Test Series (2023)

Full Syllabus Test - 1

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes 23-04-2023 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Complete Syllabus (Class 11th and 12th)
Chemistry : Complete Syllabus (Class 11th and 12th)
Botany : Complete Syllabus (Class 11th and 12th)
Zoology : Complete Syllabus (Class 11th and 12th)

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hour 20 minute duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each part.
5. There is only one correct response for each questions.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

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 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A 8. n1 and n2 are the moles of two ideal gases, whose
1. A car of 1000 kg moving with a velocity of 18  Cp 
km/hr is stopped by the brake force of 1000 N. The thermodynamics constants, [ratio of   ] are 1
distance covered by it before coming to rest is  Cv 
(1) 1 m (2) 162 m  Cp 
and 2 respectively, are mixed.   for the
(3) 12.5 m (4) 144 m  Cv 
mixture is-
2. A body is suspended by a string from the celling of
1 +  2
an elevator. It is observed that the tension in the (1)
string is doubled when the elevator is accelerated 2
upward, the acceleration will be n11 + n2  2
(2)
(1) 4.9 m/s2 n1 + n2
(2) 9.8 m/s2 n1 2 + n2 1
(3) 19.6 m/s2 (3)
n1 + n2
(4) 2.45 m/s2
n11 (  2 − 1) + n2  2 ( 1 − 1)
(4)
PV n1 (  2 − 1) + n2 ( 1 − 1)
3. The quantity represents:
KT
(1) Mass of the gas
9. A ball rolls off top of a stair-way with a horizontal
(2) Kinetic energy of the gas
velocity u m/s. If the steps are
(3) Number of the moles of the gas
h meters high and b meters wide, the ball will just
(4) Number of molecules in the gas
hit the edge of nth step if n equals to
4. Which one of the following is a conservative force? hu 2 u2 g
(1) (2)
(1) Friction gb 2 gb 2
(2) Coulomb’s force only
2hu 2 2u 2 g
(3) Gravitational force only (3) (4)
(4) Both (2) and (3) gb 2 hb 2

5. A block is kept on a horizontal table. The table is 10. In a uniform circular motion, which of the
undergoing simple harmonic motion of frequency following is not correct?
3 Hz in a horizontal plane. The coefficient of static (1) v = r  
friction between the block and the table surface is
(2) a =  (  r )
0.72. Find the maximum amplitude of the table at
which the block does not slip on the surface (g = (3) v =  r
10ms–2) (4) a =  v
(1) 0.01 m (2) 0.02 m
(3) 0.03 m (4) 0.04 m 11. A source and a detector move away from each
other, each with a speed of 10m/s with respect to
6. Transmission of heat by molecular collisions is
the ground with no wind. If the detector detects a
(1) Conduction frequency 1950Hz of the sound coming from the
(2) Convection source, what is the original frequency of the
(3) Radiation source? Speed of sound in air = 340m/s
(4) Scattering (1) 2700 Hz (2) 2007 Hz
(3) 2070 Hz (4) 2170 Hz
7. The coefficient of linear expansion of a crystal in
one direction is 1 and that in every direction 12. The potential energy of a body as a function of
perpendicular to it is 2. The coefficient of cubical distance is given as U(x) = (–6x2 + 2x) J. The
expansion is conservative force acting on body at x = 1 m will
(1) 1 + 2 (2) 21 + 2 be
(3) 1 + 22 (4) None of above (1) 6 N (2) 8 N
(3) 10 N (4) 12 N
13. The acceleration of a particle is given as a = 3x2. 21. If the series limit of wavelength of the Lyman series
At t = 0, v = 0, x = 0. The velocity at t = 2 sec will for H-atom is , then series limit of wavelength for
be: Paschen series of H-atom is
(1) 0.05 m/s (2) 0.5 m/s (1)  (2) /3
(3) 5 m/s (4) 50 m/s (3) 3 (4) 9

14. When a current of (2.5 ± 0.5) ampere flows through 22. Correct match of Coolum I with column II is:
a wire, it develops a potential difference of (20 ± C-I (waves) C-II (Production)
1) volt. Find the resistance of the wire A. Infra-red P. Rapid vibration of
(1) (6 + 3)  (2) (7 + 2)  electrons in aerials
(3) (8 + 2)  (4) (18 + 3)  B. Radio Q. Electrons in atoms
when they move from
15. The distance between two particles on a string is higher to lower
10 cm. If the frequency of wave propagating in it energy level.
is 400 Hz and its speed is 100 m/s then the phase C. Light R. Klystron tube
difference between the particles will be D. Microwave S. Vibration of atoms
(1) 0.8  Radian (2) 0.4  Radian and molecules
(3) 0.2  Radian (4)  Radian (1) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
16. If A = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj and B = 7iˆ + 24 ˆj, Then the vector (3) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
(4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
having the same magnitude as B and parallel to A
is -
23. Assertion: In uniform circular motion speed of the
(1) 15i +20 ˆj (2) −15i +20 ˆj particle is constant.
(3) 15i –20 ˆj (4) 15i + 30 ˆj Reason: In uniform circular motion linear
momentum of the particle is constant.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
17. A body floats with one third of its volume outside
reason is the correct explanation of the
water and ¾ of its volume outside in another liquid.
assertion
The density of the other liquid is
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
(1) 9/4 gm/c.c (2) 4/3 gm/c.c
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) 8/3 gm/c.c (4) 3/8 gm/c.c
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false
18. The viscous force acting on a solid ball moving in
air with terminal velocity v is directly proportional
24. In Which of the following situation, doppler effect
to
will appear:
(1) v (2) v
(1) Listener and source of sound are rest
(3) 1 / v (4) v2 (2) Both are moving with same velocity along the
same straight line, in same directions
19. The ratio of excess pressure inside drops of water (3) In both case
of diameters 2.0 mm and 20 m is- (4) In None of the above case
1 1
(1) (2)
10 100 25. A rectangular coil of size 10 cm × 20 cm has 60
1 1 turns. It is rotating in magnetic field of
(3) (4) 0.5 Wb/m2 with a rate of 1800 revolutions per
1000 10000
minutes. The maximum induced e.m.f. across the
20. In a nuclear reaction which of the following ends of the coil is
remains conserved? (1) 90 V
(1) Mass (2) 80 V
(2) energy (3) 70 V
(3) relativistic energy (4) 36 V
(4) None of these
26. An uniform elastic rope of length L (area A), mass (1) 25.0 cm (2) 16.7 cm
m is sliding on a horizontal smooth table by force (3) 50.3 cm (4) 33.3 cm
F as shown in figure. If Young's modulus of
material is Y then extension in rope is 32. A convex lens of power 4D is kept in contact with
a concave lens of power 3D, the effective power of
combination will be
FL 2FL (1) 7D (2) 4D/3
(1) (2)
AY AY (3) 1D (4) 3D/4
FL FL
(3) (4)
2 AY 3 AY 33. A conducting wire of length l is turned in the form
of a circular coil and a current i is passed through
27. Consider the arrangement shown in figure in which it. For torque due to magnetic field produced at its
the north pole of a magnet is moved away from a centre, to be maximum, the number of turns in the
thick conducting loop containing capacitor. Then coil will be
excess positive charge will arrive on (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Any value (4) More then 1

34. An electron is revolving in a circular path of radius

2×10–10 m with a speed of 3×106 m/s. The magnetic
field at the centre of circular path will be-
(1) 1.2 Tesla
(2) 2.4 Tesla
(3) Zero
(1) Plate a (4) 3.6 Tesla
(2) Plate b
(3) On both plates a and b 35. The refractive indices of material of a prism for
(4) On neither a nor b plates.
blue and red colours are 1.532 and 1.514
respectively. Calculate angular dispersion
28. Photograph formed by A pinhole camera is:
produced by the prism if angle of prism is 18°.
(1) Real image (2) Virtual image
(1) 0.144° (2) 0.104°
(3) Shadow (4) None of these
(3) 0.044° (4) 0.4°
29. At any place on earth, the horizontal component of
SECTION - B
earth’s magnetic field is 3 times the vertical
component. The angle of dip at that place will be 36. A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small
(1) 60° (2) 45° loop of area 2 cm2 placed inside the solenoid
(3) 90° (4) 30° normal to its axis. If the current carried by the
solenoid changes steadily from 2A to 4A in 0.1 sec
30. A magnet of moment M is lying in a magnetic field then find induced emf in loop.
of induction B. W1 is the work done in turning it (1) 6 0
from 0º to 60º and W2 is the work done in turning (2) 0.6 0
it from 30º to 90º. Then (3) 0.06 0
W
(1) W2 = W1 (2) W2 = 1 (4) 60 0
2
(3) W2 = 2W1 (4) W2 = 3W1 37. A geyser heats water flowing at the rate of 3.0 litres
per sec from 27°C to 77°C. If the geyser operates
31. A convex lens when placed in the first position on a gas burner, what is the rate of consumption of
forms a real image of an object on a fixed screen. the fuel if its heat of combustion is 4.0 × 104 J/g?
The distance between the object and the screen is (1) 157 gm
75 cm. On displacing the lens from first position by (2) 0.157 gm
25 cm to the second position, again a real image is (3) 1.57 gm
formed on the screen. Then the focal length of the (4) 15.7 gm
lens is :
38. An element  = xiˆ is place at the origin and (1) 2% (2) 4%
carries a large current I = 10 A. What is the (3) 8% (4) 1%
magnitude of magnetic field on the y-axis at a
distance of 0.5 m. x = 1 cm: 43. If  is the surface charge density of the conductor
then, mechanical force per unit area of a charged
conductor is proportional to:
(1) (1/)2 (2) 2
(3)  (4) 

44. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive

charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net field
E at the centre O is:
(1) 2×10–8 T (2) 4×10–8T
(3) 6×10–8 T (4) 8×10–8T

39. Assertion: Bohr’s atomic model can be applied for

every atom.
Reason: The energy state of election in atom is
continuous. q ˆj
(1)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the 4 0 r 2
2

reason is the correct explanation of the q

(2) − ˆj
assertion 4  0 r 2
2
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
q ˆj
is not the correct explanation of the assertion (3) −
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false 2  0 r 2
2

(4) If the assertion and reason both are false q

(4) ˆj
2 0 r 2
2
40. Why the blood pressure in humans is greater at the
feet than at the brain: 45. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge
(1) Liquid pressure increases downward
from infinite distance to a point at a distance x from
(2) Density of blood is more in feet than brain
positive charge Q is W. Then, the potential at the
(3) Both (1) and (2)
point is:
(4) None of (1) and (2)
WQ
(1) (2) W
41. Shown in the figure given below is a meter- bridge
X
set up with null deflection in the galvanometer. The (3) W/X (4) WQ
value of the unknown resistor R is:
46. Assertion: In a metre bridge experiment, null point
for an unknown resistance is measured. Now, the
unknown resistance is put inside an enclosure
maintained at a temperature. The null point can be
obtained at the same point as before by decreasing
the value of the standard resistance.
Reason: Resistance of a metal remains constant
with increase in temperature.
(1) If both assertion & Reason are Ture & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) 13.75  (2) 220  Assertion.
(3) 110  (4) 55  (2) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture but
Reason
42. A conducting wire is stretched to increase its length (3) If Assertion is Ture but the Reason is false
by 2%. What is the percentage change in its (4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
resistance
47. Assertion: A material having greater Young’s 49. Assertion: Coolant coils are fitted at the top of a
modulus also possesses greater bulk modulus. refrigerator, for formation of convection current.
Reason: The elastic moduli are due to Reason: Air becomes denser on cooling.
intermolecular forces existing in the material. (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true & the
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Assertion.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Assertion.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (3) If Assertion is True but the Reason if False.
Assertion (4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) If Assertion is Ture but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False. 50. Assertion: An emf E is induced in a closed loop
where magnetic flux is varied. The induced E is not
48. Assertion: Copper is a paramagnetic substance. a conservation filed.
Reason: Paramagnetic substance when placed in a Reason: The line integral of E.d around the
magnetic field are feebly magnetised in a direction closed loop is non-zero.
opposite to that of the magnetising filed. (1) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture & the
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion. (2) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture but
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion (3) If Assertion is Ture but the Reason is False.
(3) If Assertion is Ture but the Reason is False. (4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A 54. Which of the following is the correct expression for
51. Which is the correct order of atomic radii? the 1st law of thermodynamics under adiabatic
(1) Mn > Fe > Co conditions?
(2) Mn = Fe = Co (1) U = q + 2W (2) U = q – W
(3) Sc < Ti > V (3) q = –W (4) U = W
(4) Zn > Cu > Ni
55. The function of enzymes in the living system is to:
52. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in (1) Catalyse biochemical reactions
an empty container at 25o C. The fraction of the (2) Provide energy
total pressure exerted by oxygen is (3) Transport oxygen
1 (4) Provide immunity
(1)
2
2 56. Which of the following is not a hazardous pollutant
(2) present in automobile exhaust gases?
3
1 273 (1) N2 (2) CO
(3)  (3) CH4 (4) Oxide of Nitrogen
3 298
1
(4) 57. A compound is treated with Tollen's reagent.
3
Formation of a silver mirror indicates the presence
53. In DNA, the linkages between different of the following group.
O
nitrogenous bases are: ||
(1) Phosphate linkages (1) –CHO (2) — C—
(2) H-bonding (3) –NO2 (4) –NH2
(3) Glycosidic linkages
(4) Peptide linkages
58. The correct order of bond dissociation energy (1) PA + A(PB – PA)
among N2, O2, O2– is shown in which of the (2) PA + A(PA – PB)
following arrangements? (3) PB + A(PB – PA)
(1) N2  O2−  O2 (4) PB + A(PA – PB)
(2) O−2  O2  N2
64. The rate of a chemical reaction tells us about
(3) N2  O2  O−2 (1) The reactants taking part in the reaction
(4) O2  O2−  N2 (2) The products formed in the reaction
(3) How slow or fast the reaction is taking place
(4) None of the above
59. CsCl crystallises in body centered cubic lattice. If
‘a’ is its edge length then which of the following
65. Which one of the following statements is correct?
expression is correct?
(1) All amino acids except lysine are optically
(1) r + + r − = 3a
Cs Cl active
3a (2) All amino acids are optically active
(2) rCs+ + rCl− =
2 (3) All amino acids except glycine are optical
3 active
(3) rCs + + rCl− = a
2 (4) All amino acids except glutamic acids are
optically active
(4) rCs + + rCl− = 3a

66. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly

acidic medium gives:
60. (1) Aniline
(2) Nitrosobenzene
(3) N-Phenylhydroxylamine
(4) p-Hydroxyaniline
(1)
67. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol has
a vapour pressure of 290 mm at 300 K. The vapour
(2) pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 mm. If the mole
fraction of ethyl alcohol is 0.6, its vapour pressure
(in mm) at the same temperature will be
(1) 360 (2) 350
(3) (3) 300 (4) 700

(4) 68. Salts of A(atomic mass: 15), B(atomic mass: 27),

and C(atomic mass: 48) were electrolysed using
the same amount of charge. It was found that when
61. Which of the following pairs have approximately 4.5g of A was deposited, the mass of B and C
the same atomic radii? deposited was 2.7g and 9.6g. The valency of A, B,
(1) Zr and Hf (2) Al and Mg and C, respectively;
(3) Al and Ga (4) Na and Ne (1) 1, 3 and 2 (2) 3, 1 and 3
(3) 2, 6 and 3 (4) 3, 1 and 2
62. The metal that gives hydrogen gas upon treatment
with both acids as well as bases is: 69. Be2C + H2O → Be(OH)2 + [X] ; "X" is:
1) Zinc (2) Mercury (1) C2H2 (2) CH4
(3) Iron (4) Magnesium (3) C2H4 (4) None of these

63. PA and PB are the vapour pressures of pure liquid 70. 10–6M HCl is diluted to 100 times. Its pH is:
components, A and B, respectively of an ideal (1) 6 (2) 8
binary solution. If A represents the mole fraction (3) 6.98 (4) 7.02
of component A, the total pressure of the solution
will be:
71. The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is/are: (1) Both the assertion and the reason are correct, and
(1) CaSO4.2H2O the reason is the correct explanation of the
(2) 2CaSO4.H2O assertion.
1 (2) Both the assertion and the reason are correct, and
(3) CaSO4 . H 2O
2 the reason is not correct explanation of the
(4) CaSO4.H2O assertion.
(3) The assertion is correct, but the reason is
72. How many number of atoms are effectively present incorrect.
in a cubic unit formed by an arrangement of eight (4) Both the assertion and the reason are incorrect
BCC unit cells?
(1) 12 (2) 14 78. Which of the following salts has the same value as
(3) 16 (4) 18 of van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of K3[Fe(CN)6]?
(1) Na2SO4
73. Which is the best description for the behaviour of
(2) Al(NO3)3
Bromine in the reaction given below?
(3) Al2(SO4)3
H2O + Br2 → HOBr + HBr
(4) NaCl
(1) Proton acceptor only
(2) Both oxidised and reduced
(3) Oxidised only 79. Assertion: In strongly acidic solutions, aniline
(4) Reduced only becomes more reactive towards electrophilic
reagents.
74. The IUPAC name of the compound is: Reason: The amino group being completely
protonated in strongly acidic solution, the lone pair
of electrons on the nitrogen is no longer available
for resonance.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) 1 - Ethoxy - 2 - nitrocyclohexane
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(2) 1- Nitro-2-ethoxyhexane
is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) 2- Ethoxy - 1 - nitrocyclohexane
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) 1 - Ethoxy - 2 - nitrobenzene
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
75. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three
metals A, B & C are respectively +0.5 V, –3.0V & 80. Which of the following are incorrect orders of
–1.2V. The reducing powers of these metals are property indicated against it?
(1) A > B > C (1) SO4–2 < SO3–2 < S– 2 (Order of Polarizability)
(2) C > B > A
(2) ClO4–1  ClO–1  ClO2–1  Cl –1 (order of
(3) A > C > B
(4) B > C > A Polarizability)
(3) Sc+2  Ti +3  V +3  Cr +3 (order of polarizing
76. The carboxyl functional group (–COOH) is present Power)
in
(4) Cd+2  Zn +2  Hg+2 (order of polarizing
(1) Picric acid
(2) Barbituric acid power)
(3) Ascorbic acid
(4) Aspirin 81. For a certain redox reaction, E° is positive. This
means that
77. Assertion: The enthalpy of reaction remains (1) ΔG° is positive, K is greater than 1
constant in the presence of a catalyst. (2) ΔG° is positive, K is less than 1
Reason: A catalyst participating in the reaction (3) ΔG° is negative, K is greater than 1
forms different activated complex and lowers down (4) ΔG° is negative, K is less than 1
the activation energy but the difference in energy of
reactant and product remains the same.
82. The tests performed on compound X and their (2) A, C, E, F
inferences are: (3) B, C, E, F
Test Inference (4) B, C, D, E
(a) 2, 4-DNP test Coloured
(b) Iodoform test yellow precipitate 85. The correct stability order for the following species
(c) Azo-dye test No dye formation is
Compound ‘X’ is:

(1) (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)

(1) (2) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(3) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
(4) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)

(2) SECTION - B
86. Vapour density of two gases are in the ratio of
2 : 9. What will be the ratio of their molar masses?
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 9
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : 1
(3)
87. In the following sequence of reactions,
P+I Mg HCHO
CH 3CH 2OH ⎯⎯⎯
2
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
Ether
→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
H 2O
C ⎯⎯⎯
→D
(4) The compound D is
(1) propanal
(2) butanal
(3) n-butyl alcohol
83. Match the column:
(4) n-propyl alcohol
(A) A process carried (p) Adiabatic
out 88. Which of the following is a condensation polymer?
infinitesimally (1) Nylon 6,6
slowly (2) Neoprene
(3) Teflon
(B) A process in (q) E = 0, H = 0 (4) Buna-S
which no heat
enters or leaves
89. The correct match between Item I and Item II is
the system
Item I Item II
(C) A process carried (r) Reversible
out at constant (a) Natural (I) 1, 3-butadiene +
temperature rubber styrene

(D) Cyclic process (s) Isothermal (b) Neoprene (II) 1, 3-butadiene +

acrylonitrile
(1) A-p, B-r, C-s, D-q
(c) Buna N (III) Chloroprene
(2) A-r, B-p, C-s, D-q
(3) A-r, B-q, C-s, D-p (d) Buna S (IV) Isoprene
(4) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r

84. Among the following complexes (A–F), (1) (A) – (III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
K3[Fe(CN)6] (A), [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (B), (2) (A) – (III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Na3[Co(oxalate)3] (C), [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 (D), (3) (A) – (IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
K2[Pt(CN)4] (E) and [Zn(H2O)6](NO3)2 (F) (4) (A) – (IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
The diamagnetic complexes are:
(1) A, B, C, D
90. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) 94.

(A) P is benzene diazonium chloride.

(2) (B) Q cannot give bromine water test.
(C) R and S are position isomers.
(D) During the formation of R and S from Q.
(3) Formation of a new C–C bond will take place.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(1) A, C and D are correct statements.
(2) A, B, C and D are correct statements.
(4)
(3) A and B are correct statements.
(4) A, B and C are correct statements.

91. Assertion: Extraction of iron metal from iron oxide 95. In the following reaction,
ore is carried out by heating with coke −
Reason: The reaction, Fe2O3(s) → 2Fe (s) + 3/2 O2 B ( OH )3 + H2O → B ( OH )4  + H+
(g) is a spontaneous process (1) B(OH)3 is a tribasic acid.
(1) Both the assertion and the reason are correct, (2) B(OH)3 is a monoacidic Lewis basic
and the reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) B(OH)3 is a monobasic Lewis acid
assertion.
(4) B(OH)3 is amphoteric
(2) Both the assertion and the reason are correct,
and the reason is not correct explanation of the
assertion. 96. The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of
(3) The assertion is correct, but the reason is an aqueous buffer solution of HA in which 50% of
incorrect. the acid is ionized is
(4) Both the assertion and the reason are incorrect. (1) 7.0
(2) 4.5
92. The value of van der Waals constant 'a' for gases (3) 2.5
O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are x, y, z and c respectively, (4) 9.5
where z > c > y > x. The gas which can most easily
be liquefied is: 97. The ore that contains both iron and copper is:
(1) O2 (1) Malachite
(2) N2 (2) Azurite
(3) NH3 (3) Dolomite
(4) CH4 (4) Copper pyrites

93. Tyndall effect is observed when:

98. Find the number of chiral carbon in –D–(+)–
(1) The diameter of the dispersed particle is much
Glucose:
larger than the wavelength of light used
(1) 2
(2) The diameter of the dispersed particle is much
(2) 3
smaller than the wavelength of light used
(3) 4
(3) The refractive index of the dispersed phase is
greater than that of the dispersion medium (4) 5
(4) The diameter of the dispersed phase particle is
similar to the wavelength of light used
99. In a set of reactions, p-nitrotoluene yielded a
product E. The product E is:

(3) (4)

100. Which of the following will react with water:

(1) CHCl3 (2) Cl3CCHO
(2) (3) CCl4 (4) ClCH2CH2Cl
(1)

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A
101. In Basidiomycetes 105. Taxonomic category, which is the assemblage of
(1) Mycelium is septate and branched. families exhibiting a few similar character is
(2) They are found as parasites on plants like (1) Class (2) Sub-class
wheat. (3) Division (4) Order
(3) Sex organs are present.
(4) Asexual spores are generally not found, but 106. Assertion (A): In Liliaceae, perianth, stamens and
fragmentation occurs. carpels are present but still it is incomplete.
Reason (R): Calyx, corolla, androecium, and
102. Match the different organisms with their respective gynoecium are present in a complete flower.
features & select the correct option (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is correct
(A) Diatoms (i) Heterocysts explanation of (A)
(B) Protozoa (ii) Nucleoid (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct
(C) Bacteria (iii) Phytoplankton explanation of (A)
(D) Gonyaulax (iv) Holozoic nutrition (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(E) Anabena (v) Red tide (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
A B C D E
(1) ii iii i iv v 107. Underground stem of which of the plants is
(2) iii iv ii v i modified to store food in them?
(3) v iv iii ii i (1) Euphorbia
(4) i iii ii iv v (2) Citrus
(3) Pistia
103. Which of the following statement is wrong about (4) Colocasia
gymnosperms?
(1) The leaves in gymnosperms are well adapted
to withstand extremes of temperature,
humidity and wind
108.
(2) Gymnosperms are heterosporous
(3) Male and female gametophytes have
independent free-living existence
(4) In Cycas, male cones and megasporophylls The given diagram showing types of aestivation in
are borne on different trees corolla. Identify aestivation found in Gulmohar,
lady finger and calotropis respectively
104. Oogamous type of sexual reproduction is found in (1) C, B, A (2) B, C, A
(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix (3) A, B, C (4) C, A, B
(3) Eudorina (4) Spirogyra
109. The correct floral formula of Sesbania is– 114. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(1) Microtubules and microfilaments are found
(1)  k2+2 C4 A2+4 G(2)
only in eukaryotes.
(2) % k5 C1+2+(2) A 9+1 G1 (2) Centriole has 9 + 2 microtubular arrangement
while cilium has 9 + 0
(3) % k(5) C1+2+(2) A(9) + 1 G1 (3) Cell within the cell is stated for mitochondria
and chloroplasts
(4)  k5 C5 A5 G1
(4) In prokaryotic cells, respiratory enzymes are
located on plasma membrane
110. Statement I: Phellogen is primary cambium.
It is made up of thick walled rectangular cells. 115. Mitochondria are sites of
(1) Glycolysis (2) Hill reaction
Statement II: Phellogen develops in cortex region (3) Calvin cycle (4) Krebs cycle
cells of secondary cortex are parenchymatous.
(1) Both statements are correct 116. Synapsis of homologous chromosomes to form
(2) Both statements are incorrect bivalents occur in
(1) Zygotene
(3) Only statement I is correct
(2) Pachytene
(4) Only statement II is correct (3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene
111. Ring arrangement of vascular bundles is a
117. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single
characteristic of
cell to make 1024 cells?
(1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot root (1) 8 (2) 9
(3) Dicot root (4) Monocot stem (3) 7 (4) 10

118. One bacterial cell divides into two after every 20

112. The given diagram showing root apical meristem
minutes. How many bacteria will be produced after
label the parts A, B, C, D in the given diagram.
3 hours, if one started with 10 bacterial cells?
(1) 29 × 10 (2) 28 × 10
10
(3) 2 × 10 (4) 29 × 109

119. Histone proteins synthesised in a eukaryotic cell in

which stage of cell cycle
(1) G2 phase (2) Metaphase
(3) G1 phase (4) S-phase

A B C D 120. In the given figure, there are two chambers A & B

(1) Cortex Protoderm Root apical Initials of containing solutions are separated by a semi-
meristem root cap permeable membrane. Choose the correct
(2) Protoderm Cortex Initials of Root statement from the following:
root cap apical
meristem

(3) Cortex Root apical Protoderm Initials of

meristem root cap

(4) Protoderm Cortex Root apical Initials of

meristem root cap

113. Statement I: Small bodied organisms are

(1) Solution of chamber B has a lower water
metabolically more active, as they have more
potential
surface area/volume ratio.
(2) Solution of chamber A has a lower water
Statement II: A cell keeps its chemical
composition steady within its boundary. potential
(1) Both statements are correct (3) Solution of chamber B has higher solute
(2) Both statements are incorrect potential
(3) Only statements I is correct (4) Osmosis will occur from B → A chamber
(4) Only statements II is correct
121. In lac operon, the genes y, a, z, i gene codes for 126. The enzyme ATP synthase is located in
respectively (1) Head of F1 particles
(1) Permease, -galactosidase, transacetylase, (2) Head of F0 particles
repressor (3) F0 – F1 junction
(2) Transacetylase, permease, -galactosidase, (4) Inner mitochondria membrane
repressor
(3) Transacetylase, -galactosidase, permease, 127. Assertion (A): In plants, during water stress
repressor condition, ABA play an important role.
Reason (R): ABA stimulates the closure of
(4) Permease, transacetylase, -galactosidase, stomata, it is called as stress hormone.
repressor (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is correct
explanation of (A)
122. Which of the following is not a purpose of (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct
transpiration? explanation of (A)
(1) Supplies water for photosynthesis (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Maintain shape and structure of plants by
keeping cells turgid 128. To elongate fruits like apple and to improve their
(3) Transports minerals from soil to all parts of shape which plant hormone is used?
plants (1) Auxins (2) Ethylene
(4) Root pressure is involved in transpirational (3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellins
pull
129. Which element is main constituent of coenzyme A?
(1) Sulphur (2) Magnesium
123. What would happen to rate of photosynthesis in C3
(3) Iron (4) Potassium
plants if CO2 concentration level almost doubles
from its present level in the atmosphere? 130. Denitrification is carried out by which bacteria
(1) Rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants increases (1) Nitrobacter (2) Nitrococcus
with increase in CO2 concentration. (3) Thiobacillus (4) Nitrosomonas
(2) Rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants decreases 131. Which of the following statements is incorrect for
with increase in CO2 concentration. female gametophyte?
(3) No food synthesis occur, as plants would be (1) Three cells are at chalazal end and are called
damaged. as Antipodals
(4) Rate of photosynthesis would remain constant. (2) A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity
contains 7 cells, each cell is uninucleate
(3) Only one megaspore is functional and other three
124. Who demonstrated that photosynthesis is a light degenerate in majority of flowering plants.
dependent reaction based on his studies of purple (4) Mitotic divisions are strictly free-nuclear in
and green bacteria? female gametophyte formation.
(1) Cornelius van niel (2) Englemann
(3) Juluis von sachs (4) Arnon 132. Pollination in eichhornia occurs by
(1) Water (2) Insects
125. Identify the correct statements from the following (3) Wind (4) Both (2) and (3)
about population interactions
(a) Predation is helpful in maintaining species 133. Which of the plant is not monoecious?
diversity in a community (1) Castor (2) Maize
(b) When both the organisms are benefitted it said (3) Date palm (4) All of these
to be commensalism
(c) Resource portioning is related to mutualism 134. T.H. Morgan experimentally verified chromosomal
(d) Pencilluim resisting the growth of bacteria by theory of inheritance. He worked with fruit flies for
killing them is an example of ammensalism his studies because:
(e) Many parasites have evolved to be host (1) They could be grown on suitable synthetic
specific. medium in labs
(1) Only a, b, d are correct (2) They show sexual dimorphism
(2) Only b, d, e are correct (3) They show hereditary variations that can
(3) Only a, d, e are correct easily be seen with low power microscopes.
(4) Only a, d are correct (4) All of the above
135. Phenylketonuria is an example of 142. Select the wrong statement regarding salient
(1) Polygenic inheritance feature of human genome
(2) Pleiotropy (1) Less than 2% of genome codes for proteins
(3) Epistasis (2) Chromosome Y has most genes
(4) Aneuploidy (3) The functions are unknown for over 50% of
discovered genes
SECTION - B (4) Human genome contains 3164.7 million bp
136. If a female carrier of haemophilic gene marries a
haemophilic male. Then what could be the 143. Match the varieties of different crops with their
probability of their daughter to be haemophilic associated examples
(1) 100% (2) 25% (A) Pusa shubhra (i) Cauliflower
(3) 50% (4) 0% (B) Pusa komal (ii) Bhindi
(C) Prabhani kranti (iii) Cowpea
137. Identify the wrongly matched pair
(D) Pusa Gaurav (iv) Brassica
(1) Klinefelter syndrome – Sterility in males
A B C D
(2) Turner syndrome – XXY condition
(1) i iii ii iv
(3) Haemophilia – Sex linked recessive
(2) i iii iv ii
(4) Thalassemia – Anaemia
(3) ii i iii iv
138. In a RNA molecule (4) iv iii i ii
(1) Every nucleotide residue has on additional –
144. Which enzymes are used in detergents
OH group present at 3'-position in ribose
(2) 5-methyl uracil is found at place of thymine formulations helps to remove oily stains from the
(3) A single strand is present which is self- laundry?
replicating (1) Pectinases (2) Lipases
(4) RNA has a backbone made up of phosphate (3) Proteases (4) Hydrolases
and ribose sugar
145. Flocks are
139. Experimental proof that DNA replicates semi- (1) Masses of anaerobic bacteria associated with
conservatively is given by fungal filaments
(1) Meselson and Stahl (2) Masses of aerobic bacteria associated with
(2) Hershey and Chase fungal filaments
(3) Watson and Crick (3) Masses of green algae associated with bacteria
(4) Avery and Macleod (4) Algal and fungal association to form mesh like
structure
140. If following is the sequence of nucleotides in
mRNA, what will be the sequence of amino acids 146. In aquatic animals body concentrations of body
coded by it? fluids change with that of ambient air, water
5'AUG UUC UCU GGG UGC GUU3' osmotic concentration. These animals are
(1) met – phe – cys – ser – gly – val (1) Regulators
(2) met – cys – phe – gly – val – ser (2) Partial regulators
(3) met – phe – ser – gly – cys – val (3) Inhibitors
(4) phe – met – cys – gly – ser – val (4) Conformers

141. Assertion (A): Endodermis is impervious to water 147. Assertion (A): ATP is utilised at two steps in
because of a band of suberized matrix called glycolysis.
casparian strips. Reason (R): Two molecules of ATP are
Reason (A): Movement of water through root synthesized during glycolysis.
layers is apoplastic in the endodermis. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is correct
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
148. Rate of formation of new organic matter by 150. A scrubber is used to remove pollutants in exhaust
consumers is called of a chemical industrial plant. It removes gases like
(1) Secondary productivity (1) SO2
(2) GPP (2) CO2
(3) Primary productivity (3) Ozone and CH4
(4) NPP (4) Nitrous oxides

149. Identify the wrong matched extincted species and

the respective country
(1) Dodo – Mauritius
(2) Thylacine – Russia
(3) Quagga – Africa
(4) Tiger – Bali

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)

SECTION - A (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

151. Adamsia is known as (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(1) Sea-pen (2) Sea-fan (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Sea-anemone (4) Sea-fur (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

152. Which of the following phylum shows polymorphism? 157. Which of the following muscle fibres donot show
(1) Porifera striation and taper at both ends
(2) Coelentrata (1) Cardiac muscle fibre
(3) Ctenophora (2) Smooth muscle fibre
(4) Platyhelminthes (3) Skeletal muscle fibre
(4) Voluntary muscle fibre
153. Ecdysis is
(1) Process of shedding of exoskeleton at regular
158. Choose the correct statement about cellulose.
interval
(1) Cellulose contain complex helices and hence
(2) Occurrence of the same species in more than
hold I2
one type of individual
(2) Cellulose is branched hetero polysaccharide
(3) Alternation of generation
(3) It is the most abundant organic compound in
(4) All of these
the biosphere
(4) Cotton fibre contain no cellulose
154. Which of the following statement is without
exception for sponges?
159. Alcoholic amino acid is
(1) They all have calcareous spicules
(2) They have high regenerative power (1) Cysteine
(3) They are found only in marine (2) Methionine
(4) They are all radially symmetrical (3) Serine
(4) Histidine
155. Choose the correct statements:
(1) All chordate have a dorsal heart 160. Assertion (A): Protein is a heteropolymer.
(2) Notochord in all vertebrate is replaced by a Reason (R): Proteins are large-sized macromolecule
cartilaginous or bony vertebral column having one or more polypeptides.
(3) Cyclostome have a circular and suctorial mouth Choose the appropriate option:
(4) All reptiles possess a three-chambered heart (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
156. Read the given statements and select the correct (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
option for Periplanata. correct explanation of (A)
Statement I: Foregut is lined by chitinous cuticle. (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Statement II: This region does permit any correct explanation of (A)
digestive, secretory or absorptive activity.
161. Which of the following is nucleoside? 170. The total duration of cardiac cycle is
(1) Adenine (2) Adenosine (1) 0.8 second (2) 0.7 second
(3) Adenylic acid (4) All of these (3) 0.1 second (4) 0.5 second

162. 10 base pairs per turn is present in 171. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. nodal tissue of
(1) A-form of DNA the heart.
(2) B-form of DNA (1) The entire nodal tissue from sino-atrial node
(3) C-form of DNA to purkinje fibre has the ability to generate
(4) D-form of DNA action potentials
(2) All parts of nodal tissue can generate same
163. Sugars such as glycogen are characterized by number of action potential per minute
presence of which set of functional groups?
(3) Both sino-atrial and atrio-ventricular nodes
(1) Hydroxyl and amino
are present in right atrium
(2) Sulfhydryl and phosphate
(4) Sino-atrial node normally acts as the
(3) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
pacemaker.
(4) Carbonyl and amino

172. Uricotelism is found in

164. Phosphodiester bond is characteristically found in
(1) Deoxyribonucleic acid (1) Mammals and birds
(2) Chitin (2) Fishes and fresh water protozoans
(3) Protein (3) Birds, reptiles and insects
(4) Cellulose (4) Frogs and toads

165. Which of the following are not polymeric? 173. All of the following organisms excrete
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Proteins nitrogenous waste as uric acid in the form of pellet
(3) Polysaccharide (4) Lipids or paste except.
(1) Kiwi (2) land snails
166. The opening of oesophagus into the stomach is (3) Lizard (4) Cartilaginous fish
regulated by
(1) Pancreatic duct 174. Locomotory structures in macrophages found in
(2) Sphincter of oddi tissues are
(3) Duct of santorini (1) Flagella (2) Cilia
(4) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter (3) Stereocilia (4) Pseudopodia

167. Assertion (A): In mammals, complex respiratory

175. The number of lumbar vertebrae in human
system has developed.
skeleton is
Reason (R): Mammalian skin is impermeable to
(1) 12 (2) 7
gases.
Choose the correct option: (3) 5 (4) 2
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) 176. Activities of cerebellum are
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (1) All involuntary but may involve learning in
correct explanation of (A) their early stage
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) All voluntary and may involve learning in
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false their early stage
(3) All voluntary and do not involve learning in
168. CO2 transported as HbCO2 is their early stage
(1) 7% (2) 23% (4) All involuntary and do not involve learning in
(3) 70% (4) All of these their early stage

169. The total volume of air present in the lungs after

177. Depolarisation of neural membranes is caused due to
maximum inspiration is.
(1) Rapid influx of Na+ ions
(1) ERV + TV + IRV
(2) Rapid influx of K+ ions
(2) RV + ERV + TV + IRV
(3) IC – FRC (3) Rapid efflux of Na+ ions
(4) IC + ERV (4) Rapid influx of Cl– ions
178. Nervous system differs from endocrine system SECTION - B
because in the former
186. Which of the following experiments suggests that
(1) Transmission of information is comparatively
simplest living organisms could not have
slower
originated spontaneously from non-living matter?
(2) Response is comparatively slower
(1) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
(3) Response is of longer duration
(2) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
(4) Response is limited to only those cells which
(3) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic
are innervated by neurons
matter
179. Hyposecretion of which hormone since pregnancy (4) Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in
causes stunted growth in human? a sealed vessel
(1) PRH (2) FSH
(3) Thyroxine (4) Insulin 187. Reason of fast speciation in present day crop plant is
(1) Drift
180. Trophoblast is not involved in the formation of (2) Isolation
(1) Protective and trophic membrane (3) Polyploidy
(2) Foetal portion of placenta (4) Sexual reproduction
(3) Body of developing embryo
(4) Chorionic villi 188. What was the most significant trend in the
evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
181. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in ancestors?
(1) Ribose and potassium (1) Increasing cranial capacity
(2) Fructose and calcium (2) Upright posture
(3) Glucose and calcium (3) Shortening of Jaw
(4) DNA and testosterone (4) Binocular vision

182. Secretions from which one of the following are 189. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused
rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes? by virus?
(1) Male accessory gland (1) Rabies, mumps
(2) Liver (2) Cholera, tuberculosis
(3) Pancreas (3) Typhoid, tetanus
(4) Salivary gland (4) AIDS, syphilis

183. Statement I: Surgical methods, also called 190. The term active immunity means
sterilisation, are generally adviced for the (1) Increasing rate of heart beat
male/female partner a terminal method to prevent (2) Increasing quantity of blood
any more pregnancies. (3) Resistance developed after disease
Statement II: Surgical intervention blocks gamete
(4) Resistance developed before disease
transport and thereby prevent conception.
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
191. Saline solution is given to patient of cholera
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
because
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(1) Na+ prevent water loss from body
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) NaCl function as regulatory material
(3) NaCl produces energy
184. Evolutionary biology is the study of
(4) NaCl is antibacterial
(1) Civilisation
(2) History of life forms on earth
(3) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium 192. Which of the following organisation is mainly
(4) Reproductive success related with AIDS?
(1) NACO
185. All of the following are the mammals wholly (2) DOTS
living in water except. (3) RCH
(1) Penguins (2) Dolphins (4) WHO
(3) Seals (4) Sea-cows
193. Assertion (A): Fish is a rich source of protein for 197. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by
cattle and poultry temperature, they are in order of
Reason (R): Fish meal is prepared from the non- (1) Denaturation, Annealing, synthesis extension
edible parts of fishes such as tails, fins and bones. (2) Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
Choose the appropriate option: (3) Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (4) Denaturation, synthesis, Annealing
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) is not the 198. Which of the following is considered as molecular
correct explanation of (A) glue?
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false (1) Alkaline phosphatase
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements (2) Restriction endonuclease
(3) DNA ligase
194. PCR technique is best for (4) DNA polymerase
(1) RNA synthesis
(2) Protein amplification 199. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
(3) DNA amplification molecule is called
(4) DNA ligation (1) Plasmid (2) Vector
(3) Probe (4) Clone
195. Addition of antibiotic in chemical engineering
process helps in 200. Find the correct match
(1) Mixing and aeration of media (1) Cry I Ac → Corn borer
(2) Maintaining anti-foaming condition (2) Cry II Ab → Cotton bollworm
(3) Maintaining aseptic condition (3) Cry I Ab → Cotton bollworm
(4) Maintenance of constant temperature & pH (4) Cry II Ac → Corn borer

196. Extraction of bonds of DNA of interest from the

agrose gel is termed as
(1) Downstream processing
(2) Upstream processing
(3) Elution
(4) Insertional inactivation
 Test Series (2023)

Full Syllabus Test - 1

DURATION : 200 Minutes 23-04-2023 M. MARKS : 720

ANSWER KEY

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY

1. (3) 51. (2) 101. (3) 151. (3)
2. (2) 52. (4) 102. (2) 152. (2)
3. (4) 53. (2) 103. (3) 153. (1)
4. (4) 54. (4) 104. (1) 154. (2)
5. (2) 55. (1) 105. (4) 155. (3)
6. (1) 56. (1) 106. (1) 156. (4)
7. (3) 57. (1) 107. (4) 157. (2)
8. (4) 58. (3) 108. (1) 158. (3)
9. (3) 59. (3) 109. (3) 159. (3)
10. (1) 60. (3) 110. (4) 160. (4)
11. (3) 61. (1) 111. (1) 161. (2)
12. (3) 62. (1) 112. (1) 162. (2)
13. (2) 63. (4) 113. (2) 163. (3)
14. (3) 64. (3) 114. (2) 164. (1)
15. (1) 65. (3) 115. (4) 165. (4)
16. (1) 66. (1) 116. (1) 166. (4)
17. (3) 67. (2) 117. (4) 167. (2)
18. (2) 68. (4) 118. (1) 168. (2)
19. (2) 69. (2) 119. (4) 169. (2)
20. (3) 70. (3) 120. (1) 170. (1)
21. (4) 71. (3) 121. (4) 171. (2)
22. (2) 72. (3) 122. (4) 172. (3)
23. (3) 73. (2) 123. (1) 173. (4)
24. (4) 74. (1) 124. (1) 174. (4)
25. (4) 75. (4) 125. (3) 175. (3)
26. (3) 76. (4) 126. (1) 176. (1)
27. (2) 77. (1) 127. (1) 177. (1)
28. (1) 78. (2) 128. (4) 178. (4)
29. (4) 79. (4) 129. (1) 179. (3)
30. (4) 80. (3) 130. (3) 180. (3)
31. (2) 81. (3) 131. (2) 181. (2)
32. (3) 82. (1) 132. (4) 182. (1)
33. (1) 83. (2) 133. (3) 183. (3)
34. (1) 84. (3) 134. (4) 184. (2)
35. (1) 85. (4) 135. (2) 185. (1)
36. (1) 86. (2) 136. (3) 186. (4)
37. (4) 87. (4) 137. (2) 187. (3)
38. (2) 88. (1) 138. (4) 188. (1)
39. (4) 89. (3) 139. (1) 189. (1)
40. (1) 90. (2) 140. (3) 190. (3)
41. (2) 91. (3) 141. (3) 191. (1)
42. (2) 92. (3) 142. (2) 192. (1)
43. (2) 93. (4) 143. (1) 193. (2)
44. (3) 94. (1) 144. (2) 194. (3)
45. (2) 95. (3) 145. (2) 195. (3)
46. (4) 96. (4) 146. (4) 196. (3)
47. (1) 97. (4) 147. (2) 197. (1)
48. (4) 98. (4) 148. (1) 198. (3)
49. (1) 99. (2) 149. (2) 199. (3)
50. (1) 100. (2). 150. (1) 200. (2)
 SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
1. (3) 6. (1)
Form the relation In the conduction mode, the molecules remain at
F = ma their places and transmission of energy occurs by
F molecular collisions.
 a=
m
As the force is breaking force acceleration is 7. (3)
–1 m/s2 using relation v2 = u2 + 2as, V = V0 (1 + T)
or L3 = L0 (1 + a1T ) L20 (1 +  2 T )
2 2
 5 
18  
u2 
= L30 (1 + 1T )(1 +  2 T )
18 = 12.5m 2
 s= = 
2a  2 
  = L30 (1 + 1T )(1 + 2 2 T )
[(1 + x)n = 1 + nx]
2. (2) or V = V0 (1 + 1T )(1 + 22T )
Initial tension, T0 = mg
Hence, 1+ T = (1 + 1T) (1 + 22T)
When accelerated upward then final tension,
T = m (g + a) 1+ T = 1 + (1 + 22) T
According to question Hence,  = 1 + 22
T = 2T0
2 mg = m (g + a) 8. (4)
a = g = 9.8 m/s2 At constant temperature internal energy of the
mixture, U = U1 + U2
3. (4) nCv = n1Cv1 + n2Cv2
By ideal gas equation Total number of moles. in the mixture
PV = nRT n = n1 + n2
But R = NAK R R
nCv = n1 + n2
PV = nNAKT and N= nNa represent number of 1 − 1 2 −1
molecules CP = CV
1R  R
4. (4)  nCP = n1 + n2 2
1 − 1 2 −1
Factual.
R  R
n1 1 + n2 2
5. (2) CP 1 − 1 2 −1
 = =
Cv n R + n R
1 1
1 − 1 2 −1
n11 (  2 − 1) + n2  2 ( 1 − 1)
 =
n1 (  2 − 1) + n2 ( 1 − 1)
9. (3)
If the ball hits the nth step, the horizontal and
Let the mass of the block is m vertical distances travelled are nb and nh
The block will not slip on the surface of the table respectively. Let t be the time taken by the ball for
such that, these horizontal and vertical displacement. Then
mg  ma velocity along horizontal direction remains
or g  a constant = u initial vertical velocity is zero
So, for not slipping amax = g  nb = ut … (1)
d 2x nh = 0 + (1/2) gt2 … (2)
amax = = 2 A From (1) & (2) we get
dt 2 max nh = (1/2) g (nb/u)2
(2f) A = g
2
2hu 2
g 0.72  10  n=
A= = gb 2
4 f 4  ( 3.14 ) 32
2 2 2
10. (1)
= 0.02 m Factual.
11. (3) R = 0.25R = 0.25 × 8 = 2
If the original frequency of the source is n, the Thus the resistance of the wire with the error is
apparent frequency heard by the observer is (8 + 2 ohm).
v − v0
n' = n
v + vs 15. (1)
350 − 10 2
1950 = n Phase difference = path difference
340 + 10 
2n
35
 n =  1950 = 2070Hz = 
33 V
2 400
=  0.1 = 0.8 Radian
12. (3) 100
dU
F=– 16. (1)
dx
| B |= 7 2 + ( 24 ) = 625 = 25
2
d
 –  −6 x 2 + 2 x  = 12 x – 2
dx  
Unit vector in the direction of A
F (x = 1) = 12 × 1 – 2 = 10N
3iˆ + 4 ˆj
Aˆ =
5
13. (2)
Required vector
dv
a = 3x2  v = 3x 2  3iˆ + 4 ˆj 
dx = 25   = 15iˆ + 20 ˆj
 v dv = 3x2 dx  5 
On integrations
v2 x2 17. (3)
 =3 +c 2
2 3 W water = V  1  g
at t = 0, v = 0, x = 0 3
1
v2 W liquid = V   g
 c = 0 Now, = x3 4
2
2 1 8
v2 = 2x3  v = 2x3/2 … (1)  Vg = V g or  = gm / c.c
3 4 3
dx
 = 2 x3/2
dt 18. (2)
dx = 2 x3/2 dt Since F = 6  r v so F  v
dx
= dt
2 x3/2 19. (2)
On integration 2T
Excess pressure inside a drop pex =
−2 r
= t + C1
2 x1/2 pex,1 r2 20  10 –6 1
 = = –3
=
t = 0, x = 0 pex, 2 r1 2  10 100
 C1 = 0
2
x= 2 … (2) 20. (3)
t Relativistic energy
3/2
2
From (1) and (2) v = 2  2  , 21. (4)
t 
1 1 1 
at t = 2 sec  v = 0.5 m/sec = Rz 2  2 − 2 
L 1  
14. (3) 1
L =
V 20  1 Rz 2
R= = = 8  R
I 2.5  0.5 1  1 1 
= Rz 2  2 − 2 
The error in the measurement is P  3  
R V I 1 0.5
= + = + = 0.05 + 0.2  9 
R V I 20 2.5  P = = 9 L 
= 0.25  Rz 2

22. (2) 30. (4)
A–S, B– P, C–Q, D–R W = MB (cos 1 – cos 2)
MB
 W1 = MB (Cos 0°– cos 60°) =
23. (3) 2
3MB
24. (4)  W2 = MB (cos 30° – cos 90°) =
2

25. (4) W2 = 3W1 .

Given, area = 10 × 20 cm2
= 200×10–4 m2 31. (2)
B = 0.5 T
f =
( D) − (d )
2 2

N = 60 ,
4D
 = 2 × 1800/60
D = object screen distance,
d ( N ) d = distance between both positions of lens and
e=−
dt f = focal length of the lens
d d = 25 cm and D = 75 cm.
e = – N ( BA Cos t )
dt
=
( 75 ) − ( 25 )
2 2
=
( 75 − 25 )( 75 + 25 )
e = NBA sin t f
4  75 4  75
 emax = NAB
50  100 50
= 60 × 2 × 10–2 × 0.5 × 2 × 1800/60 = =
4  75 3
= 36 V. = 16.7 cm

26. (3) 32. (3)

Effective power P is
= P1 + P2 = 4 – 3 = 1D

33. (1)
Take a small element dx at a distance x from free max = MB or max = nia2B
end. l = n (2a)
x l
The magnitude of force at this element, F ' = F or a =
L 2n
F ' Fx niB 2 2
iB 2
iB
Stress produce in this element,  = = max = =
A AL 4 2 n 2 4nmin 4nmin
Let d small elongations in this element. 1
L max  ,
F F nmin
YAL 0
d = x dx   = x dx
YAL So, nmin = 1
FL
=
2YA 34. (1)
Kve
B=
27. (2) r2
The flow of induced current is anti-clock wise in 10 –7  3  106 1.6 10 –19
loop. = = 1.2 Tesla.
( 2 10–10 )
2

28. (1)
Real image. 35. (1)
b = 1.532 and r = 1.514 A = 18°
29. (4) Angular dispersion
BV B = (b – r)A
tan  = = V
BH 3BV = (1.532 – 1.524) × 18
1 = 0.008×18 = 0.144°.
= = tan 30   = 30°
3
36. (1) 
q=
d d d
e=− = − ( BA) = − ( 0 ni A) A
dt dt dt 
E =
= – 0 nA
di 20
dt
2
15 4−2 F =
e = −2  0  2  10 –4   2 A0
10  0.1 
F  2
= 60 × 0 × 10–1 = 6 0
44. (3)
37. (4)
Let Fuel consumption rate is m gm/sec
m × 4 × 104 = 3 × 103 × 4.2 × (77 – 27)
m = 15.7 gm

38. (2)
0 id sin 
| dB |=
4 r 2
q
dl = x = 10–2 m Liner charge density.  =
r
i = 10 r = 0.5  = 90°
dq = qrd 
–2
–7 10  10 –8 Small charge on small length = rd 
| dB |= 10  = 4  10 T
25  10−2 So, electric field due to this small element at O

39. (4) 2
Bohr’s atomic model apply for only single electron E=  dE cos  ( − ˆj )

atom. −
2

40. (1) 2
k rd 
Liquid pressure increases downward E = 2
r2
( )
cos  − ˆj
0

41. (2)
2k  2
Form balanced Wheatstone bridge concept, E=
r 0
cos  d  − ˆj ( )
55 20
=
( ˆj )
R 80 q
E =−
 R = 220 2  0 r 2
2

42. (2)
45. (2)
V = l  A, A = area of cross-section
By definition
l  2
R= = l
A V 46. (4)
Where V = Volume of wire, Fact Based

R = l2
V 47. (1)
log R = log  +2 log l – log V Fact Based
on differentiating,
dR 2dl dl 48. (4)
=0+ –0=2
R l l Fact Based
dR
= 2  2 = 4% 49. (1)
R
Fact Based
43. (2)
Electrostatic force, F = qE, 50. (1)
Fact Based
 SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
51. (2) 60. (3)
d block elements are there and very slight change Alkene on ozonolysis gives aldehyde or ketone
almost negligible change is observed in Mn, Fe group.
and Co.
61. (1)
Zr and Hf due to lanthanoid contraction.
52. (4)
PO 2 = X O 2  PT 62. (1)
1 P The metal that gives hydrogen gas upon treatment
PO2 = P  = with both acids as well as bases is Zinc.
3 3
53. (2)
63. (4)
Bases are bonded through Hydrogen bonds
PT = A (PA – PB ) + PB

54. (4) 64. (3)

Under adiabatic conditions dq = 0 The rate of a chemical reaction tells us about the
dU = dq + dW speed of reaction, that is how slow or fast the
So U = W. reaction is taking place.

55. (1) 65. (3)

Catalyse biochemical reactions All amino acids except glycine are optically
active. And lysine and glutamic acids are optically
active
56. (1)
N2
66. (1)
Aniline
57. (1)
Aldehyde group give silver mirror test. 67. (2)
PAo = ?, Given PBo = 200mm, XA = 0.6
58. (3)
XB = 1 − 0.6 = 0.4,P = 290
The bond order of N2 ,O2 , and O2− are 3, 2 and 1.5
respectively. P = PA + PB = PAo XA + PBo XB
Since higher bond order implies higher bond 290 = PAo  0.6 + 200  0.4
dissociation energy, hence the correct order will
 PAo = 350mm
be
N2  O2  O2− 68. (4)
 M   it   M   it   M   it 
59. (3) nA : nB : nC =  A    :  B    :  C   
 WA   nF   WB   nF   WC   nF 
 4.5   2.7   9.6 
nA : nB : nc =  : : 
 15   27   48 
nA : nB : nC = 3 : 1 : 2

69. (2)
Relation between radius of cation, anion and edge Methane will be produced as gas.

length of the cube 70. (3)

2rCs+ + 2rCl− = 3a After 100 times dilution, Concentration of
H+ ions will be 10–8 M. So, Its pH will be 6.98,
3a because we have to consider the concentration of
rCs + + rCl− = H+ from water also.
2
71. (3) 80. (3)
Chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is Sc+2 > Ti+3 > V+3 > Cr+3 is incorrect because Sc+2
1
CaSO4 . H 2O will not have high polarising power due to its
2
charge So given order is incorrect.
72. (3)
1 BCC unit cell has 2 atoms;
81. (3)
Therefore, 8 BCC unit cells will have
8 × 2 = 16 atoms Since, E° is positive. So, G° = –nFE° = negative.
Also, G° = –RTlnK, G° is negative. So, K will
73. (2)
Oxidation number of Br in HOBr = +1 be greater than 1.
Oxidation number of Br in HBr = –1
So, it is Both oxidised and reduced.
82. (1)
2,4-DNP test is given by aldehyde and ketone. The
74. (1)
1 - Ethoxy - 2 - nitrocyclohexane Iodoform test is only given by those groups, which
contain the –COCH3 type group. So, the only
75. (4)
A B C option (1) is that compound, which follow all three
+0.5V –3.0V –1.2V conditions.
The higher the negative value of reduction
potential, the more is the reducing power. 83. (2)
A process carried out infinitesimally slowly -
Hence, B > C > A
Reversible process. A process in which no heat
76. (4) enters or leaves the system - Adiabatic process. A
The carboxyl functional group (–COOH) is present process carried out at constant temperature -
in aspirin. Isothermal process. Cyclic process - E = 0,
H = 0

84. (3)
If the unpaired electron is zero, then the complex
will be a diamagnetic complex.

77. (1)
Both the assertion and the reason are correct, and 85. (4)
the reason is the correct explanation of the Higher alpha hydrogen increases the stability of

assertion . carbocation. +M group always stabilize the

carbocation. Tertiary carbocation is more stable

78. (2) than secondary and primary carbocation.

K3[Fe(CN)6] → 3K+ + [Fe(CN)6]–4 ; i = 4;
Now for, Al(NO3)3 also has i = 4 86. (2)
VD1 2 M
= , As V.D. = , ( M = Molar Mass )
VD2 9 2
79. (4)
In strongly acidic solutions, aniline becomes  M1 
 2  2
anilinum ion due to which it become more  =
electrophilic in nature. So, the assertion is  M2  9
 2 
 
incorrect. Reason is correct.
87. (4)
P+I Mg 96. (4)
CH 3CH 2 OH ⎯⎯⎯
2
→ CH 3CH 2 I ⎯⎯⎯→
Ether
(A)  salt 
For acidic buffer pH = pK a + log  
CH 2 CH3  acid 
|
HCHO
CH3CH 2 MgI ⎯⎯⎯⎯
H 2O
→ H − C− OMgI ⎯⎯⎯ → pH = 4.5 + log
salt 
( B) | acid
H
(C) As HA is 50% ionized so [salt] = [acid]
CH 2 CH 3 ⸫ pH = 4.5
| ⸫ pH + pOH = 14
H − C− OH
| pOH = 14 – pH = 14–4.5 = 9.5
H
( D)
n − Pr opylalcohol
97. (4)
Copper pyrites → CuFeS2.
88. (1)
Wherever we have multiple bonds are addition 98. (4)
polymers and where its not present are the Carbon numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are chiral
condensation polymer

89. (3)
(A) Natural rubber – Polymer of isoprene
(B) Neoprene – Polymer of chloroprene
(C) Buna N – Polymer of 1, 3 butadiene and
acrylonitrile
(D) Buna S – Polymer of 1, 3 butadiene and
styrene

90. (2)
99. (2)
They are identical as both chain and functional
(i) In the very first step, bromination takes place
groups attached are similar.
at ortho position to the methyl group.
(ii) After the formation of B, reduction of NO2
91. (3)
group happens to produce amine group
The assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect
(iii) In presence of NaNO2 and HCl, the amine
group gets converted to diazonium
92. (3)
chloride(BDC); This reaction is known as
Higher the value of ‘a’, more attraction and thus
diazotization reaction ;
easy liquefaction.
(iv) In the last step, Sandmeyer reaction takes
place to the final product that is ortho para
93. (4)
bromine substituted toluene.
The diameter of the dispersed phase particle should
be almost similar to the wavelength used.
100. (2)
H2O is a polar solvent and like dissolves like;
94. (1)
P is benzene diazonium chloride, Q is phenol and Cl3CCHO interacts with water
Q undergoes into Reimer-Tiemann reaction.

95. (3)
B(OH)3 take one OH– ion and act as monobasic
Lewis acid.
 SECTION – III (BOTANY)
101. (3) 108. (1)
Basidiomycetes is class of kingdom fungi. They
grow in soil, on logs, tree stumps and as parasites
e.g. Rusts, smuts.
Sex organs are absent, but plasmogamy is brought
about by fusion of two vegetative or somatic cells
of different stages or genotypes. Mycelium is
septate and branched. Asexual spores are generally
A: Showing valvate aestivation. It is found in
not found but vegetative reproduction by
calotropis when sepals and petals just touch one
fragmentation is common. another without overlapping. It is said to be
valvate.
102. (2) B: Showing twisted aestivation. In this, one
Diatoms – Phytoplankton margin of appendage overlaps that of next one. It
Protozoans – Holozoic nutrition (e.g. Amoeba) can be seen in lady finger, cotton etc.
Bacteria – Nucleoid C: Showing imbricate aestivation. In this, margins
Gongaulax – Red tides of sepals and petals overlap one another, not in any
Anabena – Heterocysts particular direction. It is seen in Gulmohar cassia
etc.
103. (3)
In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes 109. (3)
do not have an independent free-living existence. Sesbania is a fodder plant which belong to family
They remain within sporangia retained on the fabaceae.
sporophytes. Its floral formula is:
Gymnosperms produces two kinds of spores i.e. % k(5) C1+2+(2) A(9) + 1 G1
haploid microspores and megaspores hence, they
are heterosporous. In Cycas, male cones and 110. (4)
megasporophylls are borne on different trees while Phelllogen develops usually in the cortex region.
in Pinus, male or female cones or strobili may be Phellogen or cork cambium is a secondary
borne on same tree. meristem that gives rise to secondary growth. It is
couple of layers thick, made up of narrow, thin
walled and nearly rectangular cells. It cut of cells
104. (1)
on both sides. Inner cells differentiate into
In volvox, fucus, oogamous type of sexual
secondary cortex or phelloderm. Cells of
reproduction is found in this there is fusion
phelloderm are parenchymatous. Outer cells
between one large non-motile female gamete and differentiate into cork or phellem.
a small motile male gamete.
111. (1)
105. (4) Ring arrangement of vascular bundles is a
Order being a higher category is the assemblage of characteristic of dicot stem. Each vascular bundles
families exhibiting a few similar characters. e.g. is conjoint open and with endarch protoxylem.
plant families like convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are These vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.
included in order polymonales.
112. (1)
106. (1)
In Liliaceae family, six (3 + 3) tepals are found.
Calyx, corolla are not present, these in no
differentiation between sepals and petals. Hence it
is a incomplete flower.

107. (4)
Underground stems of potato, ginger, zaminkand,
colocasia are modified to store food in them. Stem The given diagram showing root apical meristem
of colocasia is modified into corm. Corm is used cortex, protoderm, root apical meristem, Initials of
to store food in the form of carbohydrates. root cap are being labelled.
113. (2) 121. (4)
The smaller the organisms mass, the higher its In lac operon, the gene y codes for permease
metabolic rate. They have more surface area enzyme, a codes for transacetylase, enzyme, z
(volume) ratio. Cells are structural and codes for -galactosidase enzyme and i-gene
fundamental unit of living organisms. A cell keeps codes for repressor of lac operon. These three
its chemical composition steady within its boundary.
gene-products of lac operon are required for
metabolism of lactose.
114. (2)
Cilia, used for motion have 9 + 2 arrangement of
microtubules while centrioles are arranged in 9 + 0 122. (4)
configuration. Root pressure is not involved in transpirational
Central part of centriole is proteinaceous called pull root pressure is a positive pressure developed
hub which is connected with tubules of peripheral in plant roots and can be responsible for pushing
triplets by radial spokes made up of protein. up water to small heights in the stem.

115. (4) 123. (1)

Mitochondria are sites of Krebs cycle. The cycle Rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants increases with
takes place in matrix of mitochondria producing increase in CO2 concentration. It leads to higher
energy in the form of ATP, FADH2, NADH. productivity and used in greenhouse crops like
tomatoes bell pepper to grow and give higher yield
116. (1)
by growing them in CO2 enriched atmosphere.
Pairing called synapsis of homologous
chromosomes to form bivalents occur at Zygotene
stage of prophase I of meiosis I. If occurs due to 124. (1)
forces of attraction between alleles on the Cornelius van niel (1897–1985) based on his
homologous chromosomes. studies on purple and green bacteria demonstrated
that photosynthesis is essentially a light dependent
117. (4) reaction in which hydrogen from a suitable
A single cell undergo mitotic division to form two oxidisable compound reduces CO2 to
cells. It has to undergo 10 mitotic divisions to form carbohydrates.
1024 cells. light
2H2A + CO2 ⎯⎯⎯
→ 2A + CH2O + H2O
118. (1)
As per question one bacterial cell divides into two 125. (3)
after every 20 minutes. In 3 hours, i.e. 180 minutes When both the organisms are benefitted in
there will be 9 cycles of 20 minutes each. If population interaction, it is mutualism.
starting with 10 bacteria after 9 cycles of 20 In commensalism, one organism is benefitted and
minutes each, it will be divided into (29 × 10) after other mains unaffected e.g., barnacles growing on
3 hours. whale back. Resource portioning is related to
competition. As per this, if two species competing
119. (4) for same resource they could avoid completion by
Synthesis of histones (basic proteins) found in choosing for instance different times for feeding or
eukaryotes occurs at S or synthetic phase of
different forging patterns.
interphase.
126. (1)
120. (1)
Solution of chamber B has lower water potential The enzyme ATP synthase is associated with
because of the presence of more solute in chamber complex V in electron transport chain.
B as compared to chamber A. Chamber B have ATP synthase is located in head of F1 particles.
lesser free water molecules and therefore lower
water potential. Solution of chamber B has lower 127. (1)
solute potential because of more solutes present. Abscisic acid (ABA) is a plant growth inhibitor
Addition of more solutes decrease the water and it stimulates the closure of stomata and
potential and thus solute potential decreases. increase the tolerance of plants to various kinds of
Osmosis will occur form A → B chamber because stresses. Therefore, it is called stress hormone.
chamber A has more water and less solute than
chamber B.
128. (4) 137. (2)
Gibberellins are plant hormones that causes fruits Turner syndrome is a chromosomal disorder in
like apple to elongate and change its shape. They which a female is borne with only one X-
also delay senescence. chromosome i.e. 45 chromosomes (XO) condition.
Such females have rudimentary ovaries becomes
129. (1)
sterile.
Sulphur is a macronutrient. It is main constituent
of several coenzyme, vitamins (thiamine, Biotin)
and coenzyme-A. 138. (4)
In a RNA molecule, every nucleotide residue has
130. (3) an additional –OH group present at 2' position in
Nitrate present in the soil reduced to nitrogen by ribose. 5-methyl uracil another chemical name for
bacteria like pseudomonas and thiobacillus. thymine is present in DNA. In RNA uracil is
present RNA is a single stranded molecule which
131. (2) do not undergo self-replication.
A typical angiospermic embryo sac or female
gametophyte at maturity is 7-celled 8 nucleate.
139. (1)
One central cell possess two polar nuclei.
DNA replicates semi-conservatively is proved by
Meselson and Stahl experiment by using E. coli
132. (4)
Eichhornia crassipes (water hyacinth) pollinated bacteria. They performed experiments in 1958.
by wind or Insects, not by water.
140. (3)
133. (3) mRNA sequence – 5'AUG UUC UCU GGG UGC
Date palm is a dioecious plant as male and female GUU3'
flower appear on different plants. as, AUG codes for methionine amino acid
UUC codes for phenylalanine amino acid
134. (4) UCU codes for serine amino acid
T.H. Morgan experimentally verified chromosomal GGG codes for glycine amino acid
theory of inheritance given by Sutton and Boveri. UGC codes for cysteine amino acid
He worked with Drosophila melanogaster (fruit GUU codes for valine amino acid
flies) for his studies as they can be early grown on So, amino acids sequences coded by them will be-
suitable synthetic medium in laboratories. They met – phe – ser – gly – cys – val
have rapid generation time, low cost and they show
sexual dimorphism, i.e., males are smaller than 141. (3)
females. They show hereditary variations that can Movement of water through root layers is
be easily observed in low power microscope. symplastic in the endodermis as endodermis is
impervious to water because of a band of suberised
135. (2) matrix called casparian strips.
Pleiotropy refers to expression of multiple traits by
a single gene. Phenylketonuria disorder is caused
142. (2)
by deficiency of enzyme phenylalanine
In human genome, chromosome 1 has most genes
hydroxylase which is essential for conversion of
(2968) and chromosome Y has fewest (231) genes.
amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine.
Phenylketonuria is an example of pleiotropy.
There is a single gene which can control the 143. (1)
various chemical reactions involved in Pusa shubhra – Cauliflower
phenylalanine metabolism. Pusa komal – Cowpea
Prabhani kranti – Bhindi
136. (3) Pusa gaurav – Brassica
Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive genetic
disorder. 144. (2)
Lipases are enzymes used in detergent
formulations used to remove oily stains.

145. (2)
Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal
filaments to form mesh like structure. In secondary
treatment, there is vigorous growth of useful
aerobic microbes which form flocs.

So, probability of daughter being haemophilic is 50%.

146. (4) A total of two molecules are synthesized during
Conformers are organisms that can not maintain glycolysis.
constant internal environment. Their body
temperature, osmotic concentration of body fluid 148. (1)
changes with that of ambient temperature and Rate of formation of new organic matter by
ambient air, water osmotic concentration. consumers is called secondary productively.

147. (2) 149. (2)

ATP is utilised in two steps in glycolysis i.e. first Thylacine is a recent extinction noted. It extincted
in conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phasphate. from Australia.

150. (1)
A scrubber remove gases like sulphur-dioxide. It
is used to remove pollutants in a chemical
next in conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to industrial plant.
fructose 1-6, bisphosphate.

SECTION – IV (ZOOLOGY)
151. (3) 157. (2)
Adamsia is known as sea-anemone. Smooth muscle fibres do not show striation and
taper at both ends.
152. (2)
Coelentrate shows polymorphism. Polyp and 158. (3)
medusa are example of polymorphism. Occurrence Cellulose is the most abundant organic compound
of the same species in more than one type of in the biosphere. Cotton fibre contains largest
individuals, which differ in form (structure) and amount of cellulose. Cellulose is a
function from one another, is known as homopolysaccharide. It does not contain complex
polymorphism. helices.

153. (1) 159. (3)

Process of shedding of exoskeleton at regular Serine is alcoholic amino acid. Cysteine and
interval is ecdysis. methionine are sulphur containing amino acid and
histidine in heterocyclic amino acid.
154. (2)
All sponges have high regenerative power. 160. (4)
Protein is a heteropolymer, proteins are large
155. (3) macromolecule having one or more polypeptide.
All chordates have ventral heart. The vertebral
column is a curved structure composed of bony 161. (2)
vertebrae that are interconnected by cartilaginous Adenosine is nucleoside.
intervertebral disc. Cyclostomes have a circular 162. (2)
and suctorial mouth. With the exception of B-form of DNA has 10 base pairs per farm.
crocodiles, with have a four chambered heart, all
reptiles have a three chambered heart. 163. (3)
Sugar such as glycogen are characterised by presence
156. (4) of carbonyl and hydroxyl functional group.
Foregut is lined by chitinous cuticle most
digestion, secretory and absorptive activity takes 164. (1)
place in midgut. Phosphodiester bond is characteristically found in
deoxyribonucleic acid.
165. (4) 180. (3)
Lipids are not polymer. Trophoblast is not involved in the formation of
body of developing embryo.
166. (4)
The opening of oesophagus into the stomach is 181. (2)
regulated by gastro-oesophageal sphincter. Seminal plasma is rich in fructose and calcium.

182. (1)
167. (2) Male accessory gland secretion are rich in fructose,
In mammals complex respiratory system has calcium and some enzyme.
developed. Mammalian skin is impermeable to
gases. 183. (3)
Surgical methods, also called sterilisation, are
168. (2) generally adviced for male/female partner as a
CO2 transported as bicarbonate as 23%. terminal method to prevent any more pregnancy.
Surgical intervation blocks gamete transport and
169. (2) thereby prevents conception.
The total volume of air present in the lungs after
maximum inspiration is RV + ERV + TV + IRV. 184. (2)
Evolutionary biology is the study of history of life
form on earth.
170. (1)
The total duration of cardiac cycle is 0.8 second. 185. (1)
Dolphins, seals and sea-cow are the mammals
171. (2) wholly living in water.
Number of action potential that could be generated
in a minute varies at different parts of the nodal 186. (4)
system. Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in a
sealed vessel suggest that simplest living
172. (3) organisms could not have originated spontaneously
Ureotelism is found in birds, reptiles and insect. from non-living matter.

173. (4) 187. (3)

Reason of fast speciation in present day crop plant
Kiwi, land snail and lizard excrete nitrogenous
is polyploidy.
waste as uric acid in the form of pellete or paste.
188. (1)
174. (4) Increasing cranial capacity shows significant trend
Locomotory structure in macrophages found in in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens)
tissue are pseudopodia. from his ancestors.

175. (3) 189. (1)

The number of vertebrae in human skeleton is 5. Rabies and mumps are caused by virus.

176. (1) 190. (3)

Activity of cerebellum are all involuntary but many The term ‘active immunity’ means resistance
involve learning in their early stage. developed after disease.

191. (1)
177. (1)
Saline solution is given to patient of cholera
Depolarisation of neural membrane is caused due
because sodium prevent water loss from body.
to rapid influx of Na+ ions.
192. (1)
178. (4)
NACO is mainly related with AIDS.
Nervous system differ from endocrine system
because in the former response is only limited to 193. (2)
only those cells which are innervated by neurons.
Fish meal is a rich source of proteins for cattle and
poultry. Fish meal is prepared from non-edible
179. (3)
parts of fishes such as tails, fins and bones.
Hyposecretion of thyroxine hormone since
pregnancy caused stunted growth in human.
194. (3) 198. (3)
PCR technique is best for DNA amplification. DNA ligase is considered as molecular glue.

195. (3) 199. (3)

Addition of antibiotic in chemical engineering DNA or RNA molecule tagged with radioactive
process helps in maintaining aseptic condition. molecule is called probe.

196. (3) 200. (2)

Extraction of bands of DNA of interest from the Cry II Ab controls cotton bollworm
agrose gel is termed as elution.

197. (1)
PCR proceeds in three steps governed by
temperature, they are in order of denaturation,
annealing and synthesis.