Accrual Valuation and Mark To Market Adjustment: Alexey Bakshaev February 22, 2016
Accrual Valuation and Mark To Market Adjustment: Alexey Bakshaev February 22, 2016
Accrual Valuation and Mark To Market Adjustment: Alexey Bakshaev February 22, 2016
Alexey Bakshaev
alex.bakshaev@gmail.com
Abstract
arXiv:1602.06189v1 [q-fin.PR] 18 Feb 2016
1 Introduction
1.1 Types of valuation
Financial accounting requires that valuation of a trade must at least reflect trade eco-
nomics. At best, the market value is either known and can be applied directly, or can
be derived via certain proxies like comparables or hedges that replicate the trade. The
most basic way to value an interest flow receivable in the future is to linearly accrue its
value over the waiting time. Consider 1 of notional we lend for a T amount of time at
a fixed interest rate of r. We will denote the year fraction since the start of the trade
t
until time t as ∆0t , e.g. 360 . Likewise, the year fraction from the start of the trade until
the interest payment at time T is ∆0T . We will accrue interest linearlly. Given that
∆0t
the payment amount is r∆0T and the linear portion of the period to date t is ∆ 0T
, the
∆0t
accrued portion of interest may be written as ∆0T ∗ r∆0T or simply r∆0t . The accrual-
based PV in that case is:
1
1.2 Cash trades and forward trades
1.2.1 Forwards
Forward trades are trades that start in the future. Continuing with the example above,
let’s assume that we lend 1 of notional on some future date t1 and get it back with fixed
rate rebate r on another future date t2 (t0 = 0 < t1 < t2 ). We will drop t from notation
for the sake of brevity, so the interest paid on date t2 (accrued over the period t1 to t2 )
is written as r∆1,2 . In this case, discounted cash flow valuation may be written as:
P VDCF = −1 ∗ DF0,1 + (1 + r∆1,2 ) ∗ DF0,2 (3)
Extending (1) for a forward-starting case, we can define accrual-based valuation as:
0
if t < t1
P Vaccr = 1 + r∆t1 ,t if t1 < t < t2 (4)
0 if t >= t2
This piecewise definition of accrual-based valuation follows from a simple economic prin-
ciple: if the trade starts in the future (t0 < t1 ), we have not yet started to accrue interest,
hence, accrual valuation will be giving 0 accrued value by definition. This means that
until the accrual period starts, accrual-based valuation will yield zero PNL and flat valu-
ation at P Vaccr = 1. However, this is not the case with the DCF-based apporach. It will
be subject to time decay (theta) and revaluation at market rates (delta) from the trade
booking date. It will be explained more clearly in due course of this paper. Another
important observation is that accrual-based valuation does not depend on market rates:
it is driven only by trade parameters (accrual period length and rate) and the relative
position of valuation date with respect to accrual period.
Interest is assumed to be paid on trade maturity date, so accrual goes to 0 at this mo-
ment. Since the principal is also paid at maturity, entire accrual valuation (1) will go to
0 at and past the maturity date. This is equivalent to transforming a security asset to
cash, so we don’t have the security on the balance anymore, just cash. DCF valuation
also goes to zero since we assume that the discounting factor on the maturity date is 0
(DFt=T = 0). Below is the depiction of the accrued amount in time.
Accrual
Forward trade Cash trade
r∆12
0 1 2 T ime
2
1.2.2 ”Cash” trades
”Cash” trades are the trades that are already started (t1 <= t). Accrual-based valuation
is in line with (1) and (4). We may re-write DCF valuation as:
P VDCF = (1 + r∆1,2 ) ∗ DFt,2 (5)
2 Forwards valuation
Following the fixed rate example above, let’s prove a simple lemma that introduces the
notion of equivalence of DCF and spread-based valuations. LHS is a DCF valuation
formula (3), RHS is a spread-based valuation formula P Vspread−based = [r − z12 ] ∗ ∆1,2 ∗
DF0,2
Lemma 1. DCF valuation and spread-based valuations are equivalent:
− 1 ∗ DF0,1 + (1 + r∆1,2 ) ∗ DF0,2 ≡ [r − z12 ] ∗ ∆1,2 ∗ DF0,2 (6)
Proof. Let z12 be the forward rate from the start date to maturity. By definition:
1
DF1,2 = (7)
1 + z12 ∆12
DF0,2 DF0,1
At the same time, DF1,2 = DF0,1 . From this follows that 1 + z12 ∆12 = DF0,2 . Substitut-
ing DF0,1 in (3) we get:
P VDCF = −1 ∗ (1 + z12 ∆12 ) ∗ DF0,2 + [1 + r12 ∆12 ] ∗ DF0,2 = [r − z12 ] ∗ ∆1,2 ∗ DF0,2 (8)
3
Numerical example 1. Trader’s view of forward pricing
Consider a tomorrow-next (TN) interest at maturity trade with the nominal of
1000000 done at 500bps. Let the TN market rate be 300bps, ON market rate be 200
bps. What is the value?
We would use Taylor-approximation of the spead based valuation that we explained in
(11):
Let’s now apply Taylor approximation (9) to the MtM component, removing the second-
order components. Note that rz∆0,t ∆t,T is also a second-order component.
1 + r∆t,T − r∆0,t z∆t,T
r∆0,t + ∼ r∆0,t + (1 + r∆t,T − rz∆0,t ∆t,T )(1 − z∆t,T ) ∼
1 + z∆t,T
r∆0,t + 1 + r∆t,T − rz∆0,t ∆t,T − z∆t,T − rz(∆t,T )2 + rz 2 ∆0,t (∆t,T )2 ∼ (16)
1 + r∆0,t + (r − z)∆t,T +o(z∆)
| {z } | {z }
P Vaccr (1) MtM Adjustment (11)
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M tM Adjustment ∼ (r − z)∆t,T (17)
4 Greeks
Based on (16) let’s derive the basic Greeks that define the PNL. Recollect that ∆0,t =
t−t0 T −t
360 , ∆t,T = 360
∂P V r r z z
ϑ= ∼ − + ∼
∂t 360 360 360 360 (18)
∂P V
%= ∼ −∆t,T
∂z
• ϑ (”theta”) addresses sensitivity to time decay t. First-order dependency is on the
market rate. It shows the market cost of carrying 1 day of notional over to the
next day. We may as well re-write ϑ as the sum of accrued and mtm components:
z r z r
ϑ∼ ∼ +( − ) (19)
360 360
|{z} | 360 {z 360 }
Accrued MtM adjustment
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discFact - a vector of daily discounting factors for each day in daysRemaining object
accrued - a vector of daily accrued amounts
PV - a vector of DCF-based PVs (one PV per day)
mtmAdj - a vector of mark-to-market adjustments (11)
PVTaylor - a vector of Taylor-approximated PVs, see (16)
unexplained - a vector of the difference between DCF PV and Taylor-approx PV
We will assume the market rate of 700 bps which is intentionally higher than the trade
rate of 500 bps (1M of notional for 10 days) to get the negative mtm adjustment (it is
more instructive this way). This market rate of 700 bps will be constant each day for
the sake of simplicity. Below is the R code that calculates valuation for the above.
Executing this code in the R environment yields the following PNL simulation:
• Accrual linearly increasing which reflects the coupon amount being linearly recog-
nized
• Negative MtM adjustment reflects the fact that the market rate of 700bps is higher
than the trade rate of 500 bps. It decreases with time as the valuation date t gets
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closer to the expiration date T , since the mtm component is scaled by the duration
multiple of ∆t,T . This is in line with sensitivity % (duration) to the market rate z
which is exactly that: −∆t,T
• Since the market rate is not changing, there is no % attribution. The entire daily
PnL is explained by time decay ϑ ∼ 1000000 ∗ 0.07/360 ∼ 194.44 (18). This
highlights a very important point. While PNL attribution is purely theta-driven,
it might be split into the accrual component and the mark-to-market component
which depend on the trade rate and the curve rate, respectively. Following (19)
we get the following theta components:
r
ϑaccr ∼ ∼ 1000000 ∗ 0.05/360 ∼ 138.89
360
z−r (20)
ϑM tM ∼ ∼ 1000000 ∗ (0.07 − 0.05)/360 ∼ 55.56
360
5 Generalizaions
5.1 Floating rates
Let’s now assume the valuation of a single-period forward-starting floating trade. In the
formula (8) we need to replace the fixed trade rate r with a floating rate f and a fixed
spread s. Taylor approximation will be written as:
In the case of zero spread s = 0, so the valuation of such forward period is 0. This is
easily understood, as we both forecast and discount over the period with the same rate.
The amount we pay at time 1 (notional amount) will be equal to the discounted (to time
1+z12 ∆1,2
1) value of the flow we receive at point 2, so −1 + 1+z12 ∆1,2 =0.
In the case of LIBOR forecasting and OIS discounting we will get PV depending on
LIBOR to OIS spread f12 − z12
Once the rate is fixed f12 = r, valuation will be equivalent to (14).
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we assume that the money can be withdrawn on the valuation date) with no mark-to-
market adjustment.
Another extreme case is forward rate agreements (FRAs). Those are forward trades
that pay at the beginning of the period. While they stay forward, valuation is driven
by the mark-to-market adjustment. However, once a FRA pays, the MtM adjustment
component disappears entirelly. Since we received the interest at the beginning of the
period, we need to defer it. The explaination of that is provided in the next paragraph.
[r − f12 ] ∗ ∆1,2
P VFt1RA = (23)
1 + f12 ∆1,2
[r − f12 ] ∗ ∆1,2
P VF RA = ∗ DF0,1 (24)
1 + f12 ∆1,2
Applying Taylor approximation (9) to this formula gives us the same approximation
as in (12), which tells us that FRA valuation is a purely mark-to-market adjustment -
driven (17):
P VF RA ∼ [r − f12 ] ∗ ∆1,2 (25)
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P Vaccr
1 + r∆12
1
0 1 2 T ime
CashP os
r∆12
0 1 2 T ime
-1
NPV
r∆12
0 1 2 T ime
As can be seen, NPV gives the notion of linarly increasing interest income that remains
constant after the coupon payment date is achived.
5.5 Deferral
With FRA we would like to linearly recognize the income over the FRA period. This
means that we need to offset the interest payment received at the beginning of the period
with the deferral amount so that the net of those would equate to linearly increasing
accrual. We can define deferral as:
0
if t < t1
Def erral = −r∆t,T if t1 < t < t2 (26)
0 if t >= t2
−t
where −r∆t,T is −r T360 .
It can be seen that the sum of the coupon and deferral would form the profile equivalent
to linear accrual.
Def erral + Coupon = Accrual (27)
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The graph below depicts that.
Def erral CashP os
r∆12
1 2 T ime 1 2 T ime
-r∆12
Income
r∆12
1 2 T ime
6 Conclusion
Using Taylor approximation helps to bridge the gap between accrual and mark-to-market
valuation. We can see that PV may be split into accrual and mark-to-market adjust-
ment components. Similarly, theta can be viewed as the sum of the accrued and MtM
component.
We see that the forward valuation formula (6) turns into the mark-to-market adjustment
for trades that began to accrue interest. The less time remains until trade expiration,
the less effect mark-to-market effect has on valuation. This makes sense since the risk
(duration) decreases with time to maturity.
7 Literature
• Options, futures, and other derivatives / John C. Hull
• Fixed Income Securities: Tools for Today’s Markets 3rd Edition / Bruce Tuckman,
Angel Serrat
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