

A. 12th element from the left end:

A. 11th element from the left end:

A. 9th element from the right end is:

A. Step 1: The vowels are exchanged with its next letter.

Step 2: The symbols are exchanged with 8.

Step 3: Numbers are increased by 1.

Creating New Words

A. Given word – INFORMATION

Position of Letters and Numbers in a Series

A. The word can be represented as follows,

A. The word can be represented as follows,

A. The numbers can be represented as follows,

Clock-wise direction movement will be as in a square boundary.

Anticlock-wise direction moves like this in a square boundary will be as:

Note: In a square boundary means a square box.

● 45° means half step CW or ACW.

In nonverbal 45° = 1/2 place, 90° = 1 place, 135° = 1 ½ and so on.

Let’s see with examples:

(I) (II) (III)

Different Types of Questions Based on Venn Diagrams

Type 1: Universal Affirmative

Example 1: Polygon, Rectangle, Square

Example 2: Country, City, State

Example 3: Intelligence, Anxiety, Strength

Example 4: Whale, Crocodile, Bird

They all belong to different categories.

Example 5: Teachers, Authors, men

Example 6: Hospital, Nurse, Patient

Example 7: Animal, Dog, Pet

Example 8: Pilots, Human, Ducks

Example 9: Wire, Copper, Paper

Some Wires are made of Copper but Paper is entirely different.

Example 10: Females, Mothers, Doctors

Example 11: Males, Fathers, Children