L-4rr-2/EEE Date: 28/3/2022

BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA

L-4/T -2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 20 I 9-2020

Sub: EEE 411 (Power System II)

Full Marks: 2 I0 Time: 3 Hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION
-----------------""-_._--_ .•._-------------- -------------
SECTION -A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
Assume reasonable value for any missing data.
I. (a) Derive the condition for the economic distribution of load between two units
within a power plant. (5)
(b) Derive the general expression of transmission loss equation of a power system
having K number of generating units. (15)
(c) Explain the classical economic dispatch process of thermal power plants
incorporating transmission losses. (15)

2. (a) What is reactive power margm and Fast Voltage Stability Index (FVSI)?
Derive an analytical expression of FVSI. (15)
(b) What is voltage unbalance? Describe the sources and effects of voltage unbalance. (10)
(c) What is harmonics? How are harmonic power loss and total current harmonic
distortion (THDj) calculated? (10)

3. (a) Explain the roles of inertial response and governor response for the frequency
control of a power system. (10)
(b) Describe a step-wise procedure to find the frequency response index (in MW/O. I
Hz) of a power system. How will this index be affected for high renewable power
penetration? (15)
(c) What is load frequency relief (LFR)? From exponential load models, derive a
mathematical expression of LFR. (10)

4. (a) Why is reactive power compensation required? How can the power flow through a
transmission line be controlled? (5)
(b) Brief1y explain the working principles of STAT COM, TCSC, UPFC and IPFC. (20)
(c) A 400 kV transmission line has a reactance of 0.05 pu on 100 MVA base. The
voltage at the sending end is 1.02 L 2 pu and that of the receiving end is 1.0 L 0
0 0

pu. What is the voltage that should be injected in quadrature with the sending end
voltage to increase the power transfer across the line by 20%? (10)

Contd P/2
,
=2=
EEE 411

SECTION -B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
Symbols have their usual meaning.

5. The figure in Fig. 5(a) represents a generator connected at bus I supplying power
through a transmission line. Here E1' and Ez' represent the transient internal voltage of

a generator and motor respectively. Derive the power angle equation for the system. (IS)

CD ~
Transmission

- network

Fig. 5(~)
Ei

(b) Derive a second order differential swing equation governing the incremental rotor

angle variation when mechanical power input is fixed. (IS)

(c) What is synchronizing power co-efficient? Explain the significance of power co-

efficient through the equation derived in Q. 5(b). (5)

6. (a) The single line diagram in Fig. 6(a) shows a generator connected through a
parallel transmission line to a infinite bus. The machine is delivering 0.8 per unit
power and both the terminal voltage and infinite bus voltage are 1.0 per unit.
Determine the power angle equation for the given system operating condition. Also

find the initial rotor angle. (15)

j 0.5
)0.1

X.=~ p

i 0.5
Fig.6(a)
(b) A three phase fault occurs on the power system of question 6(a) at point I' at a
distance of 30% of the length away from the sending end terminal of the line.

H = 5.0 MJ/MV A. Determine the following in the faulted condition. (20)

(i) the power angle and swing equation.
(ii) initial accelerating power
(iii) initial acceleration.

Contd 1'/3
 =3=
EEE 411

7. (a) A 50-Hz, 230-kV transmission system shown in Fig. 7(a) has two generators of
finite inertia and an infinite bus. A three-phase fault occurs on line (4) -(5) near bus
(4). Using the prefault power-flow solution given in Table 7(a) (i), and the faulted
Ybus given in Table 7(a) (ii) determine the power angle and swing equation for
machine 2 during the fault period. The generators have reactances and H values

expressed on a IOO-MVA base as follows: (20)

Generator I: 400 MVA, 20 kV, Xd = 0.067 per unit, H = 11.2 MJ/MVA
Generator 2: 250 MV A, 18 kV, Xd = 0.10 per unit, H = 8.0 MJ/MV A

~
Generator I

L4

L5
6~neralor2

Fig 7(a)
Bus data and prefaolt load-flow values'

GeaeraUoo Load
lUi VoItqe P Q P Q
CD 1.03018.88° 3.500 0.712
Q) 1.02016.3so 1.850 0.298
0) 1.000~
@ 1.018/4.68" 1.00 ().~
G) 1.011/2.2'r 0.50 0.16
'.

tValues are in per unit OD 23O-ltv. ]OO-MVA base.

Contd P/4
•
=4=
EEE 411
Contd ... Q. NO.7

--;;'SI, 7 (L) (it) Faulted network Yl:>,,~

Bus CD (!)
0.0000 - jl1.2360 0.0 + jO.O 0.0 + jO.O
(] 1.2360 / - 90° )
0.0 .;. jO.O 0.1362 - j6.2737 -0.0681 + j5.1661
(6.2752.1- 88.7563° ) (5.1665/90.7552" )
U.O + jO.O -0.681 + j5.1661 5.7986 - j35.6299
(5.1665/90.7552" ) ()6.0987! - 80.7564° )

(b) Prepare a table showing the steps required to determine 8 (swing angle) of
machine 2 for the fault mentioned in Question 7(a). Show the data only from t = Os up
to fault clearing time. The fault is cleared at 0.225s by simultaneously opening the

circuit breakers at the end offaulted line (4)-(5). Given that, L'.t= 0.05 s. (15)

8. (a) Develop the equivalent circuit of a salient pole synchronous generator. (20)
(b) A l4-pole, Y-connected three-phase, water-turbine-driven generator is rated at
120 MVA, 13.2 kV, 0.8 PF lagging, and 50 Hz. Its direct-axis reactance is 0.62Q and

its quadrature-axis reactance is 0.40Q. All rational losses may be neglected. (15)
(i) What internal generated voltage would be required for this generator to
operate at the rated conditions?
(ii) What is the voltage regulation of this generator at the rated conditions?
(iii) Sketch the power versus torque-angle curve for this generator. At what
angle 8 is the power of the generator maximum?
L-4ff -21EEE Date: 09/04/2022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T-2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 2019-2020

Sub: EEE 425 (Biomedical Signals, Instrumentations and Measurement)

Full Marks: 210 Time: 3 Hours
The figures in the margin indicate full marks.
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION

SECTION-A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE.

1. (a) Define biometrics. Briefly explain the biometric design factors. Name the problems
normally encountered in measuring biological signals. (IS)
(b) Name the major physiological systems of human. With neat sketches, briefly describe
the human nervous system with emphasis on signal generation and conduction. (15)
(c) With neat diagram, describe the anatomical planes of human body. (5)

2. (a) Write the general and ionic characteristics of human cell. With neat sketches, describe
the formation of bioelectric potential in human cells. (15)
(b) Define electrode and classifY it. Name the basic properties of a good biopotential electrode.
With neat sketches, describe the construction and operation of an Ag/AgCI electrode. (15)
(c) Write the basic requirements of a bioelectric amplifier. (5)

3. (a) Define ECG lead. "For a complete ECG-based diagnosis, 12 leads are necessary", -
Explain. Explain the wave shapes of normal E
CG in different leads. (15)
(b) Name the factors that changes the normal shapes of ECG. With neat sketches, explain
the changes in ECG due to ventricular fibrillation and bundle branch block. (15)
(c) Write a short note on ERG. (5)

4. (a) Define EMG. Briefly describe the measurement, significance and uses of different
types of EMG. Describe the changes in EMG with voluntary efforts. (15)
(b) Define natural and artificial pacemakers. Briefly describe different types of pacing
methods and modes of pacemaker operation. (15)
(c) Write a short note on automated external defibrillator. (5)

SECTION-B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE.

5. (a) A cardiologist used a stethoscope and measured a mixture of heart, lung and friction
sound. What will be considered noise in the measurement? Is it an in-vivo of in-vitro
measurement? Define in-vivo and in-vitro measurements with suitable examples. (12)
(b) What is the input impedance of a biomedical sensor or instrument? If we want to measure
voltage or current, do we prefer low or high input impedance? JustifY your answer. (10)

Contd P/2
--------------------------------------+-------

=2=

EEE 425
Could ... Q. No.5
(c) A thermocouple has an output voltage V that depends on temperature T (in K) as
follows: (13)
2
VeT) = a + bT + cT
-5
where, a = 5, b = -0.01, c = 10
Is it a linear system? What is the sensitivity of the voltage output at nominal body
temperature To = 310 K?

6. (a) Using Einthoven's triangle, write the lead voltages I, II, III, aVR, aVL and aVF in
terms of the electrode voltage RA, LA, and LL. Suppose your 12-lead ECG machine is
broken and you can only measure leads I and III. How can you obtain the other four leads
given only the leads I and III. (15)
(b) Suppose you have a graphical display of blood pressure monitor readings as 0llows: (10)

::~------------------1ID-
1~.~'~J'j--_
i~~",. ---------------- K.d~.ffc<>_..,~,~1
- ------------
----------
-J---o-J r r l..l ,.--~---_ _ __
--------.-
0,
- --_.- -.
5'
--_._._- •• - --
(0
• __ ••
I~
-
.1d
•• __ • __
,.~i:e~
0. •• _.

--------- - - ----------- -- --_. --~-----

o
--.------ ~ Iv
-----~-Fi~~~-.~
.cCi:'j"-----
l~ _!~
------
~~=~' ..

What is the systolic and diastolic blood pressure according to the above graphs?
(c) For analog to digital conversion of an ECG signal, what is the minimum sampling rate
for 160 BPM assuming that :t I BPM is allowed? (10)

7_ (a) What is photoplethysmography? Describe the working principle of pulse oximeter. (15)
(b) What is a spirometer? What are the different types of spirometers used for
measurement of respiratory parameters? (10)
(c) What is a flame photometer? How does it help in blood test? (10)

8. (a) What is the difference between imaging and image processing? How does the
frequency of ultrasound wave influence axial resolution, lateral resolution and
penetration of ultrasound imaging? ( 12)
(b) Describe the backprojection technique for CT image reconstruction. How does the
filtered backprojection technique overcomes the limitation of simple backprojection? (12)
(c) Explain the principle of Position Emission Tomography (PET)? (11 )
L-4/T -2/EEE Date: 20/312022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T-2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 2019-2020

Sub: EEE 431 (Digital Signal Processing II)

Full Marks: 210 Time: 3 Hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION

SECTION -A
There are FO UR questions in this section. Answer any THREE.
All the symbols have their usual meanings. Assume reasonable values for missing data.

I. (a) A process x(n) is formed by passing white noise w(n) through an AR system H(z)
according to Fig for Q. 1(a). (15)

The variance of w(n) is known to be u: = 0.0 I. The LMS algorithm (consider a 2-tap
linear-phase FIR filter) is used to estimate a process d(n) from x(n). Find the maximum
value of the step size ~l,in order for the LMS algorithm to converge in the mean.
(b) The electroencephalogram (EEG) signals are often corrupted with ocular artifacts.
Show an adaptive filtering setup to reduce these ocular artifacts from the EEG signal
and also write down the error in terms of the filter coefficients. Assume that reliable
estimate of electrooculogram (EO G) can be obtained from 4 sensors placed around the
eye. (12)
(c) Describe the Normalized LMS (NLMS) algorithm and write down the weight
update equation. What are its benefits over LMS? (8)

2, (a) Consider a 3-tap Wiener filter with the following statistics: (12)

I 0.5 0.25] [3]

E{d'(n)}= 10, R= 0.5 I 0.5, P= 1
[
0.25 0.5 1 0
(i) Evaluate the tap-weights of the Wiener filter.
(ii) What is the MMSE produced by the Wiener filter?
Contd P/2
 =2=
EEE 431
Contd ... Q. NO.2

(b) Consider the system identification problem shown in Fig. for Q. 2(b). A 3'd order
linear phase FIR filter H a (z) has been used to approximate the plant transfer
function Hp(z). Summarize the RLS algorithm for the given system identification

problem. Define all necessary parameters and initial conditions as appropriate. (15)
(c) Explain the effect of using a smoothing constant (A.) in the cost function of the RLS
adaptive filtering algorithm. (8)

r~1'o\:: Un)
'r\pl~)
e(Y1 )
X(..-y
f)~-\) .•.
e
() \.l<e"'
lJ(n)
\10.. Col:)

RLSufW
-<~

~~. ~ Gj. :1..("')

3. (a) Let H(z) represent an FIR filter of length 10 with impulse response coefficients

hen) = (XJ' for 0:0;n:O; 9. Find the polyphase components G,,(z) and G,(z). (12)

(b) Consider the following specifications of a 50-fold decimation filter: (15)

Passnband edge frequency 70Hz
Stopband edge frequency 80Hz
Input sampling frequency 8 kHz
Passband ripple 0.0 I
Stopband ripple 0.01
Design a two stage decimator with the given specifications. Compute the
multiplications per second (MPS) and total storage requirement (TSR) of the designed
two stage decimator and compare them with that of a single stage implementation.

(c) Verify the equivalence of the cascade configurations given in Fig. for Q. 3(c). (8)

lTIl-161(~~)}-
'-Iln)

?<-(o) -@]---f Ha-) 1-0~ lj:z(Il)

Contd P/3
 =3=
EEE 431

4. (a) Show that the following linear-phase FIR transfer function is a half-band filter: (8)
H(z) =4+12z.2 +llz.J +19z-' -9z.6

(b) Consider the multi-rate structure shown in Fig. for Q. 4(b) alongside the frequency

domain representation of the input signal and filters. (17)

I{,~) '!O (<!J

H, (?-) j,C" )
t xCi'? t t1.(/~ l' H,C()~)

A
1

-"'K" -If 0
'2.- -If -[ 0 -[ 1f

Sketch the spectra of r;,(e''") and r;(e''").

(c) Develop an expression for the output signal y(n) as a function of the input signal

x(n) for the multi-rate structure given in Fig. for Q. 4(c). (10)

SECTION -8
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.

5. (a) If x(n) is a white Gaussian noise with pxk'")= 1, then show that the variance of the

periodogram is independent of the data length. (20)

(b) Consider an all-pole system with the system function H(z)=

1+
I 1 ( ) .k
Gp k z
'

where the sum is evaluated for k = 1,2,...,p. Draw the lattice structure for this system. (15)

Contd P/4
 =4=
EEE 431
Conld ... Q. NO.6

6. (a) Derive the expression of the expected value of the periodogram estimate USing
Welch's method and show that Welch's method is an asymptotically unbiased estimate

of the power spectrum. (20)

(b) Let x(n) be an AR(l) random process with an autocorrelation r, (k) = _1_2 a1kj,
I-a

where lal < I. Derive the expression for the minimum variance (MY) spectral estimate. (15)

7. (a) Let x(n) be an AR(l) random process with an autocorrelation

,
r, = (]'""2
I-a
[I,a.a2 , ••• ,aJ' r. Derive the expression of reflection coefficient associated

with this vector of auto correlations. Here W(n) represents white Gaussian input with

variance (]'2.,. (20)

(b) Briefly describe how audio signal compression can be perfomled using wavelets. (15)

8. (a) With necessary equations, describe the Pisarenko method for harmonic
decomposition. Assume that the minimum eigenvalue of the autocorrelation matrix is

Ami" = (]'2.,. Here W(n) represents white Gaussian input with variance (]'2w. (20)
(b) Write the expressions for I-level Haar wavelets. Express the detail coefficients in

terms of the wavelets and the input signal vector. (15)

'.'

L-4/T-2/EEE Date: 28/312022

BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T -2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 2019-2020

Sub: EEE 437 (Wireless Communications)

Full Marks: 210 Time: 3 Hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION
--------"---------------------------- -------- --_ -----
SECTION -A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
All symbols have their usual meanings.

I. (a) Starting from the received signal of each branch, derive the expressions of average
SNR and outage probability for selection combining of M branches. (12)
(b) Assume that the required SNR and the average SNR per branch are equal. For
MRC, (10)
(i) show that the outage probability is zero if the number of antennas is
infinity and
(ii) determine the minimum number of required antennas to achieve an outage
probability less than 10%.
(c) Explain the operation of OFDM with a block diagram. Also state and justify the
bounds on the block length of OFDM. (13)

2. (a) Starting from the input-output relation of flat fading MIMO charU1el,show that the
maximum capacity of a full rank MIMO channel is M times than that of a SISO
channel if channel matrix is unknown to transmitter but known to receiver, where M
is the number of transmit as well as receive antennas. (18)
(b) Derive the expression of the upper bound of the average symbol error probability
under high SNR regime for M received signals with MRC if the M channel gains are
independent and ZMCSCG random variables with unit variance. Then derive the
upper and lower bound of the average symbol error probability for MIMO channel
with transmit antenna diversity if the channel is known to the transmitter and the
receIver. (17)

3. (a) Distinguish among coding gain, diversity gain and spatial multiplexing. Briefly
describe the D-BLAST encoding technique for spatial multiplexing. (18)
(b) Briefly describe the rate adaptation, ICIC and carrier aggregation features of LTE. (17)

4. (a) The channel bandwidth of an FDD cellular system with LTE is 5 MHz. Suppose,
the downlink to uplink bandwidth allocation ratio is 3:2, the total number of users is
100, and data transmission rate for each resource block is 10 Mbps. Determine (i) the
number of resource elements in the system with normal CP, (ii) the maximum number
of users for uplink and downlink that can be supported in one frame, and (iii) the
average throughput capacity of each user under round robin scheduling. (15)

Contd P/2
 =2=
EEE 437
Contd ... O. NO.3

(b) Consider a 3-user COMA uplink cellular system with chip sequences of user-I,
user-2 and user-3 are CI = [-I, I. -1,1], C2 = [-I, -I, I, I] and C3 = [-1, I, I, -I],
respectively. The received amplitudes from the user-], user-2 and user-3 are 60 V,
100 V and 80 V, respectively. The chip-wise received signal (voltage) value at the
receiver is found to be [-40, 250, -80, 110] V for a bit duration, where it is assumed
that the signal level does not change in a chip duration. Determine the decoded bits of
the users under (i) linear decorrelator detector and (ii) SIC detector. (20)

SECTION - B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
Answer in brief and to the point. Make reasonable assumptions on any missing information.

5. (a) Explain the three mechanisms of radio wave propagation. (9)

(b) Derive the expression of received power at a receiver in a wireless communication
system considering two-way ground reflection model. (12)
(c) In a wireless communication system, a transmitter transmits a power of lOW.
Antenna gains of the transmitter and the receiver are 6 dB and 4 dB, respectively.
Received power at a reference distance of 50m is 0.5W. Path-loss exponent is equal
to 4. Shadow-fading is log normally distributed with a mean of zero dB and a
standard deviation of 8dB. The receiver is located at a distance equal to 1.5 km from
the transmitter. Consider a shadow fading effect equal to -1OdB. The recei vel' requires
a minimum power of -30dBm for proper communication. Calculate the (i) received
power at the receiver, and (ii) the probability that the received power is less than the
required minimum power. (14)

6. (a) Explain what you understand by the terms "Frequency selective fast fading
channel" and "Frequency selective slow fading channel". (8)
(b) The joint probabilities of inputs and outputs ofa channel is given by the following
matrix. (12)
y, Yo
Xl [ 0.5 0.25 ]
'P(X, Y) = X2 0 0.125
X3 0.0625 0.0625

Calculate the - (i) joint entropy, (ii) mutual information, and (iii) channel capacity. If
the sampling rate of the communication system is 8kHz, calculate the channel
capacity in bits/second.
(c) The power delay profile of a wireless channel is shown in Fig. for Q. No 6(c).
Transmitted signal over this channel has a bandwidth of 180 kHz. Calculate the - (i)
average delay spread, (ii) RMS delay spread, and (iii) coherence bandwidth. Also,
comment on the type of small-scale fading that will be faced by the transmitted
signal. (15)
Contd P/3
•

=3=
EEE 437
Contd ... Q. No.G(c)
P,(T)

o dB - ... _. - _. - _. -. - - -- ..-- _. -_. -_. --- - -.- -_. -'.

-10 dB
-20 dB
-30 dB .- ..__ _- " -. __ _-. __ ._-.

o 50 75 100 T(nano seconds)

Fig. for Q. No. 6'c)

7. (a) Define the channel capacity of a wireless flat fading channel with a constraint of
transmit power where both CD! and CSI are known at both the transmitter and the

receiver. Now explain in details how this channel capacity can be achieved. (15)
(b) Consider a flat-fading channel with i.i.d. channel gain gi, which can take on three
possible values: gl = 0.05, with probability PI = 0.1, g2 = 0.5 with probability
pz = 0.5, and g3 = I with probability P3 = 0.4. CD! is known at both the transmitter
and the receiver. However, the knowledge of CSI is only available at the receiver.
The transmit power IS 10m W, the noise power spectral density IS

No = 10,9 W/Hz, and the channel bandwidth is 30 KHz. Find the capacity versus
outage for this channel, and find the average rate correctly received for outage

probabilities Pout < 0.1, Pout = 0.1 and pout = 0.6. (20)

8. (a) Name three performance criteria for characterizing the symbol error probability of
digital modulations in fading channels. Define them and discuss their appropriateness
in different channel scenarios. (15)
(b) First, derive the exact expression of symbol error rate for QPSK modulation.
Then, derive the expression of average symbol error rate for QPSK modulation

considering a Rayleigh fading channel. (20)

L-4/T-2/EEE Date: 20/312022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T-2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 2019-2020

Sub: EEE 441 (Telecommunication Engineering)

Full Marks: 210 Time: 3 Hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION

SECTION -A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE.
All the symbols have their usual meanings. Assume reasonable values for missing data.

1. (a) What is side tone and why is it necessary for telephone circuit? With necessary
figures explain how side tone is maintained in a telephone circuit. (10)
(b) Distinguish between pulse dialing and tone dialing. Briefly discuss the five design
considerations for touch tone signaling. (17)
(c) Draw a telephone circuit and state what will happen during on-hook condition and
off-hook condition. (8)

2. (a) In a telephone network, Subscriber A is connected to Subscriber B through a local

exchange using 2-wire lines. How is it possible to achieve duplex communication
between subscribers? What are the functions of local exchange here? Now, consider
both subscribers are connected to respective local exchange and the two local
exchanges are connected through trunk exchanges. Draw the connection diagram and
show how the 2-wire line and 4-wire line can be used here and explain why two types
of lines are used and how the conversion is done. (IS)
(b) A step-by-step switching exchange consists of selector hunters and group selectors.
Suppose the calling subscriber is dialing the called party's telephone number (4651),
draw the corresponding trunking diagram for the connection (four-digit exchange) and
briefly state what happen when the calling party goes off-hook and starts dialing from
first digit and stops at last digit. (10)
(c) Write the benefits of SPC in telephone switching system naming the major control
functions. Draw a typical centralized SPC system and comment on how to ensure
better availability and reliability. (10)

3. (a) Single-stage space switch is strictly non-blocking but inefficient - justify the
statement mentioning other limitations also of single-stage switch. Explain how the
grading or multi-stage switching technique can overcome these limitations. (8)
(b) Draw a three-stage space switch with N number of inlets and N number of outlets.
Derive the expression of minimum number of crosspoints for a non-blocking three-
stage switching matrix. This non-blocking switch is not feasible for a large number of
lines, why and explain how to reduce the number of crosspoints. (IS)
Contd P/2
 =2=
EEE 441
Coutd ... Q. No.3

(c) Consider a three-stage space switch with total number of 1204 inlets which are sub-
divided into 32 blocks, calculate the total number of crosspoints for single-stage switch
and strictly non-blocking three-stage switch. If the probability of engagement of each
inlet (inlet utilization) is 20%, and the concentration factor (or space expansion factor)
is 0.3125, calculate the probability that an interstage link is busy, the blocking
probability of this network, and the total number of crosspoints for the network. (12)

4. (a) Find out the basic differences between space division switching and (analog and
digital) time division switching. With a neat sketch briefly describe the operation of a
digital memory switch. (15)
(b) Why is two-dimensional switching required? Show how multistage two-
dimensional switches can be achieved and write about their advantages. (10)
(c) Write short notes on (Anyone): (i) FSQ Communication, (ii) Distributed SPC. (10)

SECTION - B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
All the symbols have their usual meanings.

5. (a) Distinguish among lost call cleared system, lost call held system and delay system
in terms of functionalities, application scenarios and performance metrics. (12)
(b) Consider a group of 12 subscribers generates 30 calls during the busy hour in a
buffer less telecommunication system of 4 lines/channels. The average holding time of
a call is 3 minutes. A call is cleared immediately if it does not have service. Determine
the blocking probability of the system. (12)
(c) Briefly explain how a DTH system works. (11)

6. (a) Distinguish between basic user interface and primary user interface of ISDN. (12)
(b) Brief1y describe the signaling mechanism ofISDN. (12)
(c) With necessary diagram(s), describe the switching mechanism of ATM. (11)

7. (a) Draw the ATM protocol stack and briefly describe the functions of each layer. (17)
(b) Brief1y describe the differences between PDH and SDH. (18)

8. (a) What are RTP and RTCP? Why these protocols are used in VolP and why they are
used on the top ofUDP, not TCP? (8)
(b) Mention the components of a VoIP network and brief1y describe the functions of
each component. (15)
(c) Brief1y describe the operation of PON with architecture. (12)
L-4/T-2/EEE Date: 03/4/2022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T-2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 2019-2020

Sub: EEE 443 (Radar and Satellite Communications)

Full Marks: 2 I0 Time: 3 Hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION

SECTION -A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
Answer in brief and to the point. Symbols and abbreviations have their usual meanings.

1. (a) What is a radar? (2+8+7=17)

Draw the most common type of radar pulse signal and show the typical values of
peak power, pulse width, target return power, average power, PRl, t~,and its duty
cycle. Also, calculate the duty cycle of a continuous wave (CW) radar.
Determine the range equation for a radar. Define the maximum unambiguous range
and derive its equation. Using the derived equation, plot the maximum unambiguous
range versus the pulse repetition frequency, fp• (Use a linear scale and plot for t~=
1,000 Hz, 1,500 Hz and 2,000 Hz only).
(b) Define mono static and bistatic radars. Draw the block diagram of a modern
mono static radar system, and with brief statements, describe the basic principle of its
operation. (7+3+8=18)
What is the basic purpose of using modulation in a radar pulse? Name the various
pulse-modulated waveforms that can be used as radar pulses.
Describe the pulse compression technique used in radar target detection and mention
its advantages over the other methods.

2. (a) Write down the expression for the power density at a distance R from a directive
antenna transmitting a power of PI watts. Assuming a monostatic radar, also, derive
the ultimate received power, Pr, at the receiving antenna received from a target at a
distance R, in terms of the relevant parameters, G, Ae, and cr. Mention the typical
levels of radar cross-section (cr) for three common targets. Sketch the received power
versus range in a radar receiver embedded in noise and define the following terms:
Detection threshold (Smin),False alarm, Detected target, Missed target and rms Noise

level. (8+2+7=17)
(b) Define an antenna, and antenna pattern. What is a standard dipole? For such a

dipole, draw the antenna pattern in polar and linear plots. (6+5+7=18)
Draw the electric field lines inside, before, and after a horn antenna, as it
accomplishes radiation from a source to free space.

Contd P/2
 =2=

EEE 443
Could ... Q. NO.2(h)

Sketch a parabolic reflector antenna and show its feed and azimuth angle. Plot the
gain of such an antenna as a function of its aperture for various values of wavelength
and explain the curves.

3. (a) Classify radars in terms of their applications. (5+7+8=20)

Define a polarimetric radar. What are Jones vector and polarimetric scattering matrix

S? Write down the S-matrix for a linearly polarized radar system and explain the
various terms used.
With a neat sketch, describe the principle of a TDM-MIMO radar with three Tx and
three Rx antennas. Show the resulting Rx- Tx combinations and explain the
corresponding channel matrix, Hmn•

(b) Answer each of the following questions in brief.

(i) What are the benefits of using a dual-polarization radar for weather forecasting
applications?
(ii) What is the synthetic aperture radar (SAR)? With neat sketches, define the
unfocused and focused SARs.
(iii) Name the various propagation effects on radar performance.
(Iv) How can a modern radar distinguish between a stationary object and a moving
target?
(v) What is a phased array antenna? What is the added advantages of using such an
antenna?
(vi) What are the purposes of coherent and non-coherent integration of radar pulses?

4. (a) Draw the simplified diagram of a CIA code generator used on OI'S satellites and
mention the function of each block. (6+9=15)
Also, draw the simplified block diagram of a single channel correlator used for the
OI'S receiver, and explain how it extracts the 50 bps navigation signal correctly.
(b) Consider the case where 1001'S satellites are visible at any given time and
interference with the wanted signal is limited to nine overhead CDMA signals. The
received power level for a typical CIA signal from an early OI'S satellite is shown in
the following table. (20)
Table for Q.4(b): Downlink budget for OI'S CIA code signal.

Satellite EIRI' 26.8 dBW

Path loss 186.8 dB
Receive antenna gain o dB
Received power, 1', -160.0 dBW

Contd 1'/3
 =3=

EEE 443
Conld ... Q. No.4(b)

(i) Compute the CNR without and with the interference from the nine overlaid
CDMA signals, and comment on the corresponding CNR values.
(ii) Next, compute the CNR for one GPS C/ A code signal with the nine
interfering signals.
(iii) Assuming an ideal correlator compute the SNR of the correlated CIA
signal in a bandwidth of 1 kHz.
(iv) Determine the effective SNR, when the BPSK filter bandwidth is reduced
towards 50 Hz, after acquiring the GPS satellite signal. Comment on the bit
errors in a 50 bps navigation signal.
Assume: For BPSK modulation, the bit rates of the CIA code = 1.023 MHz; the
receiver IF noise bandwidth = 2 MHz. System Noise Temperature = 273°K, and the
signals are all received with equal power.

SECTION -B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
All the symbols have their usual meanings. Assume reasonable values for missing data.

5. (a) What is communication satellite? What is the tactic of launching a satellite and

how does it stay in orbit? Why is station-keeping necessary? (10)

(b) Draw the block diagram of a satellite communication subsystem and briefly

describe its operation. (10)

(c) With suitable examples compare among communication satellite, navigation

satellite and weather satellite. (15)

6. (a) Name the components/equipment of a satellite and explain why it reqUIres

reaction wheels, star trackers, thermal control and propulsion system. (10)
(b) With neat sketches define the elevation angle, coverage angle, look angle, the

subsatellite point and the satellite footprint. (12)

(c) What is escape velocity? Derive the equation of escape velocity of an object
(satellite) on earth. Also, derive the expression of velocity of an orbiting satellite and

calculate its altitude considering it as geostationary satellite. (13)

Contd P/4
 l

=4=

EEE 443

7. (a) According to altitude of satellites, classify the satellite orbits with a neat figure
identifying Van Allen radiation belts. Briefly comment on the relative advantages and

disadvantages of those satellites in terms of altitude wise position. (15)

(b) Draw the basic functional block diagram of a digital earth station and explain the

operation of reception side only. (10)

(c) An earth station antenna has a diameter of 30 m, an aperture efficiency of 70%,
and is used to receive a signal at 4150 MHz. At this frequency, the LNA noise
temperature is 500K, clear air atmospheric gaseous absorption is 1 dB, and rain
causes I dB attenution when the antenna points at the satellite at an elevation angle of
28°. What is the earth station G/T ratio under these conditions? Also calculate the
noise power increased due to rain. Assume 90% coupling of sky noise into antenna

noise and the temperature of the medium to be 2700K. (10)

8. (a) Draw the simplified diagram of a transponder of communication satellite for C

band and explain its operation. (9)

(b) What is GMSPCS and what type of satellite is used for that? Briefly describe the

mobile satellite communication network: INMARSA Tor MobileSet. (11)

(c) A C-band satellite at a distance of 37,600 km from a point on the earth's surface
transmits a power of 20 W with an antenna having a gain of 20 dB in the direction of
the receiver. The satellite operates at a frequency of 6.0 GHz. The receiving antenna
has an effective area of 20 m2• Consider the attenuation of atmosphere as 5 dB and
miscellaneous loss as I dB. Calculate the path loss (in dB) and the received power (in
dBW). If the noise bandwidth is 30 MHz and system noise temperature is 100 oK at

the receiver, calculate the CIN in dB. (15)

L-4rr-2/EEE Date: 03/4/2022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T-2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 2019-2020

Sub: EEE 451 (Processing and Fabrication Technology)

Full Marks: 210 Time: 3 Hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION
-_._-----------~--------~--~~--------,-----_. .- --~~~-

SECTION -A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
Symbols have their usual meanings. Assume any values, if missing.

1. (a) Describe, in detail, the Deal-Grove model for oxidation. Briefly explain, how you

can calculate the activation energies of A and B. What is the significance of or? (17+4+4)
(b) Draw the full schematic diagram of a dry oxidation system. (10)

2. (a) A wafer is implanted with sulfur at an energy of 100 KeV and a dose of 1 x 1013
cm-2. The water has a 500A-thick layer of AIGaAs on top of GaAs-bulk substrate.
Assuming the epi-layer AlGaAs behaves just like conventional GaAs-bulk, calculate
the following- (25)
(i) the depth of the maximum sulfur concentration. [assume Rp = 750A ,
I'iRp = 400 A]
(ii) the concentration at that peak point.
Will most of the sulfur remain in AlGaAs-epi or GaAs-bulk? Plot the log of
concentration versus depth and answer why.
(b) Explain the diffusion of zinc in GaAs, and its "kink-behaviour" with proper

diagram. (10)

3. (a) Explain how thermal annealing improves the crystal quality in p-doping ofGaN. (12)
(b) Explain briefly, why the redistribution of impurities at high temperatures is often
undesirable. How do rapid thermal processes help in this regard? Why a big-sized
oven is not suitable for this situation? How would you design an RTA chamber? (7+3+3+7)
(c) Why has little research done on rapid thermal oxidation in wet ambient? (3)

4. (a) Discuss, in detail, the thermodynamics of vapor phase growth. How does the

growth rate depend on temperature (R vs. Yr)? (17+3)

(b) Discuss the issues of temperature measurement under vacuum conditions
(e.g. MBE, RTP). (15)

Contd P/2
 •
•
=2=
EEE 451

SECTION -B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
The notations have their usual meanings.

5. (a) Compare between wet etching and dry etching. (10)

(b) How does selectivity affect etchant choices? Why anisotropic etching IS

preferred? (12)
(c) Compare between two techniques of residual removal after etching - wet chemical
versus dry RIE. (13)

6. (a) Discuss APCVD with proper figures. (15)

(b) Suppose a company BANGLAFAB has its R&D lab at ECE building, West
Palashi Campus, BUET. You are the manager. A second company from Darjeeling,
BIMAL, hires you to run their APCVD facility. You find several problems in running
the facility as you did with similar equipment with BANGLAFAB. List the issues you

think those are creating the problems and explain why. (10)
(c) How does LPCVD offer better alternatives to APCVD? (10)

7. (a) Explain how "resolution" depends on the choice of developer solution and

photoresist. What other things can be done to improve resolution? (15)

(b) What are the cleanroom contaminants? (8)
(c) Make some comments on hotspot detection using neural networks as is used in

lithography. (12)

8. (a) Write a short note on fabrication issues related to CMOS and MEMS as two

different realms. (15)

(b) Write a short note on non-optical lithography techniques that extend the

conventional UV and deep-UV methods of exposure. (10)

(c) How does MBE differ from MOCVD? (10)
L-4/T -2/EEE Date: 28/3/2022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T -2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 20 I9-2020

Sub: EEE 457 (VLSI Circuits and Design II)

Full Marks: 2 I 0 Time: 3 Hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION
---------------------------------------_._----_._---_ .•.__ ._-----
SECTION-A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
All symbols have their usual meanings. Assume reasonable values for missing data.

I. (a) Explain how dynamic voltage and frequency scaling are used to reduce power
dissipation of a digital device. (5)
(b) A digital chip is fabricated in a 65 nm process with a supply voltage of 1.0 V and
it contains I billion transistors of which 50 million are logic transistors and the rest
are memory transistors. Average width of logic transistors are 121- with activity factor
0.1 while average width of memory transistors are 4/" with activity factor 0.02. Two
types of threshold voltage are available: nominal VI and high VI' High V, transistors
are used in all memories and 95% of the logic gates. Subthreshold leakage of nominal
V, transistors are I00 nA/~m and high V, transistors are I0 nA/~m. Gate leakage of
all transistors are 5 nAhlm. All transistors have gate capacitance of I fF/~m and
diffusion capacitance of 0.8 fF/~lm. Calculate the static and dynamic power
dissipation of the chip. (20)
(c) Draw the cross-sectional diagram of a CMOS inverter showing NMOS and PMOS
transistors in a twin well sub-micron CMOS process. Identify the LDD, side wall
spacer, Shallow trench isolation, NWELL, PWELL, Metal I, via and Metal2. (10)

2. (a) Explain the following terms of static timing analysis: (i) Positive unate, (ii)
Negative unate, (iii) Non-unate (4)
(b) The circuit in Fig. for Q. 2(b) shows the source clock pin CLK which supplies
clock signal to three different destinations viz. CLKA, CLKB and CLKC. The rise
latency and fall latency of each buffer and inverter connected in the path is shown in
the Fig. for Q. No. 2(b). All timing parameters are in ns. (15)
(i) Calculate the minimum, maximum and average clock latency
(ii) Calculate the clock skew between CLKA, CLKB and CLKC for both rising and
falling case of the source clock CLK.

Rise=8 Rise=8 Rise=8 Rise=8 ClKA

Jl
ClKD
Fall =5 Fall =5 Fall =5 Fall =5

Rise=8 Rise=8 ClKS

Fall =5 Fall =5

Rise=8 ClKC
Fall =5

Fig. for Q No. 2(b)

Contd P/2
 =2=
EEE 457
Contd ... Q. No.2

(c) A register-transfer level circuit shown in the Fig. for Q.No.2(c). Calculate setup
slack and hold slack. The following data are given: (16)
Max data path delay = 13.002 ns
Min data path delay = 0.802 ns
Setup time constraint of FF = 0.046 ns
Hold time constraint of FF = 1.046 ns

I Source clock signal timing parameters:

" Max Edge = 2.002 ns
Min Edge = 8.002 ns
Max clock path delay = 0.002 ns
Min clock path delay = 0.002 ns

Destination clock Signal timing parameters:

Max Edge = 2.020 ns
Min Edge = 20.02 ns
Max clock path delay = 0.500 ns
Min clock path delay = 0.500 ns

Hold constraint (1,046 os)

Setup constraint (0046 ns)

o o •

ClK ClK
.
Fig. for Q NO.2 (cl

3. (a) Explain the difference between Data Types Logic, Reg and Wire In System
Veril~. (~
(b) A counter counts 0,2,4,7,0,2 and so on. (14)
(i) Write Veri log code of flat testbench of the counter finite state machine.
(ii) Suppose that you have to write a layered test bench of the counter. Write interface
construct of the counter FSM incorporating Modport and Clocking block.
(c) The following shows a Universal Verification Methodology (UVM) sequencer
code (IS)
Class mem_sequencer extends uvm_sequencer#(mem_seq item)
uvm_sequencer_utils(mem_sequencer)
function new (string name, uvm_component parent);
super.new (name, parent);
endfunction : new
endclass
In the above code
(i) What is the relationship between mem_ sequencer and uvm _ sequencer?
(ii) What does the keyword uvm_sequencer_utils indicates?
(iii) Why the keyword super is used here? What does it indicate?

Contd P/3
 =3=
EEE 457

4. (a) The figure below (Fig. for Q. No.4) shows a multi cycle MIPS microarchitecture.
Consider the instruction: (20)
Add $1 $2 $3
Explain the step by step operation performed by the hardware to implement the above
instruction with specifically mentioning the followings:
(i) What are the values of control signals generated by the control unit for this
instruction?
(ii) Which resources (blocks) perform a useful function for this instruction? Which
resources produce no output for this instruction?

ClK

lorD
MemWr Ite
Control pcs
Unit
IRWrlt8u Al enrol
31:26 op
. Funct
It.

ClK C K

WE In
1
A RD o
Inst/Data
Memory

WD

Immx4

peNon

Fig. for Q. NO.4

(b) Different execution units and blocks of digital logic have different latencies. In
Fig. for Q. NO.4 there are six kind of major blocks. Latencies of blocks along the
critical path for an instruction determine the minimum latency of that instruction.
Assume the following resource latencies (15)
Inst/Data Mux (2 Register ALU Control FF
Memory input, 4 File Unit
input)
400 ps 30 ps 200 ps 120 ps 100 ps 25 ps

(i) What is the critical path for a MIPS ADD instruction? What is the latency of the
instruction?
(ii) What is the critical path for a MIPS LOAD instruction? What is the latency of the
instruction?

Contd P/4
 =4=
EEE 457

SECTION -B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
All the symbols have their usual meanings. Assume reasonable values for missing data.

5. (a) Discuss about the monotonicity condition of dynamic logic gates. Mention how
this condition can be addressed by domino and dual-rail domino gates. (15)
(b) The path from the data cache to the register file of a microprocessor involves 500
ps of gate delay and 500 ps of wire delay along a interconnect wire. The transistors
are scaled using constant filed scaling and the wires with ideal scaling (scaled in both
lateral and vertical dimensions) to a new process generation with a scaling factor of2. (20)
(i) Estimate the gate and wire delays of the path. By how much did the overall delay
improve?
(ii) If the switching (dynamic) power dissipation of the microprocessor was lOW
before scaling, what would be the switching power dissipation after scaling?
(iii) What would be the switching power dissipation density after scaling?

6. (a) The Figure for Q. 6(a) shows a multistage logic network built with different types
of gates. Estimate the minimum delay of the path from A to B and choose gate sizes
(x and y) to achieve this effect. (15)
x

y
x

A 8
"J 45
X
Y
B 45

"J
Figure for Q. 6(a)
(b) Consider two POSitive binary numbers A = [110 Ih, B = [1OOOh are to be
multiplied using modified both algorithm. Show the partial products and then
compute the result of the multiplication. Show the modified Booth algorithm control
circuit implementation. (20)

7. (a) Explain how progressive sizing and input re-ordering can help in the design of fast
complex gates. (15)
(b) Explain the write and read operations of 6 transistors CMOS SRAM memory cell
and discuss the significance of including sense amplifier blocks in the architecture. (20)

8. (a) Prove that for the minimum-size repeaters to be useful for improving wire delay,
the RC constant of the wire must be at least seven times the delay of a minimum-size
buffer. (15)

Contd P/5
 =5=
EEE 457
Contd ... Q. No.8

(b) Suppose an ALU self-bypass path is modified to use two-phase transparent latches
where a mid-cycle ~2 latch is placed after the adder, as shown in the Figure for Q.
8(b). The delay contributions of different circuit elements are shown in the Table for
Q. 8(b). Assume the early bypass multiplexer is not on the critical path. The latches
have a setup time of 40 ps. a hold time of 5 ps, a clk-to-Q propagation delay of 82 ps
and contamination delay of 52 ps, and a D-to-Q propagation delay of 82 ps. (20)
(i) Compute the minimum cycle time for the path.
(ii) How much time is borrowed through the mid-cycle latch at this cycle time? If the
cycle time is increased to 2000 ps, how much time is borrowed?

01

.r:
u
Srcl °2 LogiCals
2 mm ALUI
Shifter
16 Sum ALU2
oJ ~
2 mm Bypass
Src2 j
ALU6
Resull Regnle Dcadl91
Adder Mux Dcadl92
Middle Imm
Bypass
late
Mux
Bypass
Mux
Early
Bypass
Mux
Figure for Q. 8(b)

Element Propagation Delay Contamination Delay

Adder I 590 ps 100 ps
Result Mux 60 ps 35 ps
Early Bypass Mux 110 ps 95 ps
Middle Bypass Mux 80 ps 55 ps
Late Bypass Mux I 70 ps 45 ps
2-mm Wire I 100 ps 65 ps
Table for Q. 8(b)
•
L-4ff -2fEEE Date: 17/04/2022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T-2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 2019-2020

Sub: EEE 459 (Optoelectronics)

Full Marks: 2 I0 Time: 3 Hours
The figures in the margin indicate full marks.
The symbols have their usual meanings. Make necessary assumptions
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION
------------------------------------------

SECTION-A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE.

I. (a) Draw PL spectral measurement set-up of semiconductors and explain PL spectra of

GaAs and GaP semiconductors. With necessary diagrams, discuss the procedures to
estimate the band gap of these semiconductors from absorption and PL spectra. Compare
the accuracy of the band gap obtained from the two different methods. (20)
(b) Draw quantum efficiency and peak emission wavelength versus alloy composition for
GaAsl_xPx with and without isoelectronic impurity. Why do quantum efficiency and

wavelength modify with isoelectronic trap centre? Explain. (15)

2. (a) Discuss transitions in an ideal four level laser system and write the rate equations.
Draw and explain the population inversion and laser power output as a function of pump
rale. Show the emission pattern below, above and at threshold condition. (20)
(b) An InGaAsP DFB laser operates at 1550 nm. Suppose that the effective refractive index
n '" 3.5 and the cavity length is 60 J.Im.What should be the corrugation period A for a first
order grating, q = I? What is A for a second-order grating, q = 2? How many corrugations
are needed for a first order grating? How many corrugations are there for q = 2? (15)

3. (a) Draw and explain optical gain curve as a function of photon energy for an InGaAsP
(1550 nm) active layer with different amounts of injected carrier concentration. What
happens to the peak gain as the LD current (and hence the injected carrier concentration)
is increased? Compare the current at transparency and threshold condition in laser diode.
(b) What is Birefringence? Explain Pockels effect? (20)
Suppose that we have a glass rectangular block of thickness (d) 50 ~lm and length (L)
20 mm and we wish to use the Kerr effect to implement a phase modulator in a fashion
illustrated in Fig. for Q. 3(b). Note that d is the sample dimension along z, the applied
field, and L is the sample length along y, the direction of light propagation. The input
light has been polarized parallel to the applied field Ea direction, along the z-axis.
15 2
Assume that the glass medium has a Kerr coefficient, K = 3 x 10- m V- . What is the

applied voltage that induces a phase change of nl2 (quarter-wave length)? (15)

Contd P/2
 =2=

EEE 459

InpUI OUIPUl
liglll lighl

Fig. for Q••••••.

No.3 (b): A Kerr cell phase modulator.

4. (a) With suitable diagram explain various factors those affect solar cell efficiency. Design
a heterojunction solar cell using GaAs and Si semiconductors. Draw energy band
diagram and explain the merits and demerits of such structures in terms of expected

efficiency, FF, and Voc performance parameters. (20)

(b) A solar cell under an illumination of 300 W m-2 has a short circuit current Isc of

60 rnA and an open circuit output voltage Voc of 0.60 V. What are the short circuit

current and open circuit voltage when the light intensity is 600 W m-2? Assume 11 = I. (15)

SECTION -8
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE.

5. (a) Design a double-heterostructure (DH) light emitting diode (LED) structure that emits
red light. With necessary band diagrams, describe the operation of your designed DH LED
and explain the significance of different layers used in the structure. How the drawbacks

of homojunction LED are overcome in DH LED? (20)

(b) The Varshni constants for GaAs are Ego= 1.520 eV, A = 5.41 x 10-4 eV K-1, B = 204 K. (15)
(i) What is the peak emission wavelength from a GaAs LED at 25°C?
(ii) Find the shift in the peak wavelength emitted from this LED when it is cooled
down from 25°c to -35°C.
(iii) What are the linewidths between half intensity points at temperatures 25°C, O°C,

and 35°C?

Contd P/3
 =3=
EEE 459
6. (a) Draw the schematic of DH edge emlttmg LED (ELED) structure. Discuss the
properties of typical materials used in confining and cladding layers of these LEDs. Write
down the advantages of ELED over surface emitting LED. With necessary diagrams,
discuss two kind of lens systems that can be used to couple emitted radiation from ELED

into a fiber. (20)

(b) A particular 890 nm IR LED for use in instrumentation has a AIGaAs chip. The active
17 3
region is doped p-type with 4xlO cm- of acceptors and the nonradiative lifetime is

-60 ns. At a forward current of 52 rnA, the voltage across it is 1.4 V, and the emitted
optical power is 10m W. Calculate (i) radiative efficiency, (ii) external quantum
efficiency, (iii) extraction efficiency, and (iv) power conversion efficiency. For AIGaAs,
16
the coefficient for band-to-band recombination, Br", Ix10- m\-I. (15)

7. (a) Propose two device structures that improves light extraction ratio in LED. Describe

your proposed structures with necessary schematics. (10)

(b) Draw the band diagrams and I-V characteristics of a pn junction for (i) photovoltaic
and (ii) photodiode mode of operations. What are advantages of Schottky junction

photodiodes over pn and pin photodiodes? (13)

(c) A Si pin photodiode has an active light receiving area of diameter 0.5 mm. When

radiation of wavelength 720 nm and intensity 0.1 m Wcm -2 is incident, it generates a

photo current of 60 nA. What are the responsivity and the external quantum efficiency of

the photo diode at 720 nm? (12)

8. (a) With necessary schematic and band diagrams, describe the operation of a SAGM
APD. What is advantages of SAGM APD over SAM APD? Discuss the merits and

demerits of super lattice APDs. (15)

(b) A Si APD hasd a QE of60% at 800 nm in the absence of multiplication. The APD is
biased to operate with a multiplication of 100. If the incident optical power is 20 nW,

what is the photo current? (7)

(c) What is noise equivalent power (NEP) ofa photodiode? A Sipin photodiode has NEP
13 lI2
of2x10- WHz- . What optical signal power it needs for a signal to noise ratio (SNR)

of I if the bandwidth of operation is 4 GHz? (13)

L-4/T -2/EEE Date: 20/03/2022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T-2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 2019-2020

Sub: EEE 461 (Semiconductor and Nano Device)

Full Marks: 210 Time: 3 Hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks.
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION

SECTION -A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE.

1. (a) What happens to the initial energy and momentum of an electron after it is scattered
by an interface defect between two materials? (8)
(b) Derive an expression for the net exchange of energy due to interactions between
electron and phonon. (15)
(c) Compare silicon and gallium arsenic materials in designing detectors. (12)

2. (a) Why does an absorption spectrum broaden when electrons make transitions between
two sub bands in the conduction band? How does temperature affect broadening of a
transition spectrum? (10)
(b) How is the light absorption spectrum used to determine the internal electronic
structure of materials? Explain. (13)
(c) Derive the electron transition rate from an initial state i to a final state f due to a
perturbing potential given by Vocosrot. (12)

3. (a) Can the electronic transport between source and drain in a graphene nano-ribbon FET
be ballistic? Explain. (10)
(b) An electron is in the ground state ofa GaAs quantum well of width 30 nm, which can
be treated as an infinitely deep one-dimensional system. Suddenly the middle 10 nm
becomes 120 meV deeper. Use the golden rule to derive an expression for the rate at
which electron scatters into the second, third and fourth states. (12)
(c) Define oscillator strength of an electron transition due to light. How the oscillator
strength of a quantum well can be increased? (13)

4. (a) How data can be stored in a flash memory device for a sufficiently long time? (10)
(b) Explain how sub-atomic imaging resolution is achieved using a tunneling electron
mIcroscope. (12)
(c) Derive the transmission coefficient of a double barrier structure. What is the condition
for resonance? (13)
Contd P/2
 =2=

EEE 461
SECTION-B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE.
The symbols have their usual meanings.

5. (a) For a diatomic molecule, obtain the expression of E-K relation in one dimension
applying tight binding model. Based on your derivation, show that the parabolic nature of
E-K relation is retained near to the bottom of the band. (20)
(b) Consider an I-D chain of atom where the lattice vibration is characterized by an
5 I
elastic constant of2.2 x 10 cm-s- . The lattice constant and mass of the atoms are 5.4 AD
27
and 28 amu respectively, where 1 amu = 1.665 x 10- kg. In the dispersion less
propagation regime, what is the velocity of wave propagation in the medium? Also
calculate the frequency above which the propagation of phonon vibrational modes is
strongly attenuated in the medium. Do you expect to observe the Reststrahlen effect in
this medium? (15)

6. (a) Consider a diatomic molecule AB where masses of the elements A and Bare mA and

mIl, respectively where mA > mIl. Derive the phonon dispersion relation for this system.
Based on your derivation, obtain the expression of the velocity of sound in this medium.
Also calculate the frequency of phonon vibration near the edge of the Brillouin zones. (20)
(b) Consider the time dependent Shrodinger equation in three-dimension. For a free
particle, show the solution of this equation is a plane wave propagating in free space.
How is this solution modified when the particle resides in a crystal lattice? (15)

7. (a) Consider a GaAs-AIGaAs based single quantum-well which has a single energy state
EI and a corresponding wavefunction IVI. Suppose this quantum-well is brought under

the influence of a small electric field Ex. Based on time-independent perturbation theory,
derive the expression of the second order corrected energy state and wavefunction for this
system. Also show that the energy state and wavefunction reduce to their unpertubed
values when the applied field is set to zero. (20)
(b) Consider the following experimental observations where light having wavelengths
ranging from 20-1 00 ~m is incident onto three different crystals of diatomic molecules. (15)
• No strong reflection oflight occurs from the sample of molecule AB
• Weak reflection oflight occurs from the sample of molecule CD
• Very strong reflection oflight occurs from the sample of molecule EF
Based on your knowledge of lattice vibration, comment on the ionicity of the molecules
AB, CD and EF. From the measured results, is it possible to obtain the elastic constant of
the material?
Contd P/3
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EEE 461

8. (a) Based on the harmonic oscillator model, derive the expression of internal energy and
specific heat of a materia!. Also define Einstein's temperature based on your derivation

and comment on the validity of the model in the low and high temperature limits. (20)
(b) 'In the degenerate limit, distribution of electrons can be approximated as a step function'
- do you agree with this statement? Provide necessary justification of your answer. Also

comment on the nature of the distribution function in the non-degenerate limit. (15)
\.
L-4rr -2/EEE Date: 17/04/2022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T -2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 2019-2020

Sub: EEE 483 (High Voltage Engineering)

Full Marks: 210 Time: 3 Hours
The figures in the margin indicate full marks.
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION

SECTION-A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE.
All the symbols have their usual meanings. Assume reasonable values for missing data.

I. (a) John Townsend studied variation of gas current measured between two parallel plate
electrodes as a function of applied voltage. Discuss his findings and observations. Why
did he introduce an ionization coefficient? What is the relationship between the ionization
coefficient and mean free path of electron? (17)
(b) Discuss various ionization and deionization process in gas and how these affect high
voltage breakdown of gas. (18)

2. (a) Current due to increased ionization in gases can be represented by the following, (15)
ad
1= 10 e .

A graph of current against gap length (d) should yield a straight line of slope a at
constant pressure and field strength. However, when measuring current in parallel plate
gaps Townsend observed that at higher voltages current increased more rapidly, as shown
in Fig. 2(a). Write down the current equation as modified by Townsend. What was
Townsend's explanation of the non-linearity at higher voltages? What is the weakness of
Townsend's explanation?

I
I
I

Electrode spacing

Fig.2(a)

(b) Discuss the influence of space charge on gaseous breakdown for both positive and
negative point-plane gap. (12)
(c) What is Paschen's law? What is the relationship between Paschen's curve and
Townsend breakdown criterion? (8)
Contd P/2
 =2=

EEE 483

3. (a) Explain the use of sphere gap as a high voltage measurement device. Why it cannot be
used as an RMS measurement device? What principle would you suggest for a HY rms

measuring device? (13)

(b) Why geometry of a spark gap is a decisive factor for its application? When and why
irradiation used in sphere-gap voltage measurements? What factors influence sphere-gap

breakdown voltage? (10)

(c) Write briefly on the principal sources of errors in Chubb-Fortescue method of high

voltage measuring circuit. (12)

4. (a) What is insulation coordination? Discuss the statistical approach to insulation

coordination. (20)
(b) How would you correlate between insulation level and protection level, and assess

insulation failure risk? (15)

SECTION -B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE.
The symbols have their usual meanings.

5. (a) With neat diagram, describe the working principle of Cockcroft- Walton type

multiplier circuit arrangement for generation of HYDC. Find the ripple of this circuit. (20)
(b) A Cockcroft-Walton type voltage multiplier has eight stages with capacitance, all
equal to 0.05 ~IF. The supply transformer secondary voltage is 125 kYat a frequency of

150 Hz. If the load current to be supplied is 5 rnA, find (15)

(i) the percentage ripple
(ii) the regulation
(iii) the optimum number of stages for minimum regulation on voltage drop

6. (a) Draw the basic circuit of cascaded transformers for high AC voltage generation and

explain the operation in brief. (17)

(b) Describe the working principle of a single-stage impulse generator by deriving the
expression for voltage, the time for voltage rise to peak value, and the voltage efficiency

of the generator. (18)

Contd P/3
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EEE 483

7. What are the factors that influence breakdown in pure liquid dielectrics and in
commercial liquid dielectrics? Explain in brief the suspended particle mechanism and

cavity breakdown mechanism for liquid dielectrics. (10+13+12)

8. (a) Explain edge breakdown and treeing mechanism in case of solid dielectrics. (10)
(b) Describe how electromechanical breakdown occurs in solid dielectrics. (10)
(c) A solid dielectric specimen of dielectric constant 4.0 shown in the Fig. for Q. 8(c) has
an internal void of thickness 1.1 mm. The specimen is 1 cm thick and is subjected to a
voltage of90 kV (rms). If the void is filled with air and the breakdown strength of air can

be taken as 30 kV (peak)/cm, find the voltage at which internal discharge can occur. (15)

- -~-
- -It" 1.1 DUD
I
1 em

L
Fig. for Q. 8(c)
L-4/T-2/EEE Date: 03/412022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T-2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 2019-2020

Sub: EEE 487 (Nuclear Power Engineering)

Full Marks: 2 I 0 Time: 3 Hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION
_ .•.•._--------------- -----_ ...•.•.•.•. _--"-,----- ---------- ----_ .._---_ .•.__ ._-----
SECTION -A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
All the symbols and abbreviations have their usual significance.

I. (a) Describe the various steps of spent fuel management in the back end of a closed-
loop nuclear fuel cycle. (15)
(b) Given that the rate of fission in terms of fuel mass is 1.11 g/MWt/day in a 1000
MWe nuclear power plant with 33% efficiency. If the density of the resulting waste
(fission products) is 10,000 kg/m3 estimate the volume of the waste generated due to
one year's operation of the plant. (10)
(c) Explain SWU (Separative Work Unit) in relation to the enrichment process of
natural uranium. (10)

2. (a) Explain fuel criticality and neutron criticality in order to sustain a chain reaction.
If in a reactor the neutron production, absorption and leakage rate for a fuel assembly
- - 4
are respectively 5.2 x 10' nls, 4.0 x 10' nls and 6 x 10 n/s, calculate the value of
reactivity of the reactor. Is the value acceptable? (12)
(b) What is auxiliary system of an NPP? List various components of the auxiliary
system. (10)
(c) What is I&C system of an NPP? What are its main functions? (8)
(d) What are the various power sources that are usually deployed in a Class 1E
subsystem? (5)

(a) Discuss various factors that require a reliable grid system for connecting an NPP. (20)
(b) In a power system with a peak demand of 10,000MW, a 1000 MWe nuclear
power plant is running along with other generators. The total capacity of other
generators is 10,000 MW. What are the provisions that exist and what more are
required so that the system will remain stable in case the NPP trips? Explain
qualitatively. (15)

4. (a) Using a schematic diagram describe the operation of a typical ECCS. (17)
(b) Which parts of an ECCS work during normal or emergency shutdown of an NPP
and which parts work during an accident likely to cause core meltdown? (5)
(c) Explain how the Chernobyl NPP reactor accident did happen. (13)
Contd 1'/2
•

=2=
EEE 487

SECTION - B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.

5. (a) Show a comparison chart between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. (5)
(b) Explain the nuclear reaction process using the concept of transmutation of

elements. What is binding energy? (15)

(c) What are the differences between electrostatic and nuclear forces? The decay
constant of radium (atomic mass = 226.095) is 1.3566 x 10.11 S.I. Find the half-life

and initial activity of I g ofradium-226. (15)

6. (a) What is thermal reactor criticality and neutron flux? (5)

(b) Describe the process of electrical power production in a nuclear power plant. (15)
(c) What are the usages of waste heat from a nuclear power plant? Discuss in detail

the district heating mechanism using the waste heat. (15)

7. (a) What is Generation IV nuclear reactor? Write down the key features of various

types of Generation IV reactors. (15)

(b) Describe the factors to ascertain the economic feasibility of a nuclear power plant. (10)
(c) What is small modular reactor (SMR)? Briefly mention the different design

concepts of SMR. (10)

8. (a) Explain the nexus between hydrogen and electricity. State the role of next

generation reactors in hydrogen economy. (10)

(b) With necessary illustration, describe the utilization of very high temperature

reactor for hydrogen production. (15)

(c) Draw the basic layouts of BWR type and PWR type nuclear power plants. What

are the main differences between these two reactors? (10)

L-4/T-2/EEE Date: 2013/2022
BANGLADESH UNIVERSITY OF ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY, DHAKA
L-4/T -2 B. Sc. Engineering Examinations 20 I9-2020

Sub: EEE 489 (Smart Grid)

Full Marks: 2 I 0 Time: 3 Hours

The figures in the margin indicate full marks
USE SEPARATE SCRIPTS FOR EACH SECTION

SECTION -A
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.
All the symbols and abbreviations have their usual meanings.

I. (a) A wind turbine driven and gear coupled synchronous generator rated 2 MW and
1800 rpm having the characteristics shown below is used as a DER. The generator is
interfaced with the grid through back to back VSCs. It was operating at point "A" in a
wind speed of 11 m/s. Due to a high frequency on the network, the grid operator
requests a reduction of the wind turbine output by 20 per cent so that new operating
point could be either "B" or "C". Which one should be selected as the new operating
point and why? If at rated speed the frequency modulation index of the wind turbine
side VSC is 30, determine the modulation index required to reduce the wind turbine
power output? (20)

1.4

1.2
Pilch angle
control,
,/ X =: ""..
.,_' '.

~
_1,3 mi.

~/
b 0.8
11 mi. "
i C
~ 0.6 Electronle control for

0.4
maximum power
extraction
:
,
: - - - ...,8
~.
--:-----~10mi.
mfs ""..
'"
"-

0.2
m
6 1.7~mI.
S I
'>-_. ~
I
••••..
~
" ~

0.2 0,4 0.6 0.6 1 . 1.2

Generator rotational5pQed (pu)

Fig. for Q. I(a)

(b) What are "Prosumers"? Discuss their impacts on grid operation. (15)
2. (a) A distribution substation has 3 outgoing feeders. The feeder wise customer number,
annual outage frequency and outage duration (minutes) are respectively (1000, 2, 100),
(750, I, 60) and (500, 3, 125). Determine SAIFI, SAIDI and AS AI in appropriate units
for this substation. Will these indices improve if the number of feeders is increased
either at planning stage or through auto-reconfiguration or sectionalization at operating

stage keeping the total number of customers served by the substation same? Why? (20)
(b) What is grid hardening and how can it be implemented? (15)
Contd P/2
 =2=
EEE 489

3. (a) What are "net metering" and "feed in tariff metering". (5)
(b) In the context of smart grid define the scope of HAN, NAN, SCADA and Utility
WAN. List the communication technologies that can be deployed in each of these? (20)
(c) Briet1y discuss the PLC technology. (10)

4. (a) Briefly discuss the application areas of the following protocols in a power system
or smart grid. (15)
IEC 62056, lEC 61850, ANSI CI2.22, Modbus, DNP3
(b) Explain the important factors for assessment of communication protocols for smart
meeting. (12)
(c) How does a DCU operate in a smart grid? (8)

SECTION -B
There are FOUR questions in this section. Answer any THREE questions.

5. (a) Define a smart grid. (5)

(b) What are the operational constraints in a traditional grid? What are the solutions to
these constraints? How can a smart grid help achieving these solutions? (15)
(c) Provide an overview of the technologies required for the implementation of a smart
grid. (15)

6. (a) With a functional block diagram, briet1y describe the operation of a smart meter.
What are the major differences between conventional prepayment meter and the
visionary smart meter? (10)
(b) What is AM!? How does it work together with customer system for demand side
management? (10)
(c) How do battery energy storage systems mitigate the uncertainties of variable
renewable generation? Write down the key features of commonly used battery energy
storage systems. (15)

7. (a) Define demand-side management, demand response, demand-side participation and

demand-side integration (OS!). What is the relationship between OS! and smart
metering? (10)
(b) With necessary illustration, explain the major services provided by OS!. (10)
(c) Describe the various schemes for price-based and incentive-based OS!
implementations. (15)

8. (a) Describe the factors that affect the charging speed ofEV batteries. (10)
(b) How can DSl support in the frequency control ofa smart grid? (5)
(c) With a block diagram, describe the hierarchical control and islanded mode
operation of a typical micro grid. (20)