ASN Senior Secondary Senior School

MAYUR VIHAR- 1, DELHI-110091

SCIENCE
CLASS - IX

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 SCIENCE WORKBOOK
CLASS IX
SESSION 2023-24
PHYSICS

S.No Chapter Name Chapter Number

1 Motion 8
2 Force & Laws of Motion 9
3 Gravitation 10
4 Work & Energy 11
5 Sound 12
Practice Set 1
Practice Set 2

CHEMISTRY

S.No Chapter Name Chapter Number

1 Matter in our surroundings

2 Is Matter Around Us Pure
3 Atoms and Molecules
4 Structure of Atom

BIOLOGY

S.No Chapter Name Chapter Number

1 The Fundamental Unit of Life

2
3
4

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 CHAPTER - 8 (MOTION)

Keywords

1. Motion-: Change in place with respect to time.

2. Scalar& vector- Quantities having only magnitude are termed as scalar. Where as Quantities
having both magnitude and direction are termed as vector.
3. Distance: is the actual path between the initial and final position travelled by the object. While
displacement is the shortest distance between initial and final position
4. Uniform Motion: When the object travels equal distance in equal interval of time.
5. Non uniform motion: When the object travels unequal distance in equal interval of time.
6. Speed & Velocity- distance travelled per unit time is speed , Where as displacement per unit time
is velocity.
7. Acceleration- Rate of change of velocity.
8. Uniform circular Motion- object moving in a circular track.

Type I (Recall & Process Questions)

Q.1. The direction of acceleration is the same as the direction of _______.

(a) displacement
(b) change in velocity
(c) velocity
(d) all of these
Q.2. The area under a velocity-time graph gives __________.
(a) distance
(b) acceleration
(c) speed
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 (d) displacement

Q.3. ________can be added algebraically.

(a) Accelerations
(b) Velocities
(c) Distances
(d) Any physical quantities

Q.4. A physical quantity which has both magnitude and direction is called a _______.
(a) scalar quantity
(b) vector quantity
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) either (a) or (b)

Q.5. The distance-time graph of a body moving along a straight path in a single direction with uniform
speed will be _____.
(a) along X-axis
(b) a line with positive slope
(c) parallel to X-axis
(d) None of these

Q.6. If a body travels unequal distances in equal intervals of time along a _______ path, the body is said
to be in ___________.
(a) curved, uniform motion
(b) pentagonal, uniform motion
(c) rectangular, uniform motion
(d) straight, non-uniform motion

Q.7. A freely falling body is said to be moving with _____.

(a) constant non-zero acceleration
(b) non-uniform motion
(c) zero velocity
(d) non-uniform acceleration

Q.8. A body travels along a straight path from its initial position to a point 20 m away and then returns
back to its initial position. The change in the position of the body is ____ and the distance travelled
is ______.
(a) 20 m, 40 m
(b) 0 m, 40 m
(c) 40 m, 40 m
(d) 0 m, 0 m

Q.9. The slope of a velocity-time graph gives __________.

(a) distance
(b) speed
(c) acceleration
(d) displacement

Q.10. The position-time graph of a body is parabolic, then the body is ______.
(a) in non-uniform motion
(b) in uniform acceleration
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 (c) at rest with some initial distance covered
(d) at rest with zero initial distance covered

Q.11. A body travelling equal distances in equal intervals of time is said to be moving with uniform
velocity if the body moves along a _________ path.
(a) straight
(b) rectangular
(c) circular
(d) hexagonal

Q.12. The slope of a distance-time graph gives _______.

(a) displacement
(b) acceleration
(c) velocity
(d) speed

Q.13. If a body travels equal distances in equal intervals of time, then_______.

(a) the body is moving with uniform velocity
(b) the body is moving with uniform acceleration
(c) the body may be moving with uniform velocity
(d) the body is moving with uniform deceleration

Q.14. The distance-time graph of the motion of a body is parallel to X-axis, then the body is ______.
(a) at rest with zero initial distance covered
(b) at rest with some initial distance covered
(c) in non-uniform motion
(d) uniform acceleration

Q.15. If the particle completes one rotation along a circular track having radius 14 m in 44 seconds then
the value of speed it’s speed is…
a) 1 m/s.
b) 2 m/s.
c) 3 m/s.
d) 4 m/s

Type II (Closed Questions)

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true

1. Assertion : An object may acquire acceleration even if it is moving at a constant speed.

Reason : With change in the direction of motion, an object can acquire acceleration.

2.Assertion : Displacement of an object may be zero even if the distance covered by it is not zero.
Reason : Displacement is the shortest distance between the initial and final position.
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3.Assertion : Velocity versus time graph of a particle in uniform motion along a straight path is a line
parallel to the time axis.
Reason : In uniform motion the velocity of a particle increases as the square of the time elapsed

4. Assertion : An object may have acceleration even if it is moving with uniform speed.
Reason : An object may be moving with uniform speed but it may be changing its direction of motion.

5. Assertion : Motion with uniform velocity is always along a straight line path.
Reason : In uniform velocity, speed is the magnitude of the velocity and is equal to the instantaneous
velocity.

6. Assertion : When the displacement of a body is directly proportional to the square of the time. Then
the body is moving with uniform acceleration.
Reason : The slope of velocity-time graph with time axis gives acceleration

Type III (Probing based Questions)

Find the words listed below. Find the words listed below.
 Displacement
 Acceleration
 Distance

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  Force
 Gravity
 Inertia
 Mass
 Momentum
 Newton
 Speed
 Terminal Velocity
 Unbalanced
 Weight

Type IV (Competency based Questions)

1. The velocity time graph of an ascending passenger lift is given below. What is the acceleration of the
lift: (i) during the first two seconds (ii) between 2nd and 10th second (iii) during the last two seconds

2. The figure is the distance-time graph of an object. Do you think it represents a real situation? If so,
why? If not, why not?

3. Study the speed-time graph of a body shown in below figure and answer the following

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 questions:
(a) What type of motion is represented by OA?
(b) What type of motion is represented by AB?
(c) What type of motion is represented by BC?
(d) Calculate the acceleration of the body.
(e) Calculate the retardation of the body.
(f) Calculate the distance travelled by the body from A to B.

4. A car is moving on a straight road with uniform acceleration. The speed of the car varies with time as
follows:

Draw the speed time graph choosing a convenient scale. Determine from it the following:
(i) the acceleration of the car (ii) the distance travelled by the car in 10 sec

5.The following velocity- time graph shows the motion of a two wheelerist. Find its acceleration,
velocity and distance travelled in 15 seconds.

Type V (FAQ)
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1. An object starting from rest travels 20 m in first 2 s and 160 m in next 4 s. What will be the
velocity after 7 s from the start.

2. An electron moving with a velocity of 5 × 104 m/s enters into a uniform electric field and acquires
a uniform acceleration of 104 m/s2 in the direction of its initial motion. (i) Calculate the time in
which the electron would acquire a velocity double of its initial velocity. (ii) How much distance
the electron would cover in this time.

3. Obtain a relation for the distance travelled by an object moving with a uniform acceleration in the
interval between 4th and 5th seconds.

4. Two stones are thrown vertically upwards simultaneously with their initial velocities u1 and u2
respectively. Prove that the heights reached by them would be in the ratio of 2 2 1 2 u u: ( Assume
upward acceleration is –g and downward acceleration to be +g )

5. An object is dropped from rest at a height of 150 m and simultaneously another object is dropped
from rest at a height 100 m. What is the difference in their heights after 2 s if both the objects drop
with same accelerations? How does the difference in heights vary with time?

6. A particle is moving up an inclined plane. Its velocity changes from 15m/s to 10m/s in 2s. What is
its acceleration?

7. A body covered a distance of z metre along a semicircular path. Calculate the magnitude of
displacement of the body, and the ratio of distance to displacement?

8. A train is travelling at a speed of 60km/h. Brakes are applied so as to produce a uniform

acceleration of -0.5m/s^2. Find how far the train will go before it is brought to rest?

9. A truck covers 30km at a uniform speed of 30km/h. What should be its speed for the next 90km if
the average speed for the entire journey is 60km/h?

10. A person goes to market, makes purchases and comes back at a constant slower speed. Draw
displacement-time and velocity – time graphs of the person?

11. John runs for 10 min. at a uniform speed 9km/h. At what speed should he run for the next 20 min.
so that the average speed comes 12km/h?

12. A particle with a velocity of 2m/s at t=0 moves along a straight line with a constant acceleration of
0.2m/s^2. Find the displacement of the particle in 10s?

13. Derive graphically the three equations of motion.

14. Difference between:

a) Scalar and vector
b) Acceleration and retardation
c) Distance and displacement
d) Speed and velocity
e) Uniform and non uniform motion

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15. Define the term- Uniform circular motion.

16. The displacement of a moving object in a given interval of time is zero. Would the distance
travelled by the object also be zero? Justify you answer.

17. A car starts from rest and moves along the x-axis with constant acceleration 5 m/s2 for 8 seconds.
If it then continues with constant velocity, what distance will the car cover in 12 seconds since it
started from the rest.

18. A motorcyclist drives from A to B with a uniform speed of 30 km/h and returns back with a speed
of 20 km/h. Find its average speed.

19. Draw a velocity versus time graph of a stone thrown vertically upwards and then coming
downwards after attaining the maximum height.

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 CHAPTER - 9 (FORCE & LAWS OF MOTION)

Keywords

1. Force: A push or a pull acting on a body which changes or tends to change the speed of the body
or direction of motion of the body
2. Newton's first law of motion -Everybody continuous to be in its state of rest or uniform motion in
a straight line unless compelled by some external force to change that state
3. Inertia - is the tendency of object to oppose any change in its state of rest or uniform motion
4. Newton's second law of motion -The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly
proportional to the force acting on the body and the change in momentum of a body takes place in
the direction of applied force
5. Newton's third law of motion- To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
6. Law of conservation of momentum -The total momentum of a system remains constant if no
external force act on the system.

Type I (Recall & Process Questions)

1. The S.I. unit of force is

I. Kgm/s
II. Kgm/s2
III. Newton
IV. Newton-meter

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2. What do we get by the product of mass and velocity?
I. Force
II. Inertia
III. Momentum
IV. Newton

3. The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to

I. Mass of the body
II. Velocity of the body
III. Net force applied on the body
IV. None of these

4. If two balls of same masses are dropped on sand, the depths of penetration is same if
I. Heavier ball is dropped faster than lighter ball
II. Lighter ball is dropped faster than heavier ball
III. The product ‘mv’ is same for both bodies
IV. None of these

5. A coin placed on a card(rested at the edges of the glass) remains at rest because of
I. Inertia of rest
II. Two forces act on the coin which balance each other
III. No unbalanced force acts on it
IV. All of these

6. A force of 50N moves a body,

I. Friction force exerted on the body is less than 50N
II. Friction force exerted on the body is more than 50N
III. None of these
IV. Both of I and II

7. A fielder giving a swing while catching a ball is an example of

I. Inertia
II. Momentum
III. Newton’s II law of motion
IV. Newton’s I law of motion

8. Action and reaction forces

I. Act on the same body
II. Act on different bodies
III. Act in same direction
IV. Both I and III

9. When we pedaling the bicycle it stops because

I. The earth’s gravitational force acts on it
II. It is not accelerated
III. No unbalanced force acts on it
IV. Frictional force acts on it

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10. A football and a stone has same mass
I. Both have same inertia
II. Both have same momentum
III. Both have different inertia
IV. Both have different momentum

11. In SI system, the gravitational unit of force is ________.

I. kg.m.s-2
II. kgf
III. m/s
IV. metre

12. Identify the force which cannot act without any physical contact.
I. frictional force
II. gravitational force
III. electrostatic force
IV. magnetic force

13. The frictional force that is dependent on the area of surfaces in contact is __________friction.
I. static
II. rolling
III. sliding
IV. kinetic
14. Which of the following objects has greater inertia? (consider that all these objects are of the same
size)
I. a thermocol ball
II. a plastic ball
III. a paper ball
IV. a solid iron ball

15. Which of the following statements is true about force?

I. It cannot be seen.
II. It can move a stationary body.
III. It can change the shape of a body.
IV. All of the above

Type II (Closed Questions)

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true

1. Assertion : If the net external force on the body is zero, then its acceleration is zero.
Reason : Acceleration does not depend on force.

2. Assertion : A rocket works on the principle of conservation of linear momentum.

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 Reason : For two bodies system when there is a change in momentum of one body, the same change
occurs in the momentum of the second body but in the opposite direction.

3. Assertion : A quick collision between two bodies is more violent than a slow collision, even when the
initial and the final velocities are identical.
Reason : Because the rate of change of momentum which determines the force is greater in the first
case.

4. Assertion : When a firefly hits a bus, each of them exerts the same force.
Reason : Firefly has more mass as compared to the windshield.

5. Assertion : A quick collision between two bodies is more violent than a slow collision, even when the
initial and the final velocities are identical.
Reason : The rate of change of momentum determines the force.

6. Assertion : From Newton’s second law of motion, impulse is equal to change in momentum.
Reason : Impulse and momentum have different SI units.

7. Assertion : While walking on ice, one should take small steps to avoid slipping.
Reason : This is because smaller steps ensure smaller friction.

Type III (Funnel based Questions)

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Type IV (Competency based Questions)

1. Two strings X and Y are tied to the two opposite faces of the block as shown in figure. If we apply a
force by pulling the string X, the block begins to move to the right. Similarly, if we pull the string Y,
the block moves to the left. But, if the block is pulled from both the sides with equal forces, the block
will not move. Such forces are called balanced forces and do not change the state of rest or of motion
of an object. Now, let us consider a situation in which two opposite forces of different magnitudes
pull the block. In this case, the block would begin to move in the direction of the greater force. Thus,
the two forces are not balanced and the unbalanced force acts in the direction the block moves. This
suggests that an unbalanced force acting on an object brings it in motion. Force is push or pull.
(i) Force is nothing but
(a)push
(b)pull
(c)both push or pulls
(d)none of the above
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 (ii) When balanced forces acting on moving object then
(a) Object continue to move with same speed
(b) Object will change its direction of motion
(c) Object will come to rest
(d) None of the above

(iii) When unbalanced force acts on moving object opposite to direction of motion then
(a) Object continue to move with same speed
(b) Object will come to rest
(c) Both can be possible

(iv) Differentiate between balanced and unbalanced force. give 3 points each .

(v) From above diagram if one person pull from Y rope with 10N force and another person pull
from X rope with 5N force. In which direction box will move? Is this a case of unbalanced
force or balance force?

2. The second law of motion is quantitative expression of force and it states that the rate of change of
momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of force.
Mathematically, F = ma, the unit of force is kg-m/s2 or Newton, which has the symbol N. The second
law of motion gives us a method to measure the force acting on an object as a product of its mass and
acceleration. Answer the following questions.

(i) SI unit of force is

(a) Newton
(b) Kg-m/s2
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above

(ii) The quantitative expression of force is given by

(a) First law of motion
(b) Second law of motion
(c) Third law of motion
(d) None of the above

(iii) Force is directly proportional to

(a) Acceleration of object
(b) Time for which force acts on object
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above

(iv) State second law of motion. State whether it is scalar or vector quantity

(v) Differentiate between first law and second law of motion. (give 3 points)

3. By observing the given figure, Explain the concept of F12= - F21.

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Type V (FAQ)

1. How much net force is required to accelerate a 1000kg car at 4m/s^2?

2. 2 A body of mass 1kg undergoes a change of velocity of 4m/s. what is the force acting if time in
10 min?

3. A particle of 10kg is moving in a constant acceleration 2m/s^2 starting from rest. What is its
momentum and velocity if time is 2s?

4. If a net force of 7N was constantly applied on 400g object at rest, how long will it take to raise its
velocity to 80m/s?

5. A driver accelerates his car first at the rate of 4m/s^2 and then at the rate of 8m/s^2. Calculate the
ratio of forces exerted by the engines?

6. A car starts from rest and acquire a velocity of 54km/h in 2s. Find
a) The acceleration
b) Distance travelled by car assume motion of car is uniform
c) If the mass of the car is 1000kg. what is the force acting on it?

7. A bullet of mass 1kg acquires a speed of 10m/s when pushed forward. What is the impulse given
to the object?

8. A bullet of mass 10g is fired with an initial velocity of 20m/s from a rifle of mass of 4kg.
Calculate the initial recoil velocity of the rifle?
9. Show thar:
a) F=ma
b) Total momentum =zero

10. Explain the three laws of Newton with the help of examples?

11. A car of mass 1200kg is moving with a velocity of 108km/h. On applying brakes, its velocity is
reduced to 36km/h. Find the change in momentum.

12. Derive graphically position-velocity equation.

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13. A cricket ball of mass 70g moving with a velocity of 0.5m/s is stopped by a player in 0.5s. What is
the force applied by the player to stop the ball?

14. A bullet of mass 10g strikes a wooden plank at a speed of 500m/s and gets embedded after
travelling 5cm. Calculate (i) the resistive force exerted by the wooden plank on the bullet (ii) the
time taken by the bullet to come to rest.

15. Derive an expression for the law of conservation of momentum.

16. Arrange the following speeds in decreasing order:

a. A train moving at a speed of 36km/h.
b. A runner running at a speed of 9m/s.
c. A car moving at a speed of 900m/minute.

17. Plot a displacement -time graph & velocity-time graph by taking values of your own choice and
calculate velocity as well as acceleration.

18. A circular cycle track has a circumference of 314m with AB as one of its diameter. A cyclist
travels from A to B along the circular path with a velocity of constant magnitude 15.7m/s. Find:
a) the distance moved by the cyclist.
b) the displacement of the cyclist if AB represents north-south direction.
c) the average velocity of the cyclist.
d) average acceleration of the cyclist.

CHAPTER - 10 (GRAVITATION)

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Keywords

1. Thrust – Force acting perpendicular to the surface

2. Pressure- force applied per unit area
3. Density – Mass/Volume
4. Relative Density – Density of object/Density of water
5. Gravitational force- force of attraction between two objects.
6. Universal law of gravitation- Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force
which is directly proportional to mass and inversely proportional to the square of distance between
them.
F= GMm/d^2
7. Centripetal force- center seeking force.
8. G- Universal gravitational force (6.67x 10^-11Nm^2/kg^2)
9. g - Acceleration due to gravity(9.8m/s^2)
10. weight= mxg
11. Mass- amount of matter contained in a body.
12. Upthrust= force in the upward direction, when the object is immersed in a fluid.
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 13. Weight on moon= weight on earth/6

Type I (Recall & Process Questions)

1. What is the units of relative density?

(a) kg/m3
(b) g/cm3
(c) g/m3
(d) no units

2. What is the mass per unit volume of a substance called?

(a) Pressure
(b) Force
(c) Night
(d) Density

3. Acceleration due to gravity of the Earth increases with

(a) decrease in the height from the surface of the Earth
(b) increase in the height from the surface of the Earth.
(c) increase in the depth from the surface of the Earth.
(d) increase in the temperature of the Earth.

4. The upthrust that acts on a body placed in a liquid is due to _____.

(a) the volume of the displaced liquid
(b) the volume of the body floating above the liquid
(c) the volume of body inside the liquid
(d) both a and c

5.The value of the universal gravitational constant is _______

(a) 6.67 x 10-11 Nm2/kg2
(b) 66.7 x 10-11 Nm2/kg2
(c) 0.6 x 10-11 Nm2/kg
(d) None of these

6. A cuboid is resting on a table in a way that its greater surface is in contact with the table. If its position
is changed, then the
(a) pressure applied by it on the table decreases.
(b) pressure applied by it on the table does not change.
(c) pressure applied by it on the table increases.
(d) Insufficient information.

7. Earth moves in a circular motion around the Sun because of ______force,

(a) frictional
(b) static
(c) applied
(d) gravitational
8. S.I Unit of pressure
(a) pascal
(b) dyne
(c) newton

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 (d) joule

9. Weight on earth is represented as

(a) w= mxg
(b) w= mxg/3
(c) w= mxg/6
(d) zero

10. An object floats if

(a) Density of object is less than water.
(b) Density of object is greater than water.
(c) centripetal force is more
(d) Gravity is more.

Type II (Closed Questions)

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true

1. Assertion : Universal gravitational constant G is a scalar quantity.

Reason : The value of G is same through out the universe.

2.Assertion : A man is sitting in a boat which floats on a pond. If the man drinks some water from the
pond, the level of water in the pond will decrease.
Reason : The weight of the liquid displaced by the body is greater than the weight of the body.

3. Assertion : Any two objects in the universe attract each other by a force called gravitation force.
Reason : The force of gravitation exerted by the earth is called gravity.

4.Assertion : An object floats if it displaces an amount of liquid whose weight is greater than the actual
weight of the object.
Reason : During floatation an object experiences no net force in the downward direction

5. Assertion : If we drop a stone and a sheet of paper from a balcony of first floor, then stone will reach
the ground first.
Reason : The resistance due to air depends on velocity only

6. Assertion : The density of a liquid depends upon the nature and temperature of the liquid.
Reason : The volume of the liquid depends upon temperature.

7.Assertion : It is the gravitational force exerted by the sun and the moon on the sea water that causes to
the formation of tides in the sea.
Reason : Gravitational force of attraction is a strong force.

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Type III (Fill in the blank Questions)

1. Gravitation is a __________ force unless it involves a large mass.

2. __________ is the quantity of matter contained in the body.

3. All objects experience __________ when they get immersed in a fluid.

4. The force of gravity __________ with altitude.

5. __________is the force acting on a body perpendicular to its surface.

6. __________ is the state when the object does not weigh anything during free fall.

7. __________ is responsible for formation of tides in the sea.

8. The motion of the moon around the earth is due to __________

9. The weight of the object at the centre of the earth is __________

10. The weight of the body ____________ from pole to equator.

11. Pressure is a __________ quantity.

Type IV (Competency based Questions)

1. The magnitude of zero error of the spring balance and least count of the measuring cylinder, shown
here, are, respectively :

2. Calculate the least count of spring balance, if spring balance has a range of 0-25 kg and consists of 10
divisions.
3. A measuring cylinder has 5 marks between 10 mL to 20 mL. What is its least count?
4. Study the given diagram and explain the conditions for float and sink?
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5. By observing the given diagram, Explain the application of pressure?

6. Explain the Archimedes Principle for the given application?

Type V (FAQ)

1. Define 1 Pascal.
2. What do you understand by the term Pressure? Give its applications.
3. Difference between density & relative density.
4. What will happen to the pressure if
a. Force is doubled
b. Area is reduced to half and tripled.
5. What will be the thrust for a body whose mass is 20gm.
6. State and derive the Universal law of gravitation.

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7. What do you understand by the term Centripetal force? Give its applications.
8. Difference between mass and weight.
9. What happens to the force of attraction between two objects if
a. Mass is doubled for both objects
b. Distance of separation is reduced to half and tripled
10. What will be the force of attraction between two objects of mass 20kg and 40kg if the distance of
separation between them is 1km?
11. What happens to the force of attraction between two objects when
a. Their masses are halved?
b. Distance between them is increased to 4 times its previous value.
12. What is the force between two spheres weighing 20kg each and placed 50cm apart?
13. Gravitational force between two objects on earth is 2N. What will be the gravitational force
between these two objects on the surface of the moon?
14. Calculate the gravitational force between a body of mass 100kg and the earth. Also calculate the
acceleration produced in the body and that in earth?
15. A body weighs 1kg on the surface of the moon. If the mass of the moon is 7.4X 1024 kg and the
radius of moon is 1740km. calculate
a. The force acting between the body and the moon
b. Acceleration produced in the body
c. Acceleration produced on moon
16. The mass of a man is 75kg. What will be his weight on the surface of earth? What will be his
weight on surface of moon?
17. Difference between mass and weight.
18. State and derive the Universal law of Gravitation.
19. Define- centripetal force and free fall.
20. Derive an expression for acceleration due to gravity when the object is on or near the surface of
the earth.

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 CHAPTER -11 (WORK & ENERGY)

KEYWORDS

1. Work - effort in the form of pull or a push.

2. Types of work -
Positive - force & displacement are in the same direction Negative - force and
displacement are in the opposite direction Zero - force is mutually perpendicular to
displacement.
3. Energy - ability to do work
4. Types of energy -
Kinetic energy- possessed by moving objects
Potential energy- possessed due to change in position/ configuration.
5. Law of conservation of energy - Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but it can be
transferred from one body to the other.
6. Power - rate of doing work
7. Mathematical expressions: w= f.s
K.E= ½ X mx v.v
P.E = mgh P= W/t or
E/t

24
Type I (Recall & Process Questions)

1. When a pebble tied to a thread is whirled in a circle, what type of work is done in the
given situation?
a) Positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) infinite
2. How will be the kinetic energy be affected if the velocity is increased by the factor of 4?
a) 16
b) 4
c) 2
d) 32
32

3. Two objects A and B are said to possess same momentum but unequal mass. Which of
the below statement holds true?
a) More mass less energy
b) Less mass possess more energy
c) Kinetic energy is inversely proportional to velocity
d) Kinetic energy is inversely proportional to mass

4. Ravi takes 2minute to raise a box to a height of 2 metre and Rohit takes 1 minute to
do the same. The energy spent by
a) Ravi is more
b) Ravi and Rohit are same
c) Rohit is more
d) Ravi is less

5. What will be the energy possessed by a moving object with 100g mass and moving
with 10cm/s
−3 3
a) 0.5 J b) 0.0005 J c) 5x 10 J d) 1 0 J

6. A stone of mass 1000g is thrown in a direction against gravity. As it rises, there is an

increase in its
a) Momentum
b) Retardation
c) Kinetic energy
d) Potential energy

7. The capacity of a body to do work can be measured by the using which of the following
units?
a) Metre
b) Kilogram
c) Seconds

25
 d) Joule
8. For which of the given situations work is not done?
a) Force is perpendicular to displacement
b) Force at an angle of zero to displacement
c) Force is in the direction of displacement
d) Force is opposite to the direction of motion

9. Identify the most appropriate relation

a) P = F.V
b) P = M/T
c) P= N/T
d) P = g.h/t

10.An object whose mass is m and has momentum p is said to possess an energy due to its
motion Then
a) K= mp
b) K= pxp/2m
c) K= pxpxp/m
d) K = mxm/2p

11.An electric engine of 4.9W is used to pump water from a well which is 20m deep.
What quantity of water in litres can it pump out in 30 minutes?
a) 44l b) 45l c) 25l d) 90l

12 . The rectangular component of a force is applied to move a box. One of the components is
7N .What should be the other component to obtain a resultant force of 25N.
a) 24N
b) 30N
c) 40N
d) 60N

13. A motor can pump 2000 litres of water to a height of 30metre in 10 minutes. What will
be the gravitational potential energy possessed by water for a particular height?
a) 600000J
b) 60000J
c) 6000 J
d) 360000 J

14. A car having mass 1000kg is moving with a a constant velocity . On the other hand a
bicycle of mass 500kg is moving with same velocity. Which of the given statement
justifies the given information.
a) Both will have same momentum
b) Both will have zero momentum
c) Bicycle will have more momentum
d) Car will have larger momentum as compare to the bicycle.

26
15. Calculate the electricity bill for the month of june if five bulbs of 20W each are used daily
for 5 hrs. Given rate if consumption per unit is Rs2.5?
a) Rs 37.5
b) Rs 30.5
c) Rs. 105
d) Rs 20

16.The weight of a person on planet X is about half as that of our planet. He can jump upto
0.4m high on the surface of the earth. How high can he jump on planet X?
a) 0.8m
b) 0.4m
c) 0.6m
d) 0.2m

17.Car A and B are having their masses in the ratio 1:4 and speed in the ratio 4:5. What will be
the kinetic energy possessed by car A with respect to car B?
a) 25:4
b) 4:25
c) 1:25
d) 25:1

18. The power of an electric motor is 20kw. How much water per minute can the pump raise
to a height of 10m?
a) 12kg
b) 120kg
c) 1200kg
d) 12000kg

19.A machine is used to raise a load of 700N through a height of 15m in 7 seconds.
What will be the power generated by the machine?
a) 1.5watt
b) 150watt
c) 1500watt
d) 1150watt

20. Two bodies A and B are having same weight and are kept at heights of h and 3h
respectively. The ratio of their potential energy is
a) 1:1
b) 1:2
c) 1:3
d) 2:2

21. Negative work is done when the angle between force and displacement is
a) 0
b) 30
c) 45
27
 d) 180

22.Which physical quantity is represented by the S.I unit J/S

a) Energy
b) Work
c) Momentum
d) Power

23. 15 units of energy is equivalent to joules

a) 54x10^6j
b) 5.4x10^6j
c) 5x10^7j
d) 55x10^6j

24.When a slinky is stretched by 2cm, its potential energy is 4J. If the slinky is stretched by
10cm, the new potential energy will be
a) 10J
b)100J
c)120J
d)140J
25. Work done by a satellite revolving around a planet is a) 0 b)
90 c) 180 d) 120
26. K.E is directly proportional to the square of
a) mass b) momentum c) time d) velocity
27. According to the law of conservation of energy
a) Energy can be created
b) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
c) Energy can only be destroyed
d) Energy can be destroyed and created
28. Commercial unit used by the electricity department for the consumption of electrical
energy is
a) KW
b) Kwh
c) KJ
d) J
29. Rate of doing work is termed as
a) Average power
b) Pressure
c) Power
d) Momentum
30. For the given example (burning of a fire cracker) , state the type of energy
transformation?
a) Chemical energy to heat, light and sound
b) Sound energy to chemical energy
c) Light energy to heat energy
d) Mechanical energy to sound energy.

28
Type II (Closed Questions)

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true

1. Assertion- work done by or against the force of gravity in moving a body from onr
position to the other is independent of the actual path between the two positions.
2. Assertion- The work done in a circular path is zero.
Reason- No force is required to move a body in a circular path
3. Assertion- Kinetic energy is always positive.
Reason- In the expression of K.E, velocity appears twice.
4. Assertion- Watt hour has units of energy.
Reason- Kilo watt hour is the unit of electrical power.

Type III (Funnel Questions)

Read the given clues and fill the blocks with appropriate words/term to complete the crossword
given below.

29
Type IV (Competency based Questions)

1. Study the diagram given below and follow the instructions for answering the questions.
- Go through the following two sets of diagrams and match the two by providing a suitable
heading for the given.
- Justify each heading by providing a suitable example keeping in view the concept of Law of
Conservation of energy.

2. Observe the given diagram and derive an expression for the energy possessed an object due to change in
position.

Type V (FAQ)

1. Find the energy in KWh consumed in 10 hours by a machine of power 500W.

1. What is the work done when force acting on the body and the displacement produced in the body are at
30
 right angles to each other?
2. A lamp consumes 100J of energy in 20s. What is its power?
3. Show that:
a) P.E=mgh
b) K.E=1/2mv^2
c) K.E=p^2/2m
d) P=F.V
4. Explain the three types of work done with the help of examples?
5. Calculate the electricity bill amount for a month of 31 days, if the following devices are used as
specified:
a) 3 bulbs of 40W for 6 hours
b) 4 tube lights of 50W for 8 hours
c) A tv set 120W for 6 hours
Given the rate of electricity is Rs 2 per unit.
6. Calculate the amount of work done required to stop a car of 100kg moving at a speed of 32km/h?
7. What will be the kinetic energy for a body whose momentum is 200kgm/s and mass is 10g.
8. A object of mass m when raised to a height h possess a potential energy of 1200J. Find the new
potential energy:
a) If the same object is raised to a height h/4.
b) If the same object is raised to a height 4h.
9. State the law of conservation of energy. Explain it with the help of an example?
10. Define the following terms:
a) 1Joule of energy
b) Power
11. Derive an expression to show that change in kinetic energy is equal to work done and is the same in
order to calculate the change in kinetic energy for an object of mass 2kg with initial velocity as 40cm/s
and final velocity as 80cm/s.
12. Show that P = F.V
13. Derive an expression for gravitational potential energy and use it in order to calculate the ratio of
potential energy possessed by two objects A & B whose mass are 2kg and 4kg with height 4 m and 8 m
respectively.
14. State the two conditions that are required for work to be done.
15. State the law of conservation of energy and illustrate it with an example.
16. State the relationship between KWh and Joule.
17. Explain with examples the conditions in which the work done comes out to be zero.
18. Calculate the amount of work done for an object having mass as 2Kg raised through a height of 1 cm.
19. State the relationship between kinetic energy and momentum.
20. Calculate the momentum possessed by a body whose mass is 4kg and kinetic energy as 100 J.
21. Calculate power for a body whose mass is 2kg and which is raised upto a height of 4 m within 40 sec.
22. Carry out the following conversion
a) 10m/s to km/h
b) 10cm/h to m/s

31
 CHAPTER – 12 (SOUND)

Keywords

1. Sound- form of energy that gives a sense of hearing.

2. Vibration- to and fro motion possessed by an object.
3. Medium- matter through which sound propagates.
4. Wave- disturbance created in a medium.
5. Types of wave- longitudinal (particles moves parallel to the direction of propagation) and transverse
(particles move perpendicular to the direction of propagation)
6. Characteristics of a sound wave- Amplitude, wavelength, time period, frequency, speed, note, tone,
pitch, loudness, quality.
7. speed= wavelength x frequency
8. frequency= 1/ time period
9. Speed of sound- depends on medium & temperature.
10. Reflection- bouncing back of sound wave
11. Laws of Reflection of sound: angle of incidence is same as angle of reflection Incident ray, reflected ray
and normal they all lie in the same plane.
12. Reverberation- persistence of sound in the absence of source producing sound.
13. SONAR- sound navigation and ranging technique (use of ultra sonic waves)
14. Range of hearing- 20Hz till 20KHz.

Type I (Recall & Process Questions)

1. When the vibrating object moves backwards, it creates a region of low pressure called __________.
a. Refraction
b. Reflection

32
 c. Rarefaction
d. Retardation

2. When the vibrating object moves backwards, it creates a region of low pressure called __________ .
a. Refraction
b. Reflection
b. Rarefaction
c. Retardation

3. The distance which compression or a rarefaction travels per unit of time gives ______________ .
a. The density of sound wave
b. Speed of sound
c. Wavelength of sound
d. Frequency of sound

4. Is the law of conservation of energy applicable to sound waves?

a. Yes
b. No

5. Sound travels through which medium?

a. Solid
b. Liquid
c. Gas
d. All the above

6. The phenomenon where a sound produced is heard again due to reflection is called __________ .
a. Sound bounce
b. Mirage
c. An echo
d. Interference

7. The number of compressions or rarefactions per unit time gives __________ .

a. Frequency
b. Time period
c. Amplitude
d. Pitch

8. Sound waves in air is an example of __________ .

a. Longitudinal wave
b. Transverse wave
c. Electromagnetic wave
d. None of the options

9. Loudness or softness of a sound is depend on

a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Type of a wave
33
 d. None of these

10. Horns of the vehicles are based on the principle of __________ .

a. Echo
b. Multiple reflections of sound
c. Ultrasound waves
d. None of these

11. Rhinoceroses communicate using

a. Ultrasound waves
b. Infrasound waves
c. Audible sound waves
d. All of the above

12. If the pendulum oscillate 78 times in one minute then the frequency of that pendulum will be
a. 2 Hz
b. 1.5 Hz
c. 1.3 Hz
d. 1.2 Hz

13. S.I Unit of sound is

a. hertz
b. decibel
c. pascal
d. joule

14. Outer most part of a human ear is

a. Pinna
b. Auricle
c. Cochlea
d. Stapes

15. Pitch of sound is dependent on

a. Frequency
b. Loudness
c. Amplitude
d. Note

Type II (Closed Questions)

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true

34
1. Assertion : The flash of lightening is seen before the sound of thunder is heard.
Reason : Speed of sound is greater than speed of light.

2. Assertion : Two persons on the surface of moon cannot talk to each other.
Reason : There is no atmosphere on moon.

3.Assertion : Sound would travel faster on a hot summer day than on a cold winter day.
Reason : Velocity of sound is directly proportional to the square of its absolute temperature.

4. Assertion : Echo is produced when sound is incident on hard and polished surface.
Reason : Sound energy can be totally reflected by objects with soft and loose texture.

5. Assertion : The speed of sound in solids is maximum though their density is large.
Reason : The coefficient of elasticity of solid is large.

6. Assertion : The velocity of sound in hydrogen gas is less than the velocity of sound in oxygen gas.
Reason : The density of oxygen is more than the density of hydrogen.

7. Assertion : Compression and rarefaction involve changes in density and pressure.

Reason : When particles are compressed, density of medium increases and when they are rarefied, density of
medium decreases.

8. Assertion : The matter or substance through which sound is transmitted is called a medium
Reason : Sound moves through a medium from the point of generation to the listener.

9. Assertion : Sound is a mechanical wave and needs a material medium like air, water, steel etc. for its
propagation.
Reason : Sound cannot travel through vacuum.

10. Assertion : Human ear converts pressure variations in air with audible frequencies into electric signals.
Reason : Audible sound lies in the range of 20 to 2000 Hz.

35
Type III (Funnel Questions)

36
37
Type IV (Competency based Questions)

1. With reference to the human ear, answer the questions that follow:

(a) Give the technical term for the structure found in the inner ear.
(b) Name the three small bones present in the middle ear. What is the biological term for them
collectively?
(c) Name the part of the ear associated with (l) static balance (2) hearing (3) dynamic balance.
(d) Name the nerve, which transmits messages from the ear to the brain.

2. With reference to the given diagram, answer the following:

a. SONAR Stands for—------

b. State the role plated by transmitter and receiver.

38
 c. Enlist any one application of SONAR?
d. Write the expression for calculating distance , using the above said technology.
e. An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time
interval between the sending and receiving of the wave is 1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the
sea if the velocity of sound in seawater is 1400 m/s?

Type V (FAQ)

1. Define the following:

i. Vibration
ii. Medium
iii. Sonar
iv. Wavelength
v. Amplitude
vi. Frequency
vii. Time period
viii. Crest
ix. Trough

2. What is an Echo?

3. Why sound wave is known as a mechanical wave?

4. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced?

5. The frequency of a sound is 100Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?

6. Give two practical applications of reflection of sound.

7. What is the relationship between loudness & amplitude?

8. A sound wave travels at a speed of 399m/s. If wavelength is 1.5m, what is the frequency?

9. Write one application of Sonar.

10. If 20 waves are produced per second, what is the frequency in Hz.

11. State the relationship between frequency, wavelength & speed.

12. On an X-t graph depict crest and trough.

13. Why we cannot hear an echo in a small room.

39
 PRACTICE SET 1
CLASS IX
PHYSICS

THREE MARKER

1. The velocity time graph of an ascending passenger lift is given below.

What is the acceleration of the lift: (i) during the first two seconds (ii) between 2nd and 10th second (iii)
during the last two seconds.

2. The length and breadth of a rectangular tank are 3.0 cm and 2.0 cm. It weighs 50N. Calculate the
pressure exerted by the rectangular block?

OR
An object of mass 500g is immersed into a measuring jar containing water. The initial level of water in
the measuring jar is 100cc. Due to the immersion of the object, the water level in the measuring jar
reaches to 150cc. Calculate the density of the object & state the reason for float and sink.

3. Explain the three types of work done with the help of a schematic diagram?

TWO MARKER

1. Differentiate between Mass and Inertia.

40
2. Derive an expression for energy possessed by object due to change in position.

FIVE MARKER

1. The diagram below show a section of a wave form in a string. The speed of travel of the wave is
800m/s. Calculate
a. Wavelength
b. Amplitude
c. Frequency
d. Explain any one application of ultrasound.

FOUR MARKER (SECTION-E)

Paragraph based questions :

In the game of hockey, when we try to kick the ball with a greater force,we observe that the ball collide
with a player of the opposite team. In this situation , Both feel hurt because each applies a force to the
other. In other words , there is pair of forces and not just one force. The two opposing forces are also known
as action and reaction force.
1. Which law of motion correlates action-reaction forces?
a. Law of inertia
b. First law of motion
c. Second law of motion
d. Third law of motion
2. Which of the following is an illustration of Newton’s third law of motion?
a) free fall of an object
b) Accelerated motion of a car on a road
c) Uniform circular motion
d) Walking of man on a road
3. According to the law mentioned above , action and reaction
a. Act on the same body
b. Act on two different bodies but in the same direction
c. Act on two different bodies and in mutually opposite direction
d. Do not affect motion of the bodies on which they act
4. Which expression holds true for the given law
a. F12=F21
b. F12 = - F21
c. F12= 1
d. F12 = 0
41
ONE MARKER

1. Assertion (A): If the net external force on the body is zero, then its acceleration is zero.
Reason ®: Acceleration does not depend on force.

2. A person moves a distance of 3km towards east , then 7km towards north and then 3.5km towards east.
The distance travelled is:
a. 13km
b. 13.5km
c. 9km
d. 3.5km

3. Value of g on earth is 9.8 SI Unit. Its value on the surface of moon will be
a. 6.0 x 1010 SI Unit
b. 6.67 x 10-11 SI Unit
c. 6.67/6 x 1011 SI Unit
d. 9.8/6 SI Unit

4. S. I Unit of Power is
a. Watt
b. Kilowatt
c. Joule
d. Erg

5. Amplitude of sound wave depends on

a. Intensity
b. Loudness
c. Pitch
d. frequency

42
 PRACTICE SET 2
CLASS IX
PHYSICS
THREE MARKER

1. The graph given alongside shows the positions of a body at different times. Calculate the speed of the
body as it moves from :
(i) A to B.
(ii) B to C, and
(iii) C to D

t
2. The length and breadth of a rectangular tank are 3.0 m and 2.0 m. It contains water up to height 1.5m.
Calculate the total thrust and pressure at the bottom of tank due to water.
Density of water= 1,000kg/m3 and g= 10m/s2
OR
An object of mass 500g is immersed into a measuring jar containing water. The initial level of water in
the measuring jar is 50cc. Due to the immersion of the object, the water level in the measuring jar
reaches to 100cc. Calculate the density of the object & state the reason for float and sink.
3. What do you understand by the term Power? Also show P = F.V

TWO MARKER
1. Explain the three types of inertia?
2. Derive an expression for the energy possessed by moving objects.

OR
43
 A pebble is dropped from a height of 10m. If the energy of the ball reduces by 40 percent after striking
the ground, how high can the ball bounce back? (g= 10m/s2 )

FIVE MARKER

1. The diagram below show a section of a wave form in a string. The speed of travel of the wave is
800m/s. Calculate
a. Wavelength
b. Amplitude
c. Frequency
d. Show that speed= frequency X Wavelength

FOUR MARKER
Paragraph based questions (do any four)

In the game of football sometimes we, while looking at the football and trying to kick it with a greater force,
collide with a player of the opposite team. Both feel hurt because each applies a force to the other. In other
words , there is pair of forces and not just one force. The two opposing forces are also known as action and
reaction force.
1. Which law of motion correlates action-reaction forces?
a. Law of inertia
b. First law of motion
c. Second law of motion
d. Third law of motion
2. Which of the following is an illustration of Newton’s third law of motion?
a) free fall of an object
b) Accelerated motion of a car on a road
c) Uniform circular motion
d) Walking of man on a road
3. According to the law mentioned above , action and reaction
a) Act on the same body
b) Act on two different bodies but in the same direction
c) Act on two different bodies and in mutually opposite direction
d) Do not affect motion of the bodies on which they act
4. Which expression holds true for the given law
a) F12=F21
44
 b) F12 = - F21
c) F12 = 0
d) F12=15

ONE MARKER

1. Assertion (A): A ball moving on a floor gradually slows down and finally comes to rest.
Reason ®: A force of friction due to floor is acting on the ball.
2. A person moves a distance of 3km towards east , then 2km towards north and then 3.5km towards east.
The distance travelled is:
a. 8km
b. 8.5km
c. 9km
d. 3.5km
3. Value of G on earth is 6.67 x 10-11 SI Unit. Its value on the surface of moon will be
a. 6.0 x 1010 SI Unit
b. 6.67 x 10-11 SI Unit
c. 6.67/6 x 1011 SI Unit
d. 9.8 SI Unit
4. When a body falls freely towards the earth, then its total energy
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. First decreases and then increases
5. Sound in air travels as:
a. Longitudinal mechanical wave
b. Transverse wave
c. Electromagnetic wave
d. Simple harmonic motion

45
 CHEMISTRY
Chapter : Matter in our surroundings

A. Very Short Questions

1. Which of the following are matter?
Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, lemon water, the smell of perfume.
2. What are fluids?
3. Why is water liquid at room temperature?
4. Cotton is solid but it floats on water. Why?
5. Why are solids generally denser than liquids and gases?
6. Name the factors that affect evaporation.
7. How is the high compressibility property of gas useful to us?
8. Why should we wear cotton clothes in summer?
9. Differentiate between physical and chemical change.
10. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.
11. How does the rate of evaporation change with varying temperature?
12. When 50 g of sugar is dissolved in 100 mL of water, there is no increase in volume. What characteristic of
matter is illustrated by this observation?
13. What happens when an inflated air balloon is pricked with a pin? Name the property of the gaseous state
exhibited by this observation.
14. Name the process which occurs when a drop of dettol is added to water.
15. Name the state of matter in which layers of particles can slip and slide over one another easily.
16. Name the state of matter which Particles just move around randomly because of very weak force of
attraction.
17. Define density and give its SI unit.
46
18. Why do the gases exert more pressure on the walls of the container than the solids?
19. Can materials exist in all the three states?
20. Analyse the temperature versus time grah of water given below:

Which region contains all liquids?

B. Short Answer Questions

1. Give reasons for the following observation:
The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several meters away, but to get the smell from cold food, you have
to go close.
2. What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?
3. (a) Tabulate the differences in the characteristics of states of matter.
(b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape, kinetic
energy and density.
4. Why do we see water droplets collected on the outer surface of a glass container, containing ice?
5. Explain why solids have fixed shape but liquids and gases do not have fixed shape.
6. Why is it advisable to use pressure cooker at higher altitudes?
7. With the help of an example, explain how diffusion of gases in water is essential?
8. On a hot sunny day, why do people sprinkle water on the roof or open ground?
9. Why do people perspire a lot on a hot humid day?
10. A balloon when kept in sun, bursts after some time. Why?
11. Pressure and temperature determine the state of a substance. Explain this in detail.

47
12. Explain giving examples the various factors on which rate of evaporation depends.
13. What is latent heat? Describe its type with example.
14. What is evaporation? Describe with examples. What are the factors influencing evaporation?

15. Convert-
a) 47 ° C to Kelvin
b) 367 K to ° C
c) 0 ° C to Kelvin
16. A sample of water under study was found to boil at 102 ℃ at normal temperature and pressure. Is the water
pure? Will this water freeze at 0 ℃? Comment.
17. A student heats a beaker containing ice and water. He measures the temperature of the content of the beaker
as a function of time. Which of the following (Fig. 1.1) would correctly represent the result? Justify your
choice.
18. Alka was making tea in a kettle. Suddenly she felt intense heat from the puff of steam gushing out of the
spout of the kettle. She wondered whether the temperature of the steam was higher than that of the water
boiling in the kettle.
19. A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does this observation
show?
20. How does evaporation cause cooling?

C. Long Answer Questions:

1. Give reasons
a. A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
b. A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
c. A wooden table should be called a solid.
d. We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood we need a karate
expert.
2.Describe the following
a.Sublimation
b.Diffusion
c. Plasma

48
 d. Brownian motion
e. Effect of pressure
3.Give reasons-
a. The water kept in earthen pot (matka) remain cool?
b. Smell of perfume is spread all over the room.
c. If we put acetone or spirit in our palm feel cool.
d. Gases fill their container completely.
e. An iron almirah is said to be solid.
4.Differentiate between-
a. Boiling point and melting point
b. Diffusion in solid and diffusion in liquid
c. Boiling and evaporation
5.Write the characteristics of particle of matter? Describe any two of it with example and activity.
6.Write the terms for numbers in the below figure

7.(a) What do you understand by the term ‘latent heat of fusion’? How much is the latent heat of fusion of ice?
(b)Which gas is called dry ice? Why?
8.A glass tumbler containing hot water is kept in the freezer compartment of a refrigerator (temperature <0°C).
If you could measure the temperature of the content of the tumbler, which of the following graphs would
correctly represent the change in its temperature as a function of time?

49
9.Look at the following figures and suggest in which of the glass containers, i.e., A, B, C or D, the rate of
evaporation will be the highest? Explain

10. (a) Why do wet clothes dry quickly in the sun than in the shade?
(b) Why do trees acquire more leaves during summer?
(c) Why do we feel comfortable under a fan when we are perspiring?
(d) Why do people sprinkle water on the roof after a hot sunny day?
11.Substance ‘A’ has high compressibility and can be easily liquefied. It can take up the shape of any container.
Predict the nature of the substance. Enlist four properties of this state of matter.
12.Suggest an activity to show that the rate of diffusion of liquids decreases with increase in density of the
liquid.
13.Classify the following into osmosis/diffusion
a) Swelling up of a raisin on keeping in water.
b) Spreading of virus on sneezing.
c) Earthworm dying on coming in contact with common salt.
d) Shrinking of grapes kept in thick sugar syrup.
e) Preserving pickles in salt.
f) Spreading of smell of cake being baked throughout the house.
g) Aquatic animals using oxygen dissolved in water during respiration.
14. Explain how the rate of evaporation of a liquid is affected with:
a) Increase in temperature of the liquid.
b) Decrease in exposed surface area.

50
 c) Increase in moisture in the surrounding air.
d) Increase in wind speed.
15. You want to wear your favourite shirt to a party, but the problem is that it is still wet after a wash. What
steps would you take to dry it faster?
16.How does evaporation differ from boiling?
17.Describe the continuous motion of particles of matter with the help of an activity.
18.While heating ice in a beaker with a thermometer suspended in it, a student recorded the following
observations:
Time 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 10 15 20 25 30 35
(in min.)
Temp. -3 -1 0 0 5 8 12 15 19 22 30 50 73 100 100
(in Celsius)

Based on the above observations, answer the following questions:

(a) State the change(s) observed between 2-3 min. and name the process involved.
(b) Between 30-35 min., the temperature remains constant. State the reason for this. Name the heat involved
in the process and define it.
19.Discuss the various factors which affect the rate of evaporation. Latent heat of evaporation of two liquids A
and B is 100 J/kg and 150 J/kg respectively. Which one can produce more cooling effect and why?
20.Comment on the following statements:
(a) Evaporation causes cooling.
(b) Rate of evaporation of an aqueous solution decreases with increase in humidity.
(c) Sponge though compressible is a solid.
(d) Ice is solid at 0°C, while water is liquid at room temperature.
(e) Sugar crystals dissolve faster in hot water than cold water.

D. Multiple Choice Questions

1.CO2 can be easily liquified and even solidified because
(a) It has weak forces of attraction
(b) It has comparatively more force of attraction than other gases
(c) It has more intermolecular space
(d) It is present in atmosphere.
51
2. Which of the following has heighest kinetic energy?
(a) Particles of ice at 0 °C
(b) Particles of water at 0 °C
(c) Particles of water at 100 °C
(d) Particles of steam at 100 °C
3. Bose-Einstein Condensate have
(a) Very low kinetic energy
(b) Low kinetic energy
(c) High kinetic energy
(d) Highest kinetic energy.
4. Which of the following is most suitable for summer?
(a) Cotton
(b) Nylon
(c) Polyester
(d) Silk.
5. Which of the following is incorrect about plasma?
(a) Fluorescent tube and neon sign bulbs consist of plasma.
(b) The gas gets ionised when electrical energy flows through it.
(c) It consists of super-energetic and super-excited particles.
(d) The plasma glows with colour which does not depend upon nature of gas.
6. The colour of vapours formed on sublimation of iodine solid is
(a) Purple (violet)
(b) Colourless
(c) Yellow
(d) Orange
7. Under which of the following conditions we can boil water at room temperature?
(a) At low pressure
(b) At high pressure
(c) At very high pressure
52
 (d) At atmospheric pressure
8. Which of the following is not endothermic process?
(a) Fusion
(b) Vapourisation
(c) Temperature
(d) Insoluble heavy impurities
9. Which of the following does not affect rate of evaporation?
(a) Wind speed
(b) Surface area
(c) Temperature
(d) Insoluble heavy impurities
10. Kinetic energy of molecules is directly proportional to
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Atmospheric pressure
11. Matter is classified on the basis of………….
a) Physical and chemical properties
b) Physical and biological properties
c) chemical properties
d) Biological and characteristical properties.
12. Any color which we detected by our eyes….
a) Due to light
b) Due to air
c) Due to visible light
d) Due to darkness
13. Particles are moving in the bottom of the glass due to…………….
a) Dilution
b) Dissolution
53
 c) Kinetic energy
d) Potential energy
14. With increasing kinetic energy ……………………..
a) Pressure increases
b) Temperature increases
c) Temperature decreases
d) Pressure decreases
15. Intermixing of particles of two different types of matter on their own called………….
a) Dilution
b) Mixing
c) Diffusion
d) Precipitate
16. Eraser, book, slate is solid matter which does not has.
a) Definite shape
b) Distinct boundaries
c) Fixed velocity
d) Fixed volume
17. Solid have…………..
a) Negligible compatible
b) Negligible compressible
c) Negligible volume
d) Negligible shape
18. Solids have tendency to maintain their………….. and…………..
a) Shape, inside pressure
b) Shape, outside temperature
c) Shape, outside force
d) Shape, outside pressure
19. Sugar and salt kept in different jars . they are……………
a) Soil
54
 b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Solids
20. Liquid are not rigid but can be…………………
a) Gas
b) Solid
c) Water
d) Fluid
Assertion and Reasoning Questions
In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given, and a corresponding statement of Reason
is given just below it. Of the statements, given below, mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
1. Assertion : A gas can easily be compressed by applying pressure.
Reason : Since the inter-particle spaces between gases are very large, they can decrease by applying pressure.
2.Assertion : Gases exert pressure on the walls of the container.
Reason : The intermolecular force of attraction is very strong in gases.
3.Assertion : It is easier to cook food at sea level as compared to higher altitudes.
Reason : The boiling point of water increases at high altitudes.
4.Assertion : When a solid melts, its temperature remains the same.
Reason : The heat gets used up in changing the state by overcoming the forces of attraction between the
particles.
5.Assertion : The solids do not diffuse in air.
Reason : The particles are loosely packed in solids.
6.Assertion : The boiling point of water is 100 C.
Reason : The boiling point of water increases at higher altitudes.
7.Assertion : The conversion of a solid directly into a gas is known as sublimation.
Reason : Naphthelene does not leave residue when kept open for sometime.
8.Assertion : lce floats on water.
55
 Reason : Liquids have lower density than solids.
9.Assertion : Camphor burns with a lot of residue.
Reason : Camphor undergoes sublimation.
10.Assertion : The rate of evaporation increases with increase in temperature.
Reason: Increase in temperature decreases the kinetic energy of the particles.
11.Assertion : Liquids diffuses more easily as compared to gases.
Reason : Intermolecular forces are greater in liquids than in gases.
12.Assertion : Steam is better the boiling water for heating purposes.
Reason : Steam contains more heat in the form of latent heat than boiling water.
13.Assertion : Gases diffuses more easily as compared to liquids.
Reason : Intermolecular forces are greater in solids.
14.Assertion : There is a change in the temperature of the substance when there it undergoes a change in state
through it is still being heated.
Reason : The heat supplied is either absorbed as a latent heat of fusion or a latent heat of vapourisation.
15.Assertion : When Sugar and Salt are kept in a container, they take the shape of the container.
Reason : Sugar is liquid.
16.Assertion-Sugar and Salt both are easily dissolved in water.
Reason – Sugar and Salt are solid hence it is easily dissolved in water.
17. Assertion-Dilution of any colored compound in water shows light color than original color of compound.)
( hint- potassium permanganate dissolve in water)
Reason-when dilution is done by water the quantity of particle getting decreases by dilution hence it shows
light color.
18. Assertion- Particles in liquid state shows motion.
Reason-It possess potential energy
19. Assertion-Particles of matter held together by making any state.
Reason-intermixing of particles of two different type of matter on there own is called diffusion.
20. Assertion-Every particle of matter is float on air.
Reason-Every particle of matter held together by kinetic energy

56
 Chapter - Is Matter Around Us Pure

A. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

1: Define solvent.
2: Define solute.
3: What is ‘tincture of iodine’?
4: What are alloys?
5: Give one example of gas in liquid solution.
6: How can a solution be dilute or concentrated?
7: What is “concentration of a solution”?
8: State the difference between aqueous and, non-aqueous solution.
9: What is “solubility” of a solute?
10: What is saturated solution?
11: What is unsaturated solution?
12: How can you convert saturated solution into unsaturated or vice-versa?
13: Why water is called universal solvent?
14: What is Tyndall effect?
15: How can we separate colloidal mixtures?
16: What is emulsion?
17: What is aerosol?
18: What is the principle for separation of immiscible liquids?
19: What is chromatography?
20: What is distillation?

B. Short Answer Type questions:

57
 1: Why is mixture called impure substance?
2: Give the differences between mixture and compound.
3: Distinguish between a physical change and chemical change
4: State the properties of a solution.
5: State the properties of a suspension.
6: What is a colloidal solution?
7: State the properties of colloidal solution.
8: Give the applications of centrifugation.
9: Give the applications of chromatography.
10: Why is crystallisation better than evaporation?
11: How will you separate a mixture of oil and water?
12: A student is given a mixture of naphthalene ball’s powder and common salt. He needs to separate this
mixture. How will he do this?
13: How can we obtain different gases from air?
14: Draw a flow diagram to show the water purification system in water works.
15: Why is air considered as a mixture and not compound?
16: How can you prove that water is a compound?
17: How can we convert saturated solution into unsaturated by heating?
18: What is the difference in fog and smoke?
19: If 20g of salt is present is 220 g of solution, calculate the concentration of solution?
20. Which process can purify the impure sample of potash alum?

C. Long Answer Questions:

1. Fractional distillation is suitable for separation of miscible liquids with a boiling point difference of about 25
K or less. What part of fractional distillation apparatus makes it efficient and possess an advantage over a
simple distillation process. Explain using a diagram.

2. (a) Under which category of mixtures will you classify alloys and why?
(b) A solution is always a liquid. Comment.
(c) Can a solution be heterogeneous?

3. A child wanted to separate the mixture of dyes constituting a sample of in36. A child wanted to separate the
mixture of dyes constituting a sample of ink. He marked a line by the ink on the filter paper and placed the
filter paper in a glass containing water as shown in Fig. The filter paper was removed when the water moved
near the top of the filter paper.
(i) What would you expect to see, if the ink contains three different coloured components?
(ii) Name the technique used by the child.
(iii) Suggest one more application of this technique.

4. A group of students took an old shoe box and covered it with a black paper from all sides. They fixed a source
of light (a torch) at one end of the box by making a hole in it and made another hole on the other side to view
the lig37. A group of students took an old shoe box and covered it with a black paper from all sides. They fixed
a source of light (a torch) at one end of the box by making a hole in it and made another hole on the other side
to view the light. They placed a milk sample contained in a beaker/tumbler in the box as shown in the Fig. They

58
were amazed to see that milk taken in the tumbler was Fig. illuminated. They tried the same activity by taking a
salt solution but found that light simply passed through it?

(a) Explain why the milk sample was illuminated. Name the phenomenon involved.
(b) Same results were not observed with a salt solution. Explain.
(c) Can you suggest two more solutions which would show the same effect as shown by the milk solution?

5. Classify each of the following, as a physical or a chemical change. Give reasons.

(a) Drying of a shirt in the sun.
(b) Rising of hot air over a radiator.
(c) Burning of kerosene in a lantern.
(d) Change in the colour of black tea on adding lemon juice to it.
(e) Churning of milk cream to get butter.

6. During an experiment the students were asked to prepare a 10% (Mass/Mass) solution of sugar in water.
Ramesh dissolved 10g of sugar in 100g of water while Sarika prepared it by dissolving 10g of sugar in water to
make 100g of the solution.
(a) Are the two solutions of the same concentration
(b) Compare the mass % of the two solutions.

7. You are provided with a mixture containing sand, iron filings, ammonium chloride and sodium chloride.
Describe the procedures you would use to separate these constituents from the mixture?
8. Calculate the mass of sodium sulphate required to prepare its 20% (mass percent) solution in 100g of water?
9: Give the difference between true solution, colloidal solution and suspension.
10: State the different types of colloids with examples.
11: (a) Define solution.
(b) Give different types of solutions with one example each.

12: How can you separate the following mixtures?

(a) Sand + iron
(b)Cream from milk
(c) Salt + water
(d) Ammonium chloride + NaCl
(e) Copper sulphate + water
(f) Rice and dal (uncooked)
(g) Gases from air
(h) Petrol and diesel from crude oil
(i) Drugs from blood
(j) Acetone from water
59
13. What is chromatography? What are its various applications and underline the basic principle involved?

14. A solution of acid is labeled is 95%. What is the mass of this that must be diluted with water to get
5L of solution containing 10 g of per litre?

15.Write a method to separate a mixture of salt and ammonium chloride?

D. Multiple Choice questions:

1. Which of the following methods would you use to separate cream from milk?
(a) fractional distillation
(b) distillation
(c) centrifugation
(d) filtration

2.Cooking of food and digestion of food:

(a) are both physical processes

(b) are both chemical processes
(c) cooking is physical whereas digestion is chemical
(d) cooking is chemical whereas digestion physical

3. Mercury and Bromine are both

(a) liquid at room temperature
(b) solid at room temperature
(c) gases at room temperature
(d) both (a) and (b)
4. Blood and sea water are:
(a) both mixtures
(b) both are compound
(c) blood is a mixture whereas sea water is a compound
(d) blood is a compound and sea water is a mixture

5. Sol and Gel are examples of examples of

(a) Solid-solid colloids
(b) Sol is a solid-liquid colloid and Gel is liquid solid colloid
(c) Sol is a solid-solid colloid and Gel is a solid-liquid colloid
(d) Sol is a liquid-solid colloid and Gel is a solid-liquid colloid

6. In a water-sugar solution:
(1) water is solute and sugar is solvent
(2) water is solvent and sugar is solute
(3) water is solute and water is also solute
60
 (4) none of these

7. Boron and carbon:

(a) are metalloids
(b) boron is metalloid and carbon is non-metal
(c) boron is metallic and carbon is a metal
(d) boron is non-metal and carbon is a metalloid

8.More than one kind of pure form of matter combines forming………..

a) Texture
b) Solution
c) Mixture
d) Component
9. Dissolved sodium chloride can be separated from water by…………………
a) Chemical process
b) Physical process
c) Chemical process of extraction
d) Physical process of evaporation

10. Non uniform compositions of solutions called………….. solutions.

a) Mixture
b) Texture
c) Homogenous
d) Heterogeneous

11. Uniform compositions of solutions called………… solutions.

a) Mixture
b) Texture
c) Homogenous
d) Heterogeneous

12. Homogenous solution may separated by……………….

a) Chemical process
b) Physical process
c) filtration
d) Physical process of evaporation

13.Mixture of two or more metals , or metals and non-metals called as…………

a) Alloy
b) Solution

61
 c) Mixture
d) Metallic mixture

14.Alloy cannot be separated by……………..method

a) Chemical
b) Evaporation
c) Extraction
d) Physical

15.Brass is mixture of………….. and……….. .

a) Zinc, carbon
b) Zinc, Mg
c) Zinc, Co
d) Zinc, Copper
16. Zinc and Copper get mixed by forming……….
a) Steel
b) Brass
c) Gold
d) Zinc carbon mixture

17. Component present in large amount in solution called………….

a) Solute
b) Sugar
c) Solvent
d) Mixture

18. The component of solution that dissolved in solvent called……………

a) Solute
b) Sugar
c) Solvent
d) Mixture

19. A component present in lesser quantity in solution called………..

a) Solute
b) Sugar
c) Solvent
d) Mixture

62
20.A component present in more quantity in solution called……………
a) Solute
b) Sugar
c) Solvent
d) Mixture

E. Assertion and Reasoning Questions:

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1.) ASSERTION-Oxygen atom is pure substance.

REASON-Oxygen is never found in any combine state.
2.) ASSERTION-Oxygen atom is pure substance.
REASON-Oxygen is always found in combine state.
3.) ASSERTION-Oxygen atom is pure substance.
REASON-All constituent particle of oxygen is the same in its chemical nature.
4.) ASSERTION-SODIUM CHLORIDE is always existed in mixture form.
REASON-Substance which made up of more than one constituent called mixture.
5.) ASSERTION-SODIUM CHLORIDE is always existed in mixture form.
REASON-Substance which made up of more than one constituent called mixture.
6.) ASSERTION-SODIUM CHLORIDE is always existed in mixture form.
REASON-Substance which made up of more than one constituent like chlorine and sodium called
mixture.
7.) ASSERTION-Soft drink and soil is not pure substances.
REASON-Substance which made up of less than two constituent called mixture.
8.) ASSERTION-Soft drink and soil is not pure substances.
REASON-Substance which made up of more than one constituent called mixture.
9.) ASSERTION-Soft drink and soil is not pure substances.
REASON-Substance which made up of only one constituent is called pure substance. Soft drink and
soil are made up of more than one constituent hence it comes under mixture.
10.) ASSERTION-Steel is the alloy substance.
REASON-Substance which made up of more than one constituent called mixture.
11.) ASSERTION-Steel is the alloy substance.
REASON-Substance which made up of less than one constituent called mixture.
12.) ASSERTION-Steel is the alloy substance.

63
 REASON-Alloy are mixture of gaseous hence steel is a alloy.
13.) ASSERTION-Steel is the alloy substance.
REASON-Alloy are mixture of two or metals or metal and a non- metal and cannot be separated into
their components by physical methods.
14.) ASSERTION- Sugar water is the solution, where water is act as a solvent.
REASON-solution is made up of solute and solvent.
15.) ASSERTION- Sugar water is the solution, where water is act as a solvent.
REASON-Sugar solution is made up of solute and solvent where the large area of the solution,
occupied by solute.
16.) ASSERTION- Sugar water is the solution, where water is act as a solvent.
REASON-Sugar solution is made up of solute and solvent where the large area of the solution occupied
by solvent hence water is act as solvent in sugar water.
17.) ASSERTION- Sugar water is the solution, where sugar is act as a solvent.
REASON-Solution is made up of solutes.
18.) ASSERTION- Sugar water is the solution, where sugar is act as a solute.
REASON-Solution is made up of solute and solvent.
19.) ASSERTION- Sugar water is the best example of solution.
REASON-Solution is made up of solute and solvent. So here sugar is the solute and water are act as
solvent.
20.) ASSERTION- A solution is the homogeneous mixture.
REASON-Sugar is the part of sugar solution.

64
 Chapter : Atoms and Molecules

A. Short Answer Questions

1. Which organisation approves the names of elements all over the world ?
2. Write the symbols of tungsten and iron.
3. What is the number of electrons in Mg atom and Mg2+ ion ?
4. Write atomicity of the following:
(i) Sulphur (ii) Phosphorus
5. Define atomicity.
6. What is molar mass ?
7. Define cation and anion
65
8. What is meant by the term chemical formula?
9. Name a non metal which is tetraatomic?
10. Name the cation and anion which constitute the following compounds:
(i) MgO
(ii) CaCO3
(iii) NaCl
(iv) CaCl2
(v) Na2SO4
11. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of conservation of mass?
12. Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes?
13. Who coined the term atom?
14. Define atom.
15. Define molecule
16. How do atoms exist?
17. What is an ion?
18. What is Avogadro’s constant?
19. Give an example of a triatomic molecule of an element.
20. Name two scientists who established the laws of chemical combination?

B. Long answer Questions

1. Work out the chemical formulae of the following:
(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium oxide
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Aluminium chloride
(e) Calcium carbonate.
2. Calculate the molar mass of the following substances.
(a) Ethyne, C2H2
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4 (Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(e) Nitric acid, HNO3
3. What is the mass of
(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium = 27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2S03)?
4. Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur (S8) present in 16 g of solid sulphur.
5. In a reaction 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2 g of
carbon dioxide, 0.9 g water and 8.2 g of sodium ethanoate. Show that these observations are in
agreement with the law of conservation of mass carbonate.
6. What are polyatomic ions? Give examples.
7. Differentiate between the actual mass of a molecule and gram molecular mass.
8. Calculate the formula mass of sodium carbonate (Na2CO3.10H2O)
66
 9. Calculate the mass of one atom of hydrogen atom.
10. What are ionic and molecular compounds? Give examples.
11. ‘Dalton’s atomic theory is contradicted by the formula of sucrose (C12H22O11).’ Justify the statement.
12. Atoms of most elements are not able to exist independently’. Name two atoms which exist as
independent atoms?
13. Compare relative molar mass and relative formula unit mass.
14. What is the ration by mass of combining elements in H2O, CO2 and NH3?
15. Define valency and give the valency for the following elements:
Magnesium
Aluminium
Chlorine
Copper
16. What are the rules for writing the symbol of an element?
17. Explain relative atomic mass and relative molecular mass.
18. State 3 points of difference between an atom and an ion.
19. The ratio by mass for hydrogen and oxygen in water is given 1:8. Calculate the ratio by number of
atoms for a water molecule.
20. Differentiate between O2 and O3.

C. MCQ Questions
1. The atomicity of K2Cr2O7 is
a. 9
b. 11
c. 10
d. 12
2. The formula for quicklime is
a. CaCl2
b. CaCo3
c. Ca(OH)2
d. CaO
3. The symbol of cadmium is
a. Ca
b. Cu
c. Cm
d. Cd
4. All noble gas molecules are
a. Monoatomic
b. Diatomic
c. Triatomic
d. Both I and II
5. The valency of nitrogen in NH3 is
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4

67
 d. 5
6. The formula of ethanol is C2H5 – OH. What will be its molecular mass?
a. 46 u
b. 34 u
c. 34 g
d. 46 g
7. Number of moles present in 28g of nitrogen atoms are
a. 1 mole
b. 2.3 moles
c. 0.5 mole
d. 2 moles
8. The molecular mass of x is 106. x can be
a. CaCo3
b. So3
c. Na2Co3
d. NaCl
9. Which among the following is not a postulate of Dalton’ s atomic theory?
a. Atoms can not be created or destroyed
b. Atoms of different elements have different sizes, masses and chemical properties
c. Atoms of same elements can combine in only one ratio to produce more than any one compound
d. Atoms are very tiny particles which can not be further divided
10. Which of the following is a wrong Combination?
a. 6.022 * 1023 molecules of oxygen = 32g of oxygen
b. 6.022 * 1023 ions of sodium = 23g of sodium
c. 6.022 * 1023atoms of C = 24g of carbon
d. 6.022 * 1023 atoms of H = 1g of hydrogen atoms
11. Which of the following is correct pair of elements and its symbol?
a. Silver- Si
b. Sodium- Na
c. Potassium- P
d. Sulphur- Su

12. How many moles are present in 40g of He?

a. 10
b. 11
c. 13
d. 12

13. The formula of a chloride of a metal M is MCl3, the formula of the phosphate of metal M will be:
a. MPO4
b. M2PO4
c. M3PO4
d. M2(PO4)3
14. The formation of SO2 and SO3 explain:
a.The law of conservation of mass
b.The law of multiple proportions

68
 c.The law of definite properties
d. Boyle's law

15. The law of definite proportions was given by:

a. John Dalton
b. Humphry davy
c. Proust
d. Michael Faraday

16. One mole of a gas occupies a volume of 22.4 L. This is derived from:
a. Berzelius’s hypothesis
b. Gay- Lussac’s law
c. Avogadro’s law
d. Dalton’s law

17. The chemical symbol P stands for:

a. Phosphorus
b. Potassium
c. Polonium
d. Promethium

18. Adding electrons to an atom will result in a (an):

a.Molecule
b.Anion
c.Cation
d.Salt

19. The total number of atoms represented by the compound CuSO4.5H2O is:
a.27
b.21
c.5
d.8

20.The molecule formula P2O5 means that:

a.A molecule contains 2 atoms of P and 5 atoms of O
b.The ratio of the mass of P to the mass of O in the molecule is 2:5
c.There are twice as many P atoms in the molecule as there are O atoms
d.The ratio of the mass of P to the ass of O in the molecule is 5:2

D. Assertion and Reason type questions :

1. Assertion: The number of particles present in one mole of a substance is fixed.

Reason: The mass of one mole of a substance is equal to its relative atomic mass in grams.
2. Assertion: Atoms always combine to form molecule and ions.
Reason: Atoms of most element are not able to exist independently.
3. Assertion: Atomicity of ozone is three while that of oxygen is two.
Reason: Atomicity is the number of atoms constituting a molecule.
69
4. Assertion: On burning magnesium in oxygen, the mass of magnesium oxide formed is equal to the
total mass of magnesium and oxygen
Reason: In a chemical substance, the elements are always present in a definite proportion.
5. Assertion: 1 mole of and H2 each O2 occupy 22.4 L at standard temperature and pressure.
Reason: Molar volume for all gases at the standard temperature and pressure has the different values.
6. Assertion: Molecular weight of oxygen is 16.
Reason: Atomic weight of oxygen is 16.
7. Assertion: Atomic mass of aluminium is 14.
Reason: An atom of aluminium is 27 times heavier than 1/12th of the mass of carbon-12 atom.
8. Assertion: The number of moles of He in 52 g of He is 13.
Reason: The number of moles of an atom is the ratio of its given mass to its molar mass.
9. Assertion: The valency of aluminium is 3 and oxygen is 2.
Reason: The chemical formula of aluminium oxide is Al3O2.
10. Assertion: A molecule is the smallest particle of an element or a compound which is capable of free
existence.
Reason: The number of atoms present in one molecule of the substance is called its atomicity.
11. Assertion: Protons cannot be transferred from one atom to another.
Reason: Protons are present deep inside the atom in its nucleus.
12. Assertion: Water molecules always contain hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 1:8.
Reason: Water obeys law of constant proportions irrespective of source and method of preparation.
13. Assertion: Relative atomic mass of the atom of element is the average masses of the
atom as compared to the mass of one carbon-12 atom.
Reason: Carbon-12 isotope is the standard reference for measuring atomic masses.
14. Assertion: A sodium ion has positive charge.
Reason: Sodium ion has more protons than a neutral atom.
15. Assertion : In water, the ratio of mass of hydrogen to the mass of oxygen is always 1:8 whatever the
source of water.
Reason : According to law of constant proportion, the elements are always present in definite
proportion by mass in a chemical substance.
16. Assertion : Ions are always positively charged.
Reason : Ions are formed by losing or gaining of electrons.
17. Assertion : One mole of SO2 contains double the number of molecules present in one mole of O2
Reason : Molecular weight of SO2 is double to that of O2
18. Assertion : When 12 g of CaCO3 is decomposed, 4.6 g of residue is left and 4.4 g of escapes.
Reason : Law of conservation of mass is followed.
19. Assertion : Law of conservation of mass holds good for all the reactions.
Reason : I states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
20. Assertion : Atomicity of oxygen is 4.
Reason : 1 mole of an element contains 6.023 x 1023 atoms.

70
 Chapter : Structure of Atom

F. Very Short Answer Type Questions:

1: Draw the atomic structure of hydrogen atom.
2: Why are some elements chemically inert?
3: Why is atom electrically neutral?
71
 4: What is the charge and mass of a-particles?
5: What are valence electrons?
6: An atom has atomic number 12, what is its valency and name the element?
7: Find the number of neutrons in 2713X.
8: Where is the mass of atom is concentrated?
9: Name two elements with same number of protons and neutrons?
10: Draw the atomic structure of sodium atom.
11: Name the isotope used for treatment of cancer.
12: AZX What does this symbol represent?
13: Can the value of ‘Z’ be same for two different atoms?
14: Can the value of A’ be same for two different atom?
15.Which subatomic particle is absent in an ordinary hydrogen atom?
16.J. Chadwick discovered a subatomic particle which has no charge and has mass nearly equal to that
of a proton. Name the particle and give its location in the atom.
17.Is it possible for the atom of an element to have one electron, one proton and no neutron? If so, name
the element.
18.Electron attributes negative charge, protons attribute positive charge. An atom has both but why there
is no charge?
19.Write the electronic configuration of an element whose atomic number is 12.
20.What do you understand by ground state of an atom?

G. Short Answer Type questions:

1: Name the scientist who discovered protons and neutrons in an atoms.

2: What is the contribution of Bohr and Bury together in the structure of atom’s explanation?

3: Draw the atomic structure of (i) an atom with same number of sub-atomic particles, (ii) an atom with same
number of electrons in L and M shell
4: What is an octate? Why would atoms want to complete their octate?
5: Find the valency of 147N and 3517Cl.
6: What are nucleons? What is the name given to those atoms which have same number of nucleons in it?
7: Give the difference between three sub-atomic particles.
8. Give the names of three atomic species of hydrogen.
9: Atomic Mass exists as whole number, why do we write the atomic mass of chlorine as 35.5 u.
10: Give difference between isotopes, and isobars.
11: Number of protons and electrons are same in an atom. Then why is it wrong to say that atomic number of
an atom is equal to its number of electrons.
12: An atom is electrically neutral, on loss or gain of electrons why does it become charged?
13: What is valency? Explain different types of valencies.
14: With the help of an activity in daily life, how can you prove that atoms are divisible.
15: In the structure of an atom why are protons present in the centre and are not pulled outside by the electrons
as both are oppositely charged with same unit of charge?
16: According to you, among the structure of atom studied which model is correct and why?
17.How do you know that nucleus is very small as compared to the size of atom?
18.Write two characteristics of the canal rays.

72
19.The atomic number of lithium is 3. Its mass number is 7.
(a) How many protons and neutrons are present in a lithium atom?
(b) Draw the diagram of a lithium atom.
20.Complete the table on the basis of information available in the symbols given below

H. Long Answer Questions:

1. Give an activity to understand the implications of Rutherford’s a scattering experiment by a gold foil.
2: What are isotopes? State its characteristics, give uses of isotopes?
3: Explain Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment and give its observation and conclusion drawn.
4: Establish the relationship between atomic number, mass number, isotopes, isobars and valency of an
atom.
5.(i) State the method of determining the valency of an element if its atomic number is given.
(ii) Determine the valency of the following elements, the atomic numbers of which are given in
parenthesis:
Chlorine (17), Sulphur (16), Aluminium (13)
6.What is the gold foil experiment? Name the scientist who performed this experiment. Write the
conclusions and shortcomings of Rutherford’s model of atom.
7.In what way is the Rutherford’s atomic model different from that of Thomson’s atomic model? [
8.The ratio of the radii of hydrogen atom and its nucleus is ~105. Assuming the atom and the nucleus to
be spherical,
(i) what will be the ratio of their sizes?
(ii) If atom is represented by planet Earth ‘Re’ = 6.4 × 106 m. Estimate the size of the nucleus.
9.Show diagrammatically the electron distribution in a sodium atom and a sodium ion and also give
their atomic number.
10.The given figure depicts the atomic structure of an atom of an element ‘X’.
Write the following information about the element ‘X’.

(a) Atomic number of ‘X’

73
 (b) Atomic mass of ‘X’
(c) Valence electrons
(d) Valency of ‘X’
(e) ‘X’ should be metal or non-metal.
11.One electron is present in the outermost shell of the atom of an element ‘Z’.
(a) What will be the nature of this element?
(b) What will be the value of charge of the ion formed, if this electron is removed from the outermost
shell?

12.Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are given below:

Give the mass number of ‘X’ and ‘Y’. What is the relationship between the two species?

13.An atom ‘M’ of an element reacts with oxygen to form M2O3. Calculate the valency of the element
‘M’.

14.Complete the following gaps in the given table:

15.Explain why chlorine, whether as the element or its compounds, always has relative atomic mass of
about 35.5.

I. Multiple Choice questions:

1.) Electron is represented as ……….

a) El
b) E
c) e
d) none of the above
2.) Proton is represented as………….
a) Pr
b) E
c) P
74
 d) None of the above
3.) Ions containing positive charge called…………
a) Positive charge
b) Positive ion
c) Proton
d) Photon
4.) Ions containing negative charge called………….
a) Electron
b) Negative particle
c) Negative ion
d) Negative charge
5.) Atoms is composed of…………….and………….
a) Neutron
b) Proton , electron
c) Positron, proton
d) Neutron , electron
6.) Which experiment designed by Rutherford?
a) Atom is looks like watermelon
b) Moving alpha particles fall on thin magnesium foil
c) Moving alpha particles fall on thin gold foil
d) Moving alpha particles fall on thin silver foil
7.) The revolution of the electron in a circular orbit is not expected is not expected to be stable.
a) It is drawback of Dalton
b) It is drawback of Rutherford’s
c) It is drawback of Mendeleev’s
d) None of the above
8.) The orbit or shells are called………………
a) Energy level
b) Subshells
c) Parameters
d) K shell
9.) First Orbits or shells represent by the letter
a) K
b) P
c) T
d) M
10.) Second Orbits or shells represent by the letter
a) K
b) L
75
 c) T
d) M
11.) Uncharged particle present in the atom called……….
a) Positron
b) Neutron
c) Electron
d) None of the above
12.) ………….. are present in atoms having no any charge
a) Positron
b) Neutron
c) Electron
d) None of the above
13.) Molecular mass means sum of …………………. and ……………
a) Proton, neutron
b) Proton , electron
c) Positron, proton
d) Photon, neutron
14.) Sum of proton and neutron gives……………………. Of molecule
a) Atomic number
b) Atomic unit
c) Molecular formula
d) Molecular weight

15.) Atomic number means?

a) Proton number
b) Neutron number
c) Proton and neutron number
d) Electron and proton number
16.) How many electrons occupy in K shell?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
17.) How many electrons occupy in M shell?
a) 1
b) 8
c) 18
d) 32
18.) The maximum number of electrons present in shells is given by the below formula
76
 a) 2n
b) 2n2
c) 2n*2
d) 2n3
19.) How many electron present in outermost shell of lithium atom.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
20.) How many electron present in outermost shell of Al atom.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5

J. Assertion and Reasoning Questions:

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1) ASSERTION-No. of electrons always equal to the proton no. of atom.

REASON-atom is always made-up of proton and electron.
2) ASSERTION-No. of electrons always equal to the proton no. of atom.
REASON-Atoms are always made up of proton, electron, and neutron.
3) ASSERION-No. of electrons always equal to the proton no. of atom.
REASON-Same no. of proton and electron present in atom makes it stable.
4) ASSERION-Electrons can easily remove off but not proton.
REASON-Electrons are more delicate than proton.
5) ASSERION-Electrons can easily remove off but not proton.
REASON-Protons are stronger than neutron.
6) ASSERION-Electrons can easily remove off but not proton.
REASON-Electrons are engulfed inside the nucleus.
7) ASSERION-Electrons can easily remove off but not proton.
REASON-Electrons revolved around the nucleus and proton is tightly held in nucleus due to
nucleic force.
8) ASSERION-Electrons can easily remove off but not proton.
77
 REASON-Protons revolved around the nucleus and electron is tightly held in nucleus due to
nucleic force.
9) ASSERION-Atomic mass is always concentrated inside the nucleus.
REASON-electrons are always revolved around nucleus.
10) ASSERION-Atomic mass is always concentrated inside the nucleus.
REASON-protons are always embedded inside the nucleus.
11) ASSERION-Atomic mass is always concentrated inside the nucleus.
REASON-protons are always embedded inside the core of atoms.
12) ASSERTION-The sum of proton no. and neutron no. gives us atomic mass number of atom.
REASON-Proton no. and neutron no. is always same.
13) ASSERTION-Thomson’s says that atoms consist of positively charged sphere and the
electrons are embedded in it.
REASON-Positively charged ions always spread inside the core of atoms
14) ASSERTION-Thomson’s says that atoms consist of positively charged sphere and the
electrons are embedded in it.
REASON-Negatively charged ions always spread inside the core of atoms.
15) ASSERTION-According to Rutherford’s experiment alpha particles are not deflected more
than proton.
REASON-Alpha particles are more fragile in nature.
16) ASSERTION-According to Rutherford’s experiment alpha particles are not deflected more
than proton.
REASON-Proton particles are more fragile in nature.
17) ASSERTION-According to Rutherford’s experiment alpha particles are not deflected more
than proton.
REASON-Proton particles are heavier than alpha particles.
18) ASSERTION-According to Rutherford’s experiment alpha particles are not deflected more
than proton.
REASON-alpha particles are heavier than proton particles hence they deflect less.
19) ASSERTION-According to Rutherford’s experiment alpha particles are not deflected more
than proton.
REASON-alpha particles are heavier than neutron particles hence they deflect less.
20) ASSERTION-According to Rutherford’s experiment alpha particles are not deflected more
than proton.
REASON-Neutrons are heavier than proton particles hence they deflect less.

78
 BIOLOGY

COURSE STRUCTURE CLASS IX

(Annual Examination) Marks: 80

Period Unit Marks

s
I Matter - Its Nature and Behaviour 23
II Organization in the Living World 20
III Motion, Force and Work 27
IV Our Environment 06
V Food; Food Production 04
Total 80
Internal assessment 20
Grand Total 100

Theme: Materials Unit I: Matter-Nature and

79
 Behaviour

 Definition of matter; solid, liquid and gas; characteristics - shape, volume, density;
change of state- melting (absorption of heat), freezing, evaporation (cooling by
evaporation), condensation, sublimation.
 Nature of matter: Elements, compounds and mixtures. Heterogeneous and homogenous
mixtures, colloids and suspensions.
 Particle nature and their basic units: Atoms and molecules, Law of constant proportions,
Atomic and molecular masses. Mole concept: Relationship of mole to mass of the
particles and numbers.
 Structure of atoms: Electrons, protons and neutrons, valency, chemical formula of common
compounds. Isotopes and Isobars.

Theme: The World of the Living

Unit II: Organization in the Living World
 Cell - Basic Unit of life : Cell as a basic unit of life; prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells,
multicellular organisms; cell membrane and cell wall, cell organelles and cell inclusions;
chloroplast, mitochondria, vacuoles, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus; nucleus,
chromosomes - basic structure, number.
 Tissues, Organs, Organ System, Organism:
Structure and functions of animal and plant tissues (only four types of tissues in animals;
Meristematic and Permanent tissues in plants).

80
  Biological Diversity: Diversity of plants and animals-basic issues in scientific naming, basis
of classification. Hierarchy of categories / groups, Major groups of plants (salient features)
(Bacteria, Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms). Major
groups of animals (salient features) (Non-chordates upto phyla and chordates upto classes).

 Health and Diseases: Health and its failure. Infectious and Non-infectious diseases, their
causes and manifestation. Diseases caused by microbes (Virus, Bacteria and Protozoans)
and their prevention; Principles of treatment and prevention. Pulse Polio programmes.

Theme: Moving Things, People and Ideas

UNIT- III : Motion, Force and Work

 Motion: Distance and displacement, velocity; uniform and non-uniform motion along a
straight line; acceleration, distance-time and velocity-time graphs for uniform motion and
uniformly accelerated motion, derivation of equations of motion by graphical method;
elementary idea of uniform circular motion.
 Force and Newton’s laws : Force and Motion, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Action and
Reaction forces, Inertia of a body, Inertia and mass, Momentum, Force and Acceleration.
Elementary idea of conservation of Momentum.
 Gravitation: Gravitation; Universal Law of Gravitation, Force of Gravitation of the earth
(gravity), Acceleration due to Gravity; Mass and Weight; Free fall.
 Floatation: Thrust and Pressure. Archimedes’ Principle; Buoyancy; Elementary idea of
Relative Density. Work, energy and power: Work done by a Force, Energy, power; Kinetic
and Potential energy; Law of conservation of energy.
 Sound: Nature of sound and its propagation in various media, speed of sound, range of
hearing in humans; ultrasound; reflection of sound; echo and SONAR. Structure of the
Human Ear (Auditory aspect only).

Theme: Natural Resources: Balance in nature

UNIT IV : Our Environment

 Physical resources: Air, Water, Soil. Air for respiration, for combustion, for moderating
temperatures; movements of air and its role in bringing rains across India.
 Air, water and soil pollution (brief introduction). Holes in ozone layer and the
probable damages.

 Bio-geo chemical cycles in nature: Water, Oxygen, Carbon and Nitrogen

Theme: Food
Unit V: Food Production
 Plant and animal breeding and selection for quality improvement and management; Use of
fertilizers and manures; Protection from pests and diseases; Organic farming.
81
PRACTICALS IN BIOLOGY

1. Preparation of stained temporary mounts of (a) onion peel, (b) human cheek cells & to
record observations and draw their labeled diagrams. (Unit-II)

2. Identification of Parenchyma, collenchyma and Sclerenchyma tissues in plants, striped,

smooth, and cardiac muscle fibers and nerve cells in animals, from prepared slides. Draw
their labeled diagrams (Unit-II)

3. Study of the characteristics of Spirogyra, Agaricus, Moss, Fern, Pinus (either with male or
female cone) and an Angiospermic plant. Draw and give two identifying features of the groups
they belong to. (Unit-II)

4. Observe the given pictures/charts/models of earthworm, cockroach, bony fish, and bird.
For each organism, draw their picture and record: (Unit-II)
a) one specific feature of its phylum.
b) one adaptive feature with reference to its habitat.

5. Study of the external features of root, stem, leaf and flower of monocot and dicot plants.
(Unit-III)

82
 Month Wise Syllabus (2023-24)

Term 1
April 2023
Chapter 6: Fundamental Unit of Life

May 2023
Chapter 5: Tissues

July 2023
Chapter 6: Tissues(Contd.)

August 2023
Chapter 15: Improvement in Food Resources

September: Revision Term 1

First Term Exam

Term 2
October 2023
Chapter 13: Why Do We fall Ill?
Chapter 14: Natural Resources
November 2023
Chapter 7: Diversity in Living Organisms

December 2023
Chapter 7: Diversity in Living Organisms (Contd.)

January 2023
Revision for Annual Exams

February 2023
Annual Exams

83
84
 Chapter : The Fundamental Unit Of Life
Assignment: 1

Q.1.Match the following: Single

Column I Column II
a) Nucleus i. Cellulose
b) Mitochondria ii. Double membrane
c) Cell wall iii. Cell sap
d) Vacuole. iv. Power house

Q2 Double Matching

a) Multicellular i. Lipids 1. Suicide bags

organisms
b) Plasma membrane ii. Plants 2. Inner folded
membrane
c) Mitochondria iii.Digestive 3. Proteins
enzymes
d) Lysosomes iv. Outer porous 4. Animals.
membrane

Q 3. Expand: RER, SER, DNA, RNA and ATP

Q 4. Shape and size of cells are related to the function they perform. Explain with example.

Q 5. A special process helps in the intake of oxygen inside the cells and release of carbon
dioxide from the cells. Name the process.
Q.6. Name the three types of plastids and the functions they perform.

Q 7. Name the two organelles that have their own genetic material.
Q 8. Amoeba is able to engulf its food due to the flexibility of the cell membrane. What is
this process called as?

85
 Q9. Each of these membranes were filled with 1% solution of sugar. Membrane A was immersed
in 0.5% sugar solution, Membrane B was immersed in 1% sugar solution and Membrane C was
immersed in 2% sugar solution. Predict the behavior of the three membranes.

Q10. Differentiate between plant cell and animal cell based on: Cell wall, vacuole and plastids.

Q11. Give the functions of the following (in one line)

a) Cell wall
b) Cell membrane
c) Nucleus
d) Mitochondria
e) Golgi apparatus
f) Lysosomes
g) Plastids
h) SER
i) RER
j) Ribosomes
Q12. State one similarity in structure between mitochondria and plastids.
Q13. Name the substances stored in Vacuole.
Q14.What percentage of plant cell volume does the central vacuole occupy?
Q15. Why does the skin of your fingers shrink when you wash clothes for a long time?
Q16. Which kind of plastid is present in:
a) Roots of the plant.
b) Leaves of the plant.
c) Flowers and fruits.

86
 WORKSHEET
Q1. Study the diagram and answer the following questions:

a) Identify and name the given structure.

b) Write two identifying features of the given structure which are different from the
animal cell.
Q3. What is a nucleoid?
Q4. Give function of Flagellum.

Q5. Different parts of a cell are shown in the following diagram. Study the parts and in
the table given write the names of each part in the appropriate table.

87
 Assignment No. 1.2
Multiple choice questions from the chapter

1. The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes is also known as

a) nucleus b) nucleolus c) nucleic acid d) nucleoid
2. Amoeba acquires its food through a process termed as
a) exocytosis b) endocytosis c) plasmolysis d) both a) and b).
3. Chromosomes are made up of
a) protein b) DNA c) DNA and protein d) RNA
4. Which cell organelle plays a crucial role in the detoxification of the cells?
a) Golgi apparatus b) Lysosomes c) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum d) vacuoles
5. Kitchen of the cell is
a) mitochondria b) endoplasmic reticulum c) chloroplast d) Golgi apparatus
6. Lysosomes arises from
a) endoplasmic reticulum b) Golgi apparatus c) nucleus d) mitochondria
7. Living cells were discovered by.
a) Robert Hooke b) Purkinje c) Leeuwenhoek d) Robert Brown
8. Which of the following is not the function of vacuole?
a) Storage b) Provide turgidity c) waste excretion d) Locomotion
9. A cell shrinks if
a) The concentration of water molecule in the cell is higher than the concentration of water
molecule in the surrounding medium.
b) The concentration of water molecule in the cell is lower than the concentration of water
molecule in the surrounding medium.
c) The concentration of water molecule is same in the cell and in the surrounding medium.
d) Concentration of water molecule does not matter.

10. Power house of the cell is

a) mitochondria b) endoplasmic reticulum c) chloroplast d) Golgi apparatus.
11. Plasmolysis in the plant cell is defined as
a) Break down of plasma membrane in hypotonic solution
b) Shrinkage of cytoplasm in the hypertonic medium
c) Shrinkage of nuclear membrane
d) None of the above
12. Which of the following organelle has a single membrane?
a) Mitochondria b) Chloroplast c) Vacuole d) None of the above

88
 Assignment No. 1.3

Multiple choice questions Based on Practical syllabus Temporary Mount.

1. To locate the specimen under the compound microscope the objective lens to be used is.

a) 10X b) 40X c) 100X d) fine adjustment and 40X

2. If the power of eyepiece is 10X and that of objective lens is 40X, then the total magnification
of microscope will be

a) 10X b) 400X c) 100Xd) 4X

3. The correct identification of the spot shown above is:

a) Onion peel b) Cheek cells c) Sclerenchyma d) Parenchyma

4. While preparing the temporary mount of cheek cell the tissue that is scrapped from the inner
side of cheek is:
a) epithelial tissue b) muscular tissue c) connective tissue d) nervous tissue

5. The stain used in preparing temporary mount of cheek cell is

a) glycerin b) safranin c) water d) methylene blue

6. Which of the following organelle is visible in the temporary mount of cheek cell?
a) nucleus b) mitochondria c) Golgi apparatus d) Lysosomes

7. To avoid air bubble during the preparation of temporary slide one should
a) use needle to place the cover slip
b) allow the slide to fall gently on the cover slip
c) remove air bubbles using the brush
d) none of the above

8. After staining onion peel for 2-3 minutes what will be the color of the peel
a) colorless b) red c) blue d) yellow

89
9. Use of toothpick in preparing temporary mount of cheek cell is

90
 a) to scrap the inner lining of cheek
b) to place the cover slip
c) to remove the air bubble
d) none of the above

10. The stain used in preparing temporary mount of onion peel is

a) glycerin b) safranin c) water d) methylene blue

11. Which of the following organelle is visible in the temporary mount of onion peel
a) nucleus b) mitochondria c) Golgi body d) lysosomes

12. Soham while observing an onion peel slide under the microscope noted the following
characteristics.
a) Presence of a single nucleus in a cell
b) Cells attached edge to edge without any intercellular spaces.
c) Presence of cell wall around each cell
d) All of these

13. Human cheek cell was stained, mounted and observed under the compound microscope.
The components of the cell which would be seen are:-
a) Cell wall, nucleus, and cytoplasm
b) Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
c) Plasma membrane, nucleus, mitochondria
d) Cell wall, nucleus, vacuole

14. Use of brush in preparing temporary mount of onion peel is-

a) to paint the peel
b) to transfer the peel
c) to remove the air bubble
d) to clean the slide

15. Microscopic observation of onion peel shows nucleus at the periphery the reason for this is
a) large nucleus
b) large vacuole
c) lack of cytoplasm
d) improper staining

91
 OSMOSIS RELATED QUESTIONS
1. Students A, B and C were given five raisins each of equal weight. The raisins were soaked
in distilled water at room temperature. A removed the raisins after, 20 minutes, B after two
hours and C after 40 minutes. If P A, P B & P C denotes percentage absorption of water
obtained by Students A, B and C respectively then,
(a) PA >PB >PC
(b) PA <PB <PC
(c) PA <PB >PC
(d) PA =PB =PC

2. A student dissolved 1 g of sugar in 10 mL of distilled water in a beaker A. He dissolved

10 g of sugar in 100 mL of distilled water in beaker B. Then he dropped a few raisins, in each.
After two hours he found the raisins
(a) Swollen in A and shrunken in B.
(b) Shrunken in A and swollen in B.
(c) Swollen in both.
(d) Shrunken in both.

3. A student dissolved 5 g of sugar in 100 mL of distilled water in beaker A. She dissolved

100 g of sugar in100 mL of distilled water in beaker B. Then she dropped a few raisins of equal
weight in each beaker. After two hours she found the raisins in A swollen and those in B
shrunken. The inference drawn is that
(a) Sugar concentration of raisins is lower than that of solution A and higher than that of
solution B.
(b) Sugar concentration of raisins is higher than that of solution A and lower than that of
solution B.
(c) In B the cell membrane of raisins was damaged resulting in leaching.
(d) In A the permeability to water of the cell membrane of raisins was enhanced.

4. While performing an experiment with raisins, a student recorded the following data.
Mass of water taken in the beaker= 50 g
Mass of raisins before soaking= 20 g Mass
of raisins after soaking = 30 g
Mass of water in the beaker left after experiment = 40 g; the percentage of water absorbed by
the raisin is
a) 10 %.
b) 20 %.
c) 45 %.
d) 50 %

5. 5g of raisins were placed in distilled water for 24 hours. The weight of soaked raisins was
found to be 7g. The correct percentage of water observed by raisins is
a) 20 % b) 25 %

92
c) 40 % d) 45 %

93
 Assignment No. 1.4

Questions on Assertion and Reason

Choose the correct option

1.Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
2. The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
3. Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
4. The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A) : Cell is the fundamental and structural unit of life

Reason (R): All living organisms have a eukaryotic cell

Choose the correct option

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true

2. Assertion: (A) All living organisms are composed of cells and products of
cells.
Reason (R): All cells arise from pre-existing cells.

Choose the correct option

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false.

d. A is false but R is true

3. Assertion (A): De-shelled eggs swell up in hypotonic solution.

94
Reason (R): An egg is rich in protein

95
 Paragraph Based Questions:

1. Read the passage and answer the questions given below.

The cell membrane is the outermost covering of the cell that separates the contents of the cell from its
external environment. It is made up of protein and lipid. It allows or permits the entry and exit of
some materials in and out of the cell. Some substances like carbon dioxide or oxygen can move
across the cell membrane by a process called diffusion. Osmosis is a special type of diffusion
through a selectively permeable membrane. Membrane bound structures called organelles are found
in the cytoplasm. Some organelles like mitochondria and chloroplast are bounded by two
membranes. Ribosomes synthesis protein.

A. The cell membrane is made up of substances prepared by:

a. RER and Nucleus

b. SER and Plastids

c. RER and SER

d. Cellulose and SER

B. Which process is responsible for the absorption of water by the roots of a plant?

a. Diffusion

b. Endocytosis

c. Osmosis

d. Plasmolysis

C What would happen when a Plant cell is placed in concentrated salt solution for 10 minutes?

a. It will swell

b. It will shrink

c. It gets plasmolysed

d. It remains the same

D Which of these have a cell wall?

a. Bacteria

96
b. Amoeba
c. Yeast
d. Viruses

97
98
 Chapter 6

Tissues

Assignment 2.1 Plant

Tissues

Q2. Complete the following:

Q3. Name the Complex Permanent Tissue. Why are they called as complex tissues?

99
Q4. Give the various elements of Xylem and Phloem.
Q5. State true or false, if, the statement is false correct it and rewrite the correct statement.
(i) Tissue consisting of loosely packed cells with large intercellular spaces is parenchyma.

(ii) Tissue consisting of regular thickening in the cells is Collenchyma.

100
 (iii) Chlorenchyma consists of large air cavities.
(iv) Sclerenchyma consists of chlorophyll which makes it hard.
(v) Small pores in the epidermis of leaf are called as stomata.
(vi) Cork cells contain lignin.

Q6. Draw a well labeled diagram of stomata showing guard cells.

Q7. What will happen if the epidermis is covered with a layer of Vaseline?
Q8. Give the functions of xylem and phloem.

Q9. Name the living elements of xylem and phloem.

Q10. Define the process of differentiation.

101
102
 Chapter 6 : TISSUES

Animal Tissues

Assignment No. 2.2

Q1. Give reasons:

(i) Why is it essential for oxygen to reach each and every cell of the body?

(ii) Matrix of bone is made up of calcium.

(iii) Presence of contractile protein in the muscles.

(iv) Why are muscles named as striated or unstriated?

(v) Neurons are long cells.

(vi) Animals of colder region and fishes of cold water have thick layer of subcutaneous fat.

Q 2 Complete the table

EPITHELIA TYPES LOCATION

L TISSUE

Squamous Epithelium

Respiratory tract

Glandular Epithelium

Q 3. Give the functions and components of blood.

Q 4. Differentiate between:

103
 (i) one and Cartilage
(ii) Tendons and ligament
(iii) Striated muscles and Cardiac muscles
(iv) Unstriated muscles and skeletal muscles.

Q 5. Give the function of axon and dendrite.

Q 6. What is the role of Adipose tissues in our body?

104
 Assignment No: 2.3

Multiple choice questions based on the chapter.

1. Which of the following have dead cells?

a) Parenchyma b) Sclerenchyma c) Collenchyma d) Epithelial tissue

2. Meristematic tissue in plants are

a) localised and permanent.
b) localised and dividing cells.
c) Permanent
d) Help in storage.

3. What is the function of stomata

a) Gaseous exchange
b) Transpiration

105
 c) Conduction of water
d) Both a) and b)

4. Girth of the stem increases due to

a) Apical meristem
b) Lateral meristem
c) Intercalary meristem
d) Vertical meristem

5. The dead element present in the Phloem is

a) Companion cells
b) Phloem fibre
c) Phloem parenchyma
d) Sieve tubes

6. Cartilage is not found in

a) Nose b) Ear c) Kidney d) Larynx

7. Nerve cells does not contain

a) axon
b) nerve endings
c) tendons
d) dendrites

106
8. Bone matrix is rich in
a) Fluoride and calcium
b) Calcium and phosphorous
c) Calcium and potassium
d) Phosphorous and potassium

9. Fats are stored in the human body as

a) Cartilage
b) Cuboidal epithelium
c) Adipose tissue
d) Areolar tissue

10. Voluntary muscles are found in

a) Alimentary canal
b) Limbs
c) Iris of the eye
d) Lungs

11. Which muscle acts involuntary?

a) Striated muscle
b) Smooth muscles
c) Cardiac muscles
d) Skeletal muscles

12. The muscular tissues that works continuously without fatigue is

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Smooth muscle
d) Voluntary muscle

13. Contractile protein are found in

a) Bone
b) Blood
c) Muscles
d) Cartilage

107
 Assignment No: 6.108

Assignment No: 2.4

Multiple choice questions based on Practical syllabus Permanent slides

1) You are shown a slide of plant tissue with both parenchyma and collenchyma.
You can identify the collenchyma by
a) Location of nucleus b) Position of vacuole
c) Thickness of the cell wall d) Size of cell

2) The permanent plant tissue which is living and thin walled is

a) Parenchyma b) Sclerenchyma
c) Collenchyma d) Xylem

3) Which of the following is the packing tissue of the plant?

a) Collenchyma b) Parenchyma c) Sclerenchyma d) Phloem

4) Striated muscles are called so because they have

a) inconspicuous nucleus
b) alternate light and dark bands
c) light bands only
d) none of the above

5) Kusum observed nerve cells under the microscope, and labeled the sketch. The
mistake in her labeling is
a) Cilia b) Dendrites c) Nucleus d) Cytoplasm

6) Continuously dividing tissues are called as

a) meristematic tissues b) sclerenchyma c) xylem d) epithelial

7) Cuboidal epithelial cells are found in

a) tongue b) kidney tubules c) stomach
d) inner lining of the check

8) Blood is a type of
a) epithelial tissue b) nervous tissue c) connective tissue
d) muscular tissue

9) Muscles involved in the movement of the arm are

a) striated b) unstriated c) cardiac d) smooth

10) Bases of leaves and internodes have

a) lateral meristem b) apical meristem c) intercalary meristem
d) none Assignment No: 6.109
 Assignment No: 2.5
Questions on Assertion and Reason

1. Assertion (A): A simple tissue is made up of only one type of cell.

Reason (R): Various simple tissues in plants are parenchyma, collenchyma and
sclerenchyma.

Choose the correct option

a. Both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true, Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and reason are false.

2. Assertion (A) : The cells of connective tissues except blood secrete fibres.
Reason (R): Fibers provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissue.

Choose the correct option

a. Both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true, Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and reason are false

3. Assertion (A): Tissue is made up of many type of cells.

Reason(R): Different cells have different functions.

Choose the correct option

a. Both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true, Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and reason are false
 Paragraph Based Questions

1. Read the paragraph and answers the questions given below

Connective tissues are characterized by an abundance of intercellular matrices with relatively few cells.
Connective tissue cells are able to reproduce but not as rapidly as epithelial cells. Connective
tissues is a network that binds structures together, form a framework and support an organs and the
body as a whole, store fat, transport substances, protect against disease, and help repair tissue
damage. They occur throughout the body. Numerous cell types are found in connective tissue.
Three of the most common are the fibroblast, macrophage, and mast cell. The types of connective
tissue include loose connective tissue, adipose tissue, dense fibrous connective tissue, elastic
connective tissue, cartilage, osseous tissue (bone), and blood.

Q1. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of hand were dislocated. Which among
the following may be the possible reason?
(a) Tendon break
(b) Break of skeletal muscle
(c) Ligament break
(d) Areolar tissue break

Q2. Which of the following helps in repair of tissue and fills up the space inside the organ?
(a) Tendon
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Areolar
(d) Cartilage
Q3. Bone matrix is rich in
(a) fluoride and calcium
(b) calcium and phosphorus
(c) calcium and potassium
(d) phosphorus and potassium

Q4. Contractile proteins are found in

(a) bones
(b) blood
(c) muscles
(d) cartilage

Q5. Select the incorrect sentence.

(a) Blood has a matrix containing proteins, salts, and hormones.

(b) Two bones are connected with ligament.
(c) Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile.
(d) Cartilage is a form of connective tissue.
 TERM 1

Revision Worksheet

Choose the correct option 3

1. Which cell organelle is actively involved in membrane biogenesis?

a. ER
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Lysosomes
d. Vacuoles

2. Name the process that requires energy provided by ATP

a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Active transport
d. Plasmolysis
3. Chromatin material consists of:-
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. DNA and proteins
d. RNA and proteins

4. The barrier between genetic material and cytoplasm in an animal cell is called:
a. Cell wall
b. Nuclear membrane
c. Tonoplast.
d. Plasma membrane

5. Which organelle is not bound by a membrane?

a. Ribosomes
b. Lysosomes
c. ER
d. Nucleus

6. Which one is an oil yielding plant among the following?

a. Lentil
b. Sunflower
c. Cauliflower
d. Hibiscus
Q 2. Match the column :- 2.5

Column A Column B
a. cattle used for tilling and carting
i) Aseel
b. Indian breed of chicken
Ii Broiler
c. Sahiwal Iii Milk producing female
d. Chicken better fed for obtaining meat
Iv drought animals
e. Milch v) Local breed of cattle

Q 3. Fill in the blanks :- 2.5

a) is the process by which unspecialized structures become modified and specialized

for performing specialized functions.
b) Tracheids are cells (with/without) Protoplasm.
c) is made of white fibres and connects muscles to bones.
d) Pigeon pea is a good source of

e) Xanthium and parthenium are commonly known as

4
Q 4. Define the following
1. Plasmolysis

2. Osmosis

3. Apiculture

4. Macronutrients

Q 5. Answer the following 8

1. Differentiate between compost and Green manure

2. Name two types of animal feed.

3. What is the function of lignin deposition in cell wall?
4. Name and draw a cell that does not have a well-defined nuclear region. Label any 2 parts
Q.6A) Identify the location of these cells. 2
B) Give one function of sclerenchyma tissue

Q7. What would happen if poultry birds are larger in size and have no summer adaptability?
In order to get small size poultry birds, having summer adaptability what method will be
employed?

Q8. Observe the given slides. It shows various types of connective tissues in animals. 3

A) Identify the location of any two of these

B) Differentiate on the basis of structure between any two of these.
C) Differentiate on the basis of function between adipose tissue and blood
 Chapter 15

IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES

Q1. Name two crops that are used as food for the livestock.

Q2. Describe Kharif and Rabi crops. Give example of each of them.

Q3. What are the three steps that help in improving crop yields?

Q4. Name two methods for improving crop variety.

Q5. Scientists have worked on improvement in the seed quality. Name six such factors for which
variety improvement has been achieved.

Q6. Differentiate between:

a) Fertilizers and Manures.

b) Mixed Cropping and Inter Cropping.

Q7. What is organic farming

Q8. Mention the various ways by which irrigation is achieved in India.

Q9. What are weeds? Give example and explain why they are harmful?

Q10. Write the factors responsible for the spoilage of grains. How can these be controlled?

Q11. What is Animal Husbandry?

Q12. Give the advantage of cattle husbandry

Q13. Name the cattle variety:

a) useful for long lactation period
b) resistance to diseases
Q14. Give the food requirement of dairy animals.

Q15. Mention the cross breeding programs with respect to the Poultry farming.
6.What is broiler chicken?

Assignment No. 5.2

Multiple choice questions

1) Sustainable agriculture involves

a) Mixes Farming b) Crop rotation c) Both d) None

2) Pisciculture is
a) Bee Keeping b) Fish Production c) Pearl culture
d) Broiler Production

3) Broilers are
a) Ornamental fishes b) Used for meat c) Dairy products
d) Used for Bee keeping

4) Sahiwal is a
a) Cattle breed b) Poultry breed c) Dairy product
d) Fish

5) Weeds are
a) Herbs b) useful crops c) harmful d) both a and
c
6) Selection of crop for rotation depends on
a) Moisture conditions b) Rainy season c) Both d) none

7) Legume crop is sown before a cereal crop to

a) Have two crops in an year b) improve the crop variety
c) to maintain soil fertility d) None of the above

8) Apiaries are
a) place to keep apes b) place to keep bees
c) place to keep any living organism d) all of the above

9) Aseel is an indigenous Fowl

a) True b) False c) it is an exotic breed
d) it is a type of fish

10) Pomphret is a marine fish

a) False b) True
c) Pomphret is actually found in fresh and marine water both
d) None of the above
 Assignment No. 5.3
Questions on Assertion and Reason

1. Assertion: Fertilizers have important nutrients for the growth of the crops.
Reason: Fertilizers are very healthy for the soil.

Choose the correct option

a. Both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and reason are true, but Reason is not the
correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true, Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and reason are false.

2. Assertion: Ploughing helps to create air spaces in the soil.

Reason:Ploughing helps in mixing the nutrients in the soil.

Choose the correct option

a. Both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and reason are true, but Reason is not the
correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true, Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and reason are false.

3. Assertion: For irrigation sprinklers provides the right amount of water to the soil without
any wastage.
Reason: Drip irrigation helps in the conservation of water.

Choose the correct option

a. Both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and reason are true, but Reason is not the
correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true, Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and reason are false.

4. Assertion: Animal husbandry is rearing of animals for their produce.

Reason: Animal husbandry involves proper hygiene and medical assistance.
Choose the correct option
a. Both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
b. Both Assertion and reason are true, but Reason is
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c. Assertion is true, Reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and reason are false.
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